SAT-3
Æ˙…π]≈ı“™… |… i…¶…… J……‰V… {…Æ˙“I…… ( |…l…®… ∫i…Æ˙ )
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION ( FIRST LEVEL ) 2014
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
( For Students of Class X )
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 90
( For Blind Candidates Time : 2 Hours )
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully
before you open the question booklet.
1. Answers are to be given on a separate
answer sheet (OMR sheet).
2. Write your Roll Number as allotted to you in
the admission card very clearly on the test-
booklet and darken the appropriate circles
on the answer sheet as per instructions
given.
3. There are 90 questions in this test. All are
compulsory. The question numbers 1 to
35 belong to Sciences. 36 to 55 to
Mathematics and 56 to 90 are on Social
Science subjects.
4. Please follow the instructions given on the
answer sheet for marking the answers.
5. If you do not know the answer to any
question, do not waste time on it and pass
on to the next one. Time permitting, you can
come back to the questions, which you have
left in the first instance and attempt them.
6. Since the time allotted for this question
paper is very limited, you should make the
best use of it by not spending too much time
on any one question.
7. Rough work can be done on the given
Blank Pages at the back of the booklet
but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
8. Every correct answer will be awarded one
mark. There will be no negative marking.
9. Please return the Answer sheet (OMR
Sheet) only to the invigilator after the
test.
10. Hindi version of the question paper will be
considered as final in case of any dispute
arising out of variation in translated version.
PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START
YOUR WORK.
BSER 2014
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the BSER and no part of it should be used by
anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the BSER. The items are prepared
on best effort basis. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by BSER will be final.
NTSE(I)/14 – SAT
NTSE(I)/14
2014
Roll No.   Æ˙…‰±… x…®§…Æ˙
Booklet Number         {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ∫…ΔJ™……
∂…Ë I…EÚ ™……‰M™…i…… {…Æ˙“I……
( EÚI…… X E‰Ú  ¥…t…Ãl…™……Â E‰Ú  ±…B )
∫…®…™… : 90  ®…x…]ı {…⁄h……»EÚ : 90
( o˘Œπ]ıΩ˛“x… +¶™…Ãl…™…… E‰Ú  ±…B ∫…®…™… : 2 P…Δ]‰ı )
{…Æ˙“I……Ãl…™…… E‰Ú  ±…B  x…nÊ˘∂…
