1.

For the separation of which of the following substances, Gas-solid chromatography is

being used?
i. Ans:: Gas-solid chromatography is used for the separation of low molecular
weight gaseous species. Its application is limited because of semi-permanent
retention of the analyte.

2. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
i. Ans:: It should be highly pure. Further, it should be readily available and non-
inflammable.
3. Which of the following is the disadvantage of hydrogen, which can be used as carrier gas in
gas chromatography?
a. Ans:: Hydrogen is dangerous to use. It has better thermal conductivity and lower
density.
4. Which of the following is the disadvantage of helium, which can be used as carrier gas in gas
chromatography?
a. Ans:: Helium is expensive. Its advantages are that it has low density and it allows
greater flow rates.
5. Which of the following is the disadvantage of nitrogen, which can be used as carrier gas in
gas chromatography?
a. Ans:: Nitrogen has reduced sensitivity. It is still one of the commonly used carrier gas
in gas chromatography.
6. Slow injection of large samples leads to band broadening and loss of resolution.
i. Answer: Slow injection of large samples leads to band broadening and loss of
resolution. Hence, for desired column efficiency, samples should not be too
large.
7. In which of the following methods are liquid samples injected into the column in gas
chromatography?
i. Ans:: Liquid samples injected into the column in gas chromatography using
micro-syringe. Syringes of various capacities are available.
8. What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using
solid injection syringes in gas chromatography?
i. Ans:: Solid samples must be dissolved in volatile liquids for introducing it into
the column. They can be introduced directly using solid injection syringes.
9. Which of the following is the commonly used support material for the packed column in gas
chromatography?
i. Ans:: Diatomaceous earth is the commonly used support material for the packed
column in gas chromatography. The columns could be made of glass or metal.
10. Which of the following is the advantage of straight packed column?
i. Ans:: The advantage of straight column is that it can be repacked easily. It is not
compact in size.
11. Which of the following is the disadvantage of coiled or helical shaped packed
chromatographic column?
i. Ans:: The disadvantage of coiled or helical shaped packed chromatographic
column is that it cannot be repacked easily. It is compact in size and can easily
be heated in an even manner.
12. Capillary columns are open tubular columns constructed from which of the following
materials?
i. Ans:: Capillary columns are constructed using fused silica. It is a very high
purity glass.
13. Sample injection port must be maintained at a temperature at which rapid vapourisation
occurs but thermal degradation does not occur.
i. Ans:: Sample injection port must be maintained at a temperature at which rapid
vapourization occurs but thermal degradation does not occur. The column is
maintained at a different temperature.
14. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of the ovens used in gas chromatography?
i. Ans:: The ovens used in gas chromatography must have maximum thermal
gradients. The temperature must be uniform over the whole column.
15. Given below is the block diagram of gas chromatography. Identify the unmarked component.
 i. Ans:: The unmarked component is syringe. Hence, the answer is sample
injection system. It is for the introduction of sample into the flowing gas stream.
16. Derivative control action is typically used when controlling , but rarely used when
controlling.
i. Ans.Temperature,Flow
17. processes always require some degree of control action to achieve setpoint.
ans.Self-regulating, Integral
18. The reciprocal of proportional band is called:
ans.Gain

19. “Quarter-wave damping” may be described as:

i. ans. a condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
Reset control action is often expressed in units of:
b. ans.repeats per minute
20. A proportional band setting of 175% is equivalent to a gain setting of .
i. ans. 0.571
21. The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. What sort of process is
indicated by this behavior?

a. Ans. Integrating
22. condition where integral control action drives
the output of a controller into saturation is
called:
i. Ans. wind-up
23. Fast, self-regulating processes typically respond well to aggressive control action.
i. ans. Reset
24. Process variable filtering should be used:
i. Ans.todampennoise
25. The input of a controller is
Ans:: Controller is the block in the control system that control the input and provides the
output and this is the first block of the system having the input as the error signal.
26. Phase lag controller:
Ans:: Phase lag controller is the integral controller that creates the phase lag and does not
affect the value of the damping factor and that tries to reduce the steady state error.
27. Addition of zero at origin?

Ans:: Stability of the system can be determined by various factors and for a good control
system the stability of the system must be more and this can be increased by adding zero to
the system and improves the transient response.
28. Derivative output compensation?

Ans:: Derivative controller is the controller that is also like high pass filter and is also phase
 lead controller and it is used to increase the speed of response of the system by increasing the
damping coefficient.
29. Derivative error compensation?

i. Ans:: Damping constant reduces the gain, as it is inversely proportional to the

gain and as increasing the damping gain reduces and hence the speed of
response and bandwidth are both increased.
30. Lag compensation leads to?
Ans:: Phase compensation can be lead, lag or lead lag compensation and integral
compensation is also known as lag compensation and leads to attenuation which has least
effect on the speed but the accuracy is increased.
31. Lead compensation leads to?
Ans:: High pass filter is similar to the phase lead compensation and leads to increase in
bandwidth and also increase in speed of response.
32. Lag-lead compensation is a?
Ans:: Lag-Lead compensation is a second order control system which has lead and lag
compensation both and thus has combined effect of both lead and lag compensation this is
obtained by the differential equation.
33. Rate compensation :

i. Ans:: Damping factor is increased for reducing the oscillations and increasing
the stability and damping factor is increased by the rate compensation.
34. Negative exponential term in the equation of the transfer function causes the transportation
lag.

i. Ans:: Transportation lag is the lag that is generally neglected in systems but for
the accurate measurements the delay caused to transport the input from one end
to the other is called the transportation lag in the system causes instability to the
system.
35. With adequate gain and inphase feedback any system will:
i. ans. Oscillate

36. The natural frequency at which a closed-loop system will cycle depends upon:
i. ans. The phase shift provided by the resistance-capacitance and dead time
networks that exist in the system
37. The Bode diagram describes:
 i. ans. Gain and phase shift through the usable frequency range

38. All systems may be assumed to be:

i. ans. Linear for the purpose of initial consideration but with full knowledge that
this may not be the case

39. A closed-loop control system that employs a three-mode controller:

i. ans. Can oscillate or cycle at several frequencies. depending on controller
adjustment
40. We have a closed-loop control system which is cycling. We should:
ans. Check and adjust both

41. A proportional controller is being used to control a process and the offset between set point
and control point must be held to a minimum. This would dictate that the proportional band
i. ANs. Be as narrow as possible

42. The system gain of the closed-loop control system:

ans. Refers to the gain of the measurement and control devices

43. If a closed-loop control system employs a straight proportional controller and is under good
control. offset:
i. ans. Will not exceed one-half of the proportional bandwidth

44. Any closed-loop system with in-phase feedback and a gain of one or more will:
i. ans. Cycle or oscillate

45. If a closed-loop control system is adjusted to produce a 0.25 damping ratio when subjected to
a step change, the system gain is:
 i. ans. 0.5

46. A straight proportional controller is employed to control a process of Narrowing the

proportional band will:
i. ans. Decrease the offset

47. The type of process that most often can benefit from derivative is:
i. ans. Temperature

48. Pure dead time in a process contributes a gain or:

i. ans. One

49. The integral control mode is:

i. ans. Phase-Iagging
50. The derivative control mode is
i. Ans.Phase-Ieading
51. The most common combination of control modes found in the typical process plant is:
i. ans. Proportional-plus-integral
52. With a proportional-only controller, if measurement rules set point, the output will be:
ans. 50 percent
53. If in a proportional-plus-integral controller measurements away from the set point for a long
period, the controller’s output will be:
i. ans. 0

54. In the modem controller, derivative action is applied only to the:

ans. Measurement
55. The function of the integral (reset) mode is to:
ans. Eliminate offset

56. Automatic controllers operate on the difference between set point and measurement, which is
called:
ans. Error

57. A two-position controller (on/off) always:

ans. Controls around a point
58. Gain and proportional bands are:
i. ans. Reciprocally related
59. When we adjust integral time in a controller:
i. ans. We determine an RC time constant in the controller’s internal feedback
path

60. A proportional controller will have an offset difference between set point and control point:
ans. That depends on process load
61. If it were possible for a proportional controller to have a true 0 percent proportional band, the
controller gain would have to be:
ans. Infinite
62. If the proportional band of the controller is adjusted to the minimum possible value, the
control action is likely to be:
i. ans. On/off

63. The following symbol appears in an instrument diagram. It represents :

 i.
ii. ans. Flow rate controller

64. All control systems that fit into the usual pattern are:
i. ans. Closed-loop

65. If operating properly, automatic control will always:

ans. Make the process operate more uniformly
66. which are the carrier gases used in gas chromatography?
i. Ans argon ,hydrogen , helium
67. why is hydrogen used more as carrier gas ?
i. Ans. Becoause hydrogen molecular weight is less
68. which are the mostly used detectors used in gc?
i. Ans.tcd AND FID
69. what is the principle of TCD ?
i. Ans. Thermal conductivity detectors work on the principle of heat transfer by
convection (gas cooling). Here, the assumption is that sample compounds will
have different thermal properties than the carrier gas.
70. diagram of tcd?
 a. Ans.

71. what is the principle of flame ionisation detector ?

i. Ans. Flame ionization detectors work on the principle of ions liberated in the
combustion of the sample species. Here, the assumption is that sample
compounds will ionize inside of a flame, whereas the carrier gas will not.
72. Diagram of FID?
a. Ans.
73.

74. When split range control is used ?

i. Split-range control is used when a
single controller is employed to control two final-control elements (two valves
for example).
ii. In such a system, the controller struggle to keep one controlled variable at the
set point using two manipulated variables.
iii. Typically, split-range control is found in temperature control applications, but
split-range control applications extend far beyond temperature control.
75. What is the working principle of split range control ?
 a.
i. In the diagram above, the 0% to 100% range of the controller output is split in
two between the two valves. If the controller output is between 0% and 50%, it
is the cooling valve that operates.
ii. This valve is fully open when the controller output is 0% and fully closed when
the controller output is 50%. If the controller output is between 50% and 100%,
it is the heating valve that is in operation.
b. At 50%, the heating valve starts to open and it is fully open at 100% of the controller
output.
76. What is ratio control ?
i. The ratio control architecture is used to maintain the flow rate of one stream in a
process at a defined or specified proportion relative to that of another. A
common application for ratio control is to combine or blend two feed streams to
produce a mixed flow with a desired composition or physical property.
ii. 80.Enlist advantages of feedback control.
77. Its main advantages are as follows.
a. Corrective action occurs as soon as the controlled variable deviates from the set point,
regardless of the source and type of disturbance.
b. Feedback control requires minimal knowledge about the process to be controlled; it
particular, a mathematical model of the process is not required, although it can be very
useful for control system design.
c. The ubiquitous PID controller is both versatile and robust. If process conditions
change, retuning the controller usually produces satisfactory control.
78. Enlist disadvanges of feedback control scheme.
a. No corrective action is taken until after a deviation in the controlled variable occurs.
Thus, perfect control, where the controlled variable does not deviate from the set point
during disturbance or set-point changes, is theoretically impossible.
b. Feedback control does not provide predictive control action to compensate for the
effects of known or measurable disturbances.
 i. It may not be satisfactory for processes with large time constants and/or long
time delays. If large and frequent disturbances occur, the process may operate
continuously in a transient state and never attain the desired steady state.

79. Draw block diagram of feedback control.

a.
80. Draw block diagram of feedforward control.

a.
81. Enlist disadvantages of feedforward control scheme.
a. Feedforward control has several disadvantages:
b. The disturbance variables must be measured on-line. In many applications, this is not
feasible.
c. To make effective use of feedforward control, at least an approximate process model
should be available. In particular, we need to know how the controlled variable
responds to changes in both the disturbance and manipulated variables. The quality of
feedforward control depends on the accuracy of the process model.

82. What is pH?

a. pH is a measure of the acidity and alkalinity properties of an aqueous solution, which
are determined by the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the solution.
 b. Because the product of hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxyl ions (OH–) is constant in any
aqueous solution at the same temperature, by measuring the concentration of hydrogen
ions (H+) it is possible to determine the degree of acidity or alkalinity.
c. Generally, pH is defined as:
d. pH = -log10［H+］
83. How is pH measured?

a. Indicator method :
1

b. The indicator method uses litmus papers or reagents such

as methyl orange and phenolphthalein solutions and is
old and simple way of measuring pH.
c. This method has a long history and is easy to use;
however, there are various errors and inaccuracies.

d. Hydrogen electrode method :

2

e.

f. Glass electrode method :

3

g. If two solutions with different pH exist separately on two

sides of a thin glass membrane, a potential difference
develops between the two sides, which are proportional
to the difference in pH of the two solutions.This method
of measuring pH is often used due to advantages such as
 the potential quickly reaches equilibrium, good
reproducibility, and little effects of an oxidizing or
reducing substance. “Methods of pH Measurement” also
specifies that the applicable scope is limited to the
“method of measurement by a pH meter using a glass
electrode.”

84. Principle of pH measurement using a glass electrode?

a. Measurement of pH using a glass electrode makes use of the potential difference

developed between the two sides of a thin glass membrane that separates two solutions
with different pH.
b. This potential difference is proportional to the difference in pH of the two solutions.

c.
As shown in the figure below, container G made of a thin glass membrane is filled
with solution B with known pH and container G is immersed in solution A. Potentials
develop on both sides of the glass membrane.
d. By immersing electrodes E1 and E2 in solutions A and B, respectively, the potential
difference between the two electrodes can be determined with voltmeter V and thus
the voltage developed on the glass membrane can be known.
e. Generally, when the temperature of the solutions is 25℃, if the pHs of two solutions
differs by 1, an emf of approx. 59 mV is produced.
85. What is temperature compensation of pH meters?
a. The emf generated by a pH sensor changes depending on the temperature of the test
solution. This is because the potential generated on the glass membrane of the pH
sensor is proportional to absolute temperature T as represented by Nernst’s equation.
 b. Temperature compensation is done to compensate these temperature-based changes in
the emf with the pH analyzer (or pH transmitter) so that it is independent of
temperature.
c. Note that this temperature compensation is unrelated to changes in the pH value of a
test solution caused by temperature.
d. Some pH meters measure temperature with an RTD incorporated in a pH sensor to
automatically conduct temperature compensation of the generated emf of the pH
sensor.
86. What is temperature compensation (reference temperature conversion) of a test solution ?

a. For general pH measurements, changes in the pH value of a test solution caused by

temperature will not be compensated.
b. However, for deionized water measurement, the temperature of a test solution may be
compensated independently of the temperature compensation of a pH sensor.
c. The pH sensor for high-purity water measures the temperature using the RTD
incorporated in the pH sensor and can perform the temperature compensation of the
emf generated by the sensor and the temperature compensation of a test solution
simultaneously.
87. What is alkaline error ?
a. In the alkaline region of pH10 or more, the emf of a glass electrode deviates from the
linear value on the alkaline side. This is called the “alkaline error.”
b. Because the magnitude of the alkaline error varies depending on the glass membrane
compositions, a glass electrode for high alkalinity should be used if the pH sensor is
used in the alkaline region.
c. However, this does not guarantee that the alkaline error is eliminated.
88. What is acid error ?
a. The acid error occurring in the region of pH3 or less depends on the glass membrane
composition and the types of acids.
b. Once a glass electrode has acid error, it cannot be restored quickly even by immersing
it in a neutral solution; recovery takes a considerable time.
 c. However, the acid error is small compared to the alkaline error and so is unimportant
for practical use.
89. How is a pH analyzer calibrated with the standard solution ?
a. To perform pH measurement, the pH meter must always be calibrated using the
standard solution.
b. The general calibration method is “two-point calibration” which is performed using
two types of pH standard solution, but the simple “one-point calibration” is conducted
using one type of pH standard solution.
c. As it is also called a “buffer solution,” a pH standard solution has the property (buffer
action) of protecting against the addition of an acid or base and minimizing pH
changes.
d. The types of pH standard solutions and pH values at each temperature are specified in
“Methods of pH Measurement.”
90. What is zero calibration (asymmetry potential adjustment) ?

a. The interior of a glass electrode is filled with a pH7 solution. If the glass electrode is
immersed in a pH7 solution, the potential difference should be 0 mV because identical
buffer solutions are present on both sides of the membrane of the glass electrode.
b. In practice, a potential develops due to the strain caused during glass production,
shape, glass compositions, or other factors. This is called the “asymmetry potential.”
c. The asymmetry potential also occurs due to contamination of the internal solution of
the reference electrode, dryness of or clogging in the liquid junction, etc. in addition to
the glass electrode.
d. To eliminate this asymmetry potential, a pH sensor is zero calibrated using the pH7
standard solution (pH standard solution of neutral phosphate).
91. What is span adjustment (electric potential gradient adjustment) ?
a. Actually, the emf per pH of a glass electrode is not always equal to the value of
2.3026RT/F in the Nernst equation.
 b. Therefore, a pH meter requires compensation for small differences from the theoretical
slope of potential, which can be done by adjustment using a pH 4 or pH 9 standard
solution. This is called span adjustment.
92. How should pH standard solutions be stored, and for how long ?

a. Prepared standard solutions should be stored in hermetically sealed, high-quality hard

glass or polyethylene containers. The pH value of the standard solution may
change(Note) after long-term storage.
93. What are the conditions of a test solution?

a. The ranges of test solution temperature and test solution pressure vary depending on
the types of pH sensor, holder type, and holder material.
94. What does pH measure?
a. pH is a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a substance.
b. Modern instruments have made pH measurement almost as simple as temperature
measurement.

c.

95. How can I get reliable pH measurements?

a. Here are some basic steps that will help you get better, more reliable pH
measurements:
b. reference electrode frits must be free-flowing to allow internal solution to make
contact with the sample solution. Maintain the frit in a clean condition.
c. Use fresh buffers for calibration
d. Temperature impacts electrode performance. Use temperature compensation, or keep
all samples and standards at the same temperature.
 e. Calibrate frequently

96. What is automatic temperature compensation (ATC)?

a. The Solution Temperature Effect

b. there is an increase or decrease in the temperature of a solution, the pH of the solution
can change. This change is not an error caused by the variation in temperature; it is the
true pH of the solution at the new temperature. Since this is not an error, there is no
need to correct or compensate for the solution temperature effect.

97. How should an electrode be stored when not in use?

a. Electrodes should be stored in electrode storage solution between readings and for
short–term storage.
b. Important note: Never store an electrode in distilled or deionised water. This may lead
to slow, sluggish response.
98. How should a pH electrode be cleaned?
a. Ans .Tissue paper

99. what is the formula for conductivity?

a. Ans . Conductivity, σ, is the inverse of resistivity:
b. Conductivity has SI units of "siemens per metre" (S/m).

100. Identify the following instrumentation (P&ID and loop diagram) line types, from left
to right:

101. Ans. pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic

P&ID stands for ?
a. ans. Piping & Instrumentation diagram
102. what are the raw materials for anmmonium nitro phosphate plant?
a. Ans. Nitric acid,rock,ammonia,co2
103. what are the by products of ANP plant ?
a. Ans ammonium nitrate ,sand,lime
104. write the chemical formula for nitrophosphate ?
a. Ans. NO6P-2

105. What Is A Hazardous Area?

a. Answer :
b. A “hazardous area” is defined as an area in which the atmosphere contains, or may
contain in sufficient quantities, flammable or explosive gases, dusts or vapours. In
such an atmosphere a fire or explosion is possible when three basic conditions are
met. This is often referred to as the “hazardous area” or “combustion” triangle.
106. How Hazardous Area Classified?
a. Answer :A Hazardous Area is defined by three main criteria, these being:
b. The type of hazard (groups).
c. The auto-ignition temperature of the hazardous material (temperature or “T” rating).
d. The likelihood of the hazard being present in flammable concentrations (zones).
107. Explain About Type Of Hazard (groups)?
i. Answer :
ii. The type of hazard will be in the form of either a gas or vapour or a dust or
fibre.
iii. The classification of these hazardous is primarily divided into two groups
depending on whether it is in a mining or above surface industry.
b. These are defined below:
c. Group I – electrical equipment for use in mines and underground installations
susceptible to firedamp Group II and Group III -electrical equipment for use in
surface installations
d. Groups II & III are further sub-divided depending upon the hazard. Group II gases
are grouped together based upon the amount of energy required to ignite the most
explosive mixture of the gas with air. Group III dusts are subdivided according to the
nature of the explosive atmosphere for which it is intended.
108. Explain About Auto Ignition Temperature Or “t” Rating?
a. Answer :The hazard level of the gases increases from gas group IIA to IIC with
group IIC being the most severe. Substances in this group can be ignited very easily
with Hydrogen being the most at risk to ignition. The temperature class is based on
the auto-ignition temperature of the gas.
109. Classification Of Hazardous Locations?
a. Answer :The zone classification for gases is divided into three zones, namely Zone 0,
Zone 1 and Zone 2 and for dusts Zone 20, Zone 21 and Zone 22.
110. what is intrinsically safe ?
a. Ans. A protection concept in which the electrical energy within the equipment is
restricted to a level which is below that what may cause an ignition or to limit the
heating of the surface of the equipment.

111. Which among the following gases have diamagnetic property (ability to be repelled by
magnetic fields)?
Ans:: Nitrogen has diamagnetic property. Other components that have diamagnetic property
are carbon, boron, etc.
112. Which of the following gases have paramagnetic property (ability to get attracted to
magnetic field)?
Ans:: Nitric oxide has paramagnetic property. Nitrogen dioxide and oxygen are other gases
that have paramagnetic property.
113. The force produced during operation of Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer is proportional
to which of the following?

ans.Difference between magnetic susceptibility of sphere and that of surrounding gas

114. Which of the following is true about the two charged vanes that produce electric field
in Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer?

ans.One vane should be at higher potential than the test body and the other vane should be at
lower potential

Ans:: In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the two charged vanes should be such that one vane
should be at higher potential than the test body and the other vane should be at lower
potential. This electric field produces a force.
115. In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, when no oxygen is present the magnetic force
balances torque of the fibre.

Ans:: In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, when no oxygen is present the magnetic force
balances torque of the fibre. If oxygen is present,it would displace the dumb-bell sphere.
116. 1402.To improve paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the quartz suspension must be
replacedwith which of the following?
a) Platinum-iridium

Ans:: To improve paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the quartz suspension must be replaced
with Platinum-iridium. It is more robust.
117. Which of the following happens to the magnetic susceptibility of gases when
temperature changes?

Ans::. Magnetic susceptibility of oxygen decreases with increase in temperature.

118. If the oxygen content is not greater than 21%, which of the following gases must be
used to set the span point?
Ans:: If the oxygen content is not greater than 21%, dry air is used to set the span point. This
is done for calibration purposes.
119. If the oxygen content is greater than 21%, which of the following gases must be used
to set the span point?
Ans:: If the oxygen content is greater than 21%, oxygen is used to set the span point. This is
done for calibration purposes.

120. what is the output of paramagnetic oxygen analyser ?

a. Ans. Millivolts
121. what is the output of zirconia oxygen analyser?
a. Ans. Millivolts
122. which are the types of oxygen analysers ?
a. Ans. Zirconia oxygen analyser and paramagnetic oxygen analyser
123. which are the basic instrumentation tools ?
a. Ans. 1)HART
2)DMM
b. 3)clamp on meter
c. 4.ir temp. sensor
124. what is hook’s law?
a. Ans. Stress is directly proportional to strain
125. which company dcs is used in ANP plant?
a. Ans.yokogawa centium 3000
126. which company compressor vibration system is used in Anp plant?
a. Ans . bently Nevada
127. in cascade control which loopmis faster ?
a. Ans. Inner loop
128. inner loop in cascade control always uses ?
a. Ans. Proportional control
129. What are the different process variables?
a. Flow.
b. Pressure.
c. Temperature.
d. Level.
e. Quality i.e. % O2, CO2, pH etc
f. Flow, pressure, temperature is the basic three variables.

130. 138. Define all the process Variable and state their unit of measurement

a. Flow: It is defined as volume per unit of time at specified temperature and pressure
Conditions, is generally measured by positive-displacement or rate meters.
b. Units: kg / hr, litter / min, gallon / min, m3 / hr, Nm3 / hr.
c. Pressure: It is defined as Force per unit Area. P = F/A
Units : bar, Pascal, kg / cm2, lb / in2.
d. Level: The height of the water column, liquid and powder etc., at the desired
measurement of height between minimum level points to maximum level point is
called level.
e. Units: Meters, mm, cm, percentage.
f. Temperature: It is the degree of hotness or coldness of a body is called temperature.
Units : Degree Centigrade, Degree Fahrenheit, Degree Kelvin, Degree Rankin.
131. What are the primary elements used for flow measurement?
a. The primary elements used for flow measurement are:
b. Orifice Plate.
c. Venturi tube.
d. Pitot tube.
e. Annubars.
f. Flow Nozzle.
g. Weir & Flumes
132. How do you identify an orifice in the pipeline?
a. An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends outer of the line giving an
indication of the orifice plate.
133. Why flow is measured in square root?
 a. The differential pressure measured has nonlinear relation with flow through the
pipeline. Differential pressure developed by a venturi, orifice plate, pitot tube, or any
other acceleration-based flow element is proportional to the square of the flow rate.
The square root extractor is used to convert the measured differential pressure into the
flow rate.
134. How do you calibrate a D. P. transmitter?
a. The following steps are to be taken which calibrating:
1. Adjust zero of the Tx’r.
2. Static pressure test: Give equal pressure on both sides of the transmitter. Zero
should not shift. If it is shifting carry out static alignment.
3. Vacuum test: Apply equal vacuum to both the sides. The zero should not shift.
4. Calibration Procedure:
* Give 20 psi air or 24V DC supply to the transmitter
b. Vent the L.P. side to atmosphere.
* Connect the output of the Instrument to a standard test gauge or Multimeter and
adjust zero.
5. Apply required pressure to high-pressure side of the transmitter and adjust the span.
6. Adjust zero again if necessary.
135. How do you do zero checks on a D. P. transmitter?
a. Close one of the valves either H. P. or L.P. opens the equalizing valve. The O/P should
read zero.

136. Explain direct and indirect level measurement:

a. Direct level measurement:
b. Bob and tape: A bob weight and measuring tape provide the most simple and direct
method of measuring liquid level.
c. Sight glass: This consists of a graduated glass tube mounted on the side of the vessel.
As the level of the liquid in the vessel change, so does the level of the liquid in the
glass tube.
d. Indirect level measurement:
e. Differential pressure meter: Connections are made at the vessel top and bottom and to
the two columns of the D.P. meter. The top connection is made to the L.P. column of
the transmitter and the bottom to H.P. column of the transmitter. The difference in
pressure in the vessel is balanced out since it is fed to both the column of the meter.
The difference in pressure deducted by the meter will be due only to the changing,
level of the liquid.
 f. Displacer type level measurement: The level trol is one of the most common
instruments used measuring level in closed tanks. This instrument works of
Archimedes principle. The displacer in immersed in the liquid due to which there is
loss of weight depending on the specified gravity of the liquid. This displacer hangs
freely on a knife transmitted to the pneumatic or electronic counterpart at the other
end.
137. What will happen if the displacer has fallen down while in line?
a. The output will be maximum.
138. What will happen if the displacer has a hole in it while in line?
a. The output will be minimum
139. What is Pt 100 mean?
a. Pt100 means 100 OHMS at 0 degrees C for a platinum resistance bulb.
140. What are two wire and three wire R.T.D. system?
a. Two wire R .T .D. system: Two wire RTD system use for short distance like a
compressor field local panel.
Three wire System: Three wire systems use for long distance coke a field to control
Run. The third wire is used for compensation of lead wire resistance.
141. Why is a converter used in a temp. recorder ?
a. The converter is designed to convert D. C. input voltage into an A. C. input voltage
proportional in amplitude to the input.
142. Why are Thermowells used ?
a. In numerous application it is neither desirable nor practical to expose a temperature
sensor directly to a process material. Wells are therefore used to protect against
damage corrosion, erosion, abrasion and high pressure processes. A thermowell is also
useful in protecting a sensor from physical damage during handling and normal
operation.
143. What is the specialty of thermocouples lead wires ?
a. They should be of the same material as the thermocouple
144. What is the difference the Wheatstone bridge and a potentiometer?
a. The difference between a potentiometer and a Wheatstone bridge measuring
instrument is that potentiometer is a voltage measuring instrument and Wheatstone
bridge is a current measuring instrument.
145. methods of tuning of controllers?
a. Answer . Ziegler niclolas and trail and error
146. What is the use of single seated valve?
a. The single seated valve is used on smaller sizes, and in a valve of larger sizes, where
an absolute shut off is required. The use of a single seated valve is limited by the
pressure drop across the valve in the closed or almost closed position.
147. What is the use of double seated valve?
 a. In double seated valves the upward and downward forces on the plug due to the
reduction of fluid pressure are nearly equalized. It is generally used on bigger size
valves and high pressure systems. Actuator forces required are less i.e. a small size
actuator.
148. What types of bonnets would you use of high temp? and very low temp.?
a. High temperature: Bonnets are provided with radiation fins to prevent glad packing
from getting damaged. On very low temperature: Extended bonnets are used to prevent
gland packing from getting freeze.
149. How will you work on a control valve while it is line?
a. While the control valve is in line or in service, it has to be bypassed and secondly the
line to be depressurized and drained.
150. What is the use of a valve positioner?
a. Quick Action control valve.
b. Valve hysteresis.
c. Acts as an amplifier
151. what is the use of distillation column?
a. Ans. For liquid liquid separation with 2 different boiling point .

152. types of phases in gas chromatography ?

a. Ans .stationary phase and mobile phase
153. types of column in gas chromatography?
a. Ans. There are two general types of column, packed and capillary (also known as open
tubular). Packed columns contain a finely divided, inert, solid support material
(commonly based on diatomaceous earth) coated with liquid stationary phase. Most
packed columns are 1.5 - 10m in length and have an internal diameter of 2 - 4mm.
b. Capillary columns have an internal diameter of a few tenths of a millimeter. They can
be one of two types; wall-coated open tubular (WCOT) or support-coated open tubular
(SCOT). Wall-coated columns consist of a capillary tube whose walls are coated with
liquid stationary phase. In support-coated columns, the inner wall of the capillary is
lined with a thin layer of support material such as diatomaceous earth, onto which the
stationary phase has been adsorbed. SCOT columns are generally less efficient than
WCOT columns. Both types of capillary column are more efficient than packed
columns
154. what is minimum dielectric constant of liquid for the measurement of level using
radar LT?
a. Ans 1.2
155. what is the minimum conductivity for electromagnetic flowmeter?
 a. Ans . 5 microS/cm.

156. What is a ‘controller’? Where are its application areas?

a. A controller is an instrument used for controlling a process variable (measurement). Its
continuously monitors the error signal and gives a corrective output to the final control
element.

157. Explain the following terms in a controller?

a. Measurement variable: It is the demand variable measured and controlled.

b. Desired Variable: it is the demand signal (setpoint) to which the process variable is
controlled.
c. Deviation: it is the error signal caused by the difference between the measurement and
the demand signal.
d. Output: It is the corrective signal from the controller to the final control element.
158. Explain what is ‘direct action’ and ‘reverse action’ on a controller?
a. Direct action : In a direct acting controller, the output increases when the process
measurement (variable) increases.
b. Reverse action : In a reverse action controller, the output decreases when the process
measurement (variable) increases.
159. What is a gap controller?
a. A controller whose output changes from ;minimum to maximum (on-off) and vice-versa
when the error signal (deviation) exceeds the set gap depending on the controller action.

160. What is a ‘proportional band’? Explain with an example?

a. It is the range in percentage for which the controller output changes proportionally from
minimum to maximum and vice-versa when the measurement deviates from the
setpoint.

For example: A controller set at 50% proportional band

The controller output changes from minimum to maximum and vice-versa when the
measurement exceeds 25% either side of the setpoint depending on the controller action.

161. What is a ‘gain’? Write the relation (formula) between a gain and proportional
band?
A controller ‘gain’ is inversely proportional to its proportional band.

. g = (1/p)*100
. g = gain
. P = proportional band

162. What is a ‘reset action’? Explain with an example?

 Reset action in a controller is the integration of the proportional action by the set period. The
reset action repeats the proportional action’s output per the reset time set, until the error signal
becomes zero or the output gets saturated.

For example :if the reset action is set for 30 sec.

For a 0.5 volt correction output ;by the proportional action will be repeated by the reset action
every 30 secs., until the error signal becomes zero or the output gets saturated.

163. What is a ‘batch’ facility on a controller?

Whenever a deviation persists for a long time the controller output saturates at the maximum
of minimum output (-2.5 VDC or + 12.5 VDC/0 kPa or 140 kPa) depending on the controller
action. In a normal controller when the process reverts to normal the output takes its time to
come into control range.

In a batch controller the output reverts to the control limit (0VDC OR 10.00V DC 20 kPa or
100 kPa) as soon as the deviation enters the batch limits

164. What will be the output (increases or decreases) of a direct action controller when
the process goes above the setpoint?
In a direct acting controller, the controller output increases when the process (measurement)
goes above the setpoint)

What will be the output of a reverse acting controller when the process changes from 50% to
75% where the proportional band is set at 50%, setpoint is set at 50%?

The controller output will be zero.

165. What is Automation?

Automation is delegation of human control functions to technical equipment for increasing
productivity, better quality, reduced cost & increased in safety working conditions.

166. What are the different components used in automation?

The components of automation system include
¬
i. Sensors for sensing the input parameters
¬
b. Transmitters for transmitting the raw signal in electrical form
¬
Control system which includes PLC, DCS & PID controllers ¬
Output devices / actuators like drives, control valves.

167. What are the different control systems used in Automation?

i. ¬ PID Controller based control system
¬
ii. PLC based control system
 ¬
iii. DCS based Control system
¬
iv. PC Based automation system

168. Explain PID based control system.

PID (Proportional Integral Derivative) is the algorithm widely used in closed loop control.
The PID controller takes care of closed loop control in plant. A number of PID controller
with single or multiple loop can be taken on network. PID Controllers are widely for
independent loops. Although some logic can be implemented but not much of sequential
logic can be implemented in PIDs.

169. Difference between PLC & Relay ?

i. ¬ PLC can be programmed whereas a relay cannot.
ii. ¬ PLC works for analog I/Os such as PID loops etc. whereas a relay
cannot ¬ PLC is much more advanced as compared to relay.

170. Difference between PLC & DCS ?

DCS: The system uses multiple processors, has a central database and the functionality is
distributed. That is the controller sub system performs the control functions, the history node
connects the data, the IMS node gives reports, the operator station gives a good HMI, the
engineering station allows engineering changes to be made.

PLC: The system has processor & I/O’s and some functional units like basic modules,
communication modules and so on. Uses a SCADA for visualization. Generally the SCADA
does not use a central database
171. Explain what is a pn junction?
The contact surface between the layers of p-type and n-type semiconductor pieces plated
together so as to form a p-n junction is called the p-n junction.

172. Why is silicon preferred over germanium in the manufacture of semiconductor

devices?
The silicon semiconductor devices have, in general, higher PIV and current ratings and wider
temperature range than germanium semiconductor devices, that’s why silicon is preferred over
germanium in the manufacture of semiconductor devices.

173. Explain what does the arrow head represent in the schematic symbol of a p-n
junction?
The arrow head in the schematic symbol of a p-n junction indicates the direction of
conventional current flow when the diode is forward biased.

174. Explain what are the two mechanisms of breakdown in a p-n junction?
 Avalanche and zener breakdown.

175. Name the breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse
biased condition.
Avalanche breakdown.

176. Name the breakdown mechanism in a highly doped p-n junction under reverse
biased condition.
Zener breakdown.

177. Explain what is an ideal diode?

An ideal diode is a two terminal polarity sensitive device that has zero resistance when it is
forward biased and infinite resistance when reverse biased.

178. Explain what is reverse saturation current?

Reverse current of a diode is due to minority carriers and is caused when the diode is reverse
biased. Only a very small voltage is required to direct all minority carriers across the junction,
and when all minority carriers are flowing across, further increase in bias voltage will not cause
increase in current. This current is referred to as reverse saturation current.

179. Is reverse saturation current of a diode is independent of reverse bias voltage?

Yes.

180. Why is germanium more temperature dependant than silicon?

Because the reserve saturation current in case of a germanium diode is approximately 1,000
times larger.

181. Explain what is the effect of temperature on the reverse saturation current of a
diode?
Reverse saturation current , theoretically , increases by 8% per oC for silicon and 11% per oC
for germanium. But from experimental data it is found that that reverse saturation current
increases by 7% per oC for both silicon and germanium. This is because a surface leakage
current component of reverse saturation current is independent of temperature. Since (1.07)10
=2.0 (approx.), the reverse saturation current approximately doubles for every 10oC rise in
temperature.

182. Explain what is static resistance of a diode?

The static or dc resistance of a diode is the resistance offered by it to the direct current . It is
defined as the ratio of the diode voltage and current at the point of interest and is not sensitive
to the shape of the V-I characteristic curve. It decreases with the increase in diode current or
voltage.

183. Define dynamic resistance of a p-n junction diode in forward biased condition.
The resistance offered by a p-n junction diode to the changing forward current is defined as the
dynamic resistance.
 AC or dynamic resistance, r = (Small change in forward voltage) /(Small change in forward
current)

184. What is Electronic?

The study and use of electrical devices that operate by controlling the flow of electrons or other
electrically charged particles.

185. What is communication?

Communication means transferring a signal from the transmitter which passes through a
medium then the output is obtained at the receiver. (or)communication says as transferring of
message from one place to another place called communication.

186. Different types of communications? Explain

Analog and digital communication.
As a technology, analog is the process of taking an audio or video signal (the human voice)
and translating it into electronic pulses. Digital on the other hand is breaking the signal into a
binary format where the audio or video data is represented by a series of “1”s and “0”s.

Digital signals are immune to noise, quality of transmission and reception is good, components
used in digital communication can be produced with high precision and power consumption is
also very less when compared with analog signals.

187. What is sampling?

The process of obtaining a set of samples from a continuous function of time x(t) is referred to
as sampling.

188. State sampling theorem.

It states that, while taking the samples of a continuous signal, it has to be taken care that the
sampling rate is equal to or greater than twice the cut off frequency and the minimum sampling
rate is known as the Nyquist rate.

189. What is cut-off frequency?

The frequency at which the response is -3dB with respect to the maximum response.

190. What is pass band?

Passband is the range of frequencies or wavelengths that can pass through a filter without being
attenuated.

191. What is stop band?

A stopband is a band of frequencies, between specified limits, in which a circuit, such as a
filter or telephone circuit, does not let signals through, or the attenuation is above the required
stopband attenuation level.

192. Explain RF?

 Radio frequency (RF) is a frequency or rate of oscillation within the range of about 3 Hz to
300 GHz. This range corresponds to frequency of alternating current electrical signals used to
produce and detect radio waves. Since most of this range is beyond the vibration rate that most
mechanical systems can respond to, RF usually refers to oscillations in electrical circuits or
electromagnetic radiation.

193. What is modulation? And where it is utilized?

Modulation is the process of varying some characteristic of a periodic wave with an external
signals.
Radio communication superimposes this information bearing signal onto a carrier signal.
These high frequency carrier signals can be transmitted over the air easily and are capable of
travelling long distances.
The characteristics (amplitude, frequency, or phase) of the carrier signal are varied in
accordance with the information bearing signal.
Modulation is utilized to send an information bearing signal over long distances.

194. What is demodulation?

Demodulation is the act of removing the modulation from an analog signal to get the original
baseband signal back. Demodulating is necessary because the receiver system receives a
modulated signal with specific characteristics and it needs to turn it to base-band.

195. Name the modulation techniques.

For Analog modulation–AM, SSB, FM, PM and SM
Digital modulation–OOK, FSK, ASK, Psk, QAM, MSK, CPM, PPM, TCM, OFDM

196. Explain AM and FM.

AM-Amplitude modulation is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carrier signal
is varied in accordance with the information bearing signal.

FM-Frequency modulation is a type of modulation where the frequency of the carrier signal is
varied in accordance with the information bearing signal.

197. Where do we use AM and FM?

AM is used for video signals for example TV. Ranges from 535 to 1705 kHz.
FM is used for audio signals for example Radio. Ranges from 88 to 108 MHz.

198. . What is a base station?

Base station is a radio receiver/transmitter that serves as the hub of the local wireless network,
and may also be the gateway between a wired network and the wireless network.

199. How many satellites are required to cover the earth?

3 satellites are required to cover the entire earth, which is placed at 120 degree to each other.
The life span of the satellite is about 15 years.

200. What is a repeater?

 A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it at a higher level
and/or higher power, or onto the other side of an obstruction, so that the signal can cover longer
distances without degradation.

201. What is an Amplifier?

An electronic device or electrical circuit that is used to boost (amplify) the power, voltage or
current of an applied signal.

202. Example for negative feedback and positive feedback?

Example for –ve feedback is —Amplifiers And for +ve feedback is – Oscillators

203. What is Oscillator?

An oscillator is a circuit that creates a waveform output from a direct current input. The two
main types of oscillator are harmonic and relaxation. The harmonic oscillators have smooth
curved waveforms, while relaxation oscillators have waveforms with sharp changes.

204. What is an Integrated Circuit?

An integrated circuit (IC), also called a microchip, is an electronic circuit etched onto a silicon
chip. Their main advantages are low cost, low power, high performance, and very small size.

205. What is crosstalk?

Crosstalk is a form of interference caused by signals in nearby conductors. The most common
example is hearing an unwanted conversation on the telephone. Crosstalk can also occur in
radios, televisions, networking equipment, and even electric guitars.

206. What is resistor?

A resistor is a two-terminal electronic component that opposes an electric current by producing
a voltage drop between its terminals in proportion to the current, that is, in accordance with
Ohm’s law: V = IR.

207. What is inductor?

An inductor is a passive electrical device employed in electrical circuits for its property of
inductance. An inductor can take many forms.

208. What is conductor?

A substance, body, or device that readily conducts heat, electricity, sound, etc. Copper is a
good conductor of electricity.

209. What is a semi conductor?

A semiconductor is a solid material that has electrical conductivity in between that of a
conductor and that of an insulator(An Insulator is a material that resists the flow of electric
current. It is an object intended to support or separate electrical conductors without passing
current through itself); it can vary over that wide range either permanently or dynamically.

210. What is diode?

 In electronics, a diode is a two-terminal device. Diodes have two active electrodes between
which the signal of interest may flow, and most are used for their unidirectional current
property.

211. What is transistor?

In electronics, a transistor is a semiconductor device commonly used to amplify or switch
electronic signals. The transistor is the fundamental building block of computers, and all other
modern electronic devices. Some transistors are packaged individually but most are found in
integrated circuits.

212. What is op-amp?

An operational amplifier, often called an op-amp , is a DC-coupled high-gain electronic voltage
amplifier with differential inputs[1] and, usually, a single output. Typically the output of the
op-amp is controlled either by negative feedback, which largely determines the magnitude of
its output voltage gain, or by positive feedback, which facilitates regenerative gain and
oscillation.

213. What is a feedback?

Feedback is a process whereby some proportion of the output signal of a system is passed (fed
back) to the input. This is often used to control the dynamic behavior of the system.

214. Advantages of negative feedback over positive feedback.

Much attention has been given by researchers to negative feedback processes, because negative
feedback processes lead systems towards equilibrium states. Positive feedback reinforces a
given tendency of a system and can lead a system away from equilibrium states, possibly
causing quite unexpected results.

215. What is Barkhausen criteria?

Barkhausen criteria, without which you will not know which conditions, are to be satisfied for
oscillations. “Oscillations will not be sustained if, at the oscillator frequency, the magnitude of
the product of the transfer gain of the amplifier and the magnitude of the feedback factor of the
feedback network ( the magnitude of the loop gain ) are less than unity”.

The condition of unity loop gain -A? = 1 is called the Barkhausen criterion. This condition
implies that
A?= 1and that the phase of – A? is zero.

216. What is CDMA, TDMA, FDMA?

Code division multiple access (CDMA) is a channel access method utilized by various radio
communication technologies. CDMA employs spread-spectrum technology and a special
coding scheme (where each transmitter is assigned a code) to allow multiple users to be
multiplexed over the same physical channel. By contrast, time division multiple access
(TDMA) divides access by time, while frequency-division multiple access (FDMA) divides it
by frequency.
 An analogy to the problem of multiple access is a room (channel) in which people wish to
communicate with each other. To avoid confusion, people could take turns speaking (time
division), speak at different pitches (frequency division), or speak in different directions
(spatial division). In CDMA, they would speak different languages. People speaking the same
language can understand each other, but not other people. Similarly, in radio CDMA, each
group of users is given a shared code. Many codes occupy the same channel, but only users
associated with a particular code can understand each other.

217. explain different types of feedback

Types of feedback:

Negative feedback: This tends to reduce output (but in amplifiers, stabilizes and linearizes
operation). Negative feedback feeds part of a system’s output, inverted, into the system’s input;
generally with the result that fluctuations are attenuated.
Positive feedback: This tends to increase output. Positive feedback, sometimes referred to as
“cumulative causation”, is a feedback loop system in which the system responds to perturbation
(A perturbation means a system, is an alteration of function, induced by external or internal
mechanisms) in the same direction as the perturbation. In contrast, a system that responds to
the perturbation in the opposite direction is called a negative feedback system.
Bipolar feedback: which can either increase or decrease output.

218. What are the main divisions of power system?

The generating system,transmission system,and distribution system

219. What is Instrumentation Amplifier (IA) and what are all the advantages?
An instrumentation amplifier is a differential op-amp circuit providing high input impedances
with ease of gain adjustment by varying a single resistor.

