CHAPTER 1

1 The ability to use existing facts to derive new information is known as

A) Sensory experience.
B) Expert opinion.
C) Logic.
D) Scientific method.
2 A defining characteristic of studies that use the scientific method is
A) That the research procedures and outcomes must be public.
B) The acceptance of expert opinion when results are inconclusive.
C) Results that lead to cause-and-effect conclusions.
D) That stated hypotheses are proven true.
3 A characteristic of the scientific method is that
A) Any researcher can replicate the study.
B) the methods used can be understood only by experts.
C) conclusions are tentative and subject to change.
D) findings frequently contradict personal experience.
4 Which of the following research studies is most likely to be an experiment?
A) A study of the leadership characteristics of successful high school principals
B) A study that compares the cholesterol levels of vegetarians and meat eaters
C) A study to determine if parents give more sociable teachers higher ratings
D) A study to find out if using concept maps can increase achievement
5 The difference between correlational and causal-comparative research is that
A) one type is a descriptive study and the other is an associational study.
B) one type is a study with one group and the other type compares two or more groups.
C) one type can be used to verify cause and effect, while the other type cannot.
D) one type involves an intervention, while the other type is purely an observational study.
6 Single-subject research is classified under the general research type of
A) descriptive research.
B) associational research.
C) intervention research.
7 Suppose that a researcher spends six months living with a Native American tribe to learn all that she can
about the tribe. The researcher interviews many members of the tribe, participates as much as possible in
ceremonies, and documents the activities of daily living. This researcher is conducting
A) survey research.
B) a content analysis.
C) an ethnographic study.
D) historical research.
8 This type of research is intended to be carried out by any professional, in any type of school, to investigate
a problem. The findings are limited in their generalizability.
A) historical research
B) survey research
C) ethnographic study
D) action research
9 This type of research is intended to determine the cause for or the consequences of differences between
groups of people.
A) action research
B) ethnographic study
C) causal-comparative
D) content analysis
10 When a researcher is interested in knowing more than just how well or how accurately something is done
and they want to obtain a more holistic picture of what is happening in a specific setting or situation, what form of
research is called for?
A) experimental research
B) content analysis research
C) survey research
 D) qualitative research
11 According to the authors, the various research methodologies described in this chapter fall into which three
general research categories?
A) descriptive, historical, associational
B) descriptive, associational, intervention-type
C) associational, survey, content analysis
D) intervention-type, qualitative, survey
12 Quantitative researchers usually base their work on the belief that
A) facts and feelings cannot be separated.
B) facts and feelings can be separated and the world is made up of multiple realities.
C) facts and feelings can be separated and that the world is made up of facts that can be discovered.
13 Qualitative researchers usually base their work on the assumption that
A) facts and feelings can be separated and that the world is made up of facts that can be discovered.
B) the world is made up of multiple realities, socially constructed by different individual views of the
same situation.
C) facts and feelings can be separated, and the world is made up of multiple realities.
14 Critical analysis of research typically raises which major questions?
A) question of reality, question of communication, question of unstated assumptions, question of
societal consequences
B) question of reality, question of communication, question of values, question of societal
consequences
C) question of reality, question of unstated assumptions, question of societal consequences
D) question of reality, question of communication, question of values, question of unstated
assumptions, question of societal consequences
15 Almost all research plans include the following components:
A) a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or
other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis.
B) a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or
other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, data analysis, and statement of variables
C) a problem statement, a hypothesis, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or other
measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis.
D) a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or
other measuring instruments, and a description of procedures
16 A combination of quantitative and qualitative approaches is known as
A) descriptive research
B) explanatory research
C) causal comparative research
D) mixed methods research
17 Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
A) ethical violations in methodology
B) what researchers take for granted
C) misuse of statistics
D) how research is funded

CHAPTER 2

1 In order for a question to qualify as a research question the researcher must be able to
A) make observations and then analyze these to find an answer.
B) propose several answers to the question that are equally acceptable.
C) identify value statements in the question that reflect current societal norms.
D) develop metaphysical answers based on concise statements of belief.

2 Which of the following best describes the development process for a research question?
A) a broad question is made more specific as terms are more clearly defined
B) a broad question is made more specific in order to be more significant
C) a specific question is broadened as terms are more clearly defined
 D) a specific question is broadened in order to be more significant

3 Which of the following is a good research question?

A) Is the "back to the basics" movement good for public schools?
B) How would the current generation of young adults react if the military draft were reinstated?
C) Are teachers underpaid?
D) Does the phonics or the whole-language approach to reading lead to higher achievement?

4 Which of the following is not a good research question?

A) Does the inclusion of metaphors in text increase reading comprehension?
B) Is it good to include civics courses in the high school curriculum?
C) To what factors do successful teachers attribute their success?
D) Is the college retention rate greater for students who enroll in an academic skills program than for
those who do not?

5 Which of the following questions meets the criteria of a well-formulated research question?
A) Would long periods of isolation alter a child's emotional development?
B) Should marijuana be legalized?
C) Will the use of peer critiques improve college students' compositions?
D) What are political leaders like after they leave office?

6 Which of the following is a constitutive definition of self-esteem?

A) one's score on the Coopersmith Self Esteem Inventory
B) parental perceptions of child self-worth as reported on a questionnaire
C) the value one places on his or her self
D) the number of times per hour the subject makes a statement of self-worth

7 Which of the following descriptions exemplifies a relationship?

A) Children who receive frequent teacher approval are more likely to stay on task.
B) There are three basic types of parenting styles used in American homes.
C) Most school administrators express frustration with school funding levels.
D) The average math achievement of male and female ninth graders is about the same.

8 What are the commonly used ways to clarify unclear terms in a research question?
A) constitutive definitions and definitions by example
B) constitutive definitions and operational definitions
C) researcher-created definitions, definitions by example, and operational definitions
D) constitutive definitions, definitions by example, and operational definitions

9 Good research questions are

A) clear, significant, and ethical.
B) feasible, clear, significant, and ethical.
C) feasible, clear, significant, and include an hypothesis.
D) feasible, clear, and ethical.

10 Which of the following is a possible operational definition for "motivated to learn science?"
A) as reflected by achievement in science
B) as shown by effort displayed in science class
C) as measured by the "Science Interest" questionnaire
D) as shown by completing science assignments in class

11 The essential characteristic of a researchable question is

A) that the question is fun and interesting to answer.
B) that there is some sort of information that can be collected in an attempt to answer a question.
C) that by answering the question researchers will make money.
D) that by answering the question a significant positive consequence will effect society.
12 The following definition for humanistic classroom can be classified as which type of definition? Any
classroom identified by experts as constituting an example of a humanistic classroom.
A) operational definition
B) constitutive definition
C) definition by example

CHAPTER 3

1 The variable manipulated by the researcher in an experiment is called the

A) response variable.
B) independent variable.
C) dependent variable.
D) extraneous variable.

2 A researcher conducted an experiment to see if increasing water consumption lessens the visible effects of
rosacea, a common skin condition. The dependent variable in this experiment was
A) rosacea.
B) increased water consumption.
C) the amount of water consumed.
D) the visible condition of the skin.

3 Which of the following would not be an appropriate synonym for the dependent variable?
A) outcome variable
B) response variable
C) effected variable
D) experimental variable

4 An example of a quantitative variable is the

A) month of birth.
B) highest educational degree earned.
C) time taken to complete a spatial reasoning task.
D) telephone area code.

