1

PHYSICAL SCIENCE (5) b. II and III

1) Which one of these revolving weather is the smallest? c. III and IV
a. Hurricane d. I and IV
b. Tornado 10) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars when compared
c. Tropical cyclone to the atmospheric pressure of the Earth?
d. Typhoon a. Half as much as that of that Earth
2) What happens when the rate of evaporation equals the rate b. About the same as the Earth
of condensation? c. About 1/100th that of the Earth
a. Clouds form d. About 100 times as great as the Earth
b. Precipitation occurs 11) Which of the following statements is TRUE for both
c. The humidity decreases Saturn and Jupiter?
d. The dew point is reached a. Both rotate faster than the Earth
3) Which is the cause of change of seasons? b. Both rotate slower than the Earth
a. The roation of the Earth c. Only one rotates rapidly while the other rotates very slowly
b. The tilt of Earth's axis d. Their periods of rotation are linked to their period of
c. The rain-shadow effect revolution
d. The sizes and shapes of land surface features 12) According to Kepler's Laws, what is the shape of all orbits
4) What causes changes in weather? of the planets?
a. Cloud formation a. Ellipse
b. Water evaporation b. Hyperbola
c. Air humidity c. Oblate spheroid
d. Air masses interaction d. Parabola

5) What part of the atmosphere protects Earth's suface from 13) What is the first successful space station program that
harmful ultraviolet radiation? tested the ability of astronauts to work for long periods and
a. Exosphere studied their body responses to weightless conditions?
b. Mesosphere a. Apollo 11
c. Stratosphere b. Sputnik 1
d. Troposphere c. Salyut
d. US Skylab
6) The aurora borealis and aurora australis are caused by the
interaction between charged particles and Earth's magnetic 14) The universe is estimated to be between 10 and 20 billion
field. What layer of Earth's atmosphere contains these years old. This estimate is based on the value of which
particles? constant?
a. Exosphere a. Speed of light
b. Mesosphere b. Hubble constant
c. Ozonosphere c. Mass of the Earth
d. Thermosphere d. Mass of the electron

7) Which is a depp layer of electrically charged molecules and 15) On which of the following planets would the sun rise in
atoms that reflects radio waves? the west?
a. Exosphere a. Mars
b. Ionosphere b. Jupiter
c. Radiosphere c. Saturn
d. Troposphere d. Venus

8) The Earth completes one revolution around the sun in 365 16) Which of the following describes an albedo?
1/4 days. Compared to earth, how long does it takes Mercury a. brightness of the star
to complete one revolution? b. phase changes of a planet
a. Less than the Earth c. wobbling motion of a planet
b. Greater than the Earth d. amount of light a planet reflects
c. The same as the Earth 17) Where are most asteroids located?
d. Cannot be determined a. between Earth and Mars
9) What two properties of stars are being directly compared in b. between Mars and Venus
the Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram? c. between Mars and Jupiter
I. Size d. between Jupiter and Saturn
II. Temperature 18) Which refers to the precession of the Earth?
III. Luminuosity a. Change from night to day
IV. Density b. Earth's motion around the sun
a. I and II

c. Effect of the moon on the Earth's orbit
d. Change in orientation of the Earth's axis
19) What kind of eclips do we see when the moon is entirely
within Earth's umbral shadow?
a. total solar
b. total lunar
c. partial solar
d. partial lunar
20) At which phase of the moon do solar eclipse occur?
a. Full moon
b. First quarter
c. New moon
d. Third quarter
21) If a lunar eclipse occurs tonight, when is the soonest that a
solar elcipse can occur?
a. Tomorrow
b. In two weeks
c. In one month
d. In one year
22) Which one is considered as one of the most important
results of the Apollo missions to the moon?
a. Discovery of subsurface water.
b. Determination of the age of moon rocks.
c. First observations of surface features called craters.
d. Proof that craters were produced by volcanic eruptions.
23) What is the problem experienced by astronauts staying for
long periods of time aboard the international space station?
a. Weight loss due to diet
b. Reduced exposure to sunlight
c. Muscle loss due to lack of exercise
d. Effects of lower gravity on the body
24) NASA developed a filtration process to make waste water
on space flights renewable. Where might this filtration process
be used on Earth?
a. In areas where water is salty.
b. In areas where water is contaminated.
c. In areas where water is used for recreation.
d. In areas where water contains hard minerals.
25) What must be done in order to preserve the biosphere for
future generations?
a. Put all wild animals and game preserves.
b. Make use of technology to develop.
c. Explore ways to drain and fill wetlands along the sea coast.
d. Understand how living things interact with their
environment.
26) Which of the following can help ensure a suitable
environment for the future generations?
a. Biological controls
b. Chemical dumps
c. Fossil fuels
d. Pesticides
27) Which human activity would be more likely to have a
negative impact on the environment?
a. Investigating the use of the biological controls for the pests.
b. Using reforestation and cover cropping to control soil
erosion.
2
c. Using insecticides to kill insects that compete with human
for food.
d. Developing a research aimed toward the preservation of
endangered species.
28) Which is the main cause of the depletion of the ozone
layer?
a. Decrease in temperature.
b. Decrease in the amount of air pollutants.
c. Increase in number of marine ecosystem.
d. Increase in temperature due to atmospheric pollutants.
29) DDT was used to kill mosquitoes. It was observed that
lizards that ate the mosquitoes slowed down and died.
Eventually, the population of cats that ate lizards diminished.
What can be inferred from this situation?
a. DDT can cause harm to all organisms.
b. Using DDT is a reliable way to eliminate insect predators.
c. The mosquito and other organisms were all competing for
same resources.
d. Environmental changes that affect one population can affect
other population.
30) Teddy is a seasoned famer updated on new trends in
agriculture. In his effort to make and harvest the best rice
crops, he tried to implement the environmentalist's way of
controlling pests as mandated in the integrated pest
management. Teddy later found out that all of the following
processes made best contributions to a good and safe harvest
EXCEPT ________.
a. use of natural enemies
b. planting variety of crops
c. use of narrow-spectrum pesticides
d. use of genetically engineered crops
31) What is the most important factor for the success of
animal population?
a. Adaptability
b. Interspecies activity
c. Natality
d. Unlimited food
32) Why does starvation occur?
a. There is not enough fertile land worldwide on which to
grow food.
b. Forces in nature (drought, pests, floods) wipe out food
supplies.
c. Population is growing at a faster rate than the world's ability
to produce.
d. Some parts of the world lack food while other parts of the
world produce more than they consume.
33) Which of the following presents the greatest threat to the
survival of numerous plants and animal species.
a. Greenhouse effect
b. Continued burning of fossil fuel
c. Disappearance of world's rainforest
d. Dumping of toxic waste in the least industrialized nations
34) Which factor BEST explains why the human population
has grown so rapidly over the last 100 years?
a. Humans have decreased their reliance on natural resources.
b. Humans have increased the amount of resources available
on Earth.
 3

c. Humans have increased the carrying capacity of the c. Organisms eventually run out of needed elements,
biosphere for the population. compounds and other form of matter.
d. Humans have developed physical characteristics that d. Human activity has no effects on elements, chemical
increase their competitive advantage. compounds, and other forms of matter.
35) Which human activity causes maximum environmental 43) Which of the biogeochemical cycles can impact all of the
pollution having regional and global impact? others most directly?
a. Agriculture a. Carbon cycle
b. Industrialization b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Mining c. Nitrogen cycle
d. Urbanization d. Phosphorous cycle
36) Which of the following statements in relation to 44) What human activity has added the most carbon in the
sustainable development is FALSE? atmosphere?
a. Sustainability has the main objective of purely focusing on a. Burning fossil fuels
the natural environment. b. Mining fossil fuels
b. Sustainable development of various countries and the entire c. Increasing soil erosion
world is the only solution left with mankind to survive for a d. Cutting down the rainforests
longer period on Earth. ANSWERS:
c. Sustainable development not only considers the protection
of the environment but also the maintenance of economic 1. B
viability as well as social and ethical considerations. 2. D
d. Sustainable development is defined as the development that 3. B
meets the needs of present without compromising the ability 4. D
of our future generations to meet their own needs. 5. C
6. D
37) What is the process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas 7. B
and nitrous oxide? 8. A
a. Ammonification 9. B
b. Denitrification 10. C
c. Nitrogen fixation 11. A
d. Transpiration 12. A
38) Which of the following chemicals enters living organisms 13. D
primarily from the atmosphere rather than from rocks or soil? 14. B
a. Calcium 15. D
b. Carbon 16. D
c. Sodium 17. C
d. Sulfur 18. D
39) What is the conversion of atmospheric free nitrogen gas to 19. B
ammonia which occurs through the activities of certain 20. C
bacteria and cyanobacteria? 21. B
a. Denitrification 22. D
b. Nitrification 23. D
c. Nirogen fixation 24. B
d. Oxidation 25. D
26. A
40) How do animals get the nitrogen they need? 27. C
a. Directly from bacteria in the soil 28. D
b. From the process of denitrification 29. D
c. By breathing in atmospheric nitrogen 30. C
d. By consuming plants or other animals 31. A
41) The following are ways by which phosphorous enters the 32. D
environment EXCEPT ________. 33. C
a. Run off 34. C
b. Animal waste 35. B
c. Erosion of rocks 36. A
d. Photosynthesis in plants 37. B
38. B
42) Because of biogeochemical cycling? 39. C
a. Nutrients are circulated throughout the biosphere.
40. D
b. The Earth creates new chemicals that replace those that
41. D
were used up by organisms.
 4

42. A 7) April and May are identical twins. One day, April
43. B embarked on a high speed space travel into a distant star.
44. A When he gets back home, who is older between the two?
a. April
b. May
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (4) c. None of them because they are still of the same age
1) Albert Einstein's Second Postulate of Special Relativity d. Cannot be determined
states that the speed of light ________. 8) An accelerated frame is a non-inertial frame. Is this TRUE?
a. can decrease if the speed of the observer decreases a. True
b. can increase if the speed of light source increases b. False
c. randomly changes depending upon its original light source c. Sometimes true, sometimes false
d. is constant regardless of the speed of the observer or the d. Not enough information given
light source
9) Which of the following statements is TRUE about the speed
2) A passenger train travels east at high speed. One passenger of light?
is located at the east side of one car, another is located at the a. The speed of light has a value that depends on the observer's
west side of that car. In the train frame, these two passengers frame of reference.
glance up at the same time. In the earth's frame ________. b. The speed of light has the same value for observers in all
a. they glance up simultaneously reference frames.
b. the passengers glance sideways c. The speed of light is constant in an inertial frame of
c. the passenger at the east side glances up first reference.
d. the passenger at the west side glances up first d. The speed of light is slower in a moving frame of reference.
3) Beniell travels at high speed from Earth to the star Alpha 10) A person is riding a moped that is traveling at 20 m/s.
Centauri which is four years away. Which one is CORRECT What is the speed of the ball if the moped rider throws a ball
in Beniell's frame? forward at 4 m/s while riding the moped?
a. The clocks on earth and on Alpha Centauri are a. 16 m/s
syncghronized. b. 20 m/s
b. The trip takes more time than it does in the earth's frame. c. 24 m/s
c. Beniell travels to Alpha Centauri over a length that is d. 80 m/s
shorter than four light years.
d. Alpha Centauri travels to Beniell over a length that is 11) According to Einstein, what is considered the fourth
shorter than four light years. dimension?
a. Curled dimension
4) One clock is placed on top of a mountain and another clock b. Horizontal dimension
is at the bottom of the mountain. Ignore the rotation of the c. Space dimension
earth. Which clock ticks more slowly? d. Time dimension
a. They tick at the same rate.
b. The one on top of the mountain. 12) As you observe a fish inside an aquarium, the fish appears
c. The one at the bottom of the mountain. to be bigger when underwater. When observed through the
d. Cannot be determined. side, the fish seems closer than if you observe over the top.
When you look through the corner, it appears to be that there
5) You are in a windowless spacecraft. What do you need to are two fishes. What explains this observation?
do to determine whether your space ship is moving at constant a. Diffraction
non-zero velocity, or is at rest, in an inertial frame of earth? b. Interference
a. Make very precise time measurements. c. Reflection
b. Make very precise mass measurements. d. Refraction
c. Make very precise length and time measurements.
d. Nothing, because you cannot succeed no matter what you 13) What is the phenomenon by which the incident light
do. falling on a surface is back into the same medium?
a. Absorption
6) According to the effects of length contraction, from the b. Polarization
viewpoint of an observer stationary with respect to abody c. Reflection
moving at a uniform speed relative to the observer, which one d. Refraction
is CORRECT?
a. The body contracts along the direction of the motion. 14) Which property is responsible for alternating light and
b. The time it takes for a clock incorporated in the body to tick dark bonds when light passes through two or more narrow
contracts. slits?
c. The body is not now contracted but would contract if it were a. Diffraction
to accelerate. b. Interference
d. The body contracts in some direction traverse to the c. Polarization
direction of its motion. d. Refraction
 5

15) What happens when a light wave enters into a medium of happen to the light after passing through both filters?
different optical density? a. It will be polarized
a. Its speed and frequency change. b. It will be unpolarized
b. Its speed and wavelength change. c. It will be entirely blocked
c. Its frequency and wavelength change. d. It will return to its original state
d. Its speed, frequency and wavelength change. 24) Light rays enter a material and scatter. Which BEST
16) A ray of light in air is incident on an air-to-glass boundary describes what happens to the light rays.
at an angle of 36 degrees with the normal. If the index of a. Bounce straight back
refraction of the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the b. Move straight through
refracted ray within the glass with respect to the normal? c. Spread out in all directions
a. 18 degrees d. Move through but in a new direction
b. 30 degrees 25) The energy generated by the sun travels to Earth as
c. 46 degrees electromagnetic waves of varying lengths. Which statement
d. 56 degrees correctly describes an electromagnetic wave with a long
17) If the critical angle for internal reflection inside a certain wavelength?
transparent material is found 48 degrees, what is the index of a. It has a high frequency and low energy.
refraction of the material? (air is outside the material) b. It has a high frequency and high energy.
a. 0.74 c. It has a low frequency and can travel through a vacuum.
b. 1.35 d. It has a low frequency and needs a medium to travel
c. 1.48 through.
d. 1.53 26) Why is the sky blue?
18) According to the law of reflection, from what angle is a. It reflects the color of the ocean.
light coming after it is reflected from a mirror? b. The color of the outer space is blue.
a. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the c. Blue light is more readily scattered than red light by
surface of the mirror. nitrogen.
b. The same angle as the incident ray as measured from the d. Red light is scattered more easily than blue light by dust
normal to the mirror. particles.
c. Some light comes directly from the object and some passes 27) What is the physical evidence that the core is composed
through the mirror. mostly of iron?
d. Cannot be determined. a. Volcanoes regularly erupt material from the core to the
19) Which of the following is the BEST description of a white surface.
light? b. Scientist have sampled the core and determined its
a. It is a mixture of every color. composition.
b. It is a mixture of seven colors. c. The known mass of Earth requires material of high density
c. It is a mixture of red, blue and yellow. at the core.
d. It is a pure color that cannot be broken up. d. A and B
20) Sunsets often appear to have a more reddish-orange color 28) Which of the following comprised the largest portion of
than moon. Which of the following phenomenon is Earth's volume?
responsible for this effect? a. Crust
a. Rayleigh Scattering b. Inner core
b. Dispersion c. Mantle
c. Polarization d. Outer Core
d. Refraction 29) Which of the following statements about the Mohorovicic
21) The polarization behavior of light is BEST explained by discontinuity is FALSE?
considering light to be ________. a. The Moho separates the crust from the mantle.
a. Particles b. The Moho marks the top of a partially molten layer.
b. Transverse waves c. The Moho separates denser rocks below from less dense
c. Longitude waves rocks above.
d. Unpolarized d. Seismic wave speeds up as they pass across the Moho
22) Which type of light vibrates in a variety of planes? heading downward.
a. Electromagnetic 30) Where do P waves travel the fastest?
b. Polarized a. Upper mantle
c. Transverse b. Lower mantle
d. Unpolarized c. Outer core
23) Light is passed through a filter whose transmission axis is d. Inner core
alighned horizontally. It then passes through a second filter 31) What is the driving force for the movement of the
whose transmission axis is aligned vertically. What will lithosphere plates?
 6

a. Heat from the sun c. Temperatures can create more volcanoes

b. Heat in the atmosphere d. Temperatures are not affected by volcanic eruption
c. Unequal distribution of heat within the Earth 40) Which of the following correctly describe diastrophism?
d. Unequal distribution of heat in the oceans a. It refers to the boundaries between crustal plates.
32) Which evidence supports Alfred Wegener's Continental b. It refers to a discredit theory of continent formation.
Drift Theory? c. It refers to all processes in which magma moves from
a. Major rivers on different continents match Earth's surface or near the surface.
b. Land bridges still exist that connext major continents d. It refers to all the deformation of Earth's crust by bending or
c. The same magnetic directions exist on different continents breaking in response to great pressures exerted either from
d. Fossils of the same organism have been found on different below or from within the crust.
continents 41) What is the evaporation of water from plant surfaces
33) Which of the following is TRUE based on the Plate especially through stomates?
Tectonic Theory? a. Condensation
a. The atmosphere is strong and rigid b. Perspiration
b. The lithosphere is divided into spheres c. Respiration
c. The atmosphere is divided into plates d. Transpiration
d. The atmosphere moves over the lithosphere 42) Which of the following processes form clouds?
34) What type of boundary occurs where two plates move a. Condensation
together, causing one plate to descend into the mantle beneath b. Evaporation
the outer plate? c. Precipitation
a. Convergent boundary d. Transpiration
b. Divergent boundary 43) Which of the following is/are a natural factors that may
c. Transform fault boundary disrupt the water cycle?
d. Transitional boundary a. Water pollution
35) Which are considered as most destructive earthquake b. Drying of ground water
waves? c. Mismanaged domestic and industrial use of water
a. P waves d. Both A and C
b. Q waves 44) What is the mixture of fresh and saltwater typically
c. S waves formed where rivers meet the ocean?
d. Surface waves a. Brackish water
36) In which of the following climates will chemical b. Compound water
weathering be most rapid? c. Mixture water
a. hot and dry d. Saline water
b. cold and dry 45) Fresh water is an integral part of hydrologic cycle. How is
c. hot and humid it produced?
d. cold and humid a. Condensation
37) Which of the following statements about weathering is b. Desalination
FALSE? c. Evaporation
a. Rocks of different compositions weather at different rates. d. Transpiration
b. Heat and heavy rainfall increase the rate of chemical 46) Which of the following is included in the term
weathering. hydrosphere?
c. The presence of soil slows down the weathering of the a. All the water on the planet.
underlying bedrock. b. All the fresh water on the planet.
d. The longer a rock is exposed at the suraface, the more c. All waters on the surface of the continents.
weathered it becomes. d. All the liquid water on the Earth, minus the ice.
38) Why do agricultural areas often experience the greatest 47) What is the main difference between swamps and
amount of soil erosion? marshes?
a. Because farms are typically located near streams a. Trees versus grassland
b. Because farmers usually remove trees from their fields b. High water table versus low
c. Because they typically occur in areas of moderately steep c. Salt water versus fresh water
slopes d. Seasonality of precipitation
d. Because farming usually involves plowing the soil to plant
seeds 48) A lake will become saline if ________.
a. lake levels decrease
39) What can happen to global temperatures for several years b. precipitation exceeds evaporation
after a volcanic eruption? c. evaporation exceeds precipitation
a. Temperatures may increase d. the lake has no natural drainage outlet
b. Temperatures may decrease
 7

49) What is the other name for typhoon? 43. B

a. Low pressure area 44. A
b. Hurricane 45. B
c. Tornado 46. A
d. Twister 47. A
50) What is the difference among typhoon, a hurricane, and a 48. D
cyclone? 49. B
a. While typhoons are strong storms, cyclones are worse, and 50. D
hurricane are the strongest of all.
b. Hurricanes spin clockwise, cyclones spin counter PHYSICAL SCIENCE (3)
clockwise, and typhoons are actually tidal waves.
c. Typhoons are found near the equator, hurricanes in the 1) What is a closed, continuous path through which electrons
midlatitudes and typhoons in the arctic and antartic. can flow?
d. The storms are the same but the names are used in the a. Charge
Western Pacific, North America and Indian Ocean, b. Circuit
respectively. c. Resistor
d. Voltage
ANSWERS:
2) What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your
1. D feet while scuffing across the rug?
2. D a. Negative
3. D b. Neutral
4. C c. Positive
5. D d. Not enough information given
6. A
7. B 3) How will your force change if the distance between the two
8. A charged spheres is doubled?
9. C a. The force is doubled
10. C b. The force is tripled
11. D c. The force is quadrupled
12. D d. The force is multiplied eight times
13. C 4) A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel
14. B with each other to a battery. Which of the following is TRUE?
15. B a. More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.
16. A b. The current flowing through the resistors is the same.
17. B c. The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.
18. B d. The potential difference across the two resistors is the same.
19. A
5) A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short circuited.
20. A
Find the internal resistance of the cell.
21. B
a. 0.05 ohm
22. D
b. 0.10 ohm
23. C
c. 1.5 ohm
24. C
d. 30 ohm
25. C
26. C 6) If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to a 6 V
27. C dry cell, what is the voltage drop across each lamp?
28. C a. 2 V
29. B b. 3 V
30. B c. 6 V
31. C d. 18 V
32. D 7) Which of the following describes an electric current?
33. B a. Regulates the movement of electric charge.
34. A b. The opposition a material offers to the electron flow.
35. D c. The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow.
36. C d. The movement of charged particles in a specific direction.
37. C
38. D 8) A 10 W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series
39. B circuit. Which bulb has the more current flowing in it?
40. D a. The 10 W bulb
41. D b. The 20 W bulb
42. A
 8

c. Both bulbs have the same current c. P57.60

d. Cannot be determined d. P225.00
9) Which of the following are characteristics of a series 17) Electromagnetic radiation can be used for wireless
circuit? communications. Which of the following can be used to
I. The current that flows through each resistance is the same as transmit signals such as mobile phone calls?
the total current throughout the circuit. a. Infrared
II. The sum of all the individual voltage drops is the same as b. Gamma
the applied voltage. c. Microwaves
III. The reciprocal of the total resistance is equal to the sum of d. Radiowaves
the reciprocals of the separate resistances. 18) Which statement about the North-magnetic pole of the
IV. The voltage drop in each resistance is the same as the Earth is TRUE?
magnitude of the applied voltage. a. Its location never changes.
a. I and II b. It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar magnet.
b. I and III c. It corresponds to the S-pole of a bar magnet.
c. III and IV d. It is at the same location as the geographic north pole of the
d. I, II and III Earth.
10) Which states that the sum of all potential rises and 19) An iron nail can be turned into a temporary magnet if it is
potential drops in any loop (closed circuit) is zero? held in a strong magnetic field. Which method of
a. Coulomb's Law magnetization is this?
b. Kirchoff's Law a. Charging
c. Law of Electrolysis b. Conduction
d. Ohm's Law c. Induction
11) A television and an electric fan are connected in parallel d. Saturation
top a 220 V line. The current in the television is 8 A and in the 20) Which of the following factors affect the size of the
electric fan is 3 A. What is the current flowing in the line? induced current in a coil?
a. 2.67 A I. Number of turns in the coil
b. 5 A II. Size of the inducing field
c. 11 A III. Direction of the windings in the coil
d. 24 A IV. Resistance of the wire in the coil
12) What happens to current if resistance increases? a. I and II
a. Decreases b. III and IV
b. Increases c. I, II and III
c. No change d. I, II and IV
d. Cannot be determined 21) To use the right hand rule to predict the direction of an
13) Which of the following statements DOES NOT represent induced current in a coil, your thumb must point ________.
Ohm's Law? a. to the direction of the motion of the wire
a. current/potential difference = constant b. to the N-pole of the induced magnetic field
b. potential difference/current = constant c. in the direction of the induced current
c. potential difference = current x resistance d. in the direction of the inducing field
d. current = resistance x potential difference 22) When a bar magnet is inserted into a coil, a current of 12.0
14) What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A A is induced into the coil. If four magnets of the same type are
current and 6.0 V? inserted into the coil at the same time, what would be the
a. 0.2 ohm induced current?
b. 0.5 ohm a. 3 A
c. 2 ohm b. 4 A
d. 5 ohm c. 12 A
15) What happens to the current-carrying ability of a wire as d. 48 A
temperature increases? 23) What is the direction of a magnetic field within a magnet?
a. There is no change. a. from north to south
b. The wire can't carry any current. b. from south to north
c. The wire can carry more current. c. from to back
d. The wire can carry less current. d. back to front
16) A 300 W at 220 V TV set is used at an average of 4 hours 24) Which is the induced voltage across a stationary conductor
a day for 30 days. If the electrical energy costs P1.60 per in a stationary magnetic field?
kilowatt-hour, how much is the energy cost? a. decreased
a. P5.76 b. increased
b. P22.50
 9

c. zero even without a direct contact with the liquid. What explains
d. reversed in polarity this phenomenon?
25) What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 a. Conduction
turns carrying 3 A of current? b. Convection
a. 2.67 c. Radiation
b. 24 d. Thermal expansion
c. 240 34) Which causes the warmth that you feel when you place
d. 2,400 your finger at the side of the flame of a burning candle?
26) A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If a. Conduction
the number of turns in the coil is decreased, what will happen b. Convection
to the voltage induced across the coil? c. Radiation
a. remain constant d. Not enough information given
b. be excessive 35) Which process of heat transfer happens by the movement
c. decrased of mass from one place to another?
d. increased a. Conduction
27) Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and b. Convection
velocity of electromagnetic waves? c. Induction
a. Frequency and wavelength are interdependent of each other d. Radiation
b. As frequency increases, wavelength decreases 36) When work is done by a system, what happens to its
c. As frequency increases, wavelength increases temperature assuming that no heat is added to it?
d. Frequency is constant for all wavelengths a. decreases
28) Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic b. increases
waves in order from longest to shortest wavelength? c. remains the same
a. television, infrared, visible light, x-rays d. none of these
b. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves 37) Which states that "when two systems are in thermal
c. radiowaves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet equilibrium with a third system, then they are in thermal
d. microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays equilibrium with each other?
29) An electromagnetic wave is radiated by a straight wire a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
antenna that is oriented vertically. What should be the b. First Law of Thermodynamics
orientation of a straight wire receiving antenna? c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
a. diagonally d. Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
b. vertically 38) What happens in an adiabatic process?
c. horizontally and in a direction parallel to the wave's a. No heat eneters or leaves the system
direction of motion b. The pressure of the system remain constant
d. horizontally and in a direction perpendicular to the wave's c. The temperature of the system remains constant
direction of motion d. The system does no work nor work is done on it.
30) What should a good diode tested with an ohmmeter 39) What thermodynamic process is involved in a closed car
indicate? inside a hot garage?
a. High resistance when forward or reverse biased. a. Adiabatic
b. Low resistance when forward or reversed biased. b. Isobaric
c. High resistance when reverse biased and low resistance c. Isochoric
when forward biased. d. Isothermal
d. High resistance when forward biased and low resistance 40) Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemeical
when forward biased. process. When heat is transferred to the system, the process is
31) Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to ________. said to be ________ and the sign of H is ________.
a. record programs a. endothermic, positive
b. provide DC supply b. endothermic, negative
c. generate high power radio waves c. exothermic, positive
d. provide lighting inside the studio d. exothermic, negative
32) Which material is the usual component of an anode? 41) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Aluminum a. Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the
b. Carbon system.
c. Copper b. Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in
d. Nickel entropy.
33) A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot coffee. c. The total entropy of the universe increases in any
After some time, the exposed end of the spoon becomes hot spontaneous process.
d. The change in entropy in a system depends on the initial
 10

and final states of the system and the path taken from one state c. When a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent
to the other. reason.
42) During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the d. When electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower forces.
refrigerant in a ________. 50) When does nuclear fusion release energy?
a. compressor a. When uranium emits a neutron
b. condenser b. When heavy ions fuse together
c. evaporator c. When very light nuclei fuse together
d. expansion valve d. When uranium splits into two fragments
43) Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a ANSWERS:
refrigeration system? 1. B
a. Rejects energy to a low temperature body. 2. C
b. Rejects energy to a high temperature body. 3. C
c. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it 4. D
to a high temperature body. 5. A
d. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it 6. C
to a low temperature body. 7. D
44) Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum 8. C
ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere? 9. A
a. Ammonia 10. B
b. Carbon dioxide 11. C
c. Fluorine 12. A
d. Sulfur dioxide 13. D
45) Which phenomenon is BEST explained by the particle 14. D
nature of light? 15. D
a. Doppler effect 16. C
b. Interference 17. C
c. Photoelectric effect 18. C
d. Polarization 19. C
20. D
46) According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of 21. B
light is carried in discrete units called ________. 22. D
a. alpha particles 23. A
b. photoelectrons 24. C
c. photons 25. B
d. protons 26. C
47) Rutherford observed that most of the alpha particles 27. B
directed at a metallic foil appear to pass through unhindered, 28. A
with only a few deflected at large angles. What did he 29. B
conclude? 30. C
a. Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit aplha particles. 31. C
b. Atoms consist mainly of empty space and have small, dense 32. A
nuclei. 33. A
c. Alpha particles behave like waves when they interact with 34. C
atom. 35. B
d. Atoms have most of their mass distributed loosely in an 36. A
electron cloud. 37. A
38. A
48) When an electron changes from a higher energy to a lower
39. C
energy state within an atom, a quantum of energy is
40. A
________.
41. D
a. absorbed
42. B
b. emitted 43. D
c. fissioned 44. C
d. fused
45. C
49) When does nuclear fission occur? 46. C
a. When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting 47. B
device. 48. B
b. When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain 49. D
reaction. 50. C
 11

c. The products do not change back to reactants.