220. What is meant by impedance diagram.

The equivalent circuit of all the components of the power system are drawn and they are
interconnected is called impedance diagram.

221. What is the need for load flow study.

The load flow study of a power system is essential to decide the best operation existing system
and for planning the future expansion of the system. It is also essential for designing the power
system.

222. What is the need for base values?

The components of power system may operate at different voltage and power levels. It will be
convenient for analysis of power system if the voltage, power, current ratings of the
components of the power system is expressed with referance to a common value called base
value.
223. Explain what is a combinational circuit?
In a combinational circuit, the output depends upon present input(s) only i.e, not dependant on
the previous input(s). The combinational circuit has no memory element. It consists of logic
gates only.

224. Write two characteristics of combinational circuits.

The two characteristics of combinational circuits are:

In combinational circuits, the output exists as long as the input exists.

A combinational circuit will always respond in the same fashion to the input function, when
we apply signal to the input terminal of the combinational logic circuit.

225. Explain what is the difference between an ammeter and a voltmeter?

Ammeter is a low resistance indicating instrument while the voltmeter is a high resistance one.

226. Explain why an ammeter should be of very low resistance?

Ammeter, which is connected in series with the circuit carrying the current under measurement,
must be over very low resistance so that the voltage drop across the ammeter and power
absorbed from the circuit are as low as possible.

227. Explain why a voltmeter should be of very high resistance?

Voltmeter, which is connected in parallel with the circuit across which the voltage is to be
measured, must be of very high resistance so that the current flowing through the voltmeter
and the power absorbed from the circuit are minimum possible.

228. How an ammeter can be changed to a voltmeter?

An ammeter or low range can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in
series with it provided the current through the series combination is within the range of the
ammeter when connected across the voltage under measurement.

229. Explain what happens when an ammeter is connected across the circuit?
If an ammeter is connected in parallel to the circuit like a voltmeter, a very high current will
flow through it which will produce such an excessive heat the insulation of the wire carrying
the current will be destroyed. The wire may itself melt away. Thus the instrument will get
damaged.

230. Explain what happens when a voltmeter is connected in series with the circuit?
 If a voltmeter is connected in series with the circuit, the circuit resistance will become too large
and consequently a very small current will flow through it. The instrument will, however, read
almost the same emf acting on the circuit.

231. Explain what do you understand by ammeter shunt?

An ammeter shunt is merely a low resistance that is placed across the coil circuit of the
instrument in order to measure fairly large currents.

232. Explain what do you understand by voltmeter multiplier?

Voltmeter multiplier is a high non-inductive resistance connected in series with the voltmeter
coil and is used for increasing the range of a voltmeter.

233. Explain what is the advantage of using Ayrton or universal shunt in multi-range
ammeters?
The advantage of using Ayrton or universal shunt is that it eliminates the possibility of the
meter being in a circuit without a shunt.

234. Explain what is VOM?

The volt-ohm-milliammeter (VOM) is another name of multimeter. It is also called AVO
meter.

235. Explain what is a multimeter?

The instrument, which contains a function switch to connect the appropriate circuits to the
d’Arsonval movement, is often called a multimeter or ampere-volt-ohm (AVO) meter or volt-
ohm-milliammeter (VOM).

236. Indicate the various quantities that can be measured with a multimeter.
Multimeteris used for measument of current (dc as well as ac), voltage (dc as well as ac) and
resistance. With the external source, high resistance (exceeding 1MΩ),inductance and
capacitance can be measured with this instrument.

237. Explain what are the shortcomings of a multimeter?

It may be noted that the ac sensitivity of a half-wave ac meter is only 45% of the dc sensitivity,
therefore, the loading effect is greater while measuring ac voltages than while measuring
corresponding dc voltages.

The rectifying action depends upon the frequency to some extent due to capacitance effect and
rectifier instruments show lower readings. Instrument indications may be in error by as much
as 0.5% decrease for every 1kHz rise in frequency.

238. Where LCR meter is used?

LCR meters are used to measure the values of inductance (L), capacitance (C) and resistance
(R) directly.
239. Explain what is Q-meter?
The Q-meter is an instrument designed for measurement of Q-factor of a coil as well as for the
measurement of electrical properties of coils and capacitors.

240. On Explain what principle does a Q-meter operate?

The Q-meter operates on the principle of series resonance i.e, under resonant condition of an
acseries, circuit voltage across the capacitor is equal to the applied voltage times of Q of the
circuit.

241. Explain what is Q-factor of the coil?

The ratio of the inductive reactance to the effective resistance of the coil is called the Q-factor
of the coil.

242. Explain what are the different parameters that can be measured using a Q-meter?
The Q-meter is used for measuring Q-factor, inductance, effective resistance, self-capacitance,
bandwidth and capacitance.

243. Explain what are the factors which the measurement accuracy of Q-meter?
Factors affecting measurement accuracy are:

Distributed capacitance or self capacitance of the coil.

Residual inductance of the instrument.
Conductance of voltmeter.
Shunt resistor of -meter.
244. Explain why the actual Q-factor of the coil is someExplain what larger than the
calculated Q-factor?
Calculated value of Q-factor is someExplain what smaller than its actual value because Q-
factor measurement includes the losses of the resonating capacitor, voltmeter and the shunt
resistance

245. List any four objectives of process control.

Suppressing the influence of external disturbances, Optimizing the performance,
Increasing the productivity, Cost effective.

246. Define process

Any system comprised of dynamic variables usually involved in manufacturing and
production operations. It is defines as a series of operations during which some materials are
placed in more useful state.

247. What is manipulated variable

a. It is a variable which is altered by the automatic control equipment so as to change the

variable under and make it conform with the desired value.

248. Define Controlled variable

 a. It is the quantity of control system which is directly measured and controlled.

249. What do you mean by self regulation?

a. The output will move from one steady state to another for the sustained change in input.
This means that for change in some input variable the output variable will rise until it
reaches a steady state (inflow = outflow). It is the tendency of the process to adopt a
specific value of controlled variable for nominal load with no control operations.

250. Why do we need mathematical modeling of process?

a. The physical equipment of the chemical process we want to control have not been
constructed. Consequently we cannot experiment to determine how the process reacts
to various inputs and therefore we cannot design the appropr iate control system. If the
process equipment needs to be available for experimentation the procedure is costly.
Therefore we need a simple description of how the process reacts to various inputs, and
this is what the mathematical models can provide to the control designer.

251. Name different test inputs.

a. Step, Ramp, Impulse, Sinusoidal, Pulse inputs

252. Name a process giving inverse response

a. Drum boiler system, in which the flow rate of the cold feed water is increased by a step
the total volume of the boiling water and consequently the liquid level will decreased
for a short period and then it will start increasing.

253. Define interacting system and give an example.

a. Load changes in first process affects the second process and vise versa when both are
connected in series nature is called interacting system. Eg. Two level tanks are
connected in series.

254. A tank operating at 10ft head, 51pm outflow through a valve and has a cross section
area of 10 sq f calculate the time constant.
a. T=R/A, R=H/Q=10/(5X5.885X10-4)

255. What is meant by non-self regulation?

a. A system that grows without limit for a sustained change in input (constant outflow or
outflow independent of inflow condition).

256. Write any two characteristics of first order process modeling

a. The smaller the value of time constant the steeper the initial response of the system. A
first order lag proce ss is self regulating the ultimate value of the response equal to Kp
(steady state gain of the process) for a unit step change in the input.

257. Distinguish between continuous process and batch process.

 a. A process in which the materials or work flows more or less continuously through a
plant apparatus while being treated is termed as continuous process. The problem of
continuous process is due to load changes. (e.g.) storage vessel control.

b. A process in which the materials or work are stationary at one physical location while
being treated is termed as batch process. (e.g.) furnace.

258. Explain the function of controller.

a. The element in a process control loop that evaluated error of the controlled variable and
initiates corrective action by a signal to the controlling variable.

259. What is the purpose of final control element?

a. Components of a control system (such as valve) is used to directly regulates the flow of
energy or materials to the process. It directly determines the value of manipulated
variable.

260. Define Process control

a. It is the scheme that describes how much the manipulated variable should change inorder
to bring the controlled variable back to the setpoint.

261. List the two types of process control.

a. Direct process control

b. Controlled variable directly indicates the performance of the process Eg. Water heater
system

c. InDirect Process control the performance of the process.

d. Controlled variable indirectly indicates Eg. Annealing

262. What is Servo operation and Regulatory operation.

a. If the purpose of the control system is to make the process follow the changes in setpoint
as quick as possible, then it is servo operation.

263. What is mathematical modeling.

a. Set of equations that characterize the process is termed as Mathematical Modelling.

264. Define an non-interacting system.

a. The dynamic behaviour one tank is affected by the other, but the reverse is not true, then
it is non-interacting system. Here the liquid heads are independent of each other.

265. Define an interacting system.

a. The dynamic behavior one tank is affected by the other, but the reverse is also true, then
it is non-interacting system. Here the liquid heads are dependent of each other.

266. Mention two drawbacks of derivative action

i. The output of controller is zero at constant error condition.
 b. (ii)It will amplify the noise present in the error signal.

267. What are the steps involved to design a best controller?

a. Define appropriate performance criterion (ISE, IAE, ITATE). Compute the value of the
performance criterion using a P, PI, or PID controller with the best setting for the
adjusted parameters Kp, Ti, Td. Select controller which give the best value for the
performance criterion.

268. Define proportional control mode

a. A controller mode in which the controller output is directly proportional to the error
signal P=Kpep+p0 P-controller output Kp= Propotional gain, ep=error in percent of
variable range, P0-Bias.

269. Define proportional band.

a. Proportional band is def ined as the change in input of proportional controller mode
required to produce a full-scale change in output

270. Write the relation ship between proportional band and proportional gain
a. The reciprocal of gain expressed as a percentage is called proportional band. Kp=100/PB

271. Define offset.

a. It is the steady state deviation (error) resulting from a change in value of load variable.

272. Define error (deviation)?

a. It is the difference at any instant between the value of controlled variable and the set
point. E=S.P-P.V

273. Why is the electronic controller preferred to pneumatic controller?

a. Electronic signals operate over great distance without time lags. Electronic signals can
be made compatible with digital controllers. Electronic devices can be designed to be
essentially maintenance free. Intrinsic safety techniques eliminate electrical hazards.
Less expensive to install. More energy efficient. Due to the above said properties
electronic controllers are preferred to pneumatic controller.

274. Explain the function of controller.

a. The element in process control loop that evaluates error of the controlled variable and
initiates corrective action by a signal to the controlling variable.

275. Write any two limitations of single speed floating control.

a. The present output depends on the time history of errors and such history is not known,
the actual value of controller output floats at an undetermined value. If the deviation
persists controller saturates at either 100% or 0% and remain there until an error drives
it towards opposite extreme.

276. Why derivative mode of control is not recommended for a noisy process?
 a. The series capacitor in the derivative controller will amplify the noise in the error signal.

277. Define integral (reset) windup?

a. The over charging in the presence of a continuous error of the integral capacitor which
must discharge through a long time constant discharge path and which prevents a quick
return to the desired control point.

278. What are the two modes of controller.

a. Discontinuous and continuous mode are the two modes of controller.

279. Define Discontinuous mode of controller

a. If for only two values of error, control action is taken, it is Discontinuous mode of
controller.

280. Define Continuous mode of controller

a. If for every value of error, control action is taken, it is Discontinuous mode of controller.

281. Give an example for Discontinuous and Continuous mode of controller.

a. Discontinuous-ON-OFF controller.

282. Define cycling.

a. Oscillations of error about zero is called cycling.

283. Define controller turning.

a. Deciding what values to be used for the adjusted parameters of the controller is called
controller turning.

284. What is reaction curve.

a. In process controller, the reaction curve is obtained by applying a step change (either in
load or in set point) and plotting the response of the controlled variable with respect to
time.

285. What performance criterion should be used for the selection and turning of
controller?
a. Keep the maximum error as small as possible. Minimize the integral of the errors until
the process has settled set Point.

286. Define ultimate gain

a. The maximum gain of the proportional controller at which the sustained oscillations
occur is called ultimate gain (Ku).

287. What is ITAE and when to go for it?

a. ITAE means Integral Time Absolute Error. To suppress the errors that persist for long
time, the ITAE criterion will tune the controllers better because the presence of large t
amplifies the effect of even small errors in the value if integral.

288. What are the parameters required to design a best controller?

289. Process Parameters (K,ô), Controller parameters (Kp,Ti, Td),performance creation (ISE,
IAE, IATE)

290. Write any tow practical significance of the gain margin

a. It constitutes a measure of how far the system is the brink of instability. Higher the gain
margin (above the value of one), the higher the safety factor we use controller turning.

b. Typically, a control designer synthesizes a feedback system with gain margin larger than
1800.

291. Why is it necessary to choose controller settings that satisfy both gain margin and
phase margin?
a. The gain margin and Phase margin are the safety factors which is used for the design of
a feedback system. Beyond the phase margin and gain margin the system goes to
unstable position.

292. What is turning a controller based on quarter – decay ratio?

a. It is the procedure in which adjusting the proportional gain of controller upto ¼ th decay
ratio waveform is obtained.

293. Name the time integral performance criteria measures.

a. Integral Square Error (ISE), Integral of absolute value of error (IAE), Integral of time
weighted absolute error.

294. Define Integral Square Errors (ISE)

a. If we want to suppress large errors, ISE is better than IAE Because errors are squared
and contribute more to the value of integral.

b. Define Integral Absolute Errors (IAE)

c. If we want to suppers small errors, IAE is better than ISE Because when we square small
numbers, they even become smaller.

295. Define Integral of Time weighted Absolute Error (ITAE)

a. To suppress errors that persist for long times, ITAE criterion will tune the controllers
better because the presence of large t amplifies the effect of even small errors in value
of integral.

296. Define One-quarter decay ratio

a. It is reasonable trade off between fast rise time and reasonable setting time.

297. Give the satisfactory control for gas liquid level process.
a. Proportional Control is the satisfactory control for liquid level process.

298. Give the satisfactory control for gas pressure process.

a. Proportional Control is the satisfactory control for liquid level process.
299. Give the satisfactory control for vapour pressure process.
a. PI Control is the satisfactory control for vapour pressure process having fast response.

300. Give the satisfactory control for temperature process.

a. PID Control is the satisfactory control for temperature process.

301. Give the satisfactory control for composition process.

a. PID Control is the satisfactory control for composition process.

302. Define ratio control

a. Ratio control is a special type of feed forward control where two disturbances are
measured and held in a ratio to each other.

303. Define cascade control

a. Cascade control is defined as a control system composed of two loops where the set
point of one loop (the inner loop) is the output of the control ler of the other loop (the
outer loop)

304. When cascade control will give improved performance than conventional feedback
control?
a. In some process the secondary variables in it introduce disturbance throughout the
system is measured and controlled by a separate loop.

305. Explain the purpose of cascade control for heat exchangers?

a. In heat exchangers, the control objective is to keep the exit temperature of stream. But
the flow rate of the stream creates the low disturbance throughout of its a function. The
secondary loop is used to compensate the flow rate of the stream.

306. What is meant by auctioneering control?

a. Such control configurations select among several measurements the one with the highest
value and feed it to the controller. Thus it is a selective controller which possesses
several measured outputs and only one manipulated input.

307. What is Bernoulli’s theorem in Fluid Dynamics ?

a. It is relation among the pressure, velocity, and elevation in a moving fluid (liquid or
gas), the compressibility and viscosity (internal friction) of which are negligible and
the flow of which is steady, or laminar. Bernoulli’s theorem is the principle of energy
conservation for ideal fluids in steady, or streamline, flow . The theorem states, in
effect, that the total mechanical energy of the flowing fluid, comprising the energy
associated with fluid pressure, the gravitational potential energy of elevation, and
the kinetic energy of fluid motion, remains constant.
b. In how many types flow can be classified ?
c. Open channel flow and closed conduit flow.
d. Explain open channel flow ?
 e. Open channel flow occur when the flowing stream has a free or unconstrained surface
open to the atmosphere. Flows in canals or vented pipelines - like drain and sewers -
which are not flowing full, are typical examples.In open channel flow the force
causing the flow the force of gravity on the fluid. A progressive fall or decrease in the
water surface elevation occurs as the flow moves downstream.
308. Explain closed conduit flow ?
a. Closed conduit flow occurs when the flow is caused by a pressure difference in the
conduit. Flow in water supply pipes or district heating pipes are typical examples. The
flow rate depends mainly on the pressure difference between the ends, the distance
between the ends, the area of the conduit and the hydraulic properties of the conduit -
like the shape, roughness and restrictions like bends.

309. State different types of flow measuring principle ?

Differential Pressure Flow meters

Velocity Flow meters
Positive Displacement Flow meters
Mass Flow meters
For Open Channel Flow meters - weirs, flumes, submerged orifices , current meters, acoustic
flow meters and more
310. Explain Differential Pressure Flow Meters
In a differential pressure drop device the flow is calculated by measuring the pressure drop
over an obstructions inserted in the flow. The differential pressure flow meter is based on
the Bernoulli Equation where the pressure drop and the further measured signal is a function
of the square flow speed.

311. State different types of Differential Pressure Flow Meters

Orifice Plates
Flow Nozzles
Venturi Tubes
Variable Area - Rotameters
312. What Are Different Types Of Orifice Plates?

Concentric
Segmental
Eccentric

313. Explain Use of Concentric Plate

These plates are used for ideal liquid as well as gases and steam service. Concentric holes are
present in these plates, thats why it is known as concentric orifice.
314. Explain Use of Segmental Plate
This plate has hole in the form of segment of the circle. This plate is used for colloidal and
sherry flow measurement.

315. Explain Use of Eccentric Plate

This plate has the eccentric holes. This plate is used in viscous and sherry flow measurement.

316. How Do You Identify An Orifice In The Pipeline?

An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends out of the line giving an indication
of the orifice plate.

317. Why Is The Orifice Tab Provided?

Following reasons justify for providing orifice tab:

Indication of orifice plate in a line

The orifice diameter is marked on it.
The material of the orifice plate.
The tag number of the orifice plate.
To mark the inlet of an orifice.
318. Why RTD installed after the Orifice Flow element?
The location of the RTD (thermowell), positioned downstream of the orifice plate so the
turbulence it generates will not create additional turbulence at the orifice plate.The American
Gas Association (AGA) allows for upstream placement of the thermowell, but only if located
at least three feet upstream of a flow conditioner.

319. How is the unit of standard cubic centimeters per minute (sccm), which sounds
like a volumetric unit, actually a mass flow unit?

The sccm unit is a little confusing. It is typically used in meters to allow users to easily derive
a corresponding traditional mass flow unit from a measurement that is not native to the
meter’s sensing technology. These meters will typically use a native volumetric flow sensor
to measure a flow quantity. Then they compensate or “standardize” that measurement to a
specific reference condition often referred to as standard temperature and pressure (STP).This
standardized flow rate allows a user to easily reference a density for their known gas
composition and use it to calculate an equivalent mass flow in the units of their choosing. It’s
important to understand that this mass flow must be derived since it isn’t physically measured
by a mass flow sensor.
320. What is flow meter compensation?

Flow compensation is the act of determining the degree to which a particular volumetric flow
rate would change if the temperature and/or pressure were to change. will cause serious
pressure fluctuations at the orifice plate unless mitigated by a flow conditioner, or by locating
the thermowell downstream so that the vortices do not reach the orifice.

321. What is the difference between mass flow and volumetric flow?
Mass flow is the movement of a fluid over time quantified relative to the fluid’s mass.
Volumetric flow is the movement of a fluid over time quantified relative to the fluid’s
volume.From a practical standpoint, volumetric flow will vary with changes in temperature
and pressure, while mass flow is unaffected by these changes.

322. What is the Principle of operation of Electromagnetic Flow Meters ?

The working of these meters is based on Faraday’s Second Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
It states that, a conductor moving in a magnetic field with the direction of its motion
perpendicular to the magnetic field generates an EMF across it and the direction of the EMF is
perpendicular to both, the magnetic field and the direction of motion.The generated EMF is
proportional to the magnetic flux density, B, the velocity of conductor v and the length of the
conductor l. In the flow meter the magnetic field is generated by exciting the coils and the
conductor is the liquid itself, under measurement with the length equal to the diameter of pipe.

Thus EMF = B.v.d,

where d is the diameter of the inner wall of flow meter.

323. What is the level of conductivity required for the liquid under measurement to get
satisfactory operation of the meter?
In general the electrical conductivity of liquid under measurement should have minimum of 5
micro siemens per cm. conductivity.
But carefully designed transmitters and primary flow sensors, like Manas, can measure flow
rate of liquids having conductivity as low as 1 micro siemens per cm.

324. Can Electromagnetic Flow meter be used for measurement of flow of liquids like
Petrol, Diesel, Kerosene, and Various types of oil, Edible oil or other organic solvents?
As explained in question 2 above, the required conductivity of liquid is at least 1 micro siemens
per cm. The conductivity of liquids under question are nearing to almost zero.

E.g. the conductivity of kerosene is in Pico Siemens, where even carefully designed meters
also cannot measure the liquid flow.

325. Can the Electromagnetic flow meter measure the flow of fluids like, steam, air,
gases or any such compressible fluid?
 Electromagnetic flow meters are designed as Liquid Flow Meters.They cannot measure flow
rates of compressible fluids.

326. Can Electromagnetic Flow Meter be used for measurement of Mass Flow Rate?
If we refer to question no.1 above we find the basic equation as, E = B .v. d

Where E is the Electro Motive Force generated in the liquid because of its average velocity. It
is clear that for a given flow meter the magnetic flux density and diameter are constant.

The EMF is thus proportional to only average velocity of the liquid. Velocity when multiplied
by cross sectional area gives us volumetric flow rate.

The electromagnetic flow meters are thus volumetric flow meters and cannot be used as Mass
Flow Meters.
If the density of the flowing liquid is fixed and if there is a facility to feed the density in
transmitter the E.M. Meter can be used as a Mass Flow Meter

327. What is the typical Accuracy of measurement for Electromagnetic Flow Meters?
The typical accuracy of these meters is +/- 0.3 % of reading.

The specified accuracy is +/- 0.5% of reading between 10 % to 100 % of calibrated flow rate
range.

328. What is meant by Full Bore Meter ?

A Full Bore meter is a circular meter where, when the flow passes by filling the entire bore
area, the meter can measure the average velocity inside the meter.

Naturally the accuracy of a full bore meter is always much better than any other type.

329. What is the difference between Insertion Type and Full Bore Type meter?

As explained in question 7 above the full Bore Meter measures the average velocity. The
Insertion Type measures velocity at only one point.
So in fact Insertion Meters are velocity meters and not real flow meters. Naturally the
accuracy of Insertion type, if used as flow meter, is very poor.
330. What is the effect of change in velocity profile through the meter, on accuracy?

As long as the velocity profile is symmetrical around the axis there is no effect on accuracy
with change in velocity profile,
e.g. from laminar to turbulent or even transitional profile of velocity.
331. What is the minimum velocity for which the Electromagnetic Flow Meter works
with consistent readings?
General purpose meter manufacturers do not recommend to operate their meters below 0.2 to
0.3 meters/second velocity, can comfortably be used for velocities as low as 0.1
meters/second.
332. What is the difference between a Wafer Style Meter and Flanged type Meter?
Both types work on the principle of Faraday’s Law. Both are durable and accurate in
measurements.
But the lengths of flanged type meters are specified by ISO standard, ISO13359 and those of
wafer type are decided by manufacturer.
Wafer type meters are not having flanges and are installed by sandwiching the meter between
two flanges of pipe.
There being no flanges to the meter, and length being less the wafer meters are economical
compared to flanged meters.

333. What is the difference between magnetic flow meters and magnetically coupled
flow meters?

The measurement principle of magnetic or electromagnetic flow meters is based on Faraday’s

Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
These meters contain no moving parts. While as in magnetically coupled meters,
measurement is not based on Faraday’s law, but is based on rotation of wheel with velocity
of liquid. The rpm value of this rotating wheel is transferred to the outside measurement
scheme by magnetic coupling.
Turbine type and peddle wheel type meters usually use this scheme. These meters are having
moving parts and s limitations on accuracy as well as durability and capacity to measure
minimum velocity signal. Magnetically coupled meters are sometimes mistaken as magnetic
or electromagnetic flow meters.
334. Can Electromagnetic flow meter be used for measurement of Boiler Feed Water?
The E.M. Flow Meter can be used for measurement of Boiler Feed water.
In this application it is recommended to install the meter on suction side of the feed pump.

335. What are the various names of Electro Magnetic Flow Meters?
These meters are known with various names like, Magnetic Flow Meters, Magmeters,
Fullbore electromag, Magnetic Inductive Flow meter etc.

336. How to do commissioning the Magnetic flow meter at site in ideal case ?
Two types of calibration :
Wet Type &
Dry Type
 Wet calibrations that check the entire flow measurement system are generally not an option
in most applications because challenging the installed flowmeter with a known volume of
water is impractical — especially in large pipes in remote locations.
Even removing the flowmeter to perform a wet calibration in a flow laboratory can be
expensive and time-consuming. Further, it does not take the installed piping into account.
On the other hand, dry calibrations verify the operation of only part of the flow measurement
system. In the case of magnetic flowmeters, a traditional calibrator checks the transmitter by
verifying that a given (millivolt) input produces the correct flow rate.

337. What is the principle of operation of Steam and other Gas Flow Meters?
There are various types of Flow Meters for Steam, Gas, flow measurements.The most popular
type is based on the principle of creating differential pressure across the differential pressure
element like ORIFICE, VENTURY TUBE etc.

The differential pressure thus created is having relation with the flow rate.

Qm α √(ΔP.ρ)

Where,

Qm is the Mass flow rate.

ΔP is Differential Pressure.
ρ is the Density of flowing Fluid.
Thus by measuring the differential pressure and density one can compute the flow rate
338. Why Mass Flow Rate is measured? Why not Volume Flow Rate?
The volume of compressible fluid changes with change in pressure and temperature. The mass
remains constant irrespective of changes in pressure and temperature of fluid. It is therefore
convenient to measure mass flow rate.

Volume flow rate also can be measured provided the reference conditions of temperature and
pressure are well defined. The volume flow rate is then computed for these conditions thus
avoiding the errors due to changes in pressure and temperature of fluid.

Steam flow meters display the reading in terms of mass, i. e. Tons/hour or Kg/hour etc. while
Air or Gas flows measure flow in terms of Nm³ or Sm³ where N and S stands for reference
conditions.

339. What are the reference conditions for measuring volume flow rate?

There are two different reference conditions.

One is N.T.P. and other is called S.T.P.

 Normal condition of Temperature and Pressure is NTP.
Standard condition of Temperature and Pressure is STP.

The definitions for these conditions are defined but are interchanging in various countries. In
India they are defined as follows,

NTP: 0° C Temperature and 1 Atmosphere Pressure.

STP: 15° C Temperature and 1 Atmosphere Pressure.

340. Why accuracy gets hampered with variation of temperature and pressure?

As explained in question 2 above the volume of fluid changes with change in temperature
and pressure. If we are measuring volumetric flow naturally we will find different readings of
flow rate at different pressure and temperature for the same quantity of flow. If we are
measuring Mass flow rate, the density changes with change in temperature and pressure. so
the flow rate readings will not be accurate (refer to the expression of mass flow rate in
question 1 above.

341. How to avoid effects of temperature and pressure variations while measuring
flow rate of compressible fluid? What is density compensation?

To avoid the effects of variation of temperature and pressure on flow measurement the
flowing pressure and flowing temperature is measured. Pressure Temperature compensation
and Density compensation is one and the same. For calculating volumetric flow rate first the
mass flow rate is calculated and then it is divided by density at NTP or STP conditions as per
requirement. This type of correction is also known as density compensation.

342. What is the typical accuracy of this type of systems using orifice as primary
element?

There are two standards that govern the flow measuring system using orifice or other
restriction elements.

BS 1042

ISO 5167.

As per these standards the maximum error of measurement is within ±3%.Carefully crafting
of the primary element and other components can reduce the error down to 1½ % to 2%.

343. What is meant by Beta Ratio? What is its normal range?

Beta (ß) Ratio is the ratio of orifice diameter to pipe internal diameter. Its normal range is
from 0.4 to 0.8.
344. What are the piping requirements in terms of minimum upstream and
downstream straight lengths near the orifice element?

The requirement of minimum straight lengths depends on two factors,

The Beta ratio : The more the beta ratio the more is the requirement of straight lengths,
especially more on upstream side.

The type of disturbance on upstream side, e.g. One elbow in single plane, two elbows in one
plane, two elbows in different planes, reducer or expander, regulator or valve operation. It is
difficult to tell any thumb rule for straight lengths but knowing the specific case proper
straight lengths required on upstream and downstream side can be advised. Requirement of
upstream straight length varies between 7D and 24D. The variation of downstream is
comparatively much less and varies between 3 to 5 times the internal diameters of pipe (D).

345. What does turndown ratio mean?

Turndown ratio is also commonly referred to as rangeability. It indicates the range in which a
flow meter or controller can accurately measure the fluid.

In other words, it’s simply the high end of a measurement range compared to the low end,
expressed in a ratio and is calculated using a simple formula.

Turndown Ratio = maximum flow / minimum flow

346. What are the advantages of a using a differential flowmeter?

can handle low flow gases and liquids, has an output signal for totalizing, switch selectable
for different gases

347. What are the limitations of using a differential flowmeter?

for use with clean liquids only, maximum liquid viscosity of 5 cps

348. What are the advantages of using a mass flowmeter?

measure mass directly, can handle applications whose stream temperature and line pressures
fluctuate.

349. What are the limitations of using a mass flowmeter?

calibrated to a specific gas type

350. How does a Doppler flowmeter work?

 A high frequency signal is projected through the wall of the pipe and into the liquid. The
signal is reflected off impurities in the liquid such as air bubbles or particles and sent back to
the receiver. The frequency difference between the transmitted and received signal is directly
proportional to the fluid’s flow velocity.

351. Shall we use a Doppler flowmeter with particulates?

Yes. In order to use a doppler flowmeter the liquid must have particulates or bubbles. Most
require a minimum size of 25 ppm or 30 μm; check with each doppler flowmeter for specific
particle size requirements.

352. Some flowmeters measure in velocity (ft/sec). How can I convert the readings to
volume/time?

GPM= 2.45 * (ID in inches)² * (VELOCITY in ft/sec)

GPM= gallons per minute

ID = inside diameter of the pipe in inches.

This formula is for water it does not consider viscosity temperature or pressure. However
temperature viscosity and pressure will not effect a doppler flow reading.

353. What if my fluid is not water?

The speed of sound through water is approximately 1470 ft/sec.

Most instruments are calibrated for that rate.

Other fluids may be used but your instrument should then be recalibrated.

354. Will pipe insulation/thickness affect my reading?

Yes. Insulation should be removed before mounting the sensor.

355. Must a doppler flowmeter be permanently installed?

No. Because doppler flowmeters measure flow externally most can be easily removed also.

356. Does a doppler flowmeter require a minimum upstream straight pipe length?

Yes. Doppler flowmeters require ten pipe diameters from any valve tee bend etc. Doppler
flowmeters also require a full pipe flow.

357. What are the advantages of using a doppler flowmeter?

 non-invasive, good for slurries aerated liquids, portable

358. What are the limitations of using a doppler flowmeter?

not suitable for clean liquids, requires straight upstream piping

359. How does a paddle-wheel flowmeter work?

Magnets are installed on each paddle of the sensor which is inserted into the liquid.

As the paddle turns an electrical frequency output proportional to the flow velocity is
generated.

360. What is the “K” factor when used with insertion-type paddle wheel meters ?
The “K” factor is used to properly process the pulses from the flow sensor to the monitor
device. It is the number of pulses the sensor sends per unit of fluid passing through the pipe.
The number is different for each pipe size and pipe material the sensor is used with. These
numbers are determined through extensive testing by each meter manufacturer.

361. What if my liquid is foamy or turbulent?

Because these sensors use laminar flow characteristics foamy or turbulent liquids will not be
read accurately. The sensors must also be installed in a full flowing straight section of pipe.

362. How long of a straight section of pipe do we need?

For systems with no bends or restrictions allow a minimum of 15 pipe diameters upstream and
5 pipe diameters downstream.

363. What do we need for a paddle-wheel system?

a. flow sensor
b. pipe fitting
c. meter or controller to read the signals from the sensor and indicate them in GPM or
LPM
364. My flow meter reads in GPM—the flow sensors are in ft/sec. How do we know
which one is appropriate for my flow?

To convert from velocity to flow use:

GPM= ft/sec x (ID)2 x 2.45

GPM= gallons per minute

ID = inside diameter of the pipe

This formula is for water it does not consider viscosity temperature or pressure.

365. What do we need to know about my system when ordering a new flow meter?

In order to correctly calibrate your flowmeter we need to know:

 Type of fluid

Expected flow rate

Max. fluid temp and system pressure

% suspended particles by volume

Pipe size (ID) material and wall thickness (schedule).

366. What are the advantages of using a paddle-wheel flowmeter?

good repeatability, low pressure drop, easy maintenance

367. What are the limitations of using a paddle-wheel flowmeter?

minimum upstream/downstream piping requirements, full pipe require.

368. How does a turbine flowmeter work?

As liquid or gas flows through the turbine it turns an impeller blade that is sensed by infrared
beams photo-electric sensors or magnets.

An electrical pulse is then generated and converted to a frequency output proportional to the
flow rate.

369. Can we use a turbine flowmeter with small particles?

No. Turbine flowmeters are best used with clean low-viscosity liquids.

370. Do we need a minimum straight distance before the sensor?

To maintain an even cross-sectional flow it is recommended that there be a straight pipe length
of at least 10x the meter’s inner diameter upstream and at least 5x the meter’s inner diameter
downstream of the sensor.

Check each flowmeter for specific requirements.

371. What if we have air in my liquid?

Some turbine flowmeters can be used with air. However if there are air bubbles or vapor
pockets in the liquid the reading will be inaccurate.

There should be a laminar (stable) flow through the cross-section of the pipe.

372. What are the advantages of using a turbine flowmeter?

good accuracy with liquids
easy to install and maintain
signal output for totalizing
 low flow rates available

373. What are the limitations of using a turbine flowmeter?

sensitive to viscosity changes
straight pipe line required
clean liquids and gases only

374. How does a rotameter work?

Rotameters or variable area flowmeters operate on the principle that the variation in area of
flow stream required to produce a constant pressure differential is proportional to the flow
rate.
The flowing fluid enters the bottom of the meter passes upward through a metering tube and
around the float exiting at the top.
The flow rate is read by noting the position of the float against the calibrated scale etched on
the glass.

375. Where do we take the reading?

With the flowmeters the reading is taken at the center of the float.
It is recommended that the float be at eye level to minimize reading errors.
376. What is the difference between correlated and direct reading rotameters?
A direct reading flowmeter indicates the flow rate on its scale in specific engineering units
(e.g. ml/min or scfh).
Direct reading scales are designed for a specific gas or liquid at a given temperature and
pressure. While it is more convenient than a correlated flowmeter a direct reading flowmeter
is less accurate and limited in its applications.
A correlated flowmeter is scaled along either a 65mm or a 150mm length from which a
reading is taken. The reading is then compared to a correlation table for a specific gas or
liquid.
This will give the actual flow in engineering units. One correlated flowmeter can be used
with a variety of fluids or gases.

377. Can we use one flowmeter to measure different flow rates?

Yes. If a correlated flow tube is used different flow rates can be attained by using different
floats i.e. carboloy, stainless steel, glass or sapphire.

378. Must a rotameter be mounted vertically?

Generally rotameters must be mounted vertically because the float must center itself in the
fluid stream.
At high flow rates the float assumes a position towards the tip of the metering tube and at low
flow rates positions itself lower in the tube.
 Some of our rotameters have spring loaded floats and therefore may be mounted in any
orientation.

379. What are the advantages of using a variable area flowmeter?

inexpensive
somewhat self-cleaning
no power required
available in different materials for chemical compatibility

380. What are the limitations of using a variable area flowmeter?

no output for data transmission
sensitive to differing gas types and changes in temperature and pressure

381. Can we use a rotameter in a vacuum application or with back pressure ?

Yes, but if you have a valve it must be placed at the outlet (top of the flowmeter). This is done
by inverting the tube inside the frame and then turning over the frame.

At this position the tube should read correctly from the original perspective and the valve
should be at the outlet or top of the flowmeter. This allows for proper control of the vacuum.

382. What are the advantages and disadvantages of an insertion-type flowmeter ?

Insertion meters typically have two parts: a flow sensor that is installed in the pipeline through
a saddle, threaded inlet or special in-line fitting and the flow computer that displays the rate of
flow and totalizes.

The advantages are many : Insertion meters are very cost effective relative to pipe size,
especially in 4″ or larger pipes. This is because two sizes of insertion sensors can cover from
2″ to 48″ pipes. These meters are also very easy to install.

The primary disadvantage is that insertion-type meters are not usually acceptable for billing
purposes. Although these meters are very accurate, there is no AWWA standard and it is
difficult to do precise testing and calibration as you would with a standard turbine meter that
has test ports on it.

383. What kind of flowmeter will work for gravity flow, partially filled pipe
applications?

An open channel flowmeter is the only truly reliable way to measure low velocity gravity
flow discharges that are usually partially filled pipe applications.
 The use of an open channel flowmeter (OCF) requires some type of primary measuring
device such as a flume or weir. In such a device, the rate of flow is directly proportional to
the level of the water moving through the flume or weir.

The OCF measures flow by being programmed to recognize the type and size of the flume or
weir (usually done by simply selecting from a built-in menu) and then converting that level to
a rate of flow.

384. How can we measure the effluent from my plant, which flows by gravity to a
lagoon through a pipe that is not full?

There are two ways to measure gravity flows in partially full pipe. The most common is with
an Open-Channel Flowmeter (OCF). This meter requires a primary measuring device such as
a flume or weir.

The OCF is essentially a level device that calculates flows based on the characteristics of a
particular flume or weir configuration. If you already have a standard flume or weir on your
pipeline the OCF is the best choice, otherwise you will have to consider the cost of installing
such a primary device.

The other option is the Area Velocity Meter or AVM that is newer technology and gaining
popularity. The AVM has a sensor unit that installs in the pipeline (6″ or larger) and
calculates flow by determining the depth and the velocity of the water in the pipe along with
the area of the pipe cross-section.

The advantage of the AVM is that no primary device, flume or weir, is required.

There are other pros and cons to each type of flowmeter, so evaluate your system and ask
questions before purchasing.

385. Why upstream and downstream straight length is required?

Flow Meter accuracy is guaranteed for a fully developed flow profile in the pipeline at the
installed location. Normally from flow disturbance point, flow is developed after a distance
of about 20D or more. Hence minimum upstream straight length should be 20D for normal
pipelines. Minimum downstream straight length should be 5D from the flow meter to avoid
disturbances in the flow.

386. Can a differential pressure flowmeter handle turbulent flow?

Yes; though meters are unidirectional a straight run of tubing or pipe is not required.

387. What are the advantages of using a variable area flowmeter?

Inexpensive somewhat self-cleaning no power required available in different materials for

chemical compatibility Low and constant pressure losses. Suitable for very low flow
 rates Rangeability 10:1 Capable of measuring fluids of varying density and viscosity
(compensation given by float design).

388. Must a rotameter be mounted vertically?

Generally, rotameters must be mounted vertically, because the float must center itself in the
fluid stream. At high flow rates, the float assumes a position towards the tip of the metering
tube and at low flow rates positions itself lower in the tube. Some of the rotameters have
spring loaded floats and therefore may be mounted in any orientation.

389. Can we use a rotameter in a vacuum application or with back pressure?

Yes, but if you have a valve, it must be placed at the outlet (top of the flowmeter). This is
done by inverting the tube inside the frame, and then turning over the frame. At this position,
the tube should read correctly from the original perspective and the valve should be at the
outlet, or top of the flowmeter. This allows for proper control of the vacuum.

390. What is the difference between correlated and direct reading rotameters?

A direct reading flowmeter indicates the flow rate on its scale in specific engineering units
(e.g. ml/min or scfh). Direct reading scales are designed for a specific gas or liquid at a given
temperature and pressure. While it is more convenient than a correlated flowmeter, a direct
reading flowmeter is less accurate and limited in its applications.

A correlated flowmeter is scaled along either a 65mm or a 150mm length, from which a
reading is taken.

The reading is then compared to a correlation table for a specific gas or liquid. This will give
the actual flow in engineering units. One correlated flowmeter can be used with a variety of
fluids or gases.

391. What are Multiphase Flow Meters?

Multiphase Flow Meters (MPFM) are devices used to measure the individual oil, water and
gas flow rates in a multiphase flow. The term MPFM is used to define also the metering of
wet gas streams (i.e. multiphase flow where the gas content is very high).

A multiphase flow meter is a device used to measure the individual phase flow rates of
constituent phases in a given flow (for example in oil and gas industry) where oil, water and
gas mixtures are initially co-mingled together during the oil production processes.

392. Why is a Pressure Transmitter Installed Upstream of a Flow Transmitter?

 Upstream of a flow control valve a pressure transmitter is installed to measure the operating
pressure.

At times it is used for computing the true flow against the designed pressure.

Downstream of the control valve the pressure changes as the control valve open and closes.

393. Differential Pressure Flow meter Accuracy & Rangeability ?

Performance of a head-type flowmeter installation is a function of the

precision of the flow element and

the accuracy of the d/p cell

On average, flow element precision is expressed in percentage of actual reading terms,

whereas d/p cell accuracy is stated as a percentage of calibrated span.

A d/p cell typically provides accuracy of ±0.2% of the calibrated span. With no detrimental
effect on accuracy, rangeability of a flowmeter can be extra enhanced by employing several
d/p flowmeters in parallel runs.

394. How Hot Wire Anemometer Works?

The hot-wire anemometer, principally used in gas flow measurement, consists of an

electrically
heated, fine platinum wire which is immersed into the flow. As the fluid velocity increases,
the rate of heat flow from the heated wire to the flow stream increases. Thus, a cooling effect
on the wire electrode occurs, causing its electrical resistance to change. In a constant-current
anemometer, the fluid velocity is determined from a measurement of the resulting change in
wire resistance. In a constant-resistance anemometer, fluid velocity is determined from the
current needed to maintain a constant wire temperature and, thus, the resistance constant

395. What is a Venturi Tube?

The venturi tube, illustrated in Figure, is the most accurate flow-sensing element when properly
calibrated.
The venturi tube has a converging conical inlet, a cylindrical throat, and a diverging recovery
cone. It has no projections into the fluid, no sharp corners, and no sudden changes in contour.
The inlet section decreases the area of the fluid stream, causing the velocity to increase and the
pressure to decrease. The low pressure is measured in the center of the cylindrical throat since
the pressure will be at its lowest value, and neither the pressure nor the velocity is changing.

396. What is the selection criteria for Magnetic flowmeters ?

The key questions which need to be answered before selecting a magnetic flowmeter are:
 Is the fluid conductive or water based?

Is the fluid or slurry abrasive?

Do you require an integral display or remote display?

Do you require an analog output?

What is the minimum and maximum flow rate for the flow meter?

What is the minimum and maximum process pressure?

What is the minimum and maximum process temperature?

Is the fluid chemically compatible with the flow meter wetted parts?

What is the size of the pipe?

Is the pipe always full?

397. What are the Head type flow meters ?

In these head type flowmeters, some devices is inserted into a pipe carrying fluid. It obstructs
the flow of fluid and creates a pressure difference on either side of the device.

The most commonly used devices are as follows:

Orifice plate.

Venture plate.

Flow nozzle.

Doll flow tube.

Pilot tube.

The basic principle of all such devices is that due to obstruction, the velocity of the fluid
increases and the pressure decreases.

398. What is a Pitot Tube or Total Pressure Probe?

A probe is a device used for point pressure measurement in a flowing fluid. This point
measurement of pressure is done to determine fluid flow rate. The most popular probe is
the “PITOT TUBE” which is one of the total pressure probes. The Pitot tube measures the
combined pressure (static pressure + impact pressure).
 The pitot tube has one impact opening and eight static openings. The impact opening is
provided to sense impact pressure and the static opening are provide to sense static pressure.
The differential pressure (P1-P2) is measured using a differential pressure sensor. This
differential pressure becomes a measure of flow rate at that point where the pitot tube is
present in the flowing fluid.

399. What is a ‘k’ factor on a turbine meter?

Each turbine meter is specified with a ’k’ factor which represents the number of pulses
produced per a known quantity of liquid.

400. What are the Types of Thermal mass flow meter ?

Thermal mass flow meter types

Constant Current Method

Constant Temperature Method

401. What is Flow profile or velocity profile ?

The relative velocities of a fluid as it moves through a pipe, the velocity at the center being
greater than the velocity at the pipe wall.

Laminar flow is characterized by large differences in velocity along the profile, while
turbulent flow exhibits a “flatter” profile with more consistent velocity across the pipe
diameter.

402. What are the Types of Flow ?

In general, we come across two types of flow in liquid flow Measurement operations.

Laminar flow: This type of flow occurs at very low velocities or high viscosities.

In this, the liquid flows in smooth layers with the highest velocity at the center of the pipe
and low velocities at the boundary (wall) of the pipe where the viscous forces hold it back.

Turbulent flow: It takes place at high velocities or low viscosities.

In this, the liquid flow breaks up into turbulent eddies which flow through the pipe with the
identical average velocity.

In this type of flow, fluid velocity is not much significant, and the velocity profile is a lot
more uniform in shape.
403. What are the Factors Affecting Flow Rate ?

