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Chemistry Units 8 12
Chemistry Units 8 12
Gases
Factual Knowledge
184. What is the process called when a gas spreads out spontaneously and uniformly in a
given space?
a. diffusion c. compressibility
b. pressure d. expansion
185. Chlorofluorocarbons or freons are now banned for use as air propellants in air
fresheners and hair sprays. What is the reason for this ban?
a. Freons are acidic and corrosives.
b. Freons are highly toxic compounds.
c. Freons react with metals and concrete.
d. Freons react with ozone in the stratosphere.
186. For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the volume of the gas, V is
inversely proportional to its pressure, P. Which of the following mathematical
equation expresses this relationship?
P
a. PV = constant c. = constant
V
V
b. P = V d. = constant
P
187. What raw material is used in the commercial manufacture of oxygen?
a. water c. manganese dioxide
b. hydrogen peroxide d. liquid air
188. What happens to a gas at 0K?
a. The molecules disappear. c. The molecules divide.
b. The molecules stop moving. d. The molecules stick to each other.
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189. The diagram below shows the changes on the
three phases of matter. Which change
represents sublimation?
a. arrow 1
b. arrow 3
c. arrow 4
d. arrow 6
190. Which will happen if the temperature of a substance is increased?
a. The average kinetic energy of the molecules decreases.
b. The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.
c. The average potential energy of the molecules increases.
d. The average potential energy of the molecules decreases.
Concept Understanding
191. Which variable increases when a gas is compressed at constant temperature?
a. volume c. pressure
b. temperature d. number of moles of gas
192. A weather balloon is released from a station in Laguna. What happens to the balloon
as it rises? (Atmospheric pressure and temperature both decrease as the altitude
becomes higher.)
a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. cannot be determined
193. The odor of frying garlic can be detected a few meters away but that of fresh, peeled
garlic cannot be detected from the same distance. What must be the reason for this?
a. The heat causes odor molecules of garlic to move faster.
b. The odor molecules of fresh garlic do not move.
c. The oil used for frying carries the odor molecules away.
d. The warm air carries the odor molecules to the observer.
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194. 10 L of gas exerts a pressure of 2.0 atmospheres. If the pressure is doubled, what
happens to the volume of temperature is hold constant?
a. volume is doubled c. volume is reduced by 1/2
b. volume is reduced by 1/4 d. volume is tripled
a. expanding as the temperature rises.
b. breaking down into separate atoms.
c. striking the walls of the vessels with increased average speed.
d. being forced farther apart by the addition of heat energy.
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196. Why does pressure buildup in a tire on a hot day?
a. As temperature increases, kinetic energy of molecules increases.
b. As temperature increases, kinetic energy of molecules decreases.
c. As temperature increases, gas pressure also increases.
d. Both A and C.
197. The odor of burning garbage reaches you even if you are inside your house much
more than when the same garbage is not being burned. What must be the
explanation for this?
a. The molecules when heated acquire more energy.
b. More energetic molecules move faster.
c. Fast moving molecules diffuse faster.
d. All of the above.
198. The diagram below shows the reaction of concentrated HCl and NH3 in a clear glass
tube. (At. Mass H = 1, Cl = 35.5, N = 14)
The reaction happens nearer the HCl end as shown by the cloudy vapors formed.
What must be the reason for this?
a. NH3 diffused faster than HCl because it is lighter.
b. NH3 diffused faster than HCl because it is more reactive.
c. NH3 is gas while HCl is liquid.
d. NH3 is heavier than HCl.
