Answers & Solutions: For For For For For NEET (UG) - 2018

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
KK
HLAAC
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Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-KK) HLAAC
1. The kinetic energies of a planet in an 3. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC Which of the following physical quantities
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the would remain constant for the sphere?
figure. Then (1) Moment of inertia
B (2) Rotational kinetic energy

(3) Angular velocity
A C
S (4) Angular momentum
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . ex = 0
(1) KA > KB > KC
dL
(2) KB < KA < KC So, 0
dt
(3) KA < KB < KC
i.e. L = constant
(4) KB > KA > KC
So angular momentum remains constant.
Answer ( 1 ) 4. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
Sol. B and the universal gravitational constant were
VC
perihelion ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
A C following is not correct?
S
aphelion
VA (1) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
So, VA > VB > VC
Earth would decrease
So, KA > KB > KC (3) Raindrops will fall faster
2. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling (4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic Answer ( 4 )
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is ten times, then G = 10 G
(1) 5 : 7 So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
(2) 10 : 7 i.e. (4) is wrong option.
(3) 7 : 10 5. A toy car with charge q moves on a
(4) 2 : 5 frictionless horizontal plane surface under
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
Answer ( 1 ) Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
1 from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
S o l . Kt  mv 2
2 that instant the direction of the field is
reversed. The car continues to move for two
2
1 1 1 1⎛ 2 ⎞⎛ v ⎞ more seconds under the influence of this field.
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟⎜ ⎟ The average velocity and the average speed
2 2 2 2⎝5 ⎠⎝ r ⎠
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
respectively
7
 mv2
10 (1) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Kt 5
So,  (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
Kt  Kr 7
(4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
2
Answer ( 1 ) Sol. N cos
Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2 N
A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
C 
t=3 –a
ma N sin
–1
v = –6 ms (pseudo) 
60
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1 mg a

For t = 0 to t = 1 s, In non-inertial frame,
1 N sin  = ma ...(i)
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2 N cos  = mg ...(ii)
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
a
tan  
1 g
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
a = g tan 
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
7. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii) (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
2 by
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
(1) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
3 (2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ
Total distance travelled = 9 m
(3) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
9
Average speed   3 ms 1
3 (4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
6. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth Answer ( 4 )
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an Sol. Y
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is F
A A r  r0
m P
r0
a r

C B O X

g   (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
(1) a 
sin 
ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
(2) a = g cos 
g  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
(3) a 
cosec  î ˆj kˆ
(4) a = g tan 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
Answer ( 4 ) 4 5 6
3
8. A student measured the diameter of a small 10. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
zero of circular scale division coincides with pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
25 divisions above the reference level. If pipe is
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, (1) 8 cm (2) 12.5 cm
the correct diameter of the ball is
(3) 13.2 cm (4) 16 cm
(1) 0.525 cm
Answer ( 3 )
(2) 0.053 cm
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
(3) 0.521 cm
3v
(4) 0.529 cm 
4l
Answer ( 4 )
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
S o l . Diameter of the ball
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error v

2l 
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004 Given,
= 0.529 cm 3v v

4l 2l 
9. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies
with its temperature (T), as shown in the 4l 2l
 l  
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to 32 3
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a 2  20
change from state A to state B, is   13.33 cm
3
11. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
2 1
(1) (2) (1) 8.360 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K
3 3
(3) 2.508 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K
2 2 Answer ( 1 )
(3) (4)
5 7
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
Answer ( 3 ) Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
S o l . Given process is isobaric
3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
dQ  n Cp dT mO2
On solving,
⎛5 ⎞
dQ  n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
⎝2 ⎠ T = 8.360 × 104 K
dW  P dV = n RdT 12. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio   
(1) 20% (2) 6.25%
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
⎝2 ⎠ (3) 26.8% (4) 12.5%
4
Answer ( 3 ) 15. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of

identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
⎛ T ⎞ each) which are connected in series. The
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,   ⎜ 1  2 ⎟
⎝ T1 ⎠ terminals of the battery are short-circuited
T2 : Sink temperature and the current I is measured. Which of the
graphs shows the correct relationship
T1 : Source temperature between I and n?
⎛ T ⎞
%  ⎜ 1  2 ⎟  100
⎝ T1 ⎠ I I
⎛ 273 ⎞ (1) (2)

 ⎜ 1 ⎟  100
⎝ 373 ⎠
O O
n n
⎛ 100 ⎞
⎜ ⎟  100  26.8%
⎝ 373 ⎠ I I
13. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
marked with rings of different colours for its (3) (4)
identification. The colour code sequence will O O
be n n
(1) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver Answer ( 3 )

(2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold n 
Sol. I  
(3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver nr r
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold So, I is independent of n and I is constant.

 I
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
14. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
O
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' n
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn 16. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in 
parallel to the same battery. Then the current a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of oscillating electric field of this em wave is
'n' is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
(1) 11 (2) 20 magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(3) 10 (4) 9 (1) +z direction
Answer ( 3 ) (2) –y direction
E (3) –z direction
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R (4) –x direction
E Answer ( 1 )
10 I  ...(ii)
R
R   
n Sol. E  B  V
Dividing (ii) by (i), 
ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(n  1)R
10 
⎛1 ⎞ 
⎜ n  1⎟ R So, B  Bkˆ
⎝ ⎠
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
After solving the equation, n = 10
5
17. The refractive index of the material of a Sol.

f = 15 cm
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
One of the two refracting surfaces of the O 40 cm
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the
1 1 1
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on  
the prism is f v1 u
(1) 45° 1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40
(2) 30°
1 1 1
(3) 60°   
v1 –15 40
(4) Zero
v1 = –24 cm
Answer ( 1 )
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be mirror.
normally incident on silvered face.
Now,
u2 = –20
1 1 1
30°  
f v2 u2
M 60°
30° 1 1 1
i  –
–15 v2 20
1 1 1
 –
 2 v2 20 15
v2 = –60 cm
Applying Snell's law at M, So, image shifts away from mirror by

= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
sin i 2 19. The magnetic potential energy stored in a

sin30 1 certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
1
 sin i  2  inductance
2
(1) 138.88 H (2) 1.389 H
1 (3) 0.138 H (4) 13.89 H
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
Answer ( 4 )
18. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm S o l . Energy stored in inductor
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance 1 2
U Ll
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the 2
displacement of the image will be 1
25  10–3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
(1) 36 cm away from the mirror 2
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror 25  2  106  10–3

L
3600
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror
500
(3) 30 cm away from the mirror 
36
Answer ( 1 )
= 13.89 H
6
20. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
 n
V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field N ⎛ 1⎞

N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠

E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its t
150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2

600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
Broglie wavelength at time t is
t
2
⎛ eE0 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
(1)  0 ⎜ 1  t⎟ ⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟
⎝ mV0 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
(2) 0t t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
0 = 20 minute
(3)
⎛ eE0 ⎞ 22. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
⎜1 t⎟
⎝ mV0 ⎠ of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is
(4) 0
(1) 1 : –1 (2) 2 : –1
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : –2
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
Answer ( 1 )
h
0  S o l . KE = –(total energy)
mV0
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
E0
23. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
V0 threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
F plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
Acceleration of electron emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
eE0
a maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
m
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
Velocity after time ‘t’
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
⎛ eE0 ⎞
V  ⎜ V0  t⎟ (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
⎝ m ⎠
Answer ( 3 )
h h
So,    1
mV ⎛ eE ⎞ S o l . E  W0  mv2
m ⎜ V0  0 t⎟ 2
⎝ m ⎠
1
h h(20 )  h0  mv12
 2
⎡ eE0 ⎤
mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ 1
⎣ mV0 ⎦ h 0  mv12 …(i)
2
0
 1
⎡ eE0 ⎤ h(50 )  h0  mv22
⎢1  t⎥ 2
⎣ mV0 ⎦ 1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
21. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 2
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
Divide (i) by (ii),
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
disintegration of 450 nuclei is 1 v12

(1) 10 (2) 30 4 v22
(3) 20 (4) 15 v1 1

Answer ( 3 ) v2 2
7
24. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a 26. In Young's double slit experiment the
plane surface of a material of refractive index separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
found that the reflected and refracted rays are distance D between the screen and slits is
perpendicular to each other. Which of the 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
following options is correct for this situation? the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
electric vector perpendicular to the plane separation between the slits needs to be
of incidence changed to
⎛ 1⎞ (1) 1.9 mm
(2) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠ (2) 2.1 mm
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector parallel to the plane of (3) 1.8 mm
incidence (4) 1.7 mm
⎛ 1⎞
(4) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟ Answer ( 1 )
⎝⎠
Answer ( 1 ) 
S o l . Angular width 
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays d
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
with electric field vector perpendicular to the 
plane of incidence. 0.20  …(i)
2 mm

0.21  …(ii)
i d
0.20 d
 Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
 d = 1.9 mm
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
27. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
25. An astronomical refracting telescope will
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
have large angular magnification and high
values of IB, IC and  are given by
angular resolution, when it has an objective
lens of
20 V
(1) Large focal length and small diameter
(2) Large focal length and large diameter RC 4 k
(3) Small focal length and large diameter C
RB
(4) Small focal length and small diameter Vi
500 k B
Answer ( 2 ) E
f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
So, focal length of objective lens should be (1) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
large. (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
D
Angular resolution = should be large. (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
1.22
So, objective should have large focal length (4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
(f0) and large diameter D.
Answer ( 4 )
8
S o l . VBE = 0 Answer ( 1 )
VCE = 0
A
Vb = 0 Sol. A AB
20 V B
B Y
IC A
RC = 4 k
AB
RB B
Vi Vb
Ib 500 k
Y  (A  B  A  B)
30. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
(20  0) this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
IC  At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
4  103
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
of column length. If the frequency of the
Vi = VBE + IBRB tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
Vi = 0 + IBRB air at 27ºC is
20 = IB × 500 × 103 (1) 339 m/s
20 (2) 350 m/s

IB   40 A
500  103 (3) 330 m/s
I 25  103
 C   125 (4) 300 m/s
Ib 40  106
Answer ( 1 )
28. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
(1) Affects only forward resistance = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction = 339.2 ms–1
(3) Affects only reverse resistance = 339 m/s
(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
31. The electrostatic force between the metal
p-n junction
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
Answer ( 4 ) C having a charge Q and area A, is
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs (1) Linearly proportional to the distance
will increase, so overall resistance of diode between the plates
will change.
(2) Proportional to the square root of the
Due to which forward biasing and reversed distance between the plates
biasing both are changed.
(3) Independent of the distance between the
29. In the combination of the following gates the plates
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as (4) Inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates
A
Answer ( 3 )
B
Y S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Q2
Fplate 
2A0
(1) A  B  A  B (2) A  B  A  B
F is Independent of the distance between
(3) A  B (4) A  B plates.
9
32. An electron falls from rest through a vertical S o l . For equilibrium, °

