Answer keys : AIATS For One Year Medical-2020 (XII Passed)_Practice Test-01

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 1

The range of strong nuclear force is

Options:

10–10 m

10–6 m

10–15 m

1015 m

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint & Sol. : Range of strong nuclear force is

10–15 m.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 2

Which of the following is not included in macroscopic domain?

Options:

Mechanics

Optics

Thermodynamics

Nuclear physics

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : Nuclear physics is included in microscopic domain.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 3

The order of magnitude of height of Mount Everest above sea level in SI unit is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Nearest power of ten.

Sol. : Height of Mount Everest = 8848 m

= 8.448 × 103

After rounding off, height ≈ 104 m

So, order of magnitude (in SI) = 4

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 4

True value of a measurement is 7.01 m. Which of the following is the most accurate reading?

Options:

6.99 m

7.09 m

7.11 m

7.05 m

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Closeness of measured value with true value determines the accuracy.

Sol. : 6.99 m is closest to 7.01 m.

|6.99 – 7.01| = 0.02 m is minimum among given options.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 5

A quantity z is given as . If percentage error in a, b, c and d are 2%, 3%, 2% and 1% respectively, then maximum percentage

error in z will be

Options:

6%

7%

9%

11%

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Power rule of combination of errors.

Sol. :

= 9%

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 6

If the length and breadth of a thin rectangular sheet are measured as (18.2 ± 0.1) cm and (10.2 ± 0.1) cm respectively, then its area with
appropriate error limit can be represented as

Options:

(186 ± 2) cm2

(186 ± 3) cm2

(186 ± 4) cm2

(184 ± 1) cm2

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Rules for Arithmetic operations.

Sol. : A = l × b

= 18.2 × 10.2 = 185.64 cm2

= 186 cm2

Now,

⇒ ΔA =

= 1.52 + 1.02 = 2.84 cm2

As in area A = 186 cm2, least significant digit is 6, so, ΔA = 3 cm2.

A = (186 ± 3) cm2

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 7

If momentum ‘p’, mass ‘m’ and time ‘t’ are taken as the fundamental units, then dimensional formula for area will be

Options:

[p2 m2 t–2]

[p2 m–2 t2]

[p2 m–2 t1]

[p2 m–2 t–2]

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Use of dimensional formula to determine relation among various physical quantities.

Sol. : p = mv

or, p =

or, [l] = [pm–1 t]

⇒ [A] = [l2] = [p2m–2t2]

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 8

A student measured the length of a square sheet using a vernier calliper of least count 0.01 cm. The main scale reading is 8.9 cm and 7th
division of vernier coincides with one of main scale division. If vernier calliper has a zero error of +0.02 cm, then the correct length of the
sheet is

Options:

8.95 cm

8.97 cm

8.99 cm

8.96 cm

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Correct length = MSR + VSR × LC – zero error

Sol. : Correct length = 8.9 + 7 × 0.01 – 0.02

= 8.9 + 0.05

= 8.95 cm

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 9

Which of the following has different dimensions from other?

Options:

Stress

Pressure

Energy density

Strain

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : Strain is dimensionless, while stress, pressure and energy density, all are having same dimensions.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 10

The number of significant zeroes present in the measured value 1.0200 m is

Options:

One

Two

Three

Both (1) and (2)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint & Sol. : In a number with decimal, all trailing zeros are significant. So, number of significant zeros will be three.

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 11

If percentage error in the measurement of mass is 20% and in velocity is 15%, then percentage error in the momentum will be

Options:

32%

35%

17.5%

38%

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Percentage error is greater than 5%.

Sol. : p = mv …(1)

p' = (1.2 m) (1.15 v)

or, p' = 1.38 mv = 1.38 p …(2)

Percentage error in momentum

= 38%

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 12

Systematic errors can be minimised by

Options:

Using more accurate instruments

Improving experimental techniques

Taking large number of readings

Both (1) and (2)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : Systematic errors can be minimised by using more accurate instruments and improving experimental techniques.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 13

The position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = (–t3 + 6t2) m. The velocity of particle, when acceleration becomes zero is (t is
in s)

Options:

–12 m/s

12 m/s

24 m/s

6 m/s

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : a = 0 ⇒

Sol. : x = – t3 + 6t2

v= = – 3t2 + 12t …(1)

a= = – 6t + 12

If, a = 0

⇒ –6t + 12 = 0

or, t = 2 s

Velocity at t = 2 s

= –3 × (2)2 + 12 × 2

= –12 + 24 = 12 m/s

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 14

A ball ‘A’ is dropped from the top of a tower of height 125 m. Another ball ‘B’ is thrown simultaneously with speed 20 m/s in vertically
upward direction from the base of tower. Two balls will meet after time (g = 10 ms–2) (assume balls do not rebound after striking ground)

Options:

t=4s

t=5s

t = 6.25 s

t=8s

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : tB =

Sol. : Time of flight of ball ‘A’ dropped from top of the tower.

tA =

For the ball ‘B’ thrown vertically upward

As ball B reaches the ground in 4 s,

so, two balls will meet after 5 s

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 15

Which of the following is correct for a particle moving along a straight line?

Options:

Magnitude of displacement is always equal to distance

Magnitude of average velocity is always equal to average speed

Magnitude of average velocity may be equal to instantaneous speed

Both (1) and (2)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint & Sol. : If particle is moving with constant velocity then magnitude of average velocity is equal to instantaneous speed.

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 16 (skipped)

A body having initial velocity m/s is having acceleration m/s2. The distance covered by the body in 4th second of its journey is

Options:

1.25 m

2.25 m

1.5 m

2.0 m

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Direction of motion reverses during the 4th second.

Sol. : v = u + at

⇒ 0 = 15 – 4t

⇒t= = 3.75 s

So, distance covered,

= 1.25 m

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 17

A bus starts its motion from rest with constant acceleration 2 m/s2. A boy standing 100 m behind it, starts following it with constant speed
14 m/s. The minimum distance between the bus and the boy will be

Options:

Zero

49 m

51 m

129 m

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : At the time of minimum separation, velocity of bus is equal to velocity of boy.

Sol. : Velocity of bus becomes 14 m/s after 7 s

Taking origin at the initial position of the boy, position of bus at t = 7 s

xbus =

Position of the boy at this instant

xboy = 14 × 7 = 98 m

Minimum separation between them,

= |xbus – xboy| = 149 – 98 = 51 m

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 18

For a particle moving along a straight line, its position (x) with time (t) is given by (t > 0). Which of the following statement is correct?

Options:

Acceleration is positive and speed is increasing

Acceleration is negative and speed is increasing

Acceleration is positive and speed is decreasing

Acceleration is negative and speed is decreasing

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Speed decreases when velocity and acceleration are opposite in direction.

Sol. :

So, acceleration is positive and speed is decreasing

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 19

Graph of versus x of a particle, where v is speed (in m/s) and x is position moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. The time

taken by particle to move from x = 0 m to x = 10 m is

Options:

100 s

75 s

60 s

50 s

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : . .

Sol. :

So,

= area under vs x graph

At, x = 0,

And at x = 10,

t = area of trapezium

= 100 s

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 20

A body is dropped from the top of a tower. Distance covered by it in the last two seconds of its flight is equal to distance covered in first four
seconds. Height of the tower is (g = 10 ms–2)

Options:

180 m

160 m

105 m

125 m

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : . .

Sol. : Let time of fall be t sec. In last two seconds, distance covered

= 5[t2 – (t – 2)2]

= 5[4t – 4]

According to question,

5(4t – 4) =

5(4t – 4) = 80

⇒t= =5s

Height of tower,

H=

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 21

Acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle moving along a straight line is as shown here. If initial velocity of particle is –10 m/s, then change
in speed of particle from t = 0 to t = 4 s, is

Options:

Zero

20 m/s

30 m/s

10 m/s

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Change in speed = .

