IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

1. Consider the following statements (A) 2.30 V

regarding the formation of P-N (B) 2.85 V
junctions: (C) 3.25 V
1. Holes diffuse across the junction (D) 3.90 V
from P- side to N-side.
2. The depletion layer is wiped out. 4. In tunnel diode, the Fermi level lies
3. There is continuous flow of current (A) inside valance band of p-type and
across the junction. inside conduction band of n-type
4. A barrier potential is set up across semiconductors
the junction. (B) in the energy band gap but closer
Which of the above statements are to conduction band of n-type
correct? semiconductors
(A) 1 and 3 (C) in the energy band gap but closer
(B) 2 and 3 to valence band of p-type
(C) 1 and 4 semiconductors
(D) 2 and 4 (D) in the energy band gap but above
valence band of p-type and below
2. Silicon devices can be employed for a conduction band of n-type
higher temperature limit (190 ºC to 200 semiconductors.
ºC) as compared to germanium devices
(85 ºC to 100 ºC). With respect to this, 5. The hFE values in the specification sheet
which of the following are incorrect? of a transistor are hFE(max) = 225 and
1. Higher resistivity of silicon hFE(min) = 64. What value of hFE is to be
2. Higher gap energy of silicon adopted in practice?
3. Lower intrinsic concentration of (A) 64
silicon (B) 100
4. Use of silicon devices in high- (C) 120
power applications (D) 225
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 6. A transistor is connected in CE
(A) 1, 2 and 4 configuration with VCC = 10V. The
(B) 1, 2 and 3 voltage drop across the 600  resistor in
(C) 1, 3 and 4 the collector circuit is 0.6 V. If
(D) 2, 3 and 4  0.98, the base current is nearly
(A) 6.12 mA
3. For an n-channel silicon JFET with a (B) 2.08 mA
= 2 × 10–4cm and channel (C) 0.98 mA
resistivity   5 cm, n  300cm2/V-s (D) 0.02 mA
and  0 = 9×10–12 F/m, the pinch-off
7. An amplifier, without feedback, has a
voltage, Vp, is nearly
gain A. The distortion at full output is

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

10%. The distortion is reduced to 2% current is 500 nA. The output offset
with negative feedback (feedback factor voltage due to an input offset voltage
 = 0.03). The values of A and A' and an input bias current, are
(i.e., the gain with feedback) are, (A) 300 mV and 23.5 mV
respectively, nearly (B) 606 mV and 47.0 mV
(A) 133.3 and 18.5 (C) 300 mV and 47.0 mV
(B) 133.3 and 26.7 (D) 606 mV and 23.5 mV
(C) 201.3 and 26.7
(D) 201.3 and 18.5 11. What is the gain of the amplifier circuit
o as shown in the figure?
8. The magnitude of the gain in the
i Vi
1k 15k 15k
inverting op-amp circuit shown in the 1k

figure is x with switch S open. When 

switch S is closed, the magnitude of the V0
gain will be S 

R R

vi  (A) 255
v0 (B) 31
 (C) –31
(D) –255

(A) x
12. The Kirchhoff’s current law works on
x
(B) the principle of conservation of
2
1. Charge
(C) 2x
2. Energy
2
(D) 3. Power
x
Which of the above is/are correct?
9. An op-amp is used in a notch filter. The
(A) 1 only
notch frequency is 2 kHz, lower cut-off
(B) 2 only
frequency is 1.8 kHz and upper cut-off
(C) 3 only
frequency is 2.2 kHz. Then Q of the
(D) 1, 2 and 3
notch filter is
(A) 3.5 13. A waveform shown in the figure is
(B) 4.0 applied to a resistor of 20  . The power
(C) 4.5 dissipated in the resistor is
(D) 5.0
i(A)

10. In op-amp based inverting amplifier

5A
with a gain of 100 and feedback
resistance of 47k  , the op-amp input
offset voltage is 6 mV and input bias 0 3 6 t(s)

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 100W (A) 1 only

(B) 600W (B) 2 only
(C) 900W (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) 1000W (D) Neither 1 nor 2

