CODE-F

AIPMT – 2015 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTIONS

(HELD ON SUNDAY 03th MAY, 2015)
1. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH 3 with HBr 3. The Ksp of Ag2CrO 4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are
produces:- respectively, 1.1 × 10–12, 1.8 × 10–10, 5.0 × 10–13,
8.3 × 10–17. Which one of the following salts will
(1) C6H5CH 2CHCH3 (2) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
precipitate last if AgNO3 solution is added to the
Br solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI
and Na2CrO4 ?
CH=CHCH3 (1) AgCl (2) AgBr (3) Ag2CrO4 (4) AgI
Ans. (3)
C6H 5CHCH2CH3 2
(3) (4) Sol. Ag2 CrO 4 ® K sp = ëé Ag + ûù ëéCrO4-2 ûù
Br
Br K sp 1.1 ´ 10-12
Þ ëé Ag+ ûù = =
éëCrO4-2 ùû = max
m
éëCrO ùû
-2
4
Ans. (4)
so answer is Ag2CrO4

Sol. C H
6 5

C6H5
CH CH

Å
CH
CH3+HBr

CH2 CH3
EN 4. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an
additive to function as a/an :-
(1) Dryer
(3) Antiseptic
(2) Buffering agent
(4) Softner
Ans. (3)
Br Sol. Bithionol (the compound is also called bithional) is
C6H5 CH CH2 CH3 added to soaps to impart antiseptic properties
LL
Br Cl OH HO Cl

2. In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25

S
g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen
collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure.
If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the Cl Cl
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is :- Bithionol
A

(1) 18.20 (2) 16.76 (3) 15.76 (4) 17.36 5. "Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their
Ans. (2) ores".
Sol. Volume of nitrogen collected at 300 K and 725 mm
Out of the following two (a and b) reasons which
pressure is 40 mL actual pressure
is/are true for the above observation ?
= 725 – 25 = 700 mm
Volume of nitrogen at STP (a) Metal nitrates are highly unstable.
(b) Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water.
273 × 700 × 40
= = 33.52mL
300 ´ 760 (1) a and b are false

22,400 mL of N2 at STP weight = 28 g (2) a is false but b is true

28 ´ 33.52 (3) a is true but b is false

33.5 mL of nitrogen weight = g
22400 (4) a and b are true
Percentage of nitrogen Ans. (2)
28 ´ 33.52 ´ 100 Sol. Metal nitrates are stable like NaNO3 and KNO3 and
= = 16.76% highly soluble in water.
22400 ´ 0.25
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AIPMT-2015
6. The correct bond order in the following species is:- Ans. (3)

(1) O2+ - +
2 < O2 < O2
(2) O+2 < O2- < O2+
2 Sol. ClO3- SO3-2
(3) O2- < O2+ < O2+ (4) O2+ + - No. of e - 42 42
2 2 < O2 < O2 3
hybridisation sp sp3
Ans. (3)
Sol. According to molecular orbital theory (MOT) both are having one lone pair on central atom hence
they are pyramidal.
O2- O2+ O2+2
10. An organic compound 'X' having molecular formula
No. of e - 17 15 14
C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative
Bond order 1.5 2.5 3.0
response to the Iodoform test and Tollen's test. It
7. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same produces n-pentane on reduction. 'X' could be :-
number of electrons. In which order do their radii (1) 2-pentanone (2) 3-pentanone
increase ? (3) n-amyl alcohol (4) pentanal
(1) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar Ans. (2)

(3) K+ < Ar < Ca2+ (4) Ar < K+ < Ca2+ Ph—NH—NH2

Sol. Phenyl hydrazone
Ans. (2) EN
Sol. In isoelectronic species I2 + NaOH
Negative
Iodoform test
1 X compound
Atomic radius µ Z (C5H10O) Tollen's test
Negative
eff

Reduction
hence increasing order of radius is Ca+2 < K+ < Ar n-pentane

8. The activation energy of a reaction can be

determined from the slope of which of the following According to questions CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3
LL
graphs ?
O
In K l does not give iodoform as well as Tollen’s test
(1) vs.T (2) In K vs.
T T
reduction
H3C CH2 C CH2 CH3 CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3
Zn-Hg/HCl
O n-pentane
T l
—
or NH2-NH2/OH
(3) vs. (4) In K vs. T
In K T 11. Which of the following options represents the correct
A

bond order ?
Ans. (2)
Sol. Arrhenius equation (1) O -2 < O2 < O +2
Ea
K = A.e - Ea/RT Þ lnK = lnA - (2) O -2 > O2 < O2+
RT
so, activation energy of reaction can be determined (3) O -2 < O2 > O+2
1
from the slope of lnK vs (4) O -2 > O2 > O 2+
T
Ans. (1)
9. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic
Sol. According to molecular orbital theory (MOT)
and isostructural ?

(1) ClO -3 ,CO32 - (2) SO2- - O2- O2 O2+

3 , NO3
No. of e - 17 16 15
(3) ClO3- ,SO23 - (4) CO23 - ,SO32 - Bond order 1.5 2 2.5

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 CODE-F

a 361
Sol. FCC : r = = = 127pm
12. Treatment of cyclopentanone O with 2 2 2 ´ 1.4141

16. Which of the following is the most correct electron

displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take
methyl lithium gives which of the following species?
place?
(1) Cyclopentanonyl cation
(2) Cyclopentanonyl radical
H H2
(3) Cyclopentanonyl biradical (1) H3C C = C – C– Cl
(4) Cyclopentanonyl anion H
Ans. (4)
H H2
(2) H3C C = C – C– Cl
CH3 H
Å
Sol. O + CH3Li O H2
H
(3) H3C C = C – C– Cl
cyclopentanonyl anion H

13. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly H H2

(4) H3C C = C – C– Cl
acidic medium produces :- EN H
(1) Azoxybenzene (2) Azobenzene Ans. (2)
(3) Aniline (4) p-Aminophenol Sol. After leaving Cl–, due to resonance, p bond is also
Ans. (4) transferred
NH2

Sol. weakly acidic H3C CH CH CH2 Cl

NO2 medium

electrolytic aniline 17. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same
reduction
LL
HN OH NH2 value of van't Hoff's factor (i) as that of the Al2(SO4)3
nitrobenzene strongly
acidic medium
rearrangement
(if all are 100% ionised) ?
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Al(NO3)3
Phenyl hydroxyl amine
OH
(3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) K2SO4
p-Aminophenol Ans. (3)
14. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by :- Sol. van’t Hoff factor of
(At. nos, Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27) Al 2 ( SO 4 )3 ® 2Al +3 + 3SO -42
A

(1) Ti3+ (2) Cr2+ (3) Co2+ (4) Ni2+

Ans. (4) so n = 5

K 4 [ Fe ( CN )6 ] ® 4K + + [Fe ( CN )6 ]
-4
Sol. Ni+2 = 3d8

number of unpaired electrons (n) =2 so n =5 Þ i = n =5

18. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some
Q m = n (n + 2) properties in common. Which property is shown by
hence m = 2.8 B.M., paramagnetic one of these compounds, but not by the other ?
(1) is a reducing agent
15. A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure
(2) is soluble in water
having edge length of 361 pm. If there are four
(3) is used as a food-preservative
metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the radius of
(4) forms 'acid-rain'
one atom?
Ans. (3)
(1) 127 pm (2) 80 pm
Sol. NO2 is not used as food preservative.
(3) 108 pm (4) 40 pm
Ans. (1)
3

