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Question 1 The system charactised by the equation y(t) = ax(t) + b is

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. non of these

b. linear if b < 0

c. incrementally linear system

d. linear if b > 0

Question 2 3π
If x[n] = sin n , the frequency spectrum of the signal is
5
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. periodic with N=4
b. periodic with N=5

c. none of the options

d. aperiodic

Question 3 The impulse response of a LTI system is h(t) = 2δ(t + 5). If the input to the system is
Not yet answered x(t) = δ(t − 5), then the output of the system would be
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Select one:
a. y(t) = 2δ(t)

b. y(t) = 2δ(t + 5)

c. y(t) = 2δ(t − 5)

d. y(t) = δ(t)
Question 4
A linear time invariant system is defined as .. If then the
Not yet answered eigen value of the system is
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Select one:
a.

b.

c.

d.

Question 5
The signal x(t) = t is a
Not yet answered

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Select one:
a. Finite Energy and Finite Power Signal
b. Infinite Energy and Finite Power Signal

c. Infinite Energy and Infinite Power Signal

d. Finite Energy and Finite Power Signal

Question 6
If the impulse response of LTI system is h(t) = e−t u(t), Then the frequency response of
Not yet answered the system is
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Select one:
a.

b.

d.
Question 7 The Fourier transform of a signal g(t) is G(jω). If g(t) is real and odd the G(jω) is
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. imaginary
b. real and non negative

c. real

d. complex

Question 8 The continuous time system defined as y(t) = x(2 − t) is

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Select one:
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a. linear and time variant
b. non linear and time variant

c. linear and time invariant

d. non linear and time invariant

Question 9

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 Select one:

a. 0

b. δ(t)

c.

d. 1

Question 10 The impulse response of the system is h(t) = e−t u(t), then the system is
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. noncausal and memoryless
b. causal and has memory

c. noncausal and has memory

d. causal and memoryless

Question 11
The impulse response of a system is h[n] = anu[n]. The condition for the system to
Not yet answered be BIBO stable is
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Select one:
a.

b. a is real and postive

c. a is real and negative

d.

Question 12
The LTI system is defined as + v ( ) = v ( t). The eigen value of the system at
Not yet answered
ωo = 1rad/s is
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Select one:

d. 1 +

Question 13
The Fourier transform of a rectangular pulse is
Not yet answered

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Select one:
a. triangular pulse
b. sinc function

c. impulse
d. another rectangular pulse
Question 14
the
Not yet answered two signals g(t) = x(t)y(t) is
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Select one:
a. 5
b. 0

c. 25
d. 10

Question 15 The discrete time signal is is

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 Select one:

a. periodic with N=8
b. periodic with N=3

c. aperiodic
d. periodic with N=8/3

Question 16 If then
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a.
b.

c.

d.
Question 17
The y(t) = x(t − 3) δ(t), then y(t) is
Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Select one:
a.

b. x(t − 3)

c. δ(t)

d.

Question 18 A continuous time system is said to be time invariant, if

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Select one:
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a. phase shift in input creates the same phase shift in output
b. output is 1 for all t

c. it has a constant output for all t

d. time shift in input creates the same time shift in output

Question 19 The impulse response of the system described by the differential equation
d2y
Not yet answered + ( ) = t( ) will be
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Select one:
a. a constant
b. a undamped sinusoid

c. impulse function
d. exponentially decaying function
Question 20
A discrete time signal is real valued and periodic with N=5 and has the Fourier series
Not yet answered
coefficients ao = 2 and a2 = 2e . The coefficients and ao are
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Select one:
a. e 6 and

b. e 6 and

c. and

d. a 6 and a

Question 21
The input output relationship of a system is given as + v ( ) = v ( t). The
Not yet answered
system is
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Select one:
a. causal and stable
b. non causal and stable

c. non causal and unstable

d. causal and unstable

Question 22 The signal x(t) = sin(ωt) has

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. infinite energy and infinite power

b. finite energy and finite power

c. infinite energy and finite power

d. finite energy and infinite power

Question 23 The maximum frequency of a continuous time signal is 500 Hz. What is the minimum
Not yet answered sampling frequency required for discrete processing and unique reconstruction of the
signal?
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Select one:
a. 250
b. 500

c. 1000
d. 2000

Question 24 Convolution is used to find

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. Time response of a LTI system

b. Frequency response of a system

c. The impulse response of an LTI system

d. The phase response of a LTI system

Question 25
The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system is the unit step function. For
Not yet answered t > 0, the response of the system to an excitation e−t u(t) will be given by
Marked out of 1.00
Select one:
a. e−t u(t)

b. e−t

c. (1 − e−t )

d.
Question 26
The frequency content present in the signal is X(ω) = δ(ω − ωo). The time domain
Not yet answered signal x(t) is given by
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Select one:
a.
δ(t − to)

b.

c.

d. δ(t + to)

Question 27
If then is
Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Select one:
a. 1
b. 0

c. 2
d. 4

Question 28
The Fourier transform of the signal x(t) is X(jω). X(jω) = 1. x(t) is
Not yet answered

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Select one:
a. sinusoidal function
b. impulse function

c. complex exponential function

d. 1
Question 29 Given a unit step function u(t), its time derivative
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Select one:
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a. Unit ramp signal
b. sine function

c. Another step function

d. Unit impulse

Question 30 If a continuous time signal x(t) is transformed into x(2t + 2), then the signal will be
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. linearly stretched and delayed in time
b. linearly compressed and delayed in time

c. linearly compressed and advanced in time

d. linearly stretched and delayed in time

Question 31 The Fourier transform of is

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. a constant
b. 1

c. zero

d. impulse function

Question 32 sin(ω)
The Fourier transform of a signal is given by X(jω) = . The signal x(t) is
Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 Select one:

a. discrete and aperiodic
b. discrete and periodic
c. continuous and aperiodic

d. continuous and periodic

Question 33
The impulse response of a LTI system is h(t) = δ(t − t 0) . For any input x(t) the
Not yet answered output will be
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Select one:
a. x(t − t0)

b. δ(t − t0)

c. δ(t)

d. y(t − t0)

Question 34 Which condition determines the causality of the continuous time LTI system?
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Select one:
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a. h(t) = δ(t)

b. h(t) = 0, t < 0

c. h(t) = u(t)
d. h(t) = 0, t > 0

Question 35 The discrete time signal is

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. periodic with fundamental period 1

b. periodic with fundamental period 3

c. periodic with fundamental period 2

d. aperiodic
Question 36 Antialiasing filter is a
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Select one:
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a. high pass digital filter
b. low pass analog filter

c. low pass digital filter

d. high pass analog filter

Question 37 The fundamental frequency of the continuous time signal is

Not yet answered

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Select one:
a. 5/6

b. 1/3

c. 1/6
d. 6

Question 38
The number of frequencies which can be present in the continuous time aperiodic
Not yet answered signal is
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Select one:
a. none of the options
b. Uncountably infinite

c. countably infinite
d. finite
Question 39
The ∫ δ(t + 2)dt is
Not yet answered −∞
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Select one:
a. u(t − 2)

d. u(t + 2)

Question 40 If x(t) has the Fourier series coefficient of ak , a time shift in the signal will create a
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. magnitude change in the fourier series coefficients

b. phase shift in the fourier series coefficients

c. no change in the fourier series coefficients

d. time shift in the fourier series coefficients

Question 41 The Fourier transform of a signal g(t) is G(jω). If g(t) is real and even the G(jω) is
Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. complex
b. imaginary

c. real and non negative

d. real
Question 42 If a discrete time signal that is real, odd with period N = 7 has the fourier coefficient
Not yet answered a8 = j, then
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Select one:
a. a1 = 1 and a−1 = −j

b. a1 = 1 and a−1 = j

c.

d.

Question 43 ∞
The area under the curve ∫ δ(t)dt is
Not yet answered

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Select one:
a. 0

b.

c. 1
d. undefined

Question 44 A ideal low pass filter

Not yet answered
Select one:
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a. can be realized by the RC circuit as the impulse response is non linear
b. can be realized by RC Circuit as the impulse response is causal

c. cannot be realized by RC Circuit as the impulse response is non linear

d. cannot be realized by RC Circuit as the impulse response is non causal
Question 45
If , then the number of aliases of in the range of k from 10 to 10
Not yet answered
is
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Select one:
a. 4
b. 8

c. 2
d. 0

Question 46 d2y ( t ) dy ( t )
A system is characterised by the differential equation : +5 + 6y = x(t). The
dt2 dt
Not yet answered
system is
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Select one:
a. Linear and unstable
b. nonlinear and unstable

c. Linear and Stable

d. nonlinear and stable

Question 47
If is real, odd and has the fourier series coefficient
Not yet answered
, then is
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Select one:

a.

b.

c.

d.
 Select one:
Question 48
The continuous
a. periodic and odd time signal is
Not yet answered
b. periodic and even
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c. periodic with fundamental frequency = 2
d. aperiodic

Question 49

Not yet answered

If . The number of unique discrete complex exponentials

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in the inifinite set, where k is an interger between

Select one:
a. N
b.

c. N1

d. 1

Question 50
The Fourier transform of a function is .
Not yet answered
The Fourier transform of will be
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Select one:

a.

b.

c. none of these

d.
a. An SCR is made up of silicon because
a. silicon has large leakage current than germanium
b. silicon has small leakage current than germanium
c. silicon has small leakage voltage than germanium
d. silicon has large leakage voltage than germanium

b. Voltage commutation circuit can be converted into a current commutation by

interchanging the positions of
 a. Diode and capacitor
b. Capacitor and SCR
c. Inductor and capacitor
d. Capacitor and load

c. A full wave rectifier with resistive load does not produce

a. Second harmonic
b. Third harmonic
c. Fifth harmonic
d. Seventh harmonic

d. Transformer utilization factor is a measure of the merit of a rectifier circuit. It is the ratio
of
a. AC input power to the transformer volt - amp rating required by secondary
b. AC input power to the transformer volt - amp rating required by primary
c. DC output power to the transformer volt - amp rating required by secondary
d. DC output power to the transformer volt - amp rating required by primary

e. In a 3 phase CSI, if the required line output voltages are balanced and 120 degree out of
phase, then the chopping angles are used to eliminate only the harmonics at frequencies
a. 5
b. 7
c. 11
d. All of these

f. In a 3 phase VSI SPWM to use a single carrier signal and preserve the features of PWM
technique, the normalized carrier frequency should be
a. Multiple of two
b. Odd multiple of three
c. Odd multiple of five
d. Odd multiple of seven

g. A DC to DC chopper operates from a 48 V battery source into a resistive load of 24Ohm.

The frequency of the chopper is set to 250Hz. When chopper on-time is 1 ms the load power
is
• 6W
• 12W
c) 24W
d) 48W
 h. The control method used for PWM DC - DC converter is
a. Voltage mode control
b. Current mode control
c. Hysteric control
d. All of these

i. In sinusoidal pulse modulation, used in PWM inverters amplitude and frequency for
triangular carrier and sinusoidal reference signals are respectively 5V, 1kHz and 1V, 50 Hz.
If zeros of the triangular carrier and reference sinusoid coincide, then the modulation index
and order of significant harmonics are respectively
a) 0.2, 9 and 11 b)
0.4, 9 and 11
c) 0.2, 17 and 19
d) None of these

j. MOSFET is a controlled device.

