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TNPSC Mega Book
TNPSC Mega Book
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Subjectwise-Chapterwise
Based On Previous Papers
©Rainbow Publishers
Email: rainbowpublishers123@gmail.com
The copyright of this book is entirely with the Rainbow Publishers. The reproduction of this book or a part of this will
be punishable under the Copyright Act.All disputes subject to Hisar jurisdiction.
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Table of contents
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE.............. 3 ANCIENT INDIA ................................................... 299
MEDIEVAL INDIA ................................................ 304
PERCENTAGE ...........................................................3
MODERN INDIA ................................................... 308
PROFT, LOSS & DISCOUNT ......................................8
INDIAN ART & CULTURE .................................... 319
NUMBER SYSTEM & LCM HCF ............................27
INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION ....................... 322
SIMPLIFICATION ....................................................35
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY ....................................... 339
ALGEBRA...............................................................45
GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA ........................................ 346
AVERAGE ..............................................................71
WORLD GEOGRAPHY .......................................... 359
SIMPLE & COMPOUND INTEREST ...........................78
INDIAN ECONOMY ............................................... 363
RATIO & PROPORTION ...........................................86
ECONOMICS ........................................................ 369
TIME & WORK .......................................................97
PHYSICS .............................................................. 380
SPEED TIME AND DISTANCE ................................108
CHEMISTRY ......................................................... 394
MENSURATION ....................................................117
BIOLOGY ............................................................. 407
TRIGONOMETRY ..................................................135
COMPUTER & IT ................................................. 428
GEOMETRY ..........................................................156
REASONING ABILITY .................... 190 DISCOVERIES & INVENTIONS .............................. 433
ENGLISH LANGUAGE .................... 435
ANALOGY...............................................................190
ERROR DETECTION ............................................. 435
CLASSIFICATION ..................................................205
IMPROVEMENT OF SENTENCES ........................... 438
SERIES .................................................................217
ACTIVE/PASSIVE VOICE ...................................... 444
ALPHABET TEST ..................................................228
DIRECT/INDIRECT SPEECH .................................. 451
CODING DECODING .............................................240
FILL IN THE BLANKS........................................... 461
BLOOD RELATIONSHIP .........................................249
SYNONYMS ......................................................... 466
DIRECTION AND DISTANCE .................................251
ANTONYMS ......................................................... 470
SEQUENCE & RANKING TEST ..............................254
ONE-WORD SUBSTITUTION ................................. 474
NUMBER PUZZLE .................................................257
IDIOMS/PHRASES................................................. 479
VENN DIAGRAM ..................................................266
SPELLING MISTAKES ........................................... 485
SITTING ARRANGEMENT ......................................271
ARRANGEMENT OF SENTENCES .......................... 489
ARGUMENTS & SYLLOGISM.................................273
CLOZE TEST ........................................................ 500
COMPLETION & EMBEDDED FIGURES ..................281
COMPREHENSION TEST ....................................... 505
FIGURE COUNTING & ANALYSIS .........................284
PAPER CUTTING AND FOLDING ...........................287
MIRROR & WATER IMAGES .................................291
VISUAL & NON VERBAL REASONING ..................295
GENERAL AWARENESS ................ 299
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Percentage Ans: (d)
3A = B
3A = A ×
Q1. If A's income is 50% less than that of B's, then B's
300 = 2x x = 150
income is what per cent more than that of A?
(a) 125 (b) 100
Q7. If an electricity bill is paid before due date, one
(c) 75 (d) 50
gets a reduction of 4% on the amount of the bill. By
Ans: (b) Required precentage = 100% paying the bill before due date a person got a
reduction of ₹ 13. The amount of his electricity bill
Q2. If 60% of A = of B, then A : B is was
(a) 9 : 20 (b) 20 : 9 (a) ₹ 125 (b) ₹ 225
(c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 (c) ₹ 325 (d) ₹ 425
Ans: (c) Let the amount of the bill be ₹ x.
Ans: (d)
∴ = 13
x= = ₹ 325
= 16300 – 15000
10x + 120000 – 8x
= 1300 × 100
2x = 130000 – 120000
= 10000
x = 5000
Q11. First and second numbers are less than a third x = 250
number by 30% and 37% respectively. The second Alternate Method:
number is less than the first by Number persons in both = number of persons in 1st + no.
(a) 7% (b) 4% of persons in 2nd – Total no. of persons in any one
(c) 3% (d) 10% % of persons in both = 72 + 44 – 100 = 16%
Ans: (d) Let the third number = 100.
Total no. of persons × = 40
First number = 70
Second number = 63 Total no. = 250
∴ Required per cent = = 10%
Q15. The salary of an employee increases every year
in the month of July by 10%. If his salary in May
Q12. The number of seats in an auditorium is
2000 was ₹ 15,000, his salary in October 2001 was
increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also
(a) ₹ 16,500 (b) ₹ 18,000
increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue
(c) ₹ 18,150 (d) ₹ 19,965
collection will be
Ans: (c) Salary in May 2000 = ₹ 15000
(a) 40% (b) 35%
(c) 45% (d) 48% Salary in July 2000 15000 + 10% of 15000 = ₹16500
Ans: (a) Required increase Salary in October 2001 = 16500 + 10% of 16500 =
₹18150
( ) = 40%
Q16. If 125% of x is 100, then x is :
Q13. The number 20% more than 80 is (a) 80 (b) 150
(a) 36 (b) 30 (c) 400 (d) 125
(c) 90 (d) 96
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) Required number
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B = 125
A is larger than C by
= = 20%
x= (a) % (b) %
or 5 : 7 Deffective % =
Q37. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes Q42. After deducting 60% from a certain number and
were distributed among some students. Find the then deducting 15% from the remainder, 1428 is left.
percentage of mangoes left in the basket What was the initial number?
(a) 70% (b) 72% (a) 4200 (b) 3962
(c) 76% (d) 75% (c) 4150 (d) 4300
Ans: (d) Total mango = 300 Ans: (a) Let initial number be x.
Distribution = 75 According to question,
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∴ = 4200. ∴
= 320,000
Q43. 32% of a number exceeds 17% of the same ∴Population of city 3 years was = 320000.
number by 120. What is the value of the number?
(a) 900 (b) 860 Q47. A person spends 25% of his annual income on
(c) 940 (d) 800 house rent. 15% on education of children and 45% on
Ans: (d) Required number other items. If he saves ₹14,400 annually, then the
person's total income is:
(a) ₹98,000 (b) ₹1,00,000
(c) ₹96,000 (d) ₹1,20,000
∴ Ans: (c) Total spend of his annual income
= (15% + 25% + 45%)
Q44. 80 litre mixture of milk and water contains 10%
milk. How much milk (in lit res) must be added to Q48. If 40% of a number is 290, then what is the
make water percentage in the mixture as 80%? number which is 20% more than the initial number?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 870 (b) 725
(c) 10 (d) 12 (c) 825 (d) 680
Ans: (c) According to question, Ans: (a) Let original number = x
According to question,
Volume of water litres
Volume of milk litres
Now, ∴
∴Required number
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∴x× = 33 https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
Q15. If the selling price o f 10 articles is equal to the
cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percent is
x= = ₹ 25 (a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 15 (d) 25
Q11. Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% is Ans: (a) Let the C.P. of each article be ₹ 1.
equivalent to a single discount of ∴ C.P. of articles = ₹ 10
(a) 60% (b) 49.6% and S.P. of 10 articles = ₹ 11
(c) 40.5% (d) 36%
∴ Profit percent = = 10%
Ans: (b) Single equivalent discount for successive
discounts of 10% and 20%.
Q16. A trader bought two horses for ₹19,500. He sold
=( ) % = 28%
one at a loss of 20% and the other at a profit of 15%.
Single equivalent discount for 28% and 30% If the selling price of each horse is the same, then their
=( ) % = 49.6% cost prices are respectively.
Shortcut Method: (a) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 9,500 (b) ₹ 11,500 and ₹ 8,000
Let marked price be 100% (c) ₹ 12,000 and ₹ 7,500 (d) ₹ 10,500 and ₹ 9,000
Final discount = 100 – 100 × Ans: (b) The sum of cost prices of two articles is ₹ x.
One of them is sold at a loss of a% and other is sold at a
Here D1, D2, D3 ........ are successive discounts.
gain of b% and their S.P. is same.
Required value = 100 –
∴ C.P. of article sold at a loss of a%
50.4 = 49.6%.
= =
Q21. If the price of sug ar is raised by 25%, find by Q26. If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the
how much percent a householder must reduce his selling price of 12 articles, find gain %
consumption of sugar so as not to increase his (a) 20 (b) 25
expenditure? (c) 18 (d) 21
(a) 10 (b) 20
Ans: (b) Percentage profit = = 25
(c) 18 (d) 25
Ans: (b) Percentage decrease = × 100 = 20
Q27. The difference between a discount of 40% on
₹500 and two successive discounts of 36%, 4% on the
Q22. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables same amount is
me to purchase 5 kg more for ₹ 600. Find the price of (a) ₹ 0 (b) ₹ 2
sugar per kg before reduction of price. (c) ₹ 1.93 (d) ₹ 7.20
(a) ₹ 24 (b) ₹ 30 Ans: (d) Single equivalent discount for 36% and 4%
(c) ₹ 32 (d) ₹ 36
=( ) = (40 – 1.44)% = 38.56%
Ans: (b) Let CP = x, Total ₹ = 600, Sugar bought
∴ Required difference = 1.44% of 500
=
= = ₹7.20
ATQ * + = 600
480 + 4x = 600
4x = 120
x = 30
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Q28. A man purchased some eggs at 3 for ₹ 5 and sold
them at 5 for ₹ 12. Thus he gained ₹ 143 in all. The
Cost price : Marked price
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that, if the net profit to be made is 15%, then the
selling price of the radio must be
= ₹ (126 + 39) = ₹ 165
CP of 100 g = ₹ 16.5
(a) ₹ 684.50 (b) ₹ 704.50 S.P. of 100 g = ₹ 18.15
(c) ₹ 724.50 (d) ₹ 664.50 Profit = ₹ (18.15 – 16.5) = ₹ 1.65
Ans: (c) C.P. of a radio = 600 % gain = = 10%
New C.P. after adding transportation charges
= ( ) Q57. An article was sold at 16% gain. Had it been sold
S.P. = ( ) for ₹ 200 more, the gain would have been 20%. Then
the cost price of the article is :
= (a) ₹ 5000 (b) ₹ 4800
(c) ₹ 4500 (d) ₹ 5200
Q53. Ans: (a) If the C.P. of article be ₹x, then
=
Gain % =
Ans:
Q54. A man sold 250 chairs and had a gain equal to = ₹5000
selling price of 50 chairs. His profit per cent is:
(a) 20% (b) 25% Q58. The cost price of a boo k is ₹ 150. At what price
(c) 50% (d) 15% should it be sold to gain 20% ?
Ans: (b) Percentage profit = (a) ₹ 80 (b) ₹ 120
(c) ₹ 180 (d) ₹ 100
Q55. By selling a fan for ₹ 600, a man loses 10%. To Ans: (c) = ₹180
make a gain of 20%, the selling price of the fan should S.P = ₹180
be
(a) ₹ 800 (b) ₹ 900 Q59. A got 30% concession on the label price of an
(c) ₹ 1000 (d) ₹ 700 article sold for ₹ 8,750 with 25% profit on the price he
Ans: (a) S.P bought. The label price was
(a) 10,000 (b) 13,000
(c) 16,000 (d) 12,000
Ans: (a) Let the labelled price be ₹ x
Now, C.P =
To make a gian of 20%, the S.P. of Fan should be C.P = = ₹ 7000
Now, (1 – 30% concession) label price = C.P
( ) = 7000
S.P = = = 7000
Hence, S.P. should be x=
x = ₹ 10, 000
800.
Q60. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at ₹
Q56. A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing 80. What will be the selling price, if he allows two
₹ 18 and ₹ 13 per 100 gm in the ratio 7:3. He sells the successive discounts at 5% each ?
blended variety at the rate of ₹ 18.15 per 100 gm. His (a) ₹ 7.2 (b) ₹ 72.2
percentage gain in the transaction is (c) ₹ 72 (d) ₹ 85
(a) 8% (b) 10%
Ans: (b) Net discount = ( )% = %
(c) 12% (d) 14%
Ans: (b) CP of 1000 gm tea = 18 × 7 + 13 × 3 ∴ S.P. = 80 × = ₹72.2
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Q61. If books bought at prices ranging from ₹ 150 to
∴ Gain percent = = 19.6%
₹ 300 are sold at prices ranging from ₹ 250 to ₹ 350, Q65. On selling an article for ₹ 170, a shopkeeper
what is the greatest possible profit that might be made loses 15%. In order to gain 20%, he must sell that
in selling 15 books ? article at rupees :
(a) ₹ 3,000 (b) Cannot be determined (a) 210 (b) 215.50
(c) ₹ 750 (d) ₹ 4,250 (c) 212.50 (d) 240
Ans: (a) Least cost price = ₹ (150×15) = ₹2250
Ans: (d) C.P. of article = = ₹200
Greatest selling price = ₹ (350×15) = ₹5250
Required profit = ₹ (5250 – 2250) ₹3000 ∴ Required S.P. = = ₹240
Q62. Which of the following successive discounts is Q66. A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4
better to a customer? for ₹ 10 and an equal number more at 5 for ₹ 10. He
(A) 20%, 15%, 10% or sells the whole lot at 9 for ₹ 20. What is his loss or
(B) 25%, 12%, 8% gain percent?
(a) (A) is better (b) (B) is better (a) Loss percent % (b) Gain percent %
(c) (A) or (B) (both are same) (d) None of these
(c) No loss or no profit (d) Loss percent 2%
Ans: (b) (a) Net discount for 20% and 15%
Ans: (a) Let 20 apples of each type be bought.
=( )% = 32% C.P. of 40 apples
Net discount for 32% and 10% =( ) = ₹ 90
=( ) = 38.8%
Total S.P. = =₹
(b) Net discount for 25% and 12%
Loss = 90 –
=( ) = 34%
Net discount for 34% and 8% ∴ Loss per cent = = %
=( )% = 42 – 2.72 = 39.28% Alternate Method:
Cost price of 2 apples 1 of each typle =
Q63. The marked price of a mixie is ₹ 1600. The Selling price of 2 apples
shopkeeper gives successive discount of 10% and x%
Loss =
to the customer. I f the customer pays ₹1224 for the
mixie, find the value of x : Required % = %
(a) 8% (b) 10% Or, C.P : S.P =
(c) 12% (d) 15%
Loss % =
Ans: (d) First discount = = ₹160
Price after it = 1600 – 160 = ₹1440
Q67. A reduction in the price of apples enables a
∴ = 1440 – 1224 = 216 person to purchase 3 apples for ₹ 1 instead of ₹ 1.25.
∴x= = 15% What is the % of reduction in price (approximately)?
(a) 20 (b) 25
Q64. A retail er purchased radiosets at the rate of ₹ (c) 30 (d)
400 each from a wholesaler. He raised the price by Ans: (a) Percentage decrease
30% and then allowed a discount of 8% on each set. = × 100 = 20%
His profit will be
(a) 19% (b) 78.4%
Q68. A dozen pairs of socks quoted at ₹ 180 are
(c) 22% (d) 19.6%
available at discount of 20%. How many pairs of
Ans: (d) Marked price of a ratio set
socks can be bought for ₹ 48?
= = ₹ 520
(a) 2 pairs (b) 5 pairs
S.P. = = ₹ 478.4 (c) 3 pairs (d) 4 pairs
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Ans: (d) https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
(c) ₹ 750 (d) ₹ 775
Ans: (a) Let the marked price be ₹ x.
S.P. of a dozen pairs of socks S.P. = (x – 25% of x) =
But, S.P = ₹ 525
∴ S.P. of 1 pair of socks ∴
∴ No of pairs available for
Q73. Kabir buys an article with 25% discount on its
₹ 48 =
marked price. He makes a profit of 10% by selling it
at ₹ 660. The marked price is
Q69. An article is sold for ₹ 300 at a profit of 20%. (a) ₹ 600 (b) ₹ 685
Had it been sold ₹ 235, the loss percentage would have (c) ₹ 700 (d) ₹ 800
been
Ans: (d) Let the marked price be ₹x.
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 16 (d) 3 = (x – 25% of x) =
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(a) 100
(c) 400
(b) 200
(d) 500
115 S.P = 112.5 SP + 1125 Ans: (c) C.P. of article = ₹ x
S.P = 450
∴ First S.P. = =₹
∴ Case II,
Alternate Method:
Let cost price be 100%
1st selling price = 100 + 12.5 = 112.5% = 100
2nd selling price = 100 + 15 = 115%
Difference = 115 – 112.5 = 2.5% = 100
5x = 2000
x= = ₹ 400
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(c) ₹ 180 (d) ₹ 200
Ans: (b) Let M be the marked price.
New Cost price =
New Selling price =
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kg. If he mixed the two brand of rice and sold the
mixture at ₹80.50 per kg. his gain is
Ans: (a) Let list price = ₹ z (a) ₹510 (b) ₹525
So, Sale price (y) = =z= (c) ₹485 (d) ₹450
Ans: (a) Solving by alligation
Q104. After allowing a discount of 20%, a radio is
available for ₹ 1200. Its marked price was :
(a) ₹ 1500 (b) ₹ 1800
(c) ₹ 1400 (d) ₹ 1550
Ans: (a) MP = SP × x=
Cost price
Profit at original price = ∴ = 97500.
% Profit = ∴marked price of article is ₹. 97500.
Q123. A trader lists his article 20% above the cost Q127. For an article the profit is 170% of the cost
price and allows a discount of 10% on cash payment. price. If the cost price increases by 20% but the
His gain percent is selling price remains same, then what is the new profit
(a) 6% (b) 10% percentage?
(c) 5% (d) 8% (a) 41 (b) 50
Ans: (d) Let C.P. = ₹100 (c) 75 (d) 125
Ans: (d) Let cost price of an article = 100
Then, M.P. = ₹120
∴Profit = 170
S.P. = 90% of ₹20 = ₹108
∴S.P. = 100 + 170 = 270
Gain = 8%
Now,
Cost price increased by 20%, then
Q124. After a discount of 34% an article is sold for ₹
Cost price = 120
3168. What is the marked price (in ₹) of the article?
S.P. = 270
(a) 4750 (b) 4800
∴Profit = 270 – 120 = 150
(c) 4850 (d) 5000
∴Profit percentage
Ans: (b)
= 125%
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Q128. The marked price of a sofa set is ₹ 4800 which
Q131. By selling 175 pineapples, the gain is equal to
the selling pric e of 50 pineapples. What is the gain
is sold at ₹ 3672 at two successive discounts. If the percentage?
first discount is 10%, then what will be the second (a) 28 (b) 30
discount (in%)? (c) 32 (d) 40
(a) 13 (b) 14 Ans: (d) Let S.P. of each pineapple = Re 1
(c) 15 (d) 17 ∴Gain = 50, SP = 175
Ans: (c) First discount ∴CP = (175 – 50) = 125
Price after it = 4800 – 480 = 4320 ∴Required percentage
∴ = 40%
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∴Profit percentage https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
at ₹40 per kg and sells all the mangoes at ₹45 per kg.
The profit percentage of the fruit seller is:
Q135. The price of an article is cut by 33%, to restore (a) (b) 12.5
to its original value, the new price must be increased (c) 8 (d) 25
by Ans: (c) Total CP of the mangoes = (100 × 45) + (200 ×
(a) 33 percent (b) 49.25 percent 40)
(c) 24.81 percent (d) 41.25 percent = 4500 + 8000 = 12500
Ans: (b) Let the price of the article = ₹ 100 Total SP of the mangoes = (300 × 45) = 13500
New Price = 100 – 33 = 67 ∴Required profit percentage
Therefore the new price must be increased by
%
= 8%
Q136. A man sells an article at a loss of 10%. If he
had sold it for ₹75 more he would have gained 20%. Q139. A fan is listed at ₹150/- with a discount of 20%.
The cost price of the article is (in ₹): What additional discount must be offered to the
(a) 225 (b) 300 customer to bring the net price to ₹108/- ?
(c) 250 (d) 150 (a) 15% (b) 5%
Ans: (c) Let CP of an article = x (c) 10% (d) 20%
According to question, Ans: (c) M.P. of a fan = 150
Discount = 20%
Price of a fan after 20% discount
= ₹ 120
Let x% is additional discount
3x = 750
Then,
∴
∴The cost price of an article = ₹ 250.
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17 + 7 = 24
24 + 8 = 32
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= 5834 – 1120 = 4714
Q17. The traffic lights at three different road Q21. If a * b = ab, then the value of 5 * 3 is
crossings change after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 (a) 125 (b) 243
seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously (c) 53 (d) 15
at 10 : 15 :00 AM, then at wha t time will they again Ans: (a) a * b = ab
change simultaneously? ∴ 5 * 3 = 53 = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
(a) 10 : 16 : 54 AM (b) 10 : 18 : 36 AM
(c) 10 : 17 : 02 AM (d) 10 : 22 : 12 AM Q22. The unit digit in the sum of (124)372 + (124)373 is
Ans: (b) LCM of 24, 36 and 54 seconds (a) 5 (b) 4
= 216 seconds = 3 minutes 36 seconds (c) 2 (d) 0
∴ Required time = 10 : 15 : 00 + Ans: (d) 41 = 4; 42 = 16; 43 = 64; 44 = 256; 45 = 1024
3 minutes 36 seconds = 10 : 18 : 36 a.m. Remainder on dividing 372 by 4 = 0
Remainder on dividing 373 by 4 = 1
Q18. A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as ∴ Required unit digit
remainder. This number when divided by 7 will have = Unit‘s digit of the sum = 6 + 4 = 0
the remainder as
(a) 4 (b) 3 Q23. L.C.M. of two numbers is 120 and their H.C.F. is
(c) 2 (d) 5 10. Which of the following can be the sum of those two
Ans: (a) Here, the first divisor i.e. 49 is multiple of numbers?
second divisor i.e. 7. (a) 140 (b) 80
∴ Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing (c) 60 (d) 70
32 by 7 = 4 Ans: (d) Let the numbers be 10x and 10y where x and y
are prime to each other.
Q19. If 17200 is divided by 18, the remainder is ∴ LCM = 10 xy
(a) 1 (b) 2 10xy = 120 xy = 12
(c) 16 (d) 17 Posssible pairs = (3, 4) or (1, 12)
Ans: (a) Remainder when (x – 1)n is divided by x is (–1)n ∴ Sum of the numbers = 30 + 40 = 70
∴ (17)200 = (18 – 1)200 Alternate Method:
∴ Remainder = (–1)200 = 1 If two different numbers a re in form of ax and bx H.C.F
Alternate Method: of these numbers is x and L.C.M of these numbers is abx
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Now a and b are co-prime terms in L.C.M.
10 × a × b = 120
∴ a = 55, d = + 10
series would be :
a × b = 12 → 1 × 12 25, 45, 65, 85
2 × 6 this is not a pair of co prime terms. IIIrd term would be 65.
3×4
Q28. The greatest number that can divide 140, 176,
Q24. Which one of the following will comp letely 264 leaving remainders of 4, 6, and 9 respectively is
divide 571 + 572 + 573? (a) 85 (b) 34
(a) 150 (b) 160 (c) 17 (d) 2
(c) 155 (d) 30 Ans: (c) Required number = H.C.F of (140 – 4), (176 –
Ans: (c) 571 + 572 + 573 6) and (264 – 9) = H.C.F. of 136, 170 and 255.
= 571 (1 + 5 + 52) = 570 × 5 × 31
= 571 × 155 which is exactly divisible by 155.
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= 2870
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∴ Required number = (L.C.M of 48, 64, 90 and 120) – 10 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60
Q42. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their HCF Q48. A number x when divided by 289 leaves 18 as the
is 5. Their LCM is: remainder. The same number when divided by 17
(a) 10 (b) 60 leaves y as a remainder. The value of y is
(c) 15 (d) 12 (a) 3 (b) 1
Ans: (b) If the numbers be 3x and 4x, then (c) 5 (d) 2
HCF = x = 5 Ans: (b) Here, the first divisor (289) is a multiple of
∴ Number = 15 and 20 second divisor (17).
∴ LCM = 12x = 12 × 5 = 60 ∴Required remainder = Remainder obtained on dividing
Alternate Method: 18 by 17 = 1
If two numbers are in the form of 3x and 4x then their
L.C.M = 3 ×4 × x Q49. The next term of the sequence,
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( ) ( )( ) ( https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
)( )( ) is (c) 63 (d) 47
Ans: (a) If they are equal number of rows and columns
(a) 3 (b) ( ) then,
(c) 5 (d) ( )( ) √ = 37
Ans: (a) Next term will be
Q55. The smallest five digit number which is divisible
( )( )( )( ) by 12, 18 and 21 is :
(a) 50321 (b) 10224
(c) 30256 (d) 10080
Ans: (d) Lowest 5 digit number = 10,000
Q50. Find the number lying between 900 and 1000 The number which is divisible by 12, 18 and 21 is LCM
which when divided by 38 and 57 leaves in each case a of 12, 18, 12 which is 252.
remainder 23. gives 172 as remainder
(a) 912 (b) 926 So, 252 – 172 = 80
(c) 935 (d) 962 10,000 + 80 = 10080
Ans: (c) L.C.M of (38, 57) = 114 If 10080 when divided by 12, 18 and 21 g ives 0 as
Multiple of 114 between 900 and 1000 = 912 remainder
number which leaves 23 = 912 + 23 = 935 So, 10080 is the least 5–digit number.
Q51. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 44 Q56. If the product of first fifty positive consecutive
and 264 respectively. If the first number is divided by integers be divisible by 7 n, where n is an integer, then
2, the quotient is 44. The other number is the largest possible value of n is
(a) 147 (b) 528 (a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 132 (d) 264 (c) 10 (d) 5
Ans: (c) First number = 2 × 44 = 88 Ans: (b) Product of f irst fifty positive consecutive
Other number = integers = 1 × 2 × .... × 50 = factorial 50
Largest possible value of n
Q52. Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres, 465 =* + * +=7+1=8
litres of diesel respectively. Then the maximum
capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of
Q57. The least number that should be added to 2055
the three container exact number of times is
so that the sum is exactly divisible by 27 :
(a) 31 litres (b) 62 litres
(a) 24 (b) 27
(c) 41 litres (d) 84 litres
(c) 31 (d) 28
Ans: (a) H.C.F. of 403, 434 and 465 is 31.
Ans: (a) Number has to be less than 27. Let the number
be x. On Dividing 2055 by 27, we get remainder as 3
Q53. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 22
Now,3 + x = 27
and the last term is –11. If the sum is 66, the number
∴x = 24
of terms in the sequence are :
(a) 10 (b) 12
Q58. If 13 + 23 + ..... + 103 – 3025, then the value of 23 +
(c) 9 (d) 8
43 +..... + 203 is :
Ans: (b) The sum of Arithmetic Progression is given by
(a) 5060 (b) 12100
(c) 24200 (d) 7590
Ans: (c) 23 + 43 + 63 + ------+ 203
= 23 (13 + 23 + 33 + ------ + 103)
n = 12
= ( ) ( )
Q54. A teacher wants to arrange his students in an = 24200
equal number of rows and columns. If there are 1369
students, the number of students in the last row are Q59. What least value must be assigned to '*' so that
(a) 37 (b) 33 the numbers 451*603 is exactly divisible by 9?
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(a) 7
(c) 5
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(b) 8
(d) 9
5000 ÷ 2 = 2500
Hence, 2500 is a perfect square of 50.
Ans: (b) To divide 451 * 603 by 9
(4 + 5 + 1 + * + 6 + 0 + 3) = (19 + *) Q64. Which value among √ √ √ √ is the
(19 + *) must be multiple of 9 largest?
∴ 19 + * = 27 (a) √ √
*=8 (c) √ √
= 3 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 36
Q68. The least number of five digits exactly divisible
by 88 is:
Q3. The sum of the series
(a) 10088 (b) 10023
(1 + 0.6 + 0.06 + 0.006 + 0.0006 + ....) is
(c) 10132 (d) 10032
Ans: (d) The smallest number of 5 digits = 10000 (a)
Q69. Which one among √ √ √ √ √ √ is Q4. The number 0.121212.... in the form - is equal to
the smallest number? (a)
(a) √ √ √ √
(c)
(c) √ √ (d) All are equal
Ans: (b) Here, Ans: (c) 0.121212……….
√ √
√ √ Q5. The square root of 0.09 is
√ √ (a) 0.30 (b) 0.03
(c) 0.81 (d) 0.081
So,√ √ is the smallest number.
Ans: (a) √ √
Q70. What is the smallest value that must be added to
709, so that the resultant is a perfect square? Q6. ( ) is equal to
(a) 8 (b) 12
(a) 1236 (b)
(c) 20 (d) 32
Ans: (c) According to question (c) 618 (d) 617
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Q7. By what least number should 675 be multiplied so
(c)
Q16. is equal to
Q10. (12 + 22 + 32 + ...... + 102) is equal to
(a) 380 (b) 385 (a) 1 (b)
(c) 390 (d) 392 (c) (d) 10
Ans: (b) 12 + 22 + 32 + .... + n2 = Ans: (d)
∴ 12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 102 = = 385 = = 10
= 100
Q21. √ √ √ =?
(a) 2.3 (b) 3 Q26. If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each
(c) 6 (d) 6.3 number separately, the products so obtained are 247
and 114. The sum of the numbers is
Ans: (b) √ √ √ (a) 19 (b) 20
6=3×2 (c) 21 (d) 23
By trick = 3 answer Ans: (a) Let the numbers be x and y.
∴ x (x + y) = 247
√ √ √ and y (x + y) = 114
Q22. The value of is
√ √ √ √ √ √ x2 + xy = 247 and xy + y2 = 114
(a) 4 (b) 0
On adding;
(c) √ √ x2 + xy + xy + y2 = 247 + 114
Ans: (b) Expression x2 + 2xy + y2 = 361
√ √ √
= (x + y)2 = 192 x + y = 19
√ √ √ √ √ √
√ (√ √ ) √ (√ √ )
= (√ √ )(√ √ ) (√ √ )(√ √ )
+
Q27. √ is equal to
√ √ √
(√ √ ) √ √ (a)
√ (√ √ ) √ (√ √ ) √ (√ √ ) (c)
=
= √ (√ √ ) √ (√ √ ) √ (√ √ ) Ans: (b) = √ √
=√ √ √ √ √ √ =0
=√ √
= = √ √
√
√ √
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By Rationalising
√ ( √ √ )
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∴ Correct answer = = 110 + 12 = 122
Page 38 of 516
Q39. From 9.00 AM to 2.00 PM, the temperature rose
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the second one –fourth, the third son and the fourth
son 7 cows. Then the value of n is
at a constant rate from 21ºC to 36ºC. What was the
(a) 240 (b) 100
temperature at noon ?
(c) 180 (d) 140
(a) 27ºC (b) 30ºC
Ans: (d) According to the question,
(c) 32ºC (d) 28.5ºC
Ans: (b) Time difference between 9.00 A.M & 2.00 P.M
= 5 hours
Temperature difference between 21°C & 36°C
= 36 – 21 = 15°C
Now, Time difference between 9.00 A.M & 12.00 Noon
= 3 hrs.
In 5 hours →
So, In 3 hours → ( ) = 9°C Q44. is equal to
So, temperature at noon = 21 + 9 = 30°C (a) 3 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2
√
Q40. is equal to Ans: (c)
√
(a) 0 (b)
√
(c) √
√ √ √ √
√ Q45. If √ , then the value of x is:
Ans: (b) √ √ √ √
√ ( √ )( √ )
(a) 6 (b) 30
√ √
(c) √ (d) 15
√ √ √ √
√ √ Ans: (d) √
√ √ √ √
(√ √ ) (√ √ ) √ √
√ √ √
(√ √ )(√ √ )
√ √
Q41. If √ √ √ , then the value of x is
(a) 3 (b) ± 3 Q46. If 21 is added to a number, it becomes 7 less than
thrice of the number. Then the number is
(c) √ √
(a) 14 (b) 16
Ans: (a) √ √ √
(c) 18 (d) 19
√ √ √ Ans: (a) If the number be x, then
√ √ √ x + 21 = 3x – 7
√ √ 3x – x = 21 + 7
x=3 2x = 28
x = 14
Q42. By what least number shou ld 675 be multiplied
to obtain a number which is a perfect cube? Q47. The simplest value of
(a) 7 (b) 8 is
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
(c) 5 (d) 6
Ans: (c) 675 = 5 × 5 × 3 × 3 × 3 (a) √ (√ ) √ (√ ) √ √
= 33 × 52 Ans: (b)
√ √
∴ Required number = 5
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√ √ √ https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
√ (c) 9 (d) 7
√ √ √ √ Ans: (d) √ √ √ =7
√ √
√ √ Q53. The greatest among the following numbers
√ √ is:
√ √
(a) (b) 1
√ √ √ √
√ √ (c)
∴ Expression Ans: (d) LCM of 3, 2 and 6 = 6
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √ ∴
√ √ √ (√ )
Q48. √ equals
(a) 5 (b) 50 Q54. Find the value of
(c) 500 (d) 0.05
√ √ √
Ans: (b) √ √
(a) 6 (b) 3
√ = 50 (c) √
(√ )
√ √
Ans: (b)
√ √ √
Q49. The simplified value of is
√ √ √ √ √
(a) 4 (b) 3 √ √ √ √ √ √
(c) 2 (d) 6 √ √ √
√ √ √ √
Ans: (c) √ √ √
√ √ √ √
√ √ ( √ √ )
√ √
√ √ ( √ √ ) 3
( ) ( )
= = =
2x = 10 x=5
Q60. The numerator o f a fraction is 4 less than its Q64. The fourth root of 24010000 is
denominator. If the numerator is decreased by 2 and (a) 7 (b) 49
the denominator is increased by 1, then the (c) 490 (d) 70
denominator becomes eight times the numerator. Find
Ans: (d) √ = 4900
the fraction.
Again, √ = 70
(a)
∴√ = 70
(c)
Ans: (d) Original fraction Q65. The smallest positive integer which when
multiplied by 392, gives a perfect square is
In case II,
(a) 2 (b) 3
8 (x – 4 – 2) = x + 1
(c) 5 (d) 7
8x – 48 = x + 1
Ans: (a) 392 × 2 = 784 (28)2
7x = 49 x = 7
Hence, 2 can be multiplied by 392 which gives perfect
Original fraction square.
( )( )( )( )
(a) 9999 (b) 9909
(c) 9801 (d) 9081
Ans: (c) 99 × 99 = 9801
Alternate Method: Q73. If '+' means ' ÷', '×' means ' –', '÷' means '×' and
1002 = 10000 which is a 5 digits number '–' means '+', what will be the value of the following
Hence, 992 is required number. expression?
9 + 3÷ 4 – 8 × 2 = ?
Q68. If (23)2 = 4x then 3x is equal to (a)
(a) 3 (b) 6
(c) (d) 18
(c) 9 (d) 27
Ans: (d) (23)2 = 4x Ans: (d) 9 + 3 ÷ 4 – 8 × 2 = ?
26 = 22x Applying rules
6 = 2x 9÷3×4+8–2=?
x=3 3×4+8–2=?
33 = 27 20 – 2 = ?
? = 18
Q69. Which one of the following is the minimum value
of the sum of two integers whose product is 24? Q74. Ram left of his property to his widow and of
(a) 25 (b) 11 the remainder to his daughter. He gave the rest to his
(c) 8 (d) 10 son who received ₹ 6,400. How m uch was his original
Ans: (d) Product of 2 no is = 24 property worth?
Possible pair of factor = (1, 24) (2, 12) (3, 8) (4, 6) i,e., 4 (a) ₹ 16,000 (b) ₹ 32,000
+ 6 is minimum = 10 (c) ₹ 24,000 (d) ₹ 1,600
Ans: (c) Let original property worth ₹ x
Q70. The value of
Property left for Ram‘s widow =
* , ( )-+ is
Property left for his daughter =
(a)
Remaining property = ( )
(c)
Ans: (b) * , -+
[ ]
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√ √
√
√
√
√ √ √
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√
√
√
√ √
Ans: (c) By squ aring the given relations, we get (i) and
(iii) are incorrect relations from the given statement.
√ √ √ √
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ Q88. The value of
√ √ (√ √ ) √
(a) 2 (b) 2.27
(√ √ ) √ (c) 2.33 (d) 2.6
Ans: (d)
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
[ ]
5 [ ]
2.3 + 0.3 = 2.6
Q85. The sum of four numbers is 48. When 5 and 1
are added to the first two; and 3 & 7 are subtracted
Q89. If of a number is 7 more than of the number,
from the 3rd & 4th, the numbers will be equal. The
numbers are then of the number is :
(a) 4, 12, 12, 20 (b) 5, 11, 13, 19 (a) 15 (b) 18
(c) 6, 10, 14, 18 (d) 9, 7, 15, 17 (c) 12 (d) 20
Ans: (c) Let four numbers are a, b, c, d, then Ans: (d) Let the number be x
a + b + c + d = 48... (i)
anda + 5 = b + 1... (ii)
or,a = b – 4... (iii)
andc – 3 = d – 7... (iv) =
c = d – 4... (v)
∴ x = 12
Substituting equation (iii) and (v) in equation (i) we get
b – 4 + b + d – 4 + d = 48 Now, of x =
b + d = 28... (vi)
But we know,
Q90. If , then the value of a + b + c
b+1=d–7
∴b = d – 8
Substituting in equation (vi) we get (a) 6 (b) 3
d – 8 ≠ d = 28 (c) 9 (d) 12
d = 18 Ans: (c)
Solving this way we get a = 6, b = 10, c = 14 and d = 18
Q91. If the numbers √ √ √ are arrange d in
Q86. If x = ascending order, then the right arrangement is
√
(a) √ √ √ √ √ √
then (x + 1) equals to
(c) √ √ √ √ √ √
(a) 2 (b) √
Ans: (d) √ √ √
(c) √ √
LCM of 3, 4, 6 = 24
√
Ans: (d) x = √
√ √ √ √ √
Now, x + 1 = √ =√ √ √ √
i.e.√ √ √
Q87. Choose the incorrect relation (s) from the
Alternate Method:
following:
(i) √ √ √ √
L.C.M of Numbers of Powers = 12
(ii)√ √ √ √
(iii)√ √ √ √ √ √ √
(a) (i) (b) (ii) √ √ √
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) √ √ √
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Q92. If 2x – 3 (2x – 2) > x – 1 < 2 + 2x, then x can take
which of the following values?
√
√
(a) 2 (b) –2 √ ( √ )
=
(c) 4 (d) –4 √ √
Ans: (b) Here,
2x – 3 (2x – 2) > x – 1 < 2 + 2x Q95. If 1 .5x = 0.04y, then the value of is
2x – 6x + 6 > x – 1
2x – 6x – x > –7 (a)
–5x > –7 (c)
x < 7/5... (i)
Ans: (b) 1.5x = 0.04y =
(x – 1) < (2 + 2x)
x – 1 < 2 + 2x
– 3 < x... (ii)
Now,
From (i) and (ii),
x = –2.
= = =
Product of number
Q2. If √ = 0.3 × 0.3 × √ value of is
(a) 0.009 (b) 0.09
√ √
Q94. If then what is the value of N+ (c) 0.09 (d) 0.08
√ √
(1/N)? Ans: (b) √ = 0.3 × 0.3 √
(a) √ (b) 5 On squaring,
(c) 10 (d) 13 0.03 × 0.3 × a = 0.09 × 0.09 × b
Ans: (b) Here, = 0.9
√ √
?
√ √
Now, Q3. If x = (0.08)2, y = and z = (1 – 0.08)2 – 1,
√ √ √ √ (√ √ ) then out of the following the true relation is
√ √ √ √ (a) y < x and x = z (b) x < y and x = z
(√ ) (√ )
(c) y < z < x (d) z < x < y
√ √ √ √
Ans: (d) x = (0.08)2
∴ y
√
√ Z = (1 – 0.08)2 – 1
∴( )
√
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Clearly, z < x < y
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= 1 + (0.08)2 – 2 × 0.08 – 1 = (0.08)2 – 2 × 0.08 (c) –1
Ans: (b) If a + b + c = 0
(d) 1
then a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 0
Q4. The sum of two numbers is 24 and their product
is 143. The sum of their squares is Q8. If = 3, the value of is
(a) 296 (b) 295
(a) 123 (b) 126
(c) 290 (d) 228
(c) 113 (d) 129
Ans: (c) Let the two numbers be x and y.
∴ x + y = 24 Ans: (a)
and, xy = 143 On squaring,
∴ x2 + y2 = (x + y)2 – 2xy
( )
= (24)2 – 2 × 143 = 576 – 286 = 290
( )
( )( )
( ) = 7 × 18
( )
( ) =5–2=3
Q6. In xy –plane, P and Q are two points having co – Q9. If (a – b) = 3, (b – c) = 5 and (c – a) = 1, then t he
ordinates (2, 0) and (5, 4) respectively. Then the value of is
numerical value of the area of the ci rcle with radius
(a) 17.5 (b) 20.5
PQ is
(c) 10.5 (d) 15.5
(a) 16 π (b) 32 π
(c) 14 π (d) 25 π Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc
= [ ]
[ ]
(9+25+1)
Q13. If , then the value of a3 is: Q17. Area of the triangle formed by the graph of the
(a) – 2 (b) 2 line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 along with the coordinate axes is:
(c) – 1 (d) 4 (a) 1/2 sq. units (b) 3/2 sq. units
Ans: (c) (c) 3 sq. units (d) 6 sq. units
Ans: (c) Putting x = 0 in
a2 + 1 = a
2x – 3y + 6 = 0
a2 – a + 1 = 0
y=2
Multiplying both side by (a + 1)
Putting y = 0 in 2x + 3y + 6 = 0
(a + 1) (a2 – a + 1) = 0
x=–3
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(c) 790
Ans: (d)
(d) 970
( )
( )
( )
( )
Area of ∆ OAB
sq. units.
Q18. Area of the trapezium formed by x -axis; y -axis Q20. If , then the value of
and the lines 3x + 4y = 12 and 6x + 8y = 60 is:
(a) 37.5 sq. unit (b) 31.5 sq. unit is:
(c) 48 sq. unit (d) 36.5 sq. unit (a) 2 (b) 6
Ans: (b) For 3x + 4y = 12, (c) 4 (d) 3
By putting x = 0, y = 3 Ans: (a)
By putting, y = 0, x = 4
For 6x + 8y = 60,
By putting x = 0, On cubing,
By putting y = 0, x = 10
[ ]
( )
4 5 ( ) On multiplying by ,
0( ) ( )1 On squaring,
(a)
(c) Q28. If 2x – then the value of is
Ans: (b) 4x = 18y
(a)
(c)
( ) Ans: (a)
[on dividing by 2]
2 2 2
Q25. If a + b + c = 2 (a – b – c) – 3 then the value of
2a – 3b + 4c is
(a) 3 (b) 1 [On Squaring]
(c) 2 (d) 4
Ans: (b) a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 (a – b –c) –3
a2 + b2 + c2 = 2a + 2b + 2c + 3 = 0
a2 – 2a + 1 + b2 + 2b + 1 + c2 + 2c + 1 = 0 Q29. If , then the value of
(a –1)2 + (b + 1)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0
is
[If x2 + y2 + z2 = 0 x = 0; y = 0; z = 0]
(a) a (b) b
∴a–1=0 a=1
(c) 0 (d) 2
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(c) 16 (d) 4
Ans: (a) x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – zx
Applying compodendo and Dividendo
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(√ )
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Q40. If = 0, then the value of
√
is
(√ ) √ √ =4
√ (a) 15 (b) 3
(√ ) √ (c) 5 (d) 10
√ Ans: (c)
(a) y = – x (b) y = – 3x
(a) y ≤ x (b) y ≥ – x
(c) y = x (d) y = 3x
(c) y ≥ x (d) y ≤ – x
Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
Q44. The line passing through the points ( – 2, 8) and Q47. If , then the value of x is :
(5, 7) (a) 11 (b) 19
(a) does not cut any axes (b) cuts x-axis only (c) 23 (d) 7
(c) cuts y-axis only (d) cuts both the axes Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
9x + 15 = 10x – 4
15 + 4 = 10x – 9x
x = 19
Q48. If , then :
(a)
(c) (d) none of the above is
true
Ans: (a) (say)
So, x = k (b + c)
x – y = k (b + c) – k (c + a)
= k (b – a)
y = k (c + a)
As indicated in the graph, the line passing through the y – z = k (c + a) – k (a + b)
points cuts Y-axis only. = k (c – b)
z = k (a + b) = z – x = k (a + b) – k (b + c) = k (a – c)
Q45. The equation of this graph is So,check option (a)
k=k=k
option (a) is true.
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Q49. If √ https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
√ , then the value of is :
This is possible when and
(a) √ √
(c) √ √
a = 1, b = –1, c = –1
Ans: (c) √ √ Thus, 2a – 3b + 4c = 2 (1) – 3 (–1) + 4 (–1)
√ √ √ √ = 2 + 3 – 4 = 1.
√ √
√ √ √ √
Now, (√ √ ) (√ √ ) Q53. If xy + yz + zx = 0, then
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a + b + c = 9]
∴ minimum value of
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c + 1 = 0 c = –1
∴ 2a – b + c = 2 + 1 – 1 = 2
= 81 – 2 (3 × 3 + 3 × 3 + 3 × 3)
= 81 – 54 = 27 Q69. If ( ) = 4, then the value of is :
(a) 124 (b) 64
Q65. If , then the value of is: (c) 194 (d) 81
(a) 27 (b) 81 Ans: (c) ( )=4
(c) 110 (d) 125
On squaring both sides
Ans: (c)
= 16
=3
x2 + = 14
=3
On squaring again
=5
= 196
On cubing both sides
= 194
( ) = 125
= 125 – 3 × 5 = 110
Q70. If ( ) be a perfect square, then the
values of t are :
Q66. If p – 2q = 4, then the value of p 3 – 8q3 – 24pq –
(a) ±1 (b) ±2
64 is :
(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 3
(a) –1 (b) 2
(c) 0 (d) 3 Ans: (a) For nr – tn + to be a perfect square,
Ans: (c) p – 21 = 4 r = 2 and t = 1
cubing both sides, Look :
(p – 2q)3 = 64 n2 – n + = n2 – 2.n. =( )
p3 – 8q3 + 3p. 4q2 – 3p2 . 2q = 64
p3 – 8q3 + 12pq2 – 6p2q = 64 =( )
p3 – 8q3 – 6pq (p – 2q) = 64
p3 – 8q3 – 6pq × 4 = 64 Q71. If (x + 7954 × 7956) be a square number, then
p3 – 8q3 – 24pq – 64 = 0 the value of ‗x‘ is
(a) 1 (b) 16
Q67. If , then the value of x – x2 is : (c) 9 (d) 4
(a) a (b) – a Ans: (a) x + 7954 × 7956
x + 7954 (7954 + 2)
(c) (d) –
x + 79542 + 2 × 7954 × 1
Ans: (a) Putting x = 1
(x + 7954)2 or (1 + 7954)2
x2 = x – a x – x2 = a
Q72. Equation of the straight line parallel to x -axis
2 2 2 and also 3 units below x-axis is :
Q68. If a + b + c + 3 = (2 (a – b – c), then the value
(a) x = 3 (b) x = –3
of 2a – b + c is :
(c) y = 3 (d) y = –3
(a) 2 (b) 3
Ans: (d)
(c) 4 (d) 0
Ans: (a) a2 + b2 + c2 + 3
= 2a – 2b – 2c
a2 – 2a + 1 + b2 + 2b + 1 + c2 * + 2c + 1 = 0
(a – 1)2 + (b + 1)2 + (c + 1)2 = 0
∴a–1=0 a=1
b + 1 = 0 b = –1
Page 55 of 516
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Q76. If a + b + c = 2s, then
is equal to
2 2 2
(a) a + b + c (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2
Ans: (c) Expression
=
=
∴ Equation is : y = –3
= =1
Q73. If , then the value of
Q77. The minimum value of (x – 2) (x – 9) is
( ) is
(a)
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) – 2 (d) 4 (c) 0 (d)
Ans: (b) a + =4 Ans: (d) Expression = (x – 2) (x – 9)
= x2 – 11x + 18 = ax2 + bx + c
(a – 2) + =4–2=2
Minimum value =
On squaring,
=
(a – 2)2 + =4
Alternate Method:
(a – 2)2 + In this type of questions take (x – a) (x – b) = 0
and value of x = for minimum value and x = a +b for
Q74. If the number p is 5 more than q and the sum of
maximum value of equation.
the squares of p and q is 55, then the pr oduct of p and
q is Required value = ( )( )= =
(a) 10 (b) – 10
(c) 15 (d) – 15 Q78. If a 3 – b3 – c3 = 0 then the value of a 9 – b9 – c9 –
Ans: (c) p = q + 5 3a3b3c3 is
p–q=5 (a) 1 (b) 2
p2 + q2 = 55 (c) 0 (d) – 1
∴ (p – q)2 + 2pq = 55 Ans: (c) If a + b + c = 0, then
25 + 2 pq = 55 a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 0
2 pq = 30
pq = 15 Q79. The third proportional to
( ) and √ is
Q75. If xy (x + y) = 1 then, the value of
(a) xy (b) √
is
(c) √ √
(a) 3 (b) – 3 Ans: (a) Third proportional of a and b
(c) 1 (d) – 1 a:b:c
Ans: (a) xy (x + y) = 1
x+y=
Cubing both sides, c=
x3 + y3 + 3xy (x + y) = (√ )
= = xy
3 3
x +y +3×1=
Alternate Method:
– x3 + y3 = 3
Page 56 of 516
Proportional)2
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First Proportional × Third Proportional = (Mid Q83. An equation of the form ax + by + c = 0 where a
≠ 0, b ≠ 0, c = 0 represents a straight line which passes
∴ Third Proportional = through
(a) (0, 0) (b) (3, 2)
Required value (c) (2, 4) (d) None of these
(√ ) Ans: (a) ax + by +c = 0
=
When c = 0,
ax + by = 0
Q80. If x + y + z = 6 and x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 20 then the
value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz is
(a) 64 (b) 70 When x = 0, y = 0 i,e. this line passes through the origin
(c) 72 (d) 76 (0, 0).
Ans: (c) x + y + z = 6
On squaring, Q84. If a 2 + b2 + 4c2 = 2 (a + b – 2c) – 3 and a, b, c are
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2zy + 2zx = 36 real, then the value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is
20 + 2 (xy + yz + zx) = 36 (a) 2 (b)
xy + yz + zx = 8 (c) 3 (d)
∴ x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz
Ans: (b) a2 + b2 + 4c2 = 2a +2b – 4c – 3
= (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – zx)
a2 + b2 + 4c2 – 2a –2b + 4c + 3 = 0
= 6 (20 – 8) = 72
a2 – 2a + 1 + b2 – 2b + 1 + 4c2 + 4c + 1 = 0
(a –1)2 + (b – 1)2 + (2c + 1)2 = 0
Q81. If , then the value of ∴ a – 1 = 0 a = 1;
is b – 1 = 0 b = 1;
(a) 4 (b) 6 2c + 1 = 0 c
(c) 9 (d) 3
Ans: (a)
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(b) 8 Ans: (a) Let Puneet‘s age = x yr.
Let Puneet‘s father age = y yr.
(c) 16 (d) 16
x + y = 45 y = (45 – x)
Ans: (b) x + xy = 126
x2 + 4 = 4x x2 – 4x + 4 = 0 (x – 2)2 = 0 Putting the value of y.
x=2 (x) (45 – x) = 126
45x – x2 = 126
x2 – 45x + 126 = 0
x2 – 42x – 3x + 126 = 0
x (x – 42) – 3 (x – 42) = 0
x = 3, x = 42
Q88. If a + b + c = 0, find the value of . Hence, Puneet‘s age in 3yr.
(a) 0 (b) l
(c) – 1 (d) 2 Q92. If a = 0, b ≠ 0, c ≠ 0, then the equation ax + by +
Ans: (a) a + b + c = 0 c = 0 represents a line parallel to
i.e. a = – (b + c); b = – (c + a); c = – (a + b) (a) x + y = 0 (b) x-axis
Now, (c) y-axis (d) none of these
[ ]
Ans: (b) It a = 0, b ≠ 0, c ≠ 0, then equation ax + by + c =
0
–1+2–1=0 represents a line parallel to x-axis.
Q89. If ‗a‘ be a positive number, then the least value Q93. If = 1, then the value of
of a + is is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) (c) 4 (d) 0
Ans: (c) The least value of is 2 where a = 1. Ans: (c) =1
=4
Q90. If x = 3 + 2√ , then the value of (√ ) is =4
√
(a) 1 (b) 2
=4
(c) 2√ (d) 3√
Ans: (b) x = 3 + 2√
Q94. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is ₹ 92
x = 2 + 1 + 2√
and the total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs is ₹ 77.
x = (√ ) √ Find the cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets.
x = (√ ) (a) ₹ 35 (b) ₹ 70
(√ )... (1) (c) ₹ 30 (d) ₹ 38
√
Ans: (a) C.P. of 1 bucket = ₹ x
√ √
√ C.P. of 1 mug = ₹ y
√ √ √
∴ 8x + 5y = 92... (i)
Now, √ √ (√ ) 5x + 8y = 77... (ii)
√
√ √ By equation (i) × 5 – equation (ii) × 8,
40x + 25y – 40x – 64y = 460 – 616
√ –39y = –156
√
y=4
Q91. The sum of the ages of Puneet and his father is From equation (i) ,
45 years and the product of their ages is 126. What is 8x + 20 = 92
the age of Puneet ? 8x = 92 – 20 = 72
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years x=9
(c) 10 years (d) 45 years ∴ C.P. of 2 mugs and 3 buckets
Page 58 of 516
=2×4+3×9
= 8 + 27 = ₹ 35
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=
( ) ( ) ( )
2
4 + 3 × 4 + 2 = 30
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Q102. If a + b + c = 3, a2+ b2 + c2 = 6 and = 1, (a) –2
(c) 0
(b) –1
(d) 9.932
where a, b, c are all non-zero, then 'abc' is equal to
Ans: (c) a = 4.965 ≈ 5, b = 2.343 ≈ 2
(a) c = 2.622
(c) a–b=c
Ans: (b) a + b + c = 3 taking cube both sides
Squaring both sides a3 – b3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 = c3
a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 (ab + bc + ac) = 9 a3 – b3 – c3 – 3ab (a – b) = 0
6 + 2 (ab + bc + ca) = 9 a3 – b3 – c3 – 3abc = 0
ab + bc + ca = ... (1)
Q106. If x = 2 + √ , then x2 + is equal to
given =1
(a) 10 (b) 12
ab + bc + ac = abc = [from (1) ] (c) –12 (d) 14
Ans: (d) x = √
Q103. For what value of k, the system of equations kx √
= = √
+ 2y = 2 and 3x + y = 1 will be coincident? √ √
(a) 2 (b) 3 =( ) –2
(c) 5 (d) 6
Ans: (d) Kx + 2y = 2... (1) =( √ √ )
3x + y = 1... (2) = 16 – 2 = 14
divide eqn (1) by (2)
Q107. If x : y ::2 : 3 and 2 : x :: 4 : 8 the value of y is
=1
(a) 6 (b) 8
for system of equation to be coincident (c) 4 (d) 12
=3 Ans: (a) ;
K=6
x=4
=
Q104. The total area (in sq. unit) of the triangles
formed by the graph of 4x + 5y = 40, x-axis, y-axis and
x = 5 and y = 4 is Q108. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of is
(a) 10 (b) 20
(a) –1 (b) 0
(c) 30 (d) 40
(c) 1 (d) 2
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) x + y + z = 0
y + z = –x
y2 + z2 + 2yz = x2
y2 + z2 = x2 – 2yz... (1)
= =2
2
Q114. If = 3, then the value of is Q118. The mean of x and is M. Then the mean of x
Q115. If = and x + y + z =
0, then each ratio is =
(a)
=
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Now multiplying both sides by x
= 2M2 –1 ( ) = 2x = 2x
=2
Q119. The term that should be added to (4x 2 + 8x) so 2
x +1 = 2x
that resulting expression be a perfect square is: x2 – 2x + 1 = 0
(a) 4 (b) 1
x2 – x – x +1 = 0
(c) 2x (d) 2
x (x – 1) –1 (x – 1)
Ans: (a) 4x2 + 8x = (2x)2 + 2 (2x) (2) + (2) 2 (x –1)2 = 0
= (2x + 2)2 ∴ x2 + y2 + 2xy = (x + y)2 x=1
So, 4 should be added to make if perfect square.
So = 2 (1) = 2
Q120. If999x + 888y = 1332
888x + 999y = 555 Q123. If for non –zero x, x 2 – 4x – 1 = 0 the value of
then the value of x+y is: is :
(a) 888 (b) 1 (a) 10 (b) 4
(c) 999 (d) 555 (c) 12 (d) 18
Ans: (b) 999x + 888y = 1332 Ans: (d) – 4x – 1 = 0 can be written as – 4x + 4 – 1
111 (9x + 8y) = 1332 =4
9x + 8y = = 12 So –1=4
9x + 8y = 12 ... (i) x–2=√
888x + 999y = 555 x=√
8x + 9y = 5 ... (ii)
So, =( √ ) +
Solving (i) and (ii) ( √ )
x=4y=–3 =4+5+ √ +
√
x+y=4–3=1
= √ +
√
Q121. If p = –0.12, q = –0.01 & r = –0.015, then the ( √ )
=
correct relationship among the three is : √
√
(a) q > p > r (b) p > q > r =
√
(c) p > r > q (d) p < r < q √
Ans: (d) p = – 0.12; q = – 0.01; r = – 0.015 =
√
So, p < r ;p < q √ √
= ×
√ √
=p<r<q
( √ )( √ )
=
Q122. If x + = 2, then the value of is: = (√ ) √
(a) 25 (b) 212 = 1458 – 648√ + 648 √ – 1440
(c)
2 (d) 27 = 1458 – 1440 = 18.
Ans: (c) =2
√ √ √ √
Take cube on both sides Q124. If a = and b = , then the value of
√ √ √ √
( ) = 23 is :
( )( )=8 (a) 970 (b) 930
(c) 1030 (d) 1025
=8
√ √ √ √
Ans: (a) a = ×
=2 √ √ √ √
(√ √ ) √
Squaring on both sides = = = √ .
=4 √ √ √ √
b= ×
√ √ √ √
=2
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=
(√ √ )
= √
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=c–c+1
( √ ) ( √ ) =1
So, + = +
√ √
( √ ) ( √ )
= Q128. If (2a – 1)2 + (4b – 3)2 + (4c + 5) 2 = 0 then the
( √ )
= value of is:
( √ ) ( √ )( √ ) ( √ ) ( √ )( √ ) (a)
√ √ √ √ (c) (d) 0
=
Ans: (d) (2a – 1) + (4b – 3) + (4c + 5)2 = 0
2 2
= 125 + 125 + 360 + 360
= 250 + 720 = ; ; ; ;
= 970
a3 + b 3 + c 3 – 3abc = (a + b + c) (a 2 + b 2+ c 2 – ab – bc –
Q125. Two positive whole numbers are such that the
ca)
sum of the first and twice the second number is 8 and
But a + b + c = 0
their difference is 2. The numbers are :
So, a3 + b3 +c3 – 3abc = 0
(a) 7,5 (b) 6,4
(c) 3,5 (d) 4,2 So, =0
Ans: (d) Let the two numbers are x and y
So, x + 2y = 8 … (i) Q129. If m = –4, n = –2, then the value of m 3 – 3m2 +
x – y = 2… (ii) 3m + 3n + 3n2 + n3 is
Solving both equations (a) 124 (b) –124
x = 4; y = 2 (c) 126 (d) –126
So, numbers are 4,2 Ans: (d) m3 – 3m2 + 3m + 3n + 3n2 + n3
(– 4)3 – 3 (– 4)2 + 3 (– 4) + 3 (– 2) + 3 (– 2)2 + (– 2)3
Q126. A number of boys raised ₹ 12,544 for a famine – 64 – 48 – 12 – 6 + 12 – 8
fund, each boy has given as many rupees as there – 126
were boys. The number of boys was:
(a) 122 (b) 132 Q130. The length of the portion of the straight line 3x
(c) 112 (d) 102 + 4y = 12 intercepted between the axes is
Ans: (c) Contribution of each boy = Number of boys (a) 3 (b) 4
Total contribution raised = ₹ 12544 (c) 7 (d) 5
So, number of boys = √ = 112 Ans: (d) Intercept can represent in the form of
b=
Q131. If = 3, then the value of m
So, a + =1
is
a+ =1 (a) a2 + b2 (b) a2 + b2 + c2
(c) a2 – b2 – c2 (d) a2 + b2 – c2
a=1–
Ans: (b)
a= =
So, c + = c + . /
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(a) 2x – 3y = 0
(c) x + 2y + 9 = 0
(b) 5x – 4 = 0
(d) 2y – 13 = 0
Ans: (a) 2x – 3y = 0 is passing through origion because
its satisfy x = 0 and y = 0.
[ ]
Q136. The area of the triangle formed by the graphs
=0 of the equations x = 0, 2x + 3y = 6 and x + y = 3 is
(a) 3 sq. unit (b) sq. unit
(c) 1 sq. unit (d) sq. unit
Q132. 2x – ky + 7 = 0 and 6x – 12y + 15 = 0 has no Ans: (b) x = 0... (1)
solution for 2x + 3y = 6... (2)
(a) k = – 4 (b) k = 4 2x + y = 3... (3)
(c) k = 1 (d) k = – 1
Ans: (b) For no solution, a = b
k= =4
Q133. If √ √
, then the simplest value of x
is
(a) 1 (b) –2
(c) 2 (d) –1
Ans: (d) √
√
( √ )( √ )
√ √ 2x + 3y = 6 ... (ii)
√ √ √ x = 0, y = 2
( √ ) ( √ ) x = 3, y = 0
x=–1 From eqn. (iii) x+ y = 3
x = 0, y = 3
Q134. If x = 332, y = 333, z = 335, then the value of x 3 x = 3, y = 0
+ y3 + z3 – 3xyz is Area made by these three lines
(a) 7000 (b) 8000 = Area of triangle OBC – Area of OAC
(c) 9000 (d) 10000 =
Ans: (a) Using the formula,
=
[ ]
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Q142. If x = 2 then the value of x3 + 27x2 + 243x + 631
(a) 1233 (b) 1231
Q138. The HCF of x8 – 1 and x4 + 2x3 – 2x – 1 is:
(c) 1321 (d) 1211
(a) x2 + 1 (b) x + 1
Ans: (a) Given x = 2
(c) x2 – 1 (d) x – 1
then x3 + 27x2 + 243x + 631
Ans: (c) Given fraction
= 8 + 108 + 486 + 631
= 1233
=0
Now, put the value of equation (i)
120 + 135 xy × 5 = 125
135 × 5xy = 125 – 120 Q145. If a 3 – b3 = 56 and a – b = 2 then what is the
135 × 5xy = 5 value of a2 + b2 ?
(a) 12 (b) 20
xy =
(c) 28 (d) 32
Ans: (b) (a – b) = 2, a3 – b3 = 56
Q141. If , then the value of is (a – b)3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab (a – b)
(a) 2 (b) 0 8 = 56 – 3ab (2)
(c) 3 (d) 1 – 48 = – 6ab
Ans: (b) ∴ ab = 8
(a – b)2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab
4 = a2 + b2 – 16
20 = a2 + b2
C–3=
158
(C – 3)7 = ( ) (c) x2 – 3x + 1 = 0
Dividing Equation by x
(C – 3)7 ( ) =0
Page 65 of 516
https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra Q149. If x + y + z
3 3 3
= 1, and xyz = – 1,
then x + y + z is equal to
√ (a) –1 (b) 1
Q146. If √ then the val ue of ( ) (c) –2 (d) 2
√ √
Ans: (c) (x – 2) (x – p) = x2 – ax + b
. / is
√
x2 + (– 2 – p)x + (– P) (–2) = x2 – ax + b
√ √ – (2 + p) = – a
(a)
(c) 5/6 (d) 2/3 2=a–p
Ans: (c) √
√
Q150. If then the v alue of
√ √ is
Now (a) 2 (b) 1
√ (c) 0 (d)
( )0 √
1
√
Ans: (b) x + y + z = 1, , xyz = –1
√ √
( ). /
√ √ √
√ √
√
( √ )( ) xy + yz + zx = – 1
√ √
(x + y + z)2 = 1
( )( )
√ √ x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx = 1
x2 + y2 +z2 + 2 (–1) = 1
√ √
x2 + y2 +z2 = 3
Q147. The length of the base of an isosceles triangle is x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz
2x – 2y + 4z, and its perimeter is 4x – 2y + 6z. Then = (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 +z2 + xy – yz – zx)
the length of each of the equal sides is x3 + y3 + z3 – 3 (–1) = (1) [ (3 – (–1)]
(a) x + y (b) x + y + z x3 + y3 + z3 + 3 = 4
(c) 2 (x + y) (d) x + z =4–3=1
Ans: (d)
Q151. If x = √a + ,y =√ , (a > 0), then the
√ √
4 4 2 2
value of x + y – 2x y is
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 5
[ ] Ans: (a) x = √ y=√
√ √
4 4 2 2
x +y –2xy
= (x2 – y2)2
x2 =
2
Q148. If x – 3x + 1 = 0, ,then the value of
y2 =
is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (x2 – y2)2 = * + = (4) 2 = 16
(c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: (d) Base side of isosceles ∆ = 2x – 2y + 4z Q152. If (x – 2) (x – p) = x2 – ax + 6, then the value of
Perimeter = 4x – 2y + 6z (a – p) is (a) 0
Remaining two sides are (b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
163.When then value of is
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(a) 2/7
(c) 7/2
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(b) 7/8
(d) 8/7
(c) 1/√3 (d) 6√3
Ans: (a) √
Ans: (b) Cubing both Sides
Dividing eq by 2
(√ ) √
Cubing both sides ( )
( )
( )is
√
(a) – 1 (b) 1
= =
(c) 0 (d)
Ans: (c)
Q153. If then the value of
is Q158. If x = 31/3 – 3–1/3 then 3x3 + 9x is equal to
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 2/3 (d) 3 (c) 7 (d) 8
Ans: (b) Ans: (d) x = 31/3 – 3–1/3
4x2 + 1 = 5x Cubing on both sides
x3 = * +
3
x =
x3 + 3x =
Q154. If √ then the value of x 3 + 5x2 3x3 + 9x = 8
+ 12x is
(a) 0 (b) 3 Q159. If , then each of them is equal to
(c) 7 (d) 11
(a)
Ans: (b) √
(x + 2) = √ (Cubing both sides) (c)
(x + 2)3 = x2 + 11 Ans: (a)
x3 + 8 + 6x2 + 12x = x2 + 11
x3 + 5x2 + 12x = 3 Q160. If p, q, r are all real numbers, then (p – q)3 + (q
– r)3 + (r – p)3 is equal to
Q155. If x = 222, y = 223, z = 225 then the value of x3 + (a) 0 (b) 3 (p – q) (q – r) (r – p)
y3 + z3 – 3xyz is (c) (p – q) (q – r) (r – p) (d) 1
(a) 4590 (b) 4690 Ans: (b)
(c) 4950 (d) 4960
Ans: (b) x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = Q161. If √ √ and √ √ , then the
2 2 2
[ (x – y) + (y – z) + (z – x) ] value of is
= (a) 1 (b) √
[ (222 – 223)2 + (223 – 225)2 + (225 – 222)2] (c) 6 (d) ( √ )
[ ][ ] = 335 [14] = 4690 Ans: (c)
Q156. If √ then the value of is equal Q162. If 3x + y = 81 and 81x + y = 3, then the value of is
to (a)
(a) 0 (b) 3√3
(c)
Page 67 of 516
Ans: (c) https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
… (i)
√ √
… (ii)Solving equ. … (i) & (ii) √ √
√
√(√ ) √
√(√ )
√
Q163. If , then what is the value of ?