From the basic relationship, we deduce that factors affecting liquid flow rate comprises
average velocity of the flow and cross sectional area of the pipe.

Apart from these, other factors which can influence liquid flow rate are:

Liquid’s viscosity

Density

Friction of the liquid in contact with the pipe

What are the Types of Ultrasonic Flowmeters ?

a. Ultrasonic flowmeters are two types:

b. Doppler meters, Time-of-travel meters
404. Explain Doppler meters ?

Doppler meters measure the frequency shifts caused by liquid flow. In this, two transducers
are mounted in a case attached to one side of the pipe. A signal of known frequency is
transmitted into the liquid to be measured. Solids, bubbles, or any other discontinuity in the
liquid, cause the signal to be reflected to the receiver element. Since the liquid causing the
reflection is moving, the frequency of the returned pulse is shifted. This frequency shift is
proportional to the liquid’s velocity or flow rate.

405. Explain Time-of-travel meters ?

These are also known as Transit meters. They have transducers installed on each side of the
pipe. They use the transit time principle for flow measurement. In this, opposite sending and
receiving transducers are employed to transmit signals through the flow. The signal travels
faster when moving with the flow stream rather than against the flow stream. The difference
between the two transit times is used to determine the flow rate. As per configuration, the sound
waves travel between the devices at a 45 degree angle to the fluid flow direction. The speed of
the signal traveling between the transducers depends upon (increases or decreases) the
direction of transmission and the velocity of the liquid being measured. A time-differential
relationship proportional to the flow can be acquired by transmitting the signal alternately in
both directions.

406. What are the Types of Variable Area Flowmeters ?

a. Variable area flowmeters are available in following variety of designs

Rotameter (a float in a tapered tube)

 Orifice/Rotameter combination i.e. Bypass Rotameter

Open-channel variable gate,

Tapered plug, and

Vane or Piston designs

407. What is Vortex shedding ?

An oscillating vortexes occur when a fluid such as water flow past a bluff (as opposed to
streamlined) body. The frequency that the vortexes are shed depend on the size and shape of
the body. It is ideal for applications where low maintenance costs are important.

408. What are the Advantages of Vortex-Shedding Flow Meters ?

Accurate regardless of temperature, pressure, density and viscosity when flow is turbulent.

Suitable for measuring liquids, gases and steam.

Excellent for metering steam flow.

409. What are the Disadvantages of Vortex-Shedding Flow Meters ?

Flow must be turbulent.

Ineffective for slurries and viscous flow.

410. What is Cryogenics and which Flow Meter Works with Cryogenic?

Cryogenics is the study of low temperatures.

The turbine flow meter is a very good choice of measurement due to the material and its
ability to hold up to cryogenic temperatures and to accurately repeat at any flow rate. The
turbine creates minimal pressure drop or flow constriction in a catastrophic failure. Flows can
be maintained under any circumstance. The turbine is also the most accurate and durable for
use in a transport due to vibration resistance.

411. Why Generally a Flow Transmitter Installed Upstream of a Flow Control Valve?

A flow transmitter is always installed on the upstream of the flow control valve in order to
maintain the operating pressure across the flow transmitter sensors. Downstream of the
control valve the pressure changes as the control valve open or closes.

412. What is the Purpose of Orifice Vent Hole?

Vent hole is a small hole which is provided in the upper region of orifice plate. Vent hole is
required in liquid flow service where gas entrainment may occur. Vent hole size could affect
 the accuracy of flow measurement. However, if the diameter of the vent hole is less than 10%
of the orifice bore, then the unmeasured flow is less than 1% of the total flow. Vent hole is
not recommended in dirty fluid service or slurries as the hole could be plugged. In this
application, the use of eccentric orifice plate becomes alternative.

413. What is the Purpose of Orifice Drain Hole?

Drain hole is a small hole which is provided in the lower region of orifice plate. Drain hole is
required in gas flow service where liquid entrainment may occur. Drain hole size could affect
the accuracy of flow measurement. However, if the diameter of the drain hole is less than
10% of the orifice bore, then the unmeasured flow is less than 1% of the total flow.

Drain hole is not recommended in dirty fluid service or slurries as the hole could be plugged.
In this application, the use of eccentric orifice plate becomes alternative.

414. Explain about Restrictive Flow Orifice ?

A Restrictive Flow Orifice (RFO) is a type of orifice plate. They are used to limit the
potential danger of an uncontrolled flow from, for example, a compressed gas cylinder by:

limiting the accidental release of a hazardous gas (flammable, toxic, etc.) resulting from
regulator or other component failure,

restricting flow in a system in order to assure adequate pressure relief valve sizing and
system over pressure protection, or

restricting flow from bulk sources

415. What are the Types of Positive displacement meters ?

The following are the Positive displacement flowmeters

Reciprocating Piston type.

Rotating or Oscillating Piston type.

Nutating Disc type.

Fluted Spiral Rotor type.

Sliding vane type.

Rotating vane type.

Oval Gear type.

416. Which cable should be used to connect Transmitter?

 Generally three-core, twisted and shielded, 19/36 gauge cable.

In applications requiring mechanical ruggedness, we recommend three-core 1.5 mm² armored

(shielded) cable.

417. Can we install flow meter in vertical/inclined pipeline ?

Yes, the flow meter can be installed in a vertical, inclined or in any angular position of
pipeline for compressible fluids like low pressure air/gas, compressed air/gas. For liquid
applications in a vertical pipeline, the direction of flow should necessarily be from bottom to
top, so as to avoid flow separation phenomenon.

418. Advantages of Magnetic Flow Meter :

1.They respond only to the velocity of Fluid .Independent Density Viscosity and Static
Pressure
2.High Rangebility 10:1
3.Bidirectional Flow Measurement
4.Fluid Temperature range -40 Deg C to +260 Deg C
5.Pressure Drop is negligible
6.Wide Variety of Size
419. Disadvantages of Magnetic Flow Measurement
1.Conductivity of the process fluid should be greater the 2 micromhos per centimeter
2.Special care is required for erosive application
3.Difficulties in on site calibration
4.High cost
5.Large Sizes are very heavy
420. What is the operating principle of a turbine meter?

A magnetic pickup installed above a turbine meter measures the number of magnetic flux cut
by the turbine meter blades and produces pulses proportional to the volume of liquid flow
through the meter.

421. What is the output of a turbine meter?

The output of the turbine meter is in pulses. The pulse per the volume of liquid is constant
and distinct for each meter. When a known quantity of liquid flows through the meter, a
known number of pulses are produced.

422. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a turbine meter Vs an orifice plate
flow measurement?

Turbine meter is a good flow measuring unit when the fluid is low clean fluid. The turbine
meter measures the volumetric flow. It is directly installed on the flow line. Its accuracy in
flow measurement is high. Accuracy can be re-calculated and the ‘k’ factor can be reset
periodically.
423. Why are counters ( totaliser ) used in flow measurement?

Counters are used for measuring the ‘volumetric flow’ of the fluid in a pipeline.

424. Explain the installation of a DP flow transmitter on a gas and liquid pipeline?

Gas line: the transmitter is installed above the orifice plate to prevent the condensation of gas
in the signal line and in the HP & LP chambers.

Liquid line: the transmitter is installed below the orifice plate to prevent the gas trapping in
the signal line and in the HP & LP chambers.

425. What Is A ‘flow Factor’?

A ‘flow factor’ is to multiply the flow transmitter signal measured on a 0-10 square root or
0-100 linear scale to get the flow calculated by flow metering. This is used due to the
standardization of the transmitter’s signals, to 20-100 kPa or 4-20mA.

426. What Is A ‘zero Check’ And ‘static Zero Check’ On A Dp Flow Transmitter?

Zero Check: A procedure for checking the transmitter output is equal to 4.00 mA when its
HP & LP chambers are equalized and are at the atmospheric pressure.
Static Zero Check: A procedure for checking the transmitter output is equal to 4.00 mA
when its HP & LP chambers are equalized and are at the operating pressure.

427. Why Is Flow Measurement Not Very Accurate?

Flow measurement is less accurate compared to level, temperature and pressure

measurement. This is due to the consideration of various parameters while measuring a
flow. These parameters, such as the accuracy of the orifice plate diameter, the pipeline
diameter their operating parameters such as temperature and pressure do not remain same in
the process operation as the design parameters. Generally, an accuracy of 5% is permitted in
a flow measurement.

428. Why Generally Is A Flow Transmitter Installed Upstream Of A Flow Control

Valve?
A flow transmitter is always installed on the upstream of the flow control valve in order to
maintain the operating pressure across the flow transmitter sensors. Downstream of the
control valve the pressure changes as the control valve open or closes.
429. Why Is A Pressure Transmitter Installed Upstream Of A Flow Transmitter?
Upstream of a flow control valve a pressure transmitter is installed to measure the operating
pressure. At times it is used for computing the true flow against the designed pressure.
Downstream of the control valve the pressure changes as the control valve open and closes.
430. What Is Operating Principle Of A Turbine Meter?
A magnetic pickup installed above a turbine meter measures the number of magnetic flux
cut by the turbine meter blades and produces pulses proportional to the volume of liquid
flow through the meter.

431. What Is The Output Of A Turbine Meter?

The output of the turbine meter is in pulses. The pulse per the volume of liquid is constant
and distinct for each meter. When a known quantity of liquid flows through the meter, a
known number of pulses are produced.

432. What Does A Pre-amplifier Do On A Turbine Meter?

The magnetic pickup inside the turbine meter produces pulses around 30 mv peak to peak.
A pre-amplifier magnifies the small signal to a 12 V DC peak to peak square waves and
transmits a signal to the control room.
433. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of A Turbine Meter Vs An
Orifice Plate Flow Measurement?
Turbine meter is a good flow measuring unit when the fluid is low clean fluid. The turbine
meter measures the volumetric flow. It is directly installed on the flow line. Its accuracy in
flow measurement is high. Accuracy can be re-calculated and the ‘k’ factor can be reset
periodically.

434. What Is A ‘k’ Factor On A Turbine Meter? Who Provides The ‘k’ Factor?
Each turbine meter is specified with a ’k’ factor which represents the number of pulses
produced per a known quantity of liquid.
Example: k = 265 pulsed/gallon
Generally the ‘k’ factor is provided by the manufacturer.

435. One Cubic Meter Is Equal To How Many Gallons?

1 Cubic Meter = 264.2 gallons.

436. Why Are Counters (totalize) Used In Flow Measurement?

Counters are used for measuring the ‘volumetric flow’ of the fluid in a pipeline.

437. What is the difference between mass flow and volumetric flow?
Mass flow is the movement of a fluid over time quantified relative to the fluid’s mass.
Volumetric flow is the movement of a fluid over time quantified relative to the fluid’s volume.

From a practical standpoint, volumetric flow will vary with changes in temperature and
pressure, while mass flow is unaffected by these changes.
 Volumetric Flow Rates vs Mass Flow Rates
Volumetric flow changes with the temperature and pressure while mass flow meter remains
constant with temp. and pressure.

438. What is the minimum velocity for which the Electromagnetic Flow Meter works
with consistent readings?
General purpose meter manufacturers do not recommend to operate their meters below 0.2 to
0.3 meters/second velocity, can comfortably be used for velocities as low as 0.1 meters/second.

439. What are the various names of Electro Magnetic Flow Meters?
These meters are known with various names like, Magnetic Flow Meters, Magmeters, Fullbore
electromag, Magnetic Inductive Flow meter etc.

440. What is meant by Beta Ratio? What is its normal range?

Beta (ß) Ratio is the ratio of orifice diameter to pipe internal diameter. Its normal range is from
0.4 to 0.8.

441. What does turndown ratio mean?

Turndown ratio is also commonly referred to as rangeability. It indicates the range in which a
flow meter or controller can accurately measure the fluid.
i. Turndown Ratio = maximum flow / minimum
442. How does a turbine flowmeter work?
As liquid or gas flows through the turbine it turns an impeller blade that is sensed by infrared
beams photo-electric sensors or magnets.

An electrical pulse is then generated and converted to a frequency output proportional to the
flow rate.

443. Can we use a turbine flowmeter with small particles?

No. Turbine flowmeters are best used with clean low-viscosity liquids.

444. What are the limitations of using a turbine flowmeter?

sensitive to viscosity changes
straight pipe line required
clean liquids and gases only

445. How does a rotameter work?

Rotameters or variable area flowmeters operate on the principle that the variation in area of
flow stream required to produce a constant pressure differential is proportional to the flow rate.
The flowing fluid enters the bottom of the meter passes upward through a metering tube and
around the float exiting at the top.
 The flow rate is read by noting the position of the float against the calibrated scale etched on
the glass.

446. What are the advantages of using a variable area flowmeter?

inexpensive
somewhat self-cleaning
no power required
available in different materials for chemical compatibility
447. What are the limitations of using a variable area flowmeter?
no output for data transmission
sensitive to differing gas types and changes in temperature and pressure
448. Bernoulli’s Equation is a mathematical expression of:

a. Potential and kinetic energies in a flow stream

449. As an incompressible fluid moves through a restriction,

a. Velocity increases and pressure decreases

450. For accurate operation, orifice plate flowmeters require:

Fully-developed turbulent flow

451. which of the flow meters inherently measures mass flow rate:

Thermal

452. can Coriolis mass flow meter measure the densiy?

Yes it can measure.

453. The relation between frequency in Coriolis mass flow meter while measuring
density:

Density is inversely proportional to frequency^2

Reynold no. is the relation between viscosity,density,velocity and diameter.

relation beyween Reynold no. and viscosity:

It is inversely proptional.

454. What are the limitations of using a differential flowmeter?

for use with clean liquids only, maximum liquid viscosity of 5 cps

455. What are the advantages of using a mass flowmeter?

 measure mass directly, can handle applications whose stream temperature and line pressures
fluctuate.

456. What are the limitations of using a mass flowmeter?

calibrated to a specific gas type

457. How does a Doppler flowmeter work?

A high frequency signal is projected through the wall of the pipe and into the liquid. The
signal is reflected off impurities in the liquid such as air bubbles or particles and sent back to
the receiver. The frequency difference between the transmitted and received signal is directly
proportional to the fluid’s flow velocity.

458. For the crayogenic liquid which type of flow meter is used?

Turbine flow meter is used.

459. What is Rangeability?

It is the ratio of the maximum controllable flow to minimum controllable flow.

460. What is beta ratio?

It is the ratio of the orifice diameter to internal pipe diameter.

461. What id turn down ratio?

It is the ratio of the maximum flow to minimum flow.

462. Why Are Counters (totalize) Used In Flow Measurement?

Counters are used for measuring the ‘volumetric flow’ of the fluid in a pipeline.

463. What are instrument categories?

a. General, flow, temperature, pressure, level, density.etc.

464. Which instruments are handled by piping department ?

a. flame arrestor, breather valve.

465. What are basic functions of instruments?

a. To sense, transmit, indicate, read and control.

466. Why block valve is used at the root of an instrument like pressure indicator?
 a. They are needed to isolate gauges for maintenance during plant operation and during
hydrostatic testing of piping system. They are called root valve.

467. Where diaphragm assembly is used ?

a. For corrosive, abrasive, viscous fluids. Neutral fluid like glycol issued on instrument
side of diaphragm.

468. Where and why bleed valve is used in instruments ?

a. If the conveyed fluid is hazardous or under high pressure, a branch fitted with a bleed
valve is inserted between the gauge and its isolating valve, to relieve pressure and /or
drain the liquid before servicing the gauge. It can also be used to sample or for adding
a comparison gauge.

469. Why control valves are usually flanged?

a. For ease of installation and removal during maintenance.

470. Where ball control valve is used?

a. Suitable where nature of fluid is slurry form or handling two phase flow having
particle in suspension, for non-critical and critical fluids having a fluid temperature to
suit the soft seat material and where relatively low pressure drop is required across
control valve. They have side mounted actuator.

471. Where butterfly control valve is used ?

a. Used for large size piping network handling clean fluid for low pressure drop across
control valve and soft seated control valve. Metal seated valves used for higher
temperatures.

472. How control valve block valves should be located ?

a. They should be as close to control valve as possible, considering drain requirement
and hand wheel clearance. At least one of the block valve should be placed in vertical
so that spool can be removed allowing the control valve to be removed.

473. How TSO valve should be installed ?

a. Tight shut off (TSO) valve or reduced port ball control valve should be installed in
vertical for gas service and horizontal ok for liquid service.

474. How bypass valve in control station should be located?

a. Near inlet branch point, not above control valve, with 200mm clearance
between actuator and valve.
475. How control station should be supported ?
a. It should be supported such that control station piping is self supporting even if the
control valve is removed. Normally, on exit side elbows of bottom run of control
valve.
476. Why and where drain should be located in control valve assembly ?
a. Drain is used to drain the piping between two block valves on two sides of control
valve before removing control valve for maintenance. It must be located at lowest
point of bottom run. One drain is used if control valve is fails open, and two drain used
if control valve fails close, as both sides are blocked in this case. For one drain, it
should be upstream side of control valve.

477. Where reducer shall be located in control valve assembly ?

a. As close as possible to control valve, preferably directly welded control valve flanges.

478. How breakup flanges for control valve should be located ?

a. One vertical and one horizontal which is achieved by having one block valve in
vertical leg of control valve inlet. Do not place support on inlet elbow.

479. What are the types of flow measuring devices?

a. Orifice plate, Variable area flow meter i.e. rotameter, magnetic flow meter, turbine
flow meter, positive displacement meter.

480. What is piping and instrument scope of supply for orifice meter ?
a. Piping provided gaskets and bolts and tapping from orifice plate to two block valves.
Instrument provides orifice plate and flange assembly and connection down stream of
block valves.

481. How orifice flange taps should be oriented ?

a. For liquid and steam, it should be horizontal or 45 degree down from horizontal on
both sides. For gas and vapour lines, it should bevertical or 45 to vertical on both
sides. Taps are 0.5 inch.

482. What Is A Distributed Control System ?

a. A distributed control system (DCS) is a computerised control system for a process or
plant, in which autonomous controllers are distributed throughout the system, but
there is central operator supervisory control.

483. In Split Range Control, Whether The Signal Is Splitted Through I/p Converter
Or The Converter Itself?
a. This can be typically achieved by two ways:
 b. By connecting o/p of one I/P converter to two positioners adjusted suitably for split
range operation of control valves.
c. Taking two AO from DCS. Split range to be defined in DCS. Both I/P converters and
positioners to be calibrated with input as 4to20 ma dc and 3to15 psi respectively.

484. What If Thermocouple Wire Is Opened In The Field? What Signal Goes To
Dcs?
a. In most modern instruments the signal may be programmed to go to either maximum
or minimum depending upon end user’s requirement.

485. What If The Power Supply Connections To A Two-wire Transmitter Get

Interchanged? What Signal Will Go To Dcs?
a. Usually there is a blocking diode to protect the transmitter against supply reversal
and almost zero current signal should be transmitted.

486. What Is The Difference Between A Hart Patch Card And A Field Terminal
Assembly?
a. A field terminal assembly is a DCS component where field signals are terminated. In
a DCS using analog transmitter signals but smart remotely configured transmitters
field signals from barriers are first brought to a HART patch panel. From here the
analog signals are wired to the DCS field termination assembly or I/O card. The
digital signals are wired to the HART multiplexes who extract the digital information
and provide two way communication path between smart instruments and a computer
running suitable software.

487. What Is The Difference Between Dcs And Plc?

a. Distributed control system(DCS) and Programmable logic controller. These are the
control systems which handles fields I/Os. Basic difference between DCS & PLC is
b. DCS handles more nos of I/Os rather than PLC.
c. PLC is faster system than DCS.
d. DCS can handles handsome quantity of I/Os so that can be used for total plant
automation. Where as PLC has own limitations so it generally used for small but for
important(Safety point of view) units, like boiler automations, Make-up compressor
automations Etc.
e. In the above mentioned case the these PLC’s can be get connected with the DCS with
the help of soft link. Generally this is used to make alert to both the operator.
f. As I heard the PLC used to handle the DI/DO signals so it can take fast actions. Some
of the time it is used to handle few nos of AI/AO.
g. DCS & PLC’s speed depends on the scan rate of I/Os.
h. For both the system Marshalling panels, Consoles and other faculties of Ethernet Etc
can be used according to the need.
 i. According to the Cause and effects diagrams the System programmer assigns the
control action block into the system, we can call them as memory assigning.

488. When Proportional, Integral And Derivative (pid) Controller Is Used?

a. PID controller is used when system requires:
b. System changes are small.
c. Offset must be eliminated.
d. Fast recovery time.

489. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?

a. Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:
b. Load Changes are small.
c. Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
d. The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.

490. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?

a. Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:
b. Load Changes are small.
c. Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
d. The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.

491. When Integral (i) Controller Is Used ?

a. Integral (I) controller is used during:
b. When the offset must be eliminated.
c. Integral saturation due to sustained deviation is not objectionable.

492. When Derivative (d) Controller Is Used?

a. Large transfer or distance velocity lags are present.
b. It is necessary to minimize the amount of deviation caused by the system changes.

493. When Proportional Plus Integral (pi) Controller Is Used?

a. Proportional and Integral action is employed when System changes is small.
b. Offset must be eliminated.
c. No objection on the recovery duration.

494. When Proportional And Derivative (pd) Controller Is Used?

a. PD action is employed when:
b. When the system changes are small.
c. Improve the recovery time.
d. When system lags are high.
495. What Are The Basic Elements Of Distributed Control System?
a. Basic Elements of Distributed Control System:
b. Distributed Control System continuously interacts with the processes in process
control applications ones it gets instruction from the operator. It also facilitates to
variable set points and opening and closing of valves for manual control by the
operator. Its human machine interface (HMI), face plates and trend display gives the
effective monitoring of industrial processes.

496. Explain Open Loop Control System ?

a. Control System in which output quantity has no effect on the input quantity is called
Open Loop Control System. Open Loop Control System has no facility to correct
automatically the error generated in the output. From output of the system no
feedback is given back to the input for correction. In Open loop control system the
output can be varied by varying the input. But due the external disturbance system
output may change. Any variation in the output from the desired once again attained
by varying the inputs manually.

497. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Open Loop Control System ?
a. Advantages:
b. Open loop system is simple and economical.
c. Construction of open loop system is easier.
d. Open loop systems are generally stable.
e. Disadvantages:
f. Open loop systems are inaccurate and unreliable
g. The changes in the outputs due to external disturbance are not corrected
automatically.

498. Explain Closed Loop Control System ?

a. Control system in which the output has an effect on the input quantity in such a
manner that the input quantity will adjust itself based on the output generated is
called Closed loop Control System. Open loop control system can be modified in to
closed loop control system by providing a feedback. This feedback automatically
corrects the changes in the output due to external disturbance. Hence closed loop
control system is called automatic control system.

499. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Closed Loop Control System
?
a. Advantages:
b. Closed loop control systems are more accurate even in the presence of non-linearities
c. The sensitivity of the system may be made small to make the system more stable
d. The closed loop systems are less affected by noise.
e. Disadvantages:
f. Closed loop control systems are costlier and complex
g. The feedback in the closed loop system may lead to oscillatory response
 h. The feedback reduces the overall gain of the system
i. Stability is the major problem in the closed loop system and more care is needed to
design a stable closed loop system.

500. What Is The Significance Of Single Ended & Differential Ended Input For Plc?
Application Wise Comparison Of These Two Types Of Inputs?
a. Differential inputs provide better common mode rejection and signal-to-noise ratio.

501. What Is Ground Loop? Preventive Steps To Avoid Ground Loop?

a. When ground wiring is not done properly, grounding of various points is not
effective and potential differences exist between them resulting in currents flowing
between them. This leads to measurement errors and is not desirable. It can be
eliminated by proper ground wiring.

502. In A Globe Type Control Valve, What Is The Importance Of Flow Direction
(top To Bottom Or Bottom To Top)?
a. Control valves must be installed as per direction marking provided by the
manufacturers or instruction manuals. Though people tend to generalize, this is often
misleading.

503. How Control Loop Should Be Tuned In Process Loop?

a. You may use Ziegler-Nichol’s method ( open loop / closed loop ) or special tuning
software tools.
504. Why do we need vibration monitoring?
a. It is essential to monitor critical machines in the plants for increasing their efficiency
and reliability. Hence real time vibration monitoring is the key to reduce frequent
failures of machinery & keep high uptime.

505. What causes vibrations?

a. Unbalance of shaft, Bearing problem, Cracking of the rings, Fluid coupling problem,
Shaft misalignment, Oil whirl and other dynamic instabilities

506. What is on line monitoring of vibrations?

a. Time Based Maintenance System (TBM) is called preventive maintenance. One can
extend the life of the machines by monitoring these online in a cost effective way.
Vibration Monitoring and Analysis is the easiest way to keep machines healthy and
efficient in the long run and increase the overall efficiency of the plant. It reduces the
overall operating cost as well as the down time period. Vibration sensors are used to
predict faults in a running machine without dismantling it and give a clear indication
of the severity by showing the amplitude of vibration.

507. Where do we need on-line vibration monitor?

a. In Industries rotating machines are divided according to their criticality into three
categories as shown in the triangle below.
 b. First critical machine – Turbine and generatorSecondary critical machines – ID fan,
FD fan, PA fan, and boiler feed pump, cooling water pump, condensate extra pump,
critical large HT motors of mills and other large motors.
c. Balance of plant machines – Coal handling plant crushers, cooling tower fans, raw
water pumps and make up water pumps
d. This explains where Vibration Monitoring is required and how critical is each machine
if there is shut down. For taking the machines for maintenance we need to know the
healthy state of the machine without dismantling it. This is possible only by online
monitoring.

508. What are the types of sensors for vibration monitoring?

a. The three principal vibration sensor types are displacement, velocity, and
accelerometer. The displacement transducer is an eddy current device, the velocity
transducer is often a spring held magnet moving through a coil of wire or piezo
velocity sensor, and the accelerometer is a piezoelectric device somewhat similar to
ultrasonic transducers.

509. What is the benefit of vibration monitoring?

a. With vibration Monitoring system, we can prevent problems from arising and this
saves a lot of time, money, and avoids frustration.
b. To increase equipment protection
c. To improve safety for personnel
d. To improve maintenance procedures
e. To detect problems early
f. To avoid catastrophic failures
g. To extend equipment life
h. To enhance operations

510. What is the benefits of Vibration Analysis & diagnostic Software?

a. Vibration analysis & diagnostic system that is applicable to a variety of rotating
machinery, helps safe operation and to improve operational efficiency. It precisely
keeps track of and quickly feeds back conditions of rotating machinery which are the
key production assets of plants.
It Helps customers improve productivity and reliability by optimizing plant operation.
b. Detects abnormal symptoms from vibration characteristics or subtle changes in
vibration. Reduces risks of unplanned production shutdown by taking proactive
approach.
c. Advanced diagnostics realize assumption of causes and areas of anomalies and
detailed analysis. Help users practice optimum, efficient maintenance.

511. What is ‘vibration’?

a. Vibration is defined as the motion of the equipment or its part to and from its rest
(static) condition.
 b. Explain following with their sensitivity (output) and the measuring units:

512. Radial:
a. A vibration measurement across the radius of a rotating shaft. It is measured in terms
of Micron. The sensitivity of a radial vibration pickup (eddy probe) is 200mv DC/mill
(refer to the drawings for the exact parameters).

513. Velocity:
a. It is defined as the rate of change of distance traveled by the equipment. Velocity
measurement is generally used for measuring the equipment body vibration. The
sensitivity of a velocity pickup is 500mv DC/inch/sec (refer to the manufacturer
drawings for the exact parameters).
b. Acceleration: It is defined as the rate of change of velocity. Acceleration
measurement is generally used for measuring the equipment body vibration. The
sensitivity of a velocity pickup is 100mv DC/inch/sec2 (refer to the manufacturer
drawings for the exact parameters).
c. Also Download: Instrumentation Android App

514. What is the resistance of an ‘Eddy probe’?

a. An eddy probe resistance should be between 5-8 ohms.

515. Draw a sketch of an eddy probe calibration graph?

a. Eddy probe calibration graph

516. What is gap voltage? Why and how is it set?

a. Gap voltage is feed back voltage derived by setting the standard gap between the eddy
probe tip and the rotating shaft.The gap voltage is the base DC voltage set to get the
AC pulses peak per the radial vibration measured on the shaft. The gap voltage is set at
–8.00V DC i.e. equal to a gap of 40 mill (between the probe tip and the measuring
surface). or at -10.00V DC as per the system standard.

517. Why an eddy probe and its probe driver is a matched pair?
a. Eddy probe output is always measured after the probe driver. The characteristic of the
eddy probe slightly differs from one to another. Always an eddy probe is installed on
the shaft, after measuring and plotting an eddy probe calibration graph with its driver.
The calibration is done by adjusting the sensitivity potentiometer on the eddy probe
driver assigned for that particular eddy probe.

518. What do the AC and DC signal represent in radial vibration, where ‘AC is super
imposed on DC’?
a. DC signal is the gap voltage set for –8.00V DC. DC signal is always present whether
the unit is running or stopped.

519. How much is the radial vibration, if the signal measured on a DVM is 135.00mv
AC?
a. The DVM measures the AC voltage in RMS (root mean square value).
 b. AC peak to peak =135.00*2 root 2
i. =181.837mv
c. Eddy probe sensitivity=200mv/mill or 200mv/25.4 Microns
d. Hence, the vibration in Micron =(381.837*25.4)/200
a. =48.49 Micron

520. Why is vibration measurement very important on gas turbine and compressor?
a. Gas turbines and compressors are high speed rotating equipment. On equipment when
vibration exceeds the manufacturer limits can cause sever damage to both itself and to
its associated components/parts. Hence it is important to measure and monitor
vibration on the running equipment. Generally a high vibration pre-alarm and
shutdown limits are set as per the manufactures recommendations.

521. What type of vibration measuring instrument is used on a gas turbine? Where
are the vibrations measuring points?
a. Since a gas turbine is hot engine, its bearing vibration measurement cannot be done
through an eddy probe system. Generally a velocity or an acceleration pick-up is used
for measuring and monitoring the vibration on the body of the gas turbine. The
vibration pick-ups are generally installed on the turbine’s CT/GP and PT points.

522. What is the type of vibration pick-up (contact or non-contact type) commonly
installed on a gas turbine?
a. On gas turbine vibration measurement, the ‘contact type’ peck-up such as a velocity or
acceleration pick-up is used.

523. What type of vibration measuring instrument is used on the compressors? Where
is the vibration measuring points?
a. On a gas compressor shaft/bearing, measurement is carried out using a eddy probe
displacement system.
b. On each gas compressor, on both forward and aft radial bearings (journal bearing) two
eddy probes are installed in the ‘x’ and ‘y’ positions.

524. What is the type of vibration pick-up (contact type or non-contact type)
commonly installed on a gas compressor?
a. A ‘non contact type’- eddy probe is installed on gas compressors.

525. What is ‘x or y function’ and, ‘x and y function’ selection on a radial vibration

monitor?
a. X or Y function: in this mode, the unit shutsdown when either ‘X’ or ‘Y’ probe
detects a high vibration exceeding the setpoint.
b. X and Y function: in this mode, the unit shutsdown only when ‘X’ and ‘Y’ probes
detects a high vibration exceeding the setpoint.
c. What is a ‘Probe driver’? What does is it do? What is the other name for a probe
driver?
 d. Probe driver is an amplifier installed in the field closer to the sensor. It transmits the
field vibration signal to the remote control panel. The other name for the probe driver
is ‘proximeter’. Radial, velocity and accelerometer probe drivers are of different types.

526. What are the three wires used on a probe driver?

a. The three wires terminated on the probe driver are: -24V DC (power supply), common
and output signal.

527. What is a ‘charge amplifier’? Where is it used?

a. Charge Amplifier is a probe driver installed for the accelerometer pick-up.

528. What is an ‘axial displacement’? How is it measured?

a. Axial displacement is the movement of the rotary shaft in the axial direction to and fro.
Every centrifugal shaft is permitted to have a fixed axial movement designed by the
manufacturer, this is to allow the compressor to take the load on the thrust collar.Axial
displacement is measure using an eddy probe system. It is measured using the
proportional change in the DC voltage (gap voltage) caused by the movement of the
shaft from its center position to either side (+or-).

529. What is the unit measurement of axial displacement?

a. Axial displacement is measured in terms of “Microns”

530. What is the term ‘float/end float’ in a compressor?

a. It is the free axial movement of the compressor shaft. End float is the maximum
possible movement of the shaft. It is a small amount approximately 250 Microns (refer
to the manufacturer drawings for drawings for the exact parameters).

531. What are the following assessments/recommendations of a vibration analysis?

How are they corrected?
a. Misalignment: misalignment may cause two time RPM vibration. This is corrected by
re-aligning the compressor shaft one to another.
b. Unbalance: unbalance in the compressor shaft may cause one time RPM vibration.
This is corrected by balancing the compressor shaft on a balancing wheel.
c. Overhauling: multiple RPM vibration is symptom of damaged bearings. This is
corrected by a total overhaul of the compressor or replacement of parts.
d. (The above are only a simple clue and not a standard confirmed judgment)

532. What precautions are to be taken when installing a vibration measuring

instrument?
a. Vibration measuring instrument such as a eddy probe, velocity and acceleration pick-
ups, eddy probe drivers, charge amplifiers are sensitive instruments. The following
care has to be taken while installing in the field.
b. -Do not drop the instrument, this may result in the loss of their characteristic.
c. -Fixing and tightening to be done as per the manufacturers recommended torque.
d. -Proper care of the signal cable insulation.
e. -Prevent any loose connections.
 f. -…Etc.
533. What are the reasons for a vibration ‘spike signal’?
a. The following may cause a ‘spike signal’ in the vibration measurement.
b. -Loss of signal cable insulation.
c. -Signal cable passing next to high voltage lines.
d. -Improper earthing facility.
e. -Grounding of the wires.
f. -Loose mounting of the instrument field components
g. -…Etc.

534. List the manufacturers names of vibration measuring instruments?

a. The common vibration measuring instrument manufacturers are:
b. Bently nevada
c. Forbes Marshall Shinkawa
d. Dymac
e. Bell and Howell
535. Which of the above manufacturer’s product is more reliable and why?
a. With past experience, it is observed that the ‘Bently nevada’ vibration measuring
system is more reliable due to its component layout on the control panel, accuracy and
high gauge signal cable system in the field.

536. Why do we need vibration monitoring?

a. It is essential to monitor critical machines in the plants for increasing their efficiency
and reliability. Hence real time vibration monitoring is the key to reduce frequent
failures of machinery & keep high uptime.

537. What causes vibrations?

a. Unbalance of shaft, Bearing problem, Cracking of the rings, Fluid coupling problem,
Shaft misalignment, Oil whirl and other dynamic instabilities

538. What is on line monitoring of vibrations?

a. Time Based Maintenance System (TBM) is called preventive maintenance. One can
extend the life of the machines by monitoring these online in a cost effective way.
Vibration Monitoring and Analysis is the easiest way to keep machines healthy and
efficient in the long run and increase the overall efficiency of the plant. It reduces the
overall operating cost as well as the down time period. Vibration sensors are used to
predict faults in a running machine without dismantling it and give a clear indication
of the severity by showing the amplitude of vibration.

539. Where do we need on-line vibration monitor?

a. In Industries rotating machines are divided according to their criticality into three
categories as shown in the triangle below.
b. First critical machine – Turbine and generatorSecondary critical machines – ID fan,
FD fan, PA fan, and boiler feed pump, cooling water pump, condensate extra pump,
critical large HT motors of mills and other large motors.
 c. Balance of plant machines – Coal handling plant crushers, cooling tower fans, raw
water pumps and make up water pumps
d. This explains where Vibration Monitoring is required and how critical is each machine
if there is shut down. For taking the machines for maintenance we need to know the
healthy state of the machine without dismantling it. This is possible only by online
monitoring.

540. What are the types of sensors for vibration monitoring?

a. The three principal vibration sensor types are displacement, velocity, and
accelerometer. The displacement transducer is an eddy current device, the velocity
transducer is often a spring held magnet moving through a coil of wire or piezo
velocity sensor, and the accelerometer is a piezoelectric device somewhat similar to
ultrasonic transducers.

541. What is the benefit of vibration monitoring?

a. With vibration Monitoring system, we can prevent problems from arising and this
saves a lot of time, money, and avoids frustration.
b. To increase equipment protection
c. To improve safety for personnel
d. To improve maintenance procedures
e. To detect problems early
f. To avoid catastrophic failures
g. To extend equipment life
h. To enhance operations

542. What is the benefits of Vibration Analysis & diagnostic Software?

a. Vibration analysis & diagnostic system that is applicable to a variety of rotating
machinery, helps safe operation and to improve operational efficiency. It precisely
keeps track of and quickly feeds back conditions of rotating machinery which are the
key production assets of plants.
b. It Helps customers improve productivity and reliability by optimizing plant operation.
c. Detects abnormal symptoms from vibration characteristics or subtle changes in
vibration. Reduces risks of unplanned production shutdown by taking proactive
approach.
d. Advanced diagnostics realize assumption of causes and areas of anomalies and
detailed analysis. Help users practice optimum, efficient maintenance.

543. If I order a pH meter, what accessories do I need to use with it?

a. You need a pH electrode and at least two pH buffers, one at pH 7 and your other
buffer at pH 4 or 10. Optional accessories that will prolong life of your electrode
include: storage solution, soaker bottle, cleaning solution.

544. How do I measure pH?

a. Markson offers 2 ways to test for pH:
b. pH strips or indicating paper
 c. pH meter and electrodes
545. Do I need a portable meter or a bench meter?
a. If you will be transporting the meter from place to place, a battery operated portable
meter would be the choice. If the meter will be stationary, as in a lab, choose a bench-
top meter.

546. How should I store my electrode?

a. The best solution for storage is 4M KCL. pH 4 buffer, pH 7 buffer, or tap water will
also work as storage solution. Caution: never store your electrode in distilled water.

547. How often do I need to calibrate my pH meter?

a. Before each time you use it or each set of uses.

548. What is the difference between automatic temperature compensation and manual
temperature compensation?
a. If a meter has manual temperature compensation, it means a separate device is
necessary to record the temperature of the buffers and sample solutions. That
temperature is then set on the meter temperature dial, thus "manually compensating"
for temperature.
b. A meter with automatic temperature compensation will internally compensate for
temperature as long as a temperature probes is connected to the meter. A meter with
ATC is much faster to use and ideal when multiple samples are being measured.

549. Should I stir my sample during pH measurement?

a. Yes. There are two main advantages to slowly stirring or gently agitating the sample
during a pH measurement. First, the increased flow of the sample across the electrode
results in a faster response time. Second, the solution is properly homogenated so no
areas of increased or decreased pH exist.

550. When is a pH reading stabilized?

a. It is difficult to know the exact time to take a pH reading. In general, one minute is
required to obtain a stable reading. If a reading is taking an exceptionally long time to
stabilize, this can indicate several conditions: a clogged electrode junction, a non-
homogeneous solution, a troublesome sample with low ionic strength, or a non-
aqueous sample.

551. How do I take a pH measurement in soil?

a. Prepare the sample by combining a 5 g soil sample with 5 g of distilled water, mixing
thoroughly, and allowing the mixture to settle for 10 minutes. Carefully insert probe so
bulb is in the soil part and the junction is in the supernatant. Allow reading to stabilize.

552. Can I measure the pH of a gas?

a. The only way to measure the pH of gas is to dissolve it into distilled water and
measure the mixture.
553. Should I use a combination electrode or an electrode pair?
a. A combination electrode is the most popular type of electrode and is easier to use. It is
ideal for most field and lab applications. Electrode pairs are primarily used as ions
selective electrodes of for use when measuring colloidal suspensions. When measuring
high purity water, a dedicated electrode pair with a special glass bulb is recommended.

554. What is the difference between a combination electrode and a sensing electrode
with a reference cell?
a. A combination electrode is more convenient and requires a smaller sample container
and volume. The sensing electrode with reference cell combination allows you to
select the reference cell most compatible with your solution. You can select the double
junction, calomel or ROSS Sure Flow half-cell. Most likely, you will get a longer
lasting electrode from this combination and can replace each cell individually.

555. Should I use a double junction or single junction electrode?

a. Single junction electrodes are the most commonly used electrodes. Double junction
electrodes should be used for solutions containing proteins, sulfides, tris buffers or
heavy metal ions.

556. Is a glass body electrode or epoxy body electrode more appropriate?

a. Glass bodies electrodes can withstand higher temperatures, have minimal sample carry
over because of their design, and can withstand highly corrosive material and organic
and solvents. Glass electrodes are mainly used in laboratory situations. Epoxy-body
electrodes are more rugged than glass electrodes and are the best choice for field,
plant, and industrial applications.

557. When do you use a half-cell?

a. A half-cell should be used when you are measuring a pressurized flow in a stream or
pipe. The reference half-cell would be mounted upstream, the measuring electrode
would be mounted down stream.

558. How can you unclog a pH electrode? How can you restore a refillable pH
electrode?
a. First you should check the interior wire. If corrosion is evident, replace the electrode.
If not, then soak the electrode in KCL solution at 50 degrees C for 2 to 4 hours.
Restore a refillable electrode by soaking it in pH 4 buffer after rinsing out the refill
chamber with distilled water and refilling with the proper solution.

559. How far can my pH electrode be from my meter? What if it is too far?
a. 100 feet is the maximum distance an electrode can be from a pH meter. If the distance
is greater, you will need a pre-amp or an in-line amp. Or, you can purchase an
industrial electrode with a built-in pre-amp.
560. 96. What is a Gas Analyzer?
Gas Analyzer is an instrument used to measure the concentration of a known gas in given
mixture of gases from a process / stream.

561. Why are Gas Analyzer Used?

a. Gas Analyzer is used to Monitor Process, Enhance Safety, Increase Efficiency,
Monitor Emission and Improve Quality.

562. Where are Gas Analyzer used?

a. They are used in applications in all major industries such as Refineries &
Petrochemicals, Chemical Plants, Critical process, Inerting Applications,
pharmaceuticals, Fertilizers, Glass, semiconductors, Boilers, Heaters, Thermal
crackers, Incinerators, continuous monitoring of Stack, Industrial gas producers and its
users

563. What is the difference between Gas Detectors and Analyzers?

a. Detectors detect situations outside normal operating parameters and are set up to
alarm.
Analyzers determine in real time, the quantity/concentration a said gas is in the stream
/ Process.

564. What is the different measurement techniques used in Gas Analyzers?

a. There are many different sensors used to analyze gases. Types of popular sensors
include Electrochemical, Paramagnetic, Thermal conductivity, Infrared, PID, FID etc.

565. Why are different kinds of sensors used?

The sensors are designed to detect / measure the unique physical or chemical properties of
gases. Hence to distinguish between different gases in a mixture of gases (a process or a
stream) different sensor techniques are used.
Further Sensor choice also depends upon required accuracy, specifications, life expectancy
and cost.

566. Does Gas Analyzer equipment need maintenance and calibration?

Yes. However in a properly Designed and commissioned system Maintenance requirement is
minimal and may only consist of a visual inspection and verification of operative parameters
and periodic replacements of consumables.
Calibration frequency depends on sensor type, criticality of application and accuracy
requirement of the process.

567. What is calibration?

Calibration verifies that the Analyzer is operating properly and adjusts for any sensor drift or
loss of sensitivity. The process involves passing two known certified concentration of the
target gas – one for Low/Zero Point and other for High/Span Point – usually from a
calibration gas cylinder and allowing the Analyzer to adjust for drift in the reading.
568. What is cross-sensitivity?
Cross-sensitivity refers to the response of a sensor to a gas other than the target gas (also
called an interference gas).

569. What is Nox?

A group of compounds mostly formed with Nitrogen and Oxygen as a byproduct of
combustion are called NOX – Nitric Oxide (NO), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Nitrous Oxide
(N2O), N2O3, N2O4, N2O5, N3O4 and NO3.

570. What does PPM mean?

Parts Per Million – 1 % volume = 10,000 ppm.

571. What is %LEL and %UEL

a. he primary risk associated with combustible gases and vapors is the possibility of
explosions. Explosion, like fire, requires three elements: fuel, Oxygen, and an ignition
source. Each combustible gas or vapor will ignite only within a specific range of
fuel/Oxygen mixtures. Too little or too much gas will not ignite. These conditions are
defined as the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) and the Upper Explosive Limit (UEL).
Any amount of gas between the two limits is explosive. It is important to note that
each gas has its own LEL and UEL, as shown in the chart below. The gas
concentrations are shown by percent of total volume, with the balance as normal air.

572. What are the physical fundamentals of IR gas analysis?

a. The molecular vibrations of many chemical compounds can be excited by energies that
lie in the infrared wavelength range. Therefore, these substances absorb infrared
radiation. The absorption spectrum depends mainly on the structure of the molecule
and thus the degrees of freedom for the movement of the molecular components, their
mass, their compositions, their spacing and their binding forces. Therefore, each
substance has a characteristic absorption spectrum. For example, in carbon dioxide
molecules can be excited bending and stretching vibrations. Additionally rotational
movements around different molecular axes are possible, which superpose the
vibrational spectrum and generate their fine structures.

573. How does a gas analyzer with an infrared spectrometer (IR spectrometer) work?
a. An IR spectrometer measures the absorption spectrums of gases. The comparison with
the spectrums that are stored in a database allows a qualitative and quantitative
reference for the substance.

574. How does non-dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas analysis) work?
a. For this form of gas analysis, the spectral sensitivity of a broadband thermal detector is
limited by an optical bandpass filter. This is done for the range in which the absorption
bands are found for the gas to be determined. With the thermal detector, the
transmission of the measured gas mixture is determined in a defined arrangement. If
the gas being searched for is not present, most of the infrared radiation will reach the
detector and the signal will be at its maximum. If the concentration of the gas
 increases, absorption will also increase according to Lambert-Beer’s law, and the
signal will reduce accordingly.