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AIPMT-2015
19. The total number of p-bond electrons in the following 23. The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not
structure is :- equal to the number of electrons in which one of
the following?
H H H (1) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
H3C
CH3 (2) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
H3C (3) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
H2C H CH3 (4) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
Ans. (1)
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 4 Sol. Fe+2 = 3d6 (number of ‘d’ electrons = 6)
Ans. (1) in Cl = 1s2 2s2 2p6 2s2 3p5
Sol. H3C H H H
Total p bonds = 4 total p electrons = 11, which are not equal to num-
CH3 Total p electrons = 8 ber of ‘d’ electrons in Fe+2
H3C
H2C H
24. In which of the following compounds, then C - Cl
CH3
bond ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion?
20. Solubility of the alkaline earth's metal sulphates in
water decreases in the sequence :- H
(1) Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg (2) Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba H3C CH – Cl
(3) Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca (4) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba C – Cl
EN (1) H3C (2)
Ans. (4) CH3
Sol. Due to very small size of Mg +2, Mg +2 shows
maximum hydration energy.
MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO 4 > BaSO 4 H H3C H
(3) C – Cl (4) C – Cl
Hydration Solubility O2NH2C H H3C
energy
Ans. (2)
21. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which
LL
of the following ?
Sol. H3C H3C
+
(1) NO -2 (2) NO +2 Cl C
C Cl
H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(3) NO3- (4) NO 2
t-butyl carbonium ion
Ans. (2)
Sol. NO2+ : sp hybridisation (bond angle = 180°)
A

H H
NO-2 < NO-3 < NO2 < NO 2+ Cl
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
® bond angle­ CH Cl CH
Å

22. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a particular benzyl carbonium ion
reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium the system [stable due to resonance]
will contain :-
(1) mostly reactants H
H
(2) mostly products Cl CÅ
C Cl
(3) similar amounts of reactants products O2NCH2 H
(4) all reactants O2NH2C H
-I effect
Ans. (2)
Sol. The value of equilibrium constant for reaction H H
K = 1.6 × 1012 H3C Cl H3C
C Cl CÅ
The value of K is very high so the system will con- H3C H3C
tain mostly products at equilibrium.
Secondary carbonium ion
[isopropyl carbonium ion]
4

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 CODE-F
Most stable carbonium ion is benzyl carbocation due Sol. Given reaction is an important laboratory method
to resonance for the preparation of symmetrical and
unsymmetrical ethers. In this method, an alkyl halide
Å
CH2 CH2 is allowed to react with sodium alkoxide.
Å
28. Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral
Å complexes with ammonia. Which of the following
Å CH2 CH2 will not give test of chloride ions with silver nitrate
at 25ºC ?
(1) CoCl3·4NH3 (2) CoCl3·5NH3
25. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels
(3) CoCl3·6NH3 (4) CoCl3·3NH3
like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical
Ans. (4)
energy is known as :-
(1) Electrolytic cell (2) Dynamo Sol. CoCl 3 .3NH 3 Þ éëCo ( NH 3 )3 Cl3 ùû
(3) Ni-Cd cell (4) Fuel Cell AgNO3
Ans. (4) ëéCo(NH3 )3 Cl3 ûù ¾¾¾¾ ® no ppt
Sol. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels, 29. A mixture of gases contains H 2 and O2 gases in the
directly into electrical energy is known as fuel cell. ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the
26. Consider the following compounds two gases in the mixture ?

CH3

CH3 – C – CH –
Ph

Ph – C – Ph
EN – CH3 Sol.
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 16 : 1 (3) 2 : 1
Ans. (1)

w H2
=
1 nH
Þ 2 =
1/ 2
=
4
(4) 1 : 4

w O2 4 n O2 4 / 32 1
CH3
(I) (II) (III) 30. Which of the following processes does not involve
oxidation of iron ?
Hyperconjugation occurs In :-
LL
(1) Decolourization of blue CuSO4 solutution by iron
(1) II only (2) III only (3) I and III (4) I only
(2) Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
Ans. (2)
(3) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high
temperature
CH3
. Ph
. (4) Rusting of iron sheets
Sol. H3C C CH Ph C. Ph CH3
Ans. (2)
CH3
H
Sol. Fe0 + 5CO ® [ Fe0 ( CO )5 ]
A

(I) (III)
(II)
No change in the oxidation state of iron
Only (III) has H in conjugation with free radical 31. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the
27. The reaction following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic
radii ? (Nubmers in the parenthesis are atomic
CH3 CH3 numbers).
(1) Zr (40) and Nb (41) (2) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
CH3–C–ONa+CH3CH2Cl CH3–C–O–CH2–CH3
(3) Zr (40) and Ta (73) (4) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
–NaCl
CH3 CH3 Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to lanthanoid contraction
is called :- atomic radii of Zr and Hf is almost similar.
(1) Williamson continuous etherification process 32. Which of the following statements is correct for a
(2) Etard reaction reversible process in a state of equilibrium ?
(3) Gatterman - Koch reaction (1) DG = 2.30 RT log K
(4) Williamson Synthesis (2) DGº = –2.30 RT log K
Ans. (4) (3) DGº = 2.30 RT log K
(4) DG = –2.30 RT log K
5

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AIPMT-2015
Ans. (2) The enthalpy of the hydrogenation of these
compounds will be in the order as :-
Sol. DG0 = -2.30RT log K
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
because at equilibrium DG =0
(3) II > I > III (4) I > II > III
33. The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is Ans. (1)
equal to :-

(1) 2h (2) 2 3 h (3) 0 h (4) 6h Sol. R CH CH R + H2 (1 mole)

Ans. (4)

Sol. Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1).h R CH2 CH2 R + DH

for d-orbital l=2

so orbital angular momentum = 2 ( 2 + 1)h = 6h 1

enthalpy of hydrogenation µ
stability of alkene
34. The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg–1 solution of X in
water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. 37. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has:-
Which one of the following statements is true in this H H2
H3 C C O H 3C C O
case ? C C C C
(1) Molecular mass of X is greater than the
molecular mass of Y.
(2) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular
mass of Y.
EN OH OC2H5

(1) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi - bond

(2) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi - bonds
O OC2H5

(3) Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X (3) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi - bond
undergoes no change. (4) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi - bonds
(4) X is undergoing dissociation is water. Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
LL
H H H H
Sol. ( DTb )x > ( DTb )y Sol. H C C C C O C C H
same solvent so, Kb is same H O H O H H
m is same (given)
18 s + 2p
ix × k b × m > i y × k b × m Þ i x > i y
38. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from
A

so, x is undergoing dissociation in water. glycine and aminocaproic acid is :-

35. The function of "Sodium pump" is a biological (1) PHBV
process operating in each and every cell of all (2) Buna - N
animals. Which of the following biologically (3) Nylon 6, 6
important ions is also a consituent of this pump :- (4) Nylon 2- nylon 6
(1) Mg2+ (2) K+ (3) Fe2+ (4) Ca2+ Ans. (4)
Ans. (2) Sol. Nylon 2-Nylon-6 is an alternating polyamide
Sol. K+ ion is a constituent of sodium pump copolymer of glycine (NH2–CH2–COOH) and amino
36. Given :- caproic acid [NH 2 –(CH 2) 5 COOH] and is
biodegradable.
H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH 2 H 2C CH 2 39. Which of the following species contains equal
number of s- and p- bonds :-
CH CH (1) XeO4 (2) (CN)2
CH 3 3 2