d. Concentrations remain constant at equilbrium even though
PHYSICAL SCIENCE (2) the ooposing reactions are continuing.
1) Which of the following statements on specific heat is 9) Which of the following is also known as paraffin or
TRUE? saturated hydrocarbon?
a. It is an extrinsic property. a. Alkane
b. It is always equal to the heat capacity. b. Alkene
c. It is the heat capacity per mole of a substance. c. Alkyne
d. It is equal to zero when the heat capacity is zero. d. Cycloalkane
2) The entropy usually increases when ________. 10) Which of the following are properties of organic
I. A molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules compound?
II. A reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number I. High melting point
of moles of gas II. Low boiling point
III. A solid changes to a liquid III. High solubility in water
IV. A liquid changes to a gas IV. Non conductor of electricity
a. I and II a. I and II
b. III and IV b. I and III
c. I, II and III c. II and III
d. I, II, III and IV d. II and IV
3) Change is enthalpy for combustion of fuel is ________. 11) Which of the following is an organic compound?
a. negative a. Baking soda
b. positive b. Glucose
c. zero c. Limestone
d. may be negative or positive d. Sulfuric acid
4) Which situation appears to violate the collision theory? 12) Which of the following serves as thermal insulator in the
a. The reaction rate increases as temperature increases. body?
b. The reaction rate decreases as the reaction mixture is a. Carbohydrates
cooled. b. Fats
c. The reaction rate increases as the surface area of the c. Nucleic acids
reactants increases. d. Proteins
d. A reaction rate takes more equally when the concrentration
of a reactants is decreased. 13) In DNA, which is the correct complementary pairing of
the nitrogenous bases?
5) Which statement is TRUE about catalysts? a. AG and CT
a. They increase the rate of reaction by increasing the b. AA and GG
activation energy. c. AC and GC
b. They provide alternative reaction paths with lower d. AT and GC
activation energies.
c. The amount of catalyst decreases as the reaction progresses. 14) Which biomolecular is considered the building blocks of
d. They are used up in the reaction. tissues and organs?
a. Carbohydrates
6) Milk turns sour in one or two days when left at room b. Lipid
temperature and yet can remain unspoiled for two weeks c. Nucleic acid
refrigerated. What explains this? d. Protein
a. Decrease in temperature speeds up reaction rate.
b. Decrease in temperature slows down reaction rate. 15) What is the main function of the hormone oxytocin in the
c. Milk becomes less concentrated when placed in refrigerator. body?
d. Milk becomes more concentrated when placed in a. Controls water secretion by the kidneys.
refrigerator. b. Stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose.
c. Controls blood - glucose level and storage of glycogen.
7) What factor affects sawdust to burn faster than a block of d. Stimulates contraction of the uterine muscles and secretion
wood? of milk by the mammary glands.
a. Concentration of reactant
b. Presence of catalyst 16) The half-life of thorium-234 is 24 days. How much 5g of
c. Surface area of reactant 234th would be left after 48 days?
d. Temperature a. 0.625g
b. 1.25g
8) Which of the following observations is NOT true whenever c. 2.50g
a system is in chemical equilibrium? d. 3.75g
a. Attainment of equilibrium requires time.
b. The rates of opposing reactions are equal.
 12

17) What happens when there is a loss of an alpha particle c. 70cm

from the nucleus? d. 99cm
a. No change in the mass number or atomic number 26) What will happen to a moving object if the sum of all
b. Loss of 4 in the mass number, loss of 2 in the atomic forces acting on it is zero?
number a. It will accelerate uniformly.
c. Loss of 2 in the mass number, loss of 4 in the atomic b. It will slow down and stop.
number c. It will change the direction of its motion.
d. No change in the mass number, increase of 1 in the atomic d. It will continue moving with constant velocity.
number
27) Acceleration is always in the direction of the ________.
18) Which of the following poses a serious obstacle to the a. displacement
development of commercial fusion power plants? b. final velocity
a. Scarcity of deuterium c. initial velocity
b. Public concern about safety d. net force
c. Dwindling supply of uranium
d. Exceedingly high activation energy 28) A brick slides on a horizontal surface. Which of the
following will increase in magnitude of the frictional force on
19) A radioisotope is considered a tracer when it is used to it?
________. a. Putting a second brick on top.
a. kill cancerous tissues b. Decreasing the mass of the brick.
b. kill bacteria in food c. Increasing the surface area of contact.
c. determine the age of artifacts d. Decreasing the surface area of contact.
d. determine the way plants absorb fertilizers
29) The potential energy of a body at a certain height is 100 J.
20) Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector The kinetic energy possessed by it when it just touches the
respectively: mass of an object, the number of leaves on a tree, surface of the earth is ________.
and wind velocity. a. greater than the potential energy
a. Scalar, Scalar, Vector b. less than the potential energy
b. Scalar, Vector, Vector c. equal to the potential energy
c. Vector, Scalar, Scalar d. cannot be known
d. Vector, Scalar, Vector
30) What happens to the kinetic energy of an object if its
21) Which of the following is a scalar quantity? speed is doubled?
a. Acceleration a. It will be halved
b. Temperature b. It will be doubled
c. Velocity c. It will be tripled
d. Weight d. It will be quadrupled
22) Which of the following describes a vector quantity? 31) What is the type of energy possessed by a simple
a. It specifies direction only. pendulum when it is at the mean position?
b. It specifies magnitude only. a. Kinetic energy
c. It can be a dimensionless quantity. b. Mechanical energy
d. It specifies both magnitude and direction. c. Potential energy
23) A man pushes against the wall with 25 pounds of force. d. Sound energy
The wall does not move. What is the resultant force? 32) A ball is thrown upward into the air with a speed that is
a. -25 pounds greater than terminal speed. On the way up, it slows down and
b. 0 pounds after its speed equals the terminal speed but before it gets to
c. 50 pounds the trajectory ________.
d. 75 pounds a. it speeds up
24) In a coordinate system, a vector is oriented at angle with b. its speed is constant
respect to the x axis. The component of the vector equals the c. it continues to slow down
vector's magnitude multiplied by which trigonometric d. its motion becomes jerky
function? 33) When a bullet is fired from a rifle, the force on the rifle is
a. Cos angle equal to the force on the bullet. Why is it that the energy of the
b. Cot angle bullet is greater than the energy of the recoiling rifle?
c. Sin angle a. Because there is more impulse on the bullet.
d. Tan angle b. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer time.
25) An ant on a picnic table travels 30cm due east, then 25cm c. Because the force on the bullet acts for a longer distance.
northward and finally 15cm west. What is the magnitude of d. Because the bullet's momentum is greater than that of the
the ant's displacement relative to its point of origin? rifle.
a. 29cm
b. 58cm
 13

34) Car A has a mass of 1,000kg and a speed of 60 kph while c. Law of Interaction
Car B has a mass of 2,000kg running at a speed of 30 kph. d. Law of Gravitation
What is the kinetic energy of Car A? 42) The same net force is applied to object 1 and object 2. The
a. Half that of Car B two accelerations of the two objects are not the same. Object 1
b. Equal that of Car B has an acceleration three times that of object 2. Which of the
c. Twice that of Car B following is correct?
d. Four time that of Car B a. Object 1 has more friction than object 2.
35) An object is thrown straight up. Which of the following is b. Object 1 has one-third the mass of object 2.
TRUE about the sign of work done by the gravitational force c. Object 1 has three times the mass of object 2.
while the object moves up and down? d. Object 1 has a different, less streamlined shape than object
a. Work is zero on the way up, work is zero on the way down. 2.
b. Work is negative on the way up, work is negative on the 43) The law of inertia applies to ________.
way down. a. moving objects
c. Work is negative on the way up, work is positive on the way b. objects that are not moving
down. c. both moving and non-moving objects
d. Work is positive on the way up, work is negative on the d. none of these
way down.
44) Which statement is CORRECT about the Law of
36) What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if Conservation of Energy?
the net work done is positive? a. The total amount of energy is constant.
a. The kinetic energy remains the same. b. Energy cannot be used faster than it is created.
b. The kinetic energy increases. c. The supply of energy is limited so we must conserve.
c. The kinetic energy decreases. d. Energy must be conserved and you are breaking a law if
d. The kinetic energy is zero. you waste energy.
37) Object A with a mass of 4kg is lifted vertically 3m from 45) Which of the following can transform electrical energy to
the ground, object B with a mass of 2kg is lifted 6m up. Which mechanical energy?
of the following statement/s is/are TRUE? a. Electric bulb
I. Object A has greater potential energy since it is heavier. b. Electric fan
II. Object B has greater potential energy since it is lifted to a c. Loud speaker
higher position. d. Television
III. Two objects have the same potential energy.
a. I only 46) Daniel is making a picture frame. He sticks a nail into a
b. II only piece of wood and hits the nail with a hammer. Which form of
c. III only energy is NOT released when the hammer hits the nail?
d. not enough information given a. Chemical
b. Kinetic
38) According to the scientific definition of work, pushing a c. Sound
table accomplishes no work unless there is __________. d. Thermal
a. an opposing force
b. a net force greater than zero 47) Stephen throws a baseball into the air. It rises, stops when
c. an applied force greater than its weight it reaches the greatest height, and then falls back to the
d. movement in the same direction as the force ground. At what point is kinetic energy initially converted to
potential energy?
39) A machine does 2,500 J of work in 1 minute. What is the a. When the baseball is rising
power developed by the machine? b. When the baseball is falling
a. 21 W c. Just after the baseball hits the ground
b. 42 W d. While the baseball is stopped into the air
c. 2,500 W
d. 150,000 W 48) Which energy conversion takes place when a toaster is
switched on?
40) To which type of simple machine does a pencil shrapener a. Chemical to sound
belong? b. Chemical to thermal
a. Inclined plane c. Electrical to sound
b. Lever d. Electrical to thermal
c. Pulley
d. Wheel and axle 49) When coal is burned to produced electricity, the electrical
energy produced is less than the potential energy of the coal.
41) Which of Newton's laws best explains why motorists Which BEST explains this observation?
should always wear belts? a. The amount of energy in the coal is not known.
a. Law of Inertia b. As the coil is heated, the molecules move so fast that they
b. Law of Acceleration are destroyed.
c. Some of the potential energy in the coal is converted into
 14

forms of energy other than electricity. 47. A

d. Some of the potential energy in the coal requires more 48. D
intense heat so that it can be compared to electricity. 49. C
50) What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors arranged in 50. A
parallel?
I. Current spilts down each leg of the combination. PHYSICAL SCIENCE (1)
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination.
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination. 1) Which refers to the recorded observations and
a. I and II measurements in an experiment?
b. I and III a. Conclusion
c. II and III b. Data
d. I, II and III c. Graph
d. Variables
ANSWERS:
2) How is hypothesis tested?
1. D a. by gathering enough information about the problem
2. D b. by making inferences
3. A c. by conducting experiment
4. D d. by formulating conclusion
5. B
6. B 3) Which summarizes a natural occurence that may be
7. C constantly observed given the same conditions which may be
8. C expressed in words or in mathematical form?
9. A a. Conclusion
10. D b. Hypothesis
11. B c. Law
12. B d. Theory
13. D 4) Mark prepares a solution by putting a pinch of orange
14. D crystals to water in a beaker, then by consistent stirring, the
15. D crystals dissolve. Which of the statements above are likely to
16. B be observed by Mark?
17. B I. The water becomes orange.
18. D II. The color of the solution becomes darker.
19. D III. Crystals disappear from the bottom of the beaker.
20. A IV. The beaker and its contents become heavier as stirring
21. B continues.
22. D a. I and II
23. B b. III and IV
24. C c. I, II and III
25. A d. I, II and IV
26. D
5) Which of the following is NOT true about scientific
27. D
method?
28. A
a. Conclusion is the last step.
29. B
b. Scientific method may be applied in everyday life.
30. D
c. Scientific method is a systematic way of solving problem.
31. A
d. Scientific method is done by following a step-by-step
32. C
procedure in a exact sequence.
33. D
34. C 6) Which apparatus will you use to measure the mass of an
35. C irregular solid correctly?
36. B a. Empty beaker
37. C b. Erlenmeyer flask
38. D c. Graduated cyclinder with water
39. B d. Vernier caliper
40. D 7) To graph the distance covered and velocity of a car, which
41. A is the dependent varaiable? Where should be it plotted on a
42. B line graph?
43. C a. Distance, x-axis
44. A b. Distance, y-axis
45. A
46. A
 15

c. Velocity, x-axis a. III only

d. Velocity, y-axis b. I and II
8) A student found a piece of metal. What can the student do c. I, II and IV
to quickly determine if the metal might contain iron? d. II, III and IV
a. heat the metal 17) Which of the following is a physical property of non-
b. weigh the metal metals?
c. place the metal in water a. Malleability and ductility
d. place the metal near a magnet b. Low tensile strength
9) A student dipped a strip of aluminum and a strip of iron in c. High density
water. The student then exposed the strips to air for one week. d. High tensile strength
Which was most likely happen one week later? 18) The yellow color of a highlighter is a ________ property.
a. The iron strip formed rust. a. chemical
b. The aluminum strip formed rust. b. heterogeneous
c. Both of the metal strips formed rust. c. homogeneous
d. Neither of the metal strips formed rust. d. physical
10) Aubrey wants to track her summative tests scores over the 19) An odorless and colorless matter boils at 100 degree
course of grading period. Which of the following will BEST Celsius and melts at 0 degree Celsius. What inference can be
allow her to analyze her progress? drawn from this observation?
a. Bar graph a. It is a metal
b. Line graph b. It is a mixture
c. Pie graph c. It is a non-metal
d. Scatter graph d. It is a pure substance
11) What will most likely occur if global warming will not be 20) You want to clean a tarnished silver. Which one will you
addressed? use?
a. Lower sea levels a. Baking soda
b. Melting of ice caps b. Salt solution
c. More pollution in water c. Sugar solution
d. More reflected sunlight off the ice pack d. Vinegar
12) How is the relationship described when both quantities are 21) What will you add to your food to make it last longer?
increasing but one quantity increases faster than the other? a. Baking soda
a. Direct proportion b. Salt solution
b. Direct square proportion c. Tomato
c. Inverse proportion d. Vinegar
d. Inverse square proportion 22) Why is not advisable to drink softdrinks on an empty
13) In your attempt to determine which is denser - oil or water, stomach?
you mixed 25mL of oil with 25mL of water. What helpful a. It could lessen your appetite.
qualitative data can you derive from this setup? b. It could make you feel full faster.
a. There are 50mL of liquid in the container. c. It increases the acidity of your stomach.
b. Oil did not mix with water. d. It contains stimulant which causes dizziness.
c. Oil is on top of the water. 23) Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the
d. There are 25mL of water and 25mL of oil in the container. ________.
14) Which of the following is a compound? a. electron
a. Cemented wall b. neutron
b. Dry ice c. nucleus
c. Gold d. proton
d. Tincture of iodine 24) How many protons are present if an atom has a mass
15) Which is most likely to change blue litmus paper to red? number of 23 and atomic number of 11?
a. Ammonia in water a. 11
b. Detergent solution b. 12
c. Limewater c. 23
d. Vinegar d. 44
16) Which can be classified as homogeneous mixture? 25) Carbon-12 atom has ________.
I. Buko pie a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
II. Blood b. 6 electrons, 12 protons, 6 neutrons
III. Virgin coconut oil c. 12 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
IV. Mango juice d. 16 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
 16

26) What happens to atomic number during a chemical 35) In oxidation-reduction, the oxidizing agent is reduced and
reaction? gains electrons. The reducing agent is oxidized and loses
a. changes electrons. Are the statements CORRECT?
b. remains the same a. Both statements are correct
c. changes alternately b. Both statements are false
d. changes and then is restored c. First statement is true; second statement is false
27) Which of the following statements about isotopes of d. Second statement is true; first statement is false
hydrogen is correct? 36) How many moles of iron does 25g of Fe represent?
a. They have different atomic numbers. (Fe=55.85g)
b. They have the same number of neutrons. a. 0.448 mol
c. They have the same number of protons. b. 2.234 mol
d. The have different number of electrons. c. 30.85 mol
28) What happens when a metal reacts with a non-metal? d. 80.85 mol
Usually ________. 37) Which of the following is NOT a principal assumption of
a. a simple covalent bond is formed Kinetic Molecular Theory?
b. a coordinate covalent bond is formed a. Gas particles move rapidly.
c. positive and negative ions are formed b. Gases consist of submicroscopic particles.
d. there is a sharing of electrons in the outer shells of two c. There is very little empty space in a gas.
elements d. Gas particles have no attraction for one another.
29) What bond exists in a solid that does not conduct 38) Which refers to the kinetic energy or motion of gas
electricity but conduct electricity when dissolved in water? particles?
a. Coordinate covalent bond a. Pressure
b. Covalent bond b. Quantity of gas
c. Ionic bond c. Temperature
d. Metallic bond d. Volume
30) N, Y, and Z represent elements of atomic numbers 9, 11, 39) What is the BEST reason why the atmospheric pressure in
and 16. What type of bond will be formed between Y and Z? Baguio City is lower than the atmospheric pressure at sea
a. Ionic bond level?
b. Metallic bond a. Because there are more gas particles at higher altitudes.
c. Nonpolar covalent bond b. Because there are less gas particles at higher altitudes.
d. Polar covalent bond c. Because there is greater temperature at higher altitudes.
31) A weak attraction between hydrogen atom in one molecule d. Because there is lesser temperature at higher altitudes.
and an oxygen in another is called ________. 40) Which of the following correctly describes the process of
a. Covalent bond exhalation (air going out of the lungs)?
b. Hydrogen bond a. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure
c. Ionic bond to increase.
d. Metallic bond b. The lungs decrease in volume, causing the internal pressure
32) What is the element needed to bond with Na to create the to decrease.
most ionic bond? c. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure
a. F to increase.
b. Cl d. The lungs increase in volume, causing the internal pressure
c. Br to decrease.
d. I 41) How is food cooked faster using a pressure cooker?
33) The boiling point of substance A is higher than that of a. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and decreases
substance B. What does this mean? the boiling point of the liquid.
a. Substance A is less viscious than substance B. b. The accumulated steam increases the pressure and increases
b. Substance A evaporates faster than substance B. the boiling point of the liquid.
c. Substance B has greater surface tension than substance A. c. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and
d. Substance B has weaker intermolecular forces than decreases the boiling point of the liquid.
substance A. d. The accumulated steam decreases the pressure and increases
the boiling point of the liquid.
34) What is the intermolecular force of attraction between the
nucleus of one atom and the electrons of a nearby atom? 42) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a base?
a. Dipole-dipole force a. Bitter taste
b. Ion-dipole force b. Slippery feeling
c. London dispersion force c. Able to change litmus from red to blue
d. Van der Waals force d. Reacts with carbonates to produce carbon dioxide
 17

43) Which factor affects the rate of dissolution when 6. C

powdered sugar dissolves more rapidly than granulated sugar? 7. B
a. Application of heat 8. D
b. Nature of solute 9. A
c. Particle size 10. A
d. Stirring 11. B
44) In which factor is the description "like dissolves like" 12. B
BEST used? 13. C
a. Volume 14. B
b. Pressure 15. D
c. Temperature 16. D
d. Nature of solute and solvent 17. B
18. D
45) When the production of hydrogen ions in the body is the 19. D
same as their loss, you are in ________. 20. A
a. acid-base balance 21. D
b. electrolytic balance 22. C
c. water balance 23. C
d. balanced diet 24. A
46) When an egg yolk is added to oil and water with vinegar 25. A
to make mayonnaise, the egg yolk serves as ________. 26. B
a. coagulant 27. C
b. emulsifying agent 28. C
c. solvent 29. C
d. surfactant 30. A
31. B
47) Which of the following involves adsorption? 32. A
a. Plating of copper on a steel object
33. D
b. Adherence of paint to wood surfaces
34. C
c. Brown color of the eyes of Filipinos
35. A
d. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator using charcoal
36. A
48) Which of the following BEST describes temperature? 37. C
a. Temperature measures the total energy in something. 38. C
b. Temperature measures the kinetics energy in substance. 39. B
c. Temperature measures the total kinetic energy contained in 40. A
an object. 41. A
d. Temperature measures the average molecular kinetic energy 42. D
in a substance. 43. C
49) The Earth receives tremendous heat coming from the sun 44. D
which could be beneficial at one point and harmful to a large 45. B
extent. Which of the following methods of transferring heat is 46. B
being illustrated? 47. D
a. Conduction 48. D
b. Convection 49. C
c. Radiation 50. C
d. Transduction
50) A reaction takes place endothermically. Which of the
following statements BEST describes endothermic reactions?
a. The temperature of the system drops. TLE (8) - Business Math
b. The temperature of the surrounding rises. 1) Find the profit of Weng's water refilling business with
c. The temperature of the surrounding drops. revenue of ₱56,000,000 and costs of ₱42,000,000.
d. The temperature of the surrounding remains the same. a. ₱14,000,000
ANSWERS: b. ₱140,000
c. ₱1,400,000
1. B d. ₱14,000
2. C
3. C 2) Norma's food stall has costs of ₱2,900. Her total food sales
4. C are ₱11,600. What percent of her food sales do the food costs
5. D represent?
 18

a. 20% c. Day to day cash from sales to customers

b. 25% d. Money loaned from trade suppliers through extended credit
c. 27% 11) A shareholder sells his shares for more than he paid for
d. 30% them. This is known as:
3) Marvin needs 250 cookies for a buffet. He will make a. Capital gain
oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk cookies. He b. Profit on disposal
wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal raisin and 15% of the c. God deal
cookies to be macaroons. How many chocolate chunk cookies d. Capital allowance
must Marvin bake? 12) The point at which the level of sales of a business exactly
a. 150 equals its costs is known as the:
b. 125 a. Break-even point
c. 140 b. Insolvency point
d. 100 c. Start-up stage
4) If a shirt is marked down 25%, what will the purchase price d. Profit point
be? 13) Working capital is:
a. ₱25 a. Current Assets-Current Liabilities
b. 75% of its original price b. Notes Payable
c. 50% off c. Current Liabilities
d. ₱75 d. Accounts Payable
5) A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture 14) Which of the following does not appear in a Balance
Store. The list price in the manufacturer's catalog is ₱1,600. Sheet?
480 Furniture receives a 35% trade discount. What is the net a. Cash
price for the furniture order? b. Equipment
a. ₱560 c. Accounts Payable
b. ₱1,535 d. Depreciation Expense
c. ₱1,565
d. ₱1,040 15) Adjusting entries are used to:
a. close the books
6) Ron's Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its b. record accruals
products. What is the trade discount rate on an item with a list c. correct errors
price of ₱16.79 and a net price of ?₱2.42? d. all of the listed answers are correct
a. 22%
b. 26% 16) Net Income or Profit results from:
c. 54% a. revenues exceeding expenses
d. 74% b. assets exceeding liabilities
c. expenses exceeding revenues
7) What type of financial statement summarizes the d. liabilities exceeding assets
information concerning the cash inflows and outflows during a
particular period? 17) Assets are normally recorded at:
a. Balance sheet a. cost
b. Statement cash flows b. appraised value
c. Income statement c. market value
d. Statement of retained earning d. management's estimated value
8) Closing entries are made: 18) Which financial report measures results for a period of
a. so that financial statements can be made time?
b. in order to terminate the business as an operating entity a. Balance Sheet
c. in order to transfer net income/loss and owner's drawings to b. Income Statement
the owner's capital account c. Trial Balance
d. so that all assets, liabilities, and owner's capital accounts d. All of the listed answers
will have zero balances when the next accounting period starts 19) Using the double entry system, every business transaction
9) Suppliers who allow business to receive goods and services _________.
before paying for them are known as: a. affects two or more accounts
a. Finance companies b. affects only asset accounts
b. Leasing companies c. affects only one account
c. Trade companies d. affects only income statement
d. Trade debtors 20) A debt incurred by buying goods or services from a
10) Which of the following is an example of external finance? supplier on credit is called _________.
a. Disposal by a business of surplus assets a. property
b. Bank loan b. accounts payable
 19

c. an expense what entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?

d. accounts receivable a. Statistical study
ANSWERS: b. Marketing study
c. Entrepreneurial scanning
1. A d. Environmental scanning
2. B
3. A 6) There are P's in preparing market research. Which P in
4. B marketing is designed to communicate the product to
5. D customers?
6. B a. Place
7. B b. Price
8. C c. People
9. C d. Promotion
10. B 7) The site of the business enterprise is one of the
11. A requirements of entrepreneurship. Which of the following is
12. A the most important in choosing the best location for the
13. A business?
14. D a. access to supplies and raw materials
15. D b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
16. A c. less competitors in the area
17. A d. enough capital to pay space rental
18. B 8) Which term refers to people, institutions or organizations
19. A for whom the business is designed?
20. B a. sample
TLE (7) - Entrepreneurship b. population
1) In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and opportunities c. market
are evolving. What is the ability to create new things, invest in d. society
new enterprises and expand business? 9) Which one is not included in planning a business?
a. Creativity a. how and when to do it
b. Entrepreneurship b. how to increase profits
c. Manufacturing c. what to expect in the future
d. Producing d. what to do
2) Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He observed that 10) What is the benefit of business planning wherein the
there is an opportunity for him to put up his own business entrepreneur determines whether the business is profitable or
since he has enough capital and very much interested to the not?
idea. Which of these factors must he possess so that he will a. minimize cost production
not rely on the services of the employees? b. detect the weakness of the business
a. Markets c. eliminate business risk
b. Manpower d. estimate sales
c. Supply of resources
d. Knowledge/Skills 11) What is thinking ahead of objectives, strategies, financing,
production, marketing, profit proposal and growth facilities?
3) Management functions and principles play a very critical a. forecasting
role in running a business. What principle of planning b. managing
specifies that the objectives of an entrepreneur should match c. planning
the needs of the society? d. projecting
a. must be realistic
b. must be based on felt needs 12) Business enterprises should operate in a dynamic
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis environment in order to survive. What kind of environment
d. must start with a simple project includes technological, social and ethical/political factors?
a. Macro environment
4) Entrepreneurs use various management tools to succeed in a b. Micro environment
business. What management tool is used to analyze business c. Technological environment
opportunities? d. Social environment
a. Environmental scanning
b. Market study 13) Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an already
c. Market survey established business, what type of retail ownership is it?
d. SWOT a. Corporate
b. Franchise
5) When an entrepreneur communicates with people through c. Independent
interviews, observations and advertisement on what is new, d. Single-store-ownership
 20