|…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… J……‰±…x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰  x…®x…  x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ v™……x… ∫…‰
{… g¯B*
1. =k…Æ˙ BEÚ +±…M… =k…Æ˙ {…j…EÚ (+…‰0 B®…0 +…Æ˙0 ∂…“]ı)
®… n‰˘x…‰ ΩÈ˛*
2. EfiÚ{…™…… +{…x…… Æ˙…‰±… x…®§…Æ˙ V…Ë∫……  EÚ +…{…E‰Ú |…¥…‰∂… {…j… {…Æ˙
 n˘™…… M…™…… Ω˲,  x…nÊ˘∂……x…÷∫……Æ˙ ]‰ı∫]ı {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… +…ËÆ˙ =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ
{…Æ˙ §…Ω÷˛i… ∫{…π]ı  ±… J…™…‰ +…ËÆ˙  n˘™…‰ M…™…‰ M……‰±…… EÚ…‰ EÚ…±……
EÚÆÂ˙*
3. <∫… {…Æ˙“I…… ®… 90 |…∂x… ΩÈ˛* ∫…¶…“ |…∂x… + x…¥……™…« ΩÈ˛* |…∂x…
∫…ΔJ™…… 1 ∫…‰ 35  ¥…Y……x…, 36 ∫…‰ 55 M… h…i… +…ËÆ˙ 56 ∫…‰
90 ∫……®…… V…EÚ  ¥…Y……x…  ¥…π…™…… {…Æ˙ +…v…… Æ˙i… ΩÈ˛*
4. EfiÚ{…™…… =k…Æ˙  S…Ì»i… EÚÆ˙x…‰ E‰Ú  ±…B =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ {…Æ˙  n˘™…‰ M…™…‰
 x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ v™……x… ∫…‰ ∫…®…Z… EÚÆ˙ =x…EÚ“ +x…÷{……±…x…… EÚ“ V…B*
5. ™… n˘ +…{…  EÚ∫…“ |…∂x… EÚ… =k…Æ˙ x…Ω˛” V……x…i…‰ ΩÈ˛ i……‰ =∫… {…Æ˙
§…Ω÷˛i… ∫…®…™… x… M…Δ¥……<™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ +M…±…‰ |…∂x… {…Æ˙ §…g¯ V……<™…‰*
™… n˘ §……n˘ ®… ∫…®…™…  ®…±…‰ i……‰  V…x… |…∂x…… EÚ…‰ +…{…x…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰
UÙ…‰c˜  n˘™…… l……, =x… {…Æ˙ ¥……{…∫… +…EÚÆ˙ =x…E‰Ú =k…Æ˙ n˘“ V…B*
6. C™…… EÚ <∫… |…∂x… {…j… E‰Ú  ±…B  x…v……« Æ˙i… ∫…®…™… §…Ω÷˛i… ∫…“ ®…i…
Ω˲, <∫… ±…B <∫…EÚ… + v…EÚi…®… ={…™……‰M… EÚ“ V…™…‰ +…ËÆ˙  EÚ∫…“
|…∂x… {…Æ˙ §…Ω÷˛i… ∫…®…™… x… ±…M……<™…‰*
7. Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú +Δi… ®…  n˘B M…B  Æ˙HÚ {…fiπ`ˆ… {…Æ˙
 EÚ™…… V…… ∫…EÚi…… Ω˲  EÚxi…÷ =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ/+±…M… EÚ…M…V…
{…Æ˙ x…Ω˛”*
8. |…i™…‰EÚ ∫…Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙ EÚ… BEÚ +ΔEÚ |…n˘…x…  EÚ™…… V……BM……* <∫…®…Â
@Òh……i®…EÚ +ΔEÚx… x…Ω˛” Ω˛…‰M……*
9. EfiÚ{…™…… {…Æ˙“I…… E‰Ú §……n˘ E‰Ú¥…±… =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ (+…‰0 B®…0
+…Æ˙0 ∂…“]ı) Ω˛“  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ…‰ ±……Ë]ı…<B*
10. +x…÷¥…… n˘i…  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… ®… +xi…Æ˙ ∫…‰ =`‰ˆ  EÚ∫…“ ¶…“  ¥…¥……n˘ EÚ“
Œ∫l… i… ®… |…∂x…-{…j… E‰Ú  Ω˛xn˘“  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… EÚ…‰  x…h……«™…EÚ ®……x……
V……BM……*
EfiÚ{…™…… {…fiπ`ˆ {…±… ]ı™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ +{…x…… EÚ…™…« +…Æ˙®¶… EÚ“ V…B*
SAT-3 (2)

