Apti

REASONING PAPER
TOTAL Q&A= 335
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth
letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that
word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can
be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’. (B)
(A)I
(B)B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(B)
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using
each let-ter only once in each word?
(D)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ? (E)
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is
called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the
following grows underground ? (D)
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the
difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new
arrangement? (D)
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English
alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many
vowels are present in the new arrangement? (C)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will
HAIL be coded in the same language? (D)
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters
between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets? (E)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very
beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for
‘high’ in that language? (A)
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements: (C)

All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions:
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
12. Statements: (A)

All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions:
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
13. Statements: (B)

All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions:
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
14. Statements: (D)
Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions:
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
15. Statements: (E)

All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions:
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
16. Statement:
(I): Elections are being held too frequently in India.
(II): There is a need to review our present democratic system.
Conclusions:
(I): Our present democratic system has •not been satisfactory.
(II): Frequent elections are not good for a healthy demo curacy. (C)
(A) Only I follow
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
17. Statement
(I): Most No: 64 buses go to my office.
(II): This is a No: 64 buses.
Conclusions
(I): This bus goes to my office.
(II): This bus does not go Tomy office. (C)
(A)I and II follow
(B)I do not follow and II follows
(C)II does not follow and I follow
(D)Neither follow
Directions: (Q. 18–22) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which
follow:
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
18. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be
the second highest number?
(C)
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
19. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following
will be the lowest number ?
(B)
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
20. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is
subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers?
(A)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
21. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the
difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest
number? (B)
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
22. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third
highest number? (D)
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Directions— Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
23. Which of the following means P is grandson of S? (C)
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
24. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ? (A)

(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
25. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ? (B)

(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
26. Which of the following means T is wife of P ? (E)

(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
27. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ? (D)

(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Directions—In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations
of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and
conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents
the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is
correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of
the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last
are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be
coded as ©.
28. BKGQJN (A)

(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
29. IJBRLG (C)

(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
30. BARNIS (E)

(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
31. EGAKRL (B)

(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
32. DMBNIA (C)

(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Directions— Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y

and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group
who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two
have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a
doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for
company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working
in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons
having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and
his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No
lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
33. For which of the following companies does C work? (A)
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ? (E)
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following combination is correct? (D)

(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
36. Who amongst the friends is a doctor? (B)

(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
37. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ? (C)
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Directions: Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
38. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star (B)
39. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee (B)
40. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal (D)
41. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’

written in that code? (D)
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
42. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is
‘EGG’ to be written in the same language? (C)
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
43. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same
code as— (B)
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
44. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for
BETTER is— (A)
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
45. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called
pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the color of sky called in that
language? (C)
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
46. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes
3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now? (B)
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
47. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back
towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction
Shailesh was facing? (D)
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
48. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as
tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest? (A)
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
49. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more
marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest
in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks? (C)
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
50. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is
the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(B)
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
51. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter.
What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(C)
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
52. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day
evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and
disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by
the inward clerk? (C)
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
53. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took
off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight? ( D )
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
54. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How
many boys were there in the class? (D)
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
55. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position
Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left? (D)
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
56. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by
7? (A)
8953253855687335775365335738
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
57. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but
not immediately followed by 5? (C)
6857854368198546829681368536
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
58. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as— (D)
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
59. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the
same manner as— (D)
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
60. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to …….. (B)

(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
61. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……… (B)

(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
62. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row? ( D )
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
63. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there
are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank? (B)
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
64. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……. (D)
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
65. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to……… (D)
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
66. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ………… (B)

(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
67. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ………… (B)

(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions— In these questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
68. AND, EAR, INK, OLD (A)

(A) URN
(B) AGE
(C) DOG
(D) OIL
69. 6, 29, 121 1961 (B)

(A) 429
(B) 489
(C) 484
(D) 461
70. 10,14,19,25 (A)

(A) 32
(C) 31
(B) 30
(D) 33
Directions— In the following questions some equations are solved on the basis of a certain
system. On the same basis find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the
unsolved equation in each question.
71. 4*8*5=596
7*3*8 = 849
6*5 * 2=763
3*l*4=…..?…. (A)
(A) 425
(B) 542
(C) 524
(D) 531
72. 7*3*2 = 42
6*4*3 = 72
5*5*4 = 100
4*6*5=…?… (D)
(A) 25
(B) 114
(C) 44
(D) 120
73. 4 * 6 = 72
81 * 5 = 225
9 *..? ..= 147 (A)
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 29
(D) 43
74. 9*7 = 32
13*7= 120
17*9=208
19 * 11=.?… (C)
(A) 64
(B) 160
(C) 240
(D) 210
75. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word INDUSTRY.
(C)
(A) Turn
(B) Dust
(C) Story
(D) Try
76. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be frond using the letters of the
given word EDUCATIONIST.
(C)
(A) DUKE
(B) DRESS
(C) CAUTION
(D) NAUGHTY
77. The correct spelling of a word is given. The four alternatives have some mistakes such as:
1. Letter omitted.
2. Unwanted letter added.
3. Sequence of letters changed.
4. Letter omitted and another letter added as a substitute.
Find the alternative which contains maximum number of mistakes. CONNOISSEUR
(B)
(A) CONNISEUR
(B) CONNOSHURE
(C) CANNISSEUR
(D) CONOISSUR
78. Provided the word in the brackets which is related to the words on either side of the brackets.
Conceal () skulk. (B)
(A) Guide
(B) Hide
(C) Ride
(D) Tide
79. The following make meaningful words if two letters are interchanged. (D)
(a) DENL
(b) DANS
(c) KORW
(d) KEES
Identify the letters to be interchanged—
(A) First and second
(B) Third and fourth
(C) Second and third
(D) First and fourth
80. Which set of three letters can be added to the following to form words? (B)
BL, REM, TAMAR, BEH, GR, K
(A) OCK (B) ND (C) AST (D) UEF
81. Select the combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful
word. (D)
TMHREO
5 4 3 2 1 0
(A) 025314
(B) 504231
(C) 315402
(D) 4053l2
82. Two words are given. Using the letters contained in these two words, which one of the
following can be formed?
(1) Phrase (2) Elate (C)
(A) Respect
(B) Pastry
(C) Asphalt
(D) Elevate
83. A crow sat on a palm tree and a palm nut fell. Which one of the inferences is valid relating to
above incident? (D)
(A) The palm nut fell since the crow sat on the tree
(B) Sometimes crows sit on palm trees
(C) This is an act of accident
(D) This is an act of coincide
84. if Flower is called’ TREE, Tree is called RED, Red is called GOLD?’Gold is WHITE, what
are ornaments made of? (C)
(A) TREE
(B) RED
(C) WHITE
(D) FLOWER
85. Which one of the following equations correct? (C)

(A) 12 ÷ 2 + 4 x 3 = 6
(B) 12 x 3 +4 ÷ 2 = 42
(C) 12 ÷ 3 + 4 x 2 = 12
(D) 12 x 4 ÷ 2 + 3 = 25
86. The positions of first and the fourth letters of the word PRICED are interchanged; similarly,
the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new
arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between
the alphabets which are at the extreme ends? (A)
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
(E) More than five
87. How many meaningful English words, starting with P, can be formed with the letters ETPS
using each letter only once in each word? (E)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions: (Q.No: 87-89) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
which follow-
Five friends, A, J, M, P and Q each scored different marks in an examination. P scored

more than Q but less than A. M scored more than A. J scored less marks than P but J did not score
the minimum marks. A scored 86% marks and the one who scored minimum marks scored 70%
marks.
88. Who amongst the five friends is most likely to have scored 92% marks? (E)
(A) M
(B) P
(C) J
(D) Q
(E) Either P or M
89. How many persons scored more than A? (E)

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) Cannot be determined
Directions: (Q. 90-95) the following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given
below-
JQRMSBCHFTUAKNPVDLGIOE
90. If in a certain code 'DECK' is coded as 'PISU' and 'FISH' is coded as' CLRB' how will 'GULF
be coded in the same code language? (D)
(A) OKIU
(B) DFVC
(C) DFGC
(D) OKVC
(E) DVFC
91. If 'BK' is related to 'HP' and 'RL' is related to 'S1' in a certain way, to which of the following is
'TV' related to, following the same pattern? (A)
(A) HN
(B) UL
(C) AG
(D) UD
(E) AL
92. What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above
alphabetical series? OI LV KT? (E)
(A) HB
(B) CM
(C) BQ
(D) FS
(E) BR
93. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FRIABLE, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between
them in the English alphabetical order? ( E)
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
94. Anil walks 4 m towards the East takes a right turn and walks 3 m. He then takes a left turn and
walks 5 m before taking a final left turn and walking 3 m. towards which direction and how far
should Anil walk to reach the point from where he initially started walking? (A)
(A) 8 m towards West
(B) 8 m towards East \
(C) 9 m towards East
(D) 7 m towards West
(E) 9 m towards West
95. If each of the alphabets of the word FOUNDER is arranged in alphabetical order from left to
right and then each vowel in the new arrangement thus formed is changed to the previous letter in
the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series which of the following will be third from the left? (A)
(A) N
(B) G
(C) F
(D) M
(E) D
Directions: (Q. 96-100), In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in
the statements.
The statements are followed by conclusions.

Give answer-
(A) If only Conclusion I is true
(B) If only Conclusion II is true
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true
96. Statements: J = I < K; I > L < M (C)

Conclusions: I. L < K II. K> M
97. Statements: A > B > C; B < D < E (A)

Conclusions: I. A > E II. C < E
98. Statements: U > W = X > Y > Z (D)

Conclusions: I. U > Y II. W > Z
99. Statements: G > H = I < J; J > K; G < L (E)

Conclusions: I. K < H II. L > I
100. Statements: P > Q > R; Q < S = T (A)

Conclusions: I. T < P II. T < R
Directions-(Q. 101-105) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a straight line facing North. G sits fifth to the right of C. D
sits third to right of A but D is not an immediate neighbor of G. Both E and H are immediate
neighbors of B. F sits third to left of H.
101. How many persons are seated between E and C? (C)

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
102. C and A are related to F in a certain way. Similarly, Band D are related to H in the same way.
To whom amongst the following are F and D related to following the same pattern? (E)
(A) G
(B) B
(C) E
(D) A
(E) C
103. Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the persons who sit sixth from the
left and the person who sits fifth from the right? (B)
(A) A
(B) D
(C) B
(D) H
(E) F
104. Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line? ( B )
(A) C, D
(B) A, G
(C) F, A
(D) D, F
(E) B, C
105. What is the position of B with respect to C? (C)

(A) Fifth to the right
(B) Immediate neighbor
(C) Second to right
(D) Third to right
(E) None of these
In a certain code 'not in her favour' is written as 'jo la fo re' 'not act in play' is written as 'so re na
la', 'favour her act more' is written as 'so jo bi fo' and 'in her own theatre' is written as 'py jo ku la'.
106. What is the code for 'more'? (B)

(A) so
(B) jo
(C) bi
(D) fo
107. What is the code for 'favour'? (D)

(A) fo
(B) jo
(C) bi
(D) so or re
(E) bi or la
108. Which of the following may represent 'own play theatre'? (C)
(A) na la py ku
(B) ku na la re
(C) ku la la
(D) na du py la
(E) du py ku jo
109. What does 'na' stand for? (D)

(A) play
(B) not
(C) act
(D) in
110. Which of the following may represent' act in play'? (B)

(A) so la py na
(B) bi la zi la
(C) na so ku re
(D) so re la jo
(E) so zi na la
111. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the position of alphabets in the
English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group? (B)
(A) KMNP
(B) EKLS
(C) AEFJ
(D) OTUZ
(E) NQRU
112. Farhan starts from Point A and walks 20 m towards North. He then takes a left turn and
walks 30 m before taking a right turn and walking 10 m. He finally takes a left turn, walks 30 m
and stops at Point B. After Farhan reaches the final Point B, Abhay starts from Point A. He walks
5 m towards the East, takes a left turn and walks 30 m to reach Point C. How far and towards
which direction would Farhan have to walk in order to meet Abhay at Point C? (C)
(A) 90 m towards West
(B) 55 m towards North
(C) 65 m towards East
(D) 90 m towards South
(E) 35 m towards West
Directions-(Q. 113-115) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
which follow- A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors
numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered I, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and
the topmost floor is numbered 6). A lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between
the floors on which A and F live. C lives immediately above the floor on which E lives. C does
not live on an even numbered floor. Only one person lives between C and B.
113. On which of the following floors does E live? (A)

(A) 2nd
(B) 4th
(C) 6th
(D) 3rd
114. Who amongst the following lives on the topmost floor? (D)
(A) B
(B) E
(C) F
(D) D
115. Who amongst the following lives on the floor exactly between the floors on which B and
Clive? (D)
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
(E) Either D or E
Directions-(Q.116 -121) the following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given
below-
IDKQLCRHSBPTUVANMJOGEF
116. What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above
alphabetical series? F G N B? (C)
(A) I
(B) K
(C) D
(D) L
(E) Q
117. If in a certain code 'DRUM' is coded as 'KHTN' and 'SIGN' is coded as 'BOOA' how will
'JETS' be coded in the same code language? (E)
(A) OFBU
(B) OFUB
(C) MGPH
(D) MGBU
(E) OFPH
118. 'NM' is related to 'OV' in a certain way. Similarly 'HS' is related to 'PC' in the same way. To
which of the following is 'UV' related to, following the same pattern? (E)
(A) NT
(B) AT
(C) AP
(D) NB
(E) NP
119. If each of the alphabets of the word FRACTION is arranged in alphabetical order from left to
right and then each vowel in the new arrangement is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical
series which of the following will be fifth from the left? (A)
(A) M
(B) J
(C) S
(D) N
(E) E
120. How many meaningful English words (starting with E) can be formed with the letters NRAE
using all the letters but each letter only once in each word? (B)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between
them in the English alphabetical order? (B)
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Directions-(Q. 122-126) in these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in
the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answers-
(A) If only Conclusion I is true.
(B) If only Conclusion II is true.
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true.
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true.
122. Statements: M > J = K < L < N > O (D)

Conclusions: I. O < K II. M>L
123. Statements: R = S > T > V; W < T (A)

Conclusions: I. W < R II. V < W
124. Statements: A < Z > P > R; A > M; R > T (B)

Conclusions: I. T > Z II. Z >M
125. Statements: Y = T < F > G; H > F < R (E)

Conclusions: I. H > Y II. R > G
126. Statements: D > F = H; G < H > I (E)

Conclusions: I. G < D II. I < D
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way
that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 W, X, Y and Z are seated (but
not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row-2 P, Q, Rand S are
seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing South. Therefore, in the
given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. R
sits second to right of P. Y sits to immediate right of the person facing R. Only one person sits
between Wand X. X does not face P. Q is an immediate neighbour of R. Q does not face Y.
127. Which of the following is true regarding R? (E)

(A) R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(B) R sits to immediate right of Q
(C) Y faces R
(D) R is an immediate neighbour of P
(E) R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces Y
128. Who amongst the following faces S? (C)

(A) W
(B) X
(C) Y
(D) Z
129. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the person who faces Y? (B)
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
130. Who amongst the following faces Z? (D)

(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Q
Directions-(Q.131 and 132) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the
given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
131. (A) YW (B) PS (C) RS (D) ZX (E) XY (C)
132. (A) W-R (B) Z - S (C) X - P (D) Y - Q (E) R - X (E)
Directions-(Q. 133-140) Study the following information to answer the given questions- In a
certain code. 'License to sell product' is written as 'ad mi ja no', 'to buy not sell' is written as
'ku ja ig ad'. 'product not for market' is written as 'be ku zo mi' and 'to demand for share' is
written as 'be Ii ya ja'
133. Which of the following may represent 'buy and sell'? (E)
(A) ig ad no
(B) ig py ya
(C) re ad be
(D) ig li re
(E) ad re ig
134. What is the code for' demand'? (E)

(A) be
(B) Ii
(C) ya
(D) ja
(E) Either 'Ii' or 'ya'
135. Which of the following represents 'not for product'? (D)

(A) ku be zo
(B) rni be no
(C) ku be ya
(D) mi ku be
(E) be mi ad
136. 'Players' are related to 'Team' in the same way as 'Books' are related to (B)
(A) Exams
(B) Library
(C) Reading
(D) Writer
(E) Chapter
137.Shreya started from Point P and walked 2 m towards West. She then took a right turn and
walked 3 m before taking a left turn and walking 5 m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3 m and
stopped a Point Q. How far is Point Q from Point P? (C)
(A) 2m
(B) 6m
(C) 7m
(D) 8m
(E) 12m
138. In a certain code 'where have you been' is written as 'been 4 have 3 where 2 you l' and
'visiting London this summer' is written as 'London 4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1 '. How will 'repair
may computer yesterday' be written in the same code? (E)
(A) computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday I
(B) yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer I
(C) computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4
(D) yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer I
(E) computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday I
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (C)
(A) MU
(B) WVT
(C) OMK
(D) JIG
(E) TSQ .
140. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group? (D)
(A) Diameter
(B) Circumference
(C) Centre
(D) Circle
(E) Radius
Directions (Q.141 -145): Study she following information carefully and answer the given
questions. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but
not necessarily in the same order.
(a) G sits third to the right of F.
(b) G sits second to the left of H.
(c) H is not an immediate neighbour of E and C.
(d) F and A are immediate neighbours of each other.
(e) Only one person sits between F and B.
(f) E and G sit opposite each other.
141.Four of the following five are similar in a certain way based on their position in the seating
arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group? (C)
(A) EH
(B) CF
(C) AG
(D) BD
(E) HG
142.Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbors of D? (D)

(A) E,H
(B) C,G
(C) F,B
(D) H,G
(E) C,B
143. What is the position of A with respect to G in the above arrangement? (B)
(A) Third to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Fifth to the right
(D) Immediate right
(E) Third to the left
144. What will come in place of the question mark (?) according to the above seating
arrangement? EF CG HB FA? (A)
(A) GD
(B) CG
(C) GH
(D) BH
(E) CD
145. Who sits to the immediate right of A? (B)

(A) E
(B) C
(C) B
(D) F
(E) D
Directions (Q. 146-150): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below:
642528526413918125863514947327259
146. How many 4s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
a digit which has a numerical value of more than four? (D)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
147. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement? (B)
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 2
(D) 7
(E) 1
148. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be
tenth from the right end of the arrangement? (B)
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 7
149. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd digit and immediately followed by an even digit? (A)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
150. How many such I s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a perfect square? (C)
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions (Q. 151-155): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code' ring a bell' is written as '5 8 2', 'did not ring' is written as '3 59' and
'not a reason' is written as '7 2 9'.
151. Which of the following represents 'did not'? (E)