14) Who among the following is the principal actor of the c. Working skills
production? d. Business management skills
a. Entrepreneur 23) Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in
b. Customer starting a business?
c. Production manager a. Study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills.
d. Worker b. Cope with failures of the business.
15) These are the perishable tangible used in the production c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills.
process. d. Know what characteristics are needed to become an
a. Financial resources entrepreneur.
b. Human resources 24) Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Mr.
c. Information resources Fajardo's future business?
d. Material resources a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the Philippines.
16) Which method of establishing a business starts from b. Borrow money from friends and relatives.
scratch? c. Avail of the government program on financing micro-macro
a. buy-out business.
b. franchising d. Use part of her retirement benefit.
c. loan 25) If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future
d. start-up entrepreneur is INAPPROPRIATE?
17) What brief description of the market describes the buyers a. Relaxed
and users of the product and the area of dispersion? b. Hard worker
a. market analysis c. Risk taker
b. market dispersion d. Innovative
c. marketing 26) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an
d. market study entrepreneur?
18) It is a type of organization wherein a superior delegates a. Coping with failure
authority to a subordinate. b. Irritated
a. committee type c. Opportunity seeker
b. functional type d. Persistent
c. line type 27) Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur is
d. line and staff type UNDESIRABLE?
19) Which is one disadvantage of a functional type of a. Opportunity seeker
organization? b. Goal setter
a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is weak. c. Futuristic
b. Each manager is supreme in his own field. d. Impassive
c. It is difficult to secure executives and superiors with an all 28) Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in
around knowledge. small business?
d. There is greater flexibility. a. Poor financial control
20) What type of product, as designed, produced and marketed b. Poor location
by the seller? c. Management mistakes
a. Licensed brand d. Improper inventory control
b. National brand 29) Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his feet
c. Private label brand and puts him into action, turning daydream into reality?
d. Trademark a. Perseverance
21) Which of the following is the correct definition of the term b. Ambition
"entrepreneur"? A person who ________. c. Creativity
a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources d. Enthusiasm
b. starts a new business with the aim of making a profit 30) Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur a
c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or positive outlook in life which gives the energy to pursue his
customer by starting new ventures which exploit new endeavors?
products, processes or markets. a. Perseverance
d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of b. Ambition
economic activity, by identifying and exploiting new products, c. Creativity
processes or markets d. Enthusiasm
22) Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an 31) Which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the
entrepreneur? troubles that come with a starting business?
a. Technical skills a. Perseverance
b. Personal entrepreneurial skills
 21

b. Ambition a. Introduction
c. Creativity b. Growth
d. Enthusiasm c. Maturity
32) What is the general function of marketing, involves the d. Decline
physical meeting point for buyers and sellers at the point of 40) A marketing mix that can have both tangible and
production or via some other means of communication? intangible aspects and is the thing you offer to satisfy your
a. Specific functions customers' wants and needs is ________.
b. Exchange functions a. Product
c. Physical functions b. Packaging
d. Facilitating functions c. Price
33) Which type of marketing functions, enables the actual d. Promotion
flow of commodities through space and time from producer to 41) Which is considered to be the best way to assess
consumer and their transformation to a form desirable function entrepreneurial projects or business ventures?
to the consumers? a. Environmental analysis
a. Specific functions b. SWOT analysis
b. Exchange functions c. Competitor analysis
c. Physical functions d. PEST analysis
d. Facilitating functions 42) An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and
34) From a social viewpoint, which of the following threats of a business to make better decisions regarding
statements about marketing objective is NOT true? marketing plan is termed ________.
a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources. a. Environmental analysis
b. Create wealth and promote economic growth. b. SWOT analysis
c. Improve income distribution among different sectors of the c. Competitor analysis
economy. d. PEST analysis
d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed 43) The acronym SWOT stands for:
goods. a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing
35) Which is considered a vehicle for informing target market b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Testing
about the enterprise and the products or services? c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats
a. Product d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Threats
b. Price 44) Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing
c. Place planning process of an enterprise?
d. Promotion a. Where are we now?
36) At what stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur b. Where are we heading?
concentrate on targeting a new market of buyers and taking c. Are we on course?
market share from competitors by price cutting or relaunching d. Where would we like to be?
the product? 45) Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing
a. Introduction planning process flow chart?
b. Growth a. Control
c. Maturity b. Marketing planning mix
d. Decline c. Setting marketing objectives
37) Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a d. Setting the product price
small-scale business? 46) An entrepreneur might select a target market probably
a. Keeping clear records because the target market ________.
b. Verifying profit and loss a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply
c. Managing cash flow capabilities
d. Distribution channel b. is large and well-served with existing products
38) Which marketing channel operates with capital owned c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
directly by the operators and their partners, or in some cases d. has a proven track record for buying product
by shareholders? 47) A carefully thought structured formal commercial report
a. Cooperatives that is extraordinary well documented and clearly written to
b. Independent, locally based private enterprise safeguard any wastage of further investment project is called
c. Marketing boards and other state enterprises ________.
d. Transnational companies a. Portfolio
39) At which stage of a product life cycle must an b. Business plan
entrepreneur decide whether he wants to try to rejuvenate the c. Resume
product by investing in development and aggressive marketing d. Feasibility study
or to quietly admit defeat and exit the market?
 22

48) Which is considered as a comprehensive and effective 1) A schematic diagram shows the components of an
blueprint to guide an entrepreneur in a business venture? electronic circuit by means of:
a. Resume a. Symbol
b. Portfolio b. Construction
c. Business plan c. Physical appearance
d. Insurance plan d. Linear appearance
ANSWERS: 2) What is the best place for electronic hand tools and
1. B equipment?
2. D a. Tool box
3. B b. Tool cabinet
4. D c. Tool room
5. B d. Tool bag
6. D 3) Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 ohms,
7. A 27 ohms, and 33 ohms. If a 12 V battery is connected across
8. C this combination, what is the current drawn from the battery?
9. B a. 1.4 A
10. C b. 15 mA
11. C c. 150 mA
12. A d. 1.5 A
13. B 4) Which of the following is a non-polarized electronic
14. C component?
15. D a. Transistor
16. D b. Resistor
17. D c. Diode
18. C d. Electrolytic capacitor
19. A
20. C 5) The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called ________.
21. C a. Peak-reverse voltage
22. C b. Working voltage
23. B c. Blow-up voltage
24. A d. Breakdown voltage
25. A 6) A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to
26. B do one of the following functions. Which one is it?
27. D a. allow current to flow in both directions
28. B b. multiply voltage
29. B c. allow current to flow in one direction only
30. D d. not allow any current flow
31. A
32. B 7) There are various types of diodes. This diode that acts as a
regulator is the ________.
33. C
a. Silicon diode
34. D
b. Crystal diode
35. C
36. C c. LED
37. C d. Zener diode
38. B 8) You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a
39. D rectifier. What is it?
40. A a. Anode
41. B b. Cathode
42. D c. Gate
43. D d. Main Terminal
44. A 9) When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the
45. A diode is ________.
46. A a. Shorted
47. D b. Open
48. C c. Leaky
d. Good
TLE (6) - Basic Electronics
10) If the transistor is an NPN type, the base is ________.
a. negative & positive
 23

b. negative c. Antenna
c. positive d. Tuner
d. common 20) An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is accidentally
11) If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What component is usually
tells us that the transistor is: destroyed?
a. NPN a. Switch
b. PNP b. AC plug
c. Bipolar c. Line fuse
d. Injunction d. Power transformer
12) In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with 21) The word electron was derived from the Greek word
an arrow is the: "elektron", which means:
a. Emitter a. to rub
b. Base b. to flow
c. Collector c. amber
d. Cathode d. friction
13) The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor 22) The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC outlet is
is ________. ________.
a. Electromagnetism a. 620 V
b. Ferromagnetism b. 165.5 V
c. Magnetism c. 331 V
d. Diamagnetism d. 220 V
14) The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero 23) Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the
periodically and is produced in rectifier is known as carriers is changed in accordance with demodulating signal?
________. a. FM
a. Pulsating Direct Current b. PDM
b. Damped Alternating Current c. AM
c. Varying Direct Current d. PCM
d. Saw tooth wave 24) The actual flow of current is from ________.
15) Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering a. negative to positive
_________. b. positive to negative
a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz c. positive to positive
b. 88 - 108 MHz d. negative to negative
c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz 25) The rate of doing work is called ________.
d. 535 - 1,605 kHz a. energy
16) An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The b. power
electronic component responsible for this function is the: c. voltage
a. Tuning capacitor d. resistance
b. Oscillator coil 26) MilliHenry is equal to ________.
c. IF transformer a. 10th Henry
d. Detector diode b. 100th Henry
17) The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately c. 1,000th Henry
using one of the ranges listed below: d. 1,000,000th Henry
a. R x 1K 27) An inductor opposes any change in ________.
b. R x 10 a. voltage
c. R x 1 b. current
d. R x 10K c. frequency
18) Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip d. modulation
of a soldering iron refers to: 28) A circuit having two or more current paths is a ________
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper connection.
b. Making the tip pointed a. parallel
c. Cutting the tip b. series
d. Applying flux to the tip c. series-parallel
19) The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a d. cannot be determined
transistor radio is a defective? 29) Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?
a. Amplifier a. Ohms
b. Volume control b. Ampere
 24

c. Watt c. 3.4 V
d. Volt d. 6 V
30) A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's Law is 40) If two resistors are placed in series, the final resistance is
________. ________.
a. linear a. higher
b. non-linear b. lower
c. potentiometer c. the same
d. resistance d. cannot be determined
31) Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or 41) A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n produces ________.
oppose the flow of current in a circuit? a. 90n
a. Capacitor b. 110n
b. Resistor c. 100n
c. Diode d. cannot be determined
d. Inductor 42) The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k produces ________.
32) An instrument that is used to measure the amount of a. 10K
resistance in a circuit is called ________. b. 20K
a. DC voltmeter c. 5K
b. ohmmeter d. cannot be determined
c. AC voltmeter 43) The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected in series. The
d. ammeter output voltage is ________.
33) Solder is a mixture of ________. a. 3V
a. tin lead b. 6V
b. zinc and lead c. 0V
c. zinc and tin d. cannot be determined
d. copper and lead 44) An electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the
34) The common used soldering lead is ________. flow of current in a circuit is called a ________.
a. 40-60 a. capacitor
b. 60-40 b. resistor
c. 50-50 c. diode
d. 50-40 d. inductor
35) A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ________. 45) Which tool is needed in removing soldered components in
a. 45 Hz the circuit board?
b. 30 Hz a. Long nose pliers
c. 50 Hz b. Desoldering pump
d. 60 Hz c. Diagonal cutting pliers
36) A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as d. Wire stripper
________. 46) Which tool is used in joining or soldering electronic
a. tweeter components in the circuit board?
b. squeaker a. Soldering iron
c. woofer b. Electrical pliers
d. howler c. Desoldering pump
37) The three leads of a common transistor are a/an: d. Long nose plier
a. collector base emitter 47) Which tool is used to hold or pick up components in the
b. emitter collector base circuit board?
c. base collector case a. Mechanical pliers
d. collector base emitter b. Long nose pliers
38) Connecting lead from the negative to the positive of a c. Electrical pliers
battery will produce a/an ________. d. Wire stripper
a. high resistance circuit 48) Which tool is used in turning slotted screws?
b. low current path a. Flat screw driver
c. short circuit b. Phillips screw driver
d. open circuit c. Electrical pliers
39) What is the approximate characteristic voltage that d. Wire stripper
develops across a red LED? 49) Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides maximum
a. 1.7 V safety when pulling cartridge fuses and checking electrical
b. 0.6 V connections?
 25

a. Fuse puller 59) When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the
b. Screw driver capacitance will ________.
c. Desoldering tool a. increase
d. Mini drill b. have the same value
50) If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v supply, the current c. decrease
will be ________. d. increase and decrease
a. 10 mA 60) Which circuit has the most gain?
b. 0.001 mA a. Common emitter
c. 1 mA b. Common collector
d. 65 mA c. Common base
51) A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal display) is d. Emitter follower
________. 61) Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its
a. high current demands rectification?
b. slow reactance to input a. half-wave rectifier
c. environmental temperature sensitivity b. full-wave rectifier
d. persistence limitations c. full-wave rectifier
52) Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load? d. split type rectifier
a. Tends to stop or not start 62) When a resistor is open, the resistance ________.
b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed a. increases
c. Has reverse direction b. gets zero
d. Becomes an AC generator c. decreases
53) A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an d. is infinite
"open fuse" supply voltage of ________. 63) A low voltage power supply converts ________.
a. 125 Volts a. AC voltage output
b. 500 Volts b. Pulsating DC voltage
c. 5,000 Volts c. DC output voltage
d. 250 Volts d. AC and DC voltage outputs
54) To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ________. 64) When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the
a. silicon grease resistance reads
b. insulator ________.
c. heat sink a. zero level
d. exhaust fan b. high resistance but within the tolerance
55) To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are c. infinite
________. d. low but not zero
a. reverse 65) Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the
b. parallel other will ________.
c. forward a. decrease capacitance
d. series b. increase capacitance
56) Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an c. decrease voltage rating
insulator? d. increase mutual transductunce
a. a slow-blow type fuse 66) In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky,
b. an inductive fuse you would use the ________ ohmmeter range.
c. a capacitive fuse a. lowest
d. intended for high voltage fuse b. highest
57) Which would be considered "basic components of a power c. middle
supply"? d. upper
a. zener, regulator, transformer 67) A schematic diagram shows the components of an
b. regulator, diode, AC power, load electronic circuit by means of ________.
c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load a. a symbol
d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer b. a construction
58) Which presents the rise and fall of alternating current and c. physical appearance
voltages? d. linear appearance
a. Graph 68) If there are only two resistors with the same values in
b. Sine wave parallel circuit, which formula may be used to find its total
c. Fluctuation resistance?
d. Cycle a. Rt = R/n
 26

b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2) c. damaged tools

c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn d. locally produced tools
d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2) 79) Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkages
69) Which hand tool is used solely for cutting metals? between components or parts on schematic diagram?
a. utility knife a. Connecting lines
b. saw b. Dashed lines
c. magnifying glass c. Medium lines
d. paint brush d. Thin lines
70) What is the reason why threads become stripped? 80) What does VOM mean?
a. screws are over tightened a. AC Voltmeter
b. screws are heated b. Ohmmeter
c. screws are molded c. DC Milliammeter
d. screws are painted d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter
71) In what instrument is the ohmmeter found? 81) Which tool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the
a. Ammeter wire?
b. Tube tester a. utility knife
c. Capacitor tester b. hacksaw
d. VOM c. side cutter
72) From what part of the ohmmeter do you derive resistance d. wire stripper
reading? 82) What does LED stands for?
a. Range multiplier a. Light emitting display
b. Reading scale b. Low energy display
c. Test probes c. Light emitting diode
d. Pointer d. Light emitting detector
73) Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in 83) Which picture or sketch shows the components of a circuit
one? and how these components are connected together?
a. Audio generator a. Wiring diagram
b. Oscilloscope b. Block diagram
c. Signal generator c. Pictorial diagram
d. VOM d. Schematic diagram
74) Which device produces simple waveforms? 84) 3 pieces of resistors in which the values are 10 ohm, 20
a. Audio amplifier ohms, and 50 ohms. If the 20 ohms is open, what will be the
b. VOM reading in the ohmmeter?
c. Signal tracer a. 60 ohms
d. Signal generator b. 0
75) What is the another name for connection diagram? c. infinite
a. Wiring diagram d. 80 ohms
b. Block diagram 85) Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-up signal
c. Pictorial diagram despite the far distance from the transmitter compared to the
d. Schematic diagram FM receiver?
76) Which equipment is used to discharge electrical charges a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the
produced by the human body? transistor.
a. Audio generator b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals
b. Signal generator transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to sight.
c. ESD c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals
d. VOM transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to
ground.
77) Which term refers to the set of rules or practices to ensure d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals
no accident prevention? transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to
a. Safety practices televise.
b. Rules and regulation
c. Policy order 86) Why is it needed to place antenna in higher or an elevated
d. Action plan area particularly in a mountainous place?
I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means
78) What tools are NOT recommended to be used in of line to ground; the higher antenna the more signal can be
electronics works? received.
a. brand new tools II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to
b. branded tools capture the wind direction.
 27

III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means 31. B

of line of sight; the higher antenna the more signal can be 32. B
received. 33. A
a. I only 34. B
b. III only 35. D
c. II only 36. C
d. I, II, III 37. D
87) A Service Electronics Technician cleaned the terminal of 38. C
the component using sand paper or knife before it soldered to 39. C
the PCB. What is the main purpose of that cleaning? 40. A
a. To attract more charges. 41. A
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made 42. C
easily. 43. B
c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons. 44. B
d. To maximize the desired voltages. 45. B
46. A
88) If the Service Electronics Technician applied the so-called 47. B
pre-tinning, how should be the process be? 48. A
a. The Service Electronics Technician applies a little amount 49. A
of soldering lead and soldering flux to the tip during pre- 50. B
heating of the soldering iron. 51. B
b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans the soldering tip 52. B
using files, sand paper or a cutter. 53. A
c. The Service Electronics Technician allows his soldering 54. C
iron to heat atleast 40 minutes before he uses it and solders 55. D
with the terminal of the component. 56. D
d. The Service Electronics Technician checks the temperature 57. B
of the tip before soldering is made. 58. B
ANSWERS: 59. A
60. A
1. A
61. C
2. A 62. D
3. A 63. B
4. B
64. C
5. B
65. A
6. C
66. B
7. D
67. A
8. B 68. B
9. A 69. B
10. C
70. A
11. B
71. D
12. A
72. A
13. A 73. D
14. A 74. D
15. D
75. D
16. A
76. C
17. C
77. A
18. D
78. C
19. B 79. A
20. C 80. D
21. B
81. D
22. D
82. C
23. C
83. C
24. A
84. C
25. B 85. C
26. C 86. B
27. B
87. B
28. A
88. A
29. C
30. A
TLE (5) - Carpentry and Masonry
 28

1) The preparation of good quality lumber includes several 10) Which of the following tools is used in checking the
stages. When it is dried, the process involved is? squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface?
a. seasoning a. Straightedge
b. staining b. Steel square
c. lumbering c. Sliding T-bevel
d. logging d. Try square
2) The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find 11) The strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs
in the steel rule is ________. is ________.
a. decimeter a. miter
b. centimeter b. mortise and tenon
c. millimeter c. dado
d. meter d. butt and lap
3) What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to 12) You are almost finished with your project. One of the
centimeters? procedure below is done before the application of finishing
a. 25.4 materials.
b. 2.54 a. cutting
c. 0.254 b. spraying
d. 0.0254 c. sanding
4) Find the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber d. varnishing
with a dimension of 2" x 4" x 12'. 13) A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or
a. 8 bd. ft. planed is called:
b. 96 bd. ft. a. S3S
c. 48 bd. ft. b. S2S
d. 480 bd. ft. c. Rough
5) A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which d. S4S
among the following is best to use? 14) In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side
a. Sun dried blocks is called:
b. Kiln dried a. Lapping
c. Air dried b. Scarfing
d. Natural dried c. Fishing
6) There are numerous kinds of saw. When sawing along the d. Jointing
grain of wood, you need a ________. 15) There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest
a. back saw and easiest to make is ________.
b. cross cut saw a. Lap joint
c. rip saw b. Dado joint
d. circular saw c. Miter joint
7) In measuring cylindrical object, what is the appropriate tool d. Butt joint
to be used? 16) In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support
a. ruler member upon which the floor system is laid is the ________.
b. caliper a. Floor joist
c. pull-push rule b. Sill
d. meter stick c. Header
8) Fastening materials are important in woodworks. The most d. Girder
common of these materials is ________. 17) A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to
a. dowel distribute loads and stiffen the structure of the roof is
b. bolts ________.
c. screw a. Girts
d. nails b. Rafter
9) A wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are c. Truss
laid one upon the other and bonded with glue or synthetic d. Purlins
resin is ________. 18) A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. What is the
a. Pressed wood angle of the file set against the bevel of the tooth of a cross cut
b. Plywood saw?
c. Particle board a. 30 degrees
d. Soft wood b. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 60 degrees
 29

19) What kind of wood finishing material is used when you b. smooth
want a solid color instead of a wood pattern finish? c. dressed
a. Opaque finishes d. worked
b. Bleaches 29) Which is a plank of wood that has been roughly cut?
c. Stains a. Timber
d. Lacquers b. Board
20) A saw angle should be adjusted depending on the kind of c. Lumber
wood. What is the recommended angle for soft and thin wood? d. Block
a. 30-45 degrees 30) Which lumber has been cut from logs radially to the
b. 60 degrees growth rings and the fiber runs about parallel to the face?
c. 80 degrees a. Edge-grain
d. 20 degrees b. Angle-grain
21) Which is considered to be the oldest and most commonly c. Flat-grain
used building material? d. Close-grain
a. Cement 31) Which lumber has been cut tangentially to the growth
b. Wood rings and the fiber runs about 90 degrees to the face?
c. Steel a. Edge-grain
d. Sand b. Angle-grain
22) A wood which is obtained from conifers and are used for c. Flat-grain
framing? d. Close-grain
a. Hard wood 32) Which is the art of building with stone, bricks, concrete
b. Soft wood blocks of other similar materials?
c. Dark wood a. Carpentry
d. Brown wood b. Concrete
23) Which wood is obtained from deciduous trees? c. Mortar
a. Hard wood d. Masonry
b. Soft wood 33) If you want to go upstairs, which part do you hold on to?
c. Dark wood a. Handrail
d. Brown wood b. Tread
24) Which is a binding agent that reacts with water to form a c. Handle
hard stone-like substance? d. Riser
a. Glue 34) If you want to upstairs, which part do you step on?
b. Cement a. Handrail
c. Mortar b. Tread
d. Grout c. Handle
25) Which term refers to inert materials when bound together d. Riser
into a conglomerated mass from concrete? 35) What makes the door swing when you close and open it?
a. Aggregates a. Door knob
b. Gravel b. Door lock
c. Cement c. Door shutter
d. Water d. Door hinge
26) A lumber that has been sawed, edged, and trimmed in 36) A carpenter wants to construct a stair, what could be the
which cutting marks are visible is ________. standard height of the riser?
a. rough a. 5-6 inches
b. smooth b. 6-8 inches
c. dressed c. 8-10 inches
d. worked d. 10-12 inches
27) Which lumber has been put through planing machine 37) In masonry works, it is necessary to wear protective
which gives fine surface? equipment, EXCEPT:
a. rough a. mask
b. smooth b. goggles
c. dressed c. gloves
d. worked d. ear muffs
28) Which lumber that has been dresses and matched, ship 38) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from
lapped, or patterned? falling objects?
a. rough a. Hat
 30

b. Belt and harness c. Lap joint

c. Helmet d. Miter joint
d. Shed 48) A carpenter wants to make a dining table. Which joint is
39) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from appropriate to become rigid and durable?
falling? a. Miter joint
a. Hat b. Mortise and Tenon joint
b. Belt and harness c. Dado joint
c. Helmet d. Butt joint
d. Shed 49) Which is the simplest type of wood joint?
40) These are compress baked clay that are processed into a. Dado joint
workable materials? b. Butt joint
a. Stone c. Lap joint
b. Sand d. Miter joint
c. Bricks 50) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two
d. CHB pieces by cutting of 45 degrees angle?
41) Which lumber has wood fibers that are packed closely a. Rabbet joint
together? b. Butt joint
a. Edge-grain c. Lap joint
b. Angle-grain d. Miter joint
c. Flat-grain 51) Which wood joint protects the room occupants from
d. Close-grain seeing outside?
42) Which lumber has wood fiber that do not run parallel to a. Rabbet joint
the board? b. Butt joint
a. Edge-grain c. Bridle joint
b. Cross-grain d. Miter joint
c. Flat-grain 52) Which wood joint is used to support the middle of a
d. Close-grain bench?
43) A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which type of joint is a. Dado joint
appropriate? b. Butt joint
a. Dado joint c. Bridle joint
b. Tenon joint d. Miter joint
c. Lap joint 53) Which unit is the basic linear unit of an English system?
d. Miter joint a. foot
44) A carpenter fixes shelves of a bookcase. Which type of b. meter
joint is appropriate? c. yard
a. Dado joint d. inch
b. Mortise and Tenon joint 54) Which unit is the basic linear unit of a Metric system?
c. Lap joint a. foot
d. Miter joint b. meter
45) In which wood joint is the end of one member inserted to c. yard
hole of the other member? d. inch
a. Dado joint 55) If you have 2 ft length of a piece of wood, how long is it in
b. Mortise and Tenon joint inches?
c. Lap joint a. 25
d. Miter joint b. 12
46) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two c. 22
pieces by putting one side over the other? d. 24
a. Dado joint 56) If you have 2 yards length of a piece of wood, how long is
b. Butt joint it in inches?
c. Lap joint a. 82
d. Miter joint b. 72
47) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two c. 84
pieces by putting one end over the other? d. 64
a. Dado joint 57) 10 yards length of wood is how many feet?
b. Butt joint a. 36
b. 35
 31

c. 30 c. Claw hammer
d. 24 d. Sledge hammer
58) One decameter of G.I. sheets is how many centimeters? 68) A carpenter wants to smoothen wood surfaces. Which tool
a. 10 is appropriate?
b. 20 a. File
c. 100 b. Sand paper
d. 1,000 c. Back saw
59) A 2" x 3" x 12' lumber is how many board feet? d. Plane
a. 2 69) A mason wants to create a smooth finish of concrete after
b. 6 floating. Which tool is appropriate?
c. 8 a. Brick hammer
d. 10 b. Concrete trowel
60) 5 pcs. of a 1" x 1' x 8' lumber is how many board feet? c. Plane
a. 30 d. Float
b. 35 70) A mason wants to set or cut brick, block, or stone. Which
c. 40 tool is appropriate?
d. 45 a. Claw hammer
61) 50 millimeters length of a piece of lumber is how many b. Crandall
decimeter? c. Mason's hammer
a. 5 d. Star drill
b. 0.05 71) A mason wants to repair mortar joints. Which tool is
c. 0.005 appropriate?
d. 0.5 a. Pointing trowel
62) How tall is a 10 meter building in inches? b. Crandall
a. 3.937 c. Cold chisel
b. 39.37 d. Brick trowel
c. 393.7 72) A mason wants to mix and move mortar in brick laying.
d. 3,937 Which tool is appropriate?
63) A carpenter wants to measure long distances. Which tool a. Pointing trowel
is appropriate? b. Crandall
a. Ruler c. Cold chisel
b. Extension rule d. Brick trowel
c. Meter stick 73) A mason wants to mix concrete. Which tool is
d. Pull-push rule appropriate?
64) A carpenter wants to mark very rough objects. Which tool a. Shovel
is appropriate? b. Buttering
a. Chalk line c. Trowel
b. Extension rule d. Float
c. Level 74) A mason lays bricks. Which tool is appropriate?
d. Border line a. Shovel
65) A carpenter wants to obtain vertical line. Which tool is b. Hawk
appropriate? c. Trowel
a. Ruler d. Float
b. Level 75) Which is flat with handle at the back usually made of
c. Plum bob wood?
d. Pull-push rule a. Shovel
66) A carpenter wants to cut lumber across the grain. Which b. Buttering
tool is appropriate? c. Trowel
a. crosscut saw d. Float
b. rip cut saw 76) Which tool is used in shaping and forming concrete
c. back saw edges?
d. hacksaw a. Shovel
67) A carpenter wants to fasten and remove nails. Which tool b. Buttering
is appropriate? c. Edger
a. Hammer d. Float
b. Ballpen hammer
 32

77) A mason wants to mix concrete for column and slab. a. Finishing
Which mixture is appropriate? b. Fine finishing
a. 1 : 2 : 4 c. Concreting
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 d. Plastering
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 87) A mason wants to lay ceramic tiles. Where does he start?
d. 1 : 3 : 6 a. Front
78) A mason wants to mix class B mixture. Which mixture is b. Left
correct? c. Right
a. 1 : 2 : 4 d. Center
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 88) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks. Where does
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 he start?
d. 1 : 3 : 6 a. Front
79) A mason wants to mix concrete for a slab in the ground. b. Left
Which mixture is appropriate? c. Right
a. 1 : 2 : 4 d. Center
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 89) A mason wants to mix mortar for plastering. What does he
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 mix?
d. 1 : 3 : 6 a. cement and water
80) A mason wants to mix concrete for hollow block filler. b. cement and sand
Which mixture is appropriate? c. sand and water
a. 1 : 2 : 4 d. water and cement
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 90) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks into a 10
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 sq.m. wall. How many CHB are needed?
d. 1 : 3 : 6 a. 100 pcs.
81) Which refers to the ease with which the fresh concrete can b. 120 pcs.
be molded without segregation? c. 122.5 pcs.
a. Plasticity d. 125 pcs.
b. Consistency 91) A mason wants to lay 16" by 16" ceramic tiles in a 10
c. Mobility sq.m. room. How many tiles are needed?
d. Grout a. 60 pcs.
82) Which refers to the degree of wetness or slump of the b. 61.5 pcs.
concrete mixture? c. 62.5 pcs.
a. Plasticity d. 63 pcs.
b. Consistency 92) How many CHBs are installed for a wall having a
c. Mobility dimension of 2.5 m width and 4.0 m height?
d. Grout a. 125 pcs.
83) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing b. 122.5 pcs.
cement, sand, gravel, and water? c. 300 pcs.
a. Concrete d. 400 pcs.
b. Grout 93) How many 8" x 8" wall tiles are needed in a wall 2.5 m
c. Mortar width and 4.0 m height?
d. Bricks a. 300 pcs.
84) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing b. 500 pcs.
cement, sand, and water? c. 550 pcs.
a. Concrete d. 600 pcs.
b. Grout 94) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 3" x 8' lumber. If the
c. Mortar price of lumber is ₱50.00 per board foot, how much did he
d. Bricks pay?
85) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing a. ₱1,800
cement and water? b. ₱1,900
a. Concrete c. ₱2,000
b. Grout d. ₱2,100
c. Mortar 95) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 4" x 6' lumber. If the
d. Bricks price of lumber is P50.00 per board foot, how much did he
86) Which term refers to the process of finishing using pay?
mortar? a. ₱1,800
 33

b. ₱1,900 b. Plasticity
c. ₱2,000 c. Mobility
d. ₱2,100 d. Workability
96) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 6" x 4' lumber. If the 105) The following are factors that regulate the strength of
price of lumber is P50.00 per board foot, how much did he concrete, EXCEPT:
pay? a. Correct proportion of ingredients.
a. ₱1,800 b. Proper method of mixing.
b. ₱1,900 c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing.
c. ₱2,000 d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation.
d. ₱2,100 106) What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag
97) Which tile is appropriate in the toilet and bathroom cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand, and 4 cu. ft. of gravel or 1:2:4?
flooring? a. Class AA
a. Glaze tiles b. Class A
b. Ceramic tiles c. Class B
c. Non-skid granite tiles d. Class C
d. Clay tiles 107) How many cubic yard of concrete do you need to cover a
98) Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. space with an area of 25 square foot and a slab thickness of
This arrangement is called ________. four (4) inches?
a. Header a. 0.34 cu. yd.
b. Stretcher b. 0.32 cu. yd.
c. Bond c. 0.25 cu. yd.
d. Mortar d. 0.51 cu. yd.
99) The most widely used masonry materials for construction 108) What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level
works are? of a concrete fence?
a. Ashlar a. Water hose level
b. Bricks b. Spirit level
c. Rubble stones c. Plumb bob
d. Concrete hollow blocks d. Straight edge
100) It is a masonry material manufactured from clay and 109) According to the building code of the Philippines, for
other materials? how many days shall concrete be maintained above 10 °C
a. Stones temperature and in a moist condition?
b. Stucco a. 3 days
c. Bricks b. 5 days
d. Concrete pavers c. 7 days
101) What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in d. 10 days
laying bricks? 110) Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates
a. Plumb bob in a concrete mixture?
b. Water hose level a. Sand
c. Spirit level b. Soil
d. String or chord c. Gravel
102) Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for d. Stones
concrete? 111) What do you call the process of hardening of concrete?
a. Crandal a. Curing
b. Bolster b. Setting
c. Float c. Hardening
d. Spade d. Molding
103) Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider 112) What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in
in proportioning concrete mixture? small and large construction including roads and highways?
a. Economy a. Hydraulic cement
b. Workability b. Portland cement
c. Strength c. Pozzolan cement
d. Flexibility d. Lime
104) Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or 113) How many pieces of 4" x 8" x 16" concrete hollow
deformed without segregation. This characteristic is known as blocks (CHB) can be laid per bag of cement as mortar?
________. a. 55 to 60 pcs.
a. Consistency b. 25 to 30 pcs.
 34

c. 30 to 36 pcs. 24. B
d. 40 to 40 pcs. 25. A
114) What ingredient in concrete is added to the batch 26. A
immediately before or during its mixing to improve its 27. C
durability and accelerate strength development? 28. D
a. Fine aggregates 29. C
b. Coarse aggregates 30. C
c. Admixture 31. A
d. Water 32. D
33. A
115) Which of the following refers to the structural reinforcing 34. B
member that holds or binds together the main reinforcement of 35. D
a column? 36. B
a. Lateral tie 37. D
b. Stirrups 38. C
c. Spiral tie 39. B
d. Rebars 40. C
116) The structure that holds the poured concrete until it 41. D
hardens to form the concrete beam or post. 42. B
a. Scaffolding 43. D
b. Batter board 44. A
c. Forms 45. B
d. Stake 46. C
47. B
117) To convert from feet to get number of meters, multiply
48. B
feet by? 49. B
a. 0.3048 50. D
b. 25.4
51. A
c. 30.48
52. C
d. 2.54
53. D
ANSWERS: 54. B
1. A 55. D
2. C 56. B
3. B 57. C
4. C 58. D
5. B 59. B
6. C (rip saw) - A back saw is used for making cuts for wood 60. C
joints; cross cut saw is used to cut wood across its grain; while 61. A
circular saw is a mechanized saw. 62. C
7. B 63. D
8. D 64. A
9. B 65. C
10. B 66. A
11. B 67. C
12. C 68. D - A carpenter's plane is a hand tool with an adjustable
13. D (S4S) - S2S means two sides of the lumber are planed or blade for smoothing or shaping wood.
smooth. No such term as S3S; and Rough means that the piece 69. B
of lumber is not planed. 70. C
14. C 71. A
15. A 72. D
16. C 73. A
17. C 74. B
18. D - 60 degrees for cross cut saw; and 90 degrees for a rip 75. D
saw 76. C
19. A 77. B
20. A 78. C
21. B 79. A
22. B 80. D
23. A 81. A
82. B
 35