(I) (II) (III) (3) CH2(CN)2 (4) HCO3–

Ans. (1)

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 CODE-F
Ans. (3)
Sol. O
H3C CH3
Sol. H C CH3
3
Xe
O O
O H
OH
O
number of s bonds = 4
number of p bonds = 4 CH3
CH3
40. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3– is true:-
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will CH3 CH3
be in a low-spin configuration.
H
(2) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will
be in a high spin configuration. O OH
(3) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will H
be in a high-spin configurtion.
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will CH3 CH3
be in a low-spin configuration.
Ans.
Sol.
(4)
[Co(CN)6]–3
Co+3 = 3d6 4s0 4p0
EN
Q in presence of strong field ligand, pairing of
44.
O
CH3
OH
When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled
CH3

in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The

electrons occurs so in this complex no unpaired order of the reaction is :-
electron is present and it is low spin complex. (1) First
41. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution:- (2) Second
(1) DSmix (2) DVmix (3) More than zero but less than first
(4) Zero
LL
(3) DP = Pobserved - PRaoult (4) DHmix
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
Sol. For an ideal solution DSmix > 0 0.693
Sol. t1/2 = for first order t1/2 is independent of
42. Which property of colloidal solution is independent K
of charge on the colloidal particles :- concentration
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Electro-osmosis 45. A single compound of the structure :-
(3) Tyndall effect (4) Coagulation CH3 CH3
A

Ans. (3) OHC C

C H C C O
Sol. Tyndall effect is an optical property, so it is H2 H2
independent of charge. is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following
43. Given :- cyclic compounds ?

H3C H3C CH3

CH3 CH3 (1) (2)
CH3
H3C
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 H3C
O O O
(I) (II) (III) (3) (4) CH3
CH3

Which of the given compounds can exhibit Ans. (4)

tautomerism? H3C H3 C
(1) I and III (2) II and III Sol. O3
O C
CH3 CH3
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II Zn+H2 O
OHC
7

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AIPMT-2015

46. Which of the following endoparasites of humans 51. Which of these is not an important component of
does show viviparity ? initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) Enterobius vermicularis (1) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(2) Trichinella spiralis (2) Release of oxytocin
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides (3) Release of prolactin
(4) Ancylostoma duodenale (4) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
47. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species 52. In which of the following gametophyte is not
in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:- independent free living ?
(1) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity (1) Marchantia (2) Pteris
(2) In situ conservation by sacred groves (3) Pinus (4) Funaria
(3) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity Ans. (3)
(4) In situ conservation of biodiversity 53. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted
Ans. (1) disease ?
48. Which one one of the following matches is correct ? (1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(2) Trichomoniasis
(1) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes
(3) Encephalitis
reproduction EN
absent (4) Syphilis
Ans. (3)
(2) Mucor Reproduction Ascomycetes
54. Leaves become modified into spines in :-
by
(1) Pea (2) Onion
Conjugation
(3) Silk Cotton (4) Opuntia
(3) Agaricus Parasitic Basidiomycetes Ans. (4)
fungus
55. Which one gives the most valid and recent
(4) Phytophthora Aseptate Basidiomycetes explanation for stomatal movements ?
LL
mycelium (1) Potassium influx and efflux
Ans. (1) (2) Starch hydrolysis
49. Minerals known to be required in large amounts for (3) Guard cell photosynthesis
plant growth include :- (4) Transpiration
(1) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper Ans. (1)
(2) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron 56. Which of the following had the smallest brain
A

capacity ?
(3) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
(1) Homo sapiens
(4) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium (2) Homo neanderthalensis
Ans. (4) (3) Homo habilis
(4) Homo erectus
50. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion
Ans. (3)
of protoplasts ?
57. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand)
(1) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate indicates that :-
(2) IAA and kinetin (1) Water is highly polluted
(2) Water is less polluted
(3) IAA and gibberellins
(3) Consumption of organic matter in the water is
(4) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride higher by the microbes
Ans. (1) (4) Water is pure
Ans. (1)

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 CODE-F
58. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as :- 66. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/
(1) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass tolerant to :-
each other (1) Bacteria (2) Insects
(2) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but (3) Herbicides (4) Fungi
rather slide pass each other Ans. (3)
(3) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin 67. Which of the following statements is not correct?
filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not (1) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of
shorten intestine and secrete mucus
(4) When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin (2) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
filaments shorten while Myosin filament do not stomach and secrete HCl.
shorten (3) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete
Ans. (2) carboxypeptidase
59. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down (4) Brunner's glands are present in the submucosa
even in the total darkness because of :- of stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(1) Vestibular apparatus (2) Tectorial membrane Ans. (4)
(3) Organ of corti (4) Cochlea 68. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17%
Ans. (1) of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
60. A man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with percentages of the other three bases expected to
EN be present in this DNA are :-
blood group 'B'. What are all the possible blood
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
groups of their offsprings ?
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(1) A,B and AB only (2) A,B,AB and O
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(3) O only (4) A and B only (4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
61. Typical growth curve in plants is :- 69. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as
(1) Linear (2) Stair-steps shaped pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to :-
(3) Parabolic (4) Sigmoid (1) Acidic pH of the insect gut
LL
Ans. (4) (2) Action of gut micro-organisms
62. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change (3) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
in the year 2011 was held in :- (4) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(1) South Africa (2) Peru Ans. (4)
(3) Qatar (4) Poland 70. Cytochromes are found in :-
Ans. (1) (1) Outer wall of mitochondria
(2) Cristae of mitochondria
A

63. A technique of micropropagation is :-

(3) Lysosomes
(1) Somatic embryogenesis
(4) Matrix of mitochondria
(2) Protoplast fusion
Ans. (2)
(3) Embryo rescue
71. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select
(4) Somatic hybridization the option with all correct statements :-
Ans. (1) (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to
64. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea colonise a bare rock.
plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments ? (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
(1) Six (2) Eight (3) Seven (4) Five (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
Ans. (3) (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic,
whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
65. Å K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) is the floral formula of :- (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes
(1) Sesbania (2) Petunia are present within sporangia located on
sporophyte
(3) Brassica (4) Allium
(1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (D) and (E)
Ans. (2) (3) (B), (C) and (E) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
Ans. (2)
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AIPMT-2015
72. Which one of the following is correct ? 79. Most animals are tree dwellers in a:-
(1) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (1) Thorn woodland
(2) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (2) Temperate deciduous forest
(3) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC (3) Tropical rain forest
(4) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes (4) Coniferous forest
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
73. The movement of a gene from one linkage group 80. True nucleus is absent in :-
to another is called :- (1) Mucor (2) Vaucheria
(1) Duplication (2) Translocation (3) Volvox (4) Anabaena
(3) Crossing over (4) Inversion Ans. (4)
Ans. (2) 81. Glenoid cavity articulates :-
74. Which body of the Government of India regulates (1) Scapula with acromion
GM research and safety of introducing GM (2) Clavicle with scapula
organisms for public services ? (3) Humerus with scapula
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (4) Clavicle with acromion
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee Ans. (3)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation 82. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of :-
(4) Bio-safety committee (1) Solid style (2) Dry stigma
Ans. (2)
EN
75. Rachel Carson's famous book "Silent Spring" is
related to :-
(1) Noise pollution
Ans.
83.
(3) Wet stigma
(1)
DNA is not present in :-
(1) Ribosomes
(4) Hollow style

