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AP GRAMA/WARD SACHIVALAYAM GRAND TEST – 3

CATEGORGY POST I
MARKS : 150 No. of Questions: 150 Time : 150 Minutes (-)tive marks: 0.25

1. The ratio of efficiencies of A, B and C is 2 : 3 : 4. A of 2 : 3. Find the profit of C, when the annual profit is
and C are busy somewhere so they work in alternate Rs. 2400

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days whereas B worked Continuously. In this manner (a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 1200 (c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 1950
the work completed in 10 days. If they got 1200 Rs. as Directions (11-15): Study the following graphs carefully to
wages then what is the share of each? answer the questions that follow.

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(a) 200 Rs. 600 Rs. 400 Rs. Number of Candidates (in thousands) who qualified in an
(b) 400 Rs. 400 Rs. 400 Rs. exam in three different states in six different years
(c) 400 Rs. 600 Rs. 200 Rs. (d) None of these

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2. The speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/h. A boat
goes 72 km and back to its starting point in 18 hours.
Find the speed of stream?

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(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr
3. By selling an article for Rs. 72, there is a loss of 10%. ca
In order to gain 5%, its selling price should be
(a) Rs. 87 (b) Rs. 85 (c) Rs. 80 (d) Rs. 84
4. Rs. 500 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that
Rs. 16 more 2/5 of A’s share, Rs. 70 less than 3/4 of
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B’s share, and Rs. 4 less than 3/5 of C’s share are
equal. Find B’s share.
(a) Rs. 300 (b) Rs. 400 (c) Rs. 100 (d) Rs. 200
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5. A reduction of 20% in the price of Rice enables a

Purchase to obtain 8kg more Rice for Rs. 160. Then the
price per kg before reduction was
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(a) 5 per kg (b) 6 per kg 11. What was approximate percentage decrease in number
(c) 7 per kg (d) 8 per kg of candidates who qualified in the exam from State - Q
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6. The distance between two stations A and B is 450 km. in year 2007 as compared to the previous year?
A train P starts from A and Moves towards B at an (a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 60
average speed of 15 km/hr. Another train Q starts from 12. What was difference between the total number of
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B, 20 minutes earlier than the train and moves towards candidates who qualified in the exam from all the
A at an average speed of 20 km/hr. How far from A states together in the year 2006 and the total number of
will the two trains meet? candidates who qualified in the exam from State - P
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(a) 180 km (b) 320 km (c) 190 km (d) 260 km over all the years together?
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7. A man can row at a speed of 4 2 km/hr in still water. If (a) 100000 b) 130000 (c) 125000
he takes 2 times as long to row a distance upstream as (d) 110000
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to row the same distance in downstream, then, the 13. Total number of candidates who qualified in the exam
speed of stream (in km/hr) is in the year 2004 and 2005 together from state Q was
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 2.5 approximately what percentage of total number of
8. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 candidates who qualified in the exam from all the
years at 5 p.c.p.a is Rs. 100. Find the compound states together in the year 2008?
interest at the same rate and for the same time. (a) 61 (b) 65 (c) 79 (d) 52
(a) Rs. 102.50 (b) Rs. 103 14. What was the respective ratio between the number of
(c) Rs. 103.50 (d) Rs. 102.25 candidate who qualified in the exam from state - R in
9. The area of a rhombus having one side 10 cm and one the year 2008 and the number of candidates who
diagonal 12 cm is qualified in the exam from state - P in the year 2004?
(a) 48 cm² (b) 96 cm² (c) 144 cm² (d) 192 cm² (a) 11:10 (b) 9:11 (c) 11:7 (d) 11:9
10. A, B and C enter into a partnership, investing Rs. 6000. 15. If 40 per cent of the candidates who qualified in the
A invests Rs. 1000 and B and C in invests in the ratio exam from state- P in the year 2009 were females then
what was the sum of number of male candidates who
qualified from State - P in the year 2009 and the total
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exam from 23. The diagram represents the likes of children in a
state - Q in the year 2009? society.
(a) 1,11,000 (b) 1,01,000 (c) 93,000
(d) 1,21,000
16. If “S” denotes “multiplied by”, “V” denotes
“subtracted from”, “M” denotes “added to” and “L”
denotes “divided by”, then 7 V 42 M 56 L 8 S 5 = ?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 0
17. Seeta said, “Ram’s only brother is the father of my
son’s father”. How is Ram’s brother related to Seeta’s
son?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather
(c) Maternal Uncle (d) Paternal Uncle The difference between children who like leopard to
18. A travels 12 km towards north and then takes a left those who like tiger is

