Test Pattern

(1015CMD303319005) *1015CMD303319005*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 14-07-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLE)
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

English / 14072019 Page 1/20
 TOPIC : Unit & Dimensions, Kinematics (Upto motion under gravity), Electrostatics (Till Electric potential)
8. 5 Full rotations of circular scale travels 2 mm. on
ca 2
1. In the equation E = 2 sin(bx – at) . E represent main scale. If circular scale has 40 division, then
b
least count of screw guage is :-
energy, x represent displacement & t represent time.
(1) 0.001 mm (2) 0.01 cm
a, b & c are unknown variables. Find the dimension
(3) 0.01 mm (4) 10–3 m
of ‘c’ :-
9. A person moves with speed 10 m/s in a direction 30º
(1) [M1LºTº] (2) [M1L1T2]
East of North for 3 second and then takes 120º right
(3) [M–1L–1T] (4) [M–1L–2T–1]
turn without changing speed. Find the average velocity
2. If ‘G’ (Gravitational constant), E (energy) and C
of person if it moves for another 3 second after taking
(velocity of light) are taken as fundamental units then
the turn :-
find the dimension of length in terms of them :-
(1) 5 3 m/s, North (2) 5 3 m/s, East
(1) [G2EC–4] (2) [G–1EC2]
(3) 5 m/s, North (4) 5 m/s, East
(3) [GEC–4] (4) [ECG]
10. On an open ground a motorist turn to his left by 90º
3. Find the result according to rules of significant number
after every 500 m. Find the magnitude of average
(253.23 + 47) :-
velocity at the 6th turn. Consider motorist to move with
(1) 300 (2) 3.0 × 102
constant speed 10 m/s :-
(3) 3.00 × 102 (4) 3
4. Measured radius of a Right Circular cone is 30 and 50 5 2
(1) m/s (2) m/s
its height is 35, then its volume will be ......... . 3 3
According to the rules of significant figures :-
50 2 3 2
(1) 33000 (2) 30000 (3) m/s (4) m/s
3 5
(3) 32754 (4) 3300
11. A particle is moving with constant speed ‘V’ on a
2
a b circular path of radius ‘R’. Find the magnitude of
5. Physical quantity x is calculated as x = . If
c average acceleration after 1.5 revolution :-
percentage error in a, b & c is 1%, 2% and 4% 2V 2 2V 2
(1) (2)
respectively. Find percentage error in x :- R 3 R
(1) 7% (2) 6% (3) 5% (4) 5.5% V2 2 2V 2
(3) (4)
6. Two quantities are measured as A = 7.0 0.07 & R R
B = 0.8 0.008. Then the value of AB is :- 12. Velocity of a particle moving along x-axis depends on
(1) 5.6 0.112 (2) 5.6 0.011 its position as V = 2x 2 where ‘x’ represent
(3) 56 0.112 (4) 56 1.12 x-coordinate. Find acceleration when it is located at
7. In a vernier callipers 20 division of vernier scale x = 2 :-
are equivalent to 19 division of main scale. If one (1) 8 (2) 32 (3) 24 (4) 64
main scale division is of length 1 cm. Calculate 13. Find the initial speed of particle moving along x-axis
the least count of the vernier callipers :- which has x-coordinate depended on time as
(1) 0.05 cm (2) 0.5 cm x = t2 – 4t + 2 meter :-
(3) 0.005 cm (4) 5 mm (1) –4 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) –2 m/s
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14. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He 22. A body is projected vertically up at t = 0 with
takes 4 steps forward & 1 steps backward and velocity 50 m/s. Another body is projected from
continue is this manner. If the pit is located 14 steps same point with same velocity after 3 seconds. Both
away from him. Find the total number of steps bodies will meet at t = .... (Take g = 10 m/s2) :-
taken by him before falling into pit. :- (1) 3.5 sec. (2) 7 sec.
(1) 20 steps (2) 21 steps (3) 6 sec. (4) 6.5 sec.
(3) 22 steps (4) 23 steps 23. Mark the false statement :-
15. A train covers 40% of distance with average speed (1) A body can have negative position and still has
40 km/h & 60% of distance with average speed positive displacement
60 km/h. Find the average speed for entire journey:-
(2) A body can have negative acceleration and still
(1) 50 km/h (2) 60 km/h
has positive velocity
(3) 48 km/h (4) 55 km/h
(3) A body with positive acceleration should
16. For a particle moving along a straight
necessarily move upward
line displacement at any time ‘t’ is given by
(4) Rate of change of distance is constant when
S = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 4 m. The acceleration when