5 If a researcher studies fourth-grade students to determine the effects of rewarding good behavior on
subsequent behavior, which of the following is least likely to be an extraneous variable?
A) student grade level
B) student attitude
C) teacher characteristics
D) parent's parenting style

6 What type of research would be least likely to include a research hypothesis?

A) intervention research
B) associational research
C) descriptive research

7 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between a hypothesis and a theory?
A) A theoretical prediction can be stated as a specific hypothesis.
B) When a hypothesis has been proven correct, it becomes a theory.
C) Weak theories are hypotheses and strong theories are scientific laws.
D) "Theory" is another name for hypothesis.

8 An example of a categorical variable is

A) teacher hair color.
B) time it takes a teacher to grade an essay.
C) the length a teacher has to walk from the office to her class.
 D) the time is takes for a teacher to drive to work.

9 These variables are those that the researcher chooses to study in order to assess their possible effects on one
or more other variables.
A) dependent
B) independent
C) extraneous

10 This variable depends upon what is done to it by the independent variable.

A) manipulated
B) extraneous
C) dependent

11 These variables are those that are created by the researcher. These are typically found in experimental
studies.
A) extraneous
B) manipulated
C) dependent

12 A hypothesis can be described as

A) a hunch.
B) a wild guess.
C) a type of statement made by researchers when they are attempting to get funding for their research.
D) a prediction of some sort regarding the possible outcomes of a study.

13 Which of the following is an advantage of stating hypotheses?

A) It forces the researcher to think more deeply and specifically about the possible outcomes of a
study.
B) It simplifies the study.
C) It clarifies definitions.
D) It reduces researcher bias.

14 Which of the following is a disadvantage of stating hypotheses?

A) A hypothesis involves a philosophy of science, thus enabling one to make specific predictions on
prior evidence or theoretical argument.
B) It may prevent researchers from noticing other phenomena.
C) It increases sample size.
D) It results in unethical procedures.

15 Which of the following is an example of a directional hypothesis?

A) There will be a difference between the students' reading levels.
B) There will be a difference between lecture and group instruction.
C) Group instruction is more effective than lecture in the elementary classroom.
D) There will be an increase in learning.

16 A variable that clarifies the application of a relationship is called

A) an extraneous variable
B) an independent variable
C) a moderator variable
D) a dependent variable

CHAPTER 4

1 The foremost ethical question a researcher must address is

A) Can I keep the names of the participants confidential?
B) Are participants protected from harm?
 C) Will other scientists be able to replicate my study?
D) Is deception absolutely necessary?

2 When does the scientific community permit research that may cause participants harm?
A) When the participants are under the care of a legal guardian who signs a consent form.
B) When the participants agree to participate in exchange for substantial remuneration.
C) When the potential value of the study for humans is very high.
D) The scientific community never permits research that may cause harm.

3 The ethical principle that data collected from subjects should be kept confidential means that
A) data should be collected from anonymous participants.
B) researchers should never reveal the names of participants when they report results.
C) names can be released with the data only to other research professionals.
D) participants should not be told how they scored on the study's measuring instruments.

4 Who is protected by the law of privileged communications?

A) researchers, physicians, and members of the clergy
B) researchers, attorneys, and physicians
C) researchers, attorneys, and members of the clergy
D) attorneys, physicians, and members of the clergy

5 Study participants should always be told of their right to

A) withdraw from participation in the study.
B) report suspicious research practices to the institutional review board.
C) compare the data they provide with other data collected in the study.
D) footnote their dissatisfaction with the study in the final research report.

6 An educational psychology student who conducts dissertation research using human participants must
obtain formal approval that the research meets ethical guidelines from
A) the dissertation committee.
B) an institutional, college, or department review board.
C) the Department of Health and Human Services.
D) the American Psychological Association Committee on Scientific and Professional Ethics.

7 Which of the following is not a professional guideline concerning the use of deception?
A) Researchers should avoid deception if possible.
B) Deception should be used only when the potential value of the study is high.
C) Deception is permitted in studies involving children with parental consent.
D) Deceived participants must be provided with sufficient explanation as soon as possible.

8 This federal agency has the major responsibility for establishing the guidelines for research involving
human subjects.
A) Environmental Protection Agency
B) Food and Drug Administration
C) U.S. Department of Education
D) Health and Human Services

9 Which of the following is an example of ethical research practices?

A) As a student of a university, you are not required to participate in any study.
B) If some of the results in a research study are different from the others, it is okay to delete the
different ones.
C) It is okay to conduct research on students under the age of 18 without gaining parental approval if
the research is for education.
D) It is ethical to coerce children to participate in research without parental approval.

10 Which of the following is an example of unethical practices?

 A) As a student of a university, you are not required to participate in any study.
B) If some of the results in a research study are different from the others, it is okay to delete the
different ones.
C) It is unethical to coerce children to participate in research without parental approval.
D) It is okay to conduct research on students under the age of 18, but you must first gain parental
approval.

11 In any study, what are the three important ethical questions to ask about harm?
A) Could people be harmed (physically or psychologically) during the study? Should the study be
conducted another way to find out what the researcher wants to know? Is the information that may be obtained from
this study so important that it warrants possible harm to the participants?
B) How much pain can a human subject tolerate? Should the study be conducted another way to find
out what the researcher wants to know? Is the information that may be obtained from this study so important that it
warrants possible harm to the participants?
C) Could people be harmed (physically or psychologically) during the study? If a participant is
harmed, how long do the harmful effects last? Is the information that may be obtained from this study so important
that it warrants possible harm to the participants?

12 Which of the following is not a suggested method to ensure confidentiality of research data?
A) Assure all participants that any data collected from them or about them will be held in confidence.
B) The names of individual subjects should never be used in any publication that describe the
research.
C) All participants should have the right to withdraw from the study or to request that the data
collected abut them not be used.
D) Share the names of the participants only with the researchers in your state.

13 Before any research involving humans can be conducted at an institution that receives Federal Funds, it
must be reviewed by which group at the institution?
A) group of their peers
B) an institutional review board
C) the student senate
D) the dean of the College of Arts and Sciences

CHAPTER 5

1 Education Index is one example of a

A) general reference.
B) primary source.
C) secondary source.
D) professional journal.

2 Which of the following is least likely to be a primary source?

A) an article in a professional journal
B) a dissertation
C) a textbook
D) a paper presented at a professional conference

3 Which of the following descriptor combinations will produce the most references?
A) peer editing and peer groups and writing instruction
B) peer editing or peer groups or writing instruction
C) (peer editing or peer groups) and writing instruction
D) (peer editing and peer groups) or writing instruction

4 The most directly pertinent information to read in a literature review will usually come from
A) scholarly books and journal articles.
B) journal articles and research reports.
 C) research reports and the World Wide Web.
D) the World Wide Web and scholarly books.

5 The primary advantage that the World Wide Web has brought to literature reviews is
A) more time efficiency when conducting a literature search.
B) a strong classification system that is globally accepted.
C) increased certainty that information is reliable and credible.
D) immediate access to a wide variety of current materials.

6 Which of the following best describes how research should usually be described in the body of a literature
review report?
A) The major findings of the study should be briefly reported.
B) Most of the details of how the study was conducted should be carefully described.
C) The abstract of the research should be paraphrased.
D) Only the reference to the study should be provided.

7 A meta-analysis is a method researchers use to

A) obtain a complete set of references about a specified topic.
B) determine the credibility of another researcher's conclusions.
C) combine the results of selected studies of one topic.
D) verify the accuracy of their research results.