Sol. : Change in velocity = area under a – t graph

or, v – (–10) =

or, v = 10 m/s

Change in speed =

= 10 – 10

= zero

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 22

A boat takes 2 hours to move downstream and 3 hours to move upstream between two fixed point in a river. The time taken by boat to
cover one side journey in still water is

Options:

2.5 hours

2.4 hours

2.25 hours

2.75 hours

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : where v is speed of boat in still water.

Sol. : Let v be the speed of boat in still water and u, the speed of river.

According to question,

2= …(1)

and, 3 = …(2)

From equation (1) and (2)

2v + 2u = 3v – 3u

⇒ v = 5u

and, d = 12u

Time taken by boat to cover one side journey.

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 23

Two vectors and are given such that sum of their magnitude is 18. Their resultant has a magnitude 12 and is perpendicular
to smaller vector. Magnitudes of and , respectively are

Options:

12, 6

10, 8

13, 5

14, 4

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Triangle law of vector addition.

Sol. : = 18

or, A = 18 – B

Also,

A2 = R2 + B2

⇒ (18 – B)2 = 122 + B2

⇒ 324 – 36 B = 144

⇒B=5

and, A = 13

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 24

A particle is moving in a circular path with constant speed. The angle between velocity vector and angular velocity vector is

Options:

0°

90°

180°

135°

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint & Sol. : Direction of angular velocity is perpendicular to the plane of motion. So angular velocity is perpendicular to linear velocity.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 25

For two vectors and , is always true when

Options:

When either or is zero

Both (2) and (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Addition and subtraction of vectors.

Sol. :

⇒ 4 AB cosθ = 0

⇒ either θ = 90° or, AB = 0

⇒ =0

or =0

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 26 (skipped)

A fighter plane is flying horizontally at an altitude of 4500 m with speed 720 km/h. At what angle of sight w.r.t. horizontal when the target is
seen, should the pilot drop the bomb in order to strike the target? (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

30°

45°

60°

37°

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Range in case of horizontal projection.

Sol. :

Speed of aeroplane

u = 720 km/h = = 200 m/s

= 30 s

Horizontal distance covered by the bomb,

R = ut = 200 × 30 = 6000 m

If θ be the angle of sight w.r.t. horizontal, then

⇒ θ = 37°

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 27

A ship ‘A’ is moving westward with a speed of 30 km h–1 and another ship ‘B’ 100 km south of A, is moving northwards with a speed of 40
km h–1. The minimum distance between the two ships, is

Options:

60 km

80 km

50 km

40 km

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Relative velocity using vector method.

Sol. :

Relative velocity of A w.r.t. B,

⇒ θ = 53°

Now, distance of closest approach is perpendicular distance

BM = AB sin37°

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 28

Co-ordinates of a particle moving in x-y plane is given by x = 4(1 – cosωt) and y = 4 sinωt. Equation of trajectory of the particle is (ω is a
constant)

Options:

x2 + y2 = 16

x2 – y2 = 16

(x – 4)2 + y2 = 16

x2 + (y – 4)2 = 16

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : sin2θ + cos2θ = 1

Sol. : x = 4(1 – cosωt)

⇒ x – 4 = –4 cosωt …(1)

y = 4 sinωt …(2)

So, (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 cos2ωt + 16 sin2ωt

⇒ (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 29 (skipped)

A fighter plane is flying with speed 50 m/s at an angle 37° with the horizontal as shown in the figure. A bomb is released from the plane at
this instant at origin O. The bomb explodes 2 seconds after release. At this instant of explosion bomb is at co-ordinate (g = 10 m/s2)

Options:

(40, 40) m

(80, –40) m

(80, 80) m

(80, 40) m

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Initial velocity of bomb is equal to velocity of plane.

Sol. :

Initial velocity of bomb

u = 50 m/s

ux = 50 cos37° = 40 m/s ⇒ sx = 40 × 2 = 80 m

uy = 50 sin37° = 30 m/s

So, sy =

Required co-ordinates = (80, 40) m

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 30 (skipped)

A particle is moving in x-y plane, where x-axis is along the horizontal and y-axis is along vertically upward. Its co-ordinates are given as x =
3t, y = 4t – 2t2, where x and y are in metre and t is in seconds. x co-ordinate of particle, when it is at maximum y co-ordinate, is

Options:

9m

6m

3m

4m

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : At maximum height,

Sol. : y = 4t – 2t2

At maximum height,

= 4 – 4t = 0

⇒t=1s

So, x = 3 t

=3m

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 31 (skipped)

A body is projected with speed 40 m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal. The average velocity of the particle from the instant of projection
till it attains maximum height is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : .

Sol. : ux = 40 cos60° = 20 m/s

and uy = 40 sin60° = m/s

As horizontal component of velocity remains constant, so (vx)av = 20 m/s

At maximum height, vy = 0

So,

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 32 (skipped)

In a two dimensional motion, tangential acceleration is given by the expression (symbols have their usual meaning)

Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Tangential acceleration is the resolution of acceleration in the direction of velocity.

Sol. : If θ be the angle between instantaneous velocity and acceleration , then, tangential acceleration.

at = a cosθ

From dot product,

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 33 (skipped)

A man who can swim in still water at speed 4 km/h, swims in a river flowing with speed 3 km/h. He wishes to reach point B as shown in
figure. If width of river is 500 m, then time taken to cross the river is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Direction of resultant velocity is at 53° with the flow of river.

Sol. :

Let makes angle a with line AB. Resultant velocity will be along , if

i.e. is directed perpendicular to flow of river

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 34 (skipped)

A body is projected with speed 20 m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal at t = 0 s. The radius of curvature of trajectory of particle at
is (g = 10 m/s2)

Options:

20 m

15 m

10 m

8m

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : where α is angle with horizontal.

Sol. : ux = 20 cos60° = 10 m/s

uy = 20 sin60° = m/s

at s

So, velocity at this moment

v = 10 m/s

and angle with horizontal, α = 0°

Now, radius of curvature,

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 35 (skipped)

A body is projected horizontally with speed 30 m s–1 from the top of a tower of height 100 m. The angle made by velocity vector with
downward vertical at t = 4 s is (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

53°

37°

45°

60°

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : where θ is angle with vertical.

Sol. : Vertical component of velocity at t = 4 s

vy = uy + gt (taking downward direction as positive)

vy = 10 × 4 = 40 m/s

θ = 37°

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 36 (skipped)

A particle projected from ground moves horizontally two seconds after the projection. Also the angle made by the velocity with horizontal
becomes 30°, three seconds after the projection. The angle of projection is (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

45°

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : .

Sol. : Let speed of projection be u and angle of projection be θ. At t = 2 s, particle is moving horizontally. So,

u sinθ – g × 2 = 0

⇒ u sinθ = 2g

After 3 s, angle is 30° with horizontal.

so,

⇒ u cosθ = g

Angle of projection,

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 37 (skipped)

A particle is moving with constant speed v0 in x-y plane. Its equation of trajectory is given by y = βx2. The acceleration of particle when it
passes through the origin, is

Options:

βv02

2βv02

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : For constant speed, tangential acceleration is zero.

Sol. :

At origin, direction of velocity is along x-axis, so ax= 0 at origin.

y = βx2

vy = 2βxvx

As ax = 0 at origin

a = ay = 2βvx2 = 2βv02

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 38 (skipped)

Which of the following is true for a particle performing uniform circular motion?

Options:

Magnitude of particle’s velocity keeps on changing

Particle’s velocity remains perpendicular to radius vector

Direction of acceleration keeps changing as the particle moves

Both (2) and (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : In uniform circular motion, direction of centripetal acceleration keeps on changing.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 39 (skipped)

A river is flowing due east with speed 4 m/s. A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of 3 m/s. If swimmer standing on south bank of
river, wishes to reach directly opposite point on the north bank by swimming, then the direction in which he should swim, is

Options:

127° with the river flow

143° with the river flow

90° with the river flow

Swimmer cannot reach directly opposite point

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : When speed of river is greater than speed of swimmer in still water, he cannot reach directly opposite point.