distance h in a uniform and vertically upward B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
directed electric field E. The direction of co
llB
electric field is now reversed, keeping its mg
I tan30 ° 30° llB
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to lB 30
n
fall from rest in it through the same vertical si
0.5  9.8 g
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in   11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
35. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
(1) 5 times greater (2) 10 times greater
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
(3) Smaller (4) Equal sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
Answer ( 3 ) applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
1 eE 2
Sol. h  t (1) 25  (2) 250 
2 m
(3) 40  (4) 500 
2hm
 t
eE Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
NBA
proton. IS 
C
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
Voltage sensitivity
smaller time.
NBA
33. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a VS 
sufficiently high building and is moving freely CRG
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. So, resistance of galvanometer
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum IS 51 5000
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean RG   3
  250 
VS 20  10 20
position. The time period of oscillation is
36. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(1)  s (2) 2 s between the poles of an electromagnet. When
(3) 2 s (4) 1 s the current in the electromagnet is switched
Answer ( 1 ) on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
S o l . |a| = 2y rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
 20 = 2(5) work required to do this comes from
  = 2 rad/s (1) The magnetic field
2 2 (2) The lattice structure of the material of the
T  s
 2 rod
34. A metallic rod of mass per unit length (3) The current source
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
(4) The induced electric field due to the
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
changing magnetic field
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
slide down by flowing a current through it Answer ( 3 )
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
acting on it in the vertical direction. The into potential energy of the rod.
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
37. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
is
resistor 50  are connected in series across
(1) 5.98 A a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
(2) 14.76 A loss in the circuit is
(3) 7.14 A (1) 0.43 W (2) 2.74 W
(4) 11.32 A (3) 0.79 W (4) 1.13 W
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
10
2 S o l . Wire 1 :
⎛V ⎞
S o l . Pav  ⎜ RMS ⎟ R
⎝ Z ⎠ F
A, 3l
2
⎛ 1 ⎞ Wire 2 :
Z  R2  ⎜ L   56 
⎝ C ⎟⎠
F
3A, l
2
⎛ ⎞
10 ⎟
 Pav  ⎜  50  0.79 W
For wire 1,
⎝  
⎜ 2 56 ⎟
⎠ ⎛ F ⎞
38. The power radiated by a black body is P and l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i)
⎝ AY ⎠
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now For wire 2,
changed so that it radiates maximum energy
3 F l
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it Y
4 3A l
becomes nP. The value of n is
⎛ F ⎞
 l  ⎜ ⎟l …(ii)
4 256 ⎝ 3AY ⎠
(1) (2)
3 81
From equation (i) & (ii),
3 81 ⎛ F ⎞ ⎛ F ⎞
(3)
4
(4)
256 l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l  ⎜ ⎟l
⎝ AY ⎠ ⎝ 3AY ⎠
Answer ( 2 )
 F  9 F
S o l . We know,
40. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
max T  constant (Wien's law) viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
So, max1 T1  max2 T2 heat when the sphere attains its terminal
velocity, is proportional to
3 0 (1) r2 (2) r5
⇒ 0 T  T
4
(3) r3 (4) r4
4
⇒ T  T Answer ( 2 )
3
2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
4 4
P2 ⎛ T  ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256
So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81 VT  r 2
39. Two wires are made of the same material and ⇒ Power  r 5
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire 41. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
the first wire is increased by l on applying a 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
force F, how much force is needed to stretch 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
the socond wire by the same amount? 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
(1) 6 F
(1) 208.7 J
(2) 4 F
(2) 42.2 J
(3) 9 F (3) 104.3 J
(4) F (4) 84.5 J
11
S o l . Q = U + W S o l . Work done required to bring them rest

 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0) W = KE
 U = 208.7 J 1 2
W  I
42. A body initially at rest and sliding along a 2
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of W  I for same 
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2
h 2 1
B = : :1
5 2
A = 4 : 5 : 10
 WC > WB > WA
7
(1) D (2) D 44. A moving block having mass m, collides with
5 another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
3 5
(3) D (4) D When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
2 4 v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
Answer ( 4 ) (e) will be
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.8
Sol.
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
Answer ( 1 )
h
B S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
momentum,
vL
A mv  4m  0  4mv  0
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical v
energy will remain constant v 
4
T.M.EI = T.M.EF v
Relative velocity of separation 4
1 e 
0  mgh  mvL2  0 Relative velocity of approach v
2
1
v2 e  0.25
h L 4
2g 45. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
(1) Limiting value of static friction is directly
5gR 5 5 proportional to normal reaction.
h  R D (2) Frictional force opposes the relative
2g 2 4
motion.
43. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
(3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
friction.
have the same mass M and radius R. They all
spin with the same angular speed  about (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of dimensions of length.
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would Answer ( 4 )
satisfy the relation S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
(1) WA > WB > WC (2) WB > WA > WC dimension.
(3) WC > WB > WA (4) WA > WC > WB f
f = sN ⇒ s 
Answer ( 3 ) N
12
46. Match the metal ions given in Column I with 48. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given [CoCl2(en)2] is
in Column II and assign the correct code :
(1) Coordination isomerism
Column I Column II
(2) Ionization isomerism
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM (3) Geometrical isomerism
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM (4) Linkage isomerism

Answer ( 3 )
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry.
v. 15 BM
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) iv v ii i
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
(4) iii v i ii geometrical isomerism.
Answer ( 3 ) 49. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
Sol. Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) =4 transition and paramagnetism as well?
(1) Cr2O72–
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
(2) MnO4–
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) =3
(3) CrO42–
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM (4) MnO42–
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5 Answer ( 4 )

S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
47. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1

(1) Mononuclear (2) Trinuclear Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
(3) Tetranuclear (4) Dinuclear MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
Answer ( 1 ) Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms 50. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
present in a complex, they are classified complex [Ni(CO)4] are
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
(1) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
so on.
(2) Square planar geometry and
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
paramagnetic
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
(3) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Hence, option (1) should be the right
Answer ( 1 )
answer.
13
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2 52. The difference between amylose and

amylopectin is
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(1) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
Configuration would be : -linkage
3
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
sp -hybridisation 1  6 -linkage
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
×× ×× ×× ××
1 6 -linkage
CO CO CO CO (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
Answer ( 3 )
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
CO
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and 1  6 -linkages.
Ni
CO So option (3) should be the correct option.
OC
53. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
CO which of the following statements is
51. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic incorrect?
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved (1) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH monomers.
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
at STP will be
(3) They contain covalent bonds between
(1) 3.0 (2) 2.8 various linear polymer chains.
(3) 1.4 (4) 4.4 (4) They contain strong covalents bonds in
their polymer chains.
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
Conc.H2 SO4 S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1 from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
2.3 g or  mol  mol
 20  20 and contain strong covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
Conc.H2SO4 cross-linking.
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
mol mol So option (4) should be the correct option.
COOH 20 20
 1  54. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium

4.5 g or  mol 
 20  also gives m-nitroaniline because
(1) In electrophilic substitution reactions
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when amino group is meta directive.
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
(2) In absence of substituents nitro group
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
always goes to m-position.
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO (3) In spite of substituents nitro group always
is goes to only m-position.
2 (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is

 28  2.8 g present as anilinium ion.
20
Answer ( 4 )
So, the correct option is (2)
14
57. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points