8 Researchers need to be familiar with these three basic types of sources.

A) general references, historical resources, and secondary resources
B) general references, primary resources, and secondary resources
C) tertiary references, primary resources, and secondary resources
D) general references, primary resources, and statistical resources

9 Which of the following is not one of the steps involved in a literature review?
A) ignore secondary sources
B) define the research problem as precisely as possible
C) select and peruse one or two appropriate general reference works
D) obtain and read relevant primary sources

10 A good summary of a journal article should include

A) the problem being addressed, the purpose of the study, the hypotheses of the study, the
methodology the researcher used, a description of the subjects involved, the results, and any strengths, weaknesses,
and limitations of the study.
B) the problem being addressed, the purpose of the study, the hypotheses of the study, the results, the
conclusions, and any strengths, weaknesses, and limitations of the study.
C) the purpose of the study, the hypotheses of the study, the methodology the researcher used, a
description of the subjects involved, the results, the conclusions, and any strengths, weaknesses, and limitations of
the study.
D) the problem being addressed, the purpose of the study, the hypotheses of the study, the
methodology the researcher used, a description of the subjects involved, the results, the conclusions, and any
strengths, weaknesses, and limitations of the study.

11 What are the two main ways to do a literature search?

A) interview researchers and manual approach
B) electronically with a computer and with a PDA
C) manual approach, and electronically with a computer

12 Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage of searching the World Wide Web?
A) immediacy
B) currency
C) varied formats
 D) lack of credibility

13 Which of the following are the steps involved in a literature review?

A) define the research problem as precisely as possible, look at relevant secondary sources, select and
peruse one or two appropriate general reference works, formulate search terms pertinent to the problem or question
of interest, and search the general preferences for relevant primary sources
B) define the research problem as precisely as possible, look at relevant secondary sources, select and
peruse one or two appropriate general reference works, and obtain and read relevant primary sources
C) define the research problem as precisely as possible, look at relevant secondary sources, select and
peruse one or two appropriate general reference works, formulate search terms pertinent to the problem or question
of interest, search the general preferences for relevant primary sources, and obtain and read relevant primary sources
D) define the research problem as precisely as possible, look at relevant secondary sources, formulate
search terms pertinent to the problem or question of interest, search the general preferences for relevant primary
sources, and obtain and read relevant primary sources

14 Which is not a disadvantage of using a search engine?

A) variety
B) disorganization
C) uncertain accuracy
D) irrelevant information

CHAPTER 6

1 Educational researchers ultimately want the answer to a research question to pertain to the
A) sample.
B) accessible population.
C) target population.
D) world.

2 When every member of the accessible population has an equal chance of being selected to participate in the
study, the researcher is using
A) simple random sampling.
B) stratified random sampling.
C) convenience sampling.
D) purposive sampling.

3 If a researcher selected five schools at random and then interviewed each of the teachers in those five
schools, the researcher used
A) simple random sampling.
B) stratified random sampling.
C) cluster random sampling.
D) two-stage random sampling.

4 Which of the following is an example of a random sampling method?

A) systematic sampling
B) convenience sampling
C) purposive sampling
D) cluster random

5 The best sample is one that is

A) a systematic sample.
B) convenient.
C) representative of the population.
D) purposefully selected.
6 Suppose that a researcher conducted a study of student morale in a middle school. The researcher wanted to
generalize the results to all middle school students in the district. Under which of the following conditions would
ecological generalizability have been threatened?
A) the school is located in a high socioeconomic neighborhood
B) the school is an all-girls school
C) the school is a private school
D) this is the first year in a new school building

7 Questions 7 to 9 refer to the following research situation:

A researcher who wanted to determine the benefits of using a new beginning algebra study technique obtained
permission from a school district to select 50 high school students. The researcher selected 50 beginning algebra
students at random. The researcher selected 25 of these 50 students to participate in the new study program. The
researcher gave a training session on traditional study techniques to the other 25 students and asked them to use
these methods.
The most likely target population in this study is

A) algebra students in the district.

B) all students in the district.
C) all algebra students.
D) the 25 students who learned the new study techniques.

8 The method of sampling used in the study is

A) simple random sampling.
B) stratified random sampling.
C) cluster sampling.
D) convenience sampling.

9 The greatest threat to external validity in this study is

A) the division of the sample into two groups of 25.
B) the use of only 50 students in the sample.
C) the use of students from only one district.
D) the use of only two different study techniques.

10 Which of the following is not an example of a random sampling method?

A) systematic sampling
B) stratified random sampling
C) simple random sampling
D) cluster random

11 Which of the following is an example of a random sampling method?

A) purposive sampling
B) two-stage random sampling
C) systematic sampling
D) convenience sampling

12 Which of the following is an example of a nonrandom sampling method?

A) convenience sampling
B) stratified random sampling
C) simple random
D) cluster random

13 The purpose of stratified random sampling is to make certain that

A) every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample.
B) the sample proportionately represents individuals from different categories of the population.
C) the participants chosen for the study are the ones most likely to react to the treatment.
 D) the sample is more representative of the target population than the accessible population.

14 Population generalizability refers to

A) conclusions researchers make about a random sample.
B) conclusions researchers make about information uncovered in research study.
C) the degree to which a sample represents the population of interest.
D) the degree to which results of a study can be extended to other settings or conditions.

15 The degree to which results of a study can be extended to other settings or conditions describes
A) population generalizability.
B) conclusions researchers make about a random sample.
C) conclusions researchers make about information uncovered in research study.
D) ecological generalizability.

CHAPTER 7

1 If a researcher interviews a principal about the characteristics of the district superintendent, the principal is
a(n)
A) unobtrusive observer.
B) informant.
C) research assistant.
D) objective rater.

2 Performance instruments are used to measure

A) behaviors and attitudes.
B) interest and aptitude.
C) cognitive achievement.
D) success on a task.

3 An instrument that could be used to grade pottery that students created in a visual arts class is a(n)
A) product rating scale.
B) flowchart.
C) performance checklist.
D) achievement test.

4 A scale on which opposing adjectives are presented is called a

A) Likert scale.
B) Likert scale.
C) sociometric device.
D) semantic differential.

5 An instrument that identifies how individuals relate to peers is called a(n)

A) interpretive exercise.
B) personality inventory.
C) graphic rating scale.
D) sociometric device.

6 Which of the following type of items is not a selection item?

A) true-false
B) multiple choice
C) matching
D) short answer

7 One researcher classified the participants as "good," "average," or "poor" readers. This researcher used a(n)
 A) nominal scale.
B) ordinal scale.
C) interval scale.
D) ratio scale.

