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2018 MHT Cet PCM PDF
2018 MHT Cet PCM PDF
Booklet Version
22
SUBJECT : PAPER I MATHEMATICS
Instruction to Candidates
1. This question booklet contains 50 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response Type) in the subject of Mathematics.
2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued to examinees separately at the beginning of
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct
entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM,
special care should be taken to mark appropriate entries/answers correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION
BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and Roll No. accurately. The correctness of entries has to be cross-checked by the
invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
6. Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.
7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question, with Black ink ball point pen only, in
8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded two (2) marks. There is no Negative Marking. If the examinee has
marked two or more answers or has done scratching and overwriting in the Answer Sheet in response to any question, or
has marked the circles inappropriately e.g. half circle, dot, tick mark, cross etc, mark/s shall NOT be awarded for such
answer/s, as these may not be read by the scanner. Answer sheet of each candidate will be evaluated by computerized
scanning method only (Optical Mark Reader) and there will not be any manual checking during evaluation or verification.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of
10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided in the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done
11. The required mathematical tables (Log etc.) are provided within the question booklet.
12. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator. Confirm that
both the Candidate and Invigilator have signed on question booklet and answer sheet.
13. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.
(Pg. 1)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (2)
1. (C)
k
dx
2 18x 2 24
0
k k
1 dx 1 dx
24 18 0 1
2
0 1
18
x
2
x
2
9 3
k
1 1 x
= tan 1
18 1 1
3 3 0
3 1
tan 1 3x 0 tan 13ktan 1 0
k
=
18 6
1
= tan 1 3k 0
6
6 1
tan 1 3k tan 3k 1 k
24 4 3
1
2. The cartesian coordinates of the point on the parabola y2 = 16x, whose parameter is ,are
2
(A) (2, 4) (B) (4, 1) (C) (1, 4) (D) (1, 4)
2. (D)
y2 = 16x y2 = 4ax
a=4
Parametric equations are
x = at2, y = 2at i.e.
2
1 1
x 4 , y 2 4 i.e. x = 1, y = 4
2 2
1
3. sinx. cos2 x dx =
(A) sec x + log |sec x + tan x| + c (B) sec x . tan x + c
(C) sec x + log |sec x tan x| + c (D) sec x + log |cosec x cot x| + c
3. (D)
dx sin 2 x cos2 x
sin x cos2 x
sin x cos 2 x
dx
sin x dx
= cos2 x dx sin x tan xsec x cosecxdx
= sec x log cosecx cot x c
(Pg. 2)
(3) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
x 3 y3 dy
4. If log10 3
x y3
= 2 then =
dx
x y x y
(A) (B) (C) (D)
y x y x
4. (D)
x 3 y3
log10 3 2
x y3
log (x3 y3) log (x3 + y3) = 2
1 2 dy 1 2 dy
3
3x 3y2 3 3x 3y2
x y
3 dx x y 3 dx
3x 2 3y2 dy 3x 2 3y2 dy
x 3 y3 x 3 y3 dx x 3 y3 x 3 y3 dx
3x 2 3y 2
3x 2 3y 2 dy
x 3 y3 x 3 y3 x 3 y3 x 3 y3 dx
1 1 1 1 dy
3x 2 3 3 3
3y2 3 3
x y x y x y x y3 dx
3 3
2y3 2x 3 dy
3x 2 3y 2
x 3 y3 x 3 y3
x 3 y3 x 3 y3 dx
y dy
x dx
Alternative Method
x 3 y3
log10 3 2
x y3
x 3 y3 10
3 3
2 100
x y
x3 y3 = 100 x3 + 100 y3
99 x3 = 101 y3 …….. (1)
dy
99 (3x2) = 101 3y2
dx
dy 99x 2
dx 101y 2
dy y3 x 2 y
2
dx x 3
y x
x 2 4
5. If f : R {2} R is a function defined by f(x) = , then its range is
x2
(A) R (B) R {2} (C) R {4} (D) R {2, 2}
5. (A)
x 2 4 x 2 x 2
f x x2
x2 x 2
Range is R
(Pg. 3)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (4)
6. If f(x) = x + for x 0
2
6. (C)
f x x 2 , if x 0
continuous at x = 0
2 x 2 1 , if x 0
f (0) = 0 + = 2 + = 2
2
1 1 1 7
f 2 2
2 2 4 4
7 1
2
4 4
2 2
7 1 49 1 50 25
2 2
4 4 16 16 8
d2 y
dx
2 2 dy
7. If y = tan 1 x then x 2 1 2
2x x 2 1 =
dx
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
7. (B)
y = (tan1 x)2
dy 2 tan 1 x
dx 1 x2
dy
1 x 2 2 tan 1 x 2 y
dx
2 dy 2
1 x2 4y
dx
2
2
dy dy d y 2 dy
2 1 x 2 2x 2 2 1 x 2 4
dx dx dx dx
2
dy
d2 y
2 dy dy
4x 1 x 2
2 1 x
2
2 4
dx dx dx dx
d2 y
dy 2
4x 1 x 2 2 1 x2 4
dx dx 2
x 2 1 d2 y
dx
2 dy
2
2x 1 x 2 2
dx
8. The line 5x + y 1 = 0 coincides with one of the lines given by 5x2 + xy kx 2y + 2 = 0 then the value
of k is
(A) 11 (B) 31 (C) 11 (D) 31
8. (C)
5x + y 1 = 0 coincides 5x2 + xy kx 2y + 2 = 0
1 k
a = 5, b = 0, h , g , f = 1, c = 2
2 2
(Pg. 4)
(5) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
1 k
5
2 2
1
0 1 0
2
k
1 2
2
1 k k 1
5 0 1 1 0 0
2 2 2 2
1 k k k 11
5 0 k 11
2 4 4 2 2
1 2 3
9. If A = 1 1 2 then (A2 5A)A1 =
1 2 4
4 2 3 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 1
(A) 1 4 2 (B) 1 4 2 (C) 2 4 2 (D) 4 2 3
1 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 4 2
9. (B)
(A2 5A) A1 = A2 A1 5AA1 = A. AA1 5I
= A 5I
1 2 3 5 0 0
= 1 1 2 0 5 0
1 2 4 0 0 5
4 2 3
= 1 4 2
1 2 1
10. The equation of line passing through (3, 1, 2) and perpendicular to the lines
r iˆjkˆ 2iˆ2jˆkˆ and r 2iˆˆjkˆ ˆi2jˆkˆ is
ˆ
10. (C)
Let a, b, c be d.rs of desired line.
2a 2b + c = 0
a 2b + 2c = 0
a b c
2 1 2 1 2 2
2 2 1 2 1 2
a b c
a = 2, b = 3, c = 2
4 2 4 1 4 2
Hence equation of desired line is
x 3 y 1 z 2 x 3 y 1 z 2
i.e.
2 3 2 2 3 2
(Pg. 5)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (6)
11. Letters in the word HULULULU are rearranged. The probability of all three L being together is
3 2 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 5 28 23
11. (C)
HULULULU contains 4U, 3L, 1H
Consider 3L together i.e. we have to arrange 6 units which contains 4U.
Hence number of possible arrangements
6!
= 6 5 30
4!