NTSE(I)/14 – SAT
 *mi-*
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
PTFT-W*F~OT?T % lWhTFTm*aiT% I
THERE ARE 90 QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER.
EACH QUESTION CARRIES ONE MARK.

The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding
from a solid surface is represented by

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

 The gravitational force between two objects of mass 1 kg each, separated by a
distance of 1 m in vacuum will be

(1) zero (2) 6.675 x 10 - '' N

The force F is acting on a n object of mass m. The direction of displacement

( 7) and force ( 8 ) of the object is shown by an arrow to the right side. Work
done by the force will be

(1) positive (2) negative

(3) zero (4) either positive or negative.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 The value of current I and voltage V in the given circuit will be
2 52
0

12v
+
--
--
I

2R
T
v
-

1
0
2R

Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(1) momentum (2) charge

(3) angular momentum (4) energy.

NTSE(I)/ 14 - S A T
 For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the
source of sound must be ( Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s )

Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of V voltage together

dissipates 5 W power. If the same resistors are connected in parallel across the
same source of voltage V. the power dissipated will be

Every hot object emits

(1) infrared rays (2) visible rays

(3) X-rays (4) ultraviolet rays.

NTSE(I)/14 - SAT
 A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 160 ms - strikes
a stationary wooden block and comes to rest in 0.02 s. The distance of
penetration of the bullet into the block will be

(1) 1.20 m (2) 1.60m

(3) 2.00 m (4) 2.40m.

10. h $ ' i % y u, v a~ r 3 ; f m d ~
( ~ ~ ) ~ 3 ~
2uv UV
(1) r = -
u- u (2) r = 2 ( u - v )
1 1 1 .1
(3) r = -
U + V
(4) 7 = -U+ - u

The correct relation between u. v and r for a lens will be

( symbols represent traditional meaning )

When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force that acts on the body
will be

(1) vertically downwards (2) vertically upwards

(3) horizontally right side (4) horizontally left side.

NTSE(I)/ 1 4 - SAT
 The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece of a n astronomical

telescope will be

13. ~ ~ ~ ~ f ? F l T ~ ~

(1) NaCl (2) NH ,C1

Salt made of non-metallic elements only is

(1) NaCl (2) NH ,C1

By which property are gases and liquids different from solids ?

(1) Volume (2) Mass

(3) Conductivity (4) Fluidity.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 (9

15. ~ * ~ ~ ~ * T i f ................
% ' l Tw&$ I

(1) m3fRhT

(2) wT[rit.v

(3) w fmft'tror
(4) w Y F i t * m m , ~ ~
I * ~

The action of cleaning of oily dirt by soap is based on

(1) solubility in water

(2) hydrophilic property

(3) hydrophobic property

(4) presence of both hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups.

16. ~ ~ ' f ; . r f i ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ V l ~ f i
(1) Na' (2) ~g~ +

(3) Al2+ (4) A].

Adding an alpha particle to nucleus of sodium atom, product will be

(1) NaC (2) ~g~ +

(3) A1 + (4) Al.

17. ~ ~ P ~ ~ $ ~

(1) 6 (2) 9

(3) 12 (4) 15.

Benzene has ...............number of covalent bonds.

(1) 6 (2) 9

(3) 12 (4) 15.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

SAT-3 (10)

18. ed&Td*wmWFI?!

(1) g+@%?*Ti@llwrt;im.srrs;rd?

(2) ~ ~ . ; 1 ' 3 h Z i ; ? i ~ ~ * m i m n m B

(3) my;r'~4Tkmm*m$MB
(4) ~ ; r ' ~ ~I ~ ~ r n
False statement for second period elements is

(1) change in number of electrons produces ions

(2) numbers of protons and electrons are equal in neutral atom

(3) number of neutrons is less than the number of protons in atoms

(4) change in the number of neutrons in atom produces isotopes.

19. ~ - ~ ~? ~ ~ ~

(1) Cu (2) Mg

(3) z n (4) Na.

Which metal cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids ?

(1) Cu (2) Mg

(3) Zn (4) Na.

20. m?%mmmmgB

(1) (2) m
(3) * (41 1

At room temperature liquid non-metal is

(1) carbon (2) bromine

(3) mercury (4) iodine.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
21. * r n ~ ~ ; t
(1) H

(3) Na

Neutronless neutral atom is

(1) H

(3) Na

22. %wmN m %
(1) CaO(s)+H20(1) -t Ca(OH)2(aq)

(2) Pb(s)+CuC12(aq) + PbC12(aq)+Cu( s )

(3) M n 0 2 ( s ) + 4 H C l ( l ) -t MnC12(s)+2H20(1)+C12(g)

(4) C6H1206+602 + 6C02+H20.

Displacement reaction is

(1) CaO ( s )+ H 2 0 ( 1 ) + Ca(OH)2(aq)

(2) Pb(s)+CuC12(aq) -t PbC12(aq)+Cu(s)

(3) M n 0 2 ( s ) + 4 H C l ( l ) + MnC12(s)+2H20(1)+C12(g)

(4) C6Hl2O6+6o2 + 6C02 + H20.

