Operating Systems Q&A - 16-1&2

Operating Systems Q&A Dr.
Jamal Mohammad Khalifeh 2016

Operating Systems Overview and Structure
1. Which of the following refer to functions or programming features in an operating system that programmers can
use for network links?
a. Application software c. *Application Program Interface (API)
b. BASIC d. Client/server systems
2. Which of the following refers to a word processor, spreadsheet, database, or computer game?
a. Code c. Operating systems
b. Device driver d. *Application software
3. Which of the following is a computing style frequently employed by large systems?
a. Compact processing c. Central processing
b. *Batch processing d. Device processing
4. Which of the following refers to a low-level computer programming code that conducts basic hardware and
software communications inside the computer?
a. *BIOS c. Both A and B
b. Preemptive multitasking d. None of the above
5. Which of the following refers to a computer hardware and software design in which different portions of an
application execute on different computers?
a. Server/server systems c. Cooperative systems
b. *Client/server systems d. Central systems
6. Which of the following refers to a computer hardware and software design in which the operating system
temporarily hands-off control to an application and waits for the application to return control to the operating
system?
a. *Cooperative multitasking c. BIOS multitasking
b. Preemptive multitasking d. BASIC multitasking
7. Which of the following is a computer operating system that is typically installed on a PC type of computer used
by one person at a time?
a. Batch operating system c. Multi-user operating system
b. *Desktop operating system d. Personal Digital operating system
8. Which of the following is computer software designed to provide the operating system and application software
access to specific computer hardware?
a. BIOS c. *Device driver
b. Central processing unit d. None of the above
9. Which of the following refers to the generic computer code used to control many low-level computer hardware
and software functions?
a. SOD c. ODS
b. *DOS d. All of the above
10. Which of the following refers to the physical devices in a computer that you can touch, such as the CPU, disk
drive, etc?
a. *Hardware c. Both A and B
b. Software d. None of the above
11. ------------- is the information taken in by a computer device to handle or process, such as characters typed on a
keyboard.
a. *Input c. Both A and B
b. Output d. None of the above
12. Which of the following refers to an essential set of programs and computer code built into a computer operating
system to control processor, disk, memory and other functions central to the basic operation of the computer?
a. BIOS c. *Kernel
b. Input/Output d. All of the above
13. Which of the following refers to a solid-state electronic device that controls the major computer functions and
operations?
Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 1

Operating Systems Q&A Dr. Jamal Mohammad Khalifeh 2016
a. *Microprocessor c. Multi-use processor
b. Macroprocessor d. Preemptive processor
14. Which of the following refers to a technique that allows a computer to run two or more programs at the same
time?
a. Unitasking c. *Multitasking
b. Multi-user environment d. Real-time tasking
15. Which of the following is a computer hardware and software system designed to service multiple users who
access the computer hardware and software applications simultaneously?
a. *Multi-user c. Multiple assistant
b. Multitasking d. All of the above
16. Which of the following refers to an environment that supports multi-user access to a computer's hardware and
software facilities?
a. Single-user environment c. Both A and B
b. *Multi-user environment d. None of the above
17. Which of the following refers to computer software code that interfaces with user application software and the
computer's BIOS to allow the applications to interact with the computer hardware?
a. CMOS c. *Operating system
b. BIOS d. RAM
18. Which of the following is a small hand-held computer used as a personal organizer?
a. *PDA c. DAP
b. ADP d. None of the above
19. Which of the following is a computer hardware and software design for multitasking applications in which the
operating system retains control of the computer at all times?
a. Cooperative multitasking c. Both A and B
b. *Preemptive multitasking d. None of the above
20. Which of the following refers to an operating system that interacts directly with the user and responds in current
time with required information?
a. RM systems c. Resource systems
b. Cooperative systems d. *Real-time systems
21. Which of the following is special memory that contains information that is NOT erased when the power is
removed from the memory hardware?
a. RAM c. CMOS
b. *ROM d. None of the above
22. Which of the following refer to programs that manage computer memory and CPU use?
a. *Resource managers c. Microprocessors
b. Macroprocessors d. All of the above
23. Which of the following is a computer processing cycle in which each operation is submitted, acted upon, and the
results displayed before the next process is started?
a. Asynchronous processing c. Symmetric processing
b. Time-shared processing d. *Sequential processing
24. Which of the following is a computer operating system usually found on more powerful PC-based computers than
those used for desktop operating systems?
a. Client operating systems c. *Server operating systems
b. Single task operating systems d. None of the above
25. Which of the following is a computer hardware and software design that can manage ONLY one task at a time?
a. Multitasking c. Both A and B
b. *Single tasking d. None of the above
26. Which of the following refers to a hardware and software system that enables ONLY one user to access its
resources at a particular time?
a. Central user c. Compact user
b. Guest user d. *Single user

27. Which of the following is a single tasking computer hardware and software design that permits the user or
application software to switch among multiple single-tasking operations?
a. Sequential tasking c. Both A and B
b. *Task switching d. None of the above
28. Which of the following refers to a central computing system, such as a mainframe, that is used by multiple users
and applications simultaneously?
a. Compact basic system c. *Time-sharing system
b. Task switching system d. Batch system
29. ------------- is information sent out by a computer device after that information is handled or processed.
a. *Output c. Both A and B
b. Input d. None of the above
30. Which part of the operating system is unique to each operating system?
a. *User Command Interface c. Memory Manager
b. Process Manager d. File Manager
31. The ------------- must receive the electrical impulses from the keyboard, decode the keystrokes to form the
command, and send the command to the User Command Interface, where the Processor Manager validates the
command.
a. *Device Manager c. Keyboard Manager
b. File Manager d. Memory Manager
32. ------------- include(s) every peripheral unit in the system such as printers, disk drives, CD drives, magnetic tape
devices, keyboards, DVD players, modems, and so on.
a. The CPU c. Processors
b. *I/O Devices d. Secondary components
33. In a computer, the ------------- holds the Central Processing Unit, the Arithmetic and Logic Unit, registers, cache,
and main memory.
a. parallel system c. *tower
b. USB interface d. monitor
34. How many floating-point operations can a supercomputer perform per second?
a. 240 million c. *2.4 trillion
b. 2.4 billion d. 24 trillion
35. The most powerful microcomputers used by commercial, educational and government enterprises are called ------
-------.
a. supercomputers c. terminals
b. minicomputers d. *workstations
36. What is the primary distinguishing characteristic of modern computers?
a. memory capacity c. disk space
b. *processor capacity d. physical size
37. Which operating systems are typically used for a network platform?
a. IRIX, UNICOS
b. Linux, Macintosh, MS-DOS, Windows 2000/XP
c. *Linux, NetWare, UNIX, Windows Server 2003
d. IBM OS/390, UNIX
38. Which of the following requires a real-time system?
a. space flights c. telephone switching
b. airport traffic control d. *All of the above
39. A hybrid system is a combination of the ------------- systems.
a. *batch and interactive c. interactive and real-time
b. batch and real-time d. real-time and general-purpose
40. What type of system is designed to perform one specific function?
a. Real-time c. *Embedded
b. Interactive d. Hybrid
41. What is the name for the core part of operating system software?
a. manager c. core
b. center d. *kernel
42. For what period were vacuum tube computers used?
a. 1920s-1930s c. *1940-1955
b. 1935-1945 d. 1945-1960
43. What was the primary market for second-generation computers?
a. the government c. education
b. *business d. All of the above
44. What was one of the main improvements of second-generation computers?
a. *job scheduling c. improved user interface
b. better debugging d. more structured logic for programs
45. ------------- means that several logical records are grouped within one physical record.
a. Grouping c. Combining
b. Fixing d. *Blocking
46. In second-generation computers, to reduce the discrepancy in speed between the I/O and the CPU, an interface
called the ------------- was placed between them to perform the function of buffering.
a. *control unit c. holder
b. scheduler d. buffer manager
47. The most common mechanism for implementing multiprogramming was the introduction of the -------------
concept, which is when the CPU is notified of events needing operating systems services.
a. paging c. messaging
b. sharing d. *interrupt
48. A system with ------------- would divide the programs into segments and keep them in secondary storage, bringing
each segment into memory only as it was needed.
a. *virtual memory c. segmented processing
b. shared memory d. passive multiprogramming
49. Which word is used to indicate that a program is permanently held in ROM (read only memory), as opposed to
being held in secondary storage?
a. hardware c. software
b. *firmware d. shareware
50. What is a disadvantage of a distributed operating system?
a. user has to monitor which computer is being controlled
b. users have to worry about scheduling each processor rather than dealing with uniprocessor system
c. *more complex processor-scheduling algorithms
d. All of the above
51. A typical ------------- computer houses devices to perform audio, video, and graphic creation and editing.
a. multiprocessor c. networked
b. *multimedia d. PDA
52. ------------- are self-contained modules (units of software) that provide models of the real world and can be reused
in different applications.
a. *Objects c. Peripherals
b. Kernels d. Threads
53. What is another name for a thread?
a. heavyweight process c. kernel
b. *lightweight process d. distributor
54. In which of the following are processors placed at remote locations and are connected to each other via
telecommunication devices?
a. multiprocessing c. *distributed processing
b. multithreading d. shared processing

