MACRO VISION ACADEMY, BURHANPUR

NTSE MCQ TEST (19)

Class : X (Set-A) Sub: SAT Time : 2 hrs M.M.: 100

Mathematics
1. The graph of y  ax2  bx  c is given in figure then identify the signs of a,

a) a < 0, b > 0, c < 0 b) a < 0, b < 0, c > 0 c) a < 0, b > 0, c > 0 d) a < 0, b < 0, c < 0
 1  1
2. Solve for x : 2  x2  2   9  x    14  0
 x   x
1 1 1
a) ,1, 2 b) ,1, 2 c) ,1, 4 d) N.O.T
2 2 2
3. In this figure, AOB is a quarter circle of radius 10 cm and PQRO is a rectangle of perimeter 26
cm. The perimeter of the shaded region is:

a) 13  5 b) 17  5 c) 7 10 d) 7  5
x
4. If the point  x, y is equidistant from the points  a  b, b  a  and  a  b, a  b , then is
y
b a
a) b) c) ab d) b
a b
5. In a circle, O is the centre and COD is right angle AC = BD and CD is the tangent at P. What
is the value of AC + CP, if the radius of the circle is 1 metre?

a) 105 cm b) 141.4 cm c) 138.6 cm d) can’t be determined

6. From the top of a cliff, 200 m high, the angle of depression of the top and bottom of tower are
observed to be 30 and 60, find the height of the tower.
400 200
a) 200 m b) m c) m d) 100 m
3 3
7. sin 6 A  cos 6 A is equal to
a) 1  3 sin 2 A cos 2 A b) 1  3sin A cos A c) 1  3 sin 2 A cos 2 A d) 1
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8. If the mean of three numbers a, b and c is 3, then 3
 7  7  7  equal
a bc bca ca b

1 2
a) 7 b) 7 c) 7 2 d) 7 3
3 3
9. A bag contains 40 balls out of which some are red, some are blue and remaining are black. If
11 1
the probability of drawing a red ball is and that of blue ball is , then the number of
20 5
black balls is
a) 5 b) 25 c) 10 d) 30
10. The mean of the data x, x  a, x  2a, x  3a,......... 2n  1terms  is
a) x   n 1 a b) x   n 1 a c) x   n  2 a d) x  an
11. In the following which one is the smallest
3, 3 2, 2, 3 4 ?
a) 3 b) 3
4 c) 3
2 d) 2
12. If P denotes +, Q denotes , R denotes x and S denotes , which of the following statement is
correct
a) 36 R 4 S 8 Q 7 P 4 = 10 b) 16 R 12 P 49 S 7 Q 9 = 200
c) 32 S 8 R 9 = 160 Q 12 R 12 d) 8 R 8 P 8 S 8 Q 8 = 57
13. The cost of five chairs and three tables is Rs 3110. If cost of one chair is 210 less than cost of
one table. What is the cost of two tables and two chairs?
a) Rs 1760 b) Rs 1000 c) Rs 1660 d) Rs 1800
7
14. If of a number is 5 more then its 5 . Then, nine times of number will be
8 7
a) 380 b) 208 c) 308 d) 280
15. The Mean of the Median, Mode and Range of the observations, 7, 6, 7, 9, 14, 9, 7, 15 is
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 7
16. If perimeter of a square is same as that of a rectangle whose length is 24m is double of its
breadth, then area of square will be
2
a) 324 2
b) 342 2
c) 224 d) 330 2