NH2 NH3
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
H comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
Sol.
(1) Formation of carboxylate ion
Anilinium ion
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is (3) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
also formed in significant yield. (4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
55. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in Answer ( 4 )
nature?
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(1) BeO (2) BaO in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
(3) MgO (4) CaO boiling point increases and become more
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
Answer ( 1 ) and alcohols of comparable molecular
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO masses.
 58. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
Basic character increases. NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
smell.
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
oxides are basic. A and Y are respectively
56. In the reaction

(1) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
OH O–Na+
CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH (2)
CH – CH3 and I2
OH
The electrophile involved is
(3) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
(1) Formyl cation CHO  

CH3
(2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

 (4) CH3 OH and I2
(3) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

 Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
the following reaction CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
OH O
.–. Acetophenone
–
CCl3  H2 O
CHCl3  OH (A)
I2
.–. COONa + CHI3 NaOH
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3  Iodoform
Electrophile Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
15
59. The compound A on treatment with Na gives 62. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react reactions:
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
in the order C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa The product 'C' is

(2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH (1) o-bromotoluene
(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl (3) m-bromotoluene

(4) p-bromotoluene
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
(A) (B) CH3 CCl3 CCl3
PCl5 3Cl 2 Br2

Sol.  Fe
C2H5Cl Br
(C7H8) (A) (B)
(C)
Zn HCl
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C) CH3
So the correct option is (4)

60. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common Br
(C)
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity?
So, the correct option is (3)
(1) NO2
63. Which of the following carbocations is
(2) N2O expected to be most stable?
(3) N2O5
NO2
(4) NO NO2
Answer ( 3 ) 
S o l . Fact (1) (2) H
61. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by Y 

Y H
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
NO2
NO2
atoms. (A) is
H 
(1) CH2  CH2 (2) CH3 – CH3
(3) (4) Y

(3) CH  CH (4) CH4
Y H
Answer ( 4 )
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br Answer ( 2 )
(A) Na/dry ether S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
Wurtz reaction with increase in distance. In option (2)
positive charge present on C-atom at
CH3 — CH3
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
Hence the correct option is (4) is minimum and stability is maximum.
16
64. Which of the following is correct with respect Answer ( 4 )
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
Cl
(1) – NR2 < – OR < – F
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2
(2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
Cl Cl
(3) – NH2 < – OR < – F
+ 1, 2–H + –
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
Answer ( 3 * ) (Incipient carbocation)
Cl
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of –
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F. AlCl3
*Most appropriate Answer is option (3), Now,
however option (1) may also be correct answer. CH3
65. Which of the following molecules represents
CH – CH3
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(1) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(P)
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
CH3
(3) HC  C – C  CH
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O
+
H /H2O
Answer ( 1 )
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
sp2 sp2 sp sp Rearrangement
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH (R) (Q)
Number of orbital require in hybridization 67. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion?
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
atom. (1) Acetanilide (2) Benzoic acid
66. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the (3) Aniline (4) Glycine
following sequence of reactions: Answer ( 4 )
Anhydrous
AlCl3  
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
(Zwitterion form)
(i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
P Q R H2N – CH2 – COO

CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
68. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(1) different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
, ,
different concentrations :
CH(CH3)2 OH M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
(2) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3 10 10
M M
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
(3) , , CH3CH2 – OH M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
OH
CH(CH3)2
M M
(4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3 d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
17
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? 71. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(1) a (2) d
(Ksp) will be
(3) b (4) c (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
Answer ( 4 ) (1) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
1 (2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15 (3) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
5
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5 Answer ( 3 )
5
2.42  103
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10 S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
10 1 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
=  BaSO 4 (s)
100 10 s s
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
 1
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0 = (1.04 × 10–5)2
 10  = 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
69. On which of the following properties does the 72. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
coagulating power of an ion depend? XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
(1) Size of the ion alone
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on (1) 100 kJ mol–1 (2) 800 kJ mol–1
the ion (3) 200 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion Answer ( 2 )
alone S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone 1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
Answer ( 2 ) 2 2
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using X
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
an electrolyte depends on the charge 2
present (positive or negative) on colloidal respectively
X X
particles as well as on its size.  H      X  200
2 4
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
On solving, we get
depends on the magnitude of charge
present on effective ion of electrolyte. X X
   200
2 4
70. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and  X = 800 kJ/mole
3.59, which one of the following gases is most 73. When initial concentration of the reactant is
easily liquefied? doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
(1) H2 (1) Is doubled
(2) O2 (2) Is tripled
(3) NH3 (3) Is halved
(4) Remains unchanged
(4) CO2
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Half life of zero order
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies [A0 ]
t 1/2 
intermolecular forces of attraction. 2K
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
the liquefaction of gas. concentration.
18
74. For the redox reaction Answer ( 4 )
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O  2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
The correct coefficients of the reactants for  V2 

the balanced equation are van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction.
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
77. The correct order of N-compounds in its
(1) 2 5 16 decreasing order of oxidation states is
(2) 2 16 5 (1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(3) 16 5 2 (2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(4) 5 16 2
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
Answer (1)
Answer ( 3 )
Reduction 5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
+7 +3 +4 3 4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O Hence, the correct option is (3).
Oxidation 78. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion?

n-factor of MnO4  5 (1) Al (2) B
(3) Ga (4) In
n-factor of C2 O24  2 Answer ( 2 )
 S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2 shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5 4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
 The balanced equation is BF63(–).
Hence, the correct option is (2).
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
79. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
75. Which one of the following conditions will
following metals can be used to reduce
favour maximum formation of the product in alumina?
the reaction,
(1) Zn (2) Mg
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) (3) Fe (4) Cu
(1) Low temperature and low pressure Answer ( 2 )
(2) High temperature and high pressure S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'
(3) Low temperature and high pressure can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
correct option.
(4) High temperature and low pressure
80. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
Answer (3) elements is
X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) (1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a (2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
direction where pressure decreases i.e. (3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
forward direction. (4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts Answer ( 4 )
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction. Sol.
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. Elements B Ga Al In Tl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
76. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
equation corresponds to 81. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens?
(1) Volume of the gas molecules
(1) All are oxidizing agents
(2) Electric field present between the gas
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
molecules
states
(3) Density of the gas molecules (3) All form monobasic oxyacids
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
molecules enthalpy
19
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size, S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as group metallic character of metals increases
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
HOF.
Hence the option (3) should be correct option.
82. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is 85. In which case is number of molecules of
water maximum?
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) One (4) Three (1) 0.18 g of water
Answer ( 1 ) (2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
  (3) 18 mL of water
 