• current
b) voltage
c. power
d. None of these

k. The softness factor for soft recovery and fast recovery diodes are respectively
a. 1, >1 b) <1,1 c) 1,1 d) 1, <1

l. The conduction losses in IGBT is

a. More than that of MOSFET b. Lower
than that of MOSFET
c. Equal to that of MOSFET
d. Equal to that of BJT

m. A single phase fully controlled thyristor bridge ac-dc converter is operating at a firing
angle of 25 degree, and an overlap angle 10 degree with constant dc output current of 20A.
The fundamental power factor (displacement factor) at input ac mains is (a) 0.78
(b) 0.827
(c) 0.866
(d) 0.9

n. Very large values of modulation index (greater than 3.24) lead to

a) Square AC output voltage
b. Sine AC output voltage
c. Triangular AC output voltage
d. Trapezoidal AC output voltage
 o. In a 3 phase VSI SPWM to use a single carrier signal and preserve the features of PWM
technique, the normalized carrier frequency should be
a) Multiple of two b) Odd
multiple of three
c. Odd multiple of five
d. Odd multiple of seven

p. The switching function of semiconductor devices can be characterized with

a. Duty ratio only
b. Frequency only
c. Duty ratio and frequency
d) Duty ratio, frequency and time delay

q. A converter which can operate in both 3-phase and 6-phase modes is a

a) 6 phase semiconverter b) 6 phase full converter
c) 3 phase semiconverter d) 3 phase full converter

r. In a 3 phase semiconverter, for firing angle equal to 120° and extinction angle equal to
110°, freewheeling diode conducts for
a) 30° b) 30° c)50° d)70°

s. In DC choppers, the nature of input current (continuous or discontinuous) waveform

depends on
a) power rating alone b) duty ratio and power ratingb

c) voltage rating alone d) none of the above

t. In single pulse modulation of PWM inverters fifth harmonic can be eliminated if pulse
width is equal to
a) 30° b) 72° c) 36° d) 108°

u. The phase angle of gate signal in TRIAC can be shifted by using

a. A capacitor
b. A variable resistor
c. An inductor
d. Only (a) and (b)

v. Reverse recovery current in a power diode depends upon

a) Forward field current
b. Storage charge
c. Temperature
d. PIV

w. In a 3 phase bridge rectifier the ripple frequency at the output is

a. Equal to the input frequency
b. Twice the input frequency
c. Three times the input frequency
d. Six times the input frequency
 x. In a voltage source inverter, the nature of load voltage waveform is
• always sinusoidal
• independent of load
• always triangular
• none of the above

y. The MOSFET switch in its ON-state may be considered equivalent to

a) resistor b) inductor c) capacitor d) battery

z. A freewheeling diode is placed across the DC load

• to prevent reversal of load voltage
• to permit transfer of load current away from the source
• both (a) and (b)
• None of the above

aa. In a 3-phase semiconverter, for firing angles less than or equal to 60°, free wheeling
diode conducts for
a) 30° b) 60° c)90° d) 0°

bb. In a thyristor DC chopper, which type of commutation results in best performance?

a. voltage commutation
b. current commutation
c. load commutation
d. supply commutation

cc. When polyphase choppers are used, the output ripple

a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) has low frequency

dd. The single pulse modulation of PWM inverters, third harmonic can be eliminated if pulse
width is equal to
a) 30° b) 60° c) 120° d) None of these

ee. In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to holding current is

a) 0.4 b) 1.0 c) 2.5 d) 6.0

ff. The operating frequency of a power MOSFET is higher than a power BJT because
a) it is a majority carrier device b) it has an insulated gate
c) drift layer is absent in it d) its gain is infinite
 gg. A single phase full bridge diode rectifier delivers a load current of 10A, which is ripple
free. Average and rms values of load currents are respectively
a) 10 A, 7.07 A
b) 5 A, 10 A c) 5 A,
7.07 A d) 7.07 A, 5
A

hh. For continuous conduction, in a single-phase full converter each pair of SCRs conducts
for
a) (Π-α) radians b) Π- c) α-radians d) (Π+α) radians
radians
ii. The frequency of the ripple in the output voltage of a 3-phase semiconverter depends
upon
a. firing angle and load resistance
b. firing angle and supply frequency
c. firing angle and load inductance
d. only on load circuit parameters

jj. In DC choppers, per unit ripple is maximum when duty cycle α is

a) 0.2 b) 0.5 c) 0.7 d) 0.8

kk. The efficiency of the chopper can be expected in the range

a) 50-55% b) 65-72% c) 82-87% d) 92-99%

ll.A single phase voltage source square wave inverter feeds pure inductive load. The
waveform of the load current will be
a) sinusoidal b) rectangular c) trapezoidal d) triangular

mm. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For the constant source current,
the voltage across the capacitor is
a) Square wave b) triangular wave c) step function d) none of these

nn. Turn-off time of a thyristor effects its

a) operating voltage b) operating frequency
c) overload capacity d) thermal behaviour

oo. A thyristor can be termed as

a) DC switch b) AC switch c) either (a) or (b) d) square wave switch

pp. When a series LC circuit is connected to a DC supply of ‘V’ volts through a thyristor,
then the peak current through thyristor is
a)
b)
c)
d)

qq. An IGBT has the features of

a. power MOSFET and power BJT
b. power diode and power MOSFET
c. SCR
d. none of the above

rr. A fully controlled bridge converter is feeding an RLE load. For some circuit conditions
firing angle is 47°. If connections of battery are reversed, the firing angle is likely to be
a) 47°
b) less than 47° c)
more than 47°
d) either more or less than 47°

ss. A 3 phase bridge inverter is fed by 400 V battery. The load is star connected and has a
resistance of 10 Ω per phase. The peak value of thyristor current is
a) 400/10 A b)
400/15 A c)
400/20 A d)
400/30 A

tt. The voltage total harmonic distortion (THD) in a conventional single phase full bridge
inverter without filter will be
a) 25 %
b) 48.34 % (correct answer) c)
33.35%
d) None of these

uu. A DC chopper is fed from 100V DC. Its load voltage consists of rectangular pulses of
duration 1msec in an overall cycle time of 3 msec. The average output voltage and ripple
factor for this chopper are respectively:
a) 25V, 1
b) 50V, 1
c) 33.33, 1.5
d) None of these

vv. The effect of the source inductance on the performance of the single-phase and three
phase full converters is to
a. reduce the ripples in the load current
b. make discontinuous current as continuous
c. reduce the output voltage
d. increase the load voltage

ww. The temperature coefficient of resistivity of an IGBT is

a. positive
b. negative
c. flat
xx. SCR is a
a. voltage controlled device
b. current controlled device
c. frequency controlled device
d. none of these

Comprehensive examination
Measurements and Instrumentation

1. A wattmeter is connected as shown in Figure 1. The wattmeter reads.

Figure 1
(A) Zero always
(B) Total power consumed by Z1 and Z2
(C) Power consumed by Z1
(D) Power consumed by Z2

2. An ammeter has a current range of 0-5 A, and its internal resistance is 0.2 Ω. In order
to change the range to 0-25 A, we need to add a resistance of

(A) 0.8 Ω in series with the meter

(B) 1.0 Ω in series with the meter
(C) 0.04 Ω in parallel with the meter
(D) 0.05 Ω in parallel with the meter

3. The Maxwell’s bridge shown in the Figure 2 is at balance. The parameters of the
inductive coil are.
 Figure 2
(A) R = R2R3/R4, L = C4R2R3
(B) L = R2R3/R4,R = C4R2R3
 (C) R = R4/R2R3, L = 1/(C4R2R3) (D) L =
R4/R2R3,R = 1/(C4R2R3)

4. A bridge circuit is shown in the Figure 3 below. Which one of the sequence given
below is most suitable for balancing the bridge ?

Figure 3

(A) First adjust R4, and then adjust R1

(B) First adjust R2, and then adjust R3
(C) First adjust R2, and then adjust R4
(D) First adjust R4, and then adjust R2

5. The simultaneous application of signals x(t) and y(t) to the horizontal and vertical
plates, respectively, of an oscilloscope, produces a vertical figure-of-8 display. If P
and Q are constants and x(t) = Psin(4t + 30c), then y(t) is equal to

(A) Qsin(4t − 30c)

(B) Qsin(2t + 15c)
(C) Qsin(8t + 60c)
(D) Qsin(4t + 30c)

6. A dc potentiometer is designed to measure up to about 2 V with a slide wire of 800

mm. A standard cell of emf 1.18 V obtains balance at 600 mm. A test cell is seen to
obtain balance at 680 mm. The emf of the test cell is
(A) 1.00 V (B)
1.34 V
(C) 1.50 V
(D) 1.70 V

7. The voltage-flux adjustment of a certain 1-phase 220 V induction watt-hour meter is

altered so that the phase angle between the applied voltage and the flux due to it is
 85c(instead of 90c). The errors introduced in the reading of this meter when the current is 5 A at power factor
of unity and 0.5 lagging are respectively.

(A) 3.8 mW, 77.4 mW

(B) −3.8 mW, −77.4 mW
(C) −4.2 W, −85.1 W
(D) 4.2 W, 85.1 W

8. A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100Ω. It is to be converted to a 1 A ammeter.

The value of shunt resistance is
A) 0.001 Ω
B) 0.1001 Ω C)
100000 Ω
D) 100 Ω

9. Which of the following voltmeters would you use for measuring voltage across 20 kΩ
resistance?
a. Voltmeter having a resistance of 5 kΩ
b. Voltmeter having a sensitivity of 1 kW/V
C) Voltmeter having sensitivity of 10 kW/V
D) No sensitivity

10. A single phase energy meter has the rating 1200 resolutions/ kWh. If a 500 W electric
gadget is used for 4 hours, the energy meter will make

a. 1200 revolutions
b. 1800 revolutions
c. 2100 revolutions

D) 2400 revolutions

11. A piezoelectric force transducer has a charge sensitivity of 20 pC/N. It is connected to

a charge amplifier and overall gain of transducer and amplifier is 50 mV/N. The gain
of amplifier is
a. 1 mV/pC
b. 1.5 mV/pC
C) 2.5 mV/pC
D) 4 mV/pC
12. A digital voltmeter has a read out range from 0 to 999 counts. If the full scale reading
is 9.999 V, the resolution is
A) 1 V B)
0.01 V
c. 1 mV
d. 1 μV

13. A digital frequency counter can be converted to DVM by addition of a suitable

a. voltage controlled oscillator
b. D/A converter
c. power amplifier
D) operational amplifier

14. LED, LCD, CRT are the names related to different types of -

a. Monitor
b. Printer
c. Sound System
d. Semiconducter

15. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. A typical LED has an operating voltage of about 0.7 V

b. The light output of an LED is approximately proportional to the current passing
through it
c. The light output of an LED is approximately proportional to the voltage across it
d. Two sheets of conducting material separated by a layer of insulating dielectric

16. If 2 meters x and y requires 40mA and 50mA of current respectively, to give full scale
deflection then,

a. x is more sensitive

b. y is more sensitive

c. both are equally sensitive

d. data insufficient
17. For eliminating the effect of earth capacitance from the bridge network we use

A) wagner's earthing device

b. high voltage at low frequency

c. low voltage at high frequency

d. campbell-maxwell device

18. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjuction with

a. potential transformers

b. power transformers

C) current transformers
D) either of the above

19. The pressure coil of wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current
coil when

a. load impedance is high

b. load voltage is low

c. supply voltage is low

d. none of the above

20. The sensitivity factor of strain gauge is normally of the order of

A) 1 to 1.5 B)

1.5 to 2

c. 0.5 to 1

d. 5 to 10

21. Piezo electric transducers are

a. Passive transducer
 b. Inverse transducer

c. Digital transducer

d. Pulse transducer

22. The application of LVDT is

a. Joint motion

b. Finger movement

C) Limb movement

D) Heart wall motion

23. Capacitive transducers are normally employed for measurements

A) Static B)

Dynamic

c. Limb movement

d. Heart wall motion

24. If the two input waveforms of equal amplitude and 90 degree phase difference is
applied to the CRO then the Lissajous patterns obtained will be