8! 8 7 6 5
Number of ways of arranging all letters of given word = 8 7 5
3!4! 3 2
30 6 3
Hence required probability =
8 7 5 8 7 28
12. The sum of the first 10 terms of the series 9 + 99 + 999 + …., is
9
(A) 910 1
8
(B)
100 9
9
10 1
(C) 109 1 (D)
100 10
9
(10 1)
12. (B)
9 + 99 + 999 + …….. 10 terms
= (10 1) + (100 1) + (1000 1) + …….. 10 terms
= (10 + 100 + 1000 + …….. 10 terms) (1 + 1 + …….. 10 times)
10 10 1
10
= 10
10 1
=
10 1010 1 10 1011 10 90
9 9
=
1011 100 10 10 10
10
9 9
=
100 109 1
9
13. If A, B, C are the angles of ABC then cot A. cot B + cot B. cot C + cot C. cot A =
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1
13. (B)
We know that
tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C
1 1 1
1
tan Btan C tan Atan C tan Atan B
cot B cot C + cot A cot C + cot A cot B = 1
dx
14. If = A sin1 (Bx) + C then A + B =
16 9x 2
9 19 3 13
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 12
14. (D)
dx 1 dx 1 dx
3 16
3
16 9x 2
2 4
2
x
x
2
9 3
(Pg. 6)
(7) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
1 1 x 1 3
= sin c A andB
3 4 3 4
3
1 3 13
A+B=
3 4 12
2sin2x
e
x
15. 1 cos2x dx =
(A) ex tan x + c (B) ex + tan x + c (C) 2ex tan x + c (D) ex tan 2x + c
15. (A)
2 sin 2x x 2 1 sin x cos x
e 1 cos 2x dx e
x
2cos2 x
sec2 x tan x dx ex tan x c
e
x
=
16. A coin is tossed three times. If X denotes the absolute difference between the number of heads and the
number of tails then P(X = 1) =
1 2 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6 4
16. (D)
A coin is tossed 3 times.
Possibilities are
HHH X = 3 0 = 3
TTT X = 3 0 = 3
HHT X = 2 1 = 1
HTH X = 2 1 = 1
THH X = 2 1 = 1
HTT X = 2 1 = 1
TTH X = 2 1 = 1
THT X = 2 1 = 1
6 3
P (X = 1) =
8 4
17. If 2 sin = cos , then tan =
3 6
1 1
(A) 3 (B) (C) (D) 3
3 3
17. (D)
2sin cos
3 6
2 sin cos cos sin cos cos sin sin
3 3 6 6
sin 3 3 1
2 cos cos sin
2 2 2 2
3 1
sin 3 cos cos sin
2 2
1 3
sin cos tan 3
2 2
(Pg. 7)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (8)
2
18. The area of the region bounded by x = 4y, y = 1, y = 4 and the yaxis lying in the first quadrant is
______ square units.
22 28 21
(A) (B) (C) 30 (D)
3 3 4
18. (B) Y
We have x2 = 4y x = 2 y x2 = 4y
4 y=4
4
y3 2
A 2 y dy 2
3 2 1
y=1
1
X
2 4 4 28
= 2 y y 8 1
3 1 3 3
2
e x cosx
19. If f(x) = , for x 0 is continuous at x = 0, then value of f(0) is
x2
2 5 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
3 2 2
19. (D)
2
e x cos x
f x
x2
e x 2 1 cos x 1
f 0 lim
x 0 x2
x
2 2sin 2
ex 1 2
= lim lim
x 0 x2 x 0 x2
2
x
sin 2 1 2 3
= 1 2 lim 1
x 0 x 4 4 2
2
20. (A)
10
8
26 6 9 5
0, ,
5 4 2 2
2
X
(0, 0) 2 4 6 8 10
3x + 5y = 26
(6, 0)
5x + 3y = 30
(Pg. 8)
(9) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
Corner points Value of z = 2x + y
(0, 0) z=0
(6, 0) z = 2(6) + 0 = 12
9 5 9 5
, z = 2 11.5
2 2 2 2
26 26
0, z = 2(0) + 5.2
5 5
21. (C)
| a |, | b |2,| c |3
a bb ca c 0
a b cb a c
= a b c (b a c
= a b c b ca c
= abc bac
= 2 a bc
= 2 a b c
= 2 a b c cos0
= 2 a b c
= 2 a b c sin 90
= 2(1) (2) (3)
= 12
22. If points P(4, 5, x), Q(3, y, 4) and R(5, 8, 0) are collinear, then the value of x + y is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
22. (D)
PQ(1,y 5,4 x)
QR (2,8y, 4)
P, Q, R are collinear
1 y 5 4 x
2 8 y 4
8 + y = 2y 10; 4 = 2(4 x)
y=2 ; 2=4x
x=2
x+y=4
23. If the slope of one of the lines given by ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0 is two times the other then
(A) 8h2 = 9ab (B) 8h2 = 9ab2 (C) 8h = 9ab (D) 8h = 9ab2
23. (A)
ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0
m1 = 2m2
If slope of one line is k times the other then
(Pg. 9)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (10)
2 2
4kh = ab(1 + k)
Here k = 2
4(2) h2 = ab(1 + 2)2
8h2 = 9ab
24. The equation of the line passing through the point (3, 1) and bisecting the angle between coordinate
axes is
(A) x + y + 2 = 0 (B) x + y + 2 = 0 (C) x y + 4 = 0 (D) 2x + y + 5 = 0
25. The negation of the statement: “Getting above 95% marks is necessary condition for Hema to get the
admission is good college”
(A) Hema gets above 95% marks but she does not get the admission in good college
(B) Hema does not get above 95% marks and she gets admission in good college
(C) If Hema does not get above 95% marks then she will not get the admission in good college.
(D) Hema does not get above 95% marks or she gets the admission in good college.
25. (B)
p : Hema gets the admission in good college
q : Hema gets 95 % marks
Given statement can be written in symbolic form as
pq
Its negation is p ~ q
26. (A)
cos 1 cos 2 cos 3 …….. cos 179 = 0
(As cos 90 = 0 product = 0)
27. (C)
Planes x cy bz = 0
cx y + az = 0
bx + ay z = 0
Planes are concurrent
1 c b
c 1 a = 0
b a 1
1(1 a2) + c ( c ab) b (ac + b) = 0
1 a2 c2 abc abc b2 = 0
a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc = 1
a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 2 abc
(Pg. 10)
(11) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
28. (C)
x2 y2 + x + 3y 2 = 0
1 3
a = 1, h = 0, b = 1, g , f , c = 2
2 2
hf bg gh af
Point of intersection ,
ab h 2 ab h 2
1 3
0 2 0 2 1 3
, ,
1 1 2 2
OR
by partial differentiation w.r.t. x
1
2x + 1 = 0 x
2
by partial differentiation w.r.t. y
3
2y + 3 = 0 y
2
1 3
Point of intersection ,
2 2
29. A die is rolled. If X denotes the number of positive divisors of the outcome then the range of the random
variable X is
(A) {1, 2, 3} (B) {1, 2, 3, 4} (C) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (D) {1, 3, 5}
29. (B)
When we get 1, number of positive divisors are 1
When we get 2, number of positive divisors are 2
When we get 3, number of positive divisors are 2
When we get 4, number of positive divisors are 3
When we get 5, number of positive divisors are 2
When we get 6, number of positive divisors are 4
Hence range of r.v. X is {1, 2, 3, 4}
30. A die is thrown four times. The probability of getting perfect square in at least one throw is
16 65 23 58
(A) (B) (C) (D)
81 81 81 81
30. (B)
P (getting perfect square in atleast one throw) = 1 P (not getting perfect square in any throw)
4
4 4 4 4 2 16 65
= 1 = 1 1
6 6 6 6 3 81 81
/4
31. xsec2 x dx = ?