 
F (4) 10–3 mol of water

  Answer ( 3 )
 
F Cl
  0.18
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
 
 
F = 10–2 NA
 
The number of lone pair of electrons on 0.00224
central Cl is 2. (2) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
83. The correct difference between first and
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
second order reactions is that
(3) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(1) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a 18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
second-order reaction does depend on 18
[A]0
= NA
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
second-order reaction cannot be
catalyzed 86. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does not Bromine corresponding to different emf values
depend on reactant concentrations; the as shown in the diagram below :
rate of a second-order reaction does – 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
depend on reactant concentrations
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does –
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does not Then the species undergoing
depend on reactant concentrations disproportionation is
Answer ( 1 ) (1) BrO4 (2) Br2
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2 

0.693
, (3) BrO3 (4) HBrO
k
which is independent of initial Answer ( 4 )
concentration of reactant. 1 0
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  , 5
k[A0 ] 1
which depends on initial concentration of  BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO
reactant.
o
84. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
character is
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
(1) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 2 BrO3 /HBrO
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 = 1.595 – 1.5
(3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 = 0.095 V = + ve
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
20
87. Consider the following species : 89. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
CN+, CN–, NO and CN temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
Which one of these will have the highest bond
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
order?
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
(1) CN– (2) CN+ constant with temperature) is
(3) NO (4) CN
Answer ( 1 ) 4 3
(1)
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 , 3 2
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
10  5 3 3
BO =  2.5 (2)
2 4 2
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
3
10  4 (3)
BO = 3 2
2
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
1
= (2py)2,(2pz)1 (4)
2
9 4
BO =  2.5 Answer ( 2 )
2
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 4r
= (2py)2 S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3
8 4
BO = 2 For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
2
Hence, option(1) should be the right answer.
88. Which one is a wrong statement?  ZM 
(1) An orbital is designated by three quantum  N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
numbers while an electron in an atom is  
designated by four quantum numbers d900C  ZM 
 N a3 
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is  A  FCC
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
3
2  2 2 r 3 3
 
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of 4  4r   4 2 
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero  
 3 
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
Answer ( 2 ) 90. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum an ionic compound. If the ground state
multiplicity, the correct electronic electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
configuration of N-atom is the simplest formula for this compound is
(1) MgX2 (2) Mg2X
(3) Mg2X3 (4) Mg3X2
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p Answer ( 4 )
OR S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration

1s2 2s2 2p3
So, valency of X will be 3.
2 2 3 Valency of Mg is 2.
1s 2s 2p
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
 Option (2) violates Hund's Rule. be Mg3X2.
21
91. Pollen grains can be stored for several years 96. In which of the following forms is iron
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of absorbed by plants?
(1) –80°C (2) –196°C (1) Ferrous
(3) –120°C (4) –160°C (2) Free element
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Ferric
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C (4) Both ferric and ferrous
(Cryopreservation) Answer ( 3 * )
92. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
by ions. (According to NCERT)
(1) Nostoc
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
(2) Cycas Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
(3) Green sulphur bacteria 97. Double fertilization is
(4) Chara
(1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
Answer ( 3 ) nuclei
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
O2. (3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
tube with two different eggs
93. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
respiration? (4) Syngamy and triple fusion
(1) It functions as an electron carrier. Answer ( 4 )
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
(3) It functions as an enzyme. that occur in angiosperms only.
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
anaerobic respiration.
98. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
Answer ( 1 )
foreign company, though such varieties have
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron been present in India for a long time. This is
carrier. related to
94. Which of the following elements is responsible (1) Sharbati Sonora
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(2) Lerma Rojo
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium (3) Co-667
(3) Magnesium (4) Basmati

(4) Calcium Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
cells. and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
95. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth, The diversity of rice in India is one of the
where none of the two can complete its life richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
cycle without the other? of Basmati are grown in India.
(1) Yucca (2) Banana Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
(3) Hydrilla (4) Viola varieties and claimed as an invention or a
Answer ( 1 ) novelty.
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
species of moth i.e. Pronuba. of wheat.
22
99. In India, the organisation responsible for 102. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
assessing the safety of introducing Chain Reaction (PCR) is
genetically modified organisms for public use (1) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
is
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
Research (CSIR)
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM) Answer ( 4 )
(3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
Each cycle has three steps
(GEAC)
(i) Denaturation
Answer ( 4 )
(ii) Primer annealing
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal (iii) Extension of primer
Committee) which will make decisions 103. Select the correct match
regarding the validity of GM research and (1) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
(2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
services. (Direct from NCERT).
(3) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
100. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in (4) G. Mendel - Transformation
human lymphocytes? Answer ( 3 )
(1) Ti plasmid (2)  phage S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
acid.
(3) Retrovirus (4) pBR 322
104. Niche is
Answer ( 3 )
(1) the physical space where an organism
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
lives
introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte. (2) the range of temperature that the
organism needs to live
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
(3) all the biological factors in the organism's
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
a functional gene is introduced by using a environment
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte. (4) the functional role played by the organism
where it lives
101. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without Answer ( 4 )
authorisation from the concerned country and S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
its people is called refers the functional role played by the
(1) Biopiracy organism where it lives.
(2) Biodegradation 105. Which of the following is a secondary

pollutant?
(3) Bio-infringement
(1) CO2 (2) SO2
(4) Bioexploitation
(3) CO (4) O3
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
of bioresources by multinational companies formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
and other organisation without proper
CO – Quantitative pollutant
authorisation from the countries and people
concerned with compensatory payment CO2 – Primary pollutant
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). SO2 – Primary pollutant
23
106. Natality refers to Answer ( 1 )

