NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code DD PDF

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
DD
ACHLA
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-DD) ACHLA
1. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be Answer ( 1 )

marked with rings of different colours for its E
identification. The colour code sequence will Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R
be
E
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver 10 I  ...(ii)
R
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver R
n
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold Dividing (ii) by (i),
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold (n  1)R
10 
Answer ( 2 ) ⎛1 ⎞
⎜ n  1⎟ R
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% ⎝ ⎠
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver After solving the equation, n = 10
2. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of 4. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
each) which are connected in series. The directed electric field E. The direction of
terminals of the battery are short-circuited electric field is now reversed, keeping its
and the current I is measured. Which of the magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
graphs shows the correct relationship fall from rest in it through the same vertical
between I and n? distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater
I I
(3) 10 times greater (4) Equal
(1) (2) Answer ( 1 )
O O 1 eE 2
n n Sol. h  t
2 m
2hm
 t
I I eE
(3) (4)  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and

proton.
O O ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
n n
Answer ( 1 ) smaller time.
n  5. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
Sol. I  
nr r a glass tube. The length of the air column in
So, I is independent of n and I is constant. this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
 I
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
air at 27ºC is
(1) 330 m/s
O
n (2) 339 m/s
3. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
(3) 350 m/s
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn (4) 300 m/s
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in Answer ( 2 )
parallel to the same battery. Then the current
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
'n' is = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
(1) 10 (2) 11 = 339.2 ms–1
(3) 20 (4) 9 = 339 m/s
2
6. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength

sufficiently high building and is moving freely
h
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. 0  ...(i)
mV0
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean E0
position. The time period of oscillation is
F V0
(1) 2 s (2)  s
(3) 2 s (4) 1 s
Acceleration of electron
Answer ( 2 )
eE0
S o l . |a| = 2y a
m
 20 = 2(5)
Velocity after time ‘t’
  = 2 rad/s
⎛ eE0 ⎞
2 2 V  ⎜ V0  t⎟
T  s ⎝ m ⎠
 2
7. The electrostatic force between the metal h h
So,   
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor mV ⎛ eE ⎞
C having a charge Q and area A, is m ⎜ V0  0 t ⎟
⎝ m ⎠
(1) Independent of the distance between the
h 0
plates   …(ii)
⎡ eE0 ⎤ ⎡ eE0 ⎤
(2) Linearly proportional to the distance mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ ⎢1  t⎥
between the plates ⎣ mV0 ⎦ ⎣ mV0 ⎦
(3) Proportional to the square root of the Divide (ii) by (i),
distance between the plates 0

(4) Inversely proportional to the distance ⎡ eE0 ⎤
between the plates ⎢1  t⎥
⎣ mV0 ⎦
Answer ( 1 )
9. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
Q2 plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
Fplate  emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
2A0
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
F is Independent of the distance between maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
plates.
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
8. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
(1) 1 : 2

V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1

E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its (4) 2 : 1
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- Answer ( 1 )
Broglie wavelength at time t is
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
0 2
(1)
⎛ eE0 ⎞ 1
⎜1 t⎟ h(20 )  h0  mv12
⎝ mV0 ⎠ 2
⎛ eE0 ⎞ 1
(2) 0 ⎜ 1  t⎟ h 0  mv12 …(i)
mV0 ⎠ 2
⎝
1
(3) 0t h(50 )  h0  mv22
2
(4) 0
1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
Answer ( 1 ) 2
3
Divide (i) by (ii), Answer ( 4 )

1 v12 S o l . VBE = 0

4 v22 VCE = 0
v1 1 Vb = 0

v2 2 20 V
10. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of IC RC = 4 k
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
disintegration of 450 nuclei is RB
Vi Vb
(1) 20 (2) 10 Ib 500 k
(3) 30 (4) 15
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
(20  0)
N ⎛ 1⎞
n IC 
 4  103
N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
t
150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2 Vi = VBE + IBRB

600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ Vi = 0 + IBRB
t
2 20 = IB × 500 × 103
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟ 20
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ IB   40 A
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 500  103
= 20 minute IC 25  103
   125
11. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy Ib 40  106
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
13. In the combination of the following gates the
atom, is
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1 and B as
(3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
A
Answer ( 2 )
B
S o l . KE = –(total energy) Y
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
12. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and  are given by (1) A  B
20 V (2) A  B  A  B
(3) A  B  A  B
RC 4 k
C (4) A  B
RB
Vi Answer ( 2 )
500 k B
E A
Sol. A AB
B
B Y
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 A
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 AB
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 B
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 Y  (A  B  A  B)

4
14. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature 16. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
due to heating circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
(1) Affects only reverse resistance have the same mass M and radius R. They all
spin with the same angular speed  about
(2) Affects only forward resistance their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of satisfy the relation
p-n junction (1) WC > WB > WA
Answer ( 4 ) (2) WA > WB > WC
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs (3) WB > WA > WC
will increase, so overall resistance of diode
(4) WA > WC > WB
will change.
Due to which forward biasing and reversed Answer ( 1 )
biasing both are changed. S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
15. A body initially at rest and sliding along a W = KE
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of 1 2
W  I
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to 2
W  I for same 
h 2 1
B WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2
A
2 1
= : :1
3 5 2
(1) D (2) D
2
= 4 : 5 : 10
7 5  WC > WB > WA
(3) D (4) D
5 4 17. A moving block having mass m, collides with
Answer ( 4 ) another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
Sol. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
h (e) will be
B
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
vL (3) 0.8 (4) 0.4
A
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical Answer ( 2 )
energy will remain constant S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
T.M.EI =T.M.EF momentum,
1 mv  4m  0  4mv  0
0  mgh  mvL2  0
2 v
v 
vL2 4
h
2g v
Relative velocity of separation 4
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR e 
Relative velocity of approach v
5gR 5 5 1
h  R D e  0.25
2g 2 4 4
5
18. Which one of the following statements is 20. A toy car with charge q moves on a
incorrect? frictionless horizontal plane surface under
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
friction.
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly that instant the direction of the field is
proportional to normal reaction. reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field.
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative
The average velocity and the average speed
motion.
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has respectively
dimensions of length. (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
Answer ( 4 ) (3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no Answer ( 2 )
dimension. a
Sol. t = 0 t=1 –a
t=2
f = sN A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
C –a
f t=3
⇒ s 
N v = –6 ms
–1

19. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at 60
Acceleration a   6 ms2
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given 1
by For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ 1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
(2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
(3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ
1
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
(4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ 2
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
Answer ( 4 )
Y 1
Sol. S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
2
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
F
3
r  r0 Average velocity   1 ms 1
A 3
P
Total distance travelled = 9 m
r0
r 9
Average speed   3 ms 1
3
O X
21. A student measured the diameter of a small

  (r  r0 )  F ...(i) steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k) zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
î ˆj kˆ the correct diameter of the ball is

  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ (1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm
4 5 6 (3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.529 cm
6
Answer ( 4 ) 23. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

with its temperature (T), as shown in the
S o l . Diameter of the ball
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
change from state A to state B, is
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
= 0.529 cm
22. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth

inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The 2 2
(1) (2)
relation between a and  for the block to 5 3
remain stationary on the wedge is
1 2
A (3) (4)
3 7
m
Answer ( 1 )
a S o l . Given process is isobaric

C B dQ  n Cp dT
g ⎛5 ⎞
(1) a  dQ  n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
cosec  ⎝2 ⎠
g dW  P dV = n RdT
(2) a 
sin 
dW nRdT 2
(3) a = g cos  Required ratio   
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
(4) a = g tan  ⎝2 ⎠
Answer ( 4 ) 24. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
Sol. N cos organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
N
pipe is
 (1) 13.2 cm
ma N sin (2) 8 cm
(pseudo) 
(3) 12.5 cm
(4) 16 cm
mg a
 Answer ( 1 )
In non-inertial frame, S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
N sin  = ma ...(i) 3v

N cos  = mg ...(ii) 4l
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency

a
tan  
g v

a = g tan  2l 
7
Given, 27. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

plane surface of a material of refractive index
3v v
 ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
4l 2l  found that the reflected and refracted rays are
4l 2l perpendicular to each other. Which of the
 l  
following options is correct for this situation?
32 3
2  20 (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
  13.33 cm electric vector parallel to the plane of
3
incidence
25. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg ⎛ 1⎞
(3) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) ⎝⎠
(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K ⎛ 1⎞

(4) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
(3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K ⎝⎠
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
with electric field vector perpendicular to the
3kB T plane of incidence.
So,  11200 m/s
mO2
On solving,
T = 8.360 × 104 K i
26. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is 
(1) 26.8%
(2) 20%
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
(3) 6.25%
28. In Young's double slit experiment the
(4) 12.5% separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
Answer ( 1 ) wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
⎛ T ⎞ 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,   ⎜ 1  2 ⎟
⎝ T1 ⎠ the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
T2 : Sink temperature angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
separation between the slits needs to be
T1 : Source temperature
changed to
⎛ T ⎞
%  ⎜ 1  2 ⎟  100 (1) 1.8 mm
⎝ T1 ⎠
(2) 1.9 mm
⎛ 273 ⎞
 ⎜ 1 ⎟  100 (3) 2.1 mm
⎝ 373 ⎠
(4) 1.7 mm
⎛ 100 ⎞
⎜ ⎟  100  26.8%
⎝ 373 ⎠ Answer ( 2 )
8
 31. The refractive index of the material of a

S o l . Angular width 
d prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
 One of the two refracting surfaces of the
0.20  …(i) prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
2 mm
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
 entering the prism from the other face will
0.21  …(ii)
d retrace its path (after reflection from the
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
0.20 d
Dividing we get,  the prism is
0.21 2 mm
(1) 60°
 d = 1.9 mm
(2) 45°
29. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high (3) 30°
angular resolution, when it has an objective (4) Zero
lens of
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Small focal length and large diameter
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
(2) Large focal length and small diameter normally incident on silvered face.
(3) Large focal length and large diameter
(4) Small focal length and small diameter
Answer ( 3 ) 30°
f0 60°
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = M
fE i 30°
So, focal length of objective lens should be

large.
 2
D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22
So, objective should have large focal length Applying Snell's law at M,
(f0) and large diameter D.
sin i 2
30. An em wave is propagating in a medium with 

sin30 1
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
1
oscillating electric field of this em wave is  sin i  2 
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating 2
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
1
(1) –z direction sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
(2) +z direction
32. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
(3) –y direction from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
(4) –x direction If the object is displaced through a distance
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
Answer ( 2 )
displacement of the image will be
  
Sol. E  B  V (1) 30 cm away from the mirror
 (2) 36 cm away from the mirror

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror

So, B  Bkˆ (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
Direction of propagation is along +z direction. Answer ( 2 )
9
Sol. 34. Current sensitivity of a moving coil

f = 15 cm galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
O 40 cm
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
(1) 40  (2) 25 
(3) 250  (4) 500 
1 1 1
  Answer ( 3 )
f v1 u
S o l . Current sensitivity
1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40 NBA
IS 
C
1 1 1
   Voltage sensitivity
v1 –15 40
NBA
v1 = –24 cm VS 
CRG
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
mirror. So, resistance of galvanometer
IS 51 5000
Now, RG     250 
VS 20  103 20
u2 = –20
35. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
1 1 1 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
 
f v2 u2 inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
1 1 1 with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
 – slide down by flowing a current through it
–15 v2 20
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
1 1 1 acting on it in the vertical direction. The
 –
v2 20 15 current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
is
v2 = –60 cm
(1) 7.14 A (2) 5.98 A
So, image shifts away from mirror by
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm. (3) 14.76 A (4) 11.32 A
33. The magnetic potential energy stored in a Answer ( 4 )
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in S o l . For equilibrium,
°
30
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
B s
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30
co
inductance
(1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H mg llB
I
lB
tan30
30° 30° llB
(3) 1.389 H (4) 13.89 H n
si
Answer ( 4 ) 0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
S o l . Energy stored in inductor 0.25  3
1 2 36. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a