(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast
(2) Population explosion Ans. (1)
(3) Ecosystem management 84. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli
(4) Pesticide pollution that involves the lac I gene product is :
LL
Ans. (4) (1) Negative and inducible because repressor
76. Gastric juice of infants contains :- protein prevents transcription
(2) Negative and repressible because repressor
(1) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
protein prevents transcription
(2) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of
(3) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen b-galactosidase can switch off trascription
(4) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin (4) Positive and inducible because it can be induced
A

Ans. (2) by lactose

77. Which of the following is not one of the prime health Ans. (1)
risks associated with greater UV radiation through 85. Which of the following does not favour the formation
the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric of large quantities of dilute urine ?
ozone ? (1) Caffeine (2) Renin
(3) Atrial-natriuretic factor (4) Alcohol
(1) Reduced Immune System
Ans. (2)
(2) Damage to eyes 86. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on
(3) Increased liver cancer only one side, to bend toward the source of light as
(4) Increased skin cancer it grows ?
Ans. (3) (1) Green plants seek light because they are
78. Capacitation refers to changes in the :- phototropic
(1) Ovum before fertilization (2) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to
grow faster
(2) Ovum after fertilization
(3) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side,
(3) Sperm after fertilization stimulating greater cell elongation there.
(4) Sperm before fertilization (4) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
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 CODE-F
87. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :- 93. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(1) Membrane of Golgi complex (1) Leucocytes
(2) Microtubules (2) Helper T- Lymphocytes
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (3) Thrombocytes
(4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) B- Lymphocytes
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
88. Select the correct option :-
94. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :
I II (1) Prostate gland
(a) Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II (2) Vas-deference
homologous chromosomes (3) Mammary glands
(b) Synthesis of RNA and (ii) Zygotene (4) Uterus
protein Ans. (4)
(c) Action of enzyme (iii) G2-phase 95. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the
recombinase nephron will result in:
(1) More concentrated urine
(d) Centromeres do not (iv) Anaphase-I
(2) No change in quality and quantity of urine
separate but chromatids
(3) No urine formation
move towards opposite EN
poles (4) More diluted urine
Ans. (4)
(v) Pachytene
96. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the
(a) (b) (c) (d) presence of :
(1) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (1) Scattered vascular bundles
(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) (2) Vasculature without cambium
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) xylem along the radius
LL
Ans. (1)
(4) Open vascular bundles
89. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of :-
Ans. (2)
(1) Indigofera (2) Aloe (3) Tomato (4) Tulip
97. Which of the following characteristics is mainly
Ans. (1)
responsible for diversification of insects on land ?
90. Perigynous flowers are found in :-
(1) Bilateral symmetry (2) Exoskeleton
(1) Cucumber (2) China rose
(3) Eyes (4) Segmentation
(3) Rose (4) Guava
A

Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
91. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and 98. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis
is normally dipoid?
neural roles is ?
(1) Calcitonin (2) Epinephrine (1) Spermatid
(3) Cortisol (4) Melatonin (2) Spermatogonia
Ans. (2) (3) Secondary polar body
92. In which of the following both pairs have correct (4) Primary polar body
combination :- Ans. (2)
(1) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation 99. The structures that are formed by stacking of
Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary organized flattened membranous sacs in the
(2) In situ conservation : Seed Bank chloroplasts are :
Ex situ conservation : National Park (1) Grana
(3) In situ conservation : Tissue culture (2) Stroma lamellae
Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves (3) Stroma
(4) In situ conservation : National Park (4) Cristae
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
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AIPMT-2015
100. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated 107. Erythropoiesis starts in :
close to one end are: (1) Liver
(1) Acrocentric
(2) Spleen
(2) Telocentric
(3) Red bone marrow
(3) Sub-metacentric
(4) Metacentric (4) Kidney
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
101. In a ring girdled plant: 108. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic
(1) The root dies first variation in the population of sexually reproducing
(2) The shoot and root die together organism?
(3) Neither root nor shoot will die (1) Chromosomal aberrations
(4) The shoot dies first (2) Genetic drift
Ans. (1)
(3) Recombination
102. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
(4) Transduction
different levels in a biotic community is known as:
(1) Stratification Ans. (3)
(2) Zonation 109. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is
(3) Pyramid maximum during :
(4) Divergence
Ans. (1)
103. Multiple alleles are present :
EN
(1) At different loci on the same chromosome
(1) Diastole of the right ventricle
(2) Systole of the left ventricle
(3) Diastole of the right atrium
(4) Systole of the left atrium
(2) At the same locus of the chromosome
(3) On non-sister chromatids Ans. (2)
(4) On different chromosomes 110. When you hold your breath, which of the following
Ans. (2) gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to
LL
104. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a breathe?
particular time is called : (1) rising CO2 concentration
(1) Standing state (2) falling CO2 concentration
(2) Net primary productivity (3) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
(3) Standing crop
(4) falling O2 concentration
(4) Gross primary productivity
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
A

105. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? 111. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered
closed because:
(1) Elephant
(1) Cambium is absent
(2) Platypus
(2) There are no vessels with perforations
(3) Whale
(3) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
(4) Flying fox (Bat)
(4) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
106. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic
112. Male gemetes are flagellated in :
matter during photosynthesis is termed as:
(1) Anabaena
(1) Gross primary productivity
(2) Ectocarpus
(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Spirogyra
(3) Net productivity
(4) Polysiphonia
(4) Net primary productivity
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)

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 CODE-F
113. Which one of the following may require pollinators, 120. Which of the following represents the correct
but is genetically similar to autogamy ? combination without any exception?
(1) Xenogamy (2) Apogamy
Characteristics Class
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Geitonogamy
Ans. (4) (1) Mouth ventral, gills without Chondrichthyes
operculum; skin with placoid
114. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through: scales; persistent notochord
(1) Offsets (2) Bulbils
(2) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws Cyclostomata
(3) Runners (4) Rhizome
absent, integument without scales;
Ans. (4) paired appendages
115. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body (3) Body covered with feathers; skin Aves
found in prokaryotes ? moist and glandular; fore-limbs
form wings; lungs with air sacs
(1) Cyanophycean granule
(4) Mammary gland; hair on body; Mammalia
(2) Glycogen granule pinnae; two pairs of Limbs
(3) Polysome Ans. (1)
(4) Phosphate granule 121. Which one of the following statements in incorrect?
Ans. (3) (1) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule
is not chemically changed by the enzyme.
116. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase

species, has :
EN
of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same

(1) same number of chromosomes but twice the

(2) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate
of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate
complex.
(3) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
amount of DNA decreases the Km of the enzyme for the
(2) twice the number of chromosomes and four times substrate.
the amount of DNA (4) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly withthe
(3) four times the number of chromosomes and twice enzyme to form an enzyme- inhibitor complex.
LL
the amount of DNA Ans. (3)
(4) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the 122. Which of the following regions of the brain is
amount of DNA incorrectly paired with its function?
Ans. (2)
(1) Cerebellum- language comprehension
117. Alleles are :
(1) true breeding homozygotes (2) Corpus callosum-communication between the left
A