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turn and covers another 5 km. From there, he turns (a) 50 (b) 35 (c) 30 (d) 5
180° anticlockwise and travels 10 km further. What is 24. In the following question, two statements are given
the minimum distance between his initial and final each followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to

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position? consider the statements to be true even if they seem to
(a) 8 km (b) 13 km (c) 6 km (d) 12 km be at variance from commonly known facts. You have
19. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the to decide which of the given conclusions, if any,

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answer figures is the right image of the given figure? follows from the given statements.
Statements:
Some polynomials are linear equations.

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Some linear equations are quadratic.
Conclusions:
ca (I) some Polynomials are quadratic.
(II) some quadratic are Linear equations.
(a) Conclusion I follows (b) Conclusion II follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows (d) Both I and II follows
25. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the
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question figure?
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20. Identify the diagram that best represents the

relationship between the given classes.
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Brain, Cerebrum, Liver, Human body

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21. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown Directions (Q. No. 26-27) : In the following questions a
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below in the question figures. From the given answer
figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
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blank has been given in a sentence. And it is followed by
four options namely a, b, c and d. One of the options fills
up the blank. Choose the appropriate option.
26. She _______in the concert tomorrow evening

(a) has been playing (b) is playing

(c) has played (d) none of these
27. ___________ lunch we had at your marriage was
superb.
(a) a (b) the (c) an (d) No article
Direction (Q. no. 28) : In the following question a idiom is
given. And it is followed by four options namely a, b, c and
d. One of the options gives the meaning of the idiom.
22. Mohan, Ritika, Janvi, Priya and Riya are friends. Janvi Choose the appropriate option.
runs faster than Ritika but slower than Priya. Mohan is 28. To grease the palm
the slowest runner and Riya runs faster than Priya. (a) To bribe (b) To reject
Who runs the fastest among the five? (c) To maintain (d) To hold
(a) Priya (b) Riya (c) Ritika (d) Mohan

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 www.sakshieducation.com
Direction (Q. No. 29) : In the following a paragraph has
been jumbled. After keeping it in order attempt the
appropriate option that makes sense and keep the paragraph
in a proper order.
29. (A) He borrowed some money from his neighbor for
me
(B) However, he promised to get the money I needed
(C) Since I had no money with me, I decided to borrow
from my friend
(D) The electricity bill had to be paid immediately
(E) But, he had no money with him to lend me
(a) c d a b e (b) c e b a d
(c) a b c d e (d) d c e b a
Direction (Q. No. 30) : In the following question choose

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the error part. If there is no error choose option d as your
34.
answer.
30. She was(a)/ even blamed by her(b)/ children(c)/ No

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error(d).
Directions (31-33): In this section, you have one short
passage. After this passage, you will find several questions

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based on the passage. First, read Passage, and answer the
questions based on it.
Our home stood behind the railroad tracks. Its skimpy yard

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35.
was paved with black cinders. The only touch of green we
could see was far away, beyond the tracks over where the
white folks lived. But cinders were fine weapons. All you ca
had to do was crouch behind the brick pillars of a house
with your hands full of gritty ammunition, and the first
wooly black head you saw from behind another row of
pillars was your target. It was fun. One day, the gang to
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which I belonged found itself engaged in a war with the
white boys who lived beyond the tracks. As usual, we laid 36.
down our cinder barrage thinking this would wipe the white
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boys out. But they replied with a steady bombardment of

broken bottles. We retreated. During the retreat, a broken
milk bottle caught me behind the ear, opening a deep gash.
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The sight of blood pouring over my face completely

demoralized our ranks. My fellow combatants left me
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standing paralyzed in the center of the yard and scurried for

their houses. A kind neighbor saw me and rushed me to a
doctor.
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31. The locality, where the author lived, was