√ √
(a) 14 (b) √
(c) 0 (d) 18
64
Ans: (a) Here, Q167. If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x +
√ √ x121?
(a) 0 (b) 1
√ √
(
(c) 2 (d) –2
√ ) √
(√ )
Ans: (c) According to question,
√ ,
√
x2 + 1 = 2x
x2 – 2x + 1 = (x – 1)2
√ ∴ √
∴x – 1 = 0∴x = 1
∴ √ √ ∴x64 + x121 = 1 + 1 = 2.
Q164. If where then the value of Q168. If , then what is the value of
is ?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (a)
(c) 2 (d) 3
Ans: (d) (c)
Ans: (c)
Q165. If , then what is the value of ?
Q169. If a + b + c = 27, then what is the value of (a –
(a) 52 (b) 256
7)3 + (b – 9)3 + (c – 11)3 – 3 (a – 7) (b – 9) (c – 11)?
(c) 1026 (d) 2702
(a) 0 (b) 9
Ans: (d) (c) 27 (d) 81
then, Ans: (a) According to question,
? a + b + c = 27
(a – 7) + (b – 9) + (c – 11) = 27 – 7 – 9 – 11
Let (a – 7) + (b – 9) + (c – 11) = 0
∴a + b + c = 0
then
( (4) 3 – 3 × 4)2 – 2 a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 0
(64 – 12)2 – 2 = (2704 – 2) = 2702 ∴Required answer = 0.
Q166. If √ , then what is the value of Q170. If √ , then what is the value of
√ √
? √ ?
√
(a) √ √ (a) √ √
√
(c) √ (c) √ √
Ans: (c) √ Ans: (a) √
√
Subtraction by 1 in both side.
√ ( √ ) √
√ ( √ ) √ √
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(√ ) (√ ) https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
√ √ 12xy (x2 – y2)
√ *( √ ) +
(√ √ )
√ √ √ √ √
Now,
Q174. If (x – y) = 7, then what is the value of (x – 15)3
√ – (y – 8)3?
√
√ √ √ √ (a) 0 (b) 343
√ . (c) 392 (d) 2863
(√ ) (√ )
Ans: (a) Here,
Q171. If (x – 2) and (x + 3) are the factors of the (x – y) = 7
equation x 2 + k 1x + k 2 = 0, then what are the values of then,
k1 and k2?
(a) k1 = 6, k2 = –1 (b) k1 = 1, k2 = –6 a3 – b3 = (a – b) (a2 + ab + b2)
(c) K1 = 1, k2 = 6 (d) k1 = – 6, k2 = 1 (x – 15)3 – (y – 8)3 = ?
Ans: (b) (x – 15 – y + 8) [ (x –15)2 + (x – 15) (y – 8) + (y – 8)2]
(x – y – 7)[ (x – 15)2 + (x – 15) (y – 8) + (y – 8)2]
If x – 2 = 0 (7 – 7) [ (x – 15)2 + (x – 15) (y – 8) + (y – 8)2]
∴x=2 0 × [ (x – 15)2 + (x – 15) (y – 8) + (y – 8)2]
then, 0
x2 + k1x + k2 = 0
(2) 2 + k1 × 2 + k2 = 0 Q175. What is the value of ?
2k1 + k2 = – 4... (i)
(a) 1/x (b) x2 – 1
If x + 3 = 0
(c) x + 1 (d) x
∴ x = –3
then, Ans: (a)
x2 + k1x + k2 = 0
(–3)2 + k1x – 3 + k2 = 0
∴ 3k1 – k2 = 9... (ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
Solve To get Answer.
we get k 1 = 1 and k2 = – 6
(a) – 2 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) none of these Q180. If * + * + , then what
two values of ?
Ans: (c) √ √
√
(a) – 1 or 2 (b) 1 or – 2
By squaring both sides (c) – 1 or – 2 (d) 1 or 2
Ans: (a)
4√ √ 5 ( )
√
Q181. The line passing through ( –2, 5) and (6,b) is
perpendicular to the line 20x + 5y = 3. Find b?
√ √
(a) –7 (b) 4
(c) 7 (d) –4
Ans: (c) Here,
20x + 5y = 3
5y = – 20x + 3
∴y = – 4x +
13x2 + 13x = 12x2 + 12x + 6 Slope of 20x + 5y = 3 –4
x2 + 3x – 2x – 6 = 0 We know, product of slopes = –1 for perpendicular lines
x (x + 3) – 2 (x + 3) = 0 Hence, the slope of the line which passes through ( –2, 5)
(x – 2) (x + 3) = 0
and (6, b)
x–2=0∴x=2
x+3=0∴x=–3 Now,
[( ) ( )]
Q183. If (p 2 + q 2) / (r 2 + s 2) = (pq) / (rs), then what is
= the value of (p – q) (p + q) in terms of r and s?
(a) (r + s) / (r – s) (b) (r – s) / (r + s)
(c) (r + s)/ (rs) (d) (rs) / (r – s)
Ans: (b)
Q179. If 3x – 8 (2 – x) = –19, then the value of x is
(a) –3/11 (b) –33/11 Q184. If 'a' and 'b' are positive integers such that a 2 –
(c) –3/5 (d) –33/5 b2 = 19, then the value of 'a' is :
Ans: (a) 3x – 8 (2 – x) = –19 (a) 20 (b) 19
3x – 16 + 8x = – 19 (c) 10 (d) 9
11x = – 3 Ans: (c) According to question,
a2 – b2 = 19
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(a + b) (a – b) = 19 https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
Since 19 is prime, one of (a + b) (a – b) is 19
?
(a) 1 (b) 3
Therefore,
(c) 0 (d) 21
(10)2 – (9) 2 = 19
Ans: (d) Here,
∴a = 10
∴ = (3) 3 – 3 × 3
= 27 – 9
i.e.,
= 18
( )
( ) ( ) Average
p – 24 – 9q + 27 Q1. In a family, the average age of a father and a
p – 9q = –3... (i) mother is 35 years. The average age of the father,
p (1) = px3 – 8x2 – qx + 1 mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age
p (1) 3 – 8 (1) 2 – q × 1 + 1 of the son ?
p–8–q+1 (a) 12 years (b) 11 years
p – q = 7.... (ii)From Eq. (i) and (ii), (c) 10.5 years (d) 10 years
Ans: (b) Father + mother
= 2 × 35 = 70 years
Father + mother + son
= 27 × 3 = 81 years
∴ Son‘s age = 81 – 70 = 11 years
Q187. If , then what is the
Q2. The average of the first 100 positive integers is
value of
(a) 100 (b) 51
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(c) 50.5 https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
(d) 49.5 = 12
Ans: (c) 1 + 2 + 3 + ......+ n = 2x + 6 = 36 x = = 15
∴ Average last no = 15 + 4 = 19
Alternate Method:
Average of consecutive numbers or A.P. Q7. If the average of 39, 48, 51, 63, 75, 83, x and 69 is
= 60, then the value of x is
(a) 52 (b) 53
Required average = (c) 50 (d) 51
Ans: (a) 39 + 48 + 51 + 63 + 75 + 83 + x + 69 = 60 × 8
Q3. The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was 428 + x = 480
discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as x = 480 – 428 = 52
82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.
(a) 36.12 (b) 30.66 Q8. The average age of four boys, five years ago was 9
(c) 29.28 (d) 38.21 years. On including a new boy, the present average
Ans: (c) Required average age of all the five is 15 years. The present age of the
= 30 + new boy is
(a) 14 years (b) 6 years
= ( ) = 30 – 0.72 = 29.28 (c) 15 years (d) 19 years
Ans: (d) Sum of the present ages of four boys
Q4. The average of odd numbers upto 100 is = 9 × 4 + 20 = 56 years
(a) 50.5 (b) 50 Sum of the present ages of five boys
(c) 49.5 (d) 49 = 15 × 5 = 75 years
Ans: (b) Average of the first n natural odd numbers = n ∴ Present age of new boy
Number of odd numbers upto 100 = 50 = required = 75 – 56 = 19 years
average.
No. of odd no upto 100 = 50 Q9. The mean of 19 observation is 24. If the mean of
Sum of 50 odd no = 502 the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10
Average = = 50. observations is 24, find the 10th observation.
(a) 65 (b) 37
Q5. The average of 18 observations is recorded as 124. (c) –46 (d) 53
Later it was found that two observations with values Ans: (c) 10th observation
64 and 28 were entered wrongly as 46 and 82. Find = 24 × 10 + 17 × 10 – 19 × 24
the correct average of the 18 observations. = 240 + 170 – 456 = – 46
(a) (b) 122
Q10. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday
(c) 123 (d) and Wednesday was 30°C and that of Tuesday,
Ans: (b) Difference in observations Wednesday and Thursday was 33°C. If the
= 64 + 28 – 46 – 82 = –36 temperature on Monday was 32°C, then the
∴ Correct average temperature on Thursday was:
= = 122 (a) 33°C (b) 30°C
(c) 41°C (d) 32°C
Ans: (c) M + T + W = 90° ... (i)
Q6. The average of three consecutive odd numbers is
T + W + Th = 99°... (ii)
12 more than one third of the first of these numbers.
By equation (ii) – (i)
What is the last of the three numbers ?
Th – M = 9° Th – 32 = 9
(a) 15 (b) 17
Th = 9° + 32 = 41°
(c) 19 (d) Data inadequate
Ans: (c) Let 3 consecutive odd no. be x, x + 2 and x + 4
Q11. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the
ATQ
next two numbers are also included, the average of
the 7 numbers will
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(a) increase by 2
(c) remain the same
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(b) increase by 1
(d) increase by 1.4
He is playing 12th inning increment made in all pre vious
innings
Ans: (b) Let the numbers be n – 2, n – 1, n, n + 1 and n + Total increment = 2 × 11 = 22 runs
2. Their average = n. His current score = 63
Next two consecutive numbers are n + 3 and n + 4. Required average + increment = current score
Therefore the average of 7 consecutive numbers Required average = 63 – 22 = 41
∴ Total score after 11th innings = 11 A Q18. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers
Now, namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the average of the
remaining numbers is :
(a) 36 (b) 35
(c) 32.5 (d) 37.5
11A + 63 = (A + 2) × 12 Ans: (d) New average
11A – 12 A = 24 – 63
= = = 37.5
A = 39
12th innings average = 39 + 2 = 41
Alternate Method:
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3 is
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Q19. The average of the first nine integral multiples of 15x = 300 – 60 = 240
x= = 16
(a) 15 (b) 18
(c) 21 (d) 12
Q24. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers,
Ans: (a) Required average
their average is
(a) 5 (a + 4) (b)
(c) 5 (a + b + c + d + e) (d) a + 4
Q20. The average of nine numbers is 50. The average Ans: (d) b = a + 2
of the first five numbers is 54 and that of the last three c=b+2=a+4
numbers is 52. Then the sixth number is d=c+2=a+6
(a) 24 (b) 44 e=d+2=a+8
(c) 30 (d) 34 ∴ Required average
Ans: (a) The sixth number = 9 × 50 – 5 × 54 – 3 × 52 =
= 450 – 270 – 156 = 24
= =a+4
Q21. The average of the first five multiples of 7 will be
(a) 14 (b) 21 Q25. Average of first five prime numbers is
(c) 17.5 (d) 24.5 (a) 3.6 (b) 5.3
Ans: (b) Average (c) 5.6 (d) 5
Ans: (c) First five prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11
Q23. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average Q28. The batting average for 30 inings of a cricket
of first five is 12. The average of the rest is player is 40 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest
(a) 16 (b) 15 score by 100 runs. If t hese two innings are not
(c) 14 (d) 13 included, the average of the remaining 28 innings is 38
Ans: (a) If the average of remaining numbers be x, then runs. The lowest score of the player is:
20 × 15 = 5 × 12 + 15x (a) 15 (b) 18
300 = 60 + 15x (c) 20 (d) 12
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Ans: (b) Lowest score = x
Highest score = x + 100
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Total marks of (B + C) = 87.5 (n2 + n3)
total marks of A = 70 × n1
∴ 28 × 38 + x + x + 100 = 30 × 40 n1 + n2 + n3 = 100... (1)
1064 + 2x + 100 = 1200 70n1 + 87.5 n2 + 87.5 n3 = 8400... (2)
2x = 1200 – 1164 = 36 Multiplying equation (1) by 87.5 and subtract from
x = 18 equation (2)
We get 17.5 n1 = 350
Q29. The average age of boys in the class is twice the n1 = 20
number of girls in the class. The ratio of boys and
girls in the class of 50 is 4 : 1. The total of the ages (in Q33. The average height of 8 students is 152 cm. Two
years) of the boys in the class is more students of heights 144 cm and 155 cm join the
(a) 2000 (b) 2500 group. What is the new average height ?
(c) 800 (d) 400 (a) 151.5 cm (b) 152.5 cm
Ans: (c) Number of boys = = 40 (c) 151 cm (d) 150.5 cm
Ans: (a) Total height of 8 students = 8 × 152 cm = 1216
Number of girls = = 10 cm
Average age of boys = 2 × 20 = 40 Total height of 10 students = 1216 cm + 144 cm + 155
Total ages of the boys = 40 × 20 = 800 cm = 1515 cm
new average =
Q30. The average of 30 numbers is 40 and that of
other 40 numbers is 30. The average of all the
Q34. What is the Arithmetic mean of the first 'n'
numbers is
natural numbers?
(a) 34.5 (b)
(a)
(c) 35 (d) 34
Ans: (b) Sum of 30 numbers = 30 × 40 = 1200 (c) 2 (n + 1) (d)
Sum of 40 numbers = 40 × 30 = 1200 Ans: (a) Arithmetic mean of first ‗n‘ natural number
Average of 70 numbers = = =
Q31. The average weight of 15 oarsmen in a boat is Q35. A boy found that the average of 20 numbers is
increased by 1.6 kg when one of the crew, who weighs 35 when he writes a number '61' instead of '16'. The
42 kg is replaced by a new man. Find the weight of the correct average of 20 numbers is
new man (in kg). (a) 32.75 (b) 37.25
(a) 65 (b) 66 (c) 34.75 (d) 34.25
(c) 43 (d) 67 Ans: (a) Sum of 20 numbers = 20 × 35 = 700
Ans: (b) Let the average weight of 15 Oarsmen at the Sum of 20 numbers when 61 is replace by 16
start = x kg 700 – 61 + 16 = 655
Let the new man‘s weight = y kg
Correct average of 20 numbers =
According to question
15x – 42 = 15 (x + 1.6) – y
15x – 42 = 15x + 24 – y Q36. The batting average of a cricket player for 30
y = 24 + 42 = 66 kg innings is 40 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest
score by 100 runs. If these two innings are not
Q32. There are 100 students in 3 sections A, B and C included, the average of the remaining 28 innings is 38
of a class. The average marks of all the 3 sections was runs. The lowest score of the player is
84. The average of B and C was 87.5 and the average (a) 18 (b) 20
marks of A is 70. The number of students in A was (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) 30 (b) 35 Ans: (a) Total runs in 30 innings = 30× 40 = 1200
(c) 20 (d) 25 total runs in 28 innings = 28 ×38 = 1064
Ans: (c) Total marks of all three sections = 84 × 100 = Sum of height and lowest score
8400 H + L = 1200 – 1064
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H + L = 136... (1)
Also, H – L = 100... (2)
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So 10 natural numbers are there.
adding (1) and (2) Q40. What is the arithmetic mean of first 20 odd
2H = 236 natural numbers?
H = 118 (a) 17 (b) 19
Lowest run, L = 118 – 100 = 18 (c) 22 (d) 20
Ans: (d) For 20 natural last odd number
Q37. 3 years ago the average age of a family of 5 = 1 + (20 – 1) × 2 = 39
members was 17 years. A baby having been born, the Arithmetic mean of odd number = =
average age of the family is the same today. The
present age of the baby is
Q41. The average of 100 observations was calculated
(a) 1 year (b) 1½ years
as 35.It was found later, that one of the observation
(c) 2 years (d) 3 years
was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct average
Ans: (c) Let total age of family be S years
is :
3 years ago, total age = S – 3 × 5 = S – 15
(a) 32.7 (b) 34.7
(c) 35.7 (d) 36.7
Ans: (b) Average of difference
S = 17 × 5 + 15 = 100
Let present age of baby be x years =
Correct Average = 35 – 0 3 = 34.7
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Q44. At an average of 80 km/hr Shatabdi Express
reaches Ranchi from Kolkata in 7 hrs. Then the
(a) ₹15, 900
(c) ₹14,900
(b) ₹15, 200
(d) ₹15,500
distance between Kolkata and Ranchi is Ans: (c) Sum of monthly income of A + B = 30100... (i)
(a) 560 Km (b) 506 Km Sum of monthly income of B + C = 30700... (ii)
(c) 560 m (d) 650 m Sum of monthly income of A + C = 30400 ... (iii)
Ans: (a) Distance = Speed × Time Subtracting eqn. (i) from (ii)
= 80 × 7 = 560 km B + C – A – B = 30700 – 30100
C – A = 600 ... (iv)
Q45. The average of 9 observations was found to be C + A = 30400 ... (v)
35. Later on, it was de tected that an observation 81 Subtracting eqn. (iv) from (v)
was misread as 18. The correct average of the C – A – C – A = 600 – 30400
observations is – 2A = – 29800
(a) 28 (b) 42 A = 14900
(c) 32 (d) 45
Ans: (b) Average of 9 observations = 35 Q49. The average age of 120 members of a society i s
Total = 9 × 35 = 315 60.7 years. By addition of 30 new members, the
Misread Difference = 81 – 18 = 63 average age becomes 56.3 years. What is the average
New total = 315 + 63 = 378 age (in years) of newly joined members?
Average = = 42 (a) 36.5 (b) 37.2
Shortcut Method: (c) 38.3 (d) 38.7
Ans: (d) Let average age of newly joined member = x
81 – 18 = 63 ∴ =7
According to question,
35 + 7 = 42 120 × 60.7 + 30 × x = 150 × 56.3
7284 + 30x = 8445
Q46. The average marks obtained by a class of 60 ∴30x = 8445 – 7284
students is 65. The average marks of half of the 30x = 1161
students is found to be 85. The average marks of the
∴
remaining students is
(a) 35 (b) 45
(c) 55 (d) 65 Q50. The average of 5 members of a family is 24
Ans: (b) Total students = 60 years. If the youngest member is 8 years old, then
what was the average age (in years) of the family at
the time of the birth of the youngest member?
30x = 65 × 60 – 30 × 85 (a) 16 (b) 20
30x = 30[65 × 2 – 85] (c) 24 (d) 32
x= [ ] Ans: (b) Required average age
years
Q47. The average of 17 results is 60. If the average of
first 9 results is 57 and that of the last 9 results is 65, Q51. The mean of marks secured by 60 students in
then what will be the value of 9th result? division A of class X is 64, 40 students of division B is
(a) 39 (b) 78 60 and that of 60 students of division C is 58. Find the
(c) 117 (d) 156 mean of marks of the students of three divisions of
Ans: (b) Value of 9th result = (9×57+9×65) – (17×60) Class X.
= 1098 – 1020 (a) 60.05 (b) 59.35
= 78 (c) 62.15 (d) 60.75
Ans: (d) Mean of marks of the students
Q48. The average monthly income of A and B is ₹15,
050, the average monthly income of B and C is ₹15,
350 and the average income of A and C is ₹15, 200.
The monthly income of A is
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Q52. The average runs conceded by a bowler in 5
matches is 45 and 15.75 in other 4 matches. What is Q2. What annual payment will discharge a debt of
the average runs conceded by the bowler in 9 ₹6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple
matches? interest ?
(a) 15 (b) 32 (a) ₹1,400 (b) ₹1,500
(c) 35 (d) 53.5 (c) ₹1,550 (d) ₹1,600
Ans: (b) Required average runs Ans: (b) Let the annual instalment be ₹x.
.
( )
years.
–1
Simple & Compound r = 5%
25 =
R = 5% Amount = 7000 + 4900 = ₹ 11900
Q9. The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one Q13. The differenc e between the compound interest
fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is and simple interest for the amount ₹ 5,000 in 2 years
(a) 5% (b) 6% is ₹ 32. The rate of interest is
(c) 4% (d) 8% (a) 5% (b) 8%
(c) 10% (d) 12%
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per annum during the first year and 12% per annum
during the second year (in rupees) will amount to:
( )
(a) 12,000 (b) 12,320
32 = (c) 12,500 (d) 11,320
r2 = = 64 Ans: (b) ( )( )
r=√ = 8% ( )( )
S.I = = 675
First amount : Second amount = 1 : 3
Received amount = Q19. The difference between the interests received
from two different banks on ₹ 500 for 2 years is ₹
Q15. Prabhat look a certain amount as a loan from a 2.50. The difference between their rates is:
bank at the rate of 8% p.a. simple interest and gave (a) 0.5% (b) 2.5%
the same amount to Ashish as a loan at the rate of (c) 0.25% (d) 1%
12% p.a. If at the end of 12 years, he made a profit of Ans: (c) Let r1 and r2 are the rates of interests.
So, the difference in S.I
₹ 960 in the deal, then the original amount was:
(a) ₹ 3356 (b) ₹ 1000 =
(c) ₹ 2000 (d) ₹ 3000 2.50 =
Ans: (c) Difference of rates = 4%
So, (r1 – r2) =
= 960
Q21. A sum o f money becomes 1.331 times in 3 years (c) 2 years (d) years
as compound interest. The rate of interest is Ans: (b) Time = t half year
(a) 50% (b) 8% = R = 5% per half year
(c) 7.5% (d) 10%
∴A=P( )
Ans: (d) ( ) ( )
( )
( )
( ) ( )
T = 3 half years
( ) ( )
R = 10% ∴ T = 3 or year
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Q28. If the compound interest on a certain sum for
two years at 12% per annum is ₹ 2,544, the simple
[ ]
2544 = [( ) ] = ₹10,0000
2544 = P [( ) ]
Q31. X borrowed some money from a source at 8%
2544 = P ( ) simple interest and lent it to Y at 12% simple interest
on the same day and gained ₹ 4,800 after 3 years. The
2544 = P ( )=
amount X borrowed, in ₹, is
P= = ₹10000 (a) 42,000 (b) 60,000
∴ S.I. = (c) 1,20,000 (d) 40,000
Ans: (d) Let X borrow ₹ P
= = ₹ 2400
He has to return total amount,
= ₹1,250
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Q34. The population of a village increases by 5%
interest be 10% compounded annually, then the value
of each instalment is
annually. If its present population is 4410, then its (a) ₹ 127 (b) ₹ 121
population 2 years ago was (c) ₹ 210 (d) ₹ 225
(a) 4500 (b) 4000 Ans: (a) Principal (P) = 210
(c) 3800 (d) 3500 Ratio (R) = 10%
Ans: (b) Population 2 years ago = Loan has to be paid in the instalments i.e., is it take two
( )
years to pay.
= 4000
( )
Q35. Rekha invested a sum of ₹ 12000 at 5% per
annum compound interest. She received an amount of ( )
₹ 13230 after n years. Find n. So, equal instalment
(a) 2.8 years (b) 3.0 years
(c) 2.5 years (d) 2.0 years
Q38. The income of a compan y increases 20% per
Ans: (d) P = ₹ 12000, Rate = 5 %, Time (n) = ?, Amount
annum. If its income is ₹ 26,64,000 in the year 2012,
= 13230
then its income in the year 2010 was :
( ) ( ) (a) ₹ 28,20,000 (b) ₹ 28,55,,000
(c) ₹ 18,50,000 (d) ₹ 21,20,000
( ) ( ) Ans: (c) Income in 2012 = ₹ 26, 64,000
Every year % of increase in income = 20%
( ) So, income of company in 2012 = 26,64,000 × ×
= ₹ 18,50,000
( ) ( )
∴ n = 2 years Q39. The compound interest on ₹12000 for 9 months
at 20% per annum, interest being compounded
Q36. A certain a mount of money earns ₹ 540 as quarterly is :
Simple Interest in 3 years. If it earns a Compound (a) ₹ 1750 (b) ₹ 1891.10
Interest of ₹ 376.20 at the same rate of interest in 2 (c) ₹ 2136.40 (d) ₹2089.70
years, find the amount. (in rupees) Ans: (b) P = ₹ 12000;
(a) 2100 (b) 1600 R = 20% per annum = 5% per quarter
(c) 1800 (d) 2000 T = 9 months = 3 quarters
Ans: 37 (d) S.I of 3 years = ₹ 540
So, A = 12000 ( ) = 12000 × 1.05 × 1.05 × 1.05
S.I. of 1 year = = ₹ 180
= ₹ 13891.1
S.I. of 2 years = 2 × 180 = ₹ 360
So, CI = 13891.10 – 12000 = ₹ 1891.10
CI of 2 years = ₹ 376.20
Difference between CI and SI = 376.20 – 360
Q40. In certain years a sum of money is doubled itself
= ₹16.20
If we take P = ₹ 180 R = R% and Time = 1 year at % simple interest per annum, then the required
time will be
(a) years (b) 8 years
R=
(c) years (d) 16 years
So S.I. = 540 = P × 9 × Ans: (d) Let x be the principal amount
P= = ₹ 2000 ‗y‘ be the time to double the money.
Then interest will also be ‗x‘.
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Ratio & Proportion (a) ₹400
(c) ₹600
(b) ₹500
(d) ₹800
Ans: (c) A‘s share
= x = 6 × 30 = 180 litres
Q6. Two number are in the ratio 7 : 11. If 7 is added
Q2. An amount was lent for two years at the rate of to each of the numbers, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The
20% per annum compounding annually. Had the smaller number is
compounding been done half yearly, the interest (a) 39 (b) 49
would have increased by 241. What was the amount (c) 66 (d) 77
(in ₹) lent? Ans: (b) Let the numbers be 7x and 11x respectively.
(a) 10000 (b) 12000 ∴
(c) 20000 (d) 24000 ∴ 22x + 14 = 21x + 21
Ans: (a) Let sum ₹ = x x=7
C.I. when compounded half yearly ∴ Smaller number = 7x = 7 × 7 = 49
0 ( ) 1
Q7. Two numbers are in the ratio 1 : 3. If their sum is
C.I. when compound annually 240, then their difference is
(a) 120 (b) 108
0 ( ) 1 (c) 100 (d) 96
Now, Ans: (a) Let the numbers be 3x and x.
3x + x = 240
4x = 240
∴x = 10000 x= = 60
∴sum = ₹ 10000 ∴ Difference = 3x – x = 2x = 2 × 60 = 120
Q3. What must be added to each term of the ratio 7 : Q8. The ratio of milk and water in mixtures of four
11, so as to make it equal to 3 : 4 ? containers are 5 : 3, 2 : 1, 3 : 2 and 7 : 4 respectively,
(a) 8 (b) 7.5 in which container is the quantity of milk, relative to
(c) 6.5 (d) 5 water, minimum ?
Ans: (d) Let the required number be x. (a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
Ans: (c) Milk in V1 = = 0.625
28 + 4x = 33 + 3x
x = 33 – 28 = 5 Milk in V2 = = 0.66
Milk in V3 = = 0.6
Q4. If ₹1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3
: 2, then A will receive Milk in V4 = = 0.636
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Q9. If W 1 : W 2 = 2 : 3 and W 1 : W 3 = 1 : 2 then W 2 :
=
If the total profit is ₹ 4,00,000, the share of C is
W3 is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (a) ₹ 1,12,500 (b) ₹ 1,37,500
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 5 (c) ₹ 90,000 (d) ₹ 2,70,000
Ans: (c) A : B = 1 : 3
Ans: (a)
B:C=1:3=3:9
and C : D = 1 : 3 = 9 : 27
∴ A : B : C : D = 1 : 3 : 9 : 27
∴
Sum of ratios = 1 + 3 + 9 + 27 = 40
∴ C‘s share of profit
Q10. The ratio of income and expenditure of a person = × 400000 = ₹ 90000
is 11 : 10. If he saves ₹ 9,000 per annum, his month ly
income is
Q13. The ratio of weekly incomes of A and B is 9 : 7
(a) ₹ 8,000 (b) ₹ 8,800
and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each
(c) ₹ 8,500 (d) ₹ 8,250
saves ₹ 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly
Ans: (d) Let the income of man be Rs. = 11x and his
incomes is
expenditure be ₹ 10x.
(a) ₹ 3,600 (b) ₹ 3,200
∴ Savings x = ₹ 9000
(c) ₹ 4,800 (d) ₹ 5,600
∴ Monthly income of man = = ₹ 8250 Ans: (b) Let monthly income of A and B be 9x and 7x
let income = 11x Expenditure = Income – Saving
expenditure = 10x ATQ
Saving = 11x – 10x = x
x = 9000
Monthly income = 27x – 6.00 = 28x – 800
x = 200
= 8,250
Sum = 200 × 16 = 3200
∴ 15x + 20 = 14x + 28
Q21. A man leaves ₹ 12,600 to be divided among 7
x = 28 – 20 = 8 = Required Difference
sons,3 daughters and 5 nephews. If each daughter
receives three times as much as each nephew and each
Q18. The ratio of the quantities of an acid and water
son seven times as much as each nephew, then each
in a mixture is 1 : 3. If 5 litres of acid is further added
daughter‘s share is
to the mixture, the new ratio becomes 1 : 2. The
(a) ₹ 700 (b) ₹ 650
quantity of new mixture in litres is
(c) ₹ 600 (d) ₹ 750
(a) 32 (b) 40
(c) 42 (d) 45 Ans: (c) 7S + 3D + 5N = ₹ 12600... (1)
Ans: (d) Let the quantity of acid in original mixture be x According to Question
litre and that of water be 3x litre. D = 3N
S = 7N
∴
Putting these values in equation (1)
2x + 10 = 3x x = 10 49 N + 9N + 5N = 12600
∴ Quantity of new mixture 63N = 12600
= 4x + 5 = 45 litres N = 200
Each daughter‘s share
Q19. Equal amou nts of water were poured into two = 3 × Nephew‘s share = 3 × 200 = ₹ 600
empty jars of different capacities, which made one jar
full and the other jar full. If the water in the jar Q22. A certain sum of money is distributed to A and B
with lesser capacity is then poured into the jar with in the ratio 2 : 5. If A received ₹100, then the money
greater capacity, then the part of the Large r jar filled received by B is
with water is (a) ₹ 200 (b) ₹ 150
(a) (c) ₹ 250 (d) ₹ 300
Ans: (c) Let ‗x‘ be the total sum of money.
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100 = x = ₹ 350 ∴ Loss = 5184 – 2016
= ₹ 3168
∴ Money received by B = = ₹250
Q38. A invests ₹ 64,000 in a business. After few Q41. 15 litres of a mixture contains alcohol and water
months B joined him with ₹ 48,000. At the end of in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 litres of water is mixed in it, the
year, the tot al profit was divided between them in the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be
ratio 2 : 1. After how many months did B join ? (a) 15 (b)
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 17 (d)
(c) 4 (d) 6
Ans: (c) Suppose, B Joined after x month Ans: (b) Alcohol = 3 litres
Then B's money was invested for (12 – x) months Water = 12 litres
∴ According to question ∴ Required percentage
=
=
16 = 24 – 2x
2x = 24 – 16 = x = 4 Q42. A and B have together three times what B and C
Hence, B joined after 4 months have, while A, B, C together have thirty rupees more
than that of A. If B has 5 times that of C, then A has
Q39. The ratio of monthly incomes of A, B is 6 : 5 and (a) ₹ 60 (b) ₹ 65
their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 4 : 3. If (c) ₹ 75 (d) ₹ 45
each of them saves ₹ 400 per month, find the sum of Ans: (b) A + B = 3 (B + C)
their monthly incomes. A + B + C = A + 30
(a) 2300 (b) 2400 B = 5C
(c) 2200 (d) 2500 ∴ A + B = 3 (B + C)
Ans: (c) Incomes of A and B A + 5C = 18C A = 13C
= ₹ 6x and 5x ∴ A + B + C = A + 30
Expenses of A and B A + 5C + C = A + 30
= ₹ 4y and 3y
A+ = A + 30
∴ 6x – 4y = 400... (i)
5x – 3y = 400... (ii) 6A = 30 × 13
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A = ₹ 65
Alternate Method:
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Let C = CB = 5C
A + B = 3 (B + C)
A + 5C = 3 × 6 C∴ A = 13 C A‘s share
A + B + C = A + 30
SC + C = 30∴ C = 15
A = 13 ×5 = 65 Shortcut Method:
4A = 6B = 3C
A : B : C = 18 : 12 : 24 = 3 : 2 : 4
Q43. A sum of ₹ 300 is divided among P, Q and R in
such a way that Q gets ₹ 30 more than P and R gets ₹ Share of A
60 more than Q. The ratio of their share is
(a) 3 : 2 : 5 (b) 2 : 5 : 3 Q47. If 2x = 3y = 4z, find x : y : z.
(c) 5 : 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3 : 5 (a) 3 : 4 : 6 (b) 6 : 4 : 3
Ans: (d) Q = P + 30 Q – P = 30 and (c) 4 : 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3 : 4
R – Q = 60 = 2 × 30 Ans: (b) 2x = 3y = 4z
∴ Required ratio = 2 : 3 : 5 x = 2z, y =
Look : 3 – 2 = 1, 5 – 3 = 2
x : y : z = 2z : :z=6:4:3
Q44. The prices of a school bag and a shoe are in the
ratio 7 : 5. The price of a school bag is ₹ 200 more Q48. The ratio of 252.5 : 53 is same as
than the price of a shoe. Then the price of a shoe is (a) 5 : 3 (b) 5 : 6
(a) ₹ 500 (b) ₹ 1,200 (c) 1 : 25 (d) 25 : l
Ans: (d) (52)2.5 : 53 252.5 : 53
(c) ₹ 200 (d) ₹ 700
= 55 : 53 = 52 : 1 = 25 : 1
Ans: (a) 7x – 5x = 200
2x = 200 x = 100
Q49. A box contain 280 coins of one rupee, 50 paise
∴ Price of a pair of shoes = 5x = 500
and 25 paise. The values of each kind of coin are in
the ratio of 8 : 4 : 3. The number of one rupee coins
Q45. Divide 81 into three parts so that of 1 st, of 2 nd will be
and of 3rd are equal. (a) 52 (b) 81
(a) 36, 27, 18 (b) 27, 18, 36 (c) 60 (d) 80
(c) 18, 27, 36 (d) 30, 27, 24 Ans: (d) Ratio of number of coins
Ans: (c) Let lst, 2nd and 3rd part represented by x, y, z = 8 : 4 × 2 : 3 × 4 = 8 : 8 : 12 = 2 : 2 : 3
∴x = 2k, y = 3k, = 4k
According to question Q50. The ratio of the ages of A, B and C is 5 : 8 : 9. If
x + y + z = 81 the sum of the ages of A and C is 56 years, the age of
2k + 3k + 4k = 81 9k = 81 k=9 B will be
(a) 12 years (b) 23 years
Hence, parts are 18, 27, 36.
(c) 21 years (d) 32 years
Ans: (d) Let ages of A, B and C are 5x, 8x and 9x
Q46. The prize money of ₹ 1,800 is divided among 3
respectively.
students A, B and C in such a way that 4 times the
5x + 9x = 56
share of A is equal to 6 times the share of B, which is
x=4
equal to 3 times the share of C. Then A‘s share is
Age of B = 8 × 4 = 32 years
(a) ₹ 400 (b) ₹ 600
(c) ₹ 700 (d) ₹ 800
Q51. ₹ 730 were divided among A, B, C in such a way
Ans: (b) 4A = 6B 2A = 3B A : B = 3 : 2
that if A gets ₹ 3, then B gets ₹ 4 and if B gets ₹ 3.50
B = 3C 2 B = C B : C = 1 : 2
then C gets ₹ 3. The share of B exceeds that of C by
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(a) ₹ 30
(c) ₹ 70
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(b) ₹ 40
(d) ₹ 210
Ans: (b) ;
and A + B + C = 730
= 730
( ) = 730 ∴ Required ratio = = 3 : 2
B= = 280
Q56. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is
C= = 240 (a) 22 : 29 (b) 26 : 61
B exceeds that of C by (280 – 240) = ₹ 40 (c) 29 : 22 (d) 61 : 26
Ans: (c)
Q52. If x : y ::2 : 3 and 2 : x :: 4 : 8 the value of y is
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 12
Ans: (a) ;
x=4
Q57. The current ages of Sonali and Monali are in the
= ratio 5 : 3. Five years from now, their ages will be in
the ratio 10 : 7. Then, Monali's current age is:
Q53. Tw o numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is (a) 9 years (b) 15 years
subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the (c) 3 years (d) 5 years
ratio 12 : 23. The small number is Ans: (a) Ratio of present ages of Sonali and Mo nali = 5 :
(a) 27 (b) 33 3
(c) 49 (d) 55 After 5 years ratio of ages of both girls = 10:7
Ans: (b) Let two numbers be 3x and 5x Let actual present ages are 5x and 3x years.
= =
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Q59. Eighteen years ago, the ratio of A's age to B's
age was 8 : 13. Their present ratio's are 5 : 7. What is
Q62. 729 ml of a mixture contains milk a nd water in
the ratio 7 : 2. How much more water is to be added
the present age of A? to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the
(a) 70 years (b) 50 years ratio 7 : 3 ?
(c) 40 years (d) 60 years (a) 60 ml (b) 71 ml
Ans: (b) Let the A‘s age and B‘s age was 8x and 13x (c) 52 ml (d) 81 ml
According to question Ans: (d) Quantity of milk = = 567 ml
Quantity of water = = 162 ml
56x + 18 × 7 = 65x + 18 × 5 Let ‗x‘ be the quantity that should be added to make the
65x – 56x = 18 × 7 – 18 × 5 ratio 7 : 3
9x = 18 × 2 According the question
x=4
Hence, the present age of A
= 8 × 4 + 18 = 50 yrs. 1701 = 1134 + 7x
7x = 1701 – 1134
Q60. A vessel contains 60 litres of milk. 12 litres of x = 81 ml
milk taken out from it and replaced by water. Then
again from mixture, 12 litres are again taken out and Q63. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school
replaced by water. The ratio of milk and water in the of 720 students is 7 : 5 . How many more girls should
resultant mixture is : be admitted to make the ratio 1 : 1 ?
(a) 16 : 10 (b) 9 : 5 (a) 90 (b) 120
(c) 15 : 10 (d) 16 : 9 (c) 220 (d) 240
Ans: (d) 12 of milk taken out of 60 milk So 20% water is Ans: (b) Ratio of boy and girl = 7 : 5
added to milk Number of student – 720
Milk = 48;Water = 12 Number of Girl =
Now, again 20% water is added to this mixture Number of Boy = 720 – 300 = 420
48 (milk)→ 38.4 (milk)and 21.6 (water) Number of girl needed = 420 – 300 = 120
So, ratio of milk and water = 38.4 : 21.6
= 16 : 9 Q64. If A and B are in the ratio 4 : 5 and the
Alternate Method: difference of their squares is 81, what is the valu e of
Final Volume of milk = Initial volume A?
× (a) 36 (b) 15
(c) 45 (d) 12
Ans: (d)
Water = 60 –
Squaring both sides, we get
Required ratio =
Q61. What must be added to each term of the ratio 2 : both sides substract 1
5 so that it may equal to 5 : 6 ?
(a) 12 (b) 78
(c) 65 (d) 13
Ans: (d) According to question A2 = 16 × 9
Shortcut Method:
12 + 6x = 25 + 5x Let A be 4x and B be 5x
x = 25 – 12 = 13. (5x)2 – (4x)2 = 81 (given)
9x2 = 81 ∴ x = 3
A = 3 × 4 = 12
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Q65. The numbers x, y, z are respectively
proportional to 2, 3, 5 and the sum of x, y and z is 80.
112x = 336
x=3
If the number z is given by the equation z = ax – 8, So, the can contained 21 litres of A.
then a is
(a) 6 (b) 3/2 Q68. The sum of the cubes of two numbers in the ratio
(c) 3 (d) 5/2 3 : 4 is 5824. The sum of the numbers is:
Ans: (c) Let x, y and z be 2m, 3m and 5m (a) (5824)1/3 (b) 28
According to Question (c) 24 (d) 14
2m + 3m +5m = 80 Ans: (b) Let the number be 3x and 4x
10m = 80, m = 8 (3x)3 + (4x)3 = 5824
z=ax–8 27x3 + 64x3 = 5824
5 (8) = a (2) (8) – 8 91x3 = 5824
40 + 8 = 16 a x3 = 64
48 = 16 a x=4
a=3 Sum of numbers are = x (4 + 3) = 4× 7 = 28
Q66. A and B invest ₹ 3000 and ₹ 2400 respectively in Q69. If , then what is the ratio of P and Q
a business. If after one year there i s a loss of ₹ 720, respectively?
how much loss will B bear? (Loss or Profit is in (a) 12 : 77 (b) 12 : 33
proportion to their investments) (c) 28 : 33 (d) 3 : 28
(a) ₹ 72 (b) ₹ 320 Ans: (c) According to question,
(c) ₹ 400 (d) ₹ 360
Ans: (b) A invested = ₹ 3000
B invested = ₹ 2400 ∴
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Q72.
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Ans: (d) Let present age of father = x
present age of son = y
According to question,
3200 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 : x + y = 90... (i)
5 : 8 respectively. What is the difference (in ₹) Now,
between the share of B and C?
(a) 400 (b) 600
(c) 800 (d) 900 2x – 20 = 5y – 50
2x – 5y = –30... (ii)
Ans: (b) Share of A
from eq. (i) and (ii)
Share of B x = 60
Share of C y = 30
∴The present age of mother = 60 years.
∴Different between B and C = (1600 – 1000) = 600.
Q74. If A : B = 2 : 5, B : C = 4 : 3 and C : D = 2 : 1,
then what is value of A : C : D?
(a) 6 : 5 : 2 (b) 7 : 20 : 10
(c) 8 : 30 : 15 (d) 16 : 30 : 15
Ans: (d) A : B = 2 : 5
B:C=4:3=( )
∴The ratio of their volumes = 7 : 27.
C:D=2:1=( )
∴A : B : C : D = 2 : 5 : Q78. Of the three numbers, the first is twice the
∴Value of A : C : D = 16 : 30 : 15 second, and the second is twice the third. The average
of the reciprocal of the numbers is 7/12. The numbers
Q75. 1/2 of A = 2/5 of B = 1/3 of C, then A : B : C is: are:
(a) 4 : 6 : 5 (b) 6 : 4 : 5 (a) 20, 10, 5 (b) 4, 2, 1
(c) 4 : 5 : 6 (d) 5 : 4 : 6 (c) 36, 18, 9 (d) 16, 8, 4
Ans: (c) According to question, Ans: (c) Let third number = x
A = 2k = 4 k then,
B = 5k second number = 2x
first number = 4 x
C=3k=6k
According to question
∴A : B : C = 4 : 5 : 6
( )
Q76. The sum of the present ages of father and son is
90 years. 10 years earlier the ratio of their ages was 5 : ∴x = 9
2. The present age of the father is: ∴first number = 4x = 4 × 9 = 36
(a) 65 (b) 68 second number = 2x = 2 × 9 = 18
(c) 70 (d) 60 third number = x = 9
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Q79. Raman, Manan, and Kamal are partners and
Total work unit = efficiency of worker × time of worker
= 15 × 4 = 60
invest in a business such that Raman invests 2/5th of efficiency of A = 4 – 3 = 1
total and Manan invest 3/8th of the total. What is the Required time = days
ratio of profit of Raman, Manan and Kamal
respectively?
Q2. If 5 men or 7 women can earn ₹ 5,250 per day,
(a) 16 : 15 : 9 (b) 16 : 15 : 31
how much would 7 men and 13 women earn per day ?
(c) 2 : 3 : 5 (d) 15 : 16 : 9
(a) ₹ 11,600 (b) ₹ 11,700
Ans: (a) Let total investment = x
(c) ₹ 16,100 (d) ₹ 17,100
Investment by Raman Ans: (d) 5 men ≡ 7 women
Investment by Manan 7men women
Investment by Kamal ( ) ∴ 7 men + 13 women women
Now,
7women
Ratio of invest of Raman, Manan and Kamal
women
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∴ Time taken by A to complete this part of work Q8. A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked
for 3 days, B joined him. If they complete the work in
days
3 more days, in how many days can B alone finish the
work?
Q5. One pipe fills a water tank three times faster than
(a) 6 days (b) 12 days
another pipe. If the two pipes together can fill the
(c) 4 days (d) 8 days
empty tank in 36 minutes, then how much time will
Ans: (a) According to Question
the slower pipe alone take to fill the tank ?
(a) 1 hour 21 minutes (b) 1 hour 48 minutes = 1, =1
(c) 2 hours (d) 2 hour 24 minutes
Ans: (d) If time taken by the pipe at faster rate to fill the
tank be x minutes then B = 6 days
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∴ A and B together will do the work in days. (c) 4 hours (d) hours
Ans: (d) Part of the tank filled by both pipes in two hours
Q12. A work can be completed by P and Q in 12 days,
( ) ( )
Q and R in 15 days, R and P in 20 days. In how many
days P alone can finish the work? Remaining part =
(a) 10 (b) 20 Time taken by B in filling the remaining part
(c) 30 (d) 60
hours
Ans: (c) (P + Q)‘s 1 day‘s work = ... (i)
(Q + R)‘s 1 day‘s work = ... (ii) Q15. X and Y can do a piece of work in 30 days. They
(R + P)‘s 1 day‘s work = ... (iii) work together for 6 days and then X quits and Y
finishes the work in 32 more days. In how many days
Adding all three equations, 2 (P + Q + R)‘s 1 day‘s work
can Y do the piece of work alone?
= = (a) 30 days (b) 32 days
∴ (P + Q + R)‘s 1 day‘s work = ... (iv) (c) 34 days (d) 40 days
∴ P‘s 1 day‘s work Ans: (d) (x + y) ‗s 6 days‘ work = ( ) .
= Equation (iv) – equation (ii) Remaining work = ( )
=
Now, work is done by y in 32 days.
∴ P alone will complete the work in 30 days,
Alternate Method: Whole work will be done by y in ( ) = 40 days.
Work efficiency of P + Q : Q + R : P + R =
Q16. Two men A and B started a job in which A was
thrice as good as B and therefore took 60 days less
Working efficiency of P+ Q + R = unit
than B to finish the job. How many days will they take
Total work unit = 5 × 12 = 60 to finish the job, if they start working together?
Work efficiency of P = (P + Q + R) – (Q+ R) = 6 – 4 = 2 (a) 15 days (b) 20 days
units
(c) days (d) 25 days
Required time = days. Ans: (c) If time taken by A be x days,
then time taken by B = 3x days
Q13. If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 ∴ 3x – x = 60
days, then work ing at the same rate, 8 men and 16 2x – 60
women can reap the same field in: x = 30
(a) 9 days (b) 5 days Time taken by B = 90 days
(c) 7 days (d) 8 days ∴ (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work
Ans: (a)
∴ Both A and B will finish the work in = 12 days. Q29. A can do a piece of work in 12 days whil eB
alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of C they can
Q26. 3 men and 7 women can do a job in 5 days. while finish it in 5 days. If they are paid ₹ 960 for the whole
4 men and 6 women can do it in 4 days . The number work how much money A gets?
of days required for a group of 10 women working (a) ₹ 480 (b) ₹ 240
together, at the same rate as before, to finish the same (c) ₹ 320 (d) ₹ 400
job is: Ans: (d) Work done by A and B in 5 days
(a) 30 (b) 36
= ( ) ( )=
(c) 40 (d) 20
Ans: (d) 3 × 5 men + 7 × 5 women Time taken by C in doing
= 4 × 4 men + 6 ×4 women Work = 5 days
16 men – 15 men = 35 women – 24 women ∴ C will complete in 20 days.
∴ 1 man = 11 women ∴ Ratio of wages = =5:4:3
∴ 3 men + 7 women = 40 women
∴ M1 D1 = M2 D2 ∴ Amount received by A = = ₹ 400
40 × 5 = 10 × D2
D2 = 20 days Q30. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the
same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left
Q27. A man undertakes to do a certain work in 150 the job. In how many days. A alone can finish the
days. He employs 200 men. He finds that only a remaining work ?
quarter of the work is done in 50 days. The number of (a) 8 (b) 6
additional men that should be appointed so that the (c) 5½ (d) 5
whole work will be finished in time is : Ans: (b) Work done by B in 10 days =
(a) 50 (b) 75
Remaining work = 1 –
(c) 100 (d) 125
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∴ Time taken by A = https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
= 6 days. ∴ Time taken by A in completing the work
= 6 days.
Q31. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of ∴ B‘s 1 day‘s work =
work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys can do it in 80 ∴ B alone will complete the work in 6 days.
hours, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 hours. 5
men and 12 boys can do it in Q34. A and B together can complete a piece of work
(a) hours (b) hours in 12 days, B and C can do it in 20 days and C and A
can do it in 15 days. A, B and C together can complete
(c) hours (d) 44 hours
it in
Ans: (c) 1 hr‘s work of 1 man and 4 boys = (a) 8 days (b) 10 days
(c) 12 days (d) 6 days
1 hr‘s work of 1 man and 3 women =
Ans: (b) (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work =
1 hr work of 3 women
= (B + C)‘s 1 day‘s work =
Q39. 3 men or 5 women can do'a work in 12 days. ∴ (A + B + C)'s 1 day's work =
How long will 6 men and 5 women take to finish the ∴ A' 1 day's work = =
work?
(a) 4 days (b) 5 days
(c) 6 days (d) 7 days Q43. A can do of work in 28 days, B can do of the
Ans: (a) 3 men = 5 women same work in 20 days. The number of days they will
6 men + 5 women = 15 women take to complete if they do it together is
∴ By M1D1 = M2D2 (a) days (b) days
5 × 12 = 15 × D2
(c) days (d) days
D2 = = 4 days
Ans: (d) A can complete whole work in = 32 days
Q40. A piece of work can be done by Ram and Shyam B can complete whole work in = 24 days
in 12 days, by Shyam and Hari in 15 days and by Hari A and B together can complete whole work in
and Ram in 20 days. Ram alone will complete the days
work in
(a) 30 days (b) 32 days
Q44. A is twice as good a workman as B and together
(c) 36 days (d) 42 days
they finish a piece of work in 20 days. In how many
Ans: (a) (Ram's + Shyam's) 1 day's work = days will A alone finish the work?
(Shyam's + Hari's) 1 day's work = (a) 30 days (b) 25 days
(c) 40 days (d) 35 days
(Hari's + Ram's) 1 day's work =
Ans: (a) If A can finish the work in x days, B finish th e
Adding all three, same work in 2x days.
2 (Ram's + Shyam's + Hari's)
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(A + B) together finish work in 20 days Ans: (c) Let Pratibha can finish the work in x days then,
Sonia can finish the same work in 3x days
According to question
x = 30 days 3x – x = 60
2x = 60 x = 30
Q45. A, B and C together can do a piece of work in 40 Pratibha and Sonia can ind ividually complete the work in
days. After working with B and C for 16 days, A 30 days and 90 days respectively.
leaves and then B and C complete the remaining work
in 40 days more. A alone could do the work in Q48. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours.
(a) 80 days (b) 90 days After working it together for 2 hours, C is closed and
(c) 100 days (d) 120 days A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The
Ans: (c) (A + B + C)'s 1 day's work =( ) part of number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is
(a) 10 (b) 12
whole work
(c) 14 (d) 16
(A + B + C)'s 16 days work = of whole work (B
Ans: (c)
+ C) completes remaining wo rk in 40 days (B + C)
(A + B + C) can do part of work in 2 days.
completes ( ) part of work in 40 days.
Remaining work =
(B + C) completes whole work in days.
In one hour (A + B) can do part of work
( )
C = 14 hours
Q51. A pipe can fill a tank in x hours and another can Work done by 2nd tap in one minute =
empty it in y hours. They can together fill it in (y > x) Both tap one minute work =
(a) x – y (b) y – x
=
(c)
=
Ans: (d) Work done by A in one hour =
Work done by B in one hour = Q55. If 4 men or 8 women can do a piece of work in 15
Both A & B together in work one hour days, in how many days can 6 men and 12 women do
= = the same piece of work ?
(a) 5 days (b) 20 days
Both A & B fill tank in hours. (c) 15 days (d) 30 days
Ans: (a) 4 M = 8W
Q52. A and B together can do a piece of work in 6 1M = 2W
days. If A can alone do the work in 18 days, then the Now, 6M + 12 W = 6 × 2W + 12W
number of days required for B to finish the work is = 12W + 12W
(a) 12 (b) 9 = 24 W
(c) 15 (d) 10 Now, M1 d1 = M2 d2
Ans: (b) A and B can complete work in 6 days 8W × 15 = 24 W × d2
A can complete in 18 days ∴ d2 = = 5 days
Let B can complete in x days
∴ One day work be equal to
Q56. 4 men and 6 women complete a work in 8 days, 2
men and 9 women also complete in 8 days. The
number of days 18 women complete the work is :
(a) days (b) days
3x = x + 18 (c) days (d) days
x = 9 days
Ans: (d) Now, M1d1 = M2d2
(4M + 6W) × 8 = (2M + 9W) × 8
Q53. A's 2 days work is equal to B's 3 days work. If A
4M + 6W = 2M + 9W
can complete the work in 8 days then to complete the
2M = 3W
work B will take :
(a) 14 days (b) 15 days 1M=
(c) 16 days (d) 12 days Now, 4M + 6W =
Ans: (d) A‘s 2 days work = B‘s 3 days work.
Here 12W complete a work in 8 days.
A complete a work in 8 days
So, let 18 women complete a work in x days
A‘s 1 days work = days 12W × 8 = 18W × x
A‘s 2 days work = work. x= days = days
Now, B‘s 3 days work = work
Q57. 12 monkeys can eat 12 bananas in 12 minutes. In
B‘s 1 days work = work
how many minutes can 4 monkeys eat 4 bananas ?
∴ B‘s will take 12 days to complet the work. (a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 4 (d) 8
Q54. A tap can empt y a tank in 30 minutes. A second Ans: (a) 12 monkeys can eat 12 bananas in 12 minutes
tap can empty it in 45 minutes. If both the taps So 1 monkey can eat 1 banana in 12 minutes
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4 monkeys can eat 4 banana in 12 minutes Q62. A can finish a work in 7 days . B can finish the
same work i n 9 days . The days required to finish the
Q58. 20 men can do a piece of work in 18 days. They work by both of them together.
worked together for 3 days, then 5 men joined them. (a)
In how many more days is the work completed ?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c)
(c) 15 (d) 13 Ans: (c) A can do work in = 7 day
Ans: (a) 1 men 1 day's work = B can do work in = 9 day
Both can do work in =
20 men 3 days work =
days
Remaining work =
25 men 1 days work = Q63. A,B and C contract a work for ₹ 440. Together
Now work is done by them in 1 day A and B are to do 9/11 of the work. The share o fC
should be:
work is done by them in days
(a) 75 (b) 90
(c) 100 (d) 80
Q59. If 20 women can lay a road of length 100m in 10
Ans: (d) Remaining work =
days. 10 women can lay the same road of length 50 m
in : C will get = = 80
(a) 20 days (b) 10 days
(c) 5 days (d) 15 days Q64. A is twice as good as B and together they finish a
Ans: (b) Required number of days = = 10 days piece of work in 16 days. The number of days taken
by A alone to finish the work is
(a) 20 days (b) 21 days
Q60. A contractor was engaged to construct a road in
(c) 22 days (d) 24 days
16 days. After working for 12 days with 20 labours it
Ans: (d) Let B takes day = 2x
was found that only 5/8th of th e road had been
A takes = x
constructed. To complete the work in stipulated time
the number of extra labours required is : , x = 24
(a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 18 (d) 16 Q65. If 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8
Ans: (d) days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10
m1 D1.w2 = m2 D2 W1 days, then 10 women complete it in
(a) 40 days (b) 45 days
(c) 35 days (d) 50 days
Ans: (a) Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x
and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y
Hence, 36 – 20 = 16 more men needed to complete the
Then, 4x + 6y and
remaining work in 4 days.
Solving two equations,
Q61. A can do 1/3rd of a work in 5 days and B can do We get
2/5th of this work in 10 days. Both A and B, together ∴ 1 women's 1 day's work
can do the work in
(a) days (b) days 10 women's 1 day's work ( )
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.
(c) days (d) 10 days
Ans: (c) A can do work in = 5 × 3 = 15 days Q66. A and B can separately finish a piece of work in
B can do work in = days 20 days and 15 days respectively. They worked
together for 6 days, after whi ch B was replaced by C.
Together, or days
If the work was finished in next 4 days, then the
number of days in which C alone could do the work is
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(a) 50 days
(c) 40 days
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(b) 30 days
(d) 60 days
(c) 2400
Ans: (c)
(d) 2000
Q6. A man can row 6 km/h in sti ll water. If the speed Q10. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance
of the current is 2 km/h, it takes 3 hours more in of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman
upstream than in the down –stream for the same chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the
distance. The distance is rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. The
(a) 30 km (b) 24 km distance (in metres) between them after 6 minutes is
(c) 20 km (d) 32 km (a) 190 (b) 200
Ans: (b) Let the required distance be x km. (c) 100 (d) 150
Ans: (c) Relative speed = 11 – 10 = 1 kmph
∴ =3
Distance covered in 6 minutes
=3
metre = 100metre
=3 ∴ Remaining distance
x = 3 × 8 = 24 km. = 200 – 100 = 100 metre
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Q11. Walking at 5 km/hr a student reaches his school
According to question
Q20. Two trains 108 m and 112 m in length are Total time = = = hours
running towards each other on the parallel lines a t a ∴ Average speed = = 40 kmph
speed of 45 km/hr and 54 km/hr respectively. To cross
each other after they meet, it will take Q24. A train is moving at a speed of 80 km/h and
(a) 10 sec (b) 12 sec covers a certain distance in 4.5 hours. The speed of
(c) 9 sec (d) 8 sec the train to cover the same distance in 4 hours is
Ans: (d) Relative speed = (45+54) = 99km/hr = (a) 90 km/h (b) 100 km/h
m/sec (c) 70 km/h (d) 85 km/h
Distance covered in crossing each other Ans: (a) Distance covered in 4.5 h = 80 × 4.5 = 360 km
= (108+112) = 220m Speed = km = 90 km/h
Required time =
Q25. Water flows at the rate of 10 metres per minute
Q21. Walking at a speed of 5 km/hr, a man reaches from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long it
his office 6 minutes late. Walking at 6 km/hr, he lake to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the
reaches there 2 minutes early. The distance of his base is 30 cm and depth 24 cm?
office is (a) 28 minutes 48 seconds (b) 51 minutes 12 seconds
(a) 2 km (b) 3 km (c) 51 minutes 24 seconds (d) 28 minutes 36 seconds
(c) 4 km (d) 3.5 km Ans: (a) Volume of water flowing from the pipe in 1
minute
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cu.cm.
Q30. A certain distance is covered at a certain speed.
∴ Required time = If half of this distance is covered in double the time,
= 28 minutes 48 seconds the ratio of the two speeds is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 1
Q26. A train moving at a rate of 36 km/hr. crosses a (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
standing man in 10 seconds. It will cross a platform 55 Ans: (d) If the original speed be S 1 units and time = t1
metres long, in: units and distance = D, then
(a) seconds (b) 6 seconds
(c) 7 seconds (d) seconds
Ans: (d) Speeds of train = 36 kmph = 36 × = 10 m/sec
Length of train = 10 × 10 = 100 metre
∴ Required time =
= 15.5 seconds seconds.
Q27. A man can swim 3 km/hr. in still water. If the Q31. Two cars are moving with speeds v 1, v 2 towards
velocity of the stream is 2 km/hr. the time taken by a crossing along two roads. If their distances from the
him to swim to a place 10 km upstream and back is : crossing be 40 metres and 50 metres at an instant of
(a) time then they do not collide if their speeds are such
(c) 10 hr. (d) 12 hr. that
Ans: (d) Downstream speed = 5 kmph (a) v1 : v2 ≠ 5 : 4 (b) v1 : v2 = 25 : 16
Upstream speed = 1 kmph (c) v1 : v2 = 16 : 25 (d) v1 : v2 ≠ 4 : 5
Ans: (d)
∴ Required time = = 12 hours
20m/sec
km
∴Length of train = speed × time
∴Length of Journey is = 210 km = 20 × 6 = 120 m.
Q3. The length (in metres) of the longest rod that can
be put in a room of dimensions 10 m × 10 m × 5 m is
(a) √ (b) 15
=
(c) √ √
Ans: (b) Length of the longest rod
Q8. The volume (in m 3) of rain water that can be
√
collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5
√ cm is
√ metre (a) 75 (b) 750
(c) 7500 (d) 75000
Q4. A copper wire of length 36 m and diameter 2 mm Ans: (b) 1 hectare = 10000 sq. metre
is melted to form a sphere. The radius of the sphere ∴ Area of the ground = 15000 sq. metre
(in cm) is ∴ Required volume = 15000 ×
(a) 2.5 (b) 3
= 750 m3
(c) 3.5 (d) 4
Ans: (b) Volume of the wire = πr2h
Q9. A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of
∴ π × 0.1 × 0.1 × 3600 cm3
area 81 cm 2. If the same wire is bent form of a
36π cm3
semicircle, the radius (in cm) of the semicircle is
Volume cylinder = vol. sphere
(Take )
Volume of the sphere =
(a) 16 (b) 14
= 36 π
(c) 10 (d) 7
R3 = = 27 Ans: (d) Side of a square
∴R= √ = 3 cm = √ = 9 cm
∴ Length of the wire
Q5. If each side of a square is increased by 10%, its = 4 × 9 = 36 cm.
area will be increased by ∴ Perimeter of semi-circle = (π + 2)r
(a) 10% (b) 21% where r = radius
(c) 44% (d) 100% ( )
Ans: (b) Increase percent in area
=( )% = 21%
r= = 7 cm.
Q6. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 10%
and its breadth is decreased by 10%, the change in its Q10. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in
area will be moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in cm) is
(a) 1% increase (b) 1% decrease (Take )
(c) 10% increase (d) No change
(a) 70 (b) 35
Ans: (b) Required change in area (c) 17.5 (d) 140
( ) Ans: (b) Distance covered by wheel in one revolution
= Circumference of wheel
Negative sign shows a decrease.
= m
Shortcut:
= cm = 220 cm
Q7. The ratio of the radil of two wheels is 3 : 4. The ∴ 2πr = 220
ratio of their circumferences is
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Q14. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/h through a
pipe of diameter 14cm into a rectangular tank which
r= = 35 cm
is 50 m long, 44m wide. The time taken, in hours, for
the rise in the level of water in the tank to be 7 cm is
Q11. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the (a) 2 (b)
rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in litres) will
fall into the sea in a minute? (c) 3 (d)
(a) 4,00,000 (b) 40,00,000 Ans: (a) Water flowed by the pipe in 1 hr.
(c) 40,000 (d) 4,000 = πr2h
Ans: (b) Volume of water flowed in an hour = metre3
= 2000 × 40 × 3 m3 3
= 77 m
= 240000 m3
Volume of expected water in the tank
∴ Volume of water flowed in 1 minute.
= 154 m3
= = 4000 m3
∴ Required time
= 4000000 litre
= = 2 hr.
Q12. A copper wire is bent in the form of square with
an area of 12 1 cm 2. It the same wire is bent in the Q15. The areas of three consecutive faces of a cuboid
form of a circle, the radius (in cum) of the circle is are 12 cm 2, 20 cm 2 and 15 cm 2, then the volume (in
cm3) of the cuboid is
(Take π = )
(a) 3600 (b) 100
(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) 80 (d) 60
(c) 11 (d) 14
Ans: (d) If the length, breadth and height of the cuboid
Ans: (a) Side of square = √ = 11 cm be x, y and z cm respectively, then
∴ Length of wire = 4 × 11 = 44 cm xy = 12; yz = 20; zx = 15
∴ 2πr = 44 ∴ x2y2z2 = 12 × 20 × 15
2× = 44 = 3600 cm6
ν= = 7 cm ∴ ν = xyz = √ = 60 cm3
√ [ ]
Squaring on both sides
units
Given BC & EF are each 2 feet. Since area of rectangle is
length × width. Q21. The area of a semi -circular field is 308 sq. m;
To find out BF or CE, Take ∆ABF. It has two equal sides then takingπ = , the length of the railing to surround
(AB = AF), so the perpendicular from A to line BF it has to be
divides ABF into two congruent ∆s. (a) 44 m (b) 72 m
So, each of the two triangles is 30° -60°-90° right angle ∆ (c) 88 m (d) 80 m
with hypotenuse 2. Ans: (b)
√
In ∆ABM cos 30° = √
So, BF = 2 × BM = √
Area of rectangle = √ × 2 = √
Q19. The base of a triangle is 2 cm more than twice its Length of railing to surround
altitude. If the area is 12 sq. cm, its altitude will be = Length of Are + Length of diameter
(a) 6 cm (b) 5 cm Area of semicircular = 308
(c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm
308 =
Ans: (d) Base = 2 + 2 × altitude
Let, altitude be A 308 = × r2
Area of ∆ = × Base × Altitude
12 = × (2 + 2A) × A r = 14 m
12 = A × (1 + A) Length of railing = πr + 2r
12 = A + A2 = = 44 + 28 = 72 m
A2 +A – 12 = 0
(A – 3) (A + 4) = 0
Q22. The volume of a cubical box is 3.375 cubic
A = 3, A = – 4
meters. The length of edge of the box is:
Altitude = 3 cm
(a) 75 cm (b) 1.5 m
(c) 1.125 m (d) 2.5 m
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Length of edge of the box = √
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Ans: (b) Volume of cubical box = 3.375 m3 (a) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 6
(d) 1 : 2
Ans: (c) Diagonal of a cube = √
Q23. If the numerical value of the volume of a right √ × side = √
circular cylinder and its curved surface area are ∴ Side of a cube = 6
equal, then its radius is Surface area of cube = 6 × (side)2 = 6 × 62
(a) 2 units (b) 4 units Volume of cube = (side)3 = (6) 3
(c) 3 units (d) 6 units
Required ratio = or1:1
Ans: (a) Volume of right circular cylinder = Curved
surface area of cylinder
πr2h = 2πrh [where, r → radius; h → height] : Q28. The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are
r = 2 units 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The ratio of their inner radii
is
Q24. The circumference o f the base of a 16 cm height (a) 4 : 9 (b) 16 : 81
solid cone is 33 cm. What is the volume of the cone in (c) √ √ (d) 2 : 3
cm³ ? Ans: (d)
(a) 1028 (b) 616
(c) 462 (d) 828
( ) ( )
Ans: (c) Circumference = 33 cm
2πr = 33
∴r =
Volume = =
Q29. The perimeter of a semi -circular area is 18 cm,
then the radius is : (using )
Q25. The length of a minute hand of a clock is 7 cm.