23. Fk-m 3? p~m$

(11 7 (2) <7

(3) > 7 (4) 0.

pH of soda-water is

(1) 7 (2) <7

(3) 7 (4) 0.

NTSE(1)/ 1 4 - SAT [ P.T.O.

 Three crops that contribute maximum to global foodgrain production are

(1) Wheat, Rice and Maize (2) Wheat, Rice and Barley

(3) Wheat, Maize and Sorghum (4) Rice, Maize and Sorghum.

25. h ? ~ ' W ? R l R Z ' d ~ S m ; r r n % 7W, ?

(1) * (2)

(3) w+a+l (4) Trmm I

Cell organelle 'Bioplast' was given another name by Benda, which is

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria

(3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome.

26. T $ ' ~ ~ T ~ W ~ % $ % I W ? ~ I %

(1) *$=@ (2) gaT rn

(3) df$mfim (4) fi m m I
In plants abscisic acid controls

(1) growth in shoot (2) flower formation

(3) cell division (4) fall of leaf.

27. %3??fk'ffdTl&?!

(1) =Tf& faEmZ7 fml (2) ?fim *f&m

(3) 337 (4) m*m I

The source of energy in any star is

(1) Nuclear fission reaction (2) Nuclear fusion reaction

(3) Solar energy (4) Fossil fuel.

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT
 The use of disposable paper-cups is more beneficial over disposable plastic-
cups, because

(1) it is cheaper

(2) it is easily available

(3) it can be reused

(4) its recycling process has no harmful impact on environment.

29. 3
.1-W**%

(1) m (2) m
(3) rn (4) d* I

The endosperm of angiosperms is

(1) haploid (2) diploid

(3) triploid (4) polyploid.

30. ' f & h I ~ ' T W 6 ~ % ~ f !

(1) FrP=Fk (2) m

(3) -
f (4) *m I

The author of the book 'Systema Naturae' is

(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin

(3) Theophrastus (4) Carolus Linnaeus.

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

SAT-3

(1)

(3) -
( 14)

31. f % W f f f y % T r s i F [ f f b l q * T ? M d $

w
?

(2) -
(4) 335 I

In which of the following animals jointed legs are not found ?

(1) Palaemon (2) Scorpion

(1)

(31
-
(3) Housefly

32. f i g f f ~ ~ - F l I f l l U % P l * ~ i h + 8? ?
(4) Leech.

(2) 7if;iT/mT

(4) wI
Which of the following diseases is not related with sexual transmission ?

(1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Allergy (4) AIDS.

33. figff**-*TyFpmf;l~?iEhm*$ ?

(1) m (2) ++l

(3) @- (4) * I

Which of the following enzymes is related with digestion of protein ?

(1) Lipase (2) Pepsin

-
(3) Sucrase (4) Amylase.

34. mdm**m*dd*
(1) (2) mim
(3) r;rrg (4) ** = I

The structure that connects a bone with muscles is known a s

(1) Tendon (2) Cartilage

(3) Ligament (4) Areola tissue.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 Cell organelle that allows certain substances to enter or come out from the cell
is

(1) Ribosome (2) Plasma membrane

(3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body.

36. 4 f t ~ , y , z ~ ~ ~ ? d 7 a , b , c * ~ $ ? m

If x. y, z are positive real numbers and a, b, c are rational numbers, then the
1 1 1
value of 1 + x b - a + x ~ - +a 1 + x a - b + x ~ - b+ 1 + x b - c + x a - c is

(31 1 (4) None of these.

If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the least prime factor of
number b, then the least prime factor of a + b is

(1) 2 (2) 3

NTSE(I)/14 - SAT
 If 9, a, b, - 6 are in Arithmetic progression, then a + b =

1f 2 is a root of the equation x 2 + bx + 12 = 0 and the equation x 2 + bx + q = 0

has equal roots, then q =

40. Tf? sin 0 - cos 0 = fi sin ( 90" - 0 ) tan I3 =

(1) fi - 1 (2) a

If sin 13 - cos I3 = <2 sin ( 90" - 0 ), then tan 0 =

(1) a - 1 (2) fi

(3) 1 - * (4) * + I .