83. A c. Fat
84. C d. Fiber
85. B 4) Frostings are products that are closely associated with
86. D sugar. What kind of sugar is used primarily in the preparation
87. D of flat icings with butter cream?
88. B a. brown sugar
89. B b. refined sugar
90. D c. granulated sugar
91. C d. confectioner sugar
92. A
93. B 5) Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind of protein
94. C is found in connective tissue of meat that converts to gelatin
95. C when it is cooked?
96. C a. Elastic
97. C b. Gluten
98. B c. Marbling
99. D d. Collagen
100. C 6) Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant?
101. A a. Vitamin E
102. C b. Calcium
103. D c. Fiber
104. B d. Vitamin B12
105. D
7) Which cooking method destroys nutrients?
106. B
a. Boiling
107. A
108. B b. Roasting
109. C c. Slow cooking
d. All of the above
110. C
111. A 8) Which food is the "best source of thiamine?"
112. B a. Pork
113. A b. Milk
114. C c. Carrots
115. B d. Potatoes
116. C 9) What happens to carbohydrates that are not used right away
117. A as energy?
a. They are stored in the body as fat.
TLE (4) - Foods b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
1) Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they are
brown bits left on the bottom of the pan. While the pan was burned as fat.
still on the stove, he added some white wine and scarped the d. They are all used immediately as energy.
bottom of the pan. What do you call the techniques just used? 10) All of these are good sources of Vitamin C. Which one has
a. Cleaning the most vitamin C?
b. Deglazing a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
c. Caramelizing b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers
d. Flambé c. 1 cup of orange sections
2) Energy value is express in terms of calories which d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes
represents the chemical energy that released as heat when food 11) Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our
is oxidized. Which nutrient has more than twice the calorie per bloodstream. Saturated fats can be found in?
gram? a. Olives
a. Carbohydrates b. Beans
b. Protein c. Movie theater popcorn
c. Fat d. Fish
d. Minerals
12) Water boils at 212 degrees. What does "rolling boil"
3) Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it means? The bubbles are:
needs. Which of the following nutrients is needed as the main a. rolling non-stop
structural component of the body? b. forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred
a. Carbohydrates c. forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred
b. Protein d. spilling out of a container
 36

13) Which of the following ingredients will use creaming 22) Every chef knows that "mise enplace" is the first step to a
method? successful food preparation. This French term which means
a. butter, flour and egg putting everything in place applies to ________.
b. flour, butter and egg a. throwing the garbage
c. butter, egg and sugar b. sautéing the spices
d. flour butter and sugar c. creaming the butter
14) Onions when peeled or cut irritate the eyes and give biting d. pre-heating the oven
sensations on the tongue. This is due to the presence of: 23) Mixed vegetables are best when cooked very briefly by
a. sulfoxide dipping the food into a boiling water until they are crisp-
b. sulfur compounds tender and then into cold water. This practice is called
c. sodium nitrate ________.
d. mustard oil a. Blanching
15) The practice of adding baking soda when cooking b. Baking
vegetables for the purpose of retaining the green color and the c. Sautéing
crispness should be avoided primarily because: d. Steaming
a. the flavor of the vegetable is modified 24) Pasta is cooked in boiling water with salt and oil for about
b. vitamin C is destroyed in the presence of alkali 12 to 15 minutes or until "al dente." Al dente is an Italian term
c. they become less palatable which means ________.
d. they become hard to digest a. firm yet tender to the bite
16) To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its b. soft and soggy
nutritive value, the best cooking temperature is? c. pleasant flavor
a. moist heat d. crisp texture
b. low to moderate heat 25) A student is preparing chicken macaroni salad as an
c. high heat appetizer dish. What will the student do for the cooked
d. dry heat chicken?
17) What does "proofing" mean? a. chop
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size. b. mince
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide. c. flake
c. Testing cakes for doneness. d. grate
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a 26) Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of
shiny glazed finish. colorful food such as celery, parsley and tomatoes are added to
18) Why should eggs be beaten with the use of copper bowl? a dish to improve its appearance. Which of the term applied to
Copper bowl ________. the statement?
a. is special metal that makes egg fresher a. glace
b. makes egg fluffy and moist b. garnish
c. keeps eggs fresh and firm c. frosting
d. has special property which stabilizes the eggs d. decoration

19) What do you call that pourable mixture of flour, liquid and 27) What vegetable cut is appropriate for potato in preparing
other ingredients? menudo?
a. Dough a. slice
b. Batter b. mince
c. Cream c. julienne
d. Syrup d. cubes

20) Which flour typically forms the most gluten? 28) Which is a thickening agent made by the combination of 1
a. cake flour part melted butter and 1 part flour, cooked together?
b. all purpose flour a. Roux
c. bread flour b. Roe
d. pastry flour c. Raw
d. Row
21) Diana is cooking eggs for breakfast. She breaks the eggs
one at a time into a dish and slide them into a hot water for 29) The food is prepared by skewing the meat, seasoned and
about 3 to 5 minutes or unitl the whites are coagulated and brushed with oil, placed on greased grid and cooked over live
yolks are still soft. What procedure in cooking eggs does she coals. Which is referred to?
apply? a. Broil
a. Boiling b. Bake
b. Poaching c. Barbeque
c. Simmering d. Pan fry
d. Blanching
 37

30) Which term applies when eggs and cream are beaten 39) What vitamin deficiency is present when a person suffers
rapidly until thick and stiff with a whisk to incorporate air and from poor night vision or blindness?
increase volume? a. Retinol
a. Creaming b. Thiamine
b. Whipping c. Niacin
c. Blending d. Folic acid
d. Stirring 40) What disease would result to a person who has an iron
31) To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil, vinegar and deficiency?
wine to add flavor and make it tender is to ________ it. a. Cough and cold
a. marinade b. Nose bleed
b. season c. Anemia
c. dip d. Xeropthalmia
d. marinate 41) Which of the following fruit and vegetables have higher
32) Working the dough by stretching and folding in a floured water percentage composition?
surface to obtain the required consistency is ________. a. Apple
a. Beating b. Strawberry
b. Kneading c. Carrots
c. Punching d. Tomatoes
d. Folding 42) Which is NOT a function of fat?
33) Which of the following term may apply in cutting a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food
vegetables into thin match sticks size which are used to b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
garnished dishes? c. Protect the heart and kidneys
a. Mirepoix d. Repair body tissues
b. Macedoine 43) The following vegetables are good sources of carotene,
c. Brunoise EXCEPT:
d. Julienne a. Mangoes
34) A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g fat, 22g b. Carrots
carbohydrates and 3g protein. How many kcal are in a serving c. Legumes
size of chiffon cake? d. Tomatoes
a. 117 kcal 44) Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide Pyramid?
b. 127 kcal a. water, milk, yogurt
c. 137 kcal b. food additives
d. 147 kcal c. chicken, pork, egg
35) Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in fat. The d. rice, corn, pasta
following are examples of fat soluble vitamins, EXCEPT: 45) Which statement regarding vitamins is most accurate?
a. Vitamin D a. Inorganic substances needed in the body
b. Vitamin K b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen
c. Vitamin E c. Regulate physiological processes
d. Vitamin C d. Control composition of body fluids
36) The food pyramid illustrates the balance of foods needed 46) Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit with 16g
for a healthy lifestyle. Fat, sugar, salt and alcohol are group total carbohydrates.
under what classification? a. 54 kcal
a. Eat Least Food b. 64 kcal
b. Eat Moderately Foods c. 74 kcal
c. Eat All Foods d. 84 kcal
d. Eat Most Foods
47) Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
37) The following are physiological functions of food, a. Vitamin C
EXCEPT: b. Vitamin A
a. give energy c. Vitamin D
b. build and repair cells d. Vitamin E
c. provide satisfaction
d. regulate body process 48) Which is not a function of water?
a. Regulate body processes
38) CHON is the chemical formula for ________. b. Carrier of waste products
a. carbohydrates c. Provides energy
b. protein d. Regulates body temperature
c. fat
d. minerals
 38

49) What do you call the sugar in milk or milk carbohydrate? b. Tripe
a. Fructose c. Heart
b. Lactose d. Liver
c. Glucose 58) The teacher demonstrated to the students the proper way
d. Sucrose of slitting the abdominal part of the poultry and pulling out the
50) The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented if milk is entrails. This step in dressing chicken is referred to as
________. ________.
a. heated to a boiling point a. slaughtering
b. pasteurized before packing b. defeathering
c. kept cold and protected from light c. evisceration
d. fermented and sealed d. scalding
51) Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a restaurant. She 59) The students are preparing food for their culminating
ordered food from appetizer to dessert at P300.00 per cover, activity. They are expected to invite 100 guests. What type of
good for 60 pax and she paid a total amount of P18,000. What service is more convenient for 100 guests with limited space
type of menu did she avail of? and food servers?
a. Table d'hote a. Counter service
b. Cycle menu b. Russian service
c. Ala carte c. Buffet service
d. Static menu d. French service
52) A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken Galantina for her 60) Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering function. Which
food and nutrition class. What cooking method is applied for part of pork cuts would she buy?
this chicken dish? a. Leg
a. Broiling b. Loin
b. Roasting c. Picnic
c. Frying d. Variety
d. Steaming 61) What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise preparation?
53) Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used to a. Emulsifying agent
complement a meal. What leading sauce is used in making b. Thickening agent
Carbonara? c. Browning agent
a. Veloute sauce d. Leavening agent
b. Brown sauce 62) Why do we buy food from approved sources?
c. Bechamel sauce a. cheaper price
d. Tomato sauce b. guarantee safe and wholesome food
54) Vegetables have different degrees of doneness. It is done c. good customer service
when it has reached the desired degree of tenderness. The d. accessibility and comfort
following are the guidelines to achieve proper doneness in 63) Which of the following reasons for cooking meat is
vegetables, EXCEPT: FALSE?
a. cook vegetables close to serving time a. improve flavor and appearance
b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces b. tenderize meat
c. separate tough part from tender part c. unavailability of nutrients
d. cook different kinds of vegetables together d. destroy harmful microorganisms
55) Eggs serve many important functions in cookery. What is 64) Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat method of
the function of eggs when it is used to bind food together? cooking?
a. as a leavening agent a. Scalding
b. as a thickening agent b. Stewing
c. as a clarifying agent c. Baking
d. as an emulsifying agent d. Steaming
56) In an American service, all drinks should be served 65) One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g orange flavor.
________ of the guest. How many liters of water should be added if the proportion is
a. at the right side 1g powder, 20 mL water?
b. at the left side a. 3.5 L
c. across b. 2.3 L
d. in front c. 2.0 L
57) Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for father's d. 1.2 L
birthday party. Which variety of meat could you suggest for 66) How many ounces is 1 cup of soda?
these recipes? a. 6 ounces
a. Tongue
 39

b. 8 ounces 76) One of the functions required before assembling the food
c. 12 ounces materials to produce quality meals is ________.
d. 16 ounces a. market list
67) Which of the statement about the general direction for b. menu planning
Low-Cholesterol diets is FALSE? c. mis en place card
a. use of corn oil d. standardized recipe
b. avoid coconut milk 77) When guests enter into a restaurant the first thing that a
c. use of margarine receptionist should offer is ________.
d. trim all visible fats from meat a. water
68) What is the menu pattern for breakfast? b. appetizer
a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage c. bread and butter
b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert d. menu card
c. cereal, protein dish, beverage 78) Which of the following is the CORRECT menu sequence?
d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages, desserts
69) Which is considered as the most important meal of the b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages, desserts
day? c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages, desserts
a. Supper d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers, beverages
b. Lunch 79) Which of the following statement about service rule is
c. Breakfast FALSE?
d. Brunch a. Serve women before men
70) The main course or courses of dinner consisting usually of b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with service
meat, fish or pulses with or without accompaniments is called person's left hand
________. c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
a. entrée d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
b. espagnole 80) Which of the following is an example of a low cost dish?
c. emincer a. Pork adobo
d. entremets b. Chicken kare-kare
71) The main goal in meal planning, food preparation and c. Baked mussels
service is _________. d. Seafood sinigang
a. present low cost foods 81) When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a steamer is
b. serve appetizing meals not available, what will you do?
c. satisfaction of family members a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a tightly
d. keep meals nutritionally adequate covered frying pan containing water.
72) Which food group is a good source of fiber? b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with coconut milk.
a. milk, yogurt, cheese c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue stick and
b. meat, poultry, eggs apply heat.
c. bread, rice, pasta d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and cook.
d. banana, apples, oranges 82) Baking chiffon cake requires a baking temperature of 350
73) Which of the following is NOT a principle in planning degrees Fahrenheit. What is its equivalent in Centigrade if
meals? your oven thermostat was set in degree Celsius?
a. Plan meals ahead of time. a. 176 degree Celsius
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety. b. 186 degree Celsius
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients. c. 196 degree Celsius
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more time to d. 206 degree Celsius
prepare. 83) Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly firm, porous
74) Which of the following has the biggest expense in the food structure. What gives structure to the cheese bread?
budget? a. Albumen
a. Meat b. Gluten
b. Fruits c. Whey
c. Cereals d. Casein
d. Dairy 84) What will you do to the shortening if you want to make
75) Which is a low cost but nutritious dish? quick breads using the biscuit method?
a. Grilled fish a. Melt the shortening
b. Beef with broccoli b. Cream the shortening
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis c. Fold in the shortening
d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce d. Cut in the shortening
 40

85) The students are cutting apples for their apple pie filling. a. boiled icing
They noticed that browning occurs at the cut surfaces of b. royal icing
apples. What process may have caused the browning color of c. buttercream icing
an apple? d. fondant icing
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and sugar 95) When the pastry shell is baked before it can be filled, this
b. Oxidative enzymatic changes is called ________.
c. Carmelization of sugar a. molding
d. Over handling b. blind baking
86) Which is NOT a function of salt in food? c. proofing
a. flavor enhancer d. resting
b. preservative 96) Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
c. increase volume a. Muffin
d. control agent b. Popover
87) Which statement about conventional method of mixing is c. Waffle
FALSE? d. Pie
a. time consuming 97) Which living organism feeds in sugar to produce alcohol
b. produce velvety texture and carbon dioxide?
c. one-bowl method a. Yeast
d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients b. Bacteria
88) Which ingredient controls and regulates the fermentation c. Fungi
in bread making? d. Mold
a. Yeast 98) What disease-causing microorganism is commonly found
b. Salt in eggs?
c. Baking powder a. Escherichia coli
d. Sugar b. Salmonella
89) A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel blade c. Staphylococcus aureus
primary used for mixing colors in cake designing is ________ d. Shigella
knife. ANSWERS:
a. cake
b. serrated 1. B
c. chef 2. C
d. palette 3. B
4. D
90) Which is usually done with a fork to make small holes in 5. D
bottoms and side of crust for single crust pies? 6. A
a. Docking 7. D
b. Punching 8. A
c. Cutting 9. A
d. Fluting 10. B
91) Which is known as strong flour because it contains 12- 11. C
14% protein? 12. B
a. All purpose flour 13. C
b. Cake flour 14. B
c. Pastry flour 15. B
d. Bread flour 16. A
92) Which phrase describes a good characteristic of pastry? 17. B
a. wet and brown 18. D
b. tender and flaky 19. B
c. dry and hard 20. C
d. sweet and mushy 21. B
22. D
93) The following are some safety risks in baking, EXCEPT: 23. A
a. hot oven 24. A
b. moving parts 25. C
c. sufficient light 26. B
d. cutting equipment 27. D
94) Which icing is made from shortening, sugar syrup and 28. A
eggs? 29. C
 41

30. B 90. A
31. D 91. D
32. B 92. B
33. D 93. C
34. B 94. C
35. D 95. B
36. A 96. D
37. C 97. A
38. B 98. B
39. A
40. C TLE (3) - Basic Electricity
41. D
1) A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in
42. D
the same direction:
43. C
a. voltage
44. B
b. power
45. C
c. alternating current
46. B
d. direct current
47. A
48. C 2) The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical
49. B current is recognized as ________.
50. C a. power
51. A b. resistance
52. D c. electromagnetism
53. C d. frequency
54. D 3) A part of an electric circuit which converts electrical energy
55. B into another form of energy to do work is ________.
56. A a. load
57. B b. circuit
58. C c. source
59. C d. control
60. D
61. A 4) A part of an electrical circuit, consists of batteries,
62. B generator or a main electrical power which supplies electricity
63. C is called ________.
64. C a. control
65. D b. load
66. B c. source
67. C d. voltage
68. A 5) A law that states that current is directly proportional to
69. C voltage and inversely proportional to resistance is known as
70. A ________.
71. D a. PEC
72. C b. Law of Resistivity
73. D c. Kirchoff's Law
74. A d. Ohm's Law
75. C
6) In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage in the circuit,
76. B
the formula to be used is:
77. D
a. E = I x R
78. B
b. E = I / R
79. C
c. I = E / R
80. C
d. R = E / I
81. A
82. A 7) What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp
83. B draw from a 220 volts power source?
84. D a. 5.5 amperes
85. B b. 0.18 amperes
86. C c. 25.5 amperes
87. C d. 50.5 amperes
88. B
89. D
 42

8) There are several factors involved in electrical wiring c. 120 volts

installation but the foremost consideration is ________. d. 160 volts
a. cost 17) In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs
b. labor are connected in parallel. How many more bulbs will light if
c. safety one of the bulbs is open?
d function a. One
9) The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience b. Two
outlet layout should be? c. All
a. 12 d. None
b. 14 18) In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the
c. 18 source is connected to ________.
d. 10 a. Terminal 1 of the load
10) To comply with the requirements of the Philippine b. Terminal 2 of the load
Electrical Code, the appropriate fuse rating for lighting outlet c. Terminal 1 of the switch
should be ________. d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
a. 15 amperes 19) Which of the following electrical symbols in wiring
b. 30 amperes diagram means that there are three wires running in a line?
c. 60 amperes a. ----/-/-/----
d. 20 amperes b. -----/-/-/-/----
11) Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being c. ------------
done in order to: d. S3W
a. Provide efficient and effective wiring system of the 20) A series connected dry cells will result to ________.
building. a. increase in the amount of current
b. Maintain quality workmanship. b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. Avoid overloaded circuit. c. increase total resistance
d. Protect the circuit from high current. d. more powerful supply of electricty
12) Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical 21) What type of switch is used to control alternately three-
circuits. What is the ampacity rating of the breaker used for phase line system using two sources of power?
convenience outlets or general purpose circuits? a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch
a. 20 amperes b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch
b. 30 amperes c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch
c. 15 amperes d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch
d. 60 amperes
22) Which of the following is the best conductor of
13) An electrical component used to control electrical circuit electricity?
in two different locations is called: a. Copper
a. four-way switch b. Aluminum
b. three-way switch c. Silver
c. push-button switch d. Gold
d. remote controlled switch
23) What type of switch is used when you want to control one
14) To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lamp or group of lamps in two different locations?
lighting fixtures? a. Two, 3-way switch
a. Incandescent lamp b. One, 4-way switch
b. Mercury lamp c. Two, single switch
c. Compact fluorescent lamp d. Duplex switch
d. Neon lamp
24) Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ________
15) The size of electrical wire recommended for installing capacity of the cells.
lighting fixtures is: a. current
a. No. 12 AWG b. voltage
b. No. 10 AWG c. resistance
c. No. 18 AWG d. inductance
d. No. 14 AWG
25) The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of
16) What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure circuit connections namely series, parallel, series-parallel and
cooker having a resistance of 20 ohms when the current parallel-series. Which type of connection will give the least
flowing is 8 amperes? amount of equivalent resistance?
a. 240 volts a. Series
b. 480 volts b. Parallel
 43

c. Series-parallel b. Eveready
d. Parallel-series c. Primary battery
26) Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, d. Secondary battery
knowbs, tubes and flexible tubing for the protection and 35) Which generator generates direct current?
support of single insulated conductor run in or on building and a. Alternator
not concealed by the building structure? b. Dynamo
a. Open wiring on insulators c. Battery
b. Armored cable wiring d. Adaptor
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring 36) Which battery can be recharged after each chemical
d. Metal clad cable wiring energy has been depleted?
27) What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V incadescent lamps a. Primary battery
are connected in series across a 230 V source? b. Energizer
a. Both lamps will consume more power. c. Eveready
b. Both lamps will get burnt. d. Secondary battery
c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights. 37) Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical
d. Each lamp will give more output lights. energy?
28) What is the reason why electrical appliances are connected a. Battery
in parallel rather than in series? b. Circuit
a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power. c. Dry cell
b. Parallel connection is simpler than series connection. d. Generator
c. Each appliances consumes more power if connected in 38) A process in splitting the atom of uranum is called
series. ________.
d. It makes the operation of each appliance independent of a. fusion
each other. b. fission
29) When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is c. friction
important? d. tension
a. same size and type 39) A process by joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat
b. same type but different rating hotter than the sun is called ________.
c. same size but different rating a. fusion
d. different size and type b. fission
30) Which of the following is a source of alternating current? c. friction
a. Dynamo d. tension
b. Battery 40) Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?
c. Dry cell a. Transformers
d. Alternator b. Battery
31) When there is a break in the circuit and the current could c. Generator
not pass through, the circuit is ________. d. Thermocouple
a. closed 41) Which is the kinetic energy of falling water?
b. shorted a. Thermo energy
c. grounded b. Hydro energy
d. open c. Solar energy
32) Which term usually refers to a device that produces an d. Mechanical energy
electric current when light falls upon them? 42) Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing
a. Solar cell voltage when exposed to radiant energy (sunlight)?
b. Dry cell a. Photoelectric
c. Solar lamp b. Photovoltaic system
d. Solar light c. Photoemission system
33) Which is synchronous alternating-current machine that d. Solar light
changes mechanical power into electrical power? 43) Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of the
a. Dynamo earth is called ________.
b. Motor a. volcanic
c. Alternator b. geothermal
d. Lathe machine c. thermal
34) Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical d. chemical
energy has been depleted? 44) Which refers to the extraction of electrons from a
a. Energizer substance by sunlight on incident electromagnetic radiation?
 44

a. Photoelectric effect c. 0.866

b. Photovoltaic effect d. 0.8
c. Photoemission 54) An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If the voltage
d. Electron microscopy across the heater is 240 volts. What is the heater resistance?
45) Which statement is TRUE? a. 2.5 ohms
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance. b. 83.3 ohms
b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance. c. 23.04 ohms
c. Long wire has lesser resistance. d. 2.30 ohms
d. Short wire has higher resistance. 55) The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 300 ohms.
46) A small light ulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is What current is required to operate the lamp?
connected across a 120-v line. What is the current through the a. 0.85 A
bulb? b. 0.77 A
a. 1.2 A c. 1.30 A
b. 0.012 A d. 7.74 A
c. 0.12 A 56) A group of lamps operates a current of 12 A and a voltage
d. 12 A of 120v. What is the total power of the lamps?
47) A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 ohms. The power a. 1.44 kw
rating in watts of lamp is ________. b. 1.20 kw
a. 100 w c. 1.34 kw
b. 600 w d. 14.4 kw
c. 200 w 57) What is the maximum load capacity of a 15A circuit
d. 250 w breaker protecting a branch circuit that supplies a continuous
48) If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are load?
connected in parallel, then the total resistance is ________. a. 15 A
a. 36 ohms b. 10 A
b. 2 ohms c. 12 A
c. 648 ohms d. 14 A
d. 54 ohms 58) What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if
49) A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The power used is: it has a power rating of 1.75 Kw?
a. 12 w a. 2 Hp
b. 130 w b. 2.3 Hp
c. 1,200 w c. 2.5 Hp
d. 120 w d. 23 Hp
50) What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v incandescent 59) How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consume for
lamp? 5 hours of useif it has a power rating of 1.5 Hp?
a. 121 ohms a. 56 Kw
b. 115 ohms b. 7.5 Kw
c. 125 ohms c. 5.6 Kw
d. 12.1 ohms d. 75 Kw
51) How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a 60) A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a period of 20
current of 10 amperes and has a resistance of 23 ohms? hours until its terminal voltage falls to an unacceptable level.
a. 23 Kw How long can it be expected to supply a current of 100mA?
b. 2,300 Kw a. 50 hours
c. 230 Kw b. 100 hours
d. 2.3 Kw c. 60 hours
52) The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely d. 70 hours
proportional to its ________. 61) A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to supply a constant
a. length current of 8Ah. How long can the battery last until it becomes
b. cross sectional area unusable?
c. temperature a. 20 hours
d. material b. 2.5 hours
53) A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a 110v AC line takes c. 15 hours
1.2A and requires 110w power. What is its power factor? d. 2.5 hours
a. 0.9 62) The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms.
b. 0.833 What length of the same wire will have a resistance of 60
ohms?
 45

a. 24 meters II. exposed work only

b. 225 meters a. I only
c. 240 meters b. II only
d. 235 meters c. I and II
63) If three equal resistances are connected in parallel,the d. cannot be determined
equivalent resistance of the circuit will be ________ the value 72) An assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided
of one resistor. with grooves for holding one or more conductors at a definite
a. three time scpacing from the surface wired over and from each other, and
b. half with holes for fastening in position is called:
c. one-third a. split knob
d. the same b. cleat
64) Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp for 20 hours at c. spool insulator
P3.00 per kW-hr? d. strain insulator
a. P6.00 73) Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes, and
b. P9.00 flexible non-metallic tubing for the protection and support of
c. P10.00 single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of
d. P60.00 walls and ceilings of buildings?
65) Which is a box with a blank cover is inserted in one or a. Knob and tube wiring
more runs of raceway to facilitate pulling of the conductors? b. Open wiring on insulators
a. Blank box c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
b. Junction box d. Open wiring with knob and tubes
c. Terminal box 74) Which term refers to that switch or outlet body that is
d. Pull box embedded or hidden in the wall?
66) Which is a box with a blank cover for joining runs of a. Surface type
conduits and providing space for connection and branching of b. Flush type
enclosed conductors? c. Concealed type
a. Blank box d. Open type
b. Junction box 75) The use of surface non-metallic raceway is not permitted
c. Terminal box in all the following, EXCEPT:
d. Pull box a. dry locations
67) The minimum size of wire used in electrical wiring is the b. where subject to severe physical damage
no.14 AWG. Under the SI standard, what is the diameter of c. where voltage is over 300 V
this wire? d. where concealed
a. 1.2 mm 76) When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and
b. 1.6 mm extends beyond the wall surface, the device is said to be
c. 1.5 mm ________.
d. 2.0 mm a. Wall type
68) A thin-walled steel raceway of circularwith a corrosion- b. Surface type
resistant coating for protection of wires or cable is ________. c. Flush type
a. rigid metal conduit d. Open type
b. flexible metal pipe 77) What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment
c. metal moulding an overload or short circuit occurs?
d. electrical metallic tubing a. Breaker switch
69) Armored cable is commercially known as ________. b. Overload
a. BX cable c. Circuit breaker
b. flat cable d. Main switch
c. metallic cable 78) Which term is used when two conductors are embedded in
d. duplex cable one solid mass of rubber insulation?
70) Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated a. two in one
conductors enclosed in a flexible metal sheath? b. three in one
a. Underground cable c. stranded
b. Armored cable d. duplex
c. Flat cable 79) What type of socket is used for outdoor or wet location in
d. Flexible cable wiring installation?
71) Flat cable assembly shall be installed for ________. a. Waterproof socket
I. concealed work only b. Special purpose socket
 46