(2) different molecular forms of a gene and right cerebral cortices

(3) heterozygotes (3) Cerebrum- calculation and contemplation
(4) different phenotype
(4) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
Ans. (2)
118. Select the correct matching in the following pairs: Ans. (1)
(1) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids 123. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(2) Rough ER– Synthesis of glycogen
(1) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe
(3) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people
(4) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
(2) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete
Ans. (1) foul odour to attract them
119. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are
(3) Honey is made by bees by digesting - pollen
joined by :
collected from flowers
(1) Muscular tissue (2) Arthrodial membrane
(3) Cartilage (4) Cementing glue (4) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are
used in the form of tablets and syrups
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)

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AIPMT-2015
124. The active from of Entamoeba histolytica feeds 131. The following graph depicts changes in two
upon: populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field
(1) mucosa and submucosa of colon only
A possible reason for these changes is that:
(2) food in intestine
(3) blood only
B

Number of
Organisms
(4) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
Ans. (4)
125. Which of the following viruses is not transferred A
through semen of an infected male? Time
(1) Human immunodeficiency virus (1) Population B competed more successfully for
(2) Chikungunya virus food than population A
(3) Ebola virus (2) Population A produced more offspring than
(4) Hepatitis B virus population B
Ans. (2) (3) Population A consumed the members of
126. A population will not exist in Hardy - Weinberg population B
equilibrium if : (4) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
(1) There are no mutations Ans. (1)
(2) There is no migration 132. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:
(3) The population is large EN (a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus
(4) Individuals mate selectively
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
Ans. (4)
127. The guts of cow and buffalo possess: (c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria
(1) Chlorella spp. (d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria
(2) Methanogens (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Cyanobacteria
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Fucus spp. (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (2)
LL
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
128. The hilum is a scar on the :
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
Ans. (2)
(2) Fruit, where style was present
133. Which of the following are the important floral
(3) Seed, where micropyle was present
rewards to the animal pollinators?
(4) Seed, where funicle was attached
(1) Nectar and pollen grains
Ans. (4)
(2) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
A

129. Secondary Succession takes place on/in : (3) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
(1) Degraded forest (4) Colour and large size flower
(2) Newly created pond Ans. (1)
(3) Newly cooled lava 134. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex
chromosomes was born due to :
(4) Bare rock
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
Ans. (1) (2) fusion of two ova and one sperm
130. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(1) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium and (4) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
Gracilaria Ans. (1)
(2) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food 135. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise
in plants by :
(3) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae (1) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
(4) Algin and carragen are products of algae (2) Pushing it upward
Ans. (3) (3) Pushing and pulling it, respectively
(4) Pushing it upward
Ans. (1)
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 CODE-F
136. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r 138. When tw o dispalcements represen ted by
makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field y1 = asin(wt) and y2 = b cos(wt) are superimposed
produced at the centre has magnitude : the motion is :

m 0n 2e m0ne m0ne a
(1) Zero (2) (3) (4) (1) simple harmonic with amplitude
r 2r 2pr b
Ans. (3) (2) simple harmonic with amplitude a2 + b2
Sol. Magnetic field due to a circular loop

m0 NI (a + b)
B= Where N ® no. of loops (3) simple harmonic with amplitude
2r 2

q e (4) not a simple harmonic

I= = = ne Ans. (2)
T 1/n
Sol. y1 = a sin wt
m0 ne
B= (Here N = 1 as e– makes only one loop) p
2r & y2 = b cos wt = b sin (wt + )
2
hence option (3)
since the frequencies for both SHM are same,
137. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a EN resultant motion will be SHM. Now
transition from A to B along a path AB as shown
in the figure, Amplitude A = A12 + A 22 + 2A1 A 2 cos f

p
here A1 = a, A2 = b & f =
2
A
5
so A = a2 + b2
B
P(in kPa) 2
LL
Hence option (2)
4 6
3
139. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional
V(in m )
motion such that its velocity varies according to
v(x) = bx–2n
The change in internal energy of the gas during the where b and n are constants and x is the position
transition is : of the particle. The acceleraion of the particle as
(1) –20 kJ (2) 20 J (3) –12 kJ (4) 20 kJ
A

a function of x, is given by :
Ans. (1)
(1) –2nb2x–4n–1 (2) –2b2x–2n+1
PV
Sol. DU = n CV DT & T= (3) –2nb2e–4n+1 (4) –2nb2x–2n–1
nR
Ans. (1)
P2 V2 - P1 V1 Sol. v = b x–2n
so DT = T2 - T1 =
nR
dv
so = – 2nb x–2n–1
nR æ P2 V2 - P1 V1 ö P2 V2 - P1 V1 dx
so DU = ÷=
g - 1 çè nR ø g -1
dv
Now a = v = (bx–2n) (–2nb x–2n–1)
-8 ´ 10 3
dx
Þ DU = =–20 kJ
2/5 Þ a = –2nb2 x–4n–1
Hence option (1) Hence option (1)

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AIPMT-2015
27
Sol. Linear width of central maxima = D (2q) = 2Dq
140. If radius of the Al nucleus is taken to be RAl then
13
l
125 = 2D
the radius of 53 Te nucleus is nearly : a

5 3
(1) R Al (2) R Al
3 5

1/3 1/3
æ 13 ö æ 53 ö
(3) ç ÷ R Al (4) ç ÷ R Al q
è 53 ø è 13 ø
q
Ans. (1)
Sol. R µ A1/3
D
1/ 3
R Al æ 27 ö 5
=ç ÷ Þ RTee = R
R Te è 125 ø 3 Al
Hence Option (4)
hence option (1) 143. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross
141. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm section a constant potential difference is applied.
apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A EN The quantity which remains constant along the
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. conductor is :
What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten (1) current (2) drift velocity
maxima of double slit within the central maxima of (3) electric field (4) current density
single slit pattern ? Ans. (1)
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.5 mm Sol. Metallic conductor can be considered as the
(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.2 mm combination of various conductors connected in
Ans. (4) series combination. And in series combination the
LL
Sol. Angular width of central maxima in double slit current always remains constant.

lD
b l
experiment = = d =
D D d
Hence option (1)
Angular width of central maxima in single slit
144. On observing light from three different stars P, Q
A