velocity is constant
velocity become zero is :-
24. A conducting sphere of radius R has electric field
(1) 12 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2
R
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 1 m/s2 E at distance 2R from centre. Find potential at
17. When a car start to move with constant acceleration 2
from centre :-
2 m/s2. Find its average speed in 10 seconds. :-
(1) 4ER (2) 9ER (3) 7ER (4) 6ER
(1) 10 m/s (2) 12.5 m/s 2 2
25. V = x y – y – x + 2y. Find E at origin.
(3) 15 m/s (4) 5 m/s
18. A stone is dropped from certain height which can (1) ˆi 2jˆ (2) –iˆ 2ˆj
reach the ground in 13 second. It is stopped after 5 (3) ˆi – 2ˆj (4) 2iˆ – ˆj
seconds of its fall and is again released. The total time
26. Charge Q is divided into two parts which are then
taken by the stone to reach the ground will be :-
kept some distance apart. The force between them
(1) 18 sec (2) 12 sec (3) 17 sec (4) 22 sec
will be maximum if the two parts are :-
19. When a stone dropped from the top of a building.
Q Q Q 3Q
It covers half of the height in its last second of (1) and (2) and
2 2 2 4
Motion. Find the time taken by stone to cover
entire height of building. :- Q 2Q
(3) and (4) e and (Q – e)
(1) 2 sec. (2) 3.4 sec. 2 3
(3) 4 sec. (4) 6 sec. 27. Three identical charges are fixed at the corners of an
20. A ball is thrown upwards with speed 20 m/s. Find equilateral triangle. If the force between any two
the time spend when it is at 75% of maximum height charges is F, then the net electric force on each will be:-
and is moving downwards (Take g = 10 m/s2) :- (1) 2F (2) 2F (3) 3F (4) 3F
(1) 3 sec. (2) 1 sec. (3) 2 sec (4) 4 sec. 28. Two particles, each of mass m and carrying charge Q,
21. Velocity of a particle depends on time as v = t 2. are seperated by some distance. If they are in equilibrium
Its time average velocity upto 3 sec. will be given under mutual gravitational and electrostatic force then
by (in m/s) :- Q/m (in C/kg) is of the order of :-
(1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4) 2 m/s (1) 10 –5 (2) 10–10 (3) 10–15 (4) 10–20
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29. In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at 34. Three charges 2q, –q, –q are located at the vertices
a distance r from the centre. Identical charges of of an equilateral triangle. At the circumcentre of
magnitude Q are placed (n – 1) corners. The field the triangle :-
1 (1) Field is zero but potential is non-zero
at the centre is k :-
4 0
(2) Field is non-zero but potential is zero
(3) Both, field and potential are zero
Q Q
(1) k (2) (n–1)k (4) Both field and potential are non-zero
r2 r2
35. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges
n Q n –1 Q Q1 and Q2 fixed at two different points on the x-axis
(3) k 2 (4) k 2 are shown in the figure. These lines suggest that :-
n –1 r n r
30. The magnitude of the electric field required to just
balance in air a 2 × 10 –4 kg liquid drop carrying
Q2
a charge of 10 × 10–2 µC is :- Q1
(1) 104 N/C (2) 2 × 104 N/C
(3) 4 × 104 N/C (4) 5 × 104 N/C
31. A and B are two points in an electric field. If the (i) Q1 > Q2
work done in carrying 4.0 C of electric charge (ii) Q1 < Q2
from A to B is 16.0 J, the potential difference (iii)At a finite distance to the left of Q1 the electric
between A and B is :- field is zero
(1) Zero (2) 2.0 V (3) 4.0 V (4) 16.0 V (iv) At a finite distance to the right of Q2 the electric
32. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, field is zero
one at each corner of the square. The relation (1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (iv)
between Q and q for which the potential at the (3) (ii). (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)
36. A point charge +q is at a distance d/2 from a square
centre of the square is zero is :-
surface of side d and is directly above the centre
1 of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux
(1) Q = –q (2) Q –
through the square is :-
q
+q
1 d/2
(3) Q = q (4) Q
q
33. An infinite number of charges, each equal to q
coulomb, are placed along the x-axis at x(in
meters) = 1, 2, 4, 8, ... and so on. The potential d
and field in SI units at x = 0 due to this set of q q q
(1) (2) 6 (3) (4) Zero
charges are respectively 1/4 0 times :- 0 0 0

37. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R

2q has charge density . The electric field at a distance
(1) 2q, 4q (2) ,4q
3 r from the centre of sphere (r < R) will be :-
2q 4q 4q R r r 3 r
(3) , (4) 2q, (1) 3 (2) (3) 3 (4)
3 3 3 0 0 0 0
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38. In the following graph, the magnitude of 42. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric
maximum electric field is :- field. The electric potential is :-

A B B A
10 V E
C

V C (1) same at all the three points A,B and C

(volt) O 2m 4m 8m (2) maximum at A
x(m) (3) maximum at B
(1) 5 V/m (2) 2.5 V/m (4) maximum at C
(3) 1.25 V/m (4) 10 V/m 43. Two small spheres each having a charge +Q are
39. The electric field due to a uniformly charged suspended by insulating threads of length L from
sphere of radius R as a function of the distance a hook. This arrangement is taken to a space
from its centre is represented graphically by :- where there is no gravitational effect, then the
E E angle between the two threads and the tension in
each will be :-
1 Q2
(1) (2) (1) 180 ,
4 0 (2L)2
R r R r
1 Q2
(2) 90 ,
E E 4 0 L2

1 Q2
(3) (4) (3) 180 ,
4 0 2L2

R r R r 1 Q2
(4) 180 ,
40. The electric field in a certain region is acting 4 0 L2
radially outward and is given by E = Ar. The
44. Force between two identical spheres charged with
charge contained in a sphere of radius 'a' centred
same charge is F. If 50% charge of one sphere is
at the origin of the field, will be given by :
transferred to the other sphere then the new force
(1) A 0 a2 (2) 4 0 Aa3
will be :–
(3) 0 Aa3 (4) 4 0 Aa2
41. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge 3 3
(1) F (2) F
Q. The electric potential and the electric field at 4 8
the centre of the sphere are respectively :-
3
Q (3) F (4) none of these
(1) Zero and 2
2
4 0 R
45. Two point charges +9q and +q are kept 16 cm
Q
(2) 4 R and Zero apart. Where should a third charge Q be placed
0
between them so that the system remains in
Q Q
(3) 4 equilibrium ?
0 R and 4 0 R2
(1) 24 cm from + 9q (2) 12 cm from + 9q
(4) Both are zero (3) 24 cm from + q (4) 12 cm from + q
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 TOPIC : Isomerism, Chemical Kinetics and Mole Concept

46. CH3 CH2 CH2 and CH 3 CH CH 3 are :- 51. Which of the following i s functional group
CN CN isomer?
(1) Position isomer OH CH2 OH
(2) Metamer ,
(1)
(3) Chain isomer CH3
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH , CH3 O CH3
CHO CH2 CH2 (3) CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 , CH3 CH NH2
47. CH3 CH and are :-
CHO CHO CHO CH3
(1) Position isomer (4) All
(2) Metamer O O
(3) Chain isomer 52. CH3 C CH2 and Ph CH2 C CH3 are:-
(4) Functional group isomer
Cl (1) Metamer
(2) Position isomer
48. and are :- (3) Identical
Br (4) None
(1) Position isomer 53. Number of cyclic structural isomer with molecular
(2) Functional group isomer formula C 5H10 is :-
(3) Chain isomer (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
(4) None 54. Which of the following does not show geometrical
49. Which is metamer ? isomer ?
O (1)
(1) ,
(2)
O
(2) O , O (3)
H
O
(4)
(3) ,
O CH3 O O
(4) All 55. CH3 CH C Cl and CH3 CH CH2 C H are
50. Which is ring chain isomer ? Cl
related as :-
(1) , (2) , (1) Chain isomer
(2) Position isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(3) , (4) All
(4) Conformers
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56. Which has "E" configuration ? 62. Which of the following compound is optically active?