A. Straight line tilted at 45 degree with respect to X-axis B. Circle

c. Ellipse
d. Vertical straight line

25. The Wien’s bridges is suitable for the measurement of frequency of the range of

A. Less than 100 Hz B. 100

Hz to 100 kHz
c. 1 kHz to 100 MHz
d. More than 100 MHz

26. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to the full scale deviation of the
instrument is called :
a. Static sensitivity
 b. Accuracy
c. Linearity
d. Precision
27. A 150V moving iron voltmeter of accuracy class 1.0 reads 75V when used in a circuit
under standard conditions. The maximum possible percentage error in the reading is
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 4.0
28. Hay’s bridge is suitable for the measurement of
A. Inductances with Q>10
b. Inductances with Q < 10
c. Capacitors with high dissipation factor
d. Capacitors with low dissipation factor
29. Two voltmeters have the same range 0-400V. The internal impedance are 30,000
Ohms and 20,000 Ohms. If they are connected in series and 600V be applied across
them, the readings are
e. 360V and 240V
f. 300V each
g. 400V and 200V
h. One of the meters out of the range and other 100V.
30. If a voltmeter is connected like an ammeter in series to the load
e. The measured reading will be too high
f. Almost no current will flow in the circuit.
g. The meter will burn.
h. An instantaneously high current will flow.
31. The most commonly used null deflector in a power frequency AC bridge is a
A. Vibration galvanometer
b. D’Arsanval Galvanometer
c. Ballistic Galvanometer
d. Tachometer
32. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
e. Ammeters
f. Voltmeters
g. Wattmeters
h. Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
33. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial
installations are
e. mercury motor meters
f. commutator motor meters
g. induction type single phase energy meters
h. all of the above
34. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
d. electrostatic instrument
 e. thermocouple instrument
C. moving iron instrument
D. electrodynamic instrument
35. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are
A. induction
b. moving coil or iron
c. rectifier
d. electrostatic
36. Considering cost of instruments, which is a better choice, active or passive?
a. Active instruments
b. Passive instruments
c. Cost of both active and passive instruments are approximately same
d. None of these
37. The accuracy of the deflection type instruments and of the null type instruments
depends on
a. Linearity, calibration of spring
b. Calibration of spring, linearity and calibration of weights
C. Linearity and calibration of spring, calibration of weights
D. Both depends on calibration of weight
38. If a pressure gauge of range 0-10 bar has a quoted inaccuracy of ±1.0 % of full scale
reading, then it means
A. Minimum expected error in any reading is 0.1 bar B. Maximum
expected error in any reading is 0.1 bar
e. Maximum expected error in any reading is 1 bar
f. Minimum expected error in any reading is 1 bar
39. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available
are
d. one voltmeter and one ammeter
e. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
f. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
g. any of the above
40. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are
at
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°
41. A voltmeter connected across a resistor gives a value of 65 V but the expected value
of resistor was 68 V. Then the absolute error and the relative accuracy of the
measurement will be
A. 3.2%, 96.8%
B. 3.8%, 96.2%
C. 4%, 96%
D. 4.4%, 95.59%
42. An instrument with high precision implies
e. High accuracy
f. Low accuracy
g. Does not imply anything about measurement accuracy
h. None of these
43. For an instrument the degree of repeatability or reproducibility in measurements is an
alternative way of expressing its
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Sensitivity
d. Linearity
44. To produce a change in deflection of 1.5 mm of the galvanometer of Wheatstone
bridge, a change of 5Ω in the unknown arm of bridge is required. The sensitivity is
A. 0.2 mm/ Ω B.
0.3 mm/ Ω
c. 0.4 mm/ Ω
d. 0.5 mm/ Ω
45. The time response of an indicating instrument is determined from the
A. Damping torque
b. Controlling torque
c. Deflecting torque
d. All of these
46. In a permanent magnet moving coil instrument, the deflecting torque is
e. Directly proportional to both number of turns and flux density
f. Directly proportional to the number of turns and inversely proportional to the flux
density
g. Inversely proportional to the number of turns and directly proportional to the flux
density
h. Inversely proportional to both number of turns and flux density
47. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
A. magnetic screening
b. Wagner earthing device
c. wave filters
d. any of the above
48. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
A. a few volts only
b. 1 kV
c. 5 kV
d. 10 kV
49. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of
d. known inductance and resistance
e. known capacitance and resistance
f. known resistance
g. known inductance
50. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply
for the potentiometer in taken
e. from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
f. from a battery
g. from the same source as the unknown voltage
h. any of the above

1. Which of the following is an open loop control system?

(A)FieldcontrolledD.C.motor (B)Ward leonard
control (C)Metadyne
(D)Stroboscope

2. The steady-state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input becomes
finite in a
(A) type 0 system. (B) type 1 system.
(C) type 2 system. (D) type 3 system.

3. For a type one system, the steady – state error due to step input is equal to
(A) infinite. (B) zero.
(C) 0.25. (D) 0.5.

4. A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
(A) highly stable. (B) oscillatory.
(C) relatively stable. (D) unstable.

5. The input to a controller is

(A) sensed signal. (B) desired variable value.
(C) error signal. (D) servo-signal.

6. Electrical time-constant of an armature-controlled dc servomotor is

(A) Equal to mechanical time-constant.
(B) Smaller than mechanical time-constant.
(C) Larger than mechanical time-constant.
(D) Not related to mechanical time-constant.

7. Peak overshoot of step-input response of an under damped second-order system is

explicitly indicative of
(A) Settling time. (B) Rise time.
(C) Natural frequency. (D) Damping ratio.
8. A good control system has all the following features except
(A)Good stability (B)Slow
response (C)Good accuracy
(D)Sufficient power handling capacity

9. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path?
(A)Brain (B)Hands (C)Legs
(D)Eyes

10. A controller, essentially, is a

(A)sensor
(B)clipper (C)comparator
(D)amplifier

11. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

(A)current
(B)charge (C)inductance
(D)capacitance

12. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?

(A) Frequency response
(B) Absolute stability (C)
Relative stability
(D) Time response

13. In a control system integral error compensation steady stateerror

(A)Increases
(B)Minimizes
(C)Doesnothaveanyeffecton (D)Any of the above
14. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following
conditions?
(A)Systems having complexities and non-linearities (B)Systems having stability problems
(C)Systems having multiple input dis¬turbances (D)All of the above

15.Ifthegainofthecriticaldampedsystemisincreaseditwillbehaveas (A)Oscillatory
(B)Critically damped
(C) Overdamped (D) Underdamped
(E)Noneoftheabove

16. For the system in the given figure. The transfer function C(s)/R(s) is

A. G1 + G2 + 1
B. G1 G2 + 1
C. G1 G2 + G2 + 1
D.G1 G2 + G1 + 1

17. In the given figure shows pole-zero plot. If steady state gain is 2 the transfer function G(s) is
A.

B.
C.
D.

18..Forthesystemofthegivenfigure,thedampingratioofclosedlooppolesis

A.1.5
B. 1
C.0.5
D.0.25

19.For afirstorder systemhavingtransferfunction , theunit impulse response is

A.e -t/T

B. T e
-t/T

C.
D.T2e-t/T
 Ans C

20.. For the given figure C(s)/R(s)

A.
B.

C.
D.

21.. First columnelementsofRouth's tabulation are3,5, , 2. It means that there

A. is one root in left half s plane
B. are two roots in left half s plane
C. are two roots in right half s plane
D.is one root in right half s plane

22.A systemhas itstwo poles onthe negativerealaxis andonepair ofpoleslies on jω axis. The system is
A. Stable
B. Unstable
C. limitedly stable
D.either (a) or (c)
23..Aunityfeedbacksystemhasopenlooptransfer function The closed loop
transfer functionis

A.
B.

C.
D.

24.. Assertion (A): The steady stateresponse,of a stable,linear, time invariant system, to sinusoidal input depends on initial conditions.

Reason (R): Frequencyresponse,in steady state, is obtained byreplacing s inthe transfer function by jω
A.Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D.R is correct but A is wrong

25..Considerthesystemswithfollowingopenlooptransferfunctions 1.

2.

3.

Ifunityfeedbackisused,theincreasingorderoftimetakenforunitstepresponse to settle is
A.1, 2, 3
B. 3, 1, 2
C.2, 3, 1
D.3, 2, 1
26. The compensator of the given figure is a

A. lag compensator
B. lead compensator
C. lag-lead compensator
D.none of the above

27.. If error voltage is e(t), integral square error =

A. e (t) dt
2

B.

C.
D.none of the above

28..Steppermotorsfindapplicationsin
A.X-Y plotters
B. numerically controlled machining equipment
C. printers
D.all of the above

29. For type 2 system, the magnitude and phase angle of the term (jω)2 in the denominator, at ω
= 0, are respectively
A. 0 and - 90°
B. 0 and + 90°
C. infinity and - 180°
D.infinity and + 180°
30. In the given figure x6 =

A. de(ax1 + bx2 + cx3)

B. (a + b + c) (x1 + x2 + x3) (d + e)
C. (ax1 + bx2 + cx3) (d + e)
D.a b c d e (x1 + x2 + x3)

31. A negative feedback system has . The closed

loop system is stable for
A.K > 20
B. 15 < K < 19
C. 8 ≤ K ≤ 14
D.K < 6

32. For the control system in the given figure, the value of K for critical damping is

A. 1
B. 5.125
C. 6.831
D.10

33. For the circuit in the given figure, V2(s)/V1(s) =

A.
B.

C.

D.

34. The system in the given figure, has

A.good gain and phase margin

B. poor gain and phase margin
C. good gain margin but poor phase margin
D.poor gain margin but good phase margin

35. Thegiven figure shows a pole zero diagram. The transfer function G(j1)is
A.0.5 ∠0
B. 2.7 ∠- 31°
C. 2 ∠45°
D.2 ∠- 67.4°

36. For the system of the given figure the transfer function is

A.
B.
C.
D.

37. In the given figure, if R = XC, voltage gain is

A. 0 dB
B. 3 dB
C. -3 dB
D.20 dB

38..InBodediagram(log magnitude plot) thefactor inthetransfer function gives a line having

slope
A. -20 dB per octave
B. -10 dB per octave
C. -6 dB per octave
D.-2 dB per octave

39. The phase margin and damping ratio have no relation.

A.True
B.False

40. For the circuit in the given figure,

A.

B.
C.

D.

41. Given a unity feedback control system with G ( s) = K / S (S+ 4) the value of K
for a damping ratio of 0.5 is

(A) 1. (B) 16.

(C) 32. (D) 64.

42. The LVDT is primarily used for the measurement of

(A) displacement (B) velocity
(C) acceleration (D) humidity

43. A unity feedback system with open-loop transfer function G(s) = 4 [s(s + p)] is critically
damped. The value of the parameter p is
(A) 4. (B) 3.
(C) 2. (D) 1.

44. Polar plot of G( jɷ ) = 1 / jɷ( 1 + jɷτ )

(A) crosses the negative real axis.
(B) crosses the negative imaginary axis.
(C) crosses the positive imaginary axis.
(D) None of the above.

45. The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is G(s) = K / s 2 (s

+ 5) ; K >0
The system is unstable for
(A) K>5 (B) K<5
(C) K>0 (D) all the above.

46. Closed-loop transfer function of a unity-feedback system is given by 1/( 1+ τs)

 Steady-state error to unit-ramp input is
(A) (B)
(C) 1 (D) 1

47. If the transfer function of a first-order system is 10 / 1 + 2S

, then the time constant of the system is
(A) 10 seconds. (B) 1/ 10 second

(C) 2 seconds. (D) 1/ 2 Second

48. The damping ratio of a system having the characteristic equation s 2 + 2s + 8+ = 0 is

(A) 0.353 (B) 0.330.
(C) 0.300 (D) 0.250.

49. If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a closed-loop system
enclosesthe(−1, jo) pointin the G(s) H(s) plane,the gain marginofthe system is
(A) zero. (B) greater than zero.
(C) less than zero. (D) infinity.

50. The equation 2 s 4 + s 3 + 3 s 2 + 5 s + 10 = 0 has

(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
roots in the left half of s–plane.