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 40 (skipped)

A man riding a bicycle with speed 4 m/s towards east direction, observes rain falling vertically downward. If he increases his speed to 6 m/s,
rain appears to meet him at 30° to the vertical. The speed of rain is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Vector diagram in relative velocity.

Sol. : Let is at angle θ with vertical.

Case I :

⇒ …(1)

Case II :

⇒ …(2)

From equation (1) and (2),

m/s

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 41 (skipped)

Three persons A, B and C are initially at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. Each person now moves with constant speed
v in such a way that A always moves towards B, B towards C and C towards A. The distance covered by each person till they meet, is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Distance = speed × time taken to meet.

Sol. : Relative velocity of approach

vr = v – (–v cos60°) =

Time taken to meet =

so, distance covered by each person,

l = vt =

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 42 (skipped)

Two particles A and B are initially at rest at the origin. They are having acceleration and respectively.
The magnitude of relative velocity of A w.r.t. B at t = 2 s is

Options:

12 m/s

4 m/s

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : ; to find , use integration

Sol. :

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 43 (skipped)

A particle is moving in a circular path of radius R with constant speed v. Its average acceleration when its radius turns through an angle of
90° is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : .

Sol. : When angle between velocity vector is 90°, magnitude of change in velocity.

time taken

Average acceleration.

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 44 (skipped)

Four vectors and are given such that . Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Options:

and each must be a null vector

The magnitude of is equal to magnitude of

The magnitude of can never be greater than the sum of magnitudes of and

must lie in the plane of if are not collinear, and in the line of , if they are collinear

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint & Sol. : If , then and each may or may not be a null vector. Option (2), (3) and (4) are correct options

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 45

A vector in space makes angle 45° with positive x-axis and 60° with positive y-axis. Angle made by this vector with positive z-axis may be

Options:

45°

60°

120°

Both (2) and (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : cos2α + cos2β + cos2 =1

Sol. : Let angle with positive z-axis be .

⇒ cos245° + cos260° + cos2 =1

or,

or,

so, = 60° or 120

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 46

Which has maximum number of molecules among the following?

Options:

32 g O3

80 g SO3

42 g CO

1 g H2

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Number of molecules = Mole of molecules × NA

Sol. : Molecules of

Molecules of

Molecules of

Molecules of

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 47

3.01 × 1022 molecules of sucrose are present in 200 ml of its solution. The concentration of the solution is

Options:

0.5 M

1.5 M

1M

0.25 M

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Number of moles =

Sol. : Molarity(M) =

= = 0.25 M

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 48

4 g calcium is burnt with 3.2 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (atomic weight: Ca = 40, O = 16)

Options:

Ca, 10 g

O2, 1.6 g

Ca, 20 g

O2, 0.8 g

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

Mass of O2 left =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 49

The angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Orbital angular momentum =

Sol. : For s-orbital, l = 0

∴ Orbital angular momentum =

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 50

The maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the quantum numbers n = 4, is

Options:

10

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : = 2 means d-subshell.

Sol. : d-subshell have five orbitals means it can have maximum ten electrons.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 51

Select the wrong statement among the following.

Options:

de-Broglie’s wavelength is numerically equal to , where m = mass of particle, KE = kinetic energy of the particle

The Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is Δx × Δv ≥

In case of He+, the energy of 2s orbital is equal to the energy of 2p orbital

Orbitals having same energy are called degenerate orbitals

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle: .

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 52

The orientations of the orbitals in a subshell is given by

Options:

Spin quantum number

Principal quantum number

Magnetic quantum number

Azimuthal quantum number

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : The orientation of the orbitals in a subshell is given by magnetic quantum number.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 53

The total number of atomic orbitals in fifth energy level of a hydrogen atom is

Options:

25

36

42

30

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : In nth shell, number of atomic orbitals = n2.

Sol. : In 5th shell, number of atomic orbitals = 52 = 25.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 54

The energy of a photon having frequency 2 × 1016 Hz is

Options:

13.25 × 10–19 J

1.25 × 10–15 J

12.5 × 10–20 J

1.32 × 10–17 J

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Energy of a photon (E) = h .

Sol. : E = h

= 6.626 × 10–34 × 2 × 1016

= 1.32 × 10–17 J.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 55

The correct order of ionic radii is

Options:

H– > F– > Cl–

Cl– > F– > H–

Cl– > H– > F–

H– > Cl– > F–

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Order of ionic radii : H– > Cl– > F–.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 56

Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy is of

Options:

Cl

Solution :

Answer (1)

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 57

In the structure of XeO3, the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom Xe is

Options:

Zero

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Xenon has 8 electrons in valence shell.

Sol. :

∴ Lone pair of electrons on Xe atom = 1.

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 58

Which has the minimum bond order among the following?

Options:

CO

O2

H2

NO

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Species CO O2 H2 NO
Bond order 3 2 1 2.5

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 59

The total number of -bond electrons in the following structure is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Given compound contains 4 -bonds implying 8 -electrons.

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 60

Which of the following has a permanent dipole moment?

Options:

BF3

CO2

PCI5

NF3

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Asymmetric molecule has a permanent dipole moment.

Sol. :

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 61

The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is

Options:

LiCl > NaCl > KCl

KCl > NaCl > LiCl

NaCl > LiCl > KCl

KCl > LiCl > NaCl

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Fajan rule.

Sol. : Covalent character in ionic bond is favoured by higher charge density of cation.

∴ Covalent character : LiCl > NaCl > KCl.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 62

Due to reduction of N2 to ion, the electron adds to

Options:

σ-orbital

σ*-orbital

-orbital

-orbital

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : N2: (σ1s)2(σ*1s)2(σ2s)2(σ*2s)2( 2px)2 = ( 2py)2(σ2pz)2( *2px)0.

Sol. : Due to change of N2 to ion, the electron adds to vacant *2px orbital.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 63

In the compound the state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 6 respectively are

Options:

sp, sp3 and sp3

sp, sp2 and sp3

sp, sp and sp2

sp2, sp2 and sp

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64

Which of the following molecules contains only -bonds?

Options:

O2+

CN–

F2

C2

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : C2: (σ1s)2(σ*1s)2(σ2s)2(σ*2s)2( 2px)2 = ( 2py)2.

Sol. : For C2, Bond order =

Hence, C2 contain only two -bonds.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 65

In which of the following options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

Options:

B < Be < C < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

Si < Be < Mg < Na (increasing metallic character)

Li < C < O < F (increasing negative electron gain enthalpy)

N < C < O < F (increasing electronegativity)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Electronegativity order: F > O > N > C.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66

An atom has electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p63d84s2. In which group of periodic table this element will be placed?

Options:

Fifth

Fifteenth

Tenth

Eighth

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : 3s84s2 configuration means element belongs to d-block.

Sol. : Number of group = 8 + 2 = 10

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 67

2 litres of 0.1 M HCl solution is mixed with another 1 litre of 0.2 M HCl solution. The molarity of the resulting solution will be

Options:

0.13 M

0.23 M

0.31 M

0.47 M

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : M1V1 + M2V2 = M3V3.

Sol. :

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 68

The amount of magnesium required to produce 112 ml of H2 at STP by treatment with dilute H2SO4 will be

Options:

2.1 g

0.12 g

1.2 g

0.21 g

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

Sol. : Mole of Mg = mole of H2

wt. of Mg = 0.12 g

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69

If x g of a metal chloride contains y g of metal then equivalent weight of metal will be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Equivalent weight of a metal is that weight which combines with 35.5 g of chlorine.