0
1
(A) + log 2 (B) log 2 (C) 1 + log 2 (D) 1 log 2
4 4 2
31. (B)
/4
x sec 2 xdx
0
/4
/4 d
x sec2 xdx
dx x sec xdx dx
= 2
0
0
(Pg. 11)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (12)
/4
/4
= x tan x 0 tan x dx
0
/4 /4
= x tan x
0
log sec x
0
= 4 0 log sec 4 log sec0
= log 2 log1
4
= log 2
4
C A
32. In ABC, with usual notations, if a, b, c are in A.P. then a cos2 2 + c cos2 = ?
2
a c b 3abc
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D)
2 2 2 2
32. (C)
a, b, c are in A.P.
2b = a + c
C A
a cos2 ccos 2
2 2
= a
1 cosC c 1 cos A
2 2
a c a cosC ccos A
=
2
acb
= ….[ b = a cosC + c cos A]
2
2b b 3b
=
2 2
dy
33. If x = e (sin cos ), y = e (sin + cos ) then at = is
dx 4
1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) (D) 2
2
33. (A)
x e sin cos ,y e sin cos
dx
e cos sin sin cos e
d
dy
e cos sin sin cos e
d
dy dy / d e [2cos ]
dx dx / d e [2sin ]
dy
cot
dx
dy
cot 1
dx 4
4
(Pg. 12)
(13) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
34. The number of solutions of sin x + sin 3x + sin 5x = 0 in the interval ,3 is
2 2
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
34. (B)
sin x + sin 3x + sin 5x = 0
sin 5x + sin x + sin 3x = 0
2 sin 3x. cos 2x + sin 3x = 0
sin3x [2 cos2x +1] = 0
sin3x = 0 or 2cos2x + 1 = 0
sin 3x = sin n or 2cos2x = 1
3x = n or cos2x = 1/2
n
x cos2x = cos/3
3
cos2x = cos( /3)
2
cos2x = cos
3
2
2x = 2n
3
n
x= ,x n
3 3
3
x , gives
2 2
x = 180, x = 120, x = 240
2 4
x = , x = , x
3 3
35. If tan1 2x + tan1 3x = , then x =
4
1 1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
3 6 2
35. (C)
tan-12x + tan13x =
4
2x 3x
tan 1
1 6x 2 4
5x
tan
1 6x 2 4
5x
1
1 6x 2
5x = 1 6x2
6x2 + 5x 1 = 0
6x2 + 6x x 1 = 0
6x(x + 1) 1 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1) (6x 1) = 0
1
x = 1, x =
6
1
When x , given equation is satisfied.
6
When x = 1, we get sum of two negative angles which cannot be equal to positive angle.
1
x
6
(Pg. 13)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (14)
1 2 3
36. Matrix A = 1 1 5 then the value of a31 A31 + a32 A32 + a33 A33 is
2 4 7
(A) 1 (B) 13 (C) 1 (D) 13
36. (C)
1 2 3
A 1 1 5
2 4 7
a31 A31 + a32A32 + a33A33 = | A |
= +1(7 20) 2(7 10) + 3(4 2)
= 13 + 6 + 6
= 1
37. The contrapositive of the statement: “If the weather is fine then my friends will come and we go for a
picnic.”
(A) The weather is fine but my friends will not come or we do not go for a picnic
(B) If my friends do not come or we do not go for picnic then weather will not be fine
(C) If the weather is not fine then my friends will not come or we do not go for a picnic
(D) The weather is not fine byt my friends will come and we go for a picnic
37. (B)
p = The weather is fine
q = My friends will come and we go for a picnic.
Given statement pq
Contrapositive ~q ~p
i.e. If my friends do not come or we do not go for picnic then weather will not be fine.
x
38. If f(x) = is increasing function then the value of x lies in
x 1
2
38. (D)
x
f (x)
x 1
2
(x 2 1)(1) (x)(2x)
f (x) 0
(x 2 1)2
1 x2
f (x) 0
(x 2 1)2
Here x2+ 1 0, x2 1
1 x2 > 0, x2 < 1
x (1, 1)
(Pg. 14)
(15) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
40. (B)
p ( p q)
= (p p) q …….. (Associative law)
=Fq …….. (Compliment law)
=F …….. (Identity law)
41. If the line y = 4x 5 touches to the curve y2 = ax3 + b at the point (2, 3) then 7a + 2b =
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 2
41. (A)
line y = 4x 5 slope of line m = 4 … (i)
curve y2 = ax3 + b
Differentiating w.r.t. ‘x’
dy
2y = 3ax2
dx
dy 3ax 2
= slope of tangent
dx 2y
dy 3a4
= 2a … (ii)
dx (2,3) 2 3
from (i) and (ii)
4 = 2a a = 2
y2 = ax3 + b at (2, 3)
9 = 2 8 + b b = 9 16 = 7
b = 7
7a + 2b = 7 2 + 2(7) = 0
42. The sides of a rectangle are given by x = a and y = b. The equation of the circle passing through the
vertices of the rectangle is
(A) x2 + y2 = a2 (B) x2 + y2 = a2 + b2
(C) x + y = a b
2 2 2 2
(D) (x a)2 + (y b)2 = a2 + b2
42. (B)
Y
x=a x=a
y=b
a b
2 2
X
O
y=b
Centre = (0, 0) r= a 2 b2
equation of circle
x2 + y2 = a2 + b2
(Pg. 15)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (16)
43. The minimum value of the function f(x) = x log x is
1 1
(A) (B) e (C) (D) e
e e
43. (A)
f (x) = x log x
f (x) = 1 + log x
f (x) = 0 1 + log x = 0
log x = 1
1
x=
e
1 1 1
min value = f = . log
e e e
1
= (log1 loge)
e
1
= (0 1)
e
1
=
e
44. (D)
n = 10, p = 0.4, q = 0.6
E(x) = np = 4
V(x) = npq = 10(0.4) (0.6)
= 2.4
V(x) = E(x2) [E(x)]2
2.4 = E(x2) (4)2
E(x2) = 18.4
dx
45. The general solution of differential equation = cos (x + y) is
dy
xy xy
(A) tan =y+c (B) tan =x+c
2 2
xy xy
(C) cot =y+c (D) cot =x+c
2 2
45. (A)
dx
= cos (x + y)
dy
dy 1
=
dx cos(xy)
Put x + y = V
Differentiating w.r.t. ‘x’
dy dV
1+ =
dx dx
dy dV
= 1
dx dx
dV 1
1=
dx cosV
(Pg. 16)
(17) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
dV 1
1
dx cosV
dV 1 cosV
=
dx cosV
cosV
dV = dx
(1cosV)
(1cosV) 1
1 cos V dV = dx
1
1
2cos2 dV = dx
V
2
V
tan
1
V 2 =x+C
1
2 1
2
xy
x + y tan = x + C1
2
xy
tan =y+C …….. [ C = C1]
2
46. If planes r piˆ ˆj2kˆ + 3 = 0 and r 2iˆpjˆkˆ 5 = 0 include angle then the value of p is
3
(A) 1, 3 (B) 1, 3 (C) 3 (D) 3
46. (D)
We have r. piˆ ˆj 2kˆ 3 0 and
cos
piˆ ˆj 2kˆ . 2iˆ pjˆ kˆ
3
p 2 12 2 2 2 2 p 2 12
1 2p p 2 1 3p 2
2
p2 5 p2 5 2
p2 5
p2 + 5 = 6p 4 p2 6p + 9 = 0
(p 3)2 = 0 p = 3
47. The order of the differential equation of all parabolas, whose latus rectum is 4a and axis parallel to the
xaxis, is
(A) one (B) four (C) three (D) two
47. (D)
Equation of parabola whose axis is parallel to X axis and latus rectum is 4a
(y k)2 = 4a(x h)
h & k are arbitrary constants order 2.