14. A coil of wire of 0.01 mm2 area of 1000 18. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, single-phase
turns is wound on a core. It is subjected transformer has a leakage impedance of
to a flux density of 100 mWb/mm2 by a 8%.What voltage applied to the HV side
1A current. will result in full-load current flow in
The energy stored in the coil is the LV side, when the LV side is short-
(A) 2.0J circuited?
(B) 1.5J (A) 64V
(C) 1.0J (B) 86V
(D) 0.5J (C) 132V
(D) 160V
15. A sinusoidal voltage waveform has
frequency 50 Hz and RMS voltage 30V.
19. The no-load current of a 220V DC
The equation representing the waveform
motor is 2A with corresponding running
is
speed of 1200 rpm. The full-load current
(A) V = 30sin50t
is 40A with an armature resistance being
(B) V = 60sin20t
0.25  . Assuming constant flux during
(C) V = 42.42sin314t
this range of speed, the full-load speed
(D) V = 84.84 sin314t
will be
(A) 864 r.p.m.
16. The current in a coil of self-inductance
(B) 948 r.p.m.
of 4 H changes from 10 A to 2 A in t
(C) 1148 r.p.m.
seconds and the induced emf is 40 V.
(D) 1200 r.p.m.
The time t is
(A) 0.2s
20. A 100 kVA, single-phase transformer
(B) 0.4s
has a full-load copper loss of 600W and
(C) 0.6s
iron loss of 500 W. The maximum
(D) 0.8s
efficiency occurs at a load of nearly
(A) 82.1 kVA
17. Consider the following statements with
(B) 83.3 kVA
respect to a relay:
(C) 91.3 kVA
1. A relay is energized if NC contacts
(D) 98.1 kVA
are opened.
2. The pickup current is the minimum 21. The starting current in an induction
relay coil current required to keep a motor is 5 times the full-load current,
relay energized. while the full-load slip is 4%. The ratio
Which of the above statements is/are of starting torque to full load torque is
correct?
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 1.4 24. If a transformer is designed for

(B) 1.2 maximum efficiency at rated current and
(C) 1.0 voltage, the full load copper loss will be
(D) 0.8 (A) much less than the core loss
(B) much greater than the core loss
22. The applicable speed-torque curve for a (C) equal to the core loss
DC series motor is (D) not definable by these given
(A) parameters
Speed N
25. A shunt generator has an induced e.m.f.
of 224V. When supplying a load, the
terminal voltage falls to 204 V. the
Torque N armature and shunt field resistances are
0.05  and 20  , respectively. The load
(B) current, neglecting the armature
Speed N
reaction, is
(A) 376.0 A
(B) 389.8 A
(C) 400.0 A
Torque N
(D) 410.2 A

(C)
26. A single-phase, 1100/200V, 50 Hz
Speed N
transformer has a core with a square
cross-section, each side being 15cm.
The maximum flux density in the core is
Torque N not to exceed 12000 lines/cm2. The
primary and secondary number of turns
(D)
are, respectively
Speed N (A) 1100 and 200
(B) 550 and 100
(C) 275 and 75
(D) 184 and 33
Torque N
27. A short-circuit test performed on high-
23. A transformer has a core loss of 140 W
voltage side of 20kVA, 2000/400V,
at 40Hz, and 99 W at 30 Hz. The
single-phase transformer gave the
hysteresis and eddy-current losses at 50
results as 60V, 4A, 100W. If the low-
Hz, respectively, are
voltage side is delivering full-load
(A) 110 W and 30 W
current at 0.8 p.f. lag, at 400V, the
(B) 135 W and 30 W
voltage applied to the high-voltage side
(C) 110 W and 50 W
is nearly
(D) 135 W and 50 W
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 2190V 31. For elements of the iron group, the net
(B) 2170V orbital dipole moment in the solid state is
(C) 2150V (A) Zero
(D) 2132V (B) 10 – 20
(C) 10000 – 12000
28. During short-circuit test of a (D) Infinity
transformer, core losses are negligible
because 32. Which of the following statements are
(A) the current on the secondary side is correct in respect of magnetic materials
rated current M
with magnetic susceptibility  ?
(B) the voltage on the secondary side is H
zero 1.  is dimensionless
(C) the voltage applied on the primary 2. The relative permeability of the
side is low medium equals 1 +  .
(D) full-load current is not supplied to
3. For non-magnetic medium, 
the transformer
equals –1.
Select the correct answer using the code
29. Electrochemical breakdown in a
given below.
dielectric occurs at
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(A) very low temperatures only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(B) very high temperatures only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(C) very high temperatures concurrent
(D) 1 and 2 only
with high humidity of the
surroundings
33. Which of the following represent the
(D) very low temperatures concurrent
properties of carbon nanotubes?
with ambient humidity above 50%
1. High electrical conductivity
30. Which of the following are the 2. Very high tensile strength
properties of Polytetrafluoroethylene? 3. High thermal conductivity
1. Extreme heat resistant 4. Low thermal expansion coefficient.
2. Low resistance to most chemical Select the correct answer using the code
reagents given below.
3. Excellent insulating properties over (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
a wide range of temperature (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. Non-hygroscopicity (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 34. An ammeter of 0 – 25 A range has a
(B) 1, 3 and 4 guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full-scale
(C) 1, 2 and 4 reading. The current measured is 5 A.
(D) 2, 3 and 4 The limiting error is

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 2% 38. A vector impedance meter measures