(a) behind a brick quarry (b) near a coal mine
(c) far away from where the whites lived 37. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?
(a) GB (b) KB (c) MB (d) TB
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(d) close to where the whites lived

32. The author used the cinders for 38. A UPS __
(a) harassing the white boys (b) cooking his food (a) limits damage caused by fluctuating levels of
electricity
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(c) building houses (d) laying them on the railroads

33. The weapons used by the whites in the gang fight
were
(a) as effective as the author’s
(b) less effective than the author’s
(c) more dangerous than the author’s
(d) as harmless as the author’s
Directions:
(b) provides battery backup for a limited time
(c) delivers electronic messages via a bus
(d) conducts a power-on self test, or POST
39. RAM is __________and ____
(a) Volatile, temporary (b) nonvolatile, Permanent
(c) Nonvolatile, temporary (d) Volatile, Permanent
40. In MICR, C stands for _______
(a) code (b) colour (c) computer (d) Character
41. PARAM was developed by ____
(a) C-DAC (b) IIT Kanpur
(c) BARC (d) IIT Delhi
42. The ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award’ is India’s highest
award in which of the following fields?
(a) Sport (b) Business (c) Science (d) Cinema

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43. Chandrayaan-2, India’s second mission towww.sakshieducation.com
the Moon 58. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than
will be launched by the launch vehicle_________ the other. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) PSLV-XL (b) GSLV-II (a) The brightness does not depend on resistance.
(c) GSLV-Mk III (d) RLV-TD (b) Both the bulbs have the same resistance.
44. The Lok Sabha passed the Central Universities (c) The brighter bulb has larger resistance.
(Amendment) Bill, 2019 to establish a central (d) The dimmer bulb has larger resistance.
university and a tribal university in __________. 59. A fluorescent tube is preferred to an electric bulb
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh because
(c) Punjab (d) Bihar (a) it has a larger light emitting surface.
45. With which country did India hold high-level talks in (b) voltage fluctuations do not affect it.
July 2019 to elevate bilateral cooperation in the field of (c) in a tube electrical energy is almost converted into
space, including assistance in India’s ‘Gaganyaan’ light.
mission? (d) None of these
(a) Japan (b) Russia (c) China (d) Indonesia 60. Consider the following parts of spectra:

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46. Which of the following is the first Holywood film to 1. Visible 2. Infrared 3. Ultraviolet 4. Microwave
cross the Rs. 300 crore mark in India? Which of the following is the correct sequence in
(a) Avengers : Infinity War (b) Captain Marvel which the wavelengths increase?

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(c) Avengers: Age of Ultron (d) Avengers: Endgame (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 b) 4, 1, 2, 3
47. ‘Game Changer’ is the autobiography of which of the (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
following cricketers? 61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

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(a) Shane Watson (b) Shahid Afridi from the codes given below:
(c) Lasith Malinga (d) Chris Gayle List-I List-II
48. Where was India’s first-of-its-kind ‘Voter Park’ A. Moderator 1. Uranium

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inaugurated in April 2019? B. Control rod 2. Graphite
(a) Jaipur (b) Noida C. Fuel rods 3. Boron
(c) Gurugram (d) Pune ca D. Coolant 4. Lead
49. Which of the following parties came victorious in the 5. Sodium
Lok Sabha 2019 elections? Codes:
(a) Congress (b) UPA (c) BJP (d) BSP ABCD
50. Longest serving Chief Minister of any state Pawan (a) 2 1 3 5 (b) 2 3 1 5
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Kumar Chamling lost after 25 years. He was the Chief (c) 3 2 1 5 (d) 3 4 1 2
Minister of which state? 62. The difference between a nuclear reactor and atomic
(a) Sikkim (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) Odisha bomb is that
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51. Who has been elected as the Prime Minister of (a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor
Thailand in June 2019? while in the atomic bomb there is a chain reaction.
(a) Thaksin Shinawatra (b) Somkid Jatusripitak (b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled.
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(c) Anupong Paochinda (d) Prayuth Chan-ocha (c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not
controlled.
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52. How many sustainable development goals are there