(A) '23'
(B) '29'
(C) '35'
(D) '52'
(E) '93'
152. What is the code for 'bell'? ((B)

(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) 7
153. What does '2' stand for? (B)
(A) ring
(B) a
(C) bell
(D) reason
(E) not
154. What does '7' stand for? (D)

(A) not
(B) a
(C) ring
(D) reason
(E) Either 'a' or 'not'
155. What is the code for 'ring'? (C)

(A) 8
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) 9
Directions: Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
156. (A) Sun (B) Universe (C) Moon (D) Star (B)
157. (A) Cheese (B) Milk (C) Curd (D) Ghee (B)
158. (A) Carrot (B) Radish (C) Potato (D) Brinjal (D)
159. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’

written in that code? (D)
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
160. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how
is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language? (C)
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
161. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same
code as— (B)
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
162. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for
BETTER is— (A)
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
163. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is
called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the color of sky called in that
language? (C)
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
164. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and
goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(B)
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
165. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back
towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction
Shailesh was facing? (D)
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
166. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as
tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest? (A)
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
167. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more
marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest
in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks? (C)
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
168. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is
the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law (B)
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
169. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter.
What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo? (C)
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
170. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day
evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and
disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by
the inward clerk? (C)
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
171. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took
off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10: 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m. (D)
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
172. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How
many boys were there in the class? (D)
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
173. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position
Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left? (D)
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
174. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by
7?
8953253855687335775365335738 (A)
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
175. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but
not immediately followed by 5?
6857854368198546829681368536 (C)
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
176. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

(A) MENOPM (D)
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
177. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded

in the same manner as— (D)
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
178. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to …….. (B)

(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
179. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……… (B)
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
180. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26 (D)
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
181. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there
are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26 (B)
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
182. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education (D)
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
183. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin (D)
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
184. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ………… (B)

(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
185. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ………… (B)

(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 186-188): in these questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the
correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
186. AND, EAR, INK, OLD (A)

(A) URN
(B) AGE
(C) DOG
(D) OIL
187. 6, 29, 121 1961 (B)

(A) 429
(B) 489
(C) 484
(D) 461
188. 10,14,19,25 (A)

(A) 32
(C) 31
(B) 30
(D) 33
Directions—(Q. 354 to357): in the following questions some equations are solved on the basis
of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct answer from amongst the four
alternatives for the unsolved equation in each question.
189. 4*8*5=596
7*3*8 = 849
6*5 * 2=763
3*l*4=…..?…. (A)
(A) 425 (B) 542 (C) 524 (D) 531
190. 7*3*2 = 42
6*4*3 = 72
5*5*4 = 100
4*6*5=…?… (D)
(A) 25 (B) 114 (C) 44 (D) 120
191. 4 * 6 = 72
81 * 5 = 225
9 *..? ..= 147 (A)
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 29 (D) 43
192. 9*7 = 32
13*7= 120
17*9=208
19 * 11=.?… (C)
(A) 64 (B) 160 (C) 240 (D) 210
193. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word INDUSTRY. (C)
(A) Turn (B) Dust (C) Story (D) Try
194. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be frond using the letters of the
given word EDUCATIONIST. (C)
(A) DUKE (B) DRESS (C) CAUTION (D) NAUGHTY
195. The correct spelling of a word is given.

The four alternatives have some mistakes such as:
1. Letter omitted.
2. Unwanted letter added.
3. Sequence of letters changed.
4. Letter omitted and another letter added as a substitute.
Find the alternative which contains maximum number of mistakes. CONNOISSEUR
(B)
(A) CONNISEUR
(B) CONNOSHURE
(C) CANNISSEUR
(D) CONOISSUR
196. Provided the word in the brackets which is related to the words on either side of the brackets.
Conceal () skulk. (B)
(A) Guide
(B) Hide
(C) Ride
(D) Tide
197. The following make meaningful words if two letters are interchanged.
(A) DENL
(B) DANS
(C) KORW
(D) KEES
Identify the letters to be interchanged— (D)
(A) First and second
(B) Third and fourth
(C) Second and third
(D) First and fourth
198. Which set of three letters can be added to the following to form words?
BL, REM, TAMAR, BEH, GR, K
(B)
(A) OCK (B) ND (C) AST (D) UEF
199. Select the combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly will form a
meaningful word.
TMHREO (D)
5 4 3 2 10
(A) 025314
(B) 504231
(C) 315402
(D) 4053l2
200. Two words are given. Using the letters contained in these two words, which one of the
following can be formed? (C)
(1) Phrase (2) Elate
(A) Respect
(B) Pastry
(C) Asphalt
(D) Elevate
Directions—(Q. 366-370): In the following questions, two statements are given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true, even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. You are to & Side which of the given conclusions can
definitely be drawn from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
201.
Statement
(I): Elections are being held too frequently in India.
(II): There is a need to review our present democratic system.
Conclusions
(I): Our present democratic system has not been satisfactory.
(II): Frequent elections are not good for a healthy demo curacy.
(C)
(A) Only I follow
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
202.
Statement
(I): Most No: 64 buses go to my office.
(II): This is a No: 64 buses.
Conclusions
(I): This bus goes to my office.
(II): This bus does not go to my office.
(C)
(A)I and II follow
(B)I do not follow and II follows
(C)II does not follow and I follow
(D)Neither follows
203. A crow sat on a palm tree and a palm nut fell. Which one of the inferences is valid relating to
above incident? (D)
(A) The palm nut fell since the crow sat on the tree
(B) Sometimes crows sit on palm trees
(C) This is an act of accident
(D) This is an act of coincide
204. If Flower is called’ TREE, Tree is called RED, Red is called GOLD?’ Gold is WHITE, what
are ornaments made of? (C)
(A) TREE
(B) RED
(C) WHITE
(D) FLOWER
205. Which one of the following equations correct? (C)
(A) 12 ÷ 2 + 4 x 3 = 6
(B) 12 x 3 +4 ÷ 2 = 42
(C) 12 ÷ 3 + 4 x 2 = 12
(D) 12 x 4 ÷ 2 + 3 = 25
Directions—(Q.511—335) in the following questions,

The symbols +, -, x, ÷ and = are used with the following meanings
A + B means A is greater than B;
A – B means A is greater than or equal to B;
A x B means A is equal to B;
A ÷ B means A is smaller than B; and
A = B means A is smaller than or equal to B.
For each question you have to assume given statements to be true and then decide which of the
two given conclusions is are definitely true. Give answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true;

(B) If only conclusion II is true;
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true; and
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
206. Statements: D=S, N + V, D x R, R + V

Conclusions: I. S + V
II. D+N
(A)
207. Statements: K x P, M + J, C÷ P, K = M
Conclusions: I. M + P
II. M x P
(A)
208. Statements: L – R, N x M, L ÷ M, N = P
Conclusions: I. M + R
II. R+P
(A)
209. Statements: W + K, S = Z, X – W, S x K
Conclusions: I. K x Z
II. X÷K
(B)
210. Statements: P ÷ Q, W – N, P — N, T + W
Conclusions: I. P x W
II. Q÷W (D)
Directions—(Q.211—215) there are two or three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow(s).
211. Statements:
Some songs are throngs
Some throngs are longs.
Conclusions:
I. Some songs are longs.
II. No songs are longs.
III. Only longs are songs.
IV Only songs are longs. (C )
(A) Only I follow

(B) Only III follow
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Either III or IV follows
212. Statements:
Some charts are darts.
All darts are carts.
Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions:
I. Some charts are carts.
II. Some carts are darts.
III. Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts. (A)
(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
213. Statements:
All blanks are beams.
All bridges are beams.
All bridges are cows.
Conclusions:
I. Some cows are beams.
II. Some blanks are cows.
III. Some blanks are bridges.
IV. Some bridges are not cows.
(D)
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) I,II and III follow
(D) None follow
214. Statements:
Some Chinese are not Russians.
All Russians are Africans.
Some Africans are Indians.
Conclusions:
I. Some Chinese are not Africans.
II. Some Chinese are not Indians.
Ill. All Russians are Indians.
IV. Some Indians are Chinese.
(D)
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Either II or IV follows
215. Statements:
All chalks are cheese.
No cheese are ships
Some herds are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some herds are not chalks.
II. Some herds are cheese.
III. Some cheese are not herds.
IV. No chalk is a ship.
(B)
(A) I, II and IV follow
(B) Either II or III and IV follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) II and IV follow
Directions—(Q.216-) A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input,

rearranges it following a particular logic. The following is the illustration of the input and
the steps of arrangement?
Input: CRI END YAM STU THE

StepI:YAM THE CRI END STE
StepII:YAM THE STE END CRI
Step III:STU CRI YAM THE END
Step IV;STU CRI END THE YAM
Study the logic and answer questions
216. If step VII of an input is 'OVER THE PRE NEW BONE' what is the step IV of that input?
(C)
(A) BONE THE PRE OVERNEW
(B) THE PRE BONE NEW OVER
(C) THE BONE PRE OVER NEW
(D) PRE BONE THE OVER NEW
217. Given the following input— SYM REACH LAD PHOTO CAL what step will the following
arrangement? REACH LAD PHOTO SYM CAL (B)
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) IV
(D) III
218. If Step VI of a given input be 'MAP IND PAK RUS ENG', what would be the input?
(D)
(A) IND MAP PAK RUS ENG
(B) IND MAP ENG RUS PAK
(C) ENG RUS IND PAK MAP
(D) RUS MAP IND ENG PAK
219. Given the following input, what would be Step VIII of the input? (C)
Input: BANK CRIS ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
(A) PRIZE WITH CRIS ATTRACT BANK

(B) CRIS BANK PRIZE WITH ATTRACT
(C) PRIZE WITH BANK ATTRACT CRIS
(D) CR15 BANK ATTRACT WITH PRIZE
220.In which step will we get the same arrangement as the input? (C)
(A) VIII
(B) IX
(C)X
(D)XI
221. Statement :
Considering the tickets sold during the last seven days, the circus authorities
decided to continue the show for another fortnight which includes two weekends.
Assumptions:
I. People may not turn up on weekdays.
II. The average number of people who will be visiting circus will be more or less
the same as that of the last seven days.
III. There may not be enough responses at other places.
(B)
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
222. Statement:
The telephone company informed the subscribers through a notification that those
who do not pay their bills by the due date will be charged penalty for every
defaulting day.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the people may pay their bills by the due date to avoid penalty.
II. The money collected as penalty may set off the losses due to delayed payment.
III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
(D)
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
223. Statement:
The national air carrier has decided to start a weekly air service from town 'A' to
town 'B'.
Assumptions:
I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such service.
III the people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.
(C)
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Both II and III are implicit
(C) Both I and II are implicit
(D) ALL are implicit
224. Statement:
A group of friends decided to go for a picnic to Dum Duma Lake during the next
holiday season to avoid crowd of people.
Assumptions:
I. Generally many people do not go to Dum Duma Lake.
II. People prefer other spots to Dum Duma Lake.
III. Many people do not know about Dum Duma Lake.
(D)
(A) Only I is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
225. Statement:
"Wanted a two bedroom flat in the court area for immediate possession"—
Advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Flats are available in court
II. Some people will respond to the advertisement.
Ill. It is a practice to give such an advertisement.
(A)
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only III is implicit
226. pq—rqp—qrrq—p—rrqpp—r (D)
(A) rqpqr (B) qprrq (C) qrprp (D) rppqq
227. nnt—qqn—tt—qnn—tq-. (C)
(A) nnqtq (B) qntnq (C) tnqtq (D) ttqtq

Directions (Q. 228 and 229)
P + Q means P is the brother of Q
P – Q means P is the sister of Q
P x Q means P is the father of Q
P ÷ Q means P is the mother of Q.
228. A÷B-C x D, then A is D (D)

(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother
229. Which of the following shows that V is the grandmother of Y? (B)

(A) VxR+KVY
(B) V÷RxK-Y
(C) V÷R+KxY
(D) VxR-K÷Y
230. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STRAIGHT FORWARD which has numbers
of letters between them in the word equal to the number of letters between them in English
alphabet? (C)
(A) 4 (B)5 (C)6 (D)7
231. Milk: Butter (C)
(A) Banana: Fruit (B) Juice : Health (C) Wood: Paper (D) Chili Spices
232. Hat : Headwear (D)
(A) Shark : Fish (B) Crocodile : Terrapin (C) Shoe : Socks (D) Glove: Hand
233. Horse: Cow (B)
(A) Milk: Ice-cream (B) Mars : Moon (C) Snow : Water (D) Pink: Blue
234. Hair : Head (A)
(A) Teeth : Mouth (B) Tea-leaves : Mountain slopes

(C) Hand: Arm (D) Footpath : Road
235. Fore: Hind (C)
(A) Sky:Space (B) Land:Sea

(C) North : South (D) Face:Neck
Directions—(Q. 236 -240) Read the following information to answer the questions—
A, B, C, D and E are sons of P, Q, R, S and T but not in the same order.
Match the right mother and son on the basis of the information given below—
Q is not B's or C mother.
A's or Es mother is not T.
C is not R's son.
E is not Q's or S's son and his mother's name does not start with the letter 'R'.
A's mother is not Q or R
236. Who is S's son? (A)

(A)A (B)B (C)C (D)D
237.Who is C mother? (D)

(A) P (B)R (C)S (D)T
238.Who is Q's son? (B)

(A)A (B)D (C)B (D)E
239. Who is P's son? (D)

(A)B (B)C (C)D (D)E
240. Who is son of R? (C)

(A) E (B) A (C)B (D)D
Directions—(Q.241 -245) in each of the following number series, two terms are put within
brackets. Mark in the answer-sheet—
(A) If both the bracketed terms are right;
(B) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong;
(C) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right;
(D) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.
241. 5, 17, (30), 73, 129, (225) (C)
242. 11, 29, (55), 89, (131), 181 (A)
243. 3, 12, 28, 32, (42), (57), 61, 70, 86 (C)
244. 2, 3, 6, (11), 18, (27), 38 (A)
245. 4, 14, (18), (24), 31, 36, 38, 48, 53 (D)
Directions—(Q.551-555) choose the odd one.
246. (A) YNHIA (B) SGRFI (C) ISEPU (D) FHUJU (D)
247. (A) PROUD (B) DRIVER (C) WHEAT (D) TRAIN (B)
248. (A) CXHIA (B) RCFCL (C) MTOWF (D) CPRSV (C)
249. (A) JOT (B) OUT (C) TEN (D) DIN (B)
250. (A) HR (B) GT (C) KP (D) FU (A)

Directions—(Q.251-255) Read the following information and answer the questions given
below it. If ranks of five candidates P, Q ,R S and T are arranged in ascending order of their
marks in Numerical Ability, T is the fourth and S is the first. When they are arranged in the
ascending order of marks in General Awareness, P takes the place of T and T takes the
place of Q. R's position remains the same in both the arrangements. Q's marks are lowest in one
test and highest in the other test. P has more marks than R in Numerical Ability.
251. Who has secured the highest marks in General Awareness? (B)
(A)Q (B)T (C)S (D)R
252. Who has secured the highest marks in Numerical Ability? (D)
(A)S (B) R (C)P (D)Q
253. Which of the following groups of candidates has improvement in rank in General Awareness
as compared to that in Numerical Ability? (A)
(A) SPT (B) PSR (C) QST (D) SPQ
254.Whose marks in General Awareness are more than R's marks in General Awareness? (C)
(A) Only P's (B) P’s, Q's and S's (C) P's, S's and T's (D) P's, Q's and T's
255. In a certain code CAMEL is written as XPOGT and RABBITS as YPUULFZ. How can
AIRMAIL be written in that code? (D)
(A) PIYOPLT (B) PLYOPTL (C) PLROPLT (D) PLYOPLT

Directions: In each following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words on one side of : : and one word is given on other side of : : while another word is to
be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the
words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
256. Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ? (D)

a) Bacillus b) Parasite c) Protozoa d) Bacteria
257. Melt : Liquid : : Freeze : ? (C)

a) Ice b) Condense c) Solid d) Crystal
258. Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ? (D)

a) Heat b) Radiation c) Energy d) Temperature
259. Gun : Bullet : : Chimney : ? (D)

a) Ground b) House c) Roof d) Smoke
260. Candle : Wax : : Paper : ? (D)

a) Wood b) Tree c) Bamboo d) Pulp
261.Water : Convection : : Space : ? (D)

a) Conduction b) Transference c) Vacuum d) Radiation
262. Nurture : Neglect : : Denigrate : ? (B)

a) Reveal b) Extol c) Recognise d) Calumniate
263. Genuine : Authentic : : Carpenter : ? (D)

a) Image b) Transpiration c) Reflection d) Illusion
Directions: In each following questions consist of two words each that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered
pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.
264. Chaff : Wheat (C)

a) Bone : Flesh b) Blood : Vein c) Dregs : Wine d) Rubbish : House
265. Canvas : Painter (C)

a) Leather : Shoe (b) Chisel : Wood (c) Marble : Sculptor (d)Hammer : Carpenter
266. Fox : Cunning (D)

a) Cat : Playful b) Horse : Runner c) Vixen : Cute d) Ant : Industrious
267. Embarrass : Humiliate (D)

a) Enquire : Ask (b) Embezzle : Peculate (c) Gamble: Investment (d) Annoy : Exasperate
268.Explosion : Destruction (D)
a) Talk : Exaggeration (b) Girl : Woman (c) Success : Failure (d) Engagement : Marriage
269. Meadow : Sheep (D)

a) Stable : Horse (b) Hay : Insect (c) Grass : Grasshopper (d) Pasture : Cattle
270. Sigh : Relief (B)

a) Tear : Joy b) Trembling : Fear c) Carelessness : Accident d) Sweat : Hot
271.Ecstasy : Pleasure (B)

a) Hatred : Affection b) Joy : Grief c) Rage : Anger d) Mumble : Speak
272. Range : Mountain (D)

a) Point : Line b) Bouquet : Acquit c) School : Class d) String : Bead
Directions: In each following questions, two words indicated by I and II have been left
out. The correct word to come in place I is given as one of the four alternatives against I
and the correct word to come in place of II is given as one of the four alternatives against
I and the correct word to come in place of II is given as one of the four alternatives
against II. Read with the correct words, there is some relationship between the two words
to the left of the sign (: : ) and the same relationship obtains between the two words to the
right of the sign (: : ). The correct combination is given as one of the four alternatives
(a), (b), (c), and (d). Find the correct combination in each case.
273. Shoe: I: : Table : II (A)

I. (A) Foot (B) Socks (C) Heel (D) Factory
II. (P) Drawer (Q) Chair (R) Wood (S) Carpenter
A) CP B) AQ C) DS D) BR
274. I : Lungs : : II : Nut (D)