Sol. : Equivalent of metal = Equivalent of chlorine

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 70

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the outermost electron of lanthanum (Z = 57) is

n m s

(1) 6 0 0

(2) 5 2 –2

(3) 5 2 0

(4) 6 1 0

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : La(57) : [Xe] 5d16s2

Sol. : Outermost electron of lanthanum is present in 6s2 orbital.

∴ n = 6, = 0, m = 0, s =

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 71

According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the most energetic photon?

Options:

n = 6 to n = 2

n = 5 to n = 1

n = 6 to n = 4

n = 5 to n = 3

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : ΔE = hcRZ2 .

Sol. : For n = 6 to n = 2, ΔE = = 0.22 K

For n = 5 to n = 1, ΔE = = 0.96 K

For n = 6 to n = 4, ΔE = = 0.034 K

For n = 5 to n = 3, ΔE = = 0.07 K.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 72

The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1. The energy of the third orbit of Li2+ will be

Options:

–626 kJ mol–1

–984 kJ mol–1

–1312 kJ mol–1

–328 kJ mol–1

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Sol. : For H-atom: n = 2, Z = 1

∴ K = 4 × 328 = 1312

For Li2+ ion: n = 3, Z = 3

= –K = –1312 kJ mol–1

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73

Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

Options:

Zn2+

Fe2+

Ti2+

Mn7+

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Zn2+ = [Ar]3d10

Fe2+ = [Ar]3d6

Ti2+ = [Ar]3d2

Mn7+ = [Ar]3d0

Sol. :

Species Unpaired electrons

Zn2+ Zero

Fe2+ 4

Ti2+ 2

Mn7+ Zero

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 74

The wavelength of light required to dissociate one molecule of A2 into A atoms is (Given: Bond energy of A – A is 66.26 kJ mol–1)

Options:

1.2 μm

2.4 μm

2.9 μm

1.8 μm

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : .

Sol. :

λ = 1.8 × 10–6 m = 1.8 μm

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 75

The incorrect electronic configuration of C atom is

Options:

Both (1) and (3)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : C atom: 1s22s22p2 due to Aufbau.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 76

The species which is not isoelectronic with CO is

Options:

CN–

NO+

O22+

C2–

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons.

Sol. :

Species: CO CN– NO+ O22+ C2–

Total
14 14 14 14 13
electrons:

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 77

Which one of the following compounds does not show intermolecular hydrogen bonding?

Options:

CH3F

CH3NH2

CH3OH

H2O2

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : For H-bonding, H-atom should be directly attached to more electronegative atoms like F, O or N.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 78

Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

Options:

C22–

O22–

N2–

He22+

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Species having unpaired electrons are paramagnetic in nature.

Sol. : contains one unpaired electron.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 79

In which of the following pairs central atom of both the species have sp3d hybridizations?

Options:

PCl5, SiF4

NH4+, SF4

BF3, XeF4

SF4, XeO2F2

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Hybridized orbital = Number of σ bond + Lone pair.

Sol. :

Species Hybridized orbitals Hybridization

SF4 4+1=5 sp3d
XeO2F2 4 + 1 = 5 sp3d
PCl5 5+0=5 sp3d
SiF4 4+0=4 sp3

NH4+ 4+0=4 sp3

BF3 3+0=3 sp2
XeF4 4+2=6 sp3d2

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 80

The correct order of increasing bond length of C — H, O — H, C — C and C — H bonds is

Options:

O—H<C—H<C—C<C—O

O—H<C—H<C—O<C—C

C—H<O—H<C—O<C—C

C—H<O—H<C—C<C—O

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

Bond: O — H C — H C — O C — C
Bond
length 96 107 143 154
(pm):

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 81

Which of the following species is not linear in shape?

Options:

CO2

BeCl2

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : sp3 hybridised species cannot have linear shape.

Sol. :

Species Hybridisation Shape

NO2+ sp [O == N == O]+ : linear

I3+ sp3 : bent

CO2 sp O == C == O : linear
BeCl2 sp Cl — Be — Cl : linear

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 82

Octet rule is not violated in

Options:

SCI2

NO2

KrF2

CIO2

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : SCl2 :

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 83

Which of the following is not a correct statement?

Options:

Actual structure of SO2 is a resonance hybrid of the two canonical structures

Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure for a given species

Each AB3 molecule has trigonal planar structure

The greater the charge on the cation, the greater will be the covalent character in ionic bond

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : AB3 molecule may or may not have trigonal planar structure.

Sol. : BF3 : sp2 hybridisation ⇒

ClF3 : sp3d hybridisation ⇒

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 84

Assuming z-axis to be intermolecular axis, which set of orbitals on overlapping form σ-bonds?

Options:

and

dyz and dyz

pz and

pz and dyz

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : pz and orbitals on overlapping form σ-bonds, if z-axis is intermolecular axis.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 85

0.9 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through NaOH pellets. Weight of the remaining
gaseous product at STP will be

Options:

0.72 g

0.46 g

0.62 g

0.28 g

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : NaOH pellets will absorb CO2(g).

Sol. :

0.01 mol

NaOH will absorb CO2 gas and H2O will be in liquid form.

∴ Weight of remaining CO(g) = Mole × MW

= 0.01 × 28 = 0.28 g

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 86

Let two elements A and B combine to form two compounds AB and AB2. If 0.2 mole of AB weighs 20 g and 0.15 mole of AB2 weighs 24 g
then atomic weights of A and B respectively are

Options:

30, 70

40, 60

80, 20

35, 65

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Mole =

Sol. : Let, atomic masses of A and B be a and b respectively.

For AB : 20 = 0.2(a + b)

For AB2 : 24 = 0.15(a + 2b)

On solving, a = 40 and b = 60

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 87

Number of 90° angles present in PCl5 molecule is/are

Options:

Zero

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : P in PCl5 is sp3d hybridised.

Sol. : PCl5 :

Number of 90° angles = 3 + 3 = 6.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 88

Among the following compounds, lattice energy is highest for

Options:

Al2O3

MgO

Li2O

LiF

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Lattice energy a charge on ions.

Sol. : Among given options AI3+ has maximum charge so lattice energy is highest for Al2O3.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 89

Which of the following pairs of species is isostructural?

Options:

XeF2, I3–

IBr2–, SO2

SO32–, NO3–

CO32–, CIO3–

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Isostructural species have same shape.

Sol. :

Species Shape

XeF2 (linear)

I3– (linear)

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 90

Which of the following species does not contain equal number of σ and -bonds?

Options:

CO2

XeO3

(CN)2

HCN

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : (CN)2 ⇒ ⇒ .

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 91

Which of the following is not a function associated with mesosomes?

Options:

DNA replication

Cell membrane formation

Respiration

Secretion

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Mesosomes are specific invaginations of plasma membrane into the prokaryotic cells.

Sol. : Mesosome helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication, respiration, secretion etc. but does not involve in cell membrane formation

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 92

A membraneless cell organelle, which is absent in the higher plant cells is

Options:

Ribosome

Centriole

Nucleolus

Lysosome

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : These structures help in cell division in animals cells.

Sol. : Centrioles are membraneless organelles, which are absent in higher plants.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 93

How many of the following structures/organelles are associated with prokaryotes?

Options:

Three

Four

Seven

Six

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Prokaryotic cells lack well defined nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.

Sol. : Chromatophores, pili, fimbriae, nucleoid, plasmid, 70S ribosomes and cell wall are present in prokaryotes.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 94

Membrane proteins whose removal does not require crude method of treatment like detergents are

Options:

Tunnel proteins

Integral proteins

Peripheral proteins

Transmembrane proteins

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : These membrane proteins lie on the surface of plasma membrane.