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT
 If a cos 0 - b sin 0 = c, then a sin O + b cos (3 =

(3) kdc2-a2-b2 (4) None of these.

From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable
tower is 60' and the angle of depression of its foot is 45". The height of the
tower in metre is

(1) 7 ( 6 - 1 ) (21 7 T3

If the system of equations k x + 3y - ( k - 3 ) = 0, 12x + ky - k = 0 has

infinitely many solutions, then k =

(3) 0 (4) None of these.

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

 The median of first 12 prime numbers is

A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come u p either of the time
is

If the diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%, by what per cent does its
curved surface area decrease ?

(3) 50%

NTSE (I)/ 14 - SAT

 In figure, A , B , C and D are four points on a circle. AC and B D intersect a t a
point E such that L BEC = 125' and L ECD = 30". Then L BAC =

ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC.
Ratio of the areas of triangles ABC and BDE is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 :2

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1:4.

NTSE (I)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

SAT4 ( 20

49. A A B C ~ , AB=6*cm,AC= 1 2 c m * B C = ~ C ~ ?l h ~ f

(1) 120" (2) 60"

(3) 90" (4) 45".

In A ABC, AB = 6 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is

so. -3, A B C 1~4 c m m3v~mq&fae~l~c4=mrmmww=fp

mm*l ~ m ~ ; r ~

In figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is

drawn with BC a s diameter. The area of the shaded region is

(1) 98 c m 2

(3) 56 cm (4) None of these.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which exactly fits inside
the cube is

If a,p are the zeros of polynomial f ( x ) = x -p ( x + 1 1 - c, then

( a + l ) ( $ + l ) =

The area of a triangle is 5 square units. Two of its vertices are ( 2, 1 ) and
( 3, - 2 ). The third vertex lies on y = x + 3. The third vertex is

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

 In figure, if Q T I PR, L TQR = 40' and L SPR = 30°, then y is

(3) 90" (4) 80'.

55. ( 1 + tan 8 + sec 8 ) ( 1 + cot 8 - cosec 8 ) T3% *

(1) 0 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) - 1.

( 1 + tan f3 + sec 8 ) ( 1 + cot 8 - cosec 8 ) is equal to

(1) 0 12) 2

(3) 1 (4) - 1.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 The club which was most successful, constituted by the men and women of
France, after the Constitution of 1791 was

(1) Liberty club (2) Zollverein

(3) Jacobin club (4) Equality club.

57. %kT3?m*Tdf.mrif*slmwmh4

(1) h&q%w (2) %mqmTmEimm

The great Indians who were influenced by the thoughts of French Revolution
were

(1) Haider Ali & Tipu Sultan (2) Tipu Sultan & Raja Ramrnohan Roy

(3) Lala Lajpat Rai & Tilak (4) Bahadur Shah Jafar & Laxmibai,

58. 1 8 5 0 ~ ~ ~ o m i i f g ~ * f ; a ~ m * ~ ~ ~ ~ & i l ~

(1) 4$ (2) M3

(3) *3 (4) m3 I

The use of wood was much needed in 1850s to spread the Indian Railway
tracks. It was used

(1) in Buildings (2) in Railway wagons

(3) in Furniture (4) in Sleepers.

NTSE (I)/ 14 - SAT

SAT-3 ( 24

-
59. ~ * $ a m m y p ~ ~ a I a l t
(1) ?F- (2) *
(3) (4) * I

The shepherds of Himachal Pradesh are called

(1) Gujjar (2) Gaddi

(3) Bakarwal (4) Bhotia.

60. o m d $ f % % Z $ t ~ W 7 " r i r % ~ y p $ l % ~ %

(1) (2) rn
(3) (4) rn I
The first Indian community to start playing the game of Cricket was

-
(1) Parsee (2) Christian

(3) Marathi (4) Bengalee.