(B) 3% (A) The magnitude of the impedance
(C) 4% (B) The power dissipation in the
(D) 5% impedance
(C) The phase angle of the impedance
35. A variable reluctance tachometer has (D) Both the magnitude and the phase
180 teeth on its rotor. The speed of the angle of the impedance.
shaft on which it is mounted is 1200
39. A vector voltmeter can be used to
r.p.m. The frequency of the output
measure
pulses is 1. Complex insertion loss
(A) 4800/s 2. two-port network parameters
(B) 3600/s 3. Amplifier gain and phase shift
(C) 2400/s 4. Harmonic distortion
(D) 1800/s Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
36. What will be seen on the screen of a (B) 1, 2 and 3
CRO, when a sinusoidal voltage signal (C) 1, 3 and 4
is applied to the vertical deflection plate (D) 2, 3 and 4
of this CRO with no simultaneous signal
applied to the horizontal deflection 40. A 0 – 1 mA FSD ammeter is to be used
plate? to measure 0–100 mA full-scale
(A) A horizontal line deflection using a shunt. If the internal
(B) A vertical line resistance of the meter is 200  , what is
(C) A sinusoidal signal the required shunt resistance?
(D) A spot at the centre of the screen (A) 4.04 
(B) 3.03 
37. The Wheatstone bridge consists of a (C) 2.02 
power source, 3 known resistors, a (D) 1.01 
resistor whose value is to be measured
41. In a 3-input CMOS NAND gate, the
and a null detector. Which of the
substrate terminals of NMOS transistors
following is not a source of errors in a
are grounded (lowest potential available
Wheatstone bridge?
in the circuit) and the substrate terminals
(A) Limiting errors of the known
of PMOS transistors are connected to
resistors
VDD (maximum positive potential
(B) Poor sensitivity of the null detector
available in the circuit). Which of the
(C) Fluctuations in the power supply
following transistors may suffer in this
voltage
circuit from body bias effect?
(D) Thermal e.m.f.s in the bridge
(A) 2 NMOS transistors
circuit.
(B) 2 PMOS transistors
(C) 1 NMOS transistor
(D) 1 PMOS transistor
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

42. A strain gauge with gauge factor 4 and (A) Critically damped
resistance 250  undergoes a change of (B) Undamped
0.15  during a test. The measured (C) Over-damped
strain is (D) Under-damped
(A) 150 × 10–4
(B) 15 × 10–4 47. If x(t) is as shown in the figure, its
(C) 1.5 × 10–4 Laplace transform is
(D) 0.15 × 10–4 x(t)
10
43. Unbonded strain gauge is mainly used in
a
(A) Pressure transducer 5 0 5 t
(B) Force transducer
2e5s  2e5s
(C) Vibration transducer (A)
s2
(D) Displacement transducer
2e5s  4  2e5s
(B)
s2
44. A displacement of  12.5 mm results in
2e5s  2  2e5s
a secondary voltage of 5 V in an LVDT. (C)
s2
If the then secondary voltage is 3.2 V,
2e5s  4  2e5s
the absolute value of the corresponding (D)
s2
displacement would be
(A) 4 mm 48. The value of critical current density in a
(B) 6 mm superconductor depends upon
(C) 8 mm 1. Temperature
(D) 10 mm 2. Magnetic field strength
3. Penetration depth
45. In large radar installations, it is required (A) 1, 2 and 3
to translate the angular position of a (B) 1 and 3 only
shaft into digital information. This is (C) 2 and 3 only
most generally achieved by employing a (D) 1 and 2 only
code wheel. For unambiguous sensing
of the shaft position, one employs a/an 49. The maximum current in a series R-L-C
(A) Octal code network with variable frequency
(B) BCD code excitation is 1 A, when the applied voltage
(C) Binary Gray code is 10V. The inductance has a value of 0.1
(D) Natural binary code H. The Q-factor at the maximum current
is 10. Then the value of C is
46. An R-L-C series circuit is excited by a (A) 0.01  F
DC voltage. If R = 40  , L = 0.2H and (B) 0.1  F
C = 100 F , the resulting current (C) 1.0  F
response is said to be (D) 10  F

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

50. In a two-element series network, the Given, ni = 2.5 × 1019 /m3 at 300 K and
instantaneous voltages across the the number of germanium atoms per m3
elements are sin314t and = 4.4 × 1028. What is the value of np?
3 2 sin(314t+45°) The resultant voltage (A) 3.55 × 1018/m3
across the combination is expressed as (B) 3.76 × 1018/m3
Vcos(314t +  ). Then the values of V (C) 7.87 × 1018/m3
and  are (D) 9.94 × 1018/m3
(A) 5 and 36.8°
(B) 3.5 and 36.8° 54. For a transistor
(C) 5 and –53.2° h ie  1k, h fe  30, h fe  0 ,
(D) 3.5 and –53.2°
h oe  20  106 , and R L  2.5k