The area swept by the minute hand in 30 minutes is: (a) cm (b) cm
(a) 210 sq. cm (b) 154 sq. cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4 cm
(c) 77 sq. cm (d) 147 sq. cm Ans: (b) Perimeter of a semicircular area = 18 cm
Ans: (c) Angle made by clock in 30 minutes = 180° perimeter of semicircular = 18 cm
∴ Area of sector covered by minute hand =
sq.cm r (π + 2) = 18
radius
Area of the largest triangle Radius of circum-circle
=x 2 √
=
√
Radius of in-circle =
Q32. The length and breadth of a square are
increased by 30% and 20% respectively. The area of ∴ Rate = : = 1:√
√
the rectangle so formed exceeds the area of the square
by: Q36. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle
(a) 46% (b) 66% and a square is inscribed in that circle. The ratio of
(c) 42% (d) 56% the areas of the triangle and the square is
Ans: (d) Let the side of square = ‗x‘ (a) √ √
Area of square = x2
(c) √ √
New length of rectangle = Ans: (d)
New Breadth of rectangle =
Hence, Area of so formed rectangle =
Q33. A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius In the given figure ABC is an equilateral ∆ of a side with
21 cm and length 90 cm. The outer curved surface a circle inscribed in it and a square inscribed in the circle.
area of the pipe in square cm is
(a) 11880 (b) 11680
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∠C and O is the centre of the circle.
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AD, BO and CO are the angle bisectors of ∠A, ∠B and Ans: (c) Radius of cylinder = r units and height = r units
∴ Required ratio = 2πr2 + 2πr2 = 4πr2
We know that the angle bisector from the vertex of an : 2πr2 + πr2 = 3πr2 = 4 : 3
equilateral triangle is the perpendicular bisector of the
opposite side. Q39. If the sum of the length, breadth and height of a
AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC. rectangular parallelopiped is 24 cm and the length of
BD = and ∠DOB = ∠ its diagonal is 15 cm, then its total surface area is
(a) 351 cm2 (b) 256 cm2
Now in ∆BOD 2
(c) 265 cm (d) 315 cm2
tan 30° = Ans: (a) Let length = l, breadth = b, height = h.
l + b + h = 24 (given) ... (i)
Radius of circle =
√ √ Diagonal of parallellopiped = 15 cm
Now in right ∆EDG
√ = 15 or l2 + b2 + h2 = 225
EG2 + GD2 = ED2 (Pythagoras theorem)
Squaring eqn. (i) on both sides
2 (EG)2 = 2 (OD)2 = ( ) l2 + b2 + h2 + 2 lb + 2bh + 2hl = 576
√
2 (lb + bh + hl) = 576 – 225 = 351
Side of the square = √ [
√
Now ar (∆ABC) : ar (∆EFG)
√ √ Surface area of parallellopiped = 2 (lb + bh + hl)]
= √
√ √
Q40. A copper sphere of diameter 18 cm is drawn into
a wire of diameter 4 mm. The length of the wire, in
Q37. A circular road runs around a circular ground.
metre, is :
If the difference between the circumferences of the
(a) 2.43 (b) 243
outer circle and the inner circle is 66 metres, the
(c) 2430 (d) 24.3
width of the road is : (Take )
Ans: (b) Volume of sphere = =
(a) 21 metres (b) 10.5 metres
= 972 π cubic.cm.
(c) 7 metres (d) 5.25 metres
If the length of wire be h cm., then
Ans: (b)
π × (0.2)2 × h = 972 π
h= = 24300 cm = 243 metre
Q43. Water f lows at the rate of 10 metres per minute Q47. The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral
from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long it triangle of side 10 √ cm. If the total surface area of
lake to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the the pyramid is 270 √ sq. cm, its height is
base is 30 cm and depth 24 cm?
(a) 12 cm (b) √ cm
(a) 28 minutes 48 seconds (b) 51 minutes 12 seconds
(c) 10 cm (d) √ cm
(c) 51 minutes 24 seconds (d) 28 minutes 36 seconds
Ans: (a) Now, T.S.A of pyramid = ar (∆ABD) + ar
Ans: (a) Volume of water flowing from the pipe in 1
(∆ADC) + ar (∆ABC) + ar (∆BDC)
minute
Volume of conical vessel ∴T.S.A of pyramid =
= cu.cm. √
∴ Required time =
= 28 minutes 48 seconds
= 18 cm, b = 12 cm, h = 3 cm
S = 2 (h + bh) + b{Box is open from upper side}
(∴ AE = AF = AG = height of isosceles ∆ (h) ) = 2 (54 + 36) + 216
[ ] √ = 396 cm2
√
√ [ √ √ √ ] Q50. The volume of air in a room is 204 m 3
. The
√ height of the room is 6 m. What is the floor area of the
( √ )
room?
√ √ √ (a) 34 m2 (b) 32 m2
√ √ (c) 46 m 2
(d) 44 m2
H = 13m... (1) Ans: (a) Volume of air in room = 204 m3
Now to find height of pyramid (H) , we use Area of floor × height of room = 204 m3
Area of floor ×6 = 204 m3
∴Area of floor = = 34 m2
θ = 72°
180° = π radius
∴ 72° =
BD = 2 units = radians
AB = √ units Arc AB = s = 88 metre
Area of square = 2 square units ∴θ=
Area of four semicircles
is area of square
Q60. A square is inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm.
The area of the square is Therefore, area will he four times.
(a) 16 square cm (b) 64 square cm
(c) 128 square cm (d) 148 square cm Q63. The biggest possible circle is inscribed in a
Ans: (c) rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 6 cm. Then its
area is
(a) 3π cm2 (b) 4π cm2
2
(c) 5π cm (d) 9π cm2
Ans: (d) Radius of square = breadth of rectangle
cm
Alternate Method:
The area of circle is 9π cm2.
Diagonal of square = Diameter of circle Q64. The perimeter of the base of a right circular
√ side of square = 16 cm cylinder is 'a' unit. if the volume of the cylinder is V
Squaring on both sides cubic unit. then the height of the cylinder is
(√ ) (a) unit (b) unit
2
(side of square) =
(c) unit (d) unit
Area of square = 128 sq. cm Ans: (d) If the radius of base of cylinder be r units and its
height be h units, then
Q61. A conical flask is full of wate r. The flask has
2π r = a r = units
base radius r and height h. This water is poured into a
cylindrical flask of base radius mr. The height of ∴ Volume of cylinder = πr2h
water in the cylindrical flask is V=π× h= units
(a)
Q65. The difference of perimeter and diameter of a
(c)
circle is X unit. The diameter of the circle is
Ans: (b) Volume of water in conical flask
(a) unit (b) unit
If the height of water level in cylindrical flask be
H units, then (c) unit (d) ( )unit
Ans: (a) If the diameter of the circle be d units, then
πd–d=x
d (π –1) = x
d= units
=√ √
( )
h = 72 cm Q81. The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral
triangle of side 4 cm each. Each slant edge is 5 cm
Q77. If the sum of the dimensions of a rectangular long. The volume of the pyramid is
parallelepiped is 24 cm and the length of the diagonal √ √
(a) cm3 (b) cm3
is 15 cm, then the total surface area of it is
(c) √ √
(a) 420 cm2 (b) 275 cm2 cm3 (d) cm3
2
(c) 351 cm (d) 378 cm2 √
Ans: (c) Height of base = where a = 4
Ans: (c) Let length, breadth and height of parallelopiped
√
be l, b and h respectively. = = √
l + b + h = 24 cm √
Ao = × × 4 = cm
√ l2 + b2 + h2 = 225 cm2 √
2
(l + b + h) – 2 (lb + hb + lh) = 225
(24)2 – 225 = 2 (lb + bh + hl)
351 = 2 (lb + bh + hl)
Total surface area is 351 cm2.
Q96. 5 persons will live in a tent. If each person Side of square = Diameter of sphere
requires 16m 2 of floor area and 100 m 3 space for air
Radius of sphere cm
then the height of the cone of smallest size to
accomodate these persons would be ? Area of sphere × π × 9 × 9 × 9 = 972π
(a) 18.75 m (b) 16 m
(c) 10.25 m (d) 20 m Q100. The radius and the height of a cone are each
Ans: (a) For surface Area of 5 persen increased by 20%. Then the volume of the cone
increases by
(a) 20% (b) 20.5%
(c) 62% (d) 72.8%
Now, volume of cone = volume of air space of 5 person Ans: (d) Let radius and height of cone = 100
New radius and height of cone = 120
Ratio =
or 1 : 3 = 628.57 cm2
Now,
Q103. The curved s urface area of a cylinder with its Volume of new sphere
height equal to the radius, is equal to the curved
surface area of a sphere. The ratio of volume of the
cylinder to that of the sphere is ∴
(a) √ √ R3 = 216
(c) 3: √ (d) 3:√ ∴ √ cm
Ans: (d) ∴Surface Area of new solid sphere
Q110. If diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 30 cm. Q113. The ratio of curved surface area of two cones is
then what is the perimeter (in cm) of the rhombus? 1 : 4 and the ratio of slant height of the two cones is 2 :
(a) 32 (b) 64 1. What is the ratio of the radius of the two cones?
(c) 34 (d) 68 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
Ans: (d) Let side of rhombus be x (c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 1
Ans: (c) Here,
The ratio of curved surface area of two cones = 1 : 4
Let curved surface area of first cone be x and curved
surface area of second cone be 4x.
Let slant height of first cone be 2x and slant height of
second cone be x.
According to question,
By pythagorean theorem,
x2 = (15)2 + (8) 2
x2 = 225 + 64 = 289 ∴
∴ √ cm ∴The ratio of the radius of the two cones = 1 : 8
∴Perimeter of rhombus = 4 × side
= 4 × 17 Q114. If the perimeter of a rhombus is 80 cm and one
= 68 cm of its diagonal is 24 cm, then what is the area (in cm 2)
of the rhombus?
Q111. A sphere has a total surface area 9πcm2. Its (a) 218 (b) 192
volume is: (c) 384 (d) 768
(a) 36πcm3 (b) 18πcm3 Ans: (c)
(c)
πcm3 (d) πcm3
Ans: (d) Total surface area of sphere = 9π cm2
4πr2 = 9π cm2
∴ √
( )( )( )
440 + 308
= 748 cm2
∴Total surface area of two new cylinders
= 748 × 2 = 1496 cm2 [ ]
∴Percentage increase in surface area ( 1
)% = 25.93%
Q4. If ( ) √ , value of cos θ is:
Q1. tan 7° tan 23° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83° is equal to Ans: (c) ( ) √ , ( )
(a) (b) 1
√
(c) 0 (d) √
∴ cos θ =
Ans: (d) tan 7° tan23° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83°
tan (90° – 83°) tan (90° – 67°) tan 60° tan 67° tan 83°
cot 83° cot 67° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83° Q5. If , then value of cotθ is:
[ (a)
(c) 3 (d) 2
tan (90° – θ) = cotθ]
Ans: (a)
Dividing numerator and denominator by cos θ.
tan 60° = √
2 sec2θ – 1 = 3 tanθ
2 (1 + tan2θ) – 1 = 3 tanθ
2 tan2θ + 2 – 1 = 3 tanθ
In this type of Q just put 2 tan2θ – 3 tanθ + 1 = 0
h2 = ab 2 tan2θ – 2 tanθ – tanθ + 1
( √ ) =0
300 = x (x + 20) 2 tan θ (tan θ – 1) – 1 (tan θ – 1) = 0
10 (30) = x (x + 20) (2 tanθ – 1) (θ – 1) = 0
x + 20 = 30 or1
cosA √ √ √
(a)
Q30. If sinθ and 2x secθ – y
(c) cosecθ = 3, then the value of x + 4y2 is
2
√
Q33. When the angle of elevation of the sum increases √ √ √
from 30° to 60°, the shadow of a post is diminished by √
5 metres. then the height of the post is ∴ [ ]
√ √
(a) Therefore, √
(c)
√ √ √
Ans: (a)
AB = Pole = h metre
BD = x metre And 2x sec θ – y cosec θ = 3
From ∆ABC,
√
√ ... (i) Now sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1
From ∆ABD,
√
Q36. In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, BA is produced to
D in such a manner that AC = AD. The circular
√
measure of ∠BCD is
√
(a)
√
√ (c)
√ Ans: (d) AB = AC
√ ∴ ∠ABC = ∠ACB ... (1)
√
metre
Ans: (d)
cos4 α sin2 β + sin4 α cos2 β = cos2 β sin2 β
cos4 α (1 – cos2 β) + cos2 β (1 – cos2 α)2 = cos2 β (1 –
cos2 β)
[opposite angle of equal sides are equal]
cos4 α – cos4 α cos2 β + cos2 β – 2 cos2 α
AC = AD
cos2 β + cos4 α cos2 β = cos2 β – cos4 β
∴ ∠ACD = ∠ADC ... (2)
cos4 α – 2 cos2 α cos2 β + cos4 β = 0
In a triangle,
(cos2 α – cos2 β)2 = 0
∠ABC + ∠ADC + ∠DCB = 180°
cos2 α = cos2 β
∠ABC + ∠ADC + ∠ACB + ∠ACD = 180°
sin2 α = sin2 β
2∠ACB + 2∠AOC = 180°
[From eqn. (1) & (2) ] Then,
∴∠BCD = 90° or π / 2
is
(a) 4 (b) 0
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√
Q42. The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° ... tan 89° is: =
(a) 1 (b) 2 =
(c) undefined (d) 0 =
Ans: (a) tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° ... tan 89°
= tan 1° tan 2°... tan45° ... tan (90 – 2) tan (90 – 1)
Q47. If cosec θ – cotθ = , the value of cosecθ is :
= tan 1° tan 2° ... 1 ... cot 2° cot 1°
= (tan 1° cot 1°) (tan 2° cot 2°) ... 1 = 1 (a)
(c)
Q43. The simplified value of
(1 + tanθ + secθ) (1 + cotθ – cosecθ) is Ans: (c) cosec θ – cot θ = ... (i)
(a) – 2 (b) 2 cosec2 θ – cot2 θ = 1
(c) 1 (d) – 1 (cosec θ + cot θ) (cosec θ – cot θ) = 1
Ans: (b) (1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) cosec θ + cot θ
( )( ) = ... (ii)
On adding both equations.
( )( ) 2 cosec θ =
cosecθ =
√
h = (√ )
Q52. The value of Q56. If sec θ + tan θ = 2 + √ , then the value of sin θ +
cos 1° cos 2° cos 3°............ cos 177° cos 178° cos 179° cos θ is:
is: (a)
√ √
(a) (b) 0
√ (c) √
√
Q59. Evaluate : tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° ........... tan 89°. Q63. If (1 + sinα) (1 + sinβ) (1 + sinγ) = (1 – sinα) (1 –
(a) 0 (b) 1 sinβ) (1 – sinγ), then each side is equal to
(c) –1 (d) 2 (a)
Ans: (b) tan 89° = tan (90° – 1°) = cot 1° (c)
tan 88° = tan (90° – 2°) Ans: (a) (1 + sin α) (1 + sin β) (1 + sin γ) = (1 – sin α) (1
= cot 2° – sin β) (1 – sin γ) = x
∴ Expression = tan 1°, cot 1°, tan 2°, ∴ x.x = (1 + sin α) (1 – sin α) (1 + sin β) (1 – sin β) (1 +
cot2°.... tan 45° = 1 sin γ) (1 + sin γ)
[ ] = (1 – sin2 α) (1 – sin2 β) (1 – sin2 γ)
= cos2 α. cos2β.cos2 γ
Q60. The value of = x = ± cosα . cos β . cosγ
152 (sin 30° + 2 cos 2 45° + 3 sin 30° + 4 cos 2 45° + .... +
17 sin 30° + 18 cos2 45°) is
Q64. The value of is
(a) an integer but not a perfect square
(b) a rational number but not an integer (a) 2 (b)
(c) a perfect square of an integer
(c) (d) 1
(d) irrational
Ans: (c) Ans: (d) Expression
(c)
Ans: (a) tan α = n tan β
tan β tan α
= cosec θ – cot θ – cosec θ = cot θ
cot β and
[ ]
sin α = m sin β sin β sin α
coses β
Q70. The value of is
∴ cosec2β – cot2β = 1
(a) 2 (b) l
(c) 3 (d) 0
Ans: (b)
m2 – n2 cos2 α = sin2α
= 1 – cos2α
m2 – 1 = n2 cos2 α – cos2α
[
= (n2 – 1) cos2α
tan 30° = , =
√
x= √
Q92. A vertical pole and a vertical tower are standing Q94. The value of + ( √ ) is equal to
on the same level ground. Height of the pole is 10 (a) – 1 (b) 1
metres. Form the top of the pole is the angle of (c) 2 (d) 0
elevation of the top of the tower and angle of
depression of the foot of the tower are 60° and 30° Ans: (c)
respectively. The height of the tower is +
(a) 20 m (b) 30 m
= 2 cos2 θ + 2sin2 θ – sin θ cos θ + sinθ cosθ = 2
(c) 40 m (d) 50 m
Ans: (c) 2
Q95. The value of sin 1° + sin 22° + sin 23° + .... +
sin289° is
(a) 22 (b) 44
(c)
Ans: (d) (sin2 1° + sin2 89°) + (sin2 2° + sin2 88°) + ...
+ (sin2 44° + sin2 48°) + sin2 45°
= (sin2 1° + cos 2 1°) + (sin 2 2° + cos 2 2°) + ... + (sin 2 44°
+ cos2 44°) + sin2 45°
= 1 + 1 + .... + 1 (44 times) + =
Q97. The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane cosec θ = cosec 60° =
√
is found to be 30 m longer when the Sun's altitude
changes from 60° to 45°. The height of the tower is Q100. The length of the shadow of a vertical tower on
(a) 15(√ )m (b) 15(√ )m level ground increases by 10 metres when the altitude
(c) 15( √ )m (d) m of the sun changes from 45° to 30°. T hen the height of
the tower is
Ans: (a)
(a) (√ ) metres (b) √ metres
(c) metres (d) 30( √ ) metres
√
Ans: (a)
h=
√ Q102. If is an acute angle and 2sin + 15cos 2 = 7,
(√ )
or = 30 h = 15 ( √ )m then the value of cot is:
√
(a)
Q98. If cos α + sec α = √ , then the value of cos 3
α+
sec3 α is (c)
(a) 2 (b) 1 Ans: (d) 2 sinα + 15 cos2α = 7where α is acute angle
(c) 0 (d) 4 2 sinα + 15 (1– sin2α) = 7
Ans: (c) cosα + sec α = √ 2 sinα + 15 – 15 sin2α – 7 = 0
taking cube both sides – 15 sin2α + 2 sinα + 8 = 0
cos3α + sec3 α + 3 cosα secα (cosα + secα) = √ 15 sin2α – 2 sinα – 8 = 0
Let sinα = t
cos3α + sec3 α + √ = √
So 15t2 – 2t – 8 = 0
cos3α + sec3 α = 0
15t2 – 12t + 10t – 8 = 0
3t (5t – 4) + 2 (5t – 4) = 0
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Ans: (d) Let height of the pillar is h m
In ∆ACD
t = or t = (–ve value not possible)
tanα =
∴ sin α =
In ∆ABD
√
cos α =
tan (90 – α) =
∴ cot α =
cot α =
=
=
h=√
(a) 16 (b) 12 √
(c) 15 (d) 18
Page 150 of 516
So, (1) 2 – ( ) = x ( ) ( ) (√ )
√ √
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(c)
2
(d) None
√ Ans: (a) Given sinθ + sin θ = 1
1 – sin2θ = sinθ
√
x= = Then, cos2θ + cos4θ cos2θ + (cos2θ)2
√
(1– sin2θ) + (1– sin2θ)2
√ sinθ + sin2θ = 1
Q108. If sin then the value of sin 3θ is equal to :
(take (0° ≤ θ ≤ 90°) Q113. Find the value of
(a) 0 (b) tan 4° tan 43° tan 47° tan 86°
(c) 1 (d) (a) 1 (b)
√
(c) 2 (d)
Ans: (c) sin 2θ = = sin 60° Ans: (a) tan 4° tan 43° tan47° tan 86°
2θ = 60°, tan (90° – 86°) × tan (90° – 47°) × tan 47° × tan 86°
θ = 30° cot 86° × cot 47° × tan 47° × tan 86°
sin 3θ = sin 3 (30°) = 90° 1
= sin 90° = 1
Q114. If x cos θ – sin θ = 1, then
Q109. If = 3 then the value of sin2θ is : x2 + (1 + x2) sin θ equals
(a) 1 (b) –1
(a)
(c) 0 (d) 2
√ Ans: (a)
(c)
Ans: (a) =3
Q115. The numerical value of + –
By componendo and dividendo
= =2 – is
So, tan θ = 2 (a)
sin2θ = (1– cos2θ) = ( ) (c) √
= = = = Ans: (a)
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
√ √
Q110. The maximum value of sin4θ + cos4θ is √ (√ )
( ) ( )
√
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d)
Ans: (a) The maximum value of sin4θ + cos4θ is 1.
(a)
(c)
BC = 40
Ans: (c) 5 sinθ = 3
AC = √
sinθ =
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Ans: (b) In ∆ A B C
=√ = 85 cm. , A C = 50m
(c) (d) – √
√
√
Ans: (a) sin31° = cos31 = In ∆ A B D
sec31° – sin59 √ = 50 + x
sec31° – cos31°
√ – 50 = x
√ x = (√ )
√
, Q128. The value of
√ √
cot17° (cot73° cos222° + is
Q125. The circular measure of the i ncluded angle (a) 0 (b) 1
formed by the hour hand and minute hand of a clock (c) 2 (d) √3
at 3 PM will be Ans: (a) ( )
(a) π/4 (b) π/3
cot 17° (tan 17° sin268° + tan 17° cos268°)
(c) 5π/12 (d) π/2
cot 17° tan17° (sin268° + cos268°)
Ans: (d) Hour hand covered in 12 hr = 360°
(1) (1) = 1
3 hr = = 90° or
Q129. The upper part of a tree broke at a certain
Q126. If θ > 0, be an acute angle, then the value of θ in height makes an angle of 60° with the ground at a
degrees satisfying is distance of 10 m. from its feet. The original height of
(a) 90° (b) 30° the tree was
(a) 20√3 m. (b) 10√3 m.
(c) 45° (d) 60°
(c) 10 (2 +√ (3) m. (d) 10 (2–√ (3) m.
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
BD = (a) 2 (b) 0
√
DC = (c) 1 (d)
√
Ans: (c)
Q131. If tan (5x 10°) = cot (5y + 20°), then the value of
Q135. If m and where
x + y is
√ , then value of m2 – n2 is
(a) 15° (b) 16°
(a) 2 (m2 + n2) (b)
(c) ( ) (d) 24°
√ (c) 4 mn (d)
Ans: (b) tan (5x – 10°) = cot (5y + 20°)
* +
tan (5x – 10°) = tan (90° – 5y – 20°)
5x – 10° = –5y + 70° Ans: (b)
5x + 5y = 80°
x + y = 16 Q136. From the top and bottom of a straight hill, the
angle of depression and elevation of the top of a pillar
o
Q132. Value of (cos 53° – sin 37°) is of 10 m. height are observed to be 60 and 30 o
(a) 0 (b) 1 respectively. The height (metres) of the hill is
(c) 2 sin 37° (d) 2 cos 53° (a) 40 (b) 30
Ans: (a) cos 53° – sin 37° cos 53° – sin (90° – 53°) (c) 80 (d) 60
cos53° – cos53° = 0 Ans: (a)
Q133. Two men are on opposite sides of a tower. They Q137. The value of
measure the angles of elevation of the top of the towe r sin22o + sin24o + sin26o +..........+ sin290o is
as 30° and 45° respectively. If the height of the tower (a) 0 (b) 22
is 50 m, the distance between the two men is (Take √3 (c) 23 (d) 44
= 1.7) Ans: (c) sin2 2° + sin 2 4° + sin 2 6° + ... + sin 2 86° + sin 2
(a) 136.5 m (b) 50 √3 m 88° + sin2 90°
(c) 100 √3 m (d) 135.5 m sin2 2° + sin2 40° + sin2 6° ... sin2 (90° – 4°) + sin2 (90°
Ans: (a) In ∆ ADC – 2°) + sin2 90°
AC = 50 m sin2 2° + sin2 4° + sin2 6° + ... + cos2 4° + cos2 2° +
sin2 90°
(sin2 2° + cos2 2°) + (sin2 4° + cos2 4°) + (sin2 6° +
cos2 6°) + sin2 90°
√ (1 + 1 + .... 22 terms) + sin2 90°
DC= √ 22 + 1 = 23
Ans: (a)
in ∆ ABC
= = sec A
Q141. What is the simplified value of ?
(a) sec A + tan A (b) (1 – cos A) / (1 + cos
Q146. What is the least value of tan 2θ + cot2θ + sin2θ +
A)
cos2θ + sec2θ + cosec2θ?
(c) (1 – cos A) / (1 + cosec A)
(a) 1 (b) 3
(d) sin A
(c) 5 (d) 7
Ans: (c) ( ) Ans: (d) tan2θ + cot2θ + sin2θ + cos2θ + sec2θ + cosec2θ
sin2θ + cos2θ + tan2θ + 1 + tan2θ + cot2θ + 1 + cot2θ
( ) 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 tan2θ + 2cot2θ
3 + 2 (tan2θ + cot2θ)
3+2×2 3+4=7
cosec A – cot A.
√
Q157. If + = πθ and cos , then what is the
Q151. If tan A = 1/2 and tan B = 1/3, then what is the value of sin ?
√
value of tan (2A + B)? (a) 0 (b) 1/2 (c)
(a) 1 (b) 3 (d) 1
(c) 5 (d) 9 √ √
Ans: (d) cos θ
Ans: (b)
∴cosθ = cos30°
∴θ = 30°
Q152. If sec √ = x, then value of x is
Now,
(a) √ √
(c) – 1 (d) ( )
ϕ = 120° – 30° = 90°
Ans: (b) ( ) ∴sin ϕ = sin 90° = 1.
( )
= – sec (180° + 45°) = – sec 45° = √ Geometry
√
Q1. ABCD is a quadrilater al in which diagonal BD =
Q153. If 2sec A – (1 + sinA)/cos A = x, then the value 64 cm,AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 13.2
of x is
In ∆ABC,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
∠A + 60° + 40° = 180°
∠A = 180° – 60° – 40° = 80°
AD bisects ∠BAC
∴ ∠A = ∠BAD + ∠DAC
Given : ∠BAD = ∠DAC = 40°
BD = 64 cm Now, In ∆ABE
AL = 13.2 cm ∠B + ∠E + ∠BAE = 180°
CM = 16.8 cm 60° + 90° + ∠ BAE = 180°
So, Area (ABCD) = Area (∆ABD) + Area (∆BCD) ∠BAE = 30°
∴ ∠EAD = ∠BAD – ∠BAE = 40° – 30° = 10°
= × AL × BD + × CM × BD
= × BD × (AL + CM) = (13.2 + 16.8) Q4. G is the centroid of ∆ABC. If AG = BC, then
= 32 × 30 = 960 cm2
∠BGC is
(a) 60° (b) 120°
Q2. In the figure below, if AB || CD and CE ⊥ ED, (c) 90° (d) 30°
then the value of x is Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
In right angled ∆ABC,
tan B =
tan C =
Now, AB2 = AC2 + BC2
tan B + tan C =
AB2 = 52 + 52 √ √ cm
[ ]
Q9. ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at C
and p is the length of the per pendicular from C on
Q7. In the following figure, if OA = 10 and AC = 16,
AB. If a, b and c are the lengths of the sides BC, CA
then OB must be
and AB respectively, then
(a)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) √
(c) 5 (d) 6
Ans: (b) Here,
Ans: (d)
∠ACB = 90°
∠ADC = 90°
∠BDC = 90°
=
√
r1 + r2 = 13 cm
r2 – r1 = 9 – 4 = 5 cm
∠XOY = 90°;OX = OY = radices (r) PQ
∴ ∆ XOY is a right angled triangle. √
√ cm
2
r = 2 × 32 = 64 ∴ Area of square = 12 × 12 = 144 sq. cm.
√
Q15. The side BC of ∆ ABC is produced to D. If
∴ Area of circle = πr2
= 64 π sq. units ∠ACD = 108° and ∠B = ∠A then ∠A is
(a) 36° (b) 72°
Q13. A, O, B are three points on a line segment and C (c) 108° (d) 59°
is a point not lying on AOB. If ∠AOC = 40° and OX, Ans: (b)
∴ Required angle
∠
Q19. If the length of th e side PQ of the rhombus
Q16. If each int etior angle is double of each exterior PQRS is 6 cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then the length of
angle of a regular polygon with n sides, then the value QS, in cm, is
of n is (a) 4 (b) 6
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 3 (d) 5
(c) 5 (d) 6 Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Let exterior ∠be = x
interior ∠be = 2x
x + 2x = 180
3x = 180
x = 60°
no. of side n
∠PQO
Q17. Two tangents are drawn from a point P to a From ∆POQ,
circle at A and B. O is the centre of the circle. If ∠OPQ = 180° – 90° – 60° = 30°
∠AOP = 60°, then ∠APB is
sin OPQ
(a) 120° (b) 90°
(c) 60° (d) 30° OQ = PQ sin 30°
Ans: (c) ∴ QS = 2 × 3 = 6 cm
AG = BC
i.e., GD = BD = DC
In ∆ BGD
BD = DG ∴ ∠GBD = ∠DGB… (i)
In ∆ CGD
AB = BC = x GD = DC, ∴ ∠GCD = ∆DGC… (ii)
∠GBD + ∠DGB + ∠DGC + ∠DCG = 180
∴ √ √
2 (∠BGD + ∠CGD) = 180
√ units
∠BGC =
√
( √ )
Q26. D and E are the mid -points of AB and AC of
( √ ) ∆ABC; BC is produced to any point P; DE, DP and
√ ( √ )( √ ) EP are joined. Then,
( √ ) (a) (b) ∆PED = ∆BEC
( √ )
(c) ΓBDE = ΓBEC (d) √
∴ Area of triangle = Ans: (a)
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Ans: (b)
DE | | BC
DE BC
∴ ∆ BDE = ∆ DEP 15 20 25
2∆ BDE = ∆ BEC 3 : 4 : 5 and forming at ∆
∴ ∆ ADE = ∆ BDE
or
∴ ∆ ABC = 4 ∆ ADE
12 = x
..PED ABC
chord = 2 × 12 = 24 cm
Q27. O is the circum centre of t he triangle ABC with Q30. P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away
circumradius 13 cm. Let BC = 24 cm and OD is from its centre. A secant drawn from the point P
perpendicular to BC. Then the length of OD is: intersect the circle at points A and B in such a way
(a) 7 cm (b) 3 cm that PA = 9 cm and AB = 7 cm. The radius of the
(c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm circle is:
Ans: (d) (a) 5.5 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 4.5 cm
Ans: (b)
cm OC ⊥ AB
OB = 13 cm AC = BC = 3.5 cm OP = 13 cm
From ∆ OBD, PC = 9 + 3.5 = 12.5 cm
√ √
√ √ √ cm √ √
OA √ √
Q28. AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. CD is
√ √
a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD
are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of ∠APB Q31. R and r are the radius of two circles (R > r). If
is: the distance between the centre of the two circles be d,
(a) 120° (b) 30°
then length of common tangent of two circles is:
(c) 60° (d) 90°
(a) √ √
Ans: (c)
(c) √ (d)
Q29. The length of the common chord of two circles of
radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart
is (in cm):
(a) 20 (b) 24
(c) 25 (d) 15
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Q36. AC and BC are two equal chords of a circle. BA
is produced to any point P and CP, when joined cuts
the circle at T. Then
(a) CT : TP = AB : CA (b) CT : TP = CA : AB
(c) CT : CB = CA : CP (d) CT : CB = CP : CA
Ans: (c) It is based on fundamental concept.
Ans: (b) Length of common tangent Q37. If S is the circumcentre of ∆ABC and ∠A = 50°,
√ then the value of ∠BCS is
(a) 20° (b) 40°
Q32. In an ob tuse-angled triangle ABC, ∠A is the (c) 60° (d) 80°
obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If ∠BOC = 54°, Ans: (b)
then ∠BAC is
(a) 108° (b) 126°
(c) 136° (d) 116°
Ans: (b) ∠BAC = 180° – ∠BOC = 180° – 54° = 126°
Q38. √
cm BC is the chord of a circle with centre O. A is a point
on major arc BC as shown in the above figure. What
is the value of ∠BAC + ∠OBC ?
Q34. Let BE and CF the two medians of a ∆ABC and
(a) 120° (b) 60°
G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG at O. Then
(c) 90° (d) 180°
AO: OG is
Ans: (c)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
Ans: (c) AF = FB
AE = EC
∴ FE||BC BC
∴ AO : OG = 2 : 1
Q41. Two circles with radii 5 cm and 8 cm touch each Q45. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle.
other externally at a point A. If a straight line through What radius should be used if the track is to change
the point A cuts the circles at points P and Q direction by 25° in a distance of 40 metres?
respectively, then AP : AQ is (a) 91.64 metres (b) 90.46 metres
(a) 8 : 5 (b) 5 : 8 (c) 89.64 metres (d) 93.64 metres
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 5 Ans: (a) θ = 25° radians
Ans: (b)
radians
= 91.64 metre
∴ AP : AQ = 5 : 8
Q46. If D is the mid -point of the side BC of ∆ ABC
Q42. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it and the area of ∆ ABD is 16 cm2, then the area of ∆
produces an arc of 16 cm. The angle so formed in ABC is
degree measure is (approx) (a) 16 cm2 (b) 24 cm2
2
(a) 18°25′ (b) 18°35′ (c) 32 cm (d) 48 cm2
(c) 18°20′ (d) 18°08′ Ans: (c) Area of ∆ABD = 16 cm2
Ans: (c) s = 16 cm Area of ∆ABC = 2 × Area of ∆ABD [
r = 50 cm
radian In triangle, the midpoint of the opposite side, divides
it into two congruent triangles. So their areas are equal
and each is half the area of the original triangle]
32 cm2
BO = CO (radii of circles)
∴ ∠BCO = ∠OBC = 40º
∠ABC = ∠ABO + ∠OBC
∠ABC = 30° + 40° = 70°
2 × ∠ABC = ∠AOC x° = 140 ∠AOE = 150°
∠DAO = 51°
Q56. If area of an equilateral triangle is a and height ∠EOB = 180° – 150° = 30°
b, then value of is: OE = OB
(a) 3 (b) √ ∴ ∠OEB = ∠OBE = = 75°
(c) (d) ∴ ∠CBE = 180° – 75° = 105°
√
Q64. 360 sq. cm and 250 sq. cm are the areas of two
similar triangles. If the length of one of the sides of the
first triangle be 8 cm, then the length of the
corresponding side of the second triangle is
(a) 6 cm (b) cm
=
(c) cm (d) (√ ) cm
∠BAC = 111° – 40°
= 71° Ans: (d) ( ) ,( ) ( )
∠ABC = 180° – 71° – 80° = 29°
x= cm
∠ACB, then ∠ABC = Q71. In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, ∠BAC = 40°. Then
(a) 120° (b) 130° the external angle at B is :
(c) 80° (d) 100° (a) 80° (b) 90°
Ans: (d) ∠ ∠ ∠ (c) 70° (d) 110°
∠ ∠ ∠ Ans: (d)
∠
∠
∠
∠A = 90°, ∠C = 55°
∴ ∠B = 90° – 55° = 35°
∠ADB = 90°
∴ ∠BAD = 90° – 35° = 55° Here, AC and BD are chords of the circle.
∴ AP . CP = BP . DP
Q87. N is the foot of the perpendicular from a point P
of a circle with radius 7 cm, on a diameter AB of the Q89. If G is the centroid of ∆ABC and ∆ABC = 48cm2,
circle. If the length of the chord PB is 12 cm, the then the area of ∆BGC is
distance of the point N from the point B is (a) 16 cm2 (b) 24 cm2
2
(a) cm (b) (c) 32 cm (d) 8 cm2
Ans: (a)
(c) cm (d) ⊥
Ans: (b)
AB = 14 cm, PB = 12 cm ∆BGC
∠APB = 90°
AP √
√ √ √
Q90. A vertical stick 12 cm long casts a shadow 8 cm
ON = x ∴ AN = 7 – x ; BN = 7 + x long on the ground. At the same time, a tower casts a
∴ From ∆ PAN, PN2 = AP2 – AN2 shadow 40 m long on the ground. The height of the
∴ 52 – (7 – x)2 tower is
∴ From ∆ PNB (a) 65 m (b) 70 m
PN2 = (12)2 – (7 + x)2 (c) 72 m (d) 60 m
∴ 52 – (7 – x)2 = 144 – (7 + x)2
OA = OC = 10 cm
AB = 12 cm
AP = PB = 6 cm
CD = 16 cm
CQ = QD = 8 cm
From ∆OCQ,
OQ = √ =√ = 6 cm
∠B + ∠D = 180° From ∆OAP
∠A + ∠C = 180° OP = √ =√ = 8 cm
∠BAC + ∠BCA ∴ PQ = 6 + 8 = 14 cm
∠DAC = ∠DCA
∴ ∠DAB = ∠DCB = 90° Q107. The height of an eq uilateral triangle is 15 cm.
∠DAC = θ The area of the triangle is
∴ ∠ADE = 90° – θ = ∠CDE (a) √ sq. cm. (b) √ sq. cm.
∴ ∠ABC = 180° – 2 (90° – θ) = 2θ (c) √ sq. cm. (d) sq. cm.
Ans: (c)
Q105. The length of the tangent drawn to a circle of
radius 4 cm from a point 5 cm away from the centre
of the circle is
(a) 3 cm (b) √ cm
(c) √ cm (d) cm
Ans: (a)
AB = BC = CA = 2a cm,
AD ⊥ BC
AD = √
=√ √ ∴√
a= √
∠OBA = 90°
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∴ 2a = side = √ cm
∴ Area of triangle
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(a) equal to ( )
(b) greater than ( )
√
= ( √ ) = √ sq. cm. (c) less than (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q108. A, B and C are the three points on a circle such
that the an gles subtended by the chords AB and AC
at the centre O are 90° and 110° respectively. ∠BAC is
equal to
(a) 70° (b) 80°
(c) 90° (d) 100°
Ans: (b)
Let ABC be the triangle and D, E and F are midpoints of
BC, CA and AB respectively.
Hence, in ∆ ABD, AD is median
AB + AC > 2 AD Similarly, we get
BC + AC > 2 CF
BC + AB > 2 BE
On adding the above inequations, we get
(AB + AC + BC + AC + BC + AB) > 2 (AD + BE + CF)
2 (AB + AC + BC) > 2 (AD + BE + CF)
∴ AB + BC + BC > AD + BE + CF
∠AOB = 90° ; OA = OB = r
Thus, the perimeter of triangle is greater than the sum of
∴ ∠BAO = ∠ABO = 45°
the medians.
∴ ∠AOC = 110°; OA = OC = r
∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA = = 35° Q111. In a ∆ ABC, ∠, ∠ B = 70° and ∠C = 50°, then
∴ ∠BAC = 45° + 35° = 80° ( )BAD = ?
(a) 60° (b) 20°
Q109. In ∆ABC, DE || AC. D and E are two points on (c) 30° (d) 50°
AB and CB r espectively. If AB = 10 cm and AD 2 4 Ans: (c)
cm, then BE: CE is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 5 Q112. Two circles with radii 25 cm and 9 cm touch
(c) 5 : 2 (d) 3 : 2 each other externally. The length of the direct
Ans: (d) common tangent is
(a) 34 cm (b) 30 cm
(c) 36 cm (d) 32 cm
Ans: (b)
Radius of triangle = cm
15 = 4 + 2 DC
11 = 2 DC
5.5 = DC
Area of ∆ADC = = 96 m2
Area of ∆BAC = = 156 m2
Area of Quadrilateral = 96 + 156 = 252 m2
In ∆ ABC
∠Α = 180°− (60° + 40°) = 80°
∠BAD = ∠DAC = 40° (AD is bisector of ∠A)
ABCD is a square.
In ∠AEC
QBC ~ PAC (Given)
∠EAC = 180° – (90° + 40°) = 50°
So, ∠EAD = ∠EAC – ∠DAC
= 50° – 40°
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If BC = 1 then AC = √ https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
Required ratio = =
Area of ∆ABD =
60 = ... (1)
Area of ∆ADC =
AC = √ Area of ∆ADC = ... (2)
AC2 = 2K2 Dividing eqn. (1) and (2)
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
So ABC is right angled triangle
So, in ABC
= = Area of ∆ ADC =
√ √
So cosθ =
√
θ = 45° Q140. The measure of an angle whose supplement is
So, ABC, ∠B = 90°; ∠C = 45°; ∠A = 45° three times as large as its complement, is
So, ABC is right isoscles triangle. (a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75°
Q138. A tangent is drawn to a circle of radius 6cm Ans: (b) Let ‗x‘ be the measure of an angle.According to
from a point situated at a distance of 10 cm from the question
centre of the circle. The length of the tangent will be 3x + x = 180°
(a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm 4x = 180°
(c) 8 cm (d) 7 cm
Ans: (c)
43x = 129 × 15
Q143. The sides of a triangle having area 7776 sq. cm
x = 45°
are in the ratio 3:4:5. The perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 400 cm (b) 412 cm Then angle are = (45+ 15°), ( ) and (
(c) 424 cm (d) 432 cm )
Ans: (d) Let sides of ∆ be 3x, 4x, 5x
= 60°, 60°, 60°
= 6x So this is an equilateral triangle.
Area of √
√ Q147. Let C 1 and C 2 be the inscribed and
7776 = 6x2 circumscribed circles of a triangle with sides 3 cm, 4
∴ x = 36 cm and 5 cm then area of C1 to area of C2 is
Sides of ∆ will be 108, 144 and 180 (a)
Perimeter of ∆ is 108 +144 + 180 = 432 cm (c) ( ) ( )
Ans: (c)
Q144. If a clock started at noon, then the angle turned
by hour hand at 3.45 PM is
Q148. If the altitude of an equilateral triangle is √
(a)
cm, then its area would be :
(c) (a) 12 cm2 (b) 72 cm2
Ans: (c) Clock started at 12 pm (c) √ cm 2
(d) ∠ cm2
Angle turned by hour hand in one hour = = 30° Ans: (d)
Angle turned by hour hand in one minute Q149. If the number of vertices, edges and faces of a
Angle turned by hour hand in 3 hour 45 minutes rectangular parallelopiped are denoted by v, e and f
= 3 × 30° + 45 × respectively, the value of (v – e + f) is
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
Q145. In a parallelogram PQRS, angle P is four times
Ans: (b) The value of = v – e + f
of angle Q, then the measure of ∠R is
= 8 – 12 + 6 = 2.
(a) 36° (b) 72°
(c) 130° (d) 144°
Q150. If the measure of three angles of a triangle are
Ans: (d) P = 4Q
in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5, then the triangle is :
P + Q = 180°
(a) equilateral (b) isocsceles
4Q + Q = 180°
(c) Obtuse angled (d) right angled
Ans: (d) Sum of the angle of a triangle = 180°
So, R = 180° – 36° = 144° 2x° + 3x° + 5x° = 180°
10x° = 180°
Q146. If the three angles of a triangle are : x° = 18°
Angle are = 36°, 54°, 90° So, this is right angles triangle.
√ then the triangle is :
(a) scalene (b) isosceles
(c) right angled (d) equilateral
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Q151. Internal bisectors of https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
∠Q and ∠R of ∆PQR
intersect at O. If ∠ROQ = 96° then the value of ∠RPQ
Here AD and BE Intersect at O (AD ⊥ BE)
∴∠AOB = 90°
is : AO = cm
(a) 12° (b) 6°
(c) 36° (d) 24° OB = cm
∠
Ans: (a) ∠QPR = AB = √
96° =
∠ =√
=√
= 10 cm
LM = √ =√
=√
Area of = BD × ED
Q153. G is the centroid of ∆ABC. The medians AD Area of trapezium
and BE intersect at right angles. If the lengths of AD Here AC = 2 AE = 2FD
and BE are 9 cm and 12 cm respectively; then the
length of AB (in cm) is ?
(a) 10 (b) 10.5 Now =
(c) 9.5 (d) 11
Ans: (a) Given AD = 9 cm = =
BE = 12 cm
Q156. In a ∆ ABC, BC is extended upto D :
∠ ∠ ∠ Then √ is
(a) 60° (b) 75°
(c) 80° (d) 90°
Ans: (c) ∠ A + ∠ B = ∠ ACD
BC 2XY = BC
BC + XY = 12
2XY + XY = 12
3XY = 12
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∴ ∠ OPB = ∠ PBO
2 ∠ PBO = 120°, ∠ PBO = 60°
x = 4.5 cm
Q165. Which of the set of three sides ca n't form a
Q162. If PA and P B are two tangents to a cirlce with triangle?
centre O such that ∠APB = 80°. Then, ∠AOP = ? (a) 5 cm, 6 cm, 7 cm (b) 5 cm, 8 cm, 15 cm
(a) 40° (b) 50° (c) 8 cm, 15 cm, 18 cm (d) 6 cm, 7 cm, 11 cm
(c) 60° (d) 70° Ans: (b) 5 + 8 < 15
Ans: (b) ∠ A P B = 80° ∴ 5, 8, 15 cannot Form a ∆
∠ A O B = 180 – 80 = 100°
∠AOP= = 50° Q166. Which of the following ratios can be the ratio of
the sides of a right angled triangle?
(a) 9 : 6 : 3 (b) 13 : 12 : 5
(c) 7 : 6 : 5 (d) 5 : 3 : 2
Ans: (b) As only 13, 12 and 5 follows Pythagorous
theorem
=
Q164. AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and
P b e a point on its circumference, If ∠POA = 120°,
then the value of ∠PBO is: Q168. Two circles touch each other internally. T he
(a) 30° (b) 60° radius of the smaller circle is 6 cm and the distance
(c) 50° (d) 40° between the centre of two circles is 3 cm. The radius
Ans: (b) ∠ P O A = 120° of the larger circle is
∠ P O A = ∠ OPB + ∠ PBO (a) 7.5 cm (b) 9 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans: (b) O′O = 3
OA = 6
O′A = 6 + 3 = 9 cm
OP = OB
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three non-colinear points is
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Q169. Number of circles that can be drawn through √
(a) 40, 46, 94 (b) 40, 50, 90
(a) exactly one (b) two (c) 46, 54, 80 (d) 50, 40, 90
(c) three (d) more than three Ans: (a) ∠MRP = ∠PQR = 46°
Ans: (a) ∴∠y = 46°
∠NRQ = m ∠QPR = 40°
Q170. In the triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 50° and the ∴∠x = 40°
bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meets at P. What is the ∠x + ∠z + 46° = 180°
value (in degrees) of ∠BPC? 40° + ∠z + 46° = 180°
(a) 100 (b) 105 ∴∠z = 94°
(c) 115 (d) 125 ∴Value of x, y and z = 40°, 46° and 94°
Ans: (c)
Q173. Two circles of s ame radius intersect each other
at P and Q. If the length of the common chord is 30
cm and distance between the centres of the two circles
is 40 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circles?
(a) 25 (b) √
(c) 50 (d)
∠BAC = 50°
∠
∠BPC =
Ans: (a)
= 115°
∆POR = right angle triangle
Q171. PQR is an equilateral triangle. MN is drawn
parallel to QR such that M is on PQ and N is on PR. If
PN = 6 cm, then the length of MN is
(a) 3 cm (b) 6 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 4.5 cm
Ans: (b) In Given equilateral ∆, MN || QR
PR = 15 cm
RO = 20 cm
PN = MN ∴ √
√
(PR = QR)
√
MN = 6 cm
√ cm
PO = radius of circle
∴Radius of circle = 25 cm.
(b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 12 (a) 14 (b) 15.5
Ans: (c) ∴ ∠QRS = 180° – 120° = 60° (c) 18.5 (d) 20
Ans: (c)
(a) 9 (b) 17
(c) 21 (d) 25
Ans: (b) ∠PSO is a right angle (angle of semicircle)
√ cm
Now,
(AD)2 = BD × DC
AC = 30 cm
OC = 16 cm
∴AO2 = OC2 + AC2
∴ √
AD2 = 7 × 28
∴ √
∴AD = 14 cm.
(a) 80 (b) 64
(c) 124 (d) 72
(a) 5 (b) 10 Ans: (b)
(c) 15 (d) 20
Ans: (b) Q191. If ∠ is right angled at E, DE = 15 and
DE = 15, EF = ?
∠DFE = 60°
∠DEF = 90°
∴
AB || QR
√
Ratio of ∠P, ∠Q and ∠R = 2 : 2 : 5
√ √
∴∠P = 40°, ∠Q = 40°, ∠R = 100° ∴ √
√ √
∠ ∠
- (corresponding angle)
∠ ∠ Q192. In the given figure , BD passes through centre
∴Difference ∠PBA and ∠PAB = (100 – 40) = 60°
O, AB = 12 and AC = 8. What is the radius of the
circle?
Q190. In the given figure, area of isosceles triangle
√
PQT is 128 cm2 and QT = PQ and PQ = 4 PS, PT
(a) √ √
(c) √ (d)
Ans: (c)
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions, DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions,
select the related parts from the given alternatives. select the related parts from the given alternatives.
Q1. JLNP : OMKI : : SUWY : ? Q8. Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of
(a) MLKJ (b) PLHD numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most
(c) XVTR (d) FGHI similar to the numbers given in the question.
Ans: (c) JLNP → OMKI Given : (6, 30, 90)
(a) 6, 42, 86 (b) 7, 42, 218
SUWY → XVTR
(c) 6, 24, 70 (d) 8, 48, 192
Ans: (d) 6 × 5 = 30, 30 × 3 = 90
Q2. 5 : 27 : : 9 : ?
8 × 6 = 48, 48 × 4 = 192
(a) 83 (b) 81
(c) 36 (d) 18
Q9. Fox : Cunning : : Rabbit : ?
Ans: (a) As, 5 × 5 + 2 = 27 Similarly, 9 × 9 + 2 = 83
(a) Courageous (b) Dangerous
(c) Timid (d) Ferocious
Q3. 6 : 11 : : 11 : ?
Ans: (c) Here, animal -behaviour relationship has been
(a) 6 (b) 17
shown. Fox is characterised by its cunningness.
(c) 21 (d) 30
Similarly, rabbit is considered as timid.
Ans: (c) As, 6 × 2 – 1 = 11 Similarly, 11 × 2 – 1 = 21
Q50. AEZ : FPY : : BGX : ? Q58. Life starts : Embryo :: Life ends : _?_
(a) HWW (b) IYY (a) Death (b) Old age
(c) HTX (d) HYW (c) Dead body (d) Illness
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life ends dead body is left.
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Ans: (c) Life starts with the formation of embryo. When Ans: (b) BDFH → JLNP
CEGI → KMOQ
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions,
select the related parts from the given alternatives. Q66. food : man :: fuel:?
(a) wood (b) fire
Q59. EVFU : TGSH :: IRJQ : _?_ (c) heat (d) smoke
(a) PKLO (b) KWLX Ans: (b) Food is necessary for man. Similarly, fuel is
(c) PKOL (d) OLPK necessary for fire.
Ans: (a) Pairs of Opp Letters
Q67. Spiritual : Belief :: Orchestral: ?
Q60. 9 : 80 : : 100 : ? (a) Theatre (b) Situation
(a) 901 (b) 1009 (c) Music (d) Direction
(c) 9889 (d) 9999 Ans: (c) Spiritual and Belief are inter – related terms.
Ans: (d) The relationship between the numbers is : Similarly, Orchestral and music are related.
x : (x2 – 1)
(9) 2 – 1 = 81 – 1 = 80 DIRECTIONS: Select the related parts from the given
(100) 2 – 1 = 10000 – 1 = 9999 alternatives.
Q91. Horse : Neigh : : Bells : ? DIRECTIONS: In the questions , select the related
(a) Beat (b) Chime parts from the given alternatives.
(c) Rustle (d) Roar
Ans: (b) The sound made by horse is called Neigh. Q98. 25 : 175 :: 32 : ?
Similarly, the sound made by a bell is called chime. (a) 150 (b) 170
(c) 162 (d) 160
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions, Ans: (d) As,
select the related parts from the given alternatives. 25 25 × (2 + 5) = 175 Similarly, 32 32 × (3 + 2) =
160
Q92. A - E : R - V : : B - F : F - J
(a) CTDH (b) BSCG Q99. F : 216 :: L : ?
(c) FUGK (d) CSCG (a) 1700 (b) 1600
Ans: (a) As, (c) 1723 (d) 1728
Ans: (d) F 6 ; (6) 3 = 216 Similarly, L 12 ; (12) 3 =
1728
Q107. 9 : 7 : : 80 : ?
(a) 48 (b) 50
(c) 78 (d) 82
Ans: (c) (3) 2 = 9; (3) 2 – 2 = 7 Similarly, (3) 4 –1 = 81 –
1 = 80
(3) 4 – 3 = 81 – 3 = 78 Q114. 8 : 39 : : 72 : ?
In simple way, 9 – 2 = 7 and 80 – 2 = 78 (a) 64 (b) 312
(c) 351 (d) 300
Q108. Defer : Put off: : Deduce : ? Ans: (c) 8 × 9 = 72
(a) Infer (b) Protect Then, 39 × 9 = 351
(c) Delate (d) Oppose
Ans: (a) Defer means 'to delay something until a later DIRECTIONS: In each questions below, select the
time', 'to postpone'. Put off means 'to put something to a related parts from the given alternatives.
later time or date'. ' to delay'. Thus, Defer and Put off are
Q115. 16 : 36 : : 64 : ?
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(a) 4
(c) 8
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(b) 6
(d) 100
Ans: (d) 42 = 16 62 = 36 82 = 64 102 = 100
Q123. Kalidas : Meghdoot : : Kautilya : ?
Q116. Saint : Meditation : : Scientist : ? (a) Ramayana (b) Arthashastra
(a) Research (b) Knowledge (c) Kamayani (d) Kadambari
(c) Spiritual (d) Rational Ans: (b) Meghdoot has been written by Kalidas.
Ans: (a) A saint practices meditation. Similarly, A Similarly,
scientist does research. Arthashastra has been written by kautilya.
Q118. (a) BFJNRV (b) CGKOSW DIRECTIONS: Select the related word/letter/ number
(c) DHLPTX (d) EIMPSW from the given alternatives.
Ans: (d) Normal Pattern B → F → J → N → R→ V
Q125. CUT : BDTVSU : : TIP : ?
Exception Pattern E → I → M → P → S → W (a) UVHJOQ (b) SUHJOQ
(c) USJHQO (d) SUJHOQ
Q119. (a) KJML (b) GFIH Ans: (b) Two letters, one preceding and second
(c) TSVU (d) ZABY following, are given for each letter.
Ans: (d) Normal Pattern K → J → M → L – – –
CUT → BDTVSU
Exception Pattern Z → A → B → Y – – –
TIP → SUHJOQ
Q120. 18 : 5 :: 12 : ?
Q126. Voyage : Sea sickness : : Heights : ?
(a) 4 (b) 10
(a) Ship (b) Travel
(c) 3 (d) 6
(c) Giddiness (d) Motion
Ans: (c) 18/3 – 1 = 5; 12/3 – 1 = 3
Ans: (c) Sea sickness is to feel ill when you are travelling
on a ship or boat. Similarly, Giddiness is to feel that you
DIRECTIONS: elect the related parts from the given
are going to fall.
alternatives.
Q140. 8 : 64 : : 27 : __?__
Q133. CAT: DDY : : BIG: ?
(a) 212 (b) 125
(a) CLL (b) CLM
(c) 64 (d) 81
(c) CML (d) CEP
Ans: (b) (2) ∧ 3 = 8 & (2+2) ∧ 3 = > (4) ↑ 3 = 64
Ans: (a) CAT→ DDY Similarly, (3) ∧ 3 = 27 & (3+2) ∧ 3 = > (5) ↑ 3 = 125
BIG→ CLL
Q141. 4 : 20 : : 6 : __?__
Q134. KMF : LLH : : RMS : ? (a) 8 (b) 42
(a) SLR (b) SLU (c) 36 (d) 12
(c) SSU (d) SUS Ans: (b) (4) 2 + 4 = 20
– (6) 2 + 6 = 42
Ans: (b) KMF → LLH
–
RMS → SLU Q142. 27 : 9 : : 64 : __?__
(a) 16 (b) 20
Q135. ACE : HIL : : MOQ : ? (c) 8 (d) 12
(a) TVX (b) TUX Ans: (a) 3 × 3 × 3 = 27; 3 × 3 = 9 Similarly, 4 × 4 × 4 =
(c) XVT (d) SUW 64; 4 × 4 = 16
Q160. Concord : Agreement : : Discord : ___? DIRECTIONS: In the following Six Questions, select
(a) Comparison (b) Conflict the related parts from the given alternatives.
(c) Association (d) Blended
Ans: (b) Concord means agreement. Similarly, Q168. √ √ √ √ ?__
Discord means disagreement or conflict. (a) √ √
(c) √ √
Q161. Female : Feminine: : Male :___?
Ans: (d)
(a) Man (b) Masculine
√ √
(c) Macho (d) Manager
Ans: (b) Feminine means qualities or appearance of a √ √
woman Similarly, masculine means qualities or √ √
appearance of a man. √ √
√
Q162. 42 : 20 : : 64 :____? √
(a) 33 (b) 34
(c) 31 (d) 32 Q169. Haematology : Blood : : Phycology : ?
Ans: (c) 20 × 2 + 2 = 42 Similarly 31 × 2 + 2 = 64 (a) Fungi (b) Fishes
(c) Algae (d) Diseases
Q163. PS : VY : : FI : ___? Ans: (c) Haematology is the branch of medicine
(a) VZ (b) WZ concerned with the study and prevention of diseases
(c) LO (d) UX related to the blood. Similarly, phycology is the scientific
Ans: (c) study of algae.
→ , →
Q170. Pride of Lions : : ________ of cats
Q164. Carpentry : Skill ___? :Talent (a) Herd (b) School
(a) Singing (b) Plumbing (c) Clowder (d) Bunch
(c) Driving (d) Masonry Ans: (c) A group of Lions is called a pride.
Ans: (a) Carpentry is a type of skill. Similarly, singing i s A group of Cats is called a clowder.
type of talent.
Q171. MAN : PDQ : : WAN : ?
Q165. : ____? (a) ZDQ (b) NAW
(c) YQD (d) YDQ
(a) (b) 1 Ans: (a)
(c)
Ans: (d) Q172. 2 : 32 : : 3 : ?
(a) 243 (b) 293
,
(c) 183 (d) 143
Ans: (a) 25 = 32
Q166. KcaC : CacK : : XgmF : ____? 35 = 243
(a) FmgX (b) Gmef
(c) EmgF (d) EgmX DIRECTIONS: In questions, select the related
Ans: (a) XgmF reverse order FmgX word/letters number from the given alternatives.
Q9. (a) AbcdE (b) IfghO Q17. (a) PRSU (b) SUWY
(c) ApqrL (d) UlmnE (c) HJLN (d) CEGI
Ans: (c) Except in ApqrL, in all others the first and the
last letters given in capital are vowels. Ans: (a) Normal Pattern S → U → W → Y
Exception Pattern P → R → S → U
Q10. (a) 6243 (b) 2643
(c) 8465 (d) 4867 Q18. (a) Tomato (b) Potato
Ans: (d) 6 + 2 = 8, 4 + 3 = 7 8 – 7 = 1 (c) Carrot (d) Onion
2 + 6 = 8, 4 + 3 = 7 8 – 7 = 1 Ans: (a) Except Tomato all others are grown
8 + 4 = 12, 6 + 5 = 11 12 – 11 = 1 underground.
4 + 8 = 12, 6 + 7 = 13 12 – 13 = –1
Q19. (a) 125 (b) 789
DIRECTIONS : In each of the following questions, (c) 236 (d) 347
find the odd number / letters/ word from the given Ans: (a) The number 125 is a perfect cube. 5 × 5 × 5 =
alternatives. 125
Q14. (a) 156 (b) 201 Q21. (a) Major (b) Colonel
(c) 273 (d) 345 (c) Brigadier (d) Admiral
Ans: (a) Except 156, all other numbers are odd numbers. Ans: (d) Major, Colonel and Brigadier are different ranks
in the Indian Army. Admiral is the topmost rank in the
DIRECTIONS: In question, find the odd Indian Navy.
number/letters/ number pair from the given
alternatives. Q22. (a) Life Insurance Corporation.
(b) New India Assurance Company Ltd.
Q15. Find out the pair of numbers that does not (c) United India Insurance Company Ltd.
belong to the group for lack of common property. (d) National Insurance Company Ltd.
(a) 11–115 (b) 10–90 Ans: (a) Except Life Insurance Corporation, all others
(c) 9–72 (d) 8–56 are insurance companies for general insurance, i.e., for
Ans: (a) vehicles, property etc.
;
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Q23. (a) Socrates
(c) Mozart
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(b) Beethoven
(d) Bach
Q31. (a) VEIIDD
(c) VEENS
(b) IVEF
(d) EINN
Ans: (a) Socrates was a Greek philosopher. Ludwing Ans: (a) IVEF FIVE
Van Beethoven was a G erman Composer and Musician. VEENS SEVEN
Bach was also a German Composer. WA Mozart was a EINN NINE
Austrian Compose. VEIIDD DIVIDE
Q24. (a) (132, 5) (b) (125, 8) Q32. (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) (124, 7) (d) (112, 4) (c) Haryana (d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (d) 112 is completely divisible by 4. Ans: (a) Jammu and Kashmir, Haryana and Himachal
Pradesh are northern States of India. Arunachal Prade sh
is estern-most States of India.
Q27. (a) Division (b) Addition Q36. (a) 400 (b) 484
(c) Subtract (d) Multiplication (c) 625 (d) 729
Ans: (c) Except Subtract, all others are Nouns. The Noun Ans: (d) Except the number 729, all others are only
for subtract (Verb) is Subtraction. perfect squares.
DIRECTIONS: Find the odd number / letters / Q51. (a) GALLOP (b) SINK
number pair from the given alternatives. (c) ALBINO (d) CRAB
Ans: (c) The first and last are vowels.
Q42. (a) Booklet (b) Pamphlet
(c) Voucher (d) Brochure Q52. (a) Crew (b) Company
Ans: (c) Except Voucher, all others are small book (c) Army (d) Ants
containing information on a specific subject. Voucher is a Ans: (d) Options (a) , (b) and (c) are related to
small printed piece of paper which can be exchanged for human beings but option (d) represents insects.
certain goods and services.
Q53. (a) eMnT (b) iRsL
Q43. (a) Konark (b) Madurai (c) oKsZ (d) vGtN
(c) Dilwara (d) Ellora Ans: (d) One small letter is followed by capital letter but
Ans: (d) All except Ellora are famous for temples, while in option (d) , the firs t letter is not vowel while in others
Ellora is famous for caves. first letter is vowel.
Q44. (a) RTW (b) QOM DIRECTIONS: Select the one which is different from
(c) IKG (d) IKM the other three responses.
Ans: (a) Consonants and vowel are used in option (b) ,
(c) and (d) . Only consonants are Q54. 1, 2, 4, 5
used in option (a) . 2.6, 7, 14, 15
3.3, 4, 8, 9
Q45. (a) DH (b) FJ 4.4, 5, 10, 12
(c) HK (d) PR (a) 1 (b) 3
Ans: (c) Pair of odd and even number (c) 4 (d) 2
Ans: (c) Except (c) , all othe r options represents pairs of
Q46. (a) 24 (b) 49 consecutive numbers.
(c) 80 (d) 15
Ans: (b) 24 = 52 – 180 = 92 – 1 Q55. (a) steering wheel (b) engine
49 = 72 – 015 = 42 – 1 (c) car (d) tyre
Ans: (c) All are parts of car.
Q47. (a) 121 (b) 324
(c) 523 (d) 729 Q56. (a) 325 (b) 360
Ans: (c) All are squares except (c) . (c) 230 (d) 256
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Ans: (d) All are divisible by 5 except 256. Ans: (c) Normal Pattern D → F → G → H
Q58. (a) LRO (b) CJG DIRECTIONS: In question, find the odd
(c) SZW (d) PWT word/number/number pair from the given
Ans: (a) alternatives.
Q59. (a) Franc (b) Pound (sterling) Q66. (a) (96, 24) (b) (39, 18)
(c) Deutsche Mark (d) Yen (c) (81, 54) (d) (82, 64)
Ans: (d) Yen is the currency of Japan, an Asian county. Ans: (d) Except the number pair (82, 64) , in all other
Pound (Sterling) , Deutsche Mark and Franc are number pairs both the numbers are multiples of 3.
currencies of European countries. 96 = 32 × 3; 24 = 8 × 3
39 = 13 × 3; 18 = 6 × 3
Q60. (a) Yellow Green (b) Yellow Orange 81 = 27 × 3; 54 = 18 × 3
(c) Red Yellow (d) Red Orange
Ans: (b) Red, Green and Blue are called primary colours Q67. (a) Rickets (b) Night-blindness
or basics colours. (c) Influenza (d) Scurvy
Red + Green Yellow colour Except in option (b) , in Ans: (c) Except Influenza, all others are diseases caused
all others there is one primary colour. by deficiency of vitamins while, influenza is caused by
virus.
DIRECTIONS: Select the one which is different from
the other three responses. Q68. (a) Shower (b) Sleet
(c) Raisin (d) Rain
Q61. 27, 125, 216, 343 Ans: (c) Except Raisin, all others are different forms of
(a) 27 (b) 125 precipitation.
(c) 216 (d) 343
Ans: (c) 27 = 3 × 3 × 3 Q69. (a) 71 – 55 (b) 517 – 523
125 = 5 × 5 × 5 (c) 248 – 231 (d) 547 – 563
216 = 6 × 6 × 6 Ans: (c) 248 – 231 = 17
343 = 7 × 7 × 7 563 – 547 = 16
The number 216 is a perfect cube of an even number. 71 – 55 = 16
523 – 517 = 06
Q62. (a) Shimla (b) Darjeeling Except in the option (c) , in all other number pairs, the
(c) Ooty (d) Agra difference between the two numbers is an even number.
Ans: (d) Except Agra, all others are hill stations.