Quiz 1
http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a..
.

Home►Fall2016-17►School of Electrical Engineering (SELECT)►Electrical Workshop(EEE1003)► General►Quiz 1►Preview

Question 1 An airgap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 c. prevent saturation

d. increase the flux

e. increase mmf

f. none of these

1.00
Question 2
Not yet answered

Marked out of
 a. air capacitors
Capacitors which
can be used for DC
circuits only b. Electrolytic capacitors

c. paper capacitors

Select one: d. mica capacitors

Question 3 If a sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
a. becomes zero
1.00
b. remains unchaged

c. increase

d. decrease

a. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 4 vhttp://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10olts. Its capacitance is
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 a. 0.12 F

b. 0.8 F

c. 0.6 F
d. 0.024 F

Question 5 For making a capacitor, it is better to select dielectric having

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
• low permittivity
1.00
• high permittivity

• permittivity same as that of air

• permittivity slightly more than that of air

Question 6 The power dissipated in a ideal capacitor is

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 e. proportional to the current drawn by the capacitor.

f. zero

g. proportional to the capacitance of the capacitor

h. proportional to the applied voltage

b. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 7 Which one of the following is correct ? http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?
a...
Not yet answered
Select one:
Marked out of
• ∇. E = ρv
1.00

b.

∇. E = ρvϵo

c.

∇. E = ρv/ϵo

d.

∇. E = −ρv

Question 8 The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
• none of these
1.00
• mutual inductance between two coils only

• Mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils

• self inductance of two coils only

c. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question π http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
9
If H = 4aρ − 3aϕ + 5az at (1, 2 , 0) the component of H parallel to surface = 1
Not yet answered is

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
• −3aϕ + 5az

• −3aϕ

• 4aρ

• 5az

Question 10 The ratio of conduction current density to the displacement is

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
σϵ
1.00 a. jω

σ
b.
jωϵ

jσ
c. ωϵ

σ
d. ω
jϵ

Question 11 A unit normal to the cone θ= 30 deg is

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 i. aθ

j. none

k. aϕ

l. ar

d. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question The z-axis carries filamentary current
htt p://mood lecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
12 of 1 0π a A along z . Which of these is incorrect
Not yet answered ?
Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
• All are correct

b. H = −A
a/ϕm at(5, 3π/2, 0)

c. H = −A
ax/m at(0, 5, 0)

d. H =Aa/ϕm at(5,π/4, 0)

Question 13 What happens when a steady potential diff erence is applied across the ends of a
conductor wire ?
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
a. All electrons move with a constant velocity

b. The random electronic motion will on the average be equivalent to a constant

velocity of each electron.

c. none of these.

d. All electrons move with constant accleration

Question 14 The unit of dielectric strength is given by

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
e. V/m
1.00
f. Farad

g. m/V

h. Henry

e. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 15 http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
A field line and an equipotential surface
are
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 • Always parallel

• inclined at any angle θ

• Orthogonal to each other

• none of the above

Question 16 The forces between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled the
force will be
Not yet answered

Marked out of Select one:

1.00 a. 30 N

b. 15 N

c. 60 N

d. 40 N

Question 17 The electric field intensity at a point situated at 4 metres form the point charge is

Not yet answered 200N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
Marked out of

1.00 Select one:

a. 1200N/C

• 800N/C

• 600N/C

• 400N/C

f. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 18 When a magnet is in motion relative to a
h ttp: / /mo o d l e cc . v it .a c .i n /m od /q u iz / a ttempt.php?a...
Not yet answered coil the in d u ce d e .m.f d oe s no t d ep end s upon

Marked out of

1.00 Select one:

• Pole strength of the magnet

• Resistance of the coil

• Motion of the magnet

• Number of turns of the coil

Question 19 inoωt
A loop is rotating about the y-axis in a magnetic field B =sB m2 . The
Not yet answered W
axb
/
Marked out of
voltage induced in the loop is due to
1.00
Select one:

• None of these
b. A combination of motional and transformer emf

c. Motional emf

d. Transformer emf

Question 20 Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right angles
to a magnetic field intensity of 0.67 tesla
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
f. 600N

g. 100N

h. 400N

d. 1000N

Question 21 Where surfaces ρ= 2 and z= 1 intersect is

Not yet answered
Select one:
Marked out of
a. a circle
1.00

g. of 15
b. a
semii
nfinte
plane

c. a
cone

an
d.
infin
ite
plan
e
Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM
Quiz 1Question 22 of http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
Materials subjected to rapid reversalmagnetism should have
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 • larger area of B-H loop

• High permeability and low hysteresis loss

• High coercivity and low density

• High coercivity and high retentivity

Question 23 A coil induces 350mV when the current changes at the rate of 1A/s. The value of inductance is

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
• 250mH
1.00
• 350mH

• 150mH

• 3500mH

Question 24 The intrinsic impedance of free space

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
e. 377 Ω
1.00

f. 75 Ω

g. 73 Ω

h. 120πΩ

h. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 25 http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
Lenz 's law is a consequence of the law
of conservation of
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 • induced current

• energy

• induced e.m.f

• charge

Question 26 Lorentz force law is

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
• F =Q( v× B)
1.00

b.

F =Q( E+ v× B)

• F =Q E

• F = (E + v × B)

Question 27 One of the following is not the source of magnetostatic fields:

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
1.00 c. A permanent magnet

d. An accelerated charge

e. A charged disk rotating at uniform speed.

f. A dc current in a wire.

i. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 28 Which of these statements is not

Not yet
characthttp://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
eristic of a static magnetic field ?
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
1.00 • It is conservative

• It is solenoidal

• It has no source and sinks.

• The total number of flux lines entering a given region is equal to the total
number of flux lines leaving the region.

Question 29 The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 a. Current in one conductor

b. product of current in two conductors

c. Distance between the conductors

d. Radius of conductors

Question 30 Those magnetic materials which are best suited for making armature and transformer cores
have
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
a.
low permeability and high hystersis loss

b.
high permeability and low hystersis loss

c. high permeability and high hystersis loss d.

low permeability and low hystersis loss

j. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 31 h tt p :// m o o dle cc. vit .a c .i n / m o
What is the major factor for determing wh eth er a m e d iu m is fre e sp ac e ,
Not yet answered d/q ui z / attempt.php?a...
lo ss le ss dielectric, lossy dielectric or good conductor ?
Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
• Reflection coeffi cient

• none of these

• Attenuation constant

• loss tangent

32 8
Question In a certain medium, E= 10 cos(t−
103y)V/m ax . What type of medium is it ?

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
• Perfect conductor

• Lossy dielectric
c. Lossless dielectric

d. Free space

Question 33 The magneto-motive force is

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 h. the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil

i. the flow of electric currents

j. the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field

k. the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil

Question 34 If an ohm meter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, the capacitor is

Not yet answered

Marked out of

1.00

Select one:

• Charged

• lossy

• none of the above

d. short circuited
k. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50
PM
Quiz 1Question 35 Hard steel is suitable for making per http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
manent magnets because
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
1.00 • Its hysteresis loop has larger area

• It has good residual magnetism

• Its mechanical strength is low

• Its mechanical strength is high

Question 36 The relative permittivity of free space is given by

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
a. 100
1.00
b. 1

c. 10000

d. 10

Question 37 Which of the following statements is not true of a phasor ?

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
i. It may be a scalar or a vector
1.00
j. It is a time dependent quantity

k. Used to represent sinusoids

l. It is a complex quantity

Question 38 By Saying that the electrostatic field is conservative, we do not mean that

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
e. curl is identically zero
1.00
f. The potential diff erence between any two points is zero

g. Its circulation is identically zero

h. It is the gradient of a scalar potential

l. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 39 The retentivity (a property) of material is http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
useful for the construction of
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
1.00 • non magnetic materials

• electromagnets

• permanent magnets

• transformers

Question 40 A region around a charge moving in uniform velocity has

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 e. Both magnetic and electric field

f. none of these.

g. Electric field

h. Magnetic field

Question 41 A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60V. Over what time interval
must a flux change of 0.06Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00
a. 5s

b. 0.1s

c. 0.5s

d. 0.01s

Question 42 Two identical coaxial circular coil carry the same current but in opposite directions. The
magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on the axis midway between the coils is
Not yet answered

Marked out of

1.00

Select one:

• zero

• Half that produced by one coil

• Twice that produced by one coil

• The same as that produced by one coil

m. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM
Quiz 1Question 43 The unit of magnetic flux is http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?
a...
Not yet answered
Select one:
Marked out of
• weber
1.00
• ampere/metre

• ampereturn/weber

• henry

Question 44 Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ?

Not yet answered

Marked out of
Select one:
1.00 • None of these.

• Tesla

• Lumens

• Weber

Question 45 Unit for electric potential

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
i. Joules/Coulomb
1.00
j. Newton/Coulomb

k. Joules

l. Newton/Joules

Question 46 1 volt/metre is same as

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
i. 1 Coulomb/metre
1.00
j. 1 metre/Coulomb

k. 1 Newton Metre

l. 1 Newton/coulomb

n. of 15 Tuesday 18 October 2016 04:50 PM

Quiz 1Question 47 Which of the following statements is not http://moodlecc.vit.ac.in/mod/quiz/attempt.php?a...
true of waves in general ?
Not yet
answered
Select one:
Marked out of
1.00 • The phenomenon may be sinusoidal or cosinusoidal

• The phenomenon must be function of time and space.

• For practical reasons, it must be finite in extent

• The phenomenon may be a function of time only

Question 48 Which of the following is a mathematically incorrect expression ?

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
e. grad div
1.00
f. grad curl

g. div curl

h. curl grad

Question 49 Which of the following is zero ?

Not yet answered

Select one:
Marked out of
e. curl curl
1.00
f. curl grad

g. div grad

h. grad div

Question
50
T
dihseplw
acoerkmdeonnteofb(y1the 2 aF −= 7(a4a)xm− 3ay + 2az )N in giving 1nC charge a
0 a fo+rce
x y z
Not yet answered
Select one:
Marked out of
h. 103nJ
1.00
i. 60nJ

j. 20nJ

k. 64nJ
o. of 15 Tuesday 18 October
2016 04:50 PM
Electric Circuits

Network graph, KCL, KVL, Node and Mesh analysis, Transient response of dc and ac networks, Sinusoidal steady‐state
analysis, Resonance, Passive filters, Ideal current and voltage sources, Thevenin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem,
Superposition theorem, Maximum power transfer theorem, Two‐port networks, Three phase circuits, Power and power
factor in ac circuits.