51. The voltage transfer characteristics as The transistor is used in a single stage
shown in the figure will relate to a CE amplifier. The voltage gain and
power gain, respectively, are
V0
(A) 75 and 1750
(B) 25 and 2250
Vi (C) 75 and 2250
0
(D) 25 and 1750
1. Voltage regulator
2. Half-wave rectifier 55. An ADC has a total conversion time of
3. Full-wave rectifier 200 s . What is the highest frequency
which of the above is/are correct? that its analog input should be allowed
(A) 1 only to contain?
(B) 2 only (A) 2.5 kHz
(C) 1 and 2 (B) 25 kHz
(D) 1 and 3 (C) 250 kHz
(D) 0.25 kHz
52. The gain of a bipolar transistor drops at
high frequencies. This is due to
56. In case of high pass filter, the transfer
(A) Coupling and bypass capacitors
function should be with
(B) Early effect
1. 1 pole and 1 zero
(C) Inter-electrode transistor capacitances
2. 2 poles and 2 zeroes
(D) The fact that reactance becomes
high 3. 2 poles and 1 zero
Which of the above are correct?
53. A sample of germanium is made p-type (A) 1 2 and 3
by addition of indium at the rate of one (B) 1 and 3 only
indium atom for every 2.5 × 108 (C) 2 and 3 only
germanium atoms. (D) 1 and 2 only

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

57. Consider the following opinions (A) 5 ns

regarding the advantage and (B) 10 ns
disadvantage of a Mealy model: (C) 20 ns
1. Advantage: Less number of states (D) 40 ns
(hence less hardware)
Disadvantage: Input transients are 61. In a master slave JK flip-flop
directly conveyed to output (A) both master and slave are positive
2. Advantage: Output remains stable edge-triggered
over entire clock period (B) both master and slave are negative
Disadvantage: Input transients edge-triggered
persist for long duration at output (C) master is positive edge-triggered
Which of the above is/are correct? and slave is negative edge triggered
(A) 1 only (D) master is negative edge-triggered
(B) 2 only and slave is positive edge-triggered
(C) Both 1 and 2
62. The phase detector circuit in the phase
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
locked loop demodulators recognizes
58. A resistance strain gauge is used to (A) Voltage changes between the input
measure stress of steel which is stressed and VCO signals
to 1200 kg/ cm2. If the gauge factor is (B) frequency changes between the
2.5 and the Young’s modulus of steel is input and VCO signals
2 × 106 kg/cm2 the percentage change in (C) impedance changes between the
resistance of the gauge is input and VCO signals
(A) 0.05% (D) resistance changes between the
(B) 0.10% input and VCO signals
(C) 0.15%
63. Consider the following statements for
(D) 0.25%
signal flow graph:
1. It represents linear as well as non
59. In a 4-stage ripple counter, the
linear systems.
propagation delay of a flip flop is 30 ns.
2. It is not unique for a given system.
If the pulse width of the strobe is 30 ns,
Which of the above statements is/are
the maximum frequency at which the
correct?
counter operates reliably is nearly
(A) 1 only
(A) 9.7 MHz
(B) 2 only
(B) 8.4 MHz
(C) Both 1 and 2
(C) 6.7 MHz
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) 4.4 MHz

64. The power spectral density of the

60. For what minimum value of propagation
stationary noise process N (t), having
delay in each flip-flop will a 10 bit
3 
ripple counter skip a count, when it is auto-correlation R uu ()  Ke is
clocked at 10 MHz?
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

3K +15sin(2  100t)}The FM bandwidth is

(A)
3  2 nearly
3K (A) 3.2 kHz
(B)
3  2 (B) 9.6 kHz
6K (C) 32 kHz
(C)
9  2 (D) 100 kHz
6K
(D)
9  2 69. The minimum value of modulation
index  for an FM system required to
65. A discrete time signal is given as x[n] =
produce a noticeable improvement in
n  n 1 
cos  sin    . SNR over a comparable AM system
9  7 2
with  =1 is
The period N for the periodic signal is
(A) 0.61
(A) 126
(B) 0.52
(B) 32
(C) 0.47
(C) 252
(D) 0.38
(D) 64
70. Consider the following statements
66. The angle AB between the vectors
pertaining to FIR filters:
A = 3ax + 4ay + az and B = 2ay – 5az is 1. These are non-recursive and hence
nearly stable.
(A) 83.7° 2. These have high coefficient sensitivity.
(B) 73.7° 3. These have linear phase
(C) 63.7° characteristics
(D) 53.7° 4. These are realized using feedback
67. When a transmission line section is first Structures.
short circuited, and then open circuited Which of the above statements are
it shows input impedances of 25  and correct?
100  respectively. (A) 1 and 4
The characteristic impedance of the (B) 2 and 3
transmission line is (C) 1 and 3
(A) 25  (D) 2 and 4
(B) 50 
71. A signal is band limited to 3.6 kHz and
(C) 75 
three other signals are band limited to
(D) 100 
1.2 kHz each. These signals are to be
transmitted by means of time-division
68. A signal m(t) = 10cos  2 100t  is
multiplexing. If each signal is sampled
frequency modulated. The resulting FM at its Nyquist rate, then the speed of the
signal is x(t) = 20cos {2  106 t commutator (by assuming 6 samples per
rotation) is

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 864000 rpm 75. The value of .A; where