55. Multiprogramming is
* a. the concurrent execution of two or more computer programs on one computer system
b. the concurrent execution of one computer program on two or more computer systems
c. the use of multiple languages with which to write computer programs
d. the use of two or more computer systems which are under the control of a single program
56. If a general purpose system (such as a university's mainframe) becomes overloaded, then the response
time
a. becomes shorter
b. does not change
* c. tends to approximate infinity
57. In general, the degree of CPU idle time in a multiprogramming system

* a. decreases as the number of jobs goes up
b. increases as the number of jobs goes up
58. Ideally, the goal of all operating systems is to

a. use the resources of the system efficiently
b. give fair or equitable service to the users
* c. both of the above
d. none of the above
59. Resources managed by the operating system can be grouped into two main categories
a. files and secondary storage
b. I/O devices and processes
* c. physical and logical
60. The objectives of a batch operating system

a. are the same as those of an interactive operating system
* b. conflict with those of an interactive operating system
61. The following diagram comparing the time to set up a job versus the time to execute a job in a slow
machine (A), and a faster machine (B) indicates that
* a. manual set up time took a greater proportion of total time as machines got faster, increasing the
need for operating systems to handle jobs.
b. manual set up time took a smaller proportion of total time as machines got faster, decreasing the
need for operating systems to handle jobs.
Machine(A):
Time to Time to Time to Time to
set up execute job set up execute job
job job
Machine (B):
Time to Time to Time to Time to
set up job execute set up job execute
job job

Processes & Threads
62. What is the name for a portion of a process that can run independently?
*a. thread c. miniprocess
b. program d. subprocess
63. What is the high-level scheduler?
a. Process Scheduler c. Program Scheduler
*b. Job Scheduler d. Thread Scheduler
64. What does the Job Scheduler seek to do when scheduling jobs?
a. run all CPU intensive jobs first *c. balance CPU and I/O intensive jobs
b. run all I/O intensive jobs first d. run the quickest jobs first
65. The Process Scheduler assigns the CPU to execute the processes of those jobs placed on the ------------- queue by
the Job Scheduler.
a. waiting c. process
b. next *d. ready
66. In a highly interactive environment there is a third layer of the Processor Manager called the -------------
scheduler.
a. Managing *c. middle-level
b. Subprocess d. Program
67. What is the initial state for a job?
*a. HOLD c. WAITING
b. RUNNING d. READY
68. Which transition is managed by the Job Scheduler?
a. READY to RUNNING c. RUNNING back to READY
b. RUNNING to WAITING *d. HOLD to READY
69. Which transition is sometimes managed by the Process Scheduler and sometimes by the Job Scheduler?
a. WAITING to READY c. RUNNING to FINISHED
b. RUNNING to WAITING d. HOLD to READY
70. Which of the following is part of the Process State information maintained in the PCB?
a. Main Memory c. Process Priority
b. Register Contents *d. All of the above
71. Which section of the PCB is used primarily for performance measurement?
*a. Accounting c. Process Identification
b. Process State d. Process Status
72. The queues used to manage jobs are formed from -------------.
a. jobs *c. PCBs
b. processes d. record identifiers
73. An I/O request is called a(n) ------------- wait in multiprogramming environments.
a. forced c. scheduled
*b. natural d. indirect
74. How is the First-come, first-served (FCFS) scheduling algorithm implemented?
*a. using a FIFO queue c. using a circular queue
b. using a LIFO queue d. using a directed graph
75. What is a disadvantage of First Come First Served?
a. I/O-bound jobs are given priority
b. jobs are frequently interrupted
c. CPU-bound jobs are given priority
*d. average turnaround times vary widely and are seldom minimized
76. Assume that four jobs A-D require the CPU cycles listed below. Using the SJN algorithm, which job is run first?
Job: ABCD
CPU cycle: 5 2 6 4
a. A c. C
*b. B d. D
77. Assume that four jobs A-D require the CPU cycles listed below. Using the SJN algorithm, what is the average
turnaround time?
Job: ABCD
CPU cycle: 5 2 6 4
a. 5.5 *c. 9.0
b. 6.8 d. 11.1
78. Some systems increase the priority of jobs that have been in the system for an unusually long time to expedite
their exit. This is known as -------------.
a. lagging c. bumping
*b. aging d. accelerated priority
79. Assume that jobs A-D arrive in the ready queue in quick succession and have the CPU cycle requirements listed
below. Using the SRT algorithm, what is the average turnaround time?
Arrival time: 0 1 2 3
Job: ABCD
CPU cycle: 6 3 1 4
a. 2.5 c. 7.75
*b. 6.25 d. 9.0
80. Assume jobs A-D arrive in quick succession in the READY queue. Using round robin scheduling, what is the
turnaround time for job C?
Arrival time: 0 1 2 3
Job: ABCD
CPU cycle: 8 4 9 5
a. 7 c. 22
b. 20 d. 24
81. What is the best time quantum size in round robin scheduling?
a. it depends on the system
b. it should be long enough to allow 80 percent of the CPU cycles to run to completion
c. it should be at least 100 times longer than the time required to perform one context switch operation
*d. All of the above
82. No movement between queues is a very simple policy that rewards those who have ------------- jobs.
*a. high-priority c. CPU-bound
b. low-priority d. I/O-bound
83. Which multiple-level queue management scheme facilitates I/O-bound jobs and is good in interactive systems?
a. No movement between queues c. Variable time quantum per queue
*b. Movement between queues d. Aging
84. Which multiple-level queue management scheme allows for faster turnaround of CPU-bound jobs?
a. No movement between queues *c. Variable time quantum per queue
b. Movement between queues d. Aging
85. When the operating system detects a nonrecoverable error, which of the following happens first?
a. state of the interrupted process is saved c. interrupt is processed
*b. type of interrupt is described and stored d. processor resumes operation
86. A parent may terminate the execution of one of its children in the case of
a. The child has exceeded its usage of some of the resources that it has been allocated
b. The task assigned to the child is no longer required
c. The parent is exiting, and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if its parent
terminates
*d. Any of them
87. Independent process is --------------------------.
a. a process that cannot affect and be affected by the other processes executing
b. a process that can affect and cannot be affected by the other processes executing
*c. any process that share data with any other process is independent
d. a process that can affect and be affected by the other processes executing
88. Which process requires an interprocess communication (IPC) mechanism?

*a. cooperating processes only c cooperating and independent processes
b. independent processes only d non of them
89. What is / are true about Message passing method?
a. Message passing is useful for exchanging smaller amounts of data
b. message-passing systems are typically implemented using system calls
c. message-passing systems require the more time-consuming task of kernel intervention.
*d. All above are true
90. What is / are true about shared memory method?
a. in shared-memory systems, system calls are required only to establish shared-memory regions.
b. using shared memory no assistance from the kernel is required
c. using shared memory, all accesses are treated as routine memory accesses,
*d. All above are true
91. What is / are wrong about IPC method?
a. Shared memory allows maximum speed and convenience of communication than Message passing
b. Shared memory is faster than message passing
c. Message passing is easier to implement than is shared memory for intercomputer communication.
*d. Non of them
92. Which of the following instructions should be privileged?
a. Read the clock c. Issue a trap instruction
*b. Modify entries in device-status table d. Switch from user to kernel mode
93. Which of the following instructions can be performed in user mode?
a. Set value of timer. *c. Read the clock
b. Clear memory d. Turn off interrupts
94. Which of the following is true about operating system for a real-time environment?
I. The main difficulty that a programmer must overcome in writing an operating system for a real-time
environment is keeping the operating system within the fixed time constraints of a real-time system.
II. If the system does not complete a task in a certain time frame, it may cause a breakdown of the entire system
it is running.
III. When writing an operating system for a real-time system, the writer must be sure that his scheduling schemes
don’t allow response time to exceed the time constraint.
a. I only c. II&III
b. I&II *d. All
95. Which of the following is not necessary to run a program on a completely dedicated machine?
I. Reserve machine time.
II. Manually load program into memory.
III. Load starting address and begin execution.
IV. Monitor and control execution of program from console
a. I&II c. III only
b. III&IV *d. All are necessary
96. Which of the following is not an activity of an operating system in regard to process management?
I. The creation and deletion of both user and system processes
II. The suspension and resumption of processes
III. The Allocation and deallocation of memory space for process as needed.
IV. The provision of mechanisms for process synchronization
V. The provision of mechanisms for process communication
VI. The provision of mechanisms for deadlock handling
*a. III only c. II&V
b. I&III d. IV &VI
97. What of the following is not describing the microkernel approach to system design?
I. Adding a new service requires modifying the kernel
II. It is more secure as more operations are done in user mode than in kernel mode
III. A simpler kernel design and functionality typically results in a more reliable operating system.
a. III only *c. I only
b. I&III d. II&III
98. When a process creates a new process using the fork () operation, which of the following state is shared between
the parent process and the child process
*a. Shared memory segments c. Stack
b. Heap d. CPU registers
99. What is another name for an internal interrupt?
a. I/O interrupt c. illegal operation
b. illegal job instruction *d. synchronous interrupt
100. Multiprocessing is
a. when two or more jobs share one CPU
b. when only one job is using the CPU
* c. when two or more CPUs are linked together
d. either a or b
101. Use the following diagram to respond to the next 3 questions
run
hold ready w ait
1. The issuing of a "READ" command by a user program will change the status of that process
from
* a. run to wait
b. ready to run
c. ready to wait
d. wait to ready
e. wait to run
2. The scheduling of a process that has not yet RUN will change the status of that process
from
a. run to wait
* b. ready to run
c. ready to wait
d. wait to ready
e. wait to run
3. At completion of an I/O command the status of the process that had issued the I/O
command will change from
a. run to wait
b. ready to run
c. ready to wait
* d. wait to ready
e. wait to run