H CH2OH Cl CHO H CH3 F Br

C C C C (1) C C C (2) C C C
(1) (2) Cl CH3 Cl I
CH3 CH 2SH CH3 COOH

CH3 CHO CH3O NH2

C C C C (3) Br Cl (4) All
(3) (4)
Cl COOH CH3 CN
63. Which is most stable conformer ?
57. Which of the following does not show metamerism?
OH OH
(1) CH3 CH2 NH CH2 CH3 H H H OH
(2) CH3 CH2 CH2 O CH3 (1) (2)
H H H H
(3) H C O CH2 CH3
OH H
O OH OH
H OH
(4) CH3 C CH2 CH3 (3) (4)
O HO H
H HH H HH
58. Minimum number of carbon atom in alkane to show 64. Which of the following is meso compound ?
position isomerism is :-
CH3 CH3
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 H Cl H Cl
(1) (2)
59. Which is optically active ? Cl H H Cl
CH3 CH2CH3
CH3
H Cl COOH
(1) (2) H H
H Cl H H OH
(3) (4)
CH3 Cl HO H
Cl Cl
COOH
65. What is the configuration of compound I and II
CH3
respectively ?
(3) (4) CH3 CHO CH2Cl
HO H
CH3 H H
60. Number of optical isomer of 3-bromobutan-2-ol
HO CH2CH3
will be :- NH 2
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (I) (II)
61. Number of chiral carbon in given compound will (1) S, S (2) R, S (3) S, R (4) R, R
be :- 66. Which can show geometrical isomerism?
(1) CH2 N OH
(2) CH3 CH CH2
Br O
(3) Ph CH N OH
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (4) All
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67. Relation between (A) and (B) will be :- 73. Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants (K1 and K2)
of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures
CH3 CH3
(T1 & T2) are related by :-
H OH HO H
H OH HO H K2 Ea 1 1
(1) n K R T1 T2
CH2CH3 CH2CH3 1

(A) (B) K2 Ea 1 1
(2) n K R T2 T1
(1) Homomer (2) Diastereomer 1

(3) Enantiomer (4) None K2 Ea 1 1

(3) n K R T1 T2
1
68. Which is not true for (I) and (II) ?
K1 Ea 1 1
CH3 H H H (4) n K
C C C C 2 R T2 T1
H CH3 CH3 CH3
74. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction
(I) (II) by :-
(1) Stability I > II (1) increasing the activation energy
(2) decreasing the activation energy
(2) Dipole moment I > II (3) Reacting with the reactants
(3) Boiling point I < II (4) Reacting with the products
75. What is the activation energy for the reverse of this
(4) All reaction ?
69. A first order reaction has a rate constant of N2O 4(g) 2NO2(g)
2.303 × 10–3 s–1. The time required for 40 g of this Data for given reaction is : H = + 54kJ and
reactant to reduce to 10 g will be :- Ea = +57.2 kJ :-
(1) –54 kJ (2) +3.2 kJ
{given log102 = 0.3010}
(3) +60.2 kJ (4) +111.2 kJ
(1) 230.3 s (2) 301 s 76. For a first order gaseous reaction,
(3) 2000 s (4) 602 s A(g) B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
if initial pressure is P0 and total final pressure of
70. For a first order reaction: mixture becomes Pt after time ‘t’. The rate constant
t75% = 1386 seconds is :-