61. P r n T l * ~ ~ ~ F k * % T k I ~ ~ d h ~ ~ ~

(1) q (2)

(3) mmm (4) +am a-d=R+l I

The institution like Indian Parliament that was established after the French
Revolution in France was

(1) Duma (2) Zollverein

(3) House of Lords (4) National Assembly.

62. m d '$?rsrr$ldl'WdFI&'~~

(11 (21 ~ l l *

(3) Fx -dl (4) mh d I

The founder of 'Hoa Hao' movement in Vietnam was

(1) Confucius (2) Laotse

(3) Huynh Pho So (4) Liang Qichao.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 ( 25 )

63. % d F T ~ ~ ~ d T @ ' h 3 * d W r r n r * $ ~ %

(1) T$m (2) 3F-I?Fy

(3) WFrf (4) T@hFl I

In which Conference were International Monetary Fund and World Bank

established ?

(1) Brussels (2) Bretton Woods

(3) Vienna (4) Washington.

64. 3 T d & ~ t ' 6 T d T J d f i n ~ Q ~ ~ $

(1) mf (21 3
(3) (4) 4% I
Bombay was a group of how many islands in 17th Century ?

(1) Seven (2) Nine

(3) Eleven (4) Five.

65. +rftm@?~~3mbaen%~f%arx?
(1) * (2) m
(3) m (4) * 1

In which text did Jyotiba Phule write about the injustices of Caste system ?

-
(1) Amar Jivan (2) Gulamgiri

(3) Indirabai (4) Indralekha.

66. ' i F % ~ ~ f w a T h h T R $

(1) +-@ (2)

(3) (4) mI
Hill station located in Palani Hills is

(1) Panchmarhi (2) Kodaikanal

(3) Udagarnandalam (4) Panchgani.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

SAT-3 ( 26

67. i % d % T I * ~ T f $ ? g r ~ $
(1) m-h* (2) * - Vda 73
(3) *-Me (4) *--dm73 I

The correct pair amongst the following is

(1) Chamba - River Chenab (2) Kanchipuram - River Parvati
(3) Nanded - River Godavari (4) Ujjain - River Son.
68. ' i ? W % % R ? T $ $ t $ # & R ' ~ :
wv-I m-II

(-4- (i)

(B) (ii) %Gm .jrrs M

(C) 7mw-m (iii) smc m fwd
(Dl * (iv) *a ?ZIT7

A B C D
(1) iii iv ii i

(2) iv ii i iii

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iv iii i ii .
Match the following columns :
Column - I Column - II
(A) Uttarakhand (i) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary

(B) Assam (ii) Periyar Tiger Reserve

(C) Rajasthan (iii) Manas Tiger Reserve

(D) Kerala (iv) Corbett National Park.

A B C D

(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv ii i iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv iii i ii.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 By using code, arrange the following cities of India from south to north :

(A) Amritsar

63) hantapur

(C) Ah-var

(D) Amaravati.

(1) B, C, D, A (2) B, D, C, A

(3) D, C, B, A (4) D, B, A, C.

70. 'W!3 e'

%
(1) m*fwFmm3mB$~
(2) 3iTit-ygi=mTf&dm&~3d
(3) ~ s n i * 3 * - m @ d

(4) r n * * r n w = i r I

'Mango showers' are

(1) Western disturbances in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh

(2) Rainfall by north-east trade winds in coastal Tamil Nadu

(3) Re-monsoon rains in Kerala and Karnataka

(4) Cloud burst in Khasi hills.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 (1) (A)&*,% (R) m *

(2) (A) a q (R) M w3 $ dx (R), (A) 4 & mcm m $

(3) (A) aeTl (R)3+i & 9 I+J * w3 mm

(R), (A) m%
=i$

(4) (A) TeTl (R) ?F?i TFk3 $ I

Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel.

Reason (R) : Nearly 10 kilogram of manganese is needed to make one

tonne of steel.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives :

(1) (A)is true, but (R)is false

(2) Both (A)and (R)are true and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)

(3) Both (A)and @7) are true, but (R)is not the correct explanation of (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R)are false.