17. Divisor is 30 times of Quotient and 4 times of Remainder. If Quotient is 20 then Dividend will
be
a) 1200 b) 12150 c) 10000 d) 600
18. If x 2  3 x  2 is a factor of x4  px2  q, then the values of p and q respectively are
a)  5, 4 b)  5,  5 c) 5, 4 d) 5,  4
19. A square is inscribed in a circle of radius a. Another circle is inscribed in that square and
again a square is inscribed in this circle. The side of this square is
a a
a) 2a b) c) d) a
2 2
1 1 1
20. If x2  y  z, y2  z  x and z2  x  y, then what is the value of   ?
x 1 y 1 z 1
a) 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
Physics
21. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
a) uniform velocity b) uniform acceleration
c) increasing acceleration d) decreasing acceleration
22. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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 Column I Column II
(A) F = constant ≠0 (p) Directional change
(B) F = 0 (q) Variable acceleration
(C) F ≠constant (r) No change in momentum
(D) F ≠ 0 (s) If a body moves uniformly along a circle
a)A - (p); B - (s); C - (q), D - (r) b)A - (q); B - (p); C - (r), D - (s)
c)A - (p); B - (r); C - (q), D - (s) d)A - (s); B - (q); C - (p), D - (r)
23. Consider the following statements:
a) Gravitational force is always attractive in nature.
b) Gravitational force is always on the line joining two masses.
c) Gravitational force is always in dependent of other masses in the surroundings.
d) Gravitational force is always forms action-reaction pair.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)(a) and (b) b)(a), (c) and (d) c)(a), (b) and (d) d)(a), (b), (c) and (d)
24. A block of ice floats in water such that the temperature of water as well as ice is 0°C. The
weight of ice is equal to
a)weight of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
b)volume of water displaced by the immersed part of ice
c)weight of water displaced by the complete block of ice
d)None of these
25. In which of the following situations, the work done by a force on a body will be positive.
a) body does not move
b) body moves perpendicular to the direction of applied force
c) body moves along the direction of applied force
d) body moves opposite to the direction of applied force
26. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Sound travels in a straight line. b) Sound travels as a wave.
c) Sound is a form of energy. d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air.
27. Out the following which statement is correct?
a) A pulse is of long duration
b)A pulse is a short and sudden disturbance
c) Clapping of hands once produces a wave
d) A pulse transports mass from one place to another
28. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Column I Column II
A) Myopia (p) The power of accommodation of the eye decreases with ageing
B) Hypermetropia (q) The focal length of the eye lens is too long
C) Presbyopia (r) The focal length of the eye lens is too small
D) Astigmatism (s) The eyes fail to distinguish horizontal and vertical lines at the
same distance
a) (A) -- r, (B) -- q, (C) -- p, (D) – s b) (A) -- p, (B) -- r, (C) -- s, (D) -- q
c) (A) -- s, (B) -- p, (C) -- r, (D) – q d) (A) -- q, (B) -- r, (C) -- p, (D) – s
29. Consider the following statements :
a) Light bends from its path, when it goes from one medium to another medium.
b) Speed of light changes, when it goes from one medium to another medium.
c) Wavelength of light decreases, when it travels from air to water.
d) Wavelength of light in water=( Wavelength of light in air) / (Refractive index of water)
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)(b) and (c) b)(a) and (b) c)(a), (b) and (d) d)(a), (b), (c) and (d)
30. In an ammeter there are 19 additional marks between 0A to 1A marks. The least count of the
ammeter is
a)1/19 A b)1/20 A c)1/21 A d)1 A
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31. A student connects a coil of wire with a sensitive galvanometer as shown in figure. He will
observe the deflection in the galvanometer if bar magnet is