c. Weatherproof socket b. 175 mm

d. Outdoor socket c. 150 mm
80) What is the smallest size of wire permitted by the Code to d. 300 mm
be used in wiring installation? 89) A certain residential house has lighting load of 1.1 kVA
a. 2.0 mm squared and an appliance load of 10A at 220 volts, single phase, two
b. 3.5 mm squared wires, 60 Hz. The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting
c. 2.0 mm and appliance loads are ________ and ________, respectively.
d. 1.25 mm squared a. 20 A and 60 A
81) Which one of the following uses is permitted by the Code b. 20 A and 30 A
to be used for surface non-metallic raceway? c. 15 A and 30 A
a. dry locations d. 15 A and 20 A
b. where concealed 90) Live vegetation or trees ________ used for support of
c. where subject to severe physical damage overhead conductors spans.
d. where voltage is over 300 V a. shall be
82) Service entrance using copper conductors shall have b. should be
sufficient capacity and shall not be smaller than ________. c. shall not be
a. 5.5 mm squared d. should not be
b. 3.5 mm squared 91) Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should
c. 14 mm squared be wired so that the wires ________.
d. 8.0 mm squared a. will be grounded
83) If two identical lamps give normal light when connected b. will not touch the chains
in parallel in a 230v line are reconnected in series in the same c. will support the fixture
line, the bulb will ________. d. will not support the fixture
a. give more light 92) In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-20 mm
b. not light diameter shall be supported at least every ________.
c. give less light a. 2,500 mm
d. blows out b. 3,500 mm
84) When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed c. 1,800 mm
raceway, it shall be secured within ________ on each side of d. 3,800 mm
every outlet box. 93) Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?
a. 250 mm a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical
b. 300 mm harm.
c. 100 mm b. Wires are connected by joints therefore need reinsulation.
d. 150 mm c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need protection.
85) A short circuit can be detected by using ________. d. Wires skin is weak.
a. an ohmmeter 94) What is the total number of mechanical degrees that an
b. a megger electrical pipe run maybe bent between pull points?
c. an oscilloscope a. 360 degrees
d. an ammeter b. 180 degrees
86) The electrical plans for residential house include the c. 120 degrees
following items, EXCEPT: d. 270 degrees
a. Substation plan 95) Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within
b. Location plan ________ of each box.
c. Floor plan showing location of service a. 600 mm
d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting and receptacles b. 800 mm
outlets c. 900 mm
87) If installed in raceways, conductors of size ________ and d. 760 mm
larger shall be stranded. 96) Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ________ electrical
a. 5.5 mm squared trade size shall NOT be used.
b. 8.0 mm squared a. 12 mm
c. 14 mm squared b. 10 mm
d. 3.5 mm squared c. 15 mm
88) At least ________ of free conductor shall be left at each d. 20 mm
outlet, junction and switch point for splices or connection of 97) Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples,
fixture or devices. straps, hangers or similar fittings at intervals NOT exceeding
a. 250 mm ________.
 47

a. 1,250 mm 41. B
b. 1,300 mm 42. B
c. 1,500 mm 43. B
d. 1,000 mm 44. A
98) In concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be 45. B
maintained between conductors is ________. 46. C
a. 65 mm 47. A
b. 45 mm 48. B
c. 76 mm 49. C
d. 50 mm 50. A
51. D
99) Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a 52. B
single switch. If one of the 3 bulbs is busted, what will happen 53. B
to the remaining bulbs? 54. C
a. it will not lit 55. B
b. its brightness is reduced 56. A
c. its brightness increases 57. C
d. its brightness in maintained 58. B
ANSWERS: 59. C
60. B
1. D 61. B
2. B
62. C
3. A
63. C
4. C
64. A
5. D
65. D
6. A 66. B
7. B 67. B
8. C
68. D
9. A
69. A
10. D
70. B
11. A
71. B
12. A 72. B
13. B 73. C
14. C
74. B
15. D
75. A
16. D
76. B
17. B
77. C
18. A 78. D
19. A 79. C
20. B
80. A
21. D
81. A
22. C
82. D
23. A 83. C
24. A 84. B
25. B
85. A
26. A
86. A
27. C
87. B
28. D
88. C
29. A 89. D
30. D 90. C
31. D
91. D
32. A
92. D
33. C
93. A
34. C
94. A
35. B 95. C
36. D 96. C
37. D
97. B
38. B
98. C
39. A
99. D
40. D
 48

TLE (2) - Plumbing 10) It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or
1) A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to opened to allow installation or troubleshooting of fixtures.
convey and supply water in buildings and to dispose and a. Check valve
discharge waste water. b. Gate valve
a. Carpenter c. Ball valve
b. Plumber d. Float valve
c. Mason 11) A schedule 40 pipe is:
d. Mechanic a. Thicker than schedule 20
2) It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste b. Thicker than schedule 80
discharged from the house sewer. c. Thinner than schedule 10
a. Septic tank d. None among the choices
b. Manhole 12) What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid
c. Water tank leakage?
d. Waste tank a. Masking tape
3) The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the b. Teflon tape
septic tank. c. Scotch tape
a. Scum d. Adhesive gum
b. Sediment 13) What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow
c. Sludge of the water seal in the drainage system?
d. Silt a. Vent pipe
4) An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and b. Drain pipe
waste matter from a home or town is called: c. Soil pipe
a. Drainage system d. Cleanout
b. Fixture 14) Which of the following is NOT required by the National
c. Sewerage Plumbing Code?
d. Sewer a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward
5) The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than gravity flow of water.
from the water closet. b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout.
a. Waste pipe c. No vent pipe is needed.
b. Soil pipe d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
c. Vent pipe 15) What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as
d. Drain pipe recommended by the National Plumbing Code?
6) It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent a. 2% slope
the back passage of air. b. 3% slope
a. Loop c. 4% slope
b. Fixture d. 0% slope or level position
c. Sewer 16) For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of
d. Trap flow, what must be installed in the pipe system?
7) The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like a. Vent pipe
unions and other metal fittings. b. Cleanout
a. Pipe vise c. Drain
b. Pliers d. Tee fitting
c. Wrenches 17) Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture
d. Threader installation nowadays. Which of the following is preferred?
8) The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
a ________. b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
a. Wye fitting c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)
b. Coupling d. Polyethylene
c. Union fitting 18) The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there
d. Reducer must be no more than two closets that shall discharge into a
9) A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to ________ pipe diameter.
prevent backflow of water. a. 3 inches or 75 mm
a. Ball valve b. 80 mm
b. Check valve c. less than 75 mm
c. Blackwater valve d. 70 mm
d. Gate valve
 49

19) A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe 28) A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is
from a larger pipe. needed?
a. Reducer a. Vise grip
b. Elbow b. Pipe threader
c. Union c. Yoke vise
d. Coupling d. Pipe wrench
20) As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what 29) The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:
should be connected for each faucet, toilet, and fixtures? a. rainwater harvesting
a. Fixture shutoffs b. water conservation
b. Main shutoffs c. gray water recycling
c. Intermediate shutoffs d. excessive water consumption
d. Valves 30) Water contaminants are being forced back into the water
21) A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool piping system. Which term is referred to?
is appropriate? a. Water flow
a. Pipe cutter b. Back flow
b. Flux c. Pressure
c. Pipe wrench d. Harvesting
d. Butane torch 31) The following are examples of plumbing fixtures,
22) A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is EXCEPT:
appropriate? a. water closet
a. Hacksaw b. drainage
b. Back saw c. shower
c. Handsaw d. urinals
d. Drywall knife 32) Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards
23) Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted based on Republic Act 1378 which is known as "Plumbing
with a hook or corkscrew is called ________. Law"?
a. plumber's snake a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall
b. plunger be equipped with a water-sealed trap.
c. valve b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the
d. bushing maximum quantity of water consistent with proper
24) If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape performance and cleaning.
instrument attached to the end of the handle for unblocking. c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly
What is this tool? lighted and ventilated.
a. plumber's snake d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive
b. valve mixtures, destroy the pipes or their joints or interfere unduly
c. plunger with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter the
d. bushing building drainage system.

25) Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and 33) A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located
irregular objects? below the normal grade of the gravity system is called
a. monkey wrench ________.
b. chain wrench a. septic
c. yoke vise b. sump
d. pipe wrench c. trap
d. interceptor
26) A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand.
Which tool is appropriate? 34) Which is true toxic substance?
a. Pipe cutter a. Hazardous to human health
b. Pipe threader b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Yoke vise c. Not hazardous to human health
d. Pipe wrench d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain

27) A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is 35) Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use
needed? is ________.
a. Vise grip a. potable
b. Pipe threader b. purified
c. Yoke vise c. clean
d. Pipe wrench d. healthy
36) Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?
a. A room or booth containing a toilet
 50

b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the c. Teflon tape
toilet d. Tape
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near 46) If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a male adopter,
d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its what fitting will be used to stop the flow of the water?
disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet a. Elbow
37) Plumbing ventilation means to ________. b. Coupling
a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage c. Cap
system d. Plug
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping 47) How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter
c. maintain the trap seals distance?
d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer a. 2 pcs.
38) Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes b. 2.5 pcs.
through what pipe? c. 3 pcs.
a. Down spout d. 3.5 pcs.
b. Conductor 48) If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a female adopter,
c. Gutter what fitting will be used to stop the flow of the water?
d. Vent a. Elbow
39) A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________. b. Coupling
a. vent pipe c. Cap
b. soil pipe d. Plug
c. main pipe 49) A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which
d. waste pipe fitting is necessary?
40) If you install water supply inside the building, what is the a. Coupling
diameter of pipes needed? b. Elbow
a. 4 inches c. Tee
b. 1 inch d. Pipe wrench
c. 0.75 inch 50) If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink,
d. 0.5 inch and water closet, which valve are you going to shut off?
41) In which type of pipes does portable water travel a. Gate valve
a. ABS pipes b. Globe valve
b. Galvanized pipes c. Check valve
c. Cast iron pipes d. Angle valve
d. PVC pipes (orange) 51) If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or
42) If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the slope?
flow of water? a. 5%
a. Gate valve b. 10%
b. Globe valve c. 2%
c. Check valve d. 1%
d. Angle valve 52) If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum
43) A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer safe distance from the septic tank?
gasses from entering the building. What device is needed? a. 15 meters
a. Union b. 10 meters
b. Trap c. 5 meters
c. Backflow preventer d. 20 meters
d. Pump 53) No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located
44) A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 within how many meter radius from the well?
degrees turn. Which valve is appropriate? a. 15 meters
a. Gate valve b. 10 meters
b. Globe valve c. 50 meters
c. Check valve d. 45 meters
d. Angle valve 54) If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for
45) What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for public use, what is the minimum meter radius from a well to
covering threaded pipes joints to prevent leakage? the residences?
a. Rubber bond a. 150 meters
b. Masking tape b. 100 meters
 51

c. 50 meters 19. A
d. 200 meters 20. A
55) Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar 21. C
fixture shall be _________. 22. A
a. self-regulating 23. A
b. tight 24. C
c. fix 25. B
d. self cleaning 26. B
27. C
56) There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing 28. A
within how many meter radius from the well? 29. D
a. 15 meters 30. B
b. 10 meters 31. B
c. 50 meters 32. B
d. 45 meters 33. A
57) The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________. 34. A
a. 12 ft. 35. A
b. 2.0 m 36. B
c. 6.0 m 37. A
d. 10 ft. 38. A
39. D
58) If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed
40. D
from your house to the main supply, what is the standard
41. B
length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
42. A
a. 20.0 m
43. C
b. 6 ft. 44. B
c. 3.0 m 45. C
d. 20 ft.
46. C
59) If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed 47. B
from your house to the main supply, what is the standard 48. D
length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use? 49. A
a. 20.0 m 50. D
b. 6 ft. 51. C
c. 3.0 m 52. A
d. 20 ft. 53. D
60) All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT: 54. B
a. lavatory 55. D
b. water closet 56. A
c. sink 57. D
d. bath tub 58. B
59. C
ANSWERS: 60. B
1. B
2. A
3. C TLE (1) - Cosmetology
4. D 1) In facial, make-up foundation serves as make-up base.
5. A What is the type of foundation recommended for dry skin?
6. D a. cake
7. C b. cream
8. C c. liquid
9. B d. stick
10. C
11. A 2) The purpose of thinning the hair is to remove its excess bilk
12. B without shortening its length. What is the best shear to use for
13. A thinning bulky hair?
14. C a. all purpose shear
15. A b. clipping shear
16. B c. razor
17. A d. thinning shear
18. A
 52

3) The process of thinning, tapering and shortening of the hair 12) Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove
is called: stubborn dirt when giving foot spa is:
a. hair cutting a. foot balm
b. hair drying b. foot scrub
c. hair setting c. foot soak
d. hair styling d. foot spray
4) Make-up is applied to the face for the purpose of improving 13) Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
its appearance. To give color to the cheeks, which of the I. Apply cuticle remover
following should be applied? II. Cut & file nails
a. Eye shadow III. Push cuticle
b. Lipstick IV. Trim cuticle
c. Mascara a. I, III, II, IV
d. Rogue b. II, I, III, IV
5) To correct misshaped eyebrows, it is best to use: c. III, I, IV, II
a. depilatory d. I, III, IV, I
b. eyebrow pencil 14) One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of
c. electric clipper shave is:
d. razor a. Depilation
6) Arrange the following cosmetics in their order of use in b. Epilation
applying make-up? c. Threading
I. Curl lash d. Waxing
II. Eyeliner 15) A heavy make-up is suitable for:
III. Eye shadow a. casual affair
IV. Mascara b. evening affair
a. I, II, III, IV c. picture affair
b. II, III, IV, I d. night swimming
c. III, II, I, IV 16) The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail
d. IV, I, II, III polish is:
7) A make-up tool that makes eyelashes wavy is: a. base coat
a. blush on brush b. colored nail polish
b. curl lash c. cuticle remover
c. eye liner d. top coat
d. mascara 17) What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the
8) A corrective make-up that makes small eyes appear bigger hair into smaller, more workable pieces for the purpose of
is: control?
a. adding lines on the eyelids a. Bunching
b. using dark colored eye shadow b. Spitting
c. using light colored eye shadow c. Sectioning
d. using mascara d. Texturizing
9) An emery board is used to shape the ________ of the nails. 18) A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the
a. cuticle eye appear ________.
b. free edge a. Lighter
c. lunula b. Darker
d. root of the nails c. Smaller
10) An orange wood stick is used to: d. Deeper
a. apply oil on the nails 19) Mariana would like to apply the principles she learned in
b. remove excess cuticle remover corrective make-up to a friend whose lips are broad. Which
c. remove excess nail polish around the nails should you not recommend?
d. remove stain on nails a. apply light color lipstick
11) The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair b. apply lip gloss
is coarse, medium or fine is: c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips
a. hair analysis d. use lip liner on the inner lips
b. hair elasticity 20) The nail is composed mainly of:
c. hair porosity a. Melanin
d. hair texture b. Keratin
 53

c. Collagen hairstyle, makeup, manicure and pedicure. Miss T wants a

d. Sebum neatly finished up style. Which of the following styles is best
21) Customer A is complaining and getting pushy about the suited for her?
pedicure service she received. If you were the pedicurist, what a. French Twist Hairstyle
would you do? b. Laced-up and Elegant Hairstyle
a. Tell your customer to look for another pedicurist. c. Chignon
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and continue working d. Petal and Blooms Hairstyle
without being bothered by the complained. 29) Which of the following makeup does she need?
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and professional. a. Day make-up
d. Ask for an apology, maintain professionalism and ask what b. Evening make-up
she wants. c. Photographic make-up
22) Which of these is the first thing the pedicurist should do to d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
avoid such situation? 30) Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Be courteous. a. Round nail
b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the b. Oval nail
shape, color, etc. c. Square nail
c. Decide you own design and styles. d. Pointed nail
c. Proceed to the service right after customer A says that she 31) Which of these are implements?
wants pedicuring. a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl
23) Which is NOT desirable quality for effective client b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat, and cuticle
relation? remover
a. emotional control c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper, nail file and
b. positive approach orange wood stick
c. good manners d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail
d. discussing personal life polish remover
24) Which of the following statement is NOT true? 32) Which of these are cosmetics?
a. Cosmetologist is one of the best advertisements for a salon. a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail
b. Salon owners and managers do not consider appearance, polish remover
personality and poise to be as important as technical b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle
knowledge and manual skills. remover
c. The female cosmetologist should wear stylish shoes that fit c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair
and are comfortable at the end of a long day. d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle nipper, nail file
d. All female stylists should have their hair done at least once and nail brush
a week and their hair should reflect the best workmanship of 33) Which of these are equipment?
the salon. a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and assorted colored
25) The following are guidelines for good human relations and polish
professional attitude, EXCEPT one: b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange wood stick and
a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice. cuticle pusher
b. Show interest in the client's personal preferences. c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and antiseptic solution
c. Make a good impression by wearing obtrusive jewelry to d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl
look at your best. 34) Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file?
d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with a. The pointed side is used to push back and moisten the
whom you come in contact. cuticles.
26) Lisa applied as public teacher. She doesn't have any b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the
experience for job interview. Could you please help her cuticles.
decide? What type of clothing will she wear? c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the
a. Casual dress cuticles.
b. Sunday dress d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the
c. Business attire cuticles.
d. Party dress 35) Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert
27) What type of make-up may she put on? the ring finger and pinky in the nail brush handle and brush
a. Corrective make-up the nails with a _________.
b. Light make-up a. downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean
c. Heavy make-up the nails and fingers.
d. Photographic make-up b. sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the
28) Miss T was invited as one of the principal sponsors in her nails and fingers.
best friend's daughter's wedding. She went to a salon to have c. upward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the
 54

nails and fingers. b. mayoma and diabetic

d. sawing motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the c. deliver a baby
nails and fingers. d. cancer
36) Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight 45) If you are going to start a home service as a
and then filing the tip straight across at right angles with the manicurist/pedicurist and your parents give you ₱500.00 to
rest of the nail plate? start with, which equipment, implements, cosmetics and
a. round nail materials should you buy first?
b. square nail I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, assorted nail polish,
c. pointed nail base coat, and top coat
d. oval nail II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art designs
37) Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood stick, nail brush,
When is a massage applied? Before _________. nail file, and nail polish remover
a. removing old polish IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, antiseptic
b. coloring polish solution, and nail buffer
c. base coat a. I only
d. top coat b. I and II
38) Which of the following is the last step in c. I and III
manicuring/pedicuring? d. I and IV
a. apply top coat 46) In shaping the nails, what comes first?
b. clean under free edge a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb and the two
c. re-examine nails and cuticles fingers of the left hand.
d. dry fingertips b. Hold the file or emery board in the right hand and tilt it
39) Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of slightly so that filling is confined mainly to the underside of
caring for the nails and toenails, involving special care and the free edge.
expertise for bringing out the best effects? c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best suited for
a. nail tattoo him/her. File the nails at the left hand starting with the little
b. nail art finger and working towards the thumb.
c. nail extender d. Shape the nails.
d. nail technician 47) Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher. Sometimes or most of the
40) Which of the following statement is CORRECT? time she is exposed to the sunlight. What type of skin
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a protection should she apply?
month. a. face toners
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people. b. anti-aging body creams
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails. c. body mask
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter. d. SPF lotion

41) Which is the technical term for nail? 48) Which of the following drinks can she take to hydrate
a. Onyx herself?
b. Onychosis a. soft drinks
c. Onychology b. gatorade
d. Keratin c. cobra juice
d. plain water
42) Which refer to hand-held tools used in manicure which are
durable and must be sanitized after use with each client? 49) Which part of the body is best for the color testing of a
a. Cosmetics foundation?
b. Equipment a. earlobe
c. Materials b. jawline
d. Implements c. nose
d. cheek
43) Which of the following term refers to a light, continuous
stroking movement applied with the fingers and palms in a 50) Which aids in maintaining face?
slow and rhythmic manner? a. face cleansers
a. friction b. face toners
b. vibration c. face lotions
c. petrissage d. face serums
d. effleurage 51) Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost
44) It is not good to apply massage when a person has moisture and hydrate the skin to slow down the skin's aging
_________. process?
a. high blood pressure and heart condition a. anti-aging face creams
b. face toners
 55

c. face exfoliators b. blush

d. face cream c. cheek color
52) Which among the following would be the first step in d. foundation
giving facial? 61) How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A
a. apply cleansing cream highlight is produced when:
b. apply treatment mask a. a darker foundation than the original one is applied to a
c. apply moisturizer particular part of the face
d. apply massage cream b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a
53) Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in particular part of the face
analyzing the client's skin? If the _________. c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily particular part of the face
b. shape of the face d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features
c. lines or creases exist 62) What must one remember in giving facial manipulations to
d. skin texture is smooth or rough induce relaxation?
54) Which of the following is NOT beneficial for facial a. routine
treatments? b. tempo
a. Softening and improving skin texture and complexion c. pressure
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles and aging lines d. skin type
c. weakening muscle tissue 63) A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She
d. correcting skin disorders has some obvious abrasions on her scalp. Which treatment
55) Which of the following is a common skin disorder caused would be acceptable?
by the formation of sebaceous matter within or under the skin? a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage.
a. blackheads b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
b. whiteheads c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her
c. pimples appointment.
d. acne d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.

56) Which of the following facial is recommended for dry,
scaly skin, or skin that is inclined to wrinkles?
a. plain facial
b. packs and masks
c. facial for dry
d. hot oil mask facial
57) Mitch has acne problem so she went to a cosmetologist for
an advice, though she is under medical care. What would be
the role of the cosmetologist?
a. Work closely with the client's physician to carry out
instructions as to the kind and frequency of facial treatments.
b. Advice the client to stop the medication from the physician.
c. She can have her own separate medication aside from the
physician.
d. Refuse and do not give further service.
58) Under medical direction, the following are the measures of
limitation in cosmetic treatment for acne, EXCEPT:
a. Remove blackheads using proper procedures
b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local application
c. Apply moisturizer
d. Clean the face
59) What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving
a matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws or blemishes?
a. powder
b. lipstick
c. eyeliner
d. blush
60) Which of the following provides the backdrop for the
entire colorful facial make-up artistry?
a. concealer
64) Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is only 11 years old
and she is not an albino. What may be the cause of gray hairs
at this early age?
a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers.
b. She has serious illness.
c. She has defects in pigment formation occurring at birth.
d. A result of the natural aging process of humans.
65) Who is an albino? A person born with _________.
a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal
development of hair
b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is
accompanied by no marked of pigment coloring in the skin or
irises of the eyes
c. androgenetic alopecia
d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a
hair follicle
66) What type of haircutting is done when one holds the
shears at an angle to the hair strand other than 90 degrees?
a. blunt cut
b. beveled cut
c. graduated cut
d. undercutting
67) Which of the following safety measures in haircutting is
NOT true?
a. Always palm the shears when combing the hair.
b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin.
c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting.
d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of
the hand.
68) Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes
and styles?
 56

a. Hairstyling 77) Hair is distributed all over the body, EXCEPT:

b. Hair trimming a. Soles of the feet
c. Curling b. Earlobe
d. Waving c. Hands
69) David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did partially wet d. Eyes
and partially dry of Miss P's hair. What would be the result of ANSWERS:
Miss P's hair? 1. B
a. Even 2. D
b. Uneven 3. A
c. Perfect 4. D
d. Curly 5. B
70) Following a haircut, when is texturizing performed most 6. C
effectively? 7. B
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn. 8. A
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is applied. 9. B
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed. 10. C
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling. 11. C
71) The following are some myths about hair growth, 12. B
EXCEPT: 13. C
a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting, or singeing has 14. A
an effect on the rate of hair growth. 15. B
b. The application of oils increases hair growth. 16. A
c. Hair grows after death. 17. C
d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each follicle 18. A
repeatedly cycles through three stages. 19. C
20. B
72) Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called 21. D
_________. 22. B
a. taped haircutting 23. D
b. wedge haircutting 24. B
c. sectioning 25. C
d. barbering 26. C
73) Which of the following is an art of creating curls or 27. B
weaving? 28. B
a. Hairstyling 29. C
b. Thermal styling 30. A
c. Hair setting 31. C
d. Traditional finger waving 32. B
33. D
74) Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to
34. D
the scalp, rest and soothe the nerves, stimulate the muscles and
35. A
the activity of the scalp glands?
36. B
a. Shampooing 37. C
b. Hair treatment 38. A
c. Scalp manipulation
39. B
d. Rebonding
40. A
75) Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair 41. A
before hairstyling. 42. D
a. Crown 43. D
b. Forehead 44. A
c. Nape of the neck 45. C
d. Back of the head 46. C
76) Under normal circumstances, how many strands of hair 47. D
does an average person shed per day? 48. D
a. 20-50 49. B
b. 40-100 50. A
c. 80-120 51. D
d. 150-200 52. A
53. B
 57

54. C a. mitosis
55. B b. parthenogenesis
56. D c. spermatogenesis
57. A d. mitochondria
58. C 10. 8) The smallest part of a living thing which performs
59. A all the processes a living organism does.
60. D a. organ
61. B b. cell
62. B c. tissue
63. C d. system
64. C 11. 9) Male and female reproductive parts of a flower:
65. B a. pollen grains and ovules
66. B b. stamen and pistil
67. D c. pollen grain and pistil
68. A d. stamen and ovules
69. B 12. 10) These are cellular secretions which help regulate
70. A the breakdown and buildup of various substances in
71. D the body.
72. A a. enzymes
73. C b. amino acids
74. C c. plasma
75. C d. hormones
76. B 13. 11) Which of the following does NOT occur to both
77. A respiration and fermentation?
2. NATURAL SCIENCE (6) a. energy is released
3. 1) How does hormones work? b. sugar is broken down
a. by releasing adrenaline c. carbon dioxide is produced
b. by controlling cell chemistry d. alcohol is formed
c. by regulating water loss 14. 12) What will cause the process of respiration to
d. by controlling blood pressure stop?
4. 2) Nitrogen compounds known as the building blocks a. absence of oxygen
of proteins. b. absence of sunlight
a. enzymes c. decrease in water supply
b. glucose d. presence of sunlight
c. nutrients 15. 13) What relationship exist between a bangus and
d. amino acids tilapia in the fishpond?
5. 3) The growth of roots towards water is an example a. commensalism
of? b. mutualism
a. chemotropism c. competition
b. geotropism d. predation
c. hydrotropism 16. 14) Taxonomy is the study of the classification of
d. phototropism organism based on their?
6. 4) DNA means? a. genetics
a. data nurturing analysis b. evolutionary history
b. deoxytribonucleic acid c. development pattern
c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. habitat
d. deotrixyl nucleic acid 17. 15) Coordination and integration of the body
7. 5) What are the 3 products of oxygen when it has activities of man are under the direct control of the?
been burned? a. reproduction and transport system
a. water, carbon dioxide and air b. nervous and endocrine system
b. energy, water and carbon c. nervous and excretory system
c. energy, carbon and oxide d. respiratory and endocrine system
d. energy, air and water 18. 16) Which of the following is NOT a compound?
8. 6) In flowering plants, fertilization takes place in the? a. acetic acid
a. pollen tube b. alcohol
b. stamen c. magnesium
c. ovules d. zinc oxide
d. pollen grain 19. 17) A molecule is said to be polar or dipolar if?
9. 7) The development of egg without fertilization is a. its positive and negative charges are at different
called: places
 58

b. it possesses polar bonds c. freezing point increases as pressure increases

c. its polar bond have unsymmetrical charge d. freezing point increases as pressure decreases
distribution 30. 28) It is the phenomena in which energy is
d. all of the above transferred through vibrations.
20. 18) Instrument which measures the specific gravity of a. frequency
liquids. b. waves
a. hygrometer c. refraction
b. synchrometer d. amplitude
c. hydrometer 31. 29) The unit of measurement for intensity of sound:
d. cyclotron a. hertz
21. 19) Which property does NOT identify a chemical b. decibel
system? c. angstrom
a. melting point d. frequency
b. boiling point 32. 30) The term RADAR is derived from the phrase?
c. taste a. Radio Detection and Ranging
d. shape b. Radiation Diffusion and Ranging
22. 20) The process of spreading out spontaneously to c. Radio Diffraction and Resolution
occupy a space uniformly. d. Radiation Diffraction and Resolution
a. compression 33. 31) LASER is derived from the phrase?
b. diffusion a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of
c. expansion Radiation
d. pressure b. Light Application by Simulated Emission of
23. 21) It is the complex mixture of pollutants. Radiation
a. acid rain c. Light Amplification by Simulated Ejection of
b. particles Radiation
c. oxides d. None of the above
d. oxidants 34. 32) What is the color of a transparent substance?
24. 22) Compounds with the same molecular formula but a. the color of the light it absorbs
with different structural formulas. b. the color of the light it reflects
a. cellulose c. the color of the light it transmits
b. isomers d. the color of the light in it
c. polymers 35. 33) What will make an object move in a circular
d. monomers path?
25. 23) Describes the force of gravity of an object. a. central force
a. mass b. gravitational force
b. weight c. frictional force
c. capacity d. electromagnetic force
d. pressure 36. 34) The temperature at which gas would no longer
26. 24) When gaseous molecules are compressed, they exert pressure.
tend to? a. Kelvin temperature
a. increase in volume b. Celsius temperature
b. decrease in volume c. Absolute zero
c. repel each other d. Boiling point
d. attract and liquefy 37. 35) At what temperature does water have the smallest
27. 25) The average temperature was recorded at 35 volume and greatest density?
degrees C. What is the equivalent in Kelvin? a. 0 degree C
a. 308 b. 2 degrees C
b. 300 c. 4 degrees C
c. 273 d. 16 degrees C
d. 360 38. 36) A projectile always travels in a ________.
28. 26) It is the distance traveled by the body per unit a. linear path
time and tells how fast or slow the body moves. b. circular path
a. velocity c. parabolic path
b. speed d. a and a
c. acceleration 39. 37) To earth scientists, the most important features on
d. thrust the map are the landforms that shape the earth's
29. 27) The pressure cooker works under the principle surface that is shown in:
that? a. hydrographic maps
a. boiling point increases as pressure decreases b. geologic maps
b. boiling point decreases as pressure increases
 59

c. political maps 50. 48) Process in removing excess odor in water.