I. (A) Respiration (B) Air (C) Ribs (D) Breathe
II. (P) Eat (Q) Shell (R) Almond (S) Oil
A) BS B) AD C) AR D) CQ
275. Modern: I: : II: Old (A)

I. (A) Ancient (B) Death (C) Famous (D) Civilisation
II. (P) Industrialisation (Q) Young (R) Fashion (S) Western
A) AQ B) AS C) BP D) CR
Directions: In each of the following questions, five words have been given out of which
four are alike in some manner and the fifth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
276. (a) Radium (b) Thorium (c) Sodium (d) Polonium (e) Uranium (C)
277. (a) Pineapple (b) Orange (c) Malta (d) Banana (e) Lemon (D)
278. (a) Garo (b) Khasi (c) Kangra (d) Jaintia (e) Mizo (C)
279. (a) Raniganj (b) Jharia (c) Singareni (d) Baroda (e) Bokaro (D)
280. (a) Nephrology (b) Entomology (c) Astrology(d) Mycology (e) Pathology ( C )
Directions: In each of the following questions, five words have been given out of which
four are alike in some manner and the fifth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
281. (a) Mahavir (b) Buddha (c) Marx (d) Jesus (e) Gandhi (C)
282. (a) Gujarat (b) Maharastra (c) Uttar Pradesh(d) West Bengal (e) Kerala (C)
283. (a) Asia (b) Argentina (c) Africa (d) Australia (e) Antarctica ( B )
284. (a) Moath (b) Bee (c) Lizard (d) Aphid (e) Cockroach (C)
285. (a) Under (b) Near (c) Beside (d) Above (e) Where (E)
Direction: In each of the following questions, one term in then number series is wrong.
Find the wrong term.
286. 24, 27, 31, 33, 36 (C)

A) 24 B) 27 C) 31 D) 33
287. 196, 169, 144, 121, 80 (A)

A) 80 B) 121 C) 169 D) 196
288. 1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 256, 778 (D)

A) 10 B) 21 C) 129 D) 256
289. 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511 (B)

A) 15 B) 39 C) 63 D) 127
290. 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331 (D)

A) 8 B) 343 C) 1331 D) NONE
291. 11, 2, 21, 3, 32, 4, 41, 5, 51, 6 (C)

A) 21 B) 11 C) 32 D)51
292. 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83 (C)

A) 83 B) 82 C) 86 D) 78
293. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64 (D)

A) 17 B) 26 C) 37 D) 64
294. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1 (C)

A) 384 B) 48 C) 24 D) 2
295. 3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116 (C)

A) 3 B) 4 C) 10 D) 27
Directions: In each of the following letter serried, some of the letters are missing which
are given in that order as on of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
296. a___ bbc ____ aab ____ cca ____ bbcc ( B)

A) bacb B) acba C) abba D) caba
297. ab ____ aa ____ bbb _____ aaa _____ bbba (B)

A) abba B) baab C) aaab D) abab
298. bc ____ b ___ c ___ b ___ ccb (A)

A) cbcb B) bbcb C) cbbc D) bcbc
299. abb ___ baa ____ a ____ bab ____ aba (A)
A) abba B) abab C) ccac D) aabb
300. abca _____ bcaab _____ ca ____ bbc ____ a (C)

A) ccaa B) bbaa C) abac D) abba
301. _____ bbca _____bcca ____ ac ____ a ___ cb (A)

A) abcba B) bcadc C) abcdd D) cbdaa
302. a _____ cdaab ___ cc ___ daa ____ bbb ____ ccddd (D)
A) bdbda B)bddca C) dbbca D) bbdac
303. a _____ abbb ____ccccd _____ ddccc _____ bb ___ ba (C)

A) abcda B) abdbc C) abdcb D) abcad
304. _____ bcdbc ____dcabd _____ bcdbc ____ dc ____bd (A)
A) aaaaa B) ccccc C) bbbbb D) ddddd
305. adb ____ ac ___ da ___ cddcd ___ dbc ___ cbda (B)
A) bccba B) cbbaa C) ccbba D) bbcad
CODING – DECODING
306. If in a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, how would DULLARD be

written in the same code? (D )
A) FWMNCTF B) FWNNBTE C) FWNNCSF D) FWNNCTF
307. If in a certain code, KINDLE is written as ELDNIK, how would EXOTIC be written
in the same code ? (D)
A) EXOTLC B) CXOTIE C) COXITE D) CITOXE
308. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how can SUCCESS be coded? ( B )

A) VXEEIVV B) VXFFHVV C) VYEEHVV D) VYEFIVV
309. If in a certain code, MUNICIPALITY is written as INMUAPCIYTLI. How would

JUDICIAL be written in the same code? ( D)
A) UJDILACI B) IDUJLACI C) IDJULAIC D) IDJULACI
310. If in a certain code, ADVENTURES is written as TDRESAUVEN. How would

SURPRISING be written in the same code? (C)
A) IUIPGSRSNR B) IUINGSSRRP C) IUIPGSSRNR D) IRIPGSSNRR
311. If in a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIGTANCI. How is MIRACLES

written in that code? (B)
A) MIRLCAES B) MIRLACSE C) RIMCALSE D) RIMLCAES
NUMBER TO LETTER CODING

Directions: (Questions 977to985): In a certain language, the numbers are coded as
follows:
4 3 9 2 1 6 7 8 5 2 0
A W P Q R B E S G J M
312. 421665 (A)

A) AQRBBG B) PQBRSE C) ASGRBE D) QRPSSE
313. 67825 (C)

A) BESGJ B) BSEJG C) BESJG D) BSEGJ
314. 55218 (D)

A) GJGRS B) GGJSR C) GGRJS D) GGJRS
315.91352 (A)
A) PRWGJ B) PRGWJ C) RPGWJ D) RGPWJ
316. 720435 (C)

A) EJMAGW B) MAGJRW C) EJMAWG D) MGARJW
317. 6650 (B)

A) BBMG B) BBGM C) BGMB D) BMGB
318. 3215 (A)

A) WJRG B) WJGR C) JWRG D) JWGR
319. 67852 (D)

A) BSEJG B) BESJG C) BSEGJ D) BESGJ
320. 439216 (D)

A) PQRWAB B) AQRWPB C) APWQRB D) AWPQRB
BLOOD RELATIONS
321. If Kamal says, “Ravi’s mother is the only daughter of my mother”, how is Kamal
related to Ravi? (E)
A) Grandfather B) Father C) Brother D) Boss E) None
322. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady
and her son is your maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father? ( B)
A) Sister-In-Law B) Wife C) Either (A) Or (B) D) Neither (A) Or (B)
323. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How
is that man related to the woman? (D)
A) Brother B) Father-In-Law C) Maternal Uncle D) Husband
324. Pointing to the lady on the platform, Manju said, “She is the sister of the father of
my mother’s son.” Who is the; lady to Manju? (C)
A) Mother B) Sister C) Aunt D) Niece
325. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only
son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph? ( C )
A) Mother B) Aunt C) Sister D) Niece
Directions: (Questions 991to 995): Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below it:
All the roads of a city are either perpendicular or parallel to one another. The
roads are all straight. Roads A, B, C, D and E are parallel to one another. Roads G, H, I,
J, K, L and M are parallel to another.
i) Road A is 1 km east of road B.
ii) Road B is ½ km west of road C.
iii) Road D is 1 km west of road E.
iv) Road G is ½ km south of road H.
v) Road I is 1 km north of road J.
vi) Road K is ½ km north of road L.
vii) Road K is 1 km south of road M.
326. Which is necessarily true? (D)

A) E and B intersect B) D is 2 km west of B.
C) D is at least 2 km west of A. D) M is 1.5 km north of L.
E) I is 1 km north of L
327. If E is between B and C, which of the following is false? (B)

A) D is 2km west of A. B) C is less than 1.5 km from D.
C) Distance from E to B added to distance of E to C is ½ km.
D) E is less than 1 km from A.
328. If road E is between B and C, then distance between A and D is: (D)
A) ½ km B) 1 km C) 1.5 km D) 1.5 – 2 km
329. Which of the following possibilities would make two roads coincide? (D)
A) L is ½ km north of I. B) C is 1 km west of D.
C) I is ½ km north of K. D) E and B are ½ km apart.
330. If K is parallel to I and K is ½ km south of J and 1 km north of G, which two roads

would be ½ km apart? (C)
A) I and K B) J an G C) K and J D) J and H
Directions: Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that
comes at the second place.
331. A) Interview B) Invent C) Intestine D) Interlude E) Interfere (D)
332. A) Dialogue B) Diabolic C) Diagonal D) Diaphragm E) Dialect (C)
333. A) Gourd B) Gesture C) Gentle D) Genuine E) Generous (C)

Directions: Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that
comes last.
334. A) Window B) Marriage C) Widow D) Distress (A)
335. A) Eventual B) Extra C) Entrance D) Exterminate (B)
GENERAL ENGLISH
Total Q&A= 336 to 637
Directions—(Q.336-340), which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below
should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it
meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
336. We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build
hospital in the area— (C)
(A) that is yet to use
(B) although it has been used
(C) not yet being used
(D) which will be used
(E) No correction required
337.People have respond in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis—
(C)
(A) favourably responded
(B) response in favour of
(C) responded favourably to
(D) been responding favourably
338.Striking this deal will enable the company to expand its operations in Europe—
(A) strike this deal that (E)
(B) to strike off this deal
(C) by striking this deal to
(D) this deal was struck which
339. We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved— (B)
(A) them to take
(B) them for taking
(C) that they have taken over
(D) how their taking of
340. The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to
avoid losing business. (A)
(A) but to change
(B) except the change of
(C) unless it changes with
(D) other than the changing
Directions—(Q. 341–350) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions—
The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through
the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the financial crisis.
Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty
property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers
evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region
shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.
Why should the sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with scepticism? Higher asset prices
mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the
region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with
overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not
changed, it has just moved places.
The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the

global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded
financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies
growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening
economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s
winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the
underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China, where
government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been
especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009
from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick
recovery–which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in
the second quarter–has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real
estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles
could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors–who have been well schooled in the
dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too
far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop.
These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin
taking steps to shut off the money. rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening
credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is
close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that
constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions
will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs
than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another
disheartening plunge.
341. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?
(1) Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus
(2) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies
at high prices
(3) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries
(D)
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2)
342. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not
changed it has just moved places”? (A)
(A) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economics than on the US
economy
(B) Economies has become interlinked on account of globalization
(C) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed
countries
(D) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(E) None of these
343. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive
the economy? (B)
(A) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(B) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(C) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market
stabilising
(D) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(E) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
344. Why do experts predict that Asian policy makers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?
(1) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time
(2) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels
(3) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens
(D)
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
345. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?
(A) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008 (D)
(B) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the U.S.
(C) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(D) The GDP of China was below expectations
(E) None of these
346. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?
(1) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
(2) The government has decided to tighten credit
(3) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures (A)
(A) Only (3)

(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
347. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage? (C)
(A) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed
countries
(B) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(C) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over
sound economic principles
(D) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(E) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic
fundamentals
348. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics? (B)
(A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to
recover
(B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock
markets to crash
(C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(E) None of these
349. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (D)
(1) All Asian economies are recovering at the same pace
(2) Experts are apprehensive about the state of Asian economies despite their recovery
(3) Developed countries should implement the same economies reforms as Asian ones
(A) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
350. According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative
impact on the Asian stock markets?
(1) Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
(2) Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009
(3) Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank (B)
(A) None
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Directions—(Q. 351–353) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST

SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
351. Fuel (B)

(A) Petrol (B) Stimulate (C) Sustain (D) Heat (E) Charge
352. Flooded (C)

(A) Surged (B) Saturated (C) Overflowed (D) Deluge (E) Overcome
353. Evaporated (D)

(A) Dehydrated (B) Melted (C) Vaporised (D) Vanished (E) Dodged
Directions—(Q.354- 355) choose the word or group of words which is MOST

OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
354. Buoyed (A)

(A) Abated (B) Stifled (C) Numbed (D) Dull
355. Sharp (B)
(A) Blunt (B) Gradual (C) Naïve (D) Indistinct
Directions—(Q. 391–400) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark
(E).
356. Arranging such a large amount (A) /of funds now will be a problem why (B) / banks
are usually not open (C) /so early in the morning. (D) No error (E) (C)
357. He had telephoned yesterday to (A) /ask how much of the youth (B) /who attend
our classes would be (C) /interested in working for a textile company. (D) No error (E)
(B)
358. Though he has promoted to (A) / the bank’s board as a director (B) / he continue
to carry out (C) / all his current responsibilities. (D) No error (E) (A)
359. The Board’s decision has provided (A) / employees with the opportunity (B) / to
acquire upto 100 (C) / shares by the company. (D) No error (E)
(D)
360. If the manufacturing sector continues (A) / to grow at the same rate for (B) / the next
few months, I think it (C) / has a high growth rate this year. (D) No error (E)
(D)
361. The government is working (A) / out a new system to compensate (B) / those
companies to sell (C) / products below the market price. (D) No error (E)
(C)
362. The success of the (A) / government sponsor job guarantee programme (B) / has
resulted in a (C) / drastic drop in poverty. (D) No error (E)
(B)
363. We were forced into react (A) / as no organization can (B) / afford to adhere to (C) /
these outdated regulations. (D) No error (E)
(A)
364. We had extensively discussions (A) / with the participants and (B) / obtained their
feedback (C) / regarding our new services. (D) No error (E)
(A)
365. Their failure to inspect (A) / our factories is a (B) / clear indications that our (C) /
license will not be renewed. (D) No error (E)
(C)
366. Though these programmes have proved (A) to be extremely (B) effective (C) they
do have certain drawbacks. (D) All correct (E)
(E)
367. According to these estimates (A) our profitable (B) margin (C) will be higher if we
adopt (D) this approach. All correct (E)
(B)
368. In order to confront (A) the threat (B) of global warming it is imperative (C) that we
work altogether. (D) All correct (E)
(D)
369. Any failure (A) to complicit (B) with these fundamental (C) regulations will result
in a fine. (D) All correct (E) (B)
370. Every organization needs to be proactive (A) in devising (B) stratergies (C) to
ensure the retention (D) in staff. All correct (E) (C)
Directions—(Q. 371–375) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in

the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them—
1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use
cheques.
2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers
including the elderly are met.
4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by
direct debit or credit cards.
5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making
them vulnerable to theft.
6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern
payment methods.
371. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (C)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
372. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (A)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6
373. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (D)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6
374. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(E)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6
375. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (E)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 1
Directions—(Q.376–385) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of
diabetics in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the …(376)… burden is
alarming – $ 2.8 billion annually. Sedentary jobs, …(377)… of electronic entertainment,
changing diet patterns and …(378)… dependence on automobiles have driven the activity
…(379)… of Indians’ lives especially in cities.
The …(380)… is, therefore, to make people physically …(381)… and requires
interventions which impact a large …(382)… of the population. Admittedly physical
activity is a …(383)… of choice and is strongly driven by …(384)… preferences. But
policymaking needs to shift to … (385)… moderate levels of physical activity in the daily
lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walk able communities that give
residents a variety of destinations within walking distance.
376. (A) Economic (B) Finance
(C) Subsidy (D) Physical
(E) Health (B)
377. (A) Broadcast (B) Spread

(C) Prevalent (D) Expand
(E) Widespread (E)
378. (A) Totally (B) Entirely

(C) Grown (D) Mutual
(E) Increasing (E)
379. (A) Most (B) Out

(C) From (D) Through
(E) Outside (B)
380. (A) Ultimatum (B) Hazard

(C) Sensitivity (D) Challenge
(E) Dispute (A)
381. (A) Equip (B) Built

(C) Active (D) Trained
(E) Qualified (C)
382. (A) Section (B) Scale

(C) Degree (D) Percent
(E) Piece (A)
383. (A) Want (B) Matter
(C) Scarcity (D) Right
(E) Lack (B)
384. (A) Showing (B) Given

(C) Special (D) Personal
(E) Individually (D)
385. (A) Pursuit (B) Indulge

(C) Introduce (D) Insist
(E) Attract (C)
Directions—(Q. 386–395) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the
fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He
took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very
much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends.
However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other
men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient
and in fact was the merchant’s confidant.
Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second
wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the
merchant’s first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in
maintaining his wealth and business as well taking care of the household. However, the
merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took
notice of her.
One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon.
He thought of his luxurious life and told himself, “Now I have four wives with me. But
when I die, I’ll be alone. How lonely I’ll be !” Thus, he asked the fourth wife, “I loved
you most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now
that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No way !” replied the
fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp
knife right into the merchant’s heart.
The sad merchant then asked the third wife, “I have loved you so much for all my
life. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No !” replied the
third wife, “Life is so good over here ! I’m going to remarry when you die !” The
merchant’s heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife. “I always turned
to you for help and you’ve always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I
die, will you follow me and keep me company?” “I’m sorry, I can’t help you out this
time!” replied the second wife. “At the very most, I can only send you to your grave.”
The answer came like a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice
called out, “I’ll leave with you. I’ll follow you no matter where you go.” The merchant
looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from
malnutition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said, “I should have taken much better care of
you while I could have !”
Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No
matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, it’ll leave us when we
die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to
others. The second wife is our family and friends. No matter how close they had been to
us when we’re alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is
in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of material wealth and sensual pleasure. It
is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps it’s a good idea to
cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until we’re on our deathbed to lament.
386. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife? (C)
(A) To buy good clothes for her
(B) To give her away to his friends
(C) To show her off to his friends
(D) To share his problems with her
(E) None of these
387. What was the second wife’s quality? (A)

(A) She helped the merchant during tough times
(B) She helped the merchant in his business
(C) She made the merchant feel proud
(D) She contributed to the merchant’s wealth
(E) None of these
388. What does the phrase ‘cut like a sharp knife’ as used in the passage mean? (D)
(A) Injure
(B) Bleed
(C) Dangerous
(D) Hurt
(E) None of these
389. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in
the passage? (B)
(A) Caring
(B) Beautiful
(C) Thin
(D) Loyal
(E) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife
390. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife? (E)
(A) That she would kill him
(B) That she would not accompany him when he died
(C) That she would run away with all his money
(D) That she would not look beautiful anymore
(E) None of these
391. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when
he was dying? (E)
(A) She wanted more money
(B) She did not give any explanation
(C) She wanted to marry someone else after the merchant’s death
(D) She was afraid to go with him
(E) None of these
392. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ? (A)
(A) Because she loved him
(B) Because she was afraid to stay alone
(C) Because she hated the other wives
(D) Because she was undernourished and was going to die anyway
(E) None of these
393. The author has compared the merchant’s fourth wife to our ……… (E)
(A) Soul
(B) Wealth
(C) Friends
(D) Status
(E) None of these
394.What does the author have to say about our soul ? (C)
(A) That it is well taken care of
(B) That it can give us company only till our death
(C) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures
(D) That it belongs to someone else after our death
(E) None of these
395. What does the phrase ‘like a bolt of thunder’ used in the passage mean? (D)
(A) like a very bright light
(B) like a pleasant feeling
(C) like a loud noise
(D) like a shock
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 396–398) choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR IN MEANING
to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
396. Adorned (B)

(A) spent
(B) dressed
(C) tried
(D) carried
(E) necklace
397. Showered (A)

(A) bestowed
(B) cleaned
(C) pleased
(D) bathed
(E) threw
398. Lament (C)

(A) fear
(B) tell
(C) grieve
(D) care
(E) forget
Directions—(Q. 399–400) choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE IN

MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
399. Considerate (E)

(A) ignorant
(B) lazy
(C) angry
(D) thoughtful
(E) insensitive
400. Furthest (B)

(A) longest
(B) closest
(C) greatest
(D) shortest
(E) wildest
Directions—(Q. 401–405) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each
sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is
required’, mark (E) as the answer.
401. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee. (C)
(A) has a steamer
(B) has a steaming
(C) had a steaming
(D) had a steam
402. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained—
(E)
(A) in being harassed
(B) of being harass
(C) in be harassed
(D) of be harass
403. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship.