Sol. : Integral membrane proteins run throughout lipid bilayer so these proteins cannot be removed easily and their removal requires crude
method of treatment like detergents. On the other hand peripheral proteins which lie on the surface can be easily removed.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 95

In mitochondria, the enzymes and electron carriers for the formation of ATP are present in

Options:

Outer mitochondrial membrane

Mitochondrial matrix

Inner mitochondrial membrane

Inter-membrane space

Solution :

Answer (3)

Sol. : In mitochondria, enzymes and electron carriers for the formation of ATP are present in inner mitochondrial membrane.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A : Neutral solutes may move across plasma membrane by the process of simple diffusion along the concentration gradient.

Statement B : The quasi-fluid nature of proteins, enables their lateral movement within the overall bilayer.

Options:

Only statement A is incorrect

Only statement B is incorrect

Both statements A and B are correct

Both statements A and B are incorrect

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Phospholipids or lipid bilayer of plasma membrane is related to fluidity of the membrane.

Sol. : The quasi-fluid nature of lipids, enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 97

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. β-oxidation of fats (i) Microtubules
b. Cytoskeleton of cilia (ii) Lysosomes
c. Provide support to plasma membrane (iii) Mitochondira
d. Activity of hydrolytic enzymes (iv) Microfilaments
Options:

a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes, invovle in intracellular digestion of molecules.

Sol. : β-oxidation of fats – Mitochondria

Cytoskeleton of cilia and flagella – Microtubules

Provide support to plasma membrane – Microfilament.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 98

Which of the following types of vacuoles is present in bacteria?

Options:

Gas vacuole

Contractile vacuole

Sap vacuole

Golgian vacuole

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound cell organelles.

Sol. : Gas vacuole is a kind of inclusion body and does not have any unit membrane structure surrounding them.

Prokaryotes can have gas vacuole inside their cell.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 99

Disappearance of tail of the larva of frog during metamorphosis is due to the activity of

Options:

Primary lysosome

Autophagic vacuole

Heterophagosome

Residual bodies

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : These organelles are also called suicidal bags.

Sol. : Autophagic vacuoles or suicidal bags are formed by union of many primary lysosomes for autodigestion or autolysis of old or dead
organelles. The disappearance of the frog laraval tail during metamorphosis is due to autolysis by autophagic vacuoles.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 100

Choose the odd one w.r.t. functions of Golgi apparatus.

Options:

Formation of lysosomes

Formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis

Give rise to SER

Glycosidation of lipids to form glycolipids

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Golgi apparatus is present near to the nucleus but is not physically in contact of ER.

Sol. : Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) gives rise to smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER).

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 101

rRNA which is not a structural component of the prokaryotic ribosomes is

Options:

23S rRNA

16S rRNA

5S rRNA

18S rRNA

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S type.

Sol. : 18S rRNA is not a structural component of 70S ribosome.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102

Orange colour of carrot roots is due to

Options:

Chloroplasts

Chromoplasts

Amyloplasts

Aleuroplasts

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Chromoplasts contain carotenoid pigments.

Sol. : The orange colour of carrot roots is due to chromoplasts.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 103

Eukaryotic flagella

Options:

Helps in feeding and circulation along with locomotion

Has 9 + 0 organisation of microtubules

Is structurally similar to prokaryotic flagella

Is a membrane bound extension of plasma membrane.

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Eukaryotic flagella have 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules whereas prokaryotic flagella lack microtubules.

Sol. : Eukaryotic flagella is membrane bound extension of plasma membrane which helps in locomotion only.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 104

Which of the following structures/features are not common between mitochondria and chloroplasts?

(a) Double-stranded circular DNA

(b) 70S ribosomes

(c) Double membrane strucutre

(d) Cristae

(e) Thylakoids

(f) Being bacterial endosymbiont

Options:

(a), (b) and (c) only

(d) and (e) only

(a), (b), (c) and (f) only

All except (d)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Both mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in being bacterial endosymbiont and semi autonomous organelles.

Sol : Feature common between mitochondria and chloroplasts are

(a) Presence of double stranded circular DNA

(b) 70S ribosomes

(c) Double membrane structure

(d) Bacterial endosymbiont

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 105

Two ribosomal subunits remain united with each other due to specific concentration of

Options:

Mn2+

Ca2+

Zn2+

Mg2+

Solution :

Answer (4)

Sol. : Ribosomal subunits are united by specific concentration of Mg2+ ions.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 106

An element of cytoskeleton which involves in the formation of scaffolds of chromatin is

Options:

Intermediate filaments

Microfilaments

Microtubules

Centrioles

Solution :

Answer (1)

Sol. : Intermediate filaments are involved in the formation of scaffolds of chromatin.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 107

The function which is not associated with microtubules is

Options:

Formation of spindles and astral rays

Formation of basal body of flagella in eukaryotes

Help in formation of cleavage furrow during cell division

Help in formation of cell plate during plant cell cytokinesis

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Microtubules help in cell plate formation during plants cytokinesis.

Sol. : Formation of cleavage furrow during animal cell division occur with the help of microfilaments.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 108

Diplotene bivalent chromosomes joined at chiasmata, occurring in some vertebrates and invertebrates are called

Options:

Polytene chromosomes

Salivary gland chromosomes

Lampbrush chromosomes

SAT-chromosomes

Solution :

Answer (3)

Sol. : Lampbrush chromosomes are diplotene bivalents which are joined at specific structures called chiasmata. These chromosomes are
present in the primary oocytes of many invertebrates and vertebrates.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 109

Microbody which contains enzymes for glyoxylate cycle is

Options:

Lysosome

Glyoxysome

Sphaerosome

Peroxisome

Solution :

Answer (2)

Sol. : Microbody containing enzymes of glyoxylate cycle is glyoxysome.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 110

State true (T) or false (F) for given statements and select the correct option.

(a) Nucleoli are larger and numerous in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis.

(b) Outer membrane of nucleus is often connected to Golgi apparatus.

(c) Chromatin fibre could be stained with basic dyes.

(a) (b) (c)

(1) T T T
(2) F T T
(3) T F T
(4) F F F
Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Golgi apparatus is present in close proximity with nucleus but does not have direct connection with nuclear membrane.

Sol. : Outer membrane of nucleus is often connected with ER.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 111

Chromosome in which centromere is present at the centre

Options:

Is called acrocentric chromosome

Does not have a primary constriction

Appears L-shaped during anaphase

Contains two equal arms

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : These chromosomes appear V-shaped during anaphase.

Sol. : Chromosome in which centromere is present at the centre are metacentric chromosomes. Metacentric chromosomes contain two equal
arms.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112

During the ripening of fruits, compound which solublizes to a jelly like material is

Options:

Cellulose

Calcium pectate

Chitin

Calcium carbonate

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Ripened fruits becomes soft due to solubilisation of components of middle lamella.

Sol. : In ripening fruits, calcium and magnesium pectate solubilise to a jelly like material.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 113

Inside the chloroplasts, enzymes for synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins are present in

Options:

Stroma

Lumen

Grana

Thylakoid

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : This space is enclosed by the inner membrane of chloroplast.

Sol. : In chloroplasts, enzymes for synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins are present in stroma.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 114

Movement of ions through Na+/K+ pump in animal cells

Options:

Is a kind of passive transport

Is against their concentration gradient

Does not require energy

Occurs via simple diffusion

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Na+/K+ pump is involved in active transport of ions.

Sol. : Through Na+/K+ pump ions move against their concentration gradient across the membrane by utilising energy in the form of ATP.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 115

At maturity, mammalian RBCs lack

Options:

Cytoplasm

Proteins

Plasma membrane

Nucleus

Solution :

Answer (4)

Sol. : Mature mammalian RBCs lack nucleus.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 116

Which of the following events is not related to the phase which constitute more than 95% duration of the cell cycle?

Options:

Duplication of mitochondria and chloroplast

Synthesis of tubulin proteins

Disappearance of nuclear envelope and nucleolus

Duplication of genetic material

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : In this stage, cell prepares itself for cell division.