199. Which of the following statements best explains why gases have very low density?
a. Gas particles are in constant motion.
b. Gas particles are widely separated from each other.
c. Gas particles are very small.
d. Gas particles have definite volume
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200. In which conditions do most gases tend to liquefy?
a. increase of pressure and temperature
b. decrease of pressure and decrease of temperature
c. increase of pressure and decrease of temperature
d. decrease of pressure and increase of temperature
201. Air freshener and toilet deodorant give a fresh scent to a room. To what is the air
freshness due to?
a. the cleanliness of the room after spraying
b. diffusion of the odor vapor of the air freshener or toilet deodorant
c. the removal of stale air after spraying
d. all of the above
202. A tank of nitrogen has a volume of 12 L and a pressure of 760 mmHg. Find the
volume of the nitrogen when its pressure is changed to 506 mmHg while the
temperature is held constant.
a. 1.8 L N2 c. 0.80 L N2
b. 18 L N2 d. 8.0 L N2
203. A container holds three gases: oxygen, carbon dioxide, and helium. The partial
pressure of the three gases are 2.0 atm, 1.5 atm, and 5 atm respectively. What is the
total pressure inside the container?
a. 8 atm c. 0.85 atm
b. 8.5 atm d. 80 atm
204. A gas measure 100 mL at 27oC and 760 mm of Hg. What will be its volume at 15oC
and 750 mmHg?
a. 104 mL c. 96 mL
b. 107 mL d. 94 mL
205. Which plot describes the volumepressure relationship in gases at constant T if V
and P are the X and Y axes respectively?
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a. c.
b. d.
206. Which of the following is true?
a. Industrial smoke and dusts do not affect the quality of air in the locality.
b. Toxic gases in the air are harmful only to plants and animals.
c. High amounts of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contribute to the greenhouse
effect.
d. Acid rain is favorable to plant growth.
207. A certain gas was trapped in a 20 mL syringe at atmospheric pressure. How much
pressure is necessary to compress the gas to 5 mL if temperature is held constant?
1 1
a. atmospheric pressure c. atmospheric pressure
2 4
b. 2 x atmospheric pressure d. 4 x atmospheric pressure
208. An inflated balloon is placed in a refrigerator. Which will most likely happen?
a. It will burst. c. It will increase in volume.
b. Nothing will happen. d. It will decrease in volume.
209. Which diagram shows arrangement of particles in a balloon?
a. b. c. d.
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Reasoning and Analysis
210. When air is pumped into a bicycle tire, which of the following does NOT happen?
a. The space between the molecules decreases.
b. The gas molecules collide more frequently.
c. The gas molecules move faster.
d. The gas density increases.
211. Which of the liquids below has the fastestmoving molecules?
Liquid Boiling Temperature
I 85oC
II 100oC
III 62oC
IV 200oC
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV
212. What makes a gas a poor heat conductor?
a. The gas molecules are always moving.
b. The gas phase is mostly empty space.
c. The gas molecules collide elastically.
d. The gas molecules are less attracted to one another.
213. Which of the following gases (among SO2, NH3, CO2 and H2O vapor) will diffuse
the fastest? Why?
a. SO2 because it has the highest molecular mass.
b. NH3 because it has the lowest molecular mass.
c. CO2 because it has the highest molecular mass.
d. H2O vapor because it has the lowest molecular mass.
214. Under what condition do most gases tend to solidify?
a. increase in both pressure and temperature
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b. decreases in both pressure and temperature
c. increase of pressure and decrease in temperature
d. decrease of pressure and increase of temperature
215. Your lungs can hold 500 mL of air at 1.0 atm. What would be the volume of air in
your lungs if you took a deep breath, then dove into the ocean where pressure is 1.5
atm and the temperature is 10oC. Temperature at sea level is 27oC.
a. 33.3 mL c. 314 mL
b. 353 mL d. 707.5 mL
Unit IX. Inside the Atom
Factual Knowledge
216. How will you calculate the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom? By
a. adding together the number of electrons and protons.
b. subtracting the number of protons from the mass number.
c. subtracting the mass of protons from the mass number.
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d. adding the mass number to the number of protons.
217. What is true of all atoms of the same element? They have the same
a. number of protons. c. mass number.
b. number of neutrons. d. mass.
218. Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with the results obtained in
Rutherford’s gold foil experiment?
a. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
b. The nucleus of an atom contains almost all of the mass of that atom.
c. Atoms are composed mainly of empty space.
d. Electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
219. Which of the following is indicated by Rutherford’s experiment?
a. There is a nut inside the atom.
b. There is a big stone inside a small atom.
c. Nothing is on the center of the atom.
d. There is a densely packed nucleus inside the atom.