Q70. 10, 13, 234, 681, 997
Q63. (a) Foal (b) Hen (a) 234 (b) 13
(c) Lamb (d) Leveret (c) 681 (d) 10
Ans: (b) Foal is the young one of a horse or of a related Ans: (c) 10 1 + 0 = 1
animal. Lamb is the young one of the sheep. 13 1 + 3 = 4
Leveret is the young one of a hare. 234 2 + 3 + 4 = 9
Hen is a female bird especially of a fowl. 681 6 + 8 + 1 = 15
997 9 + 9 + 7 = 25
Q64. (a) DFGH (b) KMNO Consecutive square numbers are given.
(c) ABCD (d) RTUV
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DIRECTIONS: Find the odd words/letters/number
pair from the given alternatives. Q78. (a) Nephew (b) Niece
(c) Uncle (d) Father
Q71. (a) Heed (b) Led Ans: (b) Except (b) all others are males.
(c) Heap (d) Head
Ans: (d) Except in the word Led, in all other words there Q79. (a) AIUE (b) PIRE
are two vowels. (c) VALT (d) TORE
Ans: (a) All are vowels in 'AIUE'
Q72. (a) Fervent (b) Enthusiastic
(c) Apathetic (d) Ardent Q80. (a) 51 (b) 171
Ans: (c) Fervent: having or displaying a passionate (c) 291 (d) 322
intensity. Ans: (d) Only 322 is an even number.
Enthusiastic: having or showing intense and eager
enoyment. DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, select the
Ardent: very enthusiastic or passionate one which is different from the other three responses.
Apathetic: showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm or
concern. Q81. 48, 80, 120, 144, 192, 208
Hence, apathetic is odd one out. (a) 80 (b) 120
(c) 144 (d) 192
Q73. (a) FAA (b) OFF Ans: (c) Rest are not perfect square.
(c) ATT (d) EPP
Ans: (a) In all other groups, a vowel is followed by a Q82. (a) Teaching (b) Counselling
consonant repeated twice. (c) Instruction (d) Guidance
Ans: (a) Teaching is different from the other three words.
Q74. (a) 117 – 143 (b) 142 – 156
(c) 64 – 78 (d) 103 – 169 Q83. (a) (25, 49) (b) (121, 169)
Ans: (a) Only 117-143 is divisible by 13. Theref ore, it is (c) (7, 169) (d) (9, 25)
odd one out. Ans: (c) Except in the number pair (7, 169) in all other
number pairs both the numbers are perfect squares.
DIRECTIONS : In each of the following questions, (25, 49) [ (5) 2, (7) 2]
select the one which is different, from other three (121, 169) [ (11) 2, (13) 2]
responses. (9, 25) [ (3) 2, (5) 2]
Q75. (a) Radio (b) Television Q84. (a) HEAT (b) MEAT
(c) Transistor (d) Tube (c) MEET (d) BEAT
Ans: (d) Radio, Transistor and television are the way of Ans: (c) In the word MEET, the second and the third
broadcasting. Hence, tube is odd one out. letters are the same.
Q76. (a) Soldier – Barrack (b) Principal – School Q85. (a) 8465 (b) 2643
(c) Artist – Troupe (d) Singer – Chorous (c) 4867 (d) 6243
Ans: (b) Barrack is a large building or group of buildings Ans: (b) 8465 84 – 65 = 19
where soldiers live. Principal is the head of school. 2643 43 – 26 = 17
Troupe is a group of artists. Chorous is a large group of 4867 67 – 48 = 19
singers. 6243 62 – 43 = 19
Q77. (a) 74, 7 (b) 97, 9 Q86. (a) ADHM (b) JNRX
(c) 41, 4 (d) 63, 6 (c) EINT (d) FJOU
Ans: (b) The second number in each number is the first
Ans: (b) Normal Pattern A → D → H → M
digit of the first number.
The difference between the two digits of the first number Exception Pattern J → N → R → X
is 3 in all the number pairs except 97, 9.
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DIRECTIONS : Find the odd num ber/word from the
given alternatives.
(c) CABD (d) OPWX
Ans: (c) Normal Pattern J → K → O → P
Q94. (a) Hexagon : Angle (b) Square : Line Q102. (a) FEDC (b) STUV
(c) Circle: Arc (d) Line : Dot (c) LKJI (d) RQPO
Ans: (a) Hexagon not made from angle. Ans: (b) Except (b) all others have consecutive letters in
reverse order.
Q95. (a) Cricket (b) Football While (b) has consecutive letters
(c) Polo (d) Hockey in forward order.
Ans: (b) Only football doesn't require the use of
handheld apparatus. Q103. (a) LPXOY (b) RQST
(c) FBDLX (d) MPONL
Q96. (a) JKOP (b) MNST Ans: (b) Except (b) all others have five letters.
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Q104. (a) 14 - 16
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(b) 56 - 64 Q113. (a) 50 (b) 120
(c) 77 - 88 (d) 80 - 93 (c) 37 (d) 145
Ans: (d) Except (d) in both number in all others pairs a re Ans: (c) All others except (c) are the multiples of 5.
divided by same number.
Q114. (a) BS (b) EV
DIRECTIONS: In the following Six Questions, find (c) DX (d) IZ
the old word/ number/ letters / number pair from the Ans: (b) Only in option (b) first letter is 4th from the left
given alternatives. end and second letter is 4th from the right end. Others
have no sequence
Q105. (a) 13 - 21 (b) 19 - 27
(c) 15 - 23 (d) 16 - 24 Q115. (a) OKHA (b) PERU
Ans: (d) Except (d) All others have odd numbers. (c) ERKU (d) ANDI
Ans: (b) All except ‗PERU‘ have vowel in both ends.
Q106. (a) Morning (b) Noon
(c) Evening (d) Night DIRECTIONS: In questions below, find the odd parts
Ans: (d) Except (d) , all others belong to the period of pair/figure from the given alternatives.
before sunset.
Q116. (a) 200 (b) 191
Q107. (a) Liberty (b) Society (c) 808 (d) 1331
(c) Equality (d) Fraternity Ans: (d) 1331 is the cube of 11
Ans: (b) Except (b) , all others are principles of society.
Q117. (a) Tennis (b) Cricket
Q108. (a) EGKQ (b) CEIO (c) Volleyball (d) Football
(c) LNQW (d) PRVB Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Normal Pattern E → G → K → Q
Q118. (a) 68 (b) 85
Exception Pattern L → N → Q → W (c) 153 (d) 174
Ans: (d) Except (d) all others are divided by 17.
Q109. (a) 4025 (b) 7202
(c) 6023 (d) 5061 DIRECTIONS: In questions, select the one which is
Ans: (d) 4 + 0 + 2 + 5 = 11 different from the other three alternatives.
6 + 0 + 2 + 3 = 11
7 + 2 + 0 + 2 = 11 Q119. (a) 7 : 98 (b) 9 : 162
5 + 0 + 6 + 1 = 12 (c) 12 : 288 (d) 17 : 572
Hence, (d) is the odd one out. Ans: (d) Except (d) in all others second number is
divisible by the first one.
DIRECTIONS: In questions, find the odd word/letters
/numbers from the given alternatives. Q120. (a) 42 – 49 (b) 35 – 62
(c) 63 – 70 (d) 28 – 21
Q110. (a) 96 : 80 (b) 64 : 48 Ans: (b) Except (b) all others are divisible by 7.
(c) 80 : 60 (d) 104 : 78
Ans: (a) DIRECTIONS: In Question, find the odd
word/number letters/number pair from the gi ven
Q111. (a) Lawyer (b) Legislator alternatives.
(c) Mayor (d) Governor
Ans: (a) All others except (a) have official rankings Q121. (a) Engineer (b) School
(c) Lawyer (d) Doctor
Q112. (a) Acute (b) Parallel Ans: (c) Except (b) others are connected with a job that
(c) Right (d) Obtuse needs special skill, while school is an organisation.
Ans: (b) All other except (b) are forms of angles
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Q122. (a) BDGK
(c) FGJK
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(b) PRUY
(d) KMPT
(c) 9100
Ans: (d) (a) 8 + 1 + 1 + 0 = 10
(d) 1189
Q129. (a) (47,49) (b) (5,7) Q138. (a) EBD (b) IFH
(c) (29,31) (d) (11,13) (c) QNO (d) YVX
Ans: (a) All others except (a) are prime numbers. Ans: (c) Normal Pattern E → B → D
Q141. (a) Knock (b) Wrong Q150. (a) House (b) Stable
(c) Psychology (d) Fast (c) Hut (d) Cottage
Ans: (d) In all other except (d) first letter is silent. Ans: (b) Stable is the place where animal (Horse) lives
where as all other are Home of people
DIRECTIONS: Find the odd parts pair from the
given alternatives. Q151. (a) BDGK (b) JLOS
(c) NPSW (d) MORU
Q142. (a) 3249 (b) 2709 Ans: (d) Only MORU does not follow the pattern of +2,
(c) 8314 (d) 2518 +3, +4 after every Alphabet
Ans: (c) In all number except 8314, the sum of first three
digits is equal to the unit's digit. DIRECTIONS: Find the odd words/letter/numbers
from the given alternatives:
Q143. (a) GLOVES (b) SWEATER
(c) SHAWL (d) UMBRELLA Q152. (a) 484 (b) 529
Ans: (d) Gloves, Sweater, shawl are worn in winter (c) 625 (d) 566
season while umbrella is used in rainy season. Ans: (d) Only 566 i s not a complete square from the
given options
Q144. (a) PORTRAIT (b) DRAW
(c) PAINT (d) SKETCH Q153. (a) A (b) U
Ans: (a) We used to draw, sketch or paint a portrait. (c) T (d) O
Ans: (c) Only T is consonant else other are vowels.
Q145. (a) HAND (b) NOSE
(c) MOUTH (d) EYES Q154. (a) January (b) April
Ans: (a) Nose, Eyes and mouth are in upper portion of (c) July (d) May
body while hands are in lower portion. Ans: (b) April contains 30 days else all contains 31 days.
Q146. (a) 6 : 22 (b) 8 : 25 DIRECTIONS: Find the odd word/ letters/ numbers
(c) 13 : 40 (d) 15 : 46 from the given alternatives:
Ans: (a) 8 × 3 + 1 = 25 So 8 : 25
13 ×3 + 1 = 40 So 13 : 40 Q155. (a) 28-21 (b) 31-38
15 × 3 + 1 = 46 So 15 : 46 (c) 45-52 (d) 64-71
But 6 × 3 + 1 = 19 ≠ 22 Ans: (a) 28 – 21 as 28 > 21 else 1st number is higher
So 6 : 22 is odd than other.
Q160. (a) POCG (b) KLIZ Q169. (a) cfed (b) ilkj
(c) BUDX (d) FQMV (c) FGHI (d) SVUT
Ans: (d) Only FQMV is without any Vowel Ans: (c) Normal Pattern c → f → e → d
Exception Pattern F → G → H → I
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, find the od
word /letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
Q170. (a) 286 (b) 166
(c) 495 (d) 583
Q161. (a) 36 - 48 (b) 56 - 44
Ans: (b) As, 2 8 6 = 2 + 6 = 8, 4 9 5 = 4 + 5 = 9 and 5 8 3
(c) 78 - 66 (d) 33 - 64
=5+3=8
Ans: (d) Difference between 36 – 48, 56 – 44 and
but, 1 6 6 = 1 + 6 = 7 ≠ 6
78 – 64 is 12 where as 33 – 64 is different.
Q171. (a) Wing Commander (b) Air Marshal
Q162. (a) Beak (b) Rudder
(c) Captain (d) Group Captain
(c) Wing (d) Fin
Ans: (c) Captain is odd one out.
Ans: (a) The wing, fin and rudder are all parts of an
airplane.
DIRECTIONS: In the following quest ions, select the
odd word from the given alternatives.
Q163. (a) LCUF (b) JHMX
(c) AKWE (d) PNTO
Q172. (a) 243 - 132 (b) 183 - 54
Ans: (b) The group of letters 'JHMX' has no vowel but
(c) 108 - 97 (d) 99 - 63
rest has vowels.
Ans: (d) 99-63 is odd one out.
Q164. (a) 99, 99 (b) 36, 63
Q173. (a) Lion (b) Leopard
(c) 28, 82 (d) 24, 44
(c) Snake (d) Tiger
Ans: (d) Except (d) in all other pairs, second term is
Ans: (c) Except, snake, all others are mammals.
reverse of first term.
Q174. (a) NPR (b) TVW
Q165. (a) FGBC (b) IJOP
(c) FHJ (d) KMO
(c) ACEG (d) LMHI
Ans: (b) Except TVW, there is a gap of one letter in a
Ans: (c) Normal Pattern F → G → B → C group.
Exception Pattern A → C → E → G
Q175. (a) 69 (b) 59
Q166. (a) 79, 63 (b) 167, 150 (c) 61 (d) 53
(c) 84, 67 (d) 112, 95 Ans: (a) Except 69, all others are prime numbers.
Ans: (a)
Q179. (a) 313 (b) 426 Q187. (a) Cricket (b) Chess
(c) 925 (d) 1034 (c) Football (d) Hockey
Ans: (a) Except 313, all others are composite number. Ans: (b) Except chess, all others are played at stadium.
Q180. In the following question, select the odd word DIRECTIONS: In the following question, select the
from the given alternatives. odd word from the given alternataives.
(a) Ludo (b) Chess
(c) Polo (d) Carrom Q188. (a) 23 (b) 17
Ans: (c) Except polo, All others are played by sitting. (c) 13 (d) 63
Ans: (d) Except 63, all others are prime number.
DIRECTIONS: Choose the odd word/letters
number/number pair from the given alternatives. Q189. (a) Newspaper (b) Journal
(c) Novel (d) Magazine
Q181. In the following question, select the odd Ans: (c) Only Novel is a type of book.
number from the given alternatives.
(a) 31 (b) 37 Q190. (a) Definite (b) Specific
(c) 43 (d) 49 (c) Doubtful (d) Distinct
Ans: (d) Except 49, All are prime numbers Ans: (c) Except Doubt ful, all others are similar word.
Q10. Which one -set of letters when sequentially Q17. 14, 19, 29, 49, 89, ?
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall (a) 139 (b) 149
complete it? (c) 159 (d) 169
__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab Ans: (d) Successive addition of 5 10 20 40 80…
(a) cabcb (b) abccb
(c) bacbc (d) bcaba Q18. BMRG, DLTF, FKVE, HJXD, ? .
(a) JIZC (b) JZIB
Ans: (c) (c) GIFB (d) MOLC
Ans: (a) Change of +2 -1 +2 -1 successively in each
Q11. XYZCBAUVWFE ? ? letter.
(a) DR (b) RS
(c) DS (d) MN Q19. 121, 144, 289, 324, 529, 576, ? .
Ans: (a) XYZUVW R ST CBAFE D (a) 961 (b) 841
(c) 900 (d) 729
Q12. reoc, pgme, nikg, lkii ? Ans: (b) Squaring of 11 12 13 ….
(a) acef (b) jmgk
Q25. 21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36 DIRECTIONS: In each of the following
(a) 21 (b) 36 questions,which one set of letters when sequentially
(c) 33 (d) 35 placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
Ans: (d) 21 + 7 = 28 complete it?
28 + 5 = 33
Q45. Find the wrong term in the following series : Q51. BFH, ZDF, JNP, T, ?
49, 49, 50, 54, 60, 79, 104 (a) WX (b) XY
(a) 60 (b) 49 (c) ZA (d) XZ
(c) 104 (d) 54 Ans: (d) B → F → H
Ans: (a) The pattern is: Z→ D→ F
49 + (0) 2 = 49, 49 + (1) 2 = 50, 50 + (2) 2 = 54
54 + (3) 2 = 63, 63 + (4) 2 = 79, 79 + (5) 2 = 104 J→ N→ P
DIRECTIONS: A series is gi ven, with one Q52. 13, 10, ___?___, 100, 1003, 1000, 10003.
number/letter missing. Choose the correct alternative (a) 130 (b) 1030
from the given ones that will complete the series. (c) 1130 (d) 103
Ans: (d) 13 → 10
Q46. Which one of the following numbers lacks the 3 has been replaced with zero in the next term.
common property in the series? 103 → 100
81, 36, 25, 9, 5, 16 1003 → 1000
(a) 5 (b) 9 10003.....
(c) 36 (d) 25
Ans: (a) Except 5, all numbers are perfect square Q53. 5, 13, 29, 61, 125, ___?___.
numbers. (a) 145 (b) 253
(c) 196 (d) 245
Q47. 3, 11, 38, 102, ______ , 443 Ans: (b) The patterns is as follows :
(a) 227 (b) 237 5 × 2 + 3 = 13
(c) 247 (d) 217 13 × 2 + 3 = 29
Ans: (a) Add successively cubes of 2, 3,4,5 and 6 29 × 2 + 3 = 61
61 × 2 + 3 = 125
Q48. BD, FH, JL, NP, ? 125 × 2 + 3 = 253
(a) PQ (b) RS
(c) SU (d) RT Q54. DGJ, FIL, HKN, JMP, ?
Ans: (d) Successive addition of 2 (a) LON (b) LOR
(c) LOQ (d) LOM
Q49. Which one of the letters when sequentially Ans: (b) D → G → J F → I → L so on
placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it? Q55. YXW, UTS, QPO, ML __, __HG
m_ _ l m _ l _ m m _ l (a) LM (b) JI
(a) mllml (b) mlmll (c) KI (d) IH
(c) llmlm (d) mmlml
Ans: (c) Y → X → W
Ans: (b) m m l l
mmll U→ T→ S
mmll Q→ P→ O
DIRECTIONS: In question, a series is gi ven, with one Q56. CEG, IKM, OQS, ?
term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the (a) TVX (b) UWY
given ones that will complete the series. (c) UWZ (d) TVW
Ans: (b) C → E → G
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(a) SPL
(c) LPT
(b) NIH
(d) QLP
O→ Q→ S
Ans: (c) C → G → K
Q57. A, B, D, G, ? F→ J→ N
(a) I (b) J I→ M→ Q
(c) K (d) L
Ans: (c) A → B → D → G Q64. 7, 2 = 59; 5, 3 = 28; 9, 1 = 810; 2, 1 = 13; 5, 4 = ?
(a) 19 (b) 9
Q58. BDF, JLN, PRT, ? (c) 20 (d) 239
(a) WXY (b) VXY Ans: (a) 7 – 2 = 5; 7 + 2 = 9
(c) UWY (d) VWX 7, 2 = 59
Ans: (c) B → D → F 5 – 3 = 2; 5 + 3 = 8
5, 3 = 28
J→ L→ N 9 – 1 = 8; 9 + 1 = 10
P→ R→ T 9, 1 = 810
2 – 1 = 1; 2 + 1 = 3
Q59. 19 18 34 32 44 41 2, 1 = 13
24? Therefore, 5 – 4 = 1; 5 + 4 = 9
(a) 3 (b) 6 5, 4 = 19
(c) 9 (d) 4
Ans: (b) 19 – 18 = 1; 1 × 2 = 2 DIRECTIONS: In que stion, which one set of letters
34 – 32 = 2; 2 × 2 = 4 when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given
44 – 41 = 3; 3 × 2 = 6 letter series shall complete it?
Q60. 5, 11, 24, 51, 106, ___?___. Q65. 120, 440, 960, 1680, ?
(a) 115 (b) 122 (a) 2600 (b) 3240
(c) 217 (d) 221 (c) 3040 (d) 2400 Hint: Get
Ans: (c) 5 × 2 + 1 = 11 Successive Differences
11 × 2 + 2 = 24
24 × 2 + 3 = 51 Q66. b_ab_b_aab_b
51 × 2 + 4 = 106 (a) abba (b) baaa
106 × 2 + 5 = 217 (c) aabb (d) abbb
Ans: (d)
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions, a
series is given with one term missing. Choose the
Q67. 5, 16, 51, 158, ?
correct alternative from the given ones that will
(a) 483 (b) 481
complete the series.
(c) 1454 (d) 1452
Ans: (b) 5 × 3 + 1 = 16
Q61. 3917, 3526, ___?___, 2857
16 × 3 + 3 = 51
(a) 3082 (b) 3174
51 × 3 + 5 = 158
(c) 3389 (d) 2682
158 × 3 + 7 = 481
Ans: (b)
Q68. 9 * 2 : 9 * 9 :: 9 × 5 : ?
Q62. AB, DC, EF, HG, IJ, LK. ?
(a) 9 × 6 (b) 9 × 7
(a) LM (b) NM
(c) 9 × 8 (d) 9 × 4
(c) MN (d) ML
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) A → B D → C E → F H → G I → J L → K
Q69. AFI, JOR, MRU, ?
Q63. CGK, FJN, IMQ, ? (a) HMP (b) PMO
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(c) RJL
Ans: (a)
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(d) GJN DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions,
which one set of letters when sequentially placed at
the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
Q70. MRS, LTU, KVW, ?
(a) TQR (b) MOP Q77. Find the number which does not fit in the
(c) JXY (d) CDE following series:
Ans: (c) 49, 81, 123, 156, 221
(a) 81 (b) 123
DIRECTIONS: Select the missing number from the (c) 156 (d) 49
given responses. Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) A → C → F
Q117. 4, 11, 17,22, ? , 29, 31, 32
B→ E→ I (a) 26 (b) 27
C→ G→ L (c) 23 (d) 24
Ans: (a) Check Successive Differences on 2 levels
D→ I→ O
Q118. √ √ √ √
DIRECTIONS: In questions below, which one set of
?__
letters when sequentialy placed at the gaps in the
(a) √ √
given letter series shall complete it?
(c) √ √
Q112. 1331, 729, 343, 125, ? Ans: (d)
(a) 27 (b) 64 √ √
(c) 216 (d) 512 √ √
Ans: (a) The sequence is : √ √
(11) 3, (9) 3, (7) 3, (5) 3 √ √ √
√
Q113. LU_TUPLUBTU_LUBT_P_UBTUP
(a) LBPU (b) BPUL
Q119. a d h m s ?
(c) PBUL (d) BUPL
(a) T (b) W
Ans: (b) Words LUB and TUP are in consecutive order.
(c) X (d) Z
LUBTUPLUBTUPLUBTUPLUBTUP
Ans: (d)
Q114. 24, 35, 20, 31, 16, 27, __, __
Q120. –1, 0, 3, 8, 15 , ?
(a) 9, 9 (b) 5, 30
(a) 23 (b) 26
(c) 8, 25 (d) 12, 23
(c) 24 (d) 25
Ans: (d) There are two numbers series: with change of -4
Ans: (c)
DIRECTION: In questions, a series is given, with one
term missing. Choose the correct alternativ e from the
Q121. ccbab _ caa _ bccc _ a _
given ones that will complete the series.
(a) babb (b) bbba
(c) baab (d) babc
Q115. Ans: (a) c c b a/b b c a/a a b c/c c b a/b
(a) 35 (b)
DIRECTIONS: In the following two Questions, a
(c)
series is given, with one term missing. Choose the
Ans: (b) correct alternative from the given ones that will
; complete the series.
Q140. Double, Triple, Quadruple, ? DIRECTIONS: Which one of the given responses
(a) Quintuple (b) Nonuple would be a meaningful descending order of the
(c) Sextuple (d) Octuple following?
Ans: (a) The next term is quintuple because quintuple
means five times. Q1. A group of alphabets are given with each being
assigned a numerical code. These have to be
Q141. AC, EG, ?, MO unscrambled into a meaningful word and the correct
(a) IK (b) IJ code so obtained may be indicated from the given
(c) IL (d) IM responses ?
Ans: (a) The common difference between first and RAHKS
second letter is one letter according to alphabetical 12345
sequence. So, answer will be IK. (a) 5 1 2 3 4 (b) 5 4 2 1 3
(c) 5 3 2 1 4 (d) 5 3 1 2 4
DIRECTIONS: A series is given with one term Ans: (c)
missing. Select the correct alternativ e from the given
ones that will complete the series. Q2. 1.Major
2.Captain
Q142. BKS, DJT, FLU, HHV, ? 3.Colonel
(a) IGU (b) IGX 4.Brigadier
(c) JGW (d) IJX 5.Lt. General
Ans: (c) Change of +2 -1 +1 (a) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (d) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
Q143. 3, 10, 31, 94, ? Ans: (a) Descending Order
(a) 197 (b) 127 5.Lt. General 4.Brigadier 3.Colonel 1.Major
(c) 283 (d) 317 2.Captain
Ans: (c) The pattern is as follows :
3 × 3 + 1 = 10
Q3. 1.Dissident
10 × 3 + 1 = 31
2.Dissolve
31 × 3 + 1 = 94
3.Dissent
94 × 3 + 1 = 283
4.Dissolute
So, the missing number is 283.
5.Dissolution
(a) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Q144. 2, 5, 11, 23, ? (c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (d) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(a) 47 (b) 44
Ans: (a) Dissent 1.Dissident 4.Dissolute
(c) 44 (d) 43
5.Dissolution 2.Dissolve
Ans: (a) The pattern is :
2×2+1=5
5 × 2 + 1 = 11
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Q4. From the given alternative words, select the word
which cannot be formed using the letters of the given
Ans: (d) There is no ‗A‘ letter in the given word.
Q8. From the given alternative words, select the word Q14. Which will appear third in the dictionary?
which cannot be formed using the letters of the given (a) Monarchy (b) Monastic
word: (c) Monetary (d) Moneyed
MISFORTUNE Ans: (c) The correct order is : Monarchy, Monastic,
(a) FORT (b) TURN Monetary, Moneyed.
(c) SOFT (d) ROAM
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Q15. Arrange the following words according to
dictionary order:
(c) 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20
Ans: (a)
(d) 20, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 18
1.Banquet
2.Bangle Q21. Which word will appear last in the dictionary?
3.Bandage (a) laugh (b) latch
4.Bantam (c) laurels (d) latitude
5.Bank Ans: (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary:
(a) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (b) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 2.Latch 4.Latitude 1.Laugh 3.Laurels
(c) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (d) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Ans: (d) According to dictionary, order is : Bandage, Q22. Arrange the given words in a meaningful order:
Bangle, Bank, Banquet, Bantam. 1.INFANT
2.ADOLESCENT
Q16. In this question, from the given alternatives 3.CHILD
select the word which cannot be formed by using the 4.OLD
letters of the given word. 5.ADULT
APPROPRIATE (a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(a) PIRATE (b) APPROVE (c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) PROPER (d) RAPPORT Ans: (b) Meaningful order of words :
Ans: (b) There is no 'V' letter in the given word. 1.INFANT 3.CHILD 2.ADOLESCENT
5.ADULT 4.OLD
DIRECTIONS: In question below from the given
alternatives select the word which cannot be formed Q23. Arrange the following words in their ascending
using the letters of the given word. order, as in a dictionary:
1.Pick2. Pith
Q17. In the following letter series how many times do 3.Pile
PQR occur in such away that Q is in the middle of P 4.Perk
and R. 5.Pour
Q M P N P Q RR O P Q N O P P Q R P M Q R O P Q (a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
RPPRRPQRP (c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) 5 (b) 6 Ans: (b) Perk > Pick > Pile > Pith > Pour
(c) 4 (d) 3
Ans: (c) Q24. Arrange the following words in their ascending
order:
Q18. ‗CONSTITUTIONAL‘ 1.Millenium
(a) CONSULT (b) LOCATION 2.Diamond Jubilee
(c) TUTION (d) TALENT 3.Silver Jubilee
Ans: (d) There is no 'E' letter in the given word. 4.Centenary
5.Golden Jubilee
Q19. In the following list of English alphabets, one (a) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 (b) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
alphabet has not been used. Identify the same. (c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 (d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
XNFAPSRWLTMDEXMGB Ans: (c) Silver jublee - 25 yr.
CXQJLOPVRCQJZOHSG Golden jublee - 50 yr.
ODIPTSMRABEFGNUNE Diamond jublee - 75 yr.
(a) V (b) I Centenary - 100 yr
(c) K (d) J Millennium - 1000 yr.
Ans: (c) DIRECTION: From the given alternatives select the
word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
Q20. If Alphabets are serially numberd, one of the given word.
answers given below has not a meaningful word
hidden in it. Identify the answer. Q25. Arrange the following words in their descending
(a) 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20 (b) 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18 order:
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1.Weekly
2.Bi-annual
https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra Q30. Arrange the following words as per order in the
3.Fortnightly dictionary.
4.Monthly 1.Obscure
5.Annual 2.Objective
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 (b) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 3.Objection
(c) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 (d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 4.Obligation
Ans: (d) Annual - 1 yearMonthly - 30 days 5.Oblivion
Weekly - 7 daysBiannual - 6 month (a) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
Fortnightly - 15 days. (c) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 (d) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
Ans: (a) The correct order is:
Q26. CONTENTION Objection > Objective > Obligation > Oblivion >
(a) TONIC (b) NOTE Obscure
(c) NATION (d) NOTION
Ans: (c) NATION as a letter is not there in word Q31. From the given alternative words, select the
CONTENTION. word which cannot be formed usi ng the letters of the
given word:
Q27. Arrange the following words as per order in the DISINTEGRATION
dictionary. (a) SIGN (b) SIGNATURE
(i) Forge (c) INTERN (d) SINGER
(ii) Forget Ans: (b) SIGNATURE cannot be formed as reference
(iii) Forgo word doesnot have ‗U‘ alphabet.
(iv) Forgive
(v) Format Q32. In the following letter series, how many times
(a) (v) , (ii) , (iv) , (iii) , (i) (b) (i) , (iv) , (iii) , (ii) , (v) does 'P' occur in such a w ay that after 'P', N' O
(c) (iii) , (iv) , (v) , (ii) , (i) (d) (i) , (ii) , (iv) , (iii) , (v) should occur?
Ans: (d) Arrangement of words as per dictionary: APNQPNOSPTOZPNOYMPNO
(i) Forge (ii) Forget (iv) Forgive (iii) Forgo (a) 2 (b) 5
(iv) Format (c) 4 (d) 3
Ans: (d) APNQ PNO SPTOZ PNO YM PNO
Q28. Which one of the given responses would be a
meaningful order of the following words? . Q33. From the given alternatives select the word
(i) Police which cannot be formed using the letters of tne given
(ii) Punishment word.
(iii) Crime SIGNATURE
(iv) Judge (a) SIGHT (b) GAIN
(v) Judgement (c) NATURE (d) GATE
(a) (i) , (ii) , (iv) , (iii) , (v) (b) (v) , (iv) , (iii) , (ii) , (i) Ans: (a) There in no 'H' in the word SIGNATURE
(c) (iii) , (i) , (iv) , (v) . (ii) (d) (iii) , (i) , (ii) , (iv) , (v)
Ans: (c) Meaningful order of words: Q34. From the given alternatives select the word
(iii) Crime (i) Police (iv) Judge (v) Judgement which can be formed using the letters of the given
(ii) Punishment word.
DICTIONARY
Q29. From the given alternatives select the word (a) BINARY (b) DAIRY
which cannot be formed using the letters of the given (c) NATION (d) ADDITION
word. Ans: (b) (a) BINARY can not be formed, there is no 'B'
Encouragement in the word DICTIONARY (c) NATION can not be
(a) game (b) tear formed, as there is only one 'N' in the word
(c) neck· (d) meat DICTIONARY (d) ADDITION can not be formed, as
Ans: (c) There is no ‗K‘ letter in the given word. So, that there is only one 'D' in the word DICTIONARY
word ‗Neck‘ cannot be formed.
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Q35. DISAPPOINTMENT
(a) POINTER
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(b) OINTMENT
Ans: (d) There is only one ‗E‘ in the given word but
there are two Es in the word TEASE.
(c) DISPOINT (d) NOTPAD
Ans: (a) There is no ‗R‘ letter in the given word. Q41. RESURRECTIONIST
Therefore, the word POINTER cannot be formed. (a) TOURIST (b) NOISE
(c) SORCERER (d) TENDER
Q36. DECOMPOSITION Ans: (d) There is no ‗D‘ letter in the given word.
(a) COMPOSE (b) ECONOMIST Therefore, the word TENDER cannot be formed.
(c) POSITION (d) DOCTOR
Ans: (d) There is no ‗R‘ letter in the given word. Q42. COMMERCIALISM
Therefore, the word DOCTOR cannot be formed. (a) CROME (b) LANCER
(c) MISER (d) OSCAR
Q37. INTELLIGENCE Ans: (b) There is no ‗N‘ letter in given word. Therefore,
(a) NEGLECT (b) GENTLE the word LANCER cannot be formed.
(c) INCITE (d) CANCEL
Ans: (d) There is no ‗A‘ letter in the given word. DIRECTIONS: In questions, from the given
Therefore, the word CANCEL cannot be formed. alternatives select the word which cannot be formed
using the letters of the given word.
Q38. Which one of the given resp onses would be a
meaningful order of the following words in ascending Q43. Which one of the given responses would be a
order? meaningful order of the following?
1.Accommodation 1.Implementation
2.Perception 2.Conceptual Modelling
3.Scheme formation 3.Requirements Analysis
4.Assimilation 4.Logical Modelling
5.Sensation 5.Physical Model
(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 (b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 6.Schema Refinement
(c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 (d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 (a) 1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4 (b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
Ans: (d) Meaningful order of t he words in ascending (c) 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5 (d) 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1
order : Ans: (d) Meaningful order :
5.Sensation 2.Perception 4.Assimilation 3. Requirements Analysis 2. Conceptual Modelling
3.Scheme Formation 1.Accommodation 4. Logical Modelling 6. Schema Refinement 5.
DIRECTION: In question, from the given alternative Physical Model 1. Implementation
words, select the word which cannot be formed using
the letters of the given words. Q44. CONSTITUTIONAL
(a) TALENT (b) LOCATION
Q39. Which of the given responses would be a (c) CONSULT (d) TUITION
meaningful order of the following starting from the Ans: (a) ‗TALENT‘ can not be formed from the given
inner layer? word CONSTITUTIONAL as there is no ‗E‘ letter in the
1.Hydrosphere2. Atmosphere given word.
3.Biosphere4. Lithosphere
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1 Q45. MANUSCRIPT
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 (a) SMART (b) RUSTIC
Ans: (a) Meaningful order of the words in ascending (c) MASTER (d) PRIMUS
order : 4.Lithosphere 1.Hydrosphere 3.Biosphere Ans: (c) ‗MASTER‘ can not be formed as there is no ‗E‘
2.Atmosphere letter in the given word.
TICRECK → CRICKET Q94. From the given alternative words, select the
FEFEOC → COFFEE word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
TAR → RAT given word:
Hence, coffee is not animal. CONCENTRATION
(a) CONCERN (b) CONTAINER
Q89. Arrange the foll owing words as per order in the (c) CONCERT (d) CENTRAL
dictionary Ans: (d) There is no L in concentration ∴ CENTRAL
(a) Hale will not be Formed
(b) Hake
(c) Halt Q95. Arrange the following words as per order in the
(d) Hamlet dictionary
(5) Ham 1.Direction
(a) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 2.Directed
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (d) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 3.Director
Ans: (b) HAKE > HALE > HALT > HAM > HAMLOT 4.Directing
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3
Q90. From the given alternative words, select t he (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
word which cannot be formed using the letters of the Ans: (b) Words arranged as per order in the Dictionary ,
given word. Directed, Directing, Direction, Director.
'BOOKBINDING'
(a) BINDING (b) DOING Q96. From the given alternative words, select the
(c) DIGGING (d) DINING word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
Ans: (c) DIGGING cannot be formed from the given given word:
word. ADMISSION
(a) MISSION (b) DISMISS
Q91. Amongst the given responses choose the (c) MASONS (d) NOMADS
meaningful logical series. Ans: (b) DISMISS cannot be make from ADMISSION
1.College
2.Infant Q97. Arrange the following words as per order in the
3.Child dictionary
4.School 1.Ambitions
5.Youth 2.Ambiguous
(a) 2,4,3,1,5 (b) 2,3,4,1,5 3.Ambiguity
(c) 2,4,3,5,1 (d) 2,3,4,5,1 4.Animation
Ans: (d) Infant becomes Child and goes to School than 5.Animal
grows up to Youth and goes to College ie, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (a) 3 ,2 , 4 , 1 , 5 (b) 3 , 2 , 5 , 4 , 1
(c) 3 , 2 , 1 , 5 , 4 (d) 3 , 2 , 4 , 5 , 1
Q92. Select the word which cannot be formed using Ans: (c) Arrangement as per Dictionary rules is 3, 2, 1, 5,
the letters of the given word REJUVENATION 4i.e Ambiguity, Ambiguous, Ambitions, Animal
(a) JUTE (b) NATION Animation
(c) REVISION (d) NATIVE
Ans: (c) Revision is the word which cannot be formed Q98. From the given alternative words , select the
from letters of REJUVENATION as, S is not in it. word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word:
Q93. Arrange the following words as per order in the INTELLIGENCE
dictionary: (a) CANCEL (b) NEGLECT
1. Zeal 2.Zebra 3.Zygote 4.Zinc 5.Zest (c) GENTLE (d) INCITE
(a) 1,2,5,3,4 (b) 1,2,5,4,3 Ans: (a) CANCEL cannot be Form from
(c) 1,5,2,4,3 (d) 1,5,2,3,4 INTELLIGENCE
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Q99. Arrange the following words according to the
Q103. Which one of the given responses would be a
meaningful order of the following?
dictionary order : 1.estimate
a.extol 2.contract
b.exinct 3.concept
c.extra 4.plan
d.extort 5.execute
(a) d, c, a, b (b) a, d, b, c (a) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 (b) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) a, b, c, d (d) b, a, d, c (c) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans: (d) Words' Dictionary Order : Ans: (c) Concept → 4. Plan → 1. Estimate → 2. Contract
(1) (2) (3) (4) → 5. Execute
Extinct → Extol → Extort → Extra
(b) (a) (d) (c) Q104. PERAMBULATOR
(a) MARBLE (b) LABOUR
Q100. Which will appear fourth in the dictionary ? (c) RAMBLE (d) RAMPANT
(a) deterioration (b) determination Ans: (d) 'Rampant' cannot be formed by using given
(c) degrade (d) density word.
Ans: (b) Dictionary Order :
Degrade → Density → Deterioration → Determination Q105. ORGANISATION
(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) NATION (b) ORGAN
(c) ORGANISE (d) ORATION
Q101. If the following words are arranged in a Ans: (d) 'Organise' cannot be formed.
dictionary order, which will be 3rd word ?
Amphibian, Amorphous, Ambiguous, Ambidextrous, Q106. Grouping of words are given. Choose the next
Ambivalent words in the series from the given options.
(a) Ambiguous (b) Ambivalent AFGHAN, INDEFINITLY, SYNOPSIS,
(c) Amphibian (d) Amorphous STUPENDOUS, BURST
Ans: (b) Arrangement in a Dictionary Order : (a) RESCRIPT (b) COMPANION
Ambidextrous → Ambiguous → Ambivalent (c) HIJACKER (d) GLACIAL
(1) (2) (3) Ans: (c) AFGHAN, INDEFINITLY, SYNOPSIS,
→ Amorphous → Amphibian STUPENDOUS, BURST, HIJACKER.
(4) (5)
Q107. Arrange the given words in the sequence in
Q102. From the given alternative words, select the which they occur in the dictionary.
word which can be formed using the letters of the (a) Ropped
given word. (b) Roster
Measurement (c) Roasted
(a) Summit (b) Assure (d) Road
(c) Master (d) Mantle (5) Roller
Ans: (c) (a) Summit can not be formed as there is no 'i' in (a) 3 5 4 1 2 (b) 4 5 3 1 2
the word Measurement. (c) 3 4 5 1 2 (d) 4 3 5 1 2
(b) Assure can not be formed as there is only 's' in the Ans: (d)
word Measurement.
(d) Mantle can not be formed as there is no 'l' in the word Q108. In the following question, from the given
Measurement. alternative words, select the word which cannot be
formed using the letters of the given word.
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, from the Suspensefulness
given alternative words, select the word which cannot (a) Sense (b) Fuels
be formed using the letters of the given word. (c) Useful (d) Fullness
Ans: (d) Fullness as a lettter is not there in word
suspense fulness.
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Q109. Arrange the given words in the sequence in
(c) 54132
Ans: (c)
(d) 53412
Q113. Arrange the given words in the sequence in DIRECTIONS: Arrange the given words in the
which they occur in the dictionary. sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1.Storm
2.Strap Q118. Ale
3.Strangle 2.Align
4.Stamped 3.Amend
5.Satire 4.Anatomy
(a) 51432 (b) 51342 5.Alpine
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(a) 51342
(c) 12354
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(b) 35412
(d) 12534
Ans: (a) ,
Change of +1
Ans: (d)
Q2. In a certain code SISTER is written as RHRSDQ.
Q119. Den How is UNCLE written in that code ?
2.Dragon (a) TMBKD (b) TBMKD
3.Drop (c) TVBOD (d) TMKBD
4.Desk Ans: (a) As,
5.Doom ,
(a) 54312 (b) 14523 Change of -1
(c) 31245 (d) 13245
Ans: (b) Q3. If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as
JCJZYSSD, then how can ANTIMONY be written in
Q120. In the following question, select the word which that code?
cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. (a) CPVKOQPA (b) CRZQWABO
Instructor (c) ERXMQSRC (d) G'I'ZOSU'I'E
(a) Rust (b) Tort Ans: (b) Difference is +2, + 4, +6, +8, +10, +12, +14,
(c) Stop (d) Stint +16
Ans: (c) Stop cannot be formed as there is no 'P' in the
word 'Instructor'. Q4. If PEAR is written as GFDN, how is REAP
written in this code?
Q121. Which word will appear second when arranged (a) FDNG (b) NFDG
in order of dictionary? (c) DNGF (d) NDFG
(a) Boost (b) Bonkers Ans: (b)
(c) Bonjour (d) Bannet
Ans: (b) According to dictionary. Q5. If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER
Bonkers will a appear second position. is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH coded?
(a) 4344681 (b) 4344651
Q122. Which word will appear last when arranged in (c) 4146481 (d) 4346481
order of dictionary? Ans: (a)
(a) Heritage (b) Hermitage
(c) Healing (d) Heap Q6. In a certain code, ―CERTAIN‖ is coded as
Ans: (b) According to dictionary, ―XVIGZRM‖, ―SEQUENCE‖ is coded as
Hermitage will appear last position. ―HVJFVMXV‖. How would ―REQUIRED‖ be
coded?
Q123. DISTRIBUTION (a) FJIVWVIR (b) VJIFWTRV
(a) BUTTON (b) DISTURB (c) WVJRIFVI (d) IVJFRIVW
(c) BRITAIN (d) BURNT Ans: (d) Pairs of Opp Letters
Ans: (c) Britain cannot be formed as there is no 'A' in the
word ' DISTRIBUTION'. Q7. If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be
coded as?
(a) 40 (b) 36
(c) 38 (d) 24
Coding Decoding Ans: (d) Add place values
Q22. Some letters are given below in the first line and (a) 44, 62, 65, 51 (b) 53, 42, 65, 36
numbers are given below them in the second line. (c) 53, 54, 51, 31 (d) 44, 54, 65, 24
Numbers are the codes for the alphabets and vice - Ans: (a) By matching code
versa. Choose the correct letter -code for the given set 44, 62, 65, 51 Letters Resembles to CALM in the
of numbers. MATRI X.
EMKBZWQUDJ
5916482073 Q26. If DIVINE is coded as AFSFKB, then
429753 POWERFUL is coded as
(a) Z Q M D E J (b) Z Q E D M J (a) XLHOJVIM (b) MLTBDCRI
(c) Z Q M J D E (d) Z Q M E D J (c) MLWBOCRI (d) HLTBNCRI
Ans: (a) Ans: (*) As,Change of -3
Q23. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as Q27. If NOTE is written as PQVG, then TIME is
82589662, then how would CALICUT be coded in that written as
code? (a) VQOG (b) VKOG
(a) 5978213 (b) 8251896 (c) VOKG
(c) 8543691 (d) 5279431 (c) VGKO
Ans: (b) Ans: (b) As,
Change of +2
Q24. If MOB ILE is written as ZAMSUM, how
TUMOR can be written in that code ? Q28. If SMART is coded as UKCPV, then WONDER
(a) BRAIN (b) HGYAD is coded as
(c) GGXYA (d) IHZBE (a) YMPPRT (b) YMPBGP
Ans: (c) (c) YMPBFP (d) YMBPPG
Ans: (b) As,
Q25. A word is represented by only one set of Change of +2 -2 alternatively
numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The
sets of numbers given in the alternativ es are Q29. A word is represented by only one set of
represented by two classes of alphabets as in the numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The
matrix given below. The columns and rows of Matrix sets of numbers given in the alternatives are
are numbered from 0 to 6. A letter from the matrix represented by two classes of alphabets as in two
can be represented first by its row and next by its matrices given below. Two columns and rows of
column, e.g.'A' can be represented by 42, 62, etc. and Matrix I are numbered-from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix
'P' can be represented by 15, 43, etc. Similarly, you II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter f rom these
have to identify the set for the word 'CALM'. matrices can be represented first by its row and next
Matrix by its column, e.g., ‗P‘ can be represented by 67, 75
etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word
‗CARD‘.
MATRIX I MATRIX II
(a) 24, 31, 10, 59, 57 (b) 12, 20, 40, 68, 65
(c) 31, 34, 23, 76, 79 (d) 43, 42, 41, 78, 89
Ans: (c)
(a) 86, 87, 99 — 40, 41, 86, 64
Q47. In a coded language, MANAGER is written as (b) 98, 96, 85 — 42, 78, 88, 77
REGANAM. How will ASSISTANT be written in that (c) 77, 69, 76 — 22, 95, 28, 31
code ? (d) 65, 55, 67 — 05, 25, 91, 40
(a) TNATSISSA (b) TNATISSSA Ans: (b)
Q57. Name a single letter, which can be prefixed to Q61. In a certa in coding system APPLE stands for
the following words in order to obtain entirely new ETTPI. What is the code for 'DELHI'?
words ? (a) CQMND (b) ZAHDE
TILL TABLE PILE TAB PRING (c) HIPLM (d) CQPLM
(a) S (b) B Ans: (c) ,
(c) H (d) C Change of +4 in each letetr
Ans: (a) Only ‗S‘ can be prefixed to the given words.
New words are: Q62. Name a single letter, which can be deleted from
still, stable, spile, stab, spring the body of the following words to form entirely n ew
words?
Q58. In a certain code "MOUSE" is written as HOST POST COST LOST STOP
"PRUQC". How is "SHIFT" written in that code? (a) T (b) P
(a) VJIDR (b) VIKRD (c) S (d) O
(c) RKIVD (d) VKIDR Ans: (c) ‗S‘ can be deleted from the body of the
Ans: (d) MOUSE following words to form entirely new words.
↓ +3↓ +3↓ +0↓ –2↓ –2 New words are :
Coded as:PRUQC Similarly, SHIFT HOT, POT, COT, LOT, TOP
↓ +3↓ +3↓ +0↓ –2↓ –2
Coded as:VKIDR
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Q63. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how
PARENT will be written in the same code?
(a) 20
(c) 26
(b) 25
(d) 27
(a) TNERAP (b) RAPTNE Ans: (d) D A S H 4 + 1 + 19 + 8 = 32
(c) ERAPTN (d) APERTN D A N C E 4 + 1 + 14 + 3 + 5 = 27
Ans: (d)
Q68. In the following question, number of letters
Q64. If 'air' is called 'green', green is called 'blue', skipped in between adja cent letters of the series
'blue' is called 'sky', 'sky' is called 'yellow', 'yellow' is starting from behind increased by one. Which of the
called 'water' and water is called 'Pink' then what is following observes the rule?
the colour of clear sky ? (a) OIGDC (b) OMKIG
(a) Yellow (b) Water (c) ONLKJ (d) OMJFA
(c) Sky (d) Blue Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) The color of sky is blue. But blue is called sky.
Hence, option (c) is correct choice. Q69. If Blue means Pink, Pink means Green, Green
means Yellow, yellow means Red and Red means
Q65. If in a certain language TEACHER is coded as White, then what is the colour of turmeric ?
QBXZEBO, then how is STUDENT coded in the sa me (a) Pink (b) Yellow
language? (c) Red (d) Green
(a) PQRBAQK (b) PQRABKQ Ans: (c) Originally the colour of turmeric is yellow, here,
(c) PQRKBAQ (d) PRKQBAQ yellow means red. So the colour of turmeric is red.
Ans: (b) Each Alphabet of QBXZEBO is 3 less than
TEACHER Q70. If DANGER is coded as 11 - 8 - 21 - 14 - 12 - 25,
∴ STUDENT will be written as PQRABKQ then how will be coded the word MACHINE ?
(a) 10 - 21 - 15 - 14 - 26 - 17 - 18
Q66. In the question, a word is represented by only (b) 20 - 8 - 10 - 16 - 17 - 22 - 13
one set of numbers as given in any one of the (c) 20 - 10 - 8 - 12 - 15 - 16 - 7
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the (d) 20 - 8 - 10 - 15 -16 - 21 - 12
alternatives are represented by two classes of Ans: (d)
alphabets as in two matric es given below. The
columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to Q71. A word is represented by only one set of
4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A numbers as given i n any one of the alternatives. The
letter from these matrices can be represented first by sets of numbers given in the alternatives are
its row and next by its column, e.g., 'P' can be represented by two classes of alphabets as in two
represented by 02, 13, etc., and 'A' can be represented matrices given below. The columns and rows of
by 57, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for matrix I are numbered from 0 to 3 and that of Matrix
the word 'GUNS' II are numbered from 4 to 7. A letter from these
matrices can be represented first by its now and next
by its column, e.g., 'D' can be represented by 01 and
'R' can be represented by 44, Similarly, you have to
identify the set for the word 'TALE'
Matrix - IMatrix - I
Q75. A word is represented by only one set of Q79. A word is represented by only one set of
numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The
sets of numbers given in the alternatives are sets of numbers given in the alternatives are
represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in represented by two classes of al phabets as shown in
the given two matrices. The columns and rows of the given two matrices. The columns and rows of
Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first by its row and these matrices can be represented first by its row and
next by its column, for example, 'E' can be next by its column, for example 'Q' c an be
represented by 02, 11, etc. and 'G' can be represented represented by 12, 43, etc.., and 'M' can be
by 65, 56 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for represented by 67, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to
the word 'EAGER;'. identify the set for the word "PRICE".
Matrix – I Matrix – II Matrix – I Matrix – II
(a) 02, 10, 65, 11, 68 (b) 02, 10, 65, 87, 85 (a) 23, 03, 55, 66, 99 (b) 42, 24, 88, 56, 65
(c) 02, 10, 65, 11, 85 (d) 02, 10, 65, 59, 85 (c) 11, 10, 96, 97, 85 (d) 04, 41, 69, 75, 57
Ans: (c) Ans: (d) 'P' can be represented by 04
'R' can be represented by 41
Blood Relationship
Ans: (d)
Q1. Nithya is Sam‘s Sister. Mogan is Sam‘s Father.
Selvan is Rajan‘s Son. Rajan is Mogan‘s Brother. Q6. Sunil is the son of Kesav. Simran, Kesav‘s sister,
How is Nithya related to Selvan? has a son Maruti and daughter Sita. Prem is the
(a) Daughter (b) Sister maternal uncle of Maruti. How is Sunil related to
(c) Cousin (d) Wife Maruti?
Ans: (c) Nithya is Sam‘s Sister and Mogan is Sam‘s (a) Uncle (b) Brother
Father (c) Nephew (d) Cousin
Nithya is Mogan‘s Daughter.
Selvan is Rajan‘s Son and Rajan is Mogan‘s Brother
Selvan is Mogan‘s Nephew.
So, Nithya is Selvan‘s Cousin. Ans: (d)
Hence, Sunil is the cousin of Maruti.
Q2. A man said to a lady ―Your mother‘s husband‘s
sister is my aunt‖. How is the lady related to man? Q7. Showing a man on the stage , Rita said , " He is
(a) Sister (b) Mother the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.
(c) Daughter (d) Granddaughter How is the man on stage related to Rita ?
Ans: (a) Mother‘s husband Father (a) Son (b) Husband
Father‘s sister Aunt (c) Cousin (d) Nephew
So, man‘s and lady‘s aunt is same position both are
brother and sister.
Ans: (a)
Q3. Arun said, ―This girl is the wife of the grandson of
That man is son of Rita
my mother‖. Who is Arun to the girl ?
(a) Grandfather (b) Husband
Q8. A boy introduced a girl as the daughter of the son
(c) Father-in-law (d) Father
of the father of his uncle. How is the girl related to the
Ans: (c) Grandson of Arun‘s mother means either son or
boy ?
nephew of Arun. Therefore, Arun is the father -in-law of
(a) Aunt (b) Grand-daughter
that girl.
(c) Niece (d) Sister
Ans: (c)
A is Aunt of E.
Ans: (c)
There is no option of cousin sister.
Q13. Chanda is the wife of Bharat. Mohan is the s on
of Chanda. Ashish is the brother of Bharat and father
Q9. A family consisted of a man, his wif e, his three
of Dhruv. How is Mohan related to Dhruv?
sons, their wives and three children in each son's
(a) Sister (b) Cousin
family. How many members are there in the family ?
(c) Brother (d) Mother
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 17
Ans: (d) A man + his wife = 1 + 1 = 2
His three sons + their wives = 3 + 3 = 6
Ans: (b)
Three children in each one‘s family = 3 × 3 = 9
Hence, Mohan is cousin of Dhruv.
Total members = 2 + 6 + 9 = 17
Q14. Introducing Rita, Monica said, "She is the only
Q10. Suket has three daughters and each daughter
daughter of m y father's only daughter." How is
has a brother. How many male members are there in
Monica related to Rita?
the family ?
(a) Aunt (b) Niece
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) Cousin (d) Mother
(c) 3 (d) 1
Ans: (b) Suket has three daughters and each daughter has
a brother.
Ans: (d)
Monica is the mother of Reeta.
Hence, there are 2 male members in a family. Q15. X is sister of Y. Y is brother of Z. Z is husband
of P. O is father of Y. How is P related to O?
Q11. Introducing a man, a woman said "His mother is (a) Sister (b) Daughter
the only daughter of my father'. How is the man (c) Uncle (d) Daughter - in - law
related to the woman?
(a) Son (b) Father
(c) Brother (d) Uncle
Ans: (d)
So, P is daughter -in-law of O.
Ans: (a)
Therefore, U is sister – in – law of S.
Ans: (b)
AH = 20 – (4 + 6) = 10m
Q4. Vivek and Ashok start from a fixed point. Vivek Ans: (b)
moves 3 km north and turns right and then covers 4
km. Ashok moves 5 km west and turns right and Q7. Satish start from A and walks 2 km east upto B
walks 3 km. Now how far are they apart? and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C
(a) 10 km (b) 9 km he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then turns
(c) 8 km (d) 6 km northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from
Ans: (b) The direction diagram is as follows : his starting point ?
(a) 5 km (b) 6 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
Q10. A man started from a place walked towards Q14. Four players P, Q, R and S are standing a play
North for 5 km then turned 90° to his right and field in such a way that Q is to East of P, R is to the
walked another 5 km. then he turned 45° to his right South of P and S is to the North of P. In which
and walked 2 km and turned 45° to his left. What is direction of Q is S Standing ?
his direction now? (a) North (b) South
(a) South (b) South East (c) North-West (d) South-East
(c) East (d) South East Ans: (c)
Q35. Veni is an year older than Smith. Smith is two Q41. In a row of students, if John , who is 16th from
years older than Salim. Raju is an year older than the left, and Johnson, who is 8th from the right,
Salim. Who is the youngest of all ? . interchange their positions, John becomes 33rd from
(a) Raju (b) Salim left. How many students are there in a row?
(c) Veni (d) Smith (a) 38 (b) 39
Ans: (b) Suppose the age of Salim is x years (c) 40 (d) 41
Age of Raju = x + 1 year Ans: (c) When John interchange his position, new
Age of Smith = x + 2 years Position will be 33 from left and 8 from Right
Age of Veni = x + 3 years Total = 33 + 8 – 1 = 40
Therefore, Salim is the youngest of all.
Q42. X is elder than Z, Y is younger than Z, Z is elder
Q36. In a line, Naresh is 17 th from the left & 22nd from than W. W is younger than X, who is the eldest ?
the right. How many students are there in the line ? (a) W (b) Z
(a) 40 (b) 38 (c) X (d) Y
(c) 39 (d) 37 Ans: (c) X > Z – (i)
Ans: (b) Naresh is 17th from left and 22nd from the right. Z > Y– (ii)
So, total number of students in the line = 17 + 22 – 1 = 38 Z > W– (iii)
X > W– (iv)
Q37. In a class of 45, Neha's rank is 15th from first, Order will be
what is her rank from the last ? X>Z>W>Y
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Ans: (a) Total number of students who have failed
= (40 + 1) – (13 + 17)
Q43. In a class the students are standing in a row. A (41 – 30) = 11
student is 11th from the right end and 9th from the
left end. How many students are standing in that row?
(a) 19 (b) 20
(c) 21 (d) 18
Number Puzzle
Ans: (a)
Q44. A is elder to B while C and D are elder to E, who Q1. The following equations follow a common
lies between A and C. If C is elder to B, who is the property. Find out the correct value to complete D :
youngest? A = 51 (714) 14 :
(a) A (b) C B = 61 (915) 15 :
(c) B (d) D C = 71 (1136) 16 :
Ans: (c) C and D > E > A > B D = 81 (?) 17
So, B is the youngest. (a) (1377) (b) (1378)
(c) (1356) (d) (1346)
Q45. There are 45 trees in a row. The lemon tree is Ans: (a) As, A = 51 × 14 = 714
20th from right end. What is the rank of lemon tree B = 61 × 15 = 915
from left end? C = 71 × 16 = 1136
(a) 26 (b) 24 ∴ D = 81 × 17 = 1377
(c) 25 (d) 27
Ans: (a) Required rank of lemon tree = (45 + 1) – 20 DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions.
= 26. Select the missing number from the given responses.
Q46. Priyank ranks 6 th from the bottom and 28 th from Q2. Find the missing number from the given
the top in a class. How many students are there in the responses:
class?
(a) 31 (b) 32
(c) 33 (d) 34
Ans: (c) Priyank is 6th from the bottom 28th from top.
So, total number of students = 6 + 28 – 1 = 33
Ans: (d)
(a) 20 (b) 25
Q4. (c) 10 (d) 15
Ans: (d) The product of two numbers in a sector is equal
to the central number in the previous sector.
3 × 5 = 15
8 × 3 = 24
7 × 2 = 14
(a) 58 (b) 51
5 × 3 = 15
(c) 65 (d) 64
8 × 4 = 32
Ans: (c) Column wise
9×1=9
First Column,
9 × 2 = 18
(7) 2 + (4) 2 + (2) 2 = 49 + 16 + 4 = 69
7 × 4 = 28
Second Column,
(3) 2 + (9) 2 + (1) 2 = 9 + 81 + 1 = 91 Similarly, In third
Q7.
column,
(2) 2 + (6) 2 + (5) 2 = 4 + 36 + 25 = 65
Q5.
(a) 21 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 22
Ans: (c) First Column
10 + 12 + 4 + 10 = 36
36/2 = 18
Second Column
(a) 343 (b) 512 11 + 12 + 12 + 5 = 40
(c) 729 (d) 1000 40/2 = 20
Third Column
15 + 8 + 10 + 13 = 46 = 46/2 = 23
=?
(a) 14400 (b) 15600
(c) 23040 (d) 17400
Ans: (a) 2 × 3 × 5 × 4 = 120
120 × 120 = 14400
Q12.
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
(c) 3 (d) 4 Ans: (c) As, 3 × 7 = 21, 11 × 7 = 77
Ans: (b) The sum of numbers of the left vertically half 4 × 9 = 36, 12 × 9 = 108
part is equal to the sum of the numbers on the right. Therefore,14 × 8 = 112
1 + 7 + 9 + 5 + 1 + 9 + 6 + 4 = 42 ? × 8 = 24
Therefore, ?=3
? + 7 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 8 + 8 + 3 = 42
? = 42 – 40 = 2 DIRECTIONS: Select the missing number from the
given responses.
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, select the
missing number from the given responses. Q13.
Q10.
(a) 9 (b) – 4
(c) 4 (d) – 8
(a) 5 (b) 2 Ans: (b) 12 × 16 = 192 + 5 = 197
(c) 3 (d) 4 16 × 16 = 256 + 7 = 263
Ans: (b) First column (7 + 2) × 4 = 36 18 × 20 = 360-4 = 356
Second Column (6 + 8) × 3 = 42
Third Column (9 + 4) × ? = 26 Q14.
13 × ? = 26
∴
Q21.
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 7
Ans: (d) First number in each ro w is the product of the
second and third numbers. (a) 122 (b) 128
First Row (c) 124 (d) 126
25 = 5 × 5 Ans: (c) First Column (3 × 4 × 5) – 2 = 58
Second Row Second Column (5 × 6 × 2) – 2 = 58
30 = 5 × 6 Third Column (8 × 4 × 2) – 2 = 62
Third Row Forth Column (7 × 6 × 3) – 2 = 124
35 = ? × 5
∴?= Q22.
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54 × 2 + 2 = 110
So, missing number = 110 × 2 + 2 = 222
Ans: (b) Q25. Find the missing number from the given
= Second number in each column. responses.
First Column
√ √
Second Column
√ √
Third column
√
2 × ? = 100 (a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 9 (d) 8
∴
Ans: (a)
Q23.
Q26.
DIRECTIONS: Select the missing number from the DIRECTIONS: S elect the missing number from the
given responses. given responses.
(a) 1 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 16
Ans: (c) 3 + 9 – 5 = 7, 2 + 8 – 6 = 4
4+7–5=6
(a) 132 (b) 122
(c) 222 (d) 212 Q28.
Ans: (c) Moving clockwise, the terms are :
5 × 2 + 2 = 12
12 × 2 + 2 = 26
26 × 2 + 2 = 54
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Q31.
Q29.
(a) 30 (b) 11
(c) 0 (d) 1
Ans: (c) 3 × 4 × 2 = 24
2 × –2 × –1 = 4
6×0×5=0
Q33.
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 90 (d) 48
(a) 9 (b) 40
Ans: (c) 1 × 3 × 4 × 5 = 60
(c) 7 (d) 36
6 × 7 × 1 × 2 = 84
Ans: (b) The pattern is
therefore, 3 × 10 × 3 × 1 = 90
(18 + 17) + (9 – 6) = 38
(11 + 11) + (19 – 9) = 32
Q34.
(15 + 6) + (26 – 3) = 44
(12 + 8) + (39 –19) = 40
Q30.
Q36.
(a) 58 (b) 45
(c) 54 (d) 42
(a) 24 (b) 12
(c) 18 (d) 19
Ans: (d) 3 + 4 + 3 = 10, 4 + 6 + 4 = 14
8 + 6 + 6 = 20, 8 + 3 +8 = 19
Ans: (c)
Q37.
Q41.
(a) 20 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 21
Ans: (b) 225 = (15) 2 (8 + 7) 2
49 = (7) 2 (3 + 4) 2 (a) 60 (b) 65
121 = (11) 2 (6 + 5) 2 (c) 68 (d) 55
So missing number is 5.
Q38.
Ans: (b)
(a) 45 (b) 80
(c) 30 (d) 32 Q42. Select the missing number from the given
Ans: (a) 4-, 4×2 = 8, 8×2 = 16, 16×2 = 32 responses:
5-, 5×3 = 15, 15×3 = 45, 45×3 = 135
6-, 6×4 = 24, 24×4 = 96, 96×4 = 384
Q39.
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(a) 8 (b) 31 (a) 75 (b) 45
(c) 32 (d) 36 (c) 20 (d) 30
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 22 (d) 33
Ans: (c) = 198, 198 ÷ 3 = 66, 66 ÷ 3 = 22
(a) 35 (b) 42
(c) 45 (d) 95
(a) 43 (b) 49 Ans: (a) The pattern is :
(c) 59 (d) 71 As,
Ans: (d) As, 3 × 10 × 6 + 6 = 186
3 × 1 × 5 × 2 + 1 = 31 and 9 × 5 × 3 + 3 = 138
4 × 6 × 3 × 2 + 1 = 145 Similarly, 2 × 7 × 5 × 1 + 1 = 71 5 × 7 × 1 + 1 = 36 Similarly, 3 × 2 × 5 + 5 = 35.
Q50. In the following question, select the number Q53. In the following question, select the missing
which can be placed the sign of question mark (?) number from the given series.
from the given alternatives.
(a) 37 (b) 47
(c) 48 (d) 25
(a) 14 (b) 15 Ans: (b)
(c) 16 (d) 18 √ √ √
Ans: (b) Here,
√ √ √
7 × 2 × 8 + 3 = 115
So, Answer is 47.
6 × 5 × 9 + 3 = 273
∴3 × 1 × 4 + 3 = 15
Q54. In the following question, select the number
So, answer is 15.
which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?)
from the given alternatives.
Q51. In the following question, select the number
which can be at the sign of question mark (?) from the
given alternatives.
(a) 38 (b) 40
(c) 42 (d) 44
Ans: (d) The pattern is as follows :
(a) 53 (b) 56
(7 × 6) + (6 × 5) = 42 + 30 = 72
(c) 59 (d) 66
(3 × 11) + (11 × 1) = 33 + 11 = 44
Ans: (b) The pattern is :
(2 × 5) + (5 × 8) = 10 + 40 = 50
1512 ÷ 3 = 504
504 ÷ 3 = 168
Q55. In the following question, select the number
168 ÷ 3 = 56.
which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?)
So, answer is 56.
from the given alternatives.
Q52. In the fol lowing question, select the number
which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?)
from the given alternatives.
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11 + 12 = 23 and 11 × 12 = 132
Venn Diagram
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12
Ans: (c) The pattern is as follows : Q1. Find out which of the diagrams given in the
(1 + 8 + 9 + 4) = 22 alternatives correctly represents the relationship
(7 + 6 + 2 + 7) = 22 stated in the question.
(2 + 4 + 5 + ?) = 22 Sharks, Whales, Turtles
? + 11 = 22
? = 22 – 11 = 11
Q56. In the following question, select the letter which (a) (b)
can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from
the given alternatives.
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
Q57.
(a) (b)
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8 (c) (d)
Ans: (a) According to question, Ans: (c)
As,
(5 + 7 + 6) × 2 = 36 Q3. Which number space indicated Indian teachers
(9 + 11 + 8) × 2 = 56 Similarly, (10 + ? + 17) × 2 = 64 who are also advocates?
(10 + ? + 17) 64/2 = 32
27 + ? = 32
? = 32 – 27 = 5
Q58.
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
numbered 1 to 11. Who among the following is neither Q15. The diagram represents Teachers, Singers and
a dancer nor a musician but is professional and not a Players. Study the diagram and find out how many
European? teachers are also singers.
(a) 11 (b) 1
(c) 10 (d) 8
(a) 4 (b) 5
Ans: (c) The required region should be prese nt only in
(c) 9 (d) 13
circle. Such region is marked ‗10‘.
Ans: (c)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (a)
(a) 14 (b) 9
(c) 6 (d) 19
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Q22.
(a) 40 (b) 41
(c) 42 (d) 43
Ans: (c)
(a) (b) Q24. Identify the diagram that best represents the
relationship among classes given below:
Universe,Stars,Sun
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
Q21.