1. The Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and resistance across AB shown in figure

respectively are

(a) 5 V and 5 Ω (b) 25 V and 3 Ω (c) 35 V and 2 Ω (d) 25 V and 5 Ω

2. Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connections as shown
below. If all elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor K, K>0, the
elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

(a) K2 (b) K (c) 1/K (d) 1/√K

3. An ideal voltage source should have

• large value of emf (b) small value of emf
(c) zero source resistance (d) infinite source resistance

4. In a series RLC circuit, setting R = 0 will produce

 (a) an overdamped response (b) a critically damped response

(c) an underdamped response (d) an undamped response

5. If the current through a 10 mH inductor increases from zero to 2 A, how much energy
is stored in the inductor?
(a) 40 mJ (b) 20 mJ (c) 10 mJ (d) 5 mJ

6. For a series R-C circuit, the power factor corresponding to maximum power is
(a) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.5 leading (c) 0.707 lagging (d) 0.707 leading

7. When a source is delivering maximum power to a load, the efficiency of the circuit is
always
(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 100% (d) Depends on the circuit parameters

8. A battery charger can drive a current of 5A into a 1 Ω resistance connected at its

output terminals. If it is able to charge an ideal 2 V battery at 7A rate, then Thevenin’s
equivalent will be
(a) 7.5 V in series with 1.5 Ω (b) 12.5 V in series with 1.5 Ω

(c) 10 V in series with 1.5 Ω (d) 25 V in series with 1.5 Ω

9. The r.m.s. value of sinusoidal 100 V peak to peak is V.

(a) 100/√2 (b) 50/√2 (c) 50 (d) 100

10. For the circuit shown in Fig. , V1=220 V, V2=122 V and V3 = 136 V. The power
factor of the load is

(a) 0.45 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.55 (c) 0.6

11. The three circuit elements shown in the figure are the part of an circuit. The total power
absorbed by the three circuit elements in Watts in

(a) 300 W (b) 360 W (c) 330 W (d) 390 W

12. While measuring power of a three-phase balanced load by the two-wattmeter method, the
readings are 100W and 250 W. The power factor of the load is

(a) 0.71 (b) 0.803 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.703

13. In the circuit shown in Fig., the current supplied by the battery is

(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.3 A (d) 0.2 A

14. The resistance of a 1 kW electric heater when energized by a 230 V 1-phase AC is

(a) 52.9 W (b) 230 W (c) 1000 W (d) 4.2 W

15. The power dissipated in the controlled source of the network shown in Fig. is

(a) 36 W (b) 15 W (c) 14 W (d) 7 W

16. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least if the phase angle difference
between voltage and current is

(a) 45ᵒ (b) 90ᵒ (c) 180ᵒ (d) 0ᵒ

17. The phase difference voltage and current wave through a circuit element is given as 30 ᵒ.
The essential condition is that
1. both waves must have the same frequency
2. both waves must have identical peak values
3. both waves must have an identical rms value
4. both waves must have zero value at the same time

18. The current ix in the network is

(a) 2 A (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) 1/3 A

A A
19. The value of (Irms/Imax) for the waveform shown is

(a) √2 (b) 1.11 (c) 1 (d) 1/√2

20. Maximum power is delivered from a source of complex impedance ZS to a connected

load of complex impedance ZL

• ZL = ZS (c) = (d) ‫ ﮮ‬ZL =‫ ﮮ‬ZS

(b) ZL = ZS*

21. A network is to be connected to a load of 500 Ω. If the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and
Norton’s equivalent current are 5 V and 10 mA respectively, the current through the load will
be
(a) 10 mA (b) 5 mA (c) 2.5 mA (d) 1 mA

22. For a series R-C circuit excited by a dc voltage of 10 V with time-constant τ, the voltage
across C at time t = τ is given by
(a) 10 (1-e-1) (b) 10 (1-e1) (c) 10-e-1 (d) 1-e-1
23. The voltage across the 3 Ω resistor e3 in Fig. is

(a) 6sin t (b) 4sin t (c) 3sin t (d) 12sin t

24. The value of Req (Ω) for the circuit of Fig. is

(a) 200 Ω (b) 800 Ω (c) 600 Ω (d) 400 Ω

25. For the circuit shown in Fig., the voltage across the last resistor is 1 V. All resistors are of
1 Ω. The VS is given by

(a) 13 V (b) 8 V (c) 4 V (d) 1 V

26. In the circuit shown in Fig., the switch s is closed at t = 0 then the steady state value of
the current is
(a) 1 A (c) 3 A (d) ¾ A
(b) 2 A

27. The value of ix (A) in the circuit of Fig. is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (d) 4

(c) 3

28. The Thevenin’s equivalent circuit to the left of AB in Fig. has Req given by

(a) 1/3 Ω (c) 1Ω (d) 3/2 Ω

(b) ½
Ω
29. The Q-factor of a parallel resonance circuit consisting of an inductance of value 1mH,
capacitance of value 10-µF and a resistance of 100 ohms is
(a) 1 (c) 20 π (d) 100
(b) 10

30. The minimum amount of hardware required to make a low pass filter is
1. a resistance, a capacitance and an op-amp.
2. a resistance, an inductance and an op-amp.
(c) a resistance and a capacitance.
(d) a resistance, a capacitance and an inductance.

31. The phasor diagram for an ideal inductance having current I through it and voltage V
across it is:
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

32. The voltage across a 1.1-kW toaster that produces a current of 10 A is:
a) 11 kV b) 1100V c) 110V d) 11V

33. A network has 12 branches and 8 independent loops. How many nodes are there in the
network?
a) 19 b) 17 c) 5 d) 4

34. In the circuit in Fig., V is:

(a) 30 V (b) 14 V (c) 10 V (d) 6 V

35. In the circuit of Fig. current i2 is:

(a) 4 A (b) 3 A (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
36. Which pair of circuits in Fig. are equivalent?
• a and b (b) b and d (c) a and c (d) c and d

37. A load is connected to a network. At the terminals to which the load is connected, RTh=
10Ω and VTh = 40 V The maximum possible power supplied to the load is:
(a) 160 W (b) 80 W (c) 40 W (d) 1 W

38. The total capacitance of two 40-mF series-connected capacitors in parallel with a 4-mF
capacitor is:
(a) 3.8 mF (b) 5 mF (c) 24 mF (d) 44 mF

39. In Fig., if i = cos 4t and v= sin 4t, the element is:

(a) a resistor (b) a capacitor (c) an inductor (d) none of these
40. If the voltage across a 10-µF capacitor increases from zero to 20 V, how much energy is
stored in the capacitor?
(a) 4 mJ (b) 2 mJ (c) 10 mJ (d) 5 mJ

41. An RL circuit has R = 2 Ω and L = 4 H. The time needed for the inductor current to reach
40 percent of its steady-state value is:
(a) 0.5 s (b) 1 s (c) 2 s (d) 4 s

42. In the circuit in Fig., v (  ) is:

(a) 10 V (b) 7 V (c) 6 V (d) 4 V

43. For the circuit in Fig. find the inductor current just before t = 0. Assume the circuit is at
steady state before closing the switch.
(a) 8 A (b) 6 A (c) 4 A (d) 2 A

44 For the circuit in Fig., the initial inductor current (at t = 0) is: (a) 0 A (b) 2

A (c) 6 A (d) 12 A
(SS) If V1 30 sint 10 and V2  20 sint  50, which of these statements are true?
• V1 leads V2 (b) V2 leads V1 (c) V2 lags V1 (e) V1 and V2 are in phase
(TT) A series RC circuit VR 12 V and VC  5 V. The magnitude of the supply voltage

has is:
(a) -7 V (b) 7 V (c) 13 V (d) 17 V

(UU) Refer to the circuit in Fig.. The Norton equivalent impedance

at terminals a-b is: a) –j4 Ω b) –j2 Ω c) j2 Ω d) j4 Ω

(VV) If in an acb phase sequence, Van 100  20,then Vcn is:

a) 100 140 b) 100100 c) 100  50 d) 100 10


(WW) The coefficient of coupling for two coils having L1 = 2 H, L2 = 8 H,

M = 3 H is: (a) 0.1875 (b) 0.75 (c) 1.333 (d)

5.333

(XX) The difference between the half-power frequencies is called the:

• quality factor (b) resonant frequency (c) bandwidth (d) cut-off frequency

(YY) In a series RLC circuit, which of these quality factors has the steepest magnitude response
curve near resonance?
a) Q = 20 b) Q = 12 c) Q = 8 d) Q = 4
 Analog and Digital Circuits

1. In which of the following gates, the output is 1, if and only if at least one input is 1?

a) NOR

b) AND

c) OR

d) NAND

2. The time required for a gate or inverter to change its state is called

a) Rise time

b) Decay time

c) Propagation time

d) Charging time

3. The maximum frequency at which digital data can be applied to gate is called

a) Operating speed

b) Propagation speed

c) Binary level transaction

d) Charging time

4. What is the minimum number of two-input NAND gates used to perform the function of two input OR gate ?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

5. Odd parity of word can be conveniently tested by

a) OR gate

b) AND gate

c) NOR gate
d) XOR gate

6. Which one of the following will give the sum of full adders as output ?

a) Three point majority circuit

b) Three bit parity checker

c) Three bit comparator

d) Three bit counter

7. The number of full and half-adders required to add 16-bit numbers is

a) 8 half-adders, 8 full-adders

b) 1 half-adder, 15 full-adders

c) 16 half-adders, 0 full-adders

d) 4 half-adders, 12 full-adders

8. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

a) Propagation delay is the time required for a gate to change its state

b) Noise immunity is the amount of noise which can be applied to the input of a gate without causing the gate to change
state

c) Fan-in of a gate is always equal to fan-out of the same gate

d) Operating speed is the maximum frequency at which digital data can be applied to a gate

9. Which of the following expressions is not equivalent to X ' ?

a) X NAND X

b) X NOR X

c) X NAND 1

d) X NOR 1

10. The digital multiplexer is basically a combination logic circuit to perform the operation

a) AND - AND

b) OR - OR
c) AND - OR

d) OR - AND

11. How many lines the truth table for a four-input NOR gate would contain to cover all possible input combinations
?

a) 4

b) 8

c) 12

d) 16

12. Which table shows the electrical state of a digital circuit's output for every possible combination of electrical states in
the inputs ?

a) Function table

b) Truth table

c) Routing table

d) ASCII table

13. A combinational circuit is one in which the output depends on the

a) input combination at the time

b) input combination and the previous output

c) input combination at that time and the previous input combination

d) present output and the previous output

14. A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number is

a) Decoder

b) Multiplexer

c) Encoder

d) Demultiplexer

15. In which of the following adder circuits, the carry look ripple delay is eliminated ?
a) Half adder

b) Full adder

c) Parallel adder

d) Carry-look-ahead adder

16. A small dot or circle printed on top of an IC indicates

a) Vcc

b) GND

c) Pin 14

d) Pin 1

17. The number of two input multiplexers required to construct a 210 input multiplexer is,

a) 31

b) 10

c) 127

d) 1023

18. Extremely low power dissipation and low cost per gate can be achieved in:

a) MOS ICs

b) CMOS ICs

c) TTL ICs

d) ECL ICs

19. The dual of the switching function x + yz

a) x + yz

b) x' + y'z'

c) x(y+z)

d) x'(y'+z')

20. The characteristic equation of D flip-flop is:

a) Q=1

b) Q=0

c) Q=D'

d) Q=D

21. If four 4 input multiplexers drive a 4 input multiplexer, we get a:

a) 16 input MUX

b) 8 input MUX

c) 4 input MUX

d) 2 input MUX

22. Gray code representation of 14 is a)

1010
b) 1100

c) 1001

d) 1110

23. Three decade counter would have

a) 2 BCD counters

b) 3 BCD counters

c) 4 BCD counters

d) 5 BCD counters

24. Synchronous counter is a type of

a) SSI counters

b) LSI counters

c) MSI counters

d) VLSI counters
25. Unless writing, WE input is always left in

a) write mode

b) read mode

c) reset mode

d) undefined mode

26. A non-inverting amplifier with a gain of 100 is nulled at 25°C. What will happen to the output voltage if
temperature rises to 50°C for an offset voltage drift of 0.15 mV/°C?

a) 500mV

b) 300mV

c) 375mV

d) 400mV

27. Active filters are made using

a) Op Amp, R, L and C

b) Op Amp, R and L

c) Op Amp, R and C

d) Op Amp, L and C

28. The propagation delay of op-amp circuits can be tested using

a) Differentiator

b) Comparator

c) LPF

d) Difference Amplifier

29. IC 555 timer operating in Astable mode at 150Hz has a discharge time of 2.5m. The duty cycle of the circuit is:
a) 50%

b) 75%

c) 95.99%

d) 37.5%
30. The conversion time of 10 bit successive approximation A/D converter if input clock is 5 MHz:

a) 1 us

b) 2 us

c) 3 us

d) 4 us

31. Which of the following logic gate can be used as phase detector?

a) EX-OR

b) EX-NOR

c) NAND

d) OR

32. Schmitt trigger is a comparator with feedback.

a) No Feedback

b) Positive Feedback

c) Negative Feedback

d) No feedback

33. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. The analog output for the input code 0101 is
a) 0.3125

b) -0.3125

c) 3.125

d) -3.125

34. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters ?