U Ll resistor 50  are connected in series across
2
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
1
25  10–3   L  (60  10–3 )2 loss in the circuit is
2
(1) 0.79 W
25  2  106  10–3
L (2) 0.43 W
3600
(3) 2.74 W
500

36 (4) 1.13 W
= 13.89 H Answer ( 1 )
10
2 Answer ( 3 )
⎛V ⎞
S o l . Pav  ⎜ RMS ⎟ R
⎝ Z ⎠ S o l . We know,
⎛ 1 ⎞
2 max T  constant (Wien's law)
Z  R2  ⎜ L   56 
⎝ C ⎟⎠
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
2
⎛ ⎞
10 ⎟ 3 0
 Pav  ⎜  50  0.79 W ⇒ 0 T  T
⎝  
⎜ 2 56 ⎟
⎠ 4
37. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically 4
between the poles of an electromagnet. When ⇒ T  T
3
the current in the electromagnet is switched
4 4
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out P2 ⎛ T  ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256
So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
work required to do this comes from 40. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
(1) The current source 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
(2) The magnetic field 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
(3) The lattice structure of the material of the 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
rod sample, is
(4) The induced electric field due to the (1) 104.3 J
changing magnetic field
(2) 208.7 J
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 42.2 J
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
into potential energy of the rod. (4) 84.5 J
38. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a Answer ( 2 )

viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced S o l . Q = U + W
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
velocity, is proportional to  U = 208.7 J
(1) r3 (2) r2 41. Two wires are made of the same material and
(3) r5 (4) r4 have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
Answer ( 3 )
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT the first wire is increased by l on applying a
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
VT  r 2 the socond wire by the same amount?
⇒ Power  r 5 (1) 9 F
39. The power radiated by a black body is P and (2) 6 F
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. (3) 4 F
If the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy (4) F
3 Answer ( 1 )
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4 S o l . Wire 1 :
becomes nP. The value of n is
F
3 4 A, 3l
(1) (2)
4 3 Wire 2 :
256 81 F
(3) (4) 3A, l
81 256
11
For wire 1, Answer ( 2 )

Sol. B
⎛ F ⎞ VC
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i) perihelion
⎝ AY ⎠ A C
S
aphelion
For wire 2, VA
F l Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.

Y
3A l So, VA > VB > VC
So, KA > KB > KC
⎛ F ⎞
 l  ⎜ ⎟l …(ii) 44. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
⎝ 3AY ⎠ motion a body possesses translational kinetic
From equation (i) & (ii), energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
⎛ F ⎞ ⎛ F ⎞ Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l  ⎜ 3AY ⎟ l
⎝ AY ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ (1) 7 : 10
(2) 5 : 7
 F  9F
(3) 10 : 7
42. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
(4) 2 : 5
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Answer ( 2 )
Which of the following physical quantities 1
would remain constant for the sphere? S o l . Kt  mv 2
2
(1) Angular velocity
2
1 1 1 1⎛ 2 ⎞⎛ v ⎞
(2) Moment of inertia Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟⎜ ⎟
2 2 2 2⎝5 ⎠⎝ r ⎠
(3) Rotational kinetic energy
(4) Angular momentum 7
 mv2
Answer ( 4 ) 10
S o l . ex = 0
Kt 5
So, 
dL Kt  Kr 7
So, 0
dt
i.e. L = constant 45. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
So angular momentum remains constant.
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
43. The kinetic energies of a planet in an following is not correct?
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B (1) Raindrops will fall faster
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC (2) Walking on the ground would become
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the more difficult
figure. Then (3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease
B
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
A C Answer ( 4 )
S
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
ten times, then G = 10 G
(1) KA < KB < KC (2) KA > KB > KC So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
(3) KB < KA < KC (4) KB > KA > KC i.e. (4) is wrong option.
12
46. Which of the following is an amino acid Answer ( 3 )

derived hormone? S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes
Answer ( 1 )
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino Excessive activity of parathormone causes
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
catecholamine.
50. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
47. Which of the following structures or regions is
(1) using flagella for locomotion
incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
excess water
and cardiovascular
reflexes. (3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre (4) having two types of nuclei
tracts that Answer ( 4 )
interconnect
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
different regions of
having two types of nuclei.
brain; controls
movement. eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
(3) Hypothalamus : production of macronucleus & micronucleus.
releasing hormones 51. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
and regulation of characterized by crop and gizzard in its
temperature, digestive system
hunger and thirst. (1) Amphibia
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers (2) Reptilia
connecting left and
right cerebral (3) Aves
hemispheres. (4) Osteichthyes
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
all emotions in our body but not movements. chambers in their digestive system as crop
48. The transparent lens in the human eye is held and Gizzard.
in its place by Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
(2) ligaments attached to the iris crush food grain.
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris 52. Which of the following organisms are known
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary as chief producers in the oceans?
body (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Euglenoids
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by Answer ( 2 )
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
body.
49. Which of the following hormones can play a 53. Which one of these animals is not a
significant role in osteoporosis? homeotherm?
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (1) Macropus

(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone (2) Chelone
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone (3) Camelus
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (4) Psittacula
13
Answer ( 2 ) 57. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ

S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain conservation’ except
constant body temperature, irrespective of (1) Wildlife safari parks
surrounding temperature.
(2) Sacred groves
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
(3) Botanical gardens
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
(4) Seed banks
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
Answer ( 2 )
54. Which of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis? Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate  Represent pristine forest patch as
(3) Moth (4) Starfish protected by Tribal groups.
Answer ( 1 ) 58. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
given below :
larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said Column-I Column-II
to have indirect development. a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
In earthworm development is direct which b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
means no larval stage and hence no c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
metamorphosis. enrichment
55. Which of the following features is used to
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach? a b c d
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the (1) ii i iii iv
9th abdominal segment (2) i iii iv ii
(2) Presence of caudal styles (3) iii iv i ii
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina (4) i ii iv iii
(4) Presence of anal cerci Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal enrichment
styles which are absent in females.
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation
segment in male cockroach.
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
56. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science 59. In a growing population of a country,
for the production of antibiotics? (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
(1) Commensalism than the reproductive individuals.
(2) Mutualism (2) reproductive individuals are less than the
(3) Parasitism post-reproductive individuals.
(4) Amensalism (3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
Answer ( 4 ) individuals are equal in number.
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than

the reproductive individuals.
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which Answer ( 1 )
harm other microbes (eg : S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
Staphylococcus) the younger population size is larger than the
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the reproductive group, the population will be an
organism which produces it. increasing population.
14
60. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain Answer ( 1 )

the drug “Smack”? S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
(1) Flowers (2) Latex amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
(3) Roots (4) Leaves Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
Answer ( 2 ) side and ectoderm on inner side.
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
Poppy plant. endoderm in inner side.
61. Hormones secreted by the placenta to 64. The difference between spermiogenesis and
maintain pregnancy are spermiation is
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
glucocorticoids
are formed.
Answer ( 3 )
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
stimulates the Corpus luteum during spermatozoa are formed.
pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
luteum from regression. Human placental formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of are released from sertoli cells into the
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains cavity of seminiferous tubules.
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by Answer ( 4 )
increasing uterine threshold to contractile S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
stimuli. spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
62. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
tubule.
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
65. Which of the following options correctly
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
and prevents ovulation in females.
emphysema, respectively?
(3) is an IUD.
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive. respiratory surface
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Increased number of bronchioles;
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week Increased respiratory surface
pill. It contains centchroman and its (3) Increased respiratory surface;
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen Inflammation of bronchioles
Receptor modulation. (4) Decreased respiratory surface;
63. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived Inflammation of bronchioles
from Answer ( 1 )
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
(2) endoderm and mesoderm wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
(4) ectoderm and endoderm which respiratory surface is decreased.
15
66. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
Column I Column II
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
and left ventricle volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right lungs even after forceful expiration. This
atrium and right averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle 68. Match the items given in Column I with those
a b c in Column II and select the correct option
given below :
(1) iii i ii
Column I Column II
(2) i iii ii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(3) i ii iii
uric acid in joints
(4) ii i iii
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
Answer ( 1 ) salts within the
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present kidney
between right atrium and right ventricle. c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between glomeruli
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
are present at the openings of aortic and d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
pulmonary aorta. nephritis glucose urine
67. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d

in Column II and select the correct option (1) iii ii iv i
given below:
(2) i ii iii iv
Column I Column II
(3) ii iii i iv
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(4) iv i ii iii
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
volume Answer ( 4 )
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
volume level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL is called renal threshold value for glucose.
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
a b c d in the joint.
(1) iii ii i iv
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
(2) iii i iv ii phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
kidney.
(3) i iv ii iii
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
(4) iv iii ii i
condition of glomerulus characterised by
Answer ( 2 ) proteinuria and haematuria.
16
69. Match the items given in Column I with those 71. Which of these statements is incorrect?
in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
given below:
mitochondrial matrix
Column I Column II
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(Function) (Part of Excretory
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
system)
supplied with NAD that can pick up
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop hydrogen atoms
b. Concentration ii. Ureter (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
of urine outer mitochondrial membrane
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder Answer ( 4 )
urine S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian mitochondrial membrane.
urine corpuscle 72. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
v. Proximal (1) Proteins and lipids
convoluted tubule (2) DNA and RNA
a b c d (3) Nucleic acids and SER
(1) iv v ii iii (4) Free ribosomes and RER
(2) iv i ii iii
Answer ( 4 )
(3) v iv i ii
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
(4) v iv i iii even extend into the dendrite but absent in
Answer ( 2 ) axon and rest of the neuron.
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
particles having molecular weight less than ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle. protein synthesis.
Concentration of urine refers to water 73. Which of the following terms describe human
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result dentition?
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
through ureter. (3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
urine.
Answer ( 2 )
70. Which of the following events does not occur
S o l . In humans, dentition is
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Protein folding  Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(2) Protein glycosylation
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
(4) Phospholipid synthesis replaced by a set of permanent or adult
Answer ( 4 ) teeth.
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in  Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are of different types of teeth namely incisors,
involved in lipid synthesis. canine, premolars and molars.
17
74. Select the incorrect match : S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents developing, hence, called follicular phase.
chromosomes Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
(3) Submetacentric – L-shaped
the endometrium maintained by
chromosomes chromosomes
progesterone.
(4) Polytene – Oocytes of
chromosomes amphibians Menstruation occurs due to decline in
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
Answer ( 4 )
overgrown endometrial lining.
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
glands of insects of order Diptera. 78. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
of evolution is
75. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide (1) Multiple step mutations
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are (2) Saltation
termed as
(3) Phenotypic variations
(1) Polysome
(2) Polyhedral bodies (4) Minor mutations
(3) Plastidome Answer ( 2 )

(4) Nucleosome S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Answer ( 1 ) Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
saltation.
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or 79. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
ergasomes. her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
76. All of the following are part of an operon inherited by
except (1) Only daughters
(1) an operator (2) structural genes (2) Only sons
(3) an enhancer (4) a promoter
(3) Only grandchildren
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Both sons and daughters
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
eukaryotes. Answer ( 4 )
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. Sol. • Woman is a carrier
77. Match the items given in Column I with those • Both son & daughter inherit
in Column II and select the correct option X–chromosome
given below :
• Although only son be the diseased
Column I Column II
80. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
strand of a gene. What will be the
endometrial corresponding sequence of the transcribed
lining mRNA?
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
a b c
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU
(1) iii ii i
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA
(2) i iii ii
Answer ( 1 )
(3) ii iii i
(4) iii i ii S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
Answer ( 3 )
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
18
81. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
help in erythropoiesis? dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
(1) Chief cells breaking industries.
(2) Mucous cells Long exposure can give rise to inflammation

leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(3) Goblet cells
lung damage.
(4) Parietal cells
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
Answer ( 4 ) by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can damaged due to which respiratory surface is
be absorbed easily and used during decreased.
erythropoiesis. Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption by Clostridium botulinum.
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
84. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
pernicious anaemia.
contraction because it
82. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option (1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
given below : of active sites on actin for myosin.
Column I Column II (2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to

it.
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
(3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
filament.
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
mechanism (4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
a b c filament.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer ( 1 )
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
Answer ( 4 ) (troponin "C") which is masking the active
site on actin filament and displaces the
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
sub-unit of troponin.
coagulation. These strands forms a network
and the meshes of which are occupied by  Once the active site is exposed, head of
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. the myosin attaches and initiate
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction contraction by sliding the actin over
of plasma proteins which means globulins are myosin.
involved in defence mechanisms. 85. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly disease?
responsible for BCOP. (1) Psoriasis
83. Which of the following is an occupational
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
respiratory disorder?
(3) Alzheimer's disease
(1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
(3) Botulism (4) Emphysema (4) Vitiligo
19
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 89. The similarity of bone structure in the

disorder in which antibodies are produced forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. of
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also (1) Homology
characterised as autoimmune disorder. (2) Analogy
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy (3) Convergent evolution
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
(4) Adaptive radiation
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter Answer ( 1 )
acetylcholine. S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
86. Among the following sets of examples for are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
divergent evolution, select the incorrect different way as per their adaptation, hence
option : example of homology.
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah 90. Which of the following characteristics
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
humans?
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
a. Dominance
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
b. Co-dominance
Answer ( 4 )
c. Multiple allele
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of d. Incomplete dominance
vertebrates which have developed along e. Polygenic inheritance
different directions due to adaptation to
(1) b, c and e
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
and man are examples of analogous organs (2) a, b and c
showing convergent evolution. (3) b, d and e
87. Conversion of milk to curd improves its (4) a, c and e
nutritional value by increasing the amount of
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Vitamin D
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
(2) Vitamin A relationship
(3) Vitamin B12
 IAIB - Codominance
(4) Vitamin E
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
Answer ( 3 ) forms of a gene
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk. (multiple allelism)
 It has enriched presence of vitamins 91. Which of the following flowers only once in its
specially Vit-B12. life-time?
88. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (1) Bamboo species
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of (2) Jackfruit
lymphatic vessels?
(3) Mango
(1) Elephantiasis
(4) Papaya
(2) Ascariasis
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Ringworm disease
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
(4) Amoebiasis generally only once in its life-time after 50-
Answer ( 1 ) 100 years.
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
Culex mosquito. their life-time.
20
92. Which of the following pairs is wrongly S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
matched? by mitosis.
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance cells.
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper – Parthenogenesis is the formation of

embryo from ovum or egg without
determination fertilisation.
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
Answer ( 1 ) fertilisation, (generally seedless)
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by 96. Which of the following has proved helpful in
pleiotropic gene. preserving pollen as fossils?
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly (1) Pollenkitt
matched. (2) Cellulosic intine
93. Select the correct statement (3) Oil content
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ (4) Sporopollenin
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British Answer ( 4 )
scientist
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
Answer ( 2 ) Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. pollen grain known as intine made up
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative cellulose & pectin.
mode of replication. Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder 97. Select the correct match
and Laderberg.
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
pneumoniae
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
94. The experimental proof for semiconservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a Martha Chase
(1) Fungus (3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
(2) Bacterium and F. Stahl
(3) Plant (4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
(4) Virus Jacques Monod
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by model of gene regulation known as operon
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. model/lac operon.
95. Offsets are produced by – Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
(1) Meiotic divisions technique.
(2) Mitotic divisions – Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-

conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
(3) Parthenocarpy
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
(4) Parthenogenesis
Proved DNA as genetic material not
Answer ( 2 ) protein
21
98. In India, the organisation responsible for 101. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
assessing the safety of introducing foreign company, though such varieties have
genetically modified organisms for public use been present in India for a long time. This is
is related to
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial (3) Lerma Rojo (4) Basmati
Research (CSIR) Answer ( 4 )
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
Manipulation (RCGM)
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee and trademark office that was actually been
(GEAC) derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
Answer ( 4 ) The diversity of rice in India is one of the
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal of Basmati are grown in India.
Committee) which will make decisions Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
regarding the validity of GM research and varieties and claimed as an invention or a
safety of introducing GM-organism for public novelty.
services. (Direct from NCERT).
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
99. Which of the following is commonly used as a of wheat.
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
102. Select the correct match
human lymphocytes?
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(1) Retrovirus
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(2) Ti plasmid
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(3)  phage
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) pBR 322 Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for acid.
introducing a DNA fragment in human 103. Use of bioresources by multinational
lymphocyte. companies and organisations without
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of authorisation from the concerned country and
patient are grown in culture outside the body, its people is called
a functional gene is introduced by using a (1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte. (3) Biodegradation (4) Bioexploitation
100. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Answer ( 2 )
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing of bioresources by multinational companies
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation and other organisation without proper
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing authorisation from the countries and people
concerned with compensatory payment
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
Answer ( 4 )
104. Natality refers to
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(1) Death rate
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps (2) Birth rate
(1) Denaturation (3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) Primer annealing (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(3) Extension of primer Answer ( 2 )
22
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,

chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
• Death rate – Mortality method converting into oxygen
• Number of individual – Immigration Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
entering a habitat is ozone layer depletion
• Number of individual – Emigration 108. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

leaving the habital (1) 5th June
105. Niche is (2) 21st April
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's (3) 16th September
environment (4) 22nd April
(2) the physical space where an organism Answer ( 3 )
lives S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
(3) the range of temperature that the September.
organism needs to live 5th June - World Environment Day
(4) the functional role played by the organism 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
where it lives 22nd April - National Earth Day
Answer ( 4 ) 109. Which of the following is a secondary
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It pollutant?
refers the functional role played by the (1) CO (2) CO2
organism where it lives. (3) SO2 (4) O3
106. What type of ecological pyramid would be Answer ( 4 )
obtained with the following data?
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
Secondary consumer : 120 g formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
Primary consumer : 60 g CO – Quantitative pollutant
Primary producer : 10 g CO2 – Primary pollutant
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass SO2 – Primary pollutant
(2) Pyramid of energy 110. The two functional groups characteristic of
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers sugars are
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
(2) Carbonyl and methyl
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in (4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
aquatic ecosystem. Answer ( 4 )
• Pyramid of energy is always upright S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
carbohydrate.
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
are not possible, as the data depicts
ketone or their derivatives, which means they
primary producer is less than primary
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers. 111. Which among the following is not a
prokaryote?
107. In stratosphere, which of the following
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of (1) Saccharomyces
ozone and release of molecular oxygen? (2) Mycobacterium
(1) Carbon (2) Cl (3) Nostoc
(3) Fe (4) Oxygen (4) Oscillatoria
23
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote 117. Stomata in grass leaf are