8 Which of following is not one the five types of researcher-completed instruments used in educational
research?
A) rating scales
B) tally sheets
C) personality or character inventory
D) flowcharts

9 The five types of researcher-completed instruments used in educational research are

A) rating scales, tally sheets, flowcharts, performance checklists, interview schedules
B) questionnaires, tally sheets, flowcharts, performance checklists, interview schedules
C) rating scales, tally sheets, personality inventory, performance checklists, interview schedules
D) rating scales, tally sheets, flowcharts, performance checklists, personality inventory

10 Which of following is one type of subject-completed instrument used in educational research?

A) tally sheets
B) performance tests
C) interview scales
D) performance checklists

11 The six types of subject-completed instruments used in educational research are

A) rating scales, achievement tests, projective devices, sociometric devices, questionnaires, self-
checklists
B) anecdotal records, projective devices, sociometric devices, questionnaires, self-checklists, attitude
scales
C) time-and-motion logs, achievement tests, projective devices, sociometric devices, questionnaires,
attitude scales
D) achievement tests, projective devices, sociometric devices, questionnaires, self-checklists, attitude
scales

12 "A student scored at the 75th percentile of fifth graders who took this exam" is an example of which type of
evaluation statement?
A) criterion-referenced
B) norm-referenced

13 Which of the following is not one of the four types of measurement scales used in educational research?
A) ratio
B) nominal
C) interval
D) criterion

14 This type of measurement scale involves the use of numbers to represent equal distances from a known
zero point.
A) nominal
B) interval
C) ratio
D) ordinal

15 A grade equivalent score is

A) the average test score for a grade level
B) the score 80% of students in a grade should attain
C) the grade level at which the test taker performed
 D) the grade in which the test was taken by an individual

CHAPTER 8

1 Which of the following statements most likely involves using data in a way that is not valid?
A) University data indicate that the highest paid professors have the most publications.
B) Students who can type more than 80 words per minute will receive a typing award.
C) All of the teachers interviewed described the principal as "outstanding."
D) A teacher uses self evaluations to grade writing ability

2 Which of the following is content-related evidence of validity?

A) Test items are at an appropriate reading level.
B) Observed participant characteristics are consistent with responses on a scale.
C) Scores obtained on two administrations of the instrument are consistent.
D) Scores are correlated with scores obtained on another instrument.

3 The best construct-related evidence of validity comes from

A) a series of studies of the instrument.
B) a validity coefficient that is near 0.
C) careful review of the instrument by experts.
D) data-based predictions that prove to be correct.

4 Which of the following statements accurately portrays the relationship of reliability to validity?
A) Inferences must be valid before the scores can be reliable.
B) Scores must be reliable before inferences can be valid.
C) The more valid the inference is, the higher the reliability of the score must be.
D) Score reliability is not related to inference validity.

5 Which of the following is most likely to be the alternate forms reliability coefficient for a well-established
standardized test?
A) -0.93
B) +0.46
C) +0.89
D) +1.42

6 Measurement error cannot be assessed by

A) giving the instrument to the same group twice
B) comparing scores on different parts of the instrument
C) giving the instrument to two different groups
D) giving two forms of the instrument to the same group

7 An expectancy table is shown below.

Observer's behavior rating Disciplinary Action is Taken
Often Sometimes Never
Excellent 6 4 A
Typical 13 B 11
Problem C 7 2

What numbers put in place of "A," "B," and "C" would provide the best criterion-related evidence of validity?
A) A = 62, B = 2, C = 8
B) A = 71, B = 38, C = 49
C) A = 4, B = 3, C = 8
D) A = 1, B = 6, C = 51

8 What are the two forms of criterion-related validity?

 A) correlational and content
B) predictive and correlational
C) predictive and concurrent
D) criterion and predictive

9 To obtain evidence of predictive validity a researcher will have to

A) consult another researcher.
B) review all of the instruments.
C) gather instrument data and criterion data at nearly the same time.
D) allow a time interval to elapse between administration of the instrument and obtaining the criterion
scores.

10 A researcher administers a history aptitude test to a group of middle school students and later compares
their test scores with their end-of-the-semester grade in history. This is an example of obtaining evidence of
A) predictive validity.
B) concurrent validity.
C) content related evidence of validity.

11 Which of the following is not one of the three best-known ways to obtain a reliability coefficient?
A) test-retest
B) equivalent forms
C) internal consistency
D) concurrent

12 Which of the following are the three best known ways to obtain a reliability coefficient?
A) predictive, concurrent, and equivalent forms
B) test-retest, equivalent forms, and internal consistency
C) test-retest, concurrent, and equivalent forms

13 To obtain evidence of concurrent validity a researcher will have to

A) consult another researcher.
B) review all of the instruments.
C) gather instrument data and criterion data at nearly the same time.
D) allow a time interval to elapse between administration of the instrument and obtaining the criterion
scores.

14 If a researcher wishes to obtain content-related evidence of validity, a common way to do this is to

A) have a friend look over the instrument and give feedback.
B) obtain a Kuder-Richardson analysis.
C) review the instrument very carefully.
D) have an individual who knows enough about what is to be measured review the content and format
of the instrument and judge whether it is appropriate.

15 What are the three main types of evidence on validity that a researcher might collect?
A) content-related, criterion-related on, construct-related
B) historical, criterion-related
C) content-related, laboratory, construct-related
D) content-related, criterion-related, observation-related

CHAPTER 9

1 Which of the following is a question of internal validity in experimental research?

A) How widely can the results of the experiment be generalized?
B) Has maturation influenced the dependent variable?
C) Was the sample representative of the population?
 D) Will replication in another setting result in the same findings?

2 The threat of "subject characteristics" refers to differences among subjects on a(n)

A) treatment variable.
B) independent variable.
C) dependent variable.
D) extraneous variable.

3 Regression to the mean is most likely to be a threat to internal validity when

A) participants are selected on the basis of extreme scores.
B) factors external to the study influence the outcomes in the study.
C) the characteristics of the data collector influence the measurement process.
D) only one rater is used to score all the tests used in the study.

4 Location is a threat to internal validity when

A) different groups receive the intervention in different environments.
B) all groups receive the intervention in the same location at different times.
C) all groups are tested in disruptive conditions.
D) the research is conducted in unfamiliar surroundings.

5 When a pretest influences scores on a posttest, it is known as a(n)

A) instrumentation threat.
B) testing threat.
C) regression threat.
D) implementation threat.

6 Which of the following situations provides an example of the Hawthorne effect?

A) Most of the superintendents did not respond to the survey they were sent.
B) Several teachers refused to cooperate with the researcher during a study.
C) A principal provided an overly optimistic report of his school in an interview.
D) Students paid more attention than usual to the teacher during an experiment.

7 Which describes the history threat?

A) different individual experiences
B) test anxiety
C) unexpected events
D) improper instrument administration

8 No matter how careful a researcher is in selecting subjects it happens that some subjects leave as the study
progresses. This loss is known as
A) mortality threat.
B) history threat.
C) maturation threat.
D) subject attitude.

9 The particular location in which data are collected or in which the intervention is carried out describes
which type of threat?
A) history threat
B) maturation threat
C) subject attitude
D) location threat

10 If the nature of the instrument or scoring procedure changes in some way or another, which type of threat is
this?
A) subject attitude
B) instrument decay
 C) location threat
D) data collector bias

11 Standardizing conditions, obtaining more information on details, and choosing the appropriate design are
three general techniques used to control for which types of threat to internal validity?
A) location, subject attitude, and regression
B) location, history, and regression
C) location, subject attitude, and implementation
D) subject attitude, history, and maturation

12 If a researcher wanted to control against instrumentation threats which of the following will not help?
A) standardize conditions
B) obtain more information on details
C) obtain more information on subjects
D) choose appropriate design

13 In most studies, the most difficult threat to control is

A) data collector bias
B) impemntation
C) mortality
D) location

14 When subjects are given increased attention and recognition because they are participating in a study, their
responses may be affected. This is known as the
A) maturation threat.
B) practice effect.
C) Hawthorne effect.