575. What advantage does the non-dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas
analysis) have?
a. Compared to infrared spectrometers, the NDIR gas analysis is significantly cheaper.
However, their use is only possible if the gases to be measured are known, and their
number is low.

576. Which gases are not suitable for analysis with non-dispersive infrared gas
analysis (NDIR gas analysis)?
a. Noble gases consist only of individual atoms. In order to vibrate, however, at least one
bond is required. Noble gases can therefore not be detected with this method. In
diatomic elemental gases such as oxygen (O2) or nitrogen (N2), only a few vibrational
modes can be excited by infrared radiation, so that even here the method fails.

577. What are the main components of an NDIR gas analyzer?

a. An NDIR gas analyzer consists of an electrically or mechanically modulated infrared
source, a gas cell and usually a pyroelectric detector. An electronic device calculates
the gas concentration based on signal voltage. InfraTec offers a large number of
standard IR narrow bandpass filters (NBP), which are optimally matched to the
absorption properties of the gases to be measured. The filters are mounted in the cap of
the detector, which is welded to the detector base body. With multiple gases to be
measured, the use of multi-channel detectors is recommended.

578. Are there advantages of having an absorption-free reference channel for non-
dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas analysis)?
a. Yes, for NDIR gas analyzers, it is advisable to use a reference channel and normalize
the signal of the gas duct via the quotient process on this reference. The optical,
mechanical and electronic drift of the overall system is reduced considerably, and the
interval between calibrations can be significantly extended. The spectral position of
the optical reference should be located as close as possible to the spectral lines of the
gases to be measured. A reference channel can be shared for multiple gases, if all
absorption bands lie within a spectral window from 3 to 5 µm or from 8 to 12 µm.
Without an optical reference channel, a reference can still be done by periodically
introducing a reference gas into the channel, such as nitrogen.

579. How does an infrared flame sensor work?

a. The pyroelectric detector of the flame sensor detects the typical spectral radiance of
burning organic materials such as wood, natural gas, oil or plastic. In order to prevent
a false alarm due to sunlight or other intense light sources, such as light from arc
welding, two independent criteria of a flame are analyzed: First a typical flame is
characterized by a flicker frequency of 1 to 5 Hz. Secondly, a hydrocarbon flame
contains the combustion gases carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Their emission bands lie in the infrared spectral range of 4.0 to 4.8 µm. In order to
obtain a high signal, one uses wide bandpass filters for the detector window, which
 include both the radiation emission of CO and of CO2. Optionally, a further channel
can be used to recognize a further combustion by product, water.

580. OSHA measurers in PPM, what is that in percent?

a. 10% is 100,000 PPM,
1% is 10,000 PPM,
0.5% is 5,000 PPM,
0.1% is 1000 PPM and
0.01% is 100 PPM.

581. How often will the pressure switch be activated?

a. This will have a direct impact on switch life, system downtime and the overhaul
schedule. Electromechanical switches are subject to metal fatigue. A bourdon tube or
diaphragm switch will typically provide one million cycles. Whereas a piston or
diaphragm sealed piston switch will provide 2-1/2 million cycles. Because a solid-state
pressure switch is not subject to metal fatigue, it will typically have a 100 million
cycle life.
582. What is the cycle speed?
a. The metal of a bourdon tube or diaphragm switch acts like a spring, so high-speed
cycles should be avoided. When the cycle rate is less than 25 per minute, a bourdon
tube or diaphragm switch is a good choice. For cycle rates to 50 cycles per minute, a
diaphragm piston or piston switch will provide 1 to 2-1/2 million cycles, respectively.
A solid-state switch should be selected whenever the cycle rate exceeds 50 cycles per
minute, since metal fatigue is not a problem.
583. How does the switch point relate to operating pressure range?
a. Selecting the proper relationship between the switch point and the operating pressure
range of a switch is important because this relationship can affect accuracy and useful
life. The general rule is different for solid-state and electromechanical pressure
switches. When a solid-state pressure switch is selected, the switch point should
normally be in the upper 25 per cent of the operating range. For an electromechanical
switch, the switch point should be in the middle of the operating range.
584. What is the proof pressure requirement?
a. Proof pressure is the maximum pressure that the switch should ever see. When
calculating the switch proof pressure, include spikes and surges to avoid damage to
the switch.
585. Will the pressure switch be subjected to high-pressure spikes and surges?
a. Pressure surges and transient pressure spikes can greatly exceed the normal operating
pressure of a system. Bourdon tube, diaphragm and solid-state pressure switches are
all sensitive to surges and spikes. If it is anticipated that the system is subject to surges,
select a switch with a higher proof pressure or install a snubber which will allow fast
spikes to move by the switch without damage.
586. What accuracy is needed?
 a. Accuracy for a pressure switch is defined differently than accuracy for an instrument.
For a pressure switch, accuracy is the ability of the switch to repetitively operate at its
setpoint. When in doubt, it is always easier to specify the best accuracy available.
587. How many switch points are needed?
a. When sensing pressure at one point, it is normal that only one switch point is required.
However, it is not unusual for a system to require two or even four switch points (e.g.
high, low, high-high, low-low) to be monitored, controlled or alarmed. In designing a
system, you could select a single switch for each switch point, or a single pressure
switch capable of handling as many as three separate switch points.
588. What type of housing is needed?
a. Stripped switches don't have their own housing. They're normally installed inside a
panel or multi-function enclosure. Housed switches avoid possible hazards from loose
wires in exposed locations and are normally available in a variety of ratings, with the
most popular industrial switch housings being NEMA 4 and NEMA 4X for corrosive
environments.
589. Is there a need to adjust the setpoint?
a. In some applications, you wouldn't want anyone changing the setpoint. In other
situations, adjustment is required based on system dynamics. Electromechanical
switches have models that are factory set, have blind adjustment capability, or offer
calibrated adjustment knobs. Solid-state switches offer precise keypad adjustments
with digital readout.
590. Is a tight or broad deadband needed?
a. Deadband is the difference between the actuation point and the re-actuation point in a
pressure actuation switch. Deadband is sometimes referred to as actuation value,
differential or hysteresis. The deadband of a switch can be fixed or adjusted over a
percentage of the full pressure range. Traditionally, a narrow deadband is used in
safety services. A wider deadband is used on control circuits like hydraulic units. Tight
or narrow deadbands tend to be found on bourdon tube and diaphragm switches, wide
deadbands are available in piston-type switches, while solid-state switches offer a fully
adjustable deadband to 100 per cent of full scale.
591. Accuracy or life?
a. When selecting a solid-state pressure switch there is no trade-off between accuracy
and life. You simply choose a pressure switch where the switch point is in the upper
25 per cent of the pressure range. Electromechanical switches have sensing elements
(diaphragms, tubes and pistons) that are constantly being stressed and thus the location
of the switch point versus the operating range is critical to both accuracy and life. The
best compromise is to operate the electromechanical pressure switch in the middle of
the operating range. Barksdale’s new BPS3000 electronic pressure switch, part of the
Generation 3000 range, offers unrivalled accuracy.
592. Are more features needed than just a switch?
 a. Many times the system requires more than a pressure switch to open and close a
circuit. A local gauge and remote signal may also be required. The traditional
approach is to use individual devices. However, microprocessor-based solid-state
pressure switches change the dynamics. One solid-state switch can offer up to four
independent switches, digital readouts and analog/digital outputs.
593. What is the use of reactor?
a. To convert desirable product from raw material

594. What is decomposer?

a. To remove gases from solution

595. How we generate vacuum?

a. By ejector

596. Which fluid is flow in ejector?

a. Driving fluid and process fliud

597. What is cavitation?

a. Vapour is come into casing

598. What is condenser?

a. To remove latent heat

599. What is cooler?

a. To remove sensible heat

600. Why cavitation occurred?

a. suction pressure is below vapour pressure

601. What is vapour pressure?

a. pressure exert by vapour on the liquid surface

602. What happened when vacuum high in evaporater?

a. chocking of product solution

603. What happened when vacuum is low in evaporater?

a. moisture will increase

604. What is distillation?

a. It is the separation of component from mixture

605. Where we use distillation?

a. To separate binary mixture

606. can we use distillation for multicomponent mixture?

 a. Yes

607. What is holder in your plant?

a. To storage of material

608. What is stripper?

a. To remove gases from solution

609. What type of flow occurred in stripper?

a. Counter and parallal flow

610. What is Reynold no.?

a. Inertial force / viscous force

611. What is nussalt no.?

a. Heat tran by convection/ Heat tran by conduction?

612. What is grashoff no?

a. Buyoncy force / viscous force

613. Which of the following methods cannot be used for the estimation of
hydrocarbons?
a. Chemiluminescence method cannot be used for the estimation of hydrocarbons. This is
because hydrocarbons do not produce chemiluminescence effect.

614. Which of the following is the most abundant hydrocarbon which is emitted into
the atmosphere by biological activity?
a. The most abundant hydrocarbon which is emitted into the atmosphere by biological
activity is methane. It is also emitted by automobile exhausts, burning of coal, etc.

615. Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to which of the following gases?
a. Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to methane since, they are sensitive to organic
compounds. They are insensitive to non-combustible gases. Hence, they are not
sensitive to carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide.

616. How can carbon monoxide be detected using flame ionization detectors while
using gas chromatography technique?
a. Carbon monoxide cannot be detected directly using flame ionization detectors while
using gas chromatography technique. Hence, it is converted into methane and is then
detected.

617. Which of the following organic compounds will have the highest intensity of
response when introduced in a flame ionization detector?
 a. Butane will have the highest intensity of response when introduced in a flame
ionization detector. This is because the intensity of response will be in proportion with
the number of carbon atoms in the chain.
b. Propane would give three times the intensity of response as compared to
methane.
c. Propane would give three times the intensity of response as compared to methane. This
is because the intensity of response will be in proportion with the number of carbon
atoms in the chain.

618. In flame ionization detectors, which of the following is the range adequate for
atmospheric sampling?
a. In flame ionization detectors, the range adequate for atmospheric sampling is 0-
20ppm. It is useful for detecting organic compounds.

619. Which of the following methods make use of pyrolysis while used for detecting
methane?
a. Flame ionization detector makes use of pyrolysis while used for detecting methane. It
is used to detect organic compounds.

620. In flame ionization detector, the ions collected on the negatively charged grid are
amplified at the high impedance amplifier.
a. In flame ionization detector, the ions collected on the positively charged grid are
amplified at the high impedance amplifier. Its output is given to the chart recorder.

621. Which of the following is not the characteristic of flame ionization detector?
a. Narrow range of concentration is not the characteristic of flame ionization detector. It
has a broad range of concentration.

622. What is HAZOP?

a. HAZOP- an abbreviated term of “HAZards and OPerability”- is defined as: “The
application of a formal systematic critical examination of the process and engineering
intentions of the new facilities, to assess the hazard potential of mal-operation or
malfunction of individual items of equipment and the consequent effects on the facility
as a whole”.

623. What are instrument categories?

a. General, flow, temperature, pressure, level, density.etc.

624. Which instruments are handled by piping department ?

a. flame arrestor, breather valve.

625. What are basic functions of instruments?

a. To sense, transmit, indicate, read and control.
626. Why block valve is used at the root of an instrument like pressure indicator?
a. They are needed to isolate gauges for maintenance during plant operation and during
hydrostatic testing of piping system. They are called root valve.

627. Where diaphragm assembly is used ?

a. For corrosive, abrasive, viscous fluids. Neutral fluid like glycol issued on instrument
side of diaphragm.

628. Where and why bleed valve is used in instruments ?

a. If the conveyed fluid is hazardous or under high pressure, a branch fitted with a bleed
valve is inserted between the gauge and its isolating valve, to relieve pressure and /or
drain the liquid before servicing the gauge. It can also be used to sample or for adding
a comparison gauge.

629. Why control valves are usually flanged?

a. For ease of installation and removal during maintenance.

630. Where ball control valve is used?

a. Suitable where nature of fluid is slurry form or handling two phase flow having
particle in suspension, for non-critical and critical fluids having a fluid temperature to
suit the soft seat material and where relatively low pressure drop is required across
control valve. They have side mounted actuator.

631. Where butterfly control valve is used ?

a. Used for large size piping network handling clean fluid for low pressure drop across
control valve and soft seated control valve. Metal seated valves used for higher
temperatures.

632. How control valve block valves should be located ?

a. They should be as close to control valve as possible, considering drain requirement
and hand wheel clearance. At least one of the block valve should be placed in vertical
so that spool can be removed allowing the control valve to be removed.

633. How TSO valve should be installed ?

a. Tight shut off (TSO) valve or reduced port ball control valve should be installed in
vertical for gas service and horizontal ok for liquid service.

634. How bypass valve in control station should be located?

 a. Near inlet branch point, not above control valve, with 200mm clearance
between actuator and valve.

635. How control station should be supported ?

a. It should be supported such that control station piping is self supporting even if the
control valve is removed. Normally, on exit side elbows of bottom run of control
valve.
636. Why and where drain should be located in control valve assembly ?
a. Drain is used to drain the piping between two block valves on two sides of control
valve before removing control valve for maintenance. It must be located at lowest
point of bottom run. One drain is used if control valve is fails open, and two drain used
if control valve fails close, as both sides are blocked in this case. For one drain, it
should be upstream side of control valve.

637. Where reducer shall be located in control valve assembly ?

a. As close as possible to control valve, preferably directly welded control valve flanges.

638. How breakup flanges for control valve should be located ?

a. One vertical and one horizontal which is achieved by having one block valve in
vertical leg of control valve inlet. Do not place support on inlet elbow.

639. What are the types of flow measuring devices?

a. Orifice plate, Variable area flow meter i.e. rotameter, magnetic flow meter, turbine
flow meter, positive displacement meter.

640. What is piping and instrument scope of supply for orifice meter ?
a. Piping provided gaskets and bolts and tapping from orifice plate to two block valves.
Instrument provides orifice plate and flange assembly and connection down stream of
block valves.

641. How orifice flange taps should be oriented ?

a. For liquid and steam, it should be horizontal or 45 degree down from horizontal on
both sides. For gas and vapour lines, it should bevertical or 45 to vertical on both
sides. Taps are 0.5 inch.

642. What Is A Distributed Control System ?

a. A distributed control system (DCS) is a computerised control system for a process or
plant, in which autonomous controllers are distributed throughout the system, but
there is central operator supervisory control.
643. In Split Range Control, Whether The Signal Is Splitted Through I/p Converter
Or The Converter Itself?
a. This can be typically achieved by two ways:
b. By connecting o/p of one I/P converter to two positioners adjusted suitably for split
range operation of control valves.
c. Taking two AO from DCS. Split range to be defined in DCS. Both I/P converters and
positioners to be calibrated with input as 4to20 ma dc and 3to15 psi respectively.

644. What If Thermocouple Wire Is Opened In The Field? What Signal Goes To
Dcs?
a. In most modern instruments the signal may be programmed to go to either maximum
or minimum depending upon end user’s requirement.

645. What If The Power Supply Connections To A Two-wire Transmitter Get

Interchanged? What Signal Will Go To Dcs?
a. Usually there is a blocking diode to protect the transmitter against supply reversal
and almost zero current signal should be transmitted.

646. What Is The Difference Between A Hart Patch Card And A Field Terminal
Assembly?
a. A field terminal assembly is a DCS component where field signals are terminated. In
a DCS using analog transmitter signals but smart remotely configured transmitters
field signals from barriers are first brought to a HART patch panel. From here the
analog signals are wired to the DCS field termination assembly or I/O card. The
digital signals are wired to the HART multiplexes who extract the digital information
and provide two way communication path between smart instruments and a computer
running suitable software.

647. What Is The Difference Between Dcs And Plc?

a. Distributed control system(DCS) and Programmable logic controller. These are the
control systems which handles fields I/Os. Basic difference between DCS & PLC is
b. DCS handles more nos of I/Os rather than PLC.
c. PLC is faster system than DCS.
d. DCS can handles handsome quantity of I/Os so that can be used for total plant
automation. Where as PLC has own limitations so it generally used for small but for
important(Safety point of view) units, like boiler automations, Make-up compressor
automations Etc.
e. In the above mentioned case the these PLC’s can be get connected with the DCS with
the help of soft link. Generally this is used to make alert to both the operator.
f. As I heard the PLC used to handle the DI/DO signals so it can take fast actions. Some
of the time it is used to handle few nos of AI/AO.
 g. DCS & PLC’s speed depends on the scan rate of I/Os.
h. For both the system Marshalling panels, Consoles and other faculties of Ethernet Etc
can be used according to the need.
i. According to the Cause and effects diagrams the System programmer assigns the
control action block into the system, we can call them as memory assigning.

648. When Proportional, Integral And Derivative (pid) Controller Is Used?

a. PID controller is used when system requires:
b. System changes are small.
c. Offset must be eliminated.
d. Fast recovery time.

649. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?

a. Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:
b. Load Changes are small.
c. Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
d. The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.

650. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?

a. Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:
b. Load Changes are small.
c. Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
d. The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.

651. When Integral (i) Controller Is Used ?

a. Integral (I) controller is used during:
b. When the offset must be eliminated.
c. Integral saturation due to sustained deviation is not objectionable.

652. When Derivative (d) Controller Is Used?

a. Large transfer or distance velocity lags are present.
b. It is necessary to minimize the amount of deviation caused by the system changes.

653. When Proportional Plus Integral (pi) Controller Is Used?

a. Proportional and Integral action is employed when System changes is small.
b. Offset must be eliminated.
c. No objection on the recovery duration.

654. When Proportional And Derivative (pd) Controller Is Used?

a. PD action is employed when:
b. When the system changes are small.
 c. Improve the recovery time.
d. When system lags are high.

655. What Are The Basic Elements Of Distributed Control System?

a. Basic Elements of Distributed Control System:
b. Distributed Control System continuously interacts with the processes in process
control applications ones it gets instruction from the operator. It also facilitates to
variable set points and opening and closing of valves for manual control by the
operator. Its human machine interface (HMI), face plates and trend display gives the
effective monitoring of industrial processes.

656. Explain Open Loop Control System ?

a. Control System in which output quantity has no effect on the input quantity is called
Open Loop Control System. Open Loop Control System has no facility to correct
automatically the error generated in the output. From output of the system no
feedback is given back to the input for correction. In Open loop control system the
output can be varied by varying the input. But due the external disturbance system
output may change. Any variation in the output from the desired once again attained
by varying the inputs manually.

657. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Open Loop Control System ?
a. Advantages:
b. Open loop system is simple and economical.
c. Construction of open loop system is easier.
d. Open loop systems are generally stable.
e. Disadvantages:
f. Open loop systems are inaccurate and unreliable
g. The changes in the outputs due to external disturbance are not corrected
automatically.

658. Explain Closed Loop Control System ?

a. Control system in which the output has an effect on the input quantity in such a
manner that the input quantity will adjust itself based on the output generated is
called Closed loop Control System. Open loop control system can be modified in to
closed loop control system by providing a feedback. This feedback automatically
corrects the changes in the output due to external disturbance. Hence closed loop
control system is called automatic control system.

659. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Closed Loop Control System
?
a. Advantages:
b. Closed loop control systems are more accurate even in the presence of non-linearities
c. The sensitivity of the system may be made small to make the system more stable
d. The closed loop systems are less affected by noise.
 e. Disadvantages:
f. Closed loop control systems are costlier and complex
g. The feedback in the closed loop system may lead to oscillatory response
h. The feedback reduces the overall gain of the system
i. Stability is the major problem in the closed loop system and more care is needed to
design a stable closed loop system.

660. What Is The Significance Of Single Ended & Differential Ended Input For Plc?
Application Wise Comparison Of These Two Types Of Inputs?
a. Differential inputs provide better common mode rejection and signal-to-noise ratio.

661. What Is Ground Loop? Preventive Steps To Avoid Ground Loop?

a. When ground wiring is not done properly, grounding of various points is not
effective and potential differences exist between them resulting in currents flowing
between them. This leads to measurement errors and is not desirable. It can be
eliminated by proper ground wiring.

662. In A Globe Type Control Valve, What Is The Importance Of Flow Direction
(top To Bottom Or Bottom To Top)?
a. Control valves must be installed as per direction marking provided by the
manufacturers or instruction manuals. Though people tend to generalize, this is often
misleading.

663. How Control Loop Should Be Tuned In Process Loop?

a. You may use Ziegler-Nichol’s method ( open loop / closed loop ) or special tuning
software tools.
664. Why do we need vibration monitoring?
a. It is essential to monitor critical machines in the plants for increasing their efficiency
and reliability. Hence real time vibration monitoring is the key to reduce frequent
failures of machinery & keep high uptime.

665. What causes vibrations?

a. Unbalance of shaft, Bearing problem, Cracking of the rings, Fluid coupling problem,
Shaft misalignment, Oil whirl and other dynamic instabilities

666. What is on line monitoring of vibrations?

a. Time Based Maintenance System (TBM) is called preventive maintenance. One can
extend the life of the machines by monitoring these online in a cost effective way.
Vibration Monitoring and Analysis is the easiest way to keep machines healthy and
efficient in the long run and increase the overall efficiency of the plant. It reduces the
overall operating cost as well as the down time period. Vibration sensors are used to
predict faults in a running machine without dismantling it and give a clear indication
of the severity by showing the amplitude of vibration.
667. Where do we need on-line vibration monitor?
a. In Industries rotating machines are divided according to their criticality into three
categories as shown in the triangle below.
b. First critical machine – Turbine and generatorSecondary critical machines – ID fan,
FD fan, PA fan, and boiler feed pump, cooling water pump, condensate extra pump,
critical large HT motors of mills and other large motors.
c. Balance of plant machines – Coal handling plant crushers, cooling tower fans, raw
water pumps and make up water pumps
d. This explains where Vibration Monitoring is required and how critical is each machine
if there is shut down. For taking the machines for maintenance we need to know the
healthy state of the machine without dismantling it. This is possible only by online
monitoring.

668. What are the types of sensors for vibration monitoring?

a. The three principal vibration sensor types are displacement, velocity, and
accelerometer. The displacement transducer is an eddy current device, the velocity
transducer is often a spring held magnet moving through a coil of wire or piezo
velocity sensor, and the accelerometer is a piezoelectric device somewhat similar to
ultrasonic transducers.

669. What is the benefit of vibration monitoring?

a. With vibration Monitoring system, we can prevent problems from arising and this
saves a lot of time, money, and avoids frustration.
b. To increase equipment protection
c. To improve safety for personnel
d. To improve maintenance procedures
e. To detect problems early
f. To avoid catastrophic failures
g. To extend equipment life
h. To enhance operations

670. What is the benefits of Vibration Analysis & diagnostic Software?

a. Vibration analysis & diagnostic system that is applicable to a variety of rotating
machinery, helps safe operation and to improve operational efficiency. It precisely
keeps track of and quickly feeds back conditions of rotating machinery which are the
key production assets of plants.
It Helps customers improve productivity and reliability by optimizing plant operation.
b. Detects abnormal symptoms from vibration characteristics or subtle changes in
vibration. Reduces risks of unplanned production shutdown by taking proactive
approach.
c. Advanced diagnostics realize assumption of causes and areas of anomalies and
detailed analysis. Help users practice optimum, efficient maintenance.

671. What is ‘vibration’?

 a. Vibration is defined as the motion of the equipment or its part to and from its rest
(static) condition.

b. Explain following with their sensitivity (output) and the measuring units:

672. Radial:
a. A vibration measurement across the radius of a rotating shaft. It is measured in terms
of Micron. The sensitivity of a radial vibration pickup (eddy probe) is 200mv DC/mill
(refer to the drawings for the exact parameters).

673. Velocity:
a. It is defined as the rate of change of distance traveled by the equipment. Velocity
measurement is generally used for measuring the equipment body vibration. The
sensitivity of a velocity pickup is 500mv DC/inch/sec (refer to the manufacturer
drawings for the exact parameters).
b. Acceleration: It is defined as the rate of change of velocity. Acceleration
measurement is generally used for measuring the equipment body vibration. The
sensitivity of a velocity pickup is 100mv DC/inch/sec2 (refer to the manufacturer
drawings for the exact parameters).
c. Also Download: Instrumentation Android App

674. What is the resistance of an ‘Eddy probe’?

a. An eddy probe resistance should be between 5-8 ohms.

675. Draw a sketch of an eddy probe calibration graph?

a. Eddy probe calibration graph

676. What is gap voltage? Why and how is it set?

a. Gap voltage is feed back voltage derived by setting the standard gap between the eddy
probe tip and the rotating shaft.The gap voltage is the base DC voltage set to get the
AC pulses peak per the radial vibration measured on the shaft. The gap voltage is set at
–8.00V DC i.e. equal to a gap of 40 mill (between the probe tip and the measuring
surface). or at -10.00V DC as per the system standard.

677. Why an eddy probe and its probe driver is a matched pair?
a. Eddy probe output is always measured after the probe driver. The characteristic of the
eddy probe slightly differs from one to another. Always an eddy probe is installed on
the shaft, after measuring and plotting an eddy probe calibration graph with its driver.
The calibration is done by adjusting the sensitivity potentiometer on the eddy probe
driver assigned for that particular eddy probe.

678. What do the AC and DC signal represent in radial vibration, where ‘AC is super
imposed on DC’?
a. DC signal is the gap voltage set for –8.00V DC. DC signal is always present whether
the unit is running or stopped.
679. How much is the radial vibration, if the signal measured on a DVM is 135.00mv
AC?
a. The DVM measures the AC voltage in RMS (root mean square value).
b. AC peak to peak =135.00*2 root 2
i. =181.837mv
c. Eddy probe sensitivity=200mv/mill or 200mv/25.4 Microns
d. Hence, the vibration in Micron =(381.837*25.4)/200
a. =48.49 Micron

680. Why is vibration measurement very important on gas turbine and compressor?
a. Gas turbines and compressors are high speed rotating equipment. On equipment when
vibration exceeds the manufacturer limits can cause sever damage to both itself and to
its associated components/parts. Hence it is important to measure and monitor
vibration on the running equipment. Generally a high vibration pre-alarm and
shutdown limits are set as per the manufactures recommendations.

681. What type of vibration measuring instrument is used on a gas turbine? Where
are the vibrations measuring points?
a. Since a gas turbine is hot engine, its bearing vibration measurement cannot be done
through an eddy probe system. Generally a velocity or an acceleration pick-up is used
for measuring and monitoring the vibration on the body of the gas turbine. The
vibration pick-ups are generally installed on the turbine’s CT/GP and PT points.

682. What is the type of vibration pick-up (contact or non-contact type) commonly
installed on a gas turbine?
a. On gas turbine vibration measurement, the ‘contact type’ peck-up such as a velocity or
acceleration pick-up is used.

683. What type of vibration measuring instrument is used on the compressors? Where
is the vibration measuring points?
a. On a gas compressor shaft/bearing, measurement is carried out using a eddy probe
displacement system.
b. On each gas compressor, on both forward and aft radial bearings (journal bearing) two
eddy probes are installed in the ‘x’ and ‘y’ positions.

684. What is the type of vibration pick-up (contact type or non-contact type)
commonly installed on a gas compressor?
a. A ‘non contact type’- eddy probe is installed on gas compressors.

685. What is ‘x or y function’ and, ‘x and y function’ selection on a radial vibration

monitor?
a. X or Y function: in this mode, the unit shutsdown when either ‘X’ or ‘Y’ probe
detects a high vibration exceeding the setpoint.
b. X and Y function: in this mode, the unit shutsdown only when ‘X’ and ‘Y’ probes
detects a high vibration exceeding the setpoint.
 c. What is a ‘Probe driver’? What does is it do? What is the other name for a probe
driver?
d. Probe driver is an amplifier installed in the field closer to the sensor. It transmits the
field vibration signal to the remote control panel. The other name for the probe driver
is ‘proximeter’. Radial, velocity and accelerometer probe drivers are of different types.

686. What are the three wires used on a probe driver?

a. The three wires terminated on the probe driver are: -24V DC (power supply), common
and output signal.

687. What is a ‘charge amplifier’? Where is it used?

a. Charge Amplifier is a probe driver installed for the accelerometer pick-up.

688. What is an ‘axial displacement’? How is it measured?

a. Axial displacement is the movement of the rotary shaft in the axial direction to and fro.
Every centrifugal shaft is permitted to have a fixed axial movement designed by the
manufacturer, this is to allow the compressor to take the load on the thrust collar.Axial
displacement is measure using an eddy probe system. It is measured using the
proportional change in the DC voltage (gap voltage) caused by the movement of the
shaft from its center position to either side (+or-).

689. What is the unit measurement of axial displacement?

a. Axial displacement is measured in terms of “Microns”

690. What is the term ‘float/end float’ in a compressor?

a. It is the free axial movement of the compressor shaft. End float is the maximum
possible movement of the shaft. It is a small amount approximately 250 Microns (refer
to the manufacturer drawings for drawings for the exact parameters).

691. What are the following assessments/recommendations of a vibration analysis?

How are they corrected?
a. Misalignment: misalignment may cause two time RPM vibration. This is corrected by
re-aligning the compressor shaft one to another.
b. Unbalance: unbalance in the compressor shaft may cause one time RPM vibration.
This is corrected by balancing the compressor shaft on a balancing wheel.
c. Overhauling: multiple RPM vibration is symptom of damaged bearings. This is
corrected by a total overhaul of the compressor or replacement of parts.
d. (The above are only a simple clue and not a standard confirmed judgment)

692. What precautions are to be taken when installing a vibration measuring

instrument?
a. Vibration measuring instrument such as a eddy probe, velocity and acceleration pick-
ups, eddy probe drivers, charge amplifiers are sensitive instruments. The following
care has to be taken while installing in the field.
b. -Do not drop the instrument, this may result in the loss of their characteristic.
c. -Fixing and tightening to be done as per the manufacturers recommended torque.
 d. -Proper care of the signal cable insulation.
e. -Prevent any loose connections.
f. -…Etc.
693. What are the reasons for a vibration ‘spike signal’?
a. The following may cause a ‘spike signal’ in the vibration measurement.
b. -Loss of signal cable insulation.
c. -Signal cable passing next to high voltage lines.
d. -Improper earthing facility.
e. -Grounding of the wires.
f. -Loose mounting of the instrument field components
g. -…Etc.

694. List the manufacturers names of vibration measuring instruments?

a. The common vibration measuring instrument manufacturers are:
b. Bently nevada
c. Forbes Marshall Shinkawa
d. Dymac
e. Bell and Howell
695. Which of the above manufacturer’s product is more reliable and why?
a. With past experience, it is observed that the ‘Bently nevada’ vibration measuring
system is more reliable due to its component layout on the control panel, accuracy and
high gauge signal cable system in the field.

696. Why do we need vibration monitoring?

a. It is essential to monitor critical machines in the plants for increasing their efficiency
and reliability. Hence real time vibration monitoring is the key to reduce frequent
failures of machinery & keep high uptime.

697. What causes vibrations?

a. Unbalance of shaft, Bearing problem, Cracking of the rings, Fluid coupling problem,
Shaft misalignment, Oil whirl and other dynamic instabilities

698. What is on line monitoring of vibrations?

a. Time Based Maintenance System (TBM) is called preventive maintenance. One can
extend the life of the machines by monitoring these online in a cost effective way.
Vibration Monitoring and Analysis is the easiest way to keep machines healthy and
efficient in the long run and increase the overall efficiency of the plant. It reduces the
overall operating cost as well as the down time period. Vibration sensors are used to
predict faults in a running machine without dismantling it and give a clear indication
of the severity by showing the amplitude of vibration.

699. Where do we need on-line vibration monitor?

a. In Industries rotating machines are divided according to their criticality into three
categories as shown in the triangle below.
 b. First critical machine – Turbine and generatorSecondary critical machines – ID fan,
FD fan, PA fan, and boiler feed pump, cooling water pump, condensate extra pump,
critical large HT motors of mills and other large motors.
c. Balance of plant machines – Coal handling plant crushers, cooling tower fans, raw
water pumps and make up water pumps
d. This explains where Vibration Monitoring is required and how critical is each machine
if there is shut down. For taking the machines for maintenance we need to know the
healthy state of the machine without dismantling it. This is possible only by online
monitoring.

700. What are the types of sensors for vibration monitoring?

a. The three principal vibration sensor types are displacement, velocity, and
accelerometer. The displacement transducer is an eddy current device, the velocity
transducer is often a spring held magnet moving through a coil of wire or piezo
velocity sensor, and the accelerometer is a piezoelectric device somewhat similar to
ultrasonic transducers.

701. What is the benefit of vibration monitoring?

a. With vibration Monitoring system, we can prevent problems from arising and this
saves a lot of time, money, and avoids frustration.
b. To increase equipment protection
c. To improve safety for personnel
d. To improve maintenance procedures
e. To detect problems early
f. To avoid catastrophic failures
g. To extend equipment life
h. To enhance operations

702. What is the benefits of Vibration Analysis & diagnostic Software?

a. Vibration analysis & diagnostic system that is applicable to a variety of rotating
machinery, helps safe operation and to improve operational efficiency. It precisely
keeps track of and quickly feeds back conditions of rotating machinery which are the
key production assets of plants.
b. It Helps customers improve productivity and reliability by optimizing plant operation.
c. Detects abnormal symptoms from vibration characteristics or subtle changes in
vibration. Reduces risks of unplanned production shutdown by taking proactive
approach.
d. Advanced diagnostics realize assumption of causes and areas of anomalies and
detailed analysis. Help users practice optimum, efficient maintenance.

703. If I order a pH meter, what accessories do I need to use with it?

a. You need a pH electrode and at least two pH buffers, one at pH 7 and your other
buffer at pH 4 or 10. Optional accessories that will prolong life of your electrode
include: storage solution, soaker bottle, cleaning solution.
704. How do I measure pH?
a. Markson offers 2 ways to test for pH:
b. pH strips or indicating paper
c. pH meter and electrodes
705. Do I need a portable meter or a bench meter?
a. If you will be transporting the meter from place to place, a battery operated portable
meter would be the choice. If the meter will be stationary, as in a lab, choose a bench-
top meter.

706. How should I store my electrode?

a. The best solution for storage is 4M KCL. pH 4 buffer, pH 7 buffer, or tap water will
also work as storage solution. Caution: never store your electrode in distilled water.

707. How often do I need to calibrate my pH meter?

a. Before each time you use it or each set of uses.

708. What is the difference between automatic temperature compensation and manual
temperature compensation?
a. If a meter has manual temperature compensation, it means a separate device is
necessary to record the temperature of the buffers and sample solutions. That
temperature is then set on the meter temperature dial, thus "manually compensating"
for temperature.
b. A meter with automatic temperature compensation will internally compensate for
temperature as long as a temperature probes is connected to the meter. A meter with
ATC is much faster to use and ideal when multiple samples are being measured.

709. Should I stir my sample during pH measurement?

a. Yes. There are two main advantages to slowly stirring or gently agitating the sample
during a pH measurement. First, the increased flow of the sample across the electrode
results in a faster response time. Second, the solution is properly homogenated so no
areas of increased or decreased pH exist.

710. When is a pH reading stabilized?

a. It is difficult to know the exact time to take a pH reading. In general, one minute is
required to obtain a stable reading. If a reading is taking an exceptionally long time to
stabilize, this can indicate several conditions: a clogged electrode junction, a non-
homogeneous solution, a troublesome sample with low ionic strength, or a non-
aqueous sample.

711. How do I take a pH measurement in soil?

a. Prepare the sample by combining a 5 g soil sample with 5 g of distilled water, mixing
thoroughly, and allowing the mixture to settle for 10 minutes. Carefully insert probe so
bulb is in the soil part and the junction is in the supernatant. Allow reading to stabilize.
712. Can I measure the pH of a gas?
a. The only way to measure the pH of gas is to dissolve it into distilled water and
measure the mixture.

713. Should I use a combination electrode or an electrode pair?

a. A combination electrode is the most popular type of electrode and is easier to use. It is
ideal for most field and lab applications. Electrode pairs are primarily used as ions
selective electrodes of for use when measuring colloidal suspensions. When measuring
high purity water, a dedicated electrode pair with a special glass bulb is recommended.

714. What is the difference between a combination electrode and a sensing electrode
with a reference cell?
a. A combination electrode is more convenient and requires a smaller sample container
and volume. The sensing electrode with reference cell combination allows you to
select the reference cell most compatible with your solution. You can select the double
junction, calomel or ROSS Sure Flow half-cell. Most likely, you will get a longer
lasting electrode from this combination and can replace each cell individually.

715. Should I use a double junction or single junction electrode?

a. Single junction electrodes are the most commonly used electrodes. Double junction
electrodes should be used for solutions containing proteins, sulfides, tris buffers or
heavy metal ions.

716. Is a glass body electrode or epoxy body electrode more appropriate?

a. Glass bodies electrodes can withstand higher temperatures, have minimal sample carry
over because of their design, and can withstand highly corrosive material and organic
and solvents. Glass electrodes are mainly used in laboratory situations. Epoxy-body
electrodes are more rugged than glass electrodes and are the best choice for field,
plant, and industrial applications.

717. When do you use a half-cell?

a. A half-cell should be used when you are measuring a pressurized flow in a stream or
pipe. The reference half-cell would be mounted upstream, the measuring electrode
would be mounted down stream.

718. How can you unclog a pH electrode? How can you restore a refillable pH
electrode?
a. First you should check the interior wire. If corrosion is evident, replace the electrode.
If not, then soak the electrode in KCL solution at 50 degrees C for 2 to 4 hours.
Restore a refillable electrode by soaking it in pH 4 buffer after rinsing out the refill
chamber with distilled water and refilling with the proper solution.

719. How far can my pH electrode be from my meter? What if it is too far?
 a. 100 feet is the maximum distance an electrode can be from a pH meter. If the distance
is greater, you will need a pre-amp or an in-line amp. Or, you can purchase an
industrial electrode with a built-in pre-amp.

720. 96. What is a Gas Analyzer?

Gas Analyzer is an instrument used to measure the concentration of a known gas in given
mixture of gases from a process / stream.

721. Why are Gas Analyzer Used?

a. Gas Analyzer is used to Monitor Process, Enhance Safety, Increase Efficiency,
Monitor Emission and Improve Quality.

722. Where are Gas Analyzer used?

a. They are used in applications in all major industries such as Refineries &
Petrochemicals, Chemical Plants, Critical process, Inerting Applications,
pharmaceuticals, Fertilizers, Glass, semiconductors, Boilers, Heaters, Thermal
crackers, Incinerators, continuous monitoring of Stack, Industrial gas producers and its
users

723. What is the difference between Gas Detectors and Analyzers?

a. Detectors detect situations outside normal operating parameters and are set up to
alarm.
Analyzers determine in real time, the quantity/concentration a said gas is in the stream
/ Process.

724. What is the different measurement techniques used in Gas Analyzers?

a. There are many different sensors used to analyze gases. Types of popular sensors
include Electrochemical, Paramagnetic, Thermal conductivity, Infrared, PID, FID etc.

725. Why are different kinds of sensors used?

The sensors are designed to detect / measure the unique physical or chemical properties of
gases. Hence to distinguish between different gases in a mixture of gases (a process or a
stream) different sensor techniques are used.
Further Sensor choice also depends upon required accuracy, specifications, life expectancy
and cost.

726. Does Gas Analyzer equipment need maintenance and calibration?

Yes. However in a properly Designed and commissioned system Maintenance requirement is
minimal and may only consist of a visual inspection and verification of operative parameters
and periodic replacements of consumables.
Calibration frequency depends on sensor type, criticality of application and accuracy
requirement of the process.

727. What is calibration?

Calibration verifies that the Analyzer is operating properly and adjusts for any sensor drift or
 loss of sensitivity. The process involves passing two known certified concentration of the
target gas – one for Low/Zero Point and other for High/Span Point – usually from a
calibration gas cylinder and allowing the Analyzer to adjust for drift in the reading.

728. What is cross-sensitivity?

Cross-sensitivity refers to the response of a sensor to a gas other than the target gas (also
called an interference gas).

729. What is Nox?

A group of compounds mostly formed with Nitrogen and Oxygen as a byproduct of
combustion are called NOX – Nitric Oxide (NO), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Nitrous Oxide
(N2O), N2O3, N2O4, N2O5, N3O4 and NO3.

730. What does PPM mean?

Parts Per Million – 1 % volume = 10,000 ppm.

731. What is %LEL and %UEL

a. he primary risk associated with combustible gases and vapors is the possibility of
explosions. Explosion, like fire, requires three elements: fuel, Oxygen, and an ignition
source. Each combustible gas or vapor will ignite only within a specific range of
fuel/Oxygen mixtures. Too little or too much gas will not ignite. These conditions are
defined as the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) and the Upper Explosive Limit (UEL).
Any amount of gas between the two limits is explosive. It is important to note that
each gas has its own LEL and UEL, as shown in the chart below. The gas
concentrations are shown by percent of total volume, with the balance as normal air.

732. What are the physical fundamentals of IR gas analysis?

a. The molecular vibrations of many chemical compounds can be excited by energies that
lie in the infrared wavelength range. Therefore, these substances absorb infrared
radiation. The absorption spectrum depends mainly on the structure of the molecule
and thus the degrees of freedom for the movement of the molecular components, their
mass, their compositions, their spacing and their binding forces. Therefore, each
substance has a characteristic absorption spectrum. For example, in carbon dioxide
molecules can be excited bending and stretching vibrations. Additionally rotational
movements around different molecular axes are possible, which superpose the
vibrational spectrum and generate their fine structures.

733. How does a gas analyzer with an infrared spectrometer (IR spectrometer) work?
a. An IR spectrometer measures the absorption spectrums of gases. The comparison with
the spectrums that are stored in a database allows a qualitative and quantitative
reference for the substance.

734. How does non-dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas analysis) work?
a. For this form of gas analysis, the spectral sensitivity of a broadband thermal detector is
limited by an optical bandpass filter. This is done for the range in which the absorption
 bands are found for the gas to be determined. With the thermal detector, the
transmission of the measured gas mixture is determined in a defined arrangement. If
the gas being searched for is not present, most of the infrared radiation will reach the
detector and the signal will be at its maximum. If the concentration of the gas
increases, absorption will also increase according to Lambert-Beer’s law, and the
signal will reduce accordingly.

735. What advantage does the non-dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas
analysis) have?
a. Compared to infrared spectrometers, the NDIR gas analysis is significantly cheaper.
However, their use is only possible if the gases to be measured are known, and their
number is low.

736. Which gases are not suitable for analysis with non-dispersive infrared gas
analysis (NDIR gas analysis)?
a. Noble gases consist only of individual atoms. In order to vibrate, however, at least one
bond is required. Noble gases can therefore not be detected with this method. In
diatomic elemental gases such as oxygen (O2) or nitrogen (N2), only a few vibrational
modes can be excited by infrared radiation, so that even here the method fails.

737. What are the main components of an NDIR gas analyzer?

a. An NDIR gas analyzer consists of an electrically or mechanically modulated infrared
source, a gas cell and usually a pyroelectric detector. An electronic device calculates
the gas concentration based on signal voltage. InfraTec offers a large number of
standard IR narrow bandpass filters (NBP), which are optimally matched to the
absorption properties of the gases to be measured. The filters are mounted in the cap of
the detector, which is welded to the detector base body. With multiple gases to be
measured, the use of multi-channel detectors is recommended.

738. Are there advantages of having an absorption-free reference channel for non-
dispersive infrared gas analysis (NDIR gas analysis)?
a. Yes, for NDIR gas analyzers, it is advisable to use a reference channel and normalize
the signal of the gas duct via the quotient process on this reference. The optical,
mechanical and electronic drift of the overall system is reduced considerably, and the
interval between calibrations can be significantly extended. The spectral position of
the optical reference should be located as close as possible to the spectral lines of the
gases to be measured. A reference channel can be shared for multiple gases, if all
absorption bands lie within a spectral window from 3 to 5 µm or from 8 to 12 µm.
Without an optical reference channel, a reference can still be done by periodically
introducing a reference gas into the channel, such as nitrogen.

739. How does an infrared flame sensor work?

a. The pyroelectric detector of the flame sensor detects the typical spectral radiance of
burning organic materials such as wood, natural gas, oil or plastic. In order to prevent
a false alarm due to sunlight or other intense light sources, such as light from arc
welding, two independent criteria of a flame are analyzed: First a typical flame is
 characterized by a flicker frequency of 1 to 5 Hz. Secondly, a hydrocarbon flame
contains the combustion gases carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Their emission bands lie in the infrared spectral range of 4.0 to 4.8 µm. In order to
obtain a high signal, one uses wide bandpass filters for the detector window, which
include both the radiation emission of CO and of CO2. Optionally, a further channel
can be used to recognize a further combustion by product, water.

740. OSHA measurers in PPM, what is that in percent?

a. 10% is 100,000 PPM,
1% is 10,000 PPM,
0.5% is 5,000 PPM,
0.1% is 1000 PPM and
0.01% is 100 PPM.