72. o ~ m ~ ~ ~ ' T ?& ~ T @ h ~ ~

(1) +F!F (2)

(3) *rn (4) @ 1

Where is the national headquarters of Software Technology Parks of India ?

(1) Bengaluru (2) Chennai

(3) New Delhi (4) Pune.

NTSE(I)/14 - SAT
 ( 29

73. *d - 7 o m a ~ M ~ i r ~ ~ $ ?
(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 8 (4) 7.

National Highway-7 passes through how many states of India ?

(1) 6 (21 5

(31 8 (4) 7.

74. fm%m~v?irn~+Gkm3bmf;r+:

rnm 111 : *qn*&*53¶$mS$ I

(1) m I & T ~ I I ? ~ ~ ? , ~ ? ~ T I~ ; ~ T ; I I I I ~ $

(2) T F ~ ~ R I I G ~ ~ I I I ~ ~I , * ~ w I ~ %

(3) m 1 3 t t T ~ f i e ~111?6t$,*wl711m*
. I

(4) uoT/Mm?7$$ I

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :

Statement I : Humus content is less in Laterite soils.

Statement I1 : Red laterite soils are suitable for crops of cashewnut.

Statement 111 : Laterite soils are found in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(1) Statement I and Statement I1 are true, but Statement I11 is false

(2) Statement I1 and Statement I11 are true, but Statement I is false

(3) Statement I and Statement I11 are true, but Statement I1 is false

(4) All the three statements are true.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

75. jr;mnm 2 o i i i t ; ~ , ~ ~ ~ ~ m B

(1) h (2) *m
(3) * (4)
According to Census 201 1, the state having highest density of population is
rn I
(1) Kerala (2) West Bengal
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar.
~ - ~ ~ ~ - n - i t ~ ~ @ v &: m w . m ; r ~
76.

('4)m~f;sirii$~mf&r~
* -1
I. qTrk6m
*-H

(B) ~ 4 ~ - f f ~ II. mm%w~ m

(C) f + w ~ ~ s i r i i t i m $ t T 111. W m k m
(D) % ? 9 1 ~ ~ ~ ~ & i ~ ~ T rI V . n FkhVXR
r d ~
A B C D
(1) I I1 111 IV
(2) 111 IV I I1
(31 11 I11 IV I
(4) IV I11 I1 I.
Match List-I with List-I1 and select the correct answer :
List - I List - II
(A) Division of powers among organs of I. Community government
government
(B) Division of powers between Centre and 11. Coalition government
States
(C) Sharing of powers among different 111. Separation of powers
social groups
(D) Sharing of powers between two or I V . Federal government
more than two parties.
A B C D
(1) 1 I1 111 IV
(2) I11 IV I I1
(3) 11 111 IV I
(4) I V 111 I1 I.

NTSE(1) / 14 - SAT
 The organ of government which makes laws is

(1) Legislature (2) Executive

-
(3) Judiciary (4) Press.

78. ~ ~ ~ 2 1 ' d f $ l ~ - ~ 3 m W~ % ~ ~ ~ s ~

(1) *w (2) TI-4 fBm0~1

(3) m * (4) I
The institution in which rd reservation for women has been constitutionally

given, is

(1) LokSabha (2) State Legislature

(3) Panchayati Raj institution (4) Judiciary.

79. **emw~*-msrfe~im%,di93~1*~m~T;r~m% ?

(1) - ~ m m w m (2) w?i=zil33 N m

(3) Wf+6 vRl=m T fil~rfe~tm (4) ~ % f % ?I Z ~
Which right of the Constitution of India negates the bonded labour and child
labour ?

(1) Right to equality (2) Right to liberty

(3) Right to religious freedom (4) Right against exploitation.

so. ~ o n 1 ~ ~ ~ W f $ ; a i i - F m s m f & r d ?
(1) 84 (2) 47

(3) 32 (4) 22.

How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha ?

(1) 84 (2) 47

(3) 32 (4) 22.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
SAT-3 ( 32

81. ' ~ % " k f 5 d ' m T W ~ ~ ~ e ~ % , T $

(1) m (21

(3) * (4) 3737 ?&?