102. A program's "natural" wait occurs when

a. a time quantum is up
* b. the program issues an I/O instruction
c. an error occurs
d. CPU counter becomes 0
103. A very small time quantum will

a. increase the number of context switches
b. decrease the number of context switches
c. increase CPU overhead
* d. both a and c
104. If a job requires 20 time units of CPU run time to complete, and the length of the time quantum is 12
time units, there will be
a. 2 context switches
b. 0 context switches
* c. 1 context switch
105. In general, the degree of CPU idle time in a multiprogramming system

* a. decreases as the number of jobs goes up
b. increases as the number of jobs goes up
106. The Process Control Block is used to

a. keep track of the status of a process
b. keep track of the address of the next instruction to be executed for this process
c. keep track of CPU scheduling information related to this process
* d. all of the above
107. The act of saving all the old registers from one process and loading the registers for a new process at
the end of a time quantum is known as
a. swapping
* b. context switching
c. partial execution
d. CPU utilization
108. Resources that are allocated to one process at a time for its duration are
a. preemptable
* b. dedicated
c. critical
d. non-preemptable
109. Resources that may be removed from a process are

* a. preemptable
b. dedicated
c. critical
d. non-preemptable

110. The Round Robin CPU scheduling algorithm was designed especially for
* a. interactive systems
b. batch systems
c. real time system
d. multiprogramming system
111. When designing a time sharing system one would choose a scheduling algorithm that would
a. minimize CPU utilization
b. minimize response time
c. maximize CPU utilization
d. both a and b
* e. both b and c
112. An event that temporarily suspends normal processing operations of a computer is a(n)
a. utility program
b. job
* c. interrupt
d. linkage editor
e. system residence device
113. Optimal quantum size should
a. be large enough so that the majority of the interactive requests can be completed in less time than
the duration of the quantum
b. be small enough so that the majority of the interactive requests can be completed in more time
than the duration of the quantum
c. be large enough to minimize pre-emption overhead
* d. both a and c
e. both b and c
114. Use the following time line and table to answer this question.
job 1 job 2 job 3 job 1 job 1 job 1 job 1 job 1
4 7 10 14 18 22 26 30
Job Number Job’s CPU Cycle

1 24
2 3
3 3
What kind of process scheduling is represented above?

a. FCFS
* b. Round Robin
c. preemptive Shortest Job First
d. non-preemptive Shortest Job First
115. Turnaround time -------------

* a. is influenced by the length of the time quantum
b. is not influenced by the length of the time quantum
116. Knowing that a preemptive scheduling policy for the CPU indicates that the CPU can be taken away
from one process and given to another process, which of the following is (are) example(s) of
preemptive scheduling policies
a. FCFS
b. Round Robin
c. Shortest Job First
d. Shortest Remaining Time First
* e. both b and d
f. none of the above
117. The process scheduler (dispatcher) is

a. the one that determines which jobs will be admitted to the system for processing
* b. the one that selects from the jobs in memory, which are ready to execute, and allocates the CPU
to one of them
c. the one that selects from the spooler and loads the jobs into memory for execution
d. both a and c
118. The long term scheduler (job scheduler) is responsible for

a. determining which jobs are to be admitted to the system for processing
b. selecting from the jobs in memory and allocating the CPU to one of them
c. selecting a "good mix" of I/O-bound and CPU-bound jobs
d. all of the above
e. a and b only
* f. a and c only
119. Use the following information on program execution times to answer the next 2 questions (assuming
all jobs arrive at the same time).
Job Number CPU Time
1 1 hour
2 1 second
3 1 second
1. If the jobs are run to completion on a First Come First Serve basis (no multiprogramming),
then the turnaround time for Job 2 will be
a. 1 second
b. 2 seconds
c. 1 hour
* d. 1 hour, 1 second
e. none of the above
2. If Round Robin is used with a time quantum of 1 second, then the turnaround time for Job 2
will be
a. 1 second
* b. 2 seconds
c. 1 hour
d. 1 hour, 1 second
120. Scheduling jobs as they come in is referred to as

a. priority scheduling
b. shortest job first scheduling
* c. first come first serve scheduling

d. round robin
121. Which of the following objectives of a scheduling policy most directly applies to the case of a user
who has been waiting for an excessive amount of time
a. maximize throughput
b. minimize overhead
c. balance resource utilization
* d. avoid indefinite postponement
122. A scheduling system in which each job is taken in FIFO order for a set time quantum is referred to as
a. priority scheduling
* b. round robin scheduling
c. scheduling by resources demanded
d. scheduling of short jobs first
123. Which of the following interrupts would generate a context switch?

a. I/O interrupt
b. page fault
c. expiration of time quantum
e. b and c only
124. Given the following list of jobs, their CPU cycles and arrival times, compute the following.
Job Number Arrival Time CPU Cycle

1 0 6
2 1 2
3 2 5
4 3 3
a. Average turnaround time under Shortest Job Next. Answer: 8.75

b. Average wait time under Shortest Job Next. Answer: 4.75
c. Average turnaround time under Shortest Remaining Time. Answer: 7.5
d. Average wait time under Shortest Remaining Time. Answer: 3.5
Concurrency
125. Interactive systems generally improve the use of resources through ------------- resource sharing, but
this resource sharing capability also increases the possibility of deadlocks.
a. interspersed *c. dynamic
b. group d. static
126. In what type of system are deadlocks most critical?
a. batch *c. real-time
b. interactive d. general purpose
127. Consider the case of a home construction company with two application programs, purchasing (P1)
and sales (P2), which are active at the same time. They each need to access two files, inventory (F1)
and suppliers (F2), to update daily transactions. The following series of events will cause a deadlock.
Fill in the missing event in the sequence.

I. Purchasing (P1) accesses the supplier file (F2).
II. Sales (P2) accesses the inventory file (F1).
III. Purchasing (P1) doesn’t release the supplier file (F2) but requests the inventory file (F1), but P1 is
blocked because F1 is being held by P2.
IV. Meanwhile, -------------
*a. sales (P2) doesn’t release the inventory file (F1) but requests the supplier file (F2)
b. sales (P2) does release the inventory file (F1) and then requests the supplier file (F2)
c. purchasing (P1) does release the supplier file (F2) which is then requested by sales (P2)
d. purchasing (P1) exits
128. Fill in the missing event that causes deadlock in a database. There are two processes (P1 and P2),
each of which needs to update two records (R1 and R2) and the following sequence leads to a
deadlock:
I. P1 accesses R1 and locks it.
II. P2 accesses R2 and locks it.
III. -------------
IV. P2 requests R1, which is locked by P1.
a. P2 releases R2. *c. P1 requests R2, which is locked by P2.
b. P1 requests R1 again. d. P2 releases R1.
129. Failure to lock database records before updating them may result in a ------------- between processes.
a. struggle c. deadlock
*b. race d. livelock
130. Fill in the missing step in the following deadlock situation. Two users from the local board of
education are each running a program (P1 and P2), and both programs will eventually need two tape
drives to copy files from one tape to another. Only two tape drives are available and they’re allocated
on an “as requested” basis. Soon the following sequence transpires:
I. P1 requests tape drive 1 and gets it.
II. -------------
III. P1 requests tape drive 2 but is blocked.
IV. P2 requests tape drive 1 but is blocked.
a. P1 requests tape drive 2. c. P2 requests tape drive 1 but is blocked.
*b. P2 requests tape drive 2 and gets it. d. P1 releases tape drive 1.
131. In modern printing systems a disk accepts output from several users and acts as a temporary storage
area for all output until the printer is ready to accept it. This process is called -------------.
a. buffering *c. spooling
b. lagging d. spoofing
132. How does deadlock occur on a modern printer?
a. the network connection for the printer overflows with too many requests to use the printer
*b. too many users attempt to access the printer at the same time
c. the buffer fills up with too many print jobs and the printer cannot decide which one to print
d. the printer needs all of a job’s output before it will begin printing, but the spooling system
fills the available disk space with only partially completed output
133. What is a condition that causes deadlock?
a. mutual exclusion c. circular wait
b. resource holding *d. All of the above
134. ------------- is the act of allowing only one process to have access to a dedicated resource.
a. No preemption c. Resource holding
b. Circular wait *d. Mutual exclusion
135. ------------- occurs when two processes do not release control of resources they are using.
a. No preemption c. Resource holding