(A) is good than
(B) is better than (B)
(C) is bestest than
(D) is better then
404. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought.
(A) come out of
(B) came out off (A)
(C) come off
(D) coming out of
405. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival.
(A) basis laws of
(B) basic law of (D)
(C) base law of
(D) basic laws of
Directions—(Q.406–410) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in

bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
406. Opportunities (A) multiply (B) when they are seized (C) and die (D) when they
are not. All correct (E) (E)
407. He realized (A) he was alone (B) in the house and rushed (C) to bolt (D) all the
doors and windows. All correct (E) (E)
408. The information (A) provided (B) to the staff was not adecuate (C) and everyone
retaliated. (D) All correct (E) (C)
409. Worried (A) that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (B) up the whole kinght
(C) and studied. (D) All correct (E) (C)
410. Thomas could not cook (A) very well and thus had to stay (B) food from (C) a
restaurant. (D) All correct (E) (B)
Directions—(Q. 411–415) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
(1) She eased out something from her waist folds.

(2) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day.
(3) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles.
(4) The woman carefully counted the money and then left.
(5) He took the bangles and placed some money in the woman’s palm.
(6) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discolored sari and old anklets.
411. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (B)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
412. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (E)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
413. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (A)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
414. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (B)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
415. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after
rearrangement? (C)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Directions—(Q. 416–460) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
416. Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their
minds (C) / cannot change nothing. (D) No error (E) (D)
417. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about
it. (D) No error (E) (E)
418. He walked as faster (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train
to work. (D) No error (E) (A)
419. She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends with
childhood. (D) No error (E) (D)
420. Gautam did not care (A) / so many about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he
cared for his dog. (D) No error (E) (B)
421. You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change own. (D)
No error (E) (D)
422. Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hardly (C) / to
achieve this. (D) No error (E) (C)
423. Krishna ran to the (A) / nearing grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C)
/ were expecting guests. (D) No error (E) (B)
424. As soon so (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out
again. (D) No error (E) (A)
425. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Rema’s birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) /
a present for her. (D) No error (E) (E)
Directions—(Q. 426–435) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
One of the good things that happened to me …(426)… in Patliputra, …(427)… the
friendship of the farmer’s daughter. This nine year old girl …(428)… became very fond
of me and her parents …(429)… her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was
very good at needlecraft and …(430)… clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night
there and …(431)… the rest of my stay in the farmer’s house, I slept in her doll’s cradle.
That first night, they put the cradle on …(432)… of a shelf far away from the danger of
rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I was …(433)… to talk to the girl and let her
know my needs and she was able to make me …(434)… comfortable. She made me
seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would
…(435)… it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her.
426 (A) waiting (E)

(B) truly
(C) till
(D) still
(E) while
427. (A) for (B)

(B) was
(C) because
(D) is
(E) it
428. (A) soon (A)

(B) had
(C) was
(D) has
(E) forever
429. (A) handled (D)

(B) worried
(C) taught
(D) promised
(E) carried
430. (A) tore (C)

(B) tearing
(C) making
(D) wore
(E) make
431. (A) to (A)

(B) as
(C) for
(D) of
(E) if
432. (A) bottom (A)

(B) top
(C) coating
(D) height
(E) wide
433. (A) possible (D)

(B) happiness
(C) eagerly
(D) able
(E) request
434. (A) every (E)

(B) thorough
(C) total
(D) high
(E) more
435. (A) call (A)

(B) ask
(C) throw
(D) help
(E) hit
I. SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions: Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
436. A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly (A)

B. On the eve of the examination
C. That I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.
437. A. I could not put up in a hotel (A)

B. Because the boarding and lodging charges
C. Were exorbitant
D. No error.
438. A. A lot of travel delay is caused (C)

B. Due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
C. On behalf of the railways.
D. No error.
439. A. The students were B. Awaiting for (B)

C. The arrival of the chief guest. D. No error.
440. A. When the dentist came in (B)

B. My tooth was stopped aching
C. Out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
D. No error.
II. SELECTING WORDS

Directions: Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank
to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
441. I saw a ...... of cows in the field. (B)

A. group B. herd C. swarm D. flock
442. Success in this examination depends ...... hard work alone. (D)
A. at B. over C. for D. on
443. Piyush behaves strangely at times and, therefore, nobody gets ...... with him. ( C )
A. about B. through C. along D. up
444. The ruling party will have to put its own house ...... order. (A)
A. in B. on C. to D. into
445. Man does not live by ...... alone. (B)
A. food B. bread C. meals D. diet
446. The parliament invested the new organisation ...... judicial authority. (B)
A. by B. with C. from D. through
447. Man must ...... to stop pollution. (A)
A. act B. perform C. operate D. behave
448. What is the ...... for an air letter? (C)
A. fare B. value C. postage D. stamp
449. When I was a child, I ......to school everyday instead going by cycle.
(B)
A. had walked B. walked
C. have walked D. have been walking
450. That rule is applicable ...... every one. (A)

A. to B. for C. about D. with
III. ORDERING OF WORDS

Directions: In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been
jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
451. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
The Proper sequence should be: (A)
A. RQPS B. QSPR C. SQPR D. PQRS
452. Since the beginning of history
P: have managed to catch
Q: the Eskimos and Red Indians
R: by a very difficulty method
S: a few specimens of this aquatic animal
The Proper sequence should be: (D)
A. QRPS B. SQPR C. SQRP D. QPSR
453. Then
P: it struck me
Q: of course
R: suitable it was
S: how eminently
The Proper sequence should be: (C)
A. SPQR B. QSRP C. PSRQ D. QPSR
454. In the darkness

P: the long, narrow beard
Q: was clearly visible with
R: the tall stooping figure of the doctor
S: and the aquiline nose
The Proper sequence should be: (A)
A. RQPS B. PSQR C. RSQP D. QPRS
455. It was to be
P: before their school examination
Q: which was due to start
R: the last expedition
S: in a month's
The Proper sequence should be: (C)
A. SRQP B. RQSP C. RPQS D. SPRQ
IV. COMPLETING STATEMENTS

Directions: In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given.
Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
456. Despite his best efforts to conceal his anger ...... (E)
A. we could detect that he was very happy
B. he failed to give us an impression of his agony
C. he succeeded in camouflaging his emotions
D. he could succeed in doing it easily
E. people came to know that he was annoyed
457. His appearance is unsmiling but ...... (A)

A. his heart is full of compassion for others
B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
E. he is full of jealousy towards his colleagues
458. I felt somewhat more relaxed...... (D)

A. but tense as compared to earlier
B. and tense as compared to earlier
C. as there was already no tension at all
D. and tension-free as compared to earlier
E. because the worry had already captured by mind
459. He has no money now ...... (B)

A. although he was very poor once
B. as he has given up all his wealth
C. because he was very rich once
D. because he has received huge donation
E. because he was very greedy about wealth
460. Dinesh is as stupid as he is lazy means ...... (E)

A. Dinesh is stupid because he is lazy
B. Dinesh is lazy because he is stupid
C. Dinesh is either stupid or lazy
D. Dinesh is hardly stupid but he is lazy
E. Dinesh is equally stupid and lazy
V. IDIOMS AND PHRASES

Directions: Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose
the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None
of these' will be the answer.
461. To make clean breast of (C)
A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms
E. None of these
462 To catch a tarter (B)

A. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B. To catch a dangerous person
C. To meet with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
463. To have an axe to grind (A)
A. A private end to serve
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result
D. To work for both sides
E. None of these
464. To cry wolf (B)

A. To listen eagerly
B. To give false alarm
C. To turn pale
D. To keep off starvation
E. None of these
465. To end in smoke (B)

A. To make completely understand
B. To ruin oneself
C. To excite great applause
D. To overcome someone
E. None of these
466. To be above board (B)

A. To have a good height
B. To be honest in any business deal
C. They have no debts
D. To try to be beautiful
E. None of these
467. To pick holes (C)

A. To find some reason to quarrel
B. To destroy something
C. To criticise someone
D. To cut some part of an item
E. None of these
468. To play second fiddle (C)

A. To be happy, cheerful and healthy
B. To reduce importance of one's senior
C. To support the role and view of another person
D. To do back seat driving
E. None of these
469.A black sheep (E)
A. An unlucky person
B. A negro
C. An ugly person
D. A partner who takes no share of the profits
E. None of these
470. A man of straw (A)
A. A man of no substance
B. A very active person
C. A worthy fellow
D. An unreasonable person
E. None of these
VI. VERBAL ANALOGIES

Directions: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each
other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same
relationship.
471. DIVA : OPERA (D)

A. producer : theatre B. director : drama
C. conductor : bus D. thespian:play
472. THRUST:SPEAR
(D)
A. mangle:iron B. scabbard:sword
C. bow:arrow D. fence:epee
473. LIGHT:BLIND (B)

A. speech:dumb B. language:deaf
C. tongue:sound D. voice:vibration
474. HOPE:ASPIRES (C)

A. love:elevates B. film:flam
C. fib:lie D. fake:ordinary
475. SYMPHONY:COMPOSER (B)

A. Leonardo:music B. Fresco:painter
C. colours:pallet D. art:appreciation
VII. SYNONYMS
Directions: In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
476. CORPULENT (D)
A. Lean B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated D. Obese
477. BRIEF (D)

A. Limited B. Small
C. Little D. Short
478. VENT (A)
A. Opening B. Stodge
C. End D. Past tense of go
479. AUGUST (C)

A. Common B. Ridiculous
C. Dignified D. Petty
480. ALERT (D)

A. Energetic B. Observant
C. Intelligent D. Watchful
481.HESITATED (B)
A. Stopped B. Paused
C. Slowed D. Postponed
482. RESCUE (B)

A. Command B. Help
C. Defence D. Safety
483. FORAY (A)

A. Maraud B. Contest
C. Ranger D. Intuition
484. CONSEQUENCES (A)

A. Results B. Conclusions
C. Difficulties D. Applications
485. IMPROVEMENT (B)

A. Advancement B. Betterment
C. Promotion D. Preference
VII. SPELLING
Directions: Find the correctly spelt words.
486. A. Efficient B. Treatmeant (A)
C. Beterment D. Employd
489. A. Ommineous B. Omineous (C)

C. Ominous D. Omenous
490. A. Benefitted B. Benifited (C)

C. Benefited D. Benefeted
491. A. Excessive B. Exccessive (A)

C. Exxcesive D. Excesive
492. A. Humorous B. Ganerous (A)
C. Pupolous D. Maretorious
493. A. Schedulle B. Schedeule (D)

C. Schdule D. Schedule
494. A. Judicious B. Cancious (A)

C. Dilicous D. Gracous
495. A. Gaurantee B. Guarantee (B)

C. Garuntee D. Guaruntee
496. A. Simpal B. Bannar (D)

C. Pattren D. Modern
497. A. Comitte B. Commitee (C)

C. Committee D. Comiittee
VIII. SENTENCE CORRECTION

Directions: Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is,
mark 'E' as the answer.
498. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.

(E)
A. were shocked at all B. had all shocked at
C. had all shocked by D. had been all shocked on
E. No correction required
499. He is too important for tolerating any delay. (A)

A. to tolerate B. to tolerating
C. at tolerating D. with tolerating
500. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today's function. (A)
A. take it for granted B. taking it granted
C. took it as granted D. have it granted
501.They continued to work in the field despite of the heavy rains.

(D)
A. even though there is heavy rain
B. although heavily rains
C. in spite the heavy rains
D. even though it rained heavily
502. My doctor knew that I would eventually recover and do kind of work I would be
doing before (D)
A. would have been doing B. would have done
C. had been done D. had been doing
IX. ANTONYMS
Directions: In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of
the given words.
503. ENORMOUS (C)

A. Soft B. Average
C. Tiny D. Weak
504. ARTIFICIAL (B)

A. Red B. Natural
C. Truthful D. Solid
505. EXPAND (B)

A. Convert B. Condense
C. Congest D. Conclude
506. MORTAL (B)

A. Divine B. Immortal
C. Spiritual D. Eternal
507.FAMILIAR (D)
A. Unpleasant B. Dangerous
C. Friendly D. Strange
II. SYNONYMS
508. COMMEMORATE (B)

a) Boost b) Remember c) Manipulate d) Harmonise
509. BARBARIAN (B)

a) Arrogant b) Impolite c) Uncivilized d) Unkind
510. TYRANNY (D)

a) Misrule b) Power c) Madness d) Cruelty
511. CONNOISSEUR (B)

a) Ignorant b) Interpreter c) delinquent d) Lover of art
512. IMPETUOUS (D)
a) Violent b) Resourceful c) Pleasing d) Rash
513. LETHARGY (B)

a) Laxity b) Impassivity c) Serenity d) Listlessness
514. VERATE (D)

a) Scold b) Judge c) Downgrade d) Deny
515. MORIBUND (C )
a) Stagnant b) Gloomy c) Dying d) Superfluous
516. BEMOAN (A )
a) Lament b) Soothe c) Denounce d) Loathe
517. DEBILIATE (C )
a) Weaken b) Attack c) Surmount d) Destroy
518. DAWDLE (D)

a) Assess b) Evaluate c) Fickle d) Loiter
519. SANGUINE (C)

a) Clever b) Proud c) Hopeful d) Modest
520. LUDICROUS (A)

a) Absurd b) Clear c) Simple d) Dismal
521. NEMESIS (B)

a) Victory b) Adventure c) Reward d) Punishment
522. BOWDLERISE (A)

a) Dictate b) Persuade c) Confuse D) censor
523. BAULK (B)

a) Identify b) Prevent c) Encourage d) Verify
524. DOCILE (D)

a) Stubborn b) Stupid c) Gentle d) Vague
525. CAVIL (C)

a) Appreciate b) Amuse c) Quibble d) Munch
526. EQUIVOCAL (C)

a) Quarrelsome b) Feasible c) Ambiguous d) Reasonable
527. TRADUCE (D )
a) Harden b) Force c) Build d) Betray
528. RANCOUR (D)

a) Prejudice b) Enmity c) Disappointment d) Hatred
529. BURLESQUE (C)

a) Insult b) Irritate c) Mock d) Annoy
530. FILTHY (C)

a) Healthy b) Ugly c) Dirty d) Angry
531. DILETTANTE (C)

a) Opponent b) Specialist c) Amateur d) Expert
532. HOODLUM (B)

a) Pioneer b) Criminal c) Devotee d) Scholar
533. SPASMODIC (C)

a) Continuous b) Gradual c) Intermittent d) Spontaneous
III. ANTONYMS
534. ACCORD (C)
a) Solution b) Act c) Dissent d) Concord
535. UNIVERSAL (C)

a) Narrow b) Regional c) Miniature d) Subsidiary
536. BLISS (B)

a) Anguish b) Sorrow C) Agony d) Suffering
537. PROFANE (A)

a) Dangerous b) Safe c) Cautious d) Easy
538. DEEP (C )
a) Elementary b) Superficial c) Shallow d) Perfunctory
539. OBSTINATE (C)

a) Inflexible b) Prominent c) Pliable d) Fashionable
540. AMELIORATE (D)

a) Lessen b) Hasten c) Expedite d) Worsen
541. IMPERVIOUS (A)

a) Penetrable b) Hidden c) Tolerable d) Gentle
542. OPAQUE (D)
a) Misty b) Covered c) Clear d) Transparent
543. MAWKISH (B)

a) Sentimental b) Intelligent c) Certain d) Carefree
544. DECEIT (C)

a) Reality b) Trust c) Truthfulness d) Fact
545. ORRENCE (D)

a) Aversion b) Liking c) Appreciation d) Fear
546. DEARTH ( D)
a) Extravagance b) Scarcity c) Abundance d) Sufficiency
547. ARID (C)

a) Plentiful b) Productive c) Humid d) Agreeable
548. GLIB (B)

a) Unwilling b) Hesitant c) Dumb d) Modest
549. CAPRICIOUS (C)

a) Satisfied b) Scattered c) Steadfast d) Insured
550. BANISH (C)

a) Abundant b) Harbor c) Intrude d) Drop
551. FOSTER (C)

a) Repress b) Curb c) Check d) Control
552. She looked gorgeous in her new dress (A)

a) Ugly b) Beautiful c) Ordinary d) Shabby
553. Politicians today are robbing the Nation. (D)

a) Strengthening b) Protecting c) Helping d) Enriching
554. It is a Herculean task for me. (B)

a) Indecent b) Puny c) Ponderous d) Big
555. For the first time I saw him speaking so rudely to Ranjith (B)
a) Softly b) Gently c) Politely d) Slowly
556. He looked elated on hearing the News. (B)

a) Exasperated b) Depressed c) Desperate d) Access
557. He is a man of mellow temper. (B)
a) Excitable b) Hot c) Irrational d) fickle
558. He was in dejected mood. (C)

a) Irritable b) Romantic c) Jubilant d) Rejected
559. Rajesh’s rustic behavior astonished the teacher. (C)

a) Impolite b) Genuine c) Sophisticated d) Awkward
560. Sreeshant is a shrewd person. (C)

a) Boisterous b) Aggressive c) Foolish d) Intelligent
IV. SENTENCE CORRECTION/ COMPLETION