(B) 144000 rpm A  3xya x  xa y  xyza z
(C) 86400 rpm
At a point (2, –2, 2) is
(D) 14400 rpm
(A) –10
(B) –6
72. 1 Mpbs BPSK receiver detects
(C) 2
waveform S1(t) = Acos 0 t (or) S2(t) = –
(D) 4
Acos 0 t with a matched filter. If A = 1
mV, then the average bit error 76. The unit-impulse response of a system is
probability assuming single sided noise 16e–2t – 8e–t. Its unit-step response is
power expected density N0 = 10–11 (A) 8 + e–t –4e–2t
W/Hz is nearly (B) 8 + e–t +4e–2t
(A) Q(0.63) (C) 8e–t –8e–2t
(B) Q(0.16) (D) e–t –4e–2t
(C) Q  0.1 
77. The low-frequency asymptote in the
(D) Q 0.3  Bode plot of
6(s2  10s  100)
G(s) 
73. The outputs of 18 numbers of 20 Hz low s2 (50s2  15s 1)
pass filters are sampled, multiplexed and has a slope of
A/D converted. If the sampling is at the (A) –10 dB/dec
Nyquist rate of 40 samples/s, (B) –20 dB/dec
corresponding to signal of 20 Hz (C) –40 dB/dec
bandwidth and if we use 3 bits/sample to (D) –60 dB/dec
represent each voltage sample, the bit
rate is 78. For the open-loop system
(A) 1.9 ×103 bits/s K
G(s)H(s) 
(B) 19 ×103 bits/s s(s  1)(s  2)
(C) 2.16×103 bits/s the breakaway point is
(D) 21.6 ×103 bits/s (A) – 0.23
(B) – 0.42
74. The minimum double sided Nyquist (C) – 1.47
bandwidth for a QPSK modulator with (D) – 3.47
an input data rate equal to 10 Mbps and
a carrier frequency of 70 MHz is 79. Consider the stability of the system
(A) 72.5 MHz shown in the figure when analyzed with
(B) 67.5 MHz a positive real value of gain k in
(C) 25.0 MHz 1. open-loop configuration
(D) 5.0 MHz 2. closed-loop configuration

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

Ks2
R(s)  K(s  1) C(s) (A) 3
 s 
s 2 (s  2) 1  
  10 
Ks2
(B) 4
 s 
Which of the following statements is 1  
 10 
correct?
Ks 2
(A) Both 1 and 2 are stable (C) 5
 s 
(B) 1 is stable and 2 is unstable 1  
 10 
(C) 1 is unstable and 2 is stable
(D) Both 1 and 2 are unstable Ks2
(D) 2
 s 
1  
80. The open-loop transfer function G(s)  10 
H(s) of the Bode plot as shown in the
figure is C(s)
82. The closed-loop transfer function
20dB / dec R(s)
G(j) H(j ) dBs of the system represented by the block
40dB / dec
diagram in the figure is
2 20
(r / s) R(s)  1 C(s)
20dB / dec s 1

1

Ks(s  2) s 1
(A)
s  20 
K(s  20)
(B) 1
s(s  2) (A)
(s 1) 2
K(s  2)
(C) 1
s(s  20) (B)
(s  1)
Ks(s  20)
(D)
s2 (C) s  1
(D) 1
81. Which one of the following transfer
functions represents the Bode plot as 83. In a unity feedback control system, the
shown in the figure (where K is open-loop transfer function is
constant)? K(s  2)
G(s) 
s (s 2  7s  12)
2

100 dB Then the error constants KP, Kv and Ka,

40 dB / dec
G(j) H(j) dBs respectively, are
60 dB / dec
K
(A) ,  and
10 6
(r / s) K
(B) 0,0 and
6

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

K 87. For a closed-loop system shown in the

(C) ,0 and 0
6 figure, what is the settling time for ±2%
K settling of the steady-state condition,
(D) ,  and 
6 assuming unit-step input?
R(s)  25 C(s)
84. Settling time is the time required for the s(s  6)

system response to settle within a
certain percentage of
(A) maximum value
(B) final value (A) 0.33 s
(C) input amplitude value (B) 1.33s
(D) transient error value (C) 2.33 s
(D) 3.33 s
85. A unity feedback system is shown in the
88. A unit-step input to a first-order system
figure. What is the magnitude of K so
G(s) yields a response as shown in the
that the system is under-damped?
figure. This can happen when the values
R(s)  K C(s) of K and a, respectively, are
s(s  a)
 5.0
slope at origin

c(t) K
G(s) 
(A) K = 0 sa
0 t
a2 0.1s
(B) K 
4 (A) 10 and 10
a2 (B) 5 and 10
(C) K  (C) 10 and 5
4
a2 (D) 5 and 5
(D) K 
4
89. The open-loop transfer function of a
86. The transfer function G(s) of a PID system is
controller is 10K
1  10s
(A) K1  K 2s  K 3s 2
When the system is converted into a
K
(B) K1  2  K 3s closed loop with unity feedback, the
s
time constant of the system is reduced
K2
(C) K1  by a factor of 20. The value of K is
s
(A) 1.9
(D) K1s  K 2s 2  K 3s3
(B) 1.6
(C) 1.3
(D) 1.0