d. topographic maps a. sedimentation
40. 38) What causes high and low tides? b. chlorination
a. earth's rotation on its axis c. distillation
b. sun's solar energy d. aeration
c. moon's gravitational pull 51. 49) One of the planets has the greatest gravitational
d. earth's gravitational pull pull. Which one is it?
41. 39) How is coral atoll formed? a. Mars
a. volcanic eruptions b. Earth
b. corals growing around a volcanic island c. Mercury
c. underwater bedrock formations d. Jupiter
d. earthquake 52. 50) He evolved the Theory of Evolution in his book
42. 40) When you pass orange juice from a tetra pack "Origin of Species"?
into a glass, the juice changes its? a. Albert Einstein
a. volume b. Charles Darwin
b. shape c. Johannes Kepler
c. state d. Isaac Newton
d. all of the above 53. ANSWERS:
43. 41) The part of the atmosphere that filters the 54. 1. B
ultraviolet rays of the sun? 2. D
a. stratosphere 3. C
b. troposphere 4. C
c. ozone layer 5. B
d. ionosphere 6. C
44. 42) The point in the earth's orbit which is nearest the 7. B
sun. 8. B
a. solstice 9. B
b. eclipse 10. D
c. aphelion 11. D
d. perihelion 12. A
45. 43) What is the primary function of gravity in the 13. C
universe? 14. B
a. provision for energy 15. B
b. keep the stars and heavenly bodies in orbit 16. C
c. causes movement in space 17. D
d. part of universal design 18. C
46. 44) What does the word "monsoon" mean? 19. D
a. moon will come soon 20. B
b. atmosphere 21. D
c. seasons 22. B
d. climate 23. B
47. 45) It occurs when the earth is between the sun and 24. A
the moon, with the earth's shadow cast over the 25. A
moon. 26. B
a. total eclipse 27. A
b. lunar eclipse 28. B
c. eclipse 29. B
d. partial eclipse 30. A
48. 46) A root may perform all of the following 31. A
functions, EXCEPT: 32. C
a. photosynthesis 33. A
b. anchorage 34. C
c. food storage 35. C
d. water absorption 36. C
49. 47) What would be the best way to prevent soil 37. D
erosion in a hill? 38. C
a. building terraces 39. B
b. cultivation 40. B
c. reforestation 41. C
d. irrigation 42. D

43. C
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. B
FIGURE OF SPEECH
1) SYNECDOCHE - an association of some important part
with the whole it represents.
Example: The face who launched a thousand ships.
2) SIMILE - an indirect association.
Example: She is like a flower.
3) PERSONIFICATION - giving human attributes to an
inanimate object (animal, idea, etc.)
Example: The sun is looking down on me.
4) OXYMORON - a self-contrasting statement.
Example: Loud silence
5) METONYMY - an association wherein the name of
something is substituted by something that represents it.
Example: Toothpaste is sometimes called Colgate.
6) METAPHOR - a direct comparison.
Example: You are the sunshine of my life.
7) IRONY - the contrast between what was expected and what
actually happened.
Example: No smoking sign during a cigarette break.
8) HYPERBOLE - an exaggeration.
Example: Cry me a river.
9) EUPHEMISM - creating a positive connotation out of
something negative.
Example: Comfort women (prostitute)
10) ELLIPSIS - omission of words in a sentence.
Example: She walked away and so the world turns....
11) ASYNDETON - not putting any connectors (conjunctions
or prepositions).
Example: No retreat, no surrender
12) APOSTROPHE - a direct address to an abstract things or a
person who passed away.
MGA SAGISAG-PANULAT NG MGA PILIPINONG
MANUNULAT
● Emilio Aguinaldo – Rosalia Magdalo, Magdalo
● Virgilio Almario – Rio Alma
● Cecilio Apostol – Catulo, Calipso and Calypso
● Francisco Baltazar – Balagtas
● Andres Bonifacio – Agapito Bagumbayan, Maypagasa,
Magdiwang
● Felipe Calderon – Simoun, Elias
● Florentino Collantes – Kuntil-butil
60
● Jose Corazon de Jesus – Huseng Batute, Pusong Hapis,
Luksang Paruparo
● Jose dela Cruz – Huseng Sisiw
● Epifanio delos Santos – G. Solon
● Nestor Vicente Madali Gonzalez – N.V.M. Gonzalez
● Marcelo H. del Pilar – Plaridel, Dolores Manapat, Piping
Dilat, Siling Labuyo
● Severino Reyes – Lola Basyang
● Fernando Ma. Guerrero – Fluvio Gil, Florisel
● Amado Hernandez – Amante Ernani, Herninia de la Riva,
Julio Abril
● Emilio Jacinto – Dimas-ilaw, Pingkian
● Nick Joaquin – Quijano de Manila
● Graciano Lopez Jaena – Bolivar, Diego Laura
● Antonio Luna – Taga-ilog
● Juan Luna – J.B., Buan
● Apolinario Mabini – Bini, Paralitiko, Katabay
● Jose Palma – Anahaw, Esteban Estebanes, Gan Hantik
● Jose Maria Panganiban – Jomapa, J.M.P.
● Pascual H. Poblete – Anak-bayan
● Mariano Ponce – Nanding, Tikbalang, Kalipulako
● Jose Rizal – Dimas-alang, Laong-laan, Agno
● Lope K. Santos – Anak-bayan, Doktor Lukas, Lakandalita
● Pio Valenzuela – Madlang-awa
● Jose Garcia Villa – Doveglion
WASTONG GAMIT NG SALITA
1) NANG at NG
Nang
a. Ginagamit ang nang bilang pangatnig sa mga hugnayang
pangungusap; katumbas ng "when" sa Ingles.
Halimbawa: Tulog na ang mga anak nang dumating ang
kanilang ina.
b. Ginagamit ang nang sa gitna ng dalawang salitang-ugat na
inuulit.
Halimbawa: tapon nang tapon
c. Ang nang ay nagmula sa na at inaangkupan ng ng at
inilalagay sa pagitan ng pandiwa at ng pang-abay.
Halimbawa: Nag-aaral nang mabuti si Juan.
Ng
a. Ginagamit ang ng bilang pananda sa tuwirang layon ng
pandiwang palipat.
Halimbawa: Nagtanim ng palay si Maria na isang magsasaka.
b. Ginagamit ang ng bilang pananda ng aktor o tagaganap ng
pandiwa.
Halimbawa: Tinulungan ng dalaga ang kanyang lola sa
pagtawid.
 61

c. Ginagamit ang panandang ng kapag nagsasaad ng katumbas ng "they" sa Ingles.

pagmamay-ari ng isang bagay o katangian. Halimbawa: Sila ay pupunta sa Davao.
Halimbawa: Ang boses ng bayan ang siyang dapat na FILIPINO (4)
mananaig.
1) Si Gaspar Aquino de Belen ay sumulat ng mahabang tula
2) MAY at MAYROON tungkol sa buhay ng ating Panginoong Hesu Kristo, nang
May lumaon ay tinawag na pasyon. Ang kahawig nitong genre ay
a. Ginagamit ang may kapag sinusundan ng pangngalan. ang ________.
Halimbawa: May kasalanang ginawa sina Juan at Pedro a. Tibag
kagabi. b. Panuluyan
b. Ginagamit ang may kapag sinusundan ng pandiwa. c. Senakulo
Halimbawa: May tumawa dahil sa nasabing balita. d. Doctrina Cristiana
c. Ginagamit ang may kapag sinusundan ng pang-uri. 2) Noong panahon ng aktibismo pinaksa ang ________.
Halimbawa: May magandang karanasan si Jose tungkol sa a. Kabulukan ng lipunan at pulitika
pag-ibig. b. Nasyonalismo
d. Ginagamit ang may kapag sinsundan ng panghalip na panao c. kahilingan para sa reporma
sa kaukulang paari. d. karanasan ng mga tao ng nakaraang panahon
Halimbawa: Ang mga anak ni Mang Tomas ay may kani- 3) Ang gumamit ng kalipunan ng mga dasal satirical bilang
kanilang pamilya na. panunuligsa sa mga prayle ay si ________.
Mayroon a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
a. Ginagamit ang mayroon kapag may napapasingit na kataga b. Graciano Lopez Jaena
(kagaya ng po, pa, din, at rin sa salitang sinusundan nito). c. Jose Rizal
Halimbawa: Mayroon po kaming ipagtatapat sa inyo. d. Pedro Paterno

b. Ginagamit ang mayroon bilang panagot sa isang tanong. 4) Ang aklat na isinulat ni Modesto de Castro na patungkol sa
Halimbawa: May pera ka pa ba? -Mayroon. kagandahang-asal ay ang ________.
a. Nuestra Senora del Rosario
c. Ginagamit ang mayroon kung nangangahulugan bg pagka- b. Doctrina Cristiana
maykaya o mayaman. c. Urbana at Feliza
Halimbawa: Ang mga Bautista ay mayroon sa probinsya ng d. Panubong
Cebu.
5) Ang kauna-unahang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas ay ang
3) KUNG at KONG ________.
Kung a. Doctrina Cristiana
a. Ginagamit ang kung bilang isang pangatnig sa mga b. Nuestra Senora del Rosario
hugnayang pangungusap; katumbas ng "if" sa Ingles. c. Barlaan at Josaphat
Halimbawa: Kung may problema ka, puntahan mo lang ako. d. Urbana at Feliza
Kong 6) Ang dulang batay sa alamat ng singsing ng dalaga na
a. Ang kong ay buhat sa panghalip na ko at nilalagyan lamang naihulog sa dagat ay ang ________.
ng pang-angkop na ng sa pakikiugnay sa salitang sumusunod.
Halimbawa: Ang tangi kong hangad ngayong taon ay ang 7) Ang El Filibusterismo ay inihandog ni Rizal sa ________.
makapasa sa LET. a. Kanyang bayan
b. Kabataang Pilipino
4) DIN/DAW at RIN/RAW c. Kanyang kasintahan
Din/Daw d. GOMBURZA
a. Ginagamit ang din/daw kung ang salitang sinusundan ay
nagtatapos sa katinig maliban sa w at y. 8) Ang awit pangkasal ay tinatawag na ________.
Halimbawa: Magpapatingin daw siya sa doktor ngayon. a. oyayi
b. kundiman
Rin/Raw c. diona
a. Ginagamit ang rin/raw kung ang salitang sinusundan ay d. soliranin
nagtatapos sa patinig at sa malapatinig na w at y.
Halimbawa: May handa raw tayo sa darating na kaarawan ni 9) Ang Atin Cu Pung Singsing ay awiting bayan ng mga
tatay. ________.
a. Waray
5) SINA at SILA b. Ilokano
Sina c. Kapampangan
a. Ang sina ay panandang pangkayarian sa pangngalan. d. Bikolano
Halimbawa: Sina Pablo at Simon ay pupunta sa Davao.
10) Hinggil sa katamaran ng mga Pilipino ang ________.
Sila a. Sobre La Indonecia delos Filipinos
a. Ang sila ay ginagamit bilang isang panghalip panao; b. Filipinos Dentro decien Años
 62

c. A La Juventud Filipino a. ng
d. Mi Ultimo Adios b. nang
11) Tumatalakay sa katiwalian ng mga prayle sa Pilipinas ang c. ang
________. d. ni
a. Sobre La Indonecia delos Filipinos 21) Ang Rizal Park ay ________ kaysa Bonifacio Park.
b. Filipinas Dento decien Años a. mas malawak
c. La Soberana en Filipinos b. magsinlawak
d. A La Juventud Filipino c. pinakamalawak
12) Ang tinaguriang Ama ng Demokrasyang Pilipino ay d. napakalawak
________. 22) Ang kopo nang De La Salle at kopo nang Ateneo ay
a. Emilio Jacinto ________ sa basketbol.
b. Apolinario Mabini a. magsinhusay
c. Emilio Aguinaldo b. magsin-husay
d. Andres Bonifacio c. magsinghusay
13) Ang Himno Nacional Filipina ay isinulat ni ________. d. magsing-husay
a. Antonio Luna 23) Magkasama sa rally sa Mendiola ________ Marlo at Lita.
b. Pascual Poblete a. kila
c. Jose Palma b. sina
d. Jose Panganiban c. sila
14) Ang gamit o “function” ng wika ay upang manatili ang d. kina
pakikipagkapwa-tao ay: 24) ________ bagong proyektong pabahay ang Sangguniang
a. interaksyonal Panglungsod para sa mahihirap.
b. instrumental a. mayroon
c. representasyonal b. mag- isang
d. personal c. may
15) Ang palatandaan sa pagbasa na nagbibigay ng kaayusan d. pag- iisang
ng mga salita saloob ng pangungusap 25) Alas kuwatro ng hapon ________ bawian ng buhay si
a. semantiko Pedro.
b. sintaktika a. nang
c. sehematiko b. nuong
d. morpema c. ng
16) Ang hindi kabilang sa mga katangian ng isang guro sa d. ang
epektibong komunikasyon ay: 26) Tuwang-tuwa ________ ng mangingisda ang maraming
a. May malawak nakaalaman sa panitikan nahuhuling isda sa mga mamamakyaw sa pamilihan.
b. Mahusay natagapagsalita ng wika a. ipinagbili
c. Mahusay makipag- interak sa mga mag-aaral b. binili
d. Palaging nakatuon sa mga ideya ng nasa teksto c. bumili
17) Mas magiging masaya ang pag diriwang kung makakadalo d. nagbili
________ Luisito at Clara. 27) Ang buhay ni Jose Rizal ay "bukas na aklat" sa mga
a. sila Pilipino.
b. kila a. makasaysayan
c. sana b. lingid sa madla
d. sina c. alam ng lahat
18) Mas magiging masaya ang pag diriwang kung makakadalo d. itinatago
________ Luisito at Clara. 28) Ang damit ni Ara ay "palasak" na.
a. sila a. pangkaraniwan
b. kila b. luma na
c. sana c. hindi uso
d. sina d. mumurahin
19) Si Binibining Reyes ay umaawit at sumasayaw ________. 29) Ang taong iyan ay kahit hindi mayaman ay "bulang-gugo."
a. din a. maramot
b. rin b. kuripot
c. daw c. ayaw gumasta
d. raw d. laging handa ng gumasta
20) Kinuha ________ pulis ang mga pangalan ng mga taong 30) Sa bahay na iyan nakatira ang mga "kalapating mababa
nakita sa pook ng krimen. ang lipad."
 63

a. mga babaeng masasama 41) Lubhang "matigas ang paninindigang" ipinamalas niya.
b. mga babaeng walang asawa a. Prinsipyo
c. mga inang walang anak b. Paniniwala
d. mga kalapating walang pakpak c. Pananagutan
31) "Kabagang" ni Ginoong Diaz ang kanyang kapit-bahay. d. Proyekto
a. kapalagayang-loob 42) Anong uri na tayutay ang nakapaloob sa pahayag na ito?
b. kaaway "Musika ang gamut sa nalulungkot niyang damdamin."
c. kausap a. Pagsasatao
d. kapantay b. Pagpapalit-tawag
32) Si Ruben ang "payaso" sa pamilya. c. Pag-uyam
a. ama d. Pagwawangis
b. nag papasaya 43) Paano mapapayaman ang talasalitaan ng mag-aaral?
c. pinaka bida a. Dagdaan ang kanilang mga bagong salita sa pamamagitan
d. panganay ng pakikipag-usap, pagbabasa at pagsusulat.
33) Si Crispin ay isinilang na may kutsarang pilak sa kamay. b. Sanayin ang mag-aaral sa scanning.
a. may dignidad c. Ipaunawa sa mga mag-aaral ang kabuuan ng diwa o
b. may kayamanan kaisipan ng seleksyon.
c. may pag-ibig d. Ituro sa mga mag-aaral ang pagbasa ng magkaugnay na
d. may handing pagkain salita.

34) Kahit saan magpunta si Nardo ay "nakikiindak sa sayaw." 44) Ang bilis ng pagbabasa ay nauuri ayon sa _________.
a. nakikibagay a. Wakas ng binabasa
b. nakikipagsayaw b. Pagpapaliwanag sa nilalaman o sa kaisipang binabasa
c. nakikipagsaya c. Masaklaw at malawak na pag-iisip
d. nakikipag-usap d. Kahirapan ng seleksyong binabasa

35) Ang sumulat ng titik ng Pambansang Awit ay si: 45) Upang matamo ang mahalagang layunin sa maunlad na
a. Jose Palma pagbabasa, kailangan ang _________.
b. Julian Felipe a. Kritikal na pag-iisip at pagpapahalaga sa mga binasa
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus b. Imahinasyon
d. Rafael Palma c. Pagkilala sa kahinaan
d. Interes at hilig ng bumabasa
36) Ang kumatha ng himig ng Pambansang Awit ay si:
a. Rafael Palma 46) Sa pagtuturo ng pagbabasa sa pangalawang wika, dapat
b. Levi Celerio isaalang-alang _________.
c. Julian Felipe a. Ang simulain ng pagkakasunod-sunod ng mga yunit ng
d. Graciano Lopez paksang aralin
b. Ang pagtatala ng mahalagang bahagi ng araling sasaklawin
37) Ang pahayagan ng katipunan ay: c. Ang bawat bahagi ng balarila
a. Kalayaan d. Ang pagsasanay sa transisiyon
b. Herald
c. Ang Demokrasya 47) Aling paraan ang higit na magpapaunlad ng bilis sa
d. Tribyon pagbabasa?
a. Ipasalaysay sa mag-aaral
38) Ang nagtatag ng Diaryong Tagalog ay si: b. Magpakita ng iba’t ibang aklat
a. Graciano Lopez Jaena c. Magpakita ng album ng mga aklat na nabasa na.
b. Marcelo H. del Pilar d. Bigyan ng Gawain ang mga mag-aaral ayon sa kanilang
c. Jose Rizal kakayahan.
d. Andres Bonifacio
48) Si Ginoon Pepe ang nagbigay ng "salangkaw".
39) Ang nagtatag ng La Solidaridad ay si: a. galak
a. Andres Bonifacio b. gulo
b. Marcelo H. del Pilar c. salapi
c. Jose Rizal d. lungkot
d. Graciano Lopez Jaena
49) Masusing _________ ng huwes ang nasasakdal nang kami
40) Ano ang ibig sabihin nito “wika ang kaluluwa ng isang ay dumating.
lahi”? a. tanungan
a. Ang wika ay kaluluwa ng isang lahi dahil naitala nito ang b. tinanong
kasaysayan. c. pinagtatanong
b. Ang wika ay may damdamin d. tinatanong
c. Ang wika ay nakapagpapahayag ng niloloob ng tao
d. Ang tao at wika ay kapwa may kaluluwa.
 64

50) Ako ay kanyang "kaututang-dila." a. Pilipino

a. pipi b. Filipino
b. kaibigan c. Tagalog
c. kaaway d. Wikang Pambansa
d. kapatid 4. 2) Isang awiting bayan na ginamit sa pagpapatulog
ANSWERS: ng bata ay ang ________.
a. Diona
1. C b. Oyayi
2. A c. Soliranin
3. A d. Umbay
4. C 5. 3) Ang "Maupay na Aga!" ng mga taga Samar ay
5. A halimbawa ng anong antas ng wika?
6. A a. kolokyal
7. D b. pambansa
8. C c. balbal
9. C d. lalawiganin
10. A 6. 4) Ang "Hindi po namin kayo tatantanan" at "Dahil
11. C hindi natutulog ang balita 24 oras" ay ang mga tanyag
12. D na pahayag ni Mike Enriques sa telebisyon. Sa
13. C anoong barayti ng wika ito nauuri?
14. A a. Jargon
15. B b. Dayalekto
16. D c. Sosyolek
17. D d. Idyolek
18. D 7. 5) Ang kwento hinggil sa pinagmulan ng
19. B sansinukuban at kalipunan ng iba't-ibang paniniwala
20. A sa mga diyos at diyosa ay ________.
21. A a. pabula
22. C b. parabula
23. B c. mitolohiya
24. C d. anekdota
25. A 8. 6) Isang mahabang tulang pasalaysay tungkol sa
26. A kabayanihan ng pangunahing tauhan na may
27. C pambihirang katangian ay ang ________.
28. A a. epiko
29. D b. pabula
30. A c. parabula
31. A d. dalit
32. B 9. 7) Alin sa apat na uri ng akdang pampanitikan na
33. B patula ay tungkol sa pangangatwiran at tagisan ng
34. A talino?
35. A a. tulang pasalaysay
36. C b. tulang patnigan
37. A c. tulang padula
38. B d. tulang liriko
39. D 10. 8) "Ikaw ang aking mahal." Ibigay ang ayos ng
40. C pangungusap na ito.
41. A a. payak
42. B b. tambalan
43. A c. karaniwan
44. B d. di-karaniwan
45. A 11. 9) Alin sa mga sumusunod ay HINDI tulang
46. A pasalaysay?
47. D a. Moro-moro
48. D b. Epiko
49. C c. Awit
50. B d. Korido
2. FILIPINO (3) 12. 10) Alin sa mga tula sa ibaba ang isang tulang liriko?
3. 1) Ano ang naging pangalan ng wikang pambansa a. Panunuluyan
noong 1959? b. Duplo
 65

c. Pastoral 22. 20) Sino ang may-akda ng nobelang Banaag at Sikat?

d. Balagtasan a. Jose dela Cruz
13. 11) Isang tulang maromansa na kung saan nakaharap b. Lope K. Santos
sa mga pakikipagsapalaran ang mga tauhan at hango c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
sa tunay na buhay ay ________. d. Emilio Jacinto
a. oda 23. 21) Isang Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag-
b. awit panulat na Dimas-ilaw ay si ________.
c. soneto a. Jose dela Cruz
d. elehiya b. Antonio Luna
14. 12) Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
Bisaya? d. Emilio Jacinto
a. Lagda 24. 22) Sino ang tinagurian na "Utak ng Himagsikan"?
b. Maragtas a. Emilio Jacinto
c. Bidasari b. Antonio Luna
d. Hinilawod c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
15. 13) Ang tinaguriang pinakasikat na epiko ng mga d. Apolinario Mabini
Ilokano ay ang ________. 25. 23) Isang tanyag na Pilipinong manunulat na may
a. Ibalon at Aslon sagisag-panulat na "Agapito Bagumbayan."
b. Bantugan a. Graciano Lopez Jaena
c. Hinilawod b. N.V.M. Gonzalez
d. Biag ni Lam-ang c. Andres Bonifacio
16. 14) Ito ay isang epiko na tungkol sa mga bathalang d. Marcelo H. del Pilar
Ifugao ni Punholdayan at Makanungan. Tinutukoy 26. 24) Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa
rito ang pagpapakasal ng magkapatid na Bugan at pakikipagkaibigan ay ang ________.
Wigan. a. Sambotani
a. Haraya b. Salagintok
b. Alim c. Daeleng
c. Hari sa Bukid d. Oyayi
d. Lagda 27. 25) Sino si Dolores Manapat?
17. 15) Alin sa mga sumusunod ay isang epiko ng mga a. Graciano Lopez Jaena
Ifugao. b. N.V.M. Gonzalez
a. Ibalon at Aslon c. Andres Bonifacio
b. Hudhud d. Marcelo H. del Pilar
c. Biag ni Lam-ang 28. 26) Isang tulang maromansa na kung saan ang mga
d. Haraya tauhan ay may kapangyarihang supernatural at kaya
18. 16) Isang manunulat sa wikang Kastila na may naman ito ay hindi kapani-paniwala.
sagisag panulat na Batikuling at nahirang na a. oda
Makatang Laureado ay si ________. b. korido
a. Jesus Balmori c. soneto
b. N.V.M. Gonzalez d. elehiya
c. Alejandro Abadilla 29. 27) Isang manunulat sa panahon ng mga Amerikano
d. Zulueta de Acosta na naging tanyag sa kanyang tulang "Ang Guryon."
19. 17) Ang kauna-unahang nobelang sinulat ng isang Sino ito?
Pilipino gamit ang wikang Ingles ay ang _________. a. Ildefonso Santos
a. The Wound and Stars b. Amado Hernandez
b. A Child of Sorrow c. Alejandro Abadilla
c. Like the Molave d. Teodor Gener
d. A Vision of Beauty 30. 28) Siya ang "Ama ng Maikling Kwento sa
20. 18) "Nagtaksil si Adrian." Ibigay ang ayos ng Pilipinas."
pangungusap na ito. a. Jose Garcia Villa
a. payak b. Deogracias Rosario
b. tambalan c. Aurelio Tolentino
c. karaniwan d. Zulueta de Acosta
d. di-karaniwan 31. 29) Isang dula na sumikat nang humina ang zarzuela
21. 19) Ito ay ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang tunog ng sa Pilipinas ay ang ________. Ito ay tinatawag ding
isang wika. stage show sa Ingles.
a. Ponolohiya a. bodapil
b. Morpolohiya b. duplo
c. Sintaks c. koaragatan
d. Palabuuan d. korido
 66