Type I: Selecting the appropriate word from five alternatives provided.
561. These essays are intellectually---and represent various levels of complexity. (C)
a) Revealing b) modern c) superior d) demanding e) persistent
562. The soldiers were instructed to---restraint and humble the situation peacefully. (A)
a) Exercise b) Control c) Prevent d) Enforce e) Remain
563. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with Making a---selection.
(E)
a) Normal b) Standard c) Sample d) Moderate e) Judicious
564. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit---from the chosen path. (B)
a) Diversion b) Deviation c) Obstruction d) Alienation e) Distraction
565. What frustrates the opposition’s effort of unity is the absence of a ---long term. (A)
a) Credible b) Contestable c) Creditable d) Compatible e) Conceivable
566. Some people ---themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the
organization they work for. (E)
a) Keep b) fool c) Force d) Denigrate e) Delude
567. How do you expect that country to progress when government is corrupt, ---and still
largely feudal? (C)
a) Devalued b) Dwindling c) Despotic d) Demeaning e) Demolished
568. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very ----. (E)
a) Strong b) Large c) Broad d) Vast e) Deep
569. The improvement made by changes in the system was ---and did not warrant the
large expenses. (D)
a) Large b) small c) minute d) marginal e) uncertain
570. He is too --- to be deceived easily. (E)
a) Strong b) Modern c) Kind d) Honest e) Intelligent
571. There has been a lack ---of efficiency in all the crucial areas of the working of
Public Sector Undertakings. (C)
a) Positive` b) Surprising c) Conspicuous d) Stimulative e) Insignificant
572. Unlike most rulers in that ---age, Akbar believed in religious tolerance. (B)
a) Ancient b) Historical c) Feudal d) Bigoted e) Aristocratic
573. The vacancy --- by the dismissal of the superintendent is expected to be filled up by
the promotion of a U.D.C. (C)
a) Made b) Created c) caused d) Generated e) Procured
574.When Mr. Kant heard the news of his son’s selection to the college team, he
felt--- (B)
a) Enamored b) Elated c) Exasperated d) Embittered e) Steadfastly
575. After consulting a--- of doctors he eventually thought of consulting a Specialist. (B)
a) Chain b) String c) Mass d) Series e) Majority
576. The---with which he is able to wield the paintbrush is really remarkable. (A)
a) Ease b) sweep c) skill d) Majesty e) Practice
577. Experts fail to understand the --- behind the decision to move coal by road when
there is enough rail capacity in this sector. (C)
a) Ideology b) judgment c) Rationale d) Politics e) Logistics
578. The skill and ease with which he repaired the machine proved that he is a/an---
mechanic. (E)
a) Able b) Handy c) Nimble d) Maladroit e) Competent
579. They have decided to meet the Prime Minister in order to have their ---- (C)
a) Agony b) Apathy c) Woes d) Sorrows e) Sufferings
580. after a recent mild paralytic attack, his movements are --- restricted; otherwise he is
still very active. (D)
a) Entirely b) Nowhere c) Not d) slightly e) Frequently
581. Freedom and equality are the --- rights of every human being. (A)
a) Inalienable b) Inscrutable c) Incalculable d) Institutional e) Insufferable
582. The New Industrial Policy is a result of the confidence the government has in the ---
of the Indian industry. (D)
a) Opinion b) existence c) status d) maturity e) profitability
583. He bought new shoes last month but they area already --- out. (D)
a) Given b) Gone c) Knocked d) Worn
584. Success gives only --- pleasure. (D)

a) Mordant b) momentary c) monotonous d) momentous
585. You cannot devise a method which --- all possibility of error. (C)
a) Ignores b) Avoids c) Excludes d) Includes
586. A man who is well bred and honorable invariably show --- for the feelings of other
people. (C)
a) Complacence b) Concern c) Consideration d) Contempt
587. We had a ---- of warm weather in February. (C)

a) Phase b) Length c) Spell d) Time
IV. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar, meaning and
usage, suitable for a formal writing in English.
588. a) Our school had won the match if only we have concentrated. (B)
b) Our school would have won the match if only we would have concentrated.
c) Our school would win the match only if we had concentrated.
d) Our school had won the match if only we would have concentrated.
e) Our school would have won the match if only we had concentrated.
589. a) The boy regretted that he had spend a greater part of his vacation in the chair
with plastered leg.
b) With a plastered leg, the boy regretted that he had spent a greater part of his
vacation in the chair.
c) The boy regretted that with a plastered leg he had spent a greater part of his
vacation in the chair.
d) The boy with a plastered leg regretted that he had spent a greater part of his
vacation in the chair. (B)
590. a) it is a pleasure to see an alligator basking in the sunshine on a riverbank as long

as 90 feet.
b) It is a pleasure to see an alligator as long as 90 feet basking in the sunshine on a
riverbank.
c) It is a pleasure to see an alligator basking in the sunshine as long as 90 feet on a
riverbank.
d) It is a pleasure to see an alligator basking as long as 90 feet in the sunshine on a
riverbank. (B)
591. a) There will be a meeting in the long room at 4 o’clock of all the boys who play
Cricket and Football.
b) There will be a meeting of all the boys who play cricket and football in the
long room at 4 o’clock.
c) There will be in the long room at 4 o’clock a meeting of all the boys who play
cricket and football.
d) In the long room at 4 o’clock there will be a meeting of all boys who play
cricket and football. (B)
592. a) Since the dividend being declared than the notices were prepared for mailing.
b) Scarcely had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent out.
c) They had no sooner declared the dividend when they sent the notices were
prepared for mailing.
d) No sooner had the dividend been declared than the notices were prepared for
mailing.
e) The company had hardly declared the dividend till the notices were prepared
for mailing. (B)
593. a) Since he lacked needed money, he never turned down anyone who needed
help.
b) He wasn’t rich by any means, although he never turned down anyone who
needed help.
c) Being not rich by any means, he never turned away anyone who needed help.
d) He was not rich by any means, but he never turned away anyone who needed
help.
e) Since he wasn’t rich by any means, he never turned away anyone who needed
help. (B)
594. a) The harassed wife shot herself after bidding her husband the last good bye
with a gun.
b) The harassed wife with a gun shoot herself after bidding her husband the last
goodbye.
c) The harassed wife with shot herself with a gun after bidding her husband the
last goodbye.
d) With a gun the harassed wire shot herself, after bidding her husband
the last goodbye. (B)
595. a) He is wiser than brave (C)

b) February has less days than January.
c) He takes no less than 2 Kilos of milk.
d) It is the most unique piece.
596. a) I was asked to stop writing. (A)

b) She denied to go with me.
c) My hairs stood on end.
d) I am reading this novel for four days.
597. a) These three boys hate each other. (B)

b) Sanjeev lent Rs. 2,000 to Vineet.
c) I, you and he belong to the same village.
d) Anyone of the two students can solve this sum.
Directions: In each of the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P,
Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the
four alternatives, which would be the most logical sequence of the sentences in the
passage.
598. S1. The similarity between the human body and a machine is rather superficial.
S6. The points of difference far outweigh the points of resemblance.
P: Beyond that, comparison fails.
Q: No machine grows in size; no machine sees, hears or feels.
R: It can be summed up in the statement that both require fuel and oxygen and
obtain energy.
S: No machine thinks. (B)
a) QSPR b) RPQS c) RPSQ d) SQPR
599. S1. Today the earth has many satellites besides the moon.
P: But the pull of the earth keeps them from doing so.
Q: The artificial satellites do not fall because they are going too fast to do so.
R: They are artificial satellites made by man and are very much smaller than man.
S: As they speed along, they tend to go straight of into space.
S6. As a result they travel in an orbit round the earth.
(C )
a) PRQS b) QPSR c) RQSP d) SPRQ
600. S1. Ms. Subramanyam started a petrol pump in Madras.
P: A total of 12 girls now work at the pump
Q: She advertised in newspapers for women staff
R: They operate in two shifts
S: The response was good
S6. Thus she has shown the way for many others
( C )
a) PQRS b) QSPR c) RPSQ d) SQPR
601. S1. In 1857 fighting broke out all over the country.
P: Everywhere the people rose rebellion.
Q: In March 1858 British troops attacked Jhansi.
R: Thousands of people were killed on both sides
S: The British fought back.
S6. The Rani’s troops fought back bravely.
( A )
a) PSRQ b) QSPR c) RPSQ d) SQPR
602. S1. Mthe earliest reference to the playing card has been found in China, as long
ago as the 10th Centenary.
P: They appeared in Italy in 1320
Q: Long before the Chinese used paper money, which was similar in design to
the playing cards.
R: It is believed that perhaps traveling Gypsies introduced them to Europe
S: In olden days cards were used both for playing game and telling fortune.
S6. The current pack of 52 cards was regulated in the 17th Centenary.
( A )
a) QRSP b) QSPR c) RPSQ d) SQPR
IDIOMS & PHRASES
Directions: In each of the following questions and idiomatic expression/ a
proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best
express the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
603. A fair crack of the whip ( C )

a) Severe punishment b) A good check
c) A period of importance d) Failure of administration
604. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow (B)

a) To act in a foolish way b) To quarrel over trifles
c) Waste time on petty things d) To do something funny
605. A close shave (D)

a) A lucky escape b) A clean shave
c) A well guarded secret d) A narrow escape
606. To give up the ghost (C)

a) To suffer b) To fight evil forces
c) To die d) To become rational
607. To blaze trail (D)

a) To set on fire b) To be annoyed
c) To vehemently oppose d) To initiate work in a movement
608. To flog a dead horse (B)

a) To act in a foolish way b) To waste one’s effort
c) To revive interest in old subject d) To revive old memories
609. To draw a bead upon (D)

a) To make prayers b) To cause hindrance in work
c) To count the benefits d) To take aim at.
610. To play fast and loose (D)
a) To beguile others
b) b) To be winning sometimes and loosing other times
c) To play with someone’s feeling
d) To play tricks
611. To put the cart before the horse (D)

a) To offer a person what he cannot eat b) To force a person to do something
c) To raise the obstacles d) to reverse the natural order of
things
612. French leaves (D)
a) Long absence b) Leave on pretext of illness
c) Casual Leave d) Absence without permission
Directions: In each of the following questions a sentence has been given in

active/passive out of the four alternatives suggested select the one, which best express the
same sentence in passive or active voice.
613.Do you imitate others ? (C)

a) Are your imitated by others?
b) Are others being imitated by you?
c) Were others being imitated by you?
d) Have others been imitated by you ?
614. I saw him conducting the rehearsal (D)

a) He was seen conducting the rehearsal
b) I saw the rehearsal to be conducted by him
c) He was seen by me to conducted the rehearsal
d) I saw the rehearsal being conducted by him
615.His pocket has been picked (D)

a) They have his pocket picked
b) Picking has been done to his pocket
c) Picked has been his pocket
d) Some has picked his pocket
616. Some one gave her a bull dog (B)
a) She was given a bull dog
b) A bulldog was given to her.
c) She has been given a bull dog
d) She is being given a bull dog by someone
617.You must look into this matter (C)

a) This matter has been looked into by you
b) This matter may be looked into by you
c) This matter should be looked into by you
d) This matter into looked by you
618.Rain disrupted the last days play between India and Srilanka (C)
a) The last day’s play of India and Srilanka was disrupted by rain
b) India and Srilanka’s play of the last day was disrupted by rain
c) The last day’s play between India and Srilanka was disrupted by rain
d) The last day’s play between India and Srilanka were disrupted by rain
Directions: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct or
Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express
the sentence in Indirect or Direct speech.
619. “Please don’t go away” , she said. (D)

a) She said to please her and not go away
b) She told me not to go away
c) She begged that I not go away
d) She begged me not to go away
620. He said to them, “ do not make a noise”. (D)

a) He told them that do not make a noise
b) He told them not to make noise
c) He told them not to make a noise
d) He asked them not to make a noise
621. Sarita said to me, “ I will do it now or never”. ( D)

a) Sarita told me I would do it then or never.
b) She told that she will do it now or never.
c) Sarita told me that she will do that now or never.
d) Sarita told me that she will do it then or never.
622. He said “The Mice will play, when the cat is away.” (A)
a) He said that the mice will play when the cat is away.
b) He said that the mice would play when the cat is away.
c) He said that the mice would play when the cat would be away.
d) He said that the mice shall play, when the cat is away.
Directions: In each question below, there are two sentences. These two sentences are to
be combined into one sentence, which should convey the same meaning as conveyed by
the two sentences. It is possible to combine the pair of sentences in various different
ways. Beginning of three such sentences is given below each pair of sentences. You have
to find out which one, two, three or none of them is the correct, appropriate and logical
way to combine the pair of sentences into one sentence of conveys the same meaning as
conveyed by the two sentences.
623. The boy got his leg badly injured. He was playing hockey. ( D)
A) While the boy was….
B) While playing…
C) Since his leg was…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A & B Only
624. You run fast. You can win the race. (E)
A) Provided….
B) Incase…
C) Supposing that…
a) Only A b) Only B c) A& B d) B& C e) A, B & C
625. He finished his exercise. He put away his books. (D)

A) Having finished…
B) As he finished…
C) Finishing…
a) Only A b) A& B c) Only B d) A & C e) Only C
626.He has some weakness. He is the darling of everyone. (C)

A) Though…
B) Inspite of…
C) Besides…
a) Only A b) Only B c) A& B d) B &C e) A& C
627. The chief guest arrived. The proceeding of the function began. (B)
A) Having….
B) Only when…
C) The arrival…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A & B e) B &C
628. He can walk fast. He is tall (B)

A) He is tall because…
B) Because he is tall…
C) Since he can…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A & B e) None
629. Thief entered the room. He found it empty. (A)

A) Entering…
B) Although the thief…
C) As soon as…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) B & C e) A &C
630. The shopkeepers close the shops. They feared arson and looting. (A)
A) With apprehension of arson…
B) Apprehending the closer of the…
C) Fearing the arson and looting by the shopkeepers…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A, B & C e) None
631. The watch waved his cane. In the nick of time the barking dog ran away. (E)
A) As soon as the barking…
B) Hardly was the watchman…
C) No sooner does the watchman…
a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A, B & C e) None
632. He could afford to lose something. He lost somewhat more. (A)

A) He lost…
B) What he could…
C) Despite…
a) Only A b) A& B c) Only B d) A & C e) Only C
Directions: in each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different
ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
633. a) Forefiet b)Forefeit c) Forfeit d) Forfiet (C)
634. a) Mustach b) Moustach c) Mustache d) Moustache (D)
635. a) Scriptur b) Skripture c) Scripture d) Scripcher (C)

636. a) Distilry b) Distillry c) Distillery d) Distilery (C)
637. a) Greivance b) Grievance c) Griveance d) Grieveance (B)

GENERAL AWARENESS
Total Q&As: 638 to 797
638. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking? (D)
(A) Metabolism
(B) Genetic process
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Return on Investment
(E) Experimental Error
639. The National Social Security Fund (NSSF) launched with a corpus of ~ 1000 crore
will help which of the following groups of society? (C)
(A) Bank Employees
(B) Central & State Government Employees
(C) Workers of the unorganized sectors
(D) War widows
(E) Women employees engaged in textile industry
640. Which of the following tools is used frequently by the RBI to control credit and
monetary situations of the markets in the country? (A)
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(C) Balance of Trade
(D) Forward Rate Agreements
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
641. What is the full form of the term 'PDS' which is a channel of distribution of food
grains and other essentials to poor people on subsidized rates? (A)
(A) Public Distribution System
(B) Potential Development System
(C) Profitable Distribution Source
(D) Public Development Syndication
(E) Public Distribution Stores
642. Which of the following is one of the core functions of the Reserve Bank of India?
(B)
(A) To act as Tax collector of the Govt. of India
(B) Work as Banker to the Banks
(C) Help in finalization of the Union Budget
(D) Participate in annual meetings of the various financial institutes world wide
(E) None of these
643. Sri B. C. Khanduri has become the Chief Minister of which of the following States
for the second term? (D)
(A) Orissa
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) Chhattisgarh
644. Women of which of the following countries got voting rights in General Elections
for the first time? (E)
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Saudi Arabia
645. Northern Rashidpur Field, where a huge stock of gas is found, is a place in- (C)
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) India
646. Who among the following is the first recipient of the Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award
presented in September 2011? (B)
(A) Asha Bhosle
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Sonu Nigam
(D) Kailash Kher
(E) Anu Malik
647. Ms. Helle Thorning Schmidt has become the first woman Prime Minister of- (C)
(A) New Zealand
(B) Malaysia
(C) Denmark
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
648. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for 'Global

Warming'? (A)
(A) Greenhouse Effect
(B) Fire in coal mines
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Monsoon
(E) Trade winds
649. Who is J. Hari Narayan? (A)
(A) Chairman IRDA
(B) Chairman SEBI
(C) Chairman, Coal India
(D) Member, Planning Commission
(E) None of these
650. Eminent Author, Chandrashekhar Kambar has been chosen for Jnanpith Award for
the year 2010. In which one of the following languages does he write? (C)
(A) Urdu
(B) Tamil
(C) Kannada
(D) Hindi
(E) Punjabi
651. Which one of the following honorary ranks has been conferred on MS Dhoni by the
President Mrs. Pratibha Patil?
(C)
(A) Major
(B) Colonel
(C) Lt. Colonel
(D) Lt. General
(E) None of these
652. Salman Khurshid is Minister in charge of which of the following Ministries in

Union Cabinet? (D)
(A) Coal
(B) Environment
(C) Corporate Affairs
(D) Law
(E) None of these
653. Expand the term 'MAT'- (E )

(A) Minimum Add-on Tax
(B) Maximum Add-on Tax
(C) Minimum Alternate Tax
(D) Maximum Alternate Tax
(E) None of these
654. Gagan Narang is associated with which one of the following sports? (A)
(A) Shooting
(B) Boxing
(C) Swimming
(D) Golf
(E) Badminton
659. Standard and Poor's had reduced the Credit rating of which one of the following
countries a few months back? (E)
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Greece
(D) Italy
(E) USA
660. Which is a popular name in the field of Banking? (A)

(A) Dr. K. C. Chakraborty
(B) Shri Sachin Pilot
(C) Ms. Uma Bharati
(D) Shri Kamal Nath
(E) None of these
661. With which one of the following fields is Somdev Oevvarman associated? (E)
(A) Literature
(B) Cinema
(C) Medical
(D) Politics
(E) Sports
662. For which one of the following reasons Mohindar Amarnath had been in news
recently? (B)
(A) He had been included in selection panel of BCCI
(B) He had been included in IPL Governing Board
(C) He had been selected as coach for Indian Test Cricket Team
(D) He had been appointed to the post of Advisor to the Prime Minister on India's Youth
Policy
(E) None of these
663. With the assistance of which one of the following countries Kudankulum Atomic
Power Project is being set up? (D)
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) UK
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
664. Children's day is observed on which of the following days? (B)

(A) July 15
(B) November 14
(C) April 5
(D) September 14
(E) August 25
665. Atomic Power Station is located in which of the following places in India? (E)
(A) Allahabad
(B) Pune
(C) Shimla
(D) Chennai
(E) Kalpakkam
666. Govt. of India has made a special agreement with USA to develop which of the
following modes of power generation in India? (D)
(A) Hydro Power
(B) Thermal Power
(C) Wind Power
(D) Nuclear Power
(E) Tidal Power
667. Who amongst the following is the author of the book' A Bend in the River'? (E)
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mulkraj Anand
(C) Nirmal Verma
(D) Anita Das
(E) V. S. Naipaul
668. Which of the following is not a programme to develop infrastructure in India?