a) nonmonotonic and offset error

b) offset error

c) nonmonotonic error
d) incorrect output codes

35. Initially, the closed-loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator should be

a) <3

b) >3

c) 0

d) 1

36. A two-pole high-pass active filter would have a roll-off rate of

a) 40 db/decade

b) -40 db/decade

c) 20 db/decade

d) -20 db/decade

37. The differential mode and common mode voltage is defined as

a) VDM = V2 − V1, VCM = (V1 + V2)/2 b) VDM =

(V1 + V2)/2, VCM = V2 − V1 c) VDM=V1=V2,

VCM=(V2−V1)/2

d) None of the above

38. An ideal op-amp should have

a) Zero input impedance and output impedance

b) Infinite input and output impedance

c) Infinite input impedance and zero output impedance

d) Zero input impedance and infinite output impedance

39. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital codes, or the analog step size, is the:

a) Accuracy

b) Quantization

c) Monotonicity
d) Resolution

40. Typical value of CMRR of IC 741C is

a) 120dB

b) 30dB

c) 90dB

d) 60dB

41. An ideal op amp is a:

a) Current controlled voltage source

b) Current controlled current source

c) Voltage controlled current source

d) Voltage controlled voltage source

42. The purpose of level shifter in Op-amp internal circuit is to

a) Adjust DC voltage

b) Increase impedance

c) Provide high gain

d) Decrease input resistance

43. The clipping level in op-amp is determined by

a) AC supply Voltage

b) Control Voltage

c) Reference Voltage

d) Input Voltage

44. Which of the following is a military grade op-amp?

a) IC 741

b) IC 741C

c) IC 741E
d) IC 741SC

45. Which of the following cannot be fabricated on an IC?

a) Large Value of Capacitor

b) Diode

c) Large Value of Resistor

d) Large Value of Inductor

46. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an OP-amp is:
a) 1

b) 2000

c) 80 dB

d) 1,00,000

47. The Op-amp can amplify

a) A.C signals only

b) D.C signals only

c) Both A.C and D.C Signals

d) DC and High frequency A.C signals

48. The input offset current equals the

a) Difference between two base currents

b) Average of the base currents

c) Sum of the base currents

d) None of the above

49. Negative feedback in op amp

a) increases the input and output impedances

b) increases the input impedance and bandwidth

c) decreases the output impedance and bandwidth

d) does not affect impedance or bandwidth

50. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is

a) 90V/us

b) 0.67V/us

c) 1.5V/us

d) None of the above

 COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS FOR

MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS

1. The address system supported by ARM systems is/are .

a) Little Endian

b) Big Endian

c) X-Little Endian

d) Both 1 and 2

2. The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation with,

a) Low cost and low power consumption

b) Higher degree of multi-tasking

c) Lower error or glitches

d) Efficient memory management

3. Memory can be accessed in ARM systems by instructions.

i) Store ii) MOVE iii) Load iv) arithmetic v) logical

a) i,ii,iii

b) i,ii

c) i,iv,v

d) i, ii

4. Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into Word.

a) 2 byte
b) 3 byte

c) 4 byte

d) 8 byte

5. All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed

a) True

b) False

6. RISC stands for .

a) Restricted Instruction Sequencing Computer

b) Restricted Instruction Sequential Compiler

c) Reduced Instruction Set Computer

d) Restricted instruction set computer

7. Which of the following instructions are called Program Status Register transfer instructions?

a) LDR, STR

b) LDM, STM

c) MCR, MRC

d) MSR, MRS

8. What are the values of the I and F bits in the Program Status Register on reset? a) I=0,

F=0

b) I=1, F=1 c)

I=0, F=1 d)

I=1, F=0
9. The Instruction, LDM R10!,{R0,R1,R6,R7}

1. Loads the contents of R10 into R1,R0,R6 and R7

2. Creates a copy of the contents of R10 in the other registers except the above mentioned ones
3. Loads the contents of the registers R1,R0,R6 and R7 to R10
4. Writes the contents of R10 into the above mentioned registers and clears R10

10. The instructions which are used to load or store multiple operands are called as

(A) Banked instructions

(B) Lump transfer instructions

(C) Block transfer instructions

(D) DMA instructions

11. ARM processors were basically designed for .

c. Main frame systems

d. Distributed systems

e. Mobile systems

f. Super computers

12. The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are called as .

d. Copied-registers

e. Banked registers

f. EXtra registers

g. Extential registers
13. The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents of Rn is .

c. Pre-indexed with write back mode

d. Post-indexed mode

e. Pre-indexed mode

f. None of the above

14. In ARM, PC is implemented using .

a. Caches

b. Heaps

c. General purpose register

d. Stack

15. The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode, MOVE[Rn]+Rm is .

d. EA = [Rn]

e. EA = [Rn + Rm]

f. EA = [Rn] + Rm

g. EA = [Rm] + Rn

16. Which company is the biggest player in the microprocessor industry?

e. Motorola

f. IBM

g. Intel

h. AMD
17. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

e. Disk unit

f. Control unit

g. ALU

h. Modem

18. The difference between memory and storage is that memory is …. and storage is …

e. Temporary, permanent

f. Permanent, temporary

g. Slow, fast

h. All of above

19. How many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a 2048 x 4 memory chip?

a. 10

b. 11

c. 8

d. 12

20. Which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second?

c. Static RAM

d. Dynamic RAM

e. EPROM

f. ROM

21. Fixed instruction length is a feature of one of the following architecture

e. CISC

f. RISC

g. X86

h. None of the above

22. Stack register used in the microcontroller is a form of

a. Last In First Out (LIFO)

b. First In First Out (FIFO)

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

23. In the ARM Nomenclature ARMxTDMI, D and M stand for

e. Debug and Fast Multiplier units are present

f. Division and Multiplier units are present

g. Debugger and Multiplier units are not present

h. Division and Multiplier units are not present

24. When the processor is executing simple data processing instructions, the pipeline enables one
instruction to be completed every clock cycle, this is also called as

g. Throughput

h. Latency

i. Execution

j. None of the above

25. If an instruction takes 3 cycles for execution, then how many cycles are needed for executing 4
instructions of the same type in a sequence using a 3-stage pipeline? Assume that there are no interrupts or
exceptions while executing them.
e. 12 cycles

f. 6 cycles

g. 9 cycles

h. 4 cycles

26. In C programs, the compiler determines which type of code should go where and inserts the
appropriate section directives into its output before passing it to the assembler for object file
generation. These Sections are specified in a :

e. linker command file

f. Assembler command file

g. Executable file

h. Object Command File

27. Harvard architecture has

a. Combined data and code memory

b. Dedicated data memory and dedicated code memory

c. Dedicated data memory or dedicated code memory

d. No memory

28. If maximum memory address is FFFFh, then it is equivalent to

d. 128KB

e. 256KB

f. 64KB

g. 512KB

29. If oscillator frequency is 11.0592MHz in 8051μC, then one machine cycle is

a) 1.085μsec

i. 0.5425 μsec

j. 2.17 μsec

k. 0.789 μsec

30. The following bits of Program Status Word are used for selecting register banks

m. PSW.5 and PSW.4

n. PSW.4 and PSW.3

o. PSW.2 and PSW.3

p. PSW.0 and PSW.1

31. The ……………… is a 2 byte (16 bit) register which always contains the memory address of the next
instruction to be executed.

e. Stack pointer

f. Data pointer

g. Program Status Word

h. Program Counter

32. This SFR contains various control bits including a control bit, which allows the 8051 μC to go to ‘sleep’
so as to save power when not in immediate use.

i. SCON

j. PCON

k. SMOD

l. PMOS

33. The following instruction falls under the category of indexed addressing mode
e. MOV A, @R0

f. SJMP LABEL_X

g. MOVC A, @A+DPTR

h. MOV A, 47h

34. The timer is said to be in auto-reload mode when it is in

e. a) Mode 0

f. Mode 1

g. Mode 2

h. Mode 3

35. We can detect that a character is sent via the line in the asynchronous mode using

i. Data Selection

j. Data Communication

k. Data Framing

l. Data Detection

36. With XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, find the TH1 value to have the baud rate of 9600

a. FDh

b. F4h

c. E8h

d. 11h

37. By monitoring the …….. flag of SCON, we know whether or not the 8051 is ready to transfer another byte.

i. TI
j. RI

k. REN

l. TEN

38. 512 bytes RAM need …………many address lines and have a memory capacity of …………….

g. 9, 4096bits

h. 9, 2048 bits

c) 512, 4096bits

d) 512, 2048 bits

39. How many external interrupts are supported by 8051 μC?

e. 8

f. 2

g. 5

h. 7

40. ARM instructions can be made to execute conditionally by ………….them with the appropriate
condition code field.

l. postfixing

m.prefixing

n. conditioning

o. holding

41. An alternate function of port pin P3.0 (RXD) in 8051 is

m. serial port input

n. serial port output

o. memory write strobe

p. memory read strobe

42. SP of 8051 is of wide and it is loaded with the default value of after reset

i. 2byte, 08H

j. 8 bit, 07H

k. 1 byte, 09H

l. 8 bit, 06H

43. MOV A, #56H

MOV R1, #50H

MOV 50H, # 45H

XCHD A, @R1

What is the result at A, R1?

a)56H,45H

b) 45H, 50H c)

50H, 56H d)

45H, 56H

44. The last instruction of subroutine is

i. RET

j. HLT

k. RST

l. STOP
45. Each interrupt is associated with dedicated

d. Interrupt Service Routine

e. Interrupt Subroutine

f. Interrupt Store Routine

g. Interact Service Routine

46. SBUF exists

m. only in TX

n. only in RX

o. both TX and RX

p. not in TX and RX

47. Interrupt prioirity maybe found using

i. Conversion

j. Handshaking

k. Acknowledging

l. Polling

48. 8051 follows

i. Harvard Architecture

j. Von-Neumann Architecture

k. Both Harvard and Von-Neumann Architecture

l. Neither Harvard nor Von-Neumann Architecture

49. LCALL instruction is a ..... byte instruction.

l. 1

m.2

n. 3

o. 4

50. The instruction to start timer 0 is

m. SETB TR0

n. SETB TH0

o. SETB TL0

p. START TR0

Transformer

a. A single phase transformer has a turns ration of 1:2 and is connected to a purely resistive load as
shown in figure. The magnetizing current drawn is 1A, and the secondary current is 1A. If the core
losses and leakage reactances are neglected, than the primary current is

(a) 1.41 A (b) 2 A (c) 2.24 A (d) 3 A

b. In a transformer, zero voltage regulation at full load is

• Not possible (b) Possible at unity power factor load

(c)Possibleatleadingpower factorload (d) Possible at lagging power factor load

c. A three-winding transformer is connected to an AC voltage source as shown in the figure. The

number of turns are as follows: N1 = 100, N2 = 50. If the magnetizing current is neglected, and the
currents in two windings are I2 = 2 30 A and I3 = 2 150 then what is the value of the current I1
in Ampere?
 (a) 1 90 (b) 1 270 (c) 4 90 (d) 4 270

d. A single phase 50 kVA, 250 V/500 V two winding transformer has an efficiency of 95% at full load,
unity power factor. If it is reconfigured as a 500 V/ 750 V autotransformer, its efficiency at its new
rated load at unity power factor will be
 (a) 95.752 % (b) 97.851 % (c) 98.276 % (d) 99.241 %

e. A balanced star-connected and purely resistive load is connected at the secondary of a star- delta
transformer as shown in the figure. The line-to-line voltage rating of the transformer is 110V/220V.
Neglecting the non-idealities of the transformer, the impedance 'Z' of the equivalent star-
connected load, referred to the primary side of the transformer, is

(a) (3 + j0) Ω (b) (0.866 − j0.5) Ω (c) (0.866 + j0.5) Ω (d) (1 + j0) Ω

f. The star-delta transformer shown below is excited on the star side with a balanced, 4-wire, 3-phase
sinusoidal voltage supply of rated magnitude. The transformer is under no load condition.
With both S1 and S2 open, the core flux waveform will be

• a sinusoid at fundamental frequency (b) flat-topped with third harmonic

(c) peaky with third harmonic (d) none ofthese

g. The star-delta transformer shown below is excited on the star side with a balanced, 4-wire, 3-phase
sinusoidal voltage supply of rated magnitude. The transformer is under no load condition.