220. In the diagnosis and therapy of thyroid problems, what radioactive substances is
used?
a. radioactive barium c. cobalt60
b. radioactive iodine d. radioactive carbon
221. Radiation therapy involves the use of gamma rays to destroy cancer tissues. Which
of the following statements is true of radiation therapy?
a. gamma rays absorb the cancer cells and destroy them
b. gamma rays give off anticancer cells and destroys them
c. the cancer tissues absorb gamma rays that destroy the cancer cells
d. the cancer tissues absorb gamma rays that poisons the cancer cells
222. What do you call an atom that gained or lost electrons?
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a. nucleus c. a proton
b. an isotope d. an ion
223. What are isotopes?
a. They are atoms of the same element with different number of protons.
b. They are atoms of the same element with different number of neutrons.
c. They are atoms of the same element with the same number of neutrons.
d. They are atoms with the same number of electrons.
224. An atom of fluorine contains 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. What is the
atomic number of a fluorine atom?
a. 9 c. 19
b. 18 d. 28
225. What happens to a neutral atom when it loses an electron?
a. It gains a proton. c. It acquires a positive charge.
b. It acquires a negative charge. d. It loses a proton.
226. An isotope of aluminum (Z = 13) has a mass number equal to 27. How many
neutrons does it have?
a. 13 c. 14
b. 27 d. 40
227. Which of Rutherford’s observations made him conclude that the atom contains a
nucleus where the mass is concentrated?
a. Some alpha particle had small angles of scatter.
b. Very few alpha particles completely bounced back as if it hits something hard.
c. Most alpha particles went straight through the gold foil.
d. No alpha particle bounced back.
228. Which element is used in phototube?
a. Cu c. C
b. F d. Rb
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229. Which statement about the electron is false?
a. It is found in the nucleus.
b. It has a negative charge.
c. It has almost negligible mass.
d. It is one of the leptons.
230. What principle states that only two electrons can occupy an orbital?
a. Aufban’s principle c. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty principle
b. Hund’s rule of multiplicity d. Pauli’s exclusion principle
Concept Understanding
231. What changes when an atom becomes a positive ion? There is a change in the
number of its
a. neutrons. c. electrons.
b. energy levels. d. protons.
232. What happens when an atom of a metal becomes an ion?
a. The metal atom loses protons.
b. The metal atom loses neutrons.
c. The metal atom loses energy.
d. The metal atom loses electrons.
233. What is the correct number of subatomic particles in an atom of an element with
atomic number 48 and mass number 120?
a. 48 protons, 48 electrons, 72 neutrons
b. 72 protons, 48 electrons, 48 neutrons
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c. 48 protons, 48 electrons, 120 neutrons
d. 72 protons, 48 electrons, 72 neutrons
234. Copper has an atomic number of 29. Which is the most stable electron configuration
of the element?
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d10
b. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s1, 3d10
c. 1s1, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d10
d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d9
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235. Which of the following particles would not be affected when moving in a magnetic
field?
a. electron c. neutron
b. proton d. ion
236. What happens when a neutral atom forms a positively charged ion?
a. gains one or more electrons c. loses one or more protons
b. loses one or more electrons d. gains one or more protons
237. How does a chlorine atom differ from a chloride ion? The chlorine atom has
a. fewer electrons. c. more electrons.
b. fewer protons. d. more protons.
238. Which drawing best illustrates the phenomenon responsible for the specific color
emitted by an element when it is vaporized.
a. b. c. d.
239. Electrons are attracted to the nucleus. When an atom loses an electron, what happens
to its energy?
a. energy is taken in by the atom
b. energy is given off by the atom
c. energy is not needed by the atom
d. energy is transferred from nucleus to electron
240. What is the correct electronic structure of an element with atomic number 17?
a. 2, 2, 8, 5 c. 2, 8, 7
b. 8, 8, 1 d. 2, 10, 5
241. Which statement about the atom 146C is correct?
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a. The atom contains 6 neutrons and 14 protons.
b. The atom contains 6 protons and 14 neutrons.
c. The atom contains 6 protons and 14 electrons.
d. The atom contains 6 protons and 8 neutrons.