15 Whenever a group is selected because of unusually high or low performance on a pretest, it will, on
average, score closer to the mean on subsequent testing, regardless of what transpires in the meantime. What type of
threat does this describe?
A) Hawthorne effect
B) maturation threat
C) practice effect
D) regression threat

CHAPTER 10

1 Which of the following is definitely a statistic?

A) the median family income in the United States
B) the mean number of absences per day in one school district during one school year
C) the range of running times at the Boston Marathon
D) the percentage of defective units in a random sample of units produced at a manufacturing plant

2 Which of the following is an example of categorical data?

A) ages of volunteers at a community service center
B) zip codes of shoppers at an appliance store
C) SAT scores of students who took the SAT in March
D) square footage of high school gymnasiums in Nebraska

3 The median is a better index of central tendency than the mean when the distribution is
A) symmetrical.
B) skewed.
C) normal.
 D) bimodal.

4 What percentage of the scores is contained in the box in a boxplot?

A) 34%
B) 50%
C) 68%
D) 100%

5 What is the z score for a raw score of 40 that comes from a distribution with a mean of 50 and a standard
deviation of 5?
A) -2
B) -1
C) 1
D) 2

6 Which of the following correlations would be the most likely value of Pearson's r for the relationship of the
time spent practicing typing to the number of errors made on a typing test?
A) -0.55
B) 0
C) 0.82
D) 1.47

7 A crossbreak table is used for analyzing the data obtained for

A) one categorical variable.
B) one quantitative variable.
C) two categorical variables.
D) two quantitative variables.

8 When researchers describe the information contained in many scores with just a few indices, such as the
mean or median, and these are calculated for a sample drawn from a population, they are called
A) statistics.
B) parameters.
C) modes.
D) analysis.

9 When indices such as the mean or median are calculated from the entire population, they are called
A) medians.
B) parameters.
C) statistics.
D) means.

10 Of the two fundamental types of numerical data, those which differ in kind are called
A) quantitative.
B) statistical.
C) categorical.
D) parameters.

11 Of the two fundamental types of numerical data, those which differ in degree or amount and are reported in
terms of numbers and values are called
A) quantitative.
B) statistical.
C) categorical.
D) parameters.

12 Normal distribution is best described when

A) researchers draw a smooth curve instead of the series of straight lines in a frequency polygon.
 B) the tail of the distribution trails off to the left, in the direction of the lower, more negative, score
values.
C) the tail of the distribution trails off to the right, in the direction of the higher, more positive, score
values.
D) the large majority of scores are concentrated in the middle of the distribution, and the scores
decrease in frequency the father away from the middle they are.

13 What is the mode in the following distribution? 25, 17, 23, 23, 24, 25, 23
A) 25
B) 23
C) 17
D) 24

14 Distribution curves are best described when

A) the tail of the distribution trails off to the left, in the direction of the lower, more negative, score
values.
B) the tail of the distribution trails off to the right, in the direction of the higher, more positive, score
values.
C) researchers draw a smooth curve instead of the series of straight lines in a frequency polygon.
D) the large majority of scores are concentrated in the middle of the distribution, and the scores
decrease in frequency the father away from the middle.

15 A negatively skewed distribution is best described when

A) the tail of the distribution trails off to the right, in the direction of the higher, more positive, score
values.
B) the tail of the distribution trails off to the left, in the direction of the lower, more negative, score
values.
C) the large majority of scores are concentrated in the middle of the distribution, and the scores
decrease in frequency the father away from the middle.
D) when researchers draw a smooth curve instead of the series of straight lines in a frequency
polygon.

CHAPTER 11

1 A sampling distribution is a distribution of

A) study participants.
B) statistics.
C) parameters.
D) raw scores.

2 In a normal distribution, 95% of the scores are within + or -

A) one standard deviation of the mean.
B) two standard deviations of the mean.
C) three standard deviations of the mean.
D) four standard deviations of the mean.

3 The standard deviation of a statistic is called

A) the standard error.
B) the sampling error.
C) a quartile.
D) a confidence interval.

4 Which of the following is an example of a null hypothesis?

A) Motivation is not related to achievement.
B) Highly motivated people are more likely to be successful than those with low motivation.
 C) Highly motivated people are less likely to be successful than those with low motivation.
D) Motivation is related to achievement.

5 When researchers state that a finding is statistically significant, they are stating that
A) the results are important.
B) the outcomes of the study could be due to chance only 5 times in 100.
C) the sample statistics in the study are equal to the population parameters.
D) the researchers rejected the null hypothesis.

6 If a researcher rejects a null hypothesis, the researcher either

A) is incorrect, or made a Type I error.
B) is correct, or made a Type I error.
C) is incorrect, or made a Type II error.
D) is correct, or made a Type II error.

7 An inferential technique for analyzing the relationship between two categorical variables is
A) analysis of variance.
B) analysis of covariance.
C) the Mann-Whitney U test.
D) the chi-square test.

8 Certain types of procedures that allow researchers to make inferences about a population based on findings
from a sample best describes
A) descriptive statistics.
B) inferential statistics.
C) correlational statistics.
D) cross-break.

9 What is the term that describes the difference between a sample and its population?
A) sampling error
B) the chi-square test
C) descriptive statistics
D) inferential statistics

10 Which type of hypothesis specifies that there is no relationship in the population?

A) research hypothesis
B) descriptive hypothesis
C) null hypothesis
D) inferential hypothesis

11 When researchers make various assumptions about the nature of the population from which the sample
involved is drawn, this is a requirement of
A) nonparametric techniques.
B) the null hypothesis.
C) sampling error.
D) parametric techniques.

12 When researchers make few, if any, assumptions about the nature of the population from which the sample
involved in the survey is drawn, this refers to
A) sampling error.
B) parametric techniques.
C) nonparametric techniques.
D) null hypothesis.

13 t-test for means

A) used when comparing two sets of rankings
 B) used when comparing several sets of scores
C) used when comparing two sets of scores
D) used with categorical data

14 Mann-Whitney U test
A) used when comparing two sets of rankings
B) used when comparing several sets of scores
C) used when comparing two sets of scores
D) used with categorical data

15 Chi-Square
A) used when comparing two sets of rankings
B) used when comparing several sets of scores
C) used when comparing two sets of scores
D) used with categorical data

16 Analysis of Variance
A) used when comparing two sets of rankings
B) used when comparing several sets of scores
C) used when comparing two sets of scores
D) used with categorical data

CHAPTER 12

1 Which of the following sequences for analyzing data is in the best order?
A) calculate descriptive statistics, construct graphs, calculate inferential statistics
B) calculate inferential statistics, construct graphs, calculate descriptive statistics
C) construct graphs, calculate descriptive statistics, calculate inferential statistics
D) calculate descriptive statistics, calculate inferential statistics, construct graphs

2 The probabilities used for hypothesis testing are accurate for making generalizations to a population when
A) the sample size is large.
B) confidence intervals cannot be constructed.
C) the significance level is small.
D) samples are random.

3 If there is a strong curvilinear relationship between two quantitative variables, Pearson's correlation
coefficient will
A) estimate this relationship accurately.
B) underestimate this relationship.
C) slightly overestimate this relationship.
D) grossly overestimate this relationship.

4 The magnitude of relationships can be best evaluated using

A) tests for statistical significance.
B) effect size indices.
C) parametric techniques.
D) nonparametric techniques.

5 The importance of a relationship is best evaluated using

A) the judgment of experts.
B) the level of significance used by the researcher.
C) the correlation coefficient.
D) established guidelines published by statisticians.

6 The best display for showing the relationship between two categorical variables is the
 A) frequency polygon.
B) boxplot.
C) scatterplot.
D) crossbreak table.