(a) 17 (b) 26 (c) 16 (d) 15 (d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while
53. How many sustainable development objectives are it takes place in nuclear reactor.
63. Consider the following statements about gene
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there
(a) 169 (b) 180 (c) 150 (d) 135 1. Word ‘Gene’ was given by Johanssen.
54. What’s is the other name for ‘World Commission on 2. Genes are situated on chromosomes.
Environment and Development”? 3. Genes located at different locus and having different
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(a) Brundtland commission (b) Javier Perez de cuellar expression are multiple alleles.
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b Which of the statements given above are true?
55. What is the other name for sustainable development (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
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goals (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) Millennium Development goals 64. Consider the following statements:
(b) Our common future (c) Our earth 1. Frogs can breathe by lungs as well as skin.
(d) None of the above 2. Gills are not present in any stage of lifespan of frogs.
56. What was the report name of brundtland commission Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Our common future (b) Millennium development (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) our earth (d) None of the above (c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. It is more comfortable to wear white cloths in summer 65. Consider the following statements:
because Assertion (A): In humans, female sex is determined by
(a) they reflect heat falling on them. XX-chromosomes.
(b) they radiate heat tansferred from the body. Reason (R): Male sex is determined by YY-
(c) they absorb perspiration. chromosomes.
(d) they are soothing to the eye. Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
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 (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not thewww.sakshieducation.com
correct 3. The IFCS Generation-I flight was first tested in
explanation of A. 2003.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true. 4. An artificial neural network is used in this control
66. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider system.
the following statements: Which of the following statement codes are correct?
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
blood is sent back through renal artery. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of these
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes 72. The term ‘Biocoenosis’ was proposed by
through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is a) Transley b) Carl Mobius
reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein. c) Warming d) None of the above
Which of the statements is/are correct? 73. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 a) Always upright b) May be upright or invented
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Always inverted d) None of the above
67. Consider the following statements: 74. Energy flow in ecosystem is

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Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the a) Unidirectional b) Bidirectional
frequency of urination. c) Multidirectional d) None of the above
Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of 75. An ecosystem must have continuous external source

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vasopressin in the body. of
Codes: a) minerals b) energy c) food d) All of the above
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 76. In which year the first Widow remarriage was

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explanation of A. performed by Veereshalingam
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (a) 1878 (b) 1879 (c) 1880 (d) 1881
explanation of A. 77. In which place people revolted against English against

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(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true. their forest policies in 1879
68. Consider the following as objectives of the New (a) Rekapalli (b) Nadigudem
Science and Technology Policy, and state which is/are ca (c) Chinturu (d) Sileru
correctly stated, with the help of codes given below: 78. Which organization took active part in organizing
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and Bipin Chandra Pal’s tour of Rajahmundry
knowledge resources. (a) Balabharati Samithi (b) Surabharathi Samithi
2. Development of innovative technologies (c) Youngmen’s association
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3. Development of systems and technologies for (d) Rajahmundry Students association
mitigation and management of naturalhazards. 79. Who among the following was the principal of the
4. Management of intellectual property. Rajahmundry Training college in 1907
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Codes: (a) Captain Pichard (b) Mark Hunter

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Taylor (d) Col Reid
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) all the four 80. Identify the person who was the president of the
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69. The earth’s satellite is kept moving in its orbit National College founded at Machilipatnam in 1910
It is due to the phenomenon of centripetal force (a) Nyapati Subbarao (b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah
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provided by (c) Challapalli Raja (d) Konda Venkatappaiah

(a) the rocket engine propelling the satellite 81. Which Newspaper strongly supported the Home Rule
(b) the gravitational attraction of the earth on the Movement in Andhra
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satellite (a) Andhra Matha (b) Bharata Matha