Its specific rate constant (s–1) will be :- 2.303 3P0

(1) K log
t 2P0 Pt
(1) 10 –3 (2) 10–2 (3) 10–9 (4) 10–5
71. If the volume of 22g of gas is 11.2 L at NTP. Then 2.303 2P0
(2) K t
log
3P0 Pt
find out the molecular weight of gas :-
(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 88 (4) 11.2
2.303 P0
72. If the rate of reaction is 5 at 10°C, then on (3) K t
log
2P0 Pt
increasing the temp. to 30°C, new rate is :-
1 P0
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 50 (4) 40 (4) K log
t P0 Pt
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77. The rate of a first order reaction is 0.8 mol L–1 s–1 84. Which one of the following has maximum number
at 40 sec and 0.4 mole L –1 s –1 at 80 sec of molecules ?
respectively. The half life period of reaction is :-
(1) 16g of O 2 (2) 32g of N2
(1) 20sec (2) 45sec (3) 16g of NO2 (4) 2g of H2
(3) 60sec (4) 40sec 85. In a hydrocarbon, 92.3% C is present. Its
78. Vapour density of metal chloride is 79. Equivalent molecular weight is 78. The molecular formulae
weight of metal is 4, then its atomic weight will be:- of compound will be :-
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 12 (1) C2H2 (2) C5H18
79. The number of litres of air required to burn 10 litres (3) C6H6 (4) C4H8
of C2H6 is :-
86. The combustion of methane is expressed as :
(1) 35 litres (2) 3.5 litres
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)
(3) 175 litres (4) 100 litres
The number of moles of methane required to
80. A compound was found to contain nitrogen and produce 11.0 g of CO2 after combustion is :
oxygen in the ratio 28:80. The empirical formulae
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.20
of compound is :-
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.5
(1) NO (2) N2O 3
87. 0.5 mole of H 2SO 4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of
(3) N2O 5 (4) NO2 Ca(OH)2. The maximum number of mole of CaSO4
81. If 6.02 × 1023 molecules of NH3 are removed from formed is :
340 g NH3, find left moles of NH3:-
H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaSO4 + 2H2O
(1) 1 mole (2) 20 mole
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.4 (4) 1.5
(3) 19 mole (4) 9 mole
88. If 30 mL of H2 and 20 mL of O2 react to form water,
82. The law of multiple proportion is illustrated by the what is left at the end of reaction ?
two compounds :-
(1) 10 mL of H2
(1) CaCl 2 , CuCl 2
(2) 10 mL of O2
(2) H2O, D2O (3) 5 mL of O2
(3) NaOH, KOH (4) 5 mL of H2
(4) N2O3, N2O5 89. A haemoglobin contains 3% iron and its one
molecule contains 3 atoms of iron. Find molecular
83. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are reacting with
weight of haemoglobin :-
each other to form SO3. Find the amount of SO3
formed in reaction (1) 168 (2) 16800
(3) 56 (4) 5600
2SO2 + O2 2SO3
90. The percentage of an element M is 50 in its oxide
(1) 100 g (2) 200 g
of molecular formulae MO. Its atomic mass is about:-
(3) 250 g (4) 400 g
(1) 45 (2) 9 (3) 16 (4) 27
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 TOPIC : From cytoskeleton to Meiosis, Circulatory system, Respiratory system.
91. What is common between prokaryotic and 98. Karyotype of a species can be easily studied at :-
eukaryotic flagella ? (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(1) Both are covered by plasma membrane (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(2) Microtubular organisation 99. In submetacentric chromosomes centromere is
(3) Mode of functioning located :-
(1) At the mid-point (2) Near the mid-point
(4) Function
(3) Near the tip (4) At the tip
92. Which of the following is fastest mode of locomotion
100. Which of the following is not an example of terminally
in unicellular organisms ?
differentiated cells ?
(1) Ciliary (2) Flagellar (1) Mature nerve cells
(3) Pseudopodial (4) All are equally fast (2) Mature muscle cells
93. Microtubular arrangement in axoneme of cilia is:- (3) Mature mammalian RBCs
(1) 9 (Peripheral doublets) + 0 (4) Mature hepatocytes
(2) 9 (Peripheral doublets) + 2 101. Maturation-promoting factor (MPF) initiates :-
(3) 9 (Peripheral triplets) + 0 (1) G1–phase (2) S–phase
(4) 9 (Peripheral triplets) + 2 (3) G2–phase (4) Cell division
94. –oxidation of fatty acids occurs in :- 102. Which of the following constitute a cell’s internal clock
system ?
(1) Mitochondria
(1) Cyclins (2) CdKs
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Cyclins and CdKs (4) Growth Factors
(3) Mitochondria and peroxisomes
103. Which statement about the daughter cells following
(4) Lysosomes mitosis and cytokinesis is correct ?
95. Which of the following is not true with respect to (1) They are genetically different from each other and
centrioles ? from the parent cell
(1) These are present in almost all plant cells (2) They are genetically identical with each other and
(2) Centrioles exhibit cart wheel structure in with the parent cell
longitudinal section (3) They are genetically identical with each other but
(3) Centrioles are membrane-less self-duplicating different from the parent cell
units. (4) Only one of the two daughter cells is genetically
(4) Centrioles contain microtubules composed of identical with the parent cell
104. After the s-phase, what comprises a single
dynein protein
chromosome ?
96. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