(unicellular fungi)
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
(2) Kidney shaped
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
(3) Rectangular
112. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) Temperature (4) Barrel shaped
(2) Light Answer ( 1 )
(3) O2 concentration S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
(4) CO2 concentration shaped stomata in their leaves.
Answer ( 3 ) 118. Casparian strips occur in
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 (1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
affect opening and closing of stomata while
they are not affected by O2 concentration. (3) Cortex (4) Endodermis
113. Which of the following is not a product of light Answer ( 4 )
reaction of photosynthesis? Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
(1) ATP (2) NADH and inner tangential wall.
(3) NADPH (4) Oxygen • It is suberin rich.
Answer ( 2 )
119. Plants having little or no secondary growth
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light are
reaction, while NADH is a product of
respiration process. (1) Grasses
114. The Golgi complex participates in (2) Deciduous angiosperms
(1) Fatty acid breakdown (3) Conifers
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles (4) Cycads
(3) Respiration in bacteria
Answer (1)
(4) Activation of amino acid
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
Answer ( 2 )
do not have secondary growth.
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
secretory vesicles from their trans-face. Palm like monocots have anomalous
secondary growth.
115. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing 120. Pneumatophores occur in
cells (1) Halophytes
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure (2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) It takes part in spindle formation
(3) Carnivorous plants
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
synthesis (4) Submerged hydrophytes
Answer ( 4 ) Answer (1)

S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis. pneumatophores.
116. The stage during which separation of the  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
paired homologous chromosomes begins is having lenticels called pneumathodes to
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene uptake O2.
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene 121. Sweet potato is a modified
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Stem (2) Adventitious root
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. (3) Tap root (4) Rhizome
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
chiasmata start to shift towards end. Answer ( 2 )
24
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
for storage of food is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
form the wings of pollen. It is the
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
from the redicle not winged shaped.
122. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem 126. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
are produced by are produced exogenously in
(1) Apical meristems (2) Vascular cambium (1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria
(3) Agaricus (4) Saccharomyces
(3) Phellogen (4) Axillary meristems
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary basidiospores or meiospores are
produced exogenously.
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
and secondary phloem towards outsides.  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
produces ascospores as meiospores but
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is endogenously inside the ascus.)
produced than secondary phloem.
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
123. Which of the following statements is correct? does not produce sexual spores.
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
gymnosperms
endogenously.
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while 127. Match the items given in Column I with those
Salvinia is homosporous in Column II and select the correct option
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms given below:
Column I Column II
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
collection of preserved
Answer ( 1 ) plants and animals
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
methodically all the
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary species found in an area
124. Select the wrong statement : with brief description
aiding identification
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
and Plantae
and pressed plant
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes specimens mounted on
sheets are kept
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
structures in Sporozoans
list of characters and
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the their alternates which
cell in all kingdoms except Monera are helpful in
identification of various
Answer ( 3 )
taxa.
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in a b c d
sarcodines (Amoeboid) (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
125. Winged pollen grains are present in (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Mango (4) Pinus (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
25
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant 132. Double fertilization is

specimen
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
• Key – Identification of various tube with two different eggs
taxa
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
• Museum – Plant and animal nuclei
specimen are preserved
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
species
Answer ( 4 )
128. Which one is wrongly matched?
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
that occur in angiosperms only.
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
133. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella by
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Green sulphur bacteria
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, (2) Nostoc
where asexual spores and gametes are
(3) Cycas
non-motile or non-flagellated.
(4) Chara
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
matched Answer ( 1 )
129. Which one of the following plants shows a S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
very close relationship with a species of moth, source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
where none of the two can complete its life O2.
cycle without the other? 134. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca respiration?
(3) Banana (4) Viola (1) It functions as an enzyme.
Answer ( 2 ) (2) It functions as an electron carrier.
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a (3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
species of moth i.e. Pronuba. (4) It is the final electron acceptor for
130. Pollen grains can be stored for several years anaerobic respiration.
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of Answer ( 2 )
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
(3) –196°C (4) –160°C carrier.
Answer ( 3 ) 135. In which of the following forms is iron

absorbed by plants?
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C (1) Ferric
(Cryopreservation) (2) Ferrous
131. Which of the following elements is responsible (3) Free element
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(4) Both ferric and ferrous
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
Answer ( 1 * )
(3) Potassium (4) Calcium
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
Answer ( 3 ) ions. (According to NCERT)
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
cells. Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
26
136. Which of the following statements is not true Answer ( 4 )

for halogens?
Sol.
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
(2) All are oxidizing agents
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation 140. The correct order of N-compounds in its
states decreasing order of oxidation states is
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain (1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
enthalpy
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
Answer ( 3 )
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in Answer ( 1 )
HOF.
5 2 0 –3
137. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
following metals can be used to reduce
Hence, the correct option is (1).
alumina?
141. Which one of the following elements is unable
(1) Fe (2) Zn to form MF63– ion?
(3) Mg (4) Cu (1) Ga (2) Al
Answer ( 3 ) (3) B (4) In
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' Answer ( 3 )
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
correct option.
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
138. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone 4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is BF63(–).
(1) One (2) Two Hence, the correct option is (3).
(3) Four (4) Three 142. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
Answer ( 2 ) together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is in the order
  (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
 