(a) (b)
Which number indicates doctors who are not married (c) (d)
? Ans: (b)
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1 Q25. Identify the diagram that best represents the
Ans: (d) relationship among classes given below
Delhi, Sri Lanka, Asia
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (b) (a) 53 (b) 61
(c) 42 (d) 45
Q26. If the number indicates the number of persons,
Ans: (c)
then how many youth graduates are there ?
Q30. Identify the diagram that best represents the
relationship among the given classes.
Earth, Saturn, Planet, Star
(a) (b)
(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 50
Ans: (a)
(c) (d)
Q27. In the given figure, how many pens are blue? Ans: (c)
(a) (b)
(a) 23 (b) 19
(c) 12 (d) 15
Ans: (a) (c) (d)
Ans: (b)
Q28. In the given figure, how many people study 2
subjects? Q32. In the given figure, which letter represents
carnivorous plants which are not green?
Q34. In the given figure, How many water are either Q2. A group of friends are sitting in an arrangement
tap or shower? one each at the corner of an octagon. All are facing
the centre. Mahima is sitting diagonally opposite
Rama, who is on Sushma's right. Ravi is next to
Sushma and opposite Girdhar, who is on Chandra's
left. Savitri is not on mahima's right but opposite
Shalini. Who is on Shalini's right?
(a) Ravi (b) Mahima
(c) Girdhar (d) Rama
Ans: (a) Ravi is to the right of Shalini.
Ans: (d)
So, C is facing towards East.
Bus O is in the middle of the five. Q11. Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are
standing in a straight line.
Q6. Five coaches P, L, R, M, O are in a row. R is to D is to the right of G.
the right of M and left of P. L is to the right of P and C is between A and B.
left of O. Which coach is in the middle? E is between F and D.
(a) P (b) L There are three persons between G and B. Who is on
(c) R (d) O the extreme left?
(a) A (b) B
Ans: (a)
(c) D (d) G
Hence, P coach is in the middle of the five coaches.
Ans: (d) Standing Arrangement:
Ans: (c)
So, Conclusion - I and either II or III follow. Case I : False
Case II : True
Q4. Statements :
1.Temple is a place of worship. Q7. Statement :
2.Church is also a place of worship. To keep myself updated, I always listen to 9 O‘clock
Conclusions : news on radio.
I.Hindus and Christians use the same place for Conclusions:
worship. I.The persons does not read newspaper.
II.All churches are temples. II.Recent news is available only on radio.
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (a) Only conclusion I is implicit
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows (b) Only conclusion II is implicit
(c) Only conclusion I follows (d) Only conclusion II (c) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit
follows (d) Both conclusions I and II are implicit
Ans: (a) Temple and Church are places of worship. It Ans: (c) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
does not imply that Hindus and Christians use the same The person always list ens to 9 O‘clock news on radio to
place for worship. Church is different temple. Therefore, keep himself updated. This does not imply that he does
neither Conclusion I nor II follows. not read newspaper. The use of term ‗only‘ in the
Conclusion II makes it unsuitable.
Q5. Statement :
The human organism grows and develops through Q8. Statements :
stimulation and action. (a) Due to contamination of water, large number of
Conclusions : people were admitted to hospital.
I.Inert human organism cannot grow and develop. (b) The symptoms were of Typhoid.
II.Human organisms do not react to stimulation and Conclusions :
action. I.Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.
(a) Neither concl usion I nor II follows II.Typhoid is a contagious disease.
(b) Both conclusion I nor II follows (a) Only conclusion I is true (b) Only conclusion II is
(c) Only conclusion I follows (d) Only conclusion II true
follows (c) Both conclusions I and II are true
Ans: (a) Growth and development of human organism is (d) Both conclusions I and II are false
a continuous process. Some changes take place in human Ans: (a)
body now and then. Theref ore, neither Conclusion I nor
II follows. DIRECTIONS: Two statements are given followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
Q6. Statement: statements to be true even if they seem to be at
I. All teachers are aged. variance from commonly known facts. You have to
II.Some women are teachers. decide whic h of the given conclusions, if any, follow
Conclusion: from the given statements.
I. All aged are women
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions one DIRECTIONS: In questions one/two statement (s) are
statement is given followed by two conclusions. Y ou given, followed by two/three conclusions I, II and III.
have to consider the statement to be true even if it You have to consider th e statement (s) to be true even
seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. if they seem, to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given
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conclusions, if any, follow from the given statement (s) DIRECTIONS: In question two/four statements are
given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and
IV. You have to consider the statements to be true
Q15. Statements : even it they seem to be at variance from commonly
I.Some cats are dogs. known facts. You have to decide which of the given
II.No dog is a toy. conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Conclusions :
I.Some dogs are cats. Q18. Statement: (I) All cities are towns.
II.Some toys are cats. (II) Some cities are villages.
III.Some cats are not toys. Conclusions: (I) All villages are towns
IV:All toys are cats. (II) No village is a town
(a) Only Conclusions I and III follow (III) Some villages are towns.
(b) Only Conclusions II and III follow (a) Only conclusion (III) follows
(c) Only Conclusions I and II follow (b) Only conclusion (I) follows
(d) Only Conclusion I follows (c) Only conclusion (II) follows
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
OR
Ans: (a)
Conclusion III follows.
Q19. Statements:
I. All apples are bananas.
Conclusion II can follow, but it has not been given in
II.All bananas are sweet.
options. Hence only conclusions I and III follow.
Conclusions:
I.Some apples are sweet.
Q16. Statement :
II.Some bananas are apples.
To be happy in life, you should solve your problems
(a) Conclusion I follows. (b) Conclusion II follows.
than try to avoid them.
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
Conclusion :
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow.
I.Life will be dull if you don't have problems.
II.To avoid problems you should have solutions ready.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II
follows
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follows
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Conclusions :
Q17. Statement: Sun is the source of light. I.Some apples are sweet. (True)
Conclusions: (I) Moon is not the source of light. II.Some bananas are apples. (True)
(II) Light has only one source. So, both I and II follow.
(a) Only conclusion (I) follows
(b) Only conclusion (II) follows Q20. Statement:
(c) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow Sick people need medicine
(d) Neither conclusions (I) nor (II) follows Conclusions:
Ans: (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. Sun is the I.Healthy people do not need medicine
source of light . It does not imply that light has only one II.People keep medicine in their home.
source. (a) Only conclu sion II follows
(b) Both conclusions I and II follow
Q21. Statement:
1.Some years are decades. Ans: (b)
2.All centuries are decades. By looking at above venn diagram, we can concluded
Conclusions: that only conclusions II follow.
I.Some centuries are years.
II.Some decades are years. DIRECTIONS: In the questions, Three statements are
III.No century is a year. given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III, & IV.
(a) Only conclusion I and III follow You have to consider the three statements to be true
(b) Only conclusion I follows even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
(c) Only conclusion II follows known facts. You have to decide which of t he given
(d) Only conclusion I and II follow conclusions if any follow from the given statements.
Ans: (c) First Premise is Particular Affirmative
(I-type) . Q23. Statements :
Some ladies are beautiful.
Some beautifuls are honest.
All honest are sensitives.
Conclusion 1: Some sensitives are beautifuls.
Conclusion 2: Some honest are ladies.
Conclusion 3: Some sensitives are ladies.
(a) None of the Conclusion follows.
(b) Only Conclusion 1 follows.
(c) Only Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
(d) All Conclusions follow.
Conclusions I - False
Conclusions II - True
Conclusions III - False
Conclusions I and III form Complem entary Pair.
Therefore, either I or III follows. but according to given Ans: (b)
option only conclusion - II follows.
Q24. Statements :
Q22. Statements: 1.All clerks are superintendents.
I.Some towers are windows. 2.All superintendents are managers.
II.All windows are houses. 3.All managers are supervisors.
III.Some houses are temples. Conclusions :
Conclusions: I.All supervisors are clerks.
I.Some towers are temples. II.Some clerks are supervisors.
Ans: (c)
So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(c) (d)
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
DIRECTIONS: From the given answer f igures, select
So, all conclusions are follow.
the one in which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.
Completion & Embedded
Q3. Question Figure:
Figures
Ans: (c)
Answer Figures
Ans: (d)
Answer Figures :
Answer figures :
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Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
DIRECTIONS: Which answer figure completes the
Q6. Question Figure pattern given in the question figure?
Answer Figures
Answer Figures
Ans: (d)
Q7. From the given answer figures, select the one in Q10. Question Figure :
which the question figure is hidden/embedded
Question Figure
Answer Figures :
Answer Figures
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
DIRECTIONS: In question nos. 27 and 28, which
Q8. Question Figure answer figure will complete the pattern in the
question figure?
Answer Figure
Answer Figures :
Answer Figures:
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
DIRECTIONS: Which answer figure w ill complete
Q12. Question figure
the pattern in the question figure?
Answer Figures.
Ans: (b)
Answer figures :
Answer Figures
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q17. From the given answer figures, select the figure
Q14. Which one of the answer figures shall complete which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.
the given question figure ? Question figure :
Question Figure:
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Answer figures :
Ans: (a)
Answer figures :
Answer Figure:
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Answer Figures:
Answer Figures:
Ans: (b)
Answer Figures :
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Q6. Question Figure :
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 18
Ans: (d)
Q3. How many triangles are there in the figure Answer Figures :
ABCDEF?
Ans: (a)
(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 28 (d) 30 Q7. Identify th e response figure from which the
Ans: (c) question figure‘s pieces have been cut.
Question figure
DIRECTIONS: : Among the four answer figures,
which figure can be formed from the cut -pieces given
below in the question figure?
(a) 24 (b) 26
Ans: (d)
(c) 28 (d) 20
Ans: (c)
Q8. There is a ball and a rectangular jar. Four
positions are shown below to keep them balanced.
Q5. Question Figure :
Which of the following will not get balanced easily?
Question figures:
Answer Figures :
Answer figures:
Answer Figures.
Answer figure:
Ans: (b)
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
Ans: (d)
(a) 10 (b) 12
Q14. Among the for answer figures, which figure can
(c) 14 (d) 11
be formed from t he cut - pieces given below in the
Ans: (c)
question figure ?
Question figure :
Q11. Find out which of the answer figures will exactly
make up the question figure?
Question Figure:
Answer figures :
Answer Figures:
Ans: (d)
Answer figures :
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(a) 32
(c) 37
(b) 34
(d) 40
Ans: (c)
(a) 48 (b) 60
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 56 (d) 52
(c) 4 (d) 5
Ans: (c)
Ans: (a)
Q17. Find the number of triangles in the following
Q21. How many triangles are there in the gi ven figure
figure :
?
(a) 8 (b) 14
(c) 10 (d) 12 (a) 24 (b) 26
Ans: (b) (c) 28 (d) 30
Ans: (b)
Q18. How many triangles are there in the given
figure?
(a) 20 (b) 22
Paper Cutting And
(c) 28 Folding
Answer Figures :
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Answer figures:
Q3. A square sheet of paper has been folded and
punched as shown below in the question figures. You
have to figure out from amongst the four answer
figures, how it will appear when opened?
Question Figures :
Ans: (d)
Answer figures
Ans: (c)
Answer Figures
Answer figures :
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
Q8. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown
below in the question figures. From the given answer Q11. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. below in the question figures. From the giv en answer
Question Figures : figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question figures :
Answer Figures.
Answer figures :
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q9. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below
in the question figures. From the given answer
Q12. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
below in the question figures. From the given answer
Question figure:
figures indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question figure :
Answer figures:
Answer figures :
(a) (b)
Ans: (b)
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (d)
Answer Figures:
(a) (b)
Ans: (b)
Ans: (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
Answer Figures:
Answer figures
Ans: (c)
Ans: (b)
Answer Figures : Q8. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which
of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure ?
Question Figure :
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Answer Figures :
Q9. If a mirror is plac ed on the line MN, then which
of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure ?
Question Figure :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
Q7. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which Answer Figures :
of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure ?
Question Figure :
Ans: (c)
Answer Figure:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (b)
(a) (b) Q14. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which
of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure?
(c) (d)
Ans: (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (a)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (d)
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (b)
(a) (b)
Q20. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which
of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure?
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
Answer Figure :
(a) (b)
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 3
Ans: (b) Ans: (b) When folded in the form of a cube, then 'F'
appears opposite 'B', 'E' appears opposite 'C' and 'A'
Q2. Four different positions of dice are as shown appears opposite ‗D‘.
below. What number is opposite to face 3 ? In option (a) 'F' is adjacent to 'B'
In option (c) 'E' is adjacent to ‗C‘.
In option (d) 'E' is adjacent to ‗A‘.
Q3. Three views of the same cube are given. All the
faces of the cube are numbered from 1 to 6. Select one (a) 4 (b) 1
figure which will result when the cube is unfolded. (c) 5 (d) 6
Question Figure : Ans: (d) The numbers 1, 2, 5 and 6 are on the adjacent
faces of number 3. Therefore. the number 4 lies opposite
3.
The numbers 3, 4 and 6 can not be on the faces opposite
to 1. Therefore, 5 lies opposite 1.
Now, 2 lies opposite 6.
Answer Figures :
Q6. Two positions of a dice are shown below. If 1 is at
the bottom, which number will be on top?
Ans: (a) If we fold the option (b) the number 2 will lie (a) 4 (b) 3
opposite 5. (c) 8 (d) 5
If we fold the option (c) the number 1 will lie opposite 3. Ans: (b) By looking, the dice position, we can say that 2,
If we fold the option (d) the number 2 will lie opposite 5. 4, 5 and 6 are adjacent faces of 3. therefore, if 1 number
Therefore, answer figure (d) is correct. is at the bottom then 3 will be on the top.
Q9. Four positions of a dice are given below, Identify Answer Figures :
the number at the bottom then top is 6.
Question Figures :
(a) VI (b) IV
(c) II (d) V
(a) (b) Ans: (a) Therefore, the number II, IV, III and V are on
the adjacent faces of number I.
Therefore, the number IV liles opposite I.
(a) 6 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 2
Ans: (b) The numbers 2, 3, 4 and 6 are on the adjacent
(a) Violet (b) Red faces of the number 1.
(c) Yellow (d) Blue So, the number 5 lies opposite 1.
Ans: (c) Purple → Red, Blue, Yellow, Green, Orange
Green, Orange, Red, Blue are adjacent to purple Q20. Three positions of a cube are shown below. What
will come opposite to face containing 'Q'?
Q16. The following figure is folded to form a block.
Which symbol will appear on the opposite of ?
(a) P (b) R
(c) S (d) Z
Ans: (c) The letters P, X , R and Z are on the adjacent
(a) (b) faces of the letter Q. So, the letter S lies opposite Q.
(c) (d)
Ans: (c)
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adopted from which Constitution? Indian Constitution has adopted the concept of
(a) U.S. Constitution ―Directive Principles of State Policy‖?
(b) British Constitution (a) Ireland (b) U.S.A.
(c) Irish Constitution (c) Canada
(d) French Constitution (d) Australiads, tanks and wells
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q58. Which of the following is not guaranteed by Q65. Who among the following pr esides over the Lok
Indian Constitution? Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of
(a) Right to Equality the Lok Sabha ?
(b) Right of religious freedom (a) A member appointed by the President.
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies (b) A member nominated by the members of the
(d) Right to free education for all parliament present in the House.
Ans: (d) (c) A person from the panel formed by the Speake r of the
Q59. The term ‗Fraternity‘ in the Preamble of the Lok Sabha
Indian Constitution means a sense of (d) A senior most member of the House.
(a) friendliness Ans: (c)
(b) statehood Q66. What is the maximum time interval permitted
(c) love and affection between two sessions of Parliament ?
(d) brotherhood (a) 4 months (b) 6 months
Ans: (d) (c) 8 months (d) 9 months
Q60. In Indian Republic, the real executive authority Ans: (b)
rests with the : Q67. The President‘s Rule is imposed on a State in
(a) Prime Minister India, when
(b) President (a) The State Cabinet of Ministers resigns
(c) Bureaucrats (b) The Governor of the State dies
(d) Council of Ministers (c) The elections are announced
Ans: (d) (d) There is a Constitutional breakdown
Q61. What is the period within which a proclamation Ans: (d)
of national emergency made by the President is to be Q68. The authority to prorogue the two Houses of the
placed before each house of the Parliament for Parliament rests with the
approval? (a) President
(a) within one month (b) Vice-President
(b) within two months (c) Prime Minister
(c) within four months (d) Speaker
(d) within six months Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q69. The maximum number of members of Lok
Q62. Who among the following decides if a particular Sabha and Rajya Sabha has been fixed by the
Bill is a Money Bill or not? Constitution of India respectively as
(a) President (a) 500 and 250
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) 525 and 270
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) 537 and 275
(d) Finance Minister (d) 545 and 250
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q63. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Q70. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and
Sabha in the case of — totally assigned to the Central Government by the
(a) Money Bills Constitution ?
(b) Non-money bills (a) Estate Duty
(c) Setting up of new All-India Services (b) Sales Tax
(d) Amendment of the Constitution (c) Taxes on Railway Fares and Freights
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Ans: (d)
Q78. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ?
(a) Finance Minister
Q71. The Electoral College that elects the President of (b) President
India consists of (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Elected members of all the State Legislatures (d) Prime Minister
(b) Members of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies Ans: (c)
(c) Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Q79. The ‗Speaker‘s vote‘ in the Lok Sabha is called
State Assemblies (a) casting vote (b) sound vote
(d) Elected members of the Rajy a Sabha and State (c) direct vote (d) indirect vote
Legislatures Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q80. How many times the President of India can seek
Q72. Which organ is the custodian of the National re-election to his post ?
Purse ? (a) Once
(a) Executive (b) Judiciary (b) 2 times
(c) Legislature (d) Civil Servants (c) 3 times
Ans: (c) (d) Any number of times
Q73. Which of the following is not a tool of legislative Ans: (d)
control over administration in India? Q81. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of
(a) Dissolution of House India?
(b) Resolutions (a) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(c) Questions (b) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(d) No Confidence Motion (c) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the
Ans: (a) Lok Sabha
Q74. The President of India is elected by (d) Five years
(a) members of both houses of Parliament Ans: (c)
(b) members of both houses of Parliament and of State Q82. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises
legislatures the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of
(c) me mbers of both houses of Parliament and of State India is
legislative assemblies (a) Estimates Committee
(d) elected members of both houses of Parliament and (b) Select Committee
elected members of State legislative assemblies (c) Public Accounts Committee
Ans: (d) (d) None of these
Q75. In our Constitution, Economic Planning is Ans: (c)
included in Q83. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force
(a) Union list (a) For three months
(b) State list (b) For six months
(c) Concurrent list (c) For nine months
(d) Not any specified list (d) Indefinitely
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q76. How many readings does a nonmoney bill have Q84. The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in
in each House of the Parliament? an Indian State has to be approved by the Parliament
(a) Two (b) Three within a period of
(c) Four (d) One (a) 2 months (b) 4 months
Ans: (b) (c) 6 months (d) 12 months
Q77. The interval between two sessions of either Ans: (a)
House of Parliament should not exceed Q85. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha
(a) three months extended upto 6 years ?
(b) six months (a) Once (b) Twice
(c) nine months (c) Thrice (d) Never
(d) twelve months Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
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Q86. For the election of President of India, a citizen
should have completed the age of
(b) After each general election to the House of the People
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 35 years (d) 18 years Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q94. Under which of the following situations can
Q87. Indian Parliament Means Rajya Sabha be dissolved?
(a) Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha (a) When financial emergency is declared in the country.
(b) Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha - (b) When emergency is declared due to failure of
Prime Minister Constitutional machinery.
(c) President of India - Rajya Sabha - Lok Sabha (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) President of India - Vice- (d) None of these
President of India - Lok Sabha - Rajya Sabha Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q95. What is the correct order of succession
Q88. The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in (earlier to later)among the following Presidents of India?
the Union List only in consultation with the State a. Dr. Zakir Hussain
Government for the State of : b. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(a) Assam c. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(b) Rajasthan d. V.V. Giri
(c) Jammu & Kashmir (a) a-c-d-a (b) c-b-d-a
(d) Kerala (c) d-a-b-c (d) b-a-d-c
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q89. The president of I ndia can nominate how many Q96. When the Vice -President officiates as President
members from the Anglo -Indian community to the of India, he draws the salary of
Lok Sabha? (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) Two (b) Five (b) President
(c) Ten (d) Twelve (c) Member of Parliament
Ans: (a) (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q90. Rajya Sabha being a permanent house Ans: (b)
(a) one-third of its members retire every two years Q97. The power to create or abolish the Upper House
(b) one-half of its members retire every three years of the State Legislature belongs to the
(c) one-fifth of its members retire every year (a) Governor
(d) one-sixth of its members retire every year (b) Parliament
Ans: (a) (c) High Court
Q91. Which item out of the following is contained in (d) State Legislature
the concurrent list? Ans: (b)
(a) Trade Unions Q98. The committee on subordinate legislation deals
(b) Agriculture with
(c) Tolls (a) Delegated legislation
(d) Markets and Fairs (b) Financial legislation
Ans: (a) (c) Municipal legislation
Q92. The Vice -President of India can be removed by (d) State legislation
the Ans: (a)
(a) President on the advice of Council of Ministers Q99. Delimitation of the Lok Sabha constituencies
(b) Lok Sabha with the consent of the President was last done in the year
(c) Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha (a) 1970 (b) 1973
(d) Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of the President (c) 1976 (d) 1977
Ans: (c) Ans: (*)
Q93. The president of India addresses both Houses of Q100. Who nominates persons for various
Parliament assembled together at the commencement parliamentary delegation to foreign countries?
of the first session (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) of each year (b) The Prime Minister
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(c) The President
(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
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(a) 1954 (8) 1964
(c) 1974 (d) 1984
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q101. The President of the India is : Q109. Zero hour is at the discretion of
(a) The head of the ‗State‘ (a) Prime Minister
(b) The head of the Government (b) Speaker
(c) The head of the State as well as Government (c) Opposition leader
(d) None of these (d) President
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q102. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Q110. Which of the following motion is related with
Sabha ? the Union Budget?
(a) Three years (b) Four years (a) Adjournment
(c) Five years (d) Six years (b) Censure
Ans: (d) (c) Cut
Q103. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or (d) None of the above
not ? Ans: (c)
(a) President Q111. Which one of the following committees is NOT
(b) Prime Minister a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(c) Finance Minister (a) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Estimates Committee
Ans: (d) (c) Committee on Public Undertakings
Q104. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for (d) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance
the post of the President of India ? Ans: (d)
(a) 58 years Q112. In which of the following list docs the subject
(b) 60 years ‗planning‘ figure ?
(c) 62 years (a) State List
(d) There is no maximum age limit (b) Concurrent List
Ans: (d) (c) Residuary List
Q105. What should be the gap between first No - (d) Union List
Confidence motion and second No-confidence motion Ans: (b)
? Q113. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (a) all the members of Parliament
(c) 6 months (d) 9 months (b) the people directly
Ans: (c) (c) all the members of Lok Sabha
Q106. In which of the Parliamentary Financial (d) the members of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
Committees is the Rajya Sabha not represented ? Ans: (a)
(a) Public Accounts Committee Q114. Who appoints Secretary General of the Lok
(b) Estimates Committee Sabha ?
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings (a) Deputy Speaker
(d) Expenditure Committee (b) Speaker
Ans: (b) (c) President
Q107. One of the important attributes of (d) Leader of Ruling Party
Parliamentary form of government is Ans: (b)
(a) Fixed tenure for the executive Q115. Which one of the following is not an All India
(b) Executive is answerable to the people Service ?
(c) Executive is separate from the legislature (a) Indian Foreign Service
(d) Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to (b) Indian Forest Service
the Parliament (c) Indian Administrative Service
Ans: (d) (d) Indian Police Service
Q108. In which year was the ―House of the People‖ Ans: (a)
named as ―Lok Sabha‖ ?
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Q116. Who of the following enjoys the rank of
Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet ? Q125. The name of the upper house of the Indian
Ans: (b)
(c) Procedure established by Law the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not correct ?
(d) Precedents and Conventions (a) He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts.
Ans: (c) (b) The CJI administers the oath of office to the President
Q190. The Supreme Court is empowered to settle (c) When both the offic es of the President and Vice -
election disputes of President and Vice- President fall vacant simultaneously, the CJI discharges
President. This is its the duties of the President.
(a) Original Jurisdiction (d) The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction years.
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction Ans: (a)
(d) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction Q198. How many judges are there in Supreme Court
Ans: (a) ?
Q191. Of the following, who held the offices of Judge (a) 25 (b) 26
of the Supreme Court and the Speaker of the Lok (c) 30 (d) 31
Sabha Ans: (d)
(a) M. Hidayatullah Q199. What is ordinary Law ?
(b) K.S. Hegde (a) Laws made by the High Court
(c) Subba Rao (b) Laws made by the Supreme Court
(d) P.N. Bhagwati (c) Laws made and enforced by the Government
Ans: (b) (d) Laws made by the common people.
Q192. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of Ans: (c)
the President be referred ? Q200. Which one of the following is related to
(a) Chief Election Commissioner Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(b) Parliament (a) Speaker of the Parliament seeking opinion from the
(c) Supreme Court of India Supreme Court
(d) None of these (b) Election Commission seeking opinion from the
Ans: (c) Supreme Court
Q193. The Supreme Court of India acts as a Federal (c) States seeking opinion from the Supereme Court
Court when it deals with (d) President of India seeks opinion on law or facts
(a) Civil cases Ans: (d)
(b) Inter-State disputes Q201. Subordinate courts are supervised by _______
(c) Appeals from lower courts (a) Supreme Court
(d) Election petitions (b) District Court
Ans: (b) (c) High Court
Q194. Who interprets the Constitution? (d) Parliament
(a) Legislature (b) Executive Ans: (c)
(c) Judiciary (d) President Q202. Which of the following is not an administrative
Ans: (c) function of a Village Panchayat ?
Q195. The Pension of a High Court Judge is charged (a) Providing sanitation and drainage
on the (b) Providing burial and cremation grounds
(a) Public Accounts of India (c) Providing college education
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State (d) Maintenance of roa
(c) Public Accounts of the State Ans: (c)
(d) Consolidated Fund of India Q203. Which of the following Indian States first
Ans: (b) adopted the 3-tier Panchayati Raj system ?
Q196. Supreme Court is the guardian for (a) Bihar
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Directive Principles (c) Rajasthan
(c) Preamble (d) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Centre and State disputes Ans: (c)
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Q204. When was the Panchayati Raj System Q212. Of the va rious grounds below, which is the one
criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not
(a) 1950 A.D. (b) 1945 A.D. prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution ?
(c) 1947 A.D. (d) 1962 A.D. (a) Place of birth (b) Race
Ans: (*) (c) Language (d) Caste
Q205. The Panchayat Raj system in India was Ans: (c)
introduced under the direction of w hich article of the Q213. Which article of the Indian Constitution
constitution ? provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj ?
(a) 32 (b) 40 (a) Article. 36 (b) Article. 39
(c) 45 (d) 51 (c) Article 40 (d) Article. 48
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q206. Panchayati Raj System was implemented first Q214. The articles 17 and 18 of constitution provide
in the pair of states (a) social equality
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan (b) economic equality
(b) Assam and Bihar (c) political equality
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh (d) religious equality
(d) Punjab and Chandigarh Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q215. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution upholds
Q207. The ―Recall Provision‖ to remove the elected (a) land reforms legislation in India
office bearers from the local Self Government (b) diplomatic privileges and immunities
institution has been executed in : (c) special status of Jammu and Kashmir State
(a) Bihar (d) duties and rights of Lokpal
(b) Kerala Ans: (c)
(c) Haryana Q216. By which Amendment were ‗Fundamental
(d) Madhya Pradesh Duties‘ added to the Constitution ?
Ans: (d) (a) 40th Amendment
Q208. The following article of the Indian Con stitution (b) 42nd Amendment
abolished the practice of untouchability. (c) 44th Amendment
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 18 (d) 45th Amendment
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 19 Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Q217. In the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of
Q209. Where is the objective of ―social justice‖ India, which languages were added subsequently ?
articulated in the Constitution of India ? (a) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 (b) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
(c) Article 16 (d) Preamble (c) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
Ans: (d) (d) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali
Q210. Which among the following Articles of the Ans: (c)
Indian Constitution provides for State emergency and Q218. A proceeding under Article 226 in case of
suspends constitutional arrangement in a State ? detention of a person is a
(a) Article-352 (b) Article-356 (a) Civil proceeding
(c) Article-389 (d) Article-392 (b) Criminal proceeding
Ans: (b) (c) Judicial proceeding
Q211. What provision in the Constitution enabled the (d) Statutory proceeding
Central Government to impose the service tax and to Ans: (b)
expand its span ? Q219. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd
(a) List I, Schedule VII Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution are
(b) List III, Schedule VII (a) Secular, Democratic
(c) Residuary Powers under Article 248 (b) Sovereign, Democratic
(d) Emergency Powers (c) Socialist, Secular
Ans: (c) (d) Secular, Republic
Ans: (c)
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Q220. By which constitutional amendment political Q229. Which Article of the Const itution deals with
fundamental duties ?
(a) The Fiftieth amendment of 1984 (a) Aritcle 30 A
(b) The Fifty-third amendment of 1986 (b) Aritcle 50
(c) The Fifty-fourth amendment of 1986 (c) Aritcle 51 A
(d) The Fifty-second amendment of 1985 (d) Aritcle 25
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q221. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did Q230. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 provides free legal aid and equal justice?
years? (a) 30 (b) 25
(a) 42nd (b) 44th (c) 39-A (d) 33-B
(c) 61st (d) 73rd Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q231. Under which of the following amendment,
Q222. By which Constitution Amendment Act, Right education was made a fundamental right?
to Property ceased to remain a fundamental right? (a) 83rd amendment in 2003
(a) 44th (b) 42nd (b) 83rd amendment in 2002
(c) 43rd (d) 45th (c) 86rd amendment in 2002
Ans: (a) (d) 87rd amendment in 2003
Q223. Which one of the following languages is not Ans: (c)
specified in the Eighth schedule of the Indian Q232. Article 324 –329 of the Indian Constitution
Constitution ? deals with which of the following?
(a) Urdu (b) English (a) Tribunals (b) Elections
(c) Sindhi (d) Sanskrit (c) Cast System
Ans: (b) (d) Panchayti system
Q224. Which Article empowers the President to Ans: (b)
impose Financial Emergency ? Q233. In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976,
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 364 which word was added to the Preamble?
(c) Article 352 (d) Article 360 (a) Democratic (b) Equality
Ans: (d) (c) Secular (d) Socialist
Q225. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares Ans: (*)
India to be a Q234. The word ―Secular‖ was added to the Preamble
(a) Union of States of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional
(b) Federal State Amendment?
(c) Quasi-Federal State (a) 41st Constitutional Amendment
(d) Unitary State (b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Ans: (a) (c) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
Q226. Which Article of the Constitution enjoins the (d) 44th Constitutional Amendment
State to eastablish Village Panchayat? Ans: (b)
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 40 Q235. Governance through trade union organisations
(c) Article 44 (d) Article 57 is known as :
Ans: (b) (a) Guild Socialism
Q227. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals (b) Fabian Socialism
withe Election Commission ? (c) Syndicalism
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (d) Liberalism
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 324 Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) Q236. The concept of political sovereignty was
Q228. Which Article of the Constitution deals with advocated by
removal/ dismissal of a Civil Servant? (a) Plato (b) John Locke
(a) Article 25 (b) Article 256 (c) Rousseau (d) Austin
(c) Article 311 (d) Article 377 Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
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Q237. Which of the following is the biggest head of
non-plan expenditure of Government of India ?
(d) Political Parties
Ans: (c)
(a) Interest payments Q246. The term ―Fourth Estate‖ is used for
(b) Subsidies (a) The Press and Newspaper
(c) Defence (b) Parliament
(d) Salaries and Wages (c) Judiciary
Ans: (a) (d) The Executive
Q238. How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Ans: (a)
Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India ? Q247. ―From each according to his capacity, to each
(a) 16 (b) 20 according to his needs‖ is the principle of
(c) 24 (d) 32 (a) Democracy (b) Fascism
Ans: (c) (c) Communism (d) Dictatorship
Q239. Who was the First Speaker of Independent Ans: (c)
India‘s Lok Sabha? Q248. The Creamy Layer, concept refers to
(a) Hukam Singh (a) the grouping based on social status
(b) Bali Ram Bhagat (b) the grouping based on castes
(c) Rabi Ray (c) the grouping based on economic status
(d) G.V. Mavalankar (d) the grouping based on milk consumption
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q240. Name the President of India who was elected Q249. Out of the follo wing, which political party has
unopposed not been recognised as a National Political Party?
(a) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (a) Indian National Congress
(b) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (c) Bahujan Samaj Party
(d) Dr. Zakir Husain (d) Trinamul Congress
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q241. Which is the national flower of India? Q250. The National Integration Council
(a) Rose (b) Lotus (NIC) is chaired by the :
(c) Lily (d) Sunflower (a) Prime Minister
Ans: (b) (b) Finance Minister
Q242. The English Crown is an example of (c) Home Minister
(a) Real executive (d) President of India
(b) Quasi-real executive Ans: (a)
(c) Nominal executive Q251. Which of the following is the correct
(d) Nominated executive chronological order of the Prime Ministers in India ?
Ans: (c) I. Indira Gandhi
Q243. Despotism is possible in a II. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(a) One party state III. Morarji Desai
(b) Two party state IV. Charan Singh
(c) Multi Party state (a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, I, IV
(d) Two and multi party state (c) II, I, III, IV (d) III, II, IV, I
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q244. Who said that ―Oh Disrespectable democracy I Q252. The idea of Lokpal is taken from
love you ‖ ? (a) Britain
(a) G.B. Shaw (b) Carpenter (b) America
(c) Lord Bryce (d) Appa Dorai (c) Scandinavian Countries
Ans: (a) (d) France
Q245. Fourth Estate is referred to Ans: (c)
(a) Public Opinion Q253. Who founded the Republican Party of India ?
(b) Chamber of Commerce (a) Namboo Dripad
(c) The Newspaper (b) Mulji Vaishya
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(c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
(d) Sripad Dange
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(a) State enhances the ideal of individualism
(b) Nation state is unquestionably sovereign
Ans: (c) (c) State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of
Q254. Who was the first to use the term ‗State‘? few.
(a) Hobbes (b) Plato (d) State is under the control of a king
(c) Aristotle (d) Machiavelli Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q262. The first General Election in India and first
Q255. Who had played key role in the formation of Amendment to the Constitution was held in:
Lokpal bill in India ? (a) 1949 (b) 1950
(a) Vipin Hazarika (c) 1951 (d) 1952
(b) Anna Hajare Ans: (c)
(c) Baba Amte
(d) Medha Patekar
Ans: (b)
Physical Geography
Q256. How many assembly segments are there as per
Vidhan Sabha Elections 2013 in Delhi ? Q1. The light from the Sun reaches the Earth in
(a) 70 (b) 72 about—
(c) 66 (b) 68 (a) 8 seconds (b) 8 minutes
Ans: (a) (c) 10 seconds (d) 10 minutes
Q257. Consumer Protection Act 1986, was a mended Ans: (b)
in : Q2. Brightest planet in our solar system is
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (a) Venus (b) Mercury
(c) 1994 (d) 1991 (c) Mars (d) Jupiter
Ans: (*) Ans: (a)
Q258. Which among the following is not a preventive Q3. The largest planet in our solar system is
detention act? (a) Mars (b) Jupiter
(a) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (c) Saturn (d) Mercury
(Prevention) Act Ans: (b)
(TADA) Q4. Which is the coldest among the following ?
(b) Prevention of Terrorism Act (a) Mars (b) Earth
(POTA) (c) Pluto (d) Mercury
(c) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Ans: (c)
Smuggling Activities Act Q5. Biggest planet of solar system is
(COFEPOSA) (a) Earth (b) Mars
(d) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) (c) Saturn (d) Jupiter
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q259. In India, woman had never been a Chief Q6. The planet revolving east to west is
Minister in the State of (a) Venus (b) Uranus
(a) Tamil Nadu (c) Neptune (d) Pluto
(b) Rajasthan Ans: (a)
(c) Uttar Pradesh Q7. Which planet orbits closest to the earth?
(d) Maharashtra (a) Mars (b) Jupiter
Ans: (d) (c) Venus (d) Mercury
Q260. Which committee was established on Criminal - Ans: (c)
Politician and Bureaucratic nexus ? Q8. Isohels are the isopleths of
(a) Vohra Committee (a) sunshine
(b) Indrajit Gupta Committee (b) flowering time
(c) Tarkunde Committee (c) rain (d) clouds
(d) Santhanam Committee Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q261. What is the fascist view of state ?
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Q9. The planet that takes 88 days to make one
revolution of the sun is :
(b) Isostatic adjustment
(c) Collision of earth plates
(a) Mercury (b) Saturn (d) Volcanic eruption
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q18. Basaltic lava is found in the
Q10. Which planet in our solar system is nearly as big (a) Deccan Trap
as the earth ? (b) Himalayas
(a) Mercury (b) Mars (c) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(c) Venus (d) Pluto (d) North-Eastern Hills
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q11. A spinning neutron star is known as Q19. Where are the hot deserts generally found ?
(a) White dwarf (b) Black hole (a) On the eastern margins of the Tropics
(c) Pulsar (d)Quasar (b) On the western margins of the Tropics
Ans: (c) (c) Nearer the Equator
Q12. In a solar or lunar eclipse , the region of earth‘s (d) In the middle of the Continents
shadow is divided into Ans: (b)
(a) Five parts (b) Four parts Q20. Metamorphic rocks originate from—
(c) Two parts (d) Three parts (a) igneous rocks
Ans: (d) (b) sedimentary rocks
Q13. Which of the following is an alternative theory to (c) both igneous and sedimentary rocks
the Big Bang theory developed in 1948, stating that (d) None of these
the universe does not change e ven though it is Ans: (c)
expanding over time ? Q21. A geyser is a spring which
(a) Oscillating Universe (a) throws water continuously
(b) Steady State Universe (b) throws water intermittently
(c) Mirror Universe (c) throws water and steam at regular intervals
(d) Eternal Inflation (d) throws only steam
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q14. The outermost layer of sun is called Q22. The topography of plateau is ideal for
(a) Lithosphere (a) cultivation (b) forestry
(b) Chromosphere (c) mining
(c) Photosphere (d) generation of hydro power
(d) Corona Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q23. The Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity
Q15. If a star is bigger than Sun, but not more than separates
twice as big, it will turn into a _______. (a) Outer core and Mantle
(a) Pulsar (b) Maxima (b) Inner and Outer core
(c) Avenger (d) Discover (c) Sima and Nife
Ans: (a) (d) Crust and Mantle
Q16. Extensive deserts occur in the western tropical Ans: (d)
regions of continents because : Q24. The highest grade and best quality coal is
(a) of easterly trade winds. (a) Lignite (b) Peat
(b) cold ocean currents flow along the western coasts. (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
(c) of the effect of both the offshore easterly trade winds Ans: (d)
and cold ocean currents. Q25. What is the scale used for measuring the
(d) the rate of evaporation is greater along the western intensity of the earthquake?
margin areas. (a) Richter scale
Ans: (c) (b) Metric scale
Q17. Most of the devastating earthquakes are usually (c) Centigrade scale
caused by (d) Newton‘s scale
(a) Eustatic movement Ans: (*)
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estuary ?
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Q26. Which one of the following rivers forms an Q35. Which type of lake is formed by volcanic
activities ?
(a) Ganga (b) Tapti (a) Caldera lake
(c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi (b) Karst lake
Ans: (b) (c) Lagoon
Q27. Desertification can be checked by (d) Fresh water lake
(a) plugging gullies Ans: (a)
(b) checking over-grazing Q36. The rate of deforestation is high in
(c) contour ploughing (a) Tropical zone
(d) forming shelter belts (b) Desert areas
Ans: (b) (c) Temperate zone
Q28. The latitude of a place is expressed by its (d) Boreal forest
angular distance in relation to— Ans: (c)
(a) Equator Q37. Sandstone is metamorphosed to:
(b) South Pole (a) Shale (b) Slate
(c) Axis of the Earth (c) Quartzite (d) Marble
(d) North Pole Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q38. Which of the following is an example of Plutonic
Q29. The scale that measures the intensity of Igneous Rock?
earthquakes is called as (a) Basalt (b) Granite
(a) Vernier scale (c) Slate (d) Dolomite
(b) Richter scale Ans: (b)
(c) Beaufort scale Q39. Obsidian, Andesite, Gabbro and Perodite are :
(d) Diagonal scale (a) Metamorphic rocks
Ans: (*) (b) Intrusive rocks
Q30. Natural embankments found on upper valley (c) Sedimentary rocks
sides are-known as (d) Extrusive rocks
(a) high banks (b) levees Ans: (*)
(c) bunds (d) ridge Q40. Spot the odd item in the following :
Ans: (b) (a) Basalt (b) Ruby
Q31. The inner-most layer of the earth is known as (c) Emerald (d) Sapphire
(a) Lithosphere Ans: (a)
(b) Mesosphere Q41. Solar eclipse occurs when
(c) Asthenosphere (a) the Moon does not lie on the line joining the Sun and
(d) Barysphere the Earth
Ans: (c) (b) the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth
Q32. Prime Meridian passes through (c) the Sun comes between the Moon and the Earth
(a) Greenwich (b) Ujjain (d) the Earth comes between the Moon and the Sun
(c) New York (d) Tokyo Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Q42. Nappe is a kind of
Q33. In the context of ‗time‘, GMT means (a) fluvial feature
(a) General Meridian Time (b) folded structure
(b) Greenwich Mean Time (c) erosional plain
(c) Global Mean Time (d) delta region
(d) None of these Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q43. An earthquake is also known as
Q34. The natural gaps across the mountains which (a) Teacher (b) Tremor
provide routes are called (c) Temper (d) None of these
(a) Peaks (b) Dunes Ans: (b)
(c) Plateaus (d) Passes Q44. The Equator does not pass through which of the
Ans: (d) following countries ?
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(a) Kenya
(c) Indonesia
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(b) Mexico
(d) Brazil
Q53. What is the position of the Earth when it is at the
greatest distance from the sun ?
Ans: (b) (a) Aphelion (b) Antipode
Q45. Sink hole is a pheno menon of _______ (c) Perihelion (d) Aldiate
topography. Ans: (a)
(a) Plain (b) Desert Q54. Speed of wind is measured by
(c) Tundra (d) Karst (a) barometer (b) hygrometer
Ans: (d) (c) thermometer (d)anemometer
Q46. In mountainous areas a natural cause for road Ans: (d)
blocks is often : Q55. The line on a map connecting points of equal
(a) road repairs and construction temperature at a given time is
(b) land slides (a) Isohyet (b) Isobar
(c) tree felling (c) Isthumus (d) Isotherm
(d) traffic congestion Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q56. Daily weather c hanges in the atmosphere are
Q47. Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically above associated with
_____ (a) Troposphere (b) Mesosphere
(a) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Ionosphere (d) Stratosphere
(b) Tropic of Cancer Ans: (a)
(c) Poles Q57. Trade winds blow from the
(d) Equator (a) equatorial low pressure
Ans: (d) (b) polar high pressure
Q48. The minimum short-term natural hazard is (c) subtropical high pressure
(a) blizzard (b) earthquake (d) subpolar low pressure
(c) volcanic eruption Ans: (c)
(d) bolt of lightning Q58. Which of the following winds is called anti -trade
Ans: (d) wind ?
Q49. When Granite rocks get metamorphosed, they (a) Chinook (b) Cyclone
form (c) Typhoon (d) Westerlies
(a) Quartzite (b) Gneiss Ans: (a)
(c) Marble (d) Slate Q59. If there is no carbon dioxide in the earth‘s
Ans: (b) atmosphere, the temperature of earth‘s surface would
Q50. Magnetic Meridian is a be
(a) Line parallel to the equator of the Earth (a) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(b) Latitude (b) higher than the present
(c) Line joining the geographic north and geographic (c) less than the present
south of Earth (d) the same
(d) Plane passing through the magnetic north and Ans: (c)
magnetic south of Earth Q60. Storms of gases are visible in the chromosphere
Ans: (d) of the Sun during
Q51. The land forms formed by wave erosion is : (a) Cyclones
(a) Spit (b) Beach (b) Anticyclones
(c) Cave (d) Barrier island (c) Lunar eclipse
Ans: (c) (d) Solar eclipse
Q52. A broad, low embankment built up along the Ans: (d)
banks of a river channel during floods is called Q61. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct
(a) Delta (b) Levee answer using the code given below the Lists :
(c) Flood Plain List - I
(d) Dune a. Australia
Ans: (b) b. China
c. France
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d. West Indies List - II
1. Hurricane
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Q68. Subtropical high pressure belts are otherwise
called
2. Willy-willy (a) Furious fifties
2. Typhoon (b) Screeching sixties
4. Mistral Code : (c) Horse latitudes
abcd (d) Roaring forties
(a) 2 1 4 3 Ans: (c)
(b) 1 2 3 4 Q69. The temperature increases rapidly above
(c) 1 3 2 4 (a) Ionosphere (b) Exosphere
(d) 4 1 2 3 (c) Stratosphere (d) Troposphere
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q62. Which one of the following is the highest cloud ? Q70. Which of the following is FALSE with respect to
(a) Cirrus rain water harvesting ?
(b) Stratocumulus (a) It is a device of water conservation.
(c) Nimbostratus (b) It helps raising water table.
(d) Cumulus (c) It helps meet rising water demand.
Ans: (a) (d) It increases run-off losses.
Q63. Which one of the following is called as ―Roaring Ans: (d)
Forty‖? Q71. Choose the corr ect option which represents the
(a) Winds blowing in southern hem isphere between 400– arrangement of atmospheric layers.
600 S (a) Ionosphere, Ecosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere,
(b) Winds blowing in northern hemisphere between 400 – Troposphere
600 N (b) Ecosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere,
(c) Very cold winds which blow in winters Stratosphere
(d) Very hot and fast blowing summer winds (c) Mesosphere, Ionosphere. Ecosphere, Troposphere,
Ans: (a) Stratosphare
Q64. Which of the following asborbs part of the (d) Troposphare, Ionosphere, Ecosphere
insolation and preserves earth‘s radiated heat? Ans: (d)
(a) Oxygen Q72. Most of the ozone in the earth‘s atmosphere is
(b) Nitrogen found in the :
(c) Water vapour (a) Troposphere
(d) Carbon-di-oxide (b) Stratosphere
Ans: (c) (c) Mesophere
Q65. In which region does rainfall occur throughout (d) Thermosphere
the year ? Ans: (b)
(a) Mediterranean Q73. A level of atmosphere which is composed partly
(b) Equatorial of electrons and positive ions is called
(c) Tropical (a) Troposphere
(d) Temperate (b) Ionosphere
Ans: (b) (c) Stratosphere
Q66. Smog is a combination of (d) Mesosphere
(a) air and water vapour Ans: (b)
(b) water and smoke Q74. Rainfall caused by intense evaporation in
(c) fire and water equatorial areas is called _______
(d) smoke and fog (a) Orographic rainfall
Ans: (d) (b) Cyclonic rainfall
Q67. The layer of the atmosphere in which Radio (c) Frontal rainfall
Waves are reflected back is called ; (d) Convectional rainfall
(a) Ionosphere (b) Troposphere Ans: (d)
(c) Stratosphere (d) Exosphere Q75. Which of the following is/are ‗rain cloud‘?
Ans: (a) 1. Cirrus
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2. Nimbostratus
3. Cumulonimbus
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(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
4. Altocumulus (d) Arctic Ocean
(a) 1 and 2 only Ans: (b)
(b) 2 and 3 only Q84. Tides in the sea are caused by
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) effect of Sun
(d) 1 and 4 only (b) effect of Moon
Ans: (b) (c) eombined effect of Moon and Sun
Q76. The sea bed sloping gradually and bor dering the (d) gravitational force of Earth and Sun
continent is known as : Ans: (c)
(a) Coast Q85. The Sargasso sea is situated in the :
(b) Continental Shelf. (a) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Continental Platform. (b) Pacific Ocean
(d) Continental Slope. (c) Indian Ocean
Ans: (b) (d) Arctic Ocean
Q77. A place where there is constant intermingling of Ans: (a)
salt water and fresh water is ____ Q86. The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice
(a) Estuary (b) Delta in a day is called
(c) Gulf (d) Bay (a) Tide (b) Ocean current
Ans: (a) (c) Wave (d)Water cycle
Q78. Echo sounding is the tech-nique applied to— Ans: (a)
(a) measure the depth of the sea Q87. Spring tides occur on
(b) measure the amplitude of sound waves (a) New moon day only
(c) record earthquake waves (b) Full moon day as well as on new moon day
(d) record the density of air in the atmosphere (c) Full moon day only
Ans: (a) (d) The day when the moon‘s position is in its first
Q79. Which current is responsible for i ncrease in the quarter
temperature of the western Europe ? Ans: (b)
(a) Labrador current Q88. The largest reservoir of fresh water is :
(b) Gulf stream (a) Glaciers (b) Ground Water
(c) Canari current (c) Ponds (d) Lakes
(d) North Equatorial current Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) Q89. ‗El Nino‘ that affects our Monsoons, has its
Q80. Sea breeze is formed during origins in
(a) Day time (b) Night time (a) The Indian Ocean
(c) Both (d) Seasonal (b) The Himalayan Plateau
Ans: (a) (c) The Pacific Ocean
Q81. Waves approaching the shore is known as (d) The Arabian Peninsula
(a) Swash (b) Tsunami Ans: (c)
(c) Currents (d) Tide Q90. Ring of Fire is found commonly in _____
Ans: (b) (a) Pacific Ocean
Q82. The term territorial water means (b) Atlantic Ocean
(a) The water found within the country in form of rivers (c) Indian Ocean
and lakes (d) Arctic Ocean
(b) The water secured from other countries Ans: (a)
(c) The water which is supplied to other countries Q91. The tides in the sea are primarily due to
(d) Water of the sea located close to the coast of a (a) the atmospheric effect of the Earth
country (b) the gravitational effect of Venus on the Earth
Ans: (d) (c) the gravitational effect of the Sun on the Earth
Q83. Mariana Trench is found in (d) the gravitational effect of the Moon on the Earth
(a) Atlantic Ocean Ans: (d)
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(a) Greenish brown
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Q92. The colour of loamy soil is
Q100. ‗Terra rossa‘ is a Latin word which means
Ans: (b)
Q87. Manas Sanctuary in Assam is known for town and later to a city is known as :
(a) elephants (b) bears (a) intra–state migration
(c) tigers (d) wild ass and (b) step–wise migration
Ans: (a) (c) inter–state migration
Q88. Which of the following is correctly matched? (d) forced migration
Wildlife Sancturay State Ans: (b)
(a) Bandipur — Tamil Nadu Q97. Kanha National Park is located in :
(b) Manas — Uttar Pradesh (a) Bihar
(c) Ranthambhore — Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Simlipal — Bihar (c) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (c) (d) Tmil Nadu
Q89. The wild ass is found in Ans: (b)
(a) Kachchh Q98. The largest wildlife sanctuary in India is famous
(b) Assam for which of the following animal ?
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (a) Wild Indian Ass
(d) Tamil Nadu (b) Rhinoceros
Ans: (a) (c) Apes
Q90. Which are the States in which the Agasthyamala (d) Tigers
biosphere is spread? Ans: (a)
(a) Andhra Pradesh – Karnataka Q99. The natural habitat of Rhinoceros in India is
(b) Tamil Nadu – Karnataka (a) Bharatpur (b) Gir forest
(c) Maharashtra–Madhya Pradesh (c) Khaziranga
(d) Kerala – Tamil Nadu (d) Nilgiris
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q91. An area legally reserved for wild life in its Q100. In India, the Temperate Forest Research
natural surroundings is Centre is in which city?
(a) Biosphere Reserve (a) Shimla (b) Ranchi
(b) Sanctuary (c) Dehradun (d) Srinagar
(c) Social Forests Ans: (a)
(d) National Park Q101. Watermelons grow best in
Ans: (b) (a) Alluvial soil (b) Sandy soil
Q92. Which one of the following is a Wild Life (c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil
Sanctuary ? Ans: (b)
(a) Jaldapara (b) Garumara Q102. To which group does the black cotton soil of
(c) Corbett (d) Chapramari India belong ?
Ans: (c) (a) Laterite (b) Podzol
Q93. Mudumalai Sanctuary is famous for (c) Chernozem (d) Alluvial
(a) Tigers (b) Bisons Ans: (c)
(c) Birds (d) Elephants Q103. Red soil is normally found in Ind ia in which
Ans: (a) regions?
Q94. The largest tiger reserve in India is (a) Eastern Region only
(a) Pench (b) Manas (b) Southern Region only
(c) Nagarjun (d) Corbett (c) Eastern & Southern part of the Deccan Plateau
Ans: (c) (d) None of these
Q95. Kanchenzunga National Park is located at Ans: (c)
(a) Uttar Pradesh Q104. The maximum area under crops in India is
(b) West Bengal used for the cultivation of :
(c) Sikkim (a) Wheat (b) Rice
(d) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Sugarcane (d) Cotton
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Ans: (b)
Q105. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop ? Q113. The term ―Green Revolution‖ has been used to
Ans: (a)
(d) Mixed - cropping which district is unfit for cultivat ion due to increased
Ans: (b) salinity :
Q121. Name the food cro p which gives highest output (a) Coimbatore
in India. (b) Tiruchirapalli
(a) Wheat (b) Jowar (c) Nagapattinam
(c) Maize (d) Rice (d) Ramanathapuram
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q122. Which of the following is not a Rabi crop in Q130. The most ideal region for the cultivation of
India ? cotton in India is
(a) Wheat (b) Barley (a) The Brahmaputra Valley
(c) Rapeseed (d) Jute (b) The Deccan Plateau
Ans: (d) (c) The Indo Gangetic Valley
Q123. Agricultural Commodities are graded with : (d) The Rann of Kutch
(a) ISI (b) Eco-products Ans: (b)
(c) AGMARK (d) Green Product Q131. Which State in India is estimated to have the
Ans: (c) largest coal reserves in India?
Q124. Jhumming is shifting agriculture practised in (a) Andhra Pradesh
(a) North-eastern India (b) Bihar (including the newly created Jharkhand)
(b) South-western India (c) Madhya Pradesh (including the newly created Ch -
(c) South-eastern India hattisgarh)
(d) Northern India (d) Orissa
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q125. Social forestry is Q132. Which one of the following States produces the
(a) growing differe nt types of plants together on private maximum manganese in India ?
land (a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) management of forest by cooperative societies (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) growing one type of plant in government owned land (c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) growing and management of useful plants on (d) Orissa
government owned land Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q133. Which of the following produces maximum
Q126. Which of the following is not a characteristic of crude petroleum in India at present?
Indian agriculture ? (a) Assam
(a) Multiplicity of crops (b) Gujarat
(b) Predominance of large farms (c) Off-shore Bombay High
(c) Overdependence on nature (d) Coastal Tamil Nadu
(d) Low level of productivity Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q134. Tummalapalle, where huge reserves of
Q127. Which State called the ‗Rice-Bowl‘ of India ? uranium have been found, as announced by the
(a) Kerala Atomic Energy Commission in July, 2011, lies in the
(b) Karnataka state of
(c) Andhra Pradesh (a) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (c) (c) Tamil Nadu
Q128. Which State is the largest producer of pulses in (d) Gujarat
India ? Ans: (b)
(a) Bihar Q135. ―Ankleshwar‘ is known for
(b) Rajasthan (a) Gold (b) Coal
(c) Madhya Pradesh (c) Gas (d) Oil
(d) Maharashtra Ans: (d)
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Q136. Which of the following oilfields is situated in
the North-eastern region of India?
Q144. Which group of the industries maximise
savings on transport costs by being located near the
(a) Kalol (b) Ankaleshwar sources of materials?
(c) Mehsana (d) Digboi (a) Iron and steel, aluminium, cement
Ans: (d) (b) Iron and steel, sugar, cotton textiles
Q137. ―Panna‖ is an important place in Madhya (c) Heavy machinery, cement, sugar
Pradesh. It is famous for : (d) Iron and steel, cement, silk
(a) Gold mines Ans: (a)
(b) Silver mines Q145. Ankleshwar and Kalol are two oil fields in
(c) Diamond mines (a) Maharashtra (b) Assam
(d) Iron mines (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q138. Tummalapalli in Andhra Pradesh has recently Q146. Which kind of power accounts for the largest
come on the world map for its largest share of power generation in India ?
(a) Uranium deposits (a) hydro-electricity
(b) Tungsten deposits (b) thermal (c) nuclear
(c) Coal deposits (d) solar
(d) Bauxite ore deposits Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Q147. Which one of the following is used in large
Q139. In India, there are many coal fields found in quantities in Cement Industry ?
(a) Cauvery Valley (a) Gypsum (b) Limestone
(b) Krishna Valley (c) Coal (d) Clay
(c) Ganga Valley Ans: (b)
(d) Damodar Valley Q148. The product used fo r manufacturing of
Ans: (d) Industrial alcohol is
Q140. Which one of the following r egion is most rich (a) Khandasari (b) Bagasse
in coal deposits? (c) Molasses (d) Paper-pulp
(a) Bramhaputra Valley Ans: (c)
(b) Damodar Valley Q149. Which of the following projects suppl ies
(c) Mahanadi Valley electricty to the Rourkela Steel Plant?
(d) Godavari Valley (a) Damodar Valley Project
Ans: (b) (b) Hirakud Dam Project
Q141. Where was the first cotton mill in India (c) Tungabhadra Project
established? (d) Nagarjuna Project
(a) Surat (b) Mumbai Ans: (b)
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Coimbatore Q150. Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh has a
Ans: (b) (a) sugar mill
Q142. Where was the first Cotton Mill in India (b) newsprint factory
established ? (c) steel plant
(a) Surat (d) heavy engineering plant
(b) Bombay (now Mumbai) Ans: (b)
(c) Ahmedabad Q151. The iron and steel industries at Bhilai,
(d) Coimbatore Durgapur and Rourkela were set up during the
Ans: (b) (a) II Five Year Plan
Q143. Which of the following is correctly matched (b) I Five Year Plan
with regard to thermal power projects ? (c) III Five Year Plan
(a) Korba-Uttar Pradesh (d) IV Five Year Plan
(b) Ramagundam-Tamil Nadu Ans: (b)
(c) Talcher-Andhra Pradesh Q152. It forms the bed -rock of all industrial activities
(d) Kawas-Gujarat and is considered ―mother industry‖.
Ans: (d) (a) Petro-chemical industry
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(b) Cement industry
(c) Iron and Steel industry
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(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Fertilizer industry Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q161. Which one of the following pairs of places does
Q153. Where in India is the biggest steel the National highway number 2 join ?
manufacturer of the world (a) Delhi – Amritsar
(L.N. Mittal Group) setting up a steel plant ? (b) Delhi – Mumbai
(a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar (c) Delhi – Kolkata
(c) Orissa (d)Chhattisgarh (d) Delhi – Ahmedabad
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q154. ―Manchester‖ of South India is : Q162. Which one of the following is a major port on
(a) Coimbatore (b) Madurai the East Coast of India ?
(c) Bengaluru (d) Chennai (a) Kandla
Ans: (a) (b) Vishakhapatnam
Q155. Which of the following is correctly matched (c) Karikal
with regard to thermal power project ? (d) Pondicherry (Puducherry)
(a) Talcher – Andhra Pradesh Ans: (b)
(b) Korba – Uttar Pradesh Q163. Which of the following places are connected to
(c) Kawas – Gujarat the highest road of the world ?
(d) Ramagundam – Madhya Pradesh (a) Gangtok and Kathmandu
Ans: (c) (b) Leh and Srinagar
Q156. The first oil refinery in India was set up at (c) Manali and Leh
(a) Barauni (d) Srinagar and Siachen
(b) Vishakhapatnam Ans: (b)
(c) Digboi Q164. Roads that link the important cities of various
(d) Mumbai states are referred to as :
Ans: (c) (a) State Roads
Q157. Which of the following industries is at Koraput (b) National Highways
? (c) State Highways
(a) Ship Building (d) Superways
(b) Aircrafts Building Ans: (b)
(c) Iron and Steel Q165. How many major sea ports are there in India ?
(d) Electric Locomotives (a) 6 (b) 9
Ans: (b) (c) 10 (d) 12
Q158. In India, the Black Revolution is related to the Ans: (*)
manufacturing of which product? Q166. Which two of the following are connected by
(a) Charcoal the North South corridor ?
(b) Crude petroleum (a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
(c) Diamond (b) Mumbai and Chennai
(d) Black gram (c) Amritsar and Kolkata
Ans: (b) (d) Hyderabad and Bhopal
Q159. SIDO is related to the development of Ans: (a)
(a) Small industries Q167. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port is located at
(b) Steel Industry (a) Paradip (b) Cochin
(c) Soap Industry (c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
(d) Sugar Industry Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q168. India‘s first Railway University will come up at
Q160. The proposed sea -route ―Sethu Samudram‖ is (a) Vadodara, Gujarat
a canal through which of the sea-lanes ? (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(a) Gulf of Mannar (c) Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Malacca Strait (d) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
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Ans: (a)
Q169. In which of the following States is Dampa T iger
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Reserve situated? Q178. Which of the following border is known as
(a) Assam (b) Karnataka Radcliffe line ?
(c) Mizoram (d) Orissa (a) India and China
Ans: (c) (b) India and Bangladesh
Q170. Which of the following districts is on the (c) India and Pakistan
international border of India? (d) India and Afghanistan
(a) Sirsa (b) Anantnag Ans: (c)
(c) Karimganj (d) Purulia Q179. Which of the following states is called ‗Tiger
Ans: (c) State‘ of India?
Q171. The maximum concentration of scheduled caste (a) Himachal Pradesh
population is in the (b) Gujarat
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plains (c) Madhya Pradesh
(b) North-East India (d) Assam
(c) Western Coast Ans: (c)
(d) Eastern Coast Q180. Where are the ‗Todas‘ found?
Ans: (a) (a) Madhya Pradesh
Q172. Ethnic group Mongoloids are found in India in (b) Rajasthan
: (c) Tamil Nadu
(a) Southern region (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) South-central region Ans: (c)
(c) North-western region Q181. According to 1991 census, in which State/Union
(d) North-eastern region Terriroty has the highest percentage of scheduled
Ans: (d) castes population ?
Q173. Which of the following states does not border (a) Pujnab
on Myanmar ? (b) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Mizoram (b) Manipur (c) West Bengal
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya (d) Karnataka
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q174. Which of the following States does not border Q182. Which among the following States has lowest
on Myanmar? rate of literacy according to 2001 census ?
(a) Mizoram (b) Assam (a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan
(c) Nagaland (d) Manipur (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q175. Which district of UP is bordered by an Q183. As per 2001 Census, what is the percentage of
international border ? India‘s population to the world population ?
(a) Ballia (b) Bahraich (a) 8 (b) 16
(c) Basti (d) Barabanki (c) 26 (d) 28
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q176. Cities with population from one to five million Q184. According to Census 2001, what is the
are called percentage of Indian population below the age 40 ?
(a) Conurbation (a) 75 (b) 70
(b) Million City (c) 65 (d) 60
(c) Metropolitan Ans: (a)
(d) Cosmopolitan Q185. A high growth rate of population is
Ans: (c) characterised by
Q177. Apatanis are the major tribal group of (a) high birth and high death rates
(a) Jharkhand (b) high birth and low death rates
(b) Nagaland (c) low birth and low death rates
(c) Sikkim (d) low birth and high death rates
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Ans: (b)
Q186. Which State of India has the largest percentage
Q195. The state which has recently overtaken
Karnataka for the top rank in the production of bio -
of poor? fertilisers is :
(a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa (d) Jharkhand (c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q187. The most literate union territory in India is Q196. As per the provisional result of the 2011
(a) Delhi (b) Lakshadweep Census, the density of population in India is
(c) Chandigarh (d) Pondicherry (a) 325 (b) 352
Ans: (b) (c) 372 CD 382
Q188. Which is the largest state of India, population - Ans: (d)
wise, according to 2001 census ? Q197. Which of the following registers the highest
(a) Maharashtra density in the country as per Census 2011 ?
(b) Bihar (a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh
(c) Uttar Pradesh (c) Puducherry (d) West Bengal
(d) West Bengal Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q198. As per 2011 Census data, the child sex ratio has
Q189. Diu is an island off come down from 927 to :
(a) Daman (b) Goa (a) 904 (b) 920
(c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra (c) 917 (d) 914
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q190. The least populated State in India is Q199. Which Union Territory is at the bottom of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh child-sex-ratio?
(b) Sikkim (a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Mizoram (b) Chandigarh
(d) Uttarakhand (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Ans: (b) (d) Daman and Diu
Q191. Which one of the following is not a desert Ans: (b)
district of Rajasthan? Q200. The study of population is called :
(a) Kota (b) Barmer (a) Cartography (b)Anthropology
(c) Jaisalmer (d) Churu (c) Demography (d) Biography
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q192. The State which has developed wind energy is Q201. Density of population shows:
(a) Gujarat (a) Land capital ratio
(b) Karnataka (b) Land product ratio
(c) Kerala (c) Land labour ratio
(d) Andhra Pradesh (d) Man land ratio
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q193. Which of the following state is most famous for Q202. The perc entage of India‘s total population
its beautiful sea beaches? employed in agriculture is nearly
(a) Gujarat (b) Goa (a) 60% (b) 50%
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Orissa (c) 70% (d) 80%
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q194. Which State of India has the largest area ? Q203. Which of the following states has the highest
(a) Uttar Pradesh literacy rate?
(b) Madhya Pradesh (a) Goa
(c) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan (c) Mizoram
Ans: (d) (d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (c)
(a) Dead Sea currency notes issued by the RBI has ―ecology‖
(b) Kutch region of South Iraq depicted on it?
(c) Nile Valley (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 100
(d) Cango Valley (c) Rs. 50 (d) Rs. 5
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q58. Which among the following policy of Life Q7. What are ―Open Market Operations‖?
Insurance Company is related to regular old -age (a) Activities of SEBI registered brokers
pension? (b) Selling of currency by the RBI
(a) Jivan Kishore (c) Selling of gilt-edged securities by the Government
(b) Jivan Chhaya (d) Sale of shares by FIIs
(c) Jivan Sanchay Ans: (c)
(d) None of these Q8. The best way, a bank can avoid loss is to
Ans: (d) (a) lend only to individuals known to the bank
(b) accept sound collateral
(c) give only short-term loans
Indian Economy (d) lend only to bank‘s old customers
Ans: (b)
Q1. The Indian economy can be most appropriately Q9. Which of the following is not an objective of the
described as a : monetary policy of the RBI ?
(a) Capitalist economy (a) Boost economic development
(b) Socialist economy (b) Direct credit in desirable direction
(c) Traditional economy (c) Control inflationary pressure
(d) Mixed economy (d) Ensure social justice
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q2. What i s the maximum amount of investment in Q10. Merchant Banking is an institution which
the shares of debentures of notified companies like the provides finances to :
ICICI, the IDBI etc. that will entitle a rebate in (a) domestic whole sale trade
income tax up to 20% of the amount invested? (b) international trade among countries
(a) Rs. 80000 (b) Rs. 60000 (c) domestic retail trade among
(c) Rs. 20000 (d) Rs. 10000 (d) international aid agencies.