(D)
(A) National Highway Development Programme'
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) Accelerated Power Development and Reform Programme
669. Who is the Prime Minister of Bangladesh at present? (B)

(A) Hamid Karzai
(B) Sheikh Haseena Wajed
(C) Abdul Hamid
(D) Zillur Rahman
(E) None of these
670. Saina Nehwal who was in news recently is associated with the game of- (E)
(A) Basket Ball
(B) Tennis
(C) Cricket
(D) Chess
(E) Badminton
671.Hillary Clinton who was on a visit to India few months back is the US Secretary of-
(A)
(A) State
(B) Defence
(C) Foreign Trade
(D) Political Affairs
(E) None of these
672. Who amongst the following is not a member of SAARC? (E)

(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) Brazil
673. Who is Dr. M. S. Ahluwalia? (C)

(A) Executive Director RBI
(B) RBI Dy. Governor
(C) Deputy Chairman Planning Commission
D) India's permanent representative in UN
(E) None of these
674. Who among the following is a famous politician? (B)

(A) Prabhu Chawla
(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Chetan Bhagat
(D) Barkha Dutt
(E) Deepika Padukone
675. All banks in India get major policy decisions/ directives/guidelines related to their
day 'to day operations from (C)
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(D) All India Bank Employees Union
(E) Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India
676. Who among the following is a famous personality associated with the world of
Banking? (E)
(A) Dr Amartya Sen
(B) Sri Rajiv Shukla
(C) Sri Javed Akhtar
(D) Sri Kamal.Nath
(E) Dr Subir Gokarn
677. Nobel Prizes are given in which of the following fields? (D)
(A) Sports'
(B) Social Service
(C) Anthropology
(D) Physics
(E) All of the above
678. Which of the following is not a State or Union Territory of India? (D)
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Punjab
(C) Manipur
(D) Alwar
(E) Jharkhand
679. Who makes the formal announcement of General Elections in a state in India? (E)
(A) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) Ministry of Law
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) Census Commission' of India
(E) Election Commission of India
680. Which of the following is a major wheat producing state in India? (B)
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Paschim Banga
(E) Arunachal Pradesh
681. Who among the following is a famous badminton player? (B)

(A) Jeev Milkha Singh
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Sania Mirza
(E) Yusuf Pathan
682. Famous 'Rock Garden' is located in which one of the following cities in India? (D)
(A) Ambala
(B) Jaipur
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Chandigarh
(E) Shimla
683. Who among the following is the President of epal at present? (A)
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Jhala Nath Khanal
(C) Baburam Bhattarai
(D) Surya Bahadur Thapa
(E) None of the above
684. Who among the following presents the General Budget in the Parliament? (E)
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Vice President of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Minister of India
(E) Finance Secretary
685. A nuclear power plant is situated in which of the following places? (C)
(A) Lucknow
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Kota
(D) Shimla
(E) Srinagar
686.Which scheme launched by the Government of India allows lakhs of poor people to
open a bank account? (A)
(A) Swabhiman
(B) Swavlamban
(C) Saral
(D) Sahaj
(E) Bharat Nirman
687. The Union Cabinet on 12 April 2012 approved the extension of funding support for
implementing which of the following schemes under the New Pension System (NPS)
from three years to five years for all subscribers? (D)
(A) Trade related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD) Scheme
(B) Gold Credit Pass Book Scheme
(C) Swayamsidha (IWEP)
(D) Swavalamban Scheme
688. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 12 April 2012 also approved
an ad-valorem regime for calculating royalty for which of the following? (B)
(A) Coal & Iron ore
(B) Coal & Lignite
(C) Lignite & Copper
(D) Lignite & Zinc
689. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 3 April 2012 released 'Quarterly Statistics on
Deposits and Credit of Scheduled Commercial Banks, September 2011. Which of the
following facts are not true with respect to the mentioned statement?
1. The data included in the release were based on Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-10
received from all scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs)
2. The number of banked centres of Scheduled Commercial banks stood at 35,435.
27,913 of these centres were single office centres and 68 centres had 100 or more
bank offices
3. State Bank of India and its Associates accounted for 21.8 per cent of the
aggregate deposits
4. The credit-deposit (C-D) ratio of All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) at all
India level as on 30 September 2011 stood at 74.4 per cent
(A)
(A) Only 1
(B) 2 & 3
(C) Only 4
(D) 3 & 4
690. Reserve Bank of India on 3 April 2012 tightened the reporting requirements of the
banks to monitor gold import. Consider the statements given below and which of the
following is true?
1. As per the directions issued, banks will have to submit a monthly statement
informing the central bank about the quantity of gold imported as well as the
mode of payment adopted
2. The directive was issued amidst concerns of huge outflow of foreign exchange on
import of gold which is believed to be putting pressure on the India's current
account deficit (CAD).
(C)
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) None of the above
691.Which body on 31 March 2012 issued broad guidelines on Algorithmic Trading.

Based on recommendations of technical advisory committee (TAC) and secondary
market advisory committee (SMAC)? (D)
(A) IRDA
(B) RBI
(C) ASSOCHAM
(D) SEBI
692. Name the Nobel Peace Prize winner who was named the winner of one of the
world's leading religion prizes, Templeton Prize for 2012 by the John Templeton
Foundation on 29 March 2012. (A)
(A) The Dalai Lama
(B) Tawakkol Karman
(C) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
(D) Baba Ram Dev
693. US Senate on 30 March 2012 confirmed career diplomat as ambassador to India.

Identify the person in question. (D)
(A) William Clark, Jr.
(B) Albert Peter Burleigh
(C) Robert Blackwill
(D) Nancy Powell
694. Amadou Toumani Toure, who was ousted from his position following a military
coup, was the president of ________ . (C)
(A) Tunisia
(B) Azerbaijan
(C) Mali
(D) Maldives
695. Which of the following nationalized bank on 1 April 2012 appointed D Sarkar as
chairman and Managing Director (C)
(A) Indian Bank
(B) Allahabad Bank
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) Canara Bank
696. Volkswagen launched the new IPL edition of Vento and Polo. Volkswagen is a
carmaker headquartered in ________. (D)
(A) South Korea
(B) Italy
(C) Japan
(D) Germany
697. NKP Salve who passed away on 1 April 2012 was the president of BCCI, when the
Indian cricket team won the cricket world cup in _________ . (D)
(A) 1987
(B) 1996
(C) 2011
(D) 1983
698. Geeta Poghat, who on 1 April 2012 qualified for London Olympics 2012 belongs to
which of the following sports? (C)
(A) Wrestling
(B) Boxing
(C) Gymnastic
(D) Weight-Lifting
699. Union Power Ministry did not approve of the gas price pooling mechanism within
the power sector as proposed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. With
reference to the statement which of the following facts are not true?
1. The Power Ministry deemed the pooling price mechanism with 7 mmscmd of
additional RLNG to be non-workable
2. As per the Power Ministry the pool proposed to be formed could only envisage
20-25 per cent of RLNG with 75-80 per cent of domestic gas
3. Petroleum Ministry specifically stated that no new power plants will be
considered for gas allocation till 2019-20
4. Until 2013-14, only around 7 mmscmd of RLNG is expected to be imported due
to infrastructure constraints
(C)
(A) Only 1
(B) 2 & 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
700. The empowered group of ministers (EGoM) on 28 March 2012 fixed the issue price
for the National Buildings Construction Corporation's public offer at what amount per
share? (B)
(A) Rs 100 per share
(B) Rs 106 per share
(C) Rs 110 per share
(D) Rs 115 per share
701. Following RBI's decision to hike bank rate, the Food Ministry increased the interest
rate on loans provided to sugar factories from the Sugar Development Fund (SDF) to
what per cent from the earlier 4% from 14 February 2012? (B)
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.8%
702. Finance ministry concerned over the steep rise in bad loans, set up a committee to
suggest sector-specific mechanisms to address rising issue. With respect to the statement
which of the following statement is not true?
1. The ministry decided to set up the committee after rating agency Moody’s
downgraded the Union Bank of India one notch on 19 March 2012 due to its high
level of troubled assets and low provisions for coverage
2. The committee will have representation from the finance ministry, the Reserve
Bank of India and some banks.
3. Finance Minister in Budget 2012-13 allowed $1-billion external commercial
borrowing (ECB) for the airline industry for one year, and allowed foreign debt to
part-finance rupee debt taken by power companies and also for affordable
housing.
4. Rise in bad loans affected farm sector lending as well. In November 2010, the
share of farm loans was 13.10%, and dropped to 9.18% in November 2011
(C)
(A) 1 & 3
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 4
(D) Only 1
703. Union Railway Minister Mukul Roy rolled back the railway fare hike as proposed
by Dinesh Trivedi in the first Union Rail Budget 2012-13 presented on 14 March 2012.
Which of the following statement is not true with respect to the roll back?
1. Roy withdrew the hike for second class suburban and non-suburban, and sleeper
class travel fare by 2 paise, 3 paise and 5 paise per km
2. All railway reform measures suggested by Trivedi such as setting up of an
independent tariff regulator, restructuring of Railway Board on professional lines,
and creation of posts of Member PPP and Member Safety was also ignored
3. Roy's budget paved the way for the cash-strapped railways to earn a mere Rs 450
crore from increased passenger fares instead of Rs 1000 crore that Trivedi
budgeted for
4. Following the rollback proposed by Roy the railways can now generate only Rs
1000 crore more.
(B)
(A) 2 & 4
(B) Only 3
(C) 1 & 4
(D) Only 4
704. Union government raised interest rates on post office-operated small savings like
Monthly Income Scheme (MIS) and Public Provident Fund (PPF) by what per cent in
March 2012? (A)
(A) 0.5%
(B) 1.1%
(C) 0.75%
(D) 1.75%
705. Marathi poet and Sahitya Akademi award winner, Manik Godghate passed away in
Pune on 26 March 2012 after battling liver cancer for a year. For which of his work did
he receive the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2012? (A)
(A) Waryane Halte Raan
(B) Sandhyakalchya Kavita
(C) Chandramadhavichya Pradeshat
(D) Sandhyaparvatil Vaishnavi
706. Name the Tamil author who was announced the winner of the Saraswati Samman
2011 by K K Birla Foundation announced on 22 March 2012 for his book Irama
Kathaiyum Iramayakalum. (D)
(A) Dhanushkodi Ramasamy
(B) Jeyamohan
(C) Sundara Ramasami
(D) A A Manavalan
707. Which legendary versatile Bengali actor was on 21 March 2012 selected for India's
highest film honour - the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2012? (B)
(A) Prasanjeet Chatterjee
(B) Soumitra Chatterjee
(C) Ranjit Mallick
(D) Suvendu Chakroborty
708. Report of the probe by the income-tax department into the allegations that relatives
of former chief justice had amassed huge wealth during his tenure was submitted on 12
March 2012 to the Supreme Court. Identify the CJI in question. (A)
(A) KG Balakrishnan
(B) R.C. Lahoti
(C) G.B Pattanaik
(D) B.N. Kripal
709. Union Rural Development Minister Jairam Ramesh during his tour of Maharashtra's
Satara district announced on 11 March 2012 a national award for sanitation and water in
the name of which of the following Maharashtrian saints? (B)
(A) Bhaktha Pundarikar
(B) Sant Gadge Baba
(C) Sant Yoga Paramanandar
(D) Bhaktha Goma Bai
708.. The Chief Election Commissioner of India, on 17 march 2012 lead a delegation to
Amman in response to an invitation by the Prime Minister of Jordan, to explore
modalities of supporting Jordan’s electoral process against the backdrop of political
reforms. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (C)
(A) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(B) S M Krishna
(C) Dr. S. Y. Quraishi
(D) Dr. Manmohan Singh
709. Defence Minister AK Antony inaugurated the 36th DRDO Directors’ Conference on
19 March 2012. What was the theme of the conference? (A)
(A) Self-Reliance Strategy in Globalised World
(B) World Disarmament Strategy
(C) Emerging War Scenarios and Strategies
(D) Information Warfare / Electronic Warfare
710. Who built the Grand Trunk Road? (B)

(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Sher Shah Sun
(C) Shahajahan
(D) Lord Dalhousie
711. The President of India is elected by— (D)

(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) The people directly
(D) An electoral college consisting of the elected members of LokSabha, the RajyaSabha
and the State Legislative Assemblies
712. Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the— (D)
(A) 42nd amendment
(B) 40th amendment
(C) 39th amendment
(D) 36th amendment
713. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been
provided in the— (A)
(A) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(B) Preamble and Directive Principles
(C) Fundamental Rights and directive Principles
(D) None of these
714. In 1916, the Home Rule Movement was launched in India under the leadership of—
(C)
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) Mrs. Annie Besant
(D) None of these
715. Copper deposits in India are found in— (A)

(A) Singhbhum
(B) Kolan
(C) Salum
(D) Karanpura
716. Which of the following is an artificial harbor? (C)

(A) Chennai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) None of these
717. India earns maximum foreign exchange through the export of— (A)
(A) Tea
(B) Jute
(C) Coffee
(D) None of these
718. India exports which of the following minerals the most? (B)
(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Iron ore
(D) Petroleum
719. Which colour of light has minimum speed while passing through glass? (B)
(A) Red
(B) Violet
(C) Green
(D) Yellow
720. IMF has its headquarters at— (D)

(A) New York
(B) San Francisco
(C) Chicago
(D) Washington D.C.
721. Which article of the Indian Constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari script as the
official language of India? (B)
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 348
(D) None pf these
722. Haldia is famous for— (C)

(A) Gold refining
(B) Tea blending
(C) Oil rpfining
(D) None of these
723. Next to Hindi, the biggest linguistic unit ii India is— (B)
(A) Urdu
(B) Telugu
(C) Punjabi
(D) None of these
724. The Green evolution refers to an impressive increase in production of— (C)
(A) Tea
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Rice
725. Industrial revolution first began in— (B)

(A) Germany
(B) England
(C) France
(D) Italy
726. Name the author of the famous book ‘Politics’— (A)

(A) Aristotle
(B) Socrates
(C) Plato
(D) None of these
727. Name the periodical which Gandhiji published during his stay in South Africa—
(A)
(A) Indian Opinion
(B) Young India
(C) Afrikaner
(D) None of these
728. Urdu is the second official language in the state of— (B)
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Punjab
(D) None of these
729. The Siachen Glacier region is a trouble spot between— (B)

(A) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and Pakistan
(C) China and Russia
(D) Pakistan and Afghanistan
730. The boundary between China and India is called— (B)

(A) Durand line
(B) McMohan line
(C) 24th Parallel
(D) 17th Parallel
731. Which country is known as the ‘Sugar Bowl’ of the world? (B)
(A) India
(B) Cuba
(C) Brazil
(D) U.S.A.
732. The Constitution of India provides for the nomination of two members of LokSabha
by the President to represent— (B)
(A) Parsees
(B) The Anglo-Indian community
(C) ‘Men of eminence in arts, letters, science etc
(D) The business community
733. ‘The ‘generation to come, it may be, will scarcely believe that such a one as this,
ever in flesh and blood, walked upon the earth.’ This tribute was paid to Gandhiji by—
(C)
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Bernard Shaw
(C) Albert Einstein
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
734. The two companions of Bhagat Singh, who were hanged along with him, were—
(D)
(A) Sukhdev and Harikishan
(B) Sukhdev and Yashpal
(C) Sukhdev and Bhagwati Charan
(D) Sukhdev and Rajguru
735. Which of the following ports has a free trade zone? (D)
(A) Cochin
(B) Bombay
(C) Mormugao
(D) Kandla
736. Which of the following is a variety of Jowar? (A)

(A) CHS-I
(B) Kalyana Sona
(C) IR-8
(D) Sujatha
737.Which of the following countries is rich in oil? (D)

(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) Pakistan
(D) Indonesia
738. The longest river in the world is— (B)

(A) Amazone
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi
(D) Volga
739. Which of the following museum is located at New Delhi? (A)

(A) Government Museum
(B) Salar Jung Museum
(C) National Museum of Natural History
(D) Prince of Wales Museum
740. Which of the following states leads in Commerce and Industry in India? (A)
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Madhya Pradesh
741. “According to the principle of minimum sacrifice the total direct real burden on the
tax-payers as a whole are as small assessable.” (A)
(A) Dalton
(B) Musgrave
(C) Lindall
(D) Pigou
742. Density of population means— (A)
(A) No. of person living in per sq. km.
(B) No. of person living in per km.
(C) No. of person living in each city
(D) No. of person living below poverty line
743. Ex-officio Chairman of Planning Commission is— (B)

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Agriculture Minister
(D) Finance Minister
744. What does FERA stand for? (C)

(A) Foreign Exchange Registration Act
(B) Foreign Exchange Realisation Act
(C) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
(D) None of these
745. Titagarh in West Bengal is famous for— (A)

(A) Paper manufacturing
(B) Locomotive manufacturing
(C) Fertilisers industry
(D) Textile industry
746. Which of the following commissions is responsible for control and utilization of
water resources in India? (C)
(A) Floods Commission
(B) Central Forestry Commission
(C) Central Water Commission
(D) Planning Commission
747. What is the currency of Japan? (B)

(A) Dollar
(B) Yen
(C) Rouble
(D) Rial
748.With whom is the ‘Bharat Jodo Andolan’ associated? (A)

(A) Baba Amte
(B) M.F. Hussain
(C) Sunil Dutt
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
749. Gunnar Myrdal in his book ‘Asian Drama’ highlights the— (C)
(A) Well-being of the Asians
(B) Dramas in Asia
(C) Poverty in Asian countries
(D) Backwardness of the’ Asian countries
750. The Reserve Bank of India was established in— (A)

(A) 1935
(B) 1947
(C) 1952
(D) 1969
751. ‘Communist Manifesto’ was written by— (B)