b. Circular wait d. Mutual exclusion
136. ------------- allows a resource to be held by a process as long as it is needed.
*a. No preemption c. Resource holding
b. Circular wait d. Mutual exclusion
137. Who developed a technique for modeling deadlock using a directed graph?
a. Havender c. Dijkstra
*b. Holt d. Lane & Mooney
138. In a directed graph used to model deadlock, which of the following represents deadlock?
a. a solid arrow *c. a cycle
b. a dashed arrow d. any path
139. Assume the following events and actions take place. Which of the following statements is true?
I. P1 requests and is allocated the printer R1.
II. P1 releases the printer R1.
III. P2 requests and is allocated the disk drive R2.
IV. P2 releases the disk R2.
V. P3 requests and is allocated the plotter R3.
VI. P3 releases the plotter R3.
*a. there is no deadlock c. event V caused deadlock
b. event IV caused deadlock d. event VI caused deadlock
140. Assume the following events and actions take place. Which of the following statements is true?
I. P1 requests and is allocated R1.
II. P2 requests and is allocated R2.
III. P3 requests and is allocated R3.
IV. P1 requests R2.
V. P2 requests R3.
VI. P3 requests R1.
a. there is no deadlock c. event V caused deadlock
b. event IV caused deadlock *d. event VI caused deadlock
141. Which of the following is necessary in any computer system?
*a. mutual exclusion c. no preemption
b. resource holding d. circular wait
142. What scheme can be used to eliminate circular wait?
*a. “hierarchical ordering” c. saving and restoring job state
b. preemption d. requesting all resources before job run
143. What is the first step in reducing a directed graph to eliminate deadlock?
a. Remove the process that is holding on to the most resources.
b. Find a process that’s waiting only for resource classes that aren’t fully allocated
*c. Find a process that is currently using a resource and not waiting for one.
d. Find the oldest process and remove it from the graph.
144. What is the simplest deadlock recovery method?
a. select a nondeadlocked job, preempt the resources it’s holding, and allocate them to a
deadlocked process so it can resume execution, thus breaking the deadlock
b. identify which jobs are involved in the deadlock and terminate them one at a time, checking
to see if the deadlock is eliminated after each removal
c. terminate only the jobs involved in the deadlock and ask their users to resubmit them
*d. terminate every job that’s active in the system and restart them from the beginning
145. In the “dining philosophers” problem, when can a philosopher pick up a fork?
a. when there is one available
*b. when there are two available

c. when no other philosopher is eating
d. when it is his turn, going in numerical order from one philosopher to the next
146. An algorithm that is used to detect starvation by tracking how long each job has been waiting for
resources is the same as -------------.
a. deadlock c. preemption
b. aging d. round robin
147. What is another name for parallel processing?
a. uniprocessing c. shared processing
*b. multiprocessing d. divided processing
148. What is a disadvantage of the master/slave configuration?
a. reliability is no higher than for a single processor system
b. can lead to poor use of resources
c. increases the number of interrupts
149. What is a disadvantage of a loosely coupled system?
*a. can be difficult to detect when a processor has failed
b. prone to catastrophic system failures
c. jobs take longer to complete as they are rotated among processors
d. requires a lot of interprocessor communication to manage centralized resources
150. Which configuration is the most difficult to implement?
a. master/slave *c. symmetric configuration
b. loosely coupled d. shared load
151. Which of the following is true of a symmetric configuration?
a. a job runs on only one processor from start to finish
*b. prone to conflicts as several processors try to access the same resource at the same time
c. each processor may use a different scheduling algorithm
d. does not balance loads well
152. An error in ------------- could lead to a “missed customer” problem.
a. communication c. processing
*b. synchronization d. math
153. A ------------- of processing must be handled as a unit.
a. line *c. critical region
b. segment d. semaphore
154. Lock and key synchronization must take place within a single -------------.
a. instruction c. processor
b. computer *d. machine cycle
155. A problem with test-and-set is that when many processes are waiting to enter a critical region, -------------
could occur because the processes gain access in an arbitrary fashion.
*a. starvation c. deadlock
b. synchronization d. an error
156. ------------- sets the process’s process control block (PCB) to the blocked state and links it to the queue of
processes waiting to enter this particular critical region.
a. TS *c. WAIT
b. SIGNAL d. STOP
157. What are the two operations identified by Dijkstra to be performed on a semaphore?
*a. P and V c. Test-and-set
b. WAIT and SIGNAL d. check and update
158. When using a semaphore, a value of ------------- indicates that a critical region is in use.
a. -100 c. 100

*b. 0 d. 9999
159. Operations on semaphore s enforce the concept of mutual exclusion, which is necessary to avoid having two
operations attempt to execute at the same time. The name traditionally given to this semaphore in the literature
is -------------.
a. phore c. signal
b. exe *d. mutex
160. How many semaphores are used in the producer and consumer problem?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
161. How many semaphores are used in the solution to the readers and writers problem that does not involve
starvation?
a. 0 *c. 2
b. 1 d. 3
162. What type of programming task benefits from implicit parallelism?
a. matrix multiplication c. sorting and merging files
b. array processing using a loop *d. All of the above
163. Most current operating systems support the implementation of threads, or -------------, which have become part
of numerous application packages.
a. parallel processes c. heavyweight processes
*b. lightweight processes d. semaphores
164. What is shared by the threads in a process?
a. processor registers *c. data area
b. program counter d. status
165. Once a thread is in the ready state, which state can it enter next?
a. blocked c. waiting
b. finished *d. running
166. Which of the following is not a reason to provide process cooperation?
a. Information sharing,
b. Modularity
c. Convenience of having a few cooperating processes that are running different tasks
*d. Having two operating systems on the same machine
167. Which of the following is not a general process synchronization problem?
a. Race condition c. Critical-section
*b. Coherency and Consistency d. Starvation
168. Which of the following is a process synchronization problem?
a. Preemption *c. Deadlock problem
b. Coherency and Consistency d. Aging
169. --------------------------is a system starvation caused by incorrect modification of the shared memory due to
process interruption
a. Race condition problem *c. Critical-section problem
b. Deadlock problem d. Starvation problem
170. --------------------------is the problem that arises when the outcome of the execution when several processes are
accessing and manipulating the shared date concurrently depends on the order in which the access takes place
*a. Race condition problem c. Critical-section problem
b. Deadlock problem d. Starvation problem
171. --------------------------is a situation when some cooperating processes can not complete their executions
because they are waiting for events that will never happen
a. Race condition problem c. Critical-section problem
*b. Deadlock problem d. Starvation problem
172. --------------------------is a situation in which all the programs continue to run indefinitely but fail to make any
progress.
a. Race condition problem c. Critical-section problem
b. Deadlock problem *d. Starvation problem
173. How can a semaphore s be used to solve the critical-section problem?
a. Initialize s to 0; enter section after waiting on s; exit after signaling on s.
*b. Initialize s to 1; enter section after waiting on s; exit after signaling on s.
c. Initialize s to 0; enter section after signaling on s; exit after waiting on s.
d. Initialize s to 1; enter section after signaling on s; exit after waiting on s.
174. Which of the following is not true about transaction atomicity?
a. If the series of operations in a transaction cannot be completed, the transaction must be aborted and
the operations that did take place must be rolled back.
b. It is important that the series of operations in a transaction appear as one indivisible operation to
ensure the integrity of the data being updated.
*c. Data could be compromised if operations from two (or more) different transactions were intermixed.
d. All above are true
175. Which of the following is not true about the conditions we need to hold to have a good solution for having
parallel processes cooperate correctly and efficiently using shared data are?
*a. No two processes may be simultaneously inside their non-critical regions.
b. No assumptions may be made about speeds or the number of CPUs.
c. No process running outside its critical region may block other processes.
d. No process should have to wait forever to enter its critical region.
176. Which of the following is not true about the use of the machine-instruction approach to enforce mutual
exclusion?
a. It is applicable to any number of processes on either a single processor or multiple processors sharing
main memory.
b. It is simple and therefore easy to verify.
c. It can be used to support multiple critical sections; each critical section can be defined by its own
variable.
*d. It is applicable to any number of processes only on multiple processors sharing main memory.
177. Which of the following is not possible when using the machine-instruction approach to enforce mutual
exclusion?
a. Busy waiting c. Starvation
b. Deadlock *d. All are possible
178. Which of the following is not true about the use of Semaphore with no busy waiting?
*a. While a process is in its critical section, any other process that tries to enter its critical section must
loop continuously in the entry code.
b. While a process is in its critical section, any other process that tries to enter its critical section must be
switch it self to the waiting state.
c. A blocked process should be restarted when some other process executes a signal() operation.
d. The process is restarted by a wakeup() operation and then placed in the ready queue.
179. Which of the following operation are applicable when using semaphore with busy waiting?
a. block() & signal() operations c. block() & wakeup() operations
b. block(), wait(), signal() operations *d. wait() &signal() operations
180. Which of the following is not a software solution for achieving mutual exclusion?
a. Peterson's solution *c. Semaphore