a) One of the faces of the coil placed near and parallel to the axis of the coil.
b) Placed near one of the faces of the coil and perpendicular to the axis of the coil.
c) Placed inside the coil.
d) Moved towards or away from the coil parallel to the axis of the coil.
32. __________ are used to produce energy in OTEC.
a) Tidal energy
b) Temperature difference between the different layers of water in ocean
c) Ocean waves d) None of the above
33. On the basis of following features identify correct option:
I. They are pollution free sources of energy.
II. They are inexhaustible.
a) Conventional source of enrgy b) Non-conventional source of energy
c) Both (1) and (2) d) Neither (1) nor (2)
Chemistry
34. Atomic number and atomic mass of Ca is 20 and 40 respectively, which of the following
statement is not true for Ca atom:
a) Number of electrons are equal to that of neutrons
b) Number of nucleons are twice of electrons
c) Number of protons is half of the number of neutrons
d) Number of nucleons is twice of atomic number
35. Electronic configuration of a metal M is 1s2,2s2 2p6 ,3s1. The formula of its oxide shall be:
a) MO b) M2O c) M2O3 d) MO2.
36. Electron affinity value is highest in:
a) Magnesium b) Sulphur c) Phosphorus d) Silicon.
37. Which of the following pair is not correctly related with:
a) Halogen which is in liquid state at ordinary temperature (Bromine)
b) Most electronegative element (Fluorine)
c) Most active halogen atom (Fluorine)
d) Most oxidizing halogen (Iodine).
38. The ionic radii of N3 , O2 , F  and Na  follow the order:
a) N 3  O 2   F   Na  b) N 3  Na   O 2   F 
c) Na   O 2   N 3  F  d) O 2  N a   F   N 3 
39. Metallic character on moving from left to right in a periodic table:
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains constant d) First decreases then increases
40. Which of the following statement is true:
a) A mineral can not be ore b) All minerals are not ores
c) All ores are minerals d) All minerals are ores.
41. General method of extraction of metal from oxide ores is:
a) Reduction by carbon b) Reduction by hydrogen
c) Reduction by aluminium d) Electrolysis.