741. How often will the pressure switch be activated?

a. This will have a direct impact on switch life, system downtime and the overhaul
schedule. Electromechanical switches are subject to metal fatigue. A bourdon tube or
diaphragm switch will typically provide one million cycles. Whereas a piston or
diaphragm sealed piston switch will provide 2-1/2 million cycles. Because a solid-state
pressure switch is not subject to metal fatigue, it will typically have a 100 million
cycle life.
742. What is the cycle speed?
a. The metal of a bourdon tube or diaphragm switch acts like a spring, so high-speed
cycles should be avoided. When the cycle rate is less than 25 per minute, a bourdon
tube or diaphragm switch is a good choice. For cycle rates to 50 cycles per minute, a
diaphragm piston or piston switch will provide 1 to 2-1/2 million cycles, respectively.
A solid-state switch should be selected whenever the cycle rate exceeds 50 cycles per
minute, since metal fatigue is not a problem.
743. How does the switch point relate to operating pressure range?
a. Selecting the proper relationship between the switch point and the operating pressure
range of a switch is important because this relationship can affect accuracy and useful
life. The general rule is different for solid-state and electromechanical pressure
switches. When a solid-state pressure switch is selected, the switch point should
normally be in the upper 25 per cent of the operating range. For an electromechanical
switch, the switch point should be in the middle of the operating range.
744. What is the proof pressure requirement?
a. Proof pressure is the maximum pressure that the switch should ever see. When
calculating the switch proof pressure, include spikes and surges to avoid damage to
the switch.
745. Will the pressure switch be subjected to high-pressure spikes and surges?
a. Pressure surges and transient pressure spikes can greatly exceed the normal operating
pressure of a system. Bourdon tube, diaphragm and solid-state pressure switches are
 all sensitive to surges and spikes. If it is anticipated that the system is subject to surges,
select a switch with a higher proof pressure or install a snubber which will allow fast
spikes to move by the switch without damage.
746. What accuracy is needed?
a. Accuracy for a pressure switch is defined differently than accuracy for an instrument.
For a pressure switch, accuracy is the ability of the switch to repetitively operate at its
setpoint. When in doubt, it is always easier to specify the best accuracy available.
747. How many switch points are needed?
a. When sensing pressure at one point, it is normal that only one switch point is required.
However, it is not unusual for a system to require two or even four switch points (e.g.
high, low, high-high, low-low) to be monitored, controlled or alarmed. In designing a
system, you could select a single switch for each switch point, or a single pressure
switch capable of handling as many as three separate switch points.
748. What type of housing is needed?
a. Stripped switches don't have their own housing. They're normally installed inside a
panel or multi-function enclosure. Housed switches avoid possible hazards from loose
wires in exposed locations and are normally available in a variety of ratings, with the
most popular industrial switch housings being NEMA 4 and NEMA 4X for corrosive
environments.
749. Is there a need to adjust the setpoint?
a. In some applications, you wouldn't want anyone changing the setpoint. In other
situations, adjustment is required based on system dynamics. Electromechanical
switches have models that are factory set, have blind adjustment capability, or offer
calibrated adjustment knobs. Solid-state switches offer precise keypad adjustments
with digital readout.
750. Is a tight or broad deadband needed?
a. Deadband is the difference between the actuation point and the re-actuation point in a
pressure actuation switch. Deadband is sometimes referred to as actuation value,
differential or hysteresis. The deadband of a switch can be fixed or adjusted over a
percentage of the full pressure range. Traditionally, a narrow deadband is used in
safety services. A wider deadband is used on control circuits like hydraulic units. Tight
or narrow deadbands tend to be found on bourdon tube and diaphragm switches, wide
deadbands are available in piston-type switches, while solid-state switches offer a fully
adjustable deadband to 100 per cent of full scale.
751. Accuracy or life?
a. When selecting a solid-state pressure switch there is no trade-off between accuracy
and life. You simply choose a pressure switch where the switch point is in the upper
25 per cent of the pressure range. Electromechanical switches have sensing elements
(diaphragms, tubes and pistons) that are constantly being stressed and thus the location
of the switch point versus the operating range is critical to both accuracy and life. The
best compromise is to operate the electromechanical pressure switch in the middle of
 the operating range. Barksdale’s new BPS3000 electronic pressure switch, part of the
Generation 3000 range, offers unrivalled accuracy.
752. Are more features needed than just a switch?
a. Many times the system requires more than a pressure switch to open and close a
circuit. A local gauge and remote signal may also be required. The traditional
approach is to use individual devices. However, microprocessor-based solid-state
pressure switches change the dynamics. One solid-state switch can offer up to four
independent switches, digital readouts and analog/digital outputs.
753. What is the use of reactor?
a. To convert desirable product from raw material

754. What is decomposer?

a. To remove gases from solution

755. How we generate vacuum?

a. By ejector

756. Which fluid is flow in ejector?

a. Driving fluid and process fliud

757. What is cavitation?

a. Vapour is come into casing

758. What is condenser?

a. To remove latent heat

759. What is cooler?

a. To remove sensible heat

760. Why cavitation occurred?

a. suction pressure is below vapour pressure

761. What is vapour pressure?

a. pressure exert by vapour on the liquid surface

762. What happened when vacuum high in evaporater?

a. chocking of product solution

763. What happened when vacuum is low in evaporater?

a. moisture will increase

764. What is distillation?

a. It is the separation of component from mixture
765. Where we use distillation?
a. To separate binary mixture

766. can we use distillation for multicomponent mixture?

a. Yes

767. What is holder in your plant?

a. To storage of material

768. What is stripper?

a. To remove gases from solution

769. What type of flow occurred in stripper?

a. Counter and parallal flow

770. What is Reynold no.?

a. Inertial force / viscous force

771. What is nussalt no.?

a. Heat tran by convection/ Heat tran by conduction?

772. What is grashoff no?

a. Buyoncy force / viscous force

773. Which of the following methods cannot be used for the estimation of
hydrocarbons?
a. Chemiluminescence method cannot be used for the estimation of hydrocarbons. This is
because hydrocarbons do not produce chemiluminescence effect.

774. Which of the following is the most abundant hydrocarbon which is emitted into
the atmosphere by biological activity?
a. The most abundant hydrocarbon which is emitted into the atmosphere by biological
activity is methane. It is also emitted by automobile exhausts, burning of coal, etc.

775. Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to which of the following gases?
a. Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to methane since, they are sensitive to organic
compounds. They are insensitive to non-combustible gases. Hence, they are not
sensitive to carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide.

776. How can carbon monoxide be detected using flame ionization detectors while
using gas chromatography technique?
a. Carbon monoxide cannot be detected directly using flame ionization detectors while
using gas chromatography technique. Hence, it is converted into methane and is then
detected.
777. Which of the following organic compounds will have the highest intensity of
response when introduced in a flame ionization detector?
a. Butane will have the highest intensity of response when introduced in a flame
ionization detector. This is because the intensity of response will be in proportion with
the number of carbon atoms in the chain.
b. Propane would give three times the intensity of response as compared to
methane.
c. Propane would give three times the intensity of response as compared to methane. This
is because the intensity of response will be in proportion with the number of carbon
atoms in the chain.

778. In flame ionization detectors, which of the following is the range adequate for
atmospheric sampling?
a. In flame ionization detectors, the range adequate for atmospheric sampling is 0-
20ppm. It is useful for detecting organic compounds.

779. Which of the following methods make use of pyrolysis while used for detecting
methane?
a. Flame ionization detector makes use of pyrolysis while used for detecting methane. It
is used to detect organic compounds.

780. In flame ionization detector, the ions collected on the negatively charged grid are
amplified at the high impedance amplifier.
a. In flame ionization detector, the ions collected on the positively charged grid are
amplified at the high impedance amplifier. Its output is given to the chart recorder.

781. Which of the following is not the characteristic of flame ionization detector?
a. Narrow range of concentration is not the characteristic of flame ionization detector. It
has a broad range of concentration.

782. What is HAZOP?

a. HAZOP- an abbreviated term of “HAZards and OPerability”- is defined as: “The
application of a formal systematic critical examination of the process and engineering
intentions of the new facilities, to assess the hazard potential of mal-operation or
malfunction of individual items of equipment and the consequent effects on the facility
as a whole”.

783. What is PLC?

PLC means Programmable Logic Controller. It is a class of industrially hardened devices that
provides hardware interface for input sensors and output control element. The field I/p include
 element like limit switches, sensors, push button and the final control elements like actuator,
solenoid/control valves, drives, hooters etc
PLC Senses the input through I/P modules, Processes the logic through CPU and memory and
gives output through output module.

784. Applications of PLC

PLC can be used in almost all industrial application solutions right from small machine to
large manufacturing plants. Even it caters applications of redundant systems at critical process
plants.

785. Role of PLC in Automation ?

PLC plays most important role in automation. All the monitoring as well as the control actions
are taken by PLCs. PLC Senses the input through I/P modules, Processes the logic through
CPU and memory and gives output through output module.

786. Role of CPU ?

This component act as a brain of the system.

CPU consist of Arithmetic Logic Unit, Program memory, Process image memory, Internal
timers and counters, flagsIt receives information from I/P device, makes decisions depending
upon the information and logic written and sends information through the O/P devices.The
CPU’s are distinguished with following features.Memory capacity, Instruction set supported,
communication option, time required to execute the control program.

787. Role of Power supply in PLC system ?

Power supply provides system power requirement to processor, I/O and communication
modules. Typically the power supply has input voltage 120 V – 230 V AC or 24 V DC and
back plane output current 2 A to 5 A at 5 V DC
788. Role of Rack or Chassis in PLC system ?

A hardware assembly, which houses the processor, communication and I/O modules. It does
following functions.
Power distribution
Containment of I/O modules
Communication path between I/O module and CPU
 The chassis are available in different slots in various PLC systems. Additional
chassis can be connected using chassis interconnecting cable.

789. What is role of I/O modules ?

Electronic plug in units used for interfacing the i/p and o/p device in the machine
or process to be controlled.
I/P module receives data from i/p devices (Pushbutton, Switches, Transmitters)
and send it to processor. The O/P module receives data from processor and send
it to output device (Relay, Valves).
Digital/Discrete :- Sends and Receives
On/Off signal Analog :- Sends and
receives variable input or output signals

790. Role of EEPROM memory module?

This module is inserted into processor system for maintaining a copy of project
(PLC program). This is helpful in case of memory corruption or Extended
power loss.

791. Communication module

Communication modules are used either for communication between external

hardware or software. The hardware can be PLCs (same or other make),
Controller, I/O module, smart transmitters. The software can be SCADA
software, MIS system or programming software.

792. Difference Between Fixed and Modular PLCs ?

 In non modular PLCs the processor will have inbuilt power supply and I/Os in
one unit.
The modular PLC, will have separate slots for components like Power supply,
I/O modules. You can select the I/Os or power supply as per the need.

793. What are the Types of I/Os ?

Local – These are the I/Os placed in the PLC main rack containing CPU. These
I/Os are connected to CPU through backplane.
Distributed - These are the I/O placed at remote location from the main rack
containing the CPU. These I/O’s are to be connected on communication bus like
control net, device net or FIP I/O.

794. What is meaning of resolution in I/O cards in PLCs ?

It is the minimum change in i/p parameter which can sensed by the i/p card. As
far as Digital I/O is concerned it takes only one bit for operation. In case of
analog input the resolution determines how much bits are used for input or
output. For example a 12 bit resolution card means the input will come as 0 to
4095 count (2^12). For 16 bit data the counts will be from 0 – 65536(2^16).
More the resolution the data will be more accurate

795. What is an Analog Input Module ?

An I/O module that contains circuits that convert analog input signals to digital
values that can be manipulated by the processor. The signals for pressure, flow,
level, temperature transmitters are connected to this module. Typically the input
signal is 4-20 mA, 0-10 V
796. What is Analog Output Module ?

An I/O module that contains circuits that output an analog dc signal proportional
to a digital value transferred to the module from the processor. By implication,
these analog outputs are usually direct (i.e., a data table value directly controls
the analog signal value).

797. What is meaning of universal analog input card ?

Normally there are different cards for different signals. But in universal input
card the same channels can be configured for RTD, Thermocouple, Current or
voltage input.

798. Give examples of I/P and Output connected to PLCs

Digital I/P (Pushbutton, Switches )

Analog I/P (Temp, Pressure, Flow, Level)
Digital O/P (Solenoids valves, Contactors)
Analog O/P (Control Valves, Speed)

799. Explain Source and Sink Concept ?

Sinking Source type modules gives out the current to the field digital devices
while sink type modules draw current when the device is in high state
Sinking – When active the output allows the current to flow to a common ground.
Sourcing – When active, current flows from a supply, through the output device
and to ground.

800. What is forcing of I/O ?

Forcing the I/Os means making the desired status of I/O in PLCs irrespective of
its status coming from the field.
 In certain cases when there is problem in receiving field input /output, we can
force the i/Os so that the logic takes desired state.

801. Scan cycle of PLC

PLC’s scan cycle follows following path Scan cycle of PLC

Input Image Updation

Proce
ss
Logic
Executi
on
Output
Updati
on

802. What is meaning of scan time in PLC ?

Scan time is the Time required to read the I/P, Process the logic and update the
output in one cycle.

803. What is typical scan time in PLCs ? What effects scan time ?

Typically it is less than 10 ms. It depends on the complexity of logic, PID

algorithm etc.

804. How to program PLCs ?

Every PLC manufacturer have their own software for programming the PLC.
For example Siemens uses Simantic S7 Manager, Allen Bradley uses RS Logix
 and Modicon uses PLC pro programming software. The programming language
used is Ladder Logic (LD), Statement List (STL), Functional Block Diagram
(FBD), Sequential Function Chart (SFC), Instruction List (IL) etc

805. What is ladder diagram ?

This is a programming language, which expresses a program as a series of

"coils" and "contacts", simulating the operation of electromechanical relays.
The resultant program is the equivalent of an equation, which is executed
continuously in a combinatorial manner. The advantage of this language is the
familiarity many electricians have with the simple operation of relays.
Disadvantages include the complexity of large, cross-connected programs, and
the difficulty of expressing such non-binary functions as motion control and
analog I/O.

806. What is redundancy ?

The capacity to switch from primary equipment to standby equipment

automatically without affecting the process under control.
Redundancy means provision for standby module. In case of failure of one
module is running process, the standby module takes over. Hot redundancy
means the changeover of control from active processor to standby processor in
less than 1 scan time

807. Need of redundancy

In critical processes, it is important to run the plant without failure. In such case
it is important to have redundancy so that even if one system fails the redundant
system can take care without affecting plant.
 Types of redundancy

CPU redundancy : In case of CPU failure the standby CPU takes care of the plant
Power Supply redundancy : In case the power supply fails the standby power
supply takes control of the situation.
Communication : Multiple communication channels are provided to take care of
communication failure
I/O Redundancy : Multiple I/O channels are provided to take care of input or
output failure.

808. What are components of redundant PLC system ?

Typical component on
Schneider Redundant PLCs
The backplane used is either 4
slot o6 6 slot with
Power Supply
Controller with built-in Modbus Plus and Modbus ports
Optional dual cable Modbus Plus
Optional fiber optic Modbus Plus
CHS Hot Standby module
Dual cable Remote I/O Head
The master and Standby configuration must be identical

809. Timers
Timer and Counter are used to control operation based on time or number of
events

810. Types of timers

 TON – (Timer ON An output instruction that can be used to turn an output ON
delay) or OFF after the
timer has been timing for a preset time interval
TOF – (Timer OFF An output instruction used to turn an output ON or OFF after
delay) its rung has been
off for a preset time interval.
RTO - (Retentive An output instruction that can be used to turn an output ON
Timer) or OFF after the timer has been timing for a preset time
interval. Once it has begin timing, it
holds the count of time even when the rung continuity is lost.

811. Timer Status Bit

.EN : (enable) Specifies whether or not the timer instruction is enabled
.DN : (Done) Specifies whether or not the accumulated value of the timer equals
to the preset value of the timer.

Programming instruction (Advance)

MCR, Compute, PID, STI, Sequencer, Register, RT

812. What are the PLC ranges available in Rockwell ?

Pico : Non modular small PLCs
Micrologix 1000, 1200 and 1500 Series
SLC : SLC 5/01, 5/02, 5/03 ….
Control Logix Flex Logic and Soft PLC

813. What are the software Used with AB ?

For Pico soft for Pico PLC programming

RS Logix 500 for Micrologix and SLC
PLCs programming RS Logix 5000
for Control Logix PLCs programming

SCADA - RS View earlier Control View

814. What is use of RS Linx software ?

 RS Linx software is used to perform following tasks.
Configure communication drivers
View configured drivers and active nodes
Enable communication tasks such as uploading, downloading, going online,
updating firmware and sending messages.

815. What is use of RS Logix software ?

RS Logix is a PLC programming software. It contains all the instructions

needed for PLC programming. We can develop the program, down load / upload
the program, work on line / off line and force the I/Os using the software.
RS Logix 500 is used for
Micrologix and SLCs RS
Logix 5000 is used for
Control Logix PLCs

816. What file gets created in PC for RS Logix PLC program ?

The extension of the file will be .rss. So if you create an application with
“Reliance” name the file created will be “Reliance.rss”. By default it will be
stored in “c:\Program Files\Rockwell Software/RS Logix 500 Eng location.

817. How to creating linkage between PLCs and PLC programming

software ?

The RS Linx software is used for linking the PLC and software
Either you can manually configuration the communication settings or By using
Auto Configure facility the software will detect the communication settings
automatically.

818. Hardware configuration (PLC and I/Os)

 Manual configuration
Auto detect

819. What is the meaning of Upload and Download ?

Upload means transferring the program data

from PLC to PC Download means
transferring the program data from PC to PLC

820. What are the various

communication interfaces supported in
plc

The commonly used communication protocol in plc includes DH+, DH485,

ETH, Modbus, Device Net and Control Net.

821. Give information about data highway.

Data Highway : The proprietary data network used by Allen Bradley PLCs to
communicate information to and from other PLCs on the network or to and from
host computers attached to the network.

822. Give information about ControlNet.

ControlNet : A real-time, control-layer network providing high-speed transport

of both time- critical IO data and messaging data, including upload/download
of programming and configuration data and peer-to-peer messaging, on a single
physical media link
823. Give information about DeviceNet.
 DeviceNet : A low-cost communication link that connects industrial devices to
a network. It is based on broadcast-oriented communication protocol - the
Controller Area Network (CAN).

824. Give information about Ethernet.

Ethernet : The standard for local communications networks developed jointly

by Digital Equipment Corp., Xerox, and Intel. Ethernet baseband coaxial cable
transmits data at speeds up to 10 megabits per second. Ethernet is used as the
underlying transport vehicle by several upper-level protocols, including
TCP/IP.

825. What is latency in communication ?

The delay time between the end of one communication and the start of another.
During this time, the processes associated with the communication are hung up
and cannot continue. The latency has to be minimum.

826. How the communication protocols are distinguished ?

The protocols are distinguished with following specifications
No. of nodes supported, total network length , Speed of communication .

827. Multi-Point Interface ( MPI ) :

Data Transfer – 187.5 kbits to 15 Mbit/s,
Distance – 50 m without RS 485 repeater /
10 Km with repeater Number of nodes – up
to 32

828. Profibus
Data Transfer – 12 Mbit/s,
 Distance – 23 Km with
fibre optic cable Number
of nodes – up to 125

829. What are SFCs and SFBs ?

SFBs and SFCs are integrated in the S7 CPU and allow you access to some
important system functions.

830. What is Statement List?

Statement List (STL) is a textual programming language that can be used to

create the code section of logic blocks. Its syntax for statements is similar to
assembler language and consists of instructions followed by addresses on which
the instructions acts.

831. What is linear equation?

Linear equations: any function represented by a straight line on a graph may be

represented
symbolically by the slope-intercept formula y = mx+b. Relevant to instrument
input/output
scaling.

832. What is zero shift?

Zero shift: any shift in the offset of an instrument is fundamentally additive,
being represented
by the “intercept” (b) variable of the slope-intercept linear formula y = mx + b.
Relevant to
 instrument calibration: adjusting the “zero” of an instrument always adds to or
subtracts from
its response.

833. Describe Span shift?

Span shift: any shift in the gain of an instrument is fundamentally

multiplicative, being
represented by the “slope” (m) variable of the slope-intercept linear formula y =
mx + b.
Relevant to instrument calibration: adjusting the “span” of an instrument
always multiplies
or divides its response.

834. What is Transmission line?

Transmission lines: short-duration (pulsed) electrical signals travel along a

cable at nearly
the speed of light, reflecting off of any discontinuity along the cable. Relevant
to guidedwave
radar level-sensing instruments, where the waveguide serves the same purpose
as a
transmission line, and the fluid-fluid boundary constitutes a discontinuity
(sudden change
in electrical permittivity) causing a reflected signal to arise.

835. State the ideal gas law.

Ideal Gas Law: PV = nRT, used to calculate corrections to gas permittivity.
Relevant to
the “gas phase effect” of radar level instruments.
836. What is Capacitance?
Capacitance: C = ǫA/d , capacitance being proportional to the area of two
overlapping
conductors (A), the permittivity of the insulating (dielectric) substance between
them (ǫ),
and the distance (d) separating the conductors. Relevant to capacitive level
sensing, where
changes in liquid level alter the effective area, permittivity, and/or distance.

837. What is the importance of Resonance?

Resonance: when something oscillates at its natural frequency. Relevant to

Coriolis
flowmeters, whose tubes are made to vibrate at their resonant frequency in
order to measure
fluid density. For a vibrating string (which closely approximates a vibrating
tube), resonant
frequency is directly proportional to string tension and inversely proportional to
both length
and mass.
838. What is the importance of Resonance?
Specific heat: the amount of heat necessary to change the temperature of a
some substance
per unit mass and per unit of temperature. Relevant to thermal flowmeters,
which work on
the principle of heat transfer from a heated object to the moving fluid. The
greater the mass
flow rate of the fluid, the greater the heat transfer rate for any given specific
heat value of the
fluid. Specific heat is a function of the fluid’s chemical composition
839. State the law of conversation of energy.

Conservation of energy: energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted

between
different forms. Relevant to optical analyses, particularly fluorescence where
the energy of
a photon emitted by fluorescence is always less (never more) than the incident
photon, the
difference between the two photons’ energies being dissipated in the form of
heat.

840. State the law of conversation of mass.

Conservation of mass: mass is an intrinsic property of matter, and as such

cannot be created
or destroyed. Relevant to chemical reactions, where the total mass of the
reaction’s products
must precisely equal the total mass of the reactants.

841. State the kirchoff’s law.

Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law: the algebraic sum of all voltages in a loop is equal to
zero.
Relevant to conductivity and pH sensor circuits, as well as bridge circuits used
in a variety of
analytical instruments.

842. What is time constat?

Time constant: (τ ), defined as the amount of time it takes a system to change

63.2% of
 the way from where it began to where it will eventually stabilize. The system
will be within
1% of its final value after 5 time constants’ worth of time has passed (5τ ).

843. What is transient response?

The transient response is the response of the system when the system changes
from one state to
another.

844. what is steady state response?

The steady state response is the response of the system when it approaches
infinity.

845. What is an order of a system?

The order of a system is the order of the differential equation governing the
system. The order of
the system can be obtained from the transfer function of the given system.

846. Define Damping ratio.

Damping ratio is defined as the ratio of actual damping to critical damping.

847. List the time domain specifications.

The time domain specifications are
i. Delay time
ii. Rise time
 iii. Peak time
iv. Peak overshoot

848. Define Delay time.

The time taken for response to reach 50% of final value for the very first time is
delay time.

849. Define Rise time.

The time taken for response to raise from 0% to 100% for the very first time is
rise time.

850. Define peak time.

The time taken for the response to reach the peak value for the first time is peak
time.

851. Define peak overshoot.

Peak overshoot is defined as the ratio of maximum peak value measured from
the maximum
value to final value.

852. Define Settling time.

Settling time is defined as the time taken by the response to reach and stay
within specified error.

853. What is the need for a controller?

 The controller is provided to modify the error signal for better control action.

854. What is Proportional controller?

It is a device that produces a control signal which is proportional to the input

error signal.

855. What is PI controller?

856. It is a device that produces a control signal consisting of two terms - one
proportional to error
857. signal and the other proportional to the integral of error signal.

858. What is PD controller?

PD controller is a proportional plus derivative controller which produces

an output signal
consisting of two time - one proportional to error signal and other proportional
to the derivative
of the signal.

859. What is the significance of integral controller and derivative

controller in a PID controller?

i. The Proportional controller stabilizes the gain but produces a

steady state error.
ii. The Integral control reduces or eliminates the steady state error.

860. What are the different types of controllers?

 i. Proportional controller
ii. PI controller
iii. PD controller
iv. PID controller

861. Why derivative controller is not used in control systems?

The derivative controller produces a control action based on the rate of change
of error signal
and it does not produce corrective measures for any constant error.

862. Define Steady state error.

The steady state error is defined as the value of error as time tends to infinity.

863. What is the drawback of static coefficients?

The main drawback of static coefficient is that it does not show the variation of
error with time
and input should be standard input.

864. What is step signal?

The step signal is a signal whose value changes from zero to A at t= 0 and
remains constant at A
for t>0.

865. What is ramp signal?

 The ramp signal is a signal whose value increases linearly with time from an
initial value of zero
at t=0.the ramp signal resembles a constant velocity.

866. What is a parabolic signal?

The parabolic signal is a signal whose value varies as a square of time from an
initial value of
zero at t=0.This parabolic signal represents constant acceleration input to the
signal.

867. What are the three constants associated with a steady state error?

i. Positional error constant

ii. Velocity error constant
iii. Acceleration error constant

868. What are the main advantages of generalized error coefficients?

i. Steady state is function of time.
ii. Steady state can be determined from any type of input.
869. What are the effects of adding a zero to a system?

Adding a zero to a system results in pronounced early peak to system response

thereby the peak
overshoot increases appreciably.

870. State-Magnitude criterion.

 The magnitude criterion states that s=sa will be a point on root locus if for that
value of s ,
| D(s) | = |G(s)H(s) | =1

871. What is a dominant pole?

The dominant pole is a pair of complex conjugate pair which decides the
transient response of
the system.

872. What is stepper motor?

A stepper motor is a device which transforms electrical pulses into equal

increments of rotary
shaft motion called steps.

873. What is servomotor?

The motors used in automatic control systems or in servomechanism are

called servomotors.
They are used to convert electrical signal into angular motion.

874. Name the test signals used in control system.

The commonly used test input signals in control system are impulse step ramp
acceleration and
sinusoidal signals.

875. What is Synchros?

 A Synchros is a device used to convert an angular motion to an electrical signal
or vice versa.

876. What is steady state error?

The steady state error is the value of error signal e(t) when t tends to infinity.

877. What are static error constants?

The Kp, Kv and Ka are called static error constants.

878. What is the disadvantage in proportional controller?

The disadvantage in proportional controller is that it produces a constant steady

state error.

879. What is the effect of PD controller on system performance?

The effect of PD controller is to increase the damping ratio of the system
and so the peak
overshoot is reduced.

880. Why derivative controller is not used in control system?

The derivative controller produces a control action based on rare of change of

error signal and it
does not produce corrective measures for any constant error. Hence derivative
controller is not
used in control system.
881. What is the effect of PI controller on the system performance?

The PI controller increases the order of the system by one, which results in
reducing the steady
state error .But the system becomes less stable than the original system.

882. Define System.

A system is a combination or an arrangement of different physical components

which act together as an entire unit to achieve certain objective.

883. Define Control system.

To control means to regulate, to direct or to command. Hence a control system
is an arrangement of different physical elements connected in such a manner so
as to regulate, direct or command itself or some other system.

884. Define Plant.

The portion of a system which is to be controlled or regulated is called the plant

or the process.

885. Define Controller.

The element of the system itself or external to the system which controls the
plant or the process is called controller.

886. Define Input.

It is an applied signal or an excitation signal applied to a control system from

an external energy source in order to produce a specified output.

887. Define Output.

It is the particular signal of interest or the actual response obtained from a

control system when input is applied to it.
888. Define disturbance.

Disturbance is a signal which tends to adversely affect the value of the output
of a system.

889. Define internal disturbance.

If such a disturbance is generated within the system itself, it is an internal

disturbance.

890. Define external disturbance.

The disturbance generated outside the system acting as an input to the system
in addition to its normal input, affecting the output adversely is an external
disturbance.

891. Write any four major classification of control system.

Open loop and closed loop control system.

Time varying and time-invariant system.
Linear and nonlinear system.
Lumped parameter and distributed parameter control system.

892. What is mean by Principle of superposition?

Principle of superposition means the response to several inputs can be obtained

by considering one input at a system and the algebraically adding the individual
results.

893. What is mean by Deterministic control system?

A control system is said to be deterministic when its response to input as well

as behavior to external disturbance is predictable and repeatable.

894. Write short notes about SISO and MIMO.

 A system having only one input and one output is called single input and single
output system. Some systems may have multiple input and multiple outputs,
these are called multiple input and multiple output systems.

895. Define Open loop system.

A system in which output is dependent on input but controlling action is totally

independent of the output or changes in input of the system, is called an open
loop system.

896. Define closed loop system.

A system in which controlling action or input is somehow dependent on the

output or changes in output is called closed loop system.

897. Write any four advantages of open loop system.

 Such systems are simple in construction.
Very much convenient when output is difficult to measure.
Such systems are easy when maintenance point is view.
Such systems are economical.

898. Write any four disadvantages of open loop system.

Such systems are inaccurate and unreliable because accuracy of such system is
totally dependent on the accurate precalibration of the controller. Such systems
give inaccurate results if there are variations in the external environment.
Similarly they cannot sense internal disturbances in the system, after the
controller stage. To maintain the quality and accuracy, recalibration of the
controller is necessary, time to Time.

899. Give any four real time application of open loop system.

Sprinkler used to water a lawn.

Stepper motor positioning system.

900. Explain the following terms in a controller?

Measurement variable: It is the demand variable measured and controlled.

Desired Variable: it is the demand signal (setpoint) to which the process
variable is controlled.
Deviation: it is the error signal caused by the difference between the
measurement and the demand signal.
Output: It is the corrective signal from the controller to the final control element.

901. Explain what is ‘direct action’ and ‘reverse action’ on a controller?

Direct action : In a direct acting controller, the output increases when the
process measurement (variable) increases.
Reverse action : In a reverse action controller, the output decreases when the
process measurement (variable) increases.
902. What is a ‘proportional band’?

It is the range in percentage for which the controller output changes

proportionally from minimum to maximum and vice-versa when the
measurement deviates from the setpoint.

903. What is a ‘reset action’?

Reset action in a controller is the integration of the proportional action by the

set period. The reset action repeats the proportional action’s output per the reset
time set, until the error signal becomes zero or the output gets saturated.

904. What type of controller (P, PI, PID) is preferred on the following
process control loops?

Pressure: If the load change is minimum, then a proportional controller is

suitable. If a frequent load change is expected then a Proportional + Integral
controller is preferred.
Level : Normally a proportional controller is preferred.
Flow: Proportional + Integral controller is preferred
Temperature: Proportional + Integral + Derivative controller is preferred

905. When Proportional (P) Controller is Used ?

Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:

Load Changes are small

Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value)
can be tolerated
The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since
this reduces the amount of the offset

906. When Integral (I) Controller is Used ?

 Integral (I) controller is used during:

When the offset must be eliminated

Integral saturation due to sustained deviation is not objectionable

907. When Derivative (D) Controller is used ?

Large transfer or distance velocity lags are present

It is necessary to minimize the amount of deviation caused by the system changes

908. When Proportional plus Integral (PI) Controller is used ?

Proportional and Integral action is employed when

System changes is small

Offset must be eliminated
No objection on the recovery duration
When Proportional and Derivative (PD) controller is used ?

PD action is employed when:

When the system changes are small

Improve the recovery time
When system lags are high

909. When Proportional, Integral and Derivative (PID) Controller is used

?
PID controller is used when system requires:

System changes are small

Offset must be eliminated
Fast recovery time

910. How can we measure differential temperature?

Presently this is best achieved by using a smart temperature transmitter with two
sensors transmitting a signal proportional to the temperature difference.
 In split range control, whether the signal is splitted through I/P convertor or the
convertor itself?
This can be typically achieved by two ways:

By connecting o/p of one I/P converter to two positioners adjusted suitably for
split range operation of control valves.Taking two AO from DCS. Split range to
be defined in DCS. Both I/P converters and positioners to be calibrated with
input as 4to20 ma dc and 3to15 psi respectively.

911. When do we use SOV of rating 110vac and 110vdc?

Primarily depends upon the availability of reliable power supply source &
application.

912. How is cold junction compensation in thermocouple carried?

This is typically performed in modern programmable instruments by means of
measuring actual reference junction temperature using a temperature sensor
mounted close to the ref. junction and compensating for the same using
appropriate look-up table stored within the instrument’s memory.

913. What if thermocouple wire is opened in the field? What signal goes to
DCS?

In most modern instruments the signal may be programmed to go to either

maximum or minimum depending upon end user’s requirement.

What if the power supply connections to a two-wire transmitter get interchanged?

What signal will go to DCS?
Usually there is a blocking diode to protect the transmitter against supply reversal
and almost zero current signal should be transmitted.

914. What are the possible reasons for the failure of barrier?
Fuse blowing sometimes. Power circuits are most likely to fail.

915. How can we say that the given RTD or Thermocouple is correct?
We can only measure sensor output (resistance / maillots ) accurately and look-
up corresponding temperature in reference tables.

The accuracy depends upon quality / condition of the sensor. Degraded sensors
may not give accurate readings and must be replaced.To test a sensor, the sensor
response may be tested using a high quality temperature calibrator and compared
with reference tables.
916. we select that In some cases we have to select the cam position in a
control valve for different application? How do?
Refer to instruction manual for the positioner / control valve. The cams are often
marked with limited amount of information, which may help an experienced
person.

917. What is the difference between a hart patch card and a field terminal
assembly?
A field terminal assembly is a DCS component where field signals are
terminated. In a DCS using analog transmitter signals but smart remotely
configured transmitters field signals from barriers are first brought to a HART
patch panel.
From here the analog signals are wired to the DCS field termination assembly or
I/O card.The digital signals are wired to the HART multiplexes who extract the
digital information and provide two way communication path between smart
instruments and a computer running suitable software.

918. What is the difference between a protocol and a field bus?

A protocol defines a standard method for communications.

A fieldbus is a multidropping arrangement where multiple instruments

communicate with special interface hardware using the same pair of wires and
in most of the cases draw power from the same pair of wires.

919. What happens if transmitter wires get shorted?

The barrier if installed limits electrical energy flowing into hazardous area. If
there is no barrier, typically a fuse in the power distribution system will blow.

920. What will happen if thermocouple wires get shorted?

A cold junction compensated instrument will typically indicate temperature of
the location where the T/C wires are shorted.

921. Why do we require loop-terminating resistor in any digital

communication loop?
A minimum loop resistance is required so that modulated current signal produces
a modulated voltage signal, which may be detected by the receiving equipment.

922. What is adapter flange?

It is a transmitter part for allowing process connection to pipe/tube.
923. How to calculate the safe distance between cables to avoid
electromagnetic interference of each other ?
The design engineers / equipment manufacturers follow/publish certain
guidelines w.r.t. different types of cables and the voltages/currents and types of
signals carried by them.

924. How Control loop should be tuned in process loop?

You may use Ziegler-Nichol’s method ( open loop / closed loop ) or special
tuning software tools.

925. What is the significance of single ended & differential ended input for
PLC? Application wise comparison of these two types of inputs?
Differential inputs provide better common mode rejection and signal-to-noise
ratio.

926. What is Ground Loop? Preventive steps to avoid ground loop?

When ground wiring is not done properly, grounding of various points is not
effective and potential differences exist between them resulting in currents
flowing between them.

This leads to measurement errors and is not desirable. It can be eliminated by

proper ground wiring.

927. In a globe type control valve, what is the importance of flow direction
(top to bottom or bottom to top)?
Control valves must be installed as per direction marking provided by the
manufacturers or instruction manuals. Though people tend to generalize, this is
often misleading.

928. What is ATEX directives / FM Approval / CSA approved / CE

certified ? What is the importance of individual certification? Are all these
certification required for each instruments? Which certification do we
prefer?
ATEX/FM/CSA certifications generally refer to certification for suitability of
instruments for use in hazardous area when installed in accordance with
recommended guidelines.

Any certification, which is locally acceptable as per statutory requirements, may

be used. We typically accept American/European/Indian certifications/approvals
in India.
929. Advantages of tachometer as speed measuring device compared to
inductive type proximity switches?
Some tachometers provide analog output with almost instantaneous response
time.

They are highly suitable for speed control in some applications.

930. Application wise advantages of Inductive type proximity switches

over capacitive type switches?
Inductive proximity switches are better suited for detection of conducting metal
objects and are easily tested for proper operation. Capacitive switches are
typically used for detecting non-conductive materials

931. What is meant by voltage commutation?

In this process, a charged capacitor momentarily reverse biases the conducting
thyristor and turn it off.

932. What is meant by current commutation?

In this process, a current pulse is made to flow in the reverse direction through
the conducting thyristor and when the net thyristor current becomes zero, it is
turned off.

933. What is meant by load commutation?

In this process, the load current flowing through the thyristor either becomes zero
or is transferred to another device from the conducting thyristor.

934. What is meant by inverter?

A device that converts dc power into ac power at desired output voltage and
frequency is called an inverter.

935. Why thyristors are not preferred for inverters?

Thyristors require extra commutation circuits for turn off which results in
uncreased complexity of the circuit. For these reasons thyristors are not preferred
for inverters.

936. How output frequency is varied in case of a thyristor?

The output frequency is varied by varying the turn off time of the thyristors in
the inverter circuit, i.e. the delay angle of the thyristors is varied.

937. Give two advantages of current source inverter .

 current source inverter does not require any feedback diodes.
Commutation circuit is simple as it involves only thyristors.

938. What is meant by cyclo-converter?

It converts input power at one frequency to output power at another frequency
with one-stage conversion. Cycloconverter is also known as frequency changer.

939. What are the two types of cyclo-converters?

Step-up cyclo-converters
Step-down cyclo-converters

940. What is meant by step-up cyclo-converters?

In these converters, the output frequency is less than the supply frequency.

941. What is meant by step-down cyclo-converters?

In these converters, the output frequency is more than the supply frequency.

942. What are the applications of cyclo-converter?

Speed control of high power ac drives
Static VAR generation
Power supply in aircraft or ship boards

943. What is Automation?

Automation is delegation of human control functions to technical equipment for
increasing productivity, better quality, reduced cost & increased in safety
working conditions.

944. What are the different components used in automation?

The components of automation system include

a. Sensors for sensing the input parameters (RTD, Thermocouple, Pressure,

Flow, Leve; etc)
b. Transmitters for transmitting the raw signal in electrical form
c. Control system which includes PLC, DCS & PID controllers
d. Output devices / actuators like drives, control valves.
945. What are the different control systems used in Automation?
a. PID Controller based control system
b. PLC based control system
c. DCS based Control system
d. PC Based automation system

946. Explain PID based control system.

PID (Proportional Integral Derivative) is the algorithm widely used in closed

loop control. The PID controller takes care of closed loop control in plant. A

number of PID controller with single or multiple loop can be taken on network.

PID Controllers are widely for independent loops. Although some logic can be

implemented but not much of sequential logic can be implemented in PIDs.

947. Difference between PLC & Relay ?

a. PLC can be programmed whereas a relay cannot.
b. PLC works for analog I/Os such as PID loops etc. whereas a relay cannot
c. PLC is much more advanced as compared to relay.
d. Modifications in relay base circuit is difficult compared to PLCs

948. Difference between PLC & DCS ?

DCS: The system uses multiple processors, has a central database and the
functionality is distributed. That is the controller sub system performs the control
functions, the history node connects the data, the IMS node gives reports, the
operator station gives a good HMI, the engineering station allows engineering
changes to be made.
PLC: The system has processor & I/O’s and some functional units like basic
modules, communication modules and so on. Uses a SCADA for visualization.
Generally the SCADA does not use a central database.
DCS is often used in the big plants where the redundancy level needed is more
and the analog input used are high.
949. What is PC based control system ?
In PC based control system, the CPU of computer acts as processor, the PCI
based cards are used for connecting Input and Output. The RAM acts as memory.
Hard disk is used as storage device. Currently this systems are very useful when
the large data is to be proceed with very high speed. In many cases for greater
accuracy we can use the real-time operating system.
950. What is Encoder ?
A feedback device which converts mechanical motion into electronic signals.
Usually an encoder is a rotary device that outputs digital pulses which correspond
to incremental angular motion. The encoder consists of a glass or metal wheel
with alternating clear and opaque stripes that are detected by optical sensors to
produce the digital outputs.

951. Which are the leading PLC providers ?

The leading PLC providers include
Rockwell Automation : Allen Bradley (Micrologix, SLC, PLC, Control Logix)
Siemens ( S7 200, S7 300 , S7 400)
Grouppe Schneider : Modicon ( Nano, Micro, Premium, Quantum)
GE Fanuc : Versa, Series 90-30, 90-70
Messung : Nextgen

952. Which are the leading DCS providers ?

The leading DCS providers include
Yokogawa : CS 3000 , CS 5000 (Earlier Centum Excel, Micro Excel)
Honeywell : TDC 3000
Fisher - Rosemant - Delta V
ABB - Freelance 2000
Moore - APACS
Fox boro - I/A series

953. Which are the leading SCADA software / MMI providers ?

The leading SCADA software / MMI providers include
Wonderware : InTouch
 Intellution iFix (Earlier FixDMACS)
Siemens : WinCC
Allen Bradley : RS View ( Earlier Control View)
KPIT : Astra

954. What types of sensors are used for measuring different parameters?
a. Temperature sensors – RTD, Thermocouple, Thermister
b. Pressure Sensor – Borden Tube, Bellows, Strain gauge
c. Flow sensor – Pitot tube
d. Level, Conductivity, Density, Ph

955. What is transmitter?

A transmitter is an electronic device that is generally mounted in the field in close
proximity to a sensor. The sensor (also known as a transducer) measures a
physical variable such as temperature or pressure and outputs a very low level
electronic signal. The basic function of the transmitter is to provide the correct
electrical power to turn on (or excite) the sensor then to read the low level sensor
signal, amplify it to a higher level electrical signal and send that signal a long
distance to a control or read-out device.
Since low-level electrical signals do not transmit long distances with great
accuracy, installing a transmitter generally gives a tremendous improvement in
the accuracy of the information delivered to a larger control system. Typically
the output form the transmitter is 4-20 mA or 0-10 V
956. Why 4-20 mA preferred over 0-10 V signal ?
The 0-10 V signal has tendency to drop because of line resistance. If the distance
between sensor and input card is more the signal will not properly represent the
field value. The 4-20 mA will travel a long distance without dropping signal
value.
957. Why 4-20 mA preferred over 0-20 mA signal ?
With 0- 20 mA you can not distinguish between minimum field value and
connection break. With 4-20 mA, internal circuit can distinguish between
connection break of minimum value. Normally when the value is minimum the
 transmitter will give you 4 mA while in case of connection breakage it will give
0 mA.
958. Difference between 2 wire, 3 wire and 4 wire transmitter.
In 2 wire transmitter the power and signal are transmitted through same cable.
In 3 wire transmitter the data signal and power are with respect to common
ground.
In 4 wire transmitter two wires for power supply and two for signals.
Only current transmitters can be used as 2 wire transmitters.
959. What is a “Smart” Transmitter ?.
A "Smart" transmitter is a transmitter that uses a microprocessor as the heart of
the electronics. In addition, a "Smart" transmitter will output some type of remote
digital communications allowing you to read and set-up the device from a remote
position.
960. What is Field bus ?.
Fieldbus is a general term for a digital only, high speed communications
protocol. The key attribute to Fieldbus communications is higher speed
communications with the possibility of addressing multiple transmitters all on
the same field wiring. The Foundation Fieldbus is a specific digital protocol that
is often shortened to just be called Fieldbus. Other digital only communications
such as Profibus are also Fieldbus protocols
961. What is Actuator ?.
In a closed-loop control system, the part of the final control element that
translates the control signal into action by the control device.
962. Explain Working of RTDs
Resistance Temperature Device works on the principles that the resistance of the
material changes as its temperature changes. Temperature is determined by
measuring resistance and then using the RTD Resistance vs Temp characteristic
to detect temperature. Typical elements used for RTD are Nickel, Copper and
Platinum. Platinum is widely used in RTDs because of accuracy. PT 100 means
 at 0 deg temp 100 ohms resistance. A typical RTD consists of a fine platinum
wire wrapped around a mandrel and covered with a protective coating (glass or
ceramic).
963. Temperature measurement range supported by RTDs?
The RTD work on temperature range between–250 to 850 deg C.

964. Explain Working of Thermocouple

Thermocouple consists of two strips or wires made up of different metals and
joined at one end. The temperature at that juncture induces an electromotive force
(emf) between the other ends. As the temperature goes up the emf also increases.
Through standard charts and tables the corresponding temperature can be found
out.
The relationship between the thermocouple output and the temperature is quite
non linear. Different metallurgies produce different outputs. The different
metallurgies and different lineararities result in different thermocou0le
designations such as "J", "K,", "N", "L", etc.
965. What is Cold Junction compensation?
The industry accepted standard for the temperature at open end is 0 deg C.
Therefore most tables and chart make the assumption that the temp at open end
is 0 deg C. In industry the open ends are always at actual room temperature and
not 0 deg C. The emf adjustment because of difference between the actual temp
and 0 deg C is referred as Cold Junction Correction (CJ Correction)
966. Temperature measurement range supported by thermocouple ?
The thermocouple work on broad temperature range ie –270 to 2300.