 
F
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
 
(3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
 
F Cl
 
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
 
 
F Answer ( 4 )
 
C2H5O Na+
Na
The number of lone pair of electrons on S o l . C2H5OH
central Cl is 2. (A) (B)
139. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 PCl5

elements is
C2H5Cl
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C)
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
So the correct option is (4)
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
27
143. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 146. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous different concentrations :
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
(1) CH  CH (2) CH2  CH2
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH4 M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Answer ( 4 ) 10 10
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br M M
(A) c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
Na/dry ether 5 5
Wurtz reaction
M M
CH3 — CH3 d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
Hence the correct option is (4)
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
144. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
(1) b (2) a
reactions:
(3) d (4) c
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C Answer ( 4 )
The product 'C' is 1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
(1) m-bromotoluene 5
(2) o-bromotoluene 1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene 5
(4) p-bromotoluene • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
Answer ( 1 ) • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 10 1
= 
3Cl 2 Br2
100 10
Sol.  Fe
Br  1
(C7H8) (A) (B) pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
Zn HCl
147. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend?
CH3
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone
Br (2) Size of the ion alone
(C)
(3) The sign of charge on the ion alone
So, the correct option is (1)
(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
145. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
the ion
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? Answer ( 3 )
(1) N2O5 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

an electrolyte depends on the charge
(2) NO2
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
(3) N2O
particles as well as on its size.
(4) NO
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
Answer ( 1 ) depends on the magnitude of charge
S o l . Fact present on effective ion of electrolyte.
28
148. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 a b c d

at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(1) iv v ii i
(Ksp) will be
(2) i ii iii iv
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
(3) iv i ii iii
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
(4) iii v i ii
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
Answer ( 1 ) Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
2.42  103 Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3

S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)
s s Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2

= (1.04 × 10–5)2
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
151. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
149. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and (1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear
3.59, which one of the following gases is most (3) Trinuclear (4) Dinuclear
easily liquefied?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) NH3
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
(2) H2
present in a complex, they are classified
(3) O2 into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
(4) CO2 so on.
Answer ( 1 ) eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear

intermolecular forces of attraction. Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be Hence, option (2) should be the right
the liquefaction of gas. answer.
150. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
152. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
in Column II and assign the correct code :
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Column I Column II
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM (3) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM Answer ( 2 )
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
v. 15 BM
Configuration would be :
29
3
sp -hybridisation • As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism.
×× ×× ×× ××
155. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
CO CO CO CO following sequence of reactions:
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be Anhydrous

AlCl3
sp 3 and thus the complex would be + CH3CH2CH2Cl
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
(i) O2
CO P Q+R
(ii) H3O+/
P Q R
Ni CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
CO
OC (1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
CO
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
153. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? (2) , ,
(1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O72–
(3) MnO4– (4) MnO42– CH(CH3)2 OH
(3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar] OH
CH(CH3)2
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic , ,
(4) CH3 – CO – CH3
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic Answer ( 4 )
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1 Cl

S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic 3 2 2
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar] Cl Cl
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic + 1, 2–H + –

Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
154. The type of isomerism shown by the complex (Incipient carbocation)
[CoCl2(en)2] is Cl
(1) Geometrical isomerism –
AlCl3
(2) Coordination isomerism
Now,
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism CH3
Answer ( 1 ) CH – CH3
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co CH3 – CH – CH3 O2

is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry. (P)
CH3
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
30
156. Which of the following compounds can form a 159. Which of the following is correct with respect
zwitterion? to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Glycine Answer ( 1 * )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
  –I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
(Zwitterion form)
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
however option (2) may also be correct answer.
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
160. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
H2N – CH2 – COO– an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
157. Which of the following molecules represents the simplest formula for this compound is
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? (1) Mg2X3 (2) MgX2
(3) Mg2X (4) Mg3X2
(1) HC  C – C  CH
Answer ( 4 )
(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
(3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
1s2 2s2 2p3
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 So, valency of X will be 3.
Answer ( 2 ) Valency of Mg is 2.
sp2 sp2 sp sp
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH be Mg3X2.
161. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
Number of orbital require in hybridization
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
= Number of -bonds around each carbon fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
atom. room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is
158. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable? 3 4 3
(1) (2)
2 3 2
NO2 NO2
 3 3 1
(3) (4)
4 2 2
(1) (2)

Answer ( 3 )
Y H Y H
4r
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
NO2 NO2 3
H  For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r

(3) H (4) Y
 ZM 
Y   N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
 
Answer ( 3 ) d900C  ZM 
 N a3 
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases  A  FCC
with increase in distance. In option (4) 3
positive charge present on C-atom at 2  2 2 r 3 3
  
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it 4 4r   4 2 
 
is minimum and stability is maximum.  3 
31
162. Which one is a wrong statement? 164. In the reaction

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of OH O–Na+
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum CHO
numbers while an electron in an atom is + CHCl3 + NaOH
designated by four quantum numbers
(3) The electronic configuration of N atom is
The electrophile involved is
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero (2) Formyl cation CHO  

Answer ( 3 )
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
multiplicity, the correct electronic
(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

configuration of N-atom is (4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
Answer ( 4 )
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
OR
the following reaction
.–.
CHCl3  OH–
CCl3  H2 O
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
.–.
 Option (3) violates Hund's Rule.  : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile
163. Consider the following species :
CN+, CN–, NO and CN 165. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
Which one of these will have the highest bond than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
order? comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) NO (2) CN– (1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(3) CN+ (4) CN
(2) Formation of carboxylate ion
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . NO : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2,(2pz)2, (3) More extensive association of carboxylic
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0 acid via van der Waals force of attraction
10  5 (4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding

BO =  2.5
2
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 Answer ( 4 )
= (2py)2,(2pz)2 S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
10  4 in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
BO = 3
2 boiling point increases and become more
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
= (2py)2,(2pz)1 and alcohols of comparable molecular
9 4 masses.
BO =  2.5
2 166. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
= (2py)2 yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
8 4 smell.
BO = 2
2 A and Y are respectively
Hence, option(2) should be the right answer.
32
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 k[A0 ]
which depends on initial concentration of
reactant.
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
168. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
character is
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
CH – CH3 and I2
(3)
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
OH
CH3 (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(4) CH3 OH and I2 Answer ( 1 )
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
Answer ( 3 ) group metallic character of metals increases
S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and 169. Consider the change in oxidation state of
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate. Bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the diagram below :
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
OH O –
Acetophenone Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(A)
I2 Then the species undergoing

COONa + CHI3
Iodoform
NaOH disproportionation is
(1) BrO3 (2) BrO4
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
167. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that (3) Br2 (4) HBrO
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not Answer ( 4 )
depend on reactant concentrations; the 1 0
o
rate of a second-order reaction does S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
depend on reactant concentrations
1 5
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a BrO3 /HBrO
second-order reaction does depend on o
[A]0 Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
o o
(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
second-order reaction cannot be
catalyzed = 1.595 – 1.5
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does = 0.095 V = + ve
depend on reactant concentrations; the Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
rate of a second-order reaction does not 170. In which case is number of molecules of
depend on reactant concentrations water maximum?
Answer ( 2 ) (1) 18 mL of water
(2) 0.18 g of water
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k (3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant. (4) 10–3 mol of water
33
Answer ( 1 ) 173. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in

S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g nature?
18 (1) MgO (2) BeO
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA (3) BaO (4) CaO
18
= NA Answer ( 2 )
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
0.18 
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18 Basic character increases.
= 10–2 NA So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
0.00224 BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4 oxides are basic.
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA 174. The difference between amylose and
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA amylopectin is
171. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, (1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
which of the following statements is 1 6 -linkage
incorrect? (2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
(1) They contain covalent bonds between -linkage
various linear polymer chains. (3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
monomers. (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
(3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
Answer ( 1 )
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
their polymer chains.
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
Answer ( 4 )
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers and 1  6 -linkages.
and contain strong covalent bonds between So option (1) should be the correct option.
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
175. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
cross-linking.
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
So option (4) should be the correct option. pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
172. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium at STP will be
also gives m-nitroaniline because (1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always (3) 2.8 (4) 4.4
goes to only m-position. Answer ( 3 )
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
amino group is meta directive. 1
 1  mol
2.3 g or  mol 
(3) In absence of substituents nitro group  20  20
always goes to m-position. Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is 1 1
mol mol
present as anilinium ion. COOH 20 20
 1 
Answer ( 4 ) 4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
NH2 NH3 Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
H absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
Sol.
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
Anilinium ion
is
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para 2
 28  2.8 g
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is 20
also formed in significant yield. So, the correct option is (3)
34
176. For the redox reaction Answer ( 1 )
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)
The correct coefficients of the reactants for On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
the balanced equation are direction where pressure decreases i.e.
forward direction.
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
(1) 16 5 2 in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(2) 2 5 16 So, high pressure and low temperature
(3) 2 16 5 favours maximum formation of product.
(4) 5 16 2 179. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
Answer ( 2 ) XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
Reduction
dissociation energy of X2 will be
+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O (1) 200 kJ mol–1
Oxidation (2) 100 kJ mol–1

n-factor of MnO4  5 (3) 800 kJ mol–1
n-factor of C2 O24  2 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
Answer ( 3 )

Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
1 1
 The balanced equation is X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
X
177. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
equation corresponds to respectively
(1) Density of the gas molecules
X X
(2) Volume of the gas molecules  H      X  200
2 4
(3) Electric field present between the gas
molecules On solving, we get
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas

X X
molecules    200
2 4
Answer ( 4 )
 X = 800 kJ/mole
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT 180. When initial concentration of the reactant is
 V2 
 doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies reaction
intermolecular forces of attraction.
(1) Is halved (2) Is doubled
178. Which one of the following conditions will
(3) Is tripled (4) Remains unchanged
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction, Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Half life of zero order
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g)
[A0 ]
(1) Low temperature and high pressure t 1/2 
2K
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration.
(4) High temperature and low pressure

35

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

1. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be Answer ( 1 )

(3) (4)  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and

6. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength

Divide (i) by (ii), Answer ( 4 )

(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 Y  (A  B  A  B)

Answer ( 4 ) 23. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004

22. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth

In non-inertial frame, S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic

For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency

Given, 27. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K ⎛ 1⎞

26. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

 31. The refractive index of the material of a

So, focal length of objective lens should be

 (2) 36 cm away from the mirror

Sol. 34. Current sensitivity of a moving coil

1 2 36. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a

38. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a Answer ( 2 )

For wire 1, Answer ( 2 )

F l Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.

46. Which of the following is an amino acid Answer ( 3 )

(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (1) Macropus

Answer ( 2 ) 57. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ

S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than

60. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain Answer ( 1 )

67. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d

(3) Plastidome Answer ( 2 )

(2) Mucous cells Long exposure can give rise to inflammation

Column I Column II (2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to

S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 89. The similarity of bone structure in the

(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper – Parthenogenesis is the formation of

(2) Mitotic divisions – Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-

(1) Denaturation (3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat

(2) Primer annealing (4) Number of individuals entering a habitat

(3) Extension of primer Answer ( 2 )

S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,

• Number of individual – Emigration 108. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

105. Niche is (2) 21st April

(3) Fe (4) Oxygen (4) Oscillatoria

S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote 117. Stomata in grass leaf are

Answer ( 4 ) Answer (1)

Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant 132. Double fertilization is

(3) Banana (4) Viola (1) It functions as an enzyme.

Answer ( 2 ) (2) It functions as an electron carrier.

Answer ( 3 ) 135. In which of the following forms is iron

136. Which of the following statements is not true Answer ( 4 )

(1) One (2) Two Hence, the correct option is (3).

139. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 PCl5

(1) N2O5 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

148. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 a b c d

2.42  103 Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3

Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2

Answer ( 1 ) eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear

Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear

For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be Anhydrous