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42. In aluminothermite process, aluminium is used as:
a) Oxidizing agent b) Flux c) Reducing agent d) Soldier.
43. Substance which is mixed with are to remove impurities, is called:
a) Slag b) Gangue c) Flux d) Catalyst.
44. Baeyer’s reagent is:
a) Alkaline KMnO4 b) Ammoniacal AgNO3
c) Ammoniacal CuSO4 d) Acidic CaSO4.
45. The name of the compound that contains an isopropyl group is:
a) 2, 2, 3, 3-Tetramethylpentane b) 2, 2-Dimethylpentane
c) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylpentane d) 2-Methylpentane.
46. Ethylene is obtained by dehydration of:
a) CH3OH b) C2 H5OH c) Propyl alcohol d) Ethyl acetate.
Biology
47. What is true about Musca, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish.
a) None is aquatic b) They both belong to same phylum
c) They all are hermaphrodite d) All of these
48. Match the following
ITaenia A Protonephridia
IIPila B Malphigian Tubules
III Cockroach C Nephridia
IVNeris D Flame cells
VAscaries E Organ of bojanus
a) I - D, II - B, III - C, IV - A, V - E b) I - D, II - E, III - B, IV - A, V - C
c) I - D, II - C, III - B, IV - A, V - E d) I - D, II - E, III - B, IV - C, V -
49. In a moss, sporophyte
a) Manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
b) Is parasite on the gametophyte
c) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
d) Arise from a spore produced from the gametophyte
50. Which is an edible fungus?
a) Agaricus b) Rhizopus c) Mucor d) Penicillin
51. Trypanosoma is
a) Sporozoa b) Protozoa c) Ciliate d) Flagellata
52. Bacterial cell membrane is infoldedto form
a) Episomes b) Oxysomes c) Acrosomes d) Mesosomes
53. Which of the following is oviparous?
a) Platypus b) Bat c) Whale d) Elephant
54. Sycon is
a) Unicellular oracellular
b) Multicellular with tissue level organization
c) Multicellular with cell level organization
d) Multicellular with gastro vascular cavity
55. Triploblastic animal lacking coelom is
a) Earthworm b) Hydra c) Planaria d) Pin worm
56. Organism living in salty areas are called as
a) Methanogens b) Halophyles c) Heliophytes d) Thermoacidophilees
57. Animal with radial symmetry in adult and bilateral symmetry in larva
a) Asterias b) Snails c) Palaeomon d) Spongilla
58. Litmus is obtained from
a) Lichen b) Algae c) Fungi d) Protozoa
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59. Organism a regarded as “Joker’s in microbiological park”
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Mycoplasma d) Rickettsia
60. Which is wrong in respect to bryophytes?
a) Water is essential for fertilization
b) Presence of archegonia
c) Presence of ciliated sperms
d) Presence of autotrophic independent sporophyte
Social Science
HISTORY
61. Which of the following during the Vedic period was a major river:-
a) Ganga b) Narmada c) Son d) Saraswati
62. This era is called the Golden period of the Indian history:-
a) Vedic period b) Maurya dynasty c) Gupta period d) Ashoka’s time
63. Mohammed Ghori was wounded in the First Battle of Tarrain by:-
a) Prithviraj b) KrishnaDev c) Govindraj d) Deepakraj
64. The name of Shivaji’s mother was:-
a) Jodhabai b) Jijabai c) Jeetibai d) Tarabai
65. Pinnacle achievement in the field of architecture in the Moughal period is:-
a) Taj Mahal b) Harminder
c) Kandariya temple d) Dashavatr temple
66. A Bronze Chariot statue has been found in:-
a) Daimabad b) Kalibanga c) Mohenjodaro d) Punjab
67. Name of the book written by Megasthaneseis :-
a) SurSagar b) Bodhivraksha c) Indica d) Mudrarakshaka
68. Which Chinese traveller came to India during the time of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya:-
a) Fa-Hein b) HuenT’sang c) Megasthanese d) Arion
69. Harihar and Bukka were the founders of:-
a) Vijaynagar Empire b) Mohammed Nagar
c) Harappa d) DelhiSultanate
70. Ramayana in Tamil was written by:-
a) Varahmihir b) MahendraVreman
c) Kamban d) Ramanuj
71. Guru of Tansen was:-
a) Baaz Baksh b) Baba Haridas c) Amir Khushro d) Babar
72. Match the columns :
A B
1) Kandariatemple - a) Bhuvaneshwar
2) LingrajTemple - b) Tamil Nadu
3) Mahabalipuram - c) Tanjavure
4) Brihadeshwartemple - d) Khajuraho
5) SunTemple - e) Konark
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) 5(e)
c) 1(b) 2(a) 3(d) 4(c) 5(e) d) 1(e) 2(d) 3(c) 4(b) 5(a)
73. Match the columns :
A B
1) Mahmood Gaznavi - a) Shivaji
2) Founder of the Slave dynasty - b) Ruler of Gajni
3) Founder of Vijay Nagar - c) Qutubuddin Aibak
4) Afzal Khan was killed by - d) Harihar and Bukka
5) Bhojpur temple - e) Raja Bhoj
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(b) 2(a) 3(d) 4(c) 5(e) d) 1(e) 2(d) 3(c) 4(b) 5(a)
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74. Match the columns :
A B
1) Razia Sultana - a) Chandel dynasty
2) Vigrahraj - b) Parmar dynasty
3) Vidyaraj - c) Slave dynasty
4) Upendrara j - d) Chalukya dynasty
5) Moolraj - e) Chouhan dynasty
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(b) 2(a) 3(d) 4(c) 5(e) d) 1(c) 2(e) 3(a) 4(b) 5(d)
75. Match the columns :
A B
1) ShreeGupta - a) 375 AD to 380AD
2) Ghatotkutch - b) 319 AD to 335AD
3) ChandraguptaI - c) 335 AD to 375AD
4) Samudragupta - d) 300 AD to 319AD
5) Ramagupta - e) 275 AD to 300AD
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(e) 2(d) 3(b) 4(c) 5(a) d) 1(c) 2(e) 3(a) 4(b) 5(d)
CIVICS
76. Match side A to side B
A B
(i) Protection in respect ofconviction For offences. a) Artical 21
(ii) Protection of life and Personalliberty b) Artical 22
(iii) Protection against arrest anddeteution. c) Artical 23 & 24. in certain cases.
(iv) Right against Exploitation d) Artical 25- 28
(iv) Right to freedom of Riligion e) Artical 20
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(e) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(d) d) 1(c) 2(e) 3(a) 4(b) 5(d)
77. By Which Constitutional amendment, the right to property has been repealed from the
fundamental right.
a) 44th amendment b) 46th amendment.
c) 48 amendment
th d) 42th amendment
78. The process by which the citizens choose their representative is called......................
a) Votingright. b) Process of selection
c) Election d) Selection.
79. The merit of democracy.
a) Political education b) System that Sustains Freedom.
c) Government of in competent People d) Government of Based on equality.
80. The Candidates file their nomination paper before.
a) Collector b) Returning Officer.
c) Finance Officer d) Senior Officer
GEOGRAPHY
81. Due to deforestation:
a) ground area increased b) to lay railway line focalized
c) natural imbalanced d) rain increased
82. Work place for chipko andolan was:
a) Veni village b) Sawani village c) Reni village d) Kheni village
83. Main river of west is:
a) Luni b) Sabarmati c) Mahi d)Tapti
84. In winter rains in:
a) Saurastra coast b) Konkan coast c) Malabarcoast d) Coromondal coast