967. Can I split my one T/C signal to two separate instruments?

No. The T/C signal is a very low-level millivolt signal, and should only be
connected to one device. Splitting to two devices may result in bad readings or
loss of signal. The solution is to use a “dual” T/C probe, or convert one T/C
 output to a 4-20 mA signal by using a transmitter or signal conditioner; then the
new signal can be sent to more than one instrument
968. What are the flow measuring instruments used in Flow measurement
?
a. Differential pressure meters
b. Positive displacement
c. Velocity meters
969. Explain working of differential pressure measurement ?
Suitable restriction placed in flow stream causes a differential pressure across it.
As flow depends upon differential pressure (Head) & area, so any of them or
both can be varied for varying flow.
970. What are the components of differential flow sensor ?
For creating differential pressure : Orifice plate, Venturi Tube, Flow Nozzle ,
pitot tube
For measuring pressure : U-Tube Manometers, Ring–Balance Manometer, D.P.
Cell
971. What type of pressure sensors used in pressure measurement?
a. Manometers
b. Bourdon tubes
c. Bellow elements
d. Diaphram elements
e. DP transmitters
972. Explain working of differential pressure transmitters.
Process pressure is transmitted through isolating diaphragms and oil fill fluid to
a sensing diaphragm. The sensing diaphragm is a stretched spring element that
deflects in response to differential pressure across it. The displacement of the
sensing diaphragm, a maximum deflection of0.004 inch (0.10 mm), is
proportional to the applied pressure. Capacitor plates on both sides of the sensing
diaphragm detect the position of the diaphragm. The transmitter electronics
convert the differential capacitance between the sensing diaphragm and the
capacitor plates into a two-wire, 4-20 mA dc signal and a digital output signal.
973. What is Control Valves ?
The control valve, commonly named the final control element of control contains
a pneumatic device that converts the control signal from the controller
in action, regulating the flow.
974. What type of control valves used in the industry ?
a. ON - OFF SERVICES :- Gate, Ball, Diaphragm, Plug, Butterfly valves.
b. THROTTLING SERVICES :- Globe, Butterfly, Diaphragm, Pinch
valves.
c. NON - REVERSE FLOW :- Check valves.

975. What are the specifications of the control valve ?

Following specifications are used for control valve
a. Flow medium and operating temperature
b. Flow rate kg/hr or Nm3/hr Max/Min/Normal
c. Inlet and Outlet pressure : kg/cm2 Max/Min/Normal
d. Max. allowable diff. Pressure : kg/cm2
e. Density of medium : kg/m3
f. Viscosity
g. Cv : Valve Flow Coefficient
976. What are the components of control valve ?
a. Actuator, Body, Trim, Diaphragm, Diaphragm plate, Actuator stem
b. Actuator spring, Seat, Travel Indicator, Valve stem, Gaskets, Yoke,
Hand wheel
c.
977. What is flow coefficient ?
It is the flow of water (G=1, T= 6 to 34 deg. C) through the valve at full lift in
U.S gallon per minute with a pressure drop across the valve of 1 psi.

978. What is SCADA ? Role of MMI/HMI SCADA in Industrial

Automation
SCADA : Supervisory control and data acquisition
MMI : Man Machine Interface
HMI : Human machine Interface
This acts as an operator station. The operator can monitor as well as control the
process parameters from this stations. Apart from online process data the
 operator will have access to historical and real-time trends, alarms and reports.
The operator can give commands to control hardware for opening the valve,
change the set point, start the pump etc..
979. What are Features of SCADA software ?
The common features of SCADA include Dynamic process mimic, Trends,
Alarm, Connectivity with hardware, Recipe management etc.

980. Applications of SCADA.

SCADA systems has many applications right from industrial automation, power
distribution to water management.

981. Some of the leading leading SCADA companies

a. Invensys Wonderware InTouch
b. Siemens WinCC (Earlier COROS)
c. Allen Bradley RS View (Earlier Control View)
d. Intellution iFix (Earlier Fix DMACS)
e. GE Fanuc Simplicity

982. Types of Wonderware SCADA packages

a. No. of I/Os – Wondeware InTouch comes is 64, 128, 256, 1000 and
64,000 tags package.
b. Development + Runtime + Network (DRN) / Runtime + Network (R+N)
and View Node
D+R+N : With this package development and editing of the application is
possible, Runtime monitoring and control of the plant is possible and Networking
is possible.

R+N : With this package development and editing of the application is NOT
possible, Runtime monitoring and control of the plant is possible and Networking
is possible.

Factory Focus : With this package development and editing of the application
is NOT possible, Runtime monitoring is possible but control of the plant is NOT
possible and Networking is possible. This package is used a view node
983. What type of licensing patterns used in the SCADA software
Typically two types of licenses are used in the SCADA software
a. Dongle Key : It is a hardware lock which can be put on the
communication port of the PC.
b. Software Lock : Here the software code is the license. Typically you can
put the code while installation or transfer the code from Floppy to hard-
disk.

984. Various EXE files used in InTouch Software and there role
InTouch : It is an application manager. Using this you can create new
application. Move between various applications.
View : Windowviewer. This will start Runtime application. From this you can
monitor and control the plant.
WM : WM.XE is Window maker. This will start the development package in
InTouch. Using this you can you can develop the application.
985. Types of Window ?
Replace : Automatically closes any window(s) it intersects when it appears on
the screen including popup other replace type windows.
Overlay : Appears on top of currently displayed window(s) and can be larger
than the window(s) it is overlaying. When an overlay window is closed, any
window(s) that were hidden behind it will reappear. Clicking on any visible
portion of a window behind an overlay window will bring that window to the
foreground as the active window.
Popup : Similar to an overlay window except, it always stays on top of all other
open windows (even if another window is clicked). Popup windows usually
require a response from the user in order to be removed.
986. What is Symbol Factory ?
Symbol Factory contains symbols which can be readily used in the application.
The symbols is contains include various Tanks, Reactor, Pipes, Icons, Flags.
987. What type of user input used in InTouch ?
User inputs include data entry Discrete, Analog, String/Message, Sliders and
pushbuttons.
988. What type of animation can be given in InTouch ?
Colour Fill, % Fill, Blinking, Size Control, Location, Orientation, Visibility,
Action, Hide Show Window
989. What are trends ?
Trends means graphical representation of data.
"Real-time" and "Historical. You can configure both trend objects to display
graphical representations of multiple tagnames over time. Real-time trends allow
you to chart up to four pens (data values), while Historical trends allow you to
chart up to eight pens.
Real-time trends are dynamic. They are updated continuously during runtime
with whatever time span given in configuration. You can not scroll the real-time
trends to see previous data.
Historical trends provide you with a "snapshot" of data from a time and date in
the past. They are not dynamic. Unlike real-time trends, historical trends are only
updated when they are instructed to do so either through the execution of a
QuickScript or an action by the operator, for example, clicking a button. You
can zoom in / zoom out the trends. You can also access the previous data.
990. What are Alarm and Events in InTouch?
Alarms and Events are the notifications used to inform operators of process
activity: Alarms represent warnings of process conditions that could cause
problems, and require an operator response. A typical alarm is triggered when a
process value exceeds a user-defined limit. InTouch uses for types of alasm
LOLO, LO, HI and HIHI.
Events represent normal system status messages, and do not require an operator
response. A typical event is triggered when a certain system condition takes
place, such as an operator logging into InTouch.
991. Security management
Security provides the ability to control whether or not specific operators are
allowed to perform specific functions within an application. Security is based
on the concept of the operator "logging on" to the application and entering a
"User Name" and "Password." (The application developer sets up each operator
with a "User Name," a pre-assigned "Password" and an "Access Level" via the
Special/Security/Configure Users..command either in WindowMaker or
WindowViewer.)
When a new application is created, the default "User Name" is "Administrator"
with an access level of 9999 (which allows access to all security commands).
992. What is the use of Scripts in InTouch ?
Is a way of writing logic in InTouch. InTouch has its own instructions and way
of writing program.
Application : Linked to the entire application.
Window : Linked to a specific window.
Key : Linked to a specific key or key combination on the keyboard.
Condition : Linked to a discrete tagname or expression.
Data Change : Linked to a tagname and/or tagname.field only.

993. What is driver ?

A software which allows a computer to access the external devices using com
ports or communication cards.

994. What is DDE ?

Dynamic Data Exchange is the facility developed by Microsoft for exchanging
the data between various programs.
DDE has three important settings
Application / Server name , Topic Name and Item Name
995. Communication with software (Excel)
DDE settings for Excel
App. Name - Excel,
Topic Name – [book.xls]sheet1
Item Name – Cell Address ie (R1C1)
DDE settings for InTouch
App. Name – View
Topic Name – TAGNAME
Item Name – Name of tag

996. How to monitor the data from InTouch to Excel ? ie One way
communication from InTouch to Excel.
In Excel worksheet write a formula ie =View|TAGNAME!A1
 A1 is name of tag in InTouch

997. How to have two way communication between Excel and InTouch ?
Create a I/O Tag Name with following detail
Application name : Excel
Topic Name : [XXXX.xls]sheet1 ie XXXX.xls is actual excel file used in
application. Sheet 1 is the spreadsheet where the data is kept.
Item Name : R1C1 ie Actual Address of the Cell where the data is kept.

998. What are the various PLC system in SIMATIC S7 range ?

Siemens has broadly 3 PLC ranges ie Siemens S7 200 , 300 and 400
999. What are the software used with Siemens ?
For S7 200 PLC programming Microwin
For S7 300 and 400 system : Simantic S7 manager
The SCADA software used by Siemens is Win CC.. Earlier Siemens use to
supply COROS LS/B
1000. Components of Siemens S7 300 Series PLC system ?
CPUs (312 IFM, 313, 314, IFM, 314, 315, 315-2DP, 316-2DP, 318
Signal Modules (SM), Digital I/O (SM321/322/323), Analog I/O
(SM331/332/334)
Function modules (FM) ex Positioning modules, Closed Loop
Communication Processor ex CP 342-5 DP for Profibus
Interface module – For interconnecting individual racks (IM 360/ 361, IM365 S
/ R)
1001. Explain the System Bits available in S7-200 PLC Special Memory
area ?
Special Memory Byte 0 (SM0.0 - SM0.7) provides eight bits that are updated by
the S7-200 CPU at the end of each scan cycle. Your program can read the status
of these bits and then make decisions based on a bit’s value.
Always_On SM0.0 This bit is always ON.
First_Scan_On SM0.1 This bit is ON for the first scan cycle only.
One use is to call an initialization subroutine.
Retentive_Lost SM0.2 This bit is turned ON for one scan cycle if
retentive data was lost. This bit can be used as either an error memory bit or as
a mechanism to invoke a special startup sequence.
RUN_Power_Up SM0.3 This bit is turned ON for one scan cycle when
RUN mode is entered from a power-up condition. This bit can be used to
provide machine warm-up time before starting an operation.
Clock_60s SM0.4 This bit provides a clock pulse that is OFF for 30
seconds and ON for 30 seconds, for a cycle time of 1-minute. It provides an
easy-to-use delay or a 1-minute clock pulse.
Clock_1s SM0.5 This bit provides a clock pulse that is OFF for 0.5
seconds and then ON for 0.5 seconds for a cycle time of 1 second. It provides
an easy-to-use delay or a 1-second clock pulse.
Clock_Scan SM0.6 This bit is a scan cycle clock that is ON for one scan
and then OFF for the next scan. This bit can be used as a scan counter input.
Mode_Switch SM0.7 This bit indicates the current position of the
Mode switch (OFF=TERM position and ON=RUN position). You can use this
bit to enable Freeport mode only when the switch is in the RUN position.
Normal communication with the PC/programming device can be re-enabled by
switching to the TERM position.
1002. Explain the Time Stamp available in S7-200 PLC ?
This warning message indicates that the timestamps for the project do not
match the timestamps for the program in the PLC. This may indicate that the
programs are different, in which case it would be dangerous to continue the
current operation. However, the programs may be functionally identical and
still have different timestamps.
1003. What are the Time Stamps available in S7-200 PLC ?
Each program contains two distinct timestamps; the "Created" timestamp and
the "Last Modified" timestamp. The created timestamp is set when the project
is created by the New Project option. The Created timestamp is not affected by
any user edits or program compilation.
The Last Modified timestamp is used to indicate when the user last modified
the program. There are many conditions that cause the Last Modified
timestamp to be set, it includes Edit of instructions or operands in the program,
Adding, deleting, or modifying a Local or Global Symbol, Adding or deleting a
POU, Compiling the program block and Downloading the program block (this
automatically compiles the program block and therefore sets the last modified
timestamp).
1004. How to check whether the project and program in the PLC is same ?
STEP 7-Micro/WIN 32 provides the “Compare” option, to allow you to
determine whether the programs are same or different.
1005. What are Fatal errors in Siemens S7 200 PLC ?
Fatal errors cause the PLC to stop the execution of your program. Depending
on the severity of the error, a fatal error can render the PLC incapable of
performing any or all functions.
1006. What happens to PLC when it goes to Fatal error ?
The PLC performs the following tasks when a fatal error is detected.
· Changes to STOP mode
· Turns on both the System Fault LED and the Stop LED
· Turns off the outputs
The PLC remains in this condition until the fatal error is corrected.

1007. What are Non - Fatal errors available in Siemens PLCs?

Compile and run-time errors are non-fatal errors. Non-fatal errors can degrade
some aspect of the performance of your PLC, but do not render the PLC
incapable of executing the user program or updating the I/O.
Run-time errors are non-fatal errors detected in RUN mode, and reflected in
special memory (SM) bits that your program can monitor and evaluate. At
startup, the PLC reads the I/O configuration and stores this information in the
 SM memory. During normal operation, the I/O status is periodically updated
and stored in the SM memory. If the PLC detects a difference in the I/O
configuration, it sets the configuration-changed bit of the module-error byte;
the I/O module will not be updated until this bit is reset. For the PLC to reset
this bit, the module I/O must once again match the I/O configuration stored in
the system data memory.
Run-time programming errors are non-fatal error conditions created by you
or your program while the program is being executed. An example of this is an
indirect-address pointer, which was valid when the program compiled,
modified by program execution to point to an out-of-range address. Use the
PLC > Information… command to determine what type of error has occurred.
You can correct run-time programming errors only by modifying the user
program. The run-time programming errors are cleared at the next transition
from STOP to RUN mode.
Compile errors (or program-compile errors) are detected at download as the
PLC compiles the program. If there is a compile error, the compile halts, and
the previous program (which is known to be valid since it previously compiled)
is retrieved. All of these steps occur while the PLC is in STOP mode. Compile
errors can be displayed using the PLC > Information… command.
1008. How To Writing and Forcing Outputs in S7-200 PLC STOP Mode ?
To enable Write and Force functions while in STOP mode, choose the Debug >
Write-Force Outputs in STOP menu command.
The S7-200 PLCs support writing and forcing outputs (both analog and digital)
while the PLC is in STOP mode. As a safety precaution, you must specifically
request this functionality to be enabled in STEP 7-Micro/WIN 32. The menu
option Debug>Write-Force Outputs in STOP enables you to Write or Force
outputs while the PLC is in STOP mode.
Warning If the S7-200 PLC is connected to equipment when you write or force
an output, these changes may be transmitted to the equipment. This could result
in unanticipated activity in the equipment, which could also cause death or
serious injury to personnel, and/ or damage to equipment.
Each time STEP 7-Micro/WIN 32 is opened, the menu option defaults to
unchecked, and you are prevented from writing or forcing outputs while the
PLC is in STOP mode. Checking the menu option enables writing and forcing
for the current editing session with the current project. When a different project
 is opened, the menu option returns to its default state and you are prevented
from either writing or forcing output addresses while the PLC is in STOP
mode.
1009. How TO Write the STL Program in S7-200 PLC ?
The example program below shows formatting in the STL editor according to
the guidelines given in How to Enter a Statement in STL. You might want to
set up your program similarly, by having the network comments give a general
overview of the function of the network and the statement comments identify
the function of the statement. Note that the sample is written with symbolic
addresses.
If you would like to see this program (in either STL or LAD) in STEP 7-
Micro/WIN 32, select File>Open, browse to the STEP 7-
MicroWIN\Samples\English directory, highlight the sample program and click
the Open button.

1010. What is the Protocol used in the in S7-200 PLC and How many station
Can Be Possible in the S7-200 Network?
Protocol used in the in S7-200 PLC is PPI Protocol
32 station Can Be Possible in the S7-200 Network
1011. What is Absolute and Symbolic Addressing IN S7_300 PLC?
In a STEP 7 program you work with addresses such as I/O signals, bit memory,
counters, timers, data blocks, and function blocks. You can access these
addresses in your program absolutely, but your programs will be much easier to
read if you use symbols for the addresses (for example, Motor_A_On, or other
identifiers according to the code system used within your company or industry).
An address in your user program can then be accessed via this symbol.
1012. Absolute Addresses
An absolute address comprises an address identifier and a memory location (for
example, Q 4.0, I 1.1, M 2.0, FB21)
1013. Symbolic Addresses
You can make your program easier to read and simplify troubleshooting if you
assign symbolic names to the absolute addresses.
STEP 7 can translate the symbolic names into the required absolute addresses
automatically. If you would prefer to access ARRAYs, STRUCTs, data blocks,
 local data, logic blocks, and user-defined data types using symbolic names, you
must first assign symbolic names to the absolute addresses before you can
address the data symbolically.
You can, for example, assign the symbolic name MOTOR_ON to the address
Q 4.0 and then use MOTOR_ON as an address in a program statement. Using
symbolic addresses it is easier to recognize to what extent the elements in the
program match the components of your process control project.
1014. What is meaning by Instance data block in S7_300 PLC?
An instance data block is assigned to every function block call that transfers
parameters. The actual parameters and the static data of the FB are saved in the
instance DB. The variables declared in the FB determine the structure of the
instance data block. Instance means a function block call. If, for example, a
function block is called five times in the S7 user program, there are five
instances of this block.
1015. Creating an Instance DB
Before you create an instance data block, the corresponding FB must already
exist. You specify the number of the FB when you create the instance data
block.

1016. One Instance DB for Each Separate Instance

If you assign several instance data blocks to a function block (FB) that controls
a motor, you can use this FB to control different motors.
The data for each specific motor (for example, speed, runup time, total
operating time) are saved in different data blocks. The DB associated with the
FB when it is called determines which motor is controlled. With this technique,
only one function block is necessary for several motors
1017. What are System Function are in S7_300 PLC?
System Functions
A system function is a preprogrammed function that is integrated on the S7
CPU. You can call the SFC in your program. SFCs are part of the operating
system and are not loaded as part of the program. Like FCs, SFCs are blocks
”without memory."
S7 CPUs provide SFCs for the following functions:
 Copying and block functions

Checking the program

Handling the clock and runtime meters

Transferring data sets

Transferring events from a CPU to all other CPUs in multicomputing mode

Handling timeofday and timedelay interrupts

Handling synchronous errors, interrupts, and asynchronous errors

Information on static and dynamic system data, for example, diagnostics

Process image updating and bit field processing

Addressing modules

Distributed I/O

Global data communication

Communication via nonconfigured connections

Generating blockrelated messages

1018. Differences between Instance Data Blocks and Shared Data Blocks
A shared data block is not assigned to a logic block. It contains values required
by the plant or machine and can be called directly at any point in the program.
An instance data block is a block that is assigned directly to a logic block, such
as a function block. The instance data block contains the data that were stored
in a function block in the variable declaration table.

1019. How to Exchanging/Swapping Modules in the Configuration Table in

S7-300
If you using HW Config to revise a station configuration and you want to
exchange a module for one with a new order number for example, proceed as
follows:
 Use a drag-and-drop operation to drag the module from the Hardware Catalog
window over the old module that is already placed.

Drop the new module. To the extent possible, the new module assumes the
parameters of the one that was already inserted.

This procedure is faster than exchanging modules by deleting the old module
and then inserting the new one and assigning parameters to it.

You can turn this function on or off in HW Config by means of the menu
command Options > Settings ("Enable Module Swapping")

1020. What is Meant by Complex Data Types

Complex data types define data groups that are larger than 32 bits or data
groups consisting of other data types.

\The following table describes the complex data types. You define structures
and arrays either in the variable declaration of the logic block or in a data
block.
1021. What meant by User-Defined Data Types (UDT)
User-defined data types are special data structures you create yourself that you
can use in the whole S7 program once they have been defined.

User-defined data types can be used like elementary data types or complex data
types in the variable declaration of logic blocks (FC, FB, OB) or as a data type
for variables in a data block (DB). You then have the advantage that you only
need to define a special data structure once to be able to use it as many times as
you wish and assign it any number of variables.

User-defined data types can be used as a template for creating data blocks with
the same data structure, meaning you create the structure once and then create
the required data blocks by simply assigning the user-defined data type
(Example: Recipes: The structure of the data block is always the same, only the
amounts used are different.)

User-defined data types are created in the SIMATIC Manager or the

incremental editor just like other blocks.
1022. What you mean by Memory Compressing? (RAM) When it can be?
After deleting and reloading blocks, gaps can occur in the user memory (load
and work memory) and reduce the usable memory area. With the compress
function, the existing blocks are rearranged in the user memory without gaps,
and a continuous free memory is created.
1023. Always Try to Compress the Memory in STOP Mode
Only if you compress the memory in "STOP" mode are all the gaps closed up.
In the RUNP mode (mode selector setting), the blocks currently being
processed cannot be shifted since they are open. The compress function does
not work in the RUN mode (mode selector setting) (write protection!).
1024. What are the Communication Protocol used in Siemens 300 ?
Multi-Point Interface ( MPI ) :
Data Transfer – 187.5 kbits to 15 Mbit/s,
Distance – 50 m without RS 485 repeater / 10 Km with repeater
Number of nodes – up to 32

1025. Profibus
Data Transfer – 12 Mbit/s,
Distance – 23 Km with fibre optic cable
Number of nodes – up to 125
1026. What are the blocks used in Siemens ?
Simantic S7 manager uses DB, OB, FC, PB and FB
OBs : Determine the structure of the user program
Data Block : These are the blocks used by logic blocks in CPU program for
storing the data. DB’s doesnot contain any instructions and it take up space in
the user memory. The user program can access a data block with bit, byte, word
or double word operations.
Global data block : These contains information that can be accessed by all the
logic block in the user program.
Instance data block : These DBs are always assigned to a particular FB.
FC Functions : It is a logic block without memory. An FC is always executed
by calling in another block. FC is used either for returning a function value to a
 calling function or executing a technological function. Temporary variable
belonging to FC are saved in local stack and this data is lost when the FC has
been executed.
Function Blocks (FBs) : A function block is block with a memory. A FB
contains a program that is always executed when a different logic block calls the
FB. FB make it much easier to program frequently occurring complex functions.
1027. What are SFCs and SFBs ?
SFBs and SFCs are integrated in the S7 CPU and allow you access to some
important system functions.
1028. What is Statement List?
Statement List (STL) is a textual programming language that can be used to
create the code section of logic blocks. Its syntax for statements is similar to
assembler language and consists of instructions followed by addresses on which
the instructions acts.
1029. Overview of plant
ASGP plant basically for the production of syn gas H2,Co2 this are useful in
the
production of urea. & Ammonia in this plant some percentage of methane also
is there as un-reacted that for the fuel purpose in the reformer

1030. Application of co-shift

Co-shift converter is use to convert co into Co2

1031. Safety measure during plant

Safety purpose whenever enter into plant safety shoes ,Helmet ,cotton cloth,
antistatic shoes are compulsory

1032. Product & byproduct

Product of the plant is 99.99% H2
1033. Parametric control
Parameter are define for specific operation to that parameter that we have to
maintain for different operation HT shift- 350°c. LT shift-250°c

1034. Colour code of each line

Green line for- water supply. Yellow line for H2

1035. Production of H2 in N.m3/ he

33700 N.M3/ he

1036. Purity of product

Ch4- 5.86%,H2- 75.02%,co2-18.37%

1037. Raw material

Raw material-Natural gas

1038. MDEA
Methayl Di Ethayl Amine

1039. What is a 4mA to 20mA signal?

The 4mA to 20mA signal is an industrial standard electrical signal that was
designed to send information from one point to another. The 4/20mA signal can
represent anything, and be scaled to any range of that quantity. What this means
is that the 4/20mA signal can represent temperature, pressure, depth, humidity,
or any number of things.

1040. why we use?

It also means that the 4/20mA signal can represent any range of values for that
quantity, such as 0% to 100%, or 20% to 80%. Exactly what a 4/20mA signal
 represents is defined by the transmitter (sometimes referred to as a transducer)
that is controlling the signal.

1041. What components are needed for a 4mA to 20mA signal?

The components that are typically part of a 4/20mA installation are:

1) A power supply to provide the electricity for

the loop

2) Wire (usually a “twisted pair”) to carry the

electrical current

3) A transmitter to control the current through

the circuit

4) A sensor wired to the transmitter to detect the

quantity being measured

5) An indicator to show what the transmitter is

measuring

6) A controller to act on the measured signal

1042. Sensors, transmitters, transducers: What?

Sensors are used to measure something, like temperature, pressure, weight,

humidity, etc. The signal that a sensor makes is very small.

1043. A transmitter consists of circuitry that amplifies this small signal and
adjusts it to the 4/20mA output. When a sensor and a transmitter is designed and
built as a single unit, it is frequently called a transducer.

1044. How to wire a 4/20mA system?

The sensor is always wired to the transmitter. The other components of the
4/20mA system get wired in series, one after the other. Take a look at the various
components, the transmitter, display, controller, and power supply. They all will
be marked with a “+” power and a “-“ power terminal.

Connect the devices together so that the “+” power terminal of the power
supply goes to the “+” terminal on the first device, the “-“ terminal of the first
 device to the “+” terminal of the second device, the “-“ terminal of the second
device to the “+” terminal of the third device, and so on and so on until one wires
back to the “-“ terminal of the power supply.
Because the wiring starts at the power supply and goes from one device to
another, the 4/20mA system is commonly called a 4/20 loop.

1045. What are the things need to know before design a 4/20mA loop?

The first task is to make sure that the power supply voltage is large enough to
drive all the devices on the loop. The standard loop power supply is voltage for
a Look on the data sheets for all the devices for an entry that identifies “power
requirements”, “loop burden”, “drop”, or “impedance”.

We are looking for a value of voltage or resistance. Each device is going to

require a certain amount of voltage from the loop to operate.

We will add these voltages together to make sure that they are less than the
voltage available from the power supply. If the value is given as a resistance, we
will use ohms law to convert it to a voltage.

Ohm’s law states that voltage equals current multiplied by resistance, so multiply
the resistance by 0.02 and the resulting figure is the voltage we desire. Frequently
a transmitter is labeled as “Power: X to Y Volts”. We will use the lower of the
voltages in the calculation.
If the devices in the loop require more voltage to operate than the power supply
delivers.

1046. How do Get the display(s) on the 4/20mA loop to read properly?

A 4/20mA signal can represent anything, but the values that the loop represents
are always defined by the transmitter (or transducer) in the loop. The range of
the transmitter identifies the values being transmitted at 4mA and at 20mA.

Obtain the range of the transmitter and you will know what to set the display(s)
to. Sometimes a transmitter sends a signal related to but not a direct measure of
the desired quantity.

For instance, a pressure transducer is often used to measure the depth of a liquid,
such as in wastewater facilities. It is common to use a 0/10psi pressure
transducer, which would measure 0/23.1 feet of water. In cases like this it is
necessary to apply math to achieve the proper results.
 Sometimes scaling the display becomes confusing because what the transmitter
is sending is very different from what is desired to display.

The best tool one can use to solve this problem is to draw a diagram of the
installation, placing the sensor, labeling the desired measurement points, and the
range that the sensor will measure. If necessary convert the sensor’s unit of
measure into the display unit of measure (PSI to feet, for example) then add or
subtract as necessary to get the scaling.

1047. The loop is turned on but it isn’t doing anything, Why ?

A 4/20mA loop consists of many parts, and any one of the parts can be a problem.
The first step is to check the wiring. Ensure that contact is made and to the correct
terminals. The positive side of the loop devices should be wired toward the
positive side of the power supply, the negative toward the negative.

A digital multimeter is an invaluable tool in troubleshooting a 4/20mA loop.

Measure the voltage on the power supply to ensure that it powers up to the rated
voltage.
Measure the voltage across the transmitter to ensure that the voltage is larger than
the minimum requirement and that the polarity of the voltage is correct as labeled
on the transmitter. A frequent cause of loop failure is due to the transmitter being
wired up backwards.

1048. Which of the following is an undesirable dynamic characteristic of an

instrument ?

Time lag

1049. Which of the following is the triple point of water ?

273k

1050. which is a first order instrument.

Mercury in glass thermometer (without any covering or air gap).

1051. Load cells are used for the measurement of…

weight

1052. dynamic characteristics of an instrument ?

 Fidelity

1053. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means a/an

__________ system.
Unstable

1054. Thermistor, which has high temperature co-efficient of resistivity, is

used as the sensing element in resistance thermometer. It is a/an….
solid semi-conductor

1055. Question 1. What Is Instrumentation?

The technology which is used to measured and control the process system of
plant is called instrumentation. It is branch of engineering.
1056. What Is Reynolds Number?
Ratio of inertial force to viscous force.We know with help of reynolds number
what type of flow in fluid.
1057. Why Do We Use 4-20ma Signal Instead Of 0-10 Ma?
To elevate zero so that we can come to know whether it is dead zero or from
signal.
1058. What Is The Difference Between Dry Leg And Wet Leg?
Dry leg means in lab. And wet leg means in field
1059. How Can We Calibrate A Positioner?
A positioner is a device put into a valve to ensure that it is at a correct position
of opening as per the control signal. An I/P converter only sends the
opening/closing request to valve but can not confirm its position.
Positioner senses the valve opening through a position feedback link
connected to valve stem which is its input signal. I/P converter output is its
setpoint input. The difference between these two is the error signal based on
which the positioner positions the valve to correct position to reduce error to
zero. Hence positioner is nothing but a pneumatic feedback controller.
Controlled external supply air to positioner provides power to positioner to
position a valve. Also positioner is used in a valve when valve operating
signal range is different from I/P converter output range.
1060. Explain What Is The Working Principle Of The Magnetic Meter?
 An electric potential is developed when a conductor is moved across the
magnetic field. In most electrical machinery the conductor is a wire. The
principle is equally applicable to a moving, electrically conductive liquid. The
primary device of commercial magnetic meters consist of straight cylindrical
electrically insulated tube with a pair of electrodes nearly flush with the tube
walls and located at opposite end of a tube diameter. This device is limited to
electrically conducting liquids. The magnetic meter is particularly suited to
measurement of slurries and dirty fluids.
1061. Tell Me The Mechanism Behind The Turbine Meter?
Turbine meters consist of straight flow tube within which a turbine or fan is
free to rotate about it s axis which is fixed along g the centre line of the tube.
Mostly, a magnetic pick up system senses the rotation of the rotor through the
tube walls. The turbine meter is a flow rate device, since the rotor speed is
directly proportional to the flow rate. The output is usually in the form of
electric pulses from the magnetic pick up with a frequency proportional to the
flow rate.
1062. How To Choose Differential Range?
The most common range for differential range for liquid measurement is 0-
100. This range is high enough to minimize the errors caused by unequal heads in
the seal chambers. It is also dependent on the differences in the temperature of
the load lines. The 100 range permits an increased in capacity up to 400. While
decrease down up to 20 by merely changing the range tubes or range adjustments.
1063. What Is The Working Of Rota Meter?
Variable area meters are special form of head meters. Where in the area of
flow restrictor is varied. So as to hold the differential pressure constant. The
rota meter consists of a vertical tapered tube through which the metered fluid
flows in upward direction. As the flow varies the ‘float' rises or falls to vary
the area of the passages that the differential across it balances the gravitational
force on the ‘float'. The differential pressure is maintained constant. The
position of the ‘float' is the measure of the rate of flow.
1064. Explain What Are De-saturators?
When, in some processes, e.g. batch processes, long transient responses are
expected during which a sustained deviation is present the controller integral
action continuously drives the output to a minimum or maximum value. This
phenomenon is called ‘integral saturation of the control unit'. When this
condition is met, then this unit is de-saturated.
1065. Do You Know How Is Automatic Reference Junction
Compensation Carried Out In Temperature Recorders?
In automatic reference junction compensation, variable nickel resistor is used.
As the temperature changes, so does its resistance. This reference junction
 compensator is located, so that it will be at the temperature of the reference
junction. The reference junction is at the poset where the dissimilar wire of
the thermocouple is rejoined. This joint is invariably at the terminal strip of
the instrument.
1066. What Is Solenoid Valve? Where It Is Used?
A solenoid is electrically operated valve. It consists of solenoid coil in which
magnetic plunger moves. This plunger is connected to the plug and tends to
open or close the valve.
There are two types of solenoid valves:
Normally Open
Normally closed
Use: It is used for safety purpose in different electric work
1067. What Is Ratio Control System?
A ratio control system is characterized by the fact that variations in the
secondary variable don't reflect back on the primary variable. A ratio control
system is the system where secondary flow is hold in some proportion to a
primary uncontrollable flow.
If we assume that the output of a primary transmitter is A. and the output of
the secondary transmitter is B, and that the multiplication factor of the ratio
relay is K, then for equilibrium conditions which means set valve is equal to
measured valve.
we find the following relation:
KA-B=0 or B/A = K where ‘K' is the ratio setting off the relay.
1068. How To Test A Transistor With A Multimeter?
1. Emitter +ve of meter and base -ve output =Low resistance
2. Emitter -ve of meter and base +ve output =High resistance
3. Collector +ve and base -ve output =Low
4. Collector -ve and base +ve output =Low
Emitter: Collector = High resistance
PNP: Opposite Results
1069. What Is Motion Balance Principle?
A controller which generates an output signal by motion of its parts. The
increase in the baffle is to move towards the nozzle. The nozzle back pressure
will increase. This increase in the back pressure acting on the balancing
bellows, will expand the bellows. The nozzle is moved upward due to this.
The nozzle will move until motion almost equals the input baffle motion.
1070. What Is Force Balance Principle? State Some Of Its' Advantages?
Force balance principle: A controller which generates an output signal by
opposing torque. The input force is applied on the input bellows which moves
 the beam. This crackles nozzle back pressure. The nozzle back pressure is
sensed by the balancing bellows which brings the beam to balance. The baffle
movement is very less about 0.002 for full scale output.
Advantages:
a. Moving parts are fewer.
b. Baffle movement is negligible
c. Frictional losses are less
1071. What Is Zener Diode? What Is Voltage Regulator?
The breakdown region of a p-n diode can be made very sharp and almost
vertical diodes with almost vertical breakdown region are known a s zener
diodes. A zener diode operating in the breakdown region is equivalent to a
battery. Because of this current through zener diode can change but the
voltage remains constant. It is this constant voltage that has made the zener
diode an important device in voltage regulation.
Voltage regulator: The output remains constant despite changes in the input
voltage due to zener effect.
1072. What Is Intrinsically Safe System?
Intrinsic safety is a technique for designing electrical equipment for safe use
in locations made hazardous by the presence of flammable gas or vapours in
the air.
Intrinsically safe circuit is one in which any spark or thermal effect produce
either normally or under specified fault conditions is incapable of causing
ignition of a specified gas or vapour in air mixture at the most ignited
concentration.
1073. What Is Furnace Draft Control?
Balanced draft boilers are generally used negative furnace pressure. When
both forced draft and induced draft are used together, at some point in the
system the pressure will be same as that of atmosphere. Therefore the furnace
pressure must be negative to prevent hot gas leakage.
Excessive vacuum in the furnace however produces heat losses through air
infiltration. The most desirable condition is that the one have a very slight
negative pressure of the top of furnace.
1074. What Are Different Types Of Control Valves?
The commonly used control valves can be defined as follows:
a. Depending on Action:
Depending on action there are two types of control valves 1. Air to close 2.
Air to close
b. Depending on body:
Depending on body there are 4 types of control valves
1. Globe valves single or double seated
2. Angle valves
3. Butterfly valves
4. Three way valves
1075. Name Different Types Of Bourdon Tubes?
Types of bourdon tubes:
1. C type
2. Spiral
3. Helix
1076. What Are Primary Elements Of Measuring Pressure? Which Type
Of Pressure Can Be Measured By These Elements?
Primary elements of measuring pressure are:
a. Bourdon Tube
b. Diaphragm
c. Capsule
d. Bellows
e. Pressure springs
These elements are known as elastic deformation pressure elements.
1077. What Is The Use Of Valve Positioner?
Valve positioner can be used for following reasons:
a. Quick action
b. Valve hysterisis
c. Viscous liquids
d. Split range.
e. Line pressure changes on valve
f. Bench set not standard
g. Reverse valve operations
1078. What Is The Use Of Double Seated Valve?
In double seated valves the upward and downward forces on the plug due to
reduction of fluid pressure are nearly equalized. It is generally used on bigger
size valves and high pressure systems. Actuator forces required are less.
1079. What Is The Use Of Single Seated Valve?
The single seated valve is used on smaller sizes where an absolute shut off is
required. The use of single seated valve is limited by pressure drop across the
valve in the closed or almost closed position.
1080. Name Different Parts Of A Pressure Gauge? Explain The Use Of
Hair Spring In The Pressure Gauge?
Pressure gauge includes following components:
a. ‘C' type bourdon tube.
b. Connecting link
 c. Sector gear
d. Pinion Gear
e. Hair spring
f. Pointer
g. Dial
Use of hair spring: Hair spring is responsible for controlling torque. It is also
used to eliminate any play into linkages.
1081. Tell Me How Is Flow Measured In Square Root?
Flow varies directly as the square root of pressure. Thus, F=K of square root
of applied pressure. Since this flow varies as the square root of differential
pressure.
The pressure pen does not directly indicate flow. Thus flow can be determined
by taking the square root of the pen. Assume the pen reads 50% of the chart.
So, flow can be calculated using the pen measure in the chart.
1082. Explain How Can A D.p. Transmitter Be Calibrated?
D.P. transmitter can be calibrated using following steps:
1. Adjust zero of Xmtrs.
2. Perform static pressure test: Give equal pressure on both sides of
transmitter. Zero should not shift either side. If the zero shifts then
carry out static alignment.
3. Perform vacuum test: Apply equal vacuum to both the sides. Zero
should not shift.
4. Calibration procedure: Give 20 psi air supply to the transmitter and
vent L.P. side to atmosphere. Connect output of the instrument to the
standard test gauge. Adjust zero. Apply required pressure to the high
pressure side and adjust the span. Adjust zero gain if necessary.

1083. What Is Bernoulli's Theorem. State Its Application?

Bernoulli's theorem states that the ‘total energy of a liquid flowing from one
point to another remains constant'. It is applicable for non-compressible
liquids. For different types of liquid flow Bernoulli's equation changes. There
is direct proportion between speed of fluid and its dynamic pressure and its
kinetic energy.
It can be used in various real life situations like measuring pressure on aircraft
wing and calibrating the airspeed indicator. It can also be used to low pressure
in the venturi tubes present in carburetor.
1084. Explain Why Is The Orifice Tab Provided?
Following reasons justify for providing orifice tab:
1. Indication of orifice plate in a line
2. The orifice diameter is marked on it.
 3. The material of the orifice plate.
4. The tag number of the orifice plate.
5. To mark the inlet of an orifice.
1085. Do You Know How Do You Identify An Orifice In The Pipeline?
An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends out of the line
giving an indication of the orifice plate.

1086. Explain What Are Different Types Of Orifice Plates? State Their
Uses?
Different orifice plates are:
1. Concentric
2. Segmental
3. Eccentric
Concentric: These plates are used for ideal liquid as well as gases and steam
service. Concentric holes are present in these plates, thats why it is known as
concentric orifice.
Segmental: This plate has hole in the form of segment of the circle. This plate
is used for colloidal and sherry flow measurement.
Eccentric: This plate has the eccentric holes. This plate is used in viscous and
sherry flow measurement.
1087. Why Thermo Wells Are Used? What Materials Are Used In
Thermo Wells?
In numerous applications, it is neither desirable nor practical to expose a
temperature sensor directly to a material. Wells are therefore used to protect
against damage corresion, arosion, aborsion and high pressure processes. A
thermo well is also useful in protecting a sensor from physical damage during
handling and normal operations.
Materials used in thermo wells: Stainless steel, Inconel, Monel, Alloy Steel,
Hastelloy
1088. Can You Explain The Burnout Feature?
Burnout provides the warnsug feature of driving indicator at the end of scale,
if the input circuit is open. A burnout resistor is provided which develops a
voltage drop between the measuring circuit and amplifier. The polarity of the
signal determines the direction of the servo drive upon an open circuit in the
input.
Upscale burnout: R value 10 M
Downscale burnout: R value 22 M
1089. What Is Constant Voltage Unit?
The constant voltage circuit consists of a rectifier, CR and a filter capacitor. It
is followed by two stages of zener regulation. Abridge configuration is
 provided to lamp line voltage zener regulation. Regulation 1 and regulation 2
provides relatively provide constant current. Resistors form a bridge that may
remoment line voltage effects.
1090. Tell Me The Working Of An Enraf Level Gauge?
Enraf level gauge is based on the ser powered null balance technique. A
displacer serves as continuous level sensing element. A two phase ser motor
controlled by a capacitive balance system winds unwinds the the measuring
wire until the tension in the weight springs is in balance with the weight of the
displaced part immersed in the liquid. The sensing system in balance
measures the two capacitance formed by the moving central sensing rod
provided by the two capacitor plates and the si plates.
1091. Do You Know The Working Of An Electronic Level Troll?
The variation in level of buoyancy resulting from a change in liquid level
varies the net weight of the displacer increasing or decreasing the load on the
torque arm. This change is directly proportional to change in level and
specific gravity of the liquid. The resulting torque tube movement varies the
angular motion of the rotor in RVDT providing a rotor change proportional to
the rotor displacement, which is converted and amplified to a D.C. current.
1092. Explain How D.p. Transmitter Can Be Applied To Open Tank?
In open tank the lower pressure side is vented to the atmosphere. All pressure
is applied to the high pressure side. This vessel pressure is measured through
high pressure side.
1093. Do You Know How D.p. Transmitter Can Be Applied To Close
Tank?
In closed tank, bottom of the tank is connected to the high pressure side of the
transmitter. Top of tank is connected to the lower pressure side of the
transmitter. In this way vessel pressure can be measured.
1094. What Is The Function Of 3-way Manifold Valve?
excessive pressure to your differential pressure transmitter, you could damage
your instrument. This is known as over-ranging the transmitter.
A three-way manifold valve is a device that prevents the instrument from
being over-ranged. It also allows the isolation of the transmitter from the
process loop (an option which could be used generaly for maintenance or re-
calibration or fitting new equipment).
1095. Why We Giving Input To Electronic Amplifier In Inverting Pin?
What Is The Reason Behind That?
if we need a phase shift than we give input n inverting pin or when we need to
boost signal at higher level, i.e; using cascade stages of amplification(even)
than we also use inverting pin.
1096. What Is Instrumentation Instrumentation Engineering?
Instrumentation engineering is the engineering specialization focused on the
principle and operation of measuring instruments which are used in design
and configuration of automated systems in electrical, pneumatic domains etc.
They typically work for industries with automated processes, such as
chemical or manufacturing plants, with the goal of improving system
productivity, reliability, safety, optimization and stability.
1097. What Is Instrumentation Control?
In addition to measuring field parameters, instrumentation is also responsible
for providing the ability to modify some field parameters.
Some examples include:
Device Field Parameter(s) Valve Flow, Pressure Relay Voltage, Current
Solenoid Physical Location, Level Circuit breaker Voltage, Current.
1098. What Is Instrumentation Measurement?
Instrumentation can be used to measure certain field parameters
(physical values):
These measured values include:
 pressure, either differential or static
* flow
* temperature -
Temperature_measurement
* level - Level Measurement
* density
* viscosity
* radiation
* current
* voltage
* inductance
* capacitance
* frequency
* resistivity
* conductivity
* chemical composition
* chemical properties
* various physical properties
1099. Can We Use A Control Valve Without Positioner?
Control valve can not be without positioner. The purpose of the positioner is
to control the control valve stroke so as to keep the valve in desired position.
The positioner receives signal from the controller, and send the boosted signal
to the actuator to reach the desired position as and when the valve reaches the
 desired position the positioner cuts the boosted signal to the actuator and
keeps the position.
1100. Why 4-20 Ma Signal Is Preferred Over A 0-10v Signal?
Generally in a transistor some amount of voltage is required for turning it on.
This voltage is the cut in voltage. Up to this voltage the exists a nonlinearity
in its characteristics. Beyond this cut in voltage the char. of transistor is linear.
This nonlinear region lays between 0-4ma, beyond 4ma it linear. This is why
4-20 ma range is used.
1101. What Is Remote Mount With Mta Option? (in Case Of Dual
Sensor Vortex Flowmeter, Rosemount Has Written In Its Catalog
Drawings)?

Remote mount with MTA means MTA connector for mounting remote
connection.
MTA is the Connector used for connection. Generally we called it MTA
Connector.
There are many types of MTA connector such as MTA 100connectors, Mta
156 connectors etc.
1102. How To Write The Program For Single Push Button By Using
Ladder Diagram?
i. 1.Create a Push button
2. Connect a Counter series to PB
3. Create a compare button
4. Initialize 1 at one end
5. Counter output in another
6. Connect the Coil which has to be energized
7. Initialize 2 at one end
8. Counter output in another
9. Connect the Coil which has to be reenergized.

1103. What is accuracy?

a. It is a measure of the degree of closeness of a measured value to its
actual value.

1104. Strongest paramagnetic gas?

Oxygen

1105. Radiation pyrometer is working on…

Stefan Boltzman law
1106. What are the instruments used to measure temperature?

Thermometer, Thermocouple, Resistance temperature detector (RTD), Optical

pyrometer, Bi-metallic temperature indicator.