x 1 y 1 z 1 yk
48. If lines andx 3 = z intersect then the value of k is
2 3 4 2
9 1 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
(Pg. 17)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (18)
48. (A)
Points on the line are (1, 1, 1) and (3, k, 0) and direction ratios of lines are 2, 3, 4 and 1, 2, 1
Since lines intersect, then lines are coplanar
x 2 x1 y 2 y1 z 2 z1
a1 b1 c1 = 0
a2 b2 c2
2 k 1 1
2 3 4 =0
1 2 1
2(5) (k + 1) (2) 1 (1) = 0
11 + 2k + 2 = 0
9
k=
2
49. If a line makes angles 120 and 60 with the positive directions of X and Z axes respectively then the
angle made by the line with positive Yaxis is
(A) 150 (B) 60 (C) 135 (D) 120
49. (C)
cos2 + cos2 + cos2 = 1
(cos 120)2 + cos2 + (cos 60)2 = 1
2 2
1 1
cos 2 1
2 2
1 1 1
cos2 1 cos
2 2 2
= 135
50. L and M are two points with position vectors 2abanda2b respectively. The position vector of the
point N which divides the line segment LM in the ratio 2 : 1 externally is
(A) 3b (B) 4b (C) 5b (D) 3a 4b
50. (C)
We have L (2, 1) and M (1, 2)
and is divided by N in ratio 2 : 1 externally.
N
21 2 1 , 2 2 1 1 i.e.
2 1 2 1
5
N 0, i.e.N 0,5i.e.5b
1
(Pg. 18)
(19) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
(Pg. 19)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (20)
(Pg. 20)
(21) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution
(Pg. 21)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Mathematics Paper and Solution (22)
(Pg. 22)
Question
Booklet Version
44
PAPER II : PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Instruction to Candidates
1. This question booklet contains 100 Objective Type Question (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
in the subjects of Physics (50) & Chemistry (50).
2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the
start of the examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer
Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit
the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the
entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION,
SERIAL No. and MH-CET Roll No. accurately. The correctness of entries has to be
cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question
Booklet.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Determine the one correct answer out of the four available options given for each question.
7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with
Black ink ball point pen only.
8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There shall be no
negative marking. No mark shall be granted for marking two or more answers of same
question, scratching or overwriting.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase / hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
10. Avoid overwriting and / or striking of answers once marked.
11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough
work should not be done on the Answer Sheet.
12. The required mathematical tables (Log etc.) is provided along with the question booklet.
13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and Answer
sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator. Confirm that both the Candidate and Invigilator have
signed on question booklet and answer sheet.
14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.
(Pg. 1)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (2)
PHYSICS
1. The path length of oscillation of simple pendulum of length 1 metre is 16 cm. Its maximum velocity is
(g = 2 m/s2)
(A) 2 cm/s (B) 4 cm/s (C) 8 cm/s (D) 16 cm/s
1. (C)
2 g 2
T 2 ,
g T 1
16
A 8cm
2
Maximum velocity Vmax = A = 8 cm/s
2. A vessel completely filled with water has holes ‘A’ and ‘B’ at depths ‘h’ and ‘3h’ from the top
respectively. Hole ‘A’ is a square of side ‘L’ and ‘B’ is circle of radius ‘r’. The water flowing out per
second from both the holes is same. Then ‘L’ is equal to
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) r () (3) 2
2 2 (B) r () (3) 4
4 (C) r () (3) 4
2 (D) r2 () (3) 2
3
2. (C)
Velocity of efflux for A : A 2gh
Velocity of efflux for B : B 2g 3h 6gh
Water flowing out from A = Water flowing out from B
A (Areaof A)B (Areaof B)
2gh L2 6gh r 2
6gh
L2 r 2 = 3r 2
2gh
1 1 1 1
L 34 2 r = r () 2 (3) 4
3. A transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance 2 K. the input resistance is
150 . Base current is changed by 20 A which results in a change in collector current by 1.5 mA. The
voltage gain of the amplifier is
(A) 900 (B) 1000 (C) 1100 (D) 1200
3. (B)
Voltage gain = (Resistance gain) (current gain)
R L I C
=
R i I B
2000 1.5 10 3
=
150 20 10 6
= 1000
4. A disc has mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’. How much tangential force should be applied to the rim of the disc
so as to rotate with angular velocity ‘’ in time ‘t’?
MR MR MR
(A) (B) (C) (D) MRt
4t 2t t
4. (B)
t
(Pg. 2)
(3) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
MR 2
Torque = I =
2 t
MR
2
=
2t
MR
Force = F =
R 2t
5. A circular coil carrying current ‘I’ has radius ‘R’ and magnetic field at the centre is ‘B’. At what distance
B
from the centre along the axis of the same coil, the magnetic field will be ?
8
(A) R 2 (B) R 3 (C) 2R (D) 3R
5. (B)
0 nI
Magnetic field at the centre : B
2R
0 nIR 2
Magnetic field at the axial point : Baxis
2(R 2 x 2 )3/2
B
Baxis
8
0 nIR 2 0 nI
2(R x )
2 2 3/2 16R
R2
2(R x )
2 2 3/2 16R
2(R2 + x2)3/2 = 16R3
(R2 + x2)3/2 = 8R3
(R2 + x2)1/2 = 2R
R2 + x2 = 4R2
x2 = 3R2
x = 3R
6. Two light waves of intensities ‘I1’ and ‘I2’ having same frequency pass through same medium at a time in
same direction and interfere. The sum of the minimum and maximum intensities is
(A) (I1 + I2) (B) 2(I1 + I2) (C) I1 I2 (D) I1 I2
6. (B)
The amplitudes are I1 and I2
Maximum amplitude Amax = I1 + I2
2
Maximum intensity Imax = I1 I 2
I1 I2
2
Minimum intensity Imax =
I 2 + I1
2 2
Imax + Imin = I1 I2
= 2(I1 I2 )