b. Strict Alternation d. Lock Variables
181. Which of the following operation is true about using semaphore with busy waiting?
a. block() operation is inside the signal() block and wakeup() operation is inside the wait()
block.
*b. block() operation is inside the wait() block and wakeup() operation is inside the signal()
block.
c. block()and wakeup()operations are inside the wait() block
d. block()and wakeup()operations are inside the signal() block
182. We can say that a process is in a "deadlocked state" when…

a. instructions are being executed
b. it is waiting to be assigned to a processor
* c. it is waiting for some event that will never occur
d. it is waiting for some event that will occur, such as completion of an I/O operation
183. If two friends have argued and both have sworn not to talk to the other until an apology has been
received, we have an example of:
a. starvation
b. saturation
c. interrupt
* d. deadlock
184. Four conditions must be present simultaneously in a system for deadlock to occur. They are:
a. mutual exclusion, resource holding, request, use
b. mutual exclusion, resource holding, release, circular wait
* c. mutual exclusion, resource holding, no preemption, circular wait
d. mutual exclusion, resource holding. no preemption, use
185. Of the four necessary conditions for deadlock, the one that we do not want to break because we
specifically want to allow dedicated resources is:
a. mutual exclusion
b. hold and wait
* c. no preemption
d. circular wait
186. When you insure that at least one of the conditions for deadlocks does not hold, you are -------------
* a. preventing deadlocks
b. avoiding deadlocks
c. detecting deadlocks
d. recovering from deadlocks
187. The following system has a total of 12 tape drives allocated like this.
User # Already Has Max Need
1 8 10
2 3 5
It is in a…
a. safe state
* b. unsafe state

188. The following table shows a system in a safe state. The system has a total of 12 tape drives.
User # Already Has Max Need
1 1 4
2 4 6
3 5 7
Select which of the following would change it to an unsafe state:

* a. user 1 requests and is allocated 2 tape drives
b. user 2 requests and is allocated 2 tape drives
c. user 3 requests and is allocated 2 tape drives
189. Use the following information to answer the next 2 questions. Consider a computing system with 12
tape drives. All jobs running on this system require a maximum of 4 tape drives to complete but they
each run for long periods of time with just 3 drives and request the fourth one only as the very end of
the run. The job stream is endless. Your operating system supports the Banker’s Algorithm.
1. What is the maximum number of jobs that can be processed as once?

a. 1
b. 2
* c. 3
d. 4
2. What is the maximum number of tape drives that may be idle as a result of the policy?
* a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
190. When two or more processes can access and modify the same data area so that the final result
depends on which process finishes last, we have what kind of problem?
a. deadly embrace
b. deadlock
c. deadbolt
* d. race
191. The Master/Slave multiprocessing organization

a. is the easiest to implement
b. is the most complex to implement
c. does not achieve optimal utilization of the hardware
d. allows for precise balance of the work load
* e. both a and c
f. both b and d
192. Symmetrical multiprocessing organization

a. is the easiest to implement
b. is the most complex to implement
c. does not achieve optimal utilization of the hardware
d. allows for precise balance of the work load

e. both a and c
* f both b and d
193. A hamburger stand where the cook places hamburgers in the "hamburger bin" and the bagger
retrieves the hamburgers to satisfy incoming orders is an example of
a. readers/writers problem
b. dining philosophers problem
* c. producer/consumer problem
194. An airline reservation system where there are many inquiries but few reservations made is an example
of
* a. readers/writers problem
b. dining philosophers problem
c. producer/consumer problem
195. Consider a bakery where customers take a number and servers press a button to show the next number
to be served. We can stipulate that when a server is pressing the button no other server is allowed to
press the button until the number showing is served, otherwise a number might be missed. We can
then say that while the server is pushing the button he/she is in
a. a race
b. a deadlock
* c. a critical section
d. a circular wait
196. In the above example, if we enforce the rule "only one server can press the button until the number
showing is served," we are enforcing
* a. mutual exclusion
b. linking
c. starvation
d. indefinite postponement
197. Mutual exclusion

* a. needs to be enforced only when processes access shared data
b. needs to be enforced at all times
c. should never be enforced
198. Counting semaphores are variables that

a. can take on the value of 0 and 1 only
b. can take on any integer value
c. are used to synchronize processes
d. all of the above
* e. both b and c
199. Busy waiting

a. is one of the goals of multiprocessing systems
*b. occurs under the test and set mechanism
c. is a function specifically requested by programmers to provide mutual exclusion

d. all of the above
200. Given the following diagram, where P5 has been allocated resource R5 that is being requested by
process P6 which has been allocated resource R4 that is being requested by process P5:
R4
P5 P6
R5
This is an example of:

a. a graph that cannot be reduced
b. a system in a deadlocked state
c. a circular wait
201. Use the following directed resource graph to answer the next 2 questions. P represents processes and
R represents resources. Arrows going from a process to a resource indicate a request. Arrows going
from a resource to a process indicate an allocation.
P1
R1 0 0 0 0 R2
P2
P3
R3 0 0 R4
P4
1. Is this system, as a whole, deadlocked?

a. yes
* b. no
2. Are there any blocked processes?

*a. yes
b. no
202. A monitor
a. contains data and procedures needed to perform allocation of a particular shared resource
b. enforces mutual exclusion at its boundaries to allow only one process to enter at a time
c. does not allow outside access to the data contained within its boundaries
Memory Management
203. Which of the following describes the first memory allocation scheme?
a. Each program to be processed was loaded into secondary storage, then swapped into memory
in parts
b. Each program to be processed was partially loaded into memory, then granted more memory
as needed
c. Each program to be processed was allocated a portion of memory and could negotiate with
other programs to access more memory
*d. Each program to be processed was loaded in its entirety into memory and allocated as much
contiguous space in memory as it needed
204. How are jobs processed in a single-user system?
*a. sequentially c. randomly
b. intermittently d. the longest job is processed first
205. Consider the following algorithm. Which of the following choices should replace the * in Step 6?
I. Store first memory location of program into base register (for memory protection)
II. Set program counter (it keeps track of memory space used by the program) equal to address of first
memory location
III. Read first instruction of program
IV. Increment program counter by number of bytes in instruction
V. Has the last instruction been reached?
if yes, then stop loading program
if no, then continue with step VI
VI. Is program counter greater than memory size?
if yes, then stop loading program
if no,--------- *------------
VII. Load instruction in memory
VIII. Read next instruction of program
IX. Go to step IV
a. then continue with step IV c. then continue with step VI
b. then continue with step V *d. then continue with step VII
206. What is another name for a fixed partition?

a. complete partition c. direct partition
*b. static partition d. sized partition
207. What is the first step in the algorithm to load a job in a fixed partition?
a. Compare job size to size of largest partition
*b. Determine job’s requested memory size
c. Set counter to 1
d. No partition available at this time, put job in waiting queue
208. In the partition scheme, the Memory Manager uses a table to keep track of jobs. What are the
components of the table?
a. partition size, memory address, status
b. status, access, memory address
c. partition size, status, access
*d. partition size, memory address, access, status
209. When does a fixed partition scheme work well?
*a. when jobs have the same size c. when job sizes are not known in advance
b. when jobs have different sizes d. when all jobs are under 100K
210. What is the name for fragments of free memory between blocks of allocated memory?
a. inefficient fit *c. external fragmentation
b. indirect partitioning d. internal fragmentation
211. Which memory allocation scheme places jobs in the first partition fitting the requirements?
a. fixed partitioning c. dynamic fit memory allocation
*b. first-fit memory allocation d. best-fit memory allocation
212. Which memory allocation scheme results in the smallest amount of wasted space?
a. fixed partitioning c. dynamic fit memory allocation
b. first-fit memory allocation *d. best-fit memory allocation
213. Consider the following space requirements for jobs 1-4 and memory blocks. Assuming a first-fit
scheme is used, which job is not able to run?
Jobs:
J1 10K
J2 20K
J3 30K
J4 10K
Blocks:
B1 30K
B2 15K
B3 50K
B4 20K
a. J1 *c. J3
b. J2 d. J4
214. Consider the following space requirements for jobs 1-4 and memory blocks. Assuming a best-fit
scheme is used, which job is placed in the last block?
Jobs:
J1 10K
J2 20K
J3 30K
J4 10K
Blocks:
B1 30K
B2 15K
B3 50K
B4 20K
a. J1 c. J3
*b. J2 d. J4
215. The following algorithm can be described as -------------.
I. Set counter to 1
II. Do while counter <= number of blocks in memory
If job_size > memory_size(counter)
Then counter = counter + 1