(1) Two daughter chromosomes
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells. (2) A double-stranded DNA molecule
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure. (3) Two single-stranded molecules of DNA
(3) It takes part in spindle formation. (4) Two sister chromatids
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. 105. Meiosis results in :-
97. Which of the following types of chromosomes has (1) Production of gametes
maximum arm’s ratio ? (2) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric (3) Introduction of genetic variation
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric (4) All of the above
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106. Meiosis occurs in organisms during :- 115. If the initial amount of DNA in a cell is represented
(1) Sexual reproduction as '2C' then the amount of DNA present in its
(2) Vegetative reproduction daughter cells at the end of meiosis-I should be:-
(3) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction C
(4) Growth (1) 2C (2) C (3) 4C (4)
2
107. During anaphase-I of meiosis :- 116. In meiosis, recombinase enzyme is active during:-
(1) Homologous chromosomes separate (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(2) Non-homologous chromosomes separate (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(3) Sister chromatids separate 117. Cells of quiescent stage (G0) :-
(4) Non-sister chromatids separate (a) are metabolically inactive
108. Mitosis is characterised by :- (b) normally do not divide
(1) Reduction division (c) may divide if required for the organism
(2) Equal division Options
(3) Both reduction and equal division (1) a only (2) a and b
(4) Genetically different progeny cells (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
109. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of :- 118. When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere results in the formation of :-
(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres (1) Polyploid cells
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres (2) Polytene chromosomes
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres (3) Lampbrush chromosomes
(4) Multinucleated cells
110. Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at :-
119. In animals, mitosis is not involved in :-
(1) G1 (2) G2 (3) G0 (4) S phase
(1) Wound healing
111. Which of the events listed below is not observed
(2) Replacement of lost blood cells
during mitosis?
(3) Formation of brain
(1) Chromatin condensation
(4) Formation of gametes
(2) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
120. 'Endoreduplication' leads to :-
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids
(1) Formation of polytene chromosomes
joined together at the centromere.
(2) Formation of lampbrush chromosomes
(4) Crossing over
(3) Formation of polyploid cell
112. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis :-
(4) Formation of multinucleated cell
(1) Pairing of homologus chromosomes
121. Colchine acts as mitotic poison by :-
(2) Four haploid cells are formed (1) Preventing depolymerisation of tubulin molecules
(3) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes
(2) Preventing polymerisation of tubulin molecules
is reduced to half (3) inhibiting DNA replication
(4) Two cycles of DNA replication occur (4) inhibiting protein synthesis
113. Select the correct statement about G1 phase :- 122. Mitosis differs from meiosis in not having :-
(1) Cell is metabolically inactive (a) Synapsis
(2) DNA in the cell does not replicate (b) Crossing over
(3) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules (c) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Cell stops growing (d) Terminalisation of chaismata
114. Number of barr bodies in people having Turner's (e) Division of centromere
syndrome is :- (1) a and b only (2) e only
(1) Zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e
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123. Crossing over occurs between :- 130. Which of the following graph correctly represents
(1) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes DNA content and chromosome number of a
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell
chromosomes cycle ?
(3) Sist er chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes
124. Actual site of attachment of spindle fibres with
chromosomes is :-
(1)
(1) Chromatid (2) Telomere
(3) Kinetochore (4) Centromere
125. In animals, chromosome number is maintained
constant from one generation to the next generation
with the help of :-
(1) Mitosis and fertilization
(2) Meiosis and fertilization
(3) Mitosis and meiosis
(4) Only meiosis (2)
126. At metaphase-I, germ cells of humans have :-
(1) 23 bivalents and 46 tetrads
(2) 23 tetrads and 46 bivalents
(3) 23 tetrads and 92 chromatids
(4) 2 sets of non-homologous chromosomes and 46
tetrads
127. In human females, primary oocyte cells may remain 2n
arrested at diplotene stage for :- (3)
(1) 12 to 15 days (2) 4 weeks (28 days)
(3) 12 to 15 months (4) 12 to 15 years 2C
128. If in a cell culture, starting from a single cell, 4096
cells are formed in 6 days then the average time G1 S G2 M
duration of one cell cycle is :-
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 24 hours (4) 3 hours
129. Identify the following diagram-