(A) Tolstoy
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Gromyko
752. Which of the following sources yields maxi-mum revenue to the Government of
India? (A)
(A) Excise duty
(B) Sales Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) None of these
753. Who among the following was the constitutional authority to decide tax-share of the
States in the total tax collected by the Centre? (B)
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) None of these
754. Lala Hardayal was an active member of which of the following parties? (A)
(A) Gadar Party
(B) Anushilan Samiti
(C) Kirti-Kisan Sabha
(D) Hindustan Socialist Association
755. Which of the following is not the main crop of Rabi? (D)
(A) Barley
(B) Wheat
(C) Mustard
(D) Maize
756. Panchsheel Agreement was signed between— (C)
(A) China and Russia
(B) India and Pakistan
(C) India and China
(D) India and America
757. Who appoints the non-permanent members of Security Council? (A)

(A) General Assembly
(B) Secretary General
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) Member States
758. How many members are there in Economic and Social Council? (B)
(A) 27
(B) 54
(C) 21
(D) 24
759. Which of the following is not the name of an Insurance Scheme launched by the
Government of India (D)
(A) ]anashree Bima Yojana
(B) Krishi Shramik Sarnajik
Suraksha Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Varsha Bima Yojana
(E) National Saving Scheme Programme
760. Which of the following insurance companies writes its punch line in the
advertisements"Insurance is the subject matter of solicitation" ? (B)
(A) CIC
(B) LIC
(C) ING Vysya Life Insurance Co.
(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.
(E) None of these
761. How many public sector companies in India are in Insurance Business (A)
(A) Only one
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than ten
762. Which of the following was the parent company of New India Assurance? (B)
(A) LIC
(B) GIC
(C) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd.
(D) United India Insurance
(E) None of these
763. Which of the following organizations of the workers of unorganized sector has
adopted an insurance scheme for all its workers and has become a model organization for
the workers of the unorganized sector? (B)
(A) SERC
(B) SEWA
(C) VSNL
(D) SEBI
(E) MTNL
764. Which of the following projects of the ISRO was recently insured by the New India
Assurance Company ? (C)
(A) MATSAT-II
(B) Aryabhatt
(C) PSLV
(D) Chandrayaan
(E) lNSAT—2E
765. Which of t.he following industrial groups of India is Not in any type of Insurance
Business in India 7? (C)
(A) Tatas
(B) Birlas
(C)' Iaipurias
(D) Mahindras
(E) All are in Insurance Business
766. Which of the following words/ terms is closely associated with the insurance
business? (C)
(A) Archives
(B) Donation
(C) Actuary
(D) Quest
(E) All are associated with
insurance
767. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the agency / organization which
is the regulator of insurance business in India? (B)
(A) NHB
(B) IRDA
(C) IBA
(D) IDFC
(E) ICRISAT
768. Insurance services are normally not provided for which of the following? (C)
(A) Health
(B) Life
(C) jobs
(D) House & Property
(E) It is available for all
769. The New India Assurance Company was established in 1919 by (A)
(A) Dorab Tata
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Iamunalal Baja]
(D) Kamlapat Singhania
(E) None of these
770. Which of the following is largest Non Life Insurance Company in India? (D)
(A) ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Ltd.
(B) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
(C) General Insurance Company Ltd.
(D). New India Assurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these
771. Ramesh Pokhriyal has taken over as the new- (B)

(A) Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh
(B) Chief Minister of Uttarakhand
(C) Governor of Haryana
(D) Governor of Uttarakhand
(E) Governor of Chhattisgarh
772. As per the announcement made by the Govt. of India, which of the following
rganizations is set up by it for a very specific purpose of providing a personal identity
card to all its citizens ? (B)
(A) National Remote Sensing Agency
(B) Unique Identification Authority of India (UIA)
(C) National Spot Exchange
(D) Trade Development Authority
(E) People's Union for Civil Liberties
773. Which of the following Insurance Companies was launched with NABARD as one
of its promoter"s with 30% stake in it ? (A)
(A) General Insurance Corporation Ltd.
(B) National Insurance Cornpany Ltd.
(C) Agriculture Insurance Company Ltd,
(D) SBI Life Insurance Company Ltd.
(E) None of these
774. Who amongst the following is new Foreign Secretary of India 7 (A)
(A) Nirupama Rao
(B) Goolarn E. Vahanvati
(C) Brindeshwar Pathak
(D) Naveen Chawla
(E) None of these
775. Which of the following correctly describes what the 'Bancassurance' is

1. It is an arrangement whereby the branches of a bank sell / distribute insurance products
of an insurance company.
2. It is a new product developed/ launched by the banks in which the risks of the high
value customers are covered for any losses to their property and/or lives through an
insurance cover.
3, It is a new product launched by some banks by which they are providing insurance
cover to exporters/ importers for the losses, if any due to high fluctuations in the
exchange rates of dollars and other major currencies.
(A)
(A) Only 1
(B) Only2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
776. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organizations which provides
credit guarantee to exporters? (D)
(A) FICCI
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) ECGC
(E) SEBI
777. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was presented in the Lok Sabha (in Iuly 2009) by
(D)
(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(B) Kapil Sibal
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mamata Banerjee
(E) Pranab Mukherjee
778. 'Satyam' the well known company which has been i.n the news in recent past, is now
known with its new name as— (A)
(A) Mahindra Satyarn
(B) Birla Satyam
(C) Reliance Satyam
(D) Tata Satyam
(E) None of these
779. The Economic Survey which was presented in the Lok Sabha in ]uly 2009, was the
survey for the year/ period of— (B)
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008—09
(C) 2009-10
(D) Tenth five year plan
(E) None of these
780. The Government of India has recently decided to allow about 2,200 items to come to
Indian markets with a tag of 'Duty Free Items} These items are imported from (B)
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
(E) Pakistan
781. Who amongst the following is not one of the HFA Award winners of 2009 ? (Under
any one of the categories). (D)
(A) Priyanka Chopra
(B) Asin
(C) Farhan Akhtar
(D) Karishma Kapoor
(E) Hrithik Roshan
782. Saina Nehwal is a famous— (A)
(A) Badminton player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player •
(D) Hockey Player
(E) Chess Player
783. 'No Tobacco Day' is observed every year on—— (C)

(A) lst May
(B) lst ]une
(C) 31st May
(D) 30th june
(E) None of these
784. India has recently appointed a new Attorney General. Attorney Generals are advisers
to the Government of India in- (C)
(A) Defence related matters
(B) Diplomatic matters
(C) Legal matters
(D) Financial matters
(E) None of these
785. The presidential election in which of the following countries, held in ]une 2009,
reated a controversy as one of the candidates who was declared defeated refused to accept
the results of the same ? (A)
(A) Iran
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) USA
786. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature 7
(D)
(A) N. Borlaug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Kishor Kumar Award
(D) Saraswati Samman
(E) Dronacharya Award
787. The parliamentarian elections of which of die following organizations were held in
June 2009? (A)
(A) European Union (EU)
(B) Oil & Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) Shanghai Corporation
(D) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
(E) None of these
788. The 79th Amendment to the Indian Constitution done in 1999 was associated with
the___ (A)
(A) reservation of seats in the Parliament and State Assemblies for sC/ ST candidates
(B) creation of three new states Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and jharkhand
(C) land reforms in many states
(D) giving more powers to Panchayats
(E) None of these
789. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ? (E)

(A) The Last Hero
(B) Stolen Harvest
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) Freedom From Fear
(E) God of Small Things
790. Which of the following schemes was launched recently to make Indian cities free
from slums ? (D)
(A) Bharat Nirrnan
(B) Indira Vikash Yojana
(C) Indira Awas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
791. Admiral Gorshkov Aircraft carrier Refit Project is a deal between India and- (C)
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) Russia
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
792. The sex ratio in India is higher in which of the following states ? (B)
(Females (1052) are more than per thousand males)-
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Manipur
(D) Assam
(E) Karnataka
793. Which of the following countries in Not a member of ASEAN ? (C)

(A) Myanmar
(B) Singapore
(C) China
(D) Vietnam
(E) Malaysia
794. Tipaimukh Dam which was in news recently is located in which of the following
states ? (D)
(A) Nagaland
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur
(E) Assam
795. Which of the following states has highest Literacy Rate in country ? (E)
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Kerala
796. Which of the following cups/ trophies is closely associated with the game of Hockey
? (E)
(A) Mardeka Cup
(B) Wimbledon Trophy
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Agha Khan Cup
797. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus? (E)

(A) Plague
(B) Cholera
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Tetanus
(E) Chicken pox
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE TEST
Total Q&As: 798 to1011
798. How much is 30% of 5 hours 40 minutes? (C)

(a) 1 hr. 2 mts.
(b) 1 hr. 6 mts.
(c) 1 hr. 42 flits.
(d) 2 hrs. 42 mts.
799. Ram has four children. His age equals the combined ages of his four children. After
20 years his age will be only one-half of their combined ages. What is Ram’s present age.
(A)
(a) 40 years
(b) 56 years
(c) 66 years
(d) 76 years
800. It is impossible to construct a triangle with sides measuring: (B)

(a) (11.4, 7.8, 10.5) cm
(b) (6, 12, 13) cm
(c) (64, 89, 75) cm
(d) (23, 10, 1l) cm
801.Which one number when placed at the blank shall complete the series: (B)
Number series: 4, 8, 16, ………44
(a) 24
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 40
802. Which one number when placed at the blank shall complete the series: (D)
Number series: 1, 5, ….., 30, 55
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 19
(d) 14
803. Which one number when placed at the blank shall complete the series: (B)
Number series: 18, 14, 12, ….., 14, 18
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
805. The expression.. (7—X) (X+5) is maximum when X = (C)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
806. Supply the missing number in the series given below: (B)
1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ….., 28, 36
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 24
807. In this series what comes next:

Series: 1,5,21,57, 121, …… (D)
(a) 150
(b) 176.
(c) 200
(d) 21
808. A train completes half a trip at 30 miles per hour and the other half at 60 miles per
hour. If the whole trip was 20 miles, how many minutes did the train take to complete the
trip? (D)
(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Directions for Questions:
Triangle= Private Sector

Circle = Semi-Govt. Sector
Rectangle = Govt. Sector
809. The private sector is exclusively represented by the area marked. (C)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
810. The area common to Semi-Govt. sector and Govt. Sector is represented by the area
marked. (C)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
811. The area exclusively in Govt. Sector and Private sector is represented by the area
marked. (A )
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
812. The area common to Govt. Sector and Private sector is represented by the area
marked. (D)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
813. Two coins are tossed. What is the probability that both the coins will show heads:
(A)
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
814. Which of the following is the largest expression? (C)

(a) 3.8 x 4.3
(b) 230
(c) 39.36 + 2.70
(d) 6015/369
815. The average monthly pay of 15 employees of an office comes to Rs. 800/-. If we
include their supervisor also the average monthly pay goes up by Rs. 25/-. What is the
supervisor’s pay? (C)
(a) Rs. 800/- p.m.
(b) Rs: 1000/- p.m.
(c) Rs. l200/-pm.
(d) Rs. 1250/- p.m.
816. A 300 metre long train speeds pass a pole in 12 seconds What is its speed in
kilometre per hour? (C)
(a) 40 km. per hour
(b) 72 km. per hour
(c) 90 km. per hour
(d) 120 km. per hour
817. How much is 40% of 4 hours 40 minutes? (B)

(a) 1 hr. 12 mts.
(b) 1 hr. 52 mts.
(c) 2 hrs. 7 mts.
(d) 2 hrs. 56 mts.
818.Which one number when placed at the blank shall complete the series?
Number series: 49, 40, 32, ……, 19 (B)
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 26
(d) 27
819. Which one number when placed at the blank shall complete the series?
Number series: 12, 6, 18, …., 27 (B)
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 24
820. One half of the students body at an Indian University study German and one-third of
the others study French. The remaining 600 do not study any foreign language. How
many students are there in this university? (C)
(a) 720
(b) 1100
(c) 1800
(d) 2700
821. In this series what number comes next? (A)

21, 20, 18, 15, 11,6,0, ….
(a) – 7
(b) – 6
(c) – 11
(d) – 15
822. Smith gets twice as large a share of the profits as any one of his three partners get.
The three partners share equally. What fraction of the entire profit is Smith’s? (D)
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/5
(d) 2/5
823. There are two bunches of banana. The first bunch of banana has one third more
bananas than the second bunch. If the second bunch has 3 bananas less than the first
bunch, how many bananas has the first bunch? (C)
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
824. Which number is the odd man Out in the series given below? (C)
17, 12, 18, 11, 20
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 17
(d) 18
Directions: Questions: are based on the following table regarding infant mortality, death
and birth rate in different countries:
825. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above table?
I. Expectation of life at birth is low if the death rate is high.
II. Only in western countries life expectation at birth is high. (D)
(a) Both I and II
(b) I only
(c) II only
(d) Neither of these
826. Which of the following observation/s is/are true?

I. Infant mortality in the U.S.A. is the lowest.
II. Birth rate in India is the highest. (D)
(a) Both I and II
(b) I only
(c) II only
(d) Neither
827. Which of the statement/s is/are most probably true?

I. The economically less developed countries have higher birth rate.
II. The expectancies of life at birth are generally higher for the females than for the
males. (A)
(a) Both I and II
(b) I only
(c) II only
828. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the above data?
I. The infant mortality rate generally reduces with the over all development of the
century.
II. The infant mortality rate for girls is higher than that for boys’ (D)
(a) 1Both I and II
(b) I only
(c) II only
829. A and B start from the same place for the same destination and they take the same
route. A starts at 8.00 A.M. and he drives at a speed of 40 km per hour. B starts at 9.00
A.M. and he drives at a speed of 50 km per hour. What should be the distance between A
and B at 11.30 A.M.? (A)
(a) 15 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 35 km
(d) 45 km
830. A and B start from the same place for the same destination and they take the same
route. A starts at 8.00 A.M. and he drives at a speed of 40 km per hour. B starts at 9.00
A.M. and he drives at a speed of 50 km per hour. How much time will B take to catch up
A? (B)
(a) 3 hrs
(b) 4 hrs
(c) 5 hrs
(d) 6 hrs
831. If the third Monday in a month is 17th, which day will occur five times in that
month? (D)
(a) Tuesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
832. Sharma’s salary is 50% above Varma’s .What percentage is Varma’s salary below
Sharma’s? (B)
(a) 50 %
(b) 33 1/3 %
(c) 66 2/3 %
(d) 75 %
833. The average age of 30 students in a class is 16. If the teacher’s age is included, the
average increases by one, What is the teacher’s age? (C)
(a) 37 years
(b) 46 years
(c) 47 years
(d) 57 years
834. Which one of the following does not possess the common property that the other
three numbers do? (B)
(a) 64
(b) 45
(c) 36
(d) 25
835. If 3/4 of a number is equal to 2/3 of another number, what is the ratio between these
two numbers? (C)
(a) 3:4
(b) 5:6
(c) 8:9
(d) 9:10
836. The average of a, b, c and c is 50. If d = 10. what is the average a, b, c and d ? ( B )
(a) 15
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) 60
837. 28 students were divided into three groups A. B and C. Group B consists of twice
the number of students in group C. Group A has half the number ‘of students in group C.
How many students are there in group C? (C)
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 14
838. The average age of husband and wife was 22 years when they were married five
years back. What is the present average age of the family if they have a three years old
child? (A)
(a) 19 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 28½ years
839. How much is 30% of 5 hours 40 min.? (C)

(a) 1 hr. 2 mn
(b) 1 hr. 6 mm.
(c) 1 hr. 42 mm
(d) 2 hrs. 42 mm.
840. Rajan can do a piece of work in 42 days. Ramesh is 50% more efficient than Rajan.
In how many days can Ramesh finish the work? (B)
(a) 21 days
(b) 28 days
(c) 26 days
(d) 25 days
841. A milk man started on his morning, round with 100 liters of milk. In the first market,
he sold 1/5th of the milk and added 10 liters of water. In the second market, he sold 1/3rd
of the balance remaining with him and added 5 liters of water. Then he walked off to the
third market. How many liters he has now? (D)
(a) 50 liters
(b) 55 liters
(c) 60 liters
(d) 65 liters
842. A train started from a station with some passengers. At the first halt 20% of the
passengers got down and 250 boarded the train. The train has 1530 passengers now. Find
the number of passengers who boarded the train at the start (D)
(a) 1200
(b) 1500
(c) 1536
(d) 1600
843. In a competitive examination 15% and 7½% vacancies are reserved for scheduled
castes and scheduled tribes candidates. There are 160 vacancies in all while after the
interview, 110 General Category, 28 scheduled castes and 8 scheduled tribes candidates
were found suitable for appointment. In which category or categories enough candidates
were not found suitable? (B)
(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Scheduled Tribes and General Category
(c) Scheduled Castes and General Category
(d) Scheduled Castes only
844. Two, trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the other from Patna to Howrah, start
simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16
hours respectively. The ratio of their speeds is: (B)
a) 2 : 3 b) 4 : 3 c) 6 : 7 d) 9 : 16
845. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a
telegraph post. If the length of each train be 120 meters, in what time (in seconds) will
they cross each other traveling in opposite direction? (B)
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 20
846. A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long
coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is:
(D)
a) 48 km/hr b) 54 km/hr c) 66 km/hr d) 82 km/hr
847. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26
seconds. What is the length of the goods train? (D)
a) 230 m b) 240 m c) 260 m d) 270 m
848. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr
respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds) which they
take to cross each other, is: (D)
a) 9 b) 9.6 c) 10 d) 10.8
849. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook
to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much
is to be paid to C? (B)
a) Rs. 375 b) Rs. 400 c) Rs. 600 d) Rs. 800
850. A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A
and B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in:
(C)
a) 15 days b) 20 days c) 25 days d) 30 days
851. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can
complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it? (B)
a) 35 b) 40 c) 45 d) 50
852. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started
doing the work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the
remaining work. The whole work was completed in:
(C)
853. X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the
work alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long
did the work last? (B)
854. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain
20%? (C)
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
855. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent. (B)
a) 66 2/3 b) 100 c) 105 1/3 d) 120
856. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The
cost price of a ball is: (D)
a) Rs. 45 b) Rs. 50 c)Rs. 55 d) Rs. 60
857. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at
Rs. 36 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is: (B)
a) No profit, no loss b) 5% c) 8% d) None
858. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling
price of the cycle? (C)
a) Rs. 1090 b) Rs. 1160 c) Rs. 1190 d) Rs. 1202
859. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B
and C be 27, the how old is B? (D)
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
860. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years
hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age
in years? (A)
a) 24 b) 27 c) 40 d) None
861.The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of
their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years). (B)
a) 8, 20, 28 b) 16, 28, 36 c) 20, 35, 45 d) None of these

862. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T
is 50 years, what is definitely the difference between R and Q's age? (D)
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 25 years d) Data inadequate
863. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of
his son. The present age of his son is: (D)
a) 14 years b) 18 years c) 20 years d) 22 years
V. AVERAGE
864. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater
than zero? ( D)
a) 0 b) 1 c) 10 d) 19
865. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in
place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person? ( C )
a) 76 kg b) 76.5 kg c) 85 kg d) Data inadequate
866. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income
of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The
monthly income of P is: (B)
a) 3500 b) 4000 c) 4050 d) 5000
867. A car owner buys petrol at Rs.7.50, Rs. 8 and Rs. 8.50 per liter for three successive
years. What approximately is the average cost per liter of petrol if he spends Rs. 4000
each year? (A)
a) Rs. 7.98 b) Rs. 8 c) Rs. 8.50 d) Rs. 9
868. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average
marks for the class got increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is: ( C )
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 73
869. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together? (D)
a) 810 b) 1440 c) 2880 d) 50400

870. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged? (C)
a) 72 b) 144 c) 360 d) 720
871. How many 4-letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters
of the word, 'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters is not allowed? (C)
a) 40 b) 400 c) 5040 d) 2520
878. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together? (C)
a) 10080 b) 4989600 c) 120960 d )None of these
879. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which
are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated? (D)
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d )20
880. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is: ( C )
a) 9000 b) 9400 c) 9600 d) 9800
881. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40. (C)
a) 120 b) 240 c ) 360 d ) 480
882. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 7 m, 3
m 85 cm, 12 m 95 cm is: (C)
A. 15 cm B. 25 cm C. 35 cm D. 42 cm
883. Find the highest common factor of 36 and 84. (C)
A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 18
884. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5
respectively, is: (B)
a) 123 b) 127 c) 235 d) 305

885. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
(A)
A. 213444 B. 214344 C. 214434 D. 231444
886. √ (0.0169 x ?) = 1.3 (B)

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. None of these
887. How many two-digit numbers satisfy this property: The last digit (unit's digit) of the
square of the two-digit number is 8 ? (D)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. None of these
888. The square root of 64009 is: (A)

A. 253 B. 347 C. 363 D. 803
889. A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as
is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the
member is the group is: (C)
A. 57 B. 67 C. 77 D. 87
890. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270
bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4
minutes? (B)
A. 648 B. 1800 C. 2700 D. 10800
891. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days
will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work? (B)
A. 10 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15
892. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
complete the same work? (D)
A. 12 B. 18 C. 22 D. 24
894. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would
be woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days? (D)
A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16
895. If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost? (A)
A. 48 paise B. 54 paise C. 56 paise D. 72 paise
896. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the
ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg
will be: (C)
A. Rs. 169.50 B. Rs. 170 C. Rs. 175.50 D. Rs. 180
897. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per
kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg? (C)
A. 3:7 B. 5:7 C. 7:3 D. 7:5
898. How many kilogram of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of
sugar costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at
Rs. 9.24 per kg? (D)
A. 36 kg B. 42 kg C. 54 kg D. 63 kg
899. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to
produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg. (B)
A. 1:3 B. 2:3 C. 3:4 D. 4:5
900. The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. If both
Type 1 and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg of the mixed
variety of rice is: (A)
A. Rs. 18 B. Rs. 18.50 C. Rs. 19 D. Rs. 19.50
901. In order to obtain an income of Rs. 650 from 10% stock at Rs. 96, one must make an
investment of: (B)
A. Rs. 3100 B. Rs. 6240 C. Rs. 6500 D. Rs. 9600
902. A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have an interest of
12% on his money. The market value of each share is: (B)
A. Rs. 12 B. Rs. 15 C. Rs. 18 D. Rs. 21
903. Rs. 9800 are invested partly in 9% stock at 75 and 10% stock at 80 to have equal
amount of incomes. The investment in 9% stock is: (B)
A. Rs. 4800 B. Rs. 5000 C. Rs. 5400 D. Rs. 5600
904. By investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Michael earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted
at: (B)
A. Rs. 80 B. Rs. 96 C. Rs. 106 D. Rs. 108

905. A 12% stock yielding 10% is quoted at: (D)
A. Rs. 83.33 B. Rs. 110 C. Rs. 112 D. Rs. 120
906. The banker's gain of a certain sum due 2 years hence at 10% per annum is Rs. 24.
The present worth is: (C)
A. Rs. 480 B. Rs. 520 C. Rs. 600 D. Rs. 960
907. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The
banker's discount is: (C)
A. Rs. 960 B. Rs. 840 C. Rs. 1020 D. Rs. 760
908. The certain worth of a certain sum due sometime hence is Rs. 1600 and the true
discount is Rs. 160. The banker's gain is: (C)
A. Rs. 20 B. Rs. 24 C. Rs. 16 D. Rs. 12
909. The banker's gain on a bill due 1 year hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 6. The true
discount is: (D)
A. Rs. 72 B. Rs. 36 C. Rs. 54 D. Rs. 50
910. The true discount on a bill of Rs. 540 is Rs. 90. The banker's discount is: (B)
A. Rs. 60 B. Rs. 108 C. Rs. 110 D. Rs. 112
911. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km

more. The actual distance traveled by him is: (A)
A. 50 km B. 56 km C. 70 km D. 80 km
912. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45
kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? (B)
A. 9 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20
913. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate
of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km. ( B )
A. 220 km B. 224 km C. 230 km D. 234 km
914. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay
doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is: ( A )
A. 5 kmph B. 6 kmph C. 6.25 kmph D. 7.5 kmph
915. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He traveled partly on foot @ 4

km/hr and partly on bicycle @ 9 km/hr. The distance traveled on foot is: (C)
A. 14 km B. 15 km C. 16 km D. 17 km
916. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at
4.5% per annum of simple interest? (B)
A. 3.5 years B. 4 years C. 4.5 years D. 5 years
917. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of
interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of
interest? (B)
A. 3.6 B. 6 C. 18 D. Cannot be determined
918. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest.
What is the rate of interest? (D)
A. 3% B. 4% C. 5% D. 6%
919. A man took loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he
had to pay Rs. 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him
was: (C)
A. Rs. 2000 B. Rs. 10,000 C. Rs. 15,000 D. Rs. 20,000
920. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the
same rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is: (C)
A. 5% B. 8% C. 12% D. 15%
921. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and
B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives: (D)
A. Rs. 8400 B. Rs. 11,900 C. Rs. 13,600 D. Rs. 14,700
922. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had
partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their
investments? (B)
A. 5:7:8 B. 20 : 49 : 64 C. 38 : 28 : 21 D. None of these

923. A and B started a business in partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000
respectively. After six months, C joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be B's share in
total profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end of 2 years from the starting of the business?
(A)
A. Rs. 7500 B. Rs. 9000 C. Rs. 9500 D. Rs. 10,000
924. Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs. 8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000 respectively in a
business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of Rs. 4005,
then what will be the share of Kamal? (A)
A. Rs. 890 B. Rs. 1335 C. Rs. 1602 D. Rs. 1780
925. Simran started a software business by investing Rs. 50,000. After six months, Nanda
joined her with a capital of Rs. 80,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 24,500.
What was Simran's share in the profit? (D)
A. Rs. 9,423 B. Rs. 10,250 C. Rs. 12,500 D. Rs. 10,500
926. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006? (D)
A. Thursday B. Friday C. Saturday D. Sunday

927. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be: (B)
A. Wednesday B. Saturday C. Tuesday D. Thursday
928. Which of the following is not a leap year? (A)
A. 700 B. 800 C. 1200 D. 2000
929. On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Dec, 2006?
(D)
A. Sunday B. Thursday C. Tuesday D. Friday
930. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
(A)
A. Sunday B. Saturday C. Tuesday D. Wednesday
931. The ratio between the perimeter and the breadth of a rectangle is 5 : 1. If the area of
the rectangle is 216 sq. cm, what is the length of the rectangle? (B)
A. 16 cm B. 18 cm C. 24 cm D. Data inadequate
932. What is the least number of squares tiles required to pave the floor of a room 15 m
17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad? (A)
A. 814 B. 820 C. 840 D. 844
933. A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and
bottom at 75 paise per sq. m, is: (C)
A. Rs. 456 B. Rs. 458 C. Rs. 558 D. Rs. 568
934. A rectangular field is to be fenced on three sides leaving a side of 20 feet uncovered.
If the area of the field is 680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing will be required? ( D )
A. 34 B. 40 C. 68 D. 88
935. The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the
percentage change in area? (B)
A. 25% increase B. 50% increase C. 50% decrease D.75% decrease
936.Which one of the following is not a prime number? (D)
A. 31 B. 61 C. 71 D. 91
937. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by
23 ? (A)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 18 D. 21
938. 1397 x 1397 = ? (A)
A. 1951609 B. 1981709 C. 18362619 D. 2031719
939. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88 is: (A)
A. 9944 B. 9768 C. 9988 D. 8888
940. How many 3-digit numbers are completely divisible 6 ? (B)
A. 149 B. 150 C. 151 D. 166
941. What decimal of an hour is a second? (C)
A. 0.0025 B. 0.0256 C. 0.00027 D. 0.000126

942. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ? (C)
A. 0.172 B. 1.72 C. 17.2 D. 172
943. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of
commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was
Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more
than the commodity Y ? (B)
A. 2010 B. 2011 C. 2012 D. 2013
944. 34.95 + 240.016 + 23.98 = ? (C)
A. 298.0946 B. 298.111 C. 298.946 D. 299.09
945. The least among the following is: (D)
A. 0.2 B. 1 ÷ 0.2 C. 0.2 D. (0.2)2
946. Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = y2, then the value of z is close to: (C)
A. 1.45 B. 1.88 C. 2.9 D. 3.7
947. If 5a = 3125, then the value of 5(a - 3) is: (A)
A. 25 B. 125 C. 625 D. 1625
948. If 3(x - y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243, then x is equal to: (C)
A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
949. If m and n are whole numbers such that mn = 121, the value of (m - 1)n + 1 is: ( D )
A. 1 B. 10 C. 121 D. 1000
950. (256)0.16 x (256)0.09 = ? (A)
A. 4 B. 16 C. 64 D. 256.25
951. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating
simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third
pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is: (C)
A. 6 hoursB. 10 hours C. 15 hours D. 30 hours

952. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can
empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15
minutes. The capacity of the tank is: (C)
A. 60 gallons B. 100 gallons C. 120 gallons D. 180 gallons
953. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B
and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank? ( C )
A. 20 hours B. 25 hours C. 35 hours D. None
954. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the
pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank? (A)
A. 12 min B. 15 min C. 25 min D. 50 min
955. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is
used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half? (D)
A. 15 min B. 20 min C. 27.5 min D. 30 min
956. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is: (C)
A. 0.934 B. 0.945 C. 0.954 D. 0.958
957. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is: (B)
A. 1.6020 B. 1.9030 C. 3.9030 D. None of these
958. If log 2 = 0.30103, the number of digits in 264 is: (C)
A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21
959. If log x y = 100 and log2 x = 10, then the value of y is: (C)
A. 210 B. 2100 C. 21000 D. 210000
960. The value of log2 16 is: (B)
A. 1/8 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
961. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5? ( D )
A.1/2 B.2/5 C. 8/15 D. 9/20
962. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice? (C)
A.1/6 B.1/8 C. 1/9 D.1/12
963. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What
is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue? (A)
A. 10/ 21 B.11/ 21 C. 2/ 7 D. 5/7
964. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers
whose product is even? (B)
A.1/2 B. 3/4 C. 3/8 D. 5/16
965. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is
the probability of getting a prize? (C)
A.1/ 10 B. 2/ 5 C. 2/7 D. 5/7
967) 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 (C)
A. 21 B. 17 C. 14 D. 3
968) 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30 (A)
A. 28 B. 21 C. 24 D. 30
969) 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36 (B)
A. 9 B. 23 C. 25 D. 36
970) 10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26 (C)
A. 26 B. 24 C. 21 D. 18
971) 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284 (B)
A. 263 B. 383 C. 331 D. 551

972. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the
ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is: (D)
A. 2.3 m B. 4.6 m C. 7.8 m D. 9.2 m
973. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If
the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is: (C)
A. 149 m B. 156 m C. 173 m D. 200 m
974. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the lengths of the shadow of a tree Square
root of 3 times the height of the tree, is: (A)
A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º
975. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a
certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is: ( A )
A. 625 B. 630 C. 640 D. 650
976. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1 1/2 years at
4% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly? (A)
A. Rs. 2.04 B. Rs. 3.06 C. Rs. 4.80 D. Rs. 8.30
977. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in
years) is: (A)
A. 2 B. 2 1/2 C. 3 D.4
978. Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at
compound interest rate 5 p.c.p.a. How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the
fixed deposit? (C)
A. Rs. 8600 B. Rs. 8620 C. Rs. 8820 D. None of these
979. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per
annum payable half-yearly is: (D)
A. 6.06% B. 6.07% C. 6.08% D. 6.09%
980. Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the
compound interest on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple
interest is: (C)
A. Rs. 1550 B. Rs. 1650 C. Rs. 1750 D. Rs. 2000

981. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 525.
The simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per
annum is: (B)
A. Rs. 400 B. Rs. 500 C. Rs. 600 D. Rs. 800
982. A man purchased a cow for Rs. 3000 and sold it the same day for Rs. 3600, allowing
the buyer a credit of 2 years. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then the man has a
gain of: (A)
A. 0% B. 5% C. 7.5% D. 10%
983. If Rs. 10 be allowed as true discount on a bill of Rs. 110 due at the end of a certain
time, then the discount allowed on the same sum due at the end of double the time is:( D )
A. Rs. 20 B. Rs. 21.81 C. Rs. 22 D. Rs. 18.33
984. A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1
year. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man: (B)
A. gains Rs. 55 B. gains Rs. 50 C. loses Rs. 30 D. gains Rs. 30
985. The true discount on Rs. 1760 due after a certain time at 12% per annum is Rs. 160.
The time after which it is due is: (D)
A. 6 months B. 8 months C. 9 months D. 10 months
986. The simple interest and the true discount on a certain sum for a given time and at a
given rate are Rs. 85 and Rs. 80 respectively. The sum is: (C)
A. Rs. 1800 B. Rs. 1450 C. Rs. 1360 D. Rs. 6800
987. A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still
beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is: (B)
A. 5.15 kmph B. 4.14 kmph C. 4.25 kmph D. 4.4 kmph
988. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 13 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C

by: (D)
A. 5.4 m B. 4.5 m C. 5 m D. 6m
989.At a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C to 20 points in
60. How many points can B give C in a game of 90? (C)
A. 30 points B. 20 points C. 10 points D. 12 points
990. In a 200 meters race A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. A's time over the course is:(C)
A. 40 sec B. 47 sec C. 33 sec D. None of these
991. In 100 m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race
A beats B by: (A)
A. 20 m B. 25 m C. 22.5 m D. 9m
992. In a 100 m race, a can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race, A
can beat C by: (C)
A. 21 m B. 26 m C. 28 m D. 29 m
993. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and
comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is: ( B )
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10
994. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream.
The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is: (C)
A. 3 km/hr B. 5 km/hr C. 8 km/hr D. 9 km/hr
995.The speed of a boat in still water in 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The
distance traveled downstream in 12 minutes is: (D)
A. 1.2 km B. 1.8 km C. 2.4 km D. 3.6 km
996. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and come back in 14 hours. He finds that he
can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the
stream is: (A)
A. 1 km/hr B. 1.5 km/hr C. 2 km/hr D. 2.5 km/hr
997.A and B together have Rs. 1210. If 4/15 of A's amount is equal to of B's amount,
how much amount does B have?
(B)
A. Rs. 460 B. Rs. 484 C. Rs. 550 D. Rs. 664
998. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 :

3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B's share? (C)
A. Rs. 500 B. Rs. 1500 C. Rs. 2000 D. None of these
999. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2: 1. If the this ratio is to be 1: 2,
then the quantity of water to be further added is: (D)
A. 20 litres B. 30 litres C. 40 litres D. 60 litres
1000. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by
Rs. 4000, the new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary? (D)
A. Rs. 17,000 B. Rs. 20,000 C. Rs. 25,500 D. Rs. 38,000

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REASONING PAPER

TOTAL Q&A= 335

11. Statements: (C)

12. Statements: (A)

13. Statements: (B)

15. Statements: (E)

24. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ? (A)

25. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ? (B)

26. Which of the following means T is wife of P ? (E)

27. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ? (D)

28. BKGQJN (A)

29. IJBRLG (C)

30. BARNIS (E)

31. EGAKRL (B)

32. DMBNIA (C)

Directions— Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y

35. Which of the following combination is correct? (D)

36. Who amongst the friends is a doctor? (B)

41. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’

60. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to …….. (B)

61. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……… (B)

66. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ………… (B)

67. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ………… (B)

68. AND, EAR, INK, OLD (A)

69. 6, 29, 121 1961 (B)

70. 10,14,19,25 (A)

(A) OCK (B) ND (C) AST (D) UEF

85. Which one of the following equations correct? (C)

Five friends, A, J, M, P and Q each scored different marks in an examination. P scored

89. How many persons scored more than A? (E)

The statements are followed by conclusions.

96. Statements: J = I < K; I > L < M (C)

97. Statements: A > B > C; B < D < E (A)

98. Statements: U > W = X > Y > Z (D)

99. Statements: G > H = I < J; J > K; G < L (E)

100. Statements: P > Q > R; Q < S = T (A)

101. How many persons are seated between E and C? (C)

105. What is the position of B with respect to C? (C)

106. What is the code for 'more'? (B)

107. What is the code for 'favour'? (D)

109. What does 'na' stand for? (D)

110. Which of the following may represent' act in play'? (B)

113. On which of the following floors does E live? (A)

122. Statements: M > J = K < L < N > O (D)

123. Statements: R = S > T > V; W < T (A)

124. Statements: A < Z > P > R; A > M; R > T (B)

125. Statements: Y = T < F > G; H > F < R (E)

126. Statements: D > F = H; G < H > I (E)

127. Which of the following is true regarding R? (E)

128. Who amongst the following faces S? (C)

130. Who amongst the following faces Z? (D)

131. (A) YW (B) PS (C) RS (D) ZX (E) XY (C)

132. (A) W-R (B) Z - S (C) X - P (D) Y - Q (E) R - X (E)

134. What is the code for' demand'? (E)

135. Which of the following represents 'not for product'? (D)

142.Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbors of D? (D)

145. Who sits to the immediate right of A? (B)

151. Which of the following represents 'did not'? (E)

152. What is the code for 'bell'? ((B)

154. What does '7' stand for? (D)

155. What is the code for 'ring'? (C)

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?