32. 30) Ang may-akda ng "Kahapon, Ngayon ay Bukas" a. Baybayin

ay si _______. b. Cuneiform
a. Aurelio Tolentino c. Diona
b. Juan Abad d. Abecedario
c. Alejandro Abadilla 42. 40) Sino si Herninia dela Riva sa tunay na buhay?
d. Severino Reyes a. Ildefonso Santos
33. 31) Ang mga sumusunod ay mga nobela ni Lualhati b. Amado Hernandez
Bautista MALIBAN sa ________. c. Alejandro Abadilla
a. Dekada '70 d. Teodor Gener
b. Satanas sa Lupa 43. 41) Alin sa mga sumusunod na akda ni Aurelio
c. Gapo Tolentino ang siyang naging sanhi ng kanyang
d. Bulaklak ng City Jail pagkakulong?
34. 32) Handa nang lumisan ang taon "amoy lupa" nang a. Luhang Tagalog
malaman niyang nasa maayos na nakalagayan ang b. Kahapon, Ngayon at Bukas
mga anak nito. Ang pariralang "amoy lupa" ay c. Bagong Kristo
nagsasaad ng anong antas ng wika? d. Manood Kayo
a. kolokyal 44. 42) Ano ang pamagat ng ating pambansang awit?
b. pambansa a. Bayang Magiliw
c. balbal b. Perlas ng Silanganan
d. pampanitikan c. Alab ng Puso
35. 33) Siya ang may-akda ng dulang ang "Dalagang d. Lupang Hinirang
Bukid". 45. 43) "Kumakain ng prutas si Eric." Ibigay ang pokus
a. Hermogenes Ilagan ng pandiwa na nasa pangungusap.
b. N.V.M. Gonzalez a. ganapan
c. Alejandro Abadilla b. sanhi
d. Patricio Mariano c. tagaganap
36. 34) Sino ang may-akda ng Fray Botod? d. tagatanggap
a. Jose Garcia Villa 46. 44) "Pinagbakasyunan nina Lenlen at Tonton ang
b. Graciano Lopez Jaena Palawan." Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa na nasa
c. Marcelo del Pilar pangungusap?
d. Jose Rizal a. ganapan
37. 35) Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa paglilibing ang b. sanhi
________. c. tagaganap
a. umbay d. tagatanggap
b. kundiman 47. 45) "Ipinagluto ng kanyang asawa si Jerry." Ano ang
c. sambotani pokus ng pandiwa na nasa pangungusap?
d. soliranin a. ganapan
38. 36) "Ikaw ay may pusong bato." Ibigay ang ayos ng b. sanhi
pangungusap na ito. c. tagaganap
a. payak d. tagatanggap
b. tambalan 48. 46) "Naligo na sa hamog ng gabi ang mga bulaklak."
c. karaniwan Ang nasa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng
d. di-karaniwan tayutay?
39. 37) "Hindi ko kaya ang mabuhay sa mundo kung a. Pagpapalit-tawag
mawala ka sa piling ko." Ang nasa itaas ay b. Pagmamalabis
halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay? c. Pag-uuyam
a. Pagtutulad d. Pagsasatao
b. Pagmamalabis 49. 47) Sa tulang ito pinahalgahan ni Jose Rizal ang mga
c. Pagwawangis kabataang Pilipino.
d. Pagsasatao a. Sa Aking mga Kababata
40. 38) Si Janeth Napoles ay naglulubid ng buhangiin. b. Mi Ultimo Adios
Ang pariralang "naglulubid ng hangin" ay nagsasaad c. Filipino Dentro de Cien Años
ng anong antas ng wika? d. A La Juventud Filipina
a. kolokyal 50. 48) Kailan ipinanganak si Jose Rizal?
b. pambansa a. June 19, 1861
c. balbal b. June 19, 1863
d. pampanitikan c. June 19, 1865
41. 39) Ang Alibata ay hangi sa alpabetong Arabo na d. June 19, 1867
"alif-ba-ta". Ito ay may 17 na titik: 3 patinig at 14 na 51. 49) Ano ang buong pangalan ni Dr. Jose Rizal?
katinig. Ano ang ibang tawag sa alibata? a. Jose Protasio Rizal Realonda y Mercado Alonso
 67

b. Jose Protasio Rizal Alonso y Mercado Realonda 49. C

c. Jose Protasio Rizal Mercado y Alonso Realonda 50. BFILIPINO (2)
d. Jose Protasio Rizal y Mercado Alonso Realonda 1) Alin and tamang babala sa pagtatapon ng basura?
52. 50) Sa ________ ng gabi gaganapin ang pulong sa a. Gamitin and basurahan sa inyong bahay, huwag dito
mga manunulat. b. Dito and tambakan ng basura.
a. Ika-walo c. Huwag mag-tapon ng basura dito.
b. Ika-8 d. Huwag mag-ipon ng basura dito.
c. Ika 8
d. Ikawala 2) Noong unang panahon ang madalas sa entablado ay:
53. ANSWERS: a. balagtasan
b. pasyon
1. A c. sarswela
2. B d. drama
3. D
4. D 3) Matapos alagaan at pakainin sa palad siya ay kinagat sa
5. C sariling
6. A kanang kamay. Ito’y may kahulugan sa:
7. B a. katraydoran sa negosyo
8. D b. kawalang utang na loob
9. A c. kabastusan ng tao
10. C d. kawalang galang sa matatanda
11. B 4) Ano ang nagbunsod ng pagbabago sa yugto ng panitikang
12. C Filipino?
13. D a. Pagdating ng Amerikano sa bansa
14. B b. Pag-aabuso ng kastilasa mamamayan
15. B c. Pag-alis ng mga tao da kawit
16. A d. Panggunita kina Padre Gomez, Burgos at Zamora
17. B
5) “Dangal ang puhunan sa bayang pamana. Bago ang sarili ay
18. C
19. A bayan muna. “Ano ang payo dito?
20. B a. bayan muna bago ang sarili
b. mamamayan muna, bago bayan
21. D
c. mahalaga ang nayan at sarili
22. D
d. sarili ang dapat unahin upang umunlad
23. C
24. B 6) Batay sa bilingual na edukasyon, mainam ang gamit ng
25. D Filipino sa Araling Panlipunan dahil:
26. B a. Malimit pag-usapan ng mga mag-aaral ang konsepto kahit
27. A sa labas ng paaralan.
28. B b. Madaling maipaliwanag ang mga konsepto sa Filipino.
29. B c. Madaling maunawaan ang mga konsepto sa Filipino.
30. A d. Walang pag-aalinlangan ang pagsagot ng mga mag-aaral sa
31. B wikang Filipino.
32. D 7) Noong taong 1962 ano ang pagbabago sa paglimbang ng
33. A diploma at sertipiko ng pagtatapos?
34. B a. Pinahintutukan ang pribadong paaralan na maglimbag sa
35. A wikang Ingles.
36. D b. Nilimbang sa Filipino ang diploma ngunit may Ingles.
37. B c. Malimbag sa Filipino ang diploma.
38. D d. Nilimbag sa Tagalog ang diploma sa di Tagalog na bayan.
39. A
40. B 8) Ang dinanas ng mga babae sa kamay ng Hukbong Hapon
41. B ay
42. D sinasalaysay ni:
43. C a. Maria Clara
44. A b. Gabriela
45. D c. Diwata
46. D d. Orang
47. D 9) Ang kahon ay mabigat kaya di ________ ng bata.
48. A a. inkinaya
b. mabuhat-buhat
 68

c. mabuhat b. sumuko ang mga rebelde

d. buhatin c. walang lalabas sa kawal
10) Aling wika ang ginagamit na batayan ng wikang d. tigil ang labarian sa isang panig
pambansa? 20) Ano ang Katumbas ng Decalogue ni Apilonario Mabini na
a. Tagalog nagsasaad ng aral sa Filipino?
b. Bisaya a. New Society – ni President marcos
c. Hiligaynon b. Ten Commandments
d. Bicol c. Code of Citizenship – ni President Quezon
11) Magbababala ang pulis sa mga tumatawid alin ang tama? d. Code of Ethics – ni Kalantiaw
a. Tawid na kayo at luntian ang ilaw 21) Sa alin makikita ang tunay na
b. Hoy! Pula ang ilaw, tigil a. Diwa
c. Bantayan ang ilaw bago tatawid b. Gawa
d. Huhulihin and tatawid sa maling ilaw o signal c. Sulat
12) Ang Gintong Panahon ng mga manunulat noong panahon d. Salita
ng 22) Alin sa mga sumusunod ang aral na ibinigay ng ANG
Amerikano ay batid sa uri ng: ALAMAT NI MARIANG MAKILlNG na ikinuwento ni Jose
a. Sanaysay Rizal?
b. Panulaan a. Pagyamanin at pangalagaan ang ating bayan at lahi pagka’t
c. Nobela hiyas at yaman natin ito.
d. Maikling kwento b. Pag-ibig ang makapagbabago sa mundong ito.
13) Aling salita ang nasa talasalitang Filipino na hiram sa c. Kabanalan ang magpatawad at tulungan ang isang
Cebuano? nagkasala.
a. asawa d. Dahil sa pagmamalabis at pagsasamantala, maraming
b. balay biyaya ang sa kanya'y nawawala.
c. bahay 23) Anong uri ng panghalip ang salitang may salungguhit sa
d. bana pangungusap? "May padalang tulong ang pamahalaan para sa
14) Di padat bayaran ang lahat ng utang sapagkat: kanila".
a. may pababayrin silang iba a. Pambalana
b. may iba sa siyang pababayarang b. Palagyo
c. mayroon na siyang pagbabayarang iba c. Paari
d. may pagbabayaran pang iba d. Palayon

15) Hindi naman pangit ang larawan ngunit ________ ang 24) Alin sa mga sumusunod ang aral na ibinibigay ng epikong
kanyang anyo. Muslim na INDARAPATRA AT SULAYMAN?
a. pinapuri-puri a. Pagmamahal
b. kapuri-puri b. Katapangan
c. kapuri-purihan c. Katapatan
d. kapurihan d. Pagtanaw ng utang-na-loob

16) Ang wikang Filipino ay hawig sa mga wika sa Asya. Alin 25) Anong tayutay ang tinutukoy nito? Durog ang katawang
ditto ang pinakamalapit sa Filipino? bumagsak sa semento si Miguel.
a. katakana a. Pagtutulad
b. bahasa b. Pagbibigay katauhan
c. mandarin c. Pagmamalabis
d. malayo d. Pagwawangis

17) Ang kimonong suot sa centennial ay patuloy pagkat 26) Alin ang salawikain sa mga sumusunod?
________ ito nang lahat. a. Nasa Diyos ang awa, Nasa tao ang gawa
a. papamalakihin b. May puno walang bunga, may dahon walang sanga
b. pagmamalaki c. Nagbubuhat ng sariling bangko
c. ipagmalaki d. Parang kislap ng araw ang kanyang mga mata.
d. ipinagmamalaki 27) Isang uri ng dula na nagwawakas sa pagkamatay ng
18) Ano ang ibig sabihin ng tigi-putukan? pangunahing tauhan.
a. Mahinahon a. Teledrama
b. Mapagsarili b. Trahedya
c. Handa c. Melodrama
d. Mapagsamantala d. Epiko

19) Ano ang ibig sabihin ng tigil-putukan? 28) Isang kwento na ang gumaganap ay mga hayop na
a. walang maglalaban sa loob ng takdang araw kumikilos at nagsasalita na parang tao.
 69

a. Alamat c. Romano
b. Parabula d. Abakada
c. Komedya 38) Ilang titik ang hiniram ng Alpabetong Filipino mula sa
d. Pabula Alpabetong Ingles?
29) Isang kuwento na umaakay sa tao sa matuwid na landas ng a. 6
buhay, may aral at hango sa banal na kasulatan. b. 7
a. Anekdota c. 8
b. Sanaysay d. 9
c. Parabula 39) Anong titulo sa panitikan ng Pilipinas ang ibinigay sa
d. Alamat may-akda sa tulang pinamagatang "Isang Dipang Langit"?
30) Kilala sa tawag na “Lola Basyang”. a. Makata ng Pag-ibig
a. Lope K. Santos b. Makata ng Manggagawa
b. Aurello Tolentino c. Makata ng Masa
c. Severino Reyes d. Ama ng Wikang Pambansa
d. Jose Corazon de Jesus 40) Isa sa pinakatanyag na Pilipinong manunulat sa Ingles at
31) Sa akda niyang “Guryon” , inihalintulad ni Idelfonso kilala sa kanyang sagisag-panulat na "Doveglion."
Santos ang a. Jose Garcia Villa
Guryon sa ________. b. N.V.M. Gonzalez
a. buhay ng tao c. Alejandro Abadilla
b. tibay ng pisi d. Zulueta de Acosta
c. anyo ng pagpapalipad 41) Kinilala siyang "Makata ng Pag-ibig" at "Hari ng
d. hanging habagat Balagtasan" ng
32) Ang itinuturing na "Ama ng Limbagang Pilipino." kanyang panahon. Siya ang sumulat sa titik ng makabayang
a. Mariano Pilapil awitin na "Bayan Ko."
b. Tomas Pinpin a. Jose Garcia Villa
c. Pedro Serrano Laktaw b. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d. Fernando Bagongbanta c. Aurelio Tolentino
33) Sinong Pilipinong manunulat ang tinaguriang "Ama ng d. Zulueta de Acosta
Zarzuelang Tagalog"? 42) Ang may-akda ng tulang "Ako Ang Daigdig."
a. Aurelio Tolentino a. Alejandro Abadilla
b. N.V.M. Gonzalez b. Jose Corazon de Jesus
c. Alajandro Abadilla c. Aurelio Tolentino
d. Severino Reyes d. Amado Hernandez
34) Ang Gintong Panahon ng Panitikan ng Pilipinas ay ang 43) Aling salita ang may diptonggo?
panahon ng ________. a. buwis
a. Amerikano b. bayan
b. Hapones c. buhay
c. Kastila d. iwas
d. Kontemporaryo 44) Aling salita ang may klaster?
35) Isang tanyag na Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag- a. palma
panulat na "Kalipulako." b. basta
a. Jose dela Cruz c. pluma
b. Antonio Luna d. basket
c. Mariano Ponce 45) "Ang aking pag-ibig ay tanging sa iyo lamang." Ibigay ang
d. Severino Reyes ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
36) Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng Mindanao? a. payak
a. Indarapatra at Sulayman b. tambalan
b. Alim c. karaniwan
c. Bidasari d. di-karaniwan
d. Bantugan 46) Anong teorya ng wika ang nagsasabing ang wika ay
37) Ang titik "ng" sa Alpabetong Filipino ay nagmula sa nilikha bunga ng masidhing damdamin ng tao?
alpabetong a. Bow-wow
________. b. Pooh-pooh
a. Ingles c. Ding-dong
b. Latin d. Yo-he-yo
 70

47) Anong teorya ng wika ang nagmumula sa panggagaya ng 27. B

tao sa mga tunog ng kalikasan? 28. D
a. Bow-wow 29. C
b. Pooh-pooh 30. C
c. Ding-dong 31. A
d. Yo-he-yo 32. B
48) "Sabihin mo na ang totoo 33. D
Totoo at walang bahid na kasinungalingan 34. B
Kasinungalingan ay 'di ko tatanggapin 35. C
Tatanggapin lamang kung ano ang totoo at nararapat sa akin." 36. B
Ang nasa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay? 37. D
a. Anapora 38. B - c, f, j, q, v, x at z
b. Epipora 39. B - Ang may-akda sa tulang "Isang Dipang
c. Anadiplosis Langit" ay si Amado V. Hernandez, at siya ang
d. Konsonans tinagurian na "Makata ng Manggagawa".
40. A
49) "Sa kanya pa rin babalik sigaw ng damdamin, 41. B
Sa kanya pa rin sasaya bulong ng puso ko, 42. A
Sa kanya lamang at wala ng iba." 43. C
Anong uri ng tayutay ang pinapakita sa itaas? 44. C
a. Anapora 45. D
b. Epipora 46. B
c. Anadiplosis 47. A
d. Konsonans 48. C - Ang anadiplosis ay isang uri ng tayutay na
50) "Ipaglalaban kita dahil mahal kita, kung saan inuulit ang huli at unang bahagi ng isang
Aalagaan kita dahil mahal kita, taludtod o pahayag.
Kailangan kita dahil mahal kita." 49. A - Ang anapora ay ang pag-uulit sa unang
Ang nasa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay? bahagi ng taludtod o pahayag.
a. Anapora 50. B - Ang epipora ay isang uri ng tayutay na kung
b. Epipora saan inuulit ang huling bahagi ng isang taludtod o
c. Anadiplosis pahayag.
d. Konsonans 2. SOCIAL STUDIES (5)
3. 1) He was the last Spanish Governor-General in the
ANSWERS:
Philippines.
1. C a. Diego de los Rios
2. C b. Basilio Agustin
3. B c. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi
4. A d. Narciso Claveria
5. A 4. 2) The Republic Act that requires the compulsory
6. B teaching of Rizal Course and the lives of other
7. C Filipino patriots is ________.
8. D a. R.A. 7796
9. B b. R.A. 7784
10. A c. R.A. 1425
11. C d. R.A. 8049
12. D 5. 3) This Republic Act created the Technical Education
13. A and Skills Development Authority (TESDA):
14. D a. R.A. 7796
15. B b. R.A. 7784
16. D c. R.A. 1425
17. D d. R.A. 8049
18. A 6. 4) An Act Stengthening Teacher Education in the
19. A Philippines by establishing Centers of Excellence and
20. D creating a Teacher Education Council.
21. B a. R.A. 7796
22. D b. R.A. 7784
23. A c. R.A. 1425
24. D d. R.A. 8049
25. D 7. 5) It prohibits hazing and other forms of initiation
26. A rites in fraternies, sororities, and other illegitimate
 71

organizations. c. To Education
a. R.A. 7796 d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education
b. R.A. 7784 16. 14) The highest mountain in the continent of Africa is
c. R.A. 1425 ________.
d. R.A. 8049 a. Mount Everest
8. 6) Rizal was eight years old when he wrote this b. Mount Kilimanjaro
poem. He realized the ultimate importance of having c. Mount Fuji
a native tongue. d. Mount Apo
a. Remembrance to my Hometown 17. 15) He coined the term "survival of the fittest."
b. Our Mother Tounge a. Karl Marx
c. To Education b. August Comte
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education c. Herbert Spencer
9. 7) This poem was written by Rizal when he was 15 d. Arnold Toynbee
years old His memories of Calamba demonstrated his 18. 16) This is a multilateral agreement regulating
innate love of nature that ultimately developed into a international trade. According to its preamble, its
greater love of nation. purpose was the "substantial reduction of tariffs and
a. Remembrance to my Hometown other trade barriers and the elimination of preferences
b. Our Mother Tounge on a reciprocal and mutually advantageous basis."
c. To Education a. APEC
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education b. ASEAN
10. 8) In this poem, Rizal compared education to the c. NAFTA
goodness of light, wisdom, hope, peace and truth. d. GATT
a. Remembrance to my Hometown 19. 17) The mountain that separates the continents of
b. Our Mother Tounge Asia and Europe is ________.
c. To Education a. Ural Mountain
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education b. Mount Everest
11. 9) In this poem, Rizal noted the role of religion in c. Mount Kilimanjaro
attaining good education. d. Mount Fuji
a. Remembrance to my Hometown 20. 18) The "yellow race" is also known as:
b. Our Mother Tounge a. Caucasians
c. To Education b. Mongoloids
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education c. Negroids
12. 10) This was a prize winning poem of Rizal when he d. Malays
was a student in UST. This poem proved that an 21. 19) Year 2014 has been declared by Pope Francis as
Indio was not only equal but also more superior than Year of the ________.
the Spaniards in poetry writing. a. Laity
a. To the Filipino Youth b. Hope
b. They Ask Me for Verses c. Faith
c. Hymn to Talisay d. Righteousness
d. Kundiman 22. 20) The Russian President who gave Crimea to
13. 11) Rizal's loneliness is profoundly expressed in this Ukraine in 1954 is ________.
poem which has the lines, "His lyre had long ago a. Vladimir Putin
become so mute and broken; his use stammers and no b. Michael Gorbachev
longer smiles at him." What is the title of the poem? c. Joseph Stalin
a. Remembrance to my Hometown d. Nikita Krushchev
b. Our Mother Tounge 23. 21) Which of the following countries is located in
c. To Education Central America:
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education a. Mexico
14. 12) Written in 1895, the verses were used against him b. Puerto Rico
during his trial in December 1896. c. Panama
a. Remembrance to my Hometown d. Colombia
b. Our Mother Tounge 24. 22) The capital city of Australia.
c. To Education a. Melbourne
d. Initimate Alliance between Religion and Education b. Sydney
15. 13) The poem is one of the two only poems that Rizal c. Canberra
wrote in his vernavular. He, however, denied d. Perth
authorship of such. 25. 23) The principle of checks and balances is intended
a. Remembrance to my Hometown to maintain balance among executive, legislative and
b. Our Mother Tounge judicial departments of the government. Which one is
a check on the executive department by the judiciary?
 72

a. Determining the salaries of the President and the 35. 33) In which order did the following occupy the
Vice President. Philippines?
b. Declaring a legislative measure unconstitutional. a. Spaniards, Americans, Japanese, British
c. Declaring an act of the President unconstitutional. b. Spaniards, Americans, British, Japanese
d. Impeaching the President c. British, Spaniards. Americans, Japanese
26. 24) ________ was named "Distinguished and Ever d. Spaniards, British, Americans, Japanese
Loyal City" by Legazpi. 36. 34) Which is a visible Hispanic legacy?
a. Manila a. Love for fast food
b. Cebu b. Love for basketball
c. Bohol c. Prevalence of noodles
d. Samar and Leyte d. Prevalence of Spanish surnames among Filipinos
27. 25) A Visayan bamboo drum: 37. 35) Who among the Presidents of the Philippines was
a. Kudyapi known for his love for the "little man" and opened
b. Tultogan Malacanang Palace to all?
c. Silbay a. Ferdinand Marcos
d. Kutibeng b. Ramon Magsaysay
28. 26) The Allies of World War II, called the United c. Carlos P. Garcia
Nations from the January 1, 1942 declaration, were d. Elpidio Quirino
the countries that together opposed the Axis powers 38. 36) Why is the Philippines described to have the
during the Second World War. Which among the largest Diaspora network in the world?
countries belongs to the "Allies"? a. OFWs dollar remittances prop the nation's
a. Japan economy
b. France b. A number of Filipinas marry foreigners
c. Italy c. Its insular nature makes its people live far apart
d. Germany d. About 11 % of its population is overseas
29. 27) The first Vice President of the Republic of the 39. 37) Who was the Katipunero through whom the
Philippines. Katipunan was discovered by Fr. Mariano Gil?
a. Sergio Osmeña a. Apolonio de la Cruz
b. Mariano Trias b. Teodoro Patiño
c. Ramon Avanceña c. Jose del Rosario
d. Salvador Laurel d. Daniel Tirona
30. 28) Who was the Spanish Governor-General who 40. 38) Even though women of the Katipunan were
ordered the deportation of Jose Rizal to Dapitan? exempted from the pact, who participated in the
a. Gov. Gen. Eulogio Despujol blood compact and fought fearlessly, in twelve
b. Gov. Gen. Carlos Maria dela Torre bloody''battles of the revolution in Bataan including
c. Gov. Gen. Camilo de Polavieja the Battle of Biak-na-Bato?
d. Gov. Gen. Fermin Jaudenes a. Agueda Esteban
31. 29) Who was the hero of the Battle at Tirad Pass? b. Trinidad Tecson
a. Macario Sakay c. Teresa Magbanua
b. Diego Silang d. Gregoria de Jesus
c. Antonio Luna 41. 39) The first woman in Panay to fight in the
d. Gregorio del Pilar Philippine revolution, also known as the Visayan
32. 30) What is the Bukidnon plateau known for? Joan of Arc.
a. Strawberry plantation a. Agueda Esteban
b. Banana plantation b. Trinidad Tecson
c. Orchidarium c. Teresa Magbanua
d. Pineapple plantation d. Gregoria de Jesus
33. 31) Corazon Aquino is to Freedom Constitution as 42. 40) In a cooperative, what is the maximum term of a
Ferdinand Marcos is to______ Board of Director?
a. Subservience to America a. Three consecutive terms
b. Ties with Asian nations b. two terms but not consecutive
c. New society c. One term only
d. "Filipinos First" policy d. two consecutive terms
34. 32) In whose term was the celebration date of 43. 41) For the organization and registration of a
Philippine Independence Day changed from July 4 to cooperative, what is the required minimum number
June 12? of persons?
a. Diosdado Macapagal a. 25
b. Carlos P. Garcia b. 30
c. Ferdinand Marcos c. 15
d. Elpidio Quirino d. 20
 73

44. 42) A country does not need to specialize in 52. 50) Which was the first hominid with marked
everything. She needs to concentrate on that thing expansion of the brain?
which she is good at. This thought is in line with the a. Homo sapiens
economic principle of_____. b. Homo erectus
a. profit and loss c. Homo habilis
b. supply and demand d. Neanderthal man
c. opportunity and cost 53. ANSWERS:
d. comparative advantage 54. 1. A
45. 43) Which economic system is based on free 2. C
enterprise? 3. A
a. Mixed economies 4. B
b. Capitalism 5. D
c. Communism 6. B
d. Globalism 7. A
46. 44) What is GNP in economics? 8. C
a. General National Product, a way to detect a 9. D
country's economic growth. 10. A
b. Gross National Product, a way to determine a 11. B
country's productivity. 12. C
c. General National Product, a way to detect a 13. D
country's productivity. 14. B
d. Gross National Product, a way to determine a 15. C
country's economic growth rate. 16. D
47. 45) "Trabaho lang, walang personalan" is a reminder 17. A
for every Filipino to counteract his ________. 18. B
a. lack of discipline 19. A
b. tendency to be lazy 20. D
c. extreme personalism 21. C
d. tendency to overwork 22. C
48. 46) Risking his life, a Filipino boy dives into a pool 23. C
of water to save a drowning boy. Which trait does tie 24. A
demonstrate? 25. B
a. Bahala na 26. B
b. Bahala na with malasakit 27. B
c. Flexibility 28. A
d. Family-orientedness 29. D
49. 47) "No one is above the law", says Principal. She 30. D
imposes the penalty to all children deserving of 31. C
penalty but exempts the son of her kumare from the 32. A
same penalty that he equally deserves. What Filipino 33. D
trait is shown? 34. D
a. Utang-na-loob 35. B
b. Lack of discipline 36. D
c. Extreme personalism 37. B
d. Colonial mentality 38. B
50. 48) A foreigner once remarked: "I envy Filipinos. 39. C
They can sleep anywhere." What Filipino trait is 40. A
being praised? 41. C
a. Faith in God 42. D
b. Joy and humor 43. B
c. Adaptability 44. B
d. Creativity 45. C
51. 49) If you want to see the impact of the major 46. B
religions of the world in people's way of life, in 47. A
which continent must you travel? 48. C
a. Asia 49. A
b. North America 50. C
c. Australia 55. SOCIAL STUDIES (4)
d. Europe 56. 1) The culture of the Ilocanos can easily be felt
through their ants dance known as ________.
 74

a. Balitaw b. Habeas Corpus

b. Dandansoy c. Suffrage
c. Mahinhin d. Bill of Rights
d. Kinnotan 64. 9) Martial law remained in force until 1981 under
57. 2) The "La Liga Filipina" was a concrete evidence of Procalamation # ________.
Rizal's desire to ________. a. 1081
I. Unite the entire Philippine archipelago b. 1425
II. Fight violence and injustice c. 9994
III. Revolt against the Spaniards d. 7610
a. I and II 65. 10) The process by which a person learns the
b. II and III requirments of the culture by which he or she is
c. I, II and III surrounded, and acquired values and behaviors that
d. I and III are appropriate or necessary in that culture is called
58. 3) It refers to the full and fair equivalent of the ________.
property taken from its owner by the expropriator and a. Assimilation
the gauge for computation is not the taker's gain but b. Enculturation
the owner's loss. In order for the payment to be c. Cultural Relativism
"just", it must be real, substantial, full, and ample; d. Acculturation
made within a reasonable time from the taking of the 66. 11) The exchange of cultural features that results
property. when groups of individuals from different culture
a. Property come into continuous first-hand contact. The original
b. Public Use cultural patterns of wither or both groups may be
c. Eminent Domain altered, but the groups remain distinct.
d. Just Compensation a. Assimilation
59. 4) In Northeast Luzon, the longest river in the b. Enculturation
country originates from the mountains of Quirino and c. Cultural Relativism
Nueva Vizcaya and drains the whole Cagayan Valley d. Acculturation
existing through the town of Aparri and Cagayan. 67. 12) The Commander of the American and Filipino
What is the name of this river? forces in Bataan was ________.
a. Agno River a. Gen. Arthur MacArthur
b. Abra River b. Gen. Douglas MacArthur
c. Pampanga River c. Gen. Jonathan Wright
d. Rio Grande de Cagayan d. Gen. Edward King
60. 5) A sociological research method that approaches 68. 13) The first Americal Civil Governor was
social phenomena through quantifiable evidence, and ________.
often relies on statistical analysis of many cases to a. William Howard Taft
create valid and reliable general claims. b. Wesley Meritt
a. Qualitative design c. Arthur MacArthur
b. Quantitative design d. Murray Bartlet
c. Normative 69. 14) This is a collection of traditional courtship song
d. Formative in Mexican-Spanish tradition based on the habanera
61. 6) Cooperatives can eventually put up banks of their rhythm.
own. What are the evidences of their successes? a. Harana
a. Many banks in Metro Manila and Central Luzon b. Kundiman
started out as cooperatives. c. Jazz
b. Most of the rural banks started out as cooperatives. d. Modern
c. Cooperatives are not heavily taxed. 70. 15) It is characterized by shared experiences and
d. Opening of rural bank is allowed on a cooperative mutual responsibilities.
concept. a. Gesellschaft
62. 7) When a combination of independent business b. Gemeinchaft
organizations form to regulate production, pricing c. Enculturation
and marketing of goods by the members, which term d. Acculturation
applies? 71. 16) It features the exchange of goods, money and
a. Cartel services.
b. Monopoly a. Gesellschaft
c. Depression b. Gemeinchaft
d. Inflation c. Enculturation
63. 8) What right and duty do Filipinos exercise when d. Acculturation
they participate in ratfying a proposed constitution? 72. 17) One of the advantages of presidential system of
a. Citizenship government is ________.
 75