Reasoning and Analysis
242. Which of the following diagrams is that of a metallic atom?
243. Study the graph below presenting the results of Rutherford’s alphascattering gold
foil experiment. What could be inferred at point A?
Angle of scatter, 0
a. Most alpha particle had an angle of scatter equal to zero.
b. Very few alpha particles had an angle of scatter = 0.
c. Most alpha particle were deflected at 180o.
d. Some alpha particles were slightly deflected.
244. Rutherford’s alpha particle experiment was the basis for the nuclear model of the
atoms. Which of the Rutherford’s observation disproved Thomson’s continuous
model of the atom?
a. Most of the alpha particles penetrated through matter.
b. Very few alpha particles were deflected less frequently.
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c. The alpha particles were deflected more frequently and more sharply than
expected.
d. None of the above.
245. Which factor accounts why the first ionization energy is steadily increasing in the
following order: Boron, Carbon and Nitrogen?
a. increasing nuclear charge
b. increasing number of main energy levels
c. increasing electron pairing
d. increasing sublevels within the same main energy levels
Unit X. Order Among Elements
Factual Knowledge
246. Some elements in Group 14 possess both metallic and nonmetallic properties. When
combined with an “impurity” metal they are used as semiconductors. Which element
is most useful as semiconductor?
a. A1 c. Si
b. Cu d. S
247. Heavy metals are also pollutants of water. Which of the following is not a pollutant?
a. lead c. iron
b. cadmium d. mercury
248. Xenon is a noble gas. Which statement about xenon is true?
a. Xenon is on the left side of the Periodic Table.
b. A molecule of Xenon contains 2 atoms.
c. Xenon supports combustion.
d. Xenon is unreactive.
249. Who devised the systematic arrangement of elements based on increasing atomic
weights?
a. Bohr c. Thomson
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b. Moseley d. Mendeleev
250. How are the elements arranged in the Periodic Table? In the order of increasing
a. number of electrons. c. atomic number.
b. number of neutrons. d. relative atomic mass.
251. Which element can substitute for calcium in the bones?
a. Li c. Se
b. Sr d. Si
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252. Refer to the portion of the Periodic Table below showing elements belonging to the
same period (period 3).
Group 1 2 13 14 15 16 17
Element Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
Which nonmetal above will most readily accept electrons from Na?
a. Cl c. P
b. S d. Si
Reasoning and Analysis
253. Which of these elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic size?
a. Be, Mg, O c. Ca, Sc, Zn
b. Ca, Sr, Ba d. In, Ga, Al
254. An element has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p3. How many valence electrons
are there in this element?
a. 3 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7
255. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic size?
Atomic number: F = 9, Li = 3, Rb = 37, I = 53
a. F c. Rb
b. Li d. I
OpenEnded Questions
256. Illustrate and state your explanation briefly (5 points each)
a. Why is SO3 triangular while SO2 is bent? Which is polar? nonpolar?
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b. Why is CO2 nonpolar while CO is polar?
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Unit XI. Chemical Bonding
Factual Knowledge
257. What binds the atoms in HCl molecule in the gas phase?
a. ionic bond c. polar covalent bond
b. hydrogen bond d. nonpolar covalent bond
258. Which of the following is an intermolecular force?
a. hydrogen bond c. covalent bond
b. ionic bond d. metallic bond
259. Which statement best describes a metallic bond?
a. It is the attraction between molecules for each other.
b. It is the sharing of electrons between atoms.
c. It is the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
d. It is the attraction provided by mobile electrons for a network of positive ions.
260. Which particles are involved when atoms combine to form molecules?
a. neutrons in the nucleus of the atom
b. protons in the nucleus of the atom
c. electrons nearest the nucleus
d. electrons farthest from the nucleus
261. Which formula indicates the actual number of atoms of the element in a molecule of
a compound?
a. empirical formula c. molecular formula
b. structural formula d. simplest formula
262. Which statement about lone electron pair is false?
a. Lone electron pairs take part in Hbonding.
b. Lone electron pairs affect the geometry of molecules.
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c. Lone electron pairs are bonding pairs.
d. Lone electron pairs are nonbonding pairs of electrons.