(1) Birth rate S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
method converting into oxygen
(3) Death rate
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
ozone layer depletion
Answer ( 1 )
110. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
matched?
• Death rate – Mortality
(1) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
• Number of individual – Immigration
entering a habitat is (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
• Number of individual – Emigration determination
leaving the habital (3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
107. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(1) 21st April (2) 16th September
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 5th June (4) 22nd April
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
Answer (2) pleiotropic gene.
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
September.
matched.
5th June - World Environment Day
111. Select the correct statement
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
(1) Punnett square was developed by a British
22nd April - National Earth Day scientist
108. What type of ecological pyramid would be
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation
obtained with the following data?
(3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g (4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Primary producer : 10 g Answer ( 1 )

(1) Pyramid of energy S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative

mode of replication.
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
Answer ( 3 )
and Laderberg.
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
aquatic ecosystem. transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
• Pyramid of energy is always upright 112. The experimental proof for semiconservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
are not possible, as the data depicts (1) Bacterium
primary producer is less than primary (2) Plant
consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers. (3) Fungus
109. In stratosphere, which of the following (4) Virus

elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of Answer ( 1 )
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
(1) Cl (2) Fe shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
(3) Carbon (4) Oxygen Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
24
113. Select the correct match 116. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(1) Alfred Hershey and - TMV preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Cellulosic intine (2) Oil content
Martha Chase
(3) Pollenkitt (4) Sporopollenin
(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
Answer ( 4 )
and F. Stahl
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
(3) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
pneumoniae helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Jacques Monod Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
pollen grain known as intine made up
Answer ( 4 )
cellulose & pectin.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
model of gene regulation known as operon
model/lac operon. 117. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
are produced by
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
(1) Vascular cambium
technique.
(2) Phellogen
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. (3) Apical meristems
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – (4) Axillary meristems

Proved DNA as genetic material not Answer ( 1 )
protein Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
114. Offsets are produced by • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
(1) Mitotic divisions (2) Parthenocarpy and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(3) Meiotic divisions (4) Parthenogenesis • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is

produced than secondary phloem.
Answer ( 1 )
118. Plants having little or no secondary growth
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed are
by mitosis.
(1) Deciduous angiosperms
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
(2) Conifers
cells.
(3) Grasses
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of
embryo from ovum or egg without (4) Cycads
fertilisation. Answer (3)
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
fertilisation, (generally seedless) do not have secondary growth.
115. Which of the following flowers only once in its Palm like monocots have anomalous
life-time? secondary growth.
(1) Jackfruit (2) Mango 119. Sweet potato is a modified
(3) Bamboo species (4) Papaya (1) Adventitious root (2) Tap root
(3) Stem (4) Rhizome
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
generally only once in its life-time after 50- S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
100 years. for storage of food
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic • Rhizomes are underground modified stem
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
their life-time. from the redicle
25
120. Pneumatophores occur in 124. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Free-floating hydrophytes
given below:
(2) Carnivorous plants
Column I Column II
(3) Halophytes
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
(4) Submerged hydrophytes collection of preserved
Answer (3) plants and animals
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
pneumatophores. methodically all the
species found in an area
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots with brief description
having lenticels called pneumathodes to aiding identification
uptake O2.
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
121. Casparian strips occur in and pressed plant
(1) Pericycle specimens mounted on
sheets are kept
(2) Cortex
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
(3) Epidermis
list of characters and
(4) Endodermis their alternates which
Answer ( 4 ) are helpful in
identification of various
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial taxa.
and inner tangential wall.
a b c d
• It is suberin rich.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
122. Which of the following statements is correct?
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Salvinia is homosporous
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
specimen
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus • Key – Identification of various
taxa
Answer ( 3 )
• Museum – Plant and animal
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. specimen are preserved
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary • Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
123. Select the wrong statement : species
(1) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes 125. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
are produced exogenously in
(2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans (1) Alternaria
(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi (2) Agaricus

and Plantae (3) Neurospora
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the (4) Saccharomyces
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in basidiospores or meiospores are
sarcodines (Amoeboid) produced exogenously.
26
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) Answer ( 1 )

produces ascospores as meiospores but S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
endogenously inside the ascus.) reaction, while NADH is a product of
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) respiration process.
does not produce sexual spores. 130. Which among the following is not a
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular prokaryote?
ascomycetes) produces ascospores, (1) Mycobacterium (2) Nostoc
endogenously. (3) Saccharomyces (4) Oscillatoria
126. Winged pollen grains are present in Answer ( 3 )
(1) Cycas (2) Mango S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
(3) Mustard (4) Pinus (unicellular fungi)
Answer (4) Mycobacterium – a bacterium

Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to 131. Stomatal movement is not affected by
form the wings of pollen. It is the (1) Light (2) O2 concentration
characteristic feature, only in Pinus. (3) Temperature (4) CO2 concentration
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are Answer ( 2 )
not winged shaped.
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
127. Which one is wrongly matched? affect opening and closing of stomata while
(1) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae they are not affected by O2 concentration.
132. The Golgi complex participates in
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(1) Formation of secretory vesicles
(3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Respiration in bacteria
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(3) Fatty acid breakdown
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Activation of amino acid
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, Answer ( 1 )
where asexual spores and gametes are
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
non-motile or non-flagellated.
secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
• Other options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly
133. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
matched
(1) It is a membrane-bound structure
128. The two functional groups characteristic of
(2) It takes part in spindle formation
sugars are
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
(1) Carbonyl and methyl
cells
(2) Carbonyl and phosphate
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(3) Hydroxyl and methyl synthesis
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
carbohydrate. 134. The stage during which separation of the
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
ketone or their derivatives, which means they (1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups. (3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
129. Which of the following is not a product of light Answer ( 1 )
reaction of photosynthesis?
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
(1) NADH (2) NADPH Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
(3) ATP (4) Oxygen chiasmata start to shift towards end.
27
135. Stomata in grass leaf are

139. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Kidney shaped (2) Rectangular
(1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(3) Dumb-bell shaped (4) Barrel shaped
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped
Answer ( 3 )
chromosomes chromosomes
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
shaped stomata in their leaves. (3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
136. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of chromosomes

(1) DNA and RNA (4) Polytene – Oocytes of
(2) Nucleic acids and SER chromosomes amphibians
(3) Proteins and lipids Answer ( 4 )