7. An alternating voltage e = 200 2 sin(100 t) volt is connected to 1 F capacitor through a.c. ammeter.
The reading of ammeter is
(A) 5 mA (B) 10 mA (C) 15 mA (D) 20 mA
(Pg. 3)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (4)
7. (D)
e = 200 2 sin(100 t) volt
= 100 rad/s, C = 2 F = 106 F
1 1
Capacitive reactance XC 104
C 100 106
e
i
XC
200 2 sin(100t)
i
104
i0 2 2 102 A
i
i rms 0 2 102 A = 20 mA
2
8. (C)
It is a balanced Wheatstone network. No current flows through the galvanometer
The circuit can be drawn as :
B
3
15
A I1 C
I = 2.1A I2
20 4
D
I1 18 = I2 24
3
or 3I1 = 4I2 I2 = I1
4
Also I1 + I2 = 2.1
3
I1 I1 2.1
4
7
I1 2.1
4
2.1 4
I1 1.2A
7
9. The angle made by incident ray of light with the reflecting surface is called
(A) glancing angle (B) angle of incidence (C) angle of deviation (D) angle of refraction
9. (A)
(Pg. 4)
(5) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
10. In non uniform circular motion, the ratio of tangential to radial acceleration is (r = radius of circle, v =
speed of the particle, = angular acceleration)
2 r 2 2r r 2 v2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v v2 v2 r 2
10. (C)
a t r
2
ar
r
at r r 2
2
a r 2
r
11. (C)
12. (D)
14. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom jumps from 4th energy level to ground level. The velocity that the
photon acquired as a result of electron transition will be (h = Planck’s constant, R = Rydberg’s constant,
m = mass of photon)
9Rh 11hR 13hR 15hR
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16m 16m 16m 16m
14. (D)
1 1 1 1 1
R 2 2 = R 2 2
1 4
n p
1 15
= R 1 = R
16 16
c 15
E h h hcR
16
15
mc2 = hcR
16
2 15hRc
c
16m
15hR
c
16m
(Pg. 5)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (6)
15. A metal wire of density ‘’ floats on water surface horizontally. If it is NOT to sink in water then
maximum radius of wire is proportional to (T = surface tension of water, g =gravitational acceleration)
T g T g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g T g T
15. (A)
r 2 L g LT [L length of the wire]
T
r2
g
T
r
g
16. A sphere of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ collides head-on on another sphere of same mass which is
at rest. The ratio of final velocity of second sphere to the initial velocity of the first sphere is (e is
coefficient of restitution and collision is inelastic)
e 1 e e 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) e
2 2 2
16. (C)
1 2
e 2 ?
u1 u 2 v
u1 = v, u2 = 0
e 2 1 2 1 …(1)
v v v
By law of conservation of momentum:
mv m1 m2
v 1 2
1 1 2
v v
1 2
1 …(2)
v v
Putting in equation (1) : e 2 1 2
v v
e 2 1 2
v v
2
e 2 1
v
22 e 1
e 1 2
v v 2
17. For a particle performing linear S.H.M., its average speed over one oscillation is (a = amplitude of
S.H.M., n = frequency of oscillation)
(A) 2 an (B) 4 an (C) 6 an (D) 8 an
17. (B)
Total distance = 4a
1
Total time =
n
4a
Average speed = 4an
1
n
(Pg. 6)
(7) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
18. An ideal transformer converts 220 V a.c. to 3.3 kV a.c. to transmit a power of 4.4 kW. If primary coil has
600 turns, then alternating current in secondary coil is
1 4 5 7
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) A
3 3 3 3
18. (B)
Vp = 220 V, Vs = 3.3 103 V
Np = 600, P = 4.4 103 W
P = VS Is
P 4.4 103 4
Is A
Vs 3.3 103 3
19. A conducting wire has length ‘L1’ and diameter ‘d1’. After stretching the same wire length becomes ‘L2’
and diameter ‘d2’. The ratio of resistances before and after stretching is
(A) d 42 : d14 (B) d14 : d 42 (C) d 22 : d12 (D) d12 : d 22
19. (A)
L
R=
A
d2
A=
4
v = A
V
1 =
A1
R1 A A2 d 22
1 2 1
1
R 2 A1 2 2 A1 2 d12
V A2 d 22 d 22 d2 d 42
= = 22
A1 V d12 d12 d1 d14
20. The molar specific heat of an ideal gas at constant pressure and constant volume is ‘C p’ and ‘Cv’
respectively. If ‘R’ is the universal gas constant and the ratio of ‘Cp’ to ‘Cv’ is ‘’ then Cv =
1 1 1 R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 1 R 1
20. (D)
CP
CV
CP CV 1
CV 1
R
1
CV
R
CV =
1
21. In a capillary tube having area of cross-section ‘A’, water rises to a height ‘h’. If cross-sectional area is
'A'
reduced to , the rise of water in the capillary tube is
9
(A) 4h (B) 3h (C) 2h (D) h
(Pg. 7)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (8)
21. (B)
2T cos
h=
rg
1
h A = r2
r
h1r1 = h2r2 A r
h1 r2 A2 A/g 1
h 2 r1 A1 A 3
22. (C)
23. An alternating electric field of frequency ‘’ is applied across the dees (radius R) of a cyclotron to
accelerate protons (mass m). The operating magnetic field ‘B’ used and K.E. of the proton beam produced
by it are respectively (e = charge on proton)
2m 22 m
(A) , 22 m2 R2 (B) 2
,42 m 2 R 2
e e
m 2 2 2 2 m 2 2
(C) , m R (D) ,22 m 2 2 R 2
e e
23. (A)
mv 2
evB =
R
mv m m 2 2m
B=
eR q e e
K.E. =
1
2
1 1
m2max mR2 mR 42 2
2 2
= 2mR
2 2 2
24. A ray of light is incident normally on a glass slab of thickness 5 cm and refractive index 1.6. The time
taken to travel by a ray from source to surface of slab is same as to travel through glass slab. The distance
of source from the surface is
(A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm
24. (B)
t = 5 cm d
= 1.6
d = t = 5 1.6 = 8.0 cm
25. A string is vibrating in its fifth overtone between two rigid supports 2.4 m apart. The distance between
successive node and antinode is
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.6 m (D) 0.8 m
25. (B)
In fifth overtone the string is vibrating forming 6 loops.
length of 6 loops is 2.4 m
(Pg. 8)
(9) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
2.4
length of 1 loop is 0.4m
6
0.4
Distance between a node and antinode is half of loop length i.e. 0.2m .
2
26. If A = 3iˆ2ˆjkˆ , Bˆi3jˆ5kˆ and C2iˆˆj4kˆ form a right angled triangle then out of the
following which one is satisfied?