1107. Which instrument converts heat energy into electrical energy? why?

Thermocouple

RTD and Thermistor convert the change in resistance to electrical energy, of

course, the change in resistance occurs when these devices are subjected to
heat. While thermocouple directly converts heat energy to electrical energy.

1108. What is the name of the cable used to connect a thermocouple to a measuring
instrument?

Compensating cable

1109. What is ambient temperature?

The temperature of the environment where the measuring devices and

computers are kept. Ambient temperature is considered while measuring
temperature.

1110. What is the main difference between RTD and Thermister ?

RTD have positive temperature coefficient & Thermister have negative

temperature coefficient

1111. What is mean by +ve and -ve temperature coefficient ?

For + ve temperature coefficient, when the temperature increases the

resistance of the element used for sensing increases.

For - ve temperature coefficient, when the temperature increases the

resistance of the element used for sensing decreases.
 1112. What is Pt100?

Platinum 100 which is commonly used in RTDs.

At 0degree celsius temperature platinum gives 100ohm resistance, that’s it got
name PT100.

1113. Write the Fahrenheit to Centigrade temperature conversion formula?

Deg C = ( Deg F – 32 ) / 1.8

1114. What are Cold junction and Hot junction in a thermocouple?

Cold junction is the reference junction always kept at 0degree Celsius

temperature, to avoid the effect of ambient temperature (room temperature).
Hot junction is exposed to varying heat for which the temperature
measurement should take. Where the dissimilar metals are joined.

1115. How to identify an RTD and a thermocouple?

Connect a multimeter in resistance mode to the transmitter. If there is reading in

ohms then it is RTD otherwise, it is a thermocouple. Always thermocouple shows
mV reading and RTD gives ohms reading.

1116. Define thermocouple?

The thermocouple is a junction of two material used to convert heat into

electrical energy.When a pair of wires made up ofdifferent metals is joined
at one end and a temperature difference produce a voltage proportional to
the voltage.

1117. How the output voltage is measured the thermocouple?

PMMC instrument

1118. What is the nature of EMF induced in thermocouple?

DC in nature & in few MV.

 1119. Define Skin effect?
The skin effect is refers to the condition where at high frequency the current is
forced to pass through outer surface of conductors as inductance & reactance of
inner part is larger than that of outer part

1120. What are advantages of themocouple?

it has rugged construction

temperature range is -270C to -2700C,

it is cheaper.

good reproducibility.

1121. What are the materials used for thermocouple?

The elements used are: Constantan, alloy of Nickel (Ni) – Copper (Cu) Chromel,
alloy of Nickel (Ni) alloy of Nickel (Ni) and Aluminum (Al) Magnesium (Mg),
base element Platinum (Pt), base element .

1122. Who invented thermocouple?

The basis of thermocouples was established by Thomas Johann Seebeck in

1821.

1123. What is cold junction compensation ?

Cold, or reference junction, is the end of a thermocouple that provides a

reference point. Thermocouples measure the difference in temperature
between two junctions. They do NOT measure actual temperature.
Thermocouple millivolt tables and mathematical formulas are based on a cold
junction temperature of 0°C. To determine actual temperature, the
instrumentation must “adjust” for the difference between ambient
temperature and 0°C. This adjustment is known as cold junction compensation.
1124. The working principle of thermocouple is based on three
effects, Which are they ?

Seebeck, Peltier and Thomson.

1125. What is Seebeck effect ?

The Seebeck effect states that when two different or unlike metals are joined
together at two junctions, an electromotive force (emf) is generated at the two
junctions. The amount of emf generated is different for different combinations
of the metals.

1126. What is Peltier effect ?

As per the Peltier effect, when two dissimilar metals are joined together to form
two junctions, emf is generated within the circuit due to the different
temperatures of the two junctions of the circuit.

1127. What is Thompson's effect ?

As per the Thomson effect, when two unlike metals are joined together
forming two junctions, the potential exists within the circuit due to
temperature gradient along the entire length of the conductors within the
circuit.

1128. What are the types of filled in system thermometers

Gas filled thermometer‚

Liquid filled thermometer‚

Mercury filled thermometer and

Vapour pressure thermometer.

 1129. What are the sources of error in filled in systems

Ambient temperature error‚

Head or elevation error‚

Immersion error‚

Barometric error and

Radiation error

1130. State the principle of bimetallic thermometers

All metals expand or contract with change in temperature. The temperature

coefficient of expansion is not same for all metals and therefore their rates of
expansion or contraction are different.

1131. State the principle of RTD

When RTD is subjected to temperature changes its resistance will change. This
change in resistance becomes a measure of temperature.

1132. State the application of RTD

Measurement of temperature‚ Temperature control processes‚ T

emperature compensation etc.

1133. What are the materials used in thermistors?

Materials are manganese, nickel, cobalt, copper, iron and uranium

1134. What
are the three electrical methods of temperature measurements?

Thermistors‚RTD and Thermocouple.

 1135. Explain about Immersion effect
If the bulb is not properly immersed or fully immersed and the head is not properly
insulated, heat from the bulb is lost due to conduction. This causes the immersion
error.

1136. Explain about Radiation effect.

Radiation errors occur due to temperature difference between the bulb and other
solid bodies around.

1137. State the advantages and disadvantages of filled system

thermometers
Advantages:
Simple construction‚ requires low maintenance‚ no need for electrical power and
low cost

Disadvantages:
Need a large bulb for accuracy and sensitivity is much lower

1138. What is the relation between Kelvin and centigrade?

Deg K = Deg C +273.15

1139. Define boiling point ?

Boiling point is the temperature at which the substance changes from physical
state and becomes a gas.
1140. Define freezing point ?
Freezing point is the temperature at which the substance changes from physical
state and becomes a solid.
1141. Define triple point ?
At a particular temperature and pressure at which three different phases of one
substance can exist in equilibrium is known as triple point.
1142. What are the difference between RTD and Thermistors
RTD : When RTD is subjected to temperature change its resistance increases and it
can be measured usingbridge circuit. This change in resistance becomes a measure
of temperature.
Thermistors : When thermistors are subjected to temperature change its resistance
decreases and it can be measured using bridge circuit. This change in resistance
becomes a measure of temperature.

1143. Mention the merits of thermistors

Compact and inexpensive and good stability

1144. Mention the application of thermistors.

Measurement of power at High frequency‚ measurement of thermal conductivity‚
measurement of temperature.

1145. Explain about Elevation effect & barometric effect

If the thermometer bulb is placed at a different height compared to bourdon tube
elevation error occurs.

The effect due to the change in atmospheric pressure is called as barometric effect.

1146. What are the various types of Thermocouple junctions?

Reference junction (or) cold junction (or) standard junction and hot junction (or)
measuring junction (or) desired temperature junction.

1147. What is Thermopile?

A series of identical thermocouple connected together in a casing is
called thermopile. Used for measuring average temperature.

1148. Define law of homogeneous circuit?

An emf will not be induced in a circuit with a system consisting of homogeneous
metal.
 1149. Define law of intermediate metals?

The net emf in the circuit remains unaltered if a third metal is introduced, provided
the junctions formed by the third metal is at same temperature.

1150. Define law of intermediate temperature.

The emf generated at the junction temperature T1& T3 is equal to the algebraic
sum of emf generated at the junction in T1-T2 and T2-T3, where T2 lies between T1
& T2.

1151. Give few types of Thermocouple with composition and temperature

range

J-type : Iron and Constantan : -200 to 1000

K type : Chromel- Alumel : -2000 to 1200
T type : Copper- Constantan : -200 to 350
1152. What are the compensating techniques used in Thermocouple?

 Lead compensation.

 Reference junction compensation (ice bath compensation).

 Isothermal block compensation.

1153. Give some merits and demerits of Thermocouple.

Merits: Wide temperature range, Inexpensive, Good reproducibility

Demerits: Nonlinear response, Need compensating Circuits
1154. What are the sources of error in Thermocouple?

 Junction formed by Faulty soldering technique.

 Thermocouple may be used outside their applicable range.

  Faulty reference junction compensation may be employed.

 Installation faults.

 Usage of wrong type of thermocouple.

1155. What are radiation methods of temperature measurement?

 Total radiation method and

 selective or partial radiation method

1156. Define Pyrometer.

Technique for measuring temperature without contact. It depends on the re

lation between temperature of heat body and electromagnetic radiation emitted
by the black body.
1157. Give some application of Pyrometer?

Radiation pyrometer, Optical pyrometer, Selective / partial pyrometer, Two color

pyrometer.

1158. What are factors that affect the response of Thermocouple?

Size or thickness of the thermocouple wires Sheath material, protection tube and
thermowell, Position /location of the thermocouple with respect to process.
1159. What is principle used in Optical Pyrometer.

Within the visible region a given wavelength has a fixed color and the energy of
radiation is interpreted as intensity or brightness.
Hence the brightness of the light of given color emitted by hot source, indicates
the value of temperature.
1160. Why protective sheath is used in Thermocouple.
Protecting the thermocouple metals from contamination and rusting. Preventing
against oxidizing, sulphating and in molten baths. To with stand thermal and
mechanical shocks.
1161. Demerits of Optical Pyrometer

Disadvantages:
1. It is based on an observer judging 2 colors to be same.

2. It requires direct line of sight to the object (or furnace) which the
temperature is to be measured.

1162. State different types of Thermocouple Junction ?

Grounded Thermocouples , Ungrounded Thermocouples (Or Ungrounded

Common Thermocouples) , Exposed Thermocouples (or “bare wire
thermocouples”) , Ungrounded Uncommon.

1163. What are Grounded Thermocouples ?

This is the most common junction style. A thermocouple is grounded when
both thermocouple wires and the sheath are all welded together to form one
junction at the probe tip. Grounded thermocouples have a very good response
time because the thermocouple is making direct contact with the sheath,
allowing heat to transfer easily. A drawback of the grounded thermocouple is
that the thermocouple is more susceptible to electrical interference. This is
because the sheath often comes into contact with the surrounding area,
providing a path for interference.

1164. What are Ungrounded Thermocouples?

 A thermocouple is ungrounded when the thermocouple wires are welded
together but they are insulated from the sheath. The wires are often separated
by mineral insulation.

1165. What are Exposed Thermocouples?

A thermocouple is exposed when the thermocouple wires are welded together
and directly inserted into the process. The response time is very quick, but
exposed thermocouple wires are more prone to corrosion and degradation.
Unless your application requires exposed junctions, this style is not
recommended.

1166. What are Ungrounded Uncommon?

An ungrounded uncommon thermocouple consists of a dual thermocouple that is

insulated from the sheath and each of the elements are insulated from one other.
1167. What Is M.i. Cable?

M.I. (Mineral Insulated) cable is used to insulate thermocouple wires from one
another and from the metal sheath that surrounds them. MI Cable has two (or
four when duplex) thermocouple wires running down the middle of the tube. The
tube is then filled with magnesium oxide powder and compacted to ensure the
wires are properly insulated and separated. MI cable helps to protect the
thermocouple wire from corrosion and electrical interference.
1168. State different types of Thermocouple Sheaths?

316SS (stainless steel), 304SS, Inconel (registered trademark) 600.

1169. Explain 316SS ?
This is the most common sheath material. It is relatively corrosion resistant
and is cost effective.
1170. Explain 304SS ?
This sheath is not as corrosion resistant as 316SS. The cost difference between
316SS and 304SS is nominal.
1171. Explain Inconel 400 ?
 This material is recommended for highly corrosive environments.

1172. What Do Thermocouple Wire Colors Indicate?

A thermocouple can be identified by the color of its wire insulation. For

example, in the United States a type J thermocouple grade wire has one red
wire and one white wire, typically with a brown over jacket. A type J extension
grade wire also has one red wire and one white wire, but it has a black over
jacket. As a general rule the red wire of a thermocouple or extension wire is
negative and the positive wire is color coded according to the type of
thermocouple. Different countries use different color codes.
1173. What Is The Difference Between Thermocouple Wire Cable And Extension
Grade Wire?

Thermocouple grade wire is used to manufacture thermocouple probes.

Thermocouple grade wire is normally used for the junction and inside the stem
sheath. This is because the thermocouple grade wire has a better accuracy
specification than extension grade wire.
Extension grade wire is a less expensive, lower grade wire. It is used to extend
the signal from the thermocouple probe to the control system or digital
display. Extension grade wire is more economical due to a lesser grade metal
being used. Extension grade wire should not be used in the process itself and
should not see the temperature extremes & temperature cycling as standard
grade wire.
1174. What Is Cjc?

A thermocouple measurement always needs information from joined wire end

(hot junction) and open wire end (cold junction). The cold junction is also
called reference point. Variations of reference point temperature are
compensated with CJC measuring (Cold Junction Compensation). Temperature
transmitters CJC measuring can be an internal function or a measuring resistor
integrated in connectors. If the reference point is far away from the
transmitter, a separate temperature measuring of that point has to be
implemented and wired to transmitter as compensation signal.

1175. What Is Compensating Cable ?

Compensating cable is a thermocouple measuring circuit cable, which is
identified by the letter C (e.g. for type K cable KC). Wires of the compensating
cable have the same electrical features, but not the same materials, as the
thermo wires of the TC sensor. Compensating cable is a more cost effective
solution than extension cable, but the maximum ambient temperature
allowed is lower, approximately 100…200 °C depending on the insulation
material.

1176. What Is Extension Cable?

Extension cable is a thermocouple cable which is identified by the letter X

(e.g. for type K cable KX). Wires of the extension cable are of exactly the
same materials as the thermo wires of the TC sensor. These cables can
achieve even the same ambient temperatures as the thermocouple can.

1177. What Is Trace Heating / Sensor?

Trace heating is a term usually used for keeping pipelines and attached devices
unfrozen. The important function of trace heating is maintaining stable
temperature and flow rate of the materials flowing through the pipeline. The
most common implementation of trace heating is electrical, which offers good
adjustability. However, for accurate process control and adjustment also
precise temperature data is needed. For these applications we have designed
our high quality trace heating sensors, which already have been available for
years, also for Ex applications.

1178. What is Pyrometer ?

A Pyrometer is a non-contacting device that intercepts and measures thermal

radiations. Without making any contact with the radiating body and the
process is known as pyrometry. This device is useful for determining the
temperature of an object’s surface.

1179. Explain working of Pyrometer ?

 o An optical system gathers the visible and infrared energy from an object
and focuses it to the detector.
o The detector receives the photon energy from the optical system and
converts it to an electric signal to drive a temperature display or control
unit.
1180. What is Thermowell ?
Thermowells provide protection for temperature probes against unfavorable
operating conditions such as corrosive media, physical impact (e.g. clinker in
furnaces) and high pressure gas or liquid. Their use also permits quick and
easy probe interchanging without the need to “open-up” the process.

1181. What are main application of Thermowell ?

Protection tube are used in thermocouples
Insures integrity in high pressure applications
Smaller wells are used in low pressure applications
Straight wells are used in corrosive and erosive environment
For applications where a quick response to changes in temperature is required,
fabricated pockets may be fitted with a reduced tip.
One-piece Thermowells are suited to the highest process loads, depending on
their design. Thus in the petrochemical industry, one-piece thermocouples are
now used almost exclusively.

1182. What Are The Principal Factors That Affect The Life Of A Thermocouple?
Temperature: Thermocouple life decreases by about 50% when an increase of
50 °C occurs.
Diameter: By doubling the diameter of the wire, the life increases by 2-3 times.
Thermic cycling: When thermocouples are exposed to thermic cycling from room
temperature to above 500°C, their life decreases by about 50% compared to a
thermocouple used continuously at the same temperature.
Protection: When thermocouples are covered by a protective sheath and placed
into ceramic insulators, their life is considerably extended.

1183. How To Choose A Thermocouple ?

The following criteria are used in selecting a thermocouple:

a. Temperature range
 b. Chemical resistance of the thermocouple or sheath material
c. Abrasion and vibration resistance
d. Installation requirements (may need to be compatible with existing
equipment; existing holes may determine probe diameter).

1184. What Is The Response Time Of A Thermocouple?

A time constant has been defined as the time required by a sensor to reach
63.2% of a step change in temperature under a specified set of conditions.
Five time constants are required for the sensor to approach 100% of the step
change value. An exposed junction thermocouple offers the fastest response.
Also, the smaller the probe sheath diameter, the faster the response, but the
maximum temperature may be lower. Be aware, however, that sometimes
the probe sheath cannot withstand the full temperature range of the
thermocouple type.

1185. Define RTD?

A resistance-temperature detector (RTD) is a temperature sensing device whose
resistance increases with temperature.
Compared to other temperature devices, the output of an RTD is relatively linear
with respect to temperature.

1186. What are major material used for RTD?

Platinum , Nickel, or Copper.

1187. Why gold & silver are not used for RTD?
Because of low sensitivity.

1188. What is resistance temperature coefficient ?

0.39/c. for Pt & copper

1189. The material with high or low resistivity should be used for RTD ?
High value of resistivity.

1190. Explain method of measurement of temperature?

The method for calculating the resistance of an RTD is to place the device in a
Wheatstone bridge that is excited by a known voltage.
A Wheatstone bridge consists of four individual resistors. If the RTD is the only
unknown resistance in the bridge, the voltage measured from the bridge, the
excitation voltage, and the values of the three other resistors is used to determine
the resistance of the RTD.
This Wheatstone bridge configuration is known as a quarter-bridge configuration
because the RTD is the only variable resistance and the resistances of the other
three resistors is constant.

1191. What are features of RTD?

RTDs are popular because of their excellent stability, and exhibit the most linear
signal with respect to temperature of any electronic temperature sensor.
They are generally more expensive than alternatives, however, because of the
careful construction and use of platinum.
RTDs are also characterized by a slow response time and low sensitivity; and
because they require current excitation, they can be prone to self-heating.

1192. What are effect of temperature on RTD?

RTDs are commonly categorized by their nominal resistance at 0 °C. Typical
nominal resistance values for platinum thin-film RTDs include 100 Ω and 1000
Ω.
The relationship between resistance and temperature is very nearly linear
and follows the equation
For <0 °C ,
RT = R0 [ 1 + aT + bT2 +cT3 (T – 100) ]
For >0 °C,
RT = R0 [ 1 + aT + bT2 ]

1193. Why RTD are popular?

RTDs are popular because of their excellent stability, and exhibit the most
linear signal with respect to temperature of any electronic temperature
sensor.

1194. List advantages of RTD?

 1.Most stable
2.Most accurate
3.More linear than thermocouple

1195. List disadvantages of RTD?

1.Expensive
2.Current source required
3.Low absolute resistance
4.self heating

1196. Define thermistor.

An electrical resistor whose resistance is greatly reduced by heating, used for
measurement and control.

1197. What are the materials used for construction of Thermisters?

Sintered mixture of metallic oxide such as mangnese, nickel, cobalt, iron &
uranium.

1198. The temperature coefficient of material should be high or low?

The negative temperature should be large.

1199. On what factors is depends?

Types of materials used and temperature.

1200. The characteristics of thermistor in linear or non-linear?

Non-linear.

1201. List Advantages of Thermocouple

1.Self powered
2.Simple
3.Rugged
4.Inexpensive
5.Wide variety
6.Wide temperature range

1202. List Disadvantages of Thermocouple

1.Non-Linear
2.Low voltage
3.Reference required
4.Least stable
5.Least sensitive
1203. List Advantages of thermistor
1.High output
2.Two-wire resistant measurement

1204. List Disadvantages of thermistor

1.Non linear
2.Limited temperature range
3.Fragile
4.Current source required
5.Self heating

1205. What is the temperature range for thermistor?

The temperature range is -90C to 130C.

1206. What are two types of thermistor?

Thermistors can be classified into two types, depending on the sign of k.
If k is positive, the resistance increases with increasing temperature, and the
device is called a positive temperature coefficient (PTC) thermistor, or
posistor.
If k is negative, the resistance decreases with increasing temperature, and
the device is called a negative temperature coefficient (NTC) thermistor.
 1207. What does the name Pt100 stand for?
Pt100 is a resistance temperature detector, made of material Platinum (=
Pt_) and its resistance value at 0 °C temperature is 100 ohm (=_100). Hence
the name is Pt100.

1208. What means 2-, 3- and 4-wire connection?

A resistance temperature detector (RTD) can be connected with 2, 3 or 4
wires.
The 2-wire connection needs only 2 wires, but then the measuring
electronics is measuring also wire resistance, which is not desirable.
Using extra wires for compensating the cable resistance gives more precisely
the desired resistance of the RTD itself. The 4-wire connection is the most
accurate one.

1209. Why is compensation required in RTD ?

As RTD is a resistor, the ohm meter or the resistance measuring devices are
connected parallel to the lead wires of the RTD. The lead wire resistance adds to
the RTD resistance as the wires got resistance and this combined resistance will
be shown as the RTD resistance incorrectly. So that lead compensation
techniques are used in RTD connections.

1210. Are any configurations interchangeable?

4-lead RTDs can generally be used as 3-lead RTDs by eliminating (or tying off)
one of the leads
4-lead RTDs can be used as 2-lead RTDs, by combining (shorting) the common
leads (usually of like color – white/white and red/red)
combining the common leads eliminates leadwire resistance cancellation
benefits
3-lead RTDs can be used as 2-lead RTDs, by combining (shorting) the common
leads combining the common leads eliminates leadwire resistance cancellation
benefits.
1211. What is Stefan-Boltzmann Law ?
The Stefan-Boltzmann Law of radiated energy quantifies this fact, declaring that
the rate of heat lost by radiant emission from a hot object is proportional to the
fourth power of the absolute temperature:

Where,
dQ/dt = Radiant heat loss rate (watts)
e = Emissivity factor (unitless)
σ = Stefan-Boltzmann constant (5.67 × 10−8 W/m2·K4)
A = Surface area (square meters)
T = Absolute temperature (Kelvin)

1212. List advantage of non-contact thermometry ?

The primary advantage of non-contact thermometry (or pyrometry as high-
temperature measurement is often referred) is rather obvious: with no need
to place a sensor in direct contact with the process, a wide variety of
temperature measurements may be made that are either impractical or
impossible to make using any other technology.

1213. List disadvantage of non-contact thermometry ?

A major disadvantage of non-contact thermometry is that it only reveals the
surface temperature of an object. Sensing the thermal radiation emanated
from a pipe, for instance, only tells you the surface temperature of that pipe
and not the true temperature of the fluid within the pipe.

1214. What is Temperature Switch ?

Temperature switches are mechanisms used to measure or sense the
variation of temperature. The temperature change causes the mechanism to
change something in it and which converted to another form, at the other
end and triggers any other mechanism.

1215. State types of temperature switch available ?

There are two types of temperature switches:
 Bimetallic thermometer and
 Liquid expansion thermometer

1216. Explain Bimetallic thermometer

The bimetallic thermometer is constructed by bonding two dissimilar metal

strip with equal size and unequal temperature coefficient. One end of the
metal combo is kept at a fixed end and other free, on heating one metal will
expand faster than the other end. As a result, the metal combo bends. This
bending effect is used to trigger switching device.The bending can be used to
move the pointer of gauges, to do this the bimetallic strip should be fabricated
into coils.

1217. Advantages of Bimetallic thermometer?

Cost efficient , Compact size

1218. Disadvantages of Bimetallic thermometer?

Susceptible to shocks and vibrations

Low accuracy

Not capable enough to handle high temperature

Their performance gets affected by ambient temperature changes.

1219. Explain Liquid expansion thermometer ?

This is a filled bulb system, system filled with fluid. The largest volume of the
fluid is kept at the bulb of the thermometer which has the highest sensitivity.
 The enclosed fluid expands when the bulb is heated and the expansion is
converted mechanical force using secondary transducers such as bellows,
bourdon tube etc.

1220. Advantages of Liquid expansion thermometer ?

Compact size and less cost

More accurate than bimetallic.

Wide temperature

1221. Disadvantages of Liquid expansion thermometer?

Resistant to shock and temperature
Their results get affected by ambient temperature.
High response time
Leakage can occur

1222. Give some application of Pyrometer?

Radiation pyrometer, Optical pyrometer, Selective / partial pyrometer, Two color
pyrometer

1223. What is principle used in Optical Pyrometer.

Within the visible region a given wavelength has a fixed color and the energy of
radiation is interpreted as intensity or brightness.

Hence the brightness of the light of given color emitted by hot source, indicates
the value of temperature.

1224. Why protective sheath is used in Thermocouple.

Protecting the thermocouple metals from contamination and rusting. Preventing

against oxidizing, sulphating and in molten baths. To with stand thermal and
mechanical shocks.
 1225. Demerits of Optical Pyrometer

Disadvantages:

1) It is based on an observer judging 2 colors to be same.

2) It requires direct line of sight to the object (or furnace) which the
temperature is to be measured

1226. Output of a bimetallic element will be _________

Bimetallic element is used for measuring temperature, it produces

proportional output displacement for input temperature.

1227. IPTS stands for ________________

PTS is the short form of name International Standard Temperature Scale.

1228. In liquid in steel bulb thermometer, which liquid can be used for
measuring temperature up to 60000C?

Mercury as a liquid provides temperature range of -4000C to 65000C.

1229. When bimetallic thermometer heated, curling occurs to the side

of metal with least temperature coefficients.
A bimetallic type thermometer, when heated curls to the side of metal with
least temperature coefficient. Number of curls will be proportional to
temperature applied.

1230. Analogous quantities of heat flow and temperature in electrical

are ________and _________

Heat flow in thermal system is analogous to current flow in electrical, and

temperature between two points is analogous to potential between two
points in electrical.
 1231. Ratio of net amount of heat received and stored in the body for
certain time interval is known as _______________
Thermal storage capacity denoted by C is the ratio of Net amount of heat
received and stored in the body.

1232. Heat transfer coefficient of a material with length l is _________

Heat transfer coefficient of a material is the ratio of K and l, where K is the
thermal conductivity of material and l is the length of heat transfer path.
1233. Why use welding to create a thermocouple sensor?
Welding produces a mechanical and electrical connection that creates a solid
sensor starting point of zero electrical potential difference and zero temperature
difference between the two thermocouple sensor wires.

1234. How is the temperature difference measured via a thermocouple

sensor?
A temperature gradient along the wire will produce a voltage gradient
proportional to the temperature difference between the hot and cold ends of
the wires.

1235. How is the temperature difference related to the voltage

difference measured at the open end of a thermocouple sensor?
At the open end of a thermocouple wire pair, the voltage difference present
between open ends will be proportional to the temperature difference
between the shorted ends and the open ends of the sensor pair and the
particular alloys in the thermocouple wires.

1236. Why is a small welded bead used to connect the thermocouple

wires ?

If the welded bead is sized so that it is isothermal (no temperature gradient),

there is no voltage contribution by the beaded junction, and its chemical
make-up is irrelevant to the thermocouple voltage generated. Thin wires and
small welded beads also produce a quick response.
 1237. How is temperature range calculated using a thermocouple
sensor?
The nonlinear relationship of sensor volts produced per degree temperature
shift along the sensor wire pair is temperature range dependent, so tables or
algorithms are used to produce accurate results for corresponding temperature
range differences for each wire pair type.

1238. What factors are considered when choosing the materials for a
thermocouple sensor?
Standard pair alloy wire and insulating materials are chosen to match the
measured temperature range, maximum temperature and environmental
conditions expected. Time response and durability affect the choice of wire size.
Some materials will melt at high temperatures and some insulating materials are
not waterproof. Tables and algorithms are available for calculating temperature
differences for standard alloy pairs.

1239. What are the benefits of having my own thermocouple welding

capability?
Having your own thermocouple welding capability saves time, costs, offers
convenient sensor availability, and significantly enhances the users scheduling
and testing flexibility

1240. What are the chief advantages of using capacitive welders for
creating thermocouple junctions?

The small size, minimal power requirements, low cost, ease of operation and
low maintenance of capacitive discharge thermocouple sensor welder units
free the user from the delays, inflexibility and costs associated with other
methods for procuring thermocouples sensors.

1241. How long does it take to create a thermocouple weld?

 A thermocouple weld can be made in just a few seconds. The DCC
thermocouple welders can be recharged in less than 10 seconds, and are then
ready to create the next weld. 10. Why are capacitive discharge welders
popular? Capacitive discharge welders offer time saving and portability
advantages, and minimal operator training requirements, compared to other
welder types.

What is a hazardous area?

A hazardous area classification is one in which concentrations of flammable
substances are present or can be expected to be present. A “hazardous area” is
defined as an area in which the atmosphere contains, or may contain in sufficient
quantities, flammable or explosive gases, dusts or vapours. In such an atmosphere
a fire or explosion is possible when three basic conditions are met. This is often
referred to as the “hazardous area” or “combustion” triangle

1242. How Hazardous Area classified ?

A Hazardous Area is defined by three main criteria, these being:

 The type of hazard (groups)

 The auto-ignition temperature of the hazardous material (temperature or
“T” rating)
 The likelihood of the hazard being present in flammable concentrations
(zones)

1243. Explain about Type of Hazard (Groups) ?

The type of hazard will be in the form of either a gas or vapour or a dust or fibre.

The classification of these hazardous is primarily divided into two groups

depending on whether it is in a mining or above surface industry. These are
defined below:

Group I – electrical equipment for use in mines and underground installations

susceptible to firedamp Group II and Group III -electrical equipment for use in
surface installations
Groups II & III are further sub-divided depending upon the hazard. Group II gases
are grouped together based upon the amount of energy required to ignite the
most explosive mixture of the gas with air. Group III dusts are subdivided
according to the nature of the explosive atmosphere for which it is intended.

1244. classification of hazardous locations ?

Hazardous locations are classified into zones so as to facilitate the selection of the
correct electrical apparatus and to ensure that the electrical design and
installation meets the specified requirements to be used in different areas.

The zone classification is based on the likelihood and the duration of an explosive
atmosphere.

The zone classification for gases is divided into three zones, namely Zone 0, Zone
1 and Zone 2 and for dusts Zone 20, Zone 21 and Zone 22.

1245. Explain Ex i Intrinsic Safety ?

A protection concept in which the electrical energy within the equipment is

restricted to a level which is below that what may cause an ignition or to limit the
heating of the surface of the equipment.

There are two main sub types to Ex i protection, these being “ia” and “ib”.

 Type “ia” protection allows for the occurrence of two faults during
operation
 Type “ib” protection allows for the occurrence of one fault during
operation.

1246. Explain Ex d Flameproof ?

The equipment that may cause an explosion is contained within an enclosure

which can withstand the force of an explosion and prevent transmission to the
outside hazardous atmosphere.
This method of protection also prevents the hazardous atmosphere from entering
the enclosure and coming into contact with equipment.

1247. Explain Ex m Encapsulation ?

A protection concept where by equipment that could potentially cause an ignition

is encapsulated within a compound or resin so as to prevent contact with the
explosive atmosphere.

The concept also limits the surface temperature of the equipment under normal
operating conditions.

1248. Explain Ex e Increased Safety ?

Precautions are applied to the installation to ensure increased security against the
possibility of excessive temperatures and sparks from electrical equipment.

Equipment that normally causes sparks is excluded from use within this method
of protection.

1249. Explain Ex p Pressurised ?

One process ensures that the pressure inside an enclosure is sufficient to prevent
the entrance of a flammable gas, vapour, dust, or fibre and prevent a possible
ignition.

Another process maintains a constant flow of air (or an inert gas) to dilute to take
away any potentially explosive atmosphere.

1250. Explain Ex o Oil Immersion ?

All equipment that has the potential to arc and potentially cause an ignition is
immersed in a protective liquid or oil.

The oil provides an insulating method to prevent ignition.

1251. Explain Ex q Powder Filling ?

All equipment that has the potential to arc is contained within an enclosure filled
with quartz or glass powder particles.
The powder filling prevents the possibility of an ignition.

1252. Explain Ex n Non-Sparking ?

A type of protection where precautions are taken so that electrical equipment

that has the potential to arc is not capable of igniting a surrounding explosive
atmosphere.

1253. Explain Ex s Special ?

This method of protection, as its name indicates, has no specific parameters or

construction rules.

In essence it is any method of protection which can provide a pre-determined

level of safety to ensure that there is no potential for an ignition.

As such it does not fall under any specific protection method and may in fact be a
combination of more than one.

1254. What are pyrometers?

Pyrometry measures the temperature of objects without touching them. Each

object whose temperature is above absolute zero (-273.15 ° C) emits radiation.
This emission is heat radiation and depends on the temperature. The term
infrared radiation is also used because the wavelengths of most of this radiation
are in the electromagnetic spectrum over visible red light, in the infrared domain.

Temperature is the determining factor of radiation and energy.

1255. Principle of operation of Pyrometer?

A pyrometer has an optical system and detector. The optical system focuses the
terminal radiation onto the detector. The output signal of the detector
(Temperature T) is related to the thermal radiation or irradiance j of the target
object through the Stefan- Boltzmann law, the constant proportionality. T

he output is used to infer the object’s temperature. Thus, there is no need for
direct contact between the pyrometer and the object, as there is with
thermocouple and Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD).
 1256. State the types of Pyrometer ?
Based on the principle of operation, IR detectors fall into one of two categories:

1. Thermal detectors and

2. Optical pyrometer (photodiodes).

1257. Advantages of pyrometer:

Used to measure very high temperature

High output signal and moderate cost
No need to have contact with measuring system
Fast response

1258. Disadvantages of pyrometer:

Non-linear scale
Error will occur
Emmissivity of target material affects the measurement
1259. Disadvantages of Glass thermometers

1.Brittle
2.Mercury solidifies at -40oC.
3.Alcohol boils at around 120 oC.
4.Accurate manufacture is needed and this makes accurate ones expensive.
5.It is easy for people to make mistakes reading them

1260. What is Thermostat ?

The thermostat is a device to regulate the temperature of the system so that
the temperature of the system is maintained near the desired setpoint
temperature. Thermostat is a tool to regulate the temperature so that it is
always fixed. The principle of this tool is (regulator). Thermostats are widely
 used in tools such as refrigerators, electric irons, cooking stoves, egg
incubators, incubators, and bath water heaters.

1261. Which are common thermostat sensor technology used are:

 Bimetal mechanical or electrical sensors

 Expanding wax pellets
 Electronic thermistors and semiconductor devices
 Electric thermocouples
 Thermostatic Radiator Valves (TRV)

1262. Advantages of the thermostat:

Energy saving

Reduce installation and production cost

Improve the quality of product

1263. Disadvantages of the thermostat:

It is a mechanical device and can break or go off calibration

It is subject to human interface and people setting too low or high depending on
their preference.

It does not take humidity and air velocity in consderation.

1264. What are Crystalline quartz thermometer?

The quartz crystal resonant frequency is temperature dependent, hence quartz

resonant frequency measurement is a relation of temperature at which the
crystal is. Quartz thermometers measure temperature automatically, quickly
and with very high resolution.

1265. State the advantages and limitations of Crystalline quartz

thermometer
Advantages:

 Highly linear output

 Long-term stability and reliability
 High resolution of order 0.001°C
 Excellent repeatability

Limitations:

 Low-temperature range
 Crystals have strong cross

1266. What is actuator stem ?

 The part that connects the actuator to the valve stem and transmits motion
(force) from the actuator to the valve.
1267. What is actuator spring ?
 A spring or group of springs, enclosed in the yoke or actuator casing that
moves actuator stem in a direction opposite to that created by diaphragm
pressure.
1268. What is actuator stem extension ?
 An extension of the piston actuator stem to provide a means of transmitting
piston motion to the valve positioner.
1269. What is actuator stem force ?
 The net force from an actuator that is available for actual positioning of the
valve plug.
1270. What is angle valve ?
 A valve design in which one port is co-linear with the valve stem or actuator,
and the other port is at a right angle to the valve stem.
1271. What is bellows seal bonnet ?
 A bonnet that uses a bellows for sealing against leakage around the closure
member stem.
1272. What is bonnet ?
 The portion of the valve that contains the packing box and stem seal and can
guide the stem. It pro-vides the principal opening to the body cavity for
assembly of internal parts or it can be an integral part of the valve body. It
can also provide for the attachment of the actuator to the valve body. Typical
 bonnets are bolted, threaded, welded, pressure-seals, or integral with the
body.
1273. What is bonnet assembly ?
 An assembly including the part through which a valve stem moves and a
means for sealing against leak-age along the stem. It usually pro-vides a
means for mounting the actuator and loading the packing assembly.
1274. What is bottom flange ?
 A part that closes a valve body opening opposite the bon-net opening. It can
include a guide bushing and/or serve to allow reversal of the valve action.
1275. What is bushing ?
 A device that supports and/ or guides moving parts such as valve stems.
1276. What is cage ?
 A part of a valve trim that surrounds the closure member and can provide
flow characterization and/or a seating surface. It also provides stability,
guiding, balance, and alignment, and facilitates assembly of other parts of
the valve trim. The walls of the cage contain openings that usually determine
the flow characteristic of the control valve.
1277. What is closure member ?
 The movable part of the valve that is positioned in the flow path to modify
the rate of flow through the valve.
1278. What is closure member guide ?
 That portion of a closure member that aligns its movement in either a cage,
seat ring, bonnet, bottom flange, or any two of these.

1279. What is cylinder ?

 The chamber of a piston actuator in which the piston moves.
1280. What is cylinder closure seal ?
 The sealing element at the connection of the piston actuator cylinder to the
yoke.
1281. What is diaphragm ?
 A flexible, pressure responsive element that transmits force to the
diaphragm plate and actuator stem.
1282. What is diaphragm actuator ?
 A fluid powered device in which the fluid acts upon a flexible component,
the diaphragm.
1283. What is diaphragm case ?
 A housing, consisting of top and bottom section, used for supporting a
diaphragm and establishing one or two pressure chambers.
1284. What is diaphragm plate ?
 A plate concentric with the diaphragm for transmitting force to the actuator
stem.
1285. What is direct actuator ?
 A diaphragm actuator in which the actuator stem extends with increasing
diaphragm pressure.
1286. What is extension bonnet ?
 A bonnet with greater dimension between the packing box and bonnet
flange for hot or cold service.
1287. What is globe valve ?
 A valve with a linear motion closure member, one or more ports, and a body
distinguished by a globular shaped cavity around the port region. Globe
valves can be further classified as: two-way single-ported; two-way double-
ported; angle-style; three-way; unbalanced cage-guided; and balance cage-
guided.
1288. What is lower valve body ?
 A half housing for internal valve parts having one flow connection. The seat
ring is normally clamped between the upper valve body and the lower valve
body in split valve constructions.
1289. What is offset valve ?
 A valve construction having inlet and outlet line connections on different
planes but 180 degrees opposite each other.
1290. What is packing box (Assembly) ?
 The part of the bonnet assembly used to seal against leakage around the
closure member stem. Included in the complete packing box assembly are
various combinations of some or all of the following component parts:
packing, packing follower, packing nut, lantern ring, packing spring, packing
flange, packing flange studs or bolts, packing flange nuts, packing ring,
packing wiper ring, felt wiper ring, Belleville springs, anti-extrusion ring.
1291. What is piston ?
 A movable pressure responsive element that transmits force to the piston
actuator stem.

1292. What is piston type actuator ?

 A fluid powered device in which the fluid acts upon a movable piston to
provide motion to the actuator stem. Piston type actuators are classified as
either double-acting, so that full power can be developed in either direction,
or as spring-fail so that upon loss of supply power, the actuator moves the
valve in the required direction of travel.
1293. What is plug ?
 A term frequently used to refer to the closure member.
1294. What is port ?
 The flow control orifice of a control valve.
1295. What is retaining ring ?
 A split ring that is used to retain a separable flange on a valve body.
1296. What is reverse actuator ?
 A diaphragm actuator in which the actuator stem re-tracts with increasing
diaphragm pressure. Reverse actuators have a seal bushing installed in the
upper end of the yoke to prevent leak-age of the diaphragm pressure along
the actuator stem.
1297. What is rubber boot ?
 A protective device to prevent entrance of damaging foreign material into
the piston actuator seal bushing.
1298. What is seal bushing ?
Top and bottom bushings that provide a means of sealing the piston actuator
cylinder against leakage. Synthetic rubber O-rings are used in the bushings
to seal the cylinder, the actuator stem, and the actuator stem extension.
1299. What is seat ?
 The area of contact between the closure member and its mating surface that
establishes valve shut-off.
1300. What is seat load ?
 The net contact force be-tween the closure member and seat with stated
static conditions. In practice, the selection of an actuator for a given control
valve will be based on how much force is required to over-come static, stem,
and dynamic un-balance with an allowance made for seat load.
1301. What is seat ring ?
 A part of the valve body assembly that provides a seating surface for the
closure member and can provide part of the flow control orifice.
1302. What is separable flange ?
 A flange that fits over a valve body flow connection. It is generally held in
place by means of a retaining ring.
1303. What is spring adjustor ?
 A fitting, usually threaded on the actuator stem or into the yoke, to adjust
the spring compression.
1304. What is spring seat ?
A plate to hold the spring in position and to provide a flat surface for the
spring adjustor to contact.

1305. What is static unbalance ?

 The net force produced on the valve stem by the fluid pressure acting on the
closure member and stem with the fluid at rest and with stated pressure
conditions.
1306. What is stem connector ?
 The device that connects the actuator stem to the valve stem.
1307. What is trim ?
 The internal components of a valve that modulate the flow of the controlled
fluid. In a globe valve body, trim would typically include closure member,
seat ring, cage, stem, and stem pin.
1308. What is soft seated trim ?
 Valve trim with an elastomeric, plastic or other readily deformable material
used either in the closure component or seat ring to provide tight shutoff
with minimal actuator forces.
1309. What is upper valve body ?
 A half housing for internal valve parts and having one flow connection. It
usually includes a means for sealing against leakage along the stem and
provides a means for mounting the actuator on the split valve body.
1310. What is valve body ?
 The main pressure boundary of the valve that also pro-vides the pipe
connecting ends, the fluid flow passageway, and supports the seating
surfaces and the valve closure member. Among the most common valve
body constructions are: a) single-ported valve bodies having one port and
one valve plug; b) double-ported valve bodies having two ports and one valve
plug; c) two-way valve bodies having two flow connections, one inlet and one
outlet; three-way valve bodies having three flow connections, two of which
can be inlets with one outlet (for con verging or mixing flows), or one inlet
and two outlets (for diverging or diverting flows). The term valve body, or
even just body, frequently is used in referring to the valve body together with
 its bonnet assembly and included trim parts. More properly, this group of
components should be called the valve body assembly.
1311. What is valve plug ?
 A term frequently inter-changed with plug in reference to the closure
member.
1312. What is valve stem ?
 In a linear motion valve, the part that connects the actuator stem with the
closure member.
1313. What is yoke ?
 The structure that rigidly connects the actuator power unit to the valve.
1314. What is actuator lever ?
 Arm attached to rotary valve shaft to convert linear actuator stem motion
to rotary force to position disk or ball of rotary-shaft valve. The lever
normally is positively connected to the rotary shaft by close tolerance
splines or other means to minimize play and lost motion.
1315. What is full ball ?
 The flow-controlling member of rotary-shaft control valves using a complete
sphere with a flow passage through it. The flow passage equals or matches
the pipe diameter.

1316. What is segmented ball ?

 The flow-control-ling member of rotary shaft control valves using a partial
sphere with a flow passage through it.
1317. What is v-notch ball ?
 The most common type of segmented ball control valve. The V-notch ball
includes a polished or plated partial-sphere surface that rotates against the
seal ring through-out the travel range. The V-shaped notch in the ball
permits wide range-ability and produces an equal percent-age flow
characteristic.
1318. What is conventional disk ?
 The symmetrical flow-controlling member used in the most common
varieties of butterfly rotary valves. High dynamic torques normally limit
conventional disks to 60 degrees maximum rotation in throttling service.
1319. What is dynamically designed disk ?
 A butterfly valve disk contoured to reduce dynamic torque at large
increments of rotation, thereby making it suitable for throttling service with
up to 90 degrees of disk rotation.
1320. What is eccentric disk ?
 Common name for valve design in which the positioning of the valve
shaft/disk connections causes the disk to take a slightly eccentric path on
opening. This allows the disk to be swung out of contact with the seal as
soon as it is opened, thereby reducing friction and wear.
1321. What is flangeless valve ?
 Valve style common to rotary-shaft control valves.
1322. What is eccentric plug ?
 Style of rotary control valve with an eccentrically rotating plug which cams
into and out of the seat, which reduces friction and wear. This style of valve
has been well suited for erosive applications.
1323. What is reverse flow ?
 Flow from the shaft side over the back of the disk, ball, or plug. Some rotary-
shaft control valves are capable of handling flow equally well in either
direction. Other rotary designs might require modification of actuator
linkage to handle reverse flow.
1324. What is rod end bearing ?
 The connection often used between actuator stem and actuator lever to
facilitate conversion of linear actuator thrust to rotary force with minimum
of lost motion. Use of a standard reciprocating actuator on a rotary-shaft
valve body commonly re-quires linkage with two rod end bearings. However,
selection of an actuator specifically designed for rotary-shaft valve service
requires only one such bearing and thereby reduces lost motion.
1325. What is rotary-shaft control valve ?
 A valve style in which the flow closure member (full ball, partial ball, disk or
plug) is rotated in the flow stream to control the capacity of the valve.
1326. What is seal ring ?
 The portion of a rotary-shaft control valve assembly corresponding to the
seat ring of a globe valve. Positioning of the disk or ball relative to the seal
ring deter-mines the flow area and capacity of the unit at that particular
increment of rotational travel. As indicated above, some seal ring designs
permit bi-directional flow.
1327. What is shaft ?
 The portion of a rotary-shaft control valve assembly corresponding to the
valve stem of a globe valve. Rotation of the shaft positions the disk or ball in
the flow stream and thereby controls capacity of the valve.
1328. What is sliding seal ?
 The lower cylinder seal in a pneumatic piston-style actuator designed for
rotary valve service. This seal permits the actuator stem to move both
vertically and laterally with-out leakage of lower cylinder pressure.
1329. What is standard flow ?
 For those rotary-shaft control valves having a separate seal ring or flow ring,
the flow direction in which fluid enters the valve body through the pipeline
adjacent to the seal ring and exits from the side opposite the seal ring. Some-
times called forward flow.
1330. What is Trunnion mounting ?
 A style of mounting the disk or ball on the valve shaft or stub shaft with two
bearings diametrically opposed.
1331. What is bench set ?
 The calibration of the actuator spring range of a control valve to account for
the in-service process forces.
1332. What is capacity ?
 Rate of flow through a valve under stated conditions.
1333. What is clearance flow ?
 That flow below the minimum controllable flow with the closure member
not seated.
1334. What is diaphragm pressure span ?
 Difference between the high and low values of the diaphragm pressure
range. This can be stated as an inherent or installed characteristic.
1335. What is double-acting actuator ?
 An actuator in which power is supplied in either direction.
1336. What is dynamic unbalance ?
 The net force produced on the valve plug in any stated open position by the
fluid pressure acting upon it.
1337. What is effective area ?
 In a diaphragm actuator, the effective area is that part of the diaphragm area
that is effective in producing a stem force. The effective area of a diaphragm
might change as it is stroked, usually being a maximum at the start and a
minimum at the end of the travel range. Molded diaphragms have less
change in effective area than flat sheet diaphragms; thus, molded
diaphragms are recommended.
1338. What is fail-closed ?
 A condition wherein the valve closure member moves to a closed position
when the actuating energy source fails.
1339. What is fail-open ?
 A condition wherein the valve closure member moves to an open position
when the actuating energy source fails.

1340. What is fail-safe ?

 A characteristic of a valve and its actuator, which upon loss of actuating
energy supply, will cause a valve closure member to be fully closed, fully
open, or remain in the last position, whichever position is de-fined as
necessary to protect the process. Fail-safe action can involve the use of
auxiliary controls connected to the actuator.
1341. What is flow characteristic ?
 Relationship between flow through the valve and percent rated travel as the
latter is varied from 0 to 100 percent. This term should always be designated
as either inherent flow characteristic or installed flow characteristic.
1342. What is flow coefficient (Cv) ?
 A constant (Cv) related to the geometry of a valve, for a given travel, that
can be used to establish flow capacity. It is the number of U.S. gallons per
minute of 60F water that will flow through a valve with a one pound per
square inch pressure drop.
1343. What is high-recovery valve ?
 A valve de-sign that dissipates relatively little flow-stream energy due to
streamlined internal contours and minimal flow turbulence. Therefore,
pressure down-stream of the valve vena contracta recovers to a high
percentage of its inlet value. Straight-through flow valves, such as rotary-
shaft ball valves, are typically high-recovery valves.
1344. What is inherent diaphragm pressure range ?
 The high and low values of pressure applied to the diaphragm to produce
rated valve plug travel with atmospheric pressure in the valve body. This
range is often referred to as a bench set range because it will be the range
over which the valve will stroke when it is set on the work bench.
1345. What is inherent flow characteristic ?
 The relationship between the flow rate and the closure member travel as it
is moved from the closed position to rated travel with constant pressure
drop across the valve.
1346. What is installed diaphragm pressure range ?
 The high and low values of pressure applied to the diaphragm to produce
rated travel with stated conditions in the valve body. It is because of the
forces acting on the closure member that the inherent diaphragm pressure
range can differ from the installed diaphragm pressure range.
1347. What is installed flow characteristic ?
 The relationship between the flow rate and the closure member travel as it
is moved from the closed position to rated travel as the pressure drop across
the valve is influenced by the varying process conditions.
1348. What is low-recovery valve ?
 A valve design that dissipates a considerable amount of flow stream energy
due to turbulence created by the contours of the flowpath. Consequently,
pressure downstream of the valve vena contracta recovers to a lesser
percentage of its inlet value than is the case with a valve having a more
streamlined flow path. Although individual designs vary, conventional globe-
style valves generally have low pressure recovery capability.
1349. What is modified parabolic flow characteristic ?
 An inherent flow characteristic that provides equal percent characteristic at
low closure member travel and approximately a linear characteristic for
upper portions of closure member travel.
1350. What is push-down-to-close construction ?
 A globe-style valve construction in which the closure member is located
between the actuator and the seat ring, such that extension of the actuator
stem moves the closure member toward the seat ring, finally closing the
valve. The term can also be applied to rotary-shaft valve constructions where
linear extension of the actuator stem moves the ball or disk toward the
closed position. (Also called direct acting.)
1351. What is push-down-to-open construction ?
 A globe-style valve construction in which the seat ring is located between
the actuator and the closure member, so that extension of the actuator stem
moves the closure member from the seat ring, opening the valve. The term
can also be applied to rotary-shaft valve constructions where linear ex-
tension of the actuator stem moves the ball or disk toward the open position.
(Also called reverse acting.)
1352. What is rangeability ?
 The ratio of the largest flow coefficient (Cv) to the smallest flow coefficient
(Cv) within which the deviation from the specified flow characteristic does
not exceed the stated limits. A control valve that still does a good job of
controlling when flow increases to 100 times the minimum controllable flow
has a rangeability of 100 to 1. Rangeability can also be expressed as the ratio
of the maximum to minimum controllable flow rates.
1353. What is rated flow coefficient (Cv) ?
 The flow coefficient (Cv) of the valve at rated travel.
1354. What is rated travel ?
 The distance of movement of the closure member from the closed position
to the rated full-open position. The rated full-open position is the maximum
opening recommended by the manufacturers.
1355. What is relative flow coefficient ?
 The ratio of the flow coefficient (Cv) at a stated travel to the flow coefficient
(Cv) at rated travel.
1356. What is seat leakage ?
 The quantity of fluid passing through a valve when the valve is in the fully
closed position with pressure differential and temperature as specified.
1357. What is spring rate ?
 The force change per unit change in length of a spring. In diaphragm control
valves, the spring rate is usually stated in pounds force per inch
compression.
1358. What is stem unbalance ?
 The net force produced on the valve stem in any position by the fluid
pressure acting upon it.
1359. What is vena contracta ?
 The portion of a flow stream where fluid velocity is at its maximum and fluid
static pressure and the cross-sectional area are at their minimum. In a
control valve, the vena contracta normally occurs just downstream of the
actual physical restriction.
1360. How to define seat leakage class for control valves ?
 There are actually six different seat leakage classifications as defined by IEC
60534-4 std or ANSI/FCI 70.2.
 They commonly range from CLASS IV to CLASS Vl CLASS IV is also known as
metal to metal. It is the kind of leakage rate you can expect from a valve with
a metal plug and metal seat. CLASS Vl is known as a soft seat classification.
1361. What is the difference between flashing and cavitation ?
 Cavitation is a condition that occurs in liquid flow where the internal pressure
of the liquid, at some point falls below the vapour pressure and vapour
bubbles formation takes place. After this point the pressure rises above the
vapour pressure again and during this pressure recover stage (recall also the
concept of FL) the bubbles collapse, and cavitation takes place.
 Flashing is a condition that occurs with liquid flow where the pressure falls
below the vapour pressure (same as cavitation) and remains below it. There
are then two phases flowing (i.e. liquid and vapour) downstream and no
collapsing of bubbles takes place.
1362. How can cavitation damage be contained ?
 Several methods exist for treating cavitation in control valves. The first is to
select valves with high values of FL (recovery factor) eliminating cavitation.
The second is to ensure that the plug and seat are made of a material that
can resist the damage (e.g. stellite hard facing). The third is to control where
the bubbles collapse and keep this away from vulnerable components (for
instance close to internal surface of valve body or pipe).
1363. Why a control valve on Cryogenic Service cannot be mounted with
actuator in horizontal position ?
 The working principle of the extended bonnet (named “cold box”) used in
cryogenic service (below -100°C) is based on the principle that portion of LNG
which evaporates and stagnates in the upper portion of the bonnet has a
function of thermal insulation between the process fluid and the gland
packing.In this way ice formation on valve stem is avoided. To grant this
benefit the stem/actuator axis must be in upright position. Therefore valves
installed on a vertical pipe (with the actuator in horizontal position) cannot
work properly.
1364. What is the difference between “Rangeability” and “Turn-down” in
a steam desuperheating system ?
 In steam conditioning systems some prescriptions in terms of steam velocity
are required for a good performance (not lower than..) and therefore the
working range of the system may be lower than the “rangeability” of each
individual device.Therefore the ratio between maximum and minimum
controllable flow of the whole system is what we call “turn down”.
1365. What does Kv value mean ?
 The Kv value is a reference value for the flow rate of valves.
1366. What does Kvs value mean ?
 For engineering a necessary KV value is calculated on basis of the given
operating conditions. In general an allowance of 30 % is added. The Kv value
of the valve should reach this Kvs value.
1367. Why do different control valves have different characteristics ?
 Some valves have an inherent characteristic that cannot be changed, such as
full port ball valves and butterfly valves. For other valve types, such as globe,
the characteristic can be changed to suit the application.
 Ideally the inherent valve characteristic should be chosen to give an installed
characteristic as close as possible to linear (see inherent vs installed
characteristic). This enables the loop to remain tuned at all conditions with
the same calibration settings.
1368. What is the trim in a control valve ?
 The trim consists of the parts of the valve that affect the flow through the
valve.In a standard globe valve the trim would just be the plug and seat. In a
special valve the trim would consist of the plug, seat and retainer (or disk
stack).
1369. Why is reduced trim required in Control Valves ?
 Reduced trim is used where it is necessary for the valve to have a Cv capacity
smaller than the maximum possible in that size of valve. The most common
reason for reduced trim is that the flow rate is low for the size of valve
required – particularly where 25mm valves have been specified as the
smallest size to be used.
1370. What is meant by Critical Pressure and Critical Temperature ?
 Critical temperature is that above which a fluid cannot be liquefied by
pressure alone. Critical pressure is the equilibrium or vapour pressure of a
fluid at its critical temperature.
1371. Are Safety Valves, Regulators and Isolating Valves all examples of
Control Valves ?
 Normally the term control valve is used to describe a valve that controls flow
with an externally adjustable variable restriction.Safety valves and isolating
valves should not be referred to as control valves without a qualifier such as
safety control valve or on/off control valve.Regulators should be referred to
as self-regulating control valves to avoid confusion.
1372. Is flow through a Control Valve – Turbulent or Laminar ?
 Flow through control valves is almost always turbulent. Laminar flow takes
place with liquids operating at low Reynolds numbers. This occurs with
liquids that are viscous, working at low velocities. Laminar flow in gases and
vapours very seldom will be experienced in process plants.
1373. What is the difference between actual, standard and normal flow
rates for gases ?
 The difference between these flow rate units is at what pressure and
temperature the measurements apply.
 Standard flow units refer to a pressure of 1 atmosphere (101.3 kPa) and 15oC
 Normal flow units refer to a pressure of 1 atmosphere (101.3 kPa) and 0oC
 Actual flow rates refer to the actual pressure and temperature of the process
1374. What is cavitation ?
 Cavitation is a condition that occurs in liquid flow where the internal pressure
of the liquid, at some point falls below the vapour pressure and vapour
 bubbles form and at some other point downstream rises above the vapour
pressure again. As this pressure recovers so the bubbles collapse, and
Cavitation takes place

1375. What effect does the positioner cam have on a valve characteristic ?
 The feedback cam in the positioner controls the relationship between the
control signal and valve position. With a linear cam at 50% signal the valve
will be 50% open. It is possible to alter the apparent characteristic of a valve
by changing the shape of the cam e.g. for a ball valve that has an inherent
equal percent character it is possible to make it appear linear. So that the
flow rate through the valve at 50% signal is half of the maximum flow – the
valve will however only be 25% open to achieve this result.
1376. What is flashing ?
 Flashing is a condition that occurs with liquid flow where the pressure falls
below the vapour pressure and remains below it. There are then two phases
flowing (i.e. liquid and vapour) downstream.
1377. What is choked flow ?
 Choked flow (otherwise known as critical flow) takes place in a valve when
an increase in pressure drop across the valve no longer has any effect on the
flow rate through the valve. It occurs when the velocity of the gas or vapour
reaches sonic (Mach 1) at the vena contracta.
1378. How can Cavitation damage be contained ?
 Three methods exist for treating cavitation in control valves – the first is to
ensure that the plug and seat are made of a material that can resist the
damage (e.g. stellite hard facing). The second is to control where the bubbles
collapse and keep this away from vulnerable components. The third is to
control the pressure drop and velocities to ensure that the liquid pressure
does not fall below the vapour pressure – thus eliminating cavitation
altogether.
1379. How can Flashing damage be contained ?
 Flashing cannot be eliminated in the valve. To minimize the damage:-
1. Hard face trim (using hard facing materials such as Stellite, or Tungsten
Carbide)
2. Use more erosion resistant body material
3. Increase size of valve, thus reducing the velocity
4. Use angle valve – flow over plug
1380. How is the characteristic determined in a globe valve ?
 There are several ways of altering the characteristic in a globe valve
depending on the particular design.
 The most common is to use the profile on the front of the plug head. In this
case the seat ring and retainer are not changed. If the plug is cage guided the
characteristic of the valve is usually determined by the retainer or disk stack
with the plug having a flat face. As the plug moves up, it uncovers more flow
paths.
1381. Is the velocity of a fluid in a control valve critical ?
 The velocity is one of the more important considerations in sizing a control
valve. For long life on liquid applications the velocity at the exit of the valve
body should be less than 10 m/s.
1382. What is the difference between a liquid, a vapour and a gas ?
 These are all different states or phases in which a fluid can exist. H20 exists
as a solid (ice), liquid (water), vapour (saturated steam), and a gas
(superheated steam) – it depends on the temperature and pressure which
phase is current.
 Practically the most significant difference between liquids and vapours/gases
is the compressibility. Liquids are for most practical purposes incompressible
where as the density of gas and vapours varies with pressure.
1383. What is a desuperheater and how does it differ from an
attemporator ?
 A desuperheater is a device that is used to control the addition of water to
superheated steam to reduce the temperature to within 10°C of saturation.
 An attemporator also adds water to steam to control its temperature but the
set point temperature is higher and the downstream steam is still
superheated.
1384. What is the difference between installed and inherent characteristics
?
 The inherent characteristic is a plot of the flow rate through a valve (or Cv)
against percentage opening with a constant pressure drop across the valve.
This is the result of a workshop test where the upstream and downstream
pressure are held constant and the only variables are the flow rate and
opening of the valve.
 The installed characteristic is the plot of flow against opening using actual
pressure drops experienced in practice.
1385. Why are control valves sometimes very noisy ?
 Noise is created by an object vibrating. Valve components will tend to vibrate
whenever they are subjected to high velocity turbulent flow. Standard
control valves will therefore tend to be noisy on high pressure drop
applications particularly where flow rates are high, since the low pressure
experienced downstream of the seat ring (at the vena contracta) is
accompanied by very high velocities reaching as high as the speed of sound.
1386. Can two control valves be used in series in high pressure drop
applications ?
 Dropping the pressure across two valves rather than one is theoretically
better. However, in practice, the two valves will not usually control well
together unless the process can operate with a very low proportional band
with slow response times.
1387. Can two control valves be used in parallel to handle high turndown
applications ?
 Two valves in parallel working on split range signals can give very high
turndown capability.
 The situation that should be avoided if possible is that the larger valve
operates in the “cracked open” position – one way to avoid this is to program
the PLC or DCS to shut the small valve and use only the larger unit once the
capacity of the small valve is exceeded.
1388. What is the difference between rangeability and turndown ?
 Turndown applies to the application and is the ratio of the calculated Cv at
maximum conditions to the calculated Cv at minimum.
 Rangeability applies to the valve and is the ratio of the Cv of the valve fully
open to the minimum Cv at which it can control.
 The rangeability of the selected valve must exceed the turndown
requirements of the application.
1389. What process data is required to size a Control Valve ?
 Medium – What is passing through the valve? – if it is a special liquid give
specific gravity (at flowing temperate), critical pressure, vapour pressure and
viscosity.
 Pressures – What is the maximum pressure that the valve needs to be rated
for? What are the upstream and downstream pressures for each of the
maximum, normal and minimum flow rates.
 Flow rates – Maximum, normal and minimum. The maximum is used to select
the valve size, the minimum to check the turndown requirement and the
normal to see where the valve will control.
 Temperature – Maximum temperature for design plus temperatures at
maximum, normal and minimum flow conditions.
1390. What is Incipient Cavitation ?
 Incipient means “starting” – “incipient cavitation” begins when the pressure
first dips below the vapour pressure and continues until the flow becomes
choked at which point “full cavitation” is said to take place.
1391. What is the difference between a Diffuser Plate and a Choke ?
 A diffuser is a plate with a large number of small holes in it that is installed in
the downstream pipework.
 A choke is a restriction orifice and is a plate with one central hole. It is used
with liquid flows and is also installed in the downstream pipe work to create
backpressure.
1392. What is a Field Reversible Actuator ?
 The actuators for many control valves are either spring-to-open or spring-to-
close. The control valve actuator has all the parts necessary to reverse the
action – this will normally take place in a workshop on site.
1393. Will Separable flanged valves seal in a pipeline ?
 The sealing face is part of the valve body and so the separable flanges are
only there to hold the body in the line – they are not required to seal.
1394. What is Vapour Pressure ?
 The terms vapour pressure applies to a liquid, and is the natural equilibrium
pressure that exists inside a closed vessel containing the liquid. Vapour
pressure varies with temperature.
1395. Specific Gravity is the ratio of the density of a liquid to the density of
water – What is the Specific Gravity of Gas ?
 The specific gravity of gas is the ratio of the density of the gas to the density
of air both measured at standard conditions of 1013 kPa and 15°C.
1396. What is meant by Cryogenic ?
 Cryogenic valves operate at temperatures below minus 100°C.
 These valves have extended bonnets to remove the stuffing box and actuator
away from the source of cold and are made of materials such as stainless
steel Monel or bronze that do not become too brittle at these temperatures.
1397. What materials can be used for Oxygen Service ?
 Monel, bronze and austenitic stainless steel (e.g. 316) are the best materials
for oxygen service in order of preference. The higher the velocity the better
the material to be used.
1398. Why do Oxygen valves require de-greasing ?
 In the presence of most oils and greases oxygen will burn or explode. Even
the oil deposited on a component by an uncovered hand is sufficient to cause
a problem, which is why plastic gloves should be used when building
degreased valves.
1399. Why do some Control Valve Actuators have a small internal fail
action spring and some are external and much larger ?
 A piston actuator piped up double acting and operating with full supply
pressure of about 500 kPa is very stiff and can normally operate satisfactorily
with the flow direction either under the plug or over.
 This enables the flow direction to be chosen to assist with the fail action,
which means that only a small bias spring is necessary inside the actuator to
start initial movement in the right direction in the event of air failure.
 In the case of diaphragm actuated valves, the stiffness is much lower and so
the flow direction must always be under the plug, resulting in the need of a
heavy spring to give fail closed action. This cannot be fitted inside the
actuator.
1400. Why is live loading sometimes offered on valves ?
 Live loading reduces the need for routine maintenance in the plant. Live
loading is recommended on applications where a leak along the valve shaft
would be likely to cause damage to the shaft and packing.
1401. Why is Energy Dissipation an important Factor in Control Valve
Selection ?
 All Control valves cause pressure drop in the fluid as it passes through the
valve. Since pressure is a form of Potential Energy, this means that a certain
amount of energy is converted from potential energy into some other form.
The higher the Pressure Drop and the greater the flow rate then more energy
will be dissipated.
 Through the careful choice of valve type and correct trim design it is possible
to minimize the adverse effects of high levels of energy dissipation.
1402. What is an inlet pressure pv (p1) ?
 The inlet pressure indicates the pressure in the system upstream of the valve.
1403. What is an outlet pressure ph (p2) ?
 The outlet pressure indicates the pressure in the system downstream of the
valve.
1404. What is the differential pressure Δp ?
 The differential pressure defines the pressure difference between inlet
pressure and outlet pressure. If pressure ranges are given, the smallest
pressure difference is relevant with regards to valve design..
1405. What is a pressure drop ?
 The pressure drop indicates the active pressure difference between the
effective inlet and outlet pressure.
1406. Why is the flow velocity so important ?
 In pipelines certain flow velocities are admissible depending on the medium.
In addition to the KV(s) value the flow velocity is a decisive value for valve
dimensioning.
1407. What is the pressure setting range ?
 The pressure setting range indicates the range within which a valve can be
set or used.
1408. What is the reduction ratio ?
 The reduction ratio indicates the max. ratio of inlet and outlet pressure which
can be reduced within one step by a pressure reducing valve.
1409. What is the valve seat ?
 The valve seat is the apron for a defined flow through opening in the valve
through which the medium to be regulated has to flow.
1410. What is the valve cone ?
 The valve cone is a movable element within the valve that bears on the valve
seat. By means of the cone stroke the valve is opened, throttled or closed.
1411. What is a released valve ?
 On a released valve the forces acting on the cone are compensated on an
equally sized release surface owing to the inlet and outlet pressure. Thus the
valve features considerably better regulating properties.
1412. What does hard facing mean ?
 It is recommended that the cone for pressure regulating valves for liquids
and with a pressure drop of abt. > 25 bar be designed with a hard facing layer.
This will prevent early wear and tear due to cavitation.
1413. What is a control line ?
 The control line takes the inlet and outlet pressure to be regulated from the
pipeline and transfers it to the control unit. Not every pressure regulating
valve requires a control line. The control line can also be used to set
pressures at locations remote from the valve.
1414. What does control unit mean ?
 The pressure to be regulated is transferred to the pressure regulating valve
mechanism via the control unit. The pressure acting on the control surface
closes (pressure reducing valve) or opens (backpressure regulator) the valve
against the spring force.
 Three construction types are distinguished:
Diaphragm, piston with O-ring and other seals and bellow.
1415. Why is it advisable to extend the pipeline in some cases ?
 In many cases the valve is sufficiently dimensioned for a certain application
with regards to the Kv(s) value, but it might be too small in respect of nominal
diameter and the resulting flow velocities. Too high flow velocities result in
noise, pressure rise and wear and tear.
 On a small scale the flow velocity can be reduced to an admissible value
thanks to the extended pipeline. The pipeline extension is to be carried out
by the customer.
1416. Why can a leakage line be necessary ?
 In case of toxic or hazardous media the valve must be provided with a closed
spring cap (with adjusting screw seal) with leakage line connection. During
the on-site assembly a leakage line has to be laid which drains the medium
safely in case the control unit becomes defective.
1417. What is the difference between a start-up and continuous bleeding
valve ?
 The start-up bleeding valves bleed plants with low internal pressure during
start-up or filling. The float acts directly onto the cone. Such valves have a
large seat diameter to ensure fast bleeding at a pressure below 0.1 bar.
 During operation they are kept closed by the internal pressure of the vessel.
In case of a suddenly occurring vacuum the valves open and compensate the
pressure. Thus damages caused by a vacuum will be avoided.
 The continuous bleeding valves are used to evacuate the air accumulating
during operation. They are provided with a lever transmission thus they also
operate at very low or very high pressures. If air intake is to be avoided the
outlet is to be provided with a non-return valve. In such a case they will act
as bleeding valves without venting function.
1418. What is Nm³ (cubic metre standard), Sm³ (American cubic metre
standard) and Bm³ (cubic metre during operation) ?
 Nm³ : Volume of a medium (liquid or gas) at the standard state 1 bar (abs)
20°U Sm³: -> engl: the American variant of Nm³
 Bm³ : Volume of the medium (liquid or gas) in the operating mode. i.e. at
operating pressure and operating temperature.
1419. What is the difference between safety valve and backpressure
regulator ?
 The safety valve is to safely discharge the medium at a preset nominal value
during a certain pressure relief process.
 The overflow valve (backpressure regulator) limits the pressure upstream of
the valve to the set (but alterable) nominal value.
 The backpressure regulator only discharges the quantity of the medium
needed to attain the nominal value.
1420. Why is a control line needed ?
 Some valve designs require control lines to safely transmit the required set
pressure to the control unit.
 Control lines can enhance the regulating properties and are used to realize
special applications (e.g. regulation of differential pressure, of quantities, or
vacuums).
1421. What is the difference between a pressure reducing valve and a
pressure maintaining valve ?
 Both valves keep the selected set pressure constant. The pressure reducing
valve does so on the downstream side whilst the pressure maintaining valve
does so on the upstream side of the valve (UV=backpressure regulator).
1422. Which parameters are important for the selection of the nominal
diameter apart from the Kv(s) values) ?
 The medium, flow velocity, viscosity and the pressure range to be regulated.
1423. What is the control deviation and how much must it be ?
 In the range from 10 percent to 70 percent of the possible flow rate the
pressure variation and the set value must not vary more than + 5 percent.
The control deviation indicates the extent of the variation.
1424. What is check valve ?
 The valve that are designed to prevent the reversal of flow in a piping system.
1425. What is shutdown valve ?
 A shutdown valve is an actuated valve designed to stop the flow of a
hazardous fluid upon the detection of a dangerous event.

1426. If the displacement is measured with strain gauge then the number
of strain gauge normally required are
Ans Four
1427. A capacitive pressure sensor has a typical measurement uncertainty
of
Ans ± 0.2%
1428. The instruments used for the measurement of pressure is/are
Ans
A. Bellows
B. Diaphragms
C. Fiber optic pressure sensors
1429. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of
Ans
A. Gas
B. Liquid fluid
1430. Dead weight gauge is used for the measurement of pressure of
Ans About 7000 bar
1431. The ionization gauge an instrument used for the measurement of
Ans Very low pressure
1432. When visual indication of pressure level is required then the
instrument generally used is
Ans Manometers
1433. For the measurement of high pressure with high accuracy the device
used is
Ans Manganin wire pressure
1434. Advantage of passive instrument is
Ans It does not need power supply
1435. In McLeod gauge,
Ans Low pressure fluid is compressed to a high pressure which is read by the
manometer technique
 1436. At sea level, vertical height of water column would be

Ans.11.25 m

1437. At a height of about 30 km, atmospheric pressure becomes

Ans.1000 Pa

1438. Bubble is stable because atmospheric pressure inside and outside is

Ans. equal

1439. Density of mercury is

Ans 13.6 times of water

1440. Earth is surrounded by a cover of air called

Ans Atmosphere

1441. Instrument which is used to measure atmospheric pressure is called

Ans Barometer

1442. Force measurement by which air molecules strike a surface is called

Ans Air pressure

1443. The rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis of rotation is

described in terms of
Ans Moment of force

1444. What is unit of Astronomical distance?

Ans Light year

1445. . Which of following in not a property of cathode ray.

Ans These rays make materials cool on which they fall.
 1446. What is refractive index?
Ans It is defined as the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the
medium .

1447. What is force?

Ans push and pull both

1448. . What is state of motion?

Ans both by the state of rest or motion

1449. The strength of force is expressed by?

Ans magnitude

1450. The force between two charged bodies is called

Ans electrostatic force

1451. When two forces act in opposite directions, then net force acting two
forces

Ans difference between two factors

1452. Magnetic force is

Ans contact force

non-contact force

1453. . Force acts on an object may change

Ans direction, shape, speed
1454. Leaves or fruits fall on the ground due to
Ans gravitational force

1455. The force of friction acts in a direction _____ to the direction of

motion of object.
Ans Opposite
 1456. The force of friction depends upon
Ans Nature of surface of contact
Material of objects in contact

1457. The body will move only when

Ans Force of friction < applied force

1458. The ratio of the limiting force of friction (F) to the normal reaction
(R) is known as
Ans Coefficient of friction

1459. The coefficient of friction (µ) is equal to

Ans TanΦ

1460. The force of friction (F) is equal to

Ans µR

1461. When the two surfaces in contact have a thick layer of lubricant in
between them, it is known as
Ans Film friction

1462. Unit speed of a turbine can be determined by dividing the normal

speed by
Ans √H

1463. . Hydel plants having capacity of the order of 100kW are called
Ans micro hydel plants

1464. . Efficiency of a draft tube is the ratio of actual regain of pressure

head and
Ans velocity head at the entrance

1465. The best suited pump for lifting water having solids in suspension is
Ans centrifugal pump

1466. Specific speed of a hydraulic turbine is inversely proportional to

Ans H3/4
 1467. In steam turbine the ratio of blade length divided by the steam
passage width is
Ans aspect ratio

1468. The dissolved oxygen is removed from feed water for boiler is
Ans Deaerator

1469. The burner tips in corner fired boiler are tilted to control
Ans steam temperature

1470. Mach number under chocked condition in a steam nozzle is

Ans Equal to 1

1471. Specific speed of a turbine with N, P and H as RPM, power and head
respectively are:
Ans N√P / H5/4

1472. Which is not a part of Pelton turbine?

Ans Draft tube

1473. Graphite is used as a moderator in

Ans Gas cooled reactor

1474. A fast breeder reactor produces

Ans Electricity as well as new fissible material

1475. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the
highest efficiency occurs for
Ans Regenerative cycle

1476. A reactor that produces more fissionable material than it consumes

is called
Ans Breeder reactor

1477. what are the application advantages of a dead weight tester and a
gauge comparator?
Ans Dead weight tester: Generally, it is used for calibrating a test gauge. It works
on the hydraulic principle, where a test gauge is compared with the standard dead
weights.
Calibration procedure is laborious.
Gauge comparator: It is used for calibrating a pressure gauge against a test gauge.
Calibration procedure is simple and quicker.

1478. How would you select a pressure gauge for a process?

Ans While selecting a pressure gauge for a process, consider the following points:

1.Characteristic of the process (corrosive or non-corrosive)

2.Operating pressure

3.Maximum process pressure

The gauge range should be a minimum of twice the process operating pressure.

1479. Write the types of Bourdon tubes? Explain the purpose of different
Bourdon tubes.
Ans The following are the commonly used Bourdon tubes used in industries:

– Spiral –Low range 10 –100kpa

– C type –Medium range 100 – 5000kpa

– Helical – High range 5000 – 20000kpa

1480. What is function of a hair –spring in a pressure gauge?

Ans Hair – spring in a pressure gage eliminates the Hysteresis (backlash/angularity)
error caused in the quadrant (gear and pinion mechanism) and the weight of the
pointer.

1481. Name a few pressure switch manufacturing companies.

Ans Barksdale, United electric, CCS…etc.

1482. What is the output of a pressure switch?

Ans Output of an electric switch is a contact- open or close.

Output of a pneumatic switch is a port operation- open or close, vent

 1483. How would you select a pressure switch for 500kpa Hi operation?
Ans The following points are to be considered wile selecting a pressure switch for
any process operation:

– The process operating pressure

– The maximum process pressure

– The process pipeline vibration

– The maximum working pressure of the pressure switch should be times greater
than the maximum operating pressure

– The micro switch contact rating

– Process connection

– Local or remote mounting …etc.

1484. Explain the contact selection on high- and low-pressure alarm

switches? And explain why?
Ans On a high pressure switch, the wiring is terminated on the “common” and the
“normally close” contact terminals.

On a low pressure switch, the wiring is terminated on the “common” and the
“normally open” contact terminals.

This type of contact termination is done to achieve a close contact from the switch
during a normal (healthy) process condition which is a fail safe method.

1485. What is to be done, if a transmitter gives a maximum output, where

the transmitter range (jumper) is already in maximum selection?
Ans Replace the capsule (sensor) for a higher range in the transmitter.
1486. Explain how to carryout a field zero check on a pressure transmitter?
Ans – If the transmitter signal is used for controlling, then put the controller on
manual.

– Connect a digital multimeter in the current range in series with the transmitter
output.
– Isolate the process valve

– Isolate the instrument isolation valve.

– Open the equalising valve

– Open the bleed valve and de-pressurise the transmitter.

– Check for 4.00mA output signal, if not, adjust the zero screw.

1487. What-test equipment is required to calibrate a pressure transmitter

in the field?
Ans If it is a low range transmitter, then precision pneumatic test equipment like
“wallace and tiernier” and pneumatic pump (or air supply) may be used.

If it is a high range transmitter, then a hydraulic pump and a test gauge is to be

used.

1488. What is pressure measuring/feeding test equipment?

Ans The following are a few commonly used tests equipment to measure and feed
pressure: Tradinco, Wallance&tiernier, Ralston, Gauge comparator, Dead weight
tester…etc.

1489. Write the formula for calculating a static head in kpa?

Ans Static Head = pgh

p= Density of the liquid

g= Gravity

h= height of the liquid column

1490. What are the simple methods for measuring level?

Ans Gauge glass, Pressure Gauge – scale graduated in % of level, Rope and weight,
Dip Tape…etc

How to convert a pressure gauge into a level gauge?

Ans Calculate the static head in kpa using the formula “pgh”. Select a pressure
gauge and calibrate it for the calculated static head. Graduate the pressure gauge
scale in terms of %of level.

1491. What is the density of crude oil?

Ans The density of crude oil is approximately 0.8.

1492. What is an “interface dip tape”? Where it used?

Ans Interface dip tape is an instrument used for measuring the total and the
interface liquid level in vessel.

For example: It is used in oil storage tanks to measure the total liquid level and
water level.

1493. Convert a pressure measurement of 20 PSIA into units of inches

water column (gauge)

Ans 146.7” H2O

1494. If a force of 3400 pounds is applied to a circular piston 2 inches in

diameter, calculate the fluid pressure working against the piston.

Ans 1082.3 PSI

1495. Another word for “pressure” is:

Ans Head

1496. If the pressure applied to the “low” side of a ∆P transmitter

increases while the pressure applied to the “high” side remains steady, the
transmitter output should:

Ans Decrease

1497. Identify the proper sequence of valve actions for a three-valve

manifold and bleed when taking a differential pressure transmitter out of
service:
Ans Close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve, open
bleed

1498. Electrostatic precipitators are devices used

Ans

(A) to reduce atmospheric pollution

(B) with pulverized coil fired boilers

(C) for dust collection from exhaust gas

1499. Which of the following is an undesirable dynamic characteristic of

an instrument?

Ans Time lag

1500.Which of the following is not the triple point of water ?

Ans 32°R

1501. first order instrument.

Ans Mercury in glass thermometer (without any covering or air gap).

Bare metallic thermometer.
Bare vapor pressure thermometer.

1502. Load cells are used for the measurement of

Ans Weight

1503.Dynamic characteristics of an instrument ?

Ans Fidelity
 1504.The __________ of a vapor pressure thermometer is a functioning
element.

Ans Pointer

1505.A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means a/an __________

system.

Ans Unstable

1506.Thermistor, which has high temperature co-efficient of resistivity, is used

as the sensing element in resistance thermometer. It is a/an

Ans solid semi-conductor

1507. Flapper nozzle is used in a/an ----------- controller.

Ans Pneumatic

1508. Typical specifications for design stipulates the gain margin and phase
margin to be respectively
Ans > 1.7 and > 30°

1509. Working principle of radiation pyrometer is based on the

Ans Stafan-Boltzman law

1510.
Which of the following relates the emf generated in a single homogeneous
wire to the temperature difference?

Ans Thomson effect

1511. . Dilute wine was used as a thermometric liquid initially to develop
temperature scale. First empirical temperature scale developed
was the
1512. ------------------ scale.
Ans Fahrenheit

1513. In a single tank system, the transfer function of level to inlet flow
rate is

Ans R/ (TS + 1)

1514. . desirable characteristic of an instrument?

Ans High fidelity

1515. The operation of a rotameter is

base on

Ans variable flow area.

1516. The temperature of tempering oil baths maintained at 400°C during

heat treatment of steel is measured by a -------- thermocouple.

Ans iron-constantan

1517. Q91. 1519. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of

1518. Ans
greater safety of operation

better quality of product

greater operation economy
1520. . Which of the following temperature measuring instruments need
not touch the object whose temperature is being measured?

Ans Radiation/infrared pyrometer

1521.
Thermal conductivity measurement com-prises the working principle of a
Ans CO2 analyser

1522.Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called ------------- response.

Ans Frequency

1523.The closed loop pole of a stable second order system could be

Ans both real and positive.

1524.Smoke density of the flue gas going out of the chimney is measured by a

Ans photo electric cell

1525.Transfer function of transportation lag is

Ans e-TS

1526. Temperature measuring instruments are standardised mostly

with points of pure substances.

melting
boiling
The maximum service temperature for fibre glass used as
1527.
thermocouple wire insulation material is ----- °C.

Ans 500

1528.
Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation?

Ans P-D controller

 1529. Volumetric expansion is the working principle of the __________
thermometers.

Ans mercury in glass

1530. measurements can be made by the measurement of emf?

Ans A. pH value
B. Degree of hydrolysis
C.Composition of complex ions

1531. A magnetic flowmeter is

Ans
A. based on the principle of Faraday's law.
B. capable of measuring the flow rate of slurries and electrolytes.
C.based on the linear relationship between the fluid flow rate
and the induced voltage.
Zirconia probe is used for the continuous measurement of
1532.
__________ flue gases going out of the furnace.

Ans oxygen in

1533. . Strain gage pressure transducers are used to measure __________

pressures.

Ans A. gauge as well as vacuum

B. Absolute as well as differential

1534. Compositional analysis of is done using mass spectrometer.

Ans an isotope

Q107. The function of a transducer is to

Ans convert the primary signal into a more useful quantity, usually an electric
impulse.

1535.Nichol's chart deals with

Ans closed loop values vs. open loop values.

1536. . Which of the following thermocouples will give the highest output
for the same value of hot and cold junction temperature?

Ans Chromel-constantan.

1537. . A proportional controller with a gain of Kc is used to control a first

order process. The offset will increase, if

Ans Kc is increased.

1538. . ------------is undesirable in thermocouples used in industries,

Ans Non-linear relation of emf to temperature

1539. . Continuous shell temperature measurement in a liquid-liquid heat

exchanger is done by a

Ans Thermocouple

1540. . The of a vapor pressure thermometer is a secondary element.

Ans Bourdon tube

 1541. Emf developed by a thermocouple, while measuring a temperature
of 600°C is about 5.5 mV. The type of thermocouple used is

Ans platinum-platinum+rhodium

1542.
Which of the following relates the absorption & evolution of heat at the
junctions of a thermocouple to the current flow in the circuit?

Ans Peltier effect

1543. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the flow rate of heating/cooling
fluid is the variable.

Ans Manipulated

1544. Q117. 1545. A non-linear chemical system is exemplified by

a/an

Ans non-isothermal CSTR

1546. .Gas chromatography is used for the measurement of

Ans Concentration

1547. . Liquid flow rate in a small channel is best measured by a/an

Ans pitot tube

1548.
Specific gravity of a liquid can not be measured by a/an

Ans anemometer

1549. What is instrument?

Ans It is a device for determining the value or magnitude of a quantity or variable.
 1550. Add 826 ± 5 to 628 ± 3.
Ans N1 = 826 ± 5 ( = ± 0.605%)
N2 = 628 ± 3 ( = ± 0.477%)
Sum = 1,454 ± 8 (=± 0.55%)
1551. Subtract 628 ± 3 from 826 ± 5.
Ans N1 = 826 ± 5 ( = ± 0.605%) N2 = 628 ± 3 ( = ± 0.477%)
Difference = 198 ± 8 (= ± 4.04%)
1552. List three sources of possible errors in instruments.
Ans Gross Error
Systematic
Random errors.
1553. Define Instrumental error.
Ans These are the errors inherent in measuring instrument because of their
mechanical structure.
1554. Define limiting error.
Ans Components are guaranteed to be within a certain percentage of rated value.
Thus, the manufacturer has to specify the deviations from the nominal value of a
particular quantity.
1555. Define probable error.
Ans It is defined as r = ± 0.6745s where s is standard deviation.Probable error has
been used in experimental work to some extent in past, but standard deviation is
more convenient in statistical work.

1556. Define Environmental error

Ans These are due to conditions in the measuring device, including conditions in
the area surrounding the instrument, such as the effects of changes in
temperature,humidity.
1557. Define arithmetic mean.
Ans The best approximation method will be made when the number of readings
would give the best result.
1558. Define average deviation.
Ans By definition, average deviation is the sum of absolute values of the value
deviations divided by the number of reading.
1559. Define units.
Ans It is necessary to define a physical quantity both in kind and magnitude in order
to use this information for further proceedings. The standard measure of each kind
of physical quantity is named as the unit.
1560. Define Standards
Ans The physical embodiment of a unit of measurement is a standard.
For example,the fundamental unit of mass in the international system is the
kilogram and defined as the mass of a cubic decimeter of water at its temperature
of maximum density of 4°c.
1561. Define linearity.
Ans Linearity is a measure of the maximum deviation of the plotted transducer
response from a specified straight line.
1562. Mention the purpose of the measurement.
Ans To understand an event or an operation.
To monitor an event or an operation.
To control an event or an operation.
To collect data for future analysis
To validate an engineer design.
1563. What are the methods of measurement?
Ans Direct comparison method
Indirect comparison method
1564. Define ODDs
Ans The specification of limiting error is in itself uncertain because the manufacture
himself is not sure about the accuracy because of the presence of random errors.
1565. Classify Standards.
Ans International standards
Primary standards
Secondary standards
Working standards
1566. Define transducer and give an example.
Ans Transducer is a device which converts one form of energy into electrical energy.
A thermocouple converts heat energy into electrical voltage.
1567. Classify transducer.
Ans On the basis of transduction form used:
As primary and secondary transducers
As active and passive transducers
As analog and digital transducers
As transducers and inverse transducers

1568. What is primary transducer?

Ans Bourdon tube acting as a primary transducer senses the pressure and converts
the pressure into displacement.
No output is given to the input of the bourdon tube. So it is called primary
transducer. Mechanical device can act as a primary transducer.
 1569. What is secondary transducer?
Ans The output of the Bourdon tube is given to the input of the LVDT.
There are two stages of transduction, firstly the pressure is converted into a
displacement by the Bourdon tube then the displacement is converted into analog
voltage by LVDT. Here LVDT is called secondary transducer. Electrical device can act
as a secondary transducer.

1570. What is passive transducer?

Ans In the absence of external power, transducer cannot work and it is called a
passive transducer.
Example: capacitive, inductive, resistance transducers.
1571. What is active transducer?
Ans In the absence of external power, transducer can work and it is called active
transducer.
Example:
velocity, temperature, light can be transduced with the help of an active
transducer.
1572. What is analog transducer?
Ans These transducers convert the input quantity into an analog output which is a
continuous function of time.
Thus a strain gauge, an LVDT, a thermocouple or a thermistors may be called analog
transducer, as they give an output which is a continuous function of time.
1573. Q145 Give the classification of units.
Ans Absolute units
Fundamental and derived units
Electromagnetic units
Electrostatic units
1574. Q146 Define Primary fundamental and auxiliary fundamental units.
Ans Fundamental units in mechanics are measures of length, mass and time and
those are fundamental to most other physical quantities and hence they are called
Primary fundamental units.
Measures of certain physical quantities in thermal, electrical and illumination fields
are also represented by fundamental units and are used only where those
disciplines are involved and hence called auxiliary fundamental units.
1575. Define unit of mass preserved at International Bureau of weights
and measures at Severes near Paris.
Ans The unit of mass is represented by a material standard: the mass of
International prototype kilogram consisting of platinum Iridium hollow cylinder.

1576. Define static calibration.

Ans It refers to a process in which all the inputs(desired,modifying,interfering)
except one are kept at some constant values.

1577. Define Traceability.

Ans The ability to trace the accuracy of the standard back to its ultimate source in
fundamental standards of National Institute of Science and Technology is termed
“Traceability”.

1578. What are random errors or residual errors?

Ans The happenings or disturbances about which we are unaware and lumped
together are called random errors or residual errors.
Since these errors remain even after the systematic errors are taken care of,they
are called residual errors.

1579. Give one property of piezo-electric crystal.

Ans When a force is applied to piezo-electric crystals, they produce an output
voltage.
1580. Define an Inverse transducer. Give an example.
Ans A device which converts an electrical quantity into a non-electrical quantity.
A piezo-electric crystal acts as an inverse transducer because when a voltage is
applied across its surfaces, it changes its dimensions causing a mechanical
displacement.
1581. List the factors responsible in selection of a transducer.
Ans Operating principle
Sensitivity
Operating range.
Accuracy.
1582. Define static characteristics.
Ans Static characteristics of a measurement system are, in general, those that must
be considered when the system or instrument is used to measure a condition not
varying with time.
1583. Mention different types of static characteristics.
Ans Accuracy
Sensitivity
Reproducibility
Drift
Static error and
Dead zone.
1584. What are dynamic characteristics?
Ans Many measurements are concerned with rapidly varying quantities and,
therefore, for such cases we must examine the dynamic relations which exist
between the output and the input.
This is normally done with the help of differential equations. Performance criteria
based upon dynamic relations constitute the Dynamic Characteristics.
1585. Mention different types dynamic characteristics?
Ans Zero- order transducers
First – order transducers
Second-order transducers
Higher-order transducers
1586. What are the test inputs of the transducer?
Ans Impulse input
Step input
Ramp input
Parabolic input
Sinusoidal input
1587. Define zero order transducer.
Ans The input- output relationship of a zero- order transducer is given by
Y(t) = K r(t)
Where r(t) is the input, Y(t) is the output and K is the static sensitivity of the
transducer.
1588. What is mathematical model?
Ans Mathematical model is defined as the mathematical representation of the
system and its process.
a.
b.
1589.
1590.