(4)

131. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is accompained

(1) Transition to Metaphase (mitosis) by the formation of :-
(2) Transition to Anaphase-II (meiosis)
(3) Transition to Metaphase-I (meiosis) (1) Recombination nodule (2) Chiasmata
(4) Transition to Anaphase (mitosis) (3) Synaptonemal complex (4) Metaphase plate

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132. If spindle fibres are not properly attached with 142. Insects respire through :-
kinetochores of chromosomes then which check point (1) Lungs (2) Moist Cuticle
will be activated ? (3) Tracheal tube (4) Gills
(1) G1/S (2) G2/M 143. Which of the following respire through lungs ?
(3) M-phase (4) G2/M and M (1) Reptiles (2) Birds
(3) Mammals (4) All
133. How many chromosomes shall be present in a
144. Lungs are situated in the :-
diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has
(1) Thoracic cavity (2) Abdominal cavity
ten chromosomes ?
(3) Anterior cavity (4) Posterior cavity
(1) 10 (2) 20
145. Choose the incorrect statement :-
(3) 30 (4) 40 (1) Change in volume of the thoracic cavity is
134. In mitotic cell cycle, chromosomal duplication reflected in lung cavity
occurs during :- (2) Transport of gases by the blood in respiration
(1) G1 –phase (2) S–phase (3) O2 is release out and CO2 is drawn in from
(3) G2 –phase (4) Anaphase atmosphere during respiration
135. The part of mitotic cycle occuring between two (4) Heart is situated in thoracic cavity
successive division phases is called as :- 146. Inspiration is initiated by contraction in which
(1) Gap phase (2) Metaphase muscles:-
(3) Interphase (4) S–phase (1) EICM (2) IICM
136. Air enters from external nostrils into nasal chamber (3) Diaphragm (4) Abdominal muscles
and it open into :- 147. What happen when pulmonary volume increases?
(1) Trachea (2) Nasopharynx (1) Intra pulmonary pressure
(3) Larynx (4) Bronchus (2) Intra pulmonary pressure
137. Larynx is a ...box which helps in sound production :- (3) Thoracic volume
(1) Fibrous (2) Bony (4) Atmospheric pressure
(3) Cartilaginous (4) Closed 148. A healthy human breaths at the rate of :-
138. During swallowing glottis is covered by :- (1) 16-20 times/min (2) 12-16 times/min
(1) Epiglottis (2) Epigullet (3) 7-10 times/min (4) 72-74 times/min
(3) Larynx (4) Pharynx 149. Clinical assessment of pulmonary function is done by:-
139. Trachea is straight tube extending upto mid-thoracic (1) Sphygomanometer (2) Pulse oxymeter
cavity, which divides at the level of :- (3) Spirometer (4) Barometer
(1) 3rd cervical (2) 5th thoracic 150. Maximum transport of oxygen is done by :-
th
(3) 5 cervical (4) 5th lumbar (1) Oxyhaemoglobin
140. Cartilaginous rings present in trachea are :- (2) Carbamino-haemoglobin
(1) Complete (2) incomplete (3) Bicarbonate form
(3) Both (4) Absent (4) Carbonic acid
141. Fluid present in the double layered pleura in lungs 151. Difficulty is breathing causing wheezing sound due to
helps in :- inflamation in bronchi :-
(1) Increase friction on lung surface (1) Asthma
(2) Decrease friction on lung surface (2) Emphysema
(3) Prevent leakage on lung surface (3) Pneumothorax
(4) No role (4) Occupational respiratory disease