263. Which of the following shows the highest tendency to form an ionic bond?
a. metal and a nonmetal c. two nonmetals
b. noble gas elements d. two metal elements
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264. The chemical formula of water is H2O. What holds the molecules of water together?
a. hydrogen bond c. metallic bond
b. ionic bond d. covalent bond
Concept Understanding
265. In which compound is the octet rule not followed?
a. MgBr2 c. Cl2O
b. BF3 d. CO2
266. Carbon has an atomic number equal to 6. What is its Lewis electron dot
configuration?
∙
:
:
a. : C : c. C :
∙
b. : C : d. ∙C∙
∙
267. What is the simplest hydrogen compound of carbon?
a. CH2 c. CH4
b. C2H2 d. C2H4
268. When you cut an electric copper wire, what force of attraction is broken?
a. covalent bond c. metallic bond
b. ionic bond d. hydrogen bond
269. Which of the following pairs of elements will form an ionic bond?
a. Cl and Br c. Na and Cl
b. H and Cl d. C and Cl
270. What attractive force is broken in the sublimation of naphthalene balls?
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a. hydrogen bond c. metallic bond
b. ionic bond d. van der Waal’s force
271. Aluminum (Al) has three valence electrons. Which is the most stable shape for
AlCl3?
a. linear c. tetrahedral
b. pyramid d. triangular planar
272. All the halogens form compounds with potassium of formula KX, where X
represents the halogen atom. What is the kind of chemical bond in all compounds
represented by KX?
a. covalent c. metallic
b. ionic d. Hbond
273. Diamond is made up of carbon atoms bonded continuously by covalent bonds. What
property of diamond manifests this type of bonding?
a. its brilliance c. its hardness
b. its weight in carats d. its sharpness
274. Which of the molecules below is held by polar covalent bonds?
a. Cl – Cl c. O = O
b. Si – Si d. C – Cl
a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
b. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
276. Which one of these molecules is triangular with angles of 120o?
a. H2O c. NH3
b. CO2 d. BF3
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277. Magnesium has two electrons in its outer shell. Oxygen has six electrons in its outer
shell. How does magnesium form bonds with oxygen in magnesium oxide?
a. A Mg atom shares 2 electrons with an O atom.
b. A O atom shares 6 electrons with a Mg atom.
c. A Mg atom gives 2 electrons to an O atom.
d. A O atoms gives 6 electrons to an Mg atom.
278. A particular substance is composed of a three dimensional arrangement of atoms
with free electrons moving among them. Which of the following substances is it
most likely be?
a. ice c. diamond
b. sodium chloride d. copper
Reasoning and Analysis
279. The melting temperatures of substances are given as follows:
A. 76.8oC C. 290oC
B. 56.5oC D. 149oC
Which of these substances have the greatest force of attraction between its
molecules in the solid phase?
a. B c. D
b. C d. A
280. The mass ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in compound X is 7:4. What is the correct
formula of the compound?
a. N2O c. NO
b. NO2 d. N2O4
281. Given the following electronegativity values.
Element Electronegativity
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Q 0.8
R 1.0
S 3.0
T 3.4
Which pair of atoms has the highest tendency to form a covalent bond?
a. Q and S c. S and T
b. R and T d. R and S
282. The element P has atomic number 12. Element Q has atomic number 17. What is the
formula of the compound formed when the elements react together?
a. P2Q c. PQ2
b. PQ d. PQ3
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Unit XII. Change Energy and Time
Factual Knowledge
283. What will happen when you apply heat to the reaction of HCl with rusty nails?
a. The reaction will stop.
b. The reaction will occur faster.
c. The reaction will slow down.
d. There is no reaction from the start.
284. What is needed in order for a chemical reaction to start?
a. catalyst c. potential energy
b. activation energy d. heat of reaction
285. The best way to prolong the lifetime of metal tools at home is to clean and coat them
with oil. Explain why this is effective.
a. Oil preserves the metal.
b. Oil makes the metal clean and shiny.
c. Dust is prevented from coming in contact with the metal.
d. Oil prevents access of oxygen to the metal.