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q3. Which of the following PSUs has been privatised? Q11. The Government of India made it obligatory on
(a) HZL (b) CMC the part of all comm ercial banks that they should give
(c) Hotel Corporation of India some cash amount while purchasing Government
(d) NALCO bonds. What would you call this?
Ans: (a) (a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Q4. For whom was the first departmental life (b) Cash Reserve Ratio
insurance started ? (c) Minimum Reserve Ratio
(a) Army (d) Floating Reserve Ratio
(b) Civil officers of Central Government Ans: (a)
(c) Employees of postal department Q12. Which amidst the follow ing taxes collected by
(d) Life Insurance Corpor-ation the Union is NOT mandated to be assigned to the
Ans: (c) States?
Q5. The proceeds of income tax go to (a) Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by
(a) Central Government railway, sea or air.
(b) State Government (b) Taxes on railway fares and freights.
(c) Centre and States (c) Taxes on consignment of goods.
(d) Corporation authorities (d) Service Tax.
Ans: (d)
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Q13. Inflation is caused by :
(a) Increase in supply of goods
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(c) Income tax, Customs duty and House tax
(d) Customs duty, Entertainment tax and Income tax
(b) Increase in cash with the government Ans: (b)
(c) Decrease in money supply Q21. Punjab National Bank has been honoured wi th
(d) Increase in money supply the Golden Peacock Award 2002 for excellence in—
Ans: (d) (a) agricultural finance
Q14. Open market operation refers to (b) rural industrialisation
(a) borrowing by commercial banks from the R.B.I. (c) housing development
(b) lending by scheduled banks to non-scheduled banks (d) corporate excellence
(c) purchase and sale of Government securities by the Ans: (d)
R.B.I. Q22. Which authority decides about the States‘ share
(d) purchase and sale of bonds and securities by the in central taxes?
Central Govt. (a) Finance Commission
Ans: (c) (b) Planning Commission
Q15. What is known as the open market operation of (c) Election Commission
the RBI ? (d) Finance Ministry
(a) Buying and selling of stocks Ans: (a)
(b) Auctioning of foreign exchange Q23. In which plan was self-reliance first emphasised
(c) Trading in securities (a) Second Plan (b) Third Plan
(d) Transactions in gold (c) Fourth Plan (d) Fifth Plan
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q16. The Government resorts to devaluation of its Q24. India‘s biggest nationalised enterprise today
currency in order to promote (a) the Indian Railways
(a) national income (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System
(b) international goodwill (c) the Indian Power Sector
(c) exports (d) the Indian Telecommu-nication System
(d) savings Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q25. In the budget figures of the Government of
Q17. Which car has been the best seller in India in India, interest payments, subsidies, pensions, social
2004-2005 ? services and the like are parts of the
(a) Maruti 800 (a) Plan Expenditure
(b) Maruti Suzuki Alto (b) State Government Expenditure
(c) Tata Indica (c) Public Debt in the form of Capital Expenditure
(d) Santro Xing (d) Non-plan Expenditure
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q18. Which of the following is apex bank for Q26. Which one of the following is not correct ?
industrial loans ? (a) First Five Year Plan–1951–56
(a) RBI (b) NABARD (b) Second Five Year Plan1956– 61
(c) ICICI (d) IDBI (c) Third Five Year Plan–1961– 66
Ans: (d) (d) Fourth Five Year Plan–1966–71
Q19. Which of the following taxes is levied by the Ans: (d)
Union and appropriated and planned by the states ? Q27. With the inclusion of Shipping Corporation of
(a) Service tax India recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs, their
(b) Stamp duty number now stands at
(c) Property tax (a) 15 (b) 16
(d) Passenger and freight duty (c) 17 (d) 18
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q20. Which of the following sets belong to Central tax Q28. Which is not the objective of Public
? Procurement and Distribution system followed by
(a) Excise duty, Sales tax and Customs duty Indian Government ?
(b) Excise duty, Customs duty and Income tax
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(a) Maintain price stabi lity through creation of buffer (a) 1998
(c) 1999
(b) 1996
(d) 2000
(b) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor Ans: (d)
farmers Q36. Where is the biggest private sector power
(c) Control the production of food grains project in India located?
(d) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the (a) Rajahmundry in Andhra Pardesh
distribution (b) Neyveli in Tamil Nadu
Ans: (c) (c) Korba in Madhya Pradesh
Q29. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of (d) Dabhol in Maharashtra
public sector units occur when the government sells Ans: (*)
(a) 5% of shares Q37. Which of the following is not a part of national
(b) 10% of shares income?
(c) 15 % of shares (a) Wages and Salaries
(d) 20% of shares (b) Profits
Ans: (a) (c) Rent
Q30. EXIM Policy, 2002-07, has set a target to achieve (d) Interest on national debt
a share in the global trade by 2007 at Ans: (d)
(a) 0.5 per cent Q38. In which sector of the Indian economy i s
(b) 1.0 per cent productivity the highest ?
(c) 1.5 per cent (a) Manufacturing
(d) 2.0 per cent (b) Transport, Communication and Commerce
Ans: (b) (c) Agriculture
Q31. The term ‗Mixed Economy‘ denotes (d) Other sectors
(a) existence of both rural and urban sectors Ans: (a)
(b) existence of both private and public sectors Q39. The gift edged market in the capital market of
(c) existence of both heavy and small industries India refers to
(d) existence of both developed and underdeveloped (a) long-term private securities
sectors (b) market dealing in existing securities.
Ans: (b) (c) market for corporate securities
Q32. The present Indian monetary system is based on (d) market for Government securities
(a) Gold Reserve System Ans: (b)
(b) Proportional Reserve System Q40. Banks in India were nationalised for the first
(c) Convertible Currency System time in the year –
(d) Minimum Reserve System (a) 1950 (b) 1960
Ans: (d) (c) 1969 (d) 1979
Q33. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India Ans: (c)
reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, Q41. The Reserve Bank of India issue s currency notes
2008. It was under
(a) 11.75 per cent (a) fixed fiduciary system
(b) 11.85 per cent (b) maximum fidciuary system
(c) 12.00 per cent (c) minimum reserve system
(d) 12.05 per cent (d) proportional reserve system
Ans: (*) Ans: (c)
Q34. The abbreviation ‗SEBI‘ stands for Q42. In Centre -State financial relations in India,
(a) Savings and Exchange Bank of India Gadgil Formula is used in
(b) Securities and Exchange Bank of India (a) division of tax revenue
(c) Survey of essential business in India (b) formulating the policy for fresh borrowings
(d) Securities and Exch-ange Board of India (c) writing off States‘ indebtedness to the Centre
Ans: (d) (d) allocating Central Plan assistance between States
Q35. The Annapurna Scheme was implemented in the Ans: (a)
year
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Q43. The single largest item of expenditure of the
Central Government in India in recent years is
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (b)
(a) Defence Q51. While computing national income estimates,
(b) Subsidies which of the following is required to be observed ?
(c) Interest payment (a) The value of exports to be added and the value of
(d) General services imports to be subtracted
Ans: (c) (b) The value of exports to be subtracted and the value of
Q44. Cochin refineries is in : imports to be added
(a) Public Sector (c) The value of both exports and imports to be added
(b) Joint Sector (d) The value of both exports and imports to be
(c) Private Sector subtracted
(d) Co-operative Sector Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) Q52. The best example of a capital intensive industry
Q45. The first state owned company from India to be in India is
listed on the New York Stock Exchange is (a) Textile Industry
(a) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. (b) Steel Industry
(b) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (c) Tourism Industry
(c) Tata Iron and Steel Company (d) Sports Goods Industry
(d) Wipro Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Q53. After ONGC, OIC, NTPC and SAIL, the
Q46. Which amidst the following is a PSU ? ‗Navratna‘ PSU which was awarded ‗Maharatna‘
(a) Bank of Rajasthan status is
(b) ICICI Bank (a) HAL (b) GAIL
(c) Corporation Bank (c) Coal India Ltd (d) BHEL
(d) Citibank Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q54. Which of the following is an example of Joint -
Q47. Which from the following is NOT a Navaratna Sector enterprise in India?
PSU ? (a) Maruti Udyog Limited
(a) SAIL (b) BHEL (b) The Indian Oil Corporation
(c) NTPC (c) Hindustan Antibiotics Ltd.
(d) Shipping Corporation of India (d) Bharat Aluminium Ltd.
Ans: (*) Ans: (a)
Q48. The Government of India derives its single Q55. Who amongst the following has never been the
largest source of revenue from Governor of Reserve Bank of India ?
(a) Direct Taxes (a) D. Subbarao
(b) Customs Duties (b) C. Rangarajan
(c) Deficit Financing (c) B.B. Bhattacharya
(d) Union Excise Duties (d) Y.V. Reddy
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q49. What does the open market operation of the RBI Q56. The main difference between Gross Domestic
mean ? Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP is
(a) Buying and selling shares (a) Transfer payments
(b) Auctioning of foreign exchange (b) Net foreign income from abroad
(c) Trading is securities (c) Capital consumption allowance
(d) Transactions in gold (d) Capital gains
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q50. Who estimated the National Income for the first Q57. Which of the following Government of India
time in India ? programmes aims to help, build or upgrade dwelling
(a) Mahalanobis units of below the poverty line rural families ?
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) National Social Assistance Programme
(c) V.K.R.V. Rao (b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
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(d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
Ans: (c)
Q66. As an export item of India, which spice occupies
Ans: (c) the top position in value ?
Q58. Who was the head of the 10th Finance (a) Pepper (b) Chillies
Commission ? (c) Turmeric (d) Cardamom
(a) Manmohan Singh Ans: (b)
(b) Vasant Sathe Q67. The second plan gave priority to
(c) Shiv-Shankar (a) Agriculture
(d) K.C Pant (b) Services
Ans: (d) (c) Heavy Industry
Q59. Indian Special Economic Rules amendment (d) Foreign Trade
came in the year Ans: (c)
(a) 2000 (b) 2002 Q68. About how many Indians cannot meet their
(c) 2004 (d) 2006 essential needs as per a report by McKinsey Global
Ans: (d) Institute
Q60. From which of the following banks did Madan (MGI) released on 19th February, 2014 ?
Mohan Malaviya take loans for financing ―The (a) 66% (b) 56%
Hindustan Times‖ ? (c) 46% (d) 36%
(a) Punjab National Bank Ans: (b)
(b) Bank of Maharashtra Q69. The market in which loans of money can be
(c) Bank of Baroda obtained is called
(d) State Bank of India (a) Reserve market
Ans: (a) (b) Institutional market
Q61. Which of the following does not form a part of (c) Money market
the foreign exchange reserves of India ? (d) Exchange market
(a) Gold (b) SDRs Ans: (c)
(c) Foreign currency assets Q70. Which of the following is the Regulator of the
(d) Foreign currency and securities held by the banks and credit rating agencies in India ?
corporate bodies (a) RBI (b) SBI
Ans: (d) (c) SIDBI (d) SEBI
Q62. Imperial Bank was constituted in the year : Ans: (*)
(a) 1930 (b) 1935 Q71. Which of the following method is not used in
(c) 1955 (d) 1921 determining National Income of a country ?
Ans: (d) (a) Income Method
Q63. The Oilseeds Production Programme (b) Output Method
(OPP) was launched in (c) Input Method
(a) 1986 (b) 1987 (d) Investment Method
(c) 1988 (d) 1990 Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q72. Government of India has decided to
Q64. Agriculture should serve as an instrument of integrate____with recently launched Pradhan Mantri
income, livelihood and opportunity to the local Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
community — this statement was given by (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
(a) Dr Madhavan Nair Guarantee Act
(b) Dr Manmohan Singh (b) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(c) Dr Abdul Kalam (c) Haryali
(d) Dr M S Swaminathan (d) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q65. Rashtriya Krishi Bima Yojana was introduced Q73. State Bank of India was previously known as :
in (a) Imperial Bank of India
(a) 1992 (b) 1998 (b) Canara Bank
(c) 1999 (d) 1996 (c) Syndicate Bank
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Ans: (a)
Ans: (a)
Q83. Fixed Foreign Exchange Rate can be changed by
Q74. Reserve bank of India was nationalised in : (a) RBI (b) SEBI
(a) 1949 (b) 1951 (c) Ministry of Finance
(c) 1947 (d) 1935 (d) FIPB
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q75. The Industrial Development Bank of India was Q84. National Income of India is compiled by
set up in (a) Finance Commission
(a) July, 1968 (b) July, 1966 (b) Indian Statistical Institute
(c) July, 1964 (d) July, 1962 (c) National Development Council
Ans: (c) (d) Central Statistical Organization
Q76. Which bank is limited to the needs of agriculture Ans: (d)
and rural finance ? Q85. NTPC is a Central Public Sector Enterprise in
(a) RBI (b) SBI which sector?
(c) IFC (d) NABARD (a) Education (b) Health
Ans: (d) (c) Power (d) Transport
Q77. Lender of the Last Resort is : Ans: (c)
(a) SBI (b) IDBI Q86. The industry having the largest investment in
(c) NABARD (d) RBI Indian Economy is
Ans: (d) (a) Tea (b) Cement
Q78. What is the name of portal launched by RBI (c) Steel (d) Jute
recently to check illegal money collection? Ans: (c)
(a) Sahyog (b) Sahayata Q87. Securities and Exchange Board of India is a
(c) Sampark (d) Sachet (a) Quasi Judicial body
Ans: (d) (b) Regulatory Body
Q79. When was the Pr adhan Mantri Fasal Bima (c) Advisory Body
Yojana launched ? (d) Consititutional Body
(a) February 2000 Ans: (b)
(b) February 2015 Q88. Project ‗Sankalp‘ started for the purpose
(c) January 2016 ________
(d) February 1995 (a) To eradicate illiteracy
Ans: (c) (b) To eradicate Polio
Q80. Name the Indian State with the highest tax (c) To eliminate AIDS/HIV
revenue. (d) To eliminate unemployment
(a) Assam (b) Sikkim Ans: (c)
(c) Karnataka Q89. The nationalisation of major commercial banks
(d) Maharashtra took place in
Ans: (d) (a) 1947 (b) 1956
Q81. How do you calculate the poverty line? (c) 1969 (d) 1980
(a) Income of an individual under a threshold value Ans: (c)
published by Government of India Q90. The 14th Finance Commission has
(b) Income of any individual less than 50 INR in a day recommended increase in States share in net proceeds
(c) Average income of all the individuals in a country from tax collection from 32% to
(d) Income of a family less than 100 INR in a day (a) 35% (b) 40%
Ans: (a) (c) 42% (d) 45%
Q82. Which one is not the main objective of fiscal Ans: (c)
policy in India? Q91. Which State in India has introduced FAT Tax
(a) To increase liquidity in the economy on junk food
(b) To promote price stability (a) Rajasthan
(c) To minimize the inequalities of income & wealth (b) Kerala
(d) To promote employment opportunity (c) Andhra Pradesh
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Ans: (b)
Q3. If the price of an inferior good falls, its demand
(a) rises
Q92. ―Himayat‖ is a training cumplacement (b) falls
programme for unemployed youth in the State of (c) remains constant
(a) Haryana (d) can be any of the above
(b) Punjab Ans: (a)
(c) Jammu and Kashmir Q4. Enterpreneurial ability is a special kind of labour
(d) Himachal Pradesh that
Ans: (c) (a) is hired out to firms at high wages
Q93. ‗Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana‘ has been (b) organizes the process of production
launched for : (c) produces new capital goods to earn interest
(a) Promoting financial inclusion in the country (d) manages to avoid losses by continual innovation
(b) Providing loans to poorest people in the country Ans: (b)
(c) Providing financial help to the marginalised Q5. When marginal utility is zero, the total utility is
community (a) Minimum (b) Increasing
(d) Promoting women in backward areas (c) Maximum (d) Decreasing
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q94. As per the 2016 –17 Budget, the largest source of Q6. The ‗break-even point‘ is where
money to the Government of India is : (a) marginal revenue equals marginal cost
(a) Income Tax (b) average revenue equals average cost
(b) Corporation Tax (c) total revenue equals total cost
(c) Nontax revenues (d) None of these
(d) Borrowings and other liabilities Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q7. Given the money wages, if the price level in an
Q95. Which one of the following organisations is a economy increases, then the real wages will
financial institution ? (a) increase
(a) KVIC (b) IFCO (b) decrease
(c) SEBI (d) ICICI (c) remain constant
Ans: (c) (d) become flexible
Ans: (b)
Q8. Seawater, fresh air, etc., are regarded in
Economics Economics as
(a) Giffen goods
Q1. If an industry is char acterised by economies of (b) inferior goods
scale then (c) free goods
(a) barriers to entry are not very large (d) normal goods
(b) long run unit costs of production decreases as the Ans: (c)
quantity the firm produces increases Q9. Engel‘s Law states the relationship between
(c) capital requirement are small due to the efficiency of (a) quantity demanded and price of a commodity
the large scale operation (b) quantity demanded and price of substitutes
(d) the costs of entry into the market are likely to be (c) quantity demanded and tastes of the consumers
substantial (d) quantity demanded and income of the consumers
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q2. When there is one buyer and many sellers then Q10. Knowledge, technical skill, education
that situation is called etc. in economics, are regarded as
(a) Monopoly (a) social-overhead capital
(b) Single buyer right (b) human capital
(c) Down right (c) tangible physical capital
(d) Double buyers right (d) working capital
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q11. The main determinant of real wage is
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(a) extra earning
(b) nature of work
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Q19. The demand for which of the following
commodity will not rise in spite of a fall in its price?
(c) promotion prospect (a) Television (b) Refrigerator
(d) purchasing power of money (c) Salt (d) Meat
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q12. ―Interest is a reward for parting with liquidity‖ Q20. The situation in which total revenue is equal to
is according to total cost, is known as
(a) Keynes (b) Marshall (a) monopolistic competition
(c) Haberler (d) Ohlin (b) equilibrium level of output
Ans: (a) (c) break-even point
Q13. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves (d) perfect competition
(a) upward to the right Ans: (c)
(b) downward to the right Q21. Why is rent earned by land even in the long run
(c) horizontally ?
(d) vertically (a) Land has original and indestructible power
Ans: (b) (b) Land is a man made factor
Q14. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity (c) Its supply is inelastic in the short run
is (d) Its supply is inelastic in the long run
(a) the cost that the firm could have incurred when a Ans: (d)
different technique was adopted Q22. The four factors of production are
(b) the cost that the firm could have incurred under a (a) land, labour, capital, organisation,
different method of production (b) land, electricity, water, labour
(c) the actual cost incurred (c) labour, capital, land, rainfall,
(d) the next best alternative output (d) labour, climate, land, tools,
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q15. Under which market condition do firms have Q23. If the change in demand for a commodity is at a
excess capacity? faster rate than change in the price of the commodity,
(a) Perfect competition the demand is
(b) Monopolistic competition (a) perfectly inelastic
(c) Duopoly (b) elastic
(d) Oligopoly (c) perlectly elastic
Ans: (b) (d) inelastic
Q16. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than Ans: (c)
forego the consumption of the commodity is called Q24. Different firms constituting the industry,
(a) Price (b) Profit produce homogeneous goods under
(c) Producers‘ surplus (a) monopoly
(d) Consumer‘s surplus (b) monopolistic competition
Ans: (c) (c) oligopoly
Q17. The ‗break-even‘ point is where (d) perfect competition
(a) marginal revenue equals marginal cost Ans: (d)
(b) average revenue equals average cost Q25. A situation of large number of firms producing
(c) total revenue equals total cost similar goods is termed as :
(d) None of the above (a) Perfect competition
Ans: (c) (b) Monopolistic competition
Q18. If the price of Pepsi decreases relative to the (c) Pure competition
price of Coke and 7-Up, the demand for (d) Oligopoly
(a) Coke will decrease Ans: (a)
(b) 7-Up will decrease Q26. Total fixed cost curve is
(c) Coke and 7-Up will increase (a) Vertical
(d) Coke and 7-Up will decrease (b) Horizontal
Ans: (d) (c) Positively Sloping
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Ans: (b) Q35. Name the curve which shows the quantity of
Ans: (b)
Q27. If the main objective of the government is to products a seller wishes to sell at a given price level.
raise revenue, it should tax commodities with (a) Demand curve
(a) high elasticity of demand (b) Cost curve
(b) low elasticity of supply (c) Supply curve
(c) low elasticity of demand (d) None of these
(d) high income elasticity of demand Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q36. Real wage is :
Q28. What is selling cost ? (a) Profit price level (b) Rent price level
(a) Cost incurred on transportation of commodities to (c) Interest price level (d) Money wage price
market level
(b) Cost incurred on promoting the sale of the product Ans: (d)
(c) Cost incurred on commission and salaries personnel Q37. Plant and machinery are
(d) Cost incurred on advertisement (a) Producers‘ goods
Ans: (b) (b) Consumers‘ goods
Q29. Consumer‘s sovereignty me Ans: (a) consumers (c) Distributors‘ goods
are free to spend their income as they like. (d) Free goods
(b) consumers have the power to manage the economy. Ans: (a)
(c) consumer‘s expenditures influence the alloca tion of Q38. Micro-economics is also called :
resources. (a) Income theory
(d) consumer goods are free from government control. (b) Investment theory
Ans: (a) (c) Price theory
Q30. A horizontal demand curve is (d) Expenditure theory
(a) ralatively elastic Ans: (c)
(b) perfectly inelastic Q39. When percentage change in demand for a
(c) perfectly elastic commodity is less than percentage change in its price,
(d) of unitary elasticity then demand is said to be
Ans: (c) (a) Highly elastic
Q31. The degree of monopoly power is to be measured (b) Inelastic
in terms of the firm‘s (c) Relatively elastic
(a) normal profit (d) Perfectly inelastic
(b) supernormal profit Ans: (b)
(c) both normal and supernormal profit Q40. Who developed the innovations theory of profit ?
(d) selling price (a) Walker (b) Clark
Ans: (b) (c) Knight (d) Schumpeter
Q32. Cost of production of the producer is given by: Ans: (d)
(a) sum of wages paid to labourers. Q41. Bilateral monopoly refers to the market
(b) sum of wages and interest paid on capital. situation of
(c) sum of wages, interest, rent and supernormal profit. (a) two sellers, two buyers
(d) sum of wages, interest, rent and normal profit. (b) one seller and two buyers
Ans: (d) (c) two sellers and one buyer
Q33. Which of the following is not a fixed cost ? (d) one seller and one buyer
(a) Salaries of administrative staff Ans: (d)
(b) Rent of factory biilding Q42. The opportunity cost of a factor of production is
(c) Property taxes (a) what it is earning in its present use.
(d) Electricity charges (b) what it can earn in the long period.
Ans: (a) (c) what has to be paid to retain it in its present use.
Q34. For an inferior good, demand falls when (d) what it can earn in some other use.
(a) price rises (b) income rise Ans: (d)
(c) price falls (d) income falls Q43. The basic object of all production is to
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(b) provide employment
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(d) go far advertising campaign.
Ans: (a)
(c) make profits Q51. If the supply curve is a straight line passing
(d) increase physical output through the origin, then the price elasticity of supply
Ans: (a) will be
Q44. Third stage of Law of Variable Proportion is (a) less than unity
called (b) infinitely large
(a) negative returns (c) greater than unity
(b) positive returns (d) equal to unity
(c) constant returns Ans: (d)
(d) increasing returns Q52. Which of the following occurs when labour
Ans: (a) productivity rises ?
Q45. ―Marginal Cost‖ equals (a) The equilibrium nominal wage falls.
(a) total cost minus total benefit for the last unit produced (b) The equilibrium quantity of labour falls.
(b) total cost divided by total benefit for the last unit (c) Competitive firms will be induced to use more capital
produced (d) The labour demand curve shifts to the right
(c) total cost divided by quantity Ans: (d)
(d) the change in total cost divided by the change in Q53. Which of the following is not an economic
quantity problem ?
Ans: (d) (a) Deciding between paid work and leisure
Q46. Which of the following economists is called the (b) Deciding between expenditure on one good and the
Father of Economics ? other
(a) Malthus (b) Robinson (c) Deciding between alternative methods of personal
(c) Ricardo (d) Adam Smith savings
Ans: (d) (d) Deciding between different ways of spending leisure
Q47. Price and output are determinates in market time
structure other than Ans: (d)
(a) monopoly Q54. Economics classifies the manmade instrument of
(b) perfect competition production as :
(c) oligopoly (a) organization (b) capital
(d) monopsony (c) equipment (d) labour
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q48. Any factor of production can earn economic - Q55. A demand curve, which is parallel to the
rent, when its supply will be horizontal axis, showing quantity, has the price
(a) Perfectly elastic elasticity equal to
(b) Perfectly inelastic (a) Zero (b) One
(c) Elastic in nature (c) Less than one (d) Infinity
(d) All of the above Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q56. A ‗Market Economy‘ is one which
Q49. The law of diminishing returns applies to (a) is controlled by the Government
(a) All sectors (b) is free from the Government control
(b) Industrial sector (c) in influenced by international market forces
(c) Agricultural sector (d) All of these
(d) Service sector Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Q57. Multiplier process in economic theory is
Q50. In short run, if a competitive firm incurs losses, conventionally taken to mean :
it will (a) the manner in which prices increase
(a) stop production. (b) the manner in which banks create credit
(b) continue to produce as long as it can cover its variable (c) income of an economy grows on account of an initial
costs. investment
(c) raise price of its product.
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(d) the manner in which government expenditure (a) David Ricardo
(b) John Stuart Mill
Ans: (c) (c) Thomas Malthus
Q58. Say‘s Law of Market holds that (d) John Maynard Keynes
(a) supply is not equal to demand Ans: (d)
(b) supply creates its own demand Q66. ‗Supply creates its own demand‘.
(c) demand creates its own supply This statement is related to
(d) supply is greater than demand (a) Prof. J.B. Say
Ans: (b) (b) John Robinson
Q59. The method of calculating the national income (c) Adam Smith
by the product method is otherwise known as : (d) J.S. Mill
(a) Income method Ans: (a)
(b) Value added method Q67. Which one of the following is not a method of
(c) Expenditure method estimating National Income ?
(d) Net output method (a) Expenditure method
Ans: (d) (b) Product method
Q60. When aggregate supply exceeds aggregate (c) Matrix method
demand (d) Income method
(a) unemployment falls Ans: (c)
(b) prices rise Q68. An individual‘s actual standard of living can be
(c) inventories accumulate assessed by
(d) unemployment develops (a) Gross National Income
Ans: (c) (b) Net National Income
Q61. Investment and savings are kept equal through a (c) Per Capita Income
change in the level of (d) Disposable Personal Income
(a) Consumption Ans: (c)
(b) Investment Q69. ‗Personal Income‘ equals
(c) Government expenditure (a) The household sector‘s income
(d) Income (b) Private income minus savings of the corporate sector
Ans: (a) minus corporation tax
Q62. While determining income the expenditure on (c) Personal disposable income plus miscellaneous
which of the following items is not considered as receipts of the Goverment
investment ? (d) All of the above
(a) Construction of factory Ans: (c)
(b) Computer Q70. In accounting terms, what constitutes the
(c) Increase in the stock of unsold articles ‗closing stock‘?
(d) Stock and share in joint stock company (a) Net Investment
Ans: (c) (b) Gross Investment-Capital Losses
Q63. The term ‗Green GNP‘ emphasises (c) Opening Stock-Capital Losses
(a) rapid growth of GNP (d) Opening Stock + Net Investment – Capital Losses
(b) increase in per capita income Ans: (d)
(c) economic development Q71. Liquidity Preference means
(d) sustainable development (a) holding assets in the form of bonds and shares
Ans: (d) (b) holding assets in the form of cash
Q64. ―Supply creates its own demand‖ – Who said (c) creation of immovable property
this ? (d) assets in the form of jewellery
(a) J. B. Say (b) J. S. Mill Ans: (b)
(c) J. M. Keynes (d) Senior Q72. Net National Product in National Income
Ans: (a) Accounting refers to
Q65. Who among the following is not a classical (a) Gross Domestic Product— Depreciation
economist? (b) Gross Domestic Product + Subsidies
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(c) Gross National Product— Depreciation
(d) Gross National Product + Subsidies
Q80. A camera in the hands of a professional
photographer is a _______ good.
Ans: (c) (a) Free (b) Intermediary
Q73. While estimating national income which of the (c) Consumer (d) Capital
following is not taken into account? Ans: (b)
(a) Services of a teacher Q81. Which of the following is not an investment
(b) Services of a doctor expenditure in goods and services?
(c) Services of a housewife (a) Expansion of the main plant of a company
(d) Services of a maid servant (b) Purchase of a house
Ans: (c) (c) Purchase of machinery
Q74. Full employment is a situation where (d) An increase in business inventories
(a) there is no involuntary unemployment Ans: (b)
(b) there is involuntary unemployment Q82. Which one of the following is not a method for
(c) there is no voluntary unemployment computing GNP ?
(d) there is voluntary unemployment (a) Income Approach
Ans: (b) (b) Expenditure Approach
Q75. National Income include : (c) Savings Approach
(a) Financial help to earthquake victims (d) Value Added Approach
(b) Pocket money of a child Ans: (a)
(c) Winning of a lottery prize Q83. Which of the following relations always holds
(d) Construction of a new house true ?
Ans: (d) (a) Income = Consumption + Investment
Q76. A rising Per Capita Income will indicate a better (b) Income = Consumption + Saving
welfare if it is accompanied by (c) Saving = Investment
(a) unchanged Income distribution overall. (d) Income = Consumption + Saving + Investment
(b) changed Income distribution in favour of rich. Ans: (b)
(c) changed Income distribution in favour of poor. Q84. The main emphasis of Keynesian economics is on
(d) changed Income disribution in favour of Industrial (a) Expenditure (b) Exchange
Labour. (c) Foreign trade (d) Taxation
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q77. Which of the following would not constitute an Q85. The value of investment multiplier relates to
economic activity in Economics ? (a) change in income due to change in aut onomous
(a) A teacher teaching students in his college investment.
(b) A teacher teaching students in a coaching institute (b) change in autonomous investment due to change in
(c) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home income.
(d) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shik sha (c) change in income due to change in consumption.
Abbiyan Scheme (d) change in the income due to change in induced
Ans: (c) investment.
Q78. Price mechanism is a feature of Ans: (b)
(a) Capitalist economy Q86. Collective consumption means
(b) Barter economy (a) household consumption
(c) Mixed economy (b) individual consumption
(d) Socialist economy (c) self–consumption
Ans: (a) (d) consumption by the citizens of the country
Q79. Which one of the following is not a dimension of Ans: (d)
human development index ? Q87. If a change in all inputs leads to a proportionate
(a) Life expectancy change in output, it is case of
(b) Knowledge (a) Constant returns to scale
(c) Social status (b) Diminishing returns to scale
(d) Standard of living (c) Increasing returns to scale
Ans: (c) (d) Variable returns to scale
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Q88. One of the features of a free market economy is
Ans: (a) (c) Securities issued by the private sector
(d) Securities issued by the joint venture companies
(a) active state intervention Ans: (b)
(b) public ownership of factors of production Q96. Selling cost have to be incurred in case of
(c) rationing and price control (a) Perfect Competition
(d) consumer‘s sovereignty (b) Monopoly
Ans: (d) (c) Monopolistic Competition
Q89. When income increase, consumption also (d) None of the given options
increases : Ans: (c)
(a) in a lower proportion Q97. The term ‗Macro Economics‘ was used by
(b) in a higher proportion __________ .
(c) in the same proportion (a) J.M. Keynes
(d) None of the options (b) Ragner Frisch
Ans: (a) (c) Ragner Nurkse
Q90. The Ability Principle of Taxation is given by (d) Prof. Knight
(a) Adam Smith Ans: (b)
(b) Edgeworth Q98. The demand of a commodity is a direct demand
(c) Joan Robinson but the demand of a factor of production is called a
(d) J.S.Mill (a) Crossed demand
Ans: (a) (b) Joint demand
Q91. Situation Analysis is useful for: (c) Derived demand
(a) Analysis of Capital Market (d) Independent demand
(b) SWOT Analysis Ans: (c)
(c) Capital Market Q99. The basis of determining dearness allowance to
(d) Analysis of Capital Market and Capital Market employees in India is _______
Ans: (b) (a) National Income
Q92. Which of the following curve descr ibes the (b) Consumer Price Index
variation of household expenditure on a particular (c) Standard of Living
good with respect to household income ? (d) Inflation Rate
(a) Demand curve Ans: (b)
(b) Engel curve Q100. ‖The General Equilibrium Analysis‖ was
(c) Great Gatsby curve developed by
(d) Cost curve (a) Marshall (b) Ricardo
Ans: (b) (c) Walras (d) Adam Smith
Q93. Equilibrium output is determined by: Ans: (c)
(a) the equality between total Var iable cost and Marginal Q101. What is included in the Tetiary sector ?
revenue. (a) Banking
(b) the equality betweem Marginal cost and Marginal (b) Manufacturing
revenue. (c) Forestry
(c) the equality between Average cost and Average (d) Mining
revenue. Ans: (a)
(d) the equality between total cost and total revenue. Q102. Elasticity of demand is the degree of
Ans: (b) responsiveness of demand of a commodity to a
Q94. Pump priming should be resorted to at a time of (a) change in consumers‘ wealth
? (b) change in the price of substitutes
(a) Inflation (b) Deflation (c) change in consumers‘ tastes
(c) Stagflation (d) Reflation (d) change in its price
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q95. What are gilt–edged securities? Q103. The first computer made available for
(a) Securities issued by the multinational companies. commercial use was :
(b) Securities issued by the Government (a) MANIAC (b) ENIAC
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(d) EDSAC
Ans: (c)
(d) Industry, Trade and Transport
Ans: (b)
Q104. The Great Depression occurred during Q112. Interest on public debt is part of
(a) 1914-18 (b) 1929-34 (a) Transfer payments by the enterprises
(c) 1939-45 (d) 1922-26 (b) Transfer payments by the government
Ans: (b) (c) National income
Q105. ‗Take-off stage‘ in an economy means (d) Interest payments by households
(a) Steady growth begins. Ans: (b)
(b) Economy is stagnant. Q113. Which of the following is not viewed as national
(c) Economy is about to collapse. debt ?
(d) All controls are removed. (a) Life Insurance Policies
Ans: (a) (b) Long-term Government Bonds
Q106. The difference in the value of visible exports (c) National Savings Certificates
and visible imports is called : (d) Provident Fund
(a) Balance Sheet of items Ans: (a)
(b) Balance of Payments Q114. A mixed economy works primarily through the
(c) Balance of Trade (d) Balance of Account (a) market mechanism
Ans: (c) (b) central allocative machinery
Q107. Sectoral distribution of GDP in dex (c) market mechanism regulated by Government policy
measures_________ (d) market mechanism guided by Government
(a) Agriculture development of a country participation and planning
(b) Economic development of a country Ans: (d)
(c) Social development of a country Q115. Capital formation in an economy depends on
(d) Socio-Economic development of a Country (a) Total Income
Ans: (b) (b) Total demand
Q108. Indirect tax means : (c) Total savings
(a) there is not direct relationship be tween the tax payer (d) Total production
and the government. Ans: (c)
(b) direct relationship between tax payer and the Q116. Which one of the following items is not
government. included in the current account of India‘s Balance of
(c) tax base is income Payments ?
(d) the incidence and impact are on the same person on (a) Short-term commercial borrowings
whom tax is imposed. (b) Non-monetary gold movements
Ans: (a) (c) Investment income
Q109. What does a Leasing Company provide ? (d) Transfer payments
(a) Machinery and capital equipment on hire Ans: (b)
(b) Legal guidance in establishing an enterprise Q117. The permission given to a bank customer to
(c) Office accommodation on hire draw cheques in excess of his current account balance
(d) Technical consultancy and experts for a fee is called
Ans: (a) (a) a personal loan
Q110. An economy is in equili-brium when (b) an ordinary loan
(a) planned consumption exceeds planned saving (c) discounting a bill of exchange
(b) planned consumption exceeds planned investment (d) an overdraft
(c) intended investment equals intended investment Ans: (d)
(d) intended investment exceeds intended savings Q118. The existence of a parallel economy or Black
Ans: (c) Money
Q111. What are the main components of basic social (a) makes the economy more competitive
infrastructure of an economy ? (b) makes the monetary policies less effective
(a) Education, Industry and Agriculture (c) ensures a better distribution of income and wealth
(b) Education, Health and Civil amenities (d) ensures increasing productive investment
(c) Transport, Health and Banks Ans: (b)
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Q119. What is dual pricing? https://telegram.me/aedahamlibra
(a) Wholesale price and Retail pricing
Q127. Which of the following subjects does not figure
in the Concurrent List of our Constitution ?
(b) Pricing by agents and Pricing by retaliers (a) Stock Exchanges and futures markets
(c) Price fixed by Government and Price in open market (b) Protection of wild animals and birds
(d) Daily prices and Weekly prices (c) Forests
Ans: (c) (d) Trade unions
Q120. Beyond a certain point deficit financing will Ans: (a)
certainly lead to Q128. Mixed Economy means :
(a) inflation (a) Promoting both agriculture and industries in the
(b) deflation economy
(c) recession (b) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(d) economic stagnation (c) Co-existence of rich and poor
Ans: (a) (d) Co-existence of small and large industries
Q121. Ad Valorem tax is levied Ans: (b)
(a) according to value added by the Government. Q129. The aim of Differentiated Interest Scheme was
(b) according to value addition to a commodity to provide concessional loans to _______.
(c) according to value given by producers (a) weaker section of the society
(d) according to value added by the finance ministry (b) Public Sector Industries
Ans: (c) (c) Public Limited Companies
Q122. Core Industries are (d) big exports
(a) Basic industries Ans: (a)
(b) Consumer goods industries Q130. When too much money is chasing too few
(c) Capital goods industries goods, the situation is
(d) Government industries (a) deflation (b) inflation
Ans: (a) (c) recession (d) stagflation
Q123. Which one of the following is not a ‗canon of Ans: (b)
taxation‘ according to Adam Smith ? Q131. Devaluation of money means :
(a) Canon of certainty (a) decrease in the internal value of money
(b) Canon of simplicity (b) decrease in the external value of money
(c) Canon of convenience (c) decrease in both internal and external value of money
(d) Canon of economy (d) the government takes back currency notes of any
Ans: (b) denominations
Q124. Which one of the following is not included i n Ans: (b)
current revenue of the Union Government ? Q132. The ratio of a bank‘s cash holdings to its total
(a) Tax revenue deposit liabilities is called the
(b) Non-tax revenue (a) Variable Reserve Ratio
(c) Loans (b) Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) Interest payments (c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Ans: (c) (d) Minimum Reserve Ratio
Q125. ―Functional Finance‖ is associated with : Ans: (b)
(a) Adolph Wogner Q133. ―Dear Money‖ means
(b) Adam Smith (a) low rate of interest
(c) Adams (b) high rate of interest
(d) Abba ‗P‘ Lerner (c) depression
Ans: (d) (d) inflation
Q126. Which of the following is an indirect tax ? Ans: (b)
(a) Capital Gains Tax Q134. The share broker who sells shares in the
(b) Excise Duty apprehension of falling prices of shares is called
(c) Wealth Tax (a) Bull (b) Dog
(d) Estate Duty (c) Bear (d) Stag
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
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(a) supply and demand
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Q135. ‗Gresham‘s Law‘ in Economics relates to Q143. Bank money refers to
(a) currency notes
(b) circulation of currency (b) coins
(c) consumption of supply (c) gold bullions
(d) distribution of goods and services (d) cheques
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q136. What does ECS in banking transactions stand Q144. If the Central Bank wants to encourage an
for ? increase in the supply of money and decrease in the
(a) Excess Credit Supervisor cost of borrowing money, it should
(b) Extra Cash Status (a) lower cash reserve ratio
(c) Exchange Clearing Standard (b) raise discount rates
(d) lectronic Clearing Service (c) sell government securities
Ans: (d) (d) All of the above
Q137. When too much money is chasing too few Ans: (a)
goods, the situation is Q145. ‗Money‘ is an example of
(a) Deflation (b) Inflation (a) Sunk capital
(c) Recession (d) Stagflation (b) Floating capital
Ans: (b) (c) Concrete capital
Q138. Green banking means (d) Social capital
(a) development of forestry by banks Ans: (b)
(b) financing of environmental friendly projects by banks Q146. Inflation is caused by
(c) financing of irrigation projects by banks (a) increase in money supply and decrease in production
(d) None of the above (b) increase in money supply
Ans: (b) (c) increase in production
Q139. The term stagflation refers to a situation where (d) decrease in production
(a) growth has no relation with the change in prices Ans: (a)
(b) rate of growth and prices both are decreasing Q147. Pegging up of a currency means, fixing the
(c) rate of growth in faster than the rate of price increase value of a currency
(d) rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase (a) at a constant level
Ans: (d) (b) at a lower level
Q140. Inflation redistributes income and wealth in (c) at a higher level
favour of : (d) leaving it to market forces
(a) Pensioners (b) Poor Ans: (a)
(c) Middle class (d) Rich Q148. Debenture holders of a company are its
Ans: (d) (a) Shareholders (b) Creditors
Q141. Bank rate is the rate of interest (c) Debtors (d) Directors
(a) at which public borrows money from Commercial Ans: (b)
Bank Q149. The Cash Reserve Ratio is a tool of :
(b) at which public borrows money from RBI (a) Monetary policy
(c) at which Commerical Banks borrow money from RBI (b) Tax policy
(d) at which Commerical Banks borrow money from (c) Agricultural policy
public (d) Fiscal policy
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q142. For channelising the unaccounted money for Q150. MUDRA Bank has been launched to help
productive purposes the Government Introduced th e (a) Small business
scheme of : (b) Marginal farmers
(a) Special Bearer Bonds (c) Poor women
(b) Resurgent India Bonds (d) Rural sector
(c) Provident Funds Ans: (a)
(d) Market Loans Q151. ‖Smart Money‖ term is used for
Ans: (a) (a) Credit Card
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(b) Internet Banking
(c) eBanking
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(d) Integration of the various sectors of economy
Ans: (c)
(d) Cash with Public Q159. Dumping is a form of price discrimination at
Ans: (a) (a) within industry
Q152. What is the role of ―Ombudsman‖ in a bank? (b) national level
(a) To provide quality and speedy redressal of grievances (c) international level
of customers. (d) local level
(b) To provide suggestions for innovative schemes in the Ans: (c)
banks. Q160. Which type of foreign investment is considered
(c) To inspect the internal working of the branches. as unsafe?
(d) To monitor the poverty alleviation programmes (a) Foreign Direct Investment
undertaken by or implemented by the bank. (FDI)
Ans: (a) (b) Portfolio Investment
Q153. A closed economy is one which (c) NRI deposits
(a) Does not trade with other countries (d) External commercial borrowing
(b) Does not possess any means of international transport Ans: (b)
(c) Does not have a coatastal line Q161. Which among the following has the least
(d) Is not a member of the U.N.O. possibility of globalisation ?
Ans: (a) (a) selection of labour force
Q154. The difference between visible exports and (b) location of capital works
visible imports is defined as (c) to manage resources for investment
(a) Balance of trade (d) increase in infrastructure
(b) Balance of payment Ans: (b)
(c) Balanced terms of trade Q162. Which natioalised bank of India has a shining
(d) Gains from trade star as its emblem?
Ans: (a) (a) Syndicate Bank
Q155. A favourable Balance of Trade of a country (b) Indian Bank
implies that (c) Bank of India
(a) Imports are greater than Exports (d) Bank of Baroda
(b) Exports are greater than Imports Ans: (c)
(c) Both Imports and Exports are equal Q163. The data collection for national income
(d) Rising Imports and Falling Exports estimation is conducted in India by—
Ans: (b) (a) The Finance Ministry of the Government of India
Q156. Theoretically trade between two countries lakes (b) The RBI
place on account of (c) The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organi-sation)
(a) differences in costs (d) None of these
(b) scarcity of goods Ans: (c)
(c) comparative differences in costs Q164. ‗NABARD‘ is associated with the development
(d) need for exports of
Ans: (c) (a) agricultural sector and rural areas
Q157. Floating Exchange Rate is also referred to as (b) heavy industries
(a) Flexible Exchange Rate (c) banking sector
(b) Fixed Exchange Rate (d) real estates
(c) Real Exchange Rate Ans: (a)
(d) Controlled Exchange Rate Q165. One of the main factors that led to rapid
Ans: (a) expansion of Indian exports is
Q158. Globalisation means (a) Imposition of import duties
(a) Integration of economy (b) Liberalisation of the economy
(b) Integration of financial market (c) Recession in other countries
(c) Inte gration of the domestic economy with the world (d) Diversification of exports
economy Ans: (d)
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Q166. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
(a) land surplus, labour scarce economy
(a) China
(c) India
(b) Japan
(d) Pakistan
(b) land surplus, labour surplus economy Ans: (a)
(c) land scarce, labour surplus economy Q175. AGMARK is a guarantee of standard :
(d) land scarce, labour scarce economy (a) quality (b) quantity
Ans: (c) (c) weight (d) size
Q167. The monetary policy is India is formulated by Ans: (a)
(a) Central Government Q176. Capital Market Regulator is:
(b) Industrial Financial Corporation of India (a) NSE (b) RBI
(c) Reserve Bank of India (c) SEBI (d) IRDA
(d) Industrial Development Bank of India Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q177. The upper limit of investment in plant and
Q168. When was the Minimum Wages Act enacted in machinery for smallscale industries has been fixed
India ? currently at
(a) 1936 (b) 1948 (a) 35 lakhs (b) 45 lakhs
(c) 1951 (d) 1956 (c) 60 lakhs (d) 1 crore
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q169. Poverty in less developed countries is largely Q178. Steel sheets used in the production of furnitures
due to is an example of
(a) voluntary idleness (a) an intermediate good
(b) income inequality (b) a final good
(c) lack of cultural activities (c) an investment good
(d) lack of intelligence of the people (d) a consumption good
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q170. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in Q179. Economies of a firm are :
(a) 1948 (b) 1947 (a) An increase in its profits
(c) 1949 (d) 1950 (b) A reduction in its selling expenses
Ans: (c) (c) Its dominance of the market
Q171. Distribution of food rains operates under a two (d) Saving in it‘s production costs
tier system with the introduction of Ans: (d)
(a) Targetted Public Distribution System Q180. The time element in price analysis was
(b) The Consumers Cooperatives introduced by :
(c) The Cooperative Marketing Societies (a) J.M. Keynes
(d) The Service Cooperatives (b) Alfred Marshall
Ans: (a) (c) J.S. Mill
Q172. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic (d) J.R. Hicks
drugs and opium come under— Ans: (b)
(a) Central Excise Duty Q181. If the fixed costs of a factory producing candles
(b) Land Revenue is Rs 20,000, selling price is Rs 30 per dozen candles
(c) State Excise Duty and variable cost is Rs 1.5 per candle, what is the
(d) General Sales Tax break-even quantity?
Ans: (a) (a) 20000 (b) 10000
Q173. The Imperial Bank of India, after its (c) 15000 (d) 12000
nationalisation came to be known as : Ans: (a)
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) United Bank of India
Physics
(d) Indian Overseas Bank
Ans: (b) Q1. Which among the following waves is used for
Q174. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) concept was first communication by artificial satellites ?
introduced in
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(a) Micro waves
(b) Radio waves
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(d) artificial radioactivity
Ans: (a)
(c) A. M. Q10. The source of the Sun‘s energy is the process of
(d) Frequency of 1016 series (a) Photoelectric emission
Ans: (a) (b) Nuclear fission
Q2. Which among the following is the fundamental (c) Nuclear fusion
quantity ? (d) Thermionic emission
(a) Volume (b) Time Ans: (c)
(c) Velocity (d) Force Q11. What is colour of light related to ?
Ans: (b) (a) Amplitude (b) Frequency
Q3. The mass of a star is two times the mass of the (c) Quality (d) Velocity
Sun. How it will come to an end ? Ans: (a)
(a) Neutron Star Q12. What apparatus is used to locate a submerged
(b) Black hole object?
(c) White Dwarf (a) Radar (b) Sonar
(d) Red Giant (c) Quasar (d) Pulsar
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q4. What is the minimum escape velocity of rocket to Q13. The shape of our milky way galaxy is
be launched into space ? (a) circular (b) elliptical
(a) 5 Km/Sec. (b) 6 Km/Sec. (c) spiral
(c) 11 Km/Sec. (d) 15 Km/Sec. (d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q5. A boat will submerge when it displaces water Q14. Wollen clothes keep the body warm because
equal to its own: (a) Wool increases the temperature of the body
(a) volume (b) weight (b) Wool is a bad conductor
(c) surface area (d) density (c) Wool absorbs radiant heat from outer objects
Ans: (b) (d) Wool rejects heat from the outer objects
Q6. Two waves, each of amplitude 1.5 mm and Ans: (b)
frequency 10 Hz, are travelling in opposite direction Q15. When a barometer reading suddenly recedes, it
with a speed of 20 mm/s. T he distance in mm between indicates that climate–
adjacent nodes is : (a) will be very warm
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (b) will be extremely stormy
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 (c) will remain cold
Ans: (a) (d) incessant rain for at least 48 hours
Q7. The velocity of sound in moist air is more than in Ans: (b)
dry air because the moist air has Q16. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights
(a) less density than dry air. because of
(b) less pressure than dry air. (a) conduction
(c) more pressure than dry air. (b) condensation
(d) more density than dry air. (c) radiation
Ans: (a) (d) insolation
Q8. Ultra violet radiations of the Sun do not reach the Ans: (c)
earth because, earth‘s atmosphere is surrounded by Q17. The speed of light with the rise in the
(a) Carbon dioxide temperature of the medium :
(b) Ammonia (a) Increases
(c) Chlorine (d) Ozone (b) Decreases
Ans: (d) (c) Remains unaltered
Q9. Energy is continuously created in the sun due to: (d) Drops suddenly
(a) nuclear fusion Ans: (c)
(b) nuclear fission Q18. When the barometer reading dips suddenly, it is
(c) radioactivity an indication of
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(a) Hot weather
(b) Calm weather
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Q26. Decibel is the unit used for
(a) Speed of light
(c) Storm (b) Intensity of heat
(d) Dry weather (c) Intensity of sound
Ans: (c) (d) Radio wave frequency
Q19. The term ‗equinox‘ means Ans: (c)
(a) The path which the Earth takes around the Sun Q27. The mass-energy relation is the outcome of
(b) The axis of the Earth around which it rotates (a) quantum theory
(c) When the day and night are of equal duration (b) general theory of relativity
(d) The time when the Sun seems to be going round and (c) field theory of energy
round in the sky in the Arctic but does not go below the (d) special theory of relativity
horizon Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q28. A simple microscope consists of :
Q20. If the velocity -time graph of a part icle is (a) a short focus convex lens
represented by y = mt + c, then the particle is moving (b) a long focus convex lens
with (c) a short focus concave lens
(a) constant speed (d) a long focus concave lens
(b) constant velocity Ans: (a)
(c) constant acceleration Q29. When the main switch of the house is put off it
(d) varying acceleration disconnects the
Ans: (c) (a) live wire only
Q21. Longitudinal waves cannot travel through (b) live wire and the earth wire
(a) Vacuum (b) Solid (c) live wire and the neutral wire
(c) Liquid (d) Gas (d) earth wire and the neutral wire
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q22. Who measured the velocity of light first ? Q30. The sudden fall of atmospheric pressure
(a) Galileo (b) Newton indicates
(c) Romer (d) Einstein (a) fair weather (b) storm
Ans: (c) (c) rain (d) cold weather
Q23. Dynamo is a device for converting Ans: (b)
(a) Heat energy into electrical energy Q31. What is the reason for twinkling of stars ?
(b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy (a) Dispersion of light
(c) Magnetic energy into electrical energy (b) Total internal reflection
(d) Chemical energy into electrical energy (c) Atmospheric reflection
Ans: (b) (d) Atmospheric refraction
Q24. An electron microscope gives higher Ans: (d)
magnification than an optical microscope, because : Q32. A multimeter is used to measure
(a) it uses more powerful lenses (a) current
(b) the velocity of electron is smaller than that of visible (b) voltage
light (c) resistance
(c) the electrons have more energy than the light particles (d) All of the above
(d) the wavelength of electrons is smaller as compared to Ans: (d)
the wavelength of visible light Q33. Which one of the following instruments is used
Ans: (d) to study dispersion of light ?
Q25. For a body moving with non -uniform velocity (a) Microscope
and uniform acceleration (b) Telescope
(a) Displacement – Time graph is linear (c) Spectrometer
(b) Displacement – Time graph is non-linear (d) Photometer
(c) Velocity – Time graph is nonlinear Ans: (c)
(d) Velocity – Time graph is linear Q34. A decibel is
Ans: (b) (a) a musical instrument
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(b) the wavelength of noise
(c) a musical note
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(c) a parachute has a larger surface area and air resistance
is more
(d) a measure of sound level (d) None of these
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q35. Energy of Ultraviolet rays is great than Q42. Alternating current is converted into direct
(a) Infra–red rays current by a
(b) Gamma rays (a) transformer (b) dynamo
(c) X–rays (c) oscillator (d) rectifier
(d) Cosmic rays Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q43. Why two thin shirts can keep us warmer than a
Q36. A hydrogen balloon floats up because of single thick shirt in winter ?
(a) air pressure decreases with decrease in height (a) Two thin shirts become thicker so prevent
(b) air pressure decreases with decrease in weight transmission of heat
(c) weight of the balloon is less than the weight of air (b) Air layer between two shirts works as good conductor
displaced by it. (c) Air layer between t wo shirts behaves like insulating
(d) the pressure inside the balloon is more than the media
pressure outside it (d) No radiation of heat takes place
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q37. In a Laser (say neon laser) all the atoms emit the Q44. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure
light waves of (a) rises suddenly
(a) Same frequency (b) rises gradually
(b) Same amplitude (c) falls suddenly
(c) Same phase (d) falls gradually
(d) All of the above Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) Q45. Smog is a combination of
Q38. What is the full form of ‗AM‘ regarding radio (a) Air and water vapours
broadcasting? (b) Water and smoke
(a) Amplitude Movement (c) Fire and water
(b) Anywhere Movement (d) smoke and fog
(c) Amplitude Matching Ans: (d)
(d) Amplitude Modulation Q46. The process involved in making soap is
Ans: (d) (a) saponification
Q39. The sensation of weightlessness in a spacecraft in (b) hydrolysis
an orbit is due to the (c) condensation
(a) absence of gravity outside (d) polymerisation
(b) acceleration in the orbit which is equal to the Ans: (a)
acceleration due to gravity outside Q47. In severe winter, in cold countries wat er pipes
(c) presence of gravity outside but not inside the burst because
spacecraft (a) water expands on freezing
(d) fact that spacecraft in the orbit has no energy (b) contraction of water pipes
Ans: (b) (c) high atmospheric pressure
Q40. The oldest type of energy known to man is (d) combined effect of all the above three
(a) wind power Ans: (a)
(b) solar power Q48. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the
(c) tidal energy change of
(d) geothermal energy (a) Temperature of air
Ans: (d) (b) Pressure of air
Q41. A parachute descends slowly whereas a stone (c) Moisture content in air
dropped from the same height falls rapidly, because (d) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound
(a) stone is heavier than parachute Ans: (b)
(b) special mechanisms are present in parachute Q49. Why is it difficult to breathe at higher altitudes?
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(a) Due to low air pressure
(b) Due to low temperature
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(b) Convection
(c) Absorption
(c) Due to ozone (d) Advection
(d) Due to high humidity Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q58. Curie point is the temperature at which
Q50. A colour-blind person cannot (a) Matter becomes radioactive
(a) see distant objects (b) A metal loses magnetic properties.
(b) see black colour (c) A metal loses conductivity
(c) distinguish between certain colours (d) Transmutation of metal occurs.
(d) have persistence of vision Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Q59. The spokes used in the wheel of a bicycle
Q51. Atomic power plant works on the principle of increase its
(a) fission (a) Moment of inertia
(b) fusion (b) Velocity
(c) thermal combustion (c) Acceleration
(d) combined effect of all the above three (d) Momentum
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q52. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts Q60. Two stones of unequal masses are thrown
when there is a high rise in vertically up with the same velocity. Which of the
(a) Inductance (b) Current following will happen?
(c) Resistance (d) Capacitance (a) The heavier mass will reach greater height
Ans: (b) (b) The lighter mass will reach greater height
Q53. A soap bubble shows colours when illu minated (c) Both will reach the same height
with white light. This is due to (d) Any of them may reach greater height
(a) Diffraction ()
(b) Polarisation Ans: (c)
(c) Interference Q61. Cloudy nights are warmer compared nights,
(d) Reflection because clouds mainly
Ans: (c) (a) absorb heat from the atmosphere send it towards earth
Q54. Which of the following principle is used to (b) prevent cold waves from the sky descending on earth
produce ‗low-temperatures‘ ? (c) reflect back the heat given by earth
(a) Super conductivity (d) produce heat and radiate it toward earth
(b) Joule-Kelvin effect Ans: (c)
(c) Thermo-electric effect Q62. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically
(d) Adiabatic demagneti-sation (a) Above 20 kHz
Ans: (d) (b) Above 20,000 kHz
Q55. The device used to change the speed of an (c) Below 20 kHz
electric fan is (d) Below 02 kHz
(a) Amplifier (b) Regulator Ans: (c)
(c) Switch (d) Rectifier Q63. The phenomenon of light associated with the
Ans: (b) appear-ance of blue colour of the sky is
Q56. The propagation of sound waves in a gas (a) Interference
involves (b) Reflection
(a) adiabatic compression and rarefaction (c) Refraction
(b) isothermal compression and rarefaction (d) Scattering
(c) isochoric compression and rarefaction Ans: (d)
(d) isobaric compression and rarefaction Q64. The function of ball bearings in a wheel is :
Ans: (a) (a) to increase friction
Q57. Heat transfer horizontally within the (b) to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction
atmosphere is called (c) to convert static friction into kinetic friction
(a) Conduction (d) just for convenience
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Q65. One can distinguish a telescope from a
Ans: (b) (c) to avoid skidding and to minimise friction
(d) to go fast and save fuel.
microscope by observing Ans: (c)
(a) length Q73. When hot -water is sprinkled on a hotter glass
(b) colour tumbler, it breaks because
(c) size of the lens (a) glass suddenly expands
(d) length and size of the lens (b) glass suddenly contracts
Ans: (d) (c) water evaporates
Q66. Electrostatic precipitator is used to control – (d) glass reacts chemically with water
(a) Air pollution Ans: (b)
(b) Water pollution Q74. The velocity of sound in air
(c) Solid waste (a) decreases with increase of temperature
(d) Noise pollution (b) increases with decrease of temperature
Ans: (a) (c) does not depend on temperature
Q67. In MRI machine, which one of the following is (d) decreases with decrease of temperature
used? Ans: (d)
(a) Sound wave Q75. Mud houses are cooler in summers and warmer
(b) ‗X‘-ray in winters as compared to brick houses because
(c) Ultra-sound wave (a) mud is a good conductor
(d) Magnetic wave (b) mud is a bad conductor
Ans: (d) (c) mud is a poor insulator
Q68. A spherical ball made of steel when dropped in (d) evaporation of water causes cooling in summers and
mercury container will sunlight coming through holes causes warming in winters
(a) sink in mercury Ans: (b)
(b) will be on the surface of mercury Q76. A person wears spectates with concave lenses. It
(c) will be partly immersed mercury means that normally (when not using glasses), the
(d) will dissolve in mercury image of distant objects is focussed in his eyes
Ans: (b) (a) behind the retina
Q69. Gamma rays have greatest similarity with (b) in front of the retina
( -rays (b) -rays (c) on the retina
(c) X-rays (d) U.V.-rays (d) on the blind spot
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q70. Light houses are places with powerful lights to : Q77. A sphere rolls down on two inclined planes of
(a) guide and resolve traffic jams in crowded metro -cities different angles but same height, it does so
during nights. (a) in the same time
(b) guide and help large crowds at religious gathering (b) with the same speed
during nights. (c) in the same time with the same speed
(c) indicate to the incoming warships, the location of a (d) in the same time with the same kinetic energy
harbour during night. Ans: (b)
(d) guide and warn the ships coming from different Q78. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2
directions in the ocean. metres. To what height will it rise if there is no loss of
Ans: (d) energy/velocity after rebounding ?
Q71. The density of the liquid when heated (a) 4 metres (b) 3 metres
(a) decreases (c) 2 metres (d) 1 metre
(b) increases Ans: (c)
(c) does not change Q79. Which one of the following has the highest value
(d) may increase of decrease depending on pressure of specific heat?
Ans: (a) (a) Glass (b) Copper
Q72. Vehicle tyres are inflated properly (c) Lead (d) Water
(a) to ensure smooth running. Ans: (d)
(b) to allow the vehicle to take more load.
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Q80. Necessary element of change in solar energy to Q88. In a refrigerator, the cooling system should
always be
(a) Berillium (b) Silicon (a) at the top
(c) Tantelum (d) Pure Copper (b) at the bottom
Ans: (b) (c) at the middle
Q81. Woollen cloth protects the body from cold (d) can be anywhere
because Ans: (b)
(a) it is a good conductor of heat Q89. The sparkling of a diamond is due to
(b) it is a poor conductor of heat (a) total internal reflection of light
(c) external heat rays enter into the body through the (b) interference of light
woollen cloth (c) polarisation of light
(d) it reflects heat (d) refraction of light
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q82. Tape recorder should not be kept near one of the Q90. Waves that are required for long distance
following things : wireless communication are
(a) Clock (b) Magnet (a) Infrared rays
(c) Electrical switchboard (b) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Radio (c) Radio waves
Ans: (b) (d) Microwaves
Q83. Which of the following is a good conductor of Ans: (c)
heat but a bad conductor of electricity ? Q91. It is dangerous to observe Solar eclipse with
(a) Celluloid (b) Rubber naked eyes because
(c) Asbestos (d) Mica (a) Infrared radiations from sun burn our retina
Ans: (d) (b) Ultraviolet radiations from Sun burn our retina
Q84. To measure the speed of an approaching car a (c) All radiations from sun initiate chemical reactions in
police officer shines eyes
(a) light waves on it (d) Cosmic rays reach eyes more during the eclipse
(b) microwaves on it Ans: (b)
(c) radio waves on it Q92. ‗Hydraulic brakes‘ work on the principle of
(d) ultra high frequency waves on it (a) Pascal‘s law
Ans: (c) (b) Thomson‘s law
Q85. Which of the following is a result of Surface (c) Newton‘s law
tension ? (d) Bernoulli‘s theorem
(a) Gravitational pull Ans: (a)
(b) Viscosity Q93. Red is used as an emergency or danger signal as
(c) Capillary action (a) it is a striking colour
(d) Radiation (b) its wavelength is the longest
Ans: (c) (c) it is scattered
Q86. A bird sitting on a high tension electric wire does (d) it has very high energy
not get electrocuted because Ans: (b)
(a) it has high resistance Q94. Small bubbles are perfectly spherical because of
(b) the body is earthed (a) Gravity
(c) it does not form a closed path for the flow of current (b) Pressure
(d) its feet are good insulators (c) Viscosity
Ans: (c) (d) Surface tension
Q87. Radio activity is due to Ans: (d)
(a) unstable nucleus Q95. A light year is a measure of :
(b) stable nucleus (a) Speed (b) Velocity
(c) stable electronic configu-ration (c) Distance (d) Time
(d) stable electronic configu-ration Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q96. Speed of sound in air is unaffected by change in :
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(a) Pressure (b)Humidity
(c) Temperature
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(d) Volume
Q106. The best material for the core of a transformer
is
Ans: (a) (a) stainless steel
Q97. An optically plane surface reflects a beam of (b) mild steel
light (c) hard steel
(a) as a parallel beam in one direction (d) soft iron
(b) as diffused beams in all directions Ans: (d)
(c) as parallel beams in all directions Q107. The width of depletion layer of a P-N junction
(d) as a diffused beam in one direction (a) decreases with light doping
Ans: (a) (b) increases with heavy doping
Q98. How much mechanic al work must be done to (c) is independent of applied voltage
completely melt 1 gram of ice at 0°C ? (d) is increased under reverse bias
(a) 4.2 J (b) 80 J Ans: (d)
(c) 336 J (d) 2268 J Q108. A bottle of sodalime is grasped by the neck and
Ans: (b) swung briskly in a vertical circle, Near which portion
Q99. Negative feedback in amplifiers of the bottle do the bubbles collect?
(a) increases bandwidth and decreases noise (a) Near the bottom
(b) decreases bandwidth and decreases noise (b) In the middle of the bottom
(c) increases bandwidth and increases noise (c) Near the neck
(d) decreases bandwidth and increases noise (d) Bubbles remain distributed uniformly
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q100. A rear-view mirror for driving is Q109. The best conductor of electricity among the
(a) plain (b) concave following is :
(c) convex (d) inverted (a) Copper
Ans: (c) (b) Iron
Q101. The device used for locating submerged objects (c) Aluminium
under sea is. (d) Silver
(a) sonar (b) radar Ans: (d)
(c) laser (d) maser Q110. Decibel is a term connected with :
Ans: (a) (a) air (b) water
Q102. Tear gas used by the police to disperse the mob (c) sound (d) soil
contains Ans: (c)
(a) carbon dioxide Q111. Water will not be vapourised if
(b) chlorine (c) ammonia (a) the temperature is 0°C
(d) hydrogen sulphide (b) the humidity is 0%
Ans: (b) (c) the humidity is 100%
Q103. Kilowatt -hour is the unit of : (d) the temperature is 100°C
(a) Energy (b) Power Ans: (c)
(c) Force (d) Momentum Q112. Which of the following is a conductor of
Ans: (a) electricity ?
Q104. A man cannot see clearly beyond 10 meters. (a) Rubber (b) Pure water
The disease he suffers from : (c) Salt water (d) Benzene
(a) Far sight Ans: (c)
(b) Myopia Q113. The temperature of boiling water in a steam
(c) Cataract engine may be high because :
(d) Hypermetropia (a) there are dissolved substances in water
Ans: (b) (b) there is low pressure inside the boiler
Q105. Light beam which is highly directional is called: (c) there is high pressure inside the boiler
(a) eraser (b) grazer (d) the fire is at very high temperature
(c) maser (d) laser Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
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Q114. In the Earth, the weight of a body is maximum
at the
(c) Ductility
(d) Malleability
(a) North Pole (b) South Pole Ans: (a)
(c) Equator (d) Surface Q122. Persons suffering from myopia are advised to
Ans: (d) use
Q115. A man inside an artificial satellite feels (a) convex lens
weightlessness because the force of attraction due to (b) concave lens
earth is (c) plano-convex lens
(a) zero at that place (d) plano-concave lens
(b) is balanced by the force of attraction due to moon Ans: (b)
(c) equal to the centripetal force Q123. A dynamo is used to convert
(d) non-effective due to particular design of the satellite (a) mechanical energy into electrical energy
Ans: (a) (b) electrical energy into mechanical energy
Q116. The primary colours in photography are (c) electrical energy into magnetic energy
(a) Red, Blue, Yellow (d) magnetic energy into mechanical energy
(b) Red, Yellow, Green Ans: (a)
(c) Red, Blue, Green Q124. Least audible sound for most of the human ear
(d) Blue, Yellow, Green is :
Ans: (a) (a) 10.0 μ bar
Q117. Ozone layer above the surface of Earth (b) 0.0002 μ bar
provides a shield against (c) 0.005 μ bar
(a) X-rays (d) 5.0 μ bar
(b) Ultra-violet rays Ans: (b)
(c) Gamma rays Q125. For which of the following substances, the
(d) Infra-red rays resistance decreases with increase in temperature?