Else
load job into memory_size(counter)
adjust free/busy memory lists
go to step 4
End do
III. Put job in waiting queue
IV. Go fetch next job
*a. first-fit memory allocation c. least-fit memory allocation
b. best-fit memory allocation d. fixed partition memory allocation
216. The following algorithm can be described as -------------.
I. Initialize memory_block(0) = 99999

II. Compute initial_memory_waste = memory_block(0) – job_size
III. Initialize subscript = 0
IV. Set counter to 1
V. Do while counter <= number of blocks in memory
If job_size > memory_size(counter)
Then counter = counter + 1
Else
memory_waste = memory_size(counter) – job_size
If initial_memory_waste > memory_waste
Then subscript = counter
initial_memory_waste = memory_waste
counter = counter + 1
End do
VI. If subscript = 0
Then put job in waiting queue
Else
Load job into memory_size(subscript)
adjust free/busy memory lists
VII. Go fetch next job
a. first-fit memory allocation c. least-fit memory allocation
*b. best-fit memory allocation d. fixed partition memory allocation
217. Assume the Memory Manager receives a request for a block of 200. When the best-fit algorithm is
used, what is the beginning address of the block granted by the Memory Manager?
Beginning Address Memory Block Size

4075 105
5225 5
6785 600
7560 20
7600 205
10250 4050
15125 230
24500 1000
a. 6785 c. 10250
*b. 7600 d. 15125
218. How is memory deallocated in a fixed partition scheme?
a. Memory Manager releases the block and combines it with another free block.

b. Memory Manager immediately gives memory to another program.
c. Memory Manager adds block to free list and removes it from busy list.
*d. Memory Manager resets the status of the memory block where the job was stored to “free.”
219. In a dynamic partition scheme, how does the Memory Manager deallocate a block that is between two
other free blocks?
*a. All three are merged into one.
b. All three are moved individually from the busy list to the free list.
c. The block is combined with the larger of the two adjacent blocks.
d. The status of the block is set to free.
220. When memory is deallocated, an entry can be removed from the free list by creating a(n) -------------.
a. blank line c. joined entry
*b. null entry d. empty entry
221. A(n) ------------- in the busy list occurs when a memory block between two other busy memory blocks
is returned to the free list.
a. blank line c. joined entry
*b. null entry d. empty entry
222. How does an operating system reclaim fragmented memory space?
a. deallocation *c. compaction
b. redirection d. reallocation
223. During relocation, the operating system must ------------- memory addresses so that they can be
adjusted to the new memory location.
*a. flag c. redirect
b. grab d. compact
224. The ------------- contains the value that must be added to each address referenced in the program so it
will be able to access the correct memory addresses after relocation.
a. busy list *c. relocation register
b. compaction monitor d. bounds register
225. When should compaction be performed?
a.when a certain percentage of memory becomes busy
b.only when there are jobs waiting to get in
c.after a prescribed amount of time has elapsed
*d.Any of the above, depending on the system
226. What is the actual memory address for a job that starts at 18K?
a. 1,800 *c. 18,432
b. 18,000 d. 180,000
227. In a fixed partition scheme, what is the problem with partitions that are too large?
a. small jobs will have to wait c. external fragmentation
b. large jobs will have to wait *d. wasted memory
228. A single user contiguous memory management system

a. has the advantage of simplicity in writing operating systems
b. has the disadvantage of wasting memory for most jobs
* c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
229. Static partitioning systems were instituted to allow

a. non-contiguous loading of programs
* b. multiprogramming
c. both a&b

d. non of them
230. Given the following static allocation scheme:

Partition Contents Size
1 operating system 32K
2 free 32K
3 free 64K
Where will a job requiring 96K bytes of memory be stored?

a. partition 1+ partition 2 +partition 3
b. partition 2+ partition 3
c. partition 3
* d. none of the above
231. A static partitioned memory management system has a total of six partitions. If one is allocated to the
operating system, this will allow a total of
* a. five user jobs
b. six user jobs
c. (25) user jobs
d. (25) user jobs
232. Consider the case where the Free Memory Storage List is kept in ascending order by partition size.
The attempt to place a job in the smallest free partition in which it will fit is called:
a. First Fit
* b. Best Fit
c. Worst Fit
d. No Fit
233. Consider the case where the Free Memory Storage List is kept in order by memory address
(regardless of the partition size). The attempt to place a job in the first free block in which it will fit is
called:
* a. First Fit
b. Best Fit
c. Worst Fit
d. No Fit
234. Dynamic partitioning systems create

a. internal fragmentation
* b. external fragmentation
235. Given the following dynamic partition allocation tables, respond to the next 3 questions.
Allocated Partition Table

Size Address Status
8K 312K in use
32K 320K in use
-- -- no entry
120K 384K in use
-- -- no entry

Free Area Table

Size Address Status
32K 352K free
520K 504K free
-- -- no entry
-- -- no entry
1. If a job comes into the system requiring 8K of main memory, using a First Fit allocation
scheme, it will be given space from the free area of size:
* a. 32K
b. 520K
c. 352K
d. 504K
2. The resulting fragment will be of size:

a. 8K
* b. 24K
c. 32K
d. 40K
3. If the jobs currently running in the first two partitions finish before a new job arrives, the
free table will be augmented by a space that is of size (assume compaction)?
a. 8K
b. 24K
c. 32K
* d. 40K
e. 632K
236. Relocatable partitioned memory was designed to:

a. utilize low core storage
* b. reduce external fragmentation of memory
c. allow for flexible addressing mechanisms
d. all of them
237. A difficulty of all relocatable partitioning schemes, regardless of addressing mechanism is:
a. the difficulty of distinguishing number representing addresses from numbers representing
arithmetic values
* b. the overhead involved in moving program instructions and data to new locations
c. all the above
c. none of the above
238. Use the following description of main memory to answer the next 3 questions.
PARTITION Partition JOB

Number SIZE SIZE
1 8K 1K
2 32K 9K

3 64K 19K
1. The space wasted by the job in partition 2 is:

a. 7K
b. 9K
* c. 23K
d. 45K
2. The job in partition 3 would best fit in:

a. partition 1
* b. partition 2
c. partition 3
3. The length of each partition is:

* a. fixed
b. variable
239. Consider the following diagram to answer the next 2 questions.
0
Operating System
Program A
Program B
Waste 10K
Program C
Waste 12K
Program D
640K
Program relocation would result in a contiguous free space of:

a. 12K
* b. 22K
c. 2K
d. 120K
240. Use the following diagram to answer the next 3 questions.
Operating System, size: 10K
Job 1, size: 8 K
Empty, s ize: 12 K
Job 4, size: 32 K
– sFaculty
Empty,
Alzaytoonah University ize: 20 K of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 29
Job 2, size: 16 K
1. After compaction occurs and Job 4 is relocated so that it is adjacent to Job 1, what will be
the contents of its Relocation register?
a. 12,288
b. 18,432
* c. –12,288
d. – 18,432
2. After compaction, what is the new starting memory location for Job 4?
a. 12,288
* b. 18,432
c. –12,288
d. –18,432
3. Given that before relocation, one of the instructions of Job 4: LOAD 4, 53248 started at
memory location 31,744, indicate at what memory location will the instruction start after
relocation?
a. 18,432
* b. 19,456
c. 31,744
d. 40,960
Virtual Memory
241. What is the primary advantage of storing programs in noncontiguous locations?
a. multiple programs can run at the same time
b. every program will be able to run
c. secondary storage is accessed more quickly
*d. main memory is used more efficiently
242. How many entries per page are there in the PMT?
a. 0 c. 2
*b. 1 d. 5
243. If the page size is 100 lines, what is the displacement for line 214?
a. 0.5 *c. 14
b. 2 d. 21400
244. Assume that the Page Map Table below is in effect. The number of lines per page is 400. What is the
actual memory location for line 433?
Job Page Number Page Frame Number

0 8
1 10
2 5
3 11
a. 1 c. 4000
b. 33 *d. 4033
245. What will happen when a page size is too small?
*a. very long PMTs c. more difficult to calculate actual position
b. excessive internal fragmentation d. excessive external fragmentation
246. What field(s) must be added to the PMT to support demand paging?
a. field to determine if page contents have been modified
b. field to determine if the page being requested is already in memory
c. field to determine if the page has been referenced recently
247. What happens in demand paging when a job requires a certain page to be loaded and there is no
empty page frame?
*a. a resident page must be swapped back into secondary storage
b. the page cannot be loaded and the job will exit
c. the job must wait until a page frame is freed by another job
d. the page will share a page frame with another page from the same job
248. Consider the following page fault handler algorithm. What should replace the * in the algorithm?
I. If there is no free page frame