With S2 closed and S1 open, the current waveform in the delta winding will be

• a sinusoid at fundamental frequency (b) flat-topped with third harmonic

(c) only third harmonic (d) none ofthese

h. In figure below, coils 1 and 2, with dot markings as shown, having 4000 and 6000 turns
respectively. Both the coils have a rated current of 25 A. Coil 1 is excited with single phase, 400 V, 50Hz
supply.

The coils are to be connected to obtain a single phase, 400/1000 V, auto-transformer to drive a load of 10kVA.Which of the options
given shouldbe exercisedtorealizetherequiredautotransformer?
m. Connect A and D; Common B
n. Connect B and D; Common C
o. Connect A and C; Common B
p. Connect A and C; Common D

i. A single-phase transformer has no-load loss of 64 W, as obtained from an opencircuit test.

When a short-circuit test is performed on it with 90% of the rated currents flowing in its both
LV and HV windings, he measured loss is 81 W. The transformer has maximum efficiency
when operated at
• 50.0% of the rated current. (b) 64.0% of the rated current.
(c) 80.0% of the rated current. (d) 88.8% of the rated current.

j. Assuming an ideal transformer,. The Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and impedance as seen
from the terminals x and y for the circuit in figure are

• 2sin(ωt , 4) Ω (b) 1sin(ωt , 1) Ω

c. 1sin (ωt , 2) Ω (d) 2sin(ωt , 0.5) Ω

k. A single phase, 50kVA, 1000V/100V two winding transformer is connected as an

autotransformer as shown in the figure.

The kVA rating of the autotransformer is .

(a) 450 kVA (b) 475 kW (c) 550 kVA (d) 550 kW
 l. For a single phase, two winding transformer, the supply frequency and voltage are both
increased by 10%. The percentage changes in the hysteresis loss and eddy current loss,
respectively, are
(a) 10 and 21 (b) -10 and 21 (c) 21 and 10 (d) -21 and 10

m. A single phase air core transformer, fed from a rated sinusoidal supply, is operating at no
load. The steady state magnetizing current drawn by the transformer from the supply will
have the waveform

C is the ans

Induction machine
a. A balanced three-phase voltage is applied to a star-connected induction motor, the phase to neutral
voltage being V. the stator resistance, rotor resistance referred to the stator, stator leakage
reactance, rotor leakage reactance referred to the stator and the magnetizing reactance are
denoted by rs , r ’, x , x ’ and X respectively. The magnitude of the starting current of the motor is
given by: r s r m

V
(b)
2
r  (x  X ) 2
(rs  r r' )2  (x s x' )2r s s m
V V
d.
2
(rs  rr )  ( X m  x )
' 2 ' 2
r
rs  ( X m  xr' ) 2

b. A 220V, 50Hz, single-phase induction motor has the following connection diagram and
winding orientations shown. MM' is the axis of the main stator winding (M1M2) and AA' is that
of the auxiliary winding (A1A2). Directions of the winding axes indicate direction of flux when
currents in the windings are in the directions shown. Parameters of each winding are indicated.
When switch S is closed, the motor
 • Rotates clockwise (b) Rotates anticlockwise
(c) Does not rotate (d) Rotates momentarily and comes to a halt

c. A 230 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, single-phase induction motor is rotating in the clockwise (forward)
direction at a speed of 1425 rpm. If the rotor resistance at standstill is 7.8  . then the
effective rotor resistance in the backward branch of the equivalent circuit will be

(a) 2  (b) 4  (c) 78  (d) 156 


d. A 400 V, 50 Hz, 30 hp, three phase induction motor is drawing 50 A current at 0.8 power factor
lagging. The stator and rotor copper losses are 1.5 kW and 900 W respectively. The friction and
windage losses are 1050 W and the core losses are 1200 W. the air-gap power of the motor will be

(a) 23.06 kW (b) 24.11 kW (c) 25.01 kW (d) 26.21 kW

e. A three-phase squirrel cage induction motor has a starting torque of 150% and a maximum torque of
300% with respect to rated torque at rated voltage and rated frequency. Neglect the stator
resistance and rotational losses. The value of slip for maximum torque is

(a) 13.48% (b) 16.24% (c) 18.92% (d) 26.79%

f. A three phase squirrel cage induction motor has a starting current of seven times the full load
current and the full slip of 5%. If an autotransformer is used for reduced voltage starting to
provide 1.5 per unit starting torque, the autotransformer ratio (%) should be

(a) 57.77% (b) 72.56% (c) 78.25% (d) 81.33%

g. An eight pole wound rotor induction motor operating on 60 Hz supply is driven at 1800 rpm by a
prime mover in the opposite direction of the revolving magnetic field. The frequency of rotor
current is

• 60 Hz (b) 120 Hz (c) 180 Hz (d) None of the above

h. Leakage flux in an induction motor is

• flux that leaks through the machine

• flux that links both stator and rotor windings
• flux that links none of the windings
• flux that links the stator winding or the rotor winding but not both

i. A 4-pole induction motor, supplied by a slightly unbalanced three-phase 50Hz source, is rotating
at 1440 rpm. The electrical frequency in Hz of the induced negative sequence current in the
rotor is
(a) 100 (b) 98 (c) 52 (d) 48

j. A three-phase, 4pole, self-excited induction generator is feeding power to a load at a

frequency f1. If the load is partially removed, the frequency becomes f2. If the speed of the
generator is maintained at 1500 rpm in both the cases, then

• f 1f2 > 50Hz and f1 > f2 (b) f1 < 50Hz and f2 > 50Hz
(c) f1 f2 < 50Hz and f2 > f1 (d) f1 > 50Hz and f2 < 50Hz

k. A single phase induction motor draws 12 MW power at 0.6 lagging power. A capacitor is
connected in parallel to the motor to improve the power factor of the combination of motor and
capacitor to 0.8 lagging. Assuming that the real and reactive power drawn by the motor remains
same as before, the reactive power delivered by the capacitor in MVAR is
.

• 5 MVAR (b) 6 MVAR (c) 7 MVAR (d) 8 MVAR

l. A three-phase slip-ring induction motor, provided with a commutator winding, is shown in the
figure. The motor rotates in clockwise direction when the rotor windings are closed.
 If the rotor winding is open circuited and the system is made to run at rotational speed fr with the help of prime-mover in anti-
clockwise direction, then the frequency of voltage across slip rings is f1 and frequency of voltage across commutator brushes is f2.
The values of f1 and f2 respectively are

(a) f + fr and f (b) f - fr and f (c) f - fr andf+ fr (d) f - fr and f

Synchronous machine

a. A three phase synchronous motor connected to ac mains is running at full load and unity power
factor. If its shaft load is reduced by half, with field held constant, its new power factor will be

• unity b) leading (c) lagging (d) dependent on machine parameters

b. A 100 kVA, 415 V (line), star connected synchronous machine generates rated open circuit voltage
of 415 V at a field current of 15 A. The short circuit armature current at a field current of 10 A
is equal to the rated armature current. The per unit saturated synchronous reactance is

(a) 1.731 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.666 (d) 0.577

c. A 500 MW, 21 kV, 50Hz, 3-phase, 2-pole synchronous generator having a rated p.f. = 0.9 has a
moment of inertia of 27.5 x 103 kg-m2. The inertia constant (H) will be

(a) 2.44 s (b) 2.71 s (c) 4.88 s (d) 5.42 s

d. A synchronous motor is connected to an infinite bus at 1.0 pu voltage and draws 0.6 pu current
at unity power factor. Its synchronous reactance is 1.0 pu and resistance is negligible. The
excitation voltage (E) and load angle (  ) will respectively be
• 0.8 pu and 36.86o lag (b) 0.8 pu and 36.86o lead
(c) 1.17 pu and 30.96olead (d) 1.17 pu and 30.96o lag
e. An ideal synchronous motor has no starting torque because the
• rotor is made up of salient poles
• relative velocity between the stator and rotor mmfs is zero
(c) relative velocity between the stator and rotor mmfs is not zero
(d) rotor winding is highly inductive

f. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at unity power factor. If the field current is
increased, the pf will become
• leading and the current will decrease
• lagging and the current will increase
• lagging and the current will decrease
(d) leading and the current will increase

g. A three phase synchronous motor is operating at a load angle of 20o and with excitation voltage
equal to applied voltage. The synchronous reactance drop in terms of excitation voltage will be,

(a) 69.46% (b) 34.73% (c)32.9% (d) 38.2%

h. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the

• angle between stator voltage and current

• angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator
• angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating axis.
• angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously rotating
axis.

i. A 20-pole alternator is having 180 identical stator slots with 6 conductors in each slot. All the
coils of a phase are in series. If the coils are connected to realize single-phase winding, the
generated voltage is V1. If the coils are reconnected to realize three-phase star-connected
winding, the generated phase voltage is V2. Assuming full pitch, single-layer winding, the
ratio V1 /V2 is

j. Admin
A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus with excitation voltage Ef = 1.3 pu.
2017-10-29 22:56:46
The generator has a synchronous reactance of 1.1 pu and is delivering real power (P) of 0.6 pu
--------------------------------------------
to the bus. Assume the infinite bus voltage to be 1.0 pu. NeglectAnswer stator isresistance.
(D) The
reactive power (Q) in pu supplied by the generator to the bus under this condition is
.

(a) 0.15 (b) 0.109 (c) 0.115 (d) 0.119

k. A three-phase, salient pole synchronous motor is connected to an infinite bus. Ig is operated at
no load a normal excitation. The field excitation of the motor is first reduced to zero and then
increased in reverse direction gradually. Then the armature current
• Increases continuously
• First increases and then decreases steeply
• First decreases and then increases steeply
• Remains constant

l. The direct axis and quadrature axis reactance’s of a salient pole alternator are 1.2p.u and
1.0p.u respectively. The armature resistance is negligible. If this alternator is delivering rated
kVA at upf and at rated voltage then its power angle is
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900

DC machines

a. A separately excited dc machine is coupled to a 50Hz, three-phase, 4-pole induction machine

as shown in the figure. The dc machine is energized first and the machines rotate at 1600
rpm. Subsequently the induction machine is also connected to a 50Hz, three-phase source, the
phase sequence being consistent with the direction of rotation. In steady state,

p. Both machines act as generators

q. The dc machine acts as a generator, and the induction machine acts as a motor (C) The
dc machine acts as a motor, and the induction machine acts as a generator
(D) Both machines act as motors

b. The dc motor, which can provide zero speed regulation at full load without any controller, is

• series (b) shunt (c) cumulative compound (d) differential compound

c. A 4-pole, separately excited wave wound DC machine with negligible armature resistance is rated for
230 V and 5 kW at a speed of 1200 rpm. If the same armature coils are connected
 to form a lap winding. What is the rated voltage (in volts) and power (in kW) respectively at 1200 rpm of the reconnected
machine if the field circuit is left unchanged?

(a) 230 and 5 (b) 115 and 5 (c) 115 and 2.5 (d) 230 and 2.5

d. A 220 V shunt motor develops a torque of 54 N-m at armature current of 10 A. The torque produced
when the armature current is 20 A is

• 54 N-m (b) 81 N-m (c) 108 N-m (d) None of the above

e. A dc shunt generator having a shunt field of 50  was generating normally at 1000 rpm. The critical
resistance of this machine was 80  . Due to some reason the speed of the prime mover became such
that the generator just failed to generate. The speed at that time must have been

(a) 1000 rpm (b) 800 rpm (c) 625 rpm (d) 500 rpm

f. If the speed of the dc motor increases with the load torque, then it is

• series motor (b) permanent magnet motor (c) differentially compounded motor
(d) cumulatively compounded motor

k. A 250 V dc shunt machine has armature circuit resistance of 0.6Ω and field circuit resistance
of125 Ω. The machine is connected to 250 V supply mains. The motor is operated as a generator
and then as a motor separately. The line current of the machine in both the cases is 50 A. The
ratio of the speed as a generator to the speed as a motor is .
(a) 1.7 (b) 2.7 (c) 2.27 (d) 1.27

l. A 220 V, DC shunt motor is operating at a speed of 1440 rpm. The armature resistance is 1.0Ω
and armature current is 10A. of the excitation of the machine is reduced by 10%, the extra
resistance to be put in the armature circuit to maintain the same speed and torque will be
(a) 1.79 Ω (b) 2.1 Ω (c) 18.9 Ω (d) 3.1 Ω

m. A 220 V, 15 kW, 1000 rpm shunt motor with armature resistance of 0.25 Ω, has a rated line
current of 68 A and a rated field current of 2.2 A. The change in field flux required to obtain a
speed of 1600 rpm while drawing a line current of 52.8 A and a field current of 1.8 A is
• 18.18% increase (b) 18.18% decrease (c) 36.36% increase (d) 36.36% decrease

COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS – Power Systems

a. Consider two buses connected by an impedance of . The bus1 voltage

magnitude of 100V and its angle and bus 2 voltage is voltage magnitude of 100V
and its angle . The real and reactive power supplied by bus1 respectively are,
 A. 1000W, 268VAR B. -
1000W, -134 VAR
C. 276.9 W, -56.7 VAR
D. -276.9 W, 56.7 VAR

b. A loss less transmission line having Surge Impedance Loading (SIL) of 2280 MW is
provided with a uniformly distributed series capacitive compensation of 30%. Then,
SIL of the compensated transmission line is
i. 1835MW
j. 2280MW
C. 2725MW
D. 3257MW

c. The A,B,C,D constants of 220kV transmission line are,

If the sending end voltage of the line for a given load delivered at nominal voltage is 240kV, the % voltage regulation
of the line is

p. 5

q. 9

C. 16

D. 21

d. A 400V, 50Hz three phase balanced source supplies power to a star connected load
whose rating is . The rating (in kVAR) of the delta connected
(capacitive) reactive power bank necessary to bring the power factor to unity is
A. 28.78
B. 21.60
C. 16.60
D. 12.47
 e. An 800kV transmission line has a maximum power transfer capacity of P. If it is
operated at 400kV with the series reactance unchanged, the new maximum power
transfer capcity is approximately,
a. P
b. 2P
c. P/2
D. P/4

f. The parameters of a transposed overhead transmission line are given as: Self
reactance and mutual reactance The positive sequence
reactance and negative reactance respectively in /km are
A. 0.3, 0.2
B. 0.5,0.2
C. 0.5, 0.6
D. 0.3,0.6

g. At an industrial substation with a 4MW load, a capacitor of 2MVAR is installed to

maintain the load power at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of service, the load
power factor becomes
A. 0.85
B. 1.00
• 0.80 lag
• 0.90 lag

h. The bus impedance matrix of a 4 bus power system is given by

A branch having an impedance of j0.2 is connected between bus 2 and the reference. Then the values of and
of the bus impedance matrix of the modified network are respectively
A. B.
C. D.
i. A 75MVA, 10kV synchronous generator has The value (in pu) to a base
of 100MVA, 11kV is
A. 0.578
B. 0.279
C. 0.412
D. 0.44

j. The sequence components of the fault current are as follows: ,

and . The type of fault in the system is
• Line to Ground fault
• Line to Line fault
• Line to Line to Ground fault
• Line to Line to Line to Ground Fault

k. A power system has two synchronous generators. The Governor-turbine

characteristics corresponding to the generators are

Where f denotes the system frequency in Hz, and P 1 and P2 are the power outputs (in MW) of turbines 1 and 2
respectively. Assuming the generators and transmission network to be lossless, the system frequency for a total
load of 400MW is
A. 47.5Hz B.
48.0Hz
c. 48.5Hz
d. 49.0Hz

l. For the power system shown below, SD1 and SD2 are complex power demands at bus 1
and bus 2 respectively. If =1pu, the VAR rating of the capacitor (QG2) connected
at bus 2 is,
 V1 V2
10pu Z  j0.5pu

1 2
SG1

SD1 1pu QG 2
SD2
1pu

A. 0.2pu B.
0.268pu C.
0.312pu
D. 0.4pu

m. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by

• Load power factor
• Switching over voltages
• Harmonics
• Corona

n. A generator with constant 1 pu terminal voltage supplies power through a step up

transformer of 0.12 pu reactance and a double circuit line to an infinite bus bar as
shown in the figure 3. The infinite bus voltage is maintained at 1pm. Neglecting the
resistances and susceptances of the system, the steady state stability power limit of
the system is 6.25pu. If one of the double circuit is tripped, then resulting steady state
stability power limit in pu will be
 Figure.3

A. 12.5 pu B.
3.125pu
c. 10.0 pu
D. 5.0 pu

o. A booster is a
• series wound generator
• shunt wound generator
• synchronous generator
• none of the above

p. High voltage transmission lines use

A. suspension insulators
• pin insulators
• both (a) and (b)
• none of the above

q. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when

• Line is energized
• There is no current in the line
• Line is on full load
• Circuit breaker is not open

r. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

• Resistivity of conductor material increases
• Permeability of conductor material increases
• Diameter increases
• Frequency increases

s. A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect

A. an alternator
e. an transformer
f. a transmission line
g. a bus bar

t. A consumer consumes 600kWh per day at a load factor of 0.4. If the consumer
increases the load factor of 0.7 without increasing the maximum demand, what is the
energy consumption in kWh?
• 950kWh
• 1000kWh
C. 1050kWh
D. 1100kWh

u. The load duration for a system is shown in figure below. The load factor will be

30

25
Load in
MW

20

8 16 24

Time in Hrs
A. 0.83
B. 0.96
C. 0.67
D. 0.5

v. The main consideration for higher and higher operating voltage of transmission is to
• increase the efficiency of transmission
• reduce power losses
• increase power transmission capability
D. both (A) and (B)

w. A single phase transmission line of impedance supplies a resistive load of 5 at

300V. The sending end power factor is
• Unity
• 0.8 lagging
• 0.64 lagging
• 0.8 leading

x. A power station has a maximum demand of 15000kW. The annual load factor is 50%
and capacity factor is 40%. Determine the reserve capacity of the plant?
• 3000kW
• 1875kW
C. 3750kW
D. 12000kW

y. In short transmission line, if the resistance ad inductance are found to be equal and
regulation appear to be zero, then the load will be
• have unity power factor
• have zero power factor
• be 0.707 lagging
D. be 0.707 leading

z. The function of the earth wire in an extra high voltage line is to

• prevent earth fault
• provide a safety measure for any high flying object
• provide a shield to the phase conductors from direct lightning stroke
• provide mechanical strength to the towers

aa. Two generator units G1 and G2 are connected by 11kV line with a bus at the mid
point as shown below.
 1
3 2
10km
10km

G1 G2
11kV
11kV

G1=250MVA, 11kV, positive sequence reactance X=25% on its own base G2=100MVA, 11kV,
positive sequence reactance X=10% on its own base L1 and L2 =11km, positive sequence
reactance X=0.11 /km.
The three phase fault at the bus 3 is,
• 82.55MVA
• 85.11MVA
C. 170.91MVA
D. 181.82MVA

bb. What is the function of economizer in steam boilers

• Improving thermal efficiency
• Cooling
• Collect ash particles
D. All the above

cc. Pumped storage plant is a

A. base load plant B.
peak load plant
c. both (A) and (B)
d. none of the above

dd. The only place where slip ring induction motors used in thermal power plants is
• coal handling plant
• conveyors
• lubrication oil pumps
• none of the above
ee. The horizontally placed conductors of a single phase line operating at 50Hz are
having outside diameter of 1.6 cm and the spacing between centers of the conductors
is 6m. The permittivity of free space is 8.854 x 10-12F/m. The capacitance to ground
per kilometer of each line is
A. 4.2 X 10-9F/km B. 8.4
X 10-9 9F/km
C. 4.2 X 10-12 9F/km
D. 8.4 X 10-12 9F/km

ff. For a fault terminals of the synchronous generator, the fault current is maximum for a
• 3 phase fault
• 3 phase to ground fault
C. Line to ground fault
D. Line to line fault

gg. The use of high speed circuit breakers

• Reduces the short circuit current
• Improves system stability
• Decreases system stability
• Increases the short circuit current

hh. Charging current due to capacitance C when a single phase line is transmitting power
at a voltage V and angular frequency  is
A.1/jCV
B.jCV.
c. jC/V.
d. V/jC.

ii. For constant transmission efficiency, voltage is increased n times, the size of the
conductor would be
• Reduced to (1/n2) times of the original
• Increased to (n2) times of the original
• Reduced to (1/n) times of the original
• Increased to (n) times of the original
jj. Inductance of a conductor due to its internal flux is
• 2π x 10-7 H/m
B. (2π x 10-7 )-1H/m

C. H/m
D. 0.5 x 10-7 H/m

kk. A conductor has seven identical strands of r=1 cm each. The GMR of the conductor is
• 7 cm
• 3.5 cm
C. 2.177 cm
D. 0.177 cm

ll. The presence of the earth alters the

A. Electric field of the line B.
Capacitance of the line
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Inductance of the line

mm. The charging current in the cables

A. Lags the voltage by 90 B. Leads
the voltage by 90
c. In phase with the voltage
d. None of the above

nn. A 50Hz, 4 pole alternator rated at 20MVA, 13.2kV has an inertia constant H=4kW
sec/KVA. The kinetic energy stored in the rotor at synchronous speed is
A. 80KJ B.
60MJ
c. 40MJ
d. 20MJ

oo. If is the loss angle of the cable, its power factor is

A.
B.
C. Power factor is independent of
D.

pp. Corona loss can be reduced by the use of the hollow conductor because
• The current density is reduced
• Eddy current in the conductor is eliminated
• For a given cross section, the radius of the conductor is increased
• Of better ventilation in the conductor

qq. If the specific resistance of the conductor is increased, what effect does it result in
skin effect?
• Remains same
• Decreasing
• Increasing
• None of the above

rr. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the capacitance of the line will
• Increase
• Decrease
• Remain same
• Decrease exponentially

ss. If = =33kV (three phase) and X=13 /phase, what will be the maximum power
transmission per phase?
• 29MW
• 30MW
• 60MW
D. 28MW

tt. Corona loss is maximum when using:

• ACSR
• Stranded wire.
• Un stranded Wire.
• Transposed wire.
 uu. The characteristic impedance of a lossless underground cable is typically
A. 40 to 60
B. 100 to 120. C.
400 to 600 D.
1000 to 1500



vv. A power system consists of 300 buses out of which 20 buses are generator buses
,25 buses are with reactive power support and 15 buses are with shunt capacitors.
All the other buses are load buses. It is proposed to perform a load flow analysis in
the system using Newton Raphson Method. The size of the Newton raphson
Jacobian matrix is
A. 533X533 B.
540X5540 C.
555X555 D.
554X554

ww. A Series compensated transmission line has better

• Transient stability
• Steady state stability.
• Short Circuit Capacity.
• Reactive Capacity.

xx. Buchholz relay is used for the protection of

• Alternators.
• Switchyard
s.
• Transforme
rs.
• Transmission lines.