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

90. The pole-zero configuration of the 92. A program structure that permits
transfer function of a compensator and repeated operation of a particular
the corresponding Bode plot are shown sequence of instructions is known as
in the figure. The configuration is (A) subroutine
indicative of (B) loop
(C) module
j
(D) microprogramming

10
z z p  93. If V  sin .cos  the electric flux
p r2
(1  2s) (1  0.75s)
TF    
(1  16s) (1  0.1s) density at  2, ,0  is
 2 
(A) 32.1a r pC / m 2
(B) 22.1a r pC / m 2

GH (C) 10.2a r pC / m 2
(D) 5.8a r pC / m 2

log 
94. In an n-turn coil, the flux through each
20 dB / dec
turn is (t3–4t) mWb. The magnitude of
20 dB / dec the induced e.m.f. in the coil at t = 5s is
7.1 V. the number of turns in the coil is
(A) Lag compensator (A) 10
(B) lag-lead compensator (B) 100
(C) P-D compensator (C) 121
(D) Lead compensator (D) 1000

91. Consider that a level of the memory 95. Consider the following statements:
hierarchy has a hit rate of 80%. Memory 1. For an isotropic medium,  is a
requests take 10 ns to complete if they scalar constant.
hit in the level, and memory requests 2. For a homogeneous medium,  , μ
that miss in the level take 100 ns to and  are constant throughout the
complete. The average access time of region.
the level is 3. In an anisotropic medium, D and E
(A) 110 ns have the same direction
(B) 100 ns 4. For certain crystalline medium, 
(C) 80 ns
varies with the direction of E.
(D) 28 ns
Which of the above statements are
correct?

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14
 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

(A) 1, 2 and 3 SWR is 1.5, the percent reflected power

(B) 1, 3 and 4 will be
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (A) 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 8
(C) 25
96. If a 75  line is terminated by a load of (D) 40
(120 + j80)  , the maximum and
minimum impedances over the line are 100. A communication link operating at 3
nearly GHz has a 22.5 W transmitter connected
(A) 135  and 28  to an antenna of 2.5 m2 effective
(B) 190.5  and 28  aperture. The receiving antenna has
(C) 135  and16  effective aperture of 0.5 m2 and is
(D) 190.5  and16  located at 15 km line-of-sight distance
from the transmitting antenna (assume
97. A product-of-sums (POS) expression lossless, matched antennas). The power
leads to what kind of logic circuit? delivered to the receiver is
(A) OR-AND circuit (A) 12.5 μW
(B) NOR-NOR circuit (B) 125 μW
(C) AND-OR-INVERT circuit (C) 12.5 mW
(D) NAND-NAND circuit (D) 125 mW

98. In a certain material medium, a

propagating electromagnetic wave 101. For a WR 90 waveguide, the cut-off
attains 60% of the velocity of light. The frequency for TE20 mode is 16 GHz.
distance at which the electromagnetic Then the cut-off frequency for TE11
wave (f = 10 MHz) will have the same mode will be
magnitude for the induction as well as (A) 4 3GHz
the radiation fields is nearly (B) 6 3GHz
(A) 57.4 m
(C) 8 5GHz
(B) 29.0 m
(C) 5.8 m (D) 16 5GHz
(D) 2.9 m
102. During wave propagation in an air-filled
99. A measure of the mismatch between the rectangular waveguide
maximum and minimum voltage and 1. ave impedance is never less than
current variations along the transmission the free-space impedance
line is called SWR, i.e., standing wave 2. Propagation constant is an
ratio. SWR indicates how much power imaginary number
is delivered to the load, and how much 3. TEM mode is possible if the
is lost in the line. When SWR is 1, the dimensions of the waveguide are
percent reflected power is zero. When properly chosen

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

Which of the above are correct? 106. Which one of the following refers to the
(A) 1 and 2 only frequency k in the frequency response
(B) 1 and 3 only of an FIR filter?
(C) 2 and 3 only 16
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) (k   )
M
8
103. For a 4-element broadside antenna (B) (k  )
M
array,  equals 4
(C) (k  )
(A) sin M
(B)  cos  2
(D) (k  )
M
cot 
(C)
2
107. Three processors with their respective
(D) sin 
process IDs given by P1, P2 and P3,
having estimated completion time of 8
104. The open-loop transfer function of a
ms, 4 ms and 2 ms, respectively, enter a
system has two poles on the imaginary
ready queue together in the order P1, P2
axis, one in the left-half and the other in
and P3. What is the average turn time in
the right-half, together with a zero at the
the Round Robin Scheduling Algorithm
origin of coordinates and also two zeros
with time 2 ms?
in the left-half of the s-plane. The
(A) 10 ms
closed-loop response for unity feedback
(B) 15 ms
will be stable if the encirclement of the
(C) 20 ms
critical point (–1, j0) is
(D) 25 ms
(A) –1
(B) +1
108. In the following 8085 assembly
(C) –2
language program, assume that the carry
(D) +2
flag is initially reset. What is the content
of the accumulator after the execution of
105. The steady-state error for a Type 0
the program?
system for unit-step input is 0.2. In a
MVI A, 04H
certain instance, this error possibility
RRC
was removed by insertion of a unity gain
MOV B, A
block. Thereafter, a unit ramp was
RLC
applied. The nature of the block and
RLC
new steady-state error in this changed
ADD B
configuration will, respectively, be
RCC
(A) integrator; 0.25
(A) 02H
(B) differentiator; 0.25
(B) 05H
(C) integrator; 0.20
(C) 15H
(D) differentiator; 0.20
(D) 25H