Sol. : The phase of cell cycle which constitute more than 95% duration of the cell cycle is interphase while disappearance of nuclear envelope
and nucleolus occurs in prophase (M-phase).

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117

Site of attachment of spindle fibres with the chromosomes is a small disc-shaped structure called

Options:

Histone

Kinetochore

Centrosome

Chromatids

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Attachment of spindles with chromosome occurs in metaphase.

Sol. : Site of attachment of spindle fibres with the chromosome is a small disc-shaped structure called kinetochore.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118

The event which is associated with the stage represented in the above diagram is

Options:

Condensation of chromatin into chromosome

Formation of ER and Golgi apparatus

Alignment of chromosome at the equator

Splitting of centromere and separation of chromatids.

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : The diagram represents anaphase of mitosis.

Sol. : In anaphase, splitting of centromere and separation of chromatids occur which enables movement of splitted chromatids to the opposite
poles.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 119

Select the mis-matched pair.

(Stages) (Events)
(1) Zygotene – Formation of bivalents
(2) Pachytene – Activity of recombinase
(3) Diakinesis – Formation of chiasmata
(4) Diplotene – Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in diakinesis.

Sol. : Formation of chiasmata occurs in diplotene stage.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 120

Intrameiotic interphase lacks

Options:

Synthesis of RNA

Replication of centriole pair

Synthesis of proteins

Replication of DNA

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Intrameiotic interphase is a gap between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Sol. : In intrameiotic interphase, replication of DNA does not occur.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 121

Products of meiosis-I contain

Options:

Univalent chromosomes each with two chromatids

Univalent chromosomes each with single chromatid

Bivalent chromosomes each with two chromatids

Diploid set of chromosomes

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Due to separation of homologous chromosome of bivalents, daughter cells produced after meiosis I has univalent chromosomes.

Sol. : Each univalent chromosome present in the products or daughter cells of meiosis-I has two chromatids because splitting of centromere
and separation of sister chromatids does not occur in meiosis-I.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 122

In reductional division, separation of homologous chromosomes occurred in

Options:

Anaphase I

Anaphase II

Metaphase I

Metaphase II

Solution :

Answer (1)

Sol. : Separation of homologous chromosomes occurs in anaphase-I of meiosis.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 123

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A : Liquid endosperm of coconut is an example of syncytium.

Statement B : Meiosis results in formation of haploid daughter cells which are identical to each other.

Options:

Only A is incorrect

Only B is incorrect

Both A and B are correct

Both A and B are incorrect

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Crossing over leads to variations among the products of meiosis.

Sol. : Meiosis in a meiocyte leads to formation of haploid daughter cells which are neither similar to parent cell nor among each other.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 124

In diploid organisms, meiosis is important for

Options:

Their growth

Maintenance of cell size

Healing and regeneration

Formation of gametes

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Mitosis is important for growth, regeneration and maintenance of cell size in organisms.

Sol. : Meiosis occurs during formation of gametes in diploid organisms.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 125

A meiocyte has 8 chromosomes and 10 pg DNA at G1 stage. Calculate the number of chromosomes, chromatids and amount of DNA in
the gametes produced by this meiocyte.

No. of Chromosome No. of Chromatids Amount of DNA

(1) 8 8 2.5 pg
(2) 4 8 5 pg
(3) 4 4 5 pg
(4) 4 4 2.5 pg
Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Meiocyte is a diploid cell while gametes produced via meiosis are haploid in nature.

Sol. :

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 126

Restriction point is the transition of

Options:

G1 → S

S → G2

G1 → G0

G2 → M

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Restriction point is the main check point for the regulation of cell cycle.

Sol. : Restriction point is the transition of G1→ S-phase.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 127

Duration of cell cycle for a yeast cell is

Options:

90 hours

24 min

90 min

24 hours

Solution :

Answer (3)

Sol. : Duration of cell cycle in yeast is generally 90 min.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 128

Some cells of adult animals like nerve cells

Options:

Are metabolically inactive

Show continuous proliferation

Enter the quiescent stage

Replicate its DNA during M-phase

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Nerve cells of adult animals usually do not proliferate.

Sol. : Nerve cells of adult animals enter into G0-phase or quiscent phase in which cell remain metabolically active but do not proliferate usually.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 129

The stage most suitable for study of the morphology of chromosomes is

Options:

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : In this stage, chromosomes are shortest and thickest in structure.

Sol. : The stage most suitable for study of the morphology of chromosomes is metaphase.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 130

The most active stage of cell cycle includes all of the following phases, except

Options:

M-phase

S-phase

G1-phase

G2-phase

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Most active stage of cell cycle is interphase.

Sol. : Interphase includes G1, S and G2-phases while M-phase is the phase of actual division in cell cycle.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 131

Herbarium

Options:

Is used for identification of both plants and animals

Is for ex-situ conservation of living organisms

Contains skeleton of large animals

Acts as quick source of reference for taxonomic studies

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : In herbarium, plant specimens are preserved on specific sheets and arranged in a specific order.

Sol. : Herbarium acts as quick source of reference for taxonomic studies. Museum contains skeleton of large animals. Botanical gardens and
zoological parks are ex-situ conservation strategies of living organisms.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 132

Which of the following is a correct scientific name according to rules of ICBN?

Options:

Mangifera Indica

Mangifera indica

mangifera indica

Mangifera Indica

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Scientific names are printed in Italics.

Sol. : According to rules of ICBN, in scientific names generic name should start with capital letter while specific epithet starts with small letter.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 133

Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. taxonomic categories of humans.

Options:

Class – Mammalia

Phylum – Chordata

Order – Carnivora

Genus – Homo

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Cat family and dog family are included in order Carnivora.

Sol. : Order of humans, gorilla and gibbon is Primata.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 134

All of the following are defining features of living organisms, except

Options:

Metabolism

Consciousness

Self-consciousness

Cellular organisation

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Defining features should be present exclusively in all living organisms.

Sol. : Self-consciousness is the feature present only in human beings.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 135

A book containing actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of a given area is

Options:

Flora

Monograph

Manual

Catalogue

Solution :

Answer (1)

Sol. : Book containing actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of a given area is flora.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 136

Dental formula of milk teeth in humans is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Premolars are absent in milk teeth.

Sol. : Dental formula of permanent teeth is

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 137

Lymphatic tissue of the pharynx and oral cavity are arranged in a ring-like manner forming

Options:

Waldeyer’s ring

Tracheal ring

Oesophageal ring

Ear ring

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Term based on scientist’s name.

Sol. : Waldeyer’s ring consists of pharyngeal, lingual, tubal and palatine tonsils.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 138

Portion of stomach represented by which alphabet opens first into small intestine?

Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Region rich in brush border enzymes.

Sol. : Stomach is differentiated into four parts. Fundus region is next to the cardia, body is main central region and pylorus is last portion that
connects to the duodenum.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 139

Select the odd one w.r.t. small intestine.

Options:

Duodenum

Caecum

Jejunum

Ileum

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Expanded pouch that receives material from the ileum.

Sol. : Small intestine is composed of duodenum, jejunum and ileum. Caecum is a part of large intestine.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 140

Entire small intestine is thrown into a series of permanent circular folds called plicae circulares. Finger like projections on these folds are
formed by ______.

Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.

Options:

Serosa

Muscularis

Mucosa

Sub-mucosa

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Innermost layer of gut wall.

Sol. : Mucosa layer forms irregular folds called rugae in the stomach and small finger-like foldings called villi in the small intestine. Folds of
kerckring or plicae circulares further increase the surface area for absorption.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 141 (skipped)

“Ramachandran plot” is used to determine torsional angles of a biomolecule such as

Options:

Glycerol

DNA

Collagen

Cellulose

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : This plot is used to gain insight into the structure of peptides.

Sol. : Ramachandran plot is a way to visualize energetically allowed regions for backbone dihedral angles ψ against of amino acid residues
in a protein.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142

Compound lecithin can be described as

Options:

Phosphocholesterol

Phospholipid

Phosphoarachidonic acid

Phosphoprotein

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Component of cell membrane.