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85. Trees found in Ganga-Brahmputra delta:
a) Alpine b) Sundari c) Magnolia d) Babul
86. Main reason of population inceasesis:
a) speedly increases of birthrate b) slow rate ofdeath
c) Childwishes d) Socialstatus
87. Counter line:
a) Relief features b) depth of ocean c) depth of river d) breath of land
88. Highest and depth in map is shown by:
a) dark and light colour b) similar colour
c) by sign d) by name
89. Hills, Plateau, ground, rivers which is shown in map:
a) political map b) physical map
c) mineral map d) distribution map
90. Mangrove forest is famous
a) Royal Bengal Tiger b) Rihinosour
c) Dear d) Leopard
91. Highest rain falls in:
a) Assam b) West Bengal c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu
92. Match the following:

A B
1) Sindhu river a) Amarkanthakhills
2) Ganga river b) near mansaroverlake
3) Narmada river c) Mahabaleshwar
4) Tapti river d) Gangotrihimani
5) Krishna river d) Multai
a) 1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(e) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(b) 2(d) 3(a) 4(e) 5(c) d) 1(c) 2(e) 3(a) 4(b) 5(d)
93. Peninsular is a part of plateue
a) Angara land b) Green land c) Gondwana land d) England
94. Unit of environmental effect is
a) E.I.A. b) E.I.N c) O.E.I. d) I.E.A.
95. Match the following:
A B
1) First complete census (1) 75.85
2) World population become5arab (2) 62years
3) Density population of Delhi (3) 1981
4) Present life Expetancy is (4) 11 July, 1987
5) Present male literary is (5) 9094/men persq.
a) 1(c) 2(d) 3(e) 4(b) 5(a) b) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(a) 5(e)
c) 1(e) 2(a) 3(b) 4(c) 5(d) d) 1(c) 2(e) 3(a) 4(b) 5(d)
ECONOMICS
96. Public Distribution system was introduced in the year –
a) 2000 b) 1997 c) 1998 d) 1996
97. This industry is called “Protection Baby –
a) Paper Industry b) Sugar Industry
c) Leather Industry d) Glass Industry
98. Which scheme aim to provide food security to people of 65 years of age-
a) Janshri Yojna b) Antyodaya Anna Yojna
d) Annapoorna Yojna d) Gram Samraddhi Yojna
99. The system of exchange in which goods were exchanged for goods or services was called -
a) Barter System b) Zamindari System c) Monetary System d) Land reform System
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100. Measurement of land was done by –
a) Sher Shah Suri b) Akbar
c) Mohammad Gouri d) Babar
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