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

109. The technique for using one set of the antenna and LNA input due to the
addresses inside a network and feed horn is 0-4 dB, and the LNA has a
remapping those addresses to a different G
noise temperature of 40 K. The
set of addresses that are seen outside the T
local network on the internet is called value is
(A) network address translation (A) 11.2 dB/K
(B) address resolution (B) 13.4 dB/K
(C) network address mapping (C) 20.6 dB/K
(D) virtual LAN (D) 39.0 dB/K

110. What type of network is the Internet? 114. A company operating taxicabs
(A) Circuit-switched network communicates from its central office
(B) Message-switched network with the help of an antenna at the top of
(C) Packet-switched network a 16 m tower. The antenna on the
(D) Cell-switched network taxicabs is 1.44 m above the ground.
The communication distance between
111. Which of the following statements is the central office and a taxicab cannot
correct in respect of TCP and UDP exceed
protocols? (A) 18.6 km
(A) TCP is connection-oriented, (B) 24.0 km
whereas UDP is connectionless (C) 50.0 km
(B) TCP is connectionless, whereas (D) 62.3 km
UDP is connection-oriented
(C) Both are connectionless 115. The linear velocity of a satellite, when
(D) Both are connection-oriented in a circular orbit, is
(A) directly proportional to its mass
112. A fixed radar station transmits 100 kW (B) directly proportional to the square
at 3 GHz. The smallest ocean-going ship root of its mass
has a radar cross-section of 200 m2. The (C) directly proportional to the square
radar antenna gain is 16 dB. If detection of its mass
requires a minimum of 1 nW/m2 at the (D) independent of its mass
radar antenna, the effective range of the
radar is nearly 116. For a system with a wavelength of 23.5
(A) 7.1 km cm and a depression angle of sin–1 0.94,
(B) 8.4 km the surface relief below which the
(C) 70.7 km surface will appear smooth is
(D) 84.0 km determined as limited nearly to
(A) 2.8 cm
113. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 (B) 3.1 cm
dB looks at a sky with a noise (C) 3.5 cm
temperature of 15 K. The loss between (D) 4.0 cm

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

117. The orbital period of a satellite in a 3. Deterministic modelling takes a

circular orbit of 500 km above the particular predetermined workload,
Earth’s surface, taking mean radius of and designs the performance of
the Earth as 6400 km and Kepler’s each algorithm for that workload.
constant  as 4 × 105 km3/s2 is nearly Select the correct answer using the code
(A) 1.6 hours given below.
(B) 2.4 hours (A) 1 2 and 3
(C) 3.2 hours (B) 1 and 2 only
(D) 6.4 hours (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
118. What is/are the advantage(s) of step-
index mono-mode fibre optical cable? 120. The cut-off wavelength for an optical
1. Manufacturing process is simple fibre with 5  m core diameter and core
2. Bandwidth of several GHz-km is cladding indices of refraction 1.484 and
possible 1.402 is nearly
3. Splicing is easier (A) 0.5 m
Select the correct answer using the code (B) 1 m
given below. (C) 3 m
(A) 1 only
(D) 6 m
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only Directions:
(D) 1, 2 and 3 Each of the following thirty (30) items
consists of two statements one labeled
119. Consider the following set of processes as Statement I and the other as
Process P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 Statement II. Examine these two
Burst statements carefully and select the
10 ms 29 ms 3 ms 7 ms 12 ms
time correct answer to each of these items
First Come First Serve (FCFS), non using the code given below.
preemptive Shortest Job First (SJF) and Codes:
Round Robin (RR) (quantum = 10 ms). (A) Both Statement I and Statement II
Scheduling Algorithms for this process are individually true and Statement
set would imply which of the following II is the correct explanation of
features? Statement I
1. The SJF policy results in less than (B) Both Statement I and Statement II
half of the average waiting time are individually true but Statement
obtained with FCFS scheduling. II is not the correct explanation of
2. The RR algorithm gives an Statement I
intermediate value for the average (C) Statement I is true but Statement II
waiting time. is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement
II is true

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

121. Statement I: 126. Statement I:

The width of depletion layer of a P-N Series DC motors are used for cranes
junction is increased under reverse bias. and locomotives.
Statement II: Statement II:
Junction breakdown occurs under Series DC motors provide high starting
reverse bias torques, a requisite for such applications.