Sol. : Phospholipid is the main constituent of lecithin. Casein is a phosphoprotein found in milk. Arachidonic acid is a 20C unsaturated fatty
acid.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 143

Match column-I and II. Choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
a. Fructose (i) Trypsinogen
b. Oxyntic cells (ii) Milk digesting protein
c. Enterokinase (iii) Facilitated transport
d. Rennin (iv) Vitamin B12

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme in neonates.

Sol. : Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin. Fructose shows facilitated transport. Oxyntic cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor that is
essential for absorption of vitamin B12.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 144

Kwashiorkor disease is due to

Options:

Deficiency of carbohydrates

Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories

Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats

Protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency.

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Marasmus is produced by simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories.

Sol. : Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency but unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk
by a high calorie-low protein diet in a child more than one year in age.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 145

Match column-I and II. Choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
a. Synaptic junctions (i) Transmit information through chemicals to adjacent neuron
b. Gap junctions (ii) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells
c. Adhering junctions (iii) Cement neighbouring cells together to form a sheet.
d. Tight junctions (iv) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells.

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Neurotransmitters are present at synapses.

Sol. : Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells. Adhering junctions aid to cement
adjacent cells to form a sheet.

Tight junctions provide a barrier which prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 146

Cells store glycogen instead of glucose in free form because

Options:

Glucose is not a reactive molecule hence storing in the free form can result in unwanted reactions in the cells

Glucose in the free form creates more osmotic pressure

Storage of glucose in free form will consume more ATP

Glycogen is less compact and more hydrophilic than glucose

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Osmolarity depends upon number of particles and not on molecular weight.

Sol. : The cell stores glycogen instead of glucose in the free form because glycogen do not affect the osmotic pressure of the cell rather than
glucose which can disturb the osmotic pressure and will cause cell to lyse.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 147

In man, bile duct joins main pancreatic duct to form hepatopancreatic duct that widens to form _____ which is guarded by _____.

Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.

Options:

Hepatic duct, choledocus duct

Cystic duct, common hepatic duct

Ampulla of Vater, sphincter of Oddi

Ductus choledocus, sphincter of Oddi

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Swollen portion of hepatopancreatic duct.

Sol. : Bile capillaries unite to eventually form hepatic duct. Common bile duct also known as choledocus duct, is formed by joining of cystic duct
(arising from gall bladder) and common hepatic duct from different liver lobes. In man, bile duct joins main pancreatic duct to form
hepatopancreatic duct containing swelling known as ampulla of Vater which is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 148

Select the mismatch w.r.t. cells in digestive tract and secretion released from them.

Options:

Paneth cells – Lysozyme

Argentaffin cells – Insulin

Chief cells – Pepsinogen

Parietal cells – Castle’s intrinsic factor

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Enteroendocrine cells which take up silver stain.

Sol. : Insulin is a secretion of β cells in pancreas. Oxyntic cells secrete HCl and castle’s intrinsic gastric factor. Argentaffin cells can be called S
cells in some parts of alimentary canal which release secretin.

You scored 0 of 4
Question : 149 (skipped)

Peptic ulcer resulting in sores in the lining of the stomach can be caused by excessive presence of

Options:

Helicobacter pylori

Entamoeba coli

Escherichia coli

Lactobaccillus

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Bacteria whose species name bears resemblance to a part of stomach.

Sol. : Peptic ulcers are sores that develop in the lining of the stomach, oesophagous and small intestine which is caused by H. pylori.
Lactobaccillus and Escherichia coli are gut friendly bacteria.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 150

Duct of a salivary gland that opens in oral cavity near upper second molar teeth on both sides. This duct is called

Options:

Stenson’s duct

Wharton’s duct

Duct of submaxillary gland

Duct of Rivinus

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Duct of parotid gland.

Sol. : Salivary glands are of three types: Parotid, Submaxillary and sublingual.

Duct of parotid gland or Stenson’s duct opens in oral cavity near upper second molar. Duct of submaxillary gland or Wharton’s duct opens near
the lower central incisors. Duct of sublingual gland or ducts of Rivinus opens under the tongue.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151

Protein Large polypeptides Small polypeptides, small peptides Amino acids

Choose the option which correctly identifies enzyme A, B and C respectively and their action in sequential order.

Options:

Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase, Pancreatic enzymes, Pepsin

Pancreatic enzymes, Pepsin, Aminopeptidase

Pancreatic amylase, Maltase, Carboxy-peptidase

Pepsin, Trypsin, Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Enzyme secreted by glands in stomach.

Sol. :

Protein

Pepsin (stomach glands) in presence of HCl

Large polypeptides

Pancreatic enzymes (trypsin and chymotrypsin)

Small polypeptides

Aminopeptidase and dipeptidase

Amino acid

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 152

Hydrolysis of DNA is done within a test tube by using a mixture of enzymes denoted as A.

DNA Pentose sugar + N-containing bases + phosphate ions.

Choose the odd one w.r.t. ‘A’ in given equation.

Options:

Deoxyribonuclease

Nucleosidase

Nucleotidase

Ribonuclease

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Enzymes are named based on their substrate.

Sol. : Ribonuclease acts on RNA only

DNA & RNA

Pentose sugar, N-containing bases, phosphate ions.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A : Plexus of Auerbach mostly controls the peristaltic movements in alimentary canal.

Statement B : Meissner’s plexus controls the secretion of different digestive glands.

Options:

Both statements are incorrect

Only statement A is correct

Both statements are correct

Statement B is false

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Motor movements in alimentary canal are controlled by plexus present between longitudinal and circular muscle fibres of muscularis
externa.

Sol. : Meissner’s plexus/submucosal plexus is present between muscular coat and the mucosa and is responsible for release of enzymes etc.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 154

Somatostatin from endocrine part of pancreas does not inhibit

Options:

The secretion of glucagon by alpha cells

The absorption of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract

Secretion of insulin by beta cells

Gastric secretion

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Function of enterocrinin.

Sol. : GIP/enterogastrone from duodenum inhibits gastric secretion and motility

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 155

Select the mismatch w.r.t. % weight of element in human body.

Options:

Oxygen – 65%

Carbon – 18.5%

Nitrogen – 3.3%

Silicon – 27.7%

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Percent weight of this element is negligible in human body.

Sol. : 27% weight of Earth’s crust is silicon.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 156

Which one is not obtained in acid insoluble fraction?

Options:

Nucleotides

Polysaccharides

Proteins

Nucleic acid

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Identify a micromolecule.

Sol. : Macromolecules are present in acid insoluble fraction for e.g. polysaccharides, proteins and nucleic acids.

Micromolecules are present in acid soluble fraction for e.g. amino acids, simple sugars and nucleotides.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 157

Glycogen is a branched structure having _______ linkage at unbranched part and the branch points have ______ linkage.

Choose the option which fills the blanks correctly.

Options:

α(1, 6) and α(1, 4)

α(1, 2) and α(1, 4)

α(1, 4) and α(1, 6)

β(1, 4) and α(1, 6)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Glycosidic bond is present between anomeric and C4 carbon.

Sol. : Glycogen is made up of about 30,000 glucose residues. It is a branched structure having α(1, 4) linkage at unbranched part and the
branch points have α(1, 6) linkage. It gives red colour with iodine.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 158

Select the biomolecule which is not metabolised in human body; is readily filtered through the kidney and therefore used in testing of
kidney function.

Options:

Starch

Chitin

Inulin

Glycogen

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Identify polymer of fructose.

Sol. : Inulin is a storage polysaccharide found in roots and tubers of Dahlia etc.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 159

Sulphur is absent in biomolecule

Options:

Cysteine

Glycine

Cystine

Methionine

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Identify simplest amino acid.