(4) Free ribosomes and RER S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
glands of insects of order Diptera.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and 140. Which of the following events does not occur
even extend into the dendrite but absent in in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
axon and rest of the neuron. (1) Protein glycosylation
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
(3) Protein folding
protein synthesis.
(4) Phospholipid synthesis
137. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(1) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol Answer ( 4 )
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
supplied with NAD that can pick up RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
hydrogen atoms involved in lipid synthesis.
(3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in 141. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mitochondrial matrix mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
outer mitochondrial membrane termed as
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Polyhedral bodies

S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner (2) Plastidome
mitochondrial membrane. (3) Polysome
138. Which of the following terms describe human (4) Nucleosome
dentition?
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont ergasomes.
Answer ( 1 ) 142. All of the following are part of an operon
S o l . In humans, dentition is except
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the (1) structural genes
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli. (2) an enhancer
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice, (3) an operator
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
(4) a promoter
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
teeth. Answer ( 2 )
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
of different types of teeth namely incisors, eukaryotes.
canine, premolars and molars. • Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
28
143. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of a b c

her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(1) i iii ii
inherited by
(1) Only sons (2) ii iii i
(2) Only grandchildren (3) iii ii i

(3) Only daughters (4) iii i ii
(4) Both sons and daughters Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
Sol. • Woman is a carrier developing, hence, called follicular phase.
• Both son & daughter inherit Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
X–chromosome mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
• Although only son be the diseased by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
the endometrium maintained by
144. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
progesterone.
of evolution is
(1) Saltation Menstruation occurs due to decline in
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
(2) Phenotypic variations overgrown endometrial lining.
(3) Multiple step mutations
147. Which one of the following population
(4) Minor mutations interactions is widely used in medical science
Answer ( 1 ) for the production of antibiotics?
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de (1) Mutualism

Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
(2) Parasitism
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
saltation. (3) Commensalism
145. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding (4) Amensalism
strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed Answer ( 4 )
mRNA? S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(1) UGGTUTCGCAT  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU harm other microbes (eg :
Staphylococcus)
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the
Answer ( 3 )
organism which produces it.
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by 148. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. conservation’ except
146. Match the items given in Column I with those (1) Sacred groves
in Column II and select the correct option (2) Botanical gardens
given below :
(3) Wildlife safari parks
Column I Column II
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (4) Seed banks
endometrial Answer ( 1 )
lining Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.

b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase  Represent pristine forest patch as
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase protected by Tribal groups.
29
149. Match the items given in Column I with those 152. Among the following sets of examples for
in Column II and select the correct option divergent evolution, select the incorrect
given below : option :
Column-I Column-II (1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient Answer ( 4 )
enrichment
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
a b c d vertebrates which have developed along
different directions due to adaptation to
(1) i iii iv ii different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
(2) iii iv i ii and man are examples of analogous organs
showing convergent evolution.
(3) ii i iii iv
153. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
(4) i ii iv iii disease?
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient (2) Alzheimer's disease
enrichment (3) Psoriasis
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal (4) Vitiligo
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Answer ( 2 )

S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
disorder in which antibodies are produced
150. In a growing population of a country, against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
(1) reproductive individuals are less than the Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
post-reproductive individuals. characterised as autoimmune disorder.
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
individuals are equal in number.
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are more due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
than the reproductive individuals. acetylcholine.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than 154. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
the reproductive individuals. pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels?
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Ascariasis (2) Ringworm disease
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
(3) Elephantiasis (4) Amoebiasis
the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an Answer ( 3 )
increasing population. S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
151. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
Culex mosquito.
the drug “Smack”?
155. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
(1) Latex (2) Roots nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(3) Flowers (4) Leaves (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B12
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is Answer ( 2 )

formed by acetylation of morphine. It is Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of  It has enriched presence of vitamins
Poppy plant. specially Vit-B12.
30
156. The similarity of bone structure in the 159. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example (1) increases the concentration of estrogen
of and prevents ovulation in females.
(1) Analogy (2) is an IUD.
(2) Convergent evolution (3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
(3) Homology preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(4) Adaptive radiation (4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in pill. It contains centchroman and its
different way as per their adaptation, hence functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
example of homology. Receptor modulation.
157. Which of the following characteristics 160. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in from
humans? (1) endoderm and mesoderm
a. Dominance (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
b. Co-dominance (3) ectoderm and mesoderm
c. Multiple allele (4) ectoderm and endoderm
d. Incomplete dominance Answer ( 3 )
e. Polygenic inheritance S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
(1) a, b and c (2) b, d and e amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
Answer ( 1 )
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
relationship
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
 IAIB - Codominance endoderm in inner side.
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic 161. The difference between spermiogenesis and
forms of a gene spermiation is
(multiple allelism)
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
158. Hormones secreted by the placenta to formed, while in spermiation spermatids
maintain pregnancy are are formed.
(1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids (3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
Answer ( 2 )
formed.
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
are released from sertoli cells into the
pregnancy to release estrogen and
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental Answer ( 4 )
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by spermiation is the release of the sperms from
increasing uterine threshold to contractile sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
stimuli. tubule.
31
162. Which of the following is an amino acid Answer ( 2 )

derived hormone? S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
(1) Ecdysone (2) Estradiol and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
(3) Epinephrine (4) Estriol osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes
Answer ( 3 )
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino Excessive activity of parathormone causes
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
catecholamine.
166. Which of the following options correctly
163. Which of the following structures or regions is represents the lung conditions in asthma and
incorrectly paired with its functions? emphysema, respectively?
(1) Limbic system : consists of fibre (1) Increased number of bronchioles;
tracts that Increased respiratory surface
interconnect
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
different regions of
Inflammation of bronchioles
brain; controls
movement. (3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
releasing hormones
Inflammation of bronchioles
and regulation of
temperature, Answer ( 3 )
hunger and thirst. S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
and cardiovascular bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
reflexes. in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased.
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and 167. Match the items given in Column I with those
right cerebral in Column II and select the correct option
hemispheres. given below :
Answer ( 1 ) Column I Column II
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
all emotions in our body but not movements. and left ventricle
164. The transparent lens in the human eye is held b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
in its place by ventricle and
pulmonary artery
(1) ligaments attached to the iris
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
atrium and right
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body ventricle
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary a b c
body
(1) i iii ii
Answer ( 3 ) (2) i ii iii
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by (3) iii i ii
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
(4) ii i iii
body.
Answer ( 3 )
165. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis? S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
between right atrium and right ventricle.
(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin are present at the openings of aortic and
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin pulmonary aorta.
32
168. Match the items given in Column I with those 170. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option in Column II and select the correct option
given below: given below :
Column I Column II Column I Column II
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
volume c. Albumin (iii) Defence