(c) the gravitational attraction of the sun on the satellite (c) Teja (d) Desha Matha
(d) the gravitational attraction of satellite on earth 82. Who among the following visited the Palnadu area in
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70. Multiple Independent Re-entry Vehicles (MIRVs) are July 1921 to study the situation arising out of agitation
used in Agni-V missile made by DRDO, consider the against forest laws
following statements in regard to MIRVs. (a) Vedam Venkatachari (b) Ramadas Pantulu
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(c) Unnava Lakshminarayana (d) Swamy Sitaram

1. Under it, each missile will be capable of carrying 2- 83. In the elections held to the Madras Legislative
10 separate nuclear warheads Assembly in 1920, how many seats were won by the
2. Under it, each warhead can be assigned to adifferent justice party
target. (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66
3. Under it, two or more warheads can be assigned to 84. Identify the person who was appointed as Dictator for
the same target. Andhra region to conduct selt Satyagraha
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Dandu Narayana Raju (b) Konda Venkatappaiah
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) K. Nagesware Rao (d) T. Prakasham
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 85. Who among the following wrote the Novel
71. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Asamarthuni Jeevitha Yatra’
Intelligent Flight Control System (IFCS): (a) N.G. Ranga (b) Sri Sri
1. It is developed by NASA (c) K. Linga Raju (d) T. Gopichand
2. It is used in NF-15B aircraft

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86. In which year the socialist party established www.sakshieducation.com
its Andhra (d) To explain law making authority of the country
Branch 98. With regard to officers of all India services, choose the
(a) 1930 (b) 1931 (c) 1932 (d) 1934 correct answer from the following
87. Who among the following from Guntur wrote series of
(a) A member of an all India Service can be dismissed
articles in Hindu paper “on the present position of the
or removed only by the Union government
Telugu people”
(a) Gurunadham (b) Sitarama Sastry (b) A member of an all India service can be dismissed
(c) Seshagiri (d) Rajagopal or removed by the state government also if he/se is
88. Which Telugu Newspaper commented “unless there is serving under that state
a separate government there is no protection for Telugu (c) In India, state government employees administer
People’s Culture” state laws only
(a) Desha Bhasha (b) Lokamanjari (d) Union government administer union laws through
(c) Desabhimani (d) Shasirekha its departments only
89. The President of the First Andhra Mahasabha held at
99. Relating to the Jammu and Kashmir, identify the

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Bapatla in 1913 opposed the idea of separate Andhra
wrong answer from the following
State. What is his name
(a) Nyapati Subba Rsao (b) B.N. Sharma (a) All the provisions of the constitution of India

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(c) Krishna Rao (d) Ramachandra Rao relating to the states in the first schedule are not
90. In which year B.N. Sharma introduced a resolution in applicable to J&K
the Central Legislative Assembly on Linguistic (b) J&K forms a part of the territory of India as defined

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reorganization of states in Art 1 of the constitution
(a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 1919 (d) 1920 (c) Through accession, the domain of India acquired
91. Who among the following opposed separate state for jurisdiction over the J&K with respect to subjects of

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Andhras once he became Chief Minister of Madras Defence, External Affairs and Communications
State in 1932
(d) Like other states of India in the case of J&K also
(a) P. Ramarayanin Garu (b) P. Subbarayan
residuary powers shall vest with parliament
(c) K.V. Reddy Naidu (d) Bobbili Raja
ca 100. Regarding the amendment of the constitution all
92. In which place in 1935, the second Rayalaseema
Mahasabha passed a resolution opposing separate following statements are correct, except
Andhra State (a) According to Article 368, parliament of India can
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(a) Kadapa (b) Kurnool amend any part of the constitution
(c) Tirupathi (d) Anantapur (b) Article 2 of the constitution empowered the
93. The agreement between Andhra and Rayalaseema parliament of India to admit new states into the Union
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leaders was made in 1937 at the residence of

(c) With reference to Article 2 or 3, the amendment of
Kasinathuni Nageshwar Rao known as Sribagh pact.
the provisions of FIRST and FOURTH schedule shall
Where is Sribagh
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not be deemed to be an amendment of the constitution