Sol. : Sulphur containing structures are cysteine, cystine and methionine. Glycine has ‘R’ group as ‘H’.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 160

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. structure of a protein.

Options:

Primary structure gives the positional information of amino acids in a protein

In a protein, only left-handed helices are observed.

Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a protein

Haemoglobin shows optimal activity at quaternary level of organisation

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : DNA shows right handed coiling.

Sol. : In a protein, only right-handed helices are predominantly observed.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 161

Which among following is a saturated fatty acid?

Options:

Palmitic acid

Arachidonic acid

Oleic acid

Linoleic acid

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Fatty acid with 16 carbon atoms.

Sol. : Saturated fatty acids – Palmitic acid, stearic acid.

Unsaturated fatty acids – Oleic acid, linoleic acid, linolenic acid, arachidonic acid.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 162

The most abundant steroid in the animal tissue, is

Options:

Collagen

Lecithin

RuBisCO

Cholesterol

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : A common sterol.

Sol. : Cholesterol is the most abundant steroid in the animal tissues. Food rich in animal fats contains cholesterol. It is also synthesized in the
liver. It is an essential component of animal plasma membranes.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 163

Choose the odd one w.r.t. nucleoside.

Options:

Adenosine

Guanosine

Cytosine

Thymidine

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Identify a nitrogenous base.

Sol. : Nucleosides are adenosine, guanosine, cytidine, thymidine and uridine.

Nitrogenous bases are adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine and uracil.

/
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 164

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Watson-Crick model of B-DNA

Options:

Each polynucleotide chain consists of a sequence of nucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds

The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to the sugar phosphate backbone

One end of the DNA strand is called 3' end where the 5th carbon of the pentose sugar has a free-OH group

Pitch of B-DNA is 34Å as ten base pairs occupy a distance of about 34Å

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : In double helix of DNA, end with hydroxyl group is free.

Sol. : In B-DNA, one end of the strand is called 5' end where phosphate attached to the fifth carbon of the pentose sugar is free and the other
end is called 3' end where the hydroxyl group of third carbon of pentose sugar is free.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 165

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A : In a reaction catalysed by an allosteric enzyme, plot for reaction velocity versus the substrate concentration does not exhibit
a hyperbolic curve.

Statement B : Allosteric enzymes show a sigmoid curve when reaction velocity is plotted against substrate concentration.

Options:

Both statements are incorrect

Statement B is false

Both statements are correct

Only statement A is incorrect

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Feedback inhibition.

Sol. : An allosteric inhibitor by binding to allosteric site alters the protein conformation in active site of enzyme which consequently changes the
shape of active site.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 166

Which structure are with few protoplasmic processes and form myelin sheath in CNS?

Options:

Schwann cells

Microglial cells

Neurolemmocytes

Oligodendrocytes

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Schwann cells form myelin sheath in PNS.

Sol. : Inside the CNS, neurilemma is absent. In the absence of Schwann cells, myelin is formed by the spiral wrapping of the nerve fibres by
axonal processes of oligodendrocytes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 167

The ciliated epithelial cells are mainly present in

Options:

Bronchioles and fallopian tube

Eustachian tube and salivary duct

Fallopian tube and pancreatic duct

Bronchioles and mammary duct

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Cuboidal epithelium is present in pancreatic duct.

Sol. : Bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium which move particles or mucus in a specific directions.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 168

Purines found in both RNA and DNA are

Options:

Thymine and cytosine

Cytosine and guanine

Guanine and adenine

Uracil and adenine

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Uracil is found in RNA exclusively.

Sol. : Purines found in both DNA and RNA are adenine and guanine.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 169

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. nervous tissue.

Options:

It helps coordinate between various body parts during body functions

Axon carries nerve impulse towards the cyton whereas dendrites carry impulses away from the cyton.

Consists of non excitable neuroglial cells

Composed of structural and functional units called neurons

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Neural process involved in impulse transmission.

Sol. : In nervous system, dendrites carry nerve impulses towards the cyton whereas axon carries impulses away from the cyton.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 170

Pseudo-unipolar neurons are found in

Options:

Brain and spinal cord

Dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve

Retina of eye

Olfactory epithelium

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Structure which contains axon process and dendron process.

Sol. : Pseudounipolar neurons are actually bipolar but appear like unipolar. A single process arises first which divides to form dendrites and
axon. This is found in dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve. Bipolar neurons are found in olfactory epithelium and retina of eye.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 171

Cardiac muscle fibres

Options:

Lack troponin

Are without light and dark bands

Show faint light and dark bands

Are unbranched

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Myofibril shows striations in cardiac muscles.

Sol. : Striated myofibrils show alternate light and dark bands. Non-striated myofibrils are without light and dark bands.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 172

All the smooth muscle fibres do not contract together as a single unit, automatically and rhythmically in/on the walls of

Options:

Large blood vessels

Stomach

Intestine

Urinary bladder

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Structure related to circulation of blood.

Sol. : Single-unit smooth muscle fibres are present in walls of hollow visceral organs like stomach, intestine, urinary bladder etc. Multi-unit
smooth muscles fibres are present in hair root and on the walls of large blood vessels.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173

Select the correct match w.r.t. sarcomere in completely contracted state

Options:

I band – Has only myosin filaments

A band – Has both actin and myosin filaments

H band – Has only actin filaments

Z line – Divides A band into two equal halves

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Identify the anisotropic band.

Sol. : I band – Has only actin filaments.

A band – Has both actin and myosin filaments.

H band – Has only myosin filaments.

Z line – A membrane to which actin filaments are attached on both the sides. It divides the I band.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 174

Non-striated muscle fibres are not located at

Options:

Iris of eye

In wall of urinary bladder

Biceps

Urinogenital tract

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Muscles associated with human forelimb.

Sol. : Non-striated muscle fibres are found in the posterior part of oesophagous, stomach, intestine, lungs, urinogenital tract, urinary bladder,
blood vessels, iris of eye etc.

Striated muscle are found at arms, legs, body wall, face and neck.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175

Bone which is formed in the dermis of skin by investing over the already present cartilage is

Options:

Clavicle

Humerus

Femur

Ribs

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Identify collar bone.

Sol. : Skull bone and clavicle are examples of dermal/membranous/investing bone. Humerus, femur, ribs and vertebrae are formed by the
replacement of cartilage by bony material.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 176

White fibrocartilage is located in

Options:

Between vertebrae

Larynx

Nasal septum

Tracheal ring

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Structure related to posture and vertebral column.

Sol. : White fibrocartilage is composed of thick dense bundles of collagen fibres between rows of fibroblasts. It occurs in joints between
vertebrae. Hyaline cartilage occurs in the larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings and costal cartilage.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 177

Choose the odd one w.r.t. Tendons.

Options:

Inelastic in nature

Join muscle to bone

Example of dense irregular connective tissue

Made up of white collagen fibres

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Orientation of fibres is irregular in skin.

Sol. : Dense regular connective tissue constitutes tendons and ligaments.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 178

Leptin is a hormone produced by

Options:

Fibroblasts

Plasma cells

Adipocytes

Mast cells

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Cells which store the fat in a body.

Sol. : Leptin is a hormone produced by adipocytes. It regulates the body fat and weight.

Plasma cells produce antibodies.

Fibroblasts secrete fibres and matrix.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 179

Which one is not a specialized connective tissue?

Options:

Ligament

Cartilage

Lymph

Blood

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Identify dense connective tissue.

Sol. : Tendons and ligaments are dense regular connective tissue. Bone, cartilage, blood and lymph are specialized connective tissue.

/
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 180

In above given box, how many structures are unicellular glands?

Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Structure also known as mucocytes.

Sol. : Goblet cells of the alimentary canal consist of isolated single cells. Goblet cells secrete mucus (a proteinaceous viscous and slimy
substances). Rest of structures are multicellular glands