(A) ABC and A2 = B2 + C2 (B) ABC and B2 = A2 + C2
(C) BC and B2 = A2 + C2 (D) BC and A2 = B2 + C2
26. (B)
A = 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ A= 9 4 1 14
B = ˆi 3jˆ 5kˆ B = 1 9 25 35
C = 2iˆ ˆj 4kˆ C = 4 1 16 21
B2 = A2 + C2
A BC
27. A square frame ABCD is formed by four identical rods each of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’ This frame is in
XY plane such that side AB coincides with X-axis and side AD along Y-axis. The moment of inertia of
the frame about X-axis is
5ml 2 2ml 2 4ml 2 ml 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 12
27. (A)
m 2 Y
IAB 0;IAD IBC ;IDC m 2 C
3 D
m 2 5
Total moment of inertia = I = 2 m 2
m 2
3 6 X
A B
ˆ ˆ ˆ
28. A unit vector is represented as (0.8ibj0.4k) . Hence the value of ‘b’ must be
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.2
28. (D)
0.8iˆ bjˆ 0.4kˆ is a unit vector
(0.8)2 b2 (0.4)2 1
0.69 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
0.80 + b2 = 1
b2 = 1 0.8 = 0.2
b = 0.2
29. (C)
30. A mass is suspended from a vertical spring which is executing S.H.M. of frequency 5Hz. The spring is
upstretched at the highest point of oscillation. Maximum speed of the mass is [acceleration due to gravity
g = 10 m/s2]
1 1
(A) 2 m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s
2
(Pg. 9)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (10)
30. (D)
1
f = 5 Hz, T = s
5
m
T = 2
K
Kx = mg [x is the amplitude]
m x
K g
x
T = 2
g
1 x
2
5 g
1 x
42
25 g
g 10 1
x=
100 100
2
1022
vmax = x = x 2f
1 1
= 2 5
100 2
31. The moment of inertia of a ring about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its plane is
‘I’. It is rotating with angular velocity ‘’. Another identical ring is gently placed on it so that their
centres coincide. If both the rings are rotating about the same axis then loss in kinetic energy is
I2 I2 I2 I2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 6 8
31. (B)
I11 I22 2I12
I
2 = 1 1 1
2I1 2
1 2
KE1 = I
2
1 2 I2
KE2 = (2I)
2 4 4
1 1 1 1 I2
KE1 KE 2 I2 1 I2
2 2 2 2 4
32. A bomb at rest explodes into 3 parts of same mass. The momentum of two parts is 3p î and 2P ˆj
respectively. The magnitude of momentum of the third part is
(A) P (B) 5 P (C) 11 P (D) 13 P
32. (D)
PA = 3Pi
PB = 2Pj
PA + PB + PC = 0
2Pi + 2Pj + PC = 0
PC = 2Pi 2Pj
PC 3Pi 2Pj
| PC | 9P2 4P2 13P
(Pg. 10)
(11) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
33. In a photocell, frequency of incident radiation is increased by keeping other factors constant (v > 0), the
stopping potential
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) becomes zero (D) first decreases and then increases.
33. (B)
eVS = h h0
If increases, stopping potential will increase.
34. A mass attached to one end of a string crosses topmost point on a vertical circle with critical speed. Its
centripetal acceleration when string becomes horizontal will be (g = gravitational acceleration)
(A) g (B) 3g (C) 4g (D) 6g
34. (B) v1 rg
A
v3 3rg
C
B v 2 5rg
Centripetal acceleration at C
v2 3rg
= 3 3g
r r
35. The expression for electric field intensity at a point outside uniformly charged thin plane sheet is (d is the
distance of point from plane sheet)
(A) independent of d (B) directly proportional to d
1
(C) directly proportional to d (D) directly proportional to
d
35. (A)
E=
2 0
It is independent of ‘d’.
36. When source of sound moves towards a stationary observer, the wavelength of sound received by him
(A) decreases while frequency increases (B) remains the same whereas frequency increases
(C) increases and frequency also increases (D) decreases while frequency remains the same
36. (A)
th
1
37. The deflection in galvanometer falls to when it is shunted by 3. If additional shunt of 2 is
4
connected to earlier shunt, the deflection in galvanometer falls to
rd th th
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 8.5
37. (D)
IG S
I SG
1 3
4 3G
3 + G = 12 G=9
(Pg. 11)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (12)
23 6
If additional shunt of 2 is connected then total shunt resistance becomes S
23 5
6
I S' 5 6 5 6 2 1
Again G = =
I S G 6
9 5 51 51 17 8.5
5
38. A body is thrown from the surface of the earth with velocity ‘u’ m/s. The maximum height in m above the
surface of the earth upto which it will reach is (R = radius of earth, g = acceleration due to gravity)
u 2R 2u 2 R u 2R 2 u2R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2gR u 2 gR u 2 2gR 2 u 2 gR u 2
38. (A)
1 GMm GMm
mu 2
2 Rh R
GMm GMm
=
R Rh
1 1
= GMm
R R h
1 1
u 2 2GM
R R h
R h R
u 2 2gR 2
R(R h)
h
u 2 2gR
R h
u2 h R h 2gR
2
2gR R h R u
R 2gR
1 2
h u
R 2gR 2gR u 2 Ru 2
2 1 h
h u u2 2gR u 2
39. A series combination of N1 capacitors (each of capacity C1) is charged to potential difference ‘3V’.
Another parallel combination of N2 capacitors (each of capacity C2) is charged to potential difference ‘V’.
The total energy stored in both the combinations is same. The value of C1 in terms of C2 is
C NN C N2 N2 C N C N
(A) 2 1 2 (B) 2 1 2 (C) 2 1 (D) 2 2
9 9 9N 2 9N1
39. (A)
1
U = CV 2
2
C
Ceq5 1 3V (connected in series)
N1
Ceq11 N 2 C2 V (connected in parallel)
1 C1 2 1
U 9v N 2C2 v 2
2 N1 2
N 2C2 N1
C1 =
9
(Pg. 12)
(13) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
40. Heat energy is incident on the surface at the rate of 1000 J/min. If coefficient of absorption is 0.8 and
coefficient of reflection is 0.1 then heat energy transmitted by the surface in 5 minutes is
(A) 100 J (B) 500 J (C) 700 J (D) 900 J
40. (B)
r+a+t=1
t = 1 r a = 1 0.8 0.1 = 1 0.9 = 0.1
Q = 1000 J/min
heat energy transmitted per minute Q.t = 1000 0.1 J = 100 J
heat energy transmitted in 5 minutes = 500 J
41. Two metal wires ‘P’ and ‘Q’ of same length and material are stretched by same load. Their masses are in
the ratio m1 : m2. The ratio of elongations of wire ‘P’ to that of ‘Q’ is
(A) m12 : m 22 (B) m 22 : m12 (C) m 2 : m1 (D) m1 : m 2
41. (C)
LP = LQ FP = FQ
m P : mQ m1 : m 2
L P A P : LQ A Q m1 : m 2
AP : AQ = m1 : m2
FL
Y=
A
FL
=
AY
L
A
1
A
P AQ m2
Q A P m1
a 2b2
42. Let x = be the physical quantity. If the percentage error in the measurement of physical quantities
c
a, b and c is 2, 3 and 4 percent respectively then percentage error in the measurement of x is
(A) 7% (B) 14% (C) 21% (D) 28%
42. (B)
a 2 b2
x
c
x 2a 2b c
% % %
x a b c
=22+23+4
= 4 + 6 + 4 = 14%
43. Following graphs show the variation of stopping potential corresponding to the frequency of incident
radiation (F) for a given metal. The correct variation is shown in graph (V0 = Threshold frequency)
(Pg. 13)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (14)
44. In compound microscope, the focal length and aperture of the objective used is respectively
(A) large and large (B) large and small (C) short and large (D) short and small
44. (D)
45. The energy of an electron having de-Broglie wavelength ‘’ is (h = Planck’s constant, m = mass of
electron)
h h2 h2 h2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2m 2m 2 2m 2 2 2m 2
45. (B)
E=
1
2
mv 2
1
2m
P2
1 h2
2
2m
h2
2m 2
P=
h
46. ‘n’ number of waves are produced on a string in 0.5 second. Now the tension in the string is doubled
(Assume length and radius constant), the number of waves produced in 0.5 second for the same harmonic
will be
n n
(A) n (B) 2 n (C) (D)
2 5
46. (B)
N2 T2
2
N1 T1
N 2 2N1
47. The increase in energy of a metal bar of length ‘L’ and cross-sectional area ‘A’ when compressed with a
load ‘M’ along its length is (Y = Young’s modulus of the material of metal bar)
FL F2 L FL F 2 L2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2AY 2AY AY 2AY
47. (B)
Vol. = LA
F FL FL
Stress = Y
A A AY
Strain =
L
1F 1
U LA F.