122. Statement I:
127. Statement I:
In ideal case, the inverting and non-
An induction motor always runs at a
inverting input terminals of an
speed less than its synchronous speed.
operational amplifier are almost at the
Statement II:
same potential.
Synchronous speed of induction m
Statement II:
motor depends on the frequency of
It is common practice to connect the
supply and number of poles.
inverting and non-inverting terminals to
the same point.
128. Statement I:
123. Statements I: If a squirrel-cage motor is started at full
Optocouplers are used to isolate low rated voltage, the power supply could be
voltage circuits from high voltages. damaged.
Statements II: Statement II:
Optocouplers are used to separate AC For squirrel-cage induction motors,
and DC ground. starting current is high and power factor
at starting is low.
124. Statement I:
Two ideal current sources with currents
129. Statement I:
I1 and I2 cannot be connected in parallel
The increase of temperature of a
Statement II:
dielectric causes increase of electronic
Superposition theorem cannot be
polarizability.
applied to ideal current sources if these
Statement II:
sources are connected in cascade.
Orientation polarization in dielectric is
125. Statement I: inversely proportional to temperature.
When a transformer is loaded there is a
change in its secondary voltage 130. Statement I:
expressed as a percentage of secondary The break statement provides an early exit
voltage on no-load, and this change is from for, while do/while and switch
called its regulation. structures and the execution continue with
Statement II: the first statement after the structure.
The change in secondary voltage is due Statement II:
to the transformer impedance and the The continue statement, used in while,
load current. The regulation could be for do/ while loop, skips the remaining
zero for leading load condition. statement in the body of that structure,

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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

and proceeds with the next iteration of 136. Statement I:

the loop. The maximum number of logic gate
inputs that can be driven from the output
131. Statement I:
of a single logic gate is called ‘fan-out’.
A thermocouple transducer is based on
Statement II:
See beck effect.
‘Fan-out’ is due to the current sourcing
Statement I:
when the output is high, and is due to the
In a thermocouple transducer used for
current sinking when the output is low. Thus
temperature measurement, the cold
two different values for ‘fan-out’ may result.
junction is usually kept in ice bath.
137. Statement I:
132. Statement I: PLA contains a fixed AND array and a
A salient-pole rotor placed in a magnetic programmable OR array.
field can produce an e.m.f. proportional to Statement II:
the speed of the rotating machine because PROM contains a fixed AND array and
of its variable reluctance characteristic. a programmable OR array.
Statement II:
The above device is essentially a frequency 138. Statement I:
tachometer using a suitable pulse-shaping Stack works on the principle of LIFO
circuit and an electronic counter. Statement II:
Stack pointer contains address of the top
133. Statement I: of the stack.
Sensors are almost always transducers, but
transducers are no necessarily sensors. 139. Statement I:
Statement II: I/O devices can be accessed using IN
Sensors are transducers that convert a and OUT instructions.
physical quantity to a measurable quantity. Statement II:
Arithmetic and logic operations can be
134. Statement I: directly performed with I/O data.
Piezoelectric transducers have very
good frequency response. 140. Statement I:
Statement II: On executing the HLT instruction, the
Piezoelectric transducers can be used for microprocessor enters into a halt state
measurement of both dynamic and static and all the buses are tri-stated.
phenomena. Statement II:
On executing the HLT instruction, the
135. Statement I: microprocessor is disconnected from the
A symmetrical two-port network is system bus till the reset is pressed.
bound to reciprocal.
Statement II: 141. Statement I:
A symmetrical network will have the Stack is organized as 8-bit storage in the
same magnitude of image impedance at microprocessor.
both the ports.
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 IES-2018 "PRELIMS" |EC|

Statement II: Statement II:

Stack is a set of memory locations in All the peripherals are digital and
R/W memory reserved for storing parallel
information temporarily during the
execution of a program. 147. Statement I:
The internal interrupt is initiated by
some exceptional condition caused by
142. Statement I:
Static RAM memory devices retain data the program itself rather than by an
for as long as power is supplied. external event.

Statement II: Statement II:

SRAM is used when the size of External interrupt depends on external
read/write memory required is large. conditions that are independent of the
program being executed at the time.
143. Statement I:
148. Statement I:
The stator winding of a control
Swapping is sometimes called ‘roll-
transformer in a synchro pair has a high
out/roll-in’.
impedance per phase
Statement II:
Statement II:
Swapping is utilized in systems
The rotor of the control transformer is
designed to support time-sharing.
cylindrical in shape.
149. Statement I:
144. Statement I:
MS DOS and Windows products have
The transportation lag in a system can
always used implicit mounting when an
be easily handled by using Bode plot.
attempt is first made to access the media.
Statement II:
Statement II:
The magnitude plot is unaffected and
Unix has traditionally used explicit
only the phase plot shifts by T rad
mount command to access the
due to the presence of e–st.
removable medium.
145. Statement I:
150. Statement I:
Isolated I/O method isolates memory
Virtual memory is designated virtual
and I/O addresses.
because there is no such memory inside
Statement II:
the computer.
In isolated I/O method, memory and I/O
Statement II:
interfaces have their own individual
Virtual memory uses some space of the
address space.
hard disk as an extension of the primary
146. Statement I: storage of the computer.
Peripherals are electromechanical and /
or electromagnetic devices.


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