II

'Maharashtrawadi Gomantak party' is related to which state ?

(1) Maharashtra (2) Goa

-
(3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh.

82. ' 4 3 T @ J F T " i h T * F P l W % ~ ~?

(1) * (2) +mvw

(3) mireit (4) m3 irlleTi fami I

Who was the editor of 'Young India' magazine ?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

83. @ , 3 3 ~ T b i d 9 r i ' h * T R T s m ' * W l 7 ' % , T %

(1) (2) TITf

(3) * (4) I

Which country holds 'Veto Power' in United Nations ?

-
(1) Germany (2) Japan

-
(3) Italy (4) France.

84. u@ti, ~ ~ ~~wTGftS i r n (~ m w m ~ W

) & m m w %,

(1) (21

(3) m (41 I

Which state was created on the basis of culture, geography and ethnicity ?

(1) Uttarakhand (2) Punjab

(3) Gujarat (4) Maharashtra.

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT
 (4) 11 111 I IV.
Match List-I with List-I1 and select the correct answer :
List - I List - XI
(A) Organisation of employees I. Narmada Bachao Andolan
(B) Long term movement 11. Asom Gana Parishad
(C) Support to common or general interest 111. FEDECOR
(D Political party IV. BAMCEF.
A B C D
(1) 111 IV I1 I
(2) I I1 IV 111
(3) IV I 111 I1
(4) 11 111 I IV.
86. ~ ' ; t ' ~ ~ - U l T d s r f i h ?% T I ~
(1) ~ ~ r n g j r d T m l (2) mTkrnm,,*m
(3) %!mWh*%.r;m (4) ~ & * f f V f a 3 r ~ m I
Which work of the following is an economic activity ?
(1) Teacher teaches his son
(2) Service rendered by a wife to her sick husband
(3) Senice to a patient rendered by a nurse
(4) Growing vegetables in kitchen garden.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT I P.T.O.

 People deposit money in the bank because
(A) Get interest
(B) Money remains secured

(C) Money is used in country's development

(Dl Value of money increases.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A. B a n d C (41 A. B, C and D.
88. V @ T T I F % I ? ~ T T K ~ ~ ~ % ~ % ? , ~ ? - ~ ~ ' ~ $ F - ~
(A) m ~ ~ r n ~ w s m ~ ~
(B) d ~ 1 0*0 r n m ? f ~ ~ ~
(C) hfmu4i$33Fiq
(Dl ~ d T i T i T W l I

(1) A , B & C (2) B, ~ 3 3 %D

(3) A, B* D (4) A, B. C* D.
Which of the following statements are true for National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act ?
(A) Right to work with guarantee of job
(B) 100 days employment in a year
(C) Implemented in all the regions of the country
(D) Provision of unemployment allowances,
(1) A, B a n d C [2) B,C and D
(3) A. B a n d D 14) A. B, C and D.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 Sincefive years Lalita's father is working in Government school a s a teacher. To
purchase goods from a government ration shop which of the following cards
should he possess ?

(1) BPL card (2) APL card

(3) Aadhar card (4) Antyodaya card.

90. ~ ~ ~ ~ f i ~
(A) ~ ~ ~ % m w g i *

(C) ~ & * w T T 3 q w ~ $
(D) T ? F f ? ~ ~ & T h FI k 4 ~ $
(1) A* B (2) B 3?R C

(3) A * D (4) c * D.

Which of the following statements are true for mid-day meal scheme ?

(A) Increase in attendance of children in school

(B) Improvement in nutrition status of the children

(C) Improvement in examination results of the children

(D) Increase the interest towards games in the children.

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) A and D (4) C and D.

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 ( 36

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / 7W STd & Wl$

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 ( 37

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Vti 3id & fi

NTSE (I)/ 14 - SAT [ P.T.O.

 ( 38

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / TK aTd & W

NTSE(1)/ 14 - SAT
 ( 39

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ?TiXrd &

NTSE(I)/ 14 - SAT