2l and R, it was found that intensity of violet color is

experiment =
d' maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green
According to the question colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the
intensity or red colour is maximum in the spectrum
10l 2l of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective absolute
=
d d' temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be
Þ d' = 0.2 d = 0.2 mm concluded from the above observation that :
hence option (4) (1) TP > TR > TQ (2) TP < TR < TQ
142. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of (3) TP < TQ < TR (4) TP > TQ > TR
wavelength 'l', diffraction is produced by a single Ans. (1)
slit whose width 'a' is of the order of the wavelength Sol. From Wein's displacement law
of the light. If 'D' is the distance of the screen from 1
the slit, the width of the central maxima will be : lm µ
T
Now from sequence ‘VIBGYOR’
Dl Da 2Da 2Dl
(1) (2) (3) (4) (lm)P < (lm)R < (lm)Q
a l l a
So TP > TR > TQ
Ans. (4)
Hence option (1)
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 CODE-F
145. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 147. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown
8W. The resistance that must be connected in series in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very
with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion
as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at
wire is : point O is :
(1) 40 W (2) 44 W (3) 48 W (4) 32 W
Z
Ans. (4)

1mV I
Sol. Potential gradient = = 10–3 V/cm = 10–1V/m
cm R
Y
O
Let the resistance to be connected is R then
I
2 I
I=
8+R
X
Potential drop across the potentiometer wire
r µ0 I ( ˆ
8´2 16 (1) B = - pi - 2kˆ )
= =
8+R 8+R

æ 16 ö 1
Potential gradient = ç ÷ ´ V/m
EN r
(2) B = -
4p R

µ0 I ( ˆ
4p R
pi + 2kˆ )
è8+Rø 4

r µ0 I ( ˆ
4 (3) B = p i - 2kˆ )
= = 0.1 4p R
8+R
LL
Þ R = 32W r µ0 I ( ˆ
(4) B = p i + 2kˆ )
Hence option (4) 4p R
146. Consider 3 rd orbit of He + (Helium), using
Ans. (2)
non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in
this orbit will be [given K = 9 × 109 constant, Sol. 'B' due to segment '1'
Z = 2 and h (Planck's Constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
A

m0 I
B1 = [sin 90° + sin q] (– k̂ )
(1) 1.46 × 106 m/s 4 pR
(2) 0.73 × 106 m/s 2
8
m0 I
(3) 3.0 × 10 m/s B1 = (– k̂ ) = B3
4 pR
(4) 2.92 × 106 m/s I 1 I
B due to segment '2' 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. For H-like atoms m0 I
B2 = ( -ˆi)
4R
Z r r r r
n= × 2.188 × 106 m/s so 'B' at center Bc = B1 + B2 + B3
n

here Z = 2, n = 3
r -m 0 I æ 2kˆ ö -m 0 I
6
n = 1.46 × 10 m/s Þ BC = çè î + ÷ø = ˆ
( pˆi + 2k)
4R p 4 pR
Hence option (1)
Hence option (2)

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AIPMT-2015
148. Which of the following figures represent the 150. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe
variation of particle momentum and the associated of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of
de-Broglie wavelength ? an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length
of organ pipe open at both the ends is :-
p p (1) 100 cm (2) 120 cm
(3) 140 cm (4) 80 cm
Ans. (2)
(1) (2) Sol. Fun damental fre quen cy o f closed org an

l l v
pipe =
4l c
3v
p p 2nd overtone frequency of open organ pipe =
2l 0
v 3v
Now = Þ l0 = 6lc = 6(20 cm) = 120 cm
(3) (4) 4l c 2l 0
Hence option (2)
l l 151. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive
Ans. (1) EN index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The
angle of minimum deviation is :-
hc 1
Sol. P = Þ P µ (Rectangular hyperbola) (1) 180° – 2A (2) 90° – A
l l
(3) 180° + 2A (4) 180° – 3A
hence option (1) Ans. (1)
149. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is
æd +Aö
connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected sin ç m ÷
Sol. m = è 2 ø
from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, æAö
sin ç ÷
which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now
LL
è2ø
inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect ? Q m = cot (A/2)
(1) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases æd +Aö
sin ç m ÷
K times. è 2 ø
\ cot (A/2) =
æAö
1 sin ç ÷
æ1 ö è2ø
(2) The change in energy stored is CV 2 ç – 1 ÷ .
2 èK ø
d +Aö
Þ cos (A/2) = sin æç m
A

(3) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.

÷
è 2 ø
(4) The potential difference between the plates dm + A
Þ 90° – A/2 =
decreases K times. 2
Ans. (3) Þ dm = 180° – 2A
Sol. Once the capacitor is charged, its charge will be hence option (1)
152. Which logic gate is represented by the following
constant Q = CV
combination of logic gates ?
When dielectric slab is inserted

C'New = KC Y1
A

Q2 1 Y
E= Þ ENew = E
2C K initial B
Y2
Q 1
V= so Vnew = V (1) NAND (2) AND
C K
(3) NOR (4) OR
Hence option (3)
Ans. (2)
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 CODE-F
155. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly
Sol. y1 = A , y2 = B ,
reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to
y = y 1 + y 2 = A + B (using De-morgan's theorem) the surface is (C = Velocity of light) :-
y=A·B 2E 2E E E
Hence this logic gate represents AND gate. (1) (2) (3) (4)
C C2 C2 C
Hence option (2)
Ans. (1)
1
153. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of h = as
10
heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work E/C E/C
done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy Sol.
absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature
is :- E
(1) 99 J (2) 90 J Momentum of light p =
C
(3) 1 J (4) 100 J So momentum transferred to the surface
Ans. (2) 2E
= pƒ – pi =
Sol. For Engine & refrigerators operating between two C
same temperatures Hence option (1)
1 EN 156. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal
h= 1 1
Þ = Þb=9 plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is
1+ b 10 1 + b
Q2 attached to a string which passes through a smooth
b= (From the principle of refrigerator) hole in the plane as shown.
W
Q
9= 2 Þ Q2 = 90 Joule
10 v0
m
Hence option (2)
R0
154. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
LL
monochromatic light of wavelength, l. The stopping
potential for photo-electric current for this light is
3V0. if the same surface is illuminated with light of
wavelength 2l, the stopping potential is V0. The The tension in the string is increased gradually and
threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric R
finally m moves in a circle of radius 0 . The final
effect is :- 2
A

value of the kinetic energy is :-

l l 1
(1) 4 l (2) (3) (4) 6 l (1) mv 20 (2) 2mv 20
4 6 4
Ans. (1) 1
(3) mv 20 (4) mv 20
hc hc 2
Sol. eVS = E – f Þ VS = le – l e Ans. (2)
0
here Sol. Angular momentum remains Constant because of
hc hc the torque of tension is zero.
3V0 = le – l e ...(1) Þ Li = Lf
0

hc hc R
and V0 = 2le – l e ...(2) Þ mv0R = mv
0 2
equation (1) – 3 × equation (2) Þ v = 2v0
hc 2hc
Þ 0=– + 1
m ( 2v0 ) = 2mv 02
2
2le l 0e KEf =
Þ l0 = 4l 2
Hence option (1) hence option (2)
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AIPMT-2015
157. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses a
m1 T
(refractive index 1.5) each having radius of mk
curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex Sol. A
mk m1g
surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening
space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The T
focal length of the combination is :-
(1) –25 cm (2) –50 cm m2
a
(3) 50 cm (4) –20 cm B
Ans. (2)
m2g
n2 = 1.7 For the motion of both blocks
m2g – T = m2a
T – mk m1g = m1a
Sol. n1 = 1.5 (m2 - mk m1 )g
Þ a= m1 + m2
For the block of mass 'm2'
From lens maker's formula
EN é m - mk m1 ù
1 æ 1 1 ö m2 g - T = m2 ê 2 úg
= (m - 1) ç - ÷ ë m1 + m2 û
f R
è 1 R 2 ø