(a) Vijayawada (b) Guntur
for the purpose of Article 368
(c) Madras (d) Bangalore
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94. In 1948 which Commission, in its report opined that (d) The territories of the units of the federation may be
creation of linguistic states is a threat to unity and altered or re-distributed by the parliament without
integrity of the country intimation to the states
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(a) J.V.P. Report (b) Dhar Commission 101. Whit regards to fundamental rights, all statements
(c) Krishnamachary Commission below are correct, except
(d) Wanchoo Commission (a) Article 15 is for citizens only
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95. Who among the following worked with Gandhi for

sometime in Sabarmati Ashram
(a) Swamy sitaram
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(b) The right reserved for citizens are denied to the
aliens
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah
(c) Aliens are divided into friendly aliens and enemy

(c) Kaleshwar Rao (d) Potti Sriramulu

aliens
96. The person who got the highest majority in Presidential (d) Indian constitution shows no difference between
elections till now is friendly aliens and enemy aliens
(a) Jakir Hussain (b) Rakruddin Ali Ahmed 102. Which of the following articles of the Indian
(c) K.R. Narayanan (d) Shanker Dayal Sharma constitution explain about the citizenship?
97. The doctrine of “Paramountcy” is a legal principle: (a) Articles 5 to 8 (b) Articles 6 to 8
(a) To reconcile conflicting laws where both central (c) Articles 4 to 8 (d) Articles 3 to 8
government and provincial governments have the 103. Indian Parliament passes legislations subject to the
power to create laws in relation to the same matter following limitations and prohibitions
(b) To explain the law making authority of the (a) Constitution of UNO
government (b) Conventions of the country
(c) To provide law making authority to the central (c) Distribution of powers (d) Public opinion
government

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104. All statements below related to fundamental www.sakshieducation.com
rights are
correct except
(a) In India the power to impose limitations on
fundamental rights has been conferred upon the
supreme court
(b) Judiciary determines the reasonableness of the
restriction imposed by the legislature
(c) 44th amendment Act 1978 omitted Art 19 (1) and 31
(d) If anybody’s property is taken away by the
executive fiat with due authority of law or intervention
of a law, the aggrieved individual has no right to move
the supreme court under article 32
105. Which of the following is not the supreme court’s
(b) a ceiling of 3 per cent of GDP on fiscal deficit
during 2016-17 to 2019-20
(c) fiscal deficit of all states to be anchored at 3 percent
of the GSDP
(d) state governments be excluded from the operation
of National Savings Scheme (NSS) with effect from
1.4.2015
113. When we refer to national income, the underlying
measure is
(a) GDP at market prices (b) NNP at factor cost
(c) NDP at factor cost (d) GNP at market prices
114. The Supreme Court is currently hearing a case on the
discriminatory provisions of
(a) Hindu Personal Law (b) Uniform Civil Code

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evolution? (c) Special Marriage Act (d) Muslim Personal Law
115. The Bombay High Court has recently allowed the
(a) Basic structure (b) Public interest litigation entry of women into which religious Institution?

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(c) Removal of hand cuffs (a) Haji Ali Dargah (b) Shani Shingnapur Temple
(d) Exemptions to fundamental rights (c) Sabarimala Temple (d) Triambakeshwar Temple
116. A country with a crude birth rate of 44 and a crude
106. Which of the following programmes is not a wage

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death rate of 11 would have an annual rate of natural
employment programme of the government?
increase of
(a) MGNREGS (b) RLEGP
(a) 33 (b) 33% (c) 3.3% (d) 5.5%

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(c) NREP (d) PMRY
117. Which of the following groups of countries is
107. Which of the following government sponsored
arranged in descending order of area?
programmes provide food – based safety net
(a) Russia, Canada, China, U.S.A.
(a) PDS (b) ICDS (c) Mid-day meals programme
(d) All the given answers are correct
ca (b) Russia, U.S.A., Canada, China
(c) Russia, Canada, U.S.A., China
108. According to Economic Survey 2016-17, the ratio of
(d) Russia, China, U.S.A., Canada
public expenditure to GDP stands at approximately?
118. Which is the mountain between the black Sea and
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(a) 25 per cent (b) 28 per cent
Caspian Sea?
(c) 19 per cent
(a) Ural (b) Caucasus (c) Alps (d) Balkan
(d) None of the given answers are correct
119. Sierra Nevada is the name of
109. Which of the following is a component of internal
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(a) An animal of America

debt of the central government?
(b) A disease found in America
(a) market loans
(c) A fruit found in America
h