Ans: (b) (a) Pure silicon (b) Copper
Q118. A water tank appears shallower when it is (c) Nichrome (d) Platinum
viewed from top due to Ans: (c)
(a) rectilinear propagation of light Q126. The oil in the wick of an oil lamp rises up due
(b) reflection to:
(c) total internal reflection (a) capillary action
(d) refraction (b) low viscosity of oil
Ans: (d) (c) gravitational force
Q119. Hydraulic machines work under the Principle (d) pressure difference
of : Ans: (a)
(a) Newton‘s Law Q127. The wall of a dam is made thicker at the
(b) Joules Law bottom than at the top beca use the pressure exerted
(c) Pascal‘s Law by the water on the wall
(d) Floatation Law (a) depends on the thickness of the wall
Ans: (c) (b) increases with height of the wall
Q120. A water tank appears shallower when it is (c) increases with depth of the wall
viewed from top due to (d) depends on the area of the wall
(a) rectilinear propagation of light Ans: (c)
(b) reflection Q128. Solar cells work on the principle of
(c) total internal reflection (a) photovoltaic effect
(d) refraction (b) photoelectric effect
Ans: (d) (c) photoconductive effect
Q121. Which of the following properties is generally (d) photosynthesis
found in nonmetals? Ans: (a)
(a) Brittleness
(b) Conductivity
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Q129. When two ice cubes are pressed together, they
join to form one cube. Which one of the following
(b) The metal ball suffers greater change in momentum
(c) Both suffer the same change in momentum
helps to hold them together? (d) The initial momentum of the rubber ball is greater
(a) Hydrogen bond formation than that of the metal ball
(b)Vander waals forces Ans: (a)
(c) Covalent attraction Q137. A NOT gate can be implemented by:
(d) Dipole interaction (a) a single diode
Ans: (a) (b) two diodes
Q130. The dynamo converts (c) a single resistor
(a)mechanical energy into electrical energy (d) a single transistor
(b) electrical energy into mechanical energy Ans: (d)
(c) mechanical energy into magnetic energy Q138. Which one of the following is responsible for
(d)magnetic energy into mechanical energy the working of Newton‘s colour disc experiment ?
Ans: (a) (a) Formation of pure spectra
Q131. A wire carrying current is (b) Formation of impure spectra
(a) positively charged (c) Persistence of vision
(b) negatively charged (d) Principle of complementary colour
(c) neutral Ans: (c)
(d) charged with a type depending upon current strength Q139. Steel is more elastic than rubber because it :
Ans: (c) (a) requires larger deforming force
Q132. Water is not suitable as a calorimetric (b) is never deformed
substance because it : (c) is deformed very easily
(a) has high specific heat (d) is harder than rubber
(b) is a good conductor Ans: (c)
(c) has high boiling point Q140. In radio-communication, the signals emitted by
(d) low latent heat of vapourization transmitting antenna are reflected on
Ans: (a) (a) stratosphere (b) ozonosphere
Q133. Which, of the following radiations has the least (c) ionosphere (d) troposphere
wavelength ? Ans: (c)
(a) X-rays (b) a-rays Q141. Sensitivity of the human eye is maximum in the
(c) g-rays (d) b-rays (a)Violet region (b) Green region
Ans: (c) (c) Blue region (d) Red region
Q134. The motion of a body that repeats itself after a Ans: (b)
regular interval of time is Q142. In Astrophysics, what name is given to a
(a) a periodic motion hypothetical hole in outer space from which star s and
(b) a simple harmonic motion energy emerge?
(c) an aperiodic motion (a) Black hole (b) Ozone hole
(d) an oscillatory motion (c) Asteroid belt (d) White hole
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q135. A barometer is kept inside a bell Q143. The device used for measuring the wavelength
jar. Air is slowly pumped out of the jar. of X-rays is
(a) The mercury level starts rising (a) G.M. Counter
(b) The mercury level starts falling (b) Cyclotron
(c) The mercury level does not change (c) Bragg Spectrometer
(d) The bell jar breaks up (d) Mass Spectrometer
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q136. A metal ball and a rubber ball, both having the Q144. Instrument used to study the behaviour of a
same mass, strike a wall normally with the same vibrating string is :
velocity. The rubber ball rebounds and the metal ball (a) Barometer (b) Hydrometer
does not rebound. It can be concluded that (c) Hygrometer (d) Sonometer
(a) The rubber ball suffers greater change in momentum Ans: (d)
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Q145. When the milk is churned vigorously the cream Ans: (c)
Q153. Flywheel is an important part of a steam engine
(c) Centripetal force because it :
(b) Gravitational force (a) accelerates the speed of the engine
(c) Frictional force (b) helps the engine in keeping the speed uniform
(d) Centrifugal force (c) decreases the moment of inertia
Ans: (d) (d) gives strength to the engine
Q146. When a stone is thrown in the calm water of a Ans: (b)
pond the waves produced on the surface of water in Q154. A real gas can act as an ideal gas in
the pond are (a) high pressure and low temperature
(a) longitudinal (b) low pressure and high temperature
(b) transverse (c) high pressure and high temperature
(c) both longitudinal and transverse (d) low pressure and low temperature
(d) waves are not produced Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q155. If both the mass and the velocity of a body is
Q147. When two semiconductors of pand n -type are increased to twice of their magnitude, the kinetic
brought in contact, they form p -n junction which acts energy will increase by
like a/an (a) 2 times (b) 4 times
(a) Conductor (b) Oscillator (c) 8 times (d) 16 times
(c) Rectifier (d) Amplifier Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Q156. The minimum number of forces to keep a
Q148. Centigrade and Fahrenheit temperatures are particle in equilibrium is
the same at (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 32° (b) 40° (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) –273° (d) –40° Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q157. A thin oil film on a water surface appears
Q149. A wheel-barrow is an example of coloured because of
(a) class III lever (a) reflection (b) interference
(b) pulley system (c) diffraction (d) polarization
(c) class I lever Ans: (b)
(d) class II lever Q158. To open a door easily, the handle should be
Ans: (d) fixed
Q150. The splitting of white light into its components (a) near the hinges
is due to: (b) away from mid-point opposite to hinges
(a) reflection (c) in the middle
(b) refraction (d) None of these
(c) transmission Ans: (d)
(d) dispersion Q159. A particle is moving in a uniform circular
Ans: (d) motion with constant speed v along a circle of radius
Q151. A current carrying conductor is associated with r. The acceleration-of the particle is
(a) a magnetic field (a) zero (b) (c)
(b) an electric field
Ans: (d)
(c) an electro-magnetic field
Q160. The device used to convert solar energy into
(d) an electrostatic field
electricity is
Ans: (c)
(a) Photovoltaic cell
Q152. The threshold frequency is the frequency below
(b) Daniell cell
which :
(c) Electrochemical cell
(a) photo current increases with voltage
(d) Galvanic cell
(b) photo current decreases with voltage
Ans: (a)
(c) photo electric emission is not possible
(d) photo current is constant
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Q161. A wire of resistance R is cut into ‗n‘ equal
parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. The
(a) nail is more longer than needle.
(b) nail exerts more pressure than needle on the balloon.
equivalent resistance of the combination will be (c) needle exerts more pressure than nail on the balloon.
( (a) (b) (c) (d) gas is reactive with the needle.
Ans: (c)
Ans: (d)
Q170. Burns caused by steam are much severe than
Q162. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast to
those caused by boiling water because
half of its length, then the new resistance of the wire
(a) Steam pierces through the pores of body quickly
will be
(b) Steam has latent heat
(a) R/4 (b) R/2
(c) Steam is gas and engulfs the body quickly
(c) R (d) 2R
(d) Temperature of steam is higher
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q163. Rainbow is formed due to
Q171. A person can jump higher on the moon‘s
(a) refraction and dispersion
surface than on the earth because :
(b) scattering and refraction
(a) the moon‘s surface is rough
(c) diffraction and refraction
(b) the acceleration due to gravity in moon is smaller than
(d) refraction and reflection
that on the earth.
Ans: (d)
(c) the moon is cooler than earth
Q164. Distances of stars are measured in
(d) the moon has no atmosphere
(a) Galactic unit
Ans: (b)
(b) Stellar mile
Q172. The apparent weight of a man in a lift is less the
(c) Cosmic kilometre
real weight when :
(d) Light year
(a) the lift is going up with an acceleration
Ans: (d)
(b) the lift is going down with uniform speed
Q165. 1 Micron is equal to
(c) the lift is going up with uniform speed
(a) 10–9 m (b) 10–12m
–6 (d) the lift is going down with an acceleration
(c) 10 m (d) 10–15m
Ans: (d)
Ans: (c)
Q173. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that :
Q166. The waves used in sonography are
(a) the train may not fall down inwards.
(a) Micro waves
(b) the weight of the train may be reduced.
(b) Infra-red waves
(c) necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the
(c) Sound waves
horizontal component of the normal reaction due to track.
(d) Ultrasonic waves
(d) no frictional force may be produced between the
Ans: (d)
wheels and the track.
Q167. A man in a train moving with a constant
Ans: (c)
velocity drops a ball on the platform. The path of the
Q174. When water freezes its density
ball as seen by an observer standing on the platform is
(a) Decreases
(a) A straight line
(b) Becomes Zero
(b) A circle
(c) Remains constant
(c) A parabola
(d) Increases
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Ans: (c)
Q175. When number of turns in a coil is trippled,
Q168. Total internal reflection can not take place
without any change in the length of coil, its self
when light goes from :
inductance becomes?
(a) glass to water
(a) Nine times (b) Three times
(b) water to glass
(c) Six times (d) One–third
(c) water to air
Ans: (a)
(d) glass to air
Q176. Which of the following phenomenon helps to
Ans: (b)
conclude that light is a transverse wave?
Q169. It is easy to burst a gas -filled balloon with a
(a) interference (b) diffraction
neelde than with a nail. It is because
(c) polarisation (d) refraction
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Q177. Unit of resistance is :
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Ans: (c) (b) Land covered with fresh snow
(c) Prairie land
(a) volt2× ampere (d) Paddy crop land
(b) volt/ampere Ans: (b)
(c) ampere/volt Q185. Which of the following is an example of simple
(d) volt × ampere harmonic motion?
Ans: (b) (a) Earth spinning on its axis
Q178. Distant objects are visible as a little out of focus (b) Simple pendulum motion
in this condition : (c) Ball bouncing on floor
(a) presbiopia (d) Motion of a ceiling fan
(b) hypermetropia Ans: (b)
(c) astigmatism Q186. At boiling point of liquids, its
(d) myopia (a) Temperature increases
Ans: (d) (b) Atmospheric pressure increases
Q179. To prevent damage from lightning, lightning (c) Temperature remains constant
conductors are used on tall structures. The lightning (d) Vapour pressure decreases
conductor Ans: (c)
(a) should be made of a good conductor but can be of any Q187. The boiling point of water depends upon the
shape (a) atmospheric pressure
(b) should be in the form of a vertical rod (b) volume
(c) can be of any shape (c) density (d) mass
(d) should be made of a good conductor like copper with Ans: (a)
sharp-pointed edges Q188. The washing machine works on the principle of
Ans: 4) (a) Dialysis (b) Diffusion
Q180. Super cooling stands for cooling of a liquid : (c) Reverse osmosis
(a) at freezing point (d) Centrifugation
(b) below freezing point Ans: (d)
(c) at melting point Q189. Heat is transmitted from higher temperature to
(d) above melting point lower temperature through the actual motion of the
Ans: (b) molecules in
Q181. The SI unit of luminous emittance is : (a) Conduction
(a) Lux (b) Candela (b) Convection
(c) Lumen (c) Radiation
(d) Lumen second (d) Both conduction and convection
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q182. For which one of the following, ‗Diodes‘ are Q190. A galvanometer can be converted into a
generally used for? voltmeter by connecting with it a
(a) Rectification (a) high resistance in parallel
(b) Amplification (b) low resistance on parallel
(c) Modulation (c) high resistance on series
(d) Filtration (d) low resistance in series
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
Q183. The period of revolution of a certain planet in Q191. 0°K is equivalent to
an orbit of radius R is T. Its period of revolution in an (a) 273°C (b) – 273°C
orbit of radius 4R will be: (c) 0°C (d) 100°C
(a) 8 T (b) 4 T Ans: (b)
(c) 6 T (d) 2 T Q192. The absolute zero is a temperature at which
Ans: (a) _______
Q184. Which one of the following reflects back more (a) molecular motion in a gas would cease
sunlight as compared to other three? (b) water freezes
(a) Sand desert (c) all gases become liquid
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Ans: (a)
(d) low resistance
Ans: (c)
Q193. In the absence of the earth‘s atmosphere, sky Q201. Where is a transistor most likely to be found ?
would appear (a) Wrist watch
(a) blue (b) deep red (b) Fuse
(c) white (d) black (c) Hearing aid
Ans: (d) (d) Fluorescent lamp
Q194. In an optical fibre the signal is transmitted Ans: (c)
(a) in a straight line path Q202. Fuse wire is made of an alloy of
(b) In a curved path (a) Tin and Lead
(c) due to total internal reflection (b) Tin and Copper
(d) Due to refraction (c) Lead and Copper
Ans: (c) (d) Copper and Silver
Q195. The temperature of a liquid is 32° Ans: (a)
F. What is its temperature in Celsius scale? Q203. Which one of the following is a good electrical
(a) 32° C (b) 0° C conductor?
(c) 100° C (d) 212° C (a) Graphite (b) Diamond
Ans: (b) (c) Peat (d) Charcoal
Q196. Which of the following is not true about X - Ans: (a)
rays? Q204. The quality or tone of a musical sound
(a) have low penetrating power produced by a stringed instrument depends on
(b) travel with the speed of light (a) frequency of vibration
(c) Can be reflected or refracted (b) length of the strings in the instrument
(d) can affect photographic plates (c) Amplitude of vibration
Ans: (a) (d) wave form of the sound
Q197. Which of the following is the cleanest source of Ans: (d)
energy? Q205. During the motion of a projectile fired from the
(a) Biofuel earth surface, _______
(b) Fossil fuel (a) its kinetic energy remains constant
(c) Nuclear power (b) its momentum remains constant
(d) Wind energy (c) vertical component of its velocity remains constant
Ans: (d) (d) horizontal component of its velocity remains constant
Q198. Sun appears red in colour at sunrise and sunset Ans: (d)
due to Q206. A body moving in a circular path with a
(a) the fact that sun emits only red colour at that time constant speed has a
(b) red light having longer wave length scatters away (a) constant velocity
(c) that sun comes out of the mountains (b) constant acceleration
(d) that all other colours scatter away except red (c) constant kinetic energy
Ans: (d) (d) constant displacement
Q199. In which form is the supplied heat energy Ans: (c)
stored during change in temperature of substance? Q207. Transformer is a device to convert
(a) Heat energy (a) D.C. to A.C.
(b) Kinetic energy (b) Low voltage D.C. into high voltage D.C.
(c) Potential energy (c) Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C.
(d) Both kinetic and potential energy (d) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q200. For photoelectric effect to take place, the metal Q208. One nanometer is equal to ______ meters.
used as the cathode should have______ (a) 10 raised to the power (-3)
(a) high melting point (b) 10 raised to the power (-6)
(b) low melting point (c) 10 raised to the power (-9)
(c) low work function (d) 10 raised to the power (-12)
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Ans: (c)
Q209. Hydraulic brakes in automobile work on
(c) Edward Teller
(d) Samuel Cohen
(a) Poiseuille‘s principle Ans: (c)
(b) Pascal‘s principle Q8. By which organic compound all the oils are
(c) Archimedes‘ principle known ?
(d) Bernoulli‘s principle (a) Carbohydrate
Ans: (b) (b) Protein
(c) Hydrocarbon
(d) Ester
Chemistry Ans: (c)
Q9. The acid used in lead storage cells is
Q1. Cement is made hard with (a) phosphoric acid
(a) dehydration (b) hydrochloric acid
(b) hydration and dissociation of water (c) nitric acid
(c) Dissociation of water (d) sulphuric acid
(d) Polymerisation Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q10. Soap is prepared by boiling caustic soda with
Q2. ―All the four quantum numbers of two electrons (a) Alcohol (b) Kerosene oil
in an atom are not the same.‖ It is the law of — (c) Glycerine (d) Fats
(a) Hund‘s Ans: (d)
(b) Exclusion Principle of Pauli Q11. Which one of the following metals is used to
(c) Uncertainty Principle of Hiesenberg galvanise iron ?
(d) Avogadro‘s Law (a) Copper (b) Lead
Ans: (b) (c) Zinc (d) Mercury
Q3. The gas used for artificial fr uit ripening of green Ans: (c)
fruit is — Q12. Which among the following elements is found in
(a) Ethylene (b) Acetylene maximum percentage in the human body ?
(c) Ethane (d) Methane (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen
Ans: (a) (c) Nitrozen (d) Oxyzen
Q4. An atomic pile is used for Ans: (d)
(a) producing X-rays Q13. Bauxite is an alloy of which of the following
(b) conducting nuclear fission metals ?
(c) coducting thermonuclear fusion (a) Aluminium (b) Silver
(d) accelerating atoms (c) Tin (d) Iron
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q5. The elem ent which is commonly used in nuclear Q14. Which of the following is ozone depleting
for producing electricity by nuclear fission is pesticide ?
(a) Radium (b) Plutonium (a) D.D.T.
(c) Uranium (d) Deuterium (b) Benzene
Ans: (c) (c) Methyl bromide
Q6. Which of the following is used to iodise common (d) Ethylene ozonide
salf ? Ans: (c)
(a) Potassium iodide Q15. Which is abundant in Gobar gas?
(b) Iodine (a) Carbon dioxide
(c) Potassium iodate (b) Methane
(d) Sodium iodide (c) Oxygen
Ans: (c) (d) Hydrogen
Q7. Who developed Hydrogen Bomb? Ans: (b)
(a) Wernher Von Braun Q16. The presence of ozone in the stratosphere is
(b) J. Robert Oppen Heimer responsible for
(a) He asked me what time does the sun set the next day. (b) I asked him where he had lost the pen I have bro ught
(b) He asked me what time the sun would set tomorrow. for him the previous day.
(c) He asked me what time the sun would set the next (c) I asked him where he had lost the pen I had brought
day. for him the previous day.
(d) He asked me what time would the sun set the next (d) I asked him where had he lost the pen I had brought
day. him the previous day.
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q3. ―Tinu, where have you been all these days ?‖ asked Q8. He said, ―Garima wants to take up a job while her
the Principal. husband wants her to look after the family.‖
(a) The Principal asked Tinu where he had been all those (a) He said that Garima wanted to take up a job while her
days. husband wanted her to look after the family.
(b) The Principal asked Tinu where he has been all those (b) He said that Garima wants to take up a job while her
days. husband wanted her to look after the family.
(c) The Principal asked Tinu where had he been all those (c) He told that Garima wanted to take up a job while her
days. husband wants her to look after the family.
(d) The Principal asked to Tinu where was he all those (d) He said to Garima that though she wanted to take up a
days. job while her husband wanted her to look after the
Ans: (a) family.
Q4. ―Have you finished your assignment, Minu ?‖ said Ans: (a)
her brother. Q9. She said, ―When I was a child, I wasn‘t afraid of
(a) Minu‘s brother asked Minu if you have finished your ghosts.‖
assignment. (a) She said that when she was a child she wasn‘t not
(b) Minu‘s brother said to Minu if she had finished her afraid of ghosts.
assignment. (b) She said that when she was a child she hadn‘t been
(c) Minu‘s brother asked her if she had finished her afraid of ghosts.
assignment. (c) She said that when she was a child she wasn‘t afraid
(d) Minu‘s brother asked Minu if she has finished her of ghosts.
assignment (d) She said tha t when she had been a child she wasn‘t
Ans: (c) afraid of ghosts.
Q5. He says, ―I go for a walk every morning.‖ Ans: (c)
(a) He says that he goes for a walk every morning. Q10. He said, ―Reena, do you want to buy a house in
(b) He said that he used to go for a walk every morning Noida ?‖
(c) He said that he goes for a walk every morning. (a) He told Reena if she wanted to buy a house in Noida.
(d) He says he went for a walk every morning. (b) He asked that did she want to buy a house in Noida.
Ans: (a) (c) He asked Reena if she wants to buy a house in Noida.
Q6. The Principal said, ―Why didn‘t you attend the flag (d) He asked Reena if she wanted to buy a house in
hoisting ceremony, Anuj ?‖ Noida.
(a) The Principal asked Anuj why hadn‘t he attended the Ans: (d)
flag hoisting ceremony. Q11. I said to my friend, ―Can I borrow your dictionary
(b) The Principal asked to Anuj why he hadn‘t attended for one day?‖
the flag hoisting ceremony. (a) I asked my friend if I could borrow his dictionary for
(c) The Principal asked Anuj why didn‘t he attend the one day.
flag hoisting ceremony. (b) I aske d my friend if I could borrow your dictionary
(d) The Principal asked Anuj why he didn‘t attend the for one day.
flag hoisting ceremony. (c) I asked my friend if I can borrow his dictionary for
Ans: (d) one day.
Q7. I said to him, ―Where have you lost the pen I brought (d) I asked my friend that if I can borrow his dictionary
for you yesterday ?‖ for one day.
Ans: (a)
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Q12. He said, ―Let Hari come with us, mother. I‘ll take (c) The pilot tol d the passengers
tighten your seat belts.
not to panic but to
(a) He requested his mother to let Hari come with them as (d) The pilot told the passengers not to panic but to
he will take care of him. tighten their seat belts.
(b) He informed his mother to let Hari come with them as Ans: (d)
he would take care of him. Q17. He said, ―Ravi, why are you sounding so depressed
(c) He told his mother to let Hari come with them as he today?‖
would take care of him. (a) He asked Ravi why did he sound so depr essed that
(d) He told to his mother let Hari come with us as he day.
would take care of him. (b) He asked Ravi why he was sounding so depressed
Ans: (c) that day.
Q13. ―No,‖ said the child, ―I won‘t kneel, for if I do, I (c) He told Ravi why he sounded so depressed today.
shall spoil my new pair of trousers.‖ (d) He asked Ravi that why was he sounding so
(a) The child said that he would not kneel for if he did so depressed that day.
he will spoil his new pair of trousers. Ans: (b)
(b) The child said that he will not kneel for if he kneels Q18. ―I shall remain here and the tailor won‘t be ab le to
he will spoil his new pair of trousers. find me,‖ said she.
(c) The child said that he would not kneel for if he did so (a) She said that she should remain there and the tailor
he would spoil his new pair of trousers. won‘t be able to find me.
(d) The child said that I will not kneel for if he did kneel, (b) She said that she should remain there and the tailor
he should spoil his new pair of trousers. would not be able to find her.
Ans: (c) (c) She said that she would remain there and the tailor
Q14. The chairman of the selection committee said, ―We would not be able to find her.
shall finalise the rest of our team after we have selected (d) She said that, she could remain here and the tailor
the skipper.‖ would not find her.
(a) The chairman of the selection committee told that Ans: (c)
they would finalise the rest of our team after we have Q19. Mother said, ―Gaurav, you will be eligible for
selected the skipper. voting when you are 18.‖
(b) The chairman of the selection committee said that we (a) Mother told Gaurav he would be eligible for voting
would finalise the rest of our team after we have selected when he was 18.
the skipper. (b) Mother told Gaurav that he could vote only after 18.
(c) The chairman of the select ion committee said that (c) Mother told Gaurav you will be eligible for voting
they would finalise the rest of their team after they when you are 18.
selected the skipper. (d) Mother told Gaurav that he would be eligible for
(d) The chairman of the selection committee said that voting when he would be 18.
they would finalise the rest of their team after they had Ans: (a)
selected the skipper. Q20. He said, ―Bravo You have done well.‖‘
Ans: (d) (a) He applauded him to say that he had done well.
Q15. He said, ―Has anybody been unkind to you ?‖ (b) He applauded him and said that you have done well.
(a) He asked me if anybody had been unkind to me. (c) He applauded him, saying that he has done well.
(b) He asked me had anybody been unkind to me. (d) He applauded him, saying that he had done well.
(c) He asked me if anybody had been unkind to you. Ans: (d)
(d) He asked me if anybody had been unkind to him. Q21. He said to me, ―You are getting lazy day by day.‖
Ans: (a) (a) He informed me that I am getting lazy day by day.
Q16. The pilot said, ―Please don‘t panic but tighten your (b) He told me that I have been getting lazy day by day.
seat belts.‖ (c) He told me that I was getting lazy day by day.
(a) The pilot told to the passengers that they should not (d) He told me that you were getting lazy day by day.
panic but tighten the seat belts. Ans: (c)
(b) The pilot told the passengers to not panic but to Q22. ―When will I be able to vote?‖ I asked my mother.
tighten their seat belts instead. (a) I asked my mother when would he be able to vote.
(b) I asked to my mother when I will be able to vote.
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(c) I asked my mother when I would be able to vote.
(d) I asked my mother when would I be able to vote.
(c) He asked us why we were all sitting about there doing
nothing.
Ans: (c) (d) He asked us why were we all sitting about there doing
Q23. I said, ―Father, when will you buy me a motor cycle nothing.
?‖ Ans: (c)
(a) I asked my father when will he buy me a motorcycle. Q28. ―May you live long and prosper‖, said the old lady
(b) I asked my father when he will buy me a motor cycle. to her son.
(c) I asked my father when would he buy me a motor (a) The old lady blessed her son with long life and wished
cycle. him prosperity.
(d) I as ked my father when he would buy me a motor (b) The old lady prayed for her son‘s long life and
cycle. prosperity.
Ans: (d) (c) The old lady prayed for her son and said that he might
Q24. He said to me, ―Is there any possibility of my live long and prosper.
getting promotion this year?‖ (d) The old lady blessed her son and prayed for his long
(a) He asked me if there was any possibility of my getting life and prosperity.
promotion this year. Ans: (c)
(b) He asked me if there was any possibility of his getting Q29. ―Many happy returns of your birthday‖, we said.
promotion this year. (a) We greeted him on his birthday.
(c) He asked me if there was any possibility of his getting (b) We said that many happy returns of your birthday.
promotion that year.‖ (c) We wished him many happy returns of his birthday.
(d) He asked me if there is any possibility of his getting (d) We prayed for many happy returns of his birthday.
promotion this year. Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q30. ―Fie a soldier and afraid of fighting ‖ said Babar.
Q25. The dealer said, ―Either make your purchases or (a) Babar exclaimed with surprise that a soldier should be
walk out of my shop.‖ afraid of fighting.
(a) The dealer told the customer that he would either (b) Addressing a soldier, Babar cursed him that he should
make his purchases or walk out of his shop. be afraid of fighting.
(b) The dealer ordered the customer to make his (c) Babar cursed the soldier who was afraid of fighting.
purchases and walk out of his shop. (d) Babar cursed and exclaimed that a soldier should not
(c) The dealer told the customer that he should either be afraid of fighting.
make his purchases, or walk out of his shop. Ans: (d)
(d) The dealer requested the customer to make his Q31. He said to Sita, ―When do you intend to pay back
purchases or walk out of his shop. the money you borrowed from me ?‖
Ans: (c) (a) He enquired Sita when did she intend to pay back the
Q26. He said, ―I do not wish to see any of you; go away.‖ money she borrowed from him.
(a) He said that he had not wished to see any of them and (b) He enquired Sita when she intended to pay back the
ordered them to go away. money she borrowed from him.
(b) He said that he did not wish to see any of them and (c) He enquired Sita when she intended to pay back the
ordered them to go away. money she had borrowed from him.
(c) He told that he did not wish to see any of them and (d) He enquired when Sita intended to pay back the
ordered them to go away. money she borrowed from him.
(d) He said that he does not wish to see any of us an d Ans: (c)
ordered us to go away. Q32. ―So help me Heaven ―he cried, ―I will never steal
Ans: (b) again‖.
Q27. He said to us, ―Why are you all sitting about there (a) He wanted Heaven to help him so that he would never
doing nothing ?‖ steal again.
(a) He asked us why are we all sitting about there doing (b) He exclaimed to Heaven that he would never steal
nothing again.
(b) He asked us why we are all sitting about there doing (c) He exclaimed Heaven to help him that he would never
nothing. steal again.
(c) He ordered me to do as I wished, but not to go and ask Let us go for a picnic today.‖
him for help if, I got into difficulties. (a) I told good morning to my friend and asked to go for a
(d) He told me that unless I did as I wished he would not picnic that day.
come and help me if I got into difficulties. where had he (b) I wished my friend good morning and proposed tha t
been all those we should go for a picnic that day.
Ans: (b) (c) I wished my friend good morning and proposed that
Q53. Socrates said, ―Virtue is its own reward.‖ they should go for a picnic that day.
(a) Socrates said that virtue had its own rewards. (d) I told good morning to my friend and suggested to go
(b) Socrates says that virtue is its own reward. for a picnic today.
(c) Socrates said that virtue is its own reward. Ans: (b)
(d) Socrates said that virtue was its own reward. Q59. The new student asked the old one, ―Do you know
Ans: (c) my name?‖
Q54. He said to the interviewer, ―Could you please repeat (a) The new student asked the old one if he knew his
the question?‖ name.
(a) He requested the interviewer if he could please repeat (b) The new student asked the old one that whether he
the question. knew his name.
(b) He requested the interviewer to please repeat the (c) The new student asked the old one did he know his
question. name
(c) He requested the interviewer to repeat the question. (d) The new student asked the old one if he kn ows his
(d) He requested the interviewer if he could repeat the name
question. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q60. I warned her that I could no longer tolerate her
Q55. He said, ―It used to be a lovely, quiet street.‖ coming late.
(a) He said that it used to be a lovely, quiet street. (a) I said to her, ―You can no longer tolerate my coming
(b) He pointed out that it had used to be a lovely, quiet late.‖
street. (b) I said to her, ―I can no longer tolerate your coming
(c) He said that there used to be a lovely, quiet street. late.‖
(d) He inquired whether there was a lovely, quiet street. (c) I said to her, ―He can no longer tolerate her coming
Ans: (a) late.‖
Q56. The Prime Minister said that no one would be (d) I said to her, ―I can no longer tolerate she coming
allowed to disturb the peace. late.‖
(a) The Prime Minister said, ―We shall not allow any one Ans: (b)
to disturb the peace.‖ Q61. I said to my mother, ―I will certainly take you to
(b) The Prime Minister said, ―We would not allow no one Bangalore this week.‖
to disturb the peace (a) I told my mother he would certainly take her to
(c) The Prime Minister said, ―No one will disturb the Bangalore that week.
peace.‖ (b) I to ld my mother that I would certainly take her to
(d) The Prime Minister said, ―No one can disturb the Bangalore that week.
peace.‖ (c) I told my mother that she would certainly take her to
Ans: (a) Bangalore that week.
Q57. The spectators said, ―Bravo Well done players.‖ (d) I told to my mother that I would take you to
(a) The spectators shouted that the players were doing Bangalore that week.
very well. Ans: (b)
(b) The spectators exclaimed with joy that the players Q62. ―How long does the journey take‖ my co-passenger
were doing very well. asked me.
(c) The spectators applauded the players saying that they (a) My co-passenger asked me how long does the journey
had done well. take?
(d) The spectat ors applauded the players joyfully to do (b) I asked my co -passenger how long the journey would
well. take.
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(c) My co -passenger wanted to know how long the
Q69. The boss said, ―It‘s time we began planning our
Ans: (a)
(c) He reported that the rainfall has been scanty till then. this ?‖
(d) He reported that the rainfall had been scanty till then. (a) The teacher asked the student whether he can explain
Ans: (d) this.
Q75. ―Govind,‖ said the manager sternly, ―I command (b) The teacher asked the student whether he can explain
you to tell me what the old man said.‖ that.
(a) The mana ger sternly told Govind that he commanded (c) The teacher asked the student whether he could
him to tell him what the old man had said. explain this.
(b) The manager commanded sternly to Govind to tell (d) The teacher asked the student whether he could
him what the oldman had said. explain that.
(c) The manager commanded Govind to tell him what the Ans: (d)
old man said. Q82. Ramu said, ―My master is planning to build a huge
(d) The manager stern ly commanded Govind to tell him house in Khandala.‖
what the old man had said. (a) Ramu said that his master planned to build a huge
Ans: (d) house in Khandala.
Q76. I said to him, ―Where have you lost the pen I (b) Ramu said that his master is planning to build a huge
brought for you yesterday ?‖ house in Khandala.
(a) I asked him where he had lost the pen I had brought (c) Ramu said that his master‘s plan is to build a huge
him yesterday. house in Khandala.
(b) I asked him where he had lost the pen I have brought (d) Ramu said that his master was planning to build a
for him the previous day. huge house in Khandala.
(c) I asked him where he had lost the pen I had brought Ans: (d)
for him the previous day. Q83. Nandita said to Nitin, ―Can you solve this sum ?‖
(d) I asked him where had he lost the pen I had brought (a) Nandita asked Nitin if could he solve this sum.
him the previous day. (b) Nandita asked Nitin if could he solve that sum.
Ans: (c) (c) Nandita asked Nitin if he could solve this sum.
Q77. She said to Rita, ―Please help me with my (d) Nandita asked Nitin if he could solve that sum.
homework.‖ Ans: (c)
(a) She requested Rita to help her in her homework. Q84. He said, ―How lovely the scene is ‖
(b) Rita requested her to help her with her homework. (a) He exclaimed that the scene is very lovely.
(c) She requested Rita to help her with her homework. (b) He exclaimed that how the scene was lovely.
(d) She requested Rita to help her homework. (c) He exclaimed that the scene was very lovely.
Ans: (c) (d) He exclaimed that the scene is indeed lovely.
Q78. ―What a stupid fellow you are ‖ she remarked. Ans: (c)
(a) She exclaimed that what a stupid fellow he was. Q85. Bill said, ‗I am here to help you all.‖
(b) She exclaimed that he was a very stupid fellow. (a) Bill said that he is here to help you all.
(c) She exclaimed in disgust how he could be so stupid. (b) Bill said that he was there to help us all.
(d) She asked him what a stupid fellow he was. (c) Bill said that he was here to help us all.
Ans: (b) (d) Bill said that he is there to help us all.
Q79. The police said to the thief, ―Don‘t move.‖ Ans: (b)
(a) The police ordered the thief not to move. Q86. The kids yelled in a loud voice, ―We love our
(b) The police ordered the thief that he should not move. family.‖
(c) The police told the thief that he did not move. (a) The kids yelled loudly that they love our family.
(d) The police ordered to the thief to not move. (b) The kids yelled in a loud voice that they loved their
Ans: (a) family.
Q80. He said, ―I am going to college just now.‖ (c) The kids yelled in a loud voice that they loved our
(a) He said that he was going to college just now. family.
(b) He asked that he was going to college just then. (d) The kids were shouting loudly that they loved their
(c) He said that he was going to college just then. family.
(d) He asked that he was going to college just now. Ans: (b)
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Q87. He said to me, ―Please visit my company (c) He asked me if I have finished reading the magazine.
(d) He asked me whether I finished reading the magazine.
(a) He said to me to visit his company tomorrow. Ans: (a)
(b) He requested me to visit his company tomorrow. Q94. He said, ―We have done our work.‖
(c) He requested me to visit his company the next day. (a) He said that he had done his work.
(d) He said to me to visit his company the next day. (b) He said that they have done their work.
Ans: (c) (c) He said that they had done their work.
Q88. He said, ―My parents are arriving tomorrow.‖ (d) He said that they should do their work.
(a) He said that his parents are arriving the next day. Ans: (c)
(b) He said that his parents were arriving the next day. Q95. He said that he had been waiting there for a long
(c) He said that his parents are arriving tomorrow. time.
(d) He said that his parents have arrived the next day. (a) He said, ―I have been waiting here for a long time.‖
Ans: (b) (b) He said, ―He has been waiting here for a long time.‖
Q89. He said, ―How cruel of him ‖ (c) He said, ―He has been waiting there for a long time.‖
(a) He remarked that it was very cruel of him. (d) He said, ―I am waiting here for a long time.‖
(b) He remarked on his great cruelty. Ans: (a)
(c) He remark that it was very cruel of him. Q96. ―Please, take me to the officer,‖ said the visitor.
(d) He remarked that it is very cruel of him. (a) The visitor requested them to take him to the officer.
Ans: (a) (b) The visitor told them to take him to the officer.
Q90. ―How did it get here ?‖ She wanted to know. (c) The visitor requested for the officer to be taken.
(a) She wanted to know how did it get here. (d) The visitor wanted the officer to take him there.
(b) She wanted to know how it had got there. Ans: (a)
(c) She wanted to know how did it got there. Q97. Nitin said, ―What a pleasant atmosphere this place
(d) She wanted to know how it get there. has ‖
Ans: (b) (a) Nitin exclaimed with joy that place was a pleasant
Q91. ―You are one of Pinkerton‘s men, I presume,‖ he atmosphere.
said. (b) Nitin exclaimed with joy that was a pleasant
(a) He said that he presumed me one of Pinkerton‘s men. atmosphere in that place.
(b) He said that he presumed that I was one of (c) Nitin exclaimed with joy that that place had a pleasant
Pinkerton‘s men. atmosphere.
(c) He said that he presumed me as one of Pinkerton‘s (d) Nitin exclai med with joy that what a pleasant
men. atmosphere that place had.
(d) He said that he presumes that I am one of Pinkerton‘s Ans: (c)
men. Q98. Aarati said, ―1 am in a hurry today.‖
Ans: (c) (a) Aarati said that she was in a hurry that day.
Q92. ―Away ‖ she said to the man, ―do not trouble your (b) Aarati said that I am in a hurry today.
family anymore‖. (c) Aarati said that she is in a hurry today.
(a) She asked the man to go away and not trouble the (d) Aarati said that she is in a hurry that day.
family any more. Ans: (a)
(b) She asked the man not to trouble the family that was Q99. They said, ―We are practising for the next match.‖
away, any more. (a) They said that they are practising for the next match.
(c) S he asked the man not to trouble your family any (b) They said that they practised for the next match.
more and go away. (c) They said that they were practising for the next match.
(d) She asked the man to go away and not trouble his (d) They said they were going to practise for the next
family any more. match.
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Q93. He asked me, ―Have you finished reading the Q100. He said, ―Long may you live.‖
magazine ?‖ (a) He suggested that my life might be long.
(a) He asked me whether I had finished reading the (b) He prayed that my life might be long.
magazine. (c) He prayed that my life may be longer.
(b) He asked me if had I finished reading the magazine. (d) He declared that my life is longer.
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Ans: (b) (c) indifferently
(d) indiscriminately
Ans: (d)
Fill In The Blanks Q9. We are happy to.......the receipt of your order No
4071 dated 13.3.96.
Directions: In these questions, sentences are given with (a) admit (b) accept
blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four (c) acknowledge (d) respond
alternatives are suggested for each question. Ans: (c)
Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives. Q10. All jobs are respectable.......of their nature.
Q1. The flash of the torch.......a cobra. (a) irrelevant
(a) exposed (b) displayed (b) immaterial
(c) disclosed (d) revealed (c) irresponsible
Ans: (d) (d) irrespective
Q2. He.......himself a stiff drink before making his Ans: (d)
statement to the police officer. Q11. Nadheeka was musing ......
(a) threw (b) poured memories of the past.
(c) filled (d) sipped (a) over (b) about
Ans: (b) (c) on (d) from
Q3. It was his.......that led him to penury. Ans: (a)
(a) flamboyance Q12. The lame boy tried to climb up the staircase without
(b) arrogance ...... help.
(c) extravagance (a) little (b) any
(d) ebullience (c) some (d) many
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q4. Gita was known to be a.......so nobody entrusted any Q13. Each school has its own set of rules ......all good
important work to her. pupils should follow them.
(a) joker (b) worker (a) but (b) or
(c) shocker (d) shirker (c) so (d) and
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q5. The statue was so.......that people stared at it in Q14. On my return from a long holiday, I had to ......with
horror. a lot of work.
(a) grotesque (b) exquisite (a) catch on (b) catch up
(c) beatific (d) cumbersome (c) make up (d) take up
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q6. He was caught red -handed and could not.......the Q15. Only one of the boys ......not done the home -work
charges. given yesterday.
(a) refute (b) refuse (a) have (b) has
(c) rebuke (d) revoke (c) can (d) could
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q7. Unhappy about the treatment meted out to her, Q16. Hopes of a settlement depends on the ......of the
Shanti....... discussion.
demanded justice. (a) findings
(a) sumptuously (b) outcome
(b) voraciously (c) break through
(c) spasmodically (d) resolutions
(d) vociferously Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q17. We must avail ourselves ......every opportunity that
Q8. The police sprayed tear gas.......on the protesters. comes ......our way.
(a) indirectly (a) of ; in (b) on ; in
(b) intensively (c) against ; for (d) to ; to
Ans: (a)
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(a) act
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Q18. It is time we ......with determination.
(b) acted
(c) will be higher your bill
(d) the higher your bill will be
(c) have acted (d) will act Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q28. The rich parents decided to send their two sons to
Q19. When the thief entered the house, the inmates ....in Eton, the stronghold of the.....of the rich.
the hall. (a) parents (b) ancestry
(a) were slept (c) pedigree (d) progeny
(b) were sleeping Ans: (d)
(c) slept Q29. She stood.....the crowd quite amazed.
(d) had been sleeping (a) in (b) within
Ans: (b) (c) among (d) into
Q20. 700 men worked for 10 years to......the Borobudur Ans: (a)
temple in Java to its former glory. Q30. The magnificent.....temple was constructed by the
(a) restore (b) give Chinese.
(c) create (d) revive (a) eight-centuries-old
Ans: (a) (b) eight-century‘s-old
Q21. The thief explained how he ....... (c) old-eight centuries
from the jail. (d) eight-century-old
(a) escapes Ans: (d)
(b) had escaped Q31. There were two small rooms in the beach house,
(c) escaped .....served as a kitchen.
(d) has escaped (a) the smaller of which
Ans: (b) (b) the smallest of which
Q22. He held ...... to the books passionately. (c) the smaller of them
(a) on (b) in (d) smallest of that
(c) off (d) away Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q32. Madhu has not been able to recall where.....
Q23. They did not know where they ....... from. (a) does she live.
(a) had come (b) have come (b) she lived.
(c) has come (d) come (c) did she live.
Ans: (a) (d) lived the girl.
Q24. There is only one member who has not paid his ...... Ans: (b)
and he has promised to pay before the end of this month. Q33. You.....mad if you think I‘m going to show my
(a) remittance (b) honorarium answer-sheet.
(c) subscription (d) allowance (a) are supposed to be
Ans: (c) (b) must be
Q25. He was an ...... swimmer, but was swept away by a (c) will be
strong ...... (d) ought to be
(a) eligible; water Ans: (b)
(b) able; stream Q34. If I hadn‘t come along at that moment, Rahim.....the
(c) old; river one arrested instead of the real thief.
(d) expert; current (a) might been
Ans: (d) (b) may have been
Q26. The teacher gives many examples to....the idea (c) can have been
contained in the poem. (d) could have been
(a) bring about (b) bring in Ans: (d)
(c) bring forth (d) bring out Q35. Wheat is not native to India and barley.....
Ans: (d) (a) isn‘t either (b) is either
Q27. The more electricity you use, ..... (c) is neither (d) isn‘t neither
(a) your bill will be higher Ans: (a)
(b) will your bill be higher Q36. It‘ll rain soon, ............ ?
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(a) won‘t it
(c) isn‘t it
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(b) bought it
(d) may it
Q46. A person who ________ on his own effort has the
best chance to win.
Ans: (a) (a) makes (b) puts
Q37. My book is the new one; ............ is the torn one. (c) relies (d) runs
(a) your Ans: (c)
(b) the book of you Q47. When he died, Ramanujan ________ behind 3
(c) yours notebooks.
(d) the book your (a) was leaving (b) had left
Ans: (c) (c) left (d) leaves
Q38. They needn‘t worry, ...........? Ans: (b)
(a) isn‘t it (b) doesn‘t it Q48. For all his ________, he is a _______.
(c) don‘t it (d) need they (a) wealth, miser
Ans: (d) (b) health, player
Q39. He is indifferent ............ praise and blame. (c) tricks, cheat
(a) in (b) to (d) stupidity, fool
(c) for (d) about Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) Q49. In a classroom students are to be trained to love
Q40. King George V‘s accession ............ the throne was _______.
celebrated with great pomp. (a) each other (b) all others
(a) for (b) with (c) one another (d) altogether
(c) against (d) to Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) Q50. Mr. Obi put his whole life_______ the work.
Q41. We are all very indignant ........... the injustice done (a) on (b) in
to him. (c) into (d) upon
(a) for (b) of Ans: (b)
(c) to (d) at Q51. All decisions, ____________, are likely to be taken
Ans: (d) by consensus.
Q42. If she ............ a bird, she would fly. (a) anyhow (b) forever
(a) is (b) are (c) somehow (d) however
(c) were (d) was Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q52. Kumar _________ boy swam across the sea for
Q43. The greater the demand, ............ the price. safety.
(a) higher (b) high (a) a 17-years-old
(c) the higher (d) the high (b) a 17-year-old
Ans: (c) (c) a 17-year-aged
Q44. Since El izabeth Barrett Browning‘s father never (d) the 17-year-old
approved of ............ Robert Browning, the couple eloped Ans: (b)
to Italy where they lived and wrote. Q53. She is beautiful ______ brave.
(a) her to marry (a) but (b) and
(b) her marrying (c) yet (d) so
(c) she marrying Ans: (b)
(d) she to marry Q54. Gandhiji will _________ in history as one of the
Ans: (b) greatest men, that ever lived.
Q45. Canada does not require that U.S. citizens obtain (a) go by (b) go on
passports to enter the country, and ............ (c) go down (d) go through
(a) Mexico does neither Ans: (c)
(b) Mexico doesn‘t either Q55. All the appl icants _______ and the results will be
(c) neither Mexico does announced next week.
(d) either does Mexico (a) rank
Ans: (b) (b) are to rank
(c) are to be ranked
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Ans: (c)
Q66. She was relieved to hear from the doctor t hat the
tumour was not malignant; it was ____ .
Q56. The speaker did not properly space out his speech, (a) exposed (b) benign
but went on _________ one point only. (c) discovered (d) sizeable
(a) stressing (b) avoiding Ans: (b)
(c) devoting (d) decrying Q67. It took the child a long time to recover ______ the
Ans: (a) shock.
Q57. Tourists always enjoyed _________ the setting Sun (a) under (b) from
in the Darjeeling Hills. (c) over (d) about
(a) to watch (b) watching Ans: (b)
(c) in seeing (d) seeing Q68. You have all come well prepared.
Ans: (b) I _____ you to pass this exam.
Q58. A _________ of Japanese artists stepped off the (a) wish (b) except
coach amidst a warm welcome. (c) hope (d) expect
(a) troop (b) troupe Ans: (d)
(c) band (d) gang Q69. Children enjoy _____ the TV programmes.
Ans: (b) (a) to see (b) to watch
Q59. Today students should be reconciled ________ the (c) to look at (d) watching
way things are changing. Ans: (d)
(a) with (b) to Q70. Just as in a family it is the willing cooperation of its
(c) for (d) at members that ___ happiness and contentment, so is it in
Ans: (a) the larger family of the nation.
Q60. Ramappa _________ as the mayor of the town and (a) brought (b) will bring
he will assume charge this Friday. (c) brings (d) bought
(a) elects (b) elected Ans: (c)
(c) is elected (d) is electing Q71. The old man could not remember where he .........
Ans: (c) his money.
Q61. As he proved inefficient the company _______ him. (a) deposits
(a) rejected (b) ejected (b) is depositing
(c) evicted (d) expelled (c) had deposited
Ans: (d) (d) will deposit
Q62. Most people are influenced by ____ advertisements Ans: (c)
and tend to believe the claims made about the product. Q72. Hamid .................. in Mumbai for three years when
(a) colourful (b) aggressive his parents came to visit.
(c) efficient (d) vigorous (a) has lived
Ans: (a) (b) had lived
Q63. The cost of _____ is rising rapidly in this city. (c) was living
(a) being (b) existing (d) had been living
(c) surviving (d) living Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q73. I have little time, so I can tell you only .............
Q64. The meeting is ____ because the funds have not what he said.
arrived. (a) shortly (b) briefly
(a) put in (b) put off (c) little of (d) briskly
(c) put away (d) put out Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q74. Two years have passed since he ............. here.
Q65. It is ______ if we can organise another exam this (a) has come (b) come
month. (c) came (d) had come
(a) doubtful (b) unlikely Ans: (c)
(c) impractical (d) unsure Q75. His wife has a twin who resembles her so much that
Ans: (a) at first he had great trouble telling ...................
(a) one from the other.
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(b) one from another.
(c) each other.
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(c) them
(b) that
(d) this
(d) who is which. Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) Q84. Ten miles ___ a long way to walk.
Q76. At great length, that night they ............. the (a) are (b) is
feasibility of their plans. (c) are being (d) are not
(a) discussed about Ans: (b)
(b) discussed Q85. The mechanic ____ the vehicle since this morning.
(c) discussed regarding (a) repaired
(d) discussed on (b) repairing
Ans: (b) (c) has been repairing
Q77. Will those of you who have objection to this (d) will be repairing
proposal ......put up your hands, please ? Ans: (c)
(a) discussed Q86. I complimented him ___ his success in the
(b) being discussed examination.
(c) having discussed (a) at (b) on
(d) discussing (c) about (d) for
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q78. She had frequent toothaches. So she decided to Q87. Security arrangements have been tightened up in all
................ ____ areas.
(a) remove her teeth (a) sensible (b) sensual
(b) removing her teeth (c) sensitive (d) sensational
(c) have her teeth removed Ans: (c)
(d) having her teeth removed Q88. The dramatist must cater _____ the taste of the
Ans: (c) audience.
Q79. At one time, Mr. Nigel ............ (a) to (b) over
this supermarket. (c) into (d) for
(a) was owing (b) used to own Ans: (d)
(c) had owned (d) owned Q89. Suitable steps are taken to bring ______ the cost of
Ans: (d) living.
Q80. He was ............... accept the grudgingly given (a) up (b) over
invitation. (c) on (d) down
(a) not enough sensible to Ans: (d)
(b) sensible enough to Q90. If I had worked hard, I ____ very high marks in the
(c) sensible enough not to examination.
(d) sensible enough to not (a) scored
Ans: (c) (b) would score
Q81. The little girl was knocked down by a speeding car (c) could score
and she lost her _____ immediately. (d) would have scored
(a) conscience Ans: (d)
(b) conscientious Q91. I am satisfied .......... his innocence.
(c) conscious (a) at (b) with
(d) consciousness (c) for (d) of
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
Q82. They have had to put ____ the football match Q92. People like to work for organisation that takes
because of snow. interest in their personal and ..........
(a) of (b) off growth.
(c) up (d) on (a) social (b) physical
Ans: (b) (c) financial (d) professional
Q83. She found a few good cards in a shop and she Ans: (d)
bought ___ cards last night.
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Q93. Ram, along with the members of the family and that
of his friend, .......... a movie.
(c) arrogant (d) filthy
Ans: (b)
(a) was watching Q2. COVENANT
(b) were watching (a) case (b) coupon
(c) have been watching (c) contract (d) settlement
(d) watch Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q3. DEFERENCE
Q94. The manager wanted to meet you .......... the theft in (a) indifference (b) sympathy
the office. (c) respect (d) flattery
(a) referring to Ans: (c)
(b) with regard to Q4. ABROGATE
(c) with reference to (a) repeal (b) destroy
(d) in connection with (c) delay (d) dismiss
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q95. I absolutely refuse to put .......... Q5. INTREPID
with that sort of conduct. (a) ambitious (b) determined
(a) up (b) on (c) talkative (d) fearless
(c) off (d) out Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q6. GRANDEUR
Q96. The boy was _____ of cheating in the examination. (a) magnificence (b) admiration
(a) condemned (b) accused (c) happiness (d) awe
(c) charged (d) punished Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) Q7. INCEPTION
Q97. We have two telephone operators, _____ of them (a) initiative (b) beginning
do you want ? (c) initial (d) origin
(a) who (b) whom Ans: (b)
(c) which (d) what Q8. COLOSSAL
Ans: (c) (a) famous (b) vigorous
Q98. I have no _____ motive in offering this advice. (c) energetic (d) enormous
(a) posterior (b) interior Ans: (d)
(c) ulterior (d) exterior Q9. PARADOX
Ans: (c) (a) Paradise (b) question
Q99. _____ politicians are always respected. (c) puzzle (d) challenge
(a) Conscious (b) Conscientious Ans: (c)
(c) Cautious (d) Carefree Q10. PROLIFERATE
Ans: (b) (a) progression (b) prohibit
Q100. We will have to atone _____our misdeeds. (c) stipulate (d) reproduce
(a) at (b) on Ans: (d)
(c) for (d) with Q11. CENSURE
Ans: (c) (a) criticize (b) appreciate
(c) blame (d) abuse
Ans: (a)
Synonyms Q12. DILIGENT
(a) industrious (b) indifferent
Directions: In the following questions, sentences are (c) intelligent (d) energetic
given with blanks to be filled in with appropriate and Ans: (a)
suitable word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each Q13. CONTEMPLATION
question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four. (a) consideration
Q1. OBNOXIOUS (b) meditation
(a) depressing (b) disgusting (c) deliberation
(d) speculation
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Q14. ADULATION
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Ans: (b) Q26. VINDICATE
(a) open (b) ventilate
(a) duration (b) argument (c) justify (d) recommend
(c) flattery (d) institution Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q27. OCCULT
Q15. QUIVER (a) religious (b) unnatural
(a) quarrel (b) quicken (c) supernatural (d) strong
(c) waver (d) tremble Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) Q28. MENACE
Q16. BEAUTIFUL (a) request (b) prayer
(a) handsome (b) alluring (c) threat (d) curse
(c) appealing (d) attractive Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q29. DELINEATE
Q17. MOMENTOUS (a) expand (b) portray
(a) important (b) temporary (c) explain (d) argue
(c) fleeting (d) monumental Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q30. ABROGATE
Q18. INFATUATION (a) elope (b) gate-crash
(a) emotion (b) passion (c) abolish (d) destroy
(c) imagination (d) compassion Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q31. SUCCESSIVE
Q19. CONSIGNEE (a) rapid (b) victorious
(a) delegate (c) beneficent (d) consecutive
(b) representative Ans: (d)
(c) nominee Q32. RAVAGE
(d) messenger (a) destroy (b) break
Ans: (c) (c) demolish (d) abolish
Q20. TRAMP Ans: (c)
(a) wanderer (b) cheat Q33. SUPERSTITIOUS
(c) traveller (d) pilgrim (a) pious (b) traditional
Ans: (a) (c) irrational (d) sacred
Q21. IRREVERENCE Ans: (c)
(a) disrespect (b) cruelty Q34. MENTOR
(c) unkindness (d) invalidity (a) guide (b) genius
Ans: (a) (c) stylist (d) philosopher
Q22. AMICABLE Ans: (a)
(a) poisonous (b) friendly Q35. GARNISH
(c) satisfying (d) heartening (a) paint (b) adorn
Ans: (b) (c) garner (d) banish
Q23. PRUDENT Ans: (b)
(a) skilled (b) experienced Q36. INFRUCTUOUS
(c) cautious (d) criminal (a) meaningless (b) unnecessary
Ans: (c) (c) redundant (d) fruitless
Q24. PANACEA Ans: (d)
(a) flatter (b) praise Q37. FIDELITY
(c) inactivity (d) cure-all (a) affection (b) allegiance
Ans: (d) (c) accuracy (d) loyalty
Q25. BENEVOLENCE Ans: (d)
(a) ill-will (b) morbidity Q38. GRUFF
(c) kindness (d) vision (a) hard (b) rough
Ans: (c) (c) tough (d) sturdy
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Q39. DOLEFUL
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Ans: (b) (b) suspicion
(c) frustration
(a) mournful (b) sober (d) dejection
(c) regretful (d) cheerless Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q52. DILATE
Q40. FATAL (a) spin (b) weaken
(a) terrible (b) deadly (c) widen (d) push
(c) poisonous (d) wrong Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q53. DUPLICATION
Q41. ELUDE (a) breed (b) reproduction
(a) allure (b) leave (c) print (d) copying
(c) deceive (d) escape Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q54. PRIORITY
Q42. PREMONITION (a) urgency (b) protocol
(a) insight (b) uncertainty (c) precedence (d) necessity
(c) forewarning (d) scope Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q55. FLUTTER
Q43. DEROGATORY (a) soar (b) agitate
(a) injurious (b) shattering (c) change (d) float
(c) destructive (d) disparaging Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q56. COMMAND
Q44. NOMADIC (a) lead (b) instruct
(a) fighting (b) rare (c) manage (d) supervise
(c) strange (d) wandering Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q57. GNOME
Q45. RESTIVE (a) giant (b) dwarf
(a) rested (b) restless (c) native (d) alien
(c) limited (d) limitless Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q58. ABLUTION
Q46. ERRONEOUSLY (a) censure (b) forgiveness
(a) previously (b) effectively (c) absolution (d) washing
(c) wrongly (d) evidently Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q59. SURMOUNT
Q47. ESTRANGED (a) discount (b) surround
(a) jealous (b) angry (c) overcome (d) capture
(c) separated (d) suspicious Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q60. TORPID
Q48. CAPITULATE (a) insipid (b) stupid
(a) repeat (b) execute (c) sensitive (d) inactive
(c) summarize (d) surrender Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q61. SELECTION
Q49. PROPITIATE (a) denial (b) preference
(a) conform (b) appease (c) refusal (d) display
(c) influence (d) approach Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q62. OSTENTATION
Q50. CEREMONIAL (a) pomp (b) pretence
(a) religious (b) formal (c) abundance (d) plenty
(c) official (d) pompous Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) Q63. CONVICT
Q51. OBSESSION (a) adventurer (b) fugitive
(a) pre-occupation (c) criminal (d) impostor
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Q64. ITINERANT
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Ans: (c) Q76. OBSTINATE
(a) stubborn (b) pretty
(a) frequent use of the word ‗it‘ (c) silly (d) clever
(b) anything involving repetition Ans: (a)
(c) plan for a proposed journey Q77. ALERT
(d) travelling from place to place (a) hostile (b) watchful
Ans: (d) (c) brave (d) quick
Q65. TRANSPARENT Ans: (b)
(a) verbose (b) involved Q78. ACCEDE
(c) witty (d) lucid (a) consent (b) access
Ans: (d) (c) assess (d) proceed
Q66. ENLIVEN Ans: (a)
(a) dampen (b) cheer Q79. SUPERANNUATED
(c) depress (d) subdue (a) experienced (b) accepted
Ans: (b) (c) retired (d) senile
Q67. HAUGHTY Ans: (c)
(a) humble (b) subservient Q80. AUDACITY
(c) meek (d) conceited (a) strength (b) boldness
Ans: (d) (c) asperity (d) fear
Q68. DEMENTED Ans: (b)
(a) reasonable (b) sensible Q81. DECREPITUDE
(c) idiotic (d) lucid (a) disease (b) coolness
Ans: (c) (c) crowd (d) feebleness
Q69. ILL-BRED Ans: (d)
(a) uncouth (b) well-bred Q82. TRANSITION
(c) courteous (d) mannerly (a) position (b) translation
Ans: (a) (c) change (d) movement
Q70. KNACK Ans: (c)
(a) dexterity (b) awkwardness Q83. ACCUSED
(c) clumsiness (d) disability (a) indicated (b) indicted
Ans: (a) (c) induced (d) instigated
Q71. LACONIC Ans: (b)
(a) loquacious (b) concise Q84. BECKONED
(c) rambling (d) verbose (a) accused (b) called
Ans: (b) (c) sent (d) acquitted
Q72. KNAVISH Ans: (b)
(a) honourable (b) noble Q85. GENUINE
(c) trustworthy (d) unscrupulous (a) generous (b) healthy
Ans: (d) (c) natural (d) original
Q73. ASSERTIVE Ans: (d)
(a) unassertive (b) timorous Q86. SOMBRE
(c) domineering (d) unobtrusive (a) gloomy (b) quiet
Ans: (c) (c) serious (d) sleepy
Q74. CAPRICIOUS Ans: (a)
(a) whimsical (b) unmovable Q87. REGRESS
(c) decisive (d) stable (a) deteriorate (b) Degenerate
Ans: (a) (c) backslide (d) lapse
Q75. DEXTERITY Ans: (c)
(a) incompetence (b) gaucheness Q88. TOXIC
(c) adroitness (d) ineptitude (a) bitter (b) foul-smelling
Ans: (c) (c) remedia (d) poisonous
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Q89. YARDSTICK
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Ans: (d)
Antonyms
(a) summation (b) size
(c) statistics (d) standard
Directions (1-5): In these questions, choose the word
Ans: (d)
opposite in meaning to the word given in bold.
Q90. LITTLE
Q1. OSTRACISE
(a) trivial (b) petty
(a) amuse (b) welcome
(c) sample (d) simple
(c) entertain (d) host
Ans: (a)
Ans: (b)
Q91. AVARICE
Q2. DENSE
(a) generosity (b) envy
(a) scarce (b) slim
(c) greed (d) hatred
(c) sparse (d) lean
Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q92. AUGUST
Q3. PARSIMONIOUS
(a) majestic (b) important
(a) prodigious (b) selfless
(c) difficult (d) huge
(c) extravagant
Ans: (a)
(d) ostentatious
Q93. DECIMATED
Ans: (c)
(a) denounced (b) destroyed
Q4. FETTER
(b) successful (d) depressed
(a) restore (b) liberate
Ans: (b)
(c) exonerate (d) distract
Q94. HURDLE
Ans: (b)
(a) obstacle (b) ban
Q5. HARMONY
(c) hedge (d) relay
(a) strife (b) annoyance
Ans: (a)
(c) cruelty (d) mischief
Q95. RARE
Ans: (a)
(a) common (b) usual
Q6. CONCILIATION
(c) scarce (d) few
(a) dispute (b) irritation
Ans: (c)
(c) separation (d) confrontation
Q96. APPOSITE
Ans: (d)
(a) contrary (b) bitter
Q7. MYTH
(c) appropriate (d) misleading
(a) truth (b) fact
Ans: (c)
(c) falsehood (d) story
Q97. SCORN
Ans: (b)
(a) ridicule (b) laugh
Q8. RELUCTANTLY
(c) condemn (d) criticize
(a) pleasingly (b) willingly
Ans: (c)
(c) satisfactorily (d) happily
Q98. IMPIOUS
Ans: (b)
(a) holy (b) mischievous
Q9. MUTILATE
(c) shrewd (d) irreverent
(a) instruct (b) induct
Ans: (d)
(c) conduct (d) mend
Q99. FREELANCE
Ans: (d)
(a) self-betrayed (b) self-centred
Q10. LAMENT
(c) self-employed (d) self-driven
(a) rejoice (b) rejuvenate
Ans: (c)
(c) complain (d) cry
Q100. SLITHER
Ans: (a)
(a) slide (b) move
Q11. ANIMOSITY
(c) shake (d) slip
(a) love (b) lust
Ans: (a)
(c) luck (d) loss
Ans: (a)
P. Wife told that there was no coffee powder. P. It was about strange beings called KUNUS who live in
Q. Wife again told that there was no milk either. holes in the ground.
R. Husband wanted atleast a cup of tea. Q. The book is very popular now.
S. He wanted a cup of coffee. R. Thirty years ago he wrote a strange novel called
6. Husband told finally that a glass of water was enough. ―Queen of the Mars‖.
(a) SQRP (b) SPRQ S. He is also a famous writer.
(c) QSRP (d) RPSQ (6) In a recent interview on television Prof. Guru talked
Ans: (b) about the novel.
Q46. 1. When he was quite young, Le Corbusier became (a) PRSQ (b) QPRS
interested in art. (c) SRPQ (d) RQSP
P. At the age of nineteen, he travelled around Europe. Ans: (c)
Q. But the buildings which impressed him most were Q50. 1. It was nine o‘clock in the evening and Rajan was
those of the ancient Greeks in Athens. reading.
R. At the age of thirteen, he went to an art school. P. At first he thought nothing of it.
S. Everywhere he went he admired the magnificent Q. The walls were a moving mass of big ants.
buildings of the past. R. Suddenly, he heard faint noises.
(6) After his visit to Athens Le Corbusier decided to S. When he went to his bedroom later, however, he was
become an architect. shocked by what he saw.
(a) RPSQ (b) PSRQ (6) They covered everything — the book case, the
(c) RQPS (d) QPSR shelves, the chest of drawers.
Ans: (c) (a) PSRQ (b) SRPQ
Q47. 1. I was in awe of Einstein and hesitated before (c) RPSQ (d) QSRP
approaching him about some ideas I had been working Ans: (c)
on. Q51. 1. Abraham worked very hard and had no time to
P. I entered his office and found him seated at a table, feel lonely.
calculating and smoking his pipe. P. Abraham was very fond of books.
Q. When I finally knocked on his door, a gentle voice Q. When his day‘s work in the f ields or in the forest was
said, ‗come‘. over he settled down in the evenings to read by the light
R. The single word was both a welcome and a question. of the fire.
S. Dressed in ill fitting clothes, his hair characteristically R. She used to sit by the fireside in the evenings and tell
awry, he smiled a warm welcome. him stories.
(6) His utter naturalness at once set me at ease. S. His mother had taught him to read when he was very
(a) QPRS (b) QRPS young.
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP 6. Every evening he woul d spend his time in reading all
Ans: (a) the books he could find.
Q48. 1. Nothing comes out of nothing. (a) QSRP (b) SPRQ
P. We have to work and then alone we can gain (c) PSRQ (d) PRSQ
something. Ans: (c)
Q. It is honest and conscientious labour alone that Q52. 1. The tiny bacterial plants that live in the soil help
produces result. to prepare food for the plants we cultivate.
R. Millions have been struck with the lure of lottery to P. The farmer works very hard to make the soil
utter despondency. favourable.
S. A person who thinks that luck would favour him with Q. But these soil bacteria are very necessary and helpful.
all the wants of his life without his lifting his finger even, R. There are millions of bacteria in a cubic inch of fertile
is living in a fool‘s paradise. soil.
(6) A p ainstaking man who adopts honest toil as his way S. Some kinds of bacteria are harmful.
of life, makes the most of it. 6. They donot need sunlight as do most plants.
(a) PQRS (b) PSRQ (a) SQPR (b) QSPR
(c) QPRS (d) RSPQ (c) RPSQ (d) PRQS
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Q53. 1. My uncle Martin went to live in a hamlet.