7 When news magazines publish average SAT scores for all of the states in the United States, an individual
unit is a
A) student who took the SAT.
B) school district.
C) state.
D) country.

8 When a relationship between quantitative variables within a single group is described, the appropriate
technique is
A) the scatterplot.
B) crossbreak table.
C) frequency polygon.
D) the boxplot.

9 Name one technique for describing groups on a quantitative variable.

A) chi square
B) t-test for proportions
C) percentage
D) frequency polygon

10 If inferential statistics are obtained, it should be

A) to determine importance.
B) before assessing importance.
C) after assessing importance.
D) to determine randomness of sample.

11 Confidence intervals are preferred to significance tests because they

A) describe sample variability.
B) do not require a random sample.
C) provide more information.
D) assess importance.

12 If Eta is larger than r,

A) neither should be used.
B) a mistake in calculation has been made.
C) r overstates the relationship.
D) r understates the relationship.

13 A distortion in using proportions and percentages can result from

A) unequal base groups.
B) difficulty in computation.
C) overlapping categories.
D) lack of an interval scale.

14 Which statement is true for "outliers"?

A) they should be deleted from analysis.
B) they can distort summary statistics.
C) they are mistakes made in analysis.
D) they are of little importance.
15 The authors suggest that researcher use both parametric and nonparametric techniques to analyze data
because
A) it takes more time and is important.
B) it will make you a better researcher.
C) when the results are consistent, interpretation will be strengthened. When the results are not
consistent, you can discuss the possible reasons.

CHAPTER 13

1 Experimental research differs from other types of research because in experimental research
A) the dependent variable must be measured precisely.
B) the independent variable must be manipulated.
C) groups are compared.
D) there are no extraneous variables.

2 A characteristic that distinguishes true experiments from weaker experimental designs is that true
experiments include
A) random assignment.
B) matching.
C) repeated measurements of the dependent variable.
D) random sampling.

3 A researcher would be most likely to use a static group design when

A) there is only one new intervention of interest.
B) it is difficult to manipulate the independent variable.
C) use of a pretest would be a threat to internal validity.
D) participants cannot be randomized to conditions.

4 The biggest threat to internal validity when a counterbalanced design is used is

A) statistical regression.
B) subject characteristics.
C) multiple-treatment interference.
D) testing.

5 A researcher who chooses to control an attitudinal threat by building it into the design would most likely
use a
A) randomized Solomon four-group design.
B) factorial design.
C) counterbalanced design.
D) time-series design.

6 In matching designs, participants in two or more groups are matched using

A) an extraneous variable.
B) the dependent measure.
C) the independent variable.
D) the researcher's expertise.

7 Experimental research is the only type of research that enables researchers to make conclusions about
A) group differences.
B) the change of variables over time.
C) relationships among variables.
D) cause and effect.

8 The major characteristic of experimental research, which distinguishes it from all other types of research, is
that researchers
A) spend money and time in their research.
 B) manipulate the dependent variable.
C) manipulate the independent variable.
D) there is no major characteristic that distinguishes it from all other types of research.

9 Using the randomized Solomon four-group design, which of the following threats to internal validity is
most likely to occur?
A) subject characteristics
B) testing
C) implementation
D) maturation

10 Using the static-group comparison design, which of the following threats to internal validity is most likely
to occur?
A) history
B) maturation
C) instrument decay
D) subject characteristics

11 Using the matching-only pre-posttest control group design, which of the following threats to internal
validity is most likely to occur?
A) testing
B) maturation
C) history
D) location

12 Using the counterbalanced design, which of the following threats to internal validity is most likely to
occur?
A) implementation
B) history
C) subject characteristics
D) testing

13 Using the time-series design, which of the following threats to internal validity is least likely to occur?
A) subject characteristics
B) testing
C) history
D) attitudinal

14 Using the one-group pre-posttest design, which of the following threats to internal validity is controlled?
A) attitudinal
B) subject characteristics
C) history
D) data collector bias

15 Using the factorial without randomization design, which of the following threats to internal validity is least
likely to occur?
A) subject characteristics
B) attitudinal
C) data collector bias
D) instrument decay

CHAPTER 14

1 Single-subject designs are adaptations of

A) true experimental designs.
B) counterbalanced designs.
 C) time-series designs.
D) static group designs.

2 The "A" in the A-B design usually refers to

A) the baseline condition.
B) the first of two treatment conditions.
C) the first of two study participants.
D) the pretest.

3 Which of the following designs would usually be used only when an individual's behavior is very severe
before the study begins?
A) A-B
B) A-B-A
C) B-A-B
D) multiple-baseline

4 Suppose that a researcher employs the A-B-A design to determine the effect of monetary rewards on the
behavior of a child. Which of the following would most threaten the internal validity of the study?
A) increasing the length of the baseline
B) including verbal praise for good behavior during B
C) leaving the child in a base line condition
D) increasing the length of the intervention phase

5 If a multiple-baseline design is used to study the effects of a treatment on the academic achievement of four
students, the researcher should
A) begin the intervention at a different time for each student.
B) slightly alter the treatment provided to each student.
C) verify that the students have the same aptitude.
D) implement the intervention for two of the four students.

6 The primary mode for establishing external validity with single-subject studies is with
A) replication.
B) a lengthy baseline phase.
C) a lengthy intervention phase.
D) a return to baseline after the intervention.

7 Which of the following designs qualifies as an alternating treatment design?

A) B-A-B
B) A-B-A-B
C) A-B-A-C-A
D) A-B-C-B-C

8 One of the threats that an A-B-A-B design suffers from is

A) data collector bias.
B) history.
C) maturation.
D) subject characteristics.

9 Which design involves a treatment, followed by a baseline, followed by a return to the treatment?
A) A-B-C-B-C
B) B-A-B
C) A-B-A-B
D) A-B

10 Which design involves a baseline followed by a treatment?

A) B-A-B
 B) A-B-A-B
C) A-B
D) A-B-C-B-C

11 Which design combines two baseline periods with two treatment periods?
A) A-B-A-B
B) B-A-B
C) A-B-C-B-C
D) A-B

12 Single-subject study designs are most effective in controlling for which of the following threats?
A) instrument decay
B) testing
C) implementation
D) attitudinal

13 Single-subject study designs are least effective in controlling for which of the following threats?
A) data collector characteristics
B) mortality
C) history
D) subject characteristics

14 An advantage of single-subject designs is

A) it is a convenient design.
B) there are no threats.
C) they are easy to generalize from.
D) that they can be applied in settings where group designs are difficult to put into play.

15 In the A-B-C-B, design the "C" refers to

A) an intervention.
B) a variation of the intervention.
C) a baseline.
D) the variation of the baseline.

CHAPTER 15

1 If the variable "hours spent in study" is positively correlated with the variable "score on the test," we can be
certain that
A) spending more time studying will result in a higher test score.
B) the score on the test can be perfectly predicted from the hours spent in study.
C) the students that study the most typically get the highest test scores.
D) the points on a graph of these variables will be on a straight line.

2 The variable that is predicted in a prediction study is the

A) criterion variable.
B) predictor variable.
C) effect variable.
D) regression variable.

3 For which of the following correlations is the standard error of estimate the largest?
A) .20
B) .40
C) .60
D) .80
4 The method of analysis that uses several variables to predict the category a participant belongs in is called
A) prediction analysis.
B) multiple regression.
C) discriminant function analysis.
D) factor analysis.