286. Which of the following changes is exothermic?
a. frying of fish c. drying of clothes
b. melting of lard d. burning of gasoline
287. What happens during an endothermic change?
a. Heat is evolved and the surroundings get hot.
b. Heat is evolved and the surroundings get cold.
c. Heat is absorbed and the surroundings get hot.
d. Heat is absorbed and the surroundings get cold.
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288. When MnO2 was added in the decomposition reaction of hydrogen peroxide (H 2O2),
the reaction became very fast but the MnO2 remained unchanged. What was the role
of MnO2 in the reaction?
a. inhibitor c. reactant
b. catalyst d. product
289. One whole AlkaSeltzer tablet reacted slowly to a glass of water when compared to
powdered AlkaSeltzer reacting with the same amount of water. What factor
affected the rate of reaction?
a. The nature of the reactant.
b. The amount of reactant.
c. The surface area of reactant.
d. The concentration of reactant.
290. All of the following metals will react with sulfuric acid to give off hydrogen gas,
except one. Which one is the exception?
a. magnesium c. silver
b. iron d. zinc
291. Which of the following elements does not react with steam?
a. aluminum c. copper
b. calcium d. sodium
292. In which reaction is energy released or given off?
a. photosynthesis c. decomposition of limestone
b. combustion of gasoline d. evaporation of sweat
293. Which of the following processes absorbs energy?
a. photosynthesis in plant
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b. condensation of water vapor in air
c. reaction between an acid and a base
d. oxidation
294. Which of the following can prevent food spoilage?
a. Decreasing the temperature of food.
b. Increasing the temperature of food.
c. Keeping food in closed container.
d. Adding substances to hasten the activities of the bacteria or molds.
295. What is the purpose of coating iron with a thin layer of zinc?
a. To make it stronger.
b. To make is easier to polish.
c. To prevent its corrosion.
d. To increase its electrical conductivity.
296. The burning of charcoal is a spontaneous process, yet heat must first be applied to
start a charcoal fire. Why?
a. The reaction is endothermic and requires heat.
b. Heat causes the bonds to break immediately.
c. Heat is needed to disperse the atoms.
d. Heat supplies the necessary activation energy of the molecules.
297. Which of the following describes what happens when you hold an ice cube in your
hand?
a. Heat flows from the ice to your hand; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
b. Heat flows from the ice to y our hand; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
c. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
d. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
298. Papain is an enzyme in green papayas. When chicken is cooked with a green papaya,
it takes less time for the meat to become tender. What is the role of papain in
cooking chicken?
a. a reactant c. an inhibitor
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b. a catalyst d. an antioxidant
299. Which factor does not contribute to the high rate of corrosion of metal?
a. acid rain c. salty atmosphere
b. moist air d. painting the metal
300. What happens when a reaction takes place endothermically?
a. The temperature of the system drops.
b. The temperature of the surrounding drops.
c. The temperature of the surroundings rises.
d. The temperature of the surroundings remains the same.
301. Which process is exothermic?
a. breaking a covalent bond c. decomposition of limestone
b. photosynthesis d. forming a covalent bond
302. Which of these parameters can not be used in measuring the rate of chemical
reaction?
a. change of color c. change of temperature
b. change of pressure d. change of concentration
303. Which of the following explains why you do not observe paper burning
instantaneously?
a. The reaction is nonspontaneous.
b. The reactant molecules are prevented from collision.
c. The concentration of oxygen in air is insufficient.
d. The paper molecules do not possess the activation energy.
Reasoning and Analysis
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304. When powdered chalk is added to hydrochloric acid, it reacts and disappears in
seconds. When a marble chip is added to the same acid, it takes several minutes to
react and disappear. Why did this happen?
a. acids react faster with all powders
b. chalk is more soluble in the acid
c. chalk is more pure than marble
d. chalk has larger surface area
305. The arrangement of the metals below is known as the Activity Series, printed
horizontally and read from left to right.
K Ca Na Mg Al Mn Zn Cr Fe Ni Sn Pb H Cu Bi
Which metal will not react with hydrochloric acid?
a. K c. Fe
b. Al d. Cu
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