mechanism
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
a b c
volume
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
a b c d
(3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) iii i iv ii
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) i iv ii iii
Answer ( 4 )
(3) iii ii i iv
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
(4) iv iii ii i coagulation. These strands forms a network
Answer ( 1 ) and the meshes of which are occupied by
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
expired during normal respiration. It is Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve of plasma proteins which means globulins are
volume is additional volume of air a person involved in defence mechanisms.
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve responsible for BCOP.
volume is additional volume of air a person
171. Which of the following is an occupational
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
respiratory disorder?
averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
(1) Silicosis
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
lungs even after forceful expiration. This (2) Botulism
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. (3) Anthracis
169. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly (4) Emphysema
help in erythropoiesis?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Mucous cells
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
(2) Goblet cells dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
(3) Chief cells breaking industries.
(4) Parietal cells Long exposure can give rise to inflammation

leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
Answer ( 4 ) lung damage.
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
be absorbed easily and used during chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
erythropoiesis. damaged due to which respiratory surface is
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption decreased.
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
pernicious anaemia. by Clostridium botulinum.
33
172. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
contraction because it phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
(1) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to kidney.
it. Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
(2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin condition of glomerulus characterised by
filament. proteinuria and haematuria.
174. Match the items given in Column I with those
(3) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
in Column II and select the correct option
of active sites on actin for myosin.
given below:
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
Column I Column II
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
filament. (Function) (Part of Excretory
system)
Answer ( 3 )
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
many folds in the sarcoplasm. b. Concentration ii. Ureter
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin of urine

(troponin "C") which is masking the active c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
site on actin filament and displaces the urine
sub-unit of troponin.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
 Once the active site is exposed, head of
urine corpuscle
the myosin attaches and initiate
contraction by sliding the actin over v. Proximal
myosin. convoluted tubule
173. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d
in Column II and select the correct option (1) iv i ii iii
given below :
(2) v iv i ii
Column I Column II
(3) iv v ii iii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(4) v iv i iii
uric acid in joints
Answer ( 1 )
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
kidney particles having molecular weight less than
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
Concentration of urine refers to water
glomeruli
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
nephritis glucose in urine counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
a b c d Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
(1) i ii iii iv through ureter.
(2) ii iii i iv Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
urine.
(3) iii ii iv i
175. Which of the following features is used to
(4) iv i ii iii
identify a male cockroach from a female
Answer ( 4 ) cockroach?
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the (1) Presence of caudal styles
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose. (3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals 9th abdominal segment
in the joint. (4) Presence of anal cerci
34
Answer ( 1 ) 178. Which of the following organisms are known

S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal as chief producers in the oceans?
styles which are absent in females. (1) Diatoms (2) Cyanobacteria
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
segment in male cockroach.
Answer ( 1 )
176. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system 179. Which of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Reptilia (2) Aves
(1) Tunicate (2) Moth
(3) Amphibia (4) Osteichthyes
(3) Earthworm (4) Starfish
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
chambers in their digestive system as crop S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
and Gizzard. larva into adult.
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains. Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
to have indirect development.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
crush food grain. In earthworm development is direct which
177. Which one of these animals is not a means no larval stage and hence no
homeotherm? metamorphosis.
(1) Chelone 180. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(2) Camelus (1) having a contractile vacuole for removing

excess water
(3) Macropus
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(4) Psittacula
(3) using flagella for locomotion
Answer ( 1 )
(4) having two types of nuclei
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
constant body temperature, irrespective of Answer ( 4 )
surrounding temperature. S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
Birds and mammals are homeotherm. having two types of nuclei.
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood. macronucleus & micronucleus.

35

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

B (2) Rotational kinetic energy

Answer ( 1 ) Sol. N cos

dW  P dV = n RdT 12. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

Answer ( 3 ) 15. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of

⎛ 273 ⎞ (1) (2)

(1) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver Answer ( 3 )

(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold So, I is independent of n and I is constant.

(3) 10 (4) 9 (1) +z direction

Answer ( 3 ) (2) –y direction

17. The refractive index of the material of a Sol.

Applying Snell's law at M, So, image shifts away from mirror by

(2) 30 cm towards the mirror 25  2  106  10–3

20 = IB × 500 × 103 (1) 339 m/s

20 (2) 350 m/s

32. An electron falls from rest through a vertical S o l . For equilibrium, °

S o l . Q = U + W S o l . Work done required to bring them rest

b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM (4) Linkage isomerism

Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5 Answer ( 4 )

47. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1

S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2 52. The difference between amylose and

 1  54. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium

2 (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is

57. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points

56. In the reaction

(2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

(3) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

(1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa The product 'C' is

(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl (3) m-bromotoluene

PCl5 3Cl 2 Br2

So the correct option is (4)

S o l . Fact (1) (2) H

61. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by Y 

P Q R H2N – CH2 – COO

F (4) 10–3 mol of water

Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2 

OR S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration

(3) Magnesium (4) Basmati

(2) Biodegradation 105. Which of the following is a secondary

106. Natality refers to Answer ( 1 )

Primary producer : 10 g Answer ( 1 )

(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative

109. In stratosphere, which of the following (4) Virus

– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – (4) Axillary meristems

(3) Meiotic divisions (4) Parthenogenesis • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is

(1) Jackfruit (2) Mango 119. Sweet potato is a modified

(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi (2) Agaricus

 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) Answer ( 1 )

Answer (4) Mycobacterium – a bacterium

135. Stomata in grass leaf are

136. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of chromosomes

(3) Proteins and lipids Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 4 ) (1) Polyhedral bodies

143. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of a b c

(2) Only grandchildren (3) iii ii i