Ans: (c) (c) PQRS (d) SPRQ
Ans: (d)
P. But it was a very lazy parrot. Q57. 1. Judo champ, Tamura doesn‘t look or act tough.
Q. So martin bought a parrot. P. At 4 feet 9, Tamura is the shortest woman in the light -
R. Martin‘s neighbour told him that he must buy a parrot. weight class (106 pounds).
S. Every home there had a parrot as a custom. Q. Fans know her affectionately as ―Yawara-chan‖ after a
6. The parrot did not like to speak. spunky cartoon character.
(a) RSQP (b) SRPQ R. She wears a lucky pink ribbon and at 20, still grins
(c) PQSR (d) QPSR like a carefree teen and gushes about icecream.
Ans: (a) S. No wonder the Japanese go wild when she tosses
Q54. 1. Hailstones consist of many onion- opponents, many of whom tower over her. 6. Tamura has
like layers of ice. become a national idol in Japan.
P. The process continues until the hailstone is too heavy (a) PQRS (b) SRPQ
to be lifted and then it drops to the earth. (c) SRQP (d) QPRS
Q. In certain weather conditions small ice crystals drop to Ans: (b)
form a crystal. Q58. 1. It‘s only in the last three years that we have seen
R. Some of the moisture freezes on to the crystals the rebirth of T.B.
forming another layer. P. What bothers experts is the emergence of particularly
S. Updrafts carry the hailstones and when it drops patent strains of the T.B. bacteria that are resistent to two
another layer is formed. or more anti-
6. That is how hailstones are formed. T.B. drugs.
(a) QPRS (b) QPSR Q. This is compounded by the fact that the symptoms
(c) QRSP (d) QSRP disappear in about two months.
Ans: (a) R. Three or four anti -T.B. drugs are available at no cost
Q55. I shall tell you about the ways you can see a in Government clinics.
rainbow. S. Yet, the long period of treatment leads to a high rate of
P. Big rainbows can be seen when the sun is close to non-compliance with the treatment. 6. In such cases, a
horizon. relapse occurs and the bacteria appear in more virulent
Q. Or you can notice a rainbow in the spray from a and drug-resistant.
garden hose. (a) PQRS (b) SRQP
R. You can see a rainbow in the mist from a waterfall. (c) QPRS (d) RSPQ
S. When you stand with a light source behind you and Ans: (a)
misty water before you, you can see a rainbow. Q59. 1. ‗Acu‘ means needles in Latin.
6. Occasionally, even a full moon on a rainy night will P. The needles stimulates specific nerves that t ransmit
create a faint rainbow. electrical impulses via the spinal cord and brain to the
(a) SPRQ (b) SRQP affected area.
(c) SPQR (d) SQRP Q. Quite appropriately, then, acupuncture consists of
Ans: (a) inserting very fine needles at specific points on the skin
Q56. Nobody in the ir mind would doubt that America located near nerve endings.
has problems. R. Acupuncture also stimulates the release of chemical
P. Leave out euphoria, after the Gulf War and that is the substances from the brain centres and pitulary glands.
highest such figure for six years. S. These are connected to one another by lines called
Q. And whatever the gloomy politicians may think, channels or meridians. 6. Known as endorphins and
Americans themselves seem to sense that. encephalins, which are released and carried across the
R. But these are problems , things that can and will be blood stream, these ch emicals are the body‘s own pain –
solved— they are not the stuff of national crisis. relief mechanism.
S. The latest Time/CNN poll says 62% of Americans (a) SPRQ (b) RSQP
thought their nation was doing ―fairly well‖ or ―very (c) PQRS (d) QSPR
well‖ 6. All it needs now is for politicians to catch the Ans: (d)
new mood of optimism. Q60. 1. The dead do sometimes tell tales, if you know
(a) QPSR (b) RSQP how to look for them.
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P. The flesh of bomb victims is
sieged by chemicals.
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shredded and may be (6) Thus in a democracy, the responsibilities
people are great.
of the
Q. In the autopsy rooms of the Suffolk country; the (a) SQPR (b) QPSR
medical examiner and his team were looking for clues (c) QSPR (d) QSRP
that could explain how the passengers of TWA Flight 800 Ans: (c)
died. Q64. (a) Satellites have been launched into space for
R. But most of the corpses he examined had been killed various purposes.
by the impact of hitting the water from a height of more (P) The other satellites we have launched are the
than two miles. Bhaskara, Apple and Insat-IA, IB, IC.
S. The body of a person killed by a bomb looks different (Q) We have launched our first satellite Aryabhatta on
from the body of a victim in an ordinary plane crash. 19th April, 1975.
6. The mystery of their deaths will be solved in time, but (R) Our latest achievement is the launching of PSLV
it won‘t be easy or quick. rocket.
(a) SRQP (b) PQRS (S) Therefore in satellite technology, we are able to
(c) QSPR (d) RSPQ compete with other developed countries.
Ans: (c) (6) Only a few other countries have developed satellite
Q61. (a) Fighting a fire demands a lot of strength and technology.
endurance. (a) QPRS (b) QRPS
(P) The breathing unit may weigh as much as 25 (c) SQPR (d) SQRP
kilograms. Ans: (a)
(Q) The protective clothing the firefighter wears will Q65. (a) National Integrity means National Unity for all.
weigh about 10 kilograms. (P) They are the evils of Communalism and Regionalism
(R) The fire -fighter will normally wear an oxygen mask (Q) Our Government is taking st eps to remove such
and carry an oxygen tank. tendencies.
(S) Apart from these, he will have to carry the hose and (R) But there are some evil tendencies in our society to
other tools. hamper our unity.
(6) The weight of the hose and other tools, the fire-fighter (S) The feeling of Indianness should be achieved to
carries, will be around 50 kilograms. preserve our unity.
(a) QPSR (b) QRPS (6) And this is what every Indian should aim at.
(c) QSPR (d) SPRQ (a) SRQP (b) QPRS
Ans: (b) (c) QRPS (d) QSPR
Q62. (a) We were taking tea at the Rathna Tea Stall. Ans: (a)
(P) We found a tourist bus which had just rammed into a Q66. 1: Most people are afraid of snakes.
tamarind tree on the roadside. P: There may, be some truth in this theory, because
(Q) We rushed out of the tea stall. Monkeys have a deep, instinctive fear of pythons and
(R) We helped the passengers to get out of the bus. other tree snakes.
(S) Suddenly we heard a loud noise followed by a cry for Q: But this fear is as irrational as the fear of ghosts.
help. R: Any way, sna kes have been feared and hated for
(6) We informed the hospital and also the police about thousands of years.
accident. S: The fear of snakes, according to some biologists, may
(a) SQPR (b) QSRP be an instinct passed on to us by our ancestors.
(c) PRSQ (d) RSQP 6: In the literature of many countries the snake is
Ans: (a) regarded as a symbol of evil.
Q63. (a) Democracy is the primary goal of our Indian (a) PQRS (b) QPSR
Constitution. (c) RQSP (d) QSPR
(P) If representatives do not rule according to the wishes Ans: (d)
of the people, they are changed in the next election. Q67. 1: One of the reasons why people wear clothes is to
(Q) In a democracy, the people are the rulers. protect their bodies.
(R) New representatives who are aware of the needs of P: In cold countries, on the other hand, people wear
the people take their place. woollen clothes which keep the body warm.
(S) They rule through their elected representatives.
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Q: Besides cotton and wool, new fibres such as nylon and
rayon are also used today for clothes.
Q. Then Deesa looked at his feet and examined his whole
body for sores.
R: In hot countries like India, people wear clothes made R. The animal knew it was time to return.
of cotton which are cool. S. The elephant lay down on his side, while Deesa rubbed
S: The body has to be protected from cold and heat. him with a coir scrubber.
6: We can say, therefore, that all our clothes are made 6. Both the elephant and the trainer would return home.
from three different materials- (a) SQPR (b) QSRP
animal fur or skins, plant fibres and artifical fibres. (c) QPRS (d) RQSP
(a) PQRS (b) SRPQ Ans: (a)
(c) QSRP (d) PSRQ Q72. 1.Anna had longed to see her son.
Ans: (b) P. ―He will arrive at the station at 10 O‘ clock‖, she said
Q68. 1: A man should give the same care to himself that to herself.
he gives to his car. Q. She prepared herself for it.
P: And sooner or later there comes a complete break R. She looked at the clock.
down. S. There were only five minutes left.
Q: -Everyday tens of thousands of men are trying to work 6. She rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach
when their bodies and minds are in need of repair work. the station in time.
R: For worry pulls down the mind and fatigue pulls down (a) QPRS (b) SPRQ
the body. (c) PRQS (d) QSRP
S: He does not try to drive his car when there is Ans: (a)
something wrong with it, he has to put it in order. Q73. 1. Mr. Ramaswamy is a very strict man.
6: Man should realise that most worry and fatigue can be P. He earns nearly three thousand rupees a month.
prevented. Q. He also believes that it is foolish to waste one‘s time
(a) PSRQ (b) QPSR or money.
(c) RSQP (d) SQPR R. He is not a poor man.
Ans: (d) S. He believes that life means work only.
Q69. 1: In our home everyone drinks milk at least once a 6. But he wants his children to lead a simple life.
day. (a) PSQR (b) SQRP
P: All these we owe to our milkman Q: We, the children (c) RQPS (d) SRQP
get milk twice a day. Ans: (b)
R: He says, he is 18, but he is not sure. Q74. 1. It will be better
S: We also eat curd, and enjoy buttermilk. P. to a few than enrol
6: Probably he needs more milk than we. Q. to provide quality education
(a) SRPQ (b) QSPR R. them out as graduates
(c) PRQS (d) PSRQ S. in masses and churn
Ans: (b) 6. after perfunctory teaching
Q70. 1: One of his greatest successes was to improve the (a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
water supply. (c) QPSR (d) SRQP
P: The lepers could obtain it for filling a vessel at a Ans: (c)
mountain stream. Q75. 1. ‗I was born here in the old city‘ the girl told us.
Q: They carried it to the village on their sore covered P. her answer suggested that her family has roots
shoulders. Q. When we inquired
R: Water was scarce. R. as opposed to the modern towns that consist mostly of
S: They had to go some distance to wash their clothes. hotels.
6: That was one reason they remained dirty as often S. and belongs to the traditional part where the temples
(a) RPQS (b) PQRS are
(c) QPRS (d) RQPS 6. Some say people here are more ethnically pure.
Ans: (a) (a) QPSR (b) SRPQ
Q71. 1. Once a week Deesa led Moti Guj, the elephant, (c) PSRQ (d) SRQP
down to the river. Ans: (a)
P. After inspection the two would stand up. Q76. 1. Making ourselves
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Q. part of growing into
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6. Mrs. M stood in the centre of her bedroom looking at a
ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her tears.
R. masters of (a) PQRS (b) PRQS
S. is an important (c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
6. full manhood or womanhood Ans: (c)
(a) PSRQ (b) SQPR Q82. 1. We do n ot know whether the machines are the
(c) RPSQ (d) PRSQ masters or we are.
Ans: (c) P. They must be given or rather ‗fed‘ with coal and given
Q77. 1. The very first battle they fought petrol to drink from time to time.
P. and they had to fall back Q. Already man spends most of his time looking after and
Q. cross the border waiting upon them.
R. was lost R. Yet we have grown so depende nt on them that they
S. letting the enemy have almost become the masters now.
6. and enter the country S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose
(a) RQSP (b) RPSQ of being man‘s servants.
(c) QRPS (d) QPRS 6. And if they don‘t get their meals when they expect
Ans: (b) them, they will just refuse to work.
Q78. 1. A nation (a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
P. the material assets it possesses (c) SPQR (d) SRQP
Q. is not made by Ans: (d)
R. and collective determination Q83. 1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
S. but by the will P. During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
6. of the people Q. He is a very skilled man.
(a) PQRS (b) QPSR R. If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
(c) RSPQ (d) SRPQ S. Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
Ans: (b) 6. This danger is well -known and steps are taken to
Q79. 1. When the Governor prevent it.
P. the bell had rung (a) PQRS (b) QSPR
Q. justice should be immediately (c) QPRS (d) QSRP
R. he ordered that Ans: (b)
S. found out why Q84. 1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
6. done to the horse P. A man who will not submit to the discipline of his
(a) RSPQ (b) PQSR chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon, an
(c) SPRQ (d) SQRP engineer, or a golfer or an executive.
Ans: (c) Q. Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things,
Q80. 1. When you ponder over including human beings.
P. that the only hope R. We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building,
Q. you will realize but not to escape the consequences.
R. of world peace lies S. We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
S. the question deeply 6. Nature, morever, binds the arbitrary limits of mind and
6. in the United Nations body; we are not free to do, by whatever effort, what is
(a) QRSP (b) SPQR beyond our capacity.
(c) SQPR (d) RSPQ (a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
Ans: (c) (c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Q81. 1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to Ans: (d)
retrieve. Q85. 1. The student came late to the school.
P. All valuables were smashed or stolen. P. He went home weeping.
Q. The curtains were burned; books were ripped to Q. The watchman didn‘t allow him inside the school.
shreds. R. The boy was waiting outside for some time.
R. Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere. S. He then decided to go home.
S. The house had been completely ransacked. 6. It was a bad day for him.
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(a) QSPR
(c) QRSP
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(b) QSRP
(d) QPSR
Q91. 1. Early to bed, early to rise, makes a man healthy,
wealthy and wise.
Ans: (c) P. But for the morning tea, I had to wait for someone to
Q86. (a) Superstition and get up before me.
(P) the supposed powers Q. This saying inspired me to rise early.
(Q) thrive on R. That day I was the first to get up.
(R) magical practices S. One day I got up early in the morning.
(S) of dreams to 6. One day I realised that it was a waste of time to get up
(6) foretell the future. early and wait for the morning tea.
(a) SPQR (b) PSQR (a) QSRP (b) QPRS
(c) RSQP (d) RQPS (c) PQRS (d) SPQR
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q87. (a) The stronger Q92. 1. A wood-cutter was cutting a tree on a river bank.
(P) the phosphor P. He knelt down and prayed.
(Q) the more light Q. His axe slipped and fell into the water.
(R) of electrons R. God Mercury appeared before him and asked about
(S) the beam the matter.
(6) gives out. S. He could not get it back as the river was very deep.
(a) RPQS (b) SQRP 6. He dived into the water and came up with an axe of
(c) SRQP (d) RQPS gold.
Ans: (c) (a) RPQS (b) RPSQ
Q88. (a) There are thousands of us (c) QSRP (d) QSPR
(P) former school and college friends Ans: (d)
(Q) by some of our Q93. 1. A dog stole a piece of a meat from a butcher‘s
(R) at the careers chosen shop.
(S) who are surprised P. He barked in anger.
(6) and their success in these fields. Q. He ran to the jungle with the piece of meat.
(a) SRQP (b) RQSP R. He saw his reflection.
(c) PQSR (d) SPQR S. He crossed a river on the way.
Ans: (a) 6. He lost his piece of meat.
Q89. (a) Ramani is a student of medicine. (a) QPSR (b) QSRP
(P) The hopes of millions of cancer patients and doctors (c) QPRS (d) SRPQ
rest on his research. Ans: (b)
(Q) But, of late he has become a drug addict. Q94. 1. Ramai and Samai were two poor young men.
(R) He is doing research in cancer. P. On market day they sold their labour.
(S) He has already done very useful work in this field, Q. The lived near Mahespur.
and is hopeful of finding a solution to this disease. R. On other days, they remained in the village looking for
(6) This addiction has been increasing day by day, and work.
has started affecting his work. S. They wanted regular work.
(a) QPSR (b) RSPQ 6. The headman gave them two plots.
(c) SRPQ (d) RSQP (a) QPRS (b) RPQS
Ans: (b) (c) SPQR (d) PQRS
Q90. (a) The internet has given Ans: (a)
(P) to keep in touch with friends Q95. 1. Roger wanted to become a doctor.
(Q) and even allowed them P. He put away enough money to pay his first year fees.
(R) students access to reams of information Q. They could not afford the fees.
(S) made it cheaper R. Undaunted, he got himself a job in the dockyard.
(6) to attend universities remotely S. However, he came from a poor family.
(a) RPSQ (b) RSPQ 6. Once enrolled, he was recognised as a gifted student,
(c) SRPQ (d) PRSQ and scholarships took care of the rest of this studies.
Ans: (b) (a) SRPQ (b) PRSQ
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(d) QRSP
Cloze Test
Ans: (c)
Q96. 1. I went to my friend last week.
P. He politely refused to oblige me.
Directions: In the following passage, some of the words
Q. I did not speak even a single word.
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to
R. Actually I wanted his scooter for a day.
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with
S. I felt ashamed of my self.
the help of the alternatives given.
6. I was mistaken in assessing a true friendship.
The library, if used properly, is invaluable in helping you
(a) RPQS (b) PRQS
develop discernment.
(c) SRPQ (d) QRSP
It is rich _____information that goes far beyond the
Ans: (a)
_____ of any one text book or course. _____ your text
Q97. 1. He wanted to adopt his father‘s profession.
book au thor does not make a particular _____ clear and
P. He was influenced by his strong desire to see India
you feel the need _____ another description in greater
free.
detail _____ in other words, go to the library and _____
Q. From now on, he was a changed man.
other books on the subject. By calling _____ two or three
R. He made up his mind.
writers dealing with the _____ topic, you will find some
S. He came in contact with Mahatma Gandhi.
_____ of certain facts. In seeking additional sources, you
6. He wished to change the lot of the naked and hungry
will have gained immeasurably, for you will have seen
masses of India.
what several experts perceive as being particularly
(a) QRPS (b) SPRQ
important on a common subject.
(c) RSPQ (d) PQSR
Q1. (a) of (b) for
Ans: (b)
(c) in (d) with
Q98. 1. Reena made a cup of tea in this manner.
Ans: (c)
P. Next, she added milk and sugar.
Q2. (a) pages (b) limits
Q. When the water was boiling she added tea-leaves.
(c) confines (d) limitations
R. She turned off the gas.
Ans: (b)
S. First she put the water to boil.
Q3. (a) If (b) While
6. Finally, she poured the tea into cup.
(c) When (d) Suppose
(a) SQPR (b) QPRS
Ans: (a)
(c) PRSQ (d) RSQP
Q4. (a) information (b) entry
Ans: (a)
(c) explanation (d) point
Q99. 1. Once upon a time, there was a little man.
Ans: (d)
P. Some people called him Rabi.
Q5. (a) for (b) of
Q. He walked like a rabbit.
(c) to (d) about
R. His face and hands were brown.
Ans: (a)
S. That is why people called him Brownie.
Q6. (a) or (b) but
6. But his real name was Thomas Cook, though he never
(c) though (d) however
cooked anything.
Ans: (a)
(a) QPSR (b) SRPQ
Q7. (a) verify (b) identify
(c) RSQP (d) RQPS
(c) check (d) collect
Ans: (c)
Ans: (c)
Q100. 1. She was an old woman with a large purse that
Q8. (a) for (b) up
had everything in it.
(c) forth (d) upon
P. It was about eleven O‘clock at night.
Ans: (b)
Q. It had a long strap.
Q9. (a) actual (b) specific
R. She carried it slung across her shoulder.
(c) correct (d) same
S. A boy ran up behind her.
Ans: (d)
6. He tried to snatch her purse.
Q10. (a) description (b) clarification
(a) PQRS (b) SQRP
(c) explanation (d) evidence
(c) QRPS (d) SRQP
Ans: (b)
Ans: (c)
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Directions: In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with
the help of the alternatives given.
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with Civilization, like (_____), fall, not so much because of
the help of the alternatives given. (_____) of the enemy outside, as through the weakness
Mass communication i s the delivery of _____, ideas and and
entert-ainment to thousands or millions of _____ (_____) within, Rome fell not because of the (_____),
simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable _____ on they merely knocked (_____) something that was already
today‘s world. The _____ of mass comm -unication rests dead. The heart of Rome had (_____) beating when the
_____ the skills of the communicator to _____ the arms and legs were cut (_____). We see something of this
recipient‘s thinking, _____ stir emotions, to _____ him or (_____),. in India and China and in the case of the Arabs.
her to _____. Mass communication is the one -to-one The (_____) of Arabian civilization was sudden even as
impact of one human intelligence upon _____, carried on their rise had been.
thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who In India and China the process is longdrawn
have no direct personal contact. (_____) and it is not easy to spot it.
Q11. (a) items Q21. (a) states (b) kingdom
(b) news (c) empires (d) buildings
(c) advertisements Ans: (c)
(d) cartoons Q22. (a) weakness (b) strength
Ans: (b) (c) power (d) tenacity
Q12. (a) People Ans: (b)
(b) pictures Q23. (a) disease (b) decease
(c) advertisements (c) decay (d) fortitude
(d) items Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q24. (a) barbarity (b) barbarous
Q13. (a) worth (b) impact (c) barbarians (d) Romans
(c) force (d) value Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q25. (a) off (b) on
Q14. (a) dynamism (b) force (c) down (d) no word
(c) success (d) power Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) Q26. (a) seized (b) rotated
Q15. (a) against (b) under (c) ceased (d) started
(c) to (d) upon Ans: (c)
Ans: (d) Q27. (a) down (b) off
Q16. (a) stimulate (b) agitate (c) up (d) no word
(c) understand (d) minimize Ans: (b)
Ans: (a) Q28. (a) process (b) procedure
Q17. (a) for (b) to (c) spectacle (d) scene
(c) with (d) from Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q29. (a) downfall
Q18. (a) encourage (b) persuade (b) death
(c) discourage (d) endanger (c) collapse
Ans: (a) (d) dismemberment
Q19. (a) direction (b) function Ans: (a)
(c) action (d) mission Q30. (a) out (b) up
Ans: (b) (c) upon (d) no word
Q20. (a) another (b) people Ans: (a)
(c) man (d) women Directions: In the following passage, some of the words
Ans: (a) have been left out. First read the passage over and try to
Directions: In the following passage, some of the words understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to the help of the alternatives given and indicate the correct
alternative.
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Man has been tampering _____ the Ecosphere for a very
_____ time and is forced to _____ that the environmental
rabbits. _____ he is lord of all the animals. He sets them
to work, he gives back to them the bare _____ that will
resources are _____. Environmental problems are _____ prevent them from _____ and the rest he keeps for
social problems. They begin with people as _____ and himself.
end with people as victims. Unplanned use of resource Q41. (a) area (b) scene
_____ resulted in the depletion of fossil fuels, _____ of (c) place (d) light
air and water, deforestation which has resulted in _____ Ans: (b)
imbalance and draining away of national wealth _____ Q42. (a) overwork (b) work
heavy expenditure on oil and power generation. (c) while (d) waste
_____ CLOZE TEST Ans: (b)
Q31. (a) to (b) in Q43. (a) body (b) worm
(c) with (d) for (c) human (d) creature
Ans: (c) Ans: (d)
Q32. (a) short (b) long Q44. (a) drinking (b) producing
(c) small (d) tall (c) eating (d) sleeping
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q33. (a) see (b) look Q45. (a) does (b) do
(c) do (d) recognise (c) did (d) has done
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q34. (a) plenty (b) scarce Q46. (a) too idle (b) too strong
(c) minute (d) enough (c) too weak (d) too quick
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
Q35. (a) really (b) coldly Q47. (a) slow (b) fast
(c) badly (d) happily (c) idle (d) dull
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q36. (a) effect (b) result Q48. (a) Yet (b) But
(c) cause (d) wisdom (c) Then (d) Thus
Ans: (c) Ans: (a)
Q37. (a) have (b) had Q49. (a) Maximum (b) Minimum
(c) being (d) has (c) Average (d) Capacity
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
Q38. (a) revolution (b) pollution Q50. (a) Producing (b) Creating
(c) resolution (d) evolution (c) Eating (d) Striving
Ans: (b) Ans: (d)
Q39. (a) ecological (b) biological Directions: In the following passage, some of the words
(c) logical (d) chronological have been left out. First read the passage over and try to
Ans: (a) understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with
Q40. (a) by (b) in the help of the alternatives given.
(c) out (d) through Pythons are _____ non -venomous snakes found _____ in
Ans: (d) damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in dense
Directions: In t he following passage, some of the words _____. They are considered to be the most primitive
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to _____ the living snakes, _____ they retain the traces of
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with hind limbs of a _____ era in the form ___ __ horny claw-
the help of the alternatives given. Mark you answer in the like spurs, which are present _____ either side of _____
Answer Sheet. anus. These hind limbs are functionless _____ female
It is summed up in a singl e word – Man. Man is the only pythons.
real enemy we have. Remove man from the _____ and Q51. (a) small (b) tiny
the root cause of hunger and _____ is abolished forever. (c) cute (d) huge
Man is the only _____ that consumes without _____. He Ans: (d)
does not give milk, he _____ not lay eggs, he is _____ to Q52. (a) mostly (b) rarely
pull th e plough, he cannot run _____ enough to catch (c) occasionally (d) hardly
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Q53. (a) cities
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(b) jungles
Ans: (a) (c) into (d) over
Ans: (b)
(c) hills (d) towns Q65. (a) swordfishes
Ans: (b) (b) penknives
Q54. (a) between (b) in (c) featherweights
(c) among (d) over (d) ploughshares
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
Q55. (a) so (b) because Q66. (a) miracle (b) masterpiece
(c) and (d) but (c) legend (d) model
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
Q56. (a) by gone (b) latest Q67. (a) battleaxe (b) spear
(c) present (d) recent (c) sword (d) stick
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q57. (a) in (b) for Q68. (a) slaughter (b) penalise
(c) on (d) of (c) reform (d) belabour
Ans: (d) Ans: (a)
Q58. (a) over (b) above Q69. (a) bomb (b) science
(c) on (d) in (c) weaponry (d) research
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
Q59. (a) the (b) a Q70. (a) fabricate (b) generate
(c) an (d) that (c) formulate (d) emulate
Ans: (a) Ans: (d)
Q60. (a) with (b) among Directions: In the following passage, some of the words
(c) on (d) in have been left out. First read the passage over and try to
Ans: (d) understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with
Directions: In the following passage, some of the words the help of the alternatives given.
have been left out. First read the passage ov er and try to Happy is the man who (_____) the habit of reading when
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with he is young. He has secured a life -long source of (_____)
the help of the alternatives given. instruction and inspiration. So long as he has his beloved
Man‘s basic aggressiveness is a fact and is the emotional books he need (_____) feel lonely. He always has a
factor for all the bloody violence that has marked human pleasant
history since the beginning. His technology has never (_____) of leisure moments. He is the (_____) of wealth
been as perfectly _____ as in the weapons he makes to more precious than gold. (_____) indeed is the man who
_____ his brothers. The plough has changed very _____ does not read and (_____) is his life. (_____) gives the
in design from the time man took _____ cultivation. But highest kind of pleasure. When we are (_____) it is a
swords have not become _____ and the rifle, with which healthy recreation to lose (_____) in the company of
one man kills an other, is a _____ in comparison with the books.
stone and _____ with which he used to _____ his Q71. (a) owns (b) buys
adversaries in the earliest stage of civilisation. (c) acquires (d) takes
Nuclear _____ has designs that nature can never _____. Ans: (c)
They are wonders of technological creation. Q72. (a) pleasure (b) satisfaction
Q61. (a) operated (b) implemented (c) sadness (d) dejection
(c) employed (d) deployed Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) Q73. (a) always (b) ever
Q62. (a) shoot (b) injure (c) sometimes (d) never
(c) wound (d) kill Ans: (d)
Ans: (d) Q74. (a) source (b) occupation
Q63. (a) much (b) little (c) possession (d) relief
(c) slightly (d) radically Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q75. (a) possessor (b) loser
Q64. (a) in (b) to (c) master (d) heir
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Q76. (a) Rich
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(b) Lucky
Ans: (a) (c) achieving (d) changing
Ans: (c)
(c) Poor (d) Bad Q87. (a) with (b) in
Ans: (c) (c) of (d) from
Q77. (a) full (b) vacuum Ans: (d)
(c) empty (d) deep Q88. (a) departments (b) institutions
Ans: (c) (c) concerns (d) projects
Q78. (a) Writing (b) Speaking Ans: (b)
(c) Listening (d) Reading Q89. (a) was (b) had
Ans: (d) (c) were (d) have
Q79. (a) weak (b) fresh Ans: (a)
(c) sick (d) tired Q90. (a) rural (b) revenue
Ans: (d) (c) private (d) government
Q80. (a) himself (b) ourselves Ans: (d)
(c) yourselves (d) themselves Directions: In the following passage, there are blanks‘
Ans: (b) each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
Directions: In the following passage, some of the words printed below the passage and against each four words
have been left out. First r ead the passage over and try to are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately.
understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with Find out the appropriate word in each case.
the help of the alternatives given. Gandhiji once said, ―I would say that if the village
The educational institutions established by the British and perishes, India will perish too. India will be _____ more
the Christian missionaries were primarily designed to India.
propagate and pr omote the English language and the Her own mission in the world will get _____ The _____
western _____. of the v illage is possible only when it is no more _____
Their aim was also to produce such _____ who could Industrialization on a mass scale will _____ lead to
man the lower levels of _____ British administrative passive or active exploitation of the villagers as the
hierarchy and remain ever loyal _____ the British rulers. problems _____ competition and marketing come in.
The British educational policy _____ with em inent Therefore, we have to _____ on the village being
success in the matter of _____ its objectives. The selfcontained, manu-facturing mainly for
majority of people _____ middle classes who went to use. Provided this character of the village industry is
these educational _____, did acquire some knowledge _____ there would be no objection to villagers using even
and skill which _____ sufficient enough to work as babus the modern machines and tools that they can make and
in these _____ offices. _____ to use. Only, they _____ not be used as a means of
Q81. (a) range (b) trade exploitation of others‖.
(c) culture (d) pride Q91. (a) certainly (b) scarcely
Ans: (c) (c) much (d) no
Q82. (a) Indians Ans: (d)
(b) North-Indians Q92. (a) lost (b) extension
(c) South-Indians (c) elevated (d) flourished
(d) Rajputs Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q93. (a) rehabilitation (b) pruning
Q83. (a) the (b) a (c) revival (d) devastation
(c) an (d) now Ans: (c)
Ans: (a) Q94. (a) denuded (b) exploited
Q84. (a) of (b) with (c) contaminated (d) populated
(c) for (d) to Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) Q95. (a) passionately (b) surprisingly
Q85. (a) served (b) met (c) scarcely (d) necessarily
(c) planned (d) started Ans: (d)
Ans: (b) Q96. (a) forming (b) enhancing
Q86. (a) performing (b) conducting (c) between (d) of
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Q97. (a) concentrate
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(b) ponder
Ans: (d) (c) Masala Dosa
(d) synthetic fibre
(c) imagine (d) ensure Ans: (d)
Ans: (a) Q2. The synthetic fibre has
Q98. (a) regained (b) neglected (a) always been popular in India.
(c) maintained (d) thwarted (b) become popular during the last twenty years.
Ans: (c) (c) never been popular in India.
Q99. (a) prepare (b) afford (d) been as popular as other kinds of fibre.
(c) hesitate (d) propose Ans: (b)
Ans: (b) Q3. The latest symbol of modernity for the rural people is
Q100. (a) can (b) could (a) the bicycle. (b) the wristwatch.
(c) need (d) should (c) the transistor. (d) the synthetic cloth.
Ans: (d) Ans: (d)
Q4. The term Neo-rich means
(a) the aristocracy.
Comprehension Test (b) the industrialists.
(c) the newly rich people.
Directions (1-10): In these questions, you ha ve two brief (d) the common people.
passages with five questions following each passage. Ans: (c)
Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer Q5. The tone of the passage is
to each question out of the four alternatives. (a) tragic (b) ironic
PASSAGE–I What one wonders, is the lowest common (c) sombre (d) satiric
denominator of Indian culture today. The attractive Hema Ans: (c)
Malini The songs of Vividh Bharati Or the mouth - PASSAGE-II Most people who bother with the matter at
watering Masala Dosa Delectable as these may be, each all would admit that the English language is in a bad way,
yields pride of place to that false symbol of a new era–the but it is generally assumed that we cannot by conscious
synthetic fibre. action do anything about it. Our civilization is decadent
In less than twenty years, the nylon sari and the terylene and our language — so the argument runs —must
shirt have swept the countryside, penetrated to the inevitably share in the general collapse. It follows that
farthest corners of the land and persuaded every common any stru ggle against the abuse of language is a
man, woman and child that the key to success in the sentimental archaism, like preferring candles to electric
present day world lies in artificial fibres: glass nylon, light or handsome cabs to aeroplanes. Underneath this
crepe nylon, tery mixes, polysters and what have you. lies the half -conscious belief that language is a natural
More than the bicycles, the wristwatch or the transistor growth and not an instrument which we shape fo r our
radio, synthetic clothes have come to represent the first own purposes.
step away from the village square. The village lass Now it is clear that the decline of a language must
treasures the flashy nylon sari in her trousseau most ultimately have political and economic causes: it is not
dearly; the village youth gets a great kick out of his cheap simply due to the bad influence of this or that individual
terrycot shirt and trousers, the nearest he can approximate writer. But an effect can become a cause, reinforcing the
to the expensive synthetic sported by his wealthy citybred original c ause and producing the same effect in an
contemporaries. And the Neo –rich craze for ‗phoren‘is intensified form, and so on indefinitely. A man may take
nowhere more apparent than in the price t hat people will to drink because he feels himself to be a failure, and then
pay for smuggled, stolen, begged, borrowed secondhand fails all the more completely because he drinks. It is
or thrown away synthetics. Alas, even the unique rather the same thing that is happening to the English
richness of the traditional tribal costume is being fast language. It becomes ugly and inaccurate because our
eroded by the deadening uniformity of nylon. thoughts are foolish, but the slovenliness of our language
Q1. The lowest common denominator of the Indian makes it easier for us to have foolish thoughts. The point
culture today is is that the process is reversible. Modern English,
(a) Hema Malini especially written Eng lish, is full of bad habits which
(b) songs of Vividh Bharati spread by imitation and which can be avoided if one is
willing to take the necessary trouble. If one gets rid of
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these habits, one can think more clearly, and to think
clearly is a necessary first step towards political
Science has enabled man to bring forces of nature under
control and to use them for h is own advantage. It has
regeneration: so that the fight against bad English is not brought the distant parts of the world close together. Our
frivolous and is not the exclusive concern of professional knowledge of the universe has been much widened on
writers. account of the untiring efforts of the astronomers like
Q6. Many people believe that nothing can be done about Jeans and Eddington.
the English language because Remarkable cures of human diseases have been possible
(a) bad habits spread by imitation. owing to the discovery of some wonderful medicines.
(b) we live in a decadent civilization. Q11. The main idea of the passage is
(c) there are too many bad writers. (a) the impact of science can be felt in every sphere of
(d) people are too lazy to change their bad habits. life
Ans: (d) (b) science is an anathema
Q7. The author believes that (c) nothing is beyond the purview of science
(a) it‘s now too late to do anything about the problem. (d) science can work miracles
(b) language is a natural growth and cannot b e shaped for Ans: (a)
our own purposes. Q12. The mode of approach is
(c) the decline in the language can be stopped. (a) logical. (b) anatomical.
(d) the process of an increasingly bad language cannot be (c) descriptive. 4) expository.
stopped. Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) Q13. What has enabled man to harness the forces of
Q8. The author believes that the first stage towards the nature to the advantage of mankind?
political regeneration of the language would be (a) Arts. (b) Oratory.
(a) taking the necessary trouble to avoid bad habits. (c) Bravery. (d) Science.
(b) avoiding being frivolous about it. Ans: (d)
(c) clear thinking. Q14. Science has proved a great boon for
(d) for professional writers to help. (a) scientists. (b) artists.
Ans: (a) (c) explorers. (d) mankind.
Q9. The author believes that Ans: (d)
(a) English is becoming ugly. Q15. The most appropriate title for the passage will be
(b) bad language habits are inevitable. (a) Science is a curse
(c) our thoughts are becoming uglier because we are (b) Science, a great boon
making the language uglier. (c) Achievements of science
(d) our civilization is decadent so nothing can be done to (d) None of these
stop the decline of the language. Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) PASSAGE-II ―Science cannot reduce the magic of a
Q10. What causes bad language in the end ? sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a
(a) The bad influence of individual writers. formula‖ observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr.
(b) The imitation of bad language habits. Lous Orr. He added, ―also beyond science‘s mastery of
(c) Political and economic causes. nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and
(d) An assumption that nothing can be done about it. insights into truth and beauty‖. This distancing of science
Ans: (c) from the human condition perhaps explains why most
Directions: You have two brief passages with five foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see
questions following each passage. Read the pas sages the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but
carefully and choose the best answer to each question out choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent
of the four alternatives. scientists lived and worked.
PASSAGE-I The achievement of science in the twentieth Q16. Why is it that science cannot express friendship
century has been very great. Its influence can be felt in with a formula?
every sphere of life. From the small pins and needles to (a) Science and friendship cannot co-exist.
the huge iron sheets and joints, most of the things we (b) It is abstract term which cannot be grappled by
require for our everyday use, come out of factories where science.
scientific principles are utilized for practical ends. (c) Friendship is beyond science‘s mastery.
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(d) Friendship is unknown to scientists.
Ans: (c)
oil. Both cod liver oil and halibut oil are given to sick
children and other invalids who need certain vitamins.
Q17. The word magic refers to Vegetable oil has been known from very old times. No
(a) evening dusk. household can get on without it, for it is used in cooking.
(b) the sunrise. Perfumes may be made from the oils of certain flowers.
(c) solar and lunar eclipse. Soaps are made from vegetable and animal product an d
(d) setting of the sun, with all its beauty. the oils of certain flowers.
Ans: (d) Q21. The main source of animal oil is
Q18. Which of the following are beyond science‘s reach, (a) fish. (b) whale.
according to the passage? (c) sea weeds. (d) plants.
(a) Love and laughter, pain and loneliness. Ans: (b)
(b) Derivation of a formula. Q22. Vegetable oil is mainly used for
(c) Complexity of time and tide. (a) eating. (b) cooking.
(d) Work of the mind. (c) frying. (d) lubricating.
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Q19. The verb flock refers to. Q23. The ....... of fish yeilds nourishing oil.
(a) tourists in Britain. (a) liver (b) stomach
(b) local people. (c) eyes (d) head
(c) large number of foreign tourists visiting homes of Ans: (a)
playwrights, writers, poets. Q24. The thick protective covering of fat on a whale is
(d) Indian tourists. called a
Ans: (c) (a) skin. (b) cells.
Q20. Why according to the author do tourists prefer to (c) blubber. (d) fins.
visit hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets Ans: (c)
rather than visiting the habitation of eminent scientists? Q25. ....... are made from vegetable, animal products and
(a) The houses of playwright and writers are the oils of certain flowers.
welldecorated and are full of splendour (a) Perfumes (b) Cosmetics
(b) Science cannot explain human emotions. Hence, (c) Cooking medium (d) Soaps
people have a soft corner for those who produce a Ans: (d)
splendid display of emotions in their work. Directions: You have two brief passages with five
(c) Scientists are loathsome. questions following each passage. Read the passages
(d) Houses of scientists are untidy and not well - carefully and choose the best answer to each question out
preserved. of the four alternatives.
Ans: (b) PASSAGE-I Vacations were once the prerogative of the
Directions: You have a brief passage with 5 questions privileged few, even as late as the nineteenth century.
following the passage. Read the passage carefully and Now they are considered the right of all, except for such
choose the best answe r to each question out of the four unfortunate masses as in China, for whom life, except for
alternatives. sleep and brief periods of rest, is uninterrupted toil.
PASSAGE There are three main groups of oils -animal, They are more necessary now than before because the
vegetable and mineral. Great quantities of animal oil average life is well rounded and has become increasingly
comes from whales, those enormous creatures of the sea, departmenta-lised. The idea of vacations, as we conceive
which are the largest of the animals remainin g in the it must be incomprehensible to primitive pe ople. Rest of
world. To protect the whales from the cold of the Arctic some kind has of course always been a part of the rhythm
seas, nature has provided them with a thick covering of of human life, but earlier ages did not find it necessary to
fat, called blubber. organise it in the way that modern man has done.
When the whale is killed, the blubber is stripped off and Holidays, feast days, were sufficient.
boiled down. It produces a great quantity of oil which can With modern man‘s increasing tension s, with the useless
be made into food for human consumption. A few other quality of so much of his work, this break in the year‘s
creatures yield oil, but none so much as the whale. The routine became steadily more necessary. Vacations
livers of the cod and halibut, two kinds of fish, yield became necessary for the purpose of renewal and repair.
nourishing Q26. The author‘s main purpose in this passage is to
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(a) explore the history of vacations.
(b) tell why vacations have become more common.
(c) The S.S. Titanic sank near Newfoundland
(d) The S.S. Titanic was the fastest ship afloat in 1912
(c) contrast holidays and festive occasions with vacation. Ans: (a)
(d) demonstrate that vacations are not really necessary. Q32. All of the following contributed to the large death
Ans: (a) toll except
Q27. According to the passage, we need vacations now (a) panic (b) fire
more than ever because we have (c) speed (d) The Carpathia
(a) a more carefree nature Ans: (d)
(b) much more free time Q33. How many days was the S.S. Titanic at sea before
(c) little diversity in our work sinking ?
(d) a higher standard of living (a) 2 (b) 4
Ans: (a) (c) 6 (d) 12
Q28. It is implied in the passage that our lives are very Ans: (a)
(a) habitual (b) patriotic Q34. Maiden voyage is closest in meaning to
(c) varied (d) independent (a) inaugural (b) most elegant
Ans: (c) (c) longest (d) final
Q29. As used in the passage the word prerogative (line) Ans: (a)
(a) habit (b) privilege Q35. What does this passage convey?
(c) request (d) hope (a) The S.S. Titanic proved itself the most seaworthy
Ans: (b) vessel in 1912
Q30. The contemporary attitude towards vacations is (b) Attempts to rescue the S.S. Titanic‘s survivors were
best expressed by which of the following proverbs ? not successful
(a) A penny saved is penny earned. (c) Overconfidence by builders and owners was greatly
(b) The devil finds work for idle hands. responsible for the sinking of the vessel
(c) All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy. (d) A fire and panic were the only causes for the sinking
(d) Many hands make light work. of the ship
Ans: (c) Ans: (c)
PASSAGE-II In an effort to produce the largest, fastest Directions: You have two brief passages with 5 questions
and most luxurious ship afloat, the British built the S.S. following each passage. Read the passages carefully and
Titanic. It was so superior to anything else on the seas choose the best answer to each question out of the four
that it was dubbed ‗unsinkable‘. So sure of this were the alternatives.
owners that they provided only twenty life boats and PASSAGE-I The Printing Press has made knowledge
rafts, less than one -half the number needed for the 2,227 available to the vast multitude of people -Pray, what kind
passengers on board. of knowledge is it ? Is it of any permanent character ?
Many passenger s were aboard the night it rammed an Books have become common and, when we say that
iceberg only two days at sea and more than halfway books like the Se xton Blake series sell like hot cakes, we
between England and its New -York destination. Because have an index of the nature of knowledge which a typical
the luxury liner was travelling so fast, it was impossible person in a vast multitude seeks. Let me tell you of an
to avoid the ghostly looking iceberg. An unextinguished incident that took place in America a few years ago. An
fire also contributed to the ship‘s submersion. Panic American publisher printed a million copies o f the works
increased the number of casualties as people jumped into of Charles Dickens in the hope that he could easily sell
the icy water or fought to be among the few to board the them on the name of the author. But to his
life boats. Four hours after the mishap, another ship, the disappointment, not even the widest publicity and
‗Carpathia‘, rescued 705 survivors. advertisement could enable him to sell the books. Being
The infamous S. S. Titanic had enjoyed only two days of sorely tired, he hit on a plan. He tor e off the cover pages,
sailing glory on its maiden voyage in 1912 before substituted covers containing sensational love headings
plunging into 12,000 feet of water near the coast of for the titles and again advertised the new books.
Newfoundland where it lies today. In a week, all the books were sold out. We are not
Q31. All of the following are true except that concerned here with the moral of the bookseller‘s action.
(a) Only a third of those aboard perished What we have to n ote is that only books of a sensational
(b) The Carpathia rescued the survivors type are really sought for by the ordinary folk who have a
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great aversion to serious study. So, you will see that the
grand argument that the Printing Press has made
Q41. What is the main theme of the passage ?
(a) Concept of time in pre-industrial world.
knowledge available even to the masses is certainl y (b) The Greek concept of time.
fallacious and quite misleading. To put it correctly, it has (c) Awareness of time in the modern industrial world.
created a taste for a low order of books. (d) The orientals and their awareness of time.
Q36. Sexton Blake series are big sellers because they Ans: (c)
(a) disseminate knowledge. Q42. The orientals are alien to
(b) are informative. (a) the business of amusement.
(c) satisfy a typically serious reader. (b) the notion of time as a collection of minutes.
(d) are sensational. (c) industrialization.
Ans: (d) (d) the fine art of doing nothing.
Q37. The American publisher had chosen the works of Ans: (b)
Charles Dickens to Q43. A person who belongs to pre-industrial world
(a) give wide publicity to Dickens‘ works. (a) knows the utility of time.
(b) offer the readers what best he could. (b) knows how to derive happiness by making use of time
(c) counter the trash. carefully.
(d) make money easily. (c) does not care about each minute.
Ans: (d) (d) cares much for every minute.
Q38. What is the main contention of the passage ? Ans: (c)
(a) To stress the popularity of the printing press. Q44. According to the author
(b) To point out the disappointment of serious readers. (a) the orientals are very punctual.
(c) To shed light on the morale of the publishers. (b) the Americans or the Englishmen are punctual.
(d) To bring out the evil impacts of the printing press. (c) the Greek and the orientals are very punctual.
Ans: (d) (d) the Indians are very punctual.
Q39. The author‘s contention makes us feel that he Ans: (b)
(a) is unilateral in his argument. Q45. The orient in the passage refers to
(b) is balanced. (a) China and Japan. (b) Japan and England.
(c) is a typical critic. (c) England and America. (d) America alone.
(d) argues convincingly. Ans: (a)
Ans: (d) Directions: You have two brief passages with 5 questions
Q40. Who is Charles Dickens ? following each passage. Read the passages carefully and
(a) A playwright. (b) An epic poet. choose the best answer to each question out of the four
(c) A short story writer. (d) A novelist. alternatives.
Ans: (d) PASSAGE-I In the technological systems of tomorrow -
PASSAGE-II Our awareness of time has reached such a fast, fluid and self -regulating-machines will deal with the
pitch of intensity that we suffer acutely whenever our flow of physical materials; men with the flow of
travels take us into some corner of the world where information and insight.
people are not interested in minutes and seconds. The Machines will increasingly perfo rm tasks. Machines and
unpunctuality of the or ient, for example is appalling to men both, instead of being concentrated in gigantic
those who come freshly from a land of fixed meal -times factories and factory cities, will be scattered across the
and regular train services. globe, linked together by amazingly sensitive, near -
For a modern American or Englishman, waiting is a instantaneous communications. Human work will move
psychological torture. An Indian accepts the blank hours out of the factory and mass office into the community
with resignation, even with sati sfaction. He has not lost and the home. Machines will be synchronized, as some
the fine art of doing nothing. Our notion of time as a already are, to the billionth of a second; men will be de -
collection of minutes, each of which must be filled with synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the
some business or amusement, is wholly alien to the clock, ―the key machine of the modern industrial age‖ as
Greek. For the man who lives in a pre -industrial world, Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago, will lose some
time moves at a slow and easy pace; he does not care of its power over humans, as distinct from purely
about each minute, for the good reason that he has not technological affairs. Simultaneously, the organisation
been made conscious of the existence of minutes. needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to
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Ad-hocracy, from permanence to tran sience, and from a
concern with the present to a focus on the future.
not honestly like it, or will persuade themselves that they
like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people
In such a world, the most valued attributes of the who cannot like the book run the risk of two things
industrial age become handicaps. The technology of happening to them; either they are put off the idea of the
tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men, book-let us suppose the book was David Copperfield -
ready to work in unison at e ndlessly repetitive jobs, it either they are put off the idea of classical novels, or they
requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion, take a dislike to Dickens, and decide firmly never to
aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to waste their time on anything of the sort again; or they get
authority, but men who can make critical judgments, who a guilty conscience about the whole thing, they feel that
can weave their way through novel environments, who they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore
are q uick to spot new relationships in the rapidly there is something wrong with them.
changing reality. It requires men who, in C.P. Snow‘s They are quite mist aken, of course. There is nothing
compelling terms, ―have the future in their bones‖. wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the
Q46. The technological system of tomorrow will be teacher‘s side. What has happened is that they have been
marked by shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It
(a) dehumanization. (b) perfection. is like giving a young child food only suitable for an
(c) automation. (d) unpredictability. adult. Result: indigestion, violent stomach -ache, and a
Ans: (c) rooted dislike of that article of food evermore.
Q47. The future man, according to this passage, must be Q51. The passage is about what
(a) most adaptative and intelligent. (a) we should do to make children read.
(b) most capable of dealing with the changing reality. (b) we should not do when we ask children to read.
(c) more concerned with the present than the future. (c) teachers should teach in the classroom.
(d) trained and obedient. (d) treatment is to be given for indigestion.
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
Q48. Near -instantaneous communications may be Q52. The writer says that teachers should
regarded as a symbol of (a) prevent children from reading any book.
(a) anachronization. (b) mischronization. (b) compel children to read moral stories.
(c) desynchronization. (d) synchronization. (c) stop compelling children to read books recommended
Ans: (d) by them.
Q49. If a person believes that the price of bread is (d) carefully supervise what children read.
mechanical submission to authority, he is Ans: (c)
(a) a believer in devotion to duty. Q53. According to the author many boys and girls read
(b) a believer in taking things for granted. books to
(c) a believer in doing what he is told, right or wrong. (a) win the favour of their teachers.
(d) a believer in the honesty of machines. (b) spend money in a useful way.
Ans: (c) (c) express their gratitude to their teachers.
Q50. The type of society which the auth or has mentioned (d) show others that they are lovers of books.
makes a plea for Ans: (a)
(a) a mind assimilative of modern scientific ideas. Q54. The mistake has been on the teacher‘s side . Here
(b) a critical mind having insight into future. the mistake refers to
(c) a mind well-versed in cultural heritage. (a) making the children to please the teacher.
(d) a mind with firm principles of life. (b) asking the children to read books which teachers do
Ans: (b) not like.
PASSAGE-II A reason why peo ple at school read books (c) discouraging children from reading more books.
is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this, (d) recommending them the books intended for adults.
that, or the other is a good book, and that it is a sign of Ans: (d)
good taste to enjoy Q55. Indigestion and violent stomach -ache will be the
it. So a number of boys and girls, anxious to please their result if the child
teacher, get the book and read i t. Two or three of them (a) reads books not suitable for his age.
may genuinely like it, for their own sake, and be grateful (b) does not read any book.
to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will (c) is forced to eat food meant for adults.
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(d) is not taken to doctor regularly.
Ans: (a)
(a) understand shades of meaning not readily available in
written responses.
Directions: You have two brief passages with 5 questions (b) observe the physical stature of the interviewee.
following each passages. Read the passages carefully and (c) listen to the voice of the interviewee directly.
choose the best answer to each question out of the four (d) compel the interviewees to express their opinions in
alternatives. writing.
PASSAGE-I The interview may be conducted by letter Ans: (a)
and by telephone, as well as in person. Letter and Q60. The author used ‗individual opinions‘, ‗attitudes‘
telephone interviews are less satisfactory. Direct contact and ‗preferences‘ as examples of
with an individual and a face -to-face relationship often (a) objective data about the interviewees.
provide a stimulating situation for both inter viewer and (b) abstract philosophical concepts irrelevant to the
interviewee. Personal reaction and interaction aid not interview process.
only in rapport but also in obtaining nuances and (c) psychological properties particular to a given
additional information by the reactions which are more interviewee.
fully observed in a face-to-face relationship. (d) likes and dislikes common to interviewers and
Adequate preparation for the interview is a ―must‖. interviewees.
Careful planning saves not only time but also energy of Ans: (c)
both parties concerned. The interview is used to obtain PASSAGE-II Among the natural resources which can be
facts or subjective data such as individual opinions, called upon in national plan for development, possibly
attitudes, and preferences. Interviews are used to check the most important is human labour; without productive
on questionnaires w hich may have been used to obtain labour force, including effective leadership and
data, or when a problem being investigated is complex, or intelligent middle ma nagement, no amount of foreign
when the information needed to solve it cannot be assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful
secured easily in any other way. People will often give development and modernisation. One essential factor is
information orally but will not put it in writing. usually overlooked or ignored. The forgotten factor is the
Q56. The intention of the writer of this passage is to role of women. Development will be handicapped as long
(a) warn the readers against conducting interviews. as wo men remain second -class citizens, uneducated,
(b) instruct people on the best means of conducting without any voice in family or community decisions,
interviews. without legal or economic status, married when they are
(c) tell people how to make friends with interviewers. still practically children, and thenceforth producing one
(d) advise people on the use of letters and telephone. baby after another, often only to see half o f them die
Ans: (b) before they are of school age. We can enhance
Q57. According to the author the best way to conduct development by improving ‗woman power‘ by giving
interviews is women opportunity to develop themselves.
(a) to talk to the interviewees over telephone. Q61. The most important natural resource for national
(b) to write letters to the interviewees. development is
(c) to observe the interviewees from a distance. (a) human labour.
(d) to have a direct conversation with the interviewees. (b) effective leadership.
Ans: (d) (c) intelligent middle management.
Q58. If I want to interview someone, (d) foreign assistance.
(a) all I need to do is to just drop in and have a talk with Ans: (a)
the person. Q62. Human power means
(b) I ought to plan and prepare for the interview well in (a) only men.
advance. (b) only women.
(c) I have to ring up the person and ask him/her all the (c) people including children.
questions I want to. (d) both men and women.
(d) establishing good rapport with the person will be Ans: (d)
enough. Q63. The ignored and overlooked for factor in the
Ans: (b) development of the nation is
Q59. Face-to-face interaction with the interviewees (a) role of women.
enables the interviewer to (b) role of middle management.
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(d) By being conservative.
Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) Q69. What does the absence of any bad advance indicate
Q64. Women have hardly ?
(a) any voice in family or community decisions. (a) A penchant for risks
(b) any economic or legal status. (b) Immense conservatism
(c) any voice in family or community decision or legal or (c) Financial independence
economic status. (d) A deep-seated social commitment
(d) any voice to decide about themselves. Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) Q70. What would happen if novel and pra gmatic
Q65. Woman power is techniques are ignored ?
(a) an essential power in the development of the nation. (a) Will put the banks in danger.
(b) an essential power in child production. (b) Will undermine the banks‘ social commitment.
(c) an essential power in marriages. (c) Will reveal the untapped talent.
(d) an essential power in the death of children. (d) Will result in inefficient portfolio management.
Ans: (a) Ans: (b)
Directions: You have one brief passage with five Directions: You have two brief passages wi th 5 questions
questions following the passage. Read the passage following each passage. Read the passages carefully and
carefully and choose the best answer to each question out choose the best answer to each question out of the four
of the four alternatives. alternatives.
The public sector banks are witnessing in India a period PASSAGE-I In the past 50 years, doctors across the
of transition and are at crossroads, where they without world have accepted the practice to prescribe antibiotics
giving up social responsibility, should also remain at the first sign of a trivial infection or treat patients with
healthy. a handful of antibiotics. These days it is not uncommon
They need to undertake risky experiments, yet perform it to see practitioners prescribing multiple antibiotics
innovatively in a way it does not fail. They should make without any real indication or relevance for such a
forays into new areas which are rarely tread by them and combination of drugs.
lose no emerging opportunities. It should be understood Antibiotics ha ve traditionally been known as miracle
that absence of any bad advance is no sign of efficient drugs, but there is growing evidence that they are
banking system. It only indicates immense conservatism. overworked miracles, especially in countries like ours
However this is no guarantee for profit. There should be a where there is easy access to drugs across the counter,
balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be including antibiotics. We cannot think of a return to p re-
forgotten. Novel and pragmatic techniques should be antibiotic days. Yet the unbridled use of these agents is
adopted without which banks would be in danger. inexorably propelling us in that direction.
Q66. What, according to the author, are the publi c sector Q71. Antibiotics are called overworked miracles
banks witnessing ? because
(a) A period of profit (b) A period of change (a) they performed miracles.
(c) A period of certainty (d) A loss-making period (b) they are hardly used.
Ans: (b) (c) they are over-used.
Q67. In addition to being socially responsible, what does (d) they exhausted their miracles.
the author want the banks to be ? Ans: (c)
(a) Customer friendly Q72. ‗We cannot think of a return to pre-antibiotic days‘
(b) Able to attract foreign investors means
(c) Financially healthy (a) antibiotics became indispensable.
(d) Senseless risk-takers (b) we must go back to pre-antibiotic days.
Ans: (c) (c) we cannot stop using antibiotics.
Q68. How can the banks take risks without risking a (d) we can stop using antibiotics.
failure ? Ans: (c)
(a) By being innovative. Q73. The passage tells us that
(b) By soliciting the help of the government. (a) the antibiotics work miracles.
(c) By being financially healthy. (b) the antibiotics are available at the counters.
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(c) the use of antibiotics is uncontrollable.
(d) antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
Q77. Commensal relationship is a type of symbiosis in
which the relationship is beneficial
Ans: (d) (a) to one and harmless to other.
Q74. The passage discusses the use of (b) to one and harmful to other.
(a) drugs in general. (c) to both.
(b) miracle drugs. (d) to both for a very short time.
(c) antibiotics. Ans: (a)
(d) combination of different drugs. Q78. The passage talks about how animals
Ans: (c) (a) help each other.
Q75. These days it is not uncommon to prescribe (b) live together.
antibiotics‘ means (c) take advantage of the weaker ones.
(a) it is rare to prescribe antibiotics. (d) are related to each other.
(b) it is a common practice to prescribe antibiotics. Ans: (d)
(c) it is not a common practice to prescribe antibiotics. Q79. Parasites
(d) it is compulsory to prescribe antibiotics. (a) are neither beneficial nor harmful to animals they are
Ans: (b) with.
Passage II Among Nature‘s most intriguing phenomena (b) benefit at the expense of the animals they live with.
are the partnerships formed by any different species. The (c) are beneficial to the animals they live with.
name used for these relati onships, Symbiosis, comes (d) harm the animals they live with.
from Greek meaning "living together". Not all symbiotic Ans: (b)
relationships are the same. There are some called Q80. Remora feeds
commensal relationships, in which one partner gains a (a) on the shark it travels with.
benefit while the other gains little or none but is not (b) on the left-over parts of the shark‘s prey.
harmed. One ex ample is the relationship between two (c) by detaching itself to attack the prey.
types of fish – remoras and sharks. The remora, which is (d) on a whale or another type of fish.
long and often striped, attaches itself to a shark Ans: (b)
(sometimes to another type of fish or a whale), using a Directions: You have two brief passages with five
sucker on its head. When the shark makes a kill, the questions following each passage. Read the passages
hitchhiker briefly detaches itself to feed on the scraps. carefully and choose the best answer to each question out
Another type of symbiotic relationship is parasitism, in of the four alternatives.
which one partner benefits at the expense of others. Ticks PASSAGE–I Power and possession have been central
and tapeworms are among familiar parasites. pursuits of modern civilisation for a long time. They
The third type of symbiotic relationshi p, called blocked out or distorted other features of the western
mutualism, is a true partnership in which both partners renaissance (revival) which promised so much for
benefit. humanity. What people have been and are still being
The relationship may be limited as when zebras and taught to prize are money, success, control over the lives
wildbeast graze together on the vast African grasslands. of others, acquisition of more and more objects. Modern
Each species can survive on its own, but together their social, political, and economic systems, whether
chances of detecting predators are improved because each capitalist, fascist or communist, reject in their working
contributes a specially keen sense. (Zebras have the better the basic principle th at the free and creative unfoldment
eyesight; wildbeast, hearing and sense of smell). In a few of every man, woman and child is the true measure of the
cases partners are so interdependent that one cannot worth of any society. Such unfoldment requires
survive without the other. Most mutualistic relationships understanding and imagination, integrity and compassion,
probably lie somewhere in betwe cooperation among people and harmony between the
Q76. Remora attaches itself to the shark or whale human species and the rest of nature. Acquisitiveness and
(a) by entwining its long body around the bigger fish. the pursuit of power have made the modern man an
(b) by biting into the fish‘s body with its teeth. aggressor against everything that is non -human; an
(c) with an adhesive organ found in its head. exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek and
(d) with a hook like structure in its head. unorganised; a pathological type which hates and
Ans: (c) distrusts the world and suffers from both acute loneliness
and false pride.
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Q81. The author appears to be advocating which of the
following approaches to be adopted by society.
doubly hard. On the other hand, the threat of debarment,
will almost certainly impact adversely on his/ her
(a) Capitalistic (b) Communists performance. Of course, linking pr e-boards to the boards
(c) Humanistic (d) Authoritarian is only one of the problems with our school system.
Ans: (c) Q86. Which is the good news for parents, according to
Q82. Which of the following best describes the the passage?
behaviour of modern man? (a) School will take the responsibility of preparing
(a) Imaginative and sympathetic. students for the board.
(b) Cruel and greedy. (b) School will provide study facilit ies to the poor
(c) Conscientious and co-operative. student.
(d) Percepting and creative. (c) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure higher
Ans: (b) attendance of students.
Q83. According to the passage, why has modern man (d) No students can be barred from the Boards without
turned out as an enemy of everything that is nonhuman? prior clearance from the CBSE.
(a) He has been dominated by drives of acquisitiveness Ans: (d)
and power. Q87. What is the ruling of the CBSE ?
(b) He consciously practises spirit of co-operation. (a) Students must pass the pre -board exam before
(c) Non -humans have refused co -operation to human appearing for the Board exam.
beings. (b) Schools should follow the practice of
(d) He hates and distrusts other human beings. performancelinked debarment.
Ans: (c) (c) Schools should maintain the performance record of
Q84. Which of the following statements is not true in students at high level.
context of the given passage ? (d) Schools must motivate students to work hard.
(a) Power and possession go hand in hand. Ans: (a)
(b) The modern man is not individualist. Q88. What is the faulty assumption of schools, according
(c) There is a need for a new renaissance. to the passage?
(d) Poor and weak people are oppressed by the modern (a) Students who do not do well at pre -boards will be
man. motivated to work hard.
Ans: (d) (b) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore students
Q85. Which of the following is one of the requirements take them lightly.
bringing out the best is man ? (c) Students who fare poorly at the pre -board will fail at
(a) Money. (b) Success. the boards.
(c) Power. (d) Understanding. (d) Learning by note is a better method of learning.
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
PASSAGE-II Child psychology is certainly not a strong Q89. Which of the following according to the passage is
point wi th most Indian schools; why else would they the problem with our school system ?
inflict a double trauma on a student forming badly in the (a) Providing study facilities to the students.
pre-boards by banning her from taking the board exams. (b) Linking pre -board performance of students to the
Often with fatal results as evidenced by reports of student boards.
suicides in the run -up to the boards. N ow the Central (c) Teacher‘s lack of knowledge of child psychology.
Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has stepped in (d) Attracting talented students
and put the brakes on this discriminatory practice, ruling Ans: (d)
that no student can be barred from the Boards without Q90. According to the passage, parents had to live with
prior clearance from the CBSE. This is good news for the threat of
parents and students, ma ny of whom have had to live (a) falling grades of their wards.
with the threat of performancelinked department. While (b) not getting their wards admitted in the quality
the school‘s logic is that in order to attract talented schools.
students, they need to maintain their performance records (c) schools not treating their wards with the attitude of
at high levels. Chances are that a student faring poorly at counsellor.
the pre -boards will replicate this at the boards is faulty. (d) linking performance of their wards in pre -boards to
Chances are that the student will be spurred to work the debarment.
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Ans: (d)
Directions: You have two brief passages wit h 5 questions
being comes from the assumption that our lives are easier
than those of earlier generations.
following each passage. Read the passages carefully and The lives of the so-called primitive peoples are thought to
choose the best answer to each question out of the four be harsh –their existence dominated by the ‗incessant
alternatives. quest for food‘. In fact, primitives did very little work. By
PASSAGE–I In 776 BC the First Olympic Games were contemporary standards we‘d have to judge them very
held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honour the Greek‘s lazy.
chief God Zeus. The Greeks emphasized, physical fitness The k ey to understanding why these ‗stone-age people‘
and strength in their education of youth. Therefore failed to act like us – increasing their work effort to get
contests in running, jumping, discus and javelin more things –is that they had limited desires. In the race
throwing, boxing and horse and chariot racing were held between wanting and having, they had kept their wanting
in individual cities, and the winners competed every f our low–and, in this way ensured thei r own kind of
years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honoured satisfaction.
by having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these They were materially poor by contemporary standards,
were held as games of friendship, and any wars in but in at least one dimension – time–we have to count
progress were halted to allow the games to take place. them richer.
The Greeks attached so much importan ce to these games Q96. What is the basis for progress and growth according
that they calculated time in four -year cycles called to the writer ?
‗Olympiads‘ dating from 776 BC. (a) Faith in progress is deep-rooted in our culture.
Q91. Where were the First Olympic Games held? (b) We have been taught that progress in necessary.
(a) Mount Olympus (b) Mount Olympiad (c) Material progress has given us strength.
(c) Mount Orels (d) Mount of Greeks (d) We have assumed to progress.
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
Q92. Why were the Olympic Games held ? Q97. What does the writer attribute to modern economics
(a) To stop wars ?
(b) To crown the best athletes (a) That our lives are easier than before.
(c) To honour Zeus (b) The progress is a natural process.
(d) To sing songs about athletes (c) That material progress leads to higher satisfaction and
Ans: (c) well-being.
Q93. Approximately how many years ago did these (d) That it forces us to assume progress.
games originate ? Ans: (c)
(a) 776 years (b) 2279 years Q98. What is the writer‘s image of the primitive people ?
(c) 1207 years (d) 2781 years (a) Their life was harsh.
Ans: (d) (b) They did no work.
Q94. Which of the following contests was not held ? (c) They were lazy.
(a) Discus throwing (b) Skating (d) Search for food was their primary focus in life.
(c) Boxing (d) Running Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) Q99. What is the key to understanding the primitive
Q95. The values connected with Olympic Games were people‘s behaviour according to the passage ?
(a) physical fitness, education of youth and friendship. (a) They had no desires.
(b) health, contests and singing. (b) They had everything they needed.
(c) running, jumping, throwing and boxing. (c) They had limited desires.
(d) four-year cycles, war-time, young age and friendship. (d) They kept their wants high.
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
PASSAGE–II Faith in progress is deep within our Q100. How does the writer appreciate the primitives ?
culture. We have been taught to believe that our lives are (a) They have a low degree of wants.
better than the lives of those who came before us. The (b) They are the masters of their time owing to their
ideology of modern economics suggests that material contentedness.
progress has yielded enhanced satisfaction and well - (c) They are materially poor.
being. But much of our confidence about our own well - (d) They are highly satisfied.
Ans: (a)
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