(b) small savings, deposits and provident funds

(d) A mountain in America
(c) reserve funds and deposits
120. Which of the following is not a coal filed?
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(d) borrowings from foreign countries and international

(a) Raniganj (b) Umaria (c) Mosabani (d) Korba
financial institutions
121. Which of the factors influence ocean currents?
110. Primary deficit is nothing but
I. Rotation of the Earth II. Air pressure and Wind
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(a) the difference between total government

III. Ocean water density IV. Revolution of the Earth
expenditure less government revenue and grants
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(b) the difference between revenue expenditure and
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
current revenue
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(c) I and IV (d) II, III and IV

(c) fiscal deficit less interest payments
122. Which of the following will never get the vertical rays
(d) none of the given answers are correct
of the sun?
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(a) Srinagar (b) Mumbai

(c) Chennai (d) Thiruvananthapuram
111. Under the FRBMN ACT, 2004, which of the
123. If the time of sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh is 6:00 am,
following is not mandatory to the central government
what will be the probable time of sunrise in
(a) to reduce fiscal deficit to 3 per cent of the GDP by
Saurashtra?
March, 2009
a) 6.30 am (b) 5.30 am (c) 8.00 am (d) 7.00 am
(b) to phase out the revenue deficit by March, 2009
124. The Radcliffe Line is the international border between
(c) to maintain transparency in fiscal situation and
(a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China
regulate direct borrowing from the RBI
(c) Indian and Bangladesh (d) India and Nepal
(d) to include the failure of the states in its own targets
125. What is Durand Line?
112. Which of the following is not a recommendation of
(a) Boundary line between Afghanistan and Pakistan
the 14th Finance Commission?
(b) Boundary line between India and Pakistan
(a) rationalization of tax structure and implementation
(c) Boundary line between India and China
of GST
(d) Boundary line between India and Burma

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126. India’s permanent research station Dakshin www.sakshieducation.com
Gangotri (d) date as determined by the union of India
is situated in 137. The legislative councils of AP and Telangana are
(a) Great Himalayas (b) Indian Ocean constituted as per the following article of the
(c) Antarctica (d) Arabian Sea constitution?
127. Which State of India touches the boundaries of the (a) 167 (b) 168 (c) 169 (d) 170
largest number of other States? 138. Which section AP reorganization Act, 2014 mentions
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar about continuation in force of article 371 D of the
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh constitution?
128. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh, (a) Section 96 (b) Section 97
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares (c) Section 98 (d) Section 99
boundaries with the maximum number of Indian 139. Which section of the AP reorganization Act, 2014
States? provides for constitution of an advisory committee on
(a) Andhra Pradesh only (b) Karnataka Only allocation of employees between both states?
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka (a) Section 76 (b) Section 78

m
(d) Each of Tamil Nadu & Kerala (c) Section 80 (d) Section 82
129. Duncan Pass is located between 140. On 27 July 2019, GST council decided to reduce GST
(a) South and Little Andaman rate on electric vehicles to 5 percent from the existing

co
(b) North and South Andaman (a) 28 percent (b) 24 percent
(c) North and Middle Andaman (c) 32 percent (d) 12 percent
(d) Andaman and Nicobar 141. Asian Development Bank Sanctioned Rs 1,925 crore

n.
130. Which are the twin cities? project for up-gradation of power generation and
(a) Delhi and Faridabad (b) Mumbai and Pune distribution in …?
(c) Hyderabad and Secunderabad (a) Tripura (b) Andhrapradesh

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(d) Bangalore and Mysore (c) Goa (d) West Bengal
131. Which of the factors influence ocean currents? 142. Aaykar Diwas celebrated on….?
I. Rotation of the Earth II. Air pressure and Wind ca (a) 24 July (b) 14 July
III. Ocean water density (c) 17 June (d) 4 sep
IV. Revolution of the Earth 143. B S Yediyurappa sworn in as Chief Minister of ___?
Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) Puducherry (d) Tamil nadu
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(c) I and IV (d) II, III and IV 144. In the recent FIFA rankings released , India got which
132. Which of the following will never get the vertical rays rank?
of the sun? (a) 94 (b) 112 (c) 1 (d) 103
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(a) Srinagar (b) Mumbai 145. International Cricket Council(ICC) suspended which
(c) Chennai (d) Thiruvananthapuram nation Cricket with immediate effect over violation of
133. If the time of sunrise in Arunachal Pradesh is 6:00 am, its norms which doesn’t allow any government
h

what will be the probable time of sunrise in intervention?

Saurashtra? (a) Pakistan (b) Kenya
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(a) 6.30 am (b) 5.30 am (c) Namibia (d) Zimbabwe

(c) 8.00 am (d) 7.00 am 146. National Broadcasting day is observed on….?
134. The Radcliffe Line is the international border between (a) 18 July (b) 27 July (c) 31 July (d) 23 July
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(a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China 147. Who won People’s Choice Prize at Boston
(c) Indian and Bangladesh (d) India and Nepal International Sand Art championship in the USA?
135. What is Durand Line? (a) Anton Aditya (b) Ramulu Pandey
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(a) Boundary line between Afghanistan and Pakistan (c) Sudarsan Pattnaik (d) Kailash Chandry
(b) Boundary line between India and Pakistan 148. India and which nation carry out military exercise
(c) Boundary line between India and China ‘Hand in Hand’ this year?
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(d) Boundary line between India and Burma
136. The duration of 5 years of the present Andhra Pradesh
Assembly would be counted from the
(a) Date of commencement of the assembly of the
united state
(b) Appointed day as specified in the reorganization act
(c) day on which reorganization act was passed
(a) USA (b) UK (c) Myanmar (d) China
149. Which state got first rank in the implementation of
Pradhanmantri Suraksha Beema Yojana as per the
recent reports released?
(a) Goa (b) Odisha (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Haryana
150. Which nation won the Africa Cup of Nations for the
second time?
(a) South Africa (b) Namibia (c) Algebra (d) Mali

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AP GRAMA/WARD SACHIVALAYAM GRAND TEST –3ANSWER KEY
CATEGORY POST I

1 a 21 b 41 a 61 b 81 d 101 d 121 b 141 a

2 a 22 b 42 d 62 b 82 c 102 a 122 a 142 a
3 d 23 b 43 c 63 a 83 a 103 c 123 c 143 b
4 d 24 b 44 b 64 a 84 b 104 a 124 a 144 d
5 a 25 c 45 b 65 c 85 d 105 d 125 a 145 d
6 c 26 b 46 d 66 b 86 d 106 d 126 c 146 d
7 b 27 b 47 b 67 c 87 a 107 d 127 d 147 c

m
8 a 28 a 48 c 68 d 88 c 108 b 128 c 148 d
9 b 29 d 49 c 69 b 89 b 109 a 129 a 149 c

co
10 b 30 b 50 a 70 d 90 b 110 c 130 c 150 c
11 a 31 c 51 d 71 c 91 d 111 d 131 b
12 d 32 a 52 a 72 b 92 a 112 a 132 a

n.
13 d 33 c 53 a 73 a 93 c 113 b 133 c
14 c 34 b 54 a 74 a 94 b 114 d 134 a
15 a 35 c 55 a 75 b 95 d 115 a 135 a

io
16 d 36 b 56 a 76 d 96 c 116 c 136 a
17 b 37 d 57 a 77 c 97 a 117 c 137 c

at
18 b 38 b 58 d 78 a 98 a 118 b 138 b
19 c 39 a 59 c 79 b 99 d 119 d 139 c
20 d 40 d 60 dc 80 d 100 d 120 c 140 d
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