a. The principle of the separation of powers and 81. 26) Violation of human rights is a violation of the
checks and balances is observed. _________ of the person.
b. Unity of authority a. dignity
c. It cuts sosts and redundancy in lawmaking. b. intelligence
d. It promotes strong political party. c. will
73. 18) The fulfillment of the collective needs to the d. freedom
human species, including global society, is to pursue 82. 27) The Law that led to the granting of ten-year
________. transition period is called?
a. public interests a. Hare-Hawes Cutting Bill
b. common good b. Tydings-McDuffies Law
c. justice c. Parity Rights
d. political will d. Independence Law
74. 19) This is the determination of the government to 83. 28) Republic Act 9994 is also known as the
relate to what is perceived as beneficial to public ________.
interests acts to implement its decision on such in a. Anti-Child Abuse Law
order to achieve a better future for its citizens. b. K-12 Act
a. public interests c. Expanded Senior Citizen's Act
b. common good d. Prison Modernization Law
c. justice 84. 29) What is the very foundation of genuine peace and
d. political will reconciliation?
75. 20) Those provinces that were pacified and were a. Happiness
already recognizing Spanish rule were called b. Joy
________. c. Confrontation
a. Alcadias d. Social justice
b. Alcalde mayor 85. 30) This is the location of the island known as the
c. Indulto de Comercio "Isla de Pintados" by the Spaniards.
d. Corregimientos a. Luzon
76. 21) The military provinces that were unpacified b. Visayas
during the Spanish period were called ________. c. Mindanao
a. Alcadia d. Isla Verla
b. Alcalde mayor 86. 31) What was our government under the 1935
c. Indulto de Comercio Constitution?
d. Corregimientos a. Revolutionary
77. 22) During the Spanish period, this refers to the b. Monarchy
privelege of the provincial Governor to engage in c. Commonwealth
trade. d. Military
a. Alcadia 87. 32) In economics, ________ is a rise in the general
b. Alcalde mayor level of prices of goods and services in an economy
c. Indulto de Comercio over a period of time.
d. Corregimientos a. inflation
78. 23) What form of government did we have when b. mercantilism
President Aguinaldo proclaimed the Philippine c. depression
Independence on June 12, 1898? d. free trade
a. Dictatorial 88. 33) A UNESCO World heritage site in Ilocos Norte
b. Revolutionary is ________.
c. Freedom a. Bangui Windmills
d. Presidential b. Paoay Church
79. 24) The longest revolt in Philippine History is called c. Currimao Rock Formations
the ________. d. Pagudpud
a. Dagohoy revolt 89. 34) The author of "Flora de Filipinas circa 1837, the
b. Diego Silang revolt botanical illustrations of plant specimens that grew
c. Gabriela Silang revolt into the Philippine herbarium is ________.
d. Palaris revolt a. Governor Polavieja
80. 25) The most devastating typhoon in 2009, with a b. Padre Emmanuel Gonzales
damage of $1.09 billion and 747 fatalities was known c. Padre Manuel Blanco
as ________. d. Governor Narciso Claveria
a. Reming 90. 35) The Philippines was ruled by Spain through the
b. Milenyo ________ until 1814.
c. Ondoy a. Cuba
d. Habagat b. Puerto Rico
 76

c. Viceroy of Mexico b. Agrarian Structure

d. Guam c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
91. 36) This is a guarantee given by the Constitution to d. Agrarian Reform Measures
certain units of government where their approved 99. 44) The earliest mode of economic life in human
annual appropriations shall be automatically and history according to Karl Marx is called ________.
regularly released. a. Enlighted self-interest
a. General Appropriations Act b. Reciprocity
b. Fiscal Autonomy c. Primitive Communism
c. Fiscal Discipline d. Agricultural
d. Internal Revenue Allocations 100. 45) Refers to any liability to pay money arising out of
92. 37) Which order of government correctly sequences a contract, express or implied.
what happened during the American regime? a. Poll Tax
a. Civil, Military, Commonwealth b. Tax
b. Military, Civil, Commonwealth c. Debt
c. Civil, Commonwealth, Military d. Debtors
d. Military, Commonwealth, Civil 101. 46) The state of entire subjection of one person to the
93. 38) Which order of presidents correctly applies to will of another is called ________.
Philippine history. a. Peonage
I. Carlos P. Garcia b. Slavery
II. Ramon Magsaysay c. Suppressed
III. Elpidio Quirino d. Depressed
IV. Manuel Roxas 102. 47) It means that when a person is charged with an
a. III, I, II, IV offense and the case is terminated either by acquittal
b. IV, II, I, III or conviction or in any other manner without the
c. III, II, IV, I express consent of the accused, the latter cannot
d. IV, III, II, I again be charged with the same or identical offense.
94. 39) In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLE a. Writ of Habeas Corpus
RICE produced? b. Righ against illegal detention
a. Ferdinand Marcos c. Writ of Amparo
b. Fidel Ramos d. Right against double jeopardy
c. Joseph Estrada 103. 48) The families of victims of extrajudicial killgs and
d. Gloria Arroyo enforced disappearances can invoke the writ when
95. 40) After the Second World War, which emerged as the right to life, liberty or security of a person is
new powers? violated or threathened with violation by an unlawful
a. China and USA act or omission of a public official or employee or of
b. Japan and USA a private individual or entity.
c. Germany and USSR a. Writ of Habeas Corpus
d. USA and USSR b. Righ against illegal detention
96. 41) The employees of ABC Review Center wants to c. Writ of Amparo
associate, pool their savings, and use the fund as soon d. Right against double jeopardy
as possible to grant loans to members and capitalized 104. 49) This court shall have jurisdiction over civil and
and operate the canteen of the said Review Center. criminal cases involving graft and corruption
What type of cooperative will they organize and practices and such offenses committed by public
register? officers and employees in relation to their offices as
a. Service cooperative may be determined by law.
b. Producer's cooperative a. Court of Appeals
c. Consumer cooperative b. Supreme Court
d. Credit cooperative c. Regional Trial Court
97. 42) One of the tyoes of positive economics that d. Sandiganbayan
collects and presents data that can describe the 105. 50) These are the only officials removable by
phenomena is ________. Impeachment.
a. Descriptive economics a. The President, Vice-President, members of the
b. Economic theory Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional
c. Growth Commissions, and the Ombudsman.
d. Stability b. The President, Vice-President, members of the
98. 43) The complex set of relationships within Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional
agricultural sector and between tenure structure, Commissions, and the Senators.
production structure, and the structure of supporting c. The President, Vice-President, members of the
services is called ________. Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional
a. Land Reform Commissions, and the members of the House of
 77

Representatives. 49. D
d. The President, Vice-President, members of the 50. A
Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional 109.
Commissions, and the members of the House of 110. SOCIAL STUDIES (3)
Representatives, the Senators, and the Ombudsman. 111. 1) A child was turned over to an orphanage
106. ANSWERS: requesting confidentiality of her parents. One day, the
107. 1. D child demands the full disclosure of her mother’s
2. A name. She went to court. What was the right asserted
3. D in this case?
4. D a. Right of an individual to have a real mother.
5. B - Quantitative research focuses on analysis of b. Right of individuals to proper identity.
numeric data. c. Right of individual of parents to keep the
6. B confidentiality of the child’s parenteral name.
7. A - A cartel is a formal agreement among d. Right of individuals to have parents.
competing firms. 112. 2) Nobel Prize winners are chosen from different
8. C levels. Where was President Elpidio Quirino
9. A considered?
10. B a. Politics
11. D b. Literature
12. D c. Human rights
13. A d. Economics
14. A 113. 3) Religious instruction in public schools according
15. B - Gemeinchaft generally translated as to the Constitution should be:
"Community". a. with parent consent
16. A - Gesellschaft means "Society". b. compulsory
17. A c. invitational
18. A d. church organization
19. D 114. 4) Every year, income taxes are filed by payer of 18
20. A years and above. How do government and company
21. D workers pay their taxes?
22. C a. Advance credit
23. A - The Dictatorial Government lasted for only 3 b. Withholding taxes monthly
months from May 24 to June 23, 1898. On June 23, c. Salary deduction
Aguinaldo established the Revolutionary d. Cash payment on March 15
Government. 115. 5) Theres had been recent bank runs and bank
24. A closures. How much of the deposits is covered for
25. C reimbursement by the PDIC or Philippine Deposit
26. A and Insurance Corporation:
27. B a. ₱100,000
28. C b. ₱50,000
29. D c. ₱500,000
30. B d. ₱1,000,000
31. C 116. 6) Value formation is done through a process.
32. A Awareness is not enough. What is most lasting?
33. B a. Preaching on values
34. C b. Intellectualization
35. C c. Modeling the value through a process
36. B d. Posting slogans to the effect
37. B 117. 7) Recent bank runs into bankruptcy because of:
38. D a. Corruption
39. A b. Flight of capital
40. D c. Mismanagement
41. D d. Loss of capital
42. A 118. 8) The Philippine Group in Netherlands insists on
43. B holding peace talk outside the Philippines. Where is
44. C the best venue where people concerned can meet?
45. C a. Philippine shores
46. B b. Hong Kong
47. D c. Netherlands
48. C d. United states

119. 9) There are to 2 big pineapple canning factories in
the Philippines. Which is located in Cotabato?
a. Dole
c. Del Monte
b. Mama Sita
d. Purefoods
120. 10) Every December 10, schools and civic groups
gather to celebrate?
a. Human Rights Day
b. Mother’s Day
c. Independence Day
d. United Nation's Day
121. 11) The sociological concept of home for most
Filipino is the presence of:
a. Families with boarders in addition to the family
members.
b. Family nucleus and extended families.
c. Families with illegal light and water connections.
d. Families with pet dogs, cooks and cats.
122. 12) The bank was swarmed with depositors. This
means the bank:
a. declared an open house
b. declared a holiday
c. declared dividends
d. declared bankruptcy
123. 13) Lately, students are exposed to a series of
achievement tests. Parents observed that:
a. Tests were used for teaching
b. Tests are indices of teacher’s competencies
c. Children learned through periodic teaching
d. Teaching was for tests
124. 14) The virus “Love Bug” is a recent technological
element spread by:
a. Internet
c. television
b. radio
d. computer
125. 15) NAPOCOR is to privatized. This means:
a. Every private individual gets a share
b. Government has a share
c. Everyone owns NAPOCOR
d. Some private owners will come in
126. 16) Cooperatives established by the farmers failed to
thrive well because:
a. cooperative activities are poorly managed and
implemented
b. members distrust their cooperative officials
c. seed money for cooperative shared by senators and
congressmen poorly administered
d. farmers were used to dole outs
127. 17) There are many cases of abuse on Filipino
contract workers. Where can these workers seek
justice and fairness?
a. Philippine Supreme Count
b. Department of Justice and the Foreign Affairs
Consulate Office
c. International Court of Justice
d. Department of labor and Employment
128. 18) Quality of education they say is:
a. every citizen’s accounting task
78
b. every parent’s and teachers responsibilities task
c. everyone’s responsibility
d. everybody’s concern at times
129. 19) How does the Department of Science and
Technology (DOST) assure quality science teaching
is secondary schools?
a. Carry one science fair every year.
b. Open up science high schools in every province.
c. Share researchers and distributes equipment to
schools.
d. Maintain scholars grant for deserving science and
mathematics teachers.
130. 20) Before a formal legislation is passed, approval
settlement of issues are done by committee members
of both houses. This avoids unnecessary controversial
issues. What do you call the body?
a. Senate Committee
b. BI-cameral Committee
c. Oversight Committee
d. House of Representatives Committee
131. 21) How can a farmland transferred to a tenant be
reclaimed by the landowner? In such conditions as:
a. When the tenant re-sells his land to non-recognized
transferees.
b. When the tenant on a rent basic fails to submit the
agreed rental of several cavans of rice and corn for
three (3) consecutive harvest.
c. When the tenant fails to pay the agreed rental for
five planting season .
d. When the tenant fails to pay land tax.
132. 22) The issue on the Spratly Island claims can be
solved by a panel made up of representatives from:
a. United Nations Assembly
b. European Countries
c. Security Council
d. ASEAN Pacific countries laying claims
133. 23) A package sent by a balikbayan was discovered
open. This is a case of:
a. substitution
b. pilferage
c. rubbery
d. oppression
134. 24) The majority members in the House of
Representatives rejected the measure. This means:
a. They defined party commitment
b. They favored the leadership
c. They joined the minority
d. They bottled the majority party
135. 25) Cement factories can only operate if given a
permit by the DENR, which guarantees:
a. viability of feasibility study
b. environment clearance and condition
c. pollution safety and prevention
d. environmentally friendly
136. 26) The Red Cross humanitarian job is to gather and
give needed blood to the needy. Name the universal
blood type:
a. Type O
b. Type AB
 79

c. Type B a. Dinorado
d. Type B b. Sampagita
137. 27) She was asked to make a census of the place. c. 0-5 variety
What is she supposed to do? d. C-4 variety
a. Gather data on each occupant in each household in 146. 36) Almost all nations believe in giving a roof to
the area cover every family’s head. How does the government
b. Ask residents to make a consensus address this?
c. Identify strangers in the area a. Developing housing czars
d. Gather data on people on the area b. Creating a cabinet for housing
138. 28) The common saying which is accepted in values c. Establishing homes for middle class families
education is? d. Driving squatter along river
a. Values are individual sets of behavior. 147. 37) The presence of fake doctors and malpractitioners
b. Values are caught not preached. on medical/heath services are growing in number. Ho
c. Values are dependent on individual and societal may this be discouraged?
standards. a. Ignore the presence of such persons
d. Values are valueless. b. Refuse patronage of said services
139. 29) Why are Filipino Overseas Workers considered c. Take patients to professional medical practitioners
modern time heroes? d. Identifying such personalities and reporting them
a. They sacrifice all the family life and economies to authorities
just to improve their quality of life. 148. 38) Majority of school children have been found with
b. They became broad minded, skilled and very defective teeth. How does the government
economically stable. address the problem?
c. They have helped stabilize Philippine economy a. Put up the factories for toothbrush
d. They come home ready to feast their townmales b. Open up dental clinics in the barangay
and friends c. Donate toothpaste to every complete elementary
140. 30) The endangered species are protected by DENR. school
All these are concerns of: d. Subject first grade pupils to early dental treatment
a. Tourism 149. 39) Students on the secondary schools are asked to go
b. Urbanization home when:
c. Industrialization a. typhoon signal no. 3 is raised
d. Terrorism b. typhoon signal no. 1 is raised
141. 31) Abuses to soldiers, women, children an the c. typhoon signal no. 2 is raised
helpless are attended to by a Commission. Who was d. there is flood caused by high tide
the first Commissioner on Human Rights? 150. 40) To assure healthy banking industry, the Bangko
a. Hon. Aurora Recine Central has encouraged:
b. Hon. Mary Conception Bautista a. selling of stocks to interested buyers
c. Hon. Teofisto Guingona b. bank merger
d. Hon. Sedfrey Ordonez c. bank closure and declared bankruptcy
142. 32) NHA homes were sold to recipients payable in d. bank tie up with foreign banks
the longest term of: 151. 41) The Department of Agriculture noted that only
a. 15 years 1/3 of the palay produced are used to advantage.
b. 25 years What measure was adapted to save observed harvest
c. 10 years wastage?
d. 5 years a. Palay drying and storage
143. 33) According to POEA, the country with the highest b. Rice milling process
OFW population is the ________. c. Rice transplanting method
a. United States of America d. Palay exchange and marketing
b. United Arab Emirates 152. 42) Factories are raided to determine the presence of
c. Kingdom of Saudi Arabia working children and women. Why should these
d. United Kingdom raides be done?
144. 34) Name the largest country in the world in terms of a. To determine the humane treatment of workers
area: b. To determine the condition of the working place
a. Russia c. To determine the rights of children and women in
b. Canada works places
c. USA d. To determines violation of the labor code
d. China 153. 43) Sea accidents have been caused by disregard of
145. 35) The Internal Rice Research Institute in UP Los typhoon signals. When are basic suspended from
Baños has introduced varieties of the rice for all lifting anchor?
seasons. Name the most popular one that was a. Signal # 1
exported in the 70’s. b. Signal # 2
 80

c. Signal # 3 7. D
d. Signal # 4 8. C
154. 44) Ms. Cruz had her house raided by authorities. She 9. A
refused to open the door. Was she right? She has the 10. A
right: 11. B
a. to assert her individually 12. D
b. to protection against police authorities 13. C
c. to life, liberty and property 14. A
d. to do self defense 15. D
155. 45) Natives of ancestral lands have been asserting 16. C
their ownership of lands. This has been addressed by 17. B
Congress in what way? 18. C
a. Laws and administration have identified ancestral 19. C
landaus and report on owner 20. A
b. Ancestral lands of lumads are government 21. D
reservation 22. D
c. Ancestral land of lumads are government 23. B
reservation 24. B
d. The Commission on human right has returned the 25. A
lands to the lumads 26. A
156. 46) A Filipino commited a crime in the US. He 27. A
returned to the Philippines afterwards. Can he be 28. A
asked to return to the US for trial? 29. C
a. Yes, because he committed the crime. 30. A
b. No, because he is a Filipino. 31. B
c. Yes, if it is covered by an extradition order agreed 32. B
upon by both countries. 33. A
d. Yes, because covered he has proven his innocence. 34. A
157. 47) The new Philippine 100-peso bill has a back 35. D
image and description of what Philippine iconic 36. C
natural wonder? 37. B
a. Banaue Rice Terraces in Ifugao 38. D
b. Mayon Volcano in Albay 39. C
c. Chocolate Hills in Bohol 40. B
d. Tubbataha Reefs Natural Park in Sulu Sea 41. A
158. 48) A child insisted on knowing her real father. What 42. D
right is involved? 43. A
a. Right to education 44. C
b. Right to name and identify 45. C
c. Right to freedom of choice 46. C
d. Right to seek the truth 47. B
159. 49) What must be employed to continuously 48. B
strengthen a school guidance program? 49. C
a. Assignment of responsibilities 50. B
b. Evaluation
c. Research SOCIAL STUDIES (2)
d. Program planning
160. 50) Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme 1) The following are legitimate children, EXCEPT:
Court of the Philippines? a. those born by artificial insemination.
a. Jose Abad Santos b. those legitimated.
b. Cayetano Arellano c. those born during a valid marriage of parents.
c. Claro M. Recto d. those born out of a valid marriage of the parents.
d. Victorino Mapa 2) As a representative of the Urban Poor Commission of the
161. ANSWERS: Association of Religious Superiors (ARS), which action will
162. 1. B you most likely take to resolve the long-term roots of
2. D structural inequalities-proliferation of child labor and child
3. A prostitution?
4. B a. Raise views of human rights abuse.
5. A b. Organize regular programs for information and discussion
6. C of human rights.

c. Conduct skills training.
d. Raise questions over the government's commitment to
rebuild human rights.
3) Which explains the reason why there are continuous and
increasing human rights violations?
a. The United Nation's General Assembly approved only
resolutions on human rights and the basic freedoms which are
not binding.
b. The solutions used are ineffective.
c. The United Nations as an international body is rather slow
in the exercise of its powers.
d. The United Nations uses a single solution on all forms of
human rights violations.
4) Thousands of street children in large Brazilian cities were
murdered by paramilitary death squads which included police
officers. What could be the reason why these operations were
not suppressed by the government?
a. Totalitarian governments do not give protection to their
people.
b. The business people even funded these operations to clean
up their streets and neighborhoods.
c. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was only lip
service.
d. To how they treat their people was nobody else's business.
5) Spouses Jose S. Perez and Cecilia Perez filed a petition to
adopt Paolo Perez Tan, their nephew. The spouses are
childless and they reared Paolo from his birth in 1971 until
1975 and they continued to support him. Paolo had to be left
in the Philippines when the spouses went to the United States
where Jose is employed. The MSSD recommended the
adoption to the court on the premise that petitioners are in a
better position to provide for the minor child than the natural
parents who are impoverished. What could be the possible
decision of the court on the petition?
a. The court denied the petition because the spouses are
already aliens.
b. The petition for adoption was granted because the court
finds that it is to the best interest of the child.
c. The petition for adoption was denied because the spouses
are non-residents of the Philippines.
d. The court denied the petition on the premise that the trial
custody required by PD 603 cannot be effected for spouses are
non-residents
6) Which one is the human right to life?
a. Peace
b. Live in national and international order
c. Own property
d. Fair trial
7) Which one is the human right to dignity?
a. Political independence
b. Honor and reputation
c. Form associations
d. Social and economic reforms
8) Carolina Diaz filed a petition for habeas corpus against Mr.
and Mrs. Ramon Alde to recover custody of Lina Diaz
Romero alias "Gracia Alde," the natural daughter of Carolina
Diaz, who was a hostess. What could be the possible action of
81
the court on the petition filed by Carolina Diaz?
a. Her petition would be granted because she now works as a
clerk in a prestigious office.
b. Her petition would be denied because she was a former
hostess.
c. Her petition would be denied because when Gracia was
given to the Aldes, it was tantamount to abandonment of the
child, resulting to termination of parental authority.
d. Her petition would be granted because she is the natural
mother.
9) Mary Rose, an 18 year old was sexually abused by 3
teenagers from well-to-do families from Makati. Despite
pressures, she came out into the open to get justice. Which
need did Mary Rose satisfy?
a. Need for family unity
b. Need for civic responsibility
c. Need for universal solidarity
d. Need for personal integrity
10) The following are defects present at the time of marriage
which is voidable and annullable, EXCEPT:
a. impotence
b. deceit
c. fraud
d. threat
11) Which one is the right to human dignity?
a. Choose the goals and means of development
b. Share in scientific and technological advances of the world
c. Right to information
d. Sovereignty over our natural resources
12) Which of the following foreign policy actions today is a
direct result of early American imperialist policy?
a. Stationing of American troops in West Germany
b. America's military support of Israel in the Middle East
c. America's patrolling of waters off the Libyan coast
d. America's establishment of military bases in the Philippines
13) Which of the following represent ethnocentric behavior?
a. A tourist who lectures his foreign hosts on the "uncivilized"
nature of their marriage customs.
b. A student who tutors an immigrant in English.
c. A Hispanic community group demands that public aid
forms be published in English and Spanish.
d. A peace Corps volunteer who helps dig wells in Central
Africa.
14) The Soviet Union's attempt to establish a missile base in
Cuba is interpreted as a direct violation of:
a. the Truman DoCtrine
b. the Monroe Doctrine
c. the Strategic Arms Limitations Talks (SALT)
d. the Declaration of Independence
15) Which will solve poverty caused by capitalism?
a. Fascism
b. Communism
c. Empirism
d. Socialism
16) Which part of the Allied action has been detailed in this
passage? After Saddam Hussein violated international
agreements by sending Iraq troops to Kuwait and missiles into
 82

other neighboring countries, the Allies responded with 24) Which one BEST defines personal integrity?
military action. a. The unity between ignorance and reality.
a. The Allied bases in Saudi Arabia b. The unity of man’s deeds, words, thoughts and realities.
b. The ground was in the desert c. The unity of man’s social, political and physical aspects.
c. The movement of Allied Troops with Iraq d. The relationship between virtue and conduct.
d. The air campaign in the Baghdad area 25) Which family obligation is especially valued?
17) Carter's part in relinquishing U.S. control of the Canal a. Supplying groceries to relatives in remote barrios.
Zone to Panama is described as a victory for __________. b. Providing health assistance to relatives living in the same
a. conservatism locale.
b. anti-imperialism c. Sending to college relatives in remote barrios.
c. isolationism d. Keeping immediate family members out of trouble.
d. imperialism 26) Of the following changes in the socio-economic, political
18) The undeclared war in Korea most closely resembled the cultural and physical that have occurred in the Filipino family,
situation of: which one remains to be TRUE?
a. The Spanish-American War a. The loss of the traditional evening prayer and the ritual of
b. The Vietnam War blessing (mano).
c. World War I b. The unity of the family despite competing demands.
d. World War II c. The continued parental influence over children's language
19) Which refers to FUNNEL EFFECT? dress and other behavior.
a. The belief that every criminal gets caught and is punished. d. The continued support for parents and siblings.
b. The belief that crime is under control in the United States. 27) Which is the MOST important perceived need and
c. The idea that only a very few suspects arrested for problem of the Filipino family?
committing a crime are actually punished. a. Unemployment or financial problem
d. The idea that all crimes are put into the same criminal b. Proneness to vices
justice system. c. Over protectiveness of children
20) What values are being given priority by juries in criminal d. Double standard on the roles of male and female
cases? 28) The San Pascual Credit Cooperative of Quezon City
a. The rights of the criminal over the strict interpretation of the wishes to apply for a loan of five million pesos from one of
law. the financial institution, EXCEPT:
b. The safety of the community over symphathy for the a. Development Bank of the Philippines
criminal. b. Central Bank of the Philippines
c. The needs of the criminals over the advice of the judge. c. Philippine National Bank
d. The punishment of the criminal over the safety of the d. Land Bank of the Philippines
community. 29) If a farmer would want assistance like pricing, guarantee
21) Two days after Japan attacked Pearl Harbor, Roosevelt for all agricultural produce or cooperative management
made the following statements: "In the past few years and training, where would he go?
most violently in the past few days, we have learned a terrible a. Support Services of the Department of Agrarian Reform
lesson. We must begin the great task that is before us by b. Special Agrarian Court under the Regional Trial Court
abandoning once and for all the illusion that we can never c. DAR Adjudication Board
again isolate ourselves from the rest of humanity." In the d. Land Bank of the Philippines
statement, Roosevelt is expressing the ideas of __________. 30) Why was San Andres Cooperative Association of Paco,
a. an internationalist Manila not exempted from taxation?
b. an anti-imperialist a. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings of
c. an imperialist ₱8,000,000.00
d. an isolationist b. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings of
22) The main message of the Moral Recovery Program ₱10,000.00
launched by Leticia Ramos Shahani starts with the c. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings
__________. ₱9,000,000.00
a. world d. It accumulated reserves and undivided net savings of
b. family ₱11,000.00
c. self 31) Which has become a prototype of other schemes that
d. nation defeated the real and true purpose of the CARL?
23) Which is NOT personal integrity? a. The conversion of farmlands to industrial complexes.
a. Time b. The stock option scheme of Hacienda Luisita.
b. Place c. The conversion from agricultural to subdivision.
c. Order d. The voluntary offer to sell.
d. Harmony
 83

32) Which are limited only to the sale of real property and b. DARN
stock transaction? c. DARE
a. Business incomes d. Bukang Liwayway Center
b. Capital gains 40) Which theory was asserted by the Pan-German belief in
c. Employment incomes the superiority of the Aryan race and that the strength of the
d. Passive incomes German culture came from a strong, healthy and rustic
33) Of the following, which is imposed a final tax of ten lineage?
percent (10%)? a. Dependency Theory
a. PCSO and lotto winnings b. Culture of Poverty Theory
b. Books, literary works and musical compositions c. Social Darwinist Theory
c. Currency bank deposit d. Theory of Capitalism
d. Royalties 41) Which is the main goal of drug abuse education?
34) Why did the register of deeds charge Lucio Cruz a. Arrest
registration fee the instrument relative to his loan? b. Prevention
a. His loan was ₱30,000.00 c. Control
b. His loan was ₱60,000.00 d. Rehabilitation
c. His loan was ₱50,000.00 42) The statement that "success often comes to those with
d. His loan was ₱40,000.00 humble beginnings" would apply best to which of the
35) Julieta Villaruel was a landowner from Cabiao, Nueva following figures?
Ecija. Under the CARL, she was claiming 8 hectares, 5 a. Ramon Magsaysay
hectares of which represented the retention limit and the 3 b. Ferdinand Marcos
hectares for her only child. Why was her child denied the 3 c. Corazon Aquino
hectares? d. Joseph Estrada
a. Her son was 15 years old who was actually tiling the farm. 43) "Nobody is impervious to misfortune", a notable quote
b. Her son was 17 years old who was managing the farm. from:
c. Her son was 13 years old who has been helping till the a. Rodrigo Duterte
farm. b. Ramon Magsaysay
d. Her son was 19 years old who was actually tilling or c. Fidel Ramos
managing the farm. d. Ferdinand Marcos
36) One of the most outstanding accomplishments of the 44) Reference is often made to Stonehenge, a prehistoric
cooperative movement is the encouragement of thrift. Which monument in England, as an example of primitive architecture
maxim of God puts this into practice? that embodies use of ________.
a. "God helps those who help themselves." a. Ionic Columns
b. "Look at the birds: they do not plant seeds, gather a harvest b. Post and Lintel
and put it in barns; yet your Father in heaven takes care of c. Arch
them!" d. Dome
c. "He is near to those who call to Him, who call to Him with
sincerity." 45) The Lansdowne portrait is an iconic oil-on-canvas portrait
d. "Happy are those who are merciful to others; God will be of George Washington, the first President of the United States,
merciful to them!" painted by ________.
a. Charles Wilson Feale
37) Mang Tacio has been unemployed for quite sometime due b. Benjamin West
to his negative attitudes toward work. Which program of the c. Gilbert Stuart
Department of Social Welfare and Services will help him? d. Thomas Sully
a. Income in Kind Program
b. Anti-Medicancy program 46) The following are the famous paintings of Vincent Van
c. HRD Program Gogh, EXCEPT:
d. Social Insurance Program a. The Starry Night
b. The Potato Eaters
38) Lucy's husband has been a drug dependent. She wanted c. Irises
him rehabilitated to be economically productive. Where will d. Jacqueline
she commit her husband?
a. DARN 47) The primary colors are:
b. Bukang Liwayway Center a. red, yellow, green
c. DARE b. red, green, blue
d. NFPI c. red, yellow, blue
d. red, blue, yellow, green
39) Where would you commit a drug dependent for him to
achieve a natural, tensionless, and anxiety-free state? 48) The cracking of many 19th century paintings was most
a. NFPI likely caused by ________.
 84

a. bitumen 42. A
b. poor quality canvas 43. D
c. inferior brushes 44. B
d. encaustic 45. C
49) The discovery of oil painting is usually associated with 46. D
________. 47. C
a. Leonardo Da Vinci 48. A
b. Albrecht Durer 49. B
c. Jan Van Dyck 50. B
d. Michaelangelo
50) ________ is currently the longest-reigning monarch in
British history.
a. Queen Elizabeth I
b. Queen Elizabeth II
c. Queen Elizabeth III
d. Queen Elizabeth IV
ANSWERS:
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. D
36. A
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. C
41. B