é m - m k m1 ù é m1 + mk m1 ù
1 æ 1 ö 1 T = m2 g - ê 2 ú m2 g = m2 g ê ú
= (1.5 - 1) ç ÷=
we have
f1 è 20 ø 40 ë m1 + m2 û ë m1 + m2 û

1 æ 1 ö 1 m1m2 (1 + mk )g
= (1.5 - 1) ç ÷= Þ T= m 1 + m2
f2 è 20 ø 40
LL
Hence option (2)
1 æ 2 ö 7
& = (1.7 - 1) ç ÷ = 159. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line.
f3 è 20 ø 100
Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean
1 1 1 1 position are V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period
Now = + +
f f1 f2 f3 is :-
1 1 1 7 x 22 – x12 V12 + V22
Þ = + - (1) 2p (2) 2p
f 40 40 100 V12 – V22 x12 + x 22
A

Þ f = – 50 cm
Hence option (2) V12 – V22 x12 + x 22
(3) 2p (4) 2p
158. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. x12 – x 22 V12 + V22
A light string connected to it passes over a Ans. (1)
frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its Sol. For particle undergoing SHM
other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. V = w A 2 - x2
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block
and the table is µ k. When the block A is sliding on so V1 = w A 2 - x12 & V2 = w A 2 - x22
the table, the tension in the string is :- solving these two equations we get

(m2 – mk m1 )g m1m2 (1 + m k )g V12 - V22 2p

(1) (2) w= =
(m1 + m2 ) (m1 + m2 ) x 22 - x12 T

m1m2 (1 – m k )g (m2 + mk m1 )g x 22 - x12

(3) (m1 + m2 ) (4) (m1 + m2 ) Þ T = 2p V12 - V22

Ans. (2) Hence option (1)

20

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 CODE-F
160. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 162. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
10 km h–1 and a ship B 100 km South of A, is compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and
moving Northwards with a speed of 10 km h–1. The density of water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional
time after which the distance between them compression of water will be obtained at the bottom
becomes shortest, is :- of the ocean ?
(1) 5 h (2) 5 2 h (1) 1.0 × 10–2 (2) 1.2 × 10–2
–2
(3) 1.4 × 10 (4) 0.8 × 10–2
(3) 10 2 h (4) 0 h Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) Sol. As we know

P
10 kmph B=
A DV
Sol.
V
DV P
100km

10 kmph O so =
V B
ph

45°
km

B 1
Now P = rgh & compressibility 'K' =
2

B
10

EN
=A

DV
vB

so = rgh (K)
V
r = 103 × 9.8 × 2700 × 45.4 × 10–11
v BA = 102 + 102 = 10 2 kmph
= 1.201 × 10–2
distance OB = 100 cos45°= 50 2 km
Hence option (2)
Time taken to reach the shortest distance between
163. Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial
LL
50 2 50 2 velociteis u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles
A&B= r =
v BA 10 2 get excited to higher level, after abosrbing energy
tsn = 5 hrs. e. If final velocities of particles be v1 and v2 then we
Hence option (1) must have :
161. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife
1 1 1 1
edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal (1) m 1u12 + m 2 u 22 = m 1v12 + m 2 v 22 - e
A

position. The knives are at a distance d from each 2 2 2 2

other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance
x from A. The normal reaction on A is :- 1 1 1 1
(2) m 1u12 + m 2 u 22 - e = m 1v12 + m 2v 22
2 2 2 2
Wd W(d – x)
(1) (2)
x x
1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1
(3) m 1 u1 + m 2 u 2 + e = m 12v12 + m 22 v 22
W(d – x) Wx 2 2 2 2
(3) (4)
d d
(4) m12u1 + m22u2 – e = m12v1 + m22v2
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Sol. By torque balancing NA NB
Sol. Energy will always be conserved so
about B
NA(d) = W(d–x) K. E.initial = K.E.final + Excitation energy

W(d - x) A B
x 1 1 1 1
Þ NA = d–x m1u12 + m2u22 = m1v12 + m2 v 22 + e
d W 2 2 2 2
Hence option (3)
Hence option (2) .
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AIPMT-2015
164. Kepler's third law states that square of period of From work energy theorem W = Kƒ – Ki
revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is
1 2
proportional to third power of average distance r Þ –25 = Kƒ – 10(10)
2
between sun and planet
i.e. T2 = Kr3 Þ Kƒ = 475
here K is constant. Hence option (4)
If the masses of sun and planet are M and m 166. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof
respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2.
force of attraction between them is Assuming that the pressure inside the house is
GMm atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind
F = , here G is gravitational constant. on the roof and the direction of the force will be :
r2
The relation between G and K is described as : (rair = 1.2 kg/m3)
(1) GMK = 4p2 (2) K = G (1) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
(2) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
1
(3) K = (4) GK = 4p2 (3) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards
G
(4) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
2pr 2pr EN
Sol. T = = r Sol. By Bernaulli's equation
v GM
1
æ GM ö P + rv2 = P0 + 0
ç as n = ÷ 2
è r ø
1
2p 3/2
p0 - p = rv2
T= r 2
GM Pin = P0
4p 2 1 vin = 0
T2 = · r3
F = rv2 A
2
LL
GM
Comparing F = 2.4 × 105 upward
4p 2 Hence Option (2)
K=
GM 167. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and radii
Hence option (1) R and 2 R are released in free space with initial
165. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If
a constant speed of 10 ms–1, is subjected to a they attract each other due to gravitational force
A

retarding force F = 0.1 x J/m during its travel from only, then the distance covered by the smaller body
x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be :
before collision is :
(1) 450 J (2) 275 J (1) 4.5 R (2) 7.5 R
(3) 250 J (4) 475 J (3) 1.5 R (4) 2.5 R
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)

Sol. W = – ò Fdx 12R

Sol.
30

W = – ò 0.1x dx Initial distance between their centers = 12 R

20

30
é x2 ù R 2R
W = –0.1 ê ú
ë 2 û 20
At time of collision the distance between their
é 900 – 400 ù centers = 3R
W = –0.1 ê úû = –25
ë 2 So total distance travelled by both=12R–3R = 9R
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 CODE-F
Since the bodies move under mutual forces, center
CP
of mass will remain stationary so 169. The ratio of the specific heats = g in terms of
CV
m1x1 = m2x2
mx = 5m(9R –x) degrees of freedom (n) is given by :

x = 45R – 5x
æ nö æ 2ö
6x = 45R (1) ç 1 + ÷ (2) ç 1 + ÷
è 3ø è nø

45
x= R æ nö æ 1ö
6 (3) ç 1 + ÷ (4) ç 1 + ÷
è 2ø è nø

x = 7.5R Ans. (2)

Hence option (2) 2

Sol. g = 1 +
168. A resitance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected to n
an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in Here degree of freedom ® n
series with the resistance, such that the impedance
2
of the circuit becomes 'Z', the power drawn will be: \ g= 1 +