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152. Universal donor blood group is :- 163. Opening between right and left ventricle into the
(1) AB + (2) AB– (3) O+ (4) O– pulmonary artery and the aorta is gaurded by :-
153. If person has anti-B antibody than blood group is:- (1) Bicuspid valve
(1) A (2) B (3) AB (4) O (2) Tricuspid valve
154. Fatal condition of the foetus which causes severe (3) Semi-lunar valve
Anaemia and Jaundice is known as :- (4) Ligamentum Arteriosum
(1) Respiratory distress syndrome 164. All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state :-
(2) Erythroblastosis foetalis (1) Atrial systole
(3) Pneumonia (2) Ventricular systole
(4) Auricular septal defect (3) Diastole ventricular
155. Open circulatory system is present in :- (4) Joint diastole
(1) Arthropods (2) Molluscs 165. 30% filling of ventricles occur’s during :-
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None
(1) Atrial systole
156. Closed circulatory system is present in :-
(2) Ventricular systole
(1) Annelids (2) Chordates
(3) Ventricular diastole
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None
(4) Joint diastole
157. Outermost covering of heart is known, as :-
166. During cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps
(1) Peritonium (2) Periostium
out approximately how much ml of blood in one
(3) Pericardium (4) Pleura
stroke :-
158. The opening between right atrium and right ventricles
(1) 50 ml (2) 70 ml
is gaurded by :-
(3) 120 ml (4) 30 ml
(1) Mitral valve (2) Tricuspid valve
(3) Aortic SLV (4) Pulmonary SLV 167. First heart sound heart through a stethoscope is :-
159. The minute fibre throughout the ventricular (1) Lub (2) Dub
musculature is known as :- (3) Dub-lub (4) Murmur
(1) SA node (2) AV node 168. How can we determine the heart beat rate of an
(3) Bundle of HIS (4) Purkinje fibres individual by counting in ECG ?
160. Autoexcitable cells of nodal musculature are :- (1) QRS complex (2) T wave
(1) SA node (3) P wave (4) S wave
(2) AV node 169. Human heart is :-
(3) Bundle of HIS & Purkinje fibres (1) Myogenic (2) Neurogenic
(4) All (3) Both (4) None
161. P wave represents :- 170. Sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) has what effect
(1) depolarisation of ventricles on heart :-
(2) depolarisation of atria
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) repolarisation of ventricles
(3) No effect (4) Stop
(4) none
162. A unique connection from digestive tract to liver is 171. Rise in blood pressure than the normal is k/a :-
known as :- (1) Hypotension (2) Hypertension
(1) Hepatic portal system (3) Murmur (4) Angina
(2) Hypophyseal portal system 172. Acute chest pain is denoted by :-
(3) Renal portal system (1) Heart failure (2) Angina
(4) Systemic circulation (3) Hypertension (4) Murmur
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173. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and 176. Given are four statements (A-D) regarding human
select the option which includes all the correct? blood circulatory system :-
(a) Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the (A) Arteries are thick walled and have broad lumen.
blood flow. (B) Each cardiac cyclic produce systole and diastole
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscles is in atria and ventricles.
sudden by damaged by an inadequate blood (C) Heart sound are heard through stethoscope
supply. (D)Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
circulation to the brain is reduced.
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart disease and
Which of the above statement are incorrect?
also effects vital organ like brain and kidney.
(1) A and B (2) C and D
(d) Coronary artery disease [CAD] often refered as
(3) B and C (4) A and D
Atherosclerosis.
177. Correct sequence of filling of volumes in lungs :-
(1) Statement b, c and d
(1) RV ERV IRV TV
(2) Statement a and b (2) ERV RV IC IRV
(3) Statement b and d (3) [TLC – VC] EC IRV
(4) Statement a, c and d (4) FRC [IC–IRV] ERV
174. Which of the following does not shift the 178. Blood report of dengue patient shows decrease in
oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the direction platelets count below critical level is known as :-
diametrically opposite of right. (1) Leucocytopenia (2) Anemia
(1) PO2 (2) PCO2 (3) H+ (4) Temp (3) Purpura disease (4) Polycythemia
179. During dissociation of NaHCO3 and association of
175. Given below the graphical reprentation in which oxyhaemoglobin, movement of ……… charge
different oxygen dissociation curve [ODC] shown by happens.
P, Q and R. Select the correct option which includes
(1) Cl from plasma to RBC
all correct representation of curve with their correct (2) H2CO3 from plasma to RBC
identification. (3) Cl from RBC to plasma
Y (4) HCO3 from RBC to plasma
R P Q 180. Please observe the diagram below :-
% of PO2 – 95
staturation of
Hb with O2 B
PO2 – 40
X PCO2– 45 Inferior
PO2 Organ X vena
C
cava
P Q R
A PCO2– 45
(1) Normal ODC Foetal ODC Myoglobin
ODC
Intestine
(2) Foetal ODC Myoglobin Normal & Stomach
ODC ODC
Identify A, B, C and X
(3) Foetal ODC Normal ODC Myoglobin
ODC (1) A-Hepatic vein, B-Portal vein, C-Heptic artery
(2) A-Portal vein, B-Hepatic vein, X-Lungs
(4) Myoglobin Normal ODC Foetal
ODC ODC (3) A-Hepatic artery, B-Hepatic vein, X-Heart
(4) B-Hepatic artery, C-Hepatic vein, X-Liver
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Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

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