5 Which of the following conditions would most likely lead the researcher to calculate a partial correlation?
A) One variable is weakly correlated with another variable.
B) Two variables are correlated with each other and with a third variable.
C) Several participants leave the study before the correlation is calculated.
D) The sample in a correlational study does not represent the population.

6 Which of the following statements about structural modeling with correlational research is correct?
A) Correlational research should not be used for structural modeling.
B) Structural modeling is appropriate only when correlational research is combined with an
experiment.
C) Partial correlation is used to generate structural models.
D) Structural modeling uses the correlation technique known as path analysis.

7 When mortality is a threat to correlational research it threatens

A) internal validity because the estimate of the correlation is inaccurate.
B) external validity because the estimate of the correlation is inaccurate.
C) internal validity because one variable is measured more precisely than the other.
D) external validity because one variable is measured more precisely than the other.

8 One major purpose of correlational research is

A) to study the changes in behavior an individual exhibits after exposure to an intervention or
treatment of some sort.
B) to clarify our understanding of important phenomena through the identification of relationships.
C) to make people aware of what has happened from past failures or accomplishments.
D) to assess attitudes and opinions.

9 Which of the following is not a purpose of correlational research?

A) to explore causation
B) to predict likely outcomes
C) to clarify our understanding of important phenomena through the identification of relationships
D) to identify cultural values

10 The variable that is used to make the prediction is called

A) correlational variable
B) criterion variable
C) predictior variable

11 The variable about which the prediction is made is called a

A) criterion variable
B) predictior variable
C) correlational variable

12 Multiple regression is a technique that

A) indicates the strength of the correlation between the combination of the predictor variables and the
criterion variable.
B) enables researchers to predict a criterion variable by using the best combination of two or more
predictor variables.
C) indicates the percentage of the variability among the criterion scores that can be attributed to
differences in the scores on the predictor variables.
D) is a technique used to test the causal connection among three or more variables.
13 The coefficient of determination
A) enables researchers to determine a correlation between a criterion variable and the best
combination of two or more predictor variables.
B) is a technique used to test the causal connection among three or more variables.
C) describes the strength of the correlation between the combination of the predictor variables and the
criterion variable.
D) indicates the percentage of the variability among the criterion scores that can be attributed to
differences in the scores on the predictor variables.

14 Almost all correlational studies revolve around three types of questions. Which of the following is not one
of these types of questions?
A) How were things done in the past, and how might they be applicable to present-day problems or
concerns?
B) Is variable X related to variable Y?
C) What is the relationship among a large number of variables and what predictions can be made on
them?
D) How well does variable P predict variable C?

15 Which of the following threats applies to internal validity in correlational research?

A) history
B) location threat
C) maturation
D) regression

CHAPTER 16

1 A characteristic of causal-comparative research that distinguishes it from experimental research is that in

causal-comparative research
A) the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
B) one variable can be isolated as the cause for changes in other variables.
C) extraneous variables are statistically controlled.
D) existing groups are studied.

2 Which of the following research questions would almost certainly be studied with causal-comparative
research?
A) Do instructor-provided notes lead to higher achievement than student-constructed notes?
B) Are three-year-old boys more likely to exhibit aggressive behaviors than three-year-old girls?
C) Is mathematics achievement related to spatial reasoning aptitude?
D) What proportion of school district superintendents support school choice?

3 Which of the following is a method for controlling the subject characteristics threat in causal-comparative
research?
A) matching subjects in the groups
B) randomizing subjects to conditions
C) varying the baseline interval for each group
D) counterbalancing the groups

4 Which of the following is not a type of causal-comparative research?

A) exploration of effects caused by group membership
B) exploration of causes of group membership
C) exploration of the consequences of an intervention
D) exploration of factors underlying a set of variables

5 Causal-comparative research is a type of

 A) intervention research.
B) associational research.
C) descriptive research.
D) historical research.

6 The most commonly used method of statistical inference in causal-comparative studies is

A) the t-test.
B) discriminant analysis.
C) multiple regression.
D) factor analysis.

7 The primary threat to internal validity in causal-comparative studies is

A) subject characteristics.
B) implementation.
C) testing.
D) mortality.

8 In causal-comparative research, investigators attempt to determine

A) the changes in behavior an individual exhibits after exposure to an intervention or treatment of
some sort.
B) our understanding of important phenomena through large scale surveys.
C) the causes or consequences of differences that already exist between or among groups of
individuals.
D) prediction equations.

9 Which threat to internal validity is less in causal comparative than in experimental research?
A) location
B) attitudinal
C) data collector bias
D) subject characteristics

10 Which of the following is not a similarity between causal-comparative and correlational research?
A) They are examples of associational research.
B) They provide guidance for subsequent experimental studies.
C) They permit the manipulation of variables by the researcher.
D) They attempt to explain phenomena.

11 Which of the following is a step in causal-comparative research?

A) formulating the problem by identifying and defining the particular phenomena of interest, and then
considering possible causes for or consequences of these phenomena
B) providing guidance for subsequent experimental studies
C) identifying the changes in behavior an individual exhibits after exposure to an intervention or
treatment of some sort
D) exploring of our understanding of important phenomena through use of Factor Analysis.

12 What is one weakness of causal-comparative research?

A) It cannot provide guidance for subsequent experimental studies.
B) It allows for the exploration of effects caused by membership in a given group.
C) It allows for exploration of causes of group membership.
D) Its inability to manipulate the independent variable.

13 Which of the following is not one of the ways that researchers can control for an extraneous variable in
causal comparative research?
A) mechanical matching of subjects
B) finding or creating homogeneous subgroups
C) use a counterbalanced design
 D) statistical matching

14 One strategy that can greatly reduce the threat to external validity in causal comparative research is
A) statistical matching.
B) replicating the causal-comparative study.
C) matching subjects.
D) finding or creating homogeneous subgroups.

15 Which technique is not appropriate to analyze data in a causal-comparative study?

A) analysis of covariance
B) discriminant function analysis
C) t test for means
D) Pearson r

CHAPTER 17

1 Which of the following surveys is a cross-sectional survey?

A) a survey given to elementary school faculty in five school districts
B) a survey of a 1980 high school graduating class given in 1985, 1990, and 1995
C) a survey of ACLU lawyers given before and one year after a publicized civil rights case
D) a monthly survey about shopping tendencies given to ten shoppers over a one-year span

2 A researcher who uses follow-up surveys of a sample from a graduating class at 10 year intervals is
conducting a
A) trend study.
B) cohort study.
C) panel study.
D) census.

3 Suppose that a researcher obtains teacher and student attendance rates from every middle school in a state.
The unit of analysis is in this study is a
A) record of attendance.
B) student.
C) teacher and student.
D) school.

4 Which of the following survey questions is an example of a closed-ended question?

A) What resources do you most need in your foreign language laboratory?
B) Do you characterize the foreign language resources as inadequate, adequate, or excellent?
C) What is the primary funding source for major purchases in the foreign language laboratory?
D) Who are the two most knowledgeable people about foreign language curricula in the district?

5 Which of the following items is least likely to result in item nonresponse?

A) What is your occupation?
B) What is your weekly income?
C) How many movies have you seen in the past five years?
D) Have you ever smoked marijuana?

6 Which of the following is not one of the three major characteristics that most surveys possess?
A) Information is collected from a group of people in order to describe some aspect or characteristic
of the population of which that group is a part.
B) The main way in which the information is collected is through asking questions; the answers to
these questions by the members of the group constitute the data of the study.
C) The questions on the surveys must be very complex in order to get accurate data.
D) Information is collected from a sample, rather than from every member of the population.
7 Which of the following is not a longitudinal survey design?
A) trend study
B) census
C) cohort study
D) panel study

8 This survey collects information from a sample that has been drawn from a predetermined population, and
the information is collected at just one point in time.
A) trend study
B) cohort study
C) panel study
D) cross-sectional survey

9 When different samples are obtained at different times from a population whose members may change, this
is called a
A) census
B) panel study
C) trend study
D) cross-sectional survey

10 When the researcher surveys the same sample of individuals at different times during the course of the
survey, it is called a
A) trend study.
B) cross-sectional survey.
C) panel studies.
D) cohort study.

11 This study selects different samples from the same population whose members do not change over the
course of the study.
A) panel study
B) cohort study
C) trend study
D) census

12 Is it important to follow up non-responders in mail and telephone surveys?

A) No. Delayed returns would be less valid.
B) No. This will not result in more responses.
C) Yes. Lack of response is likely to bias results.
D) Yes. A large sample is required.

13 Which of the following is not one of the four practical standards that Floyd Fowler points out?
A) Is this a question that can be asked exactly the way it is written?
B) If this is a question that people refuse to answer, how will you influence them to answer it
anyway?
C) Is this a question that people can answer?
D) Is this a question that will mean the same thing to everyone?

14 Which of the following is not an advantage of closed-ended questions?

A) they enhance the consistency of response across respondents
B) they are easier and faster to tabulate
C) they are more popular with respondents
D) they allow more freedom in response

15 Which of the following is a disadvantage of open-ended questions?

A) they may limit breadth of responses
B) they take more time to construct
 C) they are harder to tabulate and synthesize
D) they require more questions to cover the research topic

CHAPTER 18

1 An important criticism of positivism relates to

A) validity of data.
B) ethics.
C) spirituality.
D) the meaning of reality.

2 "Process", in qualitative research, is seen as

A) too hard to study.
B) an unfortunate complication.
C) of major importance.
D) impossible to clarify.

3 In qualitative research, differences among types of purposive sample have to do with

A) representativeness.
B) timing during the study.
C) individual variability.
D) all of the above.

4 Data analysis in qualitative research, as contrasted with quantitative research, is generally

A) theatrical rather than applied.
B) applied rather than theatrical.
C) deductive rather than inductive.
D) inductive rather than deductive.

5 Qualitative researchers view changes in procedures during a study as

A) a weakness.
B) frustrating.
C) a good thing.
D) to be avoided.

6 Which of the following is not a general feature that characterizes most qualitative research?
A) inflexible design
B) naturalistic inquiry
C) holistic perspective
D) personal contact and insight

7 Which of the following is a philosophical assumption of qualitative researchers?

A) Facts and values are distinct from one another.
B) The proper design of research investigations will lead to accurate conclusions about the nature of
the world.
C) Values are an integral part of the research process.
D) Facts stand independent of the knower and can be known in an undistorted way.

8 Which of the following is a philosophical assumption of quantitative researchers?

A) The initial ambiguity that occurs in a study is desirable.
B) The purpose of educational research is to explain and be able to predict relationships. The ultimate
goal is the development of laws that make prediction possible.
C) Research investigations produce alternative visions of what the world is like.
D) It is impossible for the researcher to stand apart from the individuals he or she is studying.
9 In which approach to qualitative research do the researchers intend to generate a theory that is based on
data systematically gathered and analyzed?
A) phenomenology
B) biography
C) grounded theory
D) case study

10 Conclusions from qualitative research are

A) less certain than from quantitative research.
B) of little practical use.
C) seldom defensible.
D) of descriptive value only.

11 Researchers study just one individual, classroom, school, or program in which approach to qualitative
research?
A) case study
B) ethnography
C) biography
D) phenomenology

12 Researchers who study various reactions to or perceptions of a particular phenomenon take which approach
to qualitative research?
A) grounded
B) biography
C) phenomenology
D) case study

13 The study of a single individual and his or her experiences as told to the researcher or found in documents
and archival material describes which approach to qualitative research?
A) biography
B) case study
C) phenomenology
D) grounded

14 Which is not a criticism of quantitative research made by qualitative researchers?

A) is not creative.
B) oversimplifies.
C) treats people as objects.
D) can't see the forest for the trees.

15 Mixed-method designs
A) are almost impossible to carry out.
B) combine quantitative and qualitative methods.
C) are philosophically unjustified.
D) result in contradictory findings.

16 Suppose that a researcher studies one gifted student in order to better understand how this student's school
day differs from that of more typical students. This type of study is certainly a(n)
A) simulation.
B) case study.
C) ethnographic study.
D) naturalistic study.

CHAPTER 19

1 In which of the following roles is the researcher a covert observer?

 A) complete participant
B) participant-as-observer
C) observer-as-participant
D) complete observer

2 The main problem with simulations is

A) their artificiality.
B) poor acting.
C) people do not like to participate in them.
D) difficulty in arranging them.

3 In qualitative research, reliability and validity are

A) evaluated statistically.
B) largely a matter of judgment.
C) relatively unimportant.
D) assured by structuring situations.

4 The main problem with informal interviews is

A) getting comparable information from different respondents.
B) the excessive amount of time required.
C) the variety of topics that must be covered.
D) getting respondents to cooperate.

5 Which of the following best describes a qualitative researcher's approach to observer bias?
A) bias is eliminated and replaced with scientific objectivity
B) awareness of biases are noted in documentation
C) bias is countered by enlisting a researcher with the opposite bias
D) detection of bias leads the researcher to terminate the study

6 Which of the following is not one of the three main techniques that qualitative researchers use to collect
and analyze their data?
A) systematically removing data that does not support their hypothesis
B) observing people as they go about their daily activities and recording what they do
C) conducting in-depth interviews with people about their ideas, their opinions, and their experiences
D) analyzing documents or other forms of communication

7 When a researcher does not participate in the activity being observed but sits on the sidelines and watches,
he/she is a(n)
A) complete participant.
B) observer-as-participant.
C) nonparticipant observer.
D) participant-as-observer.

8 When a researcher's identity is not known to any of the individuals being observed and he/she interacts with
members of the group as naturally as possible, he/she is a(n)
A) complete participant.
B) nonparticipant observation.
C) observer-as-participant.
D) participant-as-observer.

9 Focus group interviews

A) are the same as brainstorming.
B) result in concensus.
C) are used to help the researcher formulate questions.
D) require that each person hear the responses of others.
10 Triangulation is a means of checking
A) sample representativeness.
B) reliability.
C) validity.
D) scoring agreement.

11 A "key-actor" is most likely to be

A) a politician.
B) a long time resident.
C) an executive.
D) a newsman.

12 Observer effect describes

A) when a researcher identifies herself as a researcher but make no pretense of actually being a
member of the group.
B) the effect the presence of an observer has on the behavior of those being observed.
C) when the researcher observes the activities of the group without in any way becoming a participant
in those activities. The subjects may or may not realize they are being observed.
D) when researchers do not participate in the activity being observed but sit on the sidelines and
watch.

13 Which is usually hardest for an interviewer?

A) not interrupting
B) not asking leading questions
C) establishing rapport
D) sticking to the topic

14 A limitation of all observational methods is

A) inability to get acceptable observer agreement.
B) inability to observe everything.
C) inability to get necessary permissions.
D) inability to make sense out of the information.

15 Which of the following is not a type of interview used in research?

A) structured
B) informal
C) retrospective
D) unstructured