2A L 2
2
1 FL 1 F L
U F
2 AY 2 AY
48. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a bar magnet at the two axial points P1 and P2 which are separated from
each other by 10 cm is 25 : 2. Point P1 is situated at 10 cm from the centre of the magnet. Magnetic length
of the bar magnet is (Points P1 and P2 are on the same side of magnet and distance of P2 from the centre is
greater than distance of P1 from the centre of magnet)
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm
48. (B)
P1 P2
10 cm 10 cm
B1 25 2Mr
;Baxis 0 2 2 2
B2 2 4 (r )
(Pg. 14)
(15) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
0 2M 0.1
B1
4 (0.1)2 2 2
2M 0.2
B2 0
4 (0.2) 2 2 2
(0.2)2 2 2
B1 0.1
2
B2 (0.1)2 2 0.2
2 2 2
2 0.04
25 (0.2)
2
25
2 2 (0.1)2 2 2 0.01 2 2
0.04 2
5
0.01 2
0.05 5 2
0.04 2
0.01 = 4 2
0.1 = 2
0.05m5cm
Magnetic length = 2 = 10 cm
49. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth of radius ‘R’. The
speed of the satellite in its orbit is one-fourth the escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The
relation between ‘h’ and ‘R’ is
(A) h = 2R (B) h = 3R (C) h = 5R (D) h = 7R
49. (D)
GM
v0
Rh
2GM
ve
R
4v0 = ve
GM 2GM
4
Rh R
GM 2GM
Rh R
8R = R + h
7R = h
50. A pipe closed at one end has length 83 cm. The number of possible natural oscillations of air column
whose frequencies lie below 1000 Hz are (velocity of sound in air = 332 m/s)
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
50. (C)
= 83 102 cm
v = 332 m/s
v 332
n0 100
4L 4 83 102
n 0 : n1 : n 2 : n3 : n 4 1: 3: 5: 7 : 9 100 : 300 : 500 : 700 : 900
Number of possible natural frequency = 5.
(Pg. 15)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (16)
CHEMISTRY
In the reaction,
(A) NO2(g) is intermediate (B) NO(g) is intermediate
(C) NO(g) is catalyst (D) O2(g) is intermediate
51. (B)
As, NO is formed during reaction and again consumed it is intermediate.
52. Which among the following equations represents the first law of thermodynamics under isobaric
conditions ?
(A) U = qp Pex . V (B) qv = U (C) U = W (D) W = q
52. (A)
First law of thermodynamics is
U = q + p . v
when p is constant i.e. isobaric process
q = qp
U = qp Pex . V
53. During galvanization of iron, which metal is used for coating iron surface ?
(A) Copper (B) Zinc (C) Nickel (D) Tin
53. (B)
Zn : Galvanization is coating of Zn on Fe metal.
54. Formation of PCl3 is explained on the basis of what hybridisation of phosphorus atom?
(A) SP2 (B) SP3 (C) SP3d (D) SP3d2
54. (B)
Hybridization of P in PCl3 is sp3.
..
P
Cl Cl
Cl
(Pg. 16)
(17) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
56. (C)
O O
NH2 NH C CH3 NH C CH3 NH2
(CH3CO) 2 O
H or
Br2
Pyridine CH3COOH
OH
'A' Br Br
'B' 'C'
p-Bromoaniline
57. Identify the functional group that has electron donating inductive effect.
(A) COOH (B) CN (C) CH3 (D) NO2
57. (C)
CH3 : Methyl group is e donating i.e +I effect
59. Which among the following oxoacids of phosphorus shows a tendency of disproportionation?
(A) Phosphinic acid (H3PO2) (B) Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4)
(C) Phosphonic acid (H3PO3) (D) Pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O7)
59. (C)
4H 3PO3
3H 3PO 4 PH 3
Disproportionationreaction
3 5 3
OxidationNumber
H3PO2 +1
H3PO4 +5
H3PO3 +3
H4P2O7 +5
62. Which of the following compounds reacts immediately with Lucas reagent?
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3CH2CH2OH
CH3
(C)CH 3 CH CH 3 (D)CH 3 C CH 3
OH OH
62. (D)
Reactivity of alcohols towards Lucas reagent is
3 > 2 > 1
(Pg. 17)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (18)
63. What is the catalyst used for oxidation of SO2 to SO3 in lead chamber process for manufacture of
sulphuric acid?
(A) Nitric oxide (B) Nitrous oxide (C) Potassium iodide (D) Dilute HCl
63. (A)
NO is used as catalyst in lead chamber process for manufacture of H2SO4
NO
SO2
SO3
H 2O
(steam)
64. The number of moles of electrons passed when current of 2 A is passed through an solution of electrolyte
for 20 minutes is
(A) 4.1 104 mol e (B) 1.24 102 mol e
2
(C) 2.487 10 mol e (D) 2.487 101 mol e
64. (C)
Q
No. of moles of e =
F
22060
n e = = 2.487 102 mol e.
96500
65. The molarity of urea (molar mass 60 g mol1) solution by dissolving 15 g of urea in 500 cm3 of water is
(A) 2 mol dm3 (B) 0.5 mol dm3 (C) 0.125 mol dm3 (D) 0.0005 mol dm3
65. (B)
W 1000
M = 2
M 2 Vol.mL
15 1000 1
M = = = 0.5 mol dm3
60 500 2
66. Which carbon atom of deoxy Ribose sugar in DNA does NOT contain C OH bond ?
H H H H
(3) (2)
OH H
67. Which of the following carboxylic acids is most reactive towards esterification?
(A) (CH3)3 CCOOH (B) (CH3)2CHCOOH (C) CH3CH2COOH (D) (C2H5)2CHCOOH
67. (C)
Order of reactivity.
CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (C2H5)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH
68. Molarity is
(A) The number of moles of solute present in 1 dm3 volume of solution
(B) The number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg of solvent
(C) The number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg of solution
(D) The number of moles of solute dissolved in 100 dm3 volume of solution
68. (A)
Moles
Molarity =
Vol.of solutionin'dm3 '
(Pg. 18)
(19) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
69. Which of the following is a tricarboxylic acid?
(A) Citric acid (B) Malonic acid (C) Succinic acid (D) Malic acid
69. (A)
CH2 COOH
HOCCOOH Citric acid
CH2 COOH
HO . . .. OH
N N
Bidentate Ligand
C C
H 3C CH3
71. In which substance does nitrogen exhibit the lowest oxidation state?
(A) nitrogen gas (B) ammonia (C) nitrous oxide (D) nitric oxide
71. (B)
NH3 : Oxidation no. of N is 3.
72. Which of the followings is most reactive towards addition reaction of hydrogen cyanide to form
corresponding cyanohydrin?
(A) Acetone (B) Formaldehyde (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Diethylketone
72. (B)
Formaldehyde
Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition : Aldehyde > Ketone.
In aldehydes HCHO > CH3CHO > CH3CH2CHO.
75. Which of the following compounds does NOT undergo haloform reaction?
(A) CH 3 CH CH 3 (B) CH 3 C CH 3
OH O
OH O
75. (C)
Only methyl ketones, acetaldehyde and 2 alcohol with CH 3 CH Rgroup gives iodoform reaction.
OH
(Pg. 19)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (20)
76. Two moles of an ideal gas are allowed to expand from a volume of 10 dm3 to 2m3 at 300 K against a
pressure of 101.325 KPa. Calculate the work done.
(A) 201.6 kJ (B) 13.22 kJ (C) 810.6 J (D) 18.96 kJ
76. (A)
W = P(V) P = 101.325 k Pa
P = 101325 Pa
= 101325 (2 0.01) V1 = 10 dm3 = 10 103 m3 = 102 m3
V2 = 2m3
= (101325) (+1.99) J
= 201.636 kJ.
77. In which among the following solids, Schottky defect is NOT observed?
(A) ZnS (B) NaCl (C) KCl (D) CsCl
77. (A)
NaCl, KCl, CsCl show Schottky defect.
80. Phenol in presence of sodium hydroxide reacts with chloroform to form salicylaldehyde. The reaction is
known as
(A) Kolbe’s reaction (B) ReimerTiemann reaction
(C) Stephen reaction (D) Etard reaction
80. (B)
OH OH
CHO
(i)NaOH
CHCl3
(ii)H /H 2O
81. Which among the following elements of group2 exhibits anomalous properties?
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba
81. (A)
‘Be’ (Beryllium) being smallest and most electrove it exhibits anomalous properties.
82. Excess of ammonia with sodium hypochloride solution in the presence of glue or gelatin gives
(A) NaNH2 (B) NH2NH2 (C) N2 (D) NH4Cl
82. (B)
2NH3 + NaOH NaCl + H2O + NH2.NH2
Hydrazine
83. What is the density of solution of sulphuric acid used as an electrolyte in lead accumulator?
(A) 1.5 gmL1 (B) 1.2 gmL1 (C) 1.8 gmL1 (D) 2.0 gmL1
83. (B)
H2SO4 solution used as electrolyte has demisty 1.2 gm L1
84. Which of the following polymers is used to manufacture clothes for firefighters?
(A) Thiokol (B) Kevlar (C) Nomex (D) Dynel
(Pg. 20)
(21) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
84. (C)
NomexProtective clothes for firefighters are prepared.
85. Which element is obtained in the pure form by van Arkel method?
(A) Aluminium (B) Titanium (C) Silicon (D) Nickel
85. (B)
Van-Arkel method is used for Zr and Ti.
Cr O ,773K
2 3 4H 2
10 20atm
89. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare aryl fluorides from diazonium salts and fluoroboric
acid?
(A) Sandmeyer reaction (B) BalzSchiemann reaction
(C) Gattermann reaction (D) Swarts reaction
89. (B)
NH2 N 2 Cl
NaNO2 HCl
HBF4
NaCl,H 2O
Aniline Benzene Diazonium
Chloride
N 2 BF4
BF3 N 2
Fluoro benzene
(Pg. 21)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (22)
90. The correct relation between elevation of boiling point and molar mass of solute is
K .W K b .W1 Tb .K b Tb .W1
(A) M2 = b 2 (B) M2 = (C) M2 = (D) M2 =
Tb .W1 Tb .W2 W1.W2 K b .W2
90. (A)
Tb = Kb m (m is molality)
n2
= K b
Wt.of solventinkg
W2
= K b
M 2 W1
Where n2 No. of mole of solute
W2 Wt.of soluteinsolution
M2 Molar Mass of Solute
K b W2
M2 =
Tb W1
91. Which among the group15 elements does NOT exists as tetra atomic molecule?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorus (C) Arsenic (D) Antimony
91. (A)
Nitrogen does not have empty d orbital like other element of 15th group.
Hence it shows only tetravalency.
7N 1s 2s 2p .
2 2 3
92. Identify the monosaccharide containing only one asymmetric carbon atom in its molecule.
(A) Ribulose (B) Ribose (C) Erythrose (D) Glyceraldehyde
92. (D)
CHO
*
H C OH
CH2OH
Glyceraldehyde
93. Identify the oxidation states of titanium (Z = 22) and copper (Z = 29) in their colourless compounds.
(A) Ti3+, Cu2+ (B) Ti2+, Cu2+ (C) Ti4+, Cu1+ (D) Ti4+, Cu2+
93. (C)
22Ti 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2
Ti4+ 1s22s22p63s23p64s3d (No unpaired electron in d orbital)
29Cu 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d10
Cu1+ 1s22s22p63s23p64s3d10 (No unpaired electron in d orbital)
If no. unpaired electron is present in d orbital of the transition metal or ion then its solution becomes
colour less.
94. Arenes on treatment with chlorine in presence of ferric chloride as a catalyst undergo what type of
reaction ?
(A) Electrophilic substitution (B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Electrophilic addition (D) Nucleophilic addition
(Pg. 22)
(23) VIDYALANKAR : MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper
94. (A)
Arenes shows more reactivity for electrophilic substitution reaction.
.. ..
.. Cl + FeCl
.. Cl . ..
.. .
Cl FeCl3 4
.. ..
Electrophile
Cl
FeCl3
+ Cl2 + HCl
Benzene Chlorobenzene
96. Lactic acid and glycollic acid are the monomers used for preparation of polymer
(A) Nylon2nylon6 (B) Dextron
(C) PHBV (D) BunaN
96. (B)
OH OH O O
polymerisation
n CH3 CH COOH + n CH2 COOH O CH C O CH2 C O
Lactic acid glycollic acid n
CH3
Dextron
.. ..
H 104035' H
99. Calculate the work done during combustion of 0.138 kg of ethanol, C2H5OH(1) at 300 K.
Given : R = 8.314 Jk1 mol1, molar mass of ethanol = 46 g mol1.
(A) 7482 J (B) 7482 J (C) 2494 J (D) 2494 J
(Pg. 23)
MHT-CET - 2018 : Test Paper (24)
99. (B)
C2H5OH( ) 3O2(g)
2CO2(g) 3H2O( )
n = 2 3 = 1
w = n RT
w = + (1) 8.314 300
w = 2494.2 J
For 46 gm ethanol work done 2494.2 J
138 gm ethanol work done x J
1382494.2
x= = 7482.6 J
46
100. Slope of the straight line obtained by plotting log10k against 1/T represents what term?
(A) Ea (B) 2.303 Ea/R (C) Ea/2.303 R (D) Ea/R
100. (C)
Ea
In k = In A
RT
Ea
log10 k log10 A
2.303RT
Ea 1 Ea
log10 k log10 A slope
2.303R T 2.303R
y = mx + C
y = log10k log10k
1 log10A
x=
T
C = log10A
Ea
m = slope = 1/T
2.303R
(Pg. 24)