(1) P
R
Z
æRö
(2) P ç ÷
èZø

æRö
EN 2
Hence option (2)
n

170. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken

by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
(3) P (4) P ç ÷
èZø
Ans. (4)
P B C
Sol. 4
6×10 Pa
LL
Pure resistor Resistor & Inductor (Phasor diagram)
circuit circuit
R A
R
R L f 2×104 Pa
XL –3 3
2×10 m 4×10–3 m3
Z V
A

In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system

AC source Impedance = Z
and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the
system. The heat absorbed by the system in the
V2 éVù process AC will be :
P= P ' = V. ê ú .cos f
R ë Zû (1) 500 J (2) 460 J
(3) 300 J (4) 380 J
V2 R Ans. (2)
Þ V2 = PR P' = · Sol. In cyclic process ABCA,
Z Z
DUcyclic = 0
(From phasor diagram)
Qcyclic = Wcyclic
(PR)R QAB + QBC + QCA = closed loop area.
P' =
Z2 1
400 + 100 + QCA = × (2 × 10–3) × 4 × 104
2 2
æRö
P' = ç ÷ P 400 + 100 –QAC = 40
è Zø QAC = 460 J
Hence option (4) Hence option (2)
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AIPMT-2015
171. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as 173. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and
the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula
1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless
of surface tension will be :
surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on
(1) [EV–1T–2] (2) [EV–2T–2]
(3) [E–2V–1T–3] (4) [EV–2T–1] the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A
Ans. (2) and B is :
Sol. Applying dimensional analysis
a b c
SµEVT
1 0 –2 1 2 –2 a 1 –1 b 1c
M L T = k [M L T ] [L T ] [T ]
1 0 –2
M L T = k [M L T
a 2a –2a b –b c
]L T T (1) 6 N (2) 8 N (3) 18 N (4) 2 N
Ans. (1)
Comparision
2a + b = 0 –2 = –2a – b + c Fnet
a =1 Sol. Acceleration of system = M
b = –2 –2 = –2(1) + 2 + c total

c = –2
14
So the dimensional formula for surface tension will = = 2 m/s2
1 –2 –2 4 + 2 +1
be [E V T ]
Alternate solution :
EN 14 N
Surface energy 4kg 2kg 1kg
Surface Tension =
Area
[E] –2 –2
[Surface tension] = = [E V T ] The contact force between 4 kg & 2 kg block will
[V × T]2
Hence option (2) move 2 kg & 1 kg block with the same acceleration
172. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V
so Fcontact = (2 + 1)a = 3(2) = 6N
is applied as shown,
Hence option (1)
LL
174. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R
+5V
and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When
RL
some potential difference is applied between X and
–5V Y, the voltmeter readings are V A, VB and VC
respectively. Then :
then the output across RL will be :
A

10V B

(1) (2) A
–5V X Y
C

(1) VA ¹ VB = VC (2) VA = VB ¹ VC
5V
(3) VA ¹ VB ¹ VC (4) VA = VB = VC
(3) (4)
–10V
Ans. (4)

Ans. (3) (1.5R)(3R)

Sol. Effective resistance of B & C = =R
Sol. This is the circuit where P-N junction is acting as a 1.5R + 3R
Half-wave rectifier so the output will be In series sequence V µ R
so voltage across 'A' = voltage across B & C
5V
Now B & C are parallel so VB = VC
Þ VA = VB = VC
Hence option (4)
Hence option (3)
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 CODE-F
175. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and 177. The two ends of a metal rod are matainted at
radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat
axis XX' which is touching to two shells and passing flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends
through diameter of third shell. are maintained at temperatures 200°C and 210°C,
Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these the rate of heat flow will be :
three spherical shells about XX' axis is :-
(1) 16.8 J/s (2) 8.0 J/s
X
(3) 4.0 J/s (4) 44.0 J/s
Ans. (3)
Sol. Rate of heat flow µ temperature difference
X' between two ends
16 11 2
(1) 3 mr2 (2) mr 2 (3) 4 mr2 (4) mr dQ
5 5 Þ µ (T2 - T1 )
dt
Ans. (3)
X Here temperature differnece in both case is same
1 (i.e. 10°C)
So, rate of heat flow will also be same

Sol. 2
r r 3
EN So,
dQ
dt
= 4 J/s

Hence option (3)

X'
Ixx' = I1 + I2 + I3 178. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants
KP and KQ, such that KP > KQ. The are stretched,
2 2 æ2 2 ö æ2 ö
mr + ç mr + mr 2 ÷ + ç mr 2 + mr 2 ÷ first by the same amount (case a,) then by the same
3 è3 ø è3 ø
LL
force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and
(Using parallel axis theorem) W Q are related as, in case (a) and case (b),
Þ Ixx' = 2mr2 + 2mr2 = 4mr2
respectively :
Hence option (3)
(1) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
176. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially
(2) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained
(3) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP
in a shepere of radius 'a' centred at the origin of
(4) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
A

the field, will be given by :

Ans. (2)
(1) A e0 a2 (2) 4 pe0 Aa3
Sol. Given KP > KQ
(3) e0 Aa 3 (4) 4 pe0 Aa2
Case (a) : x1 = x2 = x
Ans. (2)
r
Sol. Flux linked with sphere = E.dsr 1
K x2
since electric field is radial. It is always perpendicular WP 2 P K
= = P Þ WP > WQ
to the surface. WQ 1 K
K Q x2 Q

so f = Ar.(4 pr 2 ) 2

f = A(a)(4pr 2 ) (as r = a) Case (b) : F1 = F2 = F

f = A4pa 3 For constant force

Now according to gauss law F2 1

W= ÞWµ
q in 2K K
f= Þ qin = f.Î0
Î0
WP K Q
so q in = A4pa Î0 3 So W = K Þ WQ > WP
Q P

Hence option (2) Hence option (2)

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AIPMT-2015
179. A conducting square frame of side 'a' and a long 180. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that
straight wire carrying current I are located in the delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle
same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves starts from rest the force on the particle at time t
to the right with a constant velocity 'V'. The emf is :
induced in the frame will be proportional to : -1 -1
(1) mk t 2 (2) 2mk t 2

x
1 -1 mk -1 2
(3) mk t 2 (4) t
2 2
Ans. (4)
I
Sol. P = Fv = mav
V
dv
Þ K = mv
dt
By integrating the equation
a k
Þ ò v dv = ò m dt
1 1 v2 k 2k
Þ = t Þ v= t
(1) (2) 2 m m
(2x - a )2 (2x + a )2

(3)

Ans. (3)
1
(2x - a )(2x + a )
(4)
1
x2
EN a=
dv
dt
=
2k æ 1 - 12 ö
m çè 2
t ÷

æ 1 ö 2k
F = ma = m ç ÷
ø

Þ F=
mk
è 2 ø mt 2t
x Hence option (4)

x–a/2 1 2
I
LL
Sol. a
V

x + a/2
emf Induced in side (1)
e1 = B1Vl
emf Induced is side (2)
e2 = B2Vl
A

emf in the frame = B1Vl – B2Vl

e = Vl [B1 – B2]
1
Þ e µ B1 - B 2 Since B µ
r
é ù
ê 1 1 ú
So e µ ê -
a aú
êx - x+ ú
êë 2 2 úû
é 1 1 ù
Þ eµê - ú
ëê ( 2x - a ) ( 2x + a ) ûú
Hence Option (3)

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