Then
select page to be swapped out using page removal algorithm
update job’s Page Map Table
If content of page had been changed then
*
End if
End if
II. Use page number from step 3 from the Hardware Instruction Processing Algorithm to get disk
address where the requested page is stored
III. Read page into memory
IV. Update job’s Page Map Table
V. Update Memory Map Table
VI. Restart interrupted instruction
a. save page to main memory c. mark page as being changed in PMT
*b. write page to disk d. choose another page
249. When there is an excessive amount of page swapping between main memory and secondary storage,
the operation becomes inefficient. This phenomenon is called -------------.
a. excessive demand paging *c. thrashing
b. hot swapping d. overswapping
250. What is the name of the page replacement policy where the page to remove is the one that has been in
memory the longest.
a. TRU c. LIFO
b. LRU *d. FIFO
251. Assume that four page frames are available and are numbered 1-4. Pages A-D have been loaded into
page frames 1-4 in order. Assume that page E is requested. Which page frame will it be loaded into
when the FIFO algorithm is used?
*a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
252. Assume that four page frames are available and are numbered 1-4. Pages A-D have been loaded into
page frames 1-4 in order. The program has accessed the pages in the following order: B, D, A, C.
Assume that page E is requested. Which page frame will it be loaded into when the LRU algorithm is
used?
a. 1 c. 3
*b. 2 d. 4
253. If a particular demand paging configuration has 9 page interrupts out of 11 page requests, what is the
failure rate?
a. 18% *c. 82%

b. 52% d. 95%
254. When using the clock replacement policy, a page with a reference bit of ------------- is replaced.
a. -1 c. 1
*b. 0 d. 5
255. In the PMT, the ------------- bit for all pages in memory is 1.
*a. status c. modified
b. referenced d. frame
256. Consider the following four cases. Which page would the LRU policy be lease likely to swap?
Modified Referenced Meaning

Case 1 0 0 Not modified AND not referenced
Case 2 0 1 Not modified BUT was referenced
Case 3 1 0 Was modified BUT not referenced
Case 4 1 1 Was modified AND was referenced
a. Case 1 c. Case 3
b. Case 2 *d. Case 4
257. Which of the following phrases means that during any phase of its execution the program references
only a small fraction of its pages?
a. dynamic paging *c. locality of reference
b. structured programming d. working set
258. To access a location in memory when using segmented memory management, the address is
composed of two entries: -------------.
a. the segment number and the line number
b. the segment number and the displacement
c. the line number and the displacement
d. the segment number, the line number, and the displacement
259. The segmented/demand paged memory allocation scheme divides each segment into equally sized ----
---------.
*a. pages c. frames
b. blocks d. sets
260. How many associative registers are there?
a. 2 c. 10
b. 5 *d. varies by system
261. ------------- gives users the appearance that their programs are being completely loaded in main
memory during their entire processing time
a. Segmenting c. Shared memory
*b. Virtual memory d. Multithreading
262. What is an advantage of virtual memory management?
a. job’s size is no longer restricted to the size of main memory
b. allows an unlimited amount of multiprogramming
c. facilitates dynamic linking of program segments
263. . ------------- can be thought of as being an intermediary between main memory and the special-
purpose registers, which are the domain of the CPU.
a. Virtual memory c. Paging
*b. Cache memory d. Segmenting
264. What is the cache hit ratio if the total number of requests is 10 and 6 of those are found in cache
memory?
a. 6% *c. 60%

b. 10% d. 100%
265. Given a paged memory allocation scheme where each block size is of 512 words and page numbering
starts at 0, address 712 in a program will translate into:
a. page 0, offset 200
b. page 200, offset 0
* c. page 1, offset 200
d. page 200, offset 1
266. FIFO is an appropriate page replacement scheme for:

a. interactive systems
* b. batch systems
c. real time systems
d. non of them
267. The reference bit is used to:

a. indicate if a page is in main memory
* b. indicate if a page has been used or not
c. indicate the order in which pages have been used
d. all of the above
268. Use the following page tables (with pages of 512 lines), to answer the next 2 questions.
JOB A
Page Number Page Frame Number
0 7
1 5
2 4
JOB B
Page Number Page Frame Number
0 3
1 9
1. A program "line number" of 68 will exist in:

a. page 0 of JOB A
b. page 0 of JOB B
* d. both a and b
2. A program "line number" of 1036 will exist in:

a. page 1 of JOB A
b. page 1 of JOB B
* c. page 2 of JOB A
269. Use the following diagram of main memory, and the fact that demand paging is used, to answer the
next 3 questions.
MEMORY MAP TABLE

Page Frame Number Status
0 used by Op Sys
1 used by Op Sys
2 used by JOB 2, Page 0
3 not used
7 not used
9 not used
1. JOB 2 has how many of its pages in main memory?

a. 0
b. 1
* c. 2
d. 3
2. Is JOB 2 entirely loaded into main memory?

a. yes
b. no
* c. can't tell from information given
3. Assuming that none of the pages in main memory can be removed, how many more jobs
could be started?
a. 1
b. 2
* c. 3
d.4
270. • Segmentation is:

* a. the breaking up of a program into logical units of various sizes
b. the breaking up of a program into physical units of the same size
c. the breaking up of all programs into the same number of units regardless of the size of the
program
271. • Paging is:

a. the breaking up of a program into logical units of various sizes
* b. the breaking up of a program into physical units of the same size
c. the breaking up of all programs into the same number of units regardless of the size of the
program
d. both a and c
272. • The use of the reference bit is most useful in systems implementing paging with a:
a. FIFO algorithm
* b. LRU algorithm
273. • Use the following address configuration and diagram to answer the next 5 questions.

address configuration in virtual memory:

Segment Number Page Number Displacement
Page Frame Program Segment Page Segment

number Name Number Number Status Bit
0 OpSys 0 0 1
1 OpSys 0 1 1
2 OpSys 0 2 1
3 OpSys 0 3 1
4 OpSys 0 4 1
5 OpSys 0 5 1
6 OpSys 0 6 1
7 A 3 5 1
8 B 2 9 0
9 X 1 1 1
10 B 2 1 0
11 D 5 12 1
Code for Status Bit: 1 means “in memory,” 0 means “not in memory”
1. How many segments make up the Operating System (based on the above information)?
a. 0
* b. 1
c. 6
d. 7
2. How many pages make up the Operating System (based on the above information)?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 6
* d. 7
3. Program A has how many segments in main memory?

a. 0
* b. 1
c. 3
d. 5
4. Program B has how many segments in main memory?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
5. Program B has how many pages in main memory?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 18
274. Use the following representation of an addressing scheme (not drawn to scale) to answer the next 3
questions.
24 bits
not used in segment number page number bytes number
addressing
0 7,8 15,16 19,20 31
1. The maximum number of pages in a segment can be:

a. 4
b. 8
* c. 16
d. 19
2. The maximum number of bytes per page can be:

a. 27
b. 28
c. 211
* d. 212
3. The maximum number of segments per program is:

a. 27
* b. 28
c. 211
d. 212
275. Use the following FIFO trace analysis to answer the next 4 questions:
F = 9 F ratio = 9/12 = 75%
Time: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Page # 4 3 2 1 4 3 5 4 3 2 1 5
Page Fault
Contents of 4 4 4 1 1 1 5 5 5 5 5 5
P.Frame 1
Contents of 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 2 2 2
P.Frame 2
Contents of 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 1
P.Frame 3
1. The number of page faults was:

a. 3
b. 6
* c. 9
d. 12
2. In time period 3, the page swapped in is:

a. 1
* b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
3. At the end of time period 3, the next page to be swapped out is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
* d. 4
4. In time period 8, the page requested is:

* a. already in memory
b. not in memory yet
c. a page fault is generated
d. both band c
276. The FIFO anomaly in regard to page swapping is:

a. it is possible for FIFO to be better than LRU in a given case
b. it is impossible for FIFO to be better than LRU in a given case
* c. it is possible to have more page faults for a job after increasing the size of memory and number
of page frames
d. it is impossible to have more page faults for a job after increasing the size of memory and
number of page frames
277. The purpose of the modified bit (dirty bit) in a paging system is to:
a. determine whether a page not in memory must be read into memory during a page swap
b. determine whether a page not in memory must be written to secondary storage during a page
swap
c. determine whether a page in memory must be read into memory during a page swap
* d. determine whether a page in memory must be written to secondary storage during a page swap
278. The division of a program into pages is:

a. visible to the programmer
* b. invisible (transparent) to the programmer
279. Demand paging systems:

a. avoid having programs loaded in contiguous areas of main memory
* b. allow for virtual space larger than the physical main memory
280. In a static paging system (as opposed to a demand paging system):

* a. the entire program is loaded into main memory before execution begins
b. a portion of the program is loaded into main memory before execution begins
281. Virtual memory is the separation of user logical memory from physical memory and it is commonly
implemented by demand paging. Some of its advantages are:
a. thrashing
b. giving the programmer the illusion of having access to an unlimited amount of memory, therefore
there are no limits on program sizes

c. better utilization of available real memory, that is, more programs can be put on line yielding
greater CPU utilization
* d. b and c only
282. Using segmentation and paging at the same time gives greater flexibility to memory allocation.
However this scheme increases the amount of time spent in dynamic address translation because…
a. main memory is divided into too many pieces
b. the address must be divided into three pieces
c. two tables are being used
* d. both b and c
283. Loops tend to cause problems in some paging systems:

a. when they are localized within one page in secondary storage
b. when they are localized within one page in main memory
* c. when they cross page boundaries
d. any of the above
284. The division of a program into segments is:

* a. visible to the programmer
b. invisible (transparent) to the programmer
285. The group of pages currently needed by a process to get its job done is called the:
a. page frame set
* b. working set
c. virtual set
286. A page fault means that we referenced a page:

a. outside our memory boundaries
b. with an incorrect I/O request
* c. that was not in main memory
d. that was not in secondary storage
287. Associative registers:

a. are used with segmentation and paging algorithms
b. contain information on a process' active pages
c. speed up access to memory locations
288. Given the following:

 Job 1 is divided into three pages: P0, P1, P2, of 1K each.
 Main memory is divided into eight page frames of 1K each, with the first two page frames (PF0
and PF1) reserved for the operating system.
 Job 1's pages are mapped into the following page frames:
Page 0=====>Page Frame 2
 The instruction: ADD 1, 1238 starts at byte 637 of JOB 1 (not in main memory).
Answer the following questions:

a. On what page does the instruction reside? Answer: Page 0
b. At what memory location does the instruction start? Answer: 2685
c. The location computed in (b) is part of which page frame? Answer: Page Frame 2
d. If the page number computed is greater than the number of pages used by the job, what would the
operating system do, and what would happen to the job? Answer: The operating system would
issue an error message (memory location out of bounds). Job is aborted by system.
I/O Systems & Secondary Storage Management

289. A sequential access device, such as magnetic tape, has:
a. no variance in access time for various records
b. relatively small variance in access time for various records
* c. relatively large variance in access time for various records
290. To access a record in a movable head disk, the following information is needed
* a. cylinder number, track number, record number
b. track number, record number
c. record number
291. A major purpose of blocking records is to

a. position all records in a given file on the same section of a tape
b. decrease the number of times that the tape drive must stop and then start up again
c. store more records on one tape
d. increase the number of inter-record gaps
* e. both b and c
292. Given that a block can hold 1600 bytes and that a track can hold 17600 bytes, how many blocks can
be stored in that track?
a. 10
* b. 11
c. 9
293. To access a record in a fixed head drum, the following information is needed:
a. cylinder number, track number, record number
* b. track number, record number
c. record number
294. The major goal(s) of a device scheduling policy is (are)

a. minimize the time wasted performing lengthy seeks
b. minimize average waiting time
c. minimize the variance in response time
d. all of the above
* e. both a and c
295. Multiple paths to I/O devices have the following advantage(s)

a. more flexibility in accessing a device
b. more reliability in accessing a device
* c. both a and b
296. Use the following information and diagram to answer the next 3 questions:
Queue of track requests: 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67. The read/write head starts at track 53.
Tracks: 14 37 53 65 67 98 122 124 183
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
1. The diagram indicates which disk scheduling policy

a. FCFS
b. SCAN
* c. SSTF
2. The total head movement covers how many tracks

* a. 236
b. 208
c. 640
3. If a stream of requests clustered about track 14 occurs while servicing that track, then we
have the possibility of ------------- for the requests following track 14 in the original list
a. deadlock
b. race
* c. indefinite postponement
d. immediate service
297. A disk scheduling policy where the arm sweeps back and forth across the disk surface servicing all
requests in its path, and changes direction only when there are no more requests to service in the
current direction is called
a. FCFS
b. SSTF
* c. LOOK
298. A disk scheduling policy that services requests according to their proximity to the last request, that is,
the next request serviced is the closest to the last request regardless of the direction in which the arm
was moving is called
a. FCFS
* b. SSTF

c. SCAN
299. Rotational optimization is

a. useful under heavy loading conditions
b. useful in a disk when several requests for the same cylinder are present
c. used on a drum to schedule requests
300. Given that scanning goes from cylinder 0 through cylinder 99, how would you re-order the following
requests if your goal is to optimize seek time?
Request 1: cylinder 2, track 5
a. Req 1, Req 2, Req 3

b. Req 3, Req 2, Req 1
c. Req 2, Req 3, Req 1
d. Req 2, Req 1, Req 3
* e. Req 1, Req 3, Req 2
301. On a disk with 8 records per track, where the records are numbered from 0 to 7, and where the file is
stored starting at track 0, record 14 will be found on:
a. track 0
* b. track 1
c. track 2
302. The concept of independent device operation refers to

a. dedicating a disk drive to one user
b. the capability to have a channels, control units and I/O devices end all together at the same time
* c. the capability to have channels, control units and I/O devices end separately from each other
303. Spooling
a. involves reading job streams from a slow speed input device into a high speed input device
b. involves reading more jobs into memory
c. involves writing records from memory to a high speed device before sending them to a slow
speed output device
* d. both a and c
c. both a and b
Distributed Systems
304. All of the following are advantages of distributed systems over centralized systems except
a. some applications involve the use of separate computers
*b. computing power cannot be added in small increments
c. if one computer crashes then the system as a whole can still survive
d. a distributed system may have more total computing power than a mainframe
305. Which of the following are disadvantages of distributed systems over centralized systems
a. the network can become saturated

b. allow easy access to confidential data
c. allow many users to access a common database
d. all of the above
* e. a and b only
f. a and c only
g. b and c only
306. Which environment considers memory, process, device and file management from a global
viewpoint?
* a. Distributed Operating System (DO/S)
b. Network Operating System (NOS)
c. Multiprogramming Operating System (MOS)
307. In which environment is each node managed by its own local operating system?
a. Distributed Operating System (DO/S)
* b. Network Operating System (NOS)
308. In which environment is networking an integral part of the operating system?

* a. Distributed Operating System (DO/S)
b. Network Operating System (NOS)
309. Deadlock ------------- is not used in distributed systems

a. detection
b. recovery
c. prevention
* d. avoidance
310. In a distributed system, deadlock detection is ------------- than in a single processor system because
relevant information ------------- scattered over many computers
a. easier, is not
b. easier, is
c. harder, is not
* d. harder, is
311. Deadlock ------------- is possible in distributed systems

a. detection
b. prevention
c. avoidance
* d. a and b
312. Which of the following is a characteristic of a distributed operating system?

a. resources are owned by local nodes
* b. resources are owned by the global system
c. resources are not owned by any system

d. all of them
313. A  is a collection of independent computers that appear to the users of the system as a single
computer
* a. distributed system
b. centralized system
c. incremental system
d. economic system
314. Network operating systems

a. perform the same types of functions for the network as operating system software does for a
computer system
b. allow users to access resources at a remote site
c. are designed to be used with a variety of third-party hardware devices and software applications
315. The communications management function is unique to

a. stand-alone operating systems
* b. networked operating systems
316. In a client-server model a computer program is divided into two parts. The client program
a. usually runs on the desktop computer
b. is responsible for all interaction with the user
c. interaction can be through menus or graphical user interfaces
*d. all of the above
317. A network that’s congested or has filled a large percentage of its I/O buffer space can become
deadlocked if it doesn’t have ------------- to control the flow of messages through the network.
a procedures c. policies
*b. protocols d. rules

Operating Systems Q&A - 16-1&2

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Operating Systems Q&A Dr.

Jamal Mohammad Khalifeh 2016

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 1

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 2

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 4

57. In general, the degree of CPU idle time in a multiprogramming system

58. Ideally, the goal of all operating systems is to

60. The objectives of a batch operating system

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 5

88. Which process requires an interprocess communication (IPC) mechanism?

hold ready w ait

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 9

102. A program's "natural" wait occurs when

103. A very small time quantum will

105. In general, the degree of CPU idle time in a multiprogramming system

106. The Process Control Block is used to

109. Resources that may be removed from a process are

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 10

Job Number Job’s CPU Cycle

What kind of process scheduling is represented above?

115. Turnaround time -------------

117. The process scheduler (dispatcher) is

118. The long term scheduler (job scheduler) is responsible for

120. Scheduling jobs as they come in is referred to as

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 12

123. Which of the following interrupts would generate a context switch?

Job Number Arrival Time CPU Cycle

a. Average turnaround time under Shortest Job Next. Answer: 8.75

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 13

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 14

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 15

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 16

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 18

182. We can say that a process is in a "deadlocked state" when…

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 19

Select which of the following would change it to an unsafe state:

1. What is the maximum number of jobs that can be processed as once?

191. The Master/Slave multiprocessing organization

192. Symmetrical multiprocessing organization

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 20

197. Mutual exclusion

198. Counting semaphores are variables that

199. Busy waiting

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 21

This is an example of:

1. Is this system, as a whole, deadlocked?

2. Are there any blocked processes?

206. What is another name for a fixed partition?

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 24

I. Initialize memory_block(0) = 99999

Beginning Address Memory Block Size

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 25

228. A single user contiguous memory management system

229. Static partitioning systems were instituted to allow

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 26

230. Given the following static allocation scheme:

Where will a job requiring 96K bytes of memory be stored?

234. Dynamic partitioning systems create

Allocated Partition Table

Alzaytoonah University – Faculty of Science and IT- Computer Science Departmen 27

Free Area Table

2. The resulting fragment will be of size: