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JEE MAIN SOLVED PAPER–2018
PHYSICS
m T
1. The density of a material in the shape of a cube m
m2
2
is determined by measuring three sides of the
cube and its mass. If the relative errors in
measuring the mass and length are respectively T
1.5% and 1%, the maximum error in determining
the density is: m1
(1) 2.5% (2) 3.5%
(3) 4.5% (4) 6% m1g
2. All the graphs below are intended to represent (1) 18.3 kg (2) 27.3 kg
the same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. (3) 43.3 kg (4) 10.3 kg
Pick it up. 4. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a
velocity under the action of an attractive potential
k
position U= - . Its total energy is:
(1) 2r 2
k k
(1) - 2 (2)
distance 4a 2a 2
3 k
(3) zero (4) -
time 2 a2
(2)
5. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial
speed n0 strikes a stationary particle of the
same mass. If the final total kinetic energy is
position 50% greater than the original kinetic energy, the
magnitude of the relative velocity between the
two particles, after collision, is:
(3) time
n0
(1) (2) 2n0
4
velocity n0 n0
(3) (4)
2 2
6. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of
(4) time mass M and radius R are welded symmetrically
as shown. The moment of inertia of the
arrangement about the axis normal to the plane
and passing through the point P is:
3. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg, connected
by an inextensible string over a frictionless
P
pulley, are moving as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. O
The minimum weight m that should be put on
top of m2 to stop the motion is:
EBD_7764
2018-2 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
3V
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-5
33. According to molecular orbital theory, which of 39. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample
the following will not be a viable molecule? of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure
of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr s–1 when 5% had
(1) He22+ (2) He+2
reacted and 0.5 Torr s–1 when 33% had reacted.
(3) H2– (4) H 2– The order of the reaction is :
2
(1) 2 (2) 3
34. Which of the following lines correctly show the
(3) 1 (4) 0
temperature dependence of equilibrium constant,
40. How long (approximate) should water be
K, for an exothermic reaction?
electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes
ln K A current so that the oxygen released can
completely burn 27.66 g of diborane?
B 1 (Atomic weight of B = 10.8 u)
(0, 0) T(K) (1) 6.4 hours (2) 0.8 hours
++
++ C (3) 3.2 hours (4) 1.6 hours
++
++ 41. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion
D
in drinking water is up to 1ppm as fluoride ion is
(1) A and B (2) B and C required to make teeth enamel harder by
(3) C and D (4) A and D converting [3Ca3(PO4)2. Ca(OH)2] to :
35. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2 (g) (1) [CaF2]
and H2O (l). Given that heat of combustion of (2) [3(CaF2).Ca(OH)2]
benzene at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 (3) [3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2]
at 25°C; heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of (4) [3{(Ca(OH)2}.CaF2]
benzene at constant pressure will be : 42. Which of the following compounds contain(s)
(R= 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) no covalent bond(s)?
(1) 4152.6 (2) –452.46 KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
(3) 3260 (4) –3267.6 (1) KCl, B2H6, PH3 (2) KCl, H2SO4
36. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following (3) KCl (4) KCl, B2H6
compounds, which one will show the highest 43. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
freezing point? (1) PH3 and BCl3 (2) AlCl3 and SiCl4
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (3) PH3 and SiCl4 (4) BCl3 and AlCl3
(2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl. 2H2O 44. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3– ion
(4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O is :
37. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 MH2S and (1) 3 (2) 6
0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constants for the (3) 9 (4) 12
formation of HS– from H2S is 1.0 × 10–7 and that 45. Which of the following salts is the most basic in
of S2– from HS– ions is 1.2 × 10–13 then the aqueous solution?
concentration of S2– ions in aqueous solution is : (1) Al(CN)3 (2) CH3COOK
(1) 5 × 10–8 (2) 3 × 10–20 (3) FeCl3 (4) Pb(CH3COO)2
(3) 6 × 10–21 (4) 5 × 10–19 46. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN)6]4– to
38. An aqueous solution contains an unknown [Fe(CN) 6]3– in acidic medium but reduces
concentration of Ba2+. When 50 mL of a 1 M [Fe(CN)6]3– to [Fe(CN)6]4– in alkaline medium.
solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins The other products formed are respectively:
to precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The (1) (H2O + O2) and H2O
solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10. What is (2) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH–)
the original concentration of Ba2+ ? (3) H2O and (H2O + O2)
(1) 5 × 10–9 M (2) 2 × 10–9 M (4) H2O and (H2O + OH–)
(3) 1.1 × 10–9 M (4) 1.0 × 10–10 M
EBD_7764
2018-6 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
47. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, 54. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence
[Cr(C6H6)2], and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O)2(NH3)] of NaOH followed by acidification produces
respectively are : compound X as the major product. X on treatment
(1) +3, +4, and +6 (2) +3, +2, and +4 with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic
(3) +3, 0, and +6 (4) +3, 0, and + 4 amount of H2SO4 produces :
48. The compound that does not produce nitrogen
gas by the thermal decomposition is :
(1) Ba(N3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) NH4NO2 (4) (NH4)2SO4
49. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white
(1) (2)
gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained, which is
soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ when
heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in
chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’
is :
(1) Zn (2) Ca
(3) Al (4) Fe
50. Consider the following reaction and statements: (3) (4)
[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br– ® [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant
complex ion is a cis-isomer.
55. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant
orange as indicator, which of the following in a
complex ion is a trans -isomer
correct combination?
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
Base Acid End point
complex ion is a trans -isomer
(1) Weak Strong Colourless to pink
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant
(2) Strong Strong Pinkish red to
complex ion is a cis-isomer.
yellow
The correct statements are:
(3) Weak Strong Yellow to Pinkish
(1) (I) and (II) (2) (I) and (III)
red
(3) (III) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV)
(4) Strong Strong Pink to colourless
51. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives :
56. The predominant form of histamine present in
(1) n-Hexane (2) 1- Hexene
human blood is (pKa, Histidine – 6.0)
(3) Hexanoic acid (4) 6-iodohexanal
52. The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction H
N
of alkynes with: (1)
(1) H2-Pd/C, BaSO4 (2) NaBH4 N
(3) Na/liq. NH3 (4) Sn - HCl
53. Which of the following compounds will be H
N +
suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen +
(2)
estimation? N
H
NH2
(1) (2) H
N
(3) +
– N
NO2 N+2 Cl H
(3) (4)
H
N +
(4)
N
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-7
57. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts with Br 2 to
form product B. A and B are respectively :
(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and
(b)
(c) (3)
(d)
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(4)
(2) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
(3) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(4) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c) 60. The major product of the following reaction is :
59. The major product formed in the following
reaction is :
(1) (2)
(1)
(3) (4)
EBD_7764
2018-8 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
-1 1
(3) +C (4) +C 1 1
1 + cot 3 x 3(1 + tan3 x) (3) ( 2 - 1) (4) ( 3 - 1)
2 2
(where C is a constant of integration) 67. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd degree
62. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola terms in the expansion of
4x 2 - y2 = 36 at the points P and Q. If these
(x + x3 - 1)5 + (x - x3 - 1)5 ,(x > 1) is :
tangents intersect at the point T(0, 3) then the
area (in sq. units) of DPTQ is : (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 54 3 (2) 60 3 (3) 2 (4) – 1
(3) 36 5 (4) 45 5 68. Let a1,a 2 ,a 3 ,..., a 49 be in A.P. such that
63. Tangent and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the
12
parabola y2 = 16x , which intersect the axis of å a 4k +1 = 416 and a 9 + a 43 = 66. If
k =0
the parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the
centre of the circle through the points P, A and B a12 + a 22 + ... + a17
2
= 140m , then m is equal to :
and ÐCPB = q , then a value of tan q is :
(1) 68 (2) 34
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 33 (4) 66
4 1
(3) (4) 9 9
3 2
r 69. If å (xi - 5) = 9 and å (x i - 5)2 = 45 , then the
64. Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors i =1 i=1
r r r standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2, ..., x9 is :
a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ - kˆ and b = ˆj + kˆ . If u is perpen-
(1) 4 (2) 2
r r r r
dicular to a and u × b - 24 , then | u |2 is equal (3) 3 (4) 9
to : 70. PQR is a triangular park with PQ = PR = 200 m. A
(1) 315 (2) 256 T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR. If the
(3) 84 (4) 336 angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 45°, 30° and 30°, then the
65. If a, b Î C are the distinct roots, of the equation
height of the tower (in m) is :
x 2 - x + 1 = 0 , then a101 + b107 is equal to : (1) 50 (2) 100 3
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 50 2 (4) 100
(3) 2 (4) – 1
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-9
71. Two sets A and B are as under : 76. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is
A = {(a, b) Î R ´ R :| a - 5 | < 1 and | b - 5 | < 1}; drawn at random from the bag, its colour is ob-
served and this ball along with two additional
2 2
B = {(a,b) Î R ´ R : 4(a - 6) + 9(b - 5) £ 36}. balls of the same colour are returned to the bag.
Then : If now a ball is drawn at random from the bag,
(1) A Ì B then the probability that this drawn ball is red,
(2) A Ç B = f (an empty set) is :
(3) neither A Ì B nor B Ì A 2 1
(1) (2)
(4) B Ì A 5 5
72. From 6 different novels and 3 different dictio-
naries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be se- 3 3
(3) (4)
lected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that 4 10
the dictionary is always in the middle. The num- 77. The length of the projection of the line segment
ber of such arrangements is : joining the points (5, –1, 4) and (4, –1, 3) on the
(1) less than 500
plane, x + y + z = 7 is:
(2) at least 500 but less than 750
(3) at least 750 but less than 1000 2 1
(1) (2)
(4) at least 1000 3 3
1 1 2 2
73. Let f (x) = x 2 + and g(x) = x - , (3)
3
(4)
3
x2 x
78. If sum of all the solutions of the equation
f (x)
x Î R - {-1,0,1} . If h(x) = , then the local æ æp ö æp ö 1ö
g(x) 8cos x × ç cos ç + x ÷ × cos ç - x ÷ - ÷ - 1 in
è è6 ø è6 ø 2ø
minimum value of h(x) is :
(1) – 3 (2) -2 2 [0, p] is kp, then k is equal to :
(3) 2 2 (4) 3 13 8
(1) (2)
9 9
74. For each t Î R , let [t] be the greatest integer
less than or equal to t. Then 20 2
(3) (4)
æé 1 ù é 2 ù é15 ù ö 9 3
lim x ç ê ú + ê ú + ... + ê ú ÷
è
x ®0 + ë û ë û
x x ë x ûø 79. A straight the through a fixed point (2, 3)
intersects the coordinate axes at distinct points
(1) is equal to 15.
(2) is equal to 120. P and Q. If O is the origin and the rectangle OPRQ
(3) does not exist (in R). is completed, then the locus of R is :
(4) is equal to 0. (1) 2x + 3y = xy (2) 3x + 2y = xy
Dd DM 3DL ¶u K
= + 4. (3) F=- rˆ = 3 rˆ
\ Error in density, ¶r r
d M L
= 1.5% + 3(1%) = 4.5% Since particle is moving in circular path
2. (2) Graphs in option (3) position-time and mv 2 K K
option (1) velocity-position ar e F= = Þ mv 2 =
3
corresponding to velocity-time graph
r r r2
option (4) and its distance-time graph is as 1 K
given below. Hence distance-time graph \ K.E. = mv2 = 2
2 2r
option (2) is incorrect.
Total energy = P.E. + K.E.
distance K K
=- 2
+ = Zero
2r 2r 2
K
(Q P.E. = - given)
2r 2
time
5. (2)
Before Collision After Collision
V0 V1 V2
m m Þ m m
3 (2) Given : m1 = 5kg; m2 = 10kg; m = 0.15
FBD for m1, m1g – T = m1a Stationary
Þ 50 – T = 5 × a
1 2 1 2 3æ1 ö
and, T – 0.15 (m + 10) g = (10 + m)a mv + mv = ç mv02 ÷
For rest a = 0 2 1 2 2 2è2 ø
or, 50 = 0.15 (m + 10) 10 3
Þ v12 + v 22 = v20 ....(i)
2
N From momentum conservation
m
T mv0 = m(v1 + v2) ....(ii)
m2
Squarring both sides,
m(m+m2)g (m+m2)g T (v1 + v2)2 = v02
m1 Þ v12 + v22 + 2v1v2 = v02
m1g = 50N v20
2v1v2 = -
2
3
Þ 5= (m + 10) 3 2 v2
20 (v1 - v 2 ) 2 = v 21 + v 22 - 2v1v2 = v0 + 0
2 2
EBD_7764
2018-12 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
Solving we get relative velocity between the Moment of inertia (I1) of the complete disc
two particles 1
v1 - v2 = 2v0 = 9 MR 2 about an axis passing through
2
6. (4) Using parallel axes theorem, moment of inertia O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc.
about ‘O’ M.I. of the cut out portion about an axis
Io = Icm + md2 passing through O' and perpendicular to
the plane of disc
7MR 2 55MR 2
= + 6(M ´ (2R)2 ) = 2
2 2 1 æ Rö
= ´M ´ç ÷
2 è 3ø
mv2
(Force = )
R
1 1
The total mass of the disc Þ w2 µ Þ wµ n +1
= s × p R2 = 9M R n +1
R 2
The mass of the circular disc cut
2 2p
æ Rö p R2 Time period T =
= s´pç ÷ = s´ =M w
è 3ø 9
n +1
Let us consider the above system as a
complete disc of mass 9M and a negative Time period, T µ R 2
volumetric stress P ˆ P ˆ P ˆ P ˆ
9. (3) Bulk modulus, K = DP = J+ J+ i- i
volumetricstrain 2 2 2 2
mg 2P ˆ
K= DP = J = IH molecule
æ dV ö 2
aç ÷
è V ø
2P ˆ
dV mg Þ Iwall = - J
Þ = ....(i) 2
V Ka Pressure, P
4 3
volume of sphere , V = pR F
=
2P
n (Q n = no.of particles)
3 =
A A
dV 3dr
Fractional change in volume = 2 ´ 3.32 ´ 10 -27 ´ 103 ´ 1023
V r =
...(ii) 2 ´ 10 -4
3dr mg =2.35 × 103N/m2
Using eq. (i) & (ii) = 12. (2) As we know, frequency in SHM
r Ka
1 k
dr mg f= = 1012
\ = (fractionaldecrement in radius) 2p m
r 3Ka
10. (3) In an adiabatic process where m = mass of one atom
TVg–1 = Constant Mass of one atom of silver,
s é a 2 - b2 ù 37 ´10 370
VB = ê + cú ÞV= = = 11.56 volt
Î0 16 ´ 2 32
êë b úû
18. (2) As we know, radius of circular path in
15. (1) Charge on Capacitor, Qi = CV magnetic field
After inserting dielectric of dielectric
constant = K Qf = (kC) V 2Km
r=
Induced charges on dielectric qB
Qind = Qf - Qi = KCV - CV
2Km e
æ5 ö For electron, re = ....(i)
= (K - 1)CV = ç - 1 ÷ ´ 90pF ´ 2V = 1.2nc eB
è3 ø
16. (2) As we know, average power Pavg = Vrms Irms 2Km p
cosq For proton, rp = ....(ii)
eB
æ V öæ I ö æ 100 ö æ 20 ö For a particle,
= ç 0 ÷ ç 0 ÷ cos q = ç ÷ç ÷ cos 45°
è 2 øè 2 ø è 2 øè 2 ø 2Km a 2K4m p 2Km p
ra = = = ...(iii)
(Q q = 45°) qa B 2eB eB
\ r e < rp = ra (Q me < mp)
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-15
19. (3) Magnetic field at the centre of loop, After introducing polariser C between A
and B,
m0 I
B1 = Polariser A Polariser C Polariser B
2R
Dipole moment of circular loop is m = IA
m1 = I.A = I.pR2 {R = Radius of the loop}
If moment is doubled (keeping current I I/2 I/2Cos q
2
I/2Cos4 q
constant)
R becomes 2R
I I 1
cos4 q = Þ cos4 q =
( )
2 2
m 2 = I.p 2R = 2.IpR = 2m1 2 8 4
m0 I 1
B2 = Þ cos q = or, q = 45°
2 ( 2R ) 2
2l
23. (1) Angular width of central maxima =
m0 I d
B1 2R
\ = = 2 d l´D
B2 m0 I or, l = ; Fringe width, b =
2 ( 2R ) 2 d'
d 50 ´ 10-2 10 -6 ´ 50 ´10 -2
10-2 = ´ =
w0 w L 2 d' 2´d'
20. (1) Quality factor Q = = 0
2Dw R Therefore, slit separation distance, d’ =
1 25mm
v= 24. (1) Wavelength of emitted photon from nth
21. (3) Velocity of EM wave is given by mÎ
state to the ground state,
w 1 æ1 1 ö
Velocity in air = k = C = RZ 2 ç - ÷
Ln è12
n2 ø
C -1
Velocity in medium = 2 1 æ 1 ö
Ln = 1-
2 ç ÷
Here, m1 = m2 = 1 as medium is non-magnetic RZ è n 2 ø
Since n is very large, using binomial
1
theorem
Îr1 C Îr1 1
\ = =2 Þ = 1 æ 1 ö
1 æCö Îr2 Ln = 1+
4 2 ç ÷
ç ÷ RZ è n 2 ø
Îr2 è2ø
1 1 æ 1 ö
22. (3) Axis of transmission of A & B are parallel. Ln = + ç ÷
2
RZ RZ 2 è n 2 ø
Polariser A Polariser B As we know,
2pr æ n 2h2 ö 1
ln = = 2p ç ÷ µn
n ç 4p2 mZe2 ÷ n
è ø
I I/2 I/2
B
Ln » A +
ln2
EBD_7764
2018-16 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
43. (2, 4) BCl3 and AlCl3, both have vacant p-orbital 47. (3) [Cr (H2O)6] Cl3
and incomplete octet thus they behave as Þ x + 6 × 0 + (– 1) × 3 = 0
Lewis acids. Þ x = +3
SiCl4 can accept lone pair of electron in d- [Cr (C6H6)2]
orbital of silicon hence it can act as Lewis
x+2×0= 0;x=0
acid.
K2 [Cr (CN)2 (O)2 (O2) (NH3)]
Although the most suitable answer is (c).
However, both options (c) and (a) can be 2 × 1 + x + 2 × (– 1) + 2 × (– 2) + (– 2) + 0 = 0
considered as correct answers. x=+6
e.g. hydrolysis of SiCl4 48. (4)
D
Cl Cl (1) Ba(N 3 ) 2 ¾¾® Ba + 3N 2
H
D
Si + H2O ¾® Si O (2) (NH 4 )2 Cr2 O7 ¾¾® Cr2 O3 + N 2 + 4H 2O
Cl Cl H
Cl Cl Cl Cl D
(3) NH 4 NO 2 ¾¾® N 2 + 2H 2 O
D
Cl (4) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 ¾¾® 2NH 3 + H 2 SO 4
NH3 is evolved in reaction (c).
Cl — Si — OH + HCl
49. (3)
Cl NaOH
Al + 3H 2 O ¾¾¾¾
® Al(OH)3 ¯ + 3 / 2H 2 (g)
i.e., option (a) AlCl 3 and SiCl 4 is also (X)
correct.
White gelatinous ppt.
44. (3)
I
excess of NaOH
Al(OH)3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾® Na[Al(OH) 4 ]
I Soluble
D
I 2Al(OH)3 ¾¾
® Al2O3 + 3H 2O
(X )
\ Total number of lone pair of electrons is 9. Al2O3 is used as adsorbent in chromatography.
45. (2) CH 3 COOK is a salt of weak acid Thus, metal ‘M’ is Al.
(CH3COOH) and strong base (KOH).
FeCl3 is a salt of weak base [Fe(OH)3] and
50. (2) Br
strong acid (HCl).
H3N Br
Pb (CH3COO)2 is a salt of weak base
Pb(OH)2 and weak acid (CH3COOH)
Al(CN)3 is a salt of weak base [Al (OH)3]
and weak acid (HCN).
H3N NH3
1 NH3
46. (3) [Fe(CN)6]4– + H2O2 + H+ ¾® [Fe(CN)6]3–
2 cis-isomer
+ H2O +Br –
1 –
[Fe(CN)6]3– + H O + OH
2 2 2 1
¾® [Fe(CN)6]4– + H2O + O2
2
EBD_7764
2018-20 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
Br Br
H3N Br H3N Br
+
H3N Br H3N NH3
NH3 Br
fac– mer–
(2 isomers)
Br Br
H3N NH3 H3N NH3
Br –
¾+ ¾ ®
OH OH N
COOH Blood is slightly basic in nature (7.35 pH).
CO2, NaOH At this pH, terminal NH2 will get protonated
¾¾¾¾¾® due to more basic nature.
Acidification
\ Predominant structure of histamine is
(X)
(Major) H
O N
O—C—CH3
COOH N
(CH CO) O
¾ ¾3 ¾ ¾
2
®
H2SO4
Acetyl salicylic acid
(Aspirin)
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-21
O
–
OH O O O — C — O — CH3
57. (3) – Cl — C — O — CH3
OH
¾ ® ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
(A)
O
O — C — O — CH3
Br
¾¾¾¾
2
¾®
Br
(B)
+
NH2 NH3
58. (3) (a) Protonation
¾¾¾¾®
(1° and sp3 )
+
NH NH2
Protonation
(b) ¾¾¾¾ ®
(sp2 )
+
NH2 NH2 NH2
Protonation
¾¾¾¾® ¾¾®
(c) +
NH NH2 NH2
[Equivalent resonance]
¾Protonation
¾¾¾® +
(d) NHCH3 NH2 CH3
(2° and sp3)
Hence, correct order of basicity will be : b < a < d < c.
59. (4)
¾ ¾®
(–C2H 5I)
– CH 3OH
+
EBD_7764
2018-22 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
60. (2) CH 3 O–
is a strong base and strong
x(0) y(3)
nucleophile, so favourable condition is \ Equation of PQ is : - =1
SN2/E2. 9 36
The given alkyl halide is 2° and b carbons Þ y = –12
are 4° and 2°, so sufficiently hindered, thus
E2 dominates over SN2.
Also, polarity of CH3OH (solvent) is not Y
as high as H2O, so E1 is also dominated by
E2.
x 2 y2
- =1
4° 9 36
Br (0, 3)
b X' X
a CH O
–
¾¾®
3
E2
b H (Major product)
Q P
(2°) R
Y'
MATHEMATICS
61. (1) Let I
sin2 xcos2 x 1
=ò dx \ Area of DPQT = ´ TR ´ PQ
(sin5x+ cos3xsin2x+ sin3xcos2 x + cos5x)2 2
Q P º (3 5, -12) \ TR = 3 + 12 = 15,
2 2
sin x cos x \ Area of
=ò dx
2 2 3 3 2
[(sin x + cos x)(sin x + cos x)]
1
DPQT = ´15 ´ 6 5 = 45 5 sq. units
2
sin 2 x cos 2 x
=ò dx 63. (1) Equation of tnagent at P(16, 16) is given
(sin 3 x + cos3 x)2
as:
x – 2y + 16 = 0
tan 2 x × sec 2 x
=ò dx
(1 + tan 3x)2 Y
)
, 16
Now, put (1 + tan3x) = t 16
P(
Þ 3 tan2x sec2x dx = dt t
No
en
ng
rm
-1 Ta
al
1 dt 1 X' X
3 ò t2
\ I= =- + C = +C A B(24, 0)
3t 3(1 + tan3 x) (–16, 0)
62. (4) Here equation of hyperbola is
x2 y2 Y'
- =1
9 36
Now, PQ is the chord of contant 4
Slope of PC (m1) =
3
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-23
Slope of PB (m2) = –2 12
68. (2) Q å a 4k +1 = 416
4 k =0
+2
m1 - m 2
Hence, tan q = = 3 13
1 + m1 × m 2 1 - 4 × 2 Þ [2a1 + 48d] = 416
2
3
Þ a1 + 24d = 32 ...(1)
Þ tan q = 2 Now, a9 + a43 = 66 Þ 2a1 + 50d = 66
...(2)
r r r
64. (4) Q u, a & b are coplanar From eq. (1) & (2) we get; d = 1 and a1 = 8
r r r r r r r r r 17 17
\ u = l(a´ b) ´ a = l{a 2 .b - (a .b)a} Also, å a 2r = å [8 + (r - 1)1]2 = 140 m
r =1 r =1
= l{-4iˆ + 8jˆ + 16k}
ˆ = l'{- iˆ+ 2 ˆj+ 4k}.
ˆ
17
rr Þ å (r + 7)2 = 140 m
Also, u.b = 24 Þ l' = 4
r =1
r
\ u = -4iˆ + 8jˆ + 16kˆ 17
r2
Þ å (r 2 + 14r + 49) = 140 m
Þ u = 336 r =1
(x - 1)2 y 2 æ 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 15 ö
+ =1 = lim+ x ç
è ÷ø -
9 4 x®0 x
Y
æì 1 ü ì 2 ü ì15 ü ö
çè í x ý + í x ý + ... + í x ý ÷ø
î þ î þ î þ
(–1, 1) (0, 1)
(0, 1)
ìrü ìrü
X¢ (–1, 0) (1, 0) X Q 0 £ í ý <1 Þ 0 £ xí ý < x
îxþ îxþ
(1, –1)
(–1, –1) (0, –1)
æ 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 15 ö 15 ´ 16
\ lim+ x çè ÷ø = = 120
x ®0 x 2
Y¢
\ (±1, ±1) lies inside the ellipse.
Hence, A Ì B .
JEE Main Solved Paper–2018 2018-25
p /2
sin 2 x 77. (3) C B (5, –1, 4)
75. (3) Let, I = ò x
dx ...(i)
-p /2 1 + 2
b b
Using, ò f (x)dx = ò f (a + b - x)dx, we get : A (4, –1, 3)
A¢ B¢
a a
p /2
sin 2 x
I= ò -x
dx ...(ii)
($i + $j + k$ ) =
-p /2 1 + 2
( )
AC = AB.AC = $i + k$ .
3
2
3
Adding (i) and (ii), we get;
Now,
p /2
4 2
2I = ò sin 2 x dx Þ A'B' = BC = AB2 - AC2 = 2 -
3
=
3
-p /2
2
x /2 \ Length of projection <
2 × ò sin 2 x dx
2I = 3
0 p
(1) Q 8cos x æç cos 2 - sin 2 x - ö÷ = 1
1
78.
è 6 2ø
p p
Þ 2I =
2´ Þ I =
4 4 æ3 1 ö
Þ 8cos x ç - - sin 2 x ÷ = 1
76. (1) Let Rt be the even of drawing red ball in tth è4 2 ø
draw and Bt be the event of drawing black æ1 ö
ball in tth draw. Þ 8cos x ç - (1 - cos 2 x) ÷ = 1
è4 ø
Now, in the given bag there are 4 red and 6
æ1 ö
black balls. Þ 8cos x ççç ,1 ∗ cos 2 x÷÷÷ < 1
è4 ø
4 6
\ P(R1 ) = and P(B1 ) = æ 3ö
10 10 Þ 8cos x çççcos2 x , ÷÷÷ < 1
è 4ø
æR ö 6 æR ö 4 æ 4cos3 x , 3cos x ö÷
And, P ç 2 ÷ = and P ç 2 ÷ = ç ÷÷ < 1
è R1 ø 12 è B1 ø 12 Þ 8çç ÷
çè 4 ø÷
Now, required probability
Þ 2(4cos3 x , 3cos x) < 1
æR ö æR ö 1
= P(R1) ´ P ç 2 ÷ + P(B1 ) ´ P ç 2 ÷ Þ 2cos3x = 1 Þ cos3x =
è R1 ø è B1 ø 2
p
æ 4 6ö æ 6 4ö 2 \ 3x = 2np ± , n Î1
= ç ´ ÷+ç ´ ÷ = 3
è 10 12 ø è 10 12 ø 5
2np p
Þ x= ±
3 9
EBD_7764
2018-26 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
p 2p p 2p p Y
In x Î [0, p]: x = , + , - , only
9 3 9 3 9 y2 = 6x
Sum of all the solutions of the equation
P(x1, y1)
æ1 2 1 2 1ö 13
= ç + + + - ÷p = p
è 9 3 9 3 9 ø 9 X
79. (2) Equation of PQ is
x y
+ =1 ...(1)
h k
9x2 + by2 = 16
Since, point of intersection is on both the
curves, then
(0, k)Q R(h, k) y12 = 6x1 ...(i)
3 3 x-4 2x 2x
Þ AC = AB = (2 10) Þ AC = 3 10
2 2 2x x-4 2x = (Bx - 4)(x + 4) 2
\ Radius of circle with AC as diametre
2x 2x x-4
AC 3 5 Now take x common from both the sides
= = 10 = 3
2 2 2
83. (4) f (x) =| x - p | (e|x| - 1)sin | x |
4
1- 2x 2x
Check differentiability of f(x) at x = p and x = 0 x
at x = p : 4 4 4
2x 1- 2x = (B - )(1 + ) 2
\ x x x
| p + h- p | (e|x +h| - 1)sin | p + h | -0
R.H.D. = lim 4
h®0 h 2x 2x 1-
x
| p - h - p | (e|p-h| - 1)sin | p - h | -0
L.H.D = lim 1
h ®0 -h Now take x ® ¥ , then ®0
=0 x
Q RHD = LHD 1 2 2
Therefore, function is differentiable at x = p
Þ 2 1 2 = BÞ B =5
at x = 0:
2 2 1
| h - p | (e|h| - 1) sin | h | -0 \ ordered pair (A, B) is (–4, 5)
R.H.D. = lim =0
h ®0 h
85. (4) : (pÚ q) Ú (: p Ù q)
|-h|
| -h - p | (e - 1)sin | - h | -0 ( : p Ù : q) Ú (: p Ù q)
L.H.D. = lim =0
h ®0 -h Þ : pÙ (: q Ú q)
\ RHD = LHD
Þ : pÙ t º : p
Therefore, function is differentiable.
at x = 0. 86. (1) For non zero solution of the system of
linear equations;
Since, the function f(x) is differentiable at all the
points including p and 0. 1 k 3
i.e., f(x) is every where differentiable . 3 k -2 = 0
Therefore, there is no element in the set S.
2 4 -3
Þ S = f (an empty set)
x -4 2x 2x Þ k = 11
Now equations become
84. (2) Here, 2x x-4 2x = (A+Bx) (x–A)2 x + 11y + 3z = 0 ...(1)
2x 2x x -4 3x + 11y – 2z = 0 ...(2)
2x + 4y – 3z = 0 ...(3)
Put
Adding equations (1) & (3) we get
-4 0 0 3x + 15y = 0
x =0Þ 0 -4 0 = A3 Þ A3 = (-4)3 Þ x = –5y
Now put x = –5y in equation (1), we get
0 0 -4 –5y + 11y + 3z = 0
Þ A = -4 Þ z = –2y
Þ xz ( -5 y)( -2 y)
\ = = 10
2
y y2
EBD_7764
2018-28 JEE Main Solved Paper–2018
Þ x - 8 x + 12 = 0 Þ x = 4, 2 æp ö
Q eq. (2) passes through ç ,0 ÷
Þ x = 16, 4 è2 ø
Since x Î[0,9] p2
\ x=4 Þ0= +C
2
Case-II: x Î[9, ¥]
p2
2( x - 3) + x - 6 x + 6 = 0 ÞC= -
2
Now, put the value of C in (1)
Þ x - 4 x = 0 Þ x = 16,0
Since x Î[9, ¥] p2
Then, ysin x = 2x 2 - is the solution
\ x = 16 2
Hence, x = 4 & 16
æpö æ p p2 ö
2
88. (3) Equation of tangent at (1, 7) to x2 = y – 6 8p2
is \ y ç 6 ÷ = çç 2. 36 - 2 ÷÷ 2 = - 9
è ø è ø
2x – y + 5 = 0.
90. (1) Equation of plane passing through the
line of intersection of first two planes is:
(–8, –6) 2x–y+5=0 (2 x - 2y + 3z - 2) + l (x - y+ z + 1) = 0
O or
P
x(l + 2) - y(2 + l ) + z(l + 3) + (l - 2) = 0
...(i)
is having infinite number of solution with
x + 2y – z – 3 = 0 and 3x – y + 2z – 1 = 0,
Now, perpendicular from centre O(–8, –6) then
to
2x – y + 5 = 0 should be equal to radius of
the circle (l + 2) -(l + 2) (l + 3)
\ -16 + 6 + 5 1 2 -1 = 0
= 64 + 36 - C
5 3 -1 2
Þ 5 = 100 - c Þ l=5
Þ c = 95 Now put l = 5 in (i), we get
89. (2) Consider the given differential equation 7x –7y + 8z + 3 = 0
the Now perpendicular distance from (0, 0, 0)
sinxdy + ycosxdx = 4xdx to the place containing L1 and L2 =
Þ d(y.sinx) = 4xdx
3 1
Integrate both sides =
Þ y.sinx = 2x2 + C ...(1) 162 3 2
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Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (a) (c) (b) (a)
16 17 18 19 20
(b) (d) (c) (d) (d)
r r
1. (a) W = F × s = Fs cos q 8. (d) Least count of screw gauge
-2 2 -2 0.5
= [ MLT ][ L] = [ML T ] ; = mm = 0.01mm
r r r 50
t = r ´ F Þ t = rF sin q \ Reading = [Main scale reading + circular
scale reading × L.C] – (zero error)
= [ L ] [MLT -2 ] = [ ML2T -2 ] = [3 + 35 × 0.01] – (– 0.03) = 3.38 mm
2. (c) We know that the velocity of light in 9. (d) 30 Divisions of vernier scale coincide with
vacuum is given by 29 divisions of main scales
1 29
c= Therefore 1 V.S.D = MSD
mo eo 30
Least count = 1 MSD – 1VSD
1 29
\ m e = c21 = L2T–2 = 1 MSD - MSD
o o 30
3. (b) Momentum = mv = [MLT–1] 1
= MSD
Planck’s constant, 30
E [ ML2T –2 ] 1
h= = = [ML2T -1 ] = ´ 0.5° = 1 minute.
–1 30
v [T ] 10. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023 = 5
4. (a) From Stokes law, Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1
F Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 = 2
F = 6ph r v Þ h = 6p r v So, the radiation belongs to X-rays part of
the spectrum.
[ MLT -2 ] 1
\h = Þ h = [ ML-1T -1 ] 11. (a) L.C. = mm
[ L][ LT -1 ] 100
Diameter of wire = MSR + CSR × L.C.
5. (d) Moment of Inertia, I = Mr 2 1
[I] = [ ML2 ] = 0+ × 52 = 0.52 mm = 0.052 cm
100
r uur uur
Moment of force, t = r ´ F V V ± DV
12. (a) R = Þ R ± DR =
r I I ± DI
é t ù = [ L][ MLT -2 ] = [ML2T -2 ]
ë û æ ö
6. (c) We know that F = q v B
æ DR ö V çç 1 ± DV / V ÷÷
F MLT -2 Rç1 ± ÷= DI
\ B= = = [MT -1C -1 ] è R ø I ç 1 ± ÷
qv C ´ LT -1 è I ø
7. (a) Momentum, p = m × v
æ DR ö æ DV ö + æ DI ö
= (3.513) × (5.00) = 17.565 kg m/s ç ÷ =ç ÷ ç ÷ = (3 + 3)% = 6%
= 17.6 (Rounding off to get three significant è R ø è V ø è I ø
figures)
EBD_7764
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P-4 Physics
13. (c) Q Reading of Vernier = Main scale reading
2 L
+ Vernier scale reading × least count. 17. (d) As, g = 4p
Main scale reading = 58.5 T2
Vernier scale reading = 09 division Dg DL DT
least count of Vernier = 0.5°/30 So, ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100
g L T
0.5°
Thus, R = 58.5° + 9 × 0.1 1
30 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ ´ 100 = 2.72 ; 3%
20 90
R = 58.65°
14. (b) As we know, | DT1 | + | DT2 | + | DT3 | + | DT4 |
18. (c) DT =
4
1 q1q 2 q1q 2
F= Þ e0 = 2 +1+ 3 + 0
4pe 0 R 2 4pFR 2 = = 1.5
4
C2 [AT]2 As the resolution of measuring clock is 1.5
Hence, e0 = = therefore the mean time should be 92 ± 1.5
N.m 2 MLT -2 .L2
= [M–1 L–3 T4 A2] 0.5
19. (d) L.C. = = 0.01 mm
15. (a) The current voltage relation of diode is 50
Zero error = 5 × 0.01 = 0.05 mm (Negative)
I = (e1000 V /T - 1) mA (given) Reading = (0.5 + 25 × 0.01) + 0.05 = 0.80 mm
When, I = 5mA, e1000 V /T = 6mA rhg
20. (d) Surface tension, T = ´ 103
2
1000
Also, dI = (e1000 V /T
)´ Relative error in surface tension,
T
(By exponential function)
DT Dr Dh
1000 = + +0
= (6 mA) ´ ´ (0.01) = 0.2 mA T r h
300
16. (b) Measured length of rod = 3.50 cm (Q g, 2 and 103 are constant)
For vernier scale with 1 Main Scale Division
Percentage error
= 1 mm
9 Main Scale Division = 10 Vernier Scale
DT æ 10 –2 ´ 0.01 10 –2 ´ 0.01ö
Division, 100 ´ =ç + ÷ 100
Least count = 1 MSD –1 VSD = 0.1 mm T è 1.25 ´ 10 –2 1.45 ´ 10 –2 ø
= (0.8 + 0.689)
= (1.489) = 1.489% @ 1.5%
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Motion in a
Straight Line 2
1. If a body looses half of its velocity on penetrating 7h
(b) meters from the ground
3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it 9
penetrate more before coming to rest? [2002] h
(c) meters from the ground
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm 9
(c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm. 17 h
(d) meters from the ground
2. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at the 18
specific instant. The ratio of the respective 6. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60
distances in which the two cars are stopped from km/h, can brake to stop within a distance of 20m.
that instant is [2002] If the car is going twice as fast i.e., 120 km/h, the
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 stopping distance will be [2004]
(a) 60 m (b) 40 m
(c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 16
(c) 20 m (d) 80 m
3. From a building two balls A and B are thrown
7. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f
such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards through a distance S, then continues at constant
(both vertically). If vA and vB are their respective speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
velocities on reaching the ground, then[2002]
f
(a) vB > vA to come to rest. If the total distance traversed
2
(b) vA = vB
is 15 S , then [2005]
(c) vA > vB
1
(d) their velocities depend on their masses. (a) S = ft 2 (b) S = f t
4. A car, moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be 6
stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the same 1 2 1 2
(c) S = ft (d) S = ft
car is moving at a speed of 100 km/hr, the minimum 4 72
stopping distance is [2003] 8. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity
(a) 12 m (b) 18 m of 5 ms–1. In 10 seconds the velocity changes
(c) 24 m (d) 6 m to 5 ms–1 northwards. The average acceleration
5. A ball is released from the top of a tower of in this time is [2005]
height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the 1 -2
(a) ms towards north
T 2
ground. What is the position of the ball at 1
3 (b) ms - 2 towards north-east
second [2004] 2
1
8h (c) ms - 2 towards north-west
(a) meters from the ground 2
9
(d) zero
EBD_7764
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P-6 Physics
h
t
(a) t
O
t
(x1 – x2)
(c) O t
t
t1 2t1
(b) O
(x1 – x2) y
(c) t
O
t
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Motion in a Straight Line P-7
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c)
16
(a)
1. (a) Activity A to B -3
u Þa = u2
u1 = u ; v1 = , s1 = 0.03 m, a1 = ? 4 ´ 0.06
2 Activity B to C: Assuming the same
v12 - u12 = 2a1s1 ...(i) retardation
-3
u u/2 speed = 0 u2 = u /2 ; v2 = 0 ; s2 = ? ; a2 = u2
4 ´ 0.06
A 3 cm B C v22 - u 22 = 2a2 ´ s2 ...(ii)
2 u2 æ -3 u 2 ö
æ uö \ 0- = 2ç
\ ç ÷ - u 2 = 2 ´ a ´ 0.03 ÷ ´ s2
è 2ø 4 è 4 ´ 0.06 ø
u2 3 2 1
Þ - u 2 = 0.06a Þ - u = 0.06a Þ s2 = m = 1 cm
4 4 100
EBD_7764
w w w . c r a c k j e e .
P-8 Physics
Alternatively, dividing (i) and (ii), v = 0, s = s, a = a \ v 2 - u 2 = 2as
v12 - u12 2a ´ s1 2
= 2 æ 5ö
v22 - u22 2a ´ s2 Þ 0 - ç100 ´ ÷ = 2as
è 18 ø
2 2
æ uö 2 æ 5ö
çè ÷ø - u Þ - ç100 ´ ÷ = 2as … (ii)
2 0.03 è 18 ø
Þ = Þ s2 = 1 cm. Dividing (i) and (ii) we get
2 s2
æ uö
0-ç ÷ 100 ´ 100 2 ´ a ´ s
è 2ø = Þ s = 24m
50 ´ 50 2´a´6
2. (d) For car 1
u1 = u, v1 = 0, a1 = – a, s1 = s1 1 2
5. (a) We have s = ut + gt ,
2
\ v12 - u12 = 2a1s1 Þ – u2 = – 2as1
1 2
Þ u2 = 2as1 ...(i) or h = gT (Q u = 0)
For car 2 2
u2 = 4u, v1 = 0, a2 = – a, s2 = s2 now for T/3 second, vertical distance
moved is given by
\ v22 - u22 = 2a2 s2 Þ – (4u)2 = 2(–a) s2 2
1 æTö 1 gT 2 h
Þ 16 u2 = 2as2 ...(ii) h' = g ç ÷ Þ h' = ´ =
Dividing (i) and (ii), 2 è 3ø 2 9 9
h
u2 2as1 1 s \ position of ball from ground = h -
= Þ = 1 9
2 2as2 16 s2
16u 8h
=
9
3. (b) Ball A is thrown upwards
from the building. During 5 50
u 6. (d) Speed, u = 60 ´ m/s = m/s
its downward journey A 18 3
u
when it comes back to 5 100
the point of throw, its d = 20m, u' = 120 ´ = m/s
18 3
speed is equal to the h Let declaration be a then (0) – u2 = –2ad
2
speed of throw. So, for or u2 = 2ad … (1)
the journey of both the B and (0)2 – u'2 = –2ad'
balls from point
A to B . or u '2 = 2 ad ' …(2)
We can apply v2 – u2 = 2gh. (2) divided by (1) gives,
As u, g, h are same for both the balls, d'
4 = Þ d ' = 4 ´ 20 = 80m
vA = vB d
5 1 2
4. (c) Case-1 : u = 50 ´ m / s, 7. (d) Distance from A to B = S = ft1
18 2
v = 0,s = 6m, a = a Distance from B to C = ( ft1 ) t
v 2 - u 2 = 2as u2 ( ft1 )2
2 Distance from C to D = =
æ 5ö 2a 2( f / 2)
Þ 02 - ç 50 ´ ÷ = 2 ´ a ´ 6
è 18 ø = ft12 = 2 S
2
æ 5ö A f B C f /2 D
Þ - ç 50 ´ ÷ = 2 ´ a ´ 6 ....(i)
è 18 ø t1 t 2t 1
5
Case-2 : u = 100 km/hr = 100 ´ m/sec 15 S
18
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Motion in a Straight Line P-9
Þ S + f t1t + 2 S = 15 S 1
2ax + b = .
Þ f t1t = 12 S ............. (i) v
Again differentiating,
1 2
f t1 = S ............ (ii) dx 1 dv
2 2a + 0 = - 2
dt v dt
t
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get t1 = dv 3 æ dx = vö
6 Þ = f = - 2av çèQ ÷ø
2 dt dt
1 ætö f t2
Þ S= fç ÷ = dx dx
2 è 6ø 72 10. (a) v=a x , =a xÞ = a dt
dt x
8. (c) Average acceleration
uur x
dx
t
x
=
change in velocity D v
= ò x = a ò dt ; éê 2 x ùú = a[t ]t0
time interval t 0 0
ë 1 û0
v2 a2 2
N Þ 2 x = at Þ x = t
4
D v = v 2 + (- v 1 ) 11. (c) We know that, v =
dx
Þ dx = v dt
dt
x t
90° Integrating, ò dx = ò v dt
W E 0 0
- v1 v1 t
or x = ò (v0 + gt + ft 2 ) dt
0
t
é gt 2 ft 3 ù
uur uur Suur ur ur = êv0 t + + ú
v1 = 5iˆ, v2 = 5 ˆj , D v = (v 2 - v 1 ) ëê 2 3 úû
0
= v12 + v22 + 2v1v2 cos 90 gt 2 ft 3
or, x = v0 t + +
2 3
= 5 2 + 52 + 0
g f
[As | v1 | = | v2 | = 5 m/s] At t = 1, x = v0 + + .
2 3
12. (b) For the body starting from rest
= 5 2 m/s
uur
Dv 5 2 1 1 2 1 2
Avg. acc. = = = m / s2 x1 = 0 + at Þ x1 = at
t 10 2 2 2
5 x1 – x2
tan q = = -1
-5
which means q is in the second quadrant.
(towards north-west)
9. (d) t = ax 2 + bx ; Diff. with respect to time (t)
d d dx dx
(t ) = a ( x 2 ) + b = a.2 x + b.v. v/a
t
dt dt dt dt
1 = 2axv + bv = v (2ax + b)(v = velocity)
For the body moving with constant speed
x2 = vt
EBD_7764
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P-10 Physics
1 2 graph (b).
\ x1 - x2 = at - vt
2 dv
14. (a) = -2.5 v
at t = 0, x1–x2 = 0 dt
v dv
For t < ; the slope is negative Þ = – 2.5 dt
a v
v Integrating,
For t = ; the slope is zero 0 -½ t
a ò6.25 v dv = -2.5ò dt
0
v 0
For t > ; the slope is positive é v +½ ù
= -2.5 [ t ]0
t
a Þ ê (½) ú
These characteristics are represented by ëê ûú 6.25
graph (b). Þ – 2(6.25)½ = – 2.5t
13. (b) For downward motion v = –gt Þ t = 2 sec
The velocity of the rubber ball increases in 15. (c) Speed on reaching ground
downward direction and we get a straight u
line between v and t with a negative slope. v= u 2 + 2 gh
H
1 2
Also applying y - y0 = ut + at Now, v = u + at
2
1 2 1 2 Þ u 2 + 2 gh = -u + gt
We get y - h = - gt Þ y = h - gt
2 2 Time taken to reach highest point is
The graph between y and t is a parabola u
with y = h at t = 0. As time increases y t= ,
g
decreases.
For upward motion. u + u 2 + 2 gH nu
The ball suffer elastic collision with the Þ t= = (from
g g
horizontal elastic plate therefore the
question)
direction of velocity is reversed and the
magnitude remains the same. Þ 2gH = n(n –2)u2
Here v = u – gt where u is the velocity just 16. (a) For a body thrown vertically upwards
acceleration remains constant (a = – g) and
after collision.
velocity at anytime t is given by V = u – gt
As t increases, v decreases. We get a straight During rise velocity decreases linearly and
line between v and t with negative slope. during fall velocity increases linearly and
1 2 direction is opposite to each other.
Also y = ut - gt Hence graph (a) correctly depicts velocity
2
All these characteristics are represented by versus time.
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Motion in a Plane 3
1. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building 5. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed 'v0' at
throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s at an angle an elevation angle of q. From the same point
of 30º with the horizontal. How far from the and at the same instant, a person starts running
throwing point will the ball be at the height of 10 ' v0 '
m from the ground ? [2003] with a constant speed to catch the ball.
2
Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes,
1 3
[ g = 10m/s2 , sin 30o = , cos 30o = ] what should be the angle of projection q ?[2004]
2 2
(a) No (b) Yes, 30°
(a) 5.20m (b) 4.33m
(c) Yes, 60° (d) Yes, 45°
(c) 2.60m (d) 8.66m
2. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any 6. A particle has an initial velocity of 3iˆ + 4 ˆj and
time ‘t’are given by x = at3 and y = bt3. The an acceleration of 0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj . Its speed after
speed of the particle at time ‘t’ is given by 10 s is : [2009]
[2003]
(a) 7 2 units (b) 7 units
(a) 2 2 (b) 2 2 2 (c) 8.5 units (d) 10 units
3t a + b 3t a +b
r
7. A particle is moving with velocity n = k ( yiˆ + xjˆ) ,
(c) t 2 a 2 + b2 (d) a 2 + b2 where k is a constant. The general equation for
3. A projectile can have the same range ‘R’ for two its path is [2010]
angles of projection. If ‘T1’ and ‘T2’ to be time of (a) y = x2 + constant
flights in the two cases, then the product of the (b) y2 = x + constant
two time of flights is directly proportional to. (c) xy = constant
[2004] (d) y2 = x2 + constant
1 8. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction
(a) R (b)
R on a circular path as shown in the figure. The
1 movement of 'P' is such that it sweeps out a
(c) (d) R 2
R2 length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in
4. Which of the following statements is FALSE for seconds. The radius of the path is 20 m. The
a particle moving in a circle with a constant acceleration of 'P' when t = 2 s is nearly.[2010]
angular speed ? [2004] y
(a) The acceleration vector points to the centre
of the circle B
(b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the P(x,y)
circle
(c) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle m
20
(d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are
perpendicular to each other. x
O A
EBD_7764
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P-12 Physics
(a) 13m/s2 (b) 12 m/s2 13. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from
(c) 7.2 ms2 (d) 14m/s2 the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of
9. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the
r following graph best represents the time
acceleration a at a point P(R,q) on the circle of
radius R is (Here q is measured from the x-axis ) variation of relative position of the second stone
[2010] with respect to the first ? [2015]
n2 n2 (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting
(a) - cos q iˆ + sin q ˆj the ground and neglect air resistance, take
R R
g = 10 m/s2)
n2 n2
(b) - sin q iˆ + cos q ˆj (The figures are schematic and not drawn to
R R scale)
n2 n2
(c) - cos q iˆ - sin q ˆj
R R (y2 – y1) m
2 2 (a) 240
n ˆ n ˆ
(d) i+ j
R R
10. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water
all around it. If the speed of water coming out of t(s)
8 12
the fountain is v, the total area around the
fountain that gets wet is : [2011] (y2 – y1 ) m
v4 p v4 (b) 240
(a) p (b)
g2 2 g2
v2 v2
(c) p (d) p
g2 g t(s)
8 12
11. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height
of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that (y2 – y1 ) m
the boy can throw the same stone up to will be (c) 240
[2012]
(a) 20 2 m (b) 10 m
(c) 10 2 m (d) 20 m t(s)
t® 8 12
12. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
(y2 – y1 ) m
(iˆ + 2 ˆj ) m/s, where iˆ is along the ground and (d) 240
ĵ is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the
equation of its trajectory is : [2013]
(a) y = x – 5x 2 (b) y = 2x – 5x2
2 t(s)
(c) 4y = 2x – 5x (d) 4y = 2x – 25x2 12
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
(d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (b)
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Motion in a Plane P-13
10m
Tower
Þ ydy = xdx Þ y2 = x2 + constant
8. (d) s = t3 + 5
2. (b) x = at3 and y = bt3 ds
= 3t 2
Þ velocity, v =
dx dy dt
vx = = 3at 2 and v y = = 3bt 2
dt dt dv
Tangential acceleration at = = 6t
\ v = v 2x + v2y = 9a 2t 4 + 9b2t 4 dt
v 2 9t 4
2 2 2 Radial acceleration ac = =
= 3t a + b R R
3. (a) The angle for which the ranges are same is At t = 2s, at = 6 × 2 = 12 m/s2
complementary. 9 ´ 16
Let one angle be q, then other is 90° – q ac = = 7.2 m/s2
20
2u sin q 2u cos q \ Resultant acceleration
T1 = , T2 =
g g = at2 + ac2
2
4u sin q cos q
T1T2 = =2R = (12) 2 + (7.2) 2 = 144 + 51.84
g
= 195.84 = 14 m/s2
u 2 sin 2 q r
(Q R = ) 9. (c) Clearly a = ac cos q(-iˆ) +ac sin q(- ˆj )
g
Hence it is proportional to R. -v 2 v2
4. (b) Only option (b) is false since acceleration = cos q iˆ - sin q ˆj
vector is always radial (i.e., towards the R R
center) for uniform circular motion. Y
5. (c) Yes, the person can catch the ball when
horizontal velocity is equal to the horizontal P( R, q)
component of ball’s velocity, the motion
of ball will be only in vertical direction with R
q
respect to person for that, X
O
vo
= vo cos q or q = 60°
2
r r
6. (a) Given u = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj , a = 0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj , t = 10 s 10. (a) Total area around fountain
r r r
v = u + at = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + (0.4iˆ + 0.3 ˆj) ´ 10 2
A = pRmax
= 7iˆ + 7 ˆj v 2 sin 2q v 2 sin 90° v 2
Where Rmax = = =
r g g g
\ | v |= 72 + 72 = 7 2 units
EBD_7764
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P-14 Physics
v4
r
12. (b) From equation, v = iˆ + 2 ˆj
\ A= p 2
g Þ x=t … (i)
2 2 2 2
u sin q u sin q 1
11. (d) R = ,H= y = 2t - (10t 2 ) … (ii)
g 2g 2
From (i) and (ii), y = 2x – 5x2
Hmax at 2q = 90°
13. (b) y1 = 10t – 5t2 ; y2 = 40t – 5t2
u2 for y1 = – 240m, t = 8s
Hmax =
2g \ y2 – y1 = 30t for t < 8s.
u2 for t > 8s,
= 10 Þ u2 = 10 g ´ 2
2g 1
y2 – y1 = 240 – 40t – gt2
u 2 sin 2q u2 2
R= Þ Rmax =
g g
10 ´ g ´ 2
Rmax = = 20 metre
g
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Laws of Motion P-15
Laws of Motion 4
1. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man 7. Three identical blocks of masses m = 2 kg are
in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The drawn by a force F = 10. 2 N with an acceleration
acceleration of the ball as observed by the man of 0. 6 ms-2 on a frictionless surface, then what
in the lift and a man standing stationary on the is the tension (in N) in the string between the
ground are respectively [2002] blocks B and C? [2002]
(a) g, g (b) g – a, g – a
C B A F
(c) g – a, g (d) a, g
2. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle
of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually (a) 9.2 (b) 3.4
perpendicular, then the particle remains (c) 4 (d) 9.8
stationary. If the force F1 is now removed then 8. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
the acceleration of the particle is [2002] massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
(a) F1/m (b) F2F3 /mF1 C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
(c) (F2 - F3)/m (d) F2 /m. that the rope can bear is 360 N. With what value
3. The minimum velocity (in ms-1) with which a car of maximum safe acceleration (in ms-2) can a man
driver must traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m of 60 kg climb on the rope? [2002]
and coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is P
(a) 60 (b) 30 [2002]
(c) 15 (d) 25 C
4. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are
released from top of an inclined plane
(frictionless) so that they slide down the plane.
Then maximum acceleration down the plane is (a) 16 (b) 6
for (no rolling) [2002] (c) 4 (d) 8
(a) solid sphere (b) hollow sphere
9. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a
(c) ring (d) all same. lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the
5. Two forces are such that the sum of their spring reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If
magnitudes is 18 N and their resultant is 12 N the lift moves downward with an acceleration
which is perpendicular to the smaller force. Then
the magnitudes of the forces are [2002] of 5 m / s 2 , the reading of the spring balance
(a) 12 N, 6 N (b) 13 N, 5 N will be [2003]
(c) 10 N, 8 N (d) 16N, 2N. (a) 24 N (b) 74 N
6. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley (c) 15 N (d) 49 N
connects two blocks of masses m1 and m 2 10. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a
(vertically). If the acceleration of the system is r
particle moving with velocity, v . These forces
g/8, then the ratio of the masses is [2002] are represented in magnitude and direction by
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 9 : 7 the three sides of a triangle ABC. The particle
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 5 : 3.
EBD_7764
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P-16 Physics
will now move with velocity [2003] pulley. What is the acceleration of the masses
r C when left free to move ? ( g = 9.8m / s2 ) [2004]
(a) less than v
r
(b) greater than v
r (a) 5 m / s2
(c) v in the direction of
the largest force BC (b) 9.8 m / s 2
A
(d) vr , remaining unchanged
B
11. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just (c) 0.2 m / s 2
hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the (d) 4.8 m / s 2
wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is [2003]
17. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making
(a) 20 N an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The
(b) 50 N coefficient of static friction between the block
and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on the
(c) 100 N 10N block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is
(d) 2 N (take g = 10 m / s 2 ) [2004]
12. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when (a) 1.6 (b) 4.0
given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction (c) 2.0 (d) 2.5
in 10 s. Then the coefficient of friction is [2003] 18. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 and then slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to
(c) 0.04 (d) 0.06 slide is ‘n’ times as much to slide on rough incline
13. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a friction is [2005]
force P is applied at the free end of the rope, the
1 1
force exerted by the rope on the block is[2003] (a) mk = 1 – 2 (b) mk = 1-
Pm Pm n n2
(a) (b)
M +m M -m
1 1
PM (c) ms = 1 - (d) ms = 1-
(c) P (d)
M +m n 2
n2
14. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of 19. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without
the other light spring balance and a block of friction. When parachute opens, it decelerates
mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the at 2 m/s2 . He reaches the ground with a speed
true statement about the scale reading is [2003] of 3 m/s. At what height, did he bail out ?
(a) both the scales read M kg each [2005]
(b) the scale of the lower one reads M kg and (a) 182 m (b) 91 m
of the upper one zero (c) 111 m (d) 293 m
(c) the reading of the two scales can be 20. An annular ring with inner and outer radii R1
anything but the sum of the reading will be
M kg and R2 is rolling without slipping with a uniform
(d) both the scales read M/2 kg each angular speed. The ratio of the forces
experienced by the two particles situated on the
15. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 ´ 10 4 kg is
blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of F1
inner and outer parts of the ring , F is[2005]
10m/s2. Then the initial thrust of the blast is 2
(a) 3.5 ´ 10 5 N (b) 7.0 ´ 10 5 N [2003] 2 R2
æ R1 ö
(c) 14.0 ´ 10 N5 (d) 1.75 ´ 10 N 5 (a) çè R ÷ø (b) R1
2
16. Two masses m1 = 5g and m2 = 4.8 kg tied to R1
a string are hanging over a light frictionless (c) R2 (d) 1
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Laws of Motion P-17
21. The upper half of an inclined plane with horizontal plane. Initially the blocks are at rest and
inclination f is perfectly smooth while the lower the spring is unstretched. Then a constant force F
half is rough. A body starting from rest at the starts acting on the block of mass M to pull it. Find
top will again come to rest at the bottom if the the force of the block of mass m. [2007]
coefficient of friction for the lower half is given MF mF
(a) (b)
by [2005] (m + M ) M
(a) 2 cos f (b) 2 sin f mF
(c) ( M + m) F (d)
(c) tan f (d) 2 tan f m (m + M )
22. A particle of mass 0.3 kg subject to a force 28. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an
F = – kx with k = 15 N/m . What will be its initial angle 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in
acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the
away from the origin ? [2005] two planes. What is the relative vertical
acceleration of A with respect to B ? [2010]
(a) 15 m / s 2 (b) 3 m / s 2
A
(c) 10 m / s 2 (d) 5 m / s 2 B
23. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
with angle of inclination ‘ a ’ . The incline is given
an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary.
Then a is equal to [2005]
60° 30°
(a) 4.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction
(b) 9.8 ms–2 in vertical direction
(c) Zero
(d) 4.9 ms–2 in vertical direction
a 29. The minimum force required to start pushing a
a body up rough (frictional coefficient m) inclined
(a) g cosec a (b) g / tan a plane is F1 while the minimum force needed to
(c) g tan a (d) g prevent it from sliding down is F2. If the inclined
24. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a plane makes an angle q from the horizontal such
speed of 100 m/s . The distance at which car can F
that tan q = 2m then the ratio 1 is [2011 RS]
be stopped is [ m k = 0.5 ] [2005] F2
(a) 1000 m (b) 800 m (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 400 m (d) 100 m (c) 3 (d) 4
25. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards 30. If a spring of stiffness ‘k’ is cut into parts ‘A’
by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves
0.2 m while applying the force and the ball goes and ‘B’ of length l A : l B = 2 : 3, then the
upto 2 m height further, find the magnitude of stiffness of spring ‘A’ is given by [2011 RS]
the force. (Consider g = 10 m/s2). [2006]
3k 2k
(a) 4 N (b) 16 N (a) (b)
(c) 20 N (d) 22 N 5 5
26. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g 5k
moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process (c) k (d)
is completed in 0.1s, the force of the blow exerted 2
by the ball on the hand of the player is equal to 31. A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time
[2006] t = 0. It is subjected to a force F(t) = F0e–bt in the
(a) 150 N (b) 3 N x direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which
(c) 30 N (d) 300 N of the following curves? [2012]
27. A block of mass m is connected to another block
of mass M by a spring (massless) of spring
constant k. The block are kept on a smooth
EBD_7764
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P-18 Physics
F0 33. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a
mb
x3
(a) v(t)
vertical cross section given by y = . If the
6
t coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
F0 above the ground at which the block can be
mb placed without slipping is: [2014]
(b)
v(t) 1 2
(a) m (b) m
t 6 3
F0 1 1
mb (c) m (d) m
3 2
(c) v(t) 34. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of
t weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
F0 being pressed against a wall by a force F as
mb shown. If the coefficient of friction between the
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is
(d) v(t) 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on
t block B is: [2015]
32. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass
m and radius R. If the string does not slip on the
cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass F
A B
fall or release? [2014]
2g
(a)
3
g
(b) R
2
m
5g
(c) (a) 120 N (b) 150 N
6 (c) 100 N (d) 80 N
(d) g
m
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (a) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (c) (c) (a) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c) (d)
31 32 33 34
(c) (b) (a) (a)
www.crackjee.xyz
Laws of Motion P-19
F2 R
mg
mg
F1
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P-20 Physics
9. (a) For the bag accelerating down we get P = (m + M) a
mg – T = ma P
\ a=
m+M
Taking the block as a system,
we get T = Ma
T MP
\ T=
a m+M
mg 14. (a) The Earth pulls the block by a force Mg.
The block in turn exerts a force Mg on the
spring of spring balance S1 which therefore
49 shows a reading of M kgf.
\ T = m( g – a ) = (10 – 5) = 24.5 N The spring S1 is massless. Therefore, it
10 exerts a force of Mg on the spring of spring
10. (d) As shown in the figure, the three forces balance S2 which shows the reading of M
are represented by the sides of a triangle kgf.
taken in the same order. Therefore the
r r
resultant force is zero. Fnet = ma.
Therefore, acceleration is also zero i.e., s2 Mkgf
velocity remains unchanged.
11. (d) For the block to remain stationary with the
wall
f=W s1 Mkgf
f = mN
M
Mg
10N 10N 10N
15. (b) As shown in the figure F – mg = ma
W Thrust (F)
mN = W
0.2 × 10 = W Þ W = 2 N
f2
Þ 40 - 0 = 2 (a) 0.2 Þ a = 100 m/s2
\ F = ma = 0.2 ´ 100 = 20 N
Þ N - mg = 20 Þ N = 20 + 2 = 22 N mg sin q
mg cos q
q mg
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Laws of Motion P-23
For the upward motion of the body or T = ma
mg sin q + f1 = F1 Þ mg – ma = ma
or, F1 = mg sin q + mmg cos q g
For the downward motion of the body, Þ a=
mg sin q – f 2 = F2 2
33. (a) At limiting equilibrium,
or F2 = mg sin q – mmg cos q m = tanq
F1 sin q + m cos q
\ =
F2 sin q - m cos q
tan q + m 2m + m 3m m
Þ = = =3
tan q - m 2m - m m y
q
2l æ 3l ö
30. (d) Here, l A = , l B = ç ÷
5 è 5ø
k l = k Al A = k B l B
æ 2l ö
kl = kA ç ÷
è 5ø
5k dy x 2
kA = tanq = m = = (from question)
2 dx 2
31. (c) Given that F(t) = F0 e -bt Q Coefficient of friction m = 0.5
dv x2
Þ m = F0 e -bt \ 0.5 =
dt 2
dv F0 -bt Þ x=+1
= e
dt m
v t x3 1
F Now, y = = m
ò dv = m0 ò e -bt dt 6 6
0 0 f1 f2
ée -bt ù t
v=
F0
ê ú =
F0 é
êë -b úû 0 mb
m ë ( )
- e - bt - e -0 ù
û 34. (a) F
A B
N
F
Þ v = 0 é1 - e -bt ù
mb ë û 20N
f1
100N
32. (b) From figure, Assuming both the blocks are stationary
N= F
f1 = 20 N
a f2 = 100 + 20 = 120N
R f
T
m a
mg
Acceleration a = Ra …(i) 120N
Considering the two blocks as one system
and mg – T = ma …(ii) and due to equilibrium f = 120N
From equation (i) and (ii)
æ aö
T × R = mR2a = mR2 çè ÷ø
R
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P-24 Physics
Work, Energy
and Power 5
1. Consider the following two statements :[2003] (c) 7.2 J (d) 1200 J
A. Linear momentum of a system of particles r r r r
7. A force F = (5i + 3 j + 2k ) N is applied over a
is zero
particle which displaces it from its origin to the
B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero. r r r
Then point r = (2i - j )m. The work done on the
(a) A does not imply B and B does not imply A particle in joules is [2004]
(b) A implies B but B does not imply A (a) +10 (b) +7
(c) A does not imply B but B implies A
(d) A implies B and B implies A (c) –7 (d) +13
2. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends 8. A body of mass ‘m’, accelerates uniformly from
is stretched by attaching a weight of 200N to rest to ‘v1’ in time ‘t1’. The instantaneous power
the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by delivered to the body as a function of time ‘t’ is
1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire [2004]
is [2003] mv1t 2 mv12t
(a) 0.2 J (b) 10 J (a) (b)
(c) 20 J (d) 0.1 J t1 t12
3. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is mv1t mv12t
stretched initially by 5cm from the unstretched (c) t1 (d)
t1
position. Then the work required to stretch it
further by another 5 cm is [2003] 9. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant
(a) 12.50 N-m (b) 18.75 N-m magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
(c) 25.00 N-m (d) 6.25 N-m velocity of the particle, the motion of the particles
4. A body is moved along a straight line by a takes place in a plane. It follows that [2004]
machine delivering a constant power. The (a) its kinetic energy is constant
distance moved by the body in time ‘t’ is (b) its acceleration is constant
proportional to [2003]
(c) its velocity is constant
(a) t 3/4 (b) t 3/2
(c) t 1/4 (d) t 1/2 (d) it moves in a straight line
5. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation 10. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
proportional to its displacement. Its loss of horizontal surface collides with the spring of
kinetic energy for any displacement x is spring constant k and compresses it by length
proportional to [2004] L. The maximum momentum of the block after
(a) x (b) ex collision is [2005]
(c) x2 (d) loge x M
6. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table
such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from
the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain
is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the kL2
entire chain on the table ? [2004] (a) (b) Mk L
2M
(a) 12 J (b) 3.6 J ML2
(c) (d) zero
k
www.crackjee.xyz
Work, Energy & Power P-25
11. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at (c) 1.25 J (d) 0.5 J
the top of a hill of height 100 m. It rolls down a 16. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to
smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up move along the x-axis is given by
another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls down
to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above æ x 4 x2 ö
V ( x) = ç - ÷ J.
the ground. The velocity attained by the ball is è 4 2ø
[2005]
(a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2
J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is [2006]
(c) 10 30 m/s (d) 10 m/s
3
12. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from (a) (b) 2
rest to a speed v in a time T. The instantaneous 2
power delivered to the body as a function of 1
time is given by [2005] (c) (d) 2
2
mv 2 mv 2 17. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a
(a) 2
.t 2 (b) 2
.t
T T speed of 4m/s. It strikes a uncompressed spring,
and compresses it till the block is motionless. The
1 mv 2 2 1 mv 2 kinetic friction force is 15N and spring constant
(c) .t (d) .t is 10,000 N/m. The spring compresses by [2007]
2 T2 2 T2
(a) 8.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm
13. A mass ‘m’ moves with a velocity ‘v’ and collides (c) 2.5 cm (d) 11.0 cm
inelastically with another identical mass . After 18. An athlete in the olympic games covers a
distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can
collision the lst mass moves with velocity
v
be estimated to be in the range [2008]
3
(a) 200 J - 500 J (b) 2 × 105 J - 3 × 105 J
in a direction perpendicular to the initial direction (c) 20, 000 J - 50,000 J (d) 2,000 J - 5, 000 J
of motion. Find the speed of the 2 nd mass after 19. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of
collision. [2005] 2.00 ms–1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another
mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as
m m v a single body. The energy loss during the
3
A before Aafter collision is [2008]
collision collision (a) 0.16 J (b) 1.00 J
(a) 3v (b) v (c) 0.67 J (d) 0.34 J
20. The potential energy function for the force
v 2 between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is
(c) (d) v
3 3 a b
approximately given by U(x) = 12 - 6 , where
14. A bomb of mass 16kg at rest explodes into two x x
pieces of masses 4 kg and 12 kg. The velolcity a and b are constants and x is the distance
of the 12 kg mass is 4 ms–1. The kinetic energy between the atoms. If the dissociation energy
of the other mass is [2006] of the molecule is
(a) 144 J (b) 288 J
(c) 192 J (d) 96 J D = éëU ( x = ¥) - U at equilibrium ùû , D is [2010]
15. A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically
upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done b2 b2
(a) (b)
by the force of gravity during the time the particle 2a 12a
goes up is [2006]
(a) –0.5 J (b) –1.25 J b2 b2
(c) (d)
4a 6a
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-26 Physics
21. Statement -1: Two particles moving in the same
direction do not lose all their energy in a
completely inelastic collision. [2010]
(a) aL2 + bL3 (b)
1
2
(aL2 + bL3 )
Statement -2 : Principle of conservation of 1 æ aL2 bL3 ö
aL2 bL3 ç + ÷
momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions. (c) + (d)
2 3 2 çè 2 3 ÷ø
(a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ;
Statement -2 is the correct explanation of 25. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction
Statement -1. with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true; 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the
Statement -2 is not the correct explanation collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage
of Statement -1 loss in the energy during the collision is close
(c) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true. to : [2015]
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false. (a) 56% (b) 62%
(c) 44% (d) 50%
22. At time t = 0 a particle starts moving along the 26. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat
x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000
with time ‘t’, the net force acting on it must be times. Assume that the potential energy lost each
proportional to [2011 RS] time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much
(a) constant (b) t fat will he use up considering the work done
1 only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies
(c) (d) t
t 3.8 × 107 J of energy per kg which is converted
23. This question has statement I and statement II. to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.
Of the four choices given after the statements, Take g = 9.8 ms–2 : [2016]
choose the one that best describes the two (a) 44 ´ 104 J (b) 49 ´ 104 J
statements. (c) 45 ´ 104 J (d) 46 ´ 104 J
Statement - I: Apoint particle of mass m moving 27. A point particle of mass m, moves long the
with speed u collides with stationary point uniformly rough track PQR as shown in the
particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss figure. The coefficient of friction, between the
æ 1 2ö particle and the rough track equals m. The particle
possible is given as f çè mv ÷ø then f = is released, from rest from the point P and it comes
2
to rest at a point R. The energies, lost by the
æ m ö ball, over the parts, PQ and QR, of the track, are
ç ÷. equal to each other, and no energy is lost when
èM + mø
Statement - II: Maximum energy loss occurs particle changes direction from PQ to QR. The
when the particles get stuck together as a result value of the coefficient of friction m and the
of the collision. [2013] distance x (= QR), are, respectively close to :
P [2016]
(a) Statement - I is true, Statment - II is true,
Statement - II is the correct explanation of
Statement - I.
(b) Statement-I is true, Statment - II is true, h = 2m
Statement - II is not the correct explanation
of Statement - II. 30° R
(c) Statement - I is true, Statment - II is false. Q
(d) Statement - I is false, Statment - II is true. Horizontal surface
24. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance
x, it exerts restoring force of magnitude F = ax + (a) 0.29 and 3.5 m (b) 0.29 and 6.5 m
bx2 where a and b are constants. The work done (c) 0.2 and 6.5 m (d) 0.2 and 3.5 m
in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L 28. A body of mass m = 10–2 kg is moving in a medium
is: [2014] and experiences a frictional force F = –kv2. Its
www.crackjee.xyz
Work, Energy & Power P-27
intial speed is v0 = 10 ms–1. If, after 10 s, its energy 29. A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle
1 2 of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the
is mv0 , the value of k will be: [2017] work done by the force during the first 1 secand
8
(a) 10–4 kg m–1 (b) 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 will be [2017]
(c) 10–3 kg m–1 (d) 10–3 kg s–1 (a) 9 J (b) 18 J
(c) 4.5 J (d) 22 J
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (d) (b) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
(a) (b) (d) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a) (a) (c)
k v2 4 2v
=M× .L = kM . L Þ v2 = + v2 = v =
M 3 3 3
11. (b)
In x-direction, mv = mv1 cosq ...(1)
where v1 is the velocity of second mass
100
30 20 mv
In y-direction, 0= - mv1 sin q
mgH 1 3
mv 2 + mgh
2
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Work, Energy & Power P-29
mv 1 9
or m1v1 sin q = ...(2) \ K.E.(max.) = 2 + =
3 4 4
1 2
v/ 3 K.E.max . = mvmax .
2
v 1 2 9 3
m v Þ ´ 1 ´ vmax . = Þ vmax. =
v1 cosq 2 4 2
q 17. (b) Let the block compress the spring by x before
v1 stopping.
kinetic energy of the block = (P.E of
v1 sinq compressed spring) + work done against
Squaring and adding eqns. (1) and (2) friction.
1 1
v2 2 ´ 2 ´ (4)2 = ´ 10,000 ´ x 2 + 15 ´ x
v12 = v2 + Þ v1 = v 2 2
3 3 10,000 x2 + 30x – 32 = 0
14. (b) Let the velocity and mass of 4 kg piece be v1
and m1 and that of 12 kg piece be v2 and m2. Þ 5000 x 2 + 15 x - 16 = 0
16 kg
-15 ± (15)2 - 4 ´ (5000)(-16)
Initial momentum \ x=
=0
2 ´ 5000
Situation 1 = 0.055m = 5.5cm.
18. (d) The average speed of the athelete
4 kg = m1 m2 = 12 kg Final momentum
v1 v2 = m2v2 – m1v1 100
v= = 10 m/s
Situation 2 10
Applying conservation of linear momentum 1 2
m2v2 = m1v1 \ K.E. = mv
2
12 ´ 4 If mass is 40 kg then,
Þ v1 = = 12 ms -1
4 1
1 1 K.E. = ´ 40 ´ (10) 2 = 2000 J
\ K .E.1 = m1v12 = ´ 4 ´ 144 = 288 J 2
2 2 If mass is 100 kg then,
1 1 1
15. (b) K.E = mv 2 = ´ 0.1 ´ 25 = 1.25 J K.E. = ´ 100 ´ (10) 2 = 5000 J
2 2 2
æ1 ö 19. (c) Initial kinetic energy of the system
W = - mgh = - ç mv 2 ÷ = -1.25 J
è2 ø 1 1
K.Ei = mu 2 + M (0)2
é 1 ù 2 2
2
êëQ mgh = 2 mv by energy conservation úû 1
= ´ 0.5 ´ 2 ´ 2 + 0 = 1J
16. (a) Velocity is maximum when K.E. is maximum 2
For minimum. P.E., For collision, applying conservation of linear
dV momentum
= 0 Þ x 3 - x = 0 Þ x = ±1 m × u = (m + M) × v
dx
2
1 1 1 \ 0.5 ´ 2 = (0.5 + 1) ´ v Þ v = m / s
Þ Min. P.E. = - =- J 3
4 2 4 Final kinetic energy of the system is
K.E.(max.) + P.E.(min.) = 2 (Given)
1
K.E f = (m + M )v 2
2
EBD_7764
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P-30 Physics
1 2 2 1 Statement II is a case of perfectly inelastic
=(0.5 + 1) ´ ´ = J collision.
2 3 3 3
\ Energy loss during collision By comparing the equation given in
statement I with above equation, we get
æ 1ö
= ç1 - ÷ J = 0.67J æ M ö æ m ö
è 3ø f =ç
è m + M ÷ø instead of çè M + m ÷ø
dU ( x )
20. (d) At equilibrium : =0 Hence statement I is wrong and statement
dx II is correct.
1
-12a -6b 24. (c) Work done in stretching the rubber-band
= æ 2a ö 6
Þ Þ x=ç ÷ by a distance dx is
x11 x5 è b ø dW = F dx = (ax + bx2)dx
a b b2 Integrating both sides,
\ U at equilibrium = 2
- = - and
æ 2a ö æ 2a ö 4a L L
ç ÷ ç ÷
è b ø aL2 bL3
è b ø W = ò axdx + ò bx 2 dx = +
2 3
U ( x= ¥ ) = 0 0 0
æ b2 ö b2 Y
\ D = 0 -ç- ÷ = pf = 3 m V
è 4a ø 4a
21. (a) In completely inelastic collision, all energy m
is not lost (so, statement -1 is true) and the 2v pi 45°
25. (a) X
principle of conservation of momentum
holds good for all kinds of collisions (so,
statement -2 is true) . Statement -2 explains v
statement -1 correctly because applying the 2m
principle of conservation of momentum, we
can get the common velocity and hence Initial momentum of the system
the kinetic energy of the combined body. pi = [m(2V)2 ´ m(2V)2 ]
22. (c) K.E. µ t or K. E. = ct
1 2 = 2m ´ 2V
Þ mv = ct Final momentum of the system = 3mV
2
By the law of conservation of momentum
p2
Þ = ct (Q p = mv) 2 2v
2m 2 2mv = 3mV Þ = Vcombined
3
Þ p = 2ctm Loss in energy
1 1 1 1
Þ F= 2 cm ´ DE = m1V12 + m2V22 - (m1 + m2 )Vcombined
2
2 t 2 2 2
1 4 5
Þ F µ DE = 3mv2 - mv2 = mv2 = 55.55%
t 3 3
P2 P2 Percentage loss in energy during the collision
23. (d) Maximum energy loss = - ; 56%
2m 2(m + M)
W mgh ´ 1000 10 ´ 9.8 ´ 1 ´ 1000
é P2 1 2 ù 26. (b) n = = =
êQ K.E. = = mv ú input input input
ëê 2m 2 ûú 98000
Input = = 49 × 104J
2
P é M ù 1 ì M ü 0.2
= ê ú = mv 2 í ý
2m ë (m + M) û 2 îm + M þ
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Work, Energy & Power P-31
49 ´ 10 4 5
dV
10
Fat used =
3.8 ´ 10 7 = 12.89 × 10–3kg. ò 2
= -100 K ò dt
10 V 0
27. (a) Loss in P.E. = Work done against friction
from p ® Q 1 1
+ work done against friction from Q ® R - = 100K (10) or, K = 10–4 kgm–1
5 10
mgh = m(mgcosq) PQ + mmg (QR)
h = m cos q × PQ + m(QR) dV
29. (c) Using, F = ma = m
2 = m × × + mx dt
2 = m + mx ..... (i) [sin 30° = ] dV
Also work done P ® Q = work done Q ® R 6t = 1. [Q m = 1 kg given]
dt
\ m = mx
v 1
28. (a) Let Vf is the final speed of the body. ét 2 ù
ò dV = ò 6t dt V = 6 ê ú = 3 ms
2
–1
From questions, 0 ë û0
1 1 V0 [Q t = 1 sec given]
mV f2 = mV02 Þ Vf = = 5 m/ s From work-energy theorem,
2 8 2
æ dV ö 2 dV W = DKE =
1
2
( ) 1
m V 2 - u 2 = ´ 1 ´ 9 = 4.5 J
2
F = mç ÷ = -kV \ (10–2) = –kV2
è dt ø dt
EBD_7764
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P-32 Physics
System of Particles
and Rotational Motion 6
1. Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass 6. A particle performing uniform circular motion has
M is w1. Then two small spheres of mass m are angular frequency is doubled & its kinetic energy
attached gently to diametrically opposite points halved, then the new angular momentum is [2003]
on the edge of the disc. What is the final angular
velocity of the disc? [2002] (a) L (b) 2 L
4
æ M + mö æ M + mö L
(a) çè ÷w (b) çè ÷w (c) 4 L (d)
M ø 1 m ø 1 r 2
æ M ö æ M ö 7. Let F be the force acting on a particle having
÷w r r
(c) çè
M + 4m ø 1
(d) çè ÷ w1.
M + 2mø position vector r , and T be the torque of this
force about the origin.
r rThen [2003]
2. Two identical particles move towards each other r r
(a) r .T = 0 and F .T ¹ 0
with velocity 2v and v respectively. The velocity r r r r
of centre of mass is [2002] (b) r .T ¹ 0 and F .T = 0
r r r r
(a) v (b) v/3 (c) r .Tr ¹ 0 and Fr .Tr ¹ 0
(c) v/2 (d) zero r
(d) r .T = 0 and F .T = 0
3. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M 8. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the
and radius R about its diameter is [2002] radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass
(a) MR2/2 (b) MR2 same, which one of the following will not be
(c) 2MR2 (d) MR2/4. affected ? [2004]
4. A particle of mass m moves along line PC with (a) Angular velocity
velocity v as shown. What is the angular (b) Angular momentum
momentum of the particle about P? [2002] (c) Moment of inertia
(d) Rotational kinetic energy
C 9. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B
L are of same mass and same outer radii. Their
moment of inertia about their diameters are
P respectively IA and IB such that [2004]
l (a) I A < IB (b) I A > IB
O
(a) mvL (b) mvl IA dA
(c) mvr (d) zero. (c) IA = IB (d) =
I B dB
5. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron
plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of radius where dA and dB are their densities.
10. A body A of mass M while falling vertically
t
4R is made from an iron plate of thickness . downwards under gravity breaks into two parts;
4 1 2
Then the relation between the moment of inertia a body B of mass M and a body C of mass
I X and IY is [2003] 3 3
M. The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken
(a) ΙY = 32 Ι X (b) ΙY = 16 Ι X together shifts compared to that of body A
towards [2005]
(c) ΙY = Ι X (d) ΙY = 64 Ι X
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System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-33
(a) does not shift
(b) depends on height of breaking 15. A force of – Fkˆ acts on O, the origin of the
(c) body B coordinate system. The torque about the point
(d) body C (1, –1) is [2006]
Z
11. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular
disc of mass M and radius r about a line
perpendicular to the plane of the disc through
the centre is [2005]
2 1 O
(a) Mr 2 (b) Mr Y
5 4
1
(c) Mr 2 (d) Mr 2 X
2
12. A ‘T’ shaped object with dimensions shown in (a) F (iˆ - ˆj ) (b) - F (iˆ + ˆj )
the figure, is lying on a smooth floor. A force
uur (c) F (iˆ + ˆj ) (d) - F (iˆ - ˆj )
‘ F ’ is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such 16. A thin circular ring of mass m and radius R is
that the object has only the translational motion rotating about its axis with a constant angular
without rotation. Find the location of P with velocity w. Two objects each of mass M are
respect to C. [2005] attached gently to the opposite ends of a
l diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with
A B
an angular velocity w' = [2006]
w (m + 2 M ) w(m - 2 M )
P (a) (b)
2l m (m + 2 M )
F
wm wm
(c) (d)
(m + M ) (m + 2M )
C 17. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a
3 2 bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
(a) l (b)l
2 3 circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre
4 of mass of the new disc is a / R form the centre
(c) l (d) l of the bigger disc. The value of a is [2007]
3
13. Consider a two particle system with particles (a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
having masses m1 and m2. If the first particle is (c) 1/2 (d) 1/6
pushed towards the centre of mass through a 18. A round uniform body of radius R, mass M and
distance d, by what distance should the second moment of inertia I rolls down (without slipping)
particle is moved, so as to keep the centre of an inclined plane making an angle q with the
mass at the same position? [2006] horizontal. Then its acceleration is [2007]
m2 m1
(a) m d (b) m + m d g sin q g sin q
1 1 2 (a) 2
(b)
m1 1 - MR / I 1 + I / MR 2
(c) m d (d) d g sin q g sin q
2 (c) (d)
2
14. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed 1 + MR / I 1 - I / MR 2
at the corners of a square ABCD of side l. The 19. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with
moment of inertia of this system about an axis a central force is constant due to [2007]
passing through A and parallel to BD is [2006] (a) constant torque
(a) 2ml 2 (b) 3ml2 (b) constant force
(c) constant linear momentum
(c) 3ml 2 (d) ml 2 (d) zero torque
EBD_7764
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P-34 Physics
20. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, 23. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging
whose centre is O, [2007] freely about a horizontal axis passing through its
D F C end. Its maximum angular speed is w. Its centre of
mass rises to a maximum height of [2009]
1 lw 1 l 2w 2
O (a) (b)
6 g 2 g
B 1 l 2w 2 1 l 2w2
A E (c) (d)
6 g 3 g
(a) I AC = 2 I EF (b) 2 I AC = I EF 24. A mass m hangs with the help of a string
(c) I AD = 3I EF (d) I AC = I EF wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless
21. A thin rod of length ‘L’ is lying along the x-axis bearing. The pulley has mass m and radius R.
with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear density Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular
n disc, the acceleration of the mass m, if the string
æ xö
(mass/length) varies with x as k ç ÷ , where n does not slip on the pulley, is: [2011]
è Lø
can be zero or any positive number. If the 2
(a) g (b) g
position xCM of the centre of mass of the rod is 3
plotted against ‘n’, which of the following graphs g 3
best approximates the dependence of xCM on n? (c) (d) g
3 2
[2008]
xCM 25. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a
vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect
L is at rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The
L insect now moves along a diameter of the disc
(a)
2 to reach its other end. During the journey of the
n
O insect, the angular speed of the disc. [2011]
xCM
(a) continuously decreases
(b) continuously increases
L (c) first increases and then decreases
(b) 2
n (d) remains unchanged
O 26. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by
xCM
a force F = (20t – 5t2 ) newton (where t is
L measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the
L moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of
(c) 2
n rotation is 10 kg-m2 the number of rotations made
O by the pulley before its direction of motion is
xCM
reversed, is: [2011]
L
L (a) more than 3 but less than 6
(d) 2 (b) more than 6 but less than 9
n
O (c) more than 9 (d) less than 3
22. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and 27. A loop of radius r and mass m rotating with an
mass ‘M’. The moment of inertia of this plate
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and angular velocity w0 is placed on a rough horizontal
passing through one of its corners is [2008] surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the
loop is zero.What will be the velocity of the centre
5 1
(a) Ma 2 (b) Ma 2 of the loop when it ceases to slip ? [2013]
6 12
rw0 rw0
7 2 (a) (b)
(c) Ma 2 (d) Ma 2 4 3
12 3
rw0
(c) (d) rw0
2
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System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-35
28. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible moving from B to C.
string of length l is suspended from a vertical ur mv
support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with (b) L = Rk$ when the particle is moving
an angular speedw rad/s about the vertical. About 2
from D to A.
the point of suspension: [2014]
ur mv $
(a) angular momentum is conserved.
(c) L = – Rk when the particle is moving
(b) angular momentum changes in magnitude 2
but not in direction. from A to B.
(c) angular momentum changes in direction but ur éR ù
not in magnitude. (d) L = mv êê - a ú k$ when the particle is
ë 2 úû
(d) angular momentum changes both in
moving from C to D.
direction and magnitude. 32. A roller is made by joining together two cones
29. Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform at their vertices O. It is kept on two rails AB and
cone from its vertex is z0. If the radius of its base is CD, which are placed asymmetrically (see
R and its height is h then z0 is equal to : [2015] figure), with its axis perpendicular to CD and its
5h 3h 2 centre O at the centre of line joining AB and Cd
(a) (b) (see figure). It is given a light push so that it
8 8R starts rolling with its centre O moving parallel to
h2 3h CD in the direction shown. As it moves, the roller
(c) (d) will tend to : [2016]
4R 4
30. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a B D
cube of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment
of inertia of cube about an axis passing through
its center and perpendicular to one of its faces is:
4MR 2 4MR 2
(a) (b) [2015] O
9 3p 3 3p
MR 2 MR 2
(c) (d)
32 2p 16 2p C
31. A particle of mass m is moving along the side of A
a square of side 'a', with a uniform speed v in the (a) go straight.
x-y plane as shown in the figure : [2016] (b) turn left and right alternately.
(c) turn left.
y (d) turn right.
33. The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of
D a C length l and radius R about its perpendicular
V bisector is I. What is the ratio l /R such that the
a V V a moment of inertia is minimum ? [2017]
A V
a B 3
V (a) 1 (b)
2
45° R
a
O 3 3
(c) (d)
Which of the following statements is false for 2 2
ur
the angular momentum L about the origin? 34. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length l
is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a
ur éR ù
(a) L = mv ê + a ú k$ when the particle is vertical plane (see figure). There is negligible
ê
ë 2 úû friction at the pivot. The free end is held
EBD_7764
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P-36 Physics
vertically above the pivot and then released. The 3g 2g
angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an (a) cos q (b) cos q
2l 3l
angle q with the vertical is [2017]
3g 2g
(c) sin q (d) sin q
2l 2l
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (d) (a)
31 32 33 34
(a) (c) (c) (c)
1. (c) When two small spheres of mass m are 3. (a) M. I of a circular wire about an axis nn' passing
attached gently, the external torque, about through the centre of the circle and
the axis of rotation, is zero and therefore perpendicular to the plane of the circle = MR2
the angular momentum about the axis of
Z
rotation is constant. n Y
I
\ I1w1 = I 2 w 2 Þ w 2 = 1 w1
I2
1 2
Here I1 = MR X
2
1 2 2
n'
and I 2 = MR + 2mR As shown in the figure, X-axis and Y-axis
2
lie in the plane of the ring . Then by
1
MR 2 perpendicular axis theorem
2 M
\ w2 = 1 ´ w1 = w1 IX + IY = IZ
M + 4m Þ 2 IX = MR2 [Q IX = IY (by symmetry)
MR 2 + 2mR 2
2 and IZ = MR2]
2. (c) The velocity of centre of mass of two
particle system is given by 1
\ IX = MR 2
m v + m2 v2 2
vc = 1 1 4. (d) Angular momentum (L)
m1 + m2 = (linear momentum) × (perpendicular
m m distance of the line of action of
v momentum from the axis of rotation)
2v = mv × r [Here r = 0 because the line of
m(2v ) + m(-v ) v = mv × 0 action of momentum passes
= =
m+m 2 =0 through the axis of rotation]
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System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-37
mass( M ) \ I A < IB
5. (d) We know that density (d ) = 10. (a) Does not shift as no external force acts.
volume(V )
The centre of mass of the system continues
\ M = d ´ V = d ´ ( pR 2 ´ t ) . its original path. It is only the internal forces
The moment of inertia of a disc is given by which comes into play while breaking.
1 11. (c) The disc may be assumed as combination
I = MR 2 of two semi circular parts.
2
Let I be the moment of inertia of the uniform
1 pd
\ I = ( d ´ pR 2 ´ t ) R 2 = t ´ R4 semicircular disc
2 2
2Mr 2 Mr 2
I t R4 t ´ R4 1 Þ 2I = ÞI=
\ X = X X = = 2 2
IY tY RY4 t 64
´ (4 R )4 l
4
12. (d) A B
1 2 L (0, 2 l)
6. (a) K .E . Iw , but L = Iw Þ I =
2 w
1L 1
\ K .E. = ´ w 2 = Lw
2w 2 F P (0, l) 2l
K .E L´w K .E L´w
\ = Þ = y
K .E ' L ' ´ w ' K .E L '´ 2w
2
L (0, 0)
\ L' = C
4 uur
r r r
7. (d) We know that t = r ´ F To have linear motion, the force F has to
be applied at centre of mass.
i.e. the point ‘P’has to be at the centre of
F
r
mass
t
m1 y1 + m2 y2 m ´ 2 l + 2m ´ l 4l
y= = =
m1 + m2 3m 3
m1 ( - x1 ) + m2 x2
r r 0= Þ m1 x1 = m2 x2 ...(1)
The angle between t and r is 90° and the m1 + m2
r r Finally,
angle between t and F is also 90°. We The centre of mass is at the origin
also know that the dot product of two
vectors which have an angle of 90° between x1– d x2– d ¢
them is zero. Therefore (d) is the correct d d¢
option. m1 O m2
8. (b) Angular momentum will remain the same
since external torque is zero. m1 (d - x1 ) + m2 ( x2 - d ')
9. (a) The moment of inertia of solid sphere A \0 =
m1 + m2
2 2
about its diameter I A = MR . Þ 0 = m1d - m1 x1 + m2 x2 - m2 d '
5
The moment of inertia of a hollow sphere B m1
Þd'= d [From (1).]
2 2 m2
about its diameter I B = MR .
3
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P-38 Physics
14. (c)
n
D l C
xc.m =
( 4psR ) ´ 0 + ( -psR ) R
2 2
2
O 4psR 2 - psR 2
l/
A B -psR 2 ´ R
\ xc.m =
3psR2
n' R 1
\ xc.m = - Þa=
Inn' = M.I due to the point mass at B + 3 3
M.I due to the point mass at D + 18. (b) This is a standard formula and should be
M.I due to the point mass at C. memorized.
2 g sin q
æ l ö a=
I nn ' = 2 ´ m ç + m( 2l) 2 I
è 2 ÷ø 1+
MR 2
= ml 2 + 2ml 2 = 3ml 2 uur
ur ur uur uur d Lc
15. (c) Torque t = r ´ F = (iˆ - ˆj ) ´ ( - Fkˆ) 19. (d) We know that t c =
dt
uur
= F [- iˆ ´ kˆ + ˆj ´ kˆ] where tc torque about the center of mass
= F ( ˆj + iˆ) = F ( iˆ + ˆj) uur
of the body and Lc = Angular momentum
éSince kˆ ´ iˆ = ˆj and ˆj ´ kˆ = iˆ ù about the center of mass of the body.
ë û
16. (d) Applyin g conservation of an gular Central forces act along the center of mass.
Therefore torque about center of mass is
momentum I'w' = Iw
zero.
(mR 2 + 2MR 2 )w ' = mR 2 w uur uur
When t c = 0 then Lc = constt.
é m ù 20. (d) By the theorem of perpendicular axes,
Þ w' = wê
ë m + 2 M úû Iz = Ix + Iy or, Iz = 2 Iy
17. (b) Let the mass per unit area be s.
Then the mass of the complete disc (Q Ix = Iy by symmetry of the figure)
Z
= s [p(2 R) 2 ] = 4psR 2 Y
D F C
2R
X
O R O
A E B
The mass of the r emoved disc
= s (pR 2 ) = psR 2 Iz
\ I EF = ...(i)
Let us consider the above situation to be a 2
complete disc of radius 2R on which a disc Again, bythe same theorem Iz = IAC + IBD = 2 IAC
of radius R of negative mass is (\ IAC = IBD by symmetry of the figure)
superimposed. Let O be the origin. Then
Iz
the above figure can be redrawn keeping \ I AC = ...(ii)
in mind the concept of centre of mass as : 2
2 R From (i) and (ii), we get, IEF = IAC.
4ps R 21. (a) · When n = 0, x = k where k is a constant.
O –ps R
2 This means that the linear mass density is
constant. In this case the centre of mass
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System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-39
will be at the midelle of the rod ie at L/2.
Therefore (c) is ruled out DB 2a a
Also, DO = = =
· n is positive and as its value increases, 2 2 2
the rate of increase of linear mass density According to parallel axis theorem
with increase in x increases. This shows that 2
the centre of mass will shift towards that æ a ö Ma 2 Ma 2
Imm ' = I nn ' + M ç ÷ = +
end of the rod where n = L as the value of n è 2ø 6 2
increases. Therefore graph (b) is ruled out.
n Ma 2 + 3Ma 2 2
æ xö = = Ma 2
· The linear mass density l = k çè ÷ø 6 3
L
x 23. (c) O
Here £1
L
With increase in the value of n, the centre
of mass shift towards the end x = L such
that first the shifting is at a higher rate with C. M
increase in the value of n and then the rate h
decreases with the value of n. C. M Reference
These characteristics are represented by level for P.E.
graph (a).
L L L n
æ xö
ò xdm ò x (l dx) ò k çè L÷ø .xdx The moment of inertia of the rod about O is
xCM = 0
= 0
= 0 1 2
L L L n ml . The maximum angular speed of the
æxö 3
ò dm ò l dx ò k çè L ÷ø dx rod is when the rod is instantaneously
vertical. The energy of the rod in this
0 0 0
L 1
é x n+ 2 ù condition is I w 2 where I is the moment of
kê 2
nú inertia of the rod about O. When the rod is in
êë (n + 2) L úû 0 L (n + 1) its extreme portion, its angular velocity is zero
= =
L n+2 momentarily. In this case, the energy of the
é k x n +1 ù rod is mgh where h is the maximum height to
ê nú which the centre of mass (C.M) rises
êë (n + 1) L úû 0
1 2 1 æ 1 2ö 2
For n = 0 , xCM =
L
; n = 1, \ mgh = I w = 2 çè 3 ml ÷ø w
2
2
l 2 w2
2L 3L Þ h=
xCM = ; n = 2, xCM = ;.... 6g
3 4 24. (b) For translational motion,
1 Ma 2 mg – T = ma .....(1)
22. (d) Inn' = M (a 2 + a 2 ) = For rotational motion,
12 6
n m a
T.R = I a = I ....(2)
R
A m R
D
T
m
O
mg
Solving (1) & (2),
B
C
n m 1
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P-40 Physics
mg mg 2 mg 2 g 1 3 3
a= = 2
= = + ´
æ I ö mR 3m 3
çè m + ÷ m+ 2 5 2
R2 ø 2 =
2R 3 3 1
25. (c) As insect moves along a diameter, the - ´
2 5 2
effective mass and hence the M.I. first
decreases then increases so from principle 1æ 3ö 1 8
of conservation of angular momentum, ç1 + ÷ ´
2è 5ø
angular speed, first increases then = = 2 5
decreases. 3æ 1ö 3´4
26. (a) F = 20t – 5t2 ç1 - ÷
5 è 5ø 10
FR
\a = = 4t - t 2 8
I
= 10 = 8 = 2
dw
Þ = 4t - t 2 3´4 3´4 3
dt
10
w t
Þ ò d w = ò 4t - t dt
2
( ) ycm =
ò ydm
0 0 29. (d)
t3
ò dm
Þ w = 2t 2 - (as w = 0 at t = 0, 6s) y a
3
h r h
q 6 æ 2 t3 ö 2
ò dq = ò ç 2t - ÷ dt
3ø
ò pr dyr ´ y 3h
è R
0 0 =0 =
Þ q = 36 rad 1 2 4
pR hr
36 3
Þ n= <6
2
2p
30. (a) Here a = R
r 3
27. (c) o o 4 3
pR
M
Now, = 3 3
From conservation of angular momentum M¢ a
about any fix point on the surface,
4 3
mr 2 w 0 = 2mr 2 w pR
3
= 3 3
= p. a
w0 r æ 2 ö 2
Þ w = w0 / 2 Þ v =
2
[Q v = rw ] çè R ÷ø
3
28. (c) Torque working on the bob of mass m is,
t = mg ´ l sin q . (Direction parallel to 2M
M¢ =
plane of rotation of particle) 3p
Moment of inertia of the cube about the
M¢ a 2
q given axis, I =
l 6
l
2
2M æ 2 ö
m ´ç R÷
mg 3p è 3 ø 4MR 2
ur = =
As t is perpendicular to L , direction of L 6 9 3p
changes but magnitude remains same.
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System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-41
D V C
a a
V
a a V
l
a
A V B
R/ 2 m é V l2 ù dl m é -v 2l ù
= ê + ú Þ = + =0
4 ë pl 3 û dl 4 êë pl 2 3 úû
O a X
R v 2l 2 pl 3
= Þv=
2 pl 2 3 3
In none of the cases, the perpendicular 2pl 3 l2 3 l 3
pR 2 l = Þ 2 = or, =
æ R ö 3 R 2 R 2
distance r^ is çè - a÷
2 ø 34. (c) Torque at angle q
32. (c) As shown in the diagram, the normal
reaction of AB on roller will shift towards l
t = Mg sin q.
O. 2
This will lead to tending of the system of
cones to turn left. w,a
B D
Q
Q
O
Also t = la
l
\ l a = Mg sin q
2
A C
Ml 2 l é Ml 2 ù
33. (c) As we know, moment of inertia of a solid .a = Mg sin q êQ I rod = ú
3 2 ë 3 û
cylinder about an axis which is
perpendicular bisector la sin q 3 g sin q
Þ =g \ a=
mR 2 ml 2 3 2 2l
I= +
4 12
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P-42 Physics
Gravitation 7
1. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of 7. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically
mass m from the earth surface (radius R) to infinity upwards from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If
is [2002] the body is projected at an angle of 45°with the
(a) mgR/2 (b) 2mgR vertical, the escape velocity will be [2003]
(c) mgR (d) mgR/4. (a) 11 2 km / s (b) 22 km/s
2. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction
11
between Earth and a satellite revolving around (c) 11 km/s (d) km / s
it becomes zero, then the satellite will [2002] 2
(a) continue to move in its orbit with same 8. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of
velocity radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
(b) move tangentially to the original orbit in earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is [2004]
the same velocity
gR 2 gR
(c) become stationary in its orbit (a) (b)
(d) move towards the earth R+ x R-x
3. Energy required to move a body of mass m from æ gR 2 ö 1/ 2
an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is [2002] (c) gx (d) ç ÷
2 2 è R + xø
(a) GMm/12R (b) GMm/3R
(c) GMm/8R (d) GMm/6R. 9. The time period of an earth satellite in circular
orbit is independent of [2004]
4. The escape velocity of a body depends upon (a) both the mass and radius of the orbit
mass as [2002] (b) radius of its orbit
(a) m0 (b) m1 (c) the mass of the satellite
(c) m2 (d) m3 (d) neither the mass of the satellite nor the
5. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. radius of its orbit.
If the separation between the earth and the 10. If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity on the
satellite is increased to 4 times the previous earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy
value, the new time period will become [2003] of an object of mass ‘m’ raised from the surface
(a) 10 hours (b) 80 hours of the earth to a height equal to the radius ‘R' of
(c) 40 hours (d) 20 hours the earth is [2004]
6. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M & radii R 1 1
(a) mgR (b) mgR
& 2R respectively are released in free space with 4 2
initial separation between their centres equal to (c) 2 mgR (d) mgR
12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational 11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
force only, then the distance covered by the as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
smaller body just before collision is [2003] of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around the
(a) 2.5 R (b) 4.5 R sun will be proportional to [2004]
æ n -1ö
(c) 7.5 R (d) 1.5 R
(a) Rn (b) èç 2 ø÷
R
æ n +1ö æ n- 2ö
çè ÷
(c) R 2 ø
(d) èç 2 ø÷
R
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Gravitation P-43
12. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above 17. The height at which the acceleration due to
the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ g
below the surface of earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ gravity becomes (where g = the acceleration
9
are much smaller than the radius of earth, then due to gravity on the surface of the earth) in
which one of the following is correct? [2005] terms of R, the radius of the earth, is [2009]
3h h R
(a) d = (b) d = (a) (b) R / 2
2 2 2
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h
13. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of (c) 2R (d) 2 R
a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 18. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a
cm. Find the work to be done against the distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
gravitational force between them to take the on the line joining them where the gravitational
particle far away from the sphere [2005] field is zero is: [2011]
4Gm 6Gm
(you may take G = 6.67× 10 -11 Nm 2 / kg 2 ) (a) - (b) -
r r
(a) 3.33 × 10 -10 J (b) 13.34 × 10 -10 J 9Gm
(c) - (d) zero
r
(c) 6.67 × 10 -10 J (d) 6.67 × 10 -9 J
19. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ go around a circle
14. Average density of the earth [2005]
of radius R under the action of their mutual
(a) is a complex function of g
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
(b) does not depend on g
with respect to their centre of mass is [2011 RS]
(c) is inversely proportional to g
(d) is directly proportional to g Gm Gm
(a) (b)
15. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times 4R 3R
more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 Gm Gm
times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from (c) (d)
2R R
the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity from 20. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be
the surface of the planet would be [2008] launched from the earth's surface out into free
(a) 1.1 km s–1 (b) 11 km s–1 space. The value of g and R (radius of earth) are
(c) 110 km s–1 (d) 0.11 km s–1 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The required
16. This question contains Statement-1 and energy for this work will be [2012]
Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the (a) 6.4 × 1011Joules (b) 6.4 × 108 Joules
statements, choose the one that best describes (c) 6.4 × 109 Joules (d) 6.4 × 1010 Joules
the two statements. [2008] 21. What is the minimum energy required to launch
Statement-1 : For a mass M kept at the centre of a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet
a cube of side ‘a’, the flux of gravitational field of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
passing through its sides 4 p GM. and altitude of 2R? [2013]
Statement-2: If the direction of a field due to a
point source is radial and its dependence on the 5GmM 2GmM
(a) (b)
1 6R 3R
distance ‘r’ from the source is given as 2 , its
r GmM GmM
flux through a closed surface depends only on (c) (d)
the strength of the source enclosed by the 2R 2R
surface and not on the size or shape of the 22. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant
surface. from each other, move along a circle of radius R
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true under the action of their mutual gravitational
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; attraction. The speed of each particle is:[2014]
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
GM GM
Statement-1 (a) (b) 2 2
(c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; R R
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation
for Statement-1
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(c)
GM
R
( )
1 + 2 2 (d)
1 GM
2 R
(
1+ 2 2 )
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P-44 Physics
23. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a
spherical portion of radius R/2 is removed, as (a) gR / 2 (b) gR ( 2 -1 )
shown in the figure. Taking gravitational
potential V = 0 at r = ¥, the potential at the centre (c) 2gR (d) gR
of the cavity thus formed is : [2015] 25. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g
(G = gravitational constant) with distance d from centre of the earth is best
represented by (R = Earth's radius): [2017]
g
(a) (b)
d
-2GM -2GM O R
(a) (b)
3R R g
-GM -GM
(c) (d)
2R R (c) (d)
24. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a d
height 'h' from the earth's surface (radius of earth
O R
R; h < < R). The minimum increase in its orbital
velocity required, so that the satellite could
escape from the earth's gravitational field, is close
to : (Neglect the effect of atmosphere.) [2016]
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (c) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
(b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (b)
GMm 2
GM é 1 1 ù
W =+ … (i) Þ + 2
R R êë 4 ú = Mv
2û
The force of attraction of the earth on the
spaceship, when it was on the earth's Gm æ 2 + 4 ö 1 Gm
surface \ v= = (1 + 2 2)
R çè 4 2 ÷ø 2 R
GMm
F=
R2 23. (d) Due to complete solid sphere, potential at
point P
GMm GM
Þ mg = Þ g= 2 … (ii)
-GM é 2 æ R ö
2 2ù
R R
Vsphere = ê3R - ç ÷ ú
The required energy for this work is given by 2R 3 êë è2ø úû
= U - W = mgR
= 1000 × 10 × 6400 × 103 -GM æ 11R 2 ö GM
= ç ÷ = -11
= 6.4 × 1010 Joule 3 ç 4 ÷ 8R
2R è ø
21. (a) As we know, Solid
-GMm sphere
Gravitational potential energy =
r
and orbital velocity, v0 = GM / R + h
P
1 GMm 1 GM GMm
Ef = mv02 - = m - Cavity
2 3R 2 3R 3R
GMm æ 1 ö - GMm
= ç - 1÷ =
3R è 2 ø 6R Due to cavity part potential at point P
-GMm GM
Ei = +K 3 8 3GM
R Vcavity = - =-
Ei = E f 2 R 8R
Therefore minimum required energy, 2
So potential at the centre of cavity
5GMm
K= = Vsphere - Vcavity
6R
Mv 2 11GM æ 3 GM ö -GM
22. (d) 2 F cos 45° + F ' = (From figure) =- -ç- ÷=
R 8R è 8 R ø R
GM 2 GM 2
Where F = and F ' = 24. (b) For h << R, the orbital velocity is gR
( 2 R) 2 4R 2
Escape velocity = 2gR
F
M M \ The minimum increase in its orbital
F' velocity
F
R = 2gR – gR = gR ( 2 – 1)
o 25. (b) Variation of acceleration due to gravity, g
with distance 'd ' from centre of the earth
Gm
If d < R, g = 2 .d i.e., g µ d (straight line)
M M R
Gm
2 ´ GM 2 GM 2 Mv 2 If d = R, gs = 2
Þ + = R
2( R 2)2 4 R2 R Gm 1
If d > R, g = 2 i.e., g µ 2
d d
EBD_7764
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P-48 Physics
Mechanical Properties
of Solids 8
1. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an weights W each are hung at the two ends, the
extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it elongation of the wire will be (in mm) [2006]
from 5 cm to 15 cm is [2002] (a) l (b) 2l
(a) 16 J (b) 8 J
(c) zero (d) l/2
(c) 32 J (d) 24 J
2. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length 5. Two wires are made of the same material and have
l by applying a force F. The work done in the same volume. However wire 1 has cross-
stretching is [2004] sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional
area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by Dx on
(a) 2Fl (b) Fl applying force F, how much force is needed to
F Fl stretch wire 2 by the same amount? [2009]
(c) (d) (a) 4 F (b) 6 F
2l 2
(c) 9 F (d) F
3. If ‘S’ is stress and ‘Y’ is young’s modulus of 6. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a
material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length constant
per unit volume is [2005] when its temperature is raised by 100ºC is:
2
S
(a) (b) 2S 2Y (For steel Young’s modulus is 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and
2Y coefficient of thermal expansion is
S 2Y
(c) (d) 1.1 ´ 10 -5 K -1 ) [2014]
2Y S2
(a) 2.2 ´ 10 Pa
8
(b) 2.2 ´ 10 Pa
9
4. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged
from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two (c) 2.2 ´ 10 Pa
7
(d) 2.2 ´ 106 Pa
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6
(b) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a)
1
= × stress × strain ×volume
2 l
5. (c)
1 F l Fl A Y
= ´ ´ ´ A´ L =
2 A L 2
Wire (1)
3. (a) Energy stored per unit volume,
1
E= ´ stress ´ strain
2 3A Y
We know that,
stress stress
Y= or strain = l/3
strain Y
Wire (2)
1 stress 1 S2
E= ´ stress ´ = .
2 Y 2 Y As shown in the figure, the wires will have the
4. (a) Case (i) same Young’s modulus (same material) and
the length of the wire of area of cross-section
3A will be l/3 (same volume as wire 1).
For wire 1,
T F/A
Y= ...(i)
D x/l
T T For wire 2 ,
W F '/ 3 A
Y= ...(ii)
Dx /( l / 3)
W W F l F' l
From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´
At equilibrium, T = W A Dx 3 A 3Dx
Þ F ' = 9F
W/A
Y= .....(1)
l/L stress
6. (a) Young's modulus Y =
Case (ii) At equilibrium T = W strain
stress = Y ´ strain
W/A W/A
\Y = ÞY = Stress in steel wire = Applied pressure
l/2 l/L
Pressure = stress = Y × strain
L/2
DL
Þ Elongation is the same. Str ain = = α D T (As length is
L
constant)
= 2 × 1011 × 1.1 × 10–5 × 100 = 2.2 × 108 Pa
EBD_7764
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P-50 Physics
Mechanical Properties
of Fluids 9
1. A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled 5. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (den-
with water. The velocity of efflux of water sity = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
(in ms-1) through a small hole on the side wall of (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of
the cylinder near its bottom is [2002] a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the
(a) 10 (b) 20 same size in the same liquid [2006]
(c) 25.5 (d) 5 (a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s
(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 0.2 m/s
2. Spherical balls of radius ‘R’ are falling in a
6. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a
viscous fluid of viscosity ‘h’ with a velocity ‘v’. material of density r1. It is falling through a liquid
The retarding viscous force acting on the of density r1 (r2< r1). Assume that the liquid
spherical ball is [2004] applies a viscous force on the ball that is
(a) inversely proportional to both radius ‘R’ proportional to the square of its speed
and velocity ‘v’ v, i.e., Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed
(b) directly proportional to both radius ‘R’ and of the ball is [2008]
velocity ‘v’ Vg (r1 – r2 ) Vg r1
(c) directly proportional to ‘R’ but inversely (a) (b)
k k
proportional to ‘v’
(d) inversely proportional to ‘R’ but directly Vg r1 Vg (r1 – r2 )
(c) (d)
proportional to velocity ‘v’ k k
3. If two soap bubbles of different radii are 7. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2
having densities r1 and, r2 respectively. A solid
connected by a tube [2004]
ball, made of a material of density r3 , is dropped
(a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
bigger shown in the figure.Which of the following is
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller true for r1, r2and r3? [2008]
bubble till the sizes are interchanged r1
A B
water oil
(a)
(c) (d)
oil
water
A B
W
(a) 0.0125 Nm–1 (b) 0.1 Nm–1
(c) 0.05 Nm –1 (d) 0.025 Nm–1
15. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two R
liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and
d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends
90º angle at centre. Radius joining their interface 2r
d1 rw g rw g
makes an angle a with vertical. Ratio (a) R2 (b) R2
d2 3T 6T
is: [2014] rw g 3rw g
(c) R2 (d) R2
T T
17. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in
such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above
the mercury level. The open end of the tube is
a d2 then closed and sealed and the tube is raised
vertically up by additional 46 cm. What will be
length of the air column above mercury in the
tube now?
d1 (Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg) [2014]
(a) 16 cm (b) 22 cm
1 + sin a 1 + cos a
(a) (b) (c) 38 cm (d) 6 cm
1 - sin a 1 - cos a
18. A man grows into a giant such that his linear
1 + tan a 1 + sin a dimensions increase by a factor of 9. Assuming
(c) (d) that his density remains same, the stress in the
1 - tan a 1 - cos a
leg will change by a factor of [2017]
16. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the
bottom of the vessel detach and rise. Take the 1
(a) 81 (b)
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a 81
circular contact of radius r with the bottom of 1
(c) 9 (d)
the vessel. If r << R and the surface tension of 9
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (b) (a) (c) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (c)
16 17 18
(a) (a) (c)
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Mechanical Properties of Fluids P-53
1. (b) The velocity of efflux is given liquid. Therefore we can conclude that r1 < r2
v = 2gh Also r3 < r2 otherwise the ball would have
sink to the bottom of the jar.
Where h is the height of the free surface of
liquid from the hole Also r3 > r1 otherwise the ball would have
floated in liquid 1. From the above
\ v = 2 ´10 ´ 20 = 20 m / s discussion we conclude that r1 < r3 < r2.
2. (b) From Stoke's law, 8. (c) In case of water, the meniscus shape is
viscous force F = 6phrv concave upwards. Also according to
hence F is directly proportional to radius 2T cos q
& velocity. ascent formula h =
3. (a) Let pressure outside be P0. rrg
2T The surface tension (T) of soap solution
\ P1 ( in smaller bubble ) = P0 + is less than water. Therefore rise of soap
r solution in the capillary tube is less as
2T compared to water. As in the case of water,
P2 ( in bigger bubble ) = P0 + ( R > r)
R the meniscus shape of soap solution is also
\ P1 > P2 concave upwards.
hence air moves from smaller bubble to bigger 9. (b) Oil will float on water so, (2) or (4) is the
bubble. correct option. But density of ball is more
4. (c) Water fills the tube entirely in gravityless than that of oil,, hence it will sink in oil.
condition i.e., 20 cm. 10. (c) W = 2T DV
2 W = 2T4p[(52) – (3)2] × 10–4
2r ( d1 - d 2 ) g
5. (c) Terminal velocity, vT = = 2 × 0.03 × 4p [25 – 9] × 10–4 J
9h = 0.4p × 10–3 J
vT = 0.4p mJ
2 (10.5 - 1.5) 9 11. (c) From Bernoulli's theorem,
= Þ vT = 0.2 ´
0.2 (19.5 - 1.5) 2 18 1 1
\ vT = 0.1 m/s P0 + rv12rgh = P0 + rv22 + 0
2 2 2
6. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force v2 = v12 + 2 gh = 0.16 + 2 ´ 10 ´ 0.2
Fv B=Vr2 g = 2.03 m/s
From equation of continuity
A2v2 = A1v1
D22 D2
p ´ v2 = p 1 v1
4 4
v1
Þ D2 = D1 = 3.55 × 10–3 m
v2
W=V r 1g 12. (c) Sum of volumes of 2 smaller drops
= Volume of the bigger drop
\ V r1 g = V r2 g + kvt2 4 4
2. pr 3 = pR 3 Þ R = 21/ 3 r
Vg ( r1 - r 2 ) 3 3
\ vt = 2
k Surface energy = T .4pR
7. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on
liquid 2. The lighter liquid floats over heavier = T 4p 22 / 3 r 2 = T .28 / 3 pr 2 .
EBD_7764
w w w . c r a c k j e e . x y
P-54 Physics
(
'
)
Also Vg r- ri = 6ph ' rv ' R
q
(r - rl' )
\ v 'h' = ´ vh rq
(r - r l ) T×dl
Force due to excess pressure = upthrust
(r - rl' ) vh
Þ v' = ´ 2T
(r - rl ) h ' Access pressure in air bubble =
R
(7.8 - 1.2) 10 ´ 8.5 ´ 10-4
= ´ 2T 4p R 3
(7.8 - 1) 13.2 (p r 2 ) = rw g
R 3T
\ v ' = 6.25 ´ 10-4 cm/s
14. (d) The surface tension of the liquid film is 2 2 R 4 rw g 2 2rw g
Þr = Þ r=R
F 3T 3T
given as T = , where F is the force, and
2l
l = length of the slider. 17. (a) (54–x)
F = 2lT 54 cm P
At equilibrium, F = W 8 cm x
2Tl = mg
mg 1.5 ´ 10 -2 1.5
T= = - 2
=
2 l 2 ´ 30 ´ 10 60
= 0.025 Nm–1 Hg
15. (c) Pressure at interface A must be same from
both the sides to be in equilibrium.
Length of the air column above mercury in
the tube is,
P + x = P0
R d2 Rsina Þ P = (76 – x)
a
Þ 8 × A × 76 = (76 – x) × A × (54 – x)
a Rcosa R \ x = 38
Rsin a – Rsin a Thus, length of air column
A = 54 – 38 = 16 cm.
d1
18. (c) As linear dimension increases by a factor of 9
\ ( R cos a + R sin a )d 2 g vf
\ = 93
= ( R cos a - R sin a )d1 g vi
d1 cos a + sin a 1 + tan a Q Density remains same
Þ d = cos a - sin a = 1 - tan a So, mass µ Volume
2 mf ( Area ) f
16. (a) When the bubble gets detached, = 93 Þ = 92
mi ( Area ) i
Buoyant force = force due to surface
tension force (mass ) ´ g
Stress (s) = =
area area
s 2 æ m f ö æ Ai ö 9 3
= ç ÷ = =9
s1 çè mi ÷ø è A f ø 92
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Thermal Properties
of Matter 10
1. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature 7. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate
by 1°C is [2002] of cooling of a body is proportional to (Dq)n,
(a) water equivalent where Dq is the difference of the temperature of
(b) thermal capacity the body and the surroundings, and n is equal to
(c) specific heat [2003]
(d) temperature gradient (a) two (b) three
2. Infrared radiation is detected by [2002] (c) four (d) one
(a) spectrometer (b) pyrometer 8. If the temperature of the sun were to increase
(c) nanometer (d) photometer from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the
3. Which of the following is more close to a black ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to
body? [2002] what it was previously will be [2004]
(a) black board paint (a) 32 (b) 16
(b) green leaves (c) 4 (d) 64
(c) black holes 9. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a
(d) red roses composite slab, consisting of two materials
4. If mass-energy equivalence is taken into having coefficients of thermal conductivity K
account, when water is cooled to form ice, the and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively, are
mass of water should [2002] T2 and T1 (T2 > T1 ) . The rate of heat transfer
(a) increase
(b) remain unchanged through the slab, in a steady state is
(c) decrease æ A(T2 - T1 ) K ö
(d) first increase then decrease çè ÷ø f , with f equal to [2004]
x
5. Two spheres of the same material have radii 1 m
and 4 m and temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K
respectively. The ratio of the energy radiated x 4x
1æUö
pressure p = ç ÷ . If the shell now undergoes
3è V ø
an adiabatic expansion the relation between T
(a) (b) and R is : [2015]
t 0 1 1
0 t (a) T µ (b) T µ 3
R R
(c) T µ e–R (d) T µ e–3R
loge (q – q0)
loge (q – q0)
dr
(4000)4 ´12 1
= = ·
4 2 1
(2000) ´ 4 T1
r1
r
6. (d) Wein’s law correctly explains the spectrum
7. (d) According to Newton’s law of cooling
dQ T2
- µ (Dq) r2
dt
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Thermal Properties of Matter P-59
Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of 13. (d) Let T be the temperature of the interface.
radiius (r) and let the temperature of inner As the two sections are in series, the rate
and outer surfaces of this shell be T and of flow of heat in them will be equal.
(T – dT) respectively. T1 T2
1 2
dQ
= rate of flow of heat through it
dt
K1 K2
KA[(T - dT ) - T ] - KAdT
= = K1 A(T1 - T ) K 2 A(T - T2 )
dr dr \ = ,
dT l1 l2
2
= -4pKr (Q A = 4pr 2 ) where A is the area of cross-section.
dr
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, or, K1 A(T1 - T )l 2 = K 2 A(T - T2 )l1
integration technique is used, since the area
of the surface through which heat will flow or, K1T1l 2 - K1T l 2 = K 2T l1 - K 2T2 l1
is not constant. or, ( K 2 l1 + K1l 2 )T = K1T1l 2 + K2T2 l1
æ dQ ö
r2
1
T2 K1T1l 2 + K 2T2 l1
Then, ç ò r2 dr = -4 pK ò dT \T =
è dt ÷ø K 2 l1 + K1l 2
r1 T1
K1l 2T1 + K 2 l1T2
dQ é 1 1 ù = .
ê - ú = -4pK [T2 - T 1 ] K1l 2 + K 2 l1
dt ë r1 r2 û 14. (a) The heat flow rate is given by
dQ -4pKr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) dQ kA(q1 - q)
or = =
dt (r2 - r1 ) dt x
dQ r r x dQ x dQ
\ µ 1 2 Þ q -q = Þ q = q1 -
1 kA dt
dt (r2 - r1 ) kA dt
11. (b) Total power radiated by Sun = sT4 × 4pR2 where q1 is the temperature of hot end and
The intensity of power at earth's surface q is temperature at a distance x from hot
end.
sT 4 ´ 4pR2 The above equation can be graphically
=
4pr 2 represented by option (a).
Total power received by Earth 15. (a) DU = DQ = mcDT
= 100 × 10–3 × 4184 (50 – 30) » 8.4 kJ
sT 4 R 2 16. (d) Required work = energy released
= (pr02 )
ò
2
r Here, Q = mc dT
12. (c) Heat lost by He = Heat gained by N2
4
æ T3 ö
n1Cv1 DT1 = n2Cv2 DT2 =ò 0.1 ´ 32 ´ ç
è 4003 ø
÷ dT » 0.002 kJ.
20
3 é7 ù 5 é
R T - Tf = R T f - T0 ùû Therefore, required work = 0.002 kJ
2 ëê 3 0 ûú 2 ë 17. (d) The Young modulus is given as
7T0 - 3T f = 5T f - 5T0 F/S
Y=
DL / L
12 Here it is given as
Þ 12T0 = 8T f Þ T f = T0
8 F
Y= ´ 2 pR {L = 2pR}
3 S2 pDR
Þ T f = T0 .
2 FR
or Y = …(i)
S.DR
EBD_7764
w w w . c r a c k j e
P-60 Physics
The coefficient of linear expansion is given 1æUö
DR 21. (a) As, P = ç ÷
as a = 3èVø
RDT
U
DR R 1 But = KT 4
Þ = a.DT Þ = … (ii) V
R DR aDT
From equation (i) and (ii) 1 4
So, P = KT
F 3
Y= Þ F = Y.S.aDT
S.aDT uRT 1
\ The ring is pressing the wheel from or = KT 4 [As PV = u RT]
V 3
both sides, Thus
Fnet = 2F = 2YSaDT 4 3 3
pR T = constant
18. (a) Newton's law of cooling 3
dq 1
= - k(q - q0 ) Therefore, Tµ
dt R
dq 1
Þ = - kdt Time lost/gained per day =
(q - q0 ) 22. (c) µ Dq ´ 86400
2
Integrating second
Þ log(q - q0 ) = -kt + c
Which represents an equation of straight 1
12 = a (40 – q) ´ 86400 .... (i)
line. 2
Thus the option (a) is correct. 1
19. (c) According to Newton’s law of cooling, the 4 = a (q – 20) ´ 86400 ....(ii)
2
temperature goes on decreasing with time
non-linearly. 40 – q
On dividing we get, 3 =
20. (c) Rate of heat flow is given by, q – 20
3q – 60 = 40 – q
KA(q1 - q 2 ) 4q = 100 Þ q = 25°C
Q=
l
23. (d) According to principle of calorimetry,
Where, K = coefficient of thermal
conductivity Heat lost = Heat gain
l = length of rod and A = area of cross-
section of rod 100 × 0.1( – 75) = 100 × 0.1 × 45 + 170 × 1 × 45
Thermodynamics 11
1. Which statement is incorrect? [2002] 7. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) All reversible cycles have same efficiency for any thermodynamic system ? [2004]
(b) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than (a) The change in entropy can never be zero
an irreversible one (b) Internal energy and entropy are state
(c) Carnot cycle is a reversible one functions
(d) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency (c) The internal energy changes in all
in all cycles processes
2. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency (d) The work done in an adiabatic process is
because we cannot [2002] always zero.
(a) prevent radiation 8. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled
(b) find ideal sources with air at temperatures (T1, T2), volume (V1, V2),
(c) reach absolute zero temperature and pressure (P1, P2) respectively. If the valve
(d) eliminate friction joining the two vessels is opened, the
3. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will
temperature to a body at higher temperature” is be [2004]
a statement or consequence of [2003] (a) T1T2(P1V1 + P2V2)/(P1V1T2 + P2V2T1)
(a) second law of thermodynamics
(b) (T1 + T2)/2
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) conservation of mass (c) T1 + T2
(d) first law of thermodynamics (d) T1T2(P1V1 + P2V2)/(P1V1T1 + P2V2T2)
4. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a 9. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its the first law of thermodynamics? [2005]
absolute temperature. The ratio CP/CV for the (a) It is a restatement of the principle of
gas is [2003] conservation of energy
4 (b) It is not applicable to any cyclic process
(a) (b) 2 (c) It introduces the concept of the entropy
3
5 3 (d) It introduces the concept of the internal
(c) (d) energy
3 2
5. Which of the following parameters does not 10. A system goes from A to B via two processes I
characterize the thermodynamic state of matter? and II as shown in figure. If DU1 and DU2 are the
[2003] changes in internal energies in the processes I
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure and II respectively, then [2005]
(c) Work (d) Volume p II
6. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from a
reservoir at 627°C, and gives it to a sink at 27°C. A B
The work done by the engine is [2003] I
(a) 4.2 × 106 J (b) 8.4 × 106 J
(c) 16.8 × 10 J6 (d) zero v
EBD_7764
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P-62 Physics
(a) relation between DU1 and DU2 can not be 15. An insulated container of gas has two chambers
determined separated by an insulating partition. One of the
(b) DU1 = DU2 chambers has volume V1 and contains ideal gas
(c) DU2 = DU1 DU 2 < DU1 at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other
(d) DU2 > DU1 chamber has volume V2 and contains ideal gas
11. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible at pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition
engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is removed without doing any work on the gas,
is [2005] the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in
T the container will be [2008]
(a) 1 1 + P2V2 )
T1T2 ( PV
2T0
1 1 2 + P2V2T1
PV T
T0
1 1T1 + P2V2T2
PV
(b)
1 1 + P2V2
PV
S
S0 2S0
1 1T2 + P2V2T1
PV
1 1 (c)
(a) (b) 1 1 + P2V2
PV
4 2
2 1 1 + P2V2 )
T1T2 ( PV
1 (d)
(c)
3
(d) 1 1 1 + P2V2T2
PV T
3
12. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to Directions for questions 16 to 18 : Questions are
compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and based on the following paragraph.
in this process the temperature of the gas Two moles of helium gas are taken over the cycle
increases by 7°C. The gas is ABCDA, as shown in the P-T diagram. [2009]
(R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) [2006]
(a) diatomic 5 A B
(b) triatomic 2 × 10
(c) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
(d) monoatomic P (Pa)
13. When a system is taken from state i to state f
along the path iaf, it is found that Q =50 cal and 5
1 × 10 D C
W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. W along T
the path ibf is [2007] 300K 500K
a f 16. Assuming the gas to be ideal the work done on
the gas in taking it from A to B is
(a) 300 R (b) 400 R
i b (c) 500 R (d) 200 R
(a) 14 cal (b) 6 cal 17. The work done on the gas in taking it from D to
(c) 16 cal (d) 66 cal A is
14. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of h = 1/
(a) + 414 R (b) – 690 R
10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of (c) + 690 R (d) – 414 R
energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower 18. The net work done on the gas in the cycle
temperature is [2007] ABCDA is
(a) 100 J (b) 99 J (a) 276 R (b) 1076 R
(c) 90 J (d) 1 J
(c) 1904 R (d) zero
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Thermodynamics P-63
19. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine The above p-v diagram represents the
as the working substance. If during the adiabatic thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating
expansion part of the cycle the volume of the with an ideal monatomic gas. The amount of heat,
gas increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of extracted from the source in a single cycle is
the engine is [2010] [2013]
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.99 (d) 0.25 æ 13 ö
(a) p 0 v 0 (b) ç ÷ p0 v0
20. A Carnot engine operating between è2ø
2P0 B C 600 k
A C
400 K
P0 D
A V
(a) The change in internal energy in whole
V0 2V0 cyclic process is 250 R.
22. A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, takes (b) The change in internal energy in the process
in heat from a source maintained at a temperature CA is 700 R.
of 500K. It is desired to have an engine of (c) The change in internal energy in the
efficiency 60%. Then, the intake temperature for process AB is -350 R.
the same exhaust (sink) temperature must be : (d) The change in internal energy in the
[2012] process BC is – 500 R.
(a) efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be made 25. A solid body of constant heat capacity 1 J/°C is
larger than 50% being heated by keeping it in contact with
(b) 1200 K reservoirs in two ways : [2015]
(c) 750 K (i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2
(d) 600 K reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies
23. p same amount of heat.
A B (ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8
2p0
reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies
p0 same amount of heat.
D C In both the cases body is brought from initial
temperature 100°C to final temperature 200°C.
v0 2v0 v
EBD_7764
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P-64 Physics
Entropy change of the body in the two cases 9P0 V0 9P0 V0
respectively is : (a) (b)
2nR nR
(a) ln2, 2ln2 (b) 2ln2, 8ln2
(c) ln2, 4ln2 (d) ln2, ln2 9P0 V0 3P0 V0
(c) (d)
26. 'n' moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process 2nR 2nR
A ® B as shown in the figure. The maximum 27. An ideal gas undergoes a quasi static, reversible
temperature of the gas during the process will process in which its molar heat capacity C
be : [2016] remains constant. If during this process the
P relation of pressure P and volume V is given by
A PVn = constant, then n is given by (Here CP and
2P0 CV are molar specific heat at constant pressure
and constant volume, respectively) : [2016]
P0 CP - C C - CV
B (a) n= (b) n=
C - CV C - CP
CP C – CP
(c) n= (d) n=
V0 2V0 V CV C – CV
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a) (b, c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
(b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (d)
= 2 ´ 106 cal Q2 TS 1
= 1- = 1- 0 0 =
Q1 3 3
= 2 ´ 106 ´ 4.2 J = 8.4 ´ 106 J T S
2 0 0
7. (b) Internal energy and entropy are state
function, they do not depend upon path nRDT 1000 ´ 8.3 ´ 7
12. (a) W= Þ -146000 =
taken. 1- g 1- g
8. (a) Here Q = 0 and W = 0. Therefore, from first 58.1 58.1
law of thermodynamics DU = Q + W = 0 or 1 - g = - Þ g = 1+ = 1.4
146 146
\ Internal energy of the system with Hence the gas is diatomic.
partition = Internal energy of the system 13. (b) For path iaf, Q = 50 cal, W = 20 cal
without partition.
a f
n1Cv T1 + n2 Cv T2 = (n1 + n2 )Cv T
n1T1 + n2T2
\ T=
n1 + n2 i b
PV PV By first law of thermodynamics,
1 1
But n1 = and n2 = 2 2 DU = Q - W = 50 – 20 = 30 cal.
RT1 RT2
For path ibf
PV
1 1 PV Q = 36 cal
´ T1 + 2 2 ´ T2
RT1 RT2 W =?
\\ T = or, W = Q – DU
PV
1 1 + 2V2
P
RT1 RT2 (Since, the change in internal energy does not
depend on the path, therefore DU = 30 cal)
1 1 + P2V2 )
T1T2 ( PV \ W = Q – DU = 36 – 30 = 6 cal.
=
1 1T2 + P2V2T1
PV 14. (c) The efficiency (h) of a Carnot engine and
9. (b, c)First law is applicable to a cyclic process. the coefficient of performance (b) of a
Concept of entropy is introduced by the refrigerator are related as
second law. 1- h 1
10. (b) Change in internal energy do not depend b= Here, h =
h 10
upon the path followed by the process. It
only depends on initial and final states i.e., 1
1-
DU1 = DU2 10 = 9.
\ b=
1 3 æ 1ö
11. (d) Q1 = T0 S 0 + T0 S0 = T0 S 0 çè ÷ø
2 2 10
Q2 = T0(2S0 – S0) = T0S0 Also, Coefficient of performance (b) is given
and Q3 = 0 Q
by b = 2 , where Q 2 is the energy
W Q1 - Q2 W
h= = absorbed from the reservoir.
Q1 Q1
or, 9 = Q2 \ Q2 = 90 J.
T 10
15. (a) Here Q = 0 and W = 0. Therefore from first
law of thermodynamics DU = Q + W = 0
2T0 \ Internal energy of the system with
Q1
Q3 partition = Internal energy of the system
T0 without partition.
Q2 n1Cv T1 + n2 Cv T2 = (n1 + n2 )Cv T
S
S0 2S 0 n T + n2 T2
\T = 1 1
n1 + n2
EBD_7764
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P-66 Physics
PV
1 1 PV 7
But n1 = and n2 = 2 2 For diatomic gas, g =
RT1 RT2 5
PV PV 2
1 1
´ T1 + 2 2 ´ T2 \ g -1 =
RT1 RT2 5
\T= 2
PV
1 1 + 2V2
P
\ T = (32) 5 .T Þ T1 = 4T2
RT1 RT2 1 2
T2
1 1 + P2V2 )
T1T2 ( PV
Now, efficiency = 1 - T
=
1 1T2 + P2V2T1
PV 1
16. (b) A to B is an isobaric process. The work T2 1 3
done = 1- = 1 - = = 0.75.
4T2 4 4
W = nR (T2 - T1 )
20. (d) Efficiency of engine
= 2R (500 - 300) = 400 R T2
h1 = 1 -
17. (a) Work done by the system intheisothermal T1
process
T
2 5
P Þ T =6 ....(i)
DA is W = 2.303 nRT log10 D 1
PA
T2 - 62 1
Again, h2 = 1 - = ....(ii)
= 2.303 ´ 2 R ´ 300 T1 3
æ dT
60 300 ö 300 40 For temperature to be maximum =0
= ç1- ÷
T = dv
100 è T 2 ø 2 100
Differentiating e.q. (iii) by 'v' we get
100 ´ 300
Þ T2 = Þ T2 = 750 K dT
40 nRV0 + P0(2v) = 3P0V0
dv
23. (b) Heat is extracted from the source in path
DA and AB is dT
\ nRV0 = 3P0V0 – 2 P0V
3 æ P V ö 5 æ 2P V ö dv
DQ = R ç 0 0 ÷ + R ç 0 0 ÷
2 è R ø 2 è R ø
dT 3P0 V0 - 2P0 V
3 5 æ 13ö = nRV0
=0
Þ P0V0 + 2 P0V0 = ç ÷ P0V0 dv
2 2 è 2ø
24. (d) In cyclic process, change in total internal 3V0 3P
V= \ p= 0 [From (i)]
energy is zero. 2 2
DUcyclic = 0
9Po Vo
5R \ Tmax = [From (iii)]
DUBC = nCv DT = 1 ´ DT 4nR
2
Where, Cv = molar specific heat at constant 27. (d) For a polytropic process
volume. R R
For BC, DT = –200 K C = Cv + \ C - Cv =
\ DUBC = –500R 1- n 1- n
25. (d) The entropy change of the body in the two R R
cases is same as entropy is a state function. \ 1- n = \ 1- =n
26. (c) The equation for the line is C - Cv C - Cv
P C - Cv - R C - C v - Cp + Cv
\ n= =
3Po C - Cv C - Cv
c C - Cp
q = (Q C p - C v = R )
2Po C - Cv
Po
q
Po
Vo
V
Vo 2Vo
EBD_7764
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P-68 Physics
Kinetic Theory
12
1. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry ( g - 1) Mv 2 K gM 2v
moving with uniform speed. The temperature of (a) (b) K
2 gR 2R
the gas molecules inside will [2002] ( g - 1) ( g - 1)
(a) increase (c) Mv 2 K (d) Mv 2 K
2R 2( g + 1) R
(b) decrease 7. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated
(c) remain same closed chamber. As the gas undergoes an
(d) decrease for some, while increase for others adiabatic expansion, the average time of collision
2. At what temperature is the r.m.s velocity of a between molecules increases as Vq, where V is
hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen the volume of the gas. The value of q is :
molecule at 47°C? [2002]
(a) 80 K (b) –73 K æ Cp ö
(c) 3 K (d) 20 K. çg = ÷ [2015]
è Cv ø
3. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium
C g +1 g -1
and 16 g of oxygen. The ratio p of the mixture (a) (b)
Cv 2 2
is [2005] 3g + 5 3g - 5
(c) (d)
(a) 1.62 (b) 1.59 6 6
(c) 1.54 (d) 1.4 8. The temperature of an open room of volume 30
4. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain m3 increases from 17°C to 27°C due to sunshine.
temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in The atmospheric pressure in the room remains
helium (He) at the same temperature will be 1 × 105 Pa. If ni and nf are the number of molecules
(assume both gases to be ideal) [2008] in the room before and after heating, then nf – ni
(a) 1421 ms–1 (b) 500 ms–1 will be : [2017]
(c) 650 ms–1 (d) 330 ms–1 25 25
5. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of (a) 2.5 ´ 10 (b) -2.5 ´ 10
8 × 104N/m2. The density of the gas is 4kg/m3. (c) -1.61 ´ 1023 (d) 1.38 ´ 1023
What is the energy of the gas due to its thermal
9. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure
motion? [2009]
and constant volume respectively. It is observed
(a) 5 × 104 J (b) 6 × 104 J that [2017]
(c) 7 × 104 J (d) 3 × 104 J Cp – Cv = a for hydrogen gas
6. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal
Cp – Cv = b for nitrogen gas
gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific
heats g. It is moving with speed v and it's The correct relation between a and b is :
suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is (a) a = 14 b (b) a = 28 b
lost to the surroundings, its temperature 1
increases by: [2011] (c) a= b (d) a=b
14
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Kinetic Theory P-69
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(c) (d) (a) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a)
Oscillations
13
1. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean velocities, during oscillation, are equal, the ratio
position [2002] of amplitude of A and B is [2003]
(a) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy
k1 k2
is maximum (a) (b)
(b) both kinetic and potential energies are k2 k1
maximum
(c) kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy k2 k1
(c) (d) k2
is minimum k1
(d) both kinetic and potential energies are 6. The length of a simple pendulum executing
minimum simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%.
2. If a spring has time period T, and is cut into n The percentage increase in the time period of
equal parts, then the time period of each part the pendulum of increased length is [2003]
will be [2002] (a) 11% (b) 21%
(a) T n (b) T / n (c) 42% (d) 10%
(c) nT (d) T 7. The displacement of a particle varies according
3. A child swinging on a swing in sitting position, to the relation x = 4(cos pt + sin pt). The
stands up, then the time period if the swing will amplitude of the particle is [2003]
[2002] (a) – 4 (b) 4
(a) increase (c) 4 2 (d) 8
(b) decrease 8. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The
(c) remains same potential energy (P.E), the kinetic energy (K.E)
(d) increases if the child is long and decreases and total energy (T.E) are measured as a function
if the child is short of displacement x. Which of the following
4. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible statements is true ? [2003]
mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released so (a) K.E. is maximum when x = 0
that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the (b) T.E is zero when x = 0
(c) K.E is maximum when x is maximum
mass is increased by m, the time period
(d) P.E is maximum when x = 0
5T m 9. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple
becomes .Then the ratio of is [2003]
3 M harmonic motion in water with a period t, while
3 25 the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air.
(a) (b) Neglecting frictional force of water and given that
5 9
16 5 the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3.
(c) (d) Which relationship between t and t0 is true?
9 3
5. Two particles A and B of equal masses are [2004]
suspended from two massless springs of spring (a) t = 2t0 (b) t = t0/2
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum (c) t = t0 (d) t = 4t0
EBD_7764
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P-72 Physics
10. A particle at the end of a spring executes S.H.M (b) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
with a period t1. while the corresponding period 2p
with a period
for another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation w
with the two springs in series is T then [2004] p
(c) a simple harmonic motion with a period
(a) T -1 = t1-1 + t 2-1 (b) T 2 = t12 + t 22 w
(c) T = t1 + t2 (d) T -2 = t1-2 + t 2-2 (d) a simple harmonic motion with a period
11. The total energy of a particle, executing simple 2p
harmonic motion is [2004]
2 w
(a) independent of x (b) µ x 16. The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical
1/ 2
(c) µ x (d) µ x hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole near
where x is the displacement from the mean the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly
position. unplugged. During observation, till water is
12. A particle of mass m is attached to a spring (of coming out, the time period of oscillation would
spring constant k) and has a natural angular [2005]
frequency w0. An external force F(t) proportional (a) first decrease and then increase to the
to cos wt (w ¹ w 0 ) is applied to the oscillator.. original value
(b) first increase and then decrease to the
The displacement of the oscillator will be original value
proportional to [2004] (c) increase towards a saturation value
1 1
(d) remain unchanged
(a) 2 2 (b) 2 2
m (w 0 + w ) m (w 0 - w )
m m 17. If a simple harmonic motion is represented by
(c) 2 2 (d) 2 2 2
w -w (w + w ) d x
0 0 + ax = 0 , its time period is [2005]
13. In forced oscillation of a particle the amplitude dt 2
is maximum for a frequency w1 of the force while 2p 2p
(a) (b)
the energy is maximum for a frequency w2 of a a
the force; then [2004] (c) 2p a (d) 2pa
(a) w1 < w2 when damping is small and 18. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing
simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm,
w1 > w2 when damping is large
is 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is [2006]
(b) w1 > w2 (a) 0.01 s (b) 10 s
(c) w1 = w2 (c) 0.1 s (d) 100 s
(d) w1 < w 2 19. Starting from the origin a body oscillates simple
14. Two simple harmonic motions are represented harmonically with a period of 2 s. After what
time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total
by the equations y1 = 0.1 sin æç100pt + p ö÷ and energy? [2006]
è 3ø
1 1
y 2 = 0.1 cos pt . The phase difference of the (a) s (b) s
6 4
velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity
of particle 2 is [2005] 1 1
(c) s (d) s
p -p 3 12
(a) (b)
3 6 20. Two springs, of force constants k1 and k2 are
p -p connected to a mass m as shown. The frequency
(c) (d) of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k1 and k2
6 3
2 are made four times their original values, the
15. The function sin (wt ) represents [2005] frequency of oscillation becomes [2007]
(a) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
p
with a period
w
www.crackjee.xyz
Oscillations P-73
m æ A1 ö
k1 k2
of çè A ÷ø is: [2011]
2
1
(a) 2 f (b) f /2 M +m æ M ö2
(c) f /4 (d) 4 f (a) (b) çè ÷
M M + mø
21. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic 1
motion with amplitude a and frequency n. The æ M + mö 2 M
(c) çè ÷ (d)
average kinetic energy during its motion from M ø M +m
the position of equilibrium to the end is[2007] 27. A wooden cube (density of wood ‘d’) of side ‘ l ’
(a) 2p 2 ma 2 n2 (b) p 2 ma 2 n2 floats in a liquid of density ‘r’ with its upper and
1 lower surfaces horizontal. If the cube is pushed
2 2
(c) ma n (d) 4p 2 ma 2 n2 slightly down and released, it performs simple
4 harmonic motion of period ‘T’ [2011 RS]
22. The displacement of an object attached to a
spring and executing simple harmonic motion is ld lr
given by x = 2 × 10–2 cos pt metre.The time at (a) 2p (b) 2p
rg dg
which the maximum speed first occurs is[2007]
(a) 0.25 s (b) 0.5 s ld lr
(c) 0.75 s (d) 0.125 s (c) 2p (d) 2p
23. A point mass oscillates along the x-axis (r - d ) g (r - d ) g
according to the law x = x0 cos(wt - p / 4) . If the 28. If a simple pendulum has significant amplitude (up
to a factor of 1/e of original) only in the period
acceleration of the particle is written as between t = 0s to t = t s, then t may be called the
a = A cos(wt + d ) ,then [2007] average life of the pendulum. When the spherical
2 bob of the pendulum suffers a retardation (due to
(a) A = x0 w , d = 3p / 4 viscous drag) proportional to its velocity with b as
(b) A = x0, d = -p / 4 the constant of proportionality, the average life
time of the pendulum in second is (assuming
(c) A = x0 w 2 , d = p / 4 damping is small) [2012]
2 0.693
(d) A = x0 w , d = -p / 4 (a) (b) b
b
24. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity
and the acceleration of a particle executing simple 1 2
(c) (d)
harmonic motion of time period T, then, which of b b
the following does not change with time?[2009] 29. This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of
(a) aT/x (b) aT + 2pv the four choices given after the Statements, choose
(c) aT/v (d) a2T2 + 4p2v2 the one that best describes the two Statements.
25. Two particles are executing simple harmonic If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1
motion of the same amplitude A and frequency and k2 respectively, are stretched by the same
w along the x-axis. Their mean position is force, it is found that more work is done on
separated by distance X0(X0 > A). If the maximum spring S1 than on spring S2.
separation between them is (X0 + A), the phase Statement 1 : If stretched by the same amount
difference between their motion is: [2011] work done on S1
p p Statement 2 : k1 < k2 [2012]
(a) (b) (a) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
3 4
p p (b) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(c) (d) (c) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
6 2
26. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for
executes S.H.M. with amplitude A1. When the Statement 1
mass M passes through its mean position then (d) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of Statement 2 is not the correct explanation
them move together with amplitude A2. The ratio for Statement 1
EBD_7764
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P-74 Physics
30. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases of the following represents these correctly?
to 0.9 times its original magnitude in 5s. In (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
another 10s it will decrease to a times its original [2015]
magnitude, where a equals [2013]
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.81 E KE
(c) 0.729 (d) 0.6
31. An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical
container supports a freely moving piston of (a) d
mass M. The piston and the cylinder have equal
cross sectional area A. When the piston is in
equilibrium, the volume of the gas is V0 and its
pressure is P0. The piston is slightly displaced PE
from the equilibrium position and released.
Assuming that the system is completely isolated
E
from its surrounding, the piston executes a PE
simple harmonic motion with frequency [2013]
1 AgP0 1 V0 MP0 (b) KE
(a) (b)
2p V0 M 2p A 2 g
1 A 2 gP0 1 MV0 E
(c) (d)
2p MV0 2p AgP0 KE
32. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion
in a straight line. In first t s, after starting from PE
(c)
rest it travels a distance a, and in next t s it d
travels 2a, in same direction, then: [2014]
(a) amplitude of motion is 3a E PE
(b) time period of oscillations is 8t
(c) amplitude of motion is 4a
(d) time period of oscillations is 6t KE
(d) d
33. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross
sectional area A has time period T. When an
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time 35. A particle performs simple harmonic mition with
period changes to TM. If the Young's modulus amplitude A. Its speed is trebled at the instant
1 2A
of the material of the wire is Y then is equal that it is at a distance from equilibrium
Y 3
to : position. The new amplitude of the motion is :
(g = gravitational acceleration) [2015] [2016]
é æ T ö2 ù A é æ T ö ù A
2
7A
(a) ê1 - ç M ÷ ú (b) ê1 - ç T ÷ ú Mg (a) A 3 (b)
3
ë è T ø û Mg êë è M ø úû
A
éæ T ö2 ù A éæ T ö2 ù Mg (c) 41 (d) 3A
M
(c) êç ÷ - 1ú (d) êç M ÷ - 1ú 3
ëè T ø û Mg ëè T ø û A 36. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion
34. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted with a time period T. At time t = 0, it is at its
between its kinetic energy (KE) and potential position of equilibrium. The kinetic energy-time
energy (PE) against its displacement d. Which one graph of the particle will look like: [2017]
www.crackjee.xyz
Oscillations P-75
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36
(c) (d) (c) (d) (b) (b)
dx d x 2 P=
= le l t Þ = l 2 e lt ( x0 - x )g
dt 2
dt
Substituting in the equation (1) Piston
b k
l 2 e lt + l e lt + e l t = 0
m m
x
b k
l2 + l + = 0
m m x0 Cylinder
containing
b b2 k ideal gas
-± -4
m m 2 m -b ± b 2 - 4km Let piston is displaced by distance x
l= =
2 2m æ P xg ö
Solving the equation (1) for x, we have 0 0
Mg - ç ÷ A = Frestoring
-b
çè ( x - x )g ÷ø
t 0
x = e 2m
æ x0g ö
2 k +b
2 P0 A ç1 - ÷ = Frestoring
w = w0 - l where w0 = , l = çè ( x - x )g ÷ø
m 2 0
1 2 [ x0 - x » x0 ]
The average life = =
l b
gP0 Ax
1 2 F=-
29. (b) Q w = kx x0
2 \ Frequency with which piston executes
1 1 2 SHM.
w1 = k1x 2 ; w2 = k2 x
2 2
Since w1 > w2 Thus (k1 > k2) 1 gP0 A 1 gP0 A2
f =
bt 2p x0 M = 2p MV0
-
2m 32. (d) In simple harmonic motion, starting from
30. (c) Q A = A 0e
rest,
(where, A0 = maximum amplitude) At t = 0 , x = A
According to the questions, after 5 x = Acoswt ..... (i)
second, When t = t , x = A – a
-
b(5) When t = 2 t , x = A –3a
0.9A 0 = A 0e … (i) 2m From equation (i)
After 10 more second, A – a = Acosw t ......(ii)
A – 3a = A cos2w t ....(iii)
b(15)
-
…(ii) As cos2w t = 2 cos2 w t – 1...(iv)
A = A0 e 2m From equation (ii), (iii) and (iv)
From eqns (i) and (ii) 2
A = 0.729 A0 \ a = 0.729 A - 3a æ A-a ö
= 2ç ÷ -1
Mg A è A ø
31. (c) = P0
A A - 3a 2 A2 + 2a 2 - 4 Aa - A2
Þ =
P0V0 g = PV g A A2
Mg = P0A … (1) 2 2 2
Þ A – 3aA = A + 2a – 4Aa
g g Þ 2a2 = aA
P0 Ax0 = PA( x0 - x) Þ A = 2a
EBD_7764
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P-80 Physics
a 1 2
Þ = 2 æ 2A ö
A 2 Initially V= w A -ç ÷
Now, A – a = A coswt è 3 ø
A- a 2
Þ cos wt = 2 æ 2A ö
A Finally 3v = w A' - ç ÷
è 3 ø
1 2p p Where A'= final amplitude (Given at x =
Þ cos wt = or t=
2 T 3 2A
Þ T= 6t , velocity to trebled)
3
l 2
33. (c) As we know, time period, T = 2p æ 2A ö
g A' 2 - ç ÷
3 è 3 ø
When additional mass M is added then On dividing we get =
1 æ 2A ö
2
l + Dl A2 - ç ÷
TM = 2p è 3 ø
g
l + Dl 2 é 2 4A 2 ù 4A 2
TM = æ TM ö l + Dl 9 ê A - 9 ú = A'2 –
l or ç ÷ =
T
è T ø l ëê ûú 9
2 7A
æ TM ö Mg \ A' =
or, ç =1+ 3
è T ÷ø Ay 36. (b) For a particle executing SHM
é Mgl ù At mean position; t = 0, wt = 0, y = 0, V = Vmax =
êQ Dl = Ay ú aw
ë û
1
\ K.E. = KEmax = mw2a2
1 éæ T ö
2 ù
A 2
\ = êç M ÷ - 1ú
y ëêè T ø Mg T p
ûú At extreme position : t = , wt = , y = A, V =
4 2
1 Vmin = 0
34. (d) K.E = k ( A2 - d 2 )
2 \ K.E. = KEmin = 0
1
1 2 Kinetic energy in SHM, KE = mw2(a2 – y2)
and P.E. = kd 2
2
At mean position d = 0. At extrement 1
= mw2a2cos2wt
positions d = A 2
Hence graph (2) correctly depicts kinetic energy
2 2
35. (b) We know that V = w A - x time graph.
www.crackjee.xyz
Waves P-81
waves 14
1. Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is æ pö
40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm) of a y = 10 - 4 sinç 600t - 2x + ÷ metres
è 3ø
stationary wave produced on it is [2002]
where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds.
(a) 20 (b) 80
The speed of the wave - motion, in ms–1 , is
(c) 40 (d) 120
[2003]
2. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has
(a) 300 (b) 600
one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The
(c) 1200 (d) 200
ratio of fundamental frequency of tube A and B
7. A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 g/m is
is [2002]
stretched with a tension of 10 kg-wt between
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
two rigid supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1.
at its middle point between the poles of a
3. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4
permanent magnet, and it vibrates in resonance
beats/sec with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A
when carrying an alternating current of
little wax is placed on the unknown fork and it
frequency n. The frequency n of the alternating
then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency of
source is [2003]
the unknown fork is [2002]
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz
(a) 286 cps (b) 292 cps
(c) 200Hz (d) 25Hz
(c) 294 cps (d) 288 cps
8. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes
4. A wave y = a sin(wt–kx) on a string meets with
5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats
the equation of the unknown wave is [2002]
per second when the tension in the piano string
(a) y = a sin( w t + kx) is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano
(b) y = –a sin( w t + kx) string before increasing the tension was [2003]
(c) y = a sin( w t – kx) (a) (256 + 2) Hz (b) (256 – 2) Hz
(d) y = –a sin( w t – kx) (c) (256 – 5) Hz (d) (256 + 5) Hz
5. When temperature increases, the frequency of 9. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can
a tuning fork [2002] be expressed as,
(a) increases pö
æ
(b) decreases y = 10-6 sin ç100t + 20 x + ÷ m where t is in
è 4ø
(c) remains same
second and x in meter. The speed of the wave is
(d) increases or decreases depending on the [2004]
material (a) 20 m/s (b) 5 m/s
6. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the (c) 2000 m/s (d) 5p m/s
x -direction is given by
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P-82 Physics
10. When two tuning forks ar e sounded measures the column length to be x cm for the
simultaneously, 4 beats per second are heard. second resonance. Then [2008]
Now, some tape is attached on the prong of the (a) 18 > x (b) x > 54
fork 2. When the tuning forks are sounded again, (c) 54 > x > 36 (d) 36 > x > 18
6 beats per second are heard. If the frequency of 16. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described
fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original by the equation y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (a x – bt). If
frequency of fork 2? [2005] the wavelength and the time period of the wave
are 0.08 m and 2.0s, respectively, then a and b in
(a) 202 Hz (b) 200 Hz
appropriate units are [2008]
(c) 204 Hz (d) 196 Hz
(a) a = 25.00 p , b = p
11. An observer moves towards a stationary source
0.08 2.0
of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity (b) a = ,b =
p p
of sound. What is the percentage increase in
0.04 1.0
the apparent frequency ? [2005] (c) a = ,b =
p p
(a) 0.5% (b) zero p
(c) 20 % (d) 5 % (d) a = 12.50p, b =
2.0
12. A whistle producing sound waves of 17. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have
frequencies 9500 HZ and above is approaching frequencies (n –1), n, (n + 1). They superpose to
a stationary person with speed v ms–1 . The give beats. The number of beats produced per
velocity of sound in air is 300 ms–1. If the person second will be : [2009]
can hear frequencies upto a maximum of 10,000 (a) 3 (b) 2
HZ, the maximum value of v upto which he can (c) 1 (d) 4
hear whistle is [2006] 18. A motor cycle starts from rest and accelerates
15 along a straight path at 2m/s2. At the starting
(a) 15 2 ms -1 (b) ms -1 point of the motor cycle there is a stationary
2
(c) 15 ms -1 (d) 30 ms-1 electric siren. How far has the motor cycle gone
when the driver hears the frequency of the siren
13. A string is stretched between fixed points
at 94% of its value when the motor cycle was at
separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
rest? (Speed of sound = 330 ms–1) [2009]
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There
(a) 98 m (b) 147 m
are no other resonant frequencies between these
(c) 196 m (d) 49 m
two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for
19. The equation of a wave on a string of linear
this string is [2006] mass density 0.04 kg m–1 is given by
(a) 105 Hz (b) 1.05 Hz
é æ t x öù
(c) 1050 Hz (d) 10.5 Hz y = 0.02(m) sin ê2p ç - ÷ú .
14. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level ë è 0.04(s ) 0.50(m) ø û
The tension in the string is [2010]
by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of
(a) 4.0 N (b) 12.5 N
[2007]
(c) 0.5 N (d) 6.25 N
(a) 100 (b) 1000 20. The transverse displacement y (x, t) of a wave
(c) 10000 (d) 10
15. While measuring the speed of sound by on a string is given by y( x, t ) = e (
- ax 2 + bt 2 + 2 ab ) xt ).
performing a resonance column experiment, a This represents a: [2011]
student gets the first resonance condition at a (a) wave moving in – x direction with speed
column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating b
the same experiment during summer, she a
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Waves P-83
(b) standing wave of frequency b 24. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of
steel. The tension in it produces an elastic strain
1
(c) standing wave of frequency of 1%. What is the fundamental frequency of
b
steel if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 ×
a
(d) wave moving in + x direction speed 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 respectively?
b
[2013]
21. A travelling wave represented by
(a) 188.5 Hz (b) 178.2 Hz
y = A sin (wt – kx) is superimposed on another
(c) 200.5 Hz (d) 770 Hz
wave represented by y = A sin (wt + kx). The
25. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end.
resultant is [2011 RS]
Find the number of possible natural oscillations
(a) A wave travelling along + x direction
of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie
(b) A wave travelling along – x direction
below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is
(c) A standing wave having nodes at
340 m/s. [2014]
nl
x= , n = 0,1, 2.... (a) 12 (b) 8
2
(d) A standing wave having nodes at (c) 6 (d) 4
æ 1ö l 26. A train is moving on a straight track with speed
x = ç n + ÷ ; n = 0,1, 2.... 20 ms–1. It is blowing its whistle at the frequency
è 2ø 2 of 1000 Hz. The percentage change in the
22. Statement - 1 : Two longitudinal waves given frequency heard by a person standing near the
by equations : y1 ( x, t ) = 2a sin(wt - kx ) and track as the train passes him is (speed of sound
y2 ( x, t ) = a sin (2wt - 2kx) will have equal = 320 ms–1) close to : [2015]
intensity. [2011 RS] (a) 18% (b) 24%
Statement - 2 : Intensity of waves of given (c) 6% (d) 12%
frequency in same medium is proportional to 27. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental
square of amplitude only. frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in
(a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false. water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental
(b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, frequency of the air column is now : [2016]
statement-2 is the correct explanation of (a) 2f (b) f
statement-1
f 3f
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, (c) (d)
2 4
statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of statement-1 28. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended
from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is
(d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
introduced at its lowest end. It starts moving up
23. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a
the string. The time taken to reach the supports
fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is
is : [2016]
dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in –2
(take g = 10 ms )
water. The fundamental frequency of the air-
column is now : [2012] (a) 2 2s (b) 2s
(a) f (b) f / 2
(c) 2p 2 s (d) 2 s
(c) 3 f /4 (d) 2 f
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (c) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
(a) (b) (a) (d) (a) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a)
EBD_7764
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P-84 Physics
1. (b) This will happen for fundamental mode of and the frequency of known fork. This
vibration as shown in the figure. would produce high beat frequency.
l 4. (b) To form a node there should be
Here, = 40 \ l = 80 cm superposition of this wave with the
2
reflected wave. The reflected wave should
S1 S2 travel in opposite direction with a phase
change of p. The equation of the reflected
40 cm wave will be
y = a sin (wt + kx + p)
S1 and S2 are rigid support
2. (c) The fundamental frequency for closed Þ y = – a sin (wt + kx)
organ pipe is given by 5. (b) The frequency of a tuning fork is given by
the expression
v é lù
uc =
4l êëQl = 4 úû m2 k Y
f=
Where l = length of the tube and v is the 4 3 pl 2 r
velocity of sound in air.
As temperature increases, l increases and
l = l /4
therefore f decreases.
æ pö
The fundamental frequency for open organ 6. (a) y = 10-4 sin ç 600t - 2x + ÷
pipe is given by è 3ø
v é lù But y = A sin ( wt - kx + f)
u0 =
2l
êëQl = 2 úû
On comparing we get w = 600; k=2
l Also velocity of wave is given by
l=
2
w 600
v= = = 300 ms -1
k 2
u0 v 4l 2 7. (a) For a string vibrating between two rigid
\ u = 2l ´ v = 1 support, the fundamental frequency is
c
given by
3. (b) A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec with
another tuning fork of frequency 288 cps. v 1 T
From this information we can conclude that n= =
2l 2l m
the frequency of unknown fork is 288 + 4
cps or 288 – 4 cps i.e. 292 cps or 284 cps.
When a little wax is placed on the unknown
fork, it produces 2 beats/sec. When a little l
wax is placed on the unknown fork, its l=
frequency decreases and simultaneously 2
the beat frequency decreases confirming 1 10 ´ 9.8
that the frequency of the unknown fork is = = 50 Hz
292 cps. 2 ´ 1 9.8 ´ 10-3
2p 2p
\ a= = 25p and b = =p -[( ax )2 + ( b t ) 2 + 2 a x . b t ]
0.08 2 =e
17. (b) Maximum number of beats -( ax + bt ) 2
=e
= ( n + 1) – ( n – 1) = 2
2
æ ö
2 b ÷
u=0 a = 2m/s vm - çè x + tø
18. (a) = e a
Electric s Motor It is a function of type y = f (x + vt)
siren cycle
b
Þ Speed of wave =
v 2m - u 2 = 2as a
21. (d) y = A sin (wt – kx) + A sin (wt + kx)
\ v2m = 2 ´ 2 ´ s y = 2A sin wt cos kx
For standing wave nodes
\ vm = 2 s
cos kx = 0
According to Doppler’s effect
2p p
é v - vm ù .x = (2n + 1)
n ' =n ê ú l 2
ë v û
\ x=
( 2n + 1) l , n = 0,1, 2,3,...........
é 330 - 2 s ù
0.94n = n ê ú 4
ë 330 û 22. (a) Since, I µ A2w 2
Þ s = 98.01 m
I1 µ (2a)2 w 2
é æ t ö x ù
19. (d) y = 0.02(m)sin ê2p ç ÷ - ú I 2 µ a 2 (2w ) 2
ë è 0.04( s) ø 0.50(m) û
I1 = I 2
Comparing this equation with the standard
wave equation Intensity depends on frequency also.
23. (a) The fundamental frequency of open tube
y = a sin(wt - kx ) v
we get + n0 = 2l … (i)
0
2p where l is the length of the tube
w=
0.04 v = speed of sound
That of closed tube
1 v
Þ n= = 25 Hz nc =
0.04 … (ii)
4lc
2p l0
k= Þ l = 0.5 m According to the problem lc =
0.50 2
\ velocity, v = nl = 25 × 0.5 m/s v v
= 12.5 m/s Thus nc = Þ nc = … (iii)
l0 / 2 2l
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Waves P-87
From equations (i) and (iii)
æ f2 ö æ 300 ö
n 0 = nc çè f - 1÷ø ´ 100 = çè 340 - 1÷ø ´ 100 ; 12%
1
Thus, nc = f ( Q n0 = f is given)
24. (b) Fundamental frequency, f
27. (b)
v 1 T 1 T
f = = =
2l 2l m 2l Ar l l
é T mù
êQ v = and m = ú (a) (b)
ë m lû
The fundamental frequency in case (a) is
Tl T Y Dl
Also, Y = Þ = v
ADl A l f=
2l
1 gDl The fundamental frequency in case (b) is
Þ f = ....(i)
2l lr v u
f'= = =f
Dl 4(l / 2) 2l
l = 1.5 m, = 0.01, 28. (a) We know that velocity in string is given by
l
r = 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 (given) T
g = 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (given) v= ...(i)
m
Dl
Putting the value of l, , r and g in eqn. m mass of string
l where m = =
(i) we get, l length of string
2 103 m
f = ´ The tension T = ´ x´g
7 3 or f » 178.2 Hz
..(ii)
l
From (1) and (2)
25. (c) Length of pipe = 85 cm = 0.85m
Frequency of oscillations of air column in
closed organ pipe is given by,
l
(2n - 1)u T
f =
4L
x
(2n - 1)u
f = £ 1250
4L dx
= gx
(2n - 1) ´ 340 dt
Þ £ 1250
0.85 ´ 4
Þ 2n – 1 < 12.5 » 6 x -1/2 dx = g dt
l l
é v ù 320 -1/2
26. (d) f1 = f ê
ë v - v
ú= f´
sû 300
Hz \ òx dx - g ò dt 2 l
0 0
é v ù 320 l 20
f2 = f ê ú= f ´ Hz = g´t \ t = 2 =2 =2 2
ë v + vsû 340 g 10
EBD_7764
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P-88 Physics
Electric Charges
and Fields 15
1. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of 5. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal
cube of length L (A B C D E F G H). Another radii and carrying equal charges on them repel
same charge q is placed at a distance L from O. each other with a force F when kept apart at
Then the electric flux through ABCD is [2002] some distance. A third spherical conductor
E F
having same radius as that B but uncharged is
D
c
brought in contact with B, then brought in
O contact with C and finally removed away from
q q
H both. The new force of repulsion between B and
G
C is [2004]
A
B (a) F/8 (b) 3 F/4
L
(c) F/4 (d) 3 F/8
(a) q /4 p Î0 L (b) zero
6. Four charges equal to -Q are placed at the four
(c) q/2 p Î0 L (d) q/3 p Î0 L corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre.
2. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
joining two equal charges Q such that the system [2004]
is in equilibrium then the value of q is [2002]
Q Q
(a) Q/2 (b) –Q/2 (a) - (1 + 2 2) (b) (1 + 2 2)
(c) Q/4 (d) –Q/4 2 4
3. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
Q Q
surface respectively is f1 and f 2 , the electric (c) - (1 + 2 2) (d) (1 + 2 2)
charge inside the surface will be [2003] 4 2
(a) (f2 - f1 )e o (b) (f1 + f2 ) / e o 7. A charged oil drop is suspended in a uniform
(c) (f2 - f1) / e o (d) (f1 + f2 )e o field of 3×104 v/m so that it neither falls nor rises.
4. Three charges –q1 , +q2 and –q3 are place as The charge on the drop will be (Take the mass of
shown in the figure. The x - component of the the charge = 9.9×10–15 kg and g = 10 m/s2)
force on –q1 is proportional to [2003] [2004]
Y (a) 1.6×10–18 C (b) 3.2×10–18 C
-q 3 (c) 3.3×10–18 C (d) 4.8×10–18 C
8. Two point charges + 8q and – 2q are located at
x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a
a
b point on the x axis at which the net electric field
due to these two point charges is zero is
-q 1 +q 2 X [2005]
q2 q3 q2 q3
(a) 2
- 2
cos q (b) + sin q L
a2
2 (a) (b) 2 L
b a b
4
q2 q3 q2 q3
(c) + cos q (d) - sin q (c) 4 L (d) 8 L
b2 a2 b2 a2
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Electric Charges and Fields P-89
9. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S,
E(r) E(r)
which makes an angle q with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The
(a) (b) r
surface charge density s of the sheet is r O R
O R
proportional to [2005]
E(r)
E(r)
P
q
S (c) R
r (d) r
O
O R
(c) 0 (d) g E / g M q q
- ˆj ˆj
13. A thin spherical shell of radus R has charge Q (c) (d)
2p e 0 r 2
2p e 0 r 2
2 2
spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the
17. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge
following graphs most closely represents the
distribution with charge density varying as
electric field E(r) produced by the shell in the
æ5 rö
range 0 £ r < ¥, where r is the distance from the r(r ) = r0 ç - ÷ upto r = R , and r(r ) = 0
è 4 Rø
centre of the shell? [2008]
EBD_7764
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P-90 Physics
for r > R , where r is the distance from the origin. 22. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface
The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the charge s in the upper half and negative surface
origin is given by [2010] charge - s in the lower half. The electric field
r0 r æ 5 r ö 4pr0 r æ 5 r ö lines around the cylinder will look like figure
(a) ç - ÷ (b) 3e çè 3 - R ÷ø given in : (figures are schematic and not drawn
4e 0 è 3 R ø 0
r0 r æ 5 r ö r0 r æ 5 r ö to scale) [2015]
(c) ç - ÷ (d) 3ε çè 4 - R ÷ø
4ε0 è 4 R ø 0
18. Two identical charged spheres suspended from (a) (b)
a common point by two massless strings of
length l are initially a distance d(d << l) apart
because of their mutual repulsion. The charge
begins to leak from both the spheres at a (c) (d) `
constant rate. As a result charges approach each
other with a velocity v. Then as a function of
distance x between them, [2011] 23. The region between two concentric spheres of
(a) v µ x–1 (b) v µ x½ radii 'a' and 'b', respectively (see figure), have
(c) v µ x (d) v µ x–½ A
19. The potential inside a charged spherical ball is volume charge density r= , where A is a
r
given by f = ar2 + b where r is the distance from constant and r is the distance from the centre.
the centre and a, b are constants. Then the charge At the centre of the spheres is a point charge Q.
density inside the ball is: [2011] The value of A such that the electric field in the
(a) –6ae0r (b) –24pae0 region between the spheres will be constant, is:
(c) –6ae0 (d) –24pae0r [2016]
20. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q
and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as
function of distance from the centre, The graph
which would correspond to the above will be:
[2012]
a
E E Q
b
(a) (b)
Rr Rr 2Q 2Q
(a) p a 2 - b 2 (b)
E E ( ) pa 2
Q Q
(c) (d)
(c) (d) 2p b2 - a 2
R r Rr
2pa 2 ( )
ur
21. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = – a 24. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p ,
and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and which makes angle q with respect to x-axis. When
uur
q subjected to an electric field E1 = Eiˆ , it
charge q0 = is placed at the origin. If charge ur
2 experiences a torque T1 = t iˆ . When subjected
q0 is given a small displacement (y <<a) along uur
the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is to another electric field E2 = 3E1 ˆj it
uur ur
proportional to [2013] experiences torque T2 = -T1 . The angle q is :
(a) y (b) –y [2017]
1 1 (a) 60° (b) 90°
(c) (d) – (c) 30° (d) 45°
y y
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Electric Charges and Fields P-91
Ans we r K e y
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (a) (d) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
(c) (a) (d) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c) (a)
q
.
q
.
B F13
F13cos q
A
2. (d) For equilibrium of charge Q C
B
Q´Q Qq 5. (d) ×
k +k =0 r r
(2x) 2 x2 QB QC
x x F µ
x2
Q q Q x is distance between the spheres. After
Q Q
Þ q=- first operation charge on B is halved i.e
4 2
3. (a) The flux entering an enclosed surface is Q
taken as negative and the flux leaving the and charge on third sphere becomes .
2
surface is taken as positive, by convention. Now it is touched to C, charge then equally
Therefore the net flux leaving the enclosed distributes them selves to make potential
surface = f2 - f1 same, hence charge on C becomes
\ the charge enclosed in the surface by æ Q ö 1 3Q
çè Q + ÷ø = .
Gauss’s law is q =Î0 (f 2 - f1 ) 2 2 4
4. (b) Force on charge q1 due to q2 is æ 3Q ö æ Q ö
qq çè ÷ø çè ÷ø
F12 = k 1 22 QC' QB' 4 2 3 Q2
\ Fnew µ = =
b 2
x x 2
8 x2
Force on charge q1 due to q3 is
3
qq or Fnew = F
F13 = k 1 23 8
a 6. (b) Net field at A should be zero
The X - component of the force (Fx) on
2 E1 + E2 = E3
q1 is F12 + F13 sin q
q1q2 q1q2 kQ ´ 2 kQ kq
\ Fx = k +k sin q \ 2
+ 2
= 2
b2 a2 a ( 2 a) æ a ö
çè ÷
2ø
EBD_7764
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P-92 Physics
E3 –Q –Q B +Q1 +Q2
E1 11. (c)
A
E2 r1 r2
2 E1 A –Q –Q A
E B
After connection, V1 = V2
Q 2 Q Q
Þ + = 2q Þ q = (2 2 + 1) Q Q Q Q
1 2 4 Þk 1 =k 2 Þ 1 = 2
r1 r2 r1 r2
7. (c) At equilibrium, electric force on drop
balances weight of drop. The ratio of electric fields
Q
mg k 21
. qE = mg Þ q = E1 r E Q r2
E = 1 Þ 1 = 21 ´ 2
E2 Q E2 r1 Q2
9.9 ´ 10-15 ´ 10 k 22
q= = 3.3 ´ 10 -18 C r2
3 ´ 104
E1 r1 ´ r22 E r 2
- K 2q K 8q 1 4 Þ = Þ 1 = 2 =
8. (b) + =0 Þ = E2 r12 ´ r2 E2 r1 1
2 2 2
( x - L) x ( x - L) x2
Since the distance between the spheres is
1 2 large as compared to their diameters, the
or = Þ x = 2 x - 2 L or x = 2L
x-L x induced effects may be ignored.
9. (c) 12. (b) Electronic charge does not depend on
P
acceleration due to gravity as it is a
T cos q universal constant.
q T So, electronic charge on earth
s = electronic charge on moon
F = Eq = q \ Required ratio = 1.
e0K
13. (a) The electric field inside a thin spherical
T sin q shell of radius R has charge Q spread
uniformly over its surface is zero.
mg Q ++ + +
+
+
R
+
+ + +
s
+++
.... (ii)
+ +
E=0
Dividing (i) by (ii),
+
+ + +
++
sq
tan q = Outside the shell the electric field is
e 0 K . mg
Q
\ s µ tan q E = k . These characteristics are
10. (c) r2
+q represented by graph (a).
14. (d) Let F be the force between Q and Q. The
F1 force between q and Q should be attractive
E1 for net force on Q to be zero. Let F ¢ be the
force between Q and q . The resultant of
F2 F ¢ and F ¢ is R. For equilibrium
E2 Q q
–q
The electric field will be different at the
location of the two charges. Therefore the l R F¢
two forces will be unequal. This will result
in a force as well as torque.
q Q
F¢
F
www.crackjee.xyz
Electric Charges and Fields P-93
r r q
R+ F = 0 2 F ' = -F = (rd q) (Qdl = rd q)
pr
Qq Q2 Q æqö
2´k 2
= -k 2 Þ = -2 2 = ç ÷ dq
l ( 2 l) q èpø
15. (b) Electric field at O due to dq is
R 1 dq 1 q
dE = . = 4p Î . 2 d q
4p Î0 r 2 0 pr
The component dE cos q will be counter
balanced by another element on left portion.
x dx Hence resultant field at O is the resultant of the
component dE sinq only.
p
q
\ E = ò dE sin q = ò 4 p2 r 2 Î sin qd q
0 0
Let us consider a spherical shell of q
thickness dx and radius x. The volume of
=
2 2
[ - cos q]p0
4p r Î0
this spherical shell = 4px 2 dx . The charge q q
enclosed within shell = (+1 + 1) = 2 2
2 2
4p r Î0 2p r Î0
é Q.x ù 2 4Q 3 The direction of E is towards negative y-axis.
= ê 4 ú[4px dx] = 4 x dx r q
ë pR û R \ E=- 2 2 ˆj
The charge enclosed in a sphere of radius 2p r Î0
r1 is 17. (a) Let us consider a spherical shell of radius x
r1 r1 and thickness dx.
4Q 4Q é x 4 ù Q 4 Charge on this shell
ò
3
= x dx = ê ú = 4 r1
R4 4 4
R êë úû R æ5 x ö 2
0 0 dq = r.4px 2 dx = r0 ç 4 - R ÷ .4px dx
\ The electric field at point P inside the è ø
sphere at a distance r1 from the centre of \ Total charge in the spherical region from
centre to r (r < R ) is
the sphere is
r
æ5 xö
é Q 4ù q = ò dq = 4 pr0 ò ç - ÷ x 2 dx
r
1 êë R 4 1 úû 0
è4 Rø
E=
4p Î0 r12
1 Q 2 dx
= r1
4p Î0 R 4 x
16. (c) Let us consider a differential element dl.
charge on this element.
j
+
+
+ dl é 5 r3 1 r 4 ù
+
- . ú = pr0r 3 æç - ö÷
5 r
+ dq
+
= 4 pr0ê .
ëê 4 3 R 4 ûú è3 Rø
+ dE q
+
cos q
i \ Electric field at r,
O 1 q
dE E= .
4p Î0 r 2
dE sin q
1 pr0 r 3 æ 5 r ö r r æ5 r ö
æ q ö
dq = ç ÷ dl = . 2 ç - ÷= 0 ç - ÷
4pÎ0 r è 3 R ø 4 Î0 è 3 R ø
è pr ø
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-94 Physics
18. (d) At any instant r
E on the surface of the charged
T cosq = mg ....(i) sphere
r 1 q r 1
T sin q = Fe ....(ii) Es = i.e., Es µ nˆ …(ii)
4p Î0 R 2
R2
sin q Fe r
Þ cos q = mg E on any point away from the uniformly
charged sphere is given
Þ Fe = mg tan q r 1 q
E= nˆ
kq 2 4p Î0 r 2
Þ = mg tan q
x2 r 1
Þ q2 µ x2 tan q E µ 2 nˆ … (iii)
r
x Q R is the radius of the sphere, which is
sin q = r
2l constant, thus E is maximum and
For small q, sin q » tan q constant at the surface of the sphere. But
\ q2 µ x3 decreases on moving away from the
surface of the uniformally charged sphere.
y
l q l
Tcosq
T
q Tsinq F F
Fe 21. (a) x
x q a a q
mg
Þ F sin q F sin q Þ Fnet
dq 2 dx
Þq µ x
dt dt 2Fcos q
dq = 2F cosq
\ = const.
dt æ qö
\q µ x2.v 2kq ç ÷
è 2ø y
Fnet = .
( )
3 2
Þ x ax 2 .v y2 + a2 y + a2
2
2
Þv µ x–1/2 [Q q2 µ x3]
19. (c) Electric field æ qö
2kq ç ÷ y
df è 2ø kq2 y
E=- = – 2ar ....(i) Fnet = Þ
dr ( y 2 + a 2 )3/ 2 a3
By Gauss's theorem So, F µ y
1 q 22. (c) Field lines originate perpendicular from
E= ....(ii)
4pe 0 r 2 positive charge and terminate
From (i) and (ii), perpendicular at negative charge. Further
Q = –8 pe0ar3 this system can be treated as an electric
dipole.
Þdq = – 24pe0ar2 dr 23. (c) Applying Gauss's law
dq
Charge density, r = = – 6e0a uur uur
4pr 2dr Q
20.
r
(c) E inside the charged sphere Ñò S E. ds = Î0
Q + 2par 2 - 2pAa 2
R
P \ E × 4pr2 =
Î0
O P Q dr
r=
dv
r
Ein = 0 …(i)
www.crackjee.xyz
Electric Charges and Fields P-95
24. (a) T = PE sinq Torque experienced by the
ur ur ur
r dr dipole in an electric field, T = P ´ E
ur
Q a Gaussiam p = p cosq iˆ + psinq ĵ
surface ur r
b E1 = Ei
Q = r4pr2 ur ur ur
T 1 = p ´ E1 = (p cos q iˆ + p sin q ĵ ) × E ( iˆ )
.
A
ò r 4pr
2 t k̂ = pE sinq (– k̂ ) ...(i)
Q= dr =2pA [r2 – a2]
ur
a E 2 = 3 E1 j ˆ
é Q - 2pAa 2 ù ur
1 T 2 = p cos qiˆ + p sin qˆj ) ´ 3 E1 ˆj
E= ê + 2pA ú
4p Î0 ëê r 2
ûú tkˆ = 3 pE cos qkˆ
1 ...(ii)
For E to be independent of 'r' From eqns. (i) and (ii)
Q – 2pAa2 = 0
pE sinq = 3 pE cosq
Q
\ A= tanq = 3 \ q = 60°
2pa 2
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-96 Physics
Electrostatic Potential
and Capacitance 16
1. On moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J 6. The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10–18
of work is done, then the potential difference coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100
between the points is [2002] micro-farad is [2003]
(a) 0.1 V (b) 8 V (a) 16 ´ 10 -32 joule
(c) 2 V (d) 0.5 V. (b) 3.1´10 -26 joule
2. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to (c) 4 ´10-10 joule
V volt source, then the energy stored is equal to (d) 32 ´ 10-32 joule
[2002] 7. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are
1 placed at a distance d apart with their axes
(a) CV (b) nCV2
2 coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q
1 and -q. The potential difference between the
(c) CV2 (d) CV2 centres of the two rings is [2005]
2n
3. Capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor with é1 ù
q 1
radius 1 m is [2002] (a) ê - ú
-10 -6 2p Î0 ëê R R 2 + d 2 úû
(a) 1.1´ 10 (b) 10
(c) 9 ´ 10 -9 (d) 10 -3 qR
(b)
4. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness 4p Î0 d 2
is introduced between the plates of a capacitor.
q é1 1 ù
The capacitance of the capacitor [2003] (c) ê - ú
(a) decreases 4p Î0 ëê R R 2 + d 2 úû
(b) remains unchanged (d) zero
(c) becomes infinite 8. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n
(d) increases equally spaced plates connected alternatively.
5. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R If the capacitance between any two adjacent
has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at plates is ‘C’ then the resultant capacitance is
the centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential [2005]
R (a) (n + 1) C (b) (n – 1) C
at a point P , a distance from the centre of the (c) nC (d) C
2
shell is [2003] 9. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance ‘C’.
2Q 2Q 2q It is discharged through a small coil of resistance
(a) 4pe R (b) 4pe R - 4pe R wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of
o o o
specific heat capacity ‘s’ and mass ‘m’. If the
2Q q (q + Q)2 temperature of the block is raised by ‘DT’, the
(c) +
4pe o R 4pe o R (d) 4pe o R potential difference ‘V’ across the capacitance
is [2005]
www.crackjee.xyz
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-97
ur
mC DT 2mC DT (c) both E and V change
(a) (b) ur
s s (d) E and V remain unchanged
2ms DT ms DT 13. The potential at a point x (measured in m m) due
(c) (d)
C C to some charges situated on the x-axis is given
10. Two insulating plates are both uniformly charged by V(x) = 20/(x2 – 4) volt. The electric field E
in such a way that the potential difference at x = 4 m m is given by [2007]
between them is V2 – V1 = 20 V. (i.e., plate 2 is at (a) (10/9) volt/ m m and in the +ve x direction
a higher potential). The plates are separated by (b) (5/3) volt/ m m and in the –ve x direction
d = 0.1 m and can be treated as infinitely large. (c) (5/3) volt/ m m and in the +ve x direction
An electron is released from rest on the inner (d) (10/9) volt/ m m and in the –ve x direction
surface of plate 1. What is its speed when it hits 14. A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of
plate 2? (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, me = 9.11 × 10–31 kg) dielectric constant K between the plates has a
[2006] capacity C and is charged to a potential V volt.
The dielectric slab is slowly removed from
Y between the plates and then reinserted. The net
work done by the system in this process is [2007]
0.1 m 1
(a) zero (b) ( K - 1) CV 2
X 2
2
(c) CV ( K - 1) (d) ( K - 1) CV 2
K
15. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the
1 2 plates has capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
(a) 2.65 × 106 m/s (b) 7.02 × 1012 m/s between its plates is ‘d’. The space between the
(c) 1.87 × 106 m/s (d) 32 × 10–19 m/s plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of
11. An electric charge 10–3 m C is placed at the origin the dielectrics has dielectric constant k1 = 3 and
(0, 0) of X – Y co-ordinate system. Two points A d
thickness while the other one has dielectric
and B are situated at ( 2, 2) and (2, 0) 3
respectively. The potential difference between 2d
constant k2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance
the points A and B will be [2007] 3
(a) 4.5 volts (b) 9 volts of the capacitor is now [2008]
(c) Zero (d) 2 volt (a) 1.8 pF (b) 45 pF
12. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square (c) 40.5 pF (d) 20.25 pF
ur
as shown. Let E be the electric field and V the 16. Two points P and Q are maintained at the
potential at the centre. If the charges on A and B potentials of 10 V and – 4 V, respectively. The
are interchanged with those on D and C work done in moving 100 electrons from P to Q
respectively, then [2007] is: [2009]
q q (a) 9.60 × 10 J –17 (b) –2.24 × 10 J –16
V2 =
1 q 2eV 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 20
4pe o R Þv= =
m 9.1 ´ 10 -31
\ The net electric potential at point P is
1 2Q 1 q = 2.65 ´10 6 m / s
V = V1 + V2 = + Y
4pe o R 4pe o R
6. (d) The work done is stored as the potential
energy. The potential energy stored in a 11. (c) A(Ö2,Ö2)
capacitor is given by ®
r1
( )
-18 2
1 Q 2 1 8 ´ 10
U= = ´ O
2 C 2 100 ´ 10 -6 X
(0,0) ®
r2 B (2,0)
–32
= 32 ´ 10
( )
J
7. (a) q q The distance of point A 2, 2 from the
origin,
ur 2 2
OA = | r1 | = ( 2) + ( 2) = 4 = 2units.
The distance of point B(2, 0) from the
R R origin,
1 2 uur 2 2
OB = | r2 | = (2) + (0) = 2 units.
d
At (1) using, potential 1 Q
Now, potential at A, VA = .
(V1 ) = Vself + Vdue to (2) 4p Î0 (OA)
éq ù 1 Q
1 q Potential at B, VB = .
Þ V1 = ê - ú 4p Î0 (OB)
4pe 0êë R R + d2
2 úû \ Potential difference between the points
At (2) using potential A and B is given by
(V2 ) = Vself + Vdue to (1) 1 Q 1 Q
VA – VB = . - .
é- q ù 4p Î0 OA 4p Î0 OB
1 q
Þ V2 = ê + ú Q æ 1 1 ö Q æ 1 1ö
4pe 0 êë R úû = çè - ÷ø = ç - ÷
R + d2
2
4p Î0 OA OB 4p Î0 è 2 2 ø
DV = V1 - V2 Q
= ´ 0 = 0.
4p Î0
www.crackjee.xyz
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-101
12. (a) As shown in the figure, the resultant K is the dielectric constant.
electric fields before and after Again, when the dielectric slab is removed
interchanging the charges will have the slowly its energy increases to initial
same magnitude, but opposite directions. potential energy. Thus, work done is zero.
Also, the potential will be same in both
cases as it is a scalar quantity.
q q 15. (c)
A B
® k1Î0 A 3k1 Î0 A
E C1 = =
d /3 d
D C
3 ´ 3Î0 A 9 Î0 A
-q -q = =
d d
-q -q and
A B k Î A 3k2 Î0 A
® C1 = 2 0 =
E 2d / 3 2d
3 ´6 Î0 A 9 Î0 A
= =
2d d
The equivalent capacitance Ceq is
1 1 1
D C = +
Ceq C1 C2
q q
d d 2d
20 = + =
13. (a) Here, V(x) = 2 volt 9 Î0 A 9 Î0 A 9 Î0 A
x -4 9 Î0 A 9
d æ 20 ö \ Ceq = = ´ 9 pF = 40.5 pF
dV 2 d 2
We know that E = - =- ç
dx dx è x 2 - 4 ÷ø
WPQ
40 x 16. (c) = (VQ - VP )
or, E = + q
( x 2 - 4) 2
At x = 4 mm , Þ WPQ = q (VQ - VP )
40 ´ 4 160 10
E= + =+ = + volt / mm. = (– 100 × 1.6 × 10–19) (– 4 – 10)
(42 - 4) 2 144 9
r = +2.24 × 10–16J
Positive sign indicates that E is in +ve x- 17. (d) Potential at point A,
direction. 2 kq 2 kq
14. (a) The potential energy of a charged VA = -
a a 5
Q2 kq
capacitor is given by U = . \ (potential due to each q = and
2C a
If a dielectric slab is inserted between the - kq
potential due to each – q = )
Q2 a 5
plates, the energy is given by , where
2KC
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-102 Physics
2a R 2 rq
q q DU =
A
6 Î0
19. (c) Potential difference between any two
points in an electric field is given by,
2a ur uur
B dV = – E.dx
VA 2
–q –q ò dV = - ò 30 x 2 dx
VO 0
Potential at point. B,
VB = 0 VA - VO = -[10 x3 ]20 = -80 J / C
( Q Point B is equidistant from all the four 20. (a) Electric field in presence of dielectric
charges) between the two plates of a parallel plate
\ Using work energy theorem, capaciator is given by,
(WAB ) electric = Q (VA - VB )
E=
s
K e0
2kqQ é 1 ù
= ê1- ú Then, charge density
a ë 5û
s = K e0 E
æ 1 ö 2Qq é 1 ù = 2.2 × 8.85 × 10–12 × 3 × 104
=ç ÷ ê1- ú
è 4pe 0 ø a ë 5û » 6 × 10–7 C/m2
18. (c) The potential energy at the centre of the s.s
= (Let surface area of plates = s)
sphere v
3 KQq s.s
Uc = =
2 R s æ ld ö
ln ç1 + ÷
The potential energy at the surface of the l è K0 ø
sphere d 1
= sl. (Q in vacuum e0 =1)
KqQ d æ ld ö
Us = ln ç1 + ÷
R è K0 ø
Now change in the energy ld æ sö
DU = Uc - U s
c= . C0 çè here, C0 = ÷ø
æ ld ö d
ln ç 1 +
è K 0 ÷ø
KQq é 3 ù Q1 1mF
= -1
R êë 2 úû 21. (d)
Q
KQq
= C
2R
4 3 Q2 2mF
Where Q = r.V = r. pR
3
3
2K pR rq
DU = 2 2
3 R From figure, Q2 = Q = Q
3 2 +1 3
2 1 pR rq
DU = ´
3 4p Î0 R æC ´ 3ö
Q = E çè ÷
C + 3ø
www.crackjee.xyz
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-103
3µF
2 æ 3CE ö 2CE 23. (a) 4µF C1 = 4µF 12µF = CP
\ Q2 = ç ÷ =
3 èC +3ø C +3
9µF
Þ
Therefore graph d correctly dipicts. 2µF
8v 8v
Charge é æ 12 ö ù
Charge on C1 is q1 = ê ç
è ÷ø ´ 8ú ´ 4 =
ë 4 + 12 û
24mc
4
The voltage across CP is VP = ×8 = 2v
4 + 12
C
1mF 3mF \ Voltage across 9mF is also 2V
Kq \ Charge on 9mF capacitor = 9 × 2 = 18mC
22. (a) We know, V0 = = Vsurface \ Total charge on 4 mF and 9mF = 42mc
R
Kq
(3R 2 – r 2 ) [For r < R] KQ 42 ´ 10-6
Now, Vi = \E = = 9 × 109 ×
2R 3 r2 30 ´ 30
At the centre of sphare r = 0. Here
= 420 NC–1
3
V = V0 24. (b) To get a capacitance of 2mF arrangement
2
Kq of capacitors of capacitance 1mF as shown
5 Kq
Now, = (3R 2 – r 2 ) in figure 8 capacitors of 1mF in parallel with
4 R 2R 3 four such branches in series i.e., 32 such
R capacitors are required.
R2 =
2
3 Kq Kq
= 3
4 R R
1 Kq Kq
=
4 R R4 m m m m
R4 = 4R
Also, R1 = 0 and R2 < (R4 – R3)
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + \ Ceq = 2 mF
Ceq 8 8 8 8
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-104 Physics
Current Electricity
17
1. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, 6. The thermo e.m.f. of a thermo-couple is 25mV/°C
then we must connect with the ammeter a [2002] at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm
(a) low resistance in parallel resistance, capable of detecting current as low
(b) high resistance in parallel as 10–5 A, is connected with the thermo couple.
(c) high resistance in series The smallest temperature difference that can be
(d) low resistance in series.
detected by this system is [2003]
2. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply
(a) 16°C (b) 12°C
has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut
into two equal pieces which are connected in (c) 8°C 8 o C (d) 20°C
parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in 7. The negative Zn pole of a Daniell cell, sending a
this case is P2. Then P2 : P1 is [2002] constant current through a circuit, decreases in
(a) 1 (b) 4 mass by 0.13g in 30 minutes. If the
(c) 2 (d) 3 electeochemical equivalent of Zn and Cu are
3. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the increase in the
R is [2002] mass of the positive Cu pole in this time is
R [2003]
(a) 0.180 g (b) 0.141g
(c) 0.126 g (d) 0.242 g
2W
8. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal
15 V resistance is 0.81ohm. To increase the range to
(a) 2W (b) 6W 10 A the value of the required shunt is [2003]
(c) 5W (d) 4W (a) 0.03 W (b) 0.3W
4. The mass of product liberated on anode in an (c) 0.9W (d) 0.09W
electrochemical cell depends on [2002] 9. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal
(a) (It)1/2 (b) It resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in
(c) I/t (d) I2t the figure. The current I, in the circuit will be
(where t is the time period for which the current [2003]
is passed).
5. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100
cm, and the e. m.f. of its standard cell is E volt. It
is employed to measure the e.m.f. of a battery
whose internal resistance is 0.5W. If the balance 3W
point is obtained at l = 30 cm from the positive 3W
3V
end, the e.m.f. of the battery is [2003]
30 E 30 E
(a) (b) 100 - 0.5
100.5 ( )
3W
30 ( E - 0.5i ) 30 E
(c) (d) (a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
100 100
(c) 2 A (d) 1/3 A
where i is the current in the potentiometer wire.
www.crackjee.xyz
Current Electricity P-105
10. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across (c) metals with low temperature coefficient of
a 110 volt mains supply. The power consumed resistivity
will be [2003] (d) semiconducting materials having low
(a) 750 watt (b) 500 watt temperature coefficient of resistivity
(c) 250 watt (d) 1000 watt 17. Time taken by a 836 W heater to heat one litre of
11. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased water from 10°C to 40°C is [2004]
by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in (a) 150 s (b) 100 s
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire (c) 50 s (d) 200 s
will be [2003] 18. The thermo emf of a thermocouple varies with
(a) 200% (b) 100%
(c) 50% (d) 300% the temperature q of the hot junction as
12. The total current supplied to the circuit by the E = aq + bq2 in volts where the ratio a/b is 700°C.
battery is [2004] If the cold junction is kept at 0°C, then the neutral
temperature is [2004]
2W (a) 1400°C
6V
6W 3W (b) 350°C
(c) 700°C
1.5W (d) No neutral temperature is possible for this
termocouple.
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A 19. The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is
(c) 1 A (d) 6 A 3.35109–7 kg per Coulomb. The mass of the metal
13. The resistance of the series combination of two liberated at the cathode when a 3A current is
resistances is S. when they are joined in parallel
passed for 2 seconds will be [2004]
the total resistance is P. If S = nP then the
(a) 6.6×1057kg (b) 9.9×10–7 kg
minimum possible value of n is [2004]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 19.8×10–7 kg (d) 1.1×10–7 kg
(c) 4 (d) 1 20. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a
14. An electric current is passed through a circuit distance ‘d’ carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same
containing two wires of the same material, direction. They will [2005]
connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii (a) repel each other with a force of
4 2 m 0i 2 /(2pd )
arein the ratio of and , then the ratio of the (b) attract each other with a force of
3 3
current passing through the wires will be [2004] m 0i 2 /(2pd )
(a) 8/9 (b) 1/3 (c) repel each other with a force of
(c) 3 (d) 2 m 0 i 2 /(2pd 2 )
15. In a meter bridge experiment null point is obtained (d) attract each other with a force of
at 20 cm. from one end of the wire when resistance m 0 i 2 /(2pd 2 )
X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < 21. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only
Y, then where will be the new position of the null one part is now used in the heater. The heat
point from the same end, if one decides to balance generated will now be [2005]
a resistance of 4 X against Y [2004] (a) four times (b) doubled
(a) 40 cm (b) 80 cm (c) halved (d) one fourth
(c) 50 cm (d) 70 cm
22. In the circuit , the galvanometer G shows zero
16. The thermistors are usually made of [2004]
deflection. If the batteries A and B have
(a) metal oxides with high temperature
negligible internal resistance, the value of the
coefficient of resistivity
(b) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistor R will be - [2005]
resistivity
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
P-106 Physics
500 W (a) 0.5W (b) 1W
G
(c) 2W (d) 4W
2V 27. The resistance of hot tungsten filament is about
12V B R A 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the
resistance of 100 W and 200 V lamp when not in
use ? [2005]
(a) 100 W (b) 200W
(a) 20 W (b) 40 W
(c) 1000 W (d) 500 W
23. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal (c) 200 W (d) 400 W
divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10-divisions per 28. An energy source will supply a constant current
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions into the load if its internal resistance is [2005]
per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 (a) very large as compared to the load
volt, the resistance in ohms needed to be resistance
connected in series with the coil will be - [2005] (b) equal to the resistance of the load
(a) 105 (b) 103 (c) non-zero but less than the resistance of
(c) 9995 (d) 99995
the load
24. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
(d) zero
external resistance R. The internal resistance of
29. The Kirchhoff's first law (Si = 0) and second law
the two sources are R1and R2 (R1 > R1). If the
potential difference across the source having (SiR = SE), where the symbols have their usual
internal resistance R 2 is zero, then [2005] meanings, are respectively based on [2006]
(a) R = R2 - R1 (a) conservation of charge, conservation of
(b) R = R2 ´ ( R1 + R2 ) /( R2 - R1 ) momentum
(c) R = R1R2 /( R2 - R1 ) (b) conservation of energy, conservation of
(d) R = R1R2 /( R1 - R2 ) charge
(c) conservation of momentum, conservation
25. Two voltameters, one of copper and another of
of charge
silver, are joined in parallel. When a total charge
q flows through the voltameters, equal amount (d) conservation of charge, conservatrion of
of metals are deposited. If the electrochemical energy
equivalents of copper and silver are Z1 and Z 2 30. A material 'B' has twice the specific resistance of
respectively the charge which flows through the 'A'. A circular wire made of 'B' has twice the
silver voltameter is [2005] diameter of a wire made of 'A'. then for the two
q q wires to have the same resistance, the ratio lB/lA
(a) (b) of their respective lengths must be [2006]
Z Z
1+ 2 1+ 1 1
Z1 Z2 (a) 1 (b)
2
1
Z2 Z1 (c) (d) 2
(c) q (d) q 4
Z1 Z2 31. A thermocouple is made from two metals,
26. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with Antimony and Bismuth. If one junction of the
a cell is at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell couple is kept hot and the other is kept cold,
with a resistance of 2W, the balancing length then, an electric current will [2006]
becomes 120 cm. The internal resistance of the (a) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the hot
junction
cell is [2005] (b) flow from Bismuth to Antimony at the cold
junction
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Current Electricity P-107
(c) now flow through the thermocouple stored in the capacitor and the work done by
(d) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the cold the battery will be [2007]
junction (a) 1/2 (b) 1
32. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be (c) 2 (d) 1/4
[2006] 37. The resistance of a wire is 5 ohm at 50°C and 6
10W ohm at 100°C. The resistance of the wire at 0°C
will be [2007]
5W 10W 20W
(a) 3 ohm (b) 2 ohm
(c) 1 ohm (d) 4 ohm
I 38. Shown in the figure below is a meter-bridge set
10W
up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
+–
55W R
5 volt
(a) 0.33 A (b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.67 A (d) 0.17 A G
33. The resistance of a bulb filmanet is 100W at a
temperature of 100°C. If its temperature 20 cm
coefficient of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its
resistance will become 200 W at a temperature of
[2006]
(a) 300°C (b) 400°C The value of the unknown resistor R is [2008]
(c) 500°C (d) 200°C (a) 13.75 W (b) 220 W
34. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q
(c) 110 W (d) 55 W
and R connected in the three arms and the fourth
DIRECTIONS : Question No. 39 and 40 are based on
arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2
the following paragraph.
connected in parallel. The condition for the
bridge to be balanced will be [2006] Consider a block of conducting material of
resistivity ‘r’ shown in the figure. Current ‘I’
P 2R P R ( S1 + S2 ) enters at ‘A’ and leaves from ‘D’. We apply
(a) = (b) =
Q S1 + S2 Q S1 S2 superposition principle to find voltage ‘DV’
developed between ‘B’ and ‘C’. The calculation
P R ( S1 + S2 ) P R is done in the following steps:
(c) = =
Q 2S1S2 (d) Q S1 + S2 (i) Take current ‘I’ entering from ‘A’ and
35. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt - 100 watt. The assume it to spread over a hemispherical
power consumed by it when operated on 110 surface in the block.
volt will be [2006] (ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance ‘r’ from A by
(a) 75 watt (b) 40 watt using Ohm’s law E = r j, where j is the
(c) 25 watt (d) 50 watt current per unit area at ‘r’.
36. A battery is used to charge a parallel plate (iii) From the ‘r’ dependence of E(r), obtain the
capacitor till the potential difference between potential V(r) at r.
the plates becomes equal to the electromotive (iv) Repeat (i), (ii) and (iii) for current ‘I’ leaving
force of the battery. The ratio of the energy ‘D’ and superpose results for ‘A’ and ‘D’.
EBD_7764
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P-108 Physics
one-fourth its initial value. Then the ratio t1/ t2
I DV I
will be [2010]
1
(a) 1 (b)
2
a b a 1
A B C D (c) (d) 2
4
43. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C
but their temperature coefficients of resistance
are a1 and a2. The respective temperature
coefficients of their series and parallel
39. DV measured between B and C is [2008] combinations are nearly [2010]
rI rI rI rI
(a) – (b) – a1 + a 2
pa p(a + b) a (a + b) (a) , a1 + a 2
2
rI rI rI
(c) – (d)
2pa 2p(a + b) 2p(a - b) a1 + a 2
(b) a1 + a 2 ,
40. For current entering at A, the electric field at a 2
distance ‘r’ from A is [2008]
a1a 2
rI rI (c) a1 + a 2 ,
(a) (b) a1 + a 2
8pr 2 r2
rI rI a1 + a 2 a1 + a 2
(d) ,
(c) 2 (d) 2 2 2
2pr 4pr
41. A 5V battery with internal resistance 2W and a 44. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its
2V battery with internal resistance 1W are resistance will : [2011]
connected to a 10W resistor as shown in the (a) increase by 0.2%
figure. [2008] (b) decrease by 0.2%
(c) decrease by 0.05%
P2
(d) increase by 0.05%
45. If 400 W of resistance is made by adding four
100 W resistances of tolerance 5%, then the
tolerance of the combination is [2011 RS]
5V (a) 5% (b) 10%
2V
2W 10W 1W (c) 15% (b) 20%
46. The current in the primary circuit of a
potentiometer is 0.2 A. The specific resistance
and cross-section of the potentiometer wire are
4 × 10–7 ohm metre and 8 × 10–7 m2, respectively.
The potential gradient will be equal to[2011 RS]
The current in the 10W resistor is
(a) 0.27 A P2 to P1 (b) 0.03 A P1 to P2 (a) 1 V /m (b) 0.5 V/m
(c) 0.03 A P2 to P1 (d) 0.27 A P1 to P2 (c) 0.1 V/m (d) 0.2 V/m
42. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor 47. Two electric bulbs rated 25W – 220 V and 100W
discharging through a resistor R. Suppose t1 is – 220V are connected in series to a 440 V supply.
the time taken for the energy stored in the Which of the bulbs will fuse? [2012]
capacitor to reduce to half its initial value and t2 (a) Both (b) 100 W
is the time taken for the charge to reduce to (c) 25 W (d) Neither
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Current Electricity P-109
48. The supply voltage to room is 120V. The 6V
resistance of the lead wires is 6W. A 60 W bulb is P 2W
already switched on. What is the decrease of
voltage across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is 1W 9V
switched on in parallel to the bulb? [2013]
(a) zero (b) 2.9 Volt 3W W 3W
(c) 13.3 Volt (d) 10.04 Volt (a) 0.13 A, from Q to P
49. This questions has Statement I and Statement (b) 0.13 A, from P to Q
II. Of the four choices given after the Statements, (c) 1.3A from P to Q
choose the one that best describes into two (d) 0A
Statements. 53. The temperature dependence of resistances of
Statement-I : Higher the range, greater is the Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range
resistance of ammeter. 300-400 K, is best described by : [2016]
Statement-II : To increase the range of ammeter, (a) Linear increase for Cu, exponential
additional shunt needs to be used across it. decrease of Si.
[2013] (b) Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for
(a) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, Si.
Statement-II is the correct explanation of (c) Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for
Statement-I. Si.
(b) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, (d) Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Si.
of Statement-I. 54. Which of the following statements is false ?
(c) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false. [2017]
(a) A rheostat can be used as a potential
(d) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
divider
50. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 (b) Kirchhoff's second law represents energy
bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1 conservation
kW. The voltage of electric mains is 220 V. The (c) Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive
minimum capacity of the main fuse of the when all the four resistances are of the
building will be: [2014] same order of magnitude
(a) 8 A (b) 10 A (d) In a balanced wheatstone bridge if the cell
and the galvanometer are exchanged, the
(c) 12 A (d) 14 A
null point is disturbed.
51. When 5V potential difference is applied across
a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons 55. [2017]
is 2.5 × 10–4 ms–1. If the electron density in the
wire is 8 × 1028 m–3, the resistivity of the material
is close to : [2015]
(a) 1.6 × 10–6 Wm (b) 1.6 × 10–5 Wm
In the above circuit the current in each resistance
(c) 1.6 × 10–8 Wm (d) 1.6 × 10–7 Wm is
52. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1W (a) 0.5A (b) 0 A
resistor is : [2015] (c) 1 A (d) 0.25 A
EBD_7764
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P-110 Physics
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (b) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (b) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b) (d) (d) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (a) (a)
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
(c) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b)
Moving Charges
and Magnetism 18
1. If a current is passed through a spring then the 5. The time period of a charged particle undergoing
spring will [2002] a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is
(a) expand (b) compress independent of its [2002]
(c) remains same (d) none of these (a) speed (b) mass
2. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current I is (c) charge (d) magnetic induction
flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a 6. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with
current 2I is flowing, then the ratio of the r
velocity v describe a circular path of radius R
magnetic fields BA and BB, produced by them
when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic
will be [2002]
field of induction B. The work done by the field
(a) 1 (b) 2
when the particle completes one full circle is
(c) 1/2 (d) 4
[2003]
3. If an electron and a proton having same momenta
enter perpendicular to a magnetic field, then æ Mv 2 ö
[2002] (a) ç ÷ 2pR (b) zero
(a) curved path of electron and proton will be è R ø
same (ignoring the sense of revolution) (c) B Q 2p R (d) B Qv2p R
7. -18
A particle of charge - 16 ´ 10 coulomb moving
(b) they will move undeflected
(c) curved path of electron is more curved than with velocity 10 ms -1 along the x-axis enters a
that of the proton region where a magnetic field of induction B is
(d) path of proton is more curved. along the y-axis, and an electric field of
4. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i 1 and i 2 magnitude 10 4 V / m is along the negative
respectively are inclined at an angle θ to each z-axis. If the charged particle continues moving
other. What is the force on a small element dl of along the x-axis, the magnitude of B is [2003]
wire 2 at a distance of r from wire 1 (as shown in (a) 103 Wb/m 2 (b) 105 Wb/m 2
figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1? (c) 1016 Wb/m 2 (d) 10-3 Wb/m 2
8. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long
[2002]
straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic
1 2
induction at any point inside the tube is[2004]
i1
m 0 2i
r i2 (a) . tesla (b) zero
4p r
q dl 2i
(c) infinite (d) tesla
r
m0 m0 9. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent
(a) i1i2 dl tan q (b) i1i2 dl sin q into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at
2pr 2pr
the centre of the coil is B. It is then bent into a
m0 m0 circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at
(c) i1i2 dl cos q (d) i1i2 dl sin q
2pr 4 pr the centre of the coil will be [2004]
EBD_7764
w w w . c r a c k j e e . x y z
P-118 Physics
(a) 2n B (b) n2 B 15. In a region, steady and uniform electric and
(c) nB (d) 2 n2 B magnetic fields are present. These two fields are
10. The magnetic field due to a current carrying parallel to each other. A charged particle is
circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis released from rest in this region. The path of the
at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 mT. particle will be a [2006]
What will be its value at the centre of loop?
(a) helix (b) straight line
[2004]
(c) ellipse (d) circle
(a) 125 mT (b) 150 mT
(c) 250 mT (d) 75 mT 16. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries
11. Two long conductors, separated by a distance a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is
d carry current I1 and I2 in the same direction. 6.28 × 10–2 Weber/m2. Another long solenoid
They exert a force F on each other. Now the i
has 100 turns per cm and it carries a current .
current in one of them is increased to two times 3
and its direction is reversed. The distance is also The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
increased to 3d. The new value of the force [2006]
between them is [2004] (a) 1.05 × 10–2 Weber/m2
2F F
(a) - (b) (b) 1.05 × 10–5 Weber/m2
3 3
F (c) 1.05 × 10–3 Weber/m2
(c) –2 F (d) -
3 (d) 1.05 × 10–4 Weber/m2
12. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 17. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
2 p cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3 current i. The current is uniformly distributed
ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in across its cross section. The ratio of the
each coil respectively. The magnetic induction magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is [2007]
in Weber/m2 at the centre of the coils will be
( m0 = 4p ´ 10-7 Wb / A.m ) [2005]
(a) 1/2
(c) 4
(b) 1/4
(d) 1
-5
(a) 10 (b) 12 ´ 10 -5 18. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely
-5
(c) 7 ´ 10 (d) 5 ´ 10 -5 long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then [2007]
13. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels (a) the magnetic field at all points inside the
on a circular path of radius r that is perpendicular pipe is the same, but not zero
to a magnetic field B. The time taken by the
(b) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis
particle to complete one revolution is [2005]
of the pipe
2pq 2 B 2 pmq
(a) (b) (c) the magnetic field is different at different
m B
points inside the pipe
2pm 2pqB
(c) (d) (d) the magnetic field at any point inside the
qB m
14. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic pipe is zero
field are acting along the same direction in a 19. A charged particle with charge q enters a region
certain region. If an electron is projected along of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
ur ur r
the direction of the fields with a certain velocity fields E urand B uwith
r a velocity v perpendicular
then [2005] to both E and B , and comes out without any
r
(a) its velocity will increase change in magnitude or direction of v . Then
(b) Its velocity will decrease [2007]
(c) it will turn towards left of direction of r ur ur r ur ur
motion (a) v = B ´ E / E 2 (b) v = E ´ B / B 2
(d) it will turn towards right of direction of motion r ur ur r ur ur
(c) v = B ´ E / B 2 (d) v = E ´ B / E 2
www.crackjee.xyz
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-119
20. A charged particle moves through a magnetic B
field perpendicular to its direction. Then[2007] a A
(a) kinetic energy changes but the momentum
is constant I1 30° I
(b) the momentum changes but the kinetic O
energy is constant
D
(c) both momentum and kinetic energy of the
b C
particle are not constant
(d) both momentum and kinetic energy of the 23. The magnitude of the magnetic field (B) due to
particle are constant the loop ABCD at the origin (O) is :
21. Two identical conducting wires AOB and COD m o I (b - a )
are placed at right angles to each other. The wire (a)
24 ab
AOB carries an electric current I1 and COD
mo I é b - a ù
carries a current I2. The magnetic field on a point (b)
lying at a distance d from O, in a direction 4p êë ab úû
perpendicular to the plane of the wires AOB and mo I
COD, will be given by [2007] (c) [2(b - a) + p / 3(a + b)]
4p
m0 (d) zero
(a) ( I12 + I 2 2 ) 24. Due to the presence of the current I1 at the
2 pd 1 origin:
m 0 æ I1 + I 2 ö 2
(b) ç ÷ (a) The forces on AD and BC are zero.
2p è d ø (b) The magnitude of the net force on the loop
1
(c)
m0
(
2pd 1
)
I 2 + I 22 2 I I
is given by 1 mo [2(b - a) + p / 3(a + b] .
4p
m0 (c) The magnitude of the net force on the loop
(d)
2pd
( I1 + I 2 )
m o II1
22. A horizontal overhead powerline is at height of is given by (b - a).
24ab
4m from the ground and carries a current of 100A (d) The forces on AB and DC are zero.
from east to west. The magnetic field directly 25. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart.
below it on the ground is (m0 = 4p×10 –7 Tm A–1) They carry steady equal currents flowing out of
[2008] the plane of the paper as shown. The variation
(a) 2.5 × 10–7 T southward of the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given
(b) 5 × 10–6 T northward by [2010]
(c) 5 × 10–6 T southward B
(d) 2.5 × 10–7 T northward
Directions : Question numbers 23 and 24 are based
on the following paragraph. (a) X X¢
A current loop ABCD is held fixed on the plane of the
paper as shown in the figure. The arcs BC (radius = b) d d
and DA (radius = a) of the loop are joined by two
B
straight wires AB and CD. A steady current I is flowing
in the loop. Angle made by AB and CD at the origin O
is 30°. Another straight thin wire with steady current (b) X X¢
I1 flowing out of the plane of the paper is kept at the
origin. [2009] d d
EBD_7764
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P-120 Physics
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36
(b) (a) (c) (b) (c) (c)
EBD_7764
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P-122 Physics
1. (b) When current is passed through a spring The force exerted due to this magnetic field
then current flows parallel in the adjacent on current element i2 dl is
turns. dF = i2 dl B sin 90°
NOTE When two wires are placed \ dF = i2 dl
parallel to each other and current flows in é m 0 i1 cos q ù m0
the same direction, the wires attract each ê 2 p r ú = 2 pr i1 i2 dl cos q
ë û
other.
5. (a) The time period of a charged particle (m, q)
Similarly, here the various turns attract each
other and the spring will compress. moving in a magnetic field (B) is T = 2pm
qB
The time period does not depend on the
2. (a) We know that the magnetic field produced speed of the particle.
by a current carrying circular coil of radius 6. (b) The workdone, dW = Fds cosq
m0 I The angle between force and
r at its centre is B = ´ 2p displacement is 90° . Therefore work
4p r done is zero.
m I × × ×
Here B A = 0 ´ 2p
4p R
m0 2I BA
and BB = ´ 2p Þ =1 × × ×
4p 2 R BB
3. (a) When a charged particle enters F
perpendicular to a magnetic field, then it
moves in a circular path of radius. × ×
S
p 7. (a) The situation is shown in the figure.
r=
qB FE= Force due to electric field
where q = Charge of the particle FB = Force due to magnetic field
p = Momentum of the particle It is given that the charged particle remains
B = Magnetic field moving along X-axis (i.e. undeviated).
Here p, q and B are constant for electron Therefore FB = FE
and proton, therefore the radius will be same. Þ qvB = qE
4. (c) Magnetic field due to current in wire 1 at
point P distant r from the wire is E 104
ÞB= = = 103 weber/m2
m i
B = 0 1 [ cos q + cos q] v
Y
10
4p r
Z'
q i2
i1 B
r P
dl E
FB
q X
v
E
m 0 i1 cos q
B= (directed perpendicular to
2p r Z
the plane of paper, inwards)
www.crackjee.xyz
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-123
8. (b) Using Ampere’s law at a distance r from 2
axis, B is same from symmetry. m0 i2 m0 ´ 4 ´ 10
r uur B2 = =
-2 4p
2(2p ´ 10 )
ò B.dl = m0i i.e., B ´ 2pr = m 0i
Here i is zero, for r < R, whereas R is the m
B= B12 + B22 = 0 . 5 × 102
radius 4p
\ B=0
9. (b) Magentic field at the centre of a circular Þ B = 10 - 7 ´ 5 ´ 10 2
coil of radius R carrying current i is Þ B = 5 × 10–5 Wb / m2
m i
13. (c) Equating magnetic force to centripetal
B= 0 force,
2R
mv 2
Given : n ´ (2pr ') = 2pR = qvB sin 90º
Þ nr ' = R ...(1) r
Time to complete one revolution,
n.m 0i 2pr 2pm
B' = ...(2) =
2r ' T=
v qB
nm 0 i.n 14. (b) Due to electric field, it experiences force
From (1) and (2), B ' = = n2 B
2pR and accelerates i.e. its velocity decreases.
10. (c) The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a 15. (b) The charged particle will move along the
circular loop at a distance x from centre is, lines of electric field (and magnetic field).
m 0i a 2 Magnetic field will exert no force. The force
B= by electric field will be along the lines of
2( x 2 + a 2 )3 / 2 uniform electric field. Hence the particle will
m i move in a straight line.
B' = 0 B2 m0 n2i2
2a =
16. (a) B1 m 0 n1i1
B.( x 2 + a2 )3/ 2 i
\ B' = 100 ´
a3 B2 3
Þ =
54(53 ) 6.28 ´ 10 -2 200 ´ i
Put x = 4 & a = 3 Þ B ' = = 250 µT
3´3´ 3 6.28 ´ 10 -2
11. (a) Force between two long conductor carrying Þ B2 = = 1.05 ´ 10 -2 Wb/m 2
current, 6
m 2I I 17. (d) Here, current is uniformly distributed
F = 0 1 2 ´l across the cross-section of the wire,
4p d therefore, current enclosed in the amperean
µ 2(2 I1 ) I 2
F'=- 0 l æ aö
4p 3d path formed at a distance r1 ç = ÷
è 2ø
F ' -2
\ =
F 3
12. (d) (1)
a/2
P1 P2
(2)
ma = 4mp , md = 2mp
qa = 2qp , q d = qp
dB
p From the problem
m0 I m0I
Bnet = ò dB sin q = ò sin qd q = 1
2p 2 R 0 p2 R Ep = Ed = Ea = mp vp 2
2
27. (a) Lorentz force acting on the particle
ur ur r ur 1 1
= md vd 2 = ma va2
F = q éë E + v × B ùû 2 2
On solving
= 9.216 × 10–11 = 9.2 × 10–11 weber 34. (b) Case (a) :
31. (b) Work done in moving the conductor is,
2 µ0 I µ I
W = ò Fdx bA = ´ 2p = 0 ´ 2p
0 4p R 4p l / 2p
2 (2pR = l)
= ò 3.0 ´ 10 -4 e -0.2 x ´ 10 ´ 3dx
0 µ0 I
= ´ (2p) 2
4p l
Case (b) :
l=3m
I = 10 A
z 45°
a BB
x a/2
2
= 9 ´ 10 -3 e-0.2 x dx
ò
0 µ0 I
-3 BB = 4 × [sin 45° + sin 45°]
9 ´ 10 4p a / 2
= [-e -0.2 ´ 2 + 1]
0.2 µ0 I 2 µ0 I 64 m0 I
= 4´ ´ ´ = ´ = 32 2
-4 -0.2 x (By exponential 4p l / 8 2 4p l 2 4pl
B = 3.0 ´ 10 e
function) [4a = l]
35. (c) Ig G = ( I – Ig)s
9 ´ 10-3 \ 10–3 × 100 = (10 – 10–3) × S
= ´ [1 - e -0.4 ]
0.2 \ S » 0.01W
= 9 × 10–3 × (0.33) = 2.97 × 10–3J 36. (c) Given : Current through the galvanometer,
Power required to move the conductor is, ig = 5 × 10–3 A
W Galvanometer resistance, G = 15W
P= Let resistance R to be put in series with the
t
galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter.
2.97 ´ 10-3 V = ig (R + G)
P= = 2.97 W
(0.2) ´ 5 ´ 10-3 10 = 5 × 10–3 (R + 15)
r r \ R = 2000 – 15 = 1985 = 1.985 × 103 W
32. (a) For stable equilibrium M || B
r r
For unstable equilibrium M || (–B)
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Moving Charges and Magnetism P-127
Magnetism and
Matter 19
1. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has (c) a ferromagnetic material becomes
a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken diamagnetic
into two equal halves (each having half of the (d) a paramagnetic material becomes
original length) and one piece is made to ferromagnetic
oscillate freely in the same field. If its period of 5. The length of a magnet is large compared to its
width and breadth. The time period of its
T' oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2s. The
oscillation is T ' , the ratio is [2003]
T magnet is cut along its length into three equal
1 parts and these parts are then placed on each
(a) (b) 1
other with their like poles together. The time
2 2 2 period of this combination will be [2004]
1
(c) 2 (d) 2
4 (a) 2 3 s (b) s
2. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic 3
field requiers W units of work to turn it through 2
(c) 2 s (d) s
3
600 . The torque needed to maintain the needle
6. The materials suitable for making electromagnets
in this position will be [2003] should have [2004]
3W (a) high retentivity and low coercivity
(a) (b) W
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity
(c) 3 (d) 2 W
W (d) low retentivity and high coercivity
2 7. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform
3. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
magnetic field. It experiences [2005]
[2003]
(a) neither a force nor a torque
(a) are from north-pole to south-pole of the
(b) a torque but not a force
magnet (c) a force but not a torque
(b) do not exist (d) a force and a torque
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of 8. Needles N 1 , N 2 and N 3 are made of a
the bar magnet ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
(d) are from south-pole to north-pole of the substance respectively. A magnet when brought
Magnet close to them will [2006]
4. Curie temperature is the temperature above (a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
which [2003] (b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes weakly
paramagnetic (c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes weakly
diamagnetic (d) attract all three of them
EBD_7764
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P-128 Physics
9. Relative permittivity and permeability of a The current required to be passed in a solenoid
material er and mr, respectively. Which of the of length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that
following values of these quantities are allowed the magnet gets demagnetized when inside the
for a diamagnetic material? [2008] solenoid, is: [2014]
(a) er = 0.5, mr = 1.5 (a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA
(b) er = 1.5, mr = 0.5 (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
(c) er = 0.5, mr = 0.5 12. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A
(d) er = 1.5, mr = 1.5 and B are given below : [2016]
10. Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have D B
magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and 1.00 Am2
respectively. They are placed on a horizontal
table parallel to each other with their N poles
H H
pointing towards the South. They have a
common magnetic equator and are separated by
a distance of 20.0 cm. The value of the resultant
horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point (A) (B)
O of the line joining their centres is close to
(Horizontal component of earth.s magnetic These materials are used to make magnets for
induction is 3.6× 10.5Wb/m2) [2013] elecric generators, transformer core and
electromagnet core. Then it is proper to use :
(a) 3.6 × 10.5 Wb/m2
(a) A for transformers and B for electric
(b) 2.56 × 10.4 Wb/m2 generators.
(c) 3.50 × 10.4 Wb/m2 (b) B for electromagnets and transformers.
(d) 5.80 × 10.4 Wb/m2 (c) A for electric generators and trasformers.
11. The coercivity of a small magnet where the (d) A for electromagnets and B for electric
ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 103 Am–1. generators
A ns we r K e y
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b)
1. (b) The time period of a rectangular magnet Magnet is cut into two identical pieces
oscillating in earth’s magnetic field is given such that each piece has half the original
I I'
by T = 2p length. Then T ' = 2p
mBH m ' BH
where I = Moment of inertia of the 2
rectangular magnet 1 æ M ö æ lö I m
m = Magnetic moment where I ' = çè ÷ø çè ÷ø = and m ' =
12 2 2 8 2
BH = Horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field
Case 1 T' I' m I /8 m 1 1
\ = ´ = ´ = =
I T m' I m/2 I 4 2
T = 2p 1
where I = M l2
mBH 12 2. (a) W = MB (cos q1 - cos q2 )
Case 2
= MB (cos 0° - cos 60°)
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Moving Charges and Magnetism P-129
Electromagnetic
Induction 20
1. A conducting square loop of side L and 5. One conducting U tube can slide inside another
resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform as shown in figure, maintaining electrical
velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field
magnetic induction B constant in time and space, B is perpendicular to the plane of the figure . If
pointing perpendicular and into the plane at the each tube moves towards the other at a constant
loop exists everywhere with half the loop outside speed v, then the emf induced in the circuit in
the field, as shown in figure. The induced emf is terms of B, l and v where l is the width of each
[2002] tube, will be [2005]
A B
v
L V v X
C
(a) – Blv (b) Blv
(a) zero (b) RvB (c) 2 Blv (d) zero
(c) vBL/R (d) vBL 6. The self inductance of the motor of an electric
2. Two coils are placed close to each other. The fan is 10 H. In order to impart maximum power at
mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends 50 Hz, it should be connected to a capacitance
upon [2003] of [2005]
(a) the rates at which currents are changing in (a) 8 mF (b) 4 mF
the two coils (c) 2 mF (d) 1 mF
7. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the
(b) relative position and orientation of the two
same area A and total resistance R, rotates with
coils
frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum
(c) the materials of the wires of the coils
value of emf generated in the coil is [2006]
(d) the currents in the two coils (a) N.A.B.R.w (b) N.A.B
3. When the current changes from +2 A to –2A in (c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.w
0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8 V is induced in a coil. 8. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is
The coefficient of self -induction of the coil is given by f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at
[2003] t = 3s is [2006]
(a) 0.2 H (b) 0.4 H (a) –190 V (b) –10 V
(c) 0.8 H (d) 0.1 H (c) 10 V (d) 190 V
4. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically 9. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin
about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area
per second. If the horizontal component of earth’s A = 10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of the
magnetic field is 0.2×10–4T, then the e.m.f. solenoid has 300 turns and the other 400 turns,
developed between the two ends of the conductor their mutual inductance is [2008]
is [2004] (m0 = 4p × 10 –7 Tm A–1)
(a) 5 mV (b) 50 mV (a) 2.4p × 10–5 H (b) 4.8p × 10–4 H
–5 (d) 2.4p × 10–4 H
(c) 5 mV (d) 50mV (c) 4.8p × 10 H
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Electromagnetic Induction P-131
10. A boat is moving due east in a region where the
earth's magnetic field is 5.0 × 10–5 NA–1 m–1 due
north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical B
aerial 2 m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 (a) (b) B
ms–1, the magnitude of the induced emf in the R
wire of aerial is: [2011] R
(a) 0.75 mV (b) 0.50 mV
(c) 0.15 mV (d) 1mV
11. A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending B B
from east to west falling with a speed of 5.0 m/s, (c) (d)
at right angles to the horizontal component of R R
the earth’s magnetic field 0.30 × 10–4 Wb/m2.
14. A metallic rod of length ‘l’ is tied to a string of
The instantaneous value of the e.m.f. induced in
length 2l and made to rotate with angular speed
the wire will be [2011 RS]
w on a horizontal table with one end of the string
(a) 3 mV (b) 4.5 mV fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field ‘B’ in
(c) 1.5 mV (d) 6.0 mV the region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of
12. A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, the rod is [2013]
with the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic
lines of force. When a current is passed through
the coil it starts oscillating; It is very difficult to
stop. But if an aluminium plate is placed near to
the coil, it stops. This is due to : [2012]
(a) developement of air current when the plate
is placed
(b) induction of electrical charge on the plate 2 Bwl2 3Bwl 2
(c) shielding of magnetic lines of force as (a) (b)
2 2
aluminium is a paramagnetic material.
(d) electromagnetic induction in the aluminium 4 Bwl2 5Bwl 2
(c) (d)
plate giving rise to electromagnetic 2 2
damping. 15. In a coil of resistance 100W, a current is induced
13. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the by changing the magnetic flux through it as
surface of non-conducting disc of radius R. The shown in the figure. The magnitude of change
disc rotates about an axis perpendicular to its in flux through the coil is [2017]
plane and passing through its centre with an
angular velocity w. As a result of this rotation a
magnetic field of induction B is obtained at the
centre of the disc. If we keep both the amount of
charge placed on the disc and its angular
velocity to be constant and vary the radius of
the disc then the variation of the magnetic
induction at the centre of the disc will be (a) 250 Wb (b) 275 Wb
represented by the figure : [2012] (c) 200 Wb (d) 225 Wb
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (a)
EBD_7764
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P-132 Physics
Alternating Current 21
1. The power factor of an AC circuit having 6. Alternating current can not be measured by D.C.
resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in ammeter because [2004]
series and an angular velocity w is [2002] (a) Average value of current for complete cycle
(a) R/ w L (b) R/(R2 + w 2L2)1/2 is zero
(c) w L/R (d) R/(R2 – w 2L2)1/2 (b) A.C. Changes direction
(c) A.C. can not pass through D.C. Ammeter
2. The inductance between A and D is [2002]
(d) D.C. Ammeter will get damaged.
7. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across
each of the components, L, C and R is 50V. The
A 3H 3H 3H D voltage across the LC combination will be[2004]
(a) 100 V (b) 50 2 V
(a) 3.66 H (b) 9 H (c) 50 V (d) 0 V (zero)
(c) 0.66 H (d) 1 H. 8. In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C
3. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary to 2 C. For the resonant frequency to remain
coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are unchanged, the inductance should be changed
280. If current in primary coil is 4 A, then that in from L to [2004]
the secondary coil is [2002] (a) L/2 (b) 2 L
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 L (d) L/4
9. The phase difference between the alternating
(c) 6 A (d) 10 A.
p
4. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge current and emf is . Which of the following
2
on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the cannot be the constituent of the circuit? [2005]
capacitor when the energy is stored equally (a) R, L (b) C alone
between the electric and magnetic field is (c) L alone (d) L, C
[2003] 10. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an
Q impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the
Q
(a) (b) circuit will be [2005]
2 3 (a) 0.4 (b) 0.8
Q (c) 0.125 (d) 1.25
(c) (d) Q
2 11. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 W
5. The core of any transformer is laminated so as is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The
to [2003]
current reaches half of its steady state value in
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents
(b) make it light weight [2005]
(c) make it robust and strong (a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s
(d) increase the secondary voltage (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s
EBD_7764
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P-134 Physics
12. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage the figure. The internal resistance of the battery
across R is 100 volts and R = 1 kW with C = 2mF. is negligible. The switch S is closed at t = 0. The
The resonant frequency w is 200 rad/s. At potential drop across L as a function of time is
resonance the voltage across L is [2006] [2009]
(a) 2.5 × 10–2 V
(c) 250 V
(b) 40 V
(d) 4 × 10–3 V
(a)
12 -3t
t
e V (b) 6 1 - e (
-t / 0.2
V )
13. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor (R = 100 W) (c) 12e–5t V (d) 6e–5t V
and a battery (E = 100 V) are initially connected 17. In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed
in series as shown in the figure. After a long at t = 0. The current through the battery is [2010]
time the battery is disconnected after short K
V
circuiting the points A and B. The current in the
circuit 1 ms after the short circuit is [2006]
L L R1
R2
R
VR1R2 V
A B (a) at t = 0 and R at t = ¥
R12 + R22 2
E
(a) 1/eA (b) eA V V ( R1 + R2 )
(c) 0.1 A (d) 1 A (b) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
R2 R1 R2
14. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sin
wt. The resulting current in the circuit is V VR1 R2
(c) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
pö R2 R12 + R22
æ
I = I 0 sin ç wt - ÷ . The power consumption
è 2ø V ( R1 + R2 ) V
in the circuit is given by [2007] (d) at t = 0 and at t = ¥
R1 R2 R2
E I
(a) P = 2 E0 I0 (b) P = 0 0 18. In a series LCR circuit R = 200W and the voltage
2
E0 I 0 and the frequency of the main supply is 220V
(c) P = zero (d) P = and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the
2
15. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with capacitance from the circuit the current lags
a resistance of 5W and a battery of 5V. 2second behind the voltage by 30°. On taking out the
after the connection is made, the current flowing inductor from the circuit the current leads the
in ampere in the circuit is [2007] voltage by 30°. The power dissipated in the LCR
(a) (1 – e–1) (b) (1 – e) circuit is [2010]
(c) e (d) e–1 (a) 305 W (b) 210 W
16. E (c) Zero W (d) 242 W
L 19. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0
R1 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0.
The time at which the energy is stored equally
between the electric and the magnetic fields is:
R2 [2011]
p
S (a) LC (b) 2p LC
4
An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and (c) LC (d) p LC
resistors of resistance R1 = 2W and R2 = 2W are 20. A resistor ‘R’ and 2µF capacitor in series is
connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in connected through a switch to 200 V direct
www.crackjee.xyz
Alternating Current P-135
supply. Across the capacitor is a neon bulb that A C R
lights up at 120 V. Calculate the value of R to
make the bulb light up 5 s after the switch has
been closed. (log10 2.5 = 0.4) [2011] L
(a) 1.7 × 105 W (b) 2.7 × 106 W
B
(c) 3.3 × 107 W (d) 1.3 × 104 W
21. Combination of two identical capacitors, a
resistor R and a dc voltage source of voltage 6V e
is used in an experiment on a (C-R) circuit. It is (a) (b) 1
1- e
found that for a parallel combination of the 1- e
capacitor the time in which the voltage of the (c) –1 (d)
e
fully charged combination reduces to half its
24. An inductor (L = 0.03 H) and a resistor (R = 0.15
original voltage is 10 second. For series
kW) are connected in series to a battery of 15V
combination the time for needed for reducing
EMF in a circuit shown below. The key K1 has
the voltage of the fully charged series been kept closed for a long time. Then at t = 0,
combination by half is [2011 RS] K 1 is opened and key K 2 is closed
(a) 10 second (b) 5 second simultaneously. At t = l ms, the current in the
(c) 2.5 second (d) 20 second
22. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches circuit will be : ( e5 @ 150 ) [2015]
are open initially. Now switch S1 is closed, S2
0.03 H 0.15 kW
kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor and t =
RC is Capacitive time constant). Which of the
following statement is correct ? [2013] K2
V
15V K1
R
S1 (a) 6.7 mA (b) 0.67 mA
(c) 100 mA (d) 67 mA
C S2 25. An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped
pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor is
L charged to Q0 and then connected to the L and
R as shown below : [2015]
(a) Work done by the battery is half of the
energy dissipated in the resistor L
R
(b) At, t = t, q = CV/2
(c) At, t = 2t, q = CV (1 – e–2)
(d) At, t = 2 t, q = CV (1 – e–1) C
23. In the circuit shown here, the point ‘C’ is kept
connected to point ‘A’ till the current flowing If a student plots graphs of the square of
through the circuit becomes constant. Afterward,
suddenly, point ‘C’ is disconnected from point
( )
maximum charge Q 2Max on the capacitor with
time(t) for two different values L1 and L2 (L1 >
‘A’ and connected to point ‘B’ at time t = 0. Ratio
L2) of L then which of the following represents
of the voltage across resistance and the inductor
this graph correctly ? (plots are schematic and
at t = L/R will be equal to: [2014]
not drawn to scale)
EBD_7764
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P-136 Physics
26. An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at
L1 80 V to function. If it is connected to a 220 V
2
QMax (rms), 50 Hz AC supply, the series inductor
(a) L2 needed for it to work is close to : [2016]
t (a) 0.044 H (b) 0.065 H
(c) 80 H (d) 0.08 H
27. In the given circuit diagram when the current
2 reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge
QMax Q 0 (For both L1 and L2)
(b) on the capacitor of capacitance C will be : [2017]
t
2 L1
QMax L2
(c)
t
L2 r2 r1
2 (a) CE (b) CE
QMax L (r + r2 ) (r1 + r)
(d) 1
r1
t (c) CE (d) CE
(r2 + r)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
(c) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (a)
1. (b) The impedance triangle for resistance (R) 2. (d) These three inductors are connected in
and inductor (L) connected in series is parallel. The equivalent inductance Lp is
shown in the figure. given by
2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
2
L = + + = + + = =1
L p L1 L2 L3 3 3 3 3
2 +w
R XL= w L
\ Lp = 1
f 3. (b) Np = 140, Ns = 280, Ip = 4A, Is = ?
R Is N p
R For a transformer I = N
p s
Power factor cosf =
R2 + w 2 L2
I s 140
Þ = Þ Is = 2 A
4 280
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Alternating Current P-137
4. (c) When the capacitor is completely charged, -3
L 300 ´ 10
the total energy in the LC circuit is with the Þ t= log 2 = ´ 0.69
capacitor and that energy is R 2
Þ t = 0.1 sec.
1 Q2
E= V 100
2 C 12. (c) Across resistor, I = = = 0.1 A
When half energy is with the capacitor in R 1000
At resonance,
the form of electric field between the plates
of the capacitor we get
1 1
E 1 Q '2 X L = XC = = = 2500
= where Q ' is the charge on wC 200 ´ 2 ´ 10-6
2 2 C Voltage across L is
one plate of the capacitor
I X L = 0.1 ´ 2500 = 250 V
1 1 Q 2 1 Q '2 Q 13. (a) Initially, when steady state is achieved,
\ ´ = Þ Q' =
2 2 C 2 C 2 E
i=
5. (a) Laminated core provide less area of cross- R
section for the current to flow. Because of Let E is short circuited at t = 0. Then
this, resistance of the core increases and E
current decreases thereby decreasing the At t = 0, i0 =
eddy current losses. R
Let during decay of current at any time the
6. (a) D.C. ammeter measure average current in
AC current, average current is zero for current flowing is - L di - iR = 0
complete cycle. Hence reading will be zero. dt
7. (d) Since the phase difference between L & C i t
di R di R
is p, Þ
i
= - dt Þ
L ò i ò L
= - dt
\ net voltage difference across i0 0
LC = 50 – 50 = 0 R
i R - t
8. (a) For resonant frequency to remain same Þ log e = - t Þ i = i0 e L
LC should be const. LC = const i0 L
L -100 ´10-3
Þ LC = L' × 2C Þ L ' = R
E - t 100 100 ´10 -3 1
2 Þi= e L = e =
9. (a) Phase difference for R–L circuit lies R 100 e
æ pö 14. (c) We know that power consumed in a.c.
between ç 0, ÷ circuit is given by, P = Erms.Irms cos f
è 2ø
Here, E = E0 sin wt
R 12 4
10. (b) Power factor = cos f = = = = 0.8 æ pö
Z 15 5 I = I0 sin ç wt - ÷
11. (a) The charging of inductance given by, è 2ø
which implies that the phase difference,
æ - ö
Rt
p
i = i0 ç1 - e L ÷ f=
çè ÷ø 2
p
-
Rt
-
Rt \ P = Erms .I rms .cos =0
i0 1 2
= i0 (1 - e L ) Þ e L =
2 2 æ p ö
Taking log on both the sides, çè Q cos = 0÷ø
2
Rt
- = log1 - log 2
L
EBD_7764
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P-138 Physics
æ - tö
R 2
2 æ 1 ö
15. (a) I = I o ç1 - e L ÷ Now, Z = R + ç - wL ÷
çè ÷ø è wC ø
(When current is in growth in LR circuit) æ 200 200 ö
2
= (200) 2 + ç - ÷ = 200 W
æ - ´2 ö
5
Eæ - tö
R
5 è 3 3ø
= ç1 - e L ÷ = ç 1 - e 10 ÷
R çè ÷ø 5 çè ÷ø Power dissipated = Vrms I rms cos f
–1
= (1 – e ) Vrms R æ Rö
16. (c) Growth in current in LR2 branch when
= Vrms . . çQ cos f = ÷
Z Z è Zø
switch is closed is given by
V 2rms R (220)2 ´ 200
E = =
i= [1 - e - R2t / L ] Z2 (200)2
R2
R2t
220 ´ 220
di E R2 - R2t / L E - = = 242 W
Þ = . .e = e L 200
dt R2 L L 1 2
19. (a) Energy stored in magnetic field = Li
Hence, potential drop across 2
æ E -R t / L ö -R t / L 1 q2
L = çè e 2 ÷ø L = Ee 2 Energy stored in electric field =
2 C
L
-
2t 1 2 1 q2
-3 \ Li =
= 12e 400´10 = 12e–5tV 2 2 C
17. (c) At t = 0 , no current will flow through L and 1
R1 Also q = q0 cos wt and w =
LC
V p
\ Current through battery = R On solving t = LC
2 4
At t = ¥ , 20. (b) We have, V = V0 (1 – e–t/RC)
RR Þ 120 = 200(1 – e–t/RC)
effective resistance, Reff = 1 2 Þ t = RC in (2.5)
R1 + R2 Þ R = 2.71 × 106 W
V 21. (c) Time constant for parallel combination
\ Current through battery = R = 2RC
eff
Time constant for series combination
V ( R1 + R2 )
= RC
R1R2 =
2
18. (d) When capacitance is taken out, the circuit In first case :
is LR.
t
wL - 1 V0
\ tan f = V = V0 e 2 RC = ...(1)
R 2
1 200 In second case :
Þ wL = R tan f = 200 ´ = t2
3 3 - V0
( RC / 2) ....(2)
Again, when inductor is taken out, the V = V0 e =
circuit is CR. 2
From (1) and (2)
1
\ tan f = t1 t2
w CR =
2 RC ( RC / 2)
1 1 200
Þ = R tan f = 200 ´ = t 10
wc 3 3 Þ t2 = 1 = = 2.5 sec.
4 4
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Alternating Current P-139
22. (c) Charge on he capacitor at any time t is
given by q = CV (1– et/t) d 2q R dq q
2
++ =0
at t = 2t dt L dt Lc
q = CV (1 – e–2) From damped harmonic oscillator, the
23. (c) Applying Kirchhoff's law of voltage in
dt
closed loop amplitude is given by A = Ao e -
V 2m
–VR –VC = 0 Þ R = -1
VC Double differential equation
2
VR d x b dx k
+ + =x 0
A C R dt 2 m dt m
Rt Rt
- -
2 2 L
L VL = Q oe
Qmax 2L Þ Q max
= Qoe
I (¥) = 0 220
–t
10 =
I (t) = [I (0) – I (¥)] 64 + 4p2 (50) 2 L
e /R
L + i( ¥ )
–t R V 80
I(t) = 0.1 e L / R = 0.1 e L [Q R = = =8]
I 10
0.15 ´1000
On solving we get
L = 0.065 H
I(t) = 0.1 e 0.03 = 0.67mA
27. (a) In steady state, flow of current through
25. (c) From KVL at any time t capacitor will be zero.
Current through the circuit,
di
R L E
+ dt – i=
i r + r2
+ –
q c
Potential difference through capacitor
q di Q æ E ö
- iR - L = 0 Vc = = E - ir = E - ç r
è r + r2 ÷ø
c dt C
dq q dq Ld 2q
i=- Þ + R+ 2 =0 r2
dt c dt dt \ Q = CE
r + r2
EBD_7764
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P-140 Physics
Electromagnetic
Waves 22
1. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature (a) Electric energy density is double of the
is evident by [2002] magnetic energy density.
(a) polarization (b) interference (b) Electric energy density is half of the
(c) reflection (d) diffraction magnetic energy density.
2. An electromagnetic wave of frequency v = 3.0 (c) Electric energy density is equal to the
MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric magnetic energy density.
medium with permittivity Î = 4.0. Then [2004]
(d) Both electric and magnetic energy densities
(a) wave length is halved and frequency
are zero.
remains unchanged
6. Match List - I (Electromagnetic wave type) with
(b) wave length is doubled and frequency
List - II (Its association/application) and select
becomes half
the correct option from the choices given below
(c) wave length is doubled and the frequency
the lists: [2014]
remains unchanged
(d) wave length and frequency both remain List 1 List 2
unchanged. 1. Infrared waves (i) To treat muscular
3. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the strain
r r 2. Radio waves (ii) For broadcasting
electric and magnetic field E and B , which are
always perpendicular to each other. The 3. X-rays (iii) To detect fracture of
r bones
direction of polarization is given by X and that
r 4. Ultraviolet rays (iv) Absorbed by the
of wave propagation by k . Then [2012] ozone layer of the
r r r r r
(a) X || B and k || B ´ E atmosphere
r r r r r 1 2 3 4
(b) X || E and k || E ´ B
r r r r r (a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) X || B and k || E ´ B (b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
r r r r r (c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) X || E and k || B ´ E
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic 7. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value per quantum in the order of increasing energy :
of electric field strength is : [2013] [2016]
(a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m A : Blue light B : Yellow light
(c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m C : X-ray D : Radiowave.
5. During the propagation of electromagnetic (a) C, A, B, D (b) B, A, D, C
waves in a medium: [2014] (c) D, B, A, C (d) A, B, D, C
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Electromagnetic Waves P-141
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c)
æ ö æ 1 ö æ 3ö
(b) ç 1 -
1 çm = ÷ has focal length f. When it is measured
è m ÷ø h1 + çè1 - m ÷ø h2 è 2ø
1 2
in two different liquids having refractive indices
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
(c) ç 1 + ÷ h2 - ç1 + ÷ h1 4 5
è m1ø è m 2 ø and , it has the focal lengths f1 and f2
3 3
æ 1ö æ 1 ö respectively. The correct relation between the
(d) ç 1 - ÷ h2 + ç1 - ÷ h1
è m1 ø è m2 ø focal lengths is: [2014]
(a) f1 = f2 < f
20. When monochromatic red light is used instead
(b) f1 > f and f2 becomes negative
of blue light in a convex lens, its focal length will
[2011 RS] (c) f2 > f and f1 becomes negative
(a) increase (d) f1 and f2 both become negative
(b) decrease 25. Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism
(c) remain same of angle A. If the refractive index of the material
(d) does not depend on colour of light of the prism is µ, a ray, incident at an angle q, on
21. An object at 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a the face AB would get transmitted through the
sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A face AC of the prism provided : [2015]
glass plate 1cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is
interposed between lens and film with its plane
A
faces parallel to film. At what distan ce
(from lens) should object shifted to be in sharp q
focus of film? [2012]
(a) 7.2 m (b) 2.4 m
(c) 3.2 m (d) 5.6 m B C
22. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and
thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If speed of light é æ æ 1 öù
(a) q > cos -1 êµsin ç A + sin -1 ç ÷ ú
in material of lens is 2 × 108 m/s, the focal length è µ ø ûú
ëê è
of the lens is [2013]
(a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm é æ æ 1 öù
(c) 30 cm (d) 10 cm (b) q < cos-1 êµsin ç A + sin -1 ç ÷ ú
êë è è µ ø úû
23. The graph between angle of deviation (d) and
angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is
é æ æ 1 öù
represented by [2013] (c) q > sin -1 êµsin ç A - sin -1 ç ÷ ú
ëê è è µ ø ûú
d d
(a) (b) é æ æ 1 öù
(d) q < sin -1 êµsin ç A - sin -1 ç ÷ ú
o o
i ëê è è µ ø ûú
i
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Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-145
26. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 28. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length
m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a
To the observer the tree appears : [2016] converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20
(a) 20 times taller (b) 20 times nearer cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging
(c) 10 times taller (d) 10 times nearer lens. The final image formed is : [2017]
27. In an experiment for determination of refractive
(a) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the
index of glass of a prism by i – d, plot it was
divergent lens
found thata ray incident at angle 35°, suffers a
deviation of 40° and that it emerges at angle 79°. (b) real and at a distance of 6 cm from the
In that case which of the following is closest to convergent lens
the maximum possible value of the refractive (c) real and at a distance of 40 cm from
index? [2016] convergent lens
(a) 1.7 (b) 1.8 (d) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.6 convergent lens.
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
(d) (a) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c)
1. (b) The resolving power of a telescope 4. (b) Optical fibres form a dielectric wave guide
D and are free from electromagnetic
R.P = interference or radio frequency interference.
1.22 l
5. (c) A real, inverted and enlarged image of the
where D = diameter of the objective lens object is formed by the objective lens of a
l = wavelength of light.
Clearly, larger the aperture, larger is the compound microscope.
value of D, more is the resolving power or 360 360
resolution. 6. (b) When q = 90° then = =4
2. (a) When two plane mirrors are inclined at each q 90
other at an angle q then the number of the is an even number. The number of images
images of a point object placed between formed is given by
360° 360 360
the plane mirrors is - 1, n= -1 = -1 = 4 - 1 = 3
q q 90
360° 7. (b) The incident angle is 45°.
if is even Incident angle > critical angle, i > ic
q
360°
\Number of images formed = -1 = 5 \ sin i > sin ic or sin 45 > sin ic
60º
3. (a) In an optical fibre, light is sent through the 1
fibre without any loss by the phenomenon of sin ic =
n
total internal reflection as shown in the figure. 1 1 1
\ sin 45° > or > Þn> 2
n2 n 2 n
n1 8. (c) The focal length(F) of the final mirror is
n1>n2
1 2 1
= +
F fl f m
EBD_7764
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P-146 Physics
1 æ 1 1ö 1 8
Here = ( µ - 1) ç - ÷ Þ f m = -8 ´ f a = -8 ´ - =
fl è R1 R2 ø 5 5
m 1.6
Pm = = ´ 5 = 1D
é1 1 ù 1 fm 8
= (1.5 - 1) ê - =
ë a -30 úû 60 11. (a) For a thin prism, D = (m – 1) A
1 1 1 1 Since lb < lr Þ mr < mb Þ D1 < D2
\ = 2´ + =
F 60 30 / 2 10 12. (c) Power of combination is given by
\ F = 10 cm P = P1 + P2 = (– 15 + 5) D = – 10 D.
The combination acts as a converging 1
mirror. For the object to be of the same size 1 1
Now, P = Þ f = = metre
of mirror, f P -10
u = 2F = 20 cm
æ1 ö
1 3 \ f = - ç ´ 100÷ cm = -10 cm.
9. (a) sin qc = = è 10 ø
m 4 13. (c) This graph suggest that when
3 3 R u = – f, v = + µ
or tan qc = = =
16 - 9 7 12 v (cm)
qc qc
12 cm f
–f u (cm)
1 n2 - 1 2 sin i = 3sin r
\ sin a = 1 - cos 2 a = 1 - = ...(1) Ð r = 45°
n2 n
Applying Snell’s Law at P
sin q 2
n= Þ sin q = n ´ sin a = n - 1 ;
sin a
from (1)
2
æ 2 ö 4 1
\ sin q = ç ÷ - 1 = -1 =
è 3ø 3 3
æ 1 ö
or q = sin -1 ç ÷
è 3ø
1 35
Now v' = 12 - = cm N1
3 3
Now the object distance u. q N2
1 3 21 1 é 3 21 ù Q r1
= - = - r2
u 35 240 5 êë 7 48 úû
R
P
1 1 é 48 - 49 ù
=
u 5 êë 7 ´ 16 úû B C
u = –7 ×16 × 5 = – 560 cm = – 5.6 m Applying snell's law at ‘R’
Velocity of light in vacuum µ sin r2 = 1 sin90° ...(i)
22. (c) \ n =
Velocity of light in medium Applying snell's law at ‘Q’
3 1 × sin q = µ sin r1 ...(ii)
\ n= But r1 = A – r2
2
So, sin q = µ sin (A – r 2)
sin q = µ sin A cos r2 – cos A ...(iii)
R = 3cm [using (i)]
From (1)
3mm
2 1
cos r2 = 1 – sin r2 = 1– ...(iv)
µ2
By eq. (iii) and (iv)
32 + (R – 3mm)2 = R2
1
Þ 32 + R2 – 2R(3mm) + (3mm)2 = R2 sin q = µsin A 1 - - cos A
Þ R » 15 cm µ2
on further solving we can show for ray not
1 æ 3 öæ 1 ö to transmitted through face AC
= ç –1 ÷ç ÷ Þ f = 30 cm
f è 2 øè 15 ø é –1 æ 1 ö ù
23. (c) For the prism as the angle of incidence (i) q = sin–1 ê m sin(A – sin çè µ ÷ø ú
increases, the angle of deviation (d) first ë û
decreases goes to minimum value and then So, for transmission through face AC
increases.
é –1 æ 1 ö ù
24. (b) By Lens maker's formula for convex lens q > sin–1 ê m sin(A – sin çè µ ÷ø ú
ë û
1 æ m öæ 2 ö
=ç - 1÷ ç ÷ 26. (b) A telescope magnifies by making the object
f è mL øè R ø appearing closer.
27. (c) We know that i + e – A = d
4
for, m L1 = , f1 = 4 R 35° + 79° – A = 40° \ A = 74°
3
5
for m L 2 = , f 2 = -5 R
3
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Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-149
æ A + dm ö æ 74 + d m ö 15 cm
sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷
è 2 ø= è 2 ø
But m =
sinA / 2 74
sin
2
5 æ d ö
= sin ç 37° + m ÷
3 è 2 ø
5 f = –25 cm f = 20 cm
m max can be . That is m max is less than
3 The image formed by diverging lens is used as
5 an object for converging lens,
= 1.67
3 So for converging lens u = –25 – 15 = –40 cm, f
But dm will be less than 40° so = 20 cm
5 5 \ Final image formed by converging lens
m< sin 57° < sin 60° Þ m = 1.5
3 3 1 1 1
- =
28. (c) As parallel beam incident on diverging lens V -40 20
will form image at focus. or, V = 40 cm from converging lens real and
\ v = –25 cm inverted.
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P-150 Physics
Wave Optics
24
1. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, 7. In a Young’s double slit experiment the intensity
we require two sources which emit radiation l
[2003] at a point where the path difference is (l being
6
(a) of nearly the same frequency the wavelength of light used) is I. If I0 denotes
(b) of the same frequency
I
(c) of different wavelengths the maximum intensity, is equal to [2007]
(d) of the same frequency and having a definite I0
phase relationship 3 1
2. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is (a) (b)
4 2
totally polarized for reflection from air to glass
(refractive index n), is [2004] 3 1
(c) (d)
(a) tan–1(l/n) (b) sin –1(l/n) 2 2
(c) sin –1(n) (d) tan–1(n) 8. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass
3. The maximum number of possible interference through a narrow slit of width ‘d’ comparable to
maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the their wavelength. They are detected on a screen at
wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is a distance ‘D’ from the slit (see figure).
[2004]
(a) three (b) five
(c) infinite (d) zero d
4. A Young’s double slit experiment uses a y=0
monochromatic source. The shape of the
interference fringes formed on a screen is [2005] D
(a) circle (b) hyperbola Which of the following graphs can be expected
(c) parabola (d) straight line to represent the number of electrons ‘N’ detected
5. If I 0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in as a function of the detector position ‘y’(y = 0
the single slit diffraction pattern, then what will corresponds to the middle of the slit) [2008]
be its intensity when the slit width is doubled? y
[2005]
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (d) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
(b) (d) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d)
( )
2
n Imax = I1 + I 2
given d = 2 l Þ sin q =
2
=( I ' ) = ( 2 I ' ) = 4I '
n = 0, 1, – 1, 2, – 2 hence five maxima are 2 2
I'+
possible
4. (d) The shape of interference fringes formed I 3
on a screen in case of a monochromatic \ =
Imax 4
source is a straight line. Remember for
double hole experiment a hyperbola is
generated. The intensity of light at any point of the
2 screen where the phase difference due to light
æ sin f ö p
5. (a) I = I 0 çç ÷÷ and f = ( b sin q ) coming from the two slits is f is given by
è f ø l
æ fö
When the slit width is doubled, the I = Io cos2 ç ÷ where I is the maximum
amplitude of the wave at the centre of the è 2ø 0
Sun
11. (d) Initially the parallel beam is cylindrical .
Therefore, the wavefront will be planar. Scattered light
12. (a) The speed of light (c) in a medium of (polarised)
refractive index (m) is given by
c
m = 0 , where c0 is the speed of light in
c
vacuum
c0 c0 to observer
\c= = m + m (I ) 17. (d) Let a1 = a, I1 = a1 2 = a2
m 0 2
As I is decreasing with increasing radius, it a2 = 2a, I2 = a22 = 4a2
is maximum on the axis of the beam. I2 = 4I1
Therefore, c is minimum on the axis of the Ir = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 cos f
beam.
13. (b) A phase change of p rad appears when the = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I2 cos f
ray reflects at the glass-air interface. Also,
the centre of the interference pattern is dark. Ir = I1 + 4 I1 + 2 4 I12 cos f
14. (a) Path difference at p
Dx1 = 0 Þ Ir = 5I1 + 4 I1 cos f … (1)
\ Phase difference at P Now, I max = ( a1 + a2 ) 2 = ( a + 2a ) 2 = 9 a 2
Df1 = 0°
I
Intensity at p Imax = 9I1 Þ I1 = max
I1 = I 0 + I 0 + 2 I 0 cos 0° = 4 I 0
9
Substituting in equation (1)
Path difference at Q
5I 4I
l Ir = max + max cos f
Dx2 = 9 9
4
Imax
\ Phase difference at Q Ir = [ 5 + 4 cos f]
2p l æ p ö 9
DfD2 = . =ç ÷ I é f ù
l 4 è 2ø Ir = max ê 5 + 8 cos2 - 4 ú
Intensity at Q. 9 ë 2 û
p I fù
I 2 = I 0 + I 0 + 2 I0 cos = 2 I 0 é
2 Ir = max ê1 + 8 cos 2 ú
9 ë 2û
I1 4 I0 2
Thus, = =
I 2 2 I0 1
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Wave Optics P-155
18. (c) Relation between intensities 22. (a) Given geometrical spread = a
45° B l lL
I0 (I0/2) Diffraction spread = ´L=
a a
(unpolarised) IR lL
The sum b = a +
a
A For b to be minimum
æI ö I 1 I db d æ lL ö
Ir = ç 0 ÷ cos 2 (45°) = 0 ´ = 0 =0 ça + ÷=0
è 2ø 2 2 4 da da è a ø
19. (d) It will be concentric circles. a = lL
20. (d) According to malus law, intensity of
emerging beam is given by, b min = lL + lL = 2 lL = 4 lL
I = I0cos2q 23. (d) For common maxima, n1l1 = n2l2
Now, IA' = I A cos230º
n1 l 2 520 ´10-9 4
2
I B ' = I B cos 60º Þ = = =
n2 l1 650 ´ 10-9 5
As I A ' = I B ' For l1
3 1 IA 1 n1l1 D
Þ I A ´ = IB ´ ; I = 3 y= , l1 = 650 nm `
4 4 B d
0.25 1
21. (d) sin q = = 4 ´ 650 ´ 10 -9 ´ 1.5
25 100 y= or, y = 7.8 mn
0.5 ´ 10 -3
0.25cm q
25cm
1.22 l
Resolving power = = 30 mm.
2 m sin q
EBD_7764
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P-156 Physics
Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter 25
1. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV incident radiation gives a straight line whose
and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the slope [2004]
wavelengths is nearest to [2002] (a) depends both on the intensity of the
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 radiation and the metal used
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (b) depends on the intensity of the radiation
2. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds (c) depends on the nature of the metal used
exhibits [2002] (d) is the same for the all metals and independent
(a) wave nature of electron of the intensity of the radiation
(b) particle nature of electron 6. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The
(c) both wave and particle nature of electron longest wavelength of light that can cause
(d) none of these photoelectron emission from this substance is
3. Two identical photocathodes receive light of approximately [2004]
frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocites of the photo (a) 310 nm (b) 400 nm
electrons (of mass m ) coming out are (c) 540 nm (d) 220 nm
respectively v1 and v2, then [2003] 7. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source
2 2 2h placed 1 m away. When the same source of light
(a) v1 - v2 = ( f - f2 )
m 1 1
is placed m away, the number of electrons
1/ 2 2
é 2h ù emitted by photocathode would [2005]
(b) v1 + v2 = ê ( f1 + f 2 )ú
ëm û (a) increase by a factor of 4
2 2 2h (b) decrease by a factor of 4
(c) v1 + v2 = (f + f )
m 1 2 (c) increase by a factor of 2
é 2h ù
1/ 2 (d) decrease by a factor of 2
(d) v1 - v2 = ê ( f1 - f 2 )ú 8. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles,
ëm û
4. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a it’s deBroglie wavelength changes by the factor
perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum [2005]
transferred to the surface is [2004] 1
(a) 2 (b)
(a) Ec (b) 2 E / c 2
(c) E / c (d) E / c 2 1
(c) 2 (d)
5. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, 2
the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photo 9. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface
electrons from a metal vs the frequency, of the corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV and the
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Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-157
stopping potential for a radiation incident on Directions: Question No. 13 and 14 are based on the
this surface is 5 V. The incident radiation lies in following paragraph.
[2006] Wave property of electrons implies that they will show
(a) ultra-violet region diffraction effects. Davisson and Germer demonstrated
this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law
(b) infra-red region
governing the diffraction from a crystal is obtained
(c) visible region by requiring that electron waves reflected from the
(d) X-ray region planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively
10. The time taken by a photoelectron to come out (see figure).
after the photon strikes is approximately [2006]
(a) 10–4 s (b) 10–10 s
(c) 10–16 s (d) 10–1 s Inco m g
11. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. Electr ing i Outgoin s
ons c tro n
Ele
The wavelength l of the light falling on the
cathode is gradually changed. The plate current d
I of the photocell varies as follows [2006]
Crystal plane
13. Electrons accelerated by potential V are
(a) I diffracted from a crystal. If d = 1Å and i = 30°, V
should be about [2008]
(h = 6.6 × 10 – 34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.6
O l × 10 – 19 C)
(a) 2000 V (b) 50 V
(c) 500 V (d) 1000 V
(b) I 14. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when
electrons are incident at an angle ‘i’ from the
normal to the crystal planes with distance ‘d’
O l between them (see figure), de Broglie wavelength
ldB of electrons can be calculated by the
relationship ( n is an integer) [2008]
I (a) d sin i = nldB (b) 2d cos i = nldB
(c)
(c) 2d sin i = nldB (d) d cos i = nldB
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (a) (a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
(d) (c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (c)
2 2h
2 hc
\ v1 - v 2 = ( f - f2 ) Þl=
m 1 f + eV0
E -34 8
4. (b) Momentum of photon = 6.6 ´ 10 ´ 3 ´ 10 -7
c = -19
m » 10
2E 1.6 ´ 10 (6.2 + 5)
Change in momentum = This range lies in ultra violet range.
c
= momentum transferred to the surface 10. (b) The order of time is nano second.
(the photon will reflect with same 11. (b) As l decreases, y increases and hence the
magnitude of momentum in opposite speed of photoelectron increases. The
direction) chances of photo electron to meet the
5. (d) From Equation K .E = hn - f anode increases and hence photo electric
slope of graph of K.E & n is h (Plank's current increases.
constant) 12. (a) Energy of a photon of frequency n is given
which is same for all metals
6. (a) For the longest wavelength to emit photo by E = h n .
electron Also, E = mc2, mc2 = hn
hc hc hn hn
=fÞl = Þ mc = Þ p=
l f c c
6.63 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 13. (b) The path difference between the rays APB
Þl= = 310 nm and CQD is
-16
40 ´ 1.6 ´ 10
2 Dx = MQ + QN = d cos i + d cos i
I ær ö
I1 1 Dx = 2d cos i
7. (a) I µ 2; = ç 2÷ =
r I 2 è r1 ø 4 A B
I 2 ® 4 times I1
C D
When intensity becomes 4 times, no. of
photoelectrons emitted would increase by i
4 times, since number of electrons emitted
per second is directly proportional to P
d N
intensity. M i
8. (d) de-Broglie wavelength, Q
h h We know that for constructive interference
l= =
p 2. m.(K.E) the path difference is nl
1 \ nl = 2d cos i
\ lµ
K. E Also by de-broglie concept
If K.E is doubled, wavelength becomes h h h
l l= = =
p 2mK.E 2meV
2
nh
9. (a) f = 6.2 eV = 6.2 ´ 1.6 ´10 -19 J \ = 2d cos i
2meV
V = 5 volt
2
hc h
- f = eV0 Here n =1 : V =
l 8med 2 cos 2 i
www.crackjee.xyz
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-161
(6.6 ´ 10 -34 )2 B2 r 2 e
=
8 ´ 9.1´ 10 -31
´1.6 ´10 -19
´ (10 -10 2 2
) ´ cos 30 Þ V= = 0.8V
2m
= 50 V For transition between 3 to 2.
14. (b) 2d cos i = nldB
æ 1 1 ö 13.6 ´ 5
15. (a) l = 400 nm, hc = 1240 eV.nm, K.E. =1.68 eV E = 13.6 ç - ÷ = = 1.88eV
è 4 9ø 36
We know that,
Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV
hc hc » 1.1eV
- W = K .E Þ W = - K .E
l l 21. (a) Frank-Hertz experiment - Discrete energy
1240 levels of atom Photoelectric effect - Particle
ÞW= - 1.68 = 3.1 – 1.68 = 1.42 eV nature of light
400
Davison - Germer experiment - wave nature
16. (d) We know that
of electron.
eV0 = K max = hn - f 1 2
22. (c) hn02 – hn0 = mv
where, f is the work function . 2
Hence, as n increases (note that frequency 4 1
\ hn 0 - hn 0 = mv ' 2
of X-rays is greater than that of U.V. rays), 3 2
both V0 and Kmax increase. So statement -
4 4
1 is correct n - n0 n - n0
v '2
3
17. (c) By Einstein photoelectric equation, \ = \ v' = v 3
Kmax = eV0 = hv – hv0 v2 n - n0 n - n0
When v is doubled, Kmax and V0 become 4
more than double. \ v' > v
3
18. (c)
19. (d) As l is increased, there will be a value of l hc
23. (c) In X-ray tube, l min =
above which photoelectrons will be cease eV
to come out so photocurrent will become æ hc ö
In l min = In ç ÷ - InV
zero. Hence (d) is correct answer. è eø
20. (b) Radius of circular path followed by electron Clearly, log lmin versus log V graph slope
is given by, is negative hence option (c) correctly
mu 1 2m depicts.
r= 2meV
= = V
qB eB B e
EBD_7764
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P-162 Physics
Atoms 26
1. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the the most energy? [2005]
hydrogen atom, then the energy required to
n=4
remove an electron from n = 2 is [2002] n=3
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 0 eV
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV n=2
2. Which of the following atoms has the lowest
ionization potential ? [2003]
14 133 n =1
(a) N (b) Cs I II III IV
7 55
40 16 (a) IV (b) III
(c) Ar (d) O
18 8 (c) II (d) I
3. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of 7. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen
deuterium ( )
2
1D are slightly different from that atoms emit photons of highest frequency?
[2007]
of hydrogen spectrum, because [2003] (a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 6
(a) the size of the two nuclei are different (c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) the nuclear forces are different in the two
8. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the
cases k
(c) the masses of the two nuclei are different origin by a force where ‘k’ is a constant and
r
(d) the attraction between the electron and the ‘r’ is the distance of the electron from the origin.
nucleus is differernt in the two cases By applying Bohr model to this system, the
4. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen radius of the nth orbital of the electron is found
atom is 13.6eV, the energy required to remove the to be ‘rn’ and the kinetic energy of the electron
electron from the first excited state of Li + + is to be ‘Tn’. Then which of the following is true?
[2003] [2008]
(a) 30.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV
1 2
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV (a) Tn µ , rn µ n
2
5. The manifestation of band structure in solids is n
due to [2004] (b) Tn independent of n, rn µ n
(a) Bohr’s correspondence principle
1
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle (c) Tn µ , rn µ n
(c) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle n
(d) Boltzmann’s law 1
(d) Tn µ , rn µ n 2
6. The diagram shows the energy levels for an n
electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with
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Atoms P-163
9. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a 14. As an electron makes a transition from an excited
hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in atom/ion : [2015]
the transition from : [2009] (a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy
(a) 3 ® 2 (b) 4 ® 2 increases but total energy remains same
(c) 5 ® 4 (d) 2 ® 1 (b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease
10. Energy required for the electron excitation in but potential energy increases
Li++ from the first to the third Bohr orbit is : (c) its kinetic energy increases but potential
[2011]
energy and total energy decrease
(a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV
(d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total
(c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV
energy decrease
11. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to
another state with principal quantum number 15. A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v
equal to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in m
the emission spectra will be : [2012] collides with a particle B of mass which is at
2
(a) 2 (b) 3
rest. The collision is head on, and elastic. The
(c) 5 (d) 6
ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths lA to lB
12. In a hydrogen like atom electron make transition
after the collision is [2017]
from an energy level with quantum number n to
another with quantum number (n – 1). If n>>1, lA 2 lA 1
(a) = (b) l = 2
the frequency of radiation emitted is proportional lB 3 B
to : [2013] lA 1 lA
1 1 (c) = (d) l = 2
(a) (b) lB 3 B
n n2 16. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in
1 1 the figure. The ratio of the wavelengths
(c) (d)
n 3
n3 r = l1/l2, is given by [2017]
2
13. Hydrogen ( 1 H1 ), Deuterium ( 1 H2 ), singly
ionised Helium (2He4)+, and doubly ionised
lithium (3Li6)++ all have one electron around the
nucleus. Consider an electron transition from n
= 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted
radiation are l1, l2, l3 and l4 respectively then
approximately which one of the following is 1
3
correct? [2014] (a) r= (b) r=
4 3
(a) 4l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4
4 2
(b) l1 = 2l 2 = 2l3 = l 4 (c) r= (d) r=
3 3
(c) l1 = l 2 = 4l3 = 9l 4
(d) l1 = 2l 2 = 3l3 = 4l 4
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (d)
16
(b)
EBD_7764
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P-164 Physics
13.6 \ n1 > n2
4. (a) 2
En = - Z eV/atom
n 2
8. (b) When F = k = centripetal force, then
r
For lithium ion Z = 3 ; n = 2 ( for first 2
excited state) k mv
=
r r
13.6 Þ mv 2 = constat Þ kinetic energy is
En = - 2
´ 32 = -30.6 eV
2 constant Þ T is independent of n.
5. (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle. 9. (c) It is given that transition from the state n
=4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom result in
é 1 1 ù ultraviolet radiation. For infrared radiation
6. (b) E = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú the energy gap should be less. The only
êë n1 n2 úû
option is 5 ® 4 .
E will be maximum for the transition for
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Atoms P-165
Increasing
Energy ze 2 k ze 2
n=5 14. (c) U = –K ; T.E = –
r 2 r
n=4
k ze 2
n=3 K.E = . Here r decreases
2 r
n=2
m
n=1 15. (d) From question, mA = M; mB =
2
10. (b) Energy of excitation,
uA = V uB = 0
æ 1 1ö
D E = 13.6 p2 çè h - h ÷ø eV Let after collision velocity of A = V1 and
1 2
velocity of B = V2
æ1 1ö Applying law of conservation of momentum,
Þ DE = 13.6 (3)2 çè - ÷ = 108.8 eV
12
32 ø
æ mö
11. (d) For ground state, the principal quantum mu = mv1 + ç ÷ v2
è2ø
no. (n) = 1. There is a 3rd excited state for
or, 24= 2v1 + v2 ....(i)
principal quantum number.
By law of collision
Pincipal quantum no. (n)
4 3rd excited
state v2 - v1
e=
Energy states
u-0
3 2nd excited or, u = v2 – v1 ....(ii)
state
[Q collision is elastic, e = 1]
2 1st excited
state using eqns (i) and (ii)
1 ground state 4 4
Possible number of spectral lines v1 = and v 2 = u
1444444 424444444 3 3 3
The possible number of the spectral lines h
is given de-Broglie wavelength l =
n(n - 1) 4(4 - 1) p
= = =6
2 2 m 4
´ u
12. (d) DE = hv l A PB 2 3 =2
\ = =
l B PA 4
DE é 1 1 ù k(2n - 1) m´
n= =kê 2
- 2ú = 2 3
h ë (n - 1) n û n (n - 1)2
hc
16. (b) From energy level diagram, using DE =
2k 1 l
» 3 or n µ 3
n n hc
For wavelength l1 DE = – E – (–2E) =
l1
1 é 1 1 ù
13. (c) Wave number = RZ 2 ê - ú hc
l êë n1 n2 úû
2 \ l1 =
E
æ 4E ö hc
Þ lµ
1 For wavelength l2 DE = – E – ç - ÷ =
è 3 ø l2
Z2
hc l 1
By question n = 1 and n 1 = 2 \ l2 = \r= 1 =
æ Eö l2 3
Then, l1 = l2 = 4l3 = 9l4 çè ÷ø
3
EBD_7764
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P-166 Physics
Nuclei 27
1. At a specific instant emission of radioactive (a) Protons (b) Neutrinoes
compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The (c) Helium nuclei (d) Electrons
compound can emit 7. In the nuclear fusion reaction
(i) electrons (ii) protons 2 3 4
1 H + 1 H ® 2 He + n
(iii) He2+ (iv) neutrons
given that the repulsive potential energy
The emission at instant can be [2002]
(a) i, ii, iii (b) i, ii, iii, iv between the two nuclei is ~ 7.7 ´ 10 -14 J , the
(c) iv (d) ii, iii temperature at which the gases must be heated
2. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of to initiate the reaction is nearly
half-life period t1/2 = 5 years, then the amount of [Boltzmann’s Constant k = 1.38 ´ 10 -23 J/K ]
substance left after 15 years is [2002] [2003]
(a) N0/8 (b) N0/16 (a) 10 7 K (b) 10 5 K
(c) N0/2 (d) N0/4
238 (c) 10 3 K (d) 10 9 K
3. When a U nucleus originally at rest, decays
8. A nucleus disintegrated into two nuclear parts
by emitting an alpha particle having a speed ‘u’, which have their velocities in the ratio of 2 : 1.
the recoil speed of the residual nucleus is [2003] The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be [2004]
(a) 4u (b) - 4u (a) 3½ : 1 (b) 1:21/3
238 234 1/3
(c) 2 :1 (d) 1:3½
4u
(c) (d) - 4u 9. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron
4.
234 238
A radioactive sample at any instant has its ( H) and helium nucleus ( He) is 1.1 MeV
2
1
4
2
disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per and 7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei
minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 react to form a single helium nucleus, then the
disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay energy released is [2004]
constant (per minute) is [2003] (a) 23.6 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV
(a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2 (c) 13.9 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
27
10. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be
(c) 0.1 ln 2 (d) 0.8 ln 2
5. A nucleus with Z= 92 emits the following in a 3.6 fermi then the radius of 125
52 Te nucleus be
sequence: nearly [2005]
(a) 8 fermi (b) 6 fermi
a, b - , b - a, a, a, a, a, b - , b - , a, b + , b + , a
(c) 5 fermi (d) 4 fermi
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is [2003] 7
11. Starting with a sample of pure 66 Cu , of it
(a) 76 (b) 78 8
decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The corresponding
(c) 82 (d) 74
half life is [2005]
6. Which of the following cannot be emitted by
radioactive substances during their decay? (a) 15 minutes (b) 10 minutes
1
[2003] (c) 7 minutes (d) 5 minutes
2
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Nuclei P-167
12. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given respectively, then in the reaction
source is I. On passing through 36 mm of lead, it p + 73 Li ¾¾
® 2 42 He
I
is reduced to . The thickness of lead which will energy of proton must be [2006]
8
I (a) 28.24 MeV (b) 17.28 MeV
reduce the intensity to will be [2005] (c) 1.46 MeV (d) 39.2 MeV
2
(a) 9 mm (b) 6mm 17. The 'rad' is the correct unit used to report the
(c) 12mm (d) 18mm measurement of [2006]
13. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X (n, a ) (a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons
7 . to produce ions in a target
3 Li Which of the following is the nucleus of
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
element X ? [2005] (c) the biological effect of radiation
(a) 10
(b) 12
5 B C6 (d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source
(c) 11 (d) 9 18. If M O is the mass of an oxygen isotope
4 Be 5B
17
8 O ,MP and MN are the masses of a proton
14. 7
When 3Li nuclei are bombarded by protons,
and the resultant nuclei are 4Be8, the emitted and a neutron respectively, the nuclear binding
particles will be [2006] energy of the isotope is [2007]
(a) alpha particles (b) beta particles (a) (MO –17MN)c2
(c) gamma photons (d) neutrons (b) (MO – 8MP)c2
15. The energy spectrum of b-particles [number N(E) (c) (MO– 8MP –9MN)c2
as a function of b-energy E] emitted from a (d) MOc 2
radioactive source is [2006] 19. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus [2007]
(a) only the proton number changes
(b) both the neutron number and the proton
(a) N(E)
number change
E
(c) there is no change in the proton number
E0
and the neutron number
(d) only the neutron number changes
20. The half-life period of a radio-active element X
(b) N(E)
is same as the mean life time of another radio-
active element Y. Initially they have the same
E
E0 number of atoms. Then [2007]
(a) X and Y decay at same rate always
(b) X will decay faster than Y
(c) N(E)
(c) Y will decay faster than X
(d) X and Y have same decay rate initially
E
E0 21. This question contains Statement-1 and
statement-2. Of the four choices given after the
statements, choose the one that best describes
(d) N(E) the two statements. [2008]
Statement-1:
E
E0 Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo
fission or light nuclei undergo fusion and
16. If the binding energy per nucleon in 73 Li and Statement-2 :
4
2 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon
EBD_7764
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P-168 Physics
increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei (c) E2 > E1 (d) E1 = 2 E2
it decreases with increasing Z.
(a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true 24. The speed of daughter nuclei is [2010]
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Dm 2Dm
(a) c (b) c
Statement-1 M + Dm M
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Dm Dm
(c) c (d) c
Statement-1 M M + Dm
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
25. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and
atomic number Z emits 3 a - particles and 2
22. positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to
that of protons in the final nucleus will be [2010]
A- Z -8 A- Z -4
(a) (b)
Z -4 Z -8
A - Z - 12 A- Z -4
(c) (d)
Z -4 Z -2
26. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20
minutes. The approximate time interval (t2 – t1)
2
between the time t2 when of it had decayed
3
The above is a plot of binding energy per 1
nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, and time t 1 when of it had decayed
3
D, E, F correspond to different nuclei. Consider
four reactions : [2009] is : [2011]
(i) A + B ® C + e (a) 14 min (b) 20 min
(ii) C ® A + B + e (c) 28 min (d) 7 min
27. After absorbing a slowly moving neutron of mass
(iii) D + E ® F + e and
mN (momentum » 0) a nucleus of mass M breaks
(iv) F® D + E + e,
into two nuclei of masses m1 and 5m1 (6m1 = M
where e is the energy released? In which + mN) respectively. If the de Broglie wavelength
reactions is e positive? of the nucleus with mass m1 is l, the de Broglie
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) wavelength of the nucleus will be [2011]
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) (a) 5l (b) l / 5
DIRECTIONS: Questions number 23-24 are based on (c) l (d) 25l
the following paragraph. 28. Statement - 1 : A nucleus having energy E1
A nucleus of mass M + Dm is at rest and decays decays by b– emission to daughter nucleus
M having energy E2, but the b– rays are emitted
into two daughter nuclei of equal mass each. with a continuous energy spectrum having end
2
Speed of light is c. point energy E1 – E2.
Statement - 2 : To conserve energy and
23. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent momentum in b– decay at least three particles must
nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is take part in the transformation. [2011 RS]
E2. Then [2010] (a) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is
(a) E2 = 2E1 (b) E1 > E2 not correct.
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Nuclei P-169
(b) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are 30. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B
correct and statement-2 is the correct are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively.
explanation of statement-1. Initially, the samples have equal number of
(c) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
correct and statement-2 is not the correct number of A and B nuclei will be : [2016]
explanation of statement-1 (a) 1 : 4 (b) 5 : 4
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is (c) 1 : 16 (d) 4 : 1
correct. 31. A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays
29. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and into a nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B.
an electron. The energy released during this At sometime t, the ratio of the number of B to that
process is : (mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27 of A is 0.3. Then, t is given by [2017]
kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of T
(a) t = T log (1.3) (b) t =
electron = 9 × 10–31 kg). [2012] log(1.3)
(a) 0.51 MeV (b) 7.10 MeV log 2 log1.3
(c) t =T (d) t =T
(c) 6.30 MeV (d) 5.4 MeV log1.3 log 2
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (c) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (c) (c) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b)
31
(d)
1. (a) Charged particles are deflected in magnetic 3. (c) Here, conservation of linear momentum can
field. be applied
2. (a) After every half-life, the mass of the
substance reduces to half its initial value. 4
234 He
N0 N0 / 2 2
5 years 5 years Th
N 0 ¾¾¾¾
® ¾¾¾¾
® 90
2 2
N0 5years N0 / 4 N0
= ¾¾¾¾
® =
4 2 8 238 × 0 = 4 u + 234 v
4
\ v=- u
15 234
Number of half lives n = =3
5 r 4
We know that \ speed =| v |= u
234
n 3
æ 1ö æ 1ö N
N
N= 0ç ÷ = N 0 ç ÷ = 0
è 2ø è 2ø 8
EBD_7764
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P-170 Physics
A 1 5000 1/ 3
1 10. (b) R = R0 ( A)
4. (a) l = log e o = log e
t A 5 1250 1/ 3 1/ 3
R1 æA ö æ 27 ö 3
\ =ç 1÷ =ç =
è 125 ÷ø
2
= log e 2 = 0.4 log e 2 R2 è A2 ø 5
5
5. (b) The number of a-particles released = 8 5
R2 = ´ 3.6 = 6 fermi
Therefore the atomic number should 3
decrease by 16 7
11. (d) of Cu decays in 15 minutes.
The number of b–-particles released = 4 8
Therefore the atomic number should 3
7 1 æ1ö
increase by 4. \ Cu undecayed = N = 1 – = =ç ÷
8 8 è2ø
Also the number of b+ particles released is \ No. of half lifes = 3
2, which should decrease the atomic
t 15
number by 2. n= or 3 =
T T
Therefore the final atomic number
15
= Z –16 + 4 – 2 = Z –14 Þ T = half life period = = 5 minutes
3
= 92 – 14 = 78
6. (a) The radioactive substances emit a -
N = N0 (1 – e–lt)
particles (Helium nucleus), b-particles
(electrons) and neutrinoes. N0 - N 1
Þ = e -lt \ =e
-lt
7. (d) The average kinetic energy per molecule N0 8
3 3 ´ 0.693
= kT 3 ln 2 = lt or l = = 0.1386
2 15
Half-lifeperiod,
This kinetic energy should be able to
0.693 0.693
provide the repulsive potential energy t½ = = = 5 minutes
l 0.1386
3 -14
\ kT = 7.7 ´ 10 12. (c) Intensity I = I 0 . e - md ,
2
-14 Applying logarithm on both sides,
2 ´ 7.7 ´ 10 9
ÞT = -23
= 3.7 ´ 10 æ I ö
3 ´ 1.38 ´ 10 - md = log ç ÷
8. (b) From conservation of momentum è I0 ø
m1v1 = m2 v2 æ I /8ö
- m ´ 36 = logç ÷ ..........(i)
è I ø
æ m ö æv ö v
Þ ç 1 ÷ = ç 2 ÷ given 1 = 2 æ I / 2ö
è m2 ø è v1 ø v2 -m ´ d = log ç ...........(ii)
è I ÷ø
3
m1 1 r1 1 æ r1 ö æ 1 ö 1/ 3 Dividing (i) by (ii),
Þ = Þ 3
= Þ ç r ÷ = çè 2 ÷ø
m2 2 r2 2 è 2ø æ 1ö æ 1ö
log ç ÷ 3log ç ÷
9. (a) The chemical reaction of process is 36 è 8ø è 2ø 36
= = = 3 or d =
d æ 1ö æ 1ö 3
212 H ®24 He log ç ÷ log ç ÷
è 2ø è 2ø
Energy released = 4 × (7) – 4(1.1) = 23.6 MeV = 12 mm
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Nuclei P-171
A æ dN ö
13. (a) ZX + 0 n1 ¾¾
® 3 Li7 + 2 He 4 -ç = l y N0
è dt ÷ø y
On comparison,
Y will decay faster than X.
A = 7 + 4 – 1 = 10, z = 3 + 2 – 0 = 5 21. (d) We know that energy is released when
It is boron 5B10 heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei
7
undergo fusion. Therefore statement (1) is
14. (c) 3 Li + 11p ¾
¾® 8
4 Be + 0
0g correct.
15. (c) The range of energy of b-particles is from The second statement is false because for
zero to some maximum value. heavy nuclei the binding energy per
16. (b) Let E be the energy of proton, then nucleon decreases with increasing Z and
E + 7 ´ 5.6 = 2 ´ [4 ´ 7.06] for light nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases with
increasing Z.
Þ E = 56.48 - 39.2 = 17.28MeV 22. (d) For A + B ® C + e, e is positive. This is
17. (c) The risk posed to a human being by any because Eb for C is greater than the Eb for
radiation exposure depends partly upon A and B.
the absorbed dose, the amount of energy
absorbed per gram of tissue. Absorbed Again for F ® D + E + e, e is positive. This
dose is expressed in rad. A rad is equal to is because Eb for D and E is greater than
100 ergs of energy absorbed by 1 gram of Eb for F.
tissue. The more modern, internationally 23. (c) In nuclear fission, the binding energy per
adopted unit is the gray (named after the nucleon of daughter nuclei is always
English medical physicist L. H. Gray); one greater than the parent nucleus.
gray equals 100 rad. 24. (b) By conservation of energy,
18. (c) Binding energy 2.M 2 1 2M 2
= [ZMP + (A – Z)MN – M]c2 ( M + Dm) c2 = c + . v ,
2 2 2
= [8MP + (17 – 8)MN – M]c2 where v is the speed of the daughter nuclei
= [8MP + 9MN – M]c2
2 M 2
= [8MP + 9MN – Mo]c2 Þ Dmc = v
2
19. (c) There is no change in the proton number
and the neutron number as the g-emission 2 Dm
takes place as a result of excitation or de- \v=c
M
excitation of nuclei. g-rays have no charge 25. (b) As a result of emission of 1 a-particle, the
or mass. mass number decreases by 4 units and
20. (c) According to question, atomic number decreases by 2 units. And
Half life of X, T1/2 = tav , average life of Y by the emission of 1 positron the atomic
number decreases by 1 unit but mass
0.693 1 number remains constant.
Þ =
lX lY \ Mass number of final nucleus = A – 12
Atomic number of final nucleus = Z – 8
Þ l X = (0.693). l Y
\ Number of neutrons = (A – 12) – (Z – 8)
\ lX < lY . =A–Z –4
Now, the rate of decay is given by Number of protons = Z – 8
æ dN ö A-Z -4
-ç = l X N0 \ Required ratio =
è dt ÷ø x Z -8
EBD_7764
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P-172 Physics
26. (b) Number of undecayed atom after time t2 ; = – 9 × 10–31 kg
N0 The energy released during the process
= N 0 e -lt2 ...(i) E = Dmc2
3
E = 9 × 10–31× 9 × 1016 = 81 × 10–15 Joules
Number of undecayed atom after time t1;
2N0 81 ´ 10 -15
= N 0 e -lt1 ...(ii) E= = 0.511MeV
3 1.6 ´ 10 –19
-lt 1 30. (b) For At½ = 20 min, t = 80 min, number of half
From (i), e 2 = lifes n = 4
3
No
æ 1ö \ Nuclei remaining = 4 . Therefore nuclei
Þ–lt2 = loge çè ÷ø ...(iii) 2
3 decayed
2 No
From (ii) – e -lt2 =
3 = N0 - 4
2
æ 2ö For Bt½ = 40 min., t = 80 min, number of half
Þ–lt1 = loge çè 3 ÷ø ...(iv) lifes n = 2
No
Solving (iii) and (iv), we get \ Nuclei remaining = 2 . Therefore
t2 – t1 = 20 min 2
nuclei decayed
27. (c) pi = 0
No
p f = p1 + p 2 = N0 - 2
2
pi = p f No 1
No - 4 1-
2 16
0 = p1 + p 2 \Required ratio = No = 1 =
No - 2 1-
2 4
p1 = - p 2
15 4 5
´ =
h 16 3 4
l1 =
p1 31. (d) Let initially there are total N0 number of
nuclei
h
l2 = NB
p2 At time t = 0.3(given)
NA
l1 = l 2 Þ NB = 0.3NA
l1 = l 2 = l. N0 = NA + NB = NA + 0.3NA
28. (b) Statement-1: Energy of b-particle from 0 N0
to maximum so E1 - E2 is the continuous \ NA =
1.3
energy spectrum. As we know Nt = N0e – lt
Statement-2: For energy conservation and
momentum conservation at least three N0
or, = N0e – lt
particles, daughter nucleus, b–1 and anti- 1.3
neutron are required. 1
1 = e–lt Þ ln(1.3) = lt
29. (a) 0n ® 11H + -1e 0
¾¾ +n+Q 1.3
The mass defect during the process
ln(1.3) ln (1.3) ln(1.3) T
Dm = mn - mH - me = 1.6725 × 10–27 or, t = Þ t= = ln(2)
l ln(2)
– (1.6725 × 10–27+ 9 × 10–31kg) T
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28
Semiconductor Electronics :
Materials, Devices and
Simple Circuits
1. At absolute zero, Si acts as [2002] (a) crystal sturcture
(a) non-metal (b) metal (b) variation of the number of charge carriers
(c) insulator (d) none of these with temperature
(c) type of bonding
2. By increasing the temperature, the specific
(d) variation of scattering mechanism with
resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor
temperature
[2002]
7. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse-
(a) increases for both
biased p-n junction, the [2003]
(b) decreases for both
(a) electric field is zero
(c) increases, decreases
(b) potential is maximum
(d) decreases, increases
(c) electric field is maximum
3. The energy band gap is maximum in [2002]
(d) potential is zero
(a) metals (b) superconductors
8. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier
(c) insulators (d) semiconductors.
[2004]
4. The part of a transistor which is most heavily
(a) electrons move from collector to base
doped to produce large number of majority
(b) holes move from emitter to base
carriers is [2002]
(c) electrons move from base to collector
(a) emitter
(d) holes move from base to emitter
(b) base
9. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter
(c) collector
configuration for load impedance of 1kW
(d) can be any of the above three. (h fe = 50 and hoe = 25) the current gain is
5. A strip of copper and another of germanium are
[2004]
cooled from room temperature to 80K. The
(a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7
resistance of [2003]
(c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78
(a) each of these decreases
10. A piece of copper and another of germanium are
(b) copper strip increases an d that of
cooled from room temperature to 77K, the
germanium decreases
resistance of [2004]
(c) copper strip decreases an d that of
(a) copper increases and germanium decreases
germanium increases
(b) each of them decreases
(d) each of these increases
(c) each of them increases
6. The difference in the variation of resistance with
temeperature in a metal and a semiconductor (d) copper decreases and germanium increases
arises essentially due to the difference in the 11. When p-n junction diode is forward biased then
[2003] [2004]
EBD_7764
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P-174 Physics
(a) both the depletion region and barrier height current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current
are reduced amplification factor (b) will be [2006]
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier (a) 49 (b) 50
height is reduced (c) 51 (d) 48
(c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier 17. A solid which is not transparent to visible light
height is increased and whose conductivity increases with
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height temperature is formed by [2006]
are increased (a) Ionic bonding
12. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor (b) Covalent bonding
increases when electromagnetic radiation of (c) Vander Waals bonding
wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on (d) Metallic bonding
it. The band gap in (eV) for the semiconductor is 18. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to
7
[2005] that of holes in a semiconductor is and the
5
(a) 2.5 eV (b) 1.1 eV 7
ratio of currents is , then what is the ratio of
(c) 0.7 eV (d) 0.5 eV 4
13. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference their drift velocities? [2006]
5 4
between the input signal voltage and output (a) (b)
8 5
voltage is [2005]
5 4
p (c) (d)
(a) p (b) 4 7
4 19. The circuit has two oppositively connected ideal
p diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in
(c) (d) 0
2 the circuit? [2006]
14. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 4W
Hz mains frequency, the fundamental frequency
D1 D2
in the ripple would be [2005]
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz 12V
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz 3W 2W
15. If the lattice constant of this semiconductor is
decreased, then which of the following is correct? (a) 1.71 A (b) 2.00 A
[2006]
(c) 2.31 A (d) 1.33 A
conduction 20. In the following, which one of the diodes reverse
Ec
band width biased? [2006]
band gap Eg +10 V
valence
band width Ev
(a) R
(a) All Ec, Eg, Ev increase +5 V
(b) Ec and Ev increase, but Eg decreases
(b)
(c) Ec and Ev decrease, but Eg increases –10 V
(d) All Ec, Eg, Ev decrease R
16. In a common base mode of a transistor, the
–5 V
collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter
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Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-175
(d)
B
26. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act (a) OR gate (b) NOT gate
as a rectifier. An alternating current source (V) is (c) XOR gate (d) NAND gate
connected in the circuit. [2009] 28. The output of an OR gate is connected to both
the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination
D will serve as a: [2011 RS]
R (a) NOT gate (b) NOR gate
(c) AND gate (d) OR gate
29. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as
V ~ shown in figure is : [2012]
A
The current (I) in the resistor (R) can be shown
by : Y
(a) B
A B Y A B Y
I 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
(b) (a) (b)
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
t
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) (c) (d)
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
I 30. The I-V characteristic of an LED is [2013]
(d)
t
I
27. The combination of gates shown below yields (a)
[2010]
O V
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Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-177
r
I
s
(c)
x
O V
(a) OR (b) NAND
V O (c) NOT (d) AND
35. Identify the semiconductor devices whose
R characteristics are given below, in the order (p),
Y I
(d) G (q), (r), (s) : [2016]
B I I
(a)
+2V –2V V V
–3V –3V
(b)
(p) (q)
2V 4V
(c) I Resistance
dark
–2V +2V
(d)
V
32. A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly Intensity
around it. The amplitude of the electric field of Illuminated of light
the light at a distance of 1 m from the diode is :
[2015] (r) (s)
(a) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance,
(a) 5.48 V/m (b) 7.75 V/m
Zener diode, simple diode
(c) 1.73 V/m (d) 2.45 V/m (b) Zener diode, Solar cell, simple diode, Light
33. For a common emitter configuration, if a and dependent resistance
b have their usual meanings, the incorrect (c) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light
dependent resistance
relationship between a and b is : [2016]
(d) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent
b b2 resistance, Solar cell
(a) a= (b) a= 36. In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-
1 +b 1 +b2
p-n transistor, the phase difference between the
1 1 b input and the output voltages will be : [2017]
(c) a = b+ 1 (d) a= 1 -b (a) 135° (b) 180°
(c) 45° (d) 90°
EBD_7764
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P-178 Physics
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (c) (b) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36
(a) (d) (b) (a) (c) (b)
1. (c) Pure silicon, at absolute zero, will contain 3. (c) The energy band gap is maximum in
all the electrons in bounded state. The insulators. Because of this the conduction
band of insulators is empty.
conduction band will be empty. So there
will be no free electrons (in conduction 4. (a) Emitter sends the majority charge carrriers
towards the collector. Therefore emitter is
band) and holes (in valence band) due to
most heavily doped.
thermal agitation. Pure silicon will act as
insulator. 5. (c) The resistance of metal (like Cu) decreases
with decrease in temperature whereas the
2. (c) Specific resistance is resistivity which is
resistance of a semi-conductor (like Ge)
given by
increases with decrease in temperature.
m 6. (b) When the temperature increases, certain
r=
ne 2 t bounded electrons become free which tend
where n = no. of free electrons per unit to promote conductivity. Simultaneously
volume number of collisions between electrons and
and t = average relaxation time positive kernels increases
For a conductor with rise in temperature n 7. (c) It can be seen from the following graph -
increases and t decreases. But the decrease Electric field
in t is more dominant than increase in n
resulting an increase in the value of r .
For a semiconductor with rise in p n
temperature, n increases and t decreases. Distance
But the increase in n is more dominant than
decrease in t resulting in a decrease in the
value of r. 8. (d) Holes move from base to emmitter.
9. (d) In common emitter configuration current
r 2 = r1 (1 + aDT ) gain
For conductor a is positive - hf e
Ai =
\ r2 > r 1 for D T positive i.e., increase in 1 + boe RL
temperature. -50
For semi conductor a is negative =
1 + 25 ´ 10-6 ´ 1 ´ 103
\ r2 < r 1 for D T positive. = – 48.78
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Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-179
10. (d) Copper is a conductor, so its resistance (covalent bonding) and insulators (ionic
decreases on decreasing temperature as bonding) increases with increase in
thermal agitation decreases,; whereas temperature while that of metals (metallic
germanium is semiconductor therefore on bonding) decreases.
decreasing temper ature resistance
increases. Ie ne eAve 7 7 ve v 5
18. (c) = Þ = ´ Þ e =
11. (a) Both the depletion region and barrier height Ih nh eAvh 4 5 vh vh 4
is reduced. 19. (b) D 2 is forward biased whereas D 1 is
12. (d) Band gap = energy of photon of wavelength reversed biased.
2480 nm. So,
So effective resistance of the circuit
hc R = 4 + 2 = 6W
DE =
l
12
æ 6.63 ´10 - 34 ´ 3 ´108 ö 1
\i = =2A
=ç ÷´ eV 6
ç 2480 ´10 -9 ÷ -19
è ø 1.6 ´10 20. (d) p-side connected to low potential and n-
= 0.5 eV side is connected to high potential.
13. (d) Zero; In common base amplifier circuit, 21. (a) The current will flow through RL when the
input and output voltage are in the same diode is forward biased.
phase. 22. (a) Si and Ge are semiconductors but C is an
insulator. Also, the conductivity of Si and
14. (d) Input frequency, f = 50 Hz Þ T = 1 Ge is more than C because the valence
50 electrons of Si, Ge and C lie in third, fourth
and second orbit respectively.
T 1
For full wave rectifier, T1 = = 23. (b) It is a p-n-p transistor with R as base. None
2 100
of the option is correct.
Þ f1 = 100 Hz.
24. (d) A
15. (c) A crystal structure is composed of a unit
cell, a set of atoms arranged in a particular
way; which is periodically repeated in three C
dimensions on a lattice. The spacing
between unit cells in various directions is B
called its lattice parameters or constants. The truth table for the above logic gate is :
Increasing these lattice constants will
increase or widen the band-gap (Eg), which A B C
means more energy would be required by 1 1 1
electrons to reach the conduction band
1 0 1
from the valence band. Automatically Ec
and Ev decreases. 0 1 1
16. (a) IC = 5.488 mA, Ie = 5.6 mA 0 0 0
31. (a) P n
A B Y
0 0 0 For forward bias, p-side must be at higher
0 1 0 potential than n-side. DV = (+ )Ve
1 0 0 1
32. (d) Using Uav = e0 E 2
1 1 1 2
26. (b) We know that a single p-n junction diode P
connected to an a-c source acts as a half But U av =
4 pr 2 ´ c
wave rectifier [Forward biased in one half
P 1
cycle and reverse biased in the other half \ 2
= e0 E 2 ´ c
cycle]. 4 pr 2
27. (a) The final boolean expression is, 2P 2 ´ 0.1 ´ 9 ´ 109
E 20 = =
X = ( A . B ) = A + B = A + B Þ OR gate 4 pr 2 e 0 c 1 ´ 3 ´ 108
Communication
Systems 29
1. This question has Statement – 1 and Statement 4. A diode detector is used to detect an
– 2. Of the four choices given after the amplitudemodulated wave of 60% modulation
statements, choose the one that best describes by using a condenser of capacity 250 picofarad
the two statements. [2011] in parallel with a load resistance 100 kilo ohm.
Statement – 1 : Sky wave signals are used for Find the maximum modulated frequency which
long distance radio communication. These could be detected by it. [2013]
signals are in general, less stable than ground D
wave signals.
Statement – 2 : The state of ionosphere varies
from hour to hour, day to day and season to Signal C R
season.
(a) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, (a) 10.62 MHz (b) 10.62 kHz
Statement–2 is the correct explanation of (c) 5.31 MHz (d) 5.31 kHz
Statement–1.
(b) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, 5. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated
on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The
Statement–2 is not the correct explanation
frequencies of the resultant signal is/are : [2015]
of Statement – 1.
(a) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
(c) Statement – 1 is false, Statement – 2 is true.
(d) Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is false. (b) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
(c) 2 MHz only
2. Which of the following four alternatives is not
correct ? We need modulation : [2011 RS] (d) 2005 kHz and 1995 kHz
(a) to reduce the time lag between transmission 6. Choose the correct statement :
and reception of the information signal (a) In frequency modulation the amplitude of
(b) to reduce the size of antenna the high frequency carrier wave is made to
vary in proportion to the amplitude of the
(c) to reduce the fractional band width, that is
audio signal.
the ratio of the signal band width to the
centre frequency (b) In frequency modulation the amplitude of
the high frequency carrier wave is made to
(d) to increase the selectivity
vary in proportion to the frequency of the
3. A radar has a power of 1kW and is operating at audio signal.
a frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain
(c) In amplitude modulation the amplitude of
top of height 500 m. The maximum distance upto
the high frequency carrier wave is made to
which it can detect object located on the surface
of the earth vary in proportion to the amplitude of the
audio signal.
(Radius of earth = 6.4 × 106m) is : [2012]
(d) In amplitude modulation the frequency of
(a) 80 km (b) 16 km the high frequency carrier wave is made to
(c) 40 km (d) 64 km vary in proportion to the amplitude of the
audio signal. [2016]
EBD_7764
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P-182 Physics
7. In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal carrier of the following frequencies is not contained in
frequency used is denoted by wc and the signal the modulated wave ? [2017]
frequency is denoted by wm. The bandwidth (a) wm + wc (b) wc – wm
(Dwm) of the signal is such that Dwm < wc. Which
(c) wm (d) wc
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(b) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c)
1. (b) For long distance communication, sky 4. (b) Given : Resistance R = 100 kilo ohm
wave signals are used. = 100 × 103 W
Also, the state of ionosphere varies every time. Capacitance C = 250 picofarad
So, both statements are correct. = 250 × 10–12F
2. (a) Low frequencies cannot be transmitted to t = RC = 100 × 103 × 250 × 10–12 sec
long distances. Therefore, they are super = 2.5 × 107 × 10–12 sec
imposed on a high frequency carrier signal
= 2.5 × 10–5 sec
by a process known as modulation.
The higher frequency whcih can be
Speed of electro-magnetic waves will not detected with tolerable distortion is
change due to modulation. So there will be
1 1
time lag between transmission and f = = Hz
2pma RC 2 p ´ 0.6 ´ 2.5 ´ 10 -5
reception of the information signal.
3. (a) Let d is the maximum distance, upto which 100 ´ 10 4 4
= Hz = ´ 10 4 Hz
it can detect the objects 25 ´ 1.2p 1.2 p
C = 10.61 KHz
This condition is obtained by applying the
h condition that rate of decay of capacitor
d voltage must be equal or less than the rate
B of decay modulated singnal voltage for
proper detection of mdoulated signal.
A q R 5. (a) Amplitude modulated wave consists of
R three frequencies are wc + wm, w,wc – wm
O i.e. 2005 KHz, 2000KHz, 1995 KHz
6. (c) In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of
the high frequency carrier wave made to
vary in proportional to the amplitude of
From DAOC audio signal.
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (c) (a) (a) (d) (b) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (a) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21
(d) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b)
www.crackjee.xyz
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry C-3
3 1.4 ´ 10
or BCl3 + H 2 ® B + 3HCl = = 46.6
2 0.3
Now, since 10.8 gm boron requires 14 ´ 2 ´ 100
hydrogen % of nitrogen in urea = = 46.6
60
=
3
´ 22.4L at N.T.P
[ Mol.wt of urea =60]
2 Similarly % of Nitrogen in Benzamide
hence 21.6 gm boron requires hydrogen 14 ´ 100
= = 11.5% [C6H5CONH2 = 121]
3 22.4 121
´ ´ 21.6 < 67.2L at N.T. P..
2 10.8 14 ´ 1 ´ 100
5. (d) 25 × N = 0.1 × 35 ; N = 0.14 Acctamide = = 23.4%
59
Ba(OH)2 is diacid base [ CH3CONH2=59]
N 14 ´ 2 ´ 100
hence N = M × 2 or M = Thiourea = = 36.8%
2 76
[NH2CSNH2 = 76]
M = 0.07 M
Hence the compound must be urea.
EBD_7764
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C-4 Chemistry
9. (b) = 3.6 × 98 g = 352.8 g
\ 1000 ml solution has 352.8 g of H2SO4
From the molarity equation.
Given that 29 g of H2SO4 is present in =
M1V1 + M2V2 = MV
100 g of solution
Let M be the molarity of final mixture,
\ 352.8 g of H2SO4 is present in
M1V1 +M V2
2 100
M= where V = V1 + V2 = ´ 352.8 g of solution
V 29
= 1216 g of solution
480 ´ 1.5 + 520 ´ 1.2
M= = 1.344 M
480 + 520 Mass 1216
Density = =
10. (d) Relative atomic mass = Volume 1000
= 1.216 g/ml = 1.22 g/ml
Mass of one atom of the element
14. (a) 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) ® 2Al3+(aq) + 6Cl–
th
1/12 part of the mass of one atom of Carbon - 12 (aq) + 3H2(g)
Q 6 moles of HCl produces = 3 moles of H2
Mass of one atom of the element = 3 × 22.4 L of H2 at S.T.P
or ´ 12
mass of one atom of the C - 12 \ 1 mole of HCl produces
Now if we use 1 / 6 in place of 1 /12 the 3 ´ 22.4
formula becomes = L of H2 at S.T.P
6
Relative atomic mass = = 11.2 L of H2 at STP
15. (a) Molality = Moles of solute / Mass of
Mass of one atom of element solvent in kg
´6
Mass of one atom of carbon 0.01/ 60 0.01
Molality = = ;
\ Relative atomic mass decrease twice 0.3 60 ´ 0.3
11. (d) 1 Mole of Mg3(PO4)2 contains 8 mole of d = 1 g/ml
oxygen atoms
= 5.55 ´ 10-4 m
\ 8 mole of oxygen atoms º 1 mole of
Mg3(PO4)2 mole of Mg3(PO4)2 16. (d) Q 18 gm, H2O contains = 2 gm H
\ 0.72 gm H2O contains
1
0.25 mole of oxygen atom º ´ 0.25 mole 2
8 = ´ 0.72 gm = 0.08 gm H
18
of Mg3(PO4)2
Q 44 gm CO2 contains = 12 gm C
= 3.125 ´ 10 -2 mole of Mg3 (PO4)2 \ 3.08 gm CO2 contains
12. (a)
12
= ´ 3.08 = 0.84 gm C
æ1 M ö 44
Apply the formula d = M ç + 2 ÷
è m 1000 ø 0.84 0.08
\C: H= :
12 1
æ1 60 ö = 0.07 : 0.08 = 7 : 8
\ 1.02 = 2.05 ç + ÷
è m 1000 ø \ Empirical formula = C7H8
On solving we get, m = 2.288 mol/kg 17. (b) For one mole of the oxide
13. (d) Since molarity of solution is 3.60 M. It Moles of M = 0.98
means 3.6 moles of H2SO4 is present in its Moles of O2– = 1
1 litre solution. Let moles of M3+ = x
Mass of 3.6 moles of H2SO4 \ Moles of M2+ = 0.98– x
= Moles × Molecular mass On balancing charge
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Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry C-5
(0.98 – x) × 2 + 3x – 2 = 0 20. (c) Percentage (by mass) of elements given in
x = 0.04 the body of a healthy human adult is :-
0.04
\ % of M3+ = ´100 < 4.08% Oxygen = 61.4%, Carbon = 22.9%,
0.98
Hydrogen = 10.0% and Nitrogen = 2.6%
18. (c) Let the weight of acetic acid initially be w1
in 50 ml of 0.060 N solution. Q Total weight of person = 75 kg
Let the N = (Normality = 0.06 N)
10
0.06 = \ Mass due to 1H is = 75 ´ = 7.5 kg
Þ = 0.18 g = 180 mg. 100
After an hour, the strength of acetic acid =
0.042 N If 1H atoms are replaced by 2H atoms.
so, let the weight of acetic acid be w2 Mass gain by person would be = 7.5 kg
N=
21. (b) Given chemical eqn
0.042 =
Þ w2 = 0.126 g = 126 mg M2CO3 + 2HCl ® 2MCl + H2O + CO2
1gm 0.01186 mole
So amount of acetic acid adsorbed per 3g
= 180 – 126 mg = 54 mg from the balanced chemical eqn.
Amount of acetic acid adsorbed per g = 18 nM2CO3 = nCO2
19. (d) CxHy(g) + O2(g) ® xCO2(g) + H2O(l)
Volume of O2 used = = 75 ml 1
= 0.01186
\ From the reaction of combustion M 2 CO3
1 ml CxHy requires = 1
15 ml = \ M 2 CO3 =
0.01186
So, 4x + y = 20
Þ M = 84.3 g/mol
x= 3
y= 8
C3 H 8
EBD_7764
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C-6 Chemistry
Structure of Atom 2
1. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in 7. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of
ground state is 13.6. ev, then that in the 2nd mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres
excited state is [2002] per second is approximately [2003]
(a) 1.51 eV (b) 3.4 eV (a) 10–31 metres (b) 10–16 metres
(c) 6.04 eV (d) 13.6 eV. (c) 10–25 metres (d) 10–33 metres
2. Uncertainty in position of a minute particle of Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js
mass 25 g in space is 10-5 m. What is the uncertainty 8. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
in its velocity (in ms-1)? (h = 6.6 ´ 10-34 Js) is correct for an electron in 4f orbital ? [2004]
[2002] (a) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + ½
(a) 2.1 ´ 10–34 (b) 0.5 ´ 10 –34
(b) n = 4, l = 4, m = – 4, s = – ½
(c) 2.1 ´ 10–28 (d) 0.5 ´ 10–23. (c) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + ½
3. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = + ½
no. of Fe = 26) ion is [2003] 9. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (X = 24).
(a) 4 (b) 5 The number of electrons with the azimuthal
(c) 6 (d) 3 quantum numbers, l = 1 and 2 are, respectively
4. The orbital angular momentum for an electron [2004]
h (a) 16 and 4 (b) 12 and 5
revolving in an orbit is given by l (l + 1) . .
2p (c) 12 and 4 (d) 16 and 5
This momentum for an s-electron will be given 10. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when
by [2003] in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to
h stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant
(a) zero (b) = 1.097×107 m–1) [2004]
2p
1 h (a) 406 nm (b) 192 nm
(c) h (d) + .
2. 2 2p (c) 91 nm (d) 9.1×10–8 nm
2p
11. Which one of the following sets of ions
5. Which one of the following groupings represents represents the collection of isoelectronic
a collection of isoelectronic species ?(At. nos. : species? [2004]
Cs : 55, Br : 35) [2003] (a) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+
(a) N3–, F–, Na+ (b) Be, Al3+, Cl– (b) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
(c) Ca2+, Cs+, Br (d) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (c) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
6. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, (d) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
the third line from the red end corresponds to
(Atomic nos. : F = 9, Cl = 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12,
which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of
Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21)
the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of
hydrogen [2003] 12. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following
orbitals described by the three quantum
(a) 5 ® 2 (b) 4 ® 1 members will have the same energy in the
(c) 2®5 (d) 3 ® 2 absence of magnetic and electric fields? [2005]
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Structure of Atom C-7
(A) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 (B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 19. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is
(C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 1.312 × 106 J mol–1. The energy required to excite
(E) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0 the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(a) (D) and (E) (b) (C) and (D) [2008]
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (A) and (B) (a) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1 (b) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1
13. Of the following sets which one does NOT (c) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1 (d) 9.84 × 105 J mol–1
contain isoelectronic species? [2005] 20. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer)
associated with a proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms –1.
(a) BO 33 - , CO 32 - , NO 3-
(Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and
(b) SO32 - , CO32 - , NO3- h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) [2009]
(a) 0.40 nm (b) 2.5 nm
(c) CN - , N 2 , C 22 -
(c) 14.0 nm (d) 0.32 nm
(d) PO 34 - , SO 24 - , ClO -4 21. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed
14. According to Bohr's theory, the angular of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity
momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is [2006] with which the position of the electron can be
(a) 10 h / p (b) 2.5 h / p located is ( h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2s–1, mass of
(c) 25 h / p (d) 1.0 h / p electron, em = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) : [2009]
15. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass (a) 5.10 × 10 –3 m (b) 1.92 × 10 –3 m
= 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a velocity 300 ms–1, (c) 3.84 × 10 –3 m (d) 1.52 × 10 –4 m
accurate upto 0.001% will be [2006] 22. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl
(a) 1.92 × 10–2 m (b) 3.84 × 10–2 m bonds in Cl 2 is 242 kJ mol –1 . The longest
(c) 19.2 × 10–2 m (d) 5.76 × 10–2 m wavelength of light capable of breaking a single
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) Cl – Cl bond is (c = 3 × 108 ms–1 and NA = 6.02 ×
16. Which one of the following sets of ions 1023 mol–1). [2010]
represents a collection of isoelectronic species? (a) 594 nm (b) 640 nm
[2006] (c) 700 nm (d) 494 nm
(a) N3–, O2–, F–, S2– 23. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1.
(b) Li+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+ The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of
(c) K+, Cl–, Ca2+, Sc3+ Li2+ is [2010]
(d) Ba2+, Sr2+, K+, Ca2+ (a) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1
17. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (b) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
represents the highest energy of an atom? (c) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
[2007] (d) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1
(a) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
24. The frequency of light emitted for the transition
(b) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 n = 4 to n = 2 of the He+ is equal to the transition
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2 in H atom corresponding to which of the
(d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2. following? [2011RS]
18. Which one of the following constitutes a group (a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
of the isoelectronic species? [2008] (c) n = 4 to n = 3 (d) n = 3 to n = 1
2– –
(a) C2 , O2 , CO, NO 25. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n
(b) NO+ ,C2– – and l : [2012]
2 , CN , N 2
(A) n = 4, l = 1 (B) n = 4, l = 0
(c) CN – , N 2 ,O2– 2–
2 , C2 (C) n = 3, l = 2 (D) n = 3, l = 1
(d) N 2 ,O2– , NO+ ,CO can be placed in order of increasing energy as :
EBD_7764
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C-8 Chemistry
(a) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) 29. Which of the following is the energy of a possible
(b) (D) < (B) < (C) < (A) excited state of hydrogen? [JEE M 2015]
(c) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C) (a) –3.4 eV (b) +6.8 eV
(d) (A) < (C) < (B) < (D) (c) +13.6 eV (d) –6.8 eV
30. A stream of electrons from a heated filaments
26. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the
was passed two charged plates kept at a
given isoelectronic species is : [2012]
potential difference V esu. If e and m are charge
– 2+ +
(a) Cl , Ca , K , S 2– (b)S , Cl , Ca2+ , K+
2– –
and mass of an electron, respectively, then the
2+ + –
(c) Ca , K , Cl , S 2– (d)K+, S2–, Ca2+, Cl– value of h/l (where l is wavelength associated
27. Energy of an electron is given by E = – 2.178 × with electron wave) is given by: [JEE M 2016]
æ Z2 ö (a) meV (b) 2meV
10-18 J ç 2 ÷ . Wavelength of light required to
èn ø (c) meV (d) 2meV
excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level 31. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen
n = 1 to n = 2 will be : [2013] atom is : [JEE M 2017]
(h = 6.62 × 10 –34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1) (Plank's const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js ; mass of
electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg ; charge of electron
(a) 1.214 × 10–7 m (b) 2.816 × 10.–7 m
e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C ; permittivity of vaccum
(c) 6.500 × 10–7 m (d) 8.500 × 10–7 m
Î0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2)
28. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
(a) 1.65Å (b) 4.76Å
valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(c) 0.529Å (d) 2.12Å
[2014]
32. The group having isoelectronic species is :
1 1 (a) O2– , F–, Na+, Mg2+ [JEE M 2017]
(a) 5, 0, 0, + (b) 5,1, 0, +
2 2 (b) O– , F–, Na, Mg+
1 1 (c) O2– , F–, Na , Mg2+
(c) 5,1,1, + (d) 5, 0,1, +
2 2 (d) O– , F–, Na+ , Mg2+
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (c) (a) (a) (a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (b) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b)
31 32
(d) (a)
-18 9 æ 1 1 ö hc
or I2 = -19.6 ´ 10 ´ 27. (a) DE = 2.178 ´ 10-18 ç 2 - 2 ÷ =
4 è1 2 ø l
= – 4.41 × 10–17 J/atom 3 hc
Þ 2.178 ´ 10-18 ´ =
24. (a) For He+ 4 l
1 æ 1 1ö 6.62 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
v= = RH Z 2 ç - =
l è 2 2 42 ÷ø l
For H 6.62 ´ 10 -34 3 ´ 108 ´ 4
l=
2.178 ´ 10 -18 ´3
æ ö –7
= 1.214 × 10 m
1 1 1
v= = RH ç - ÷ 28. (a) The electronic configuration of Rubidium
l ç n12 n2 ÷
è 2ø (Rb = 37) is
For same frequency, 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 10 4s 2 4 p 6 5s1
æ ö æ ö Since last electron enters in 5s orbital
1 1 1 1 1
z2 = ç 2 - 2 ÷ = ç 2 - 2 ÷ Hence n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = ±
çè 2 4 ÷ø çè n1 n2 ÷ø 2
29. (a) Total energy =
Since, z = 2
where n = 2, 3, 4 ....
1 1 1 1 Putting n = 2
\ - = -
n12 n22 12 2 2 ET =
\ n1 = 1 & n2 = 2 30. (b) As electron of charge ‘e’ is passed through
25. (b) (a) 4 p (b) 4 s ‘V’ volt, kinetic energy of electron will be
eV
(c) 3 d (d) 3 p
Wavelength of electron wave (l) =
Accroding to Bohr Bury's (n + l) l = Þ\ =
rule, increasing order of energy (D) < (B) < 31. (d) Radius of nth Bohr orbit in H-atom
(C) < (A). = 0.53 n2Å
Note : If the two orbitals have same value Radius of II Bohr orbit = 0.53 × (2)2
of (n + l) then the orbital with lower value = 2.12 Å
of n will be filled first. 32. (a) Isoelectronic species have same no. of
26. (c) Among isoelectronic species ionic radii electrons.
increases as the charge increases. ions O–2 F– Na+ Mg2+
Order of ionic radii Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2– 8+2 9+1 11–1 12–2
The number of electrons remains the same No. of e– = 10 10 10 10
but nuclear charge increases with increase therefore O 2– , F – , Na + , Mg 2+ are
in the atomic number causing decrease in isoelectronic
size.
EBD_7764
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C-12 Chemistry
3
Classification of Elements
and Periodicity in Properties
1. According to the Periodic Law of elements, the 7. In which of the following arrangements, the
variation in properties of elements is related to their order is NOT according to the property indicated
[2003] against it? [2005]
(a) nuclear masses (a) Li < Na < K < Rb :
(b) atomic numbers Increasing metallic radius
(c) nuclear neutron-proton number ratios (b) I < Br < F < Cl :
(d) atomic masses Increasing electron gain enthalpy
2. Which one of the following is an amphoteric (with negative sign)
oxide ? [2003] (c) B < C < N < O
(a) Na2O (b) SO2 Increasing first ionization enthalpy
(c) B2O3 (d) ZnO (d) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F -
3. Which one of the following ions has the highest Increasing ionic size
value of ionic radius ? [2004] 8. Following statements regarding the periodic
(a) O2– (b) B3+ trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals
(c) Li+ (d) F– and the halogens are given. Which of these
statements gives the correct picture? [2006]
4. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct
order of acid strength is [2004] (a) Chemical reactivity increases with increase
in atomic number down the group in both
(a) Al2O3 < SiO2< SO2 < P2O3
the alkali metals and halogens
(b) SiO2< SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
(b) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but
(c) SO2< P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 in the halogens it decreases with increase
(d) Al2O3 < SiO2< P2O3 < SO2 in atomic number down the group
5. The formation of the oxide ion O (2g-) requires (c) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals
first an exothermic and then an endothermic step but increases in the halogens with increase
as shown below [2004] in atomic number down the group
O(g) + e - = O(g)
-
DHº = -142 kJmol -1 (d) In both the alkali metals and the halogens
O - (g) + e - = O (g)
2-
DHº = 844 kJmol -1 the chemical reactivity decreases with
This is because increase in atomic number down the group
(a) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of 9. In which of the following arrangements, the
another electron sequence is not strictly according to the
(b) Oxygen has high electron affinity property written against it? [2008]
(c) Oxygen is more elecronegative (a) HF < HCl < HBr , HI : increasing acid
strength
(d) O– ion has comparatively larger size than
oxygen atom (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 <SbH3 : increasing
basic strength
6. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in
(c) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionization
character? [2005]
enthalpy
(a) SnO2 (b) SiO 2
(d) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing
(c) CO2 (d) CaO oxidising power
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Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties C-13
10. The correct sequence which shows decreasing Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar ? [2013]
order of the ionic radii of the elements is (a) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
[2010] (b) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(a) Al3+ > Mg 2+ > Na + > F- > O2- (c) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(b) Na + > Mg 2 + > Al3+ > O 2- > F- (d) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
(c) Na + > F- > Mg2 + > O2 - > Al3+ 13. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3–, O2– and F– are
(d) O2 - > F- > Na + > Mg 2 + > Al3+ respectively : [JEE M 2015]
11. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with (a) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I, having atomic (b) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively, is : (c) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
[2011RS] (d) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) Cl > F > Br > I 14. Which of the following atoms has the highest
(c) Br > Cl > I > F (d) I > Br > Cl > F first ionization energy? [JEE M 2016]
12. Which of the following represents the correct (a) K (b) Sc
order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for (c) Rb (d) Na
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
(b) (d) (a) (d) (a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b)
1. (b) According to modern periodic law, the SO 2 and P 2 O 3 are acidic as their
properties of the elements are repeated after corresponding acids H2SO3 and H3PO3 are
certain regular intervals when these strong acids.
elements are arranged in order of their 5. (a) O– ion exerts a force of repulsion on the
increasing atomic numbers. incoming electron. The energy is required
2. (d) Na2O (basic), SO2 and B2O3 (acidic) and to overcome it.
ZnO is amphoteric. 6. (a) CaO is basic as it form strong base Ca(OH)2
3. (a) O– – and F– are isoelectronic. Hence have on reaction with water.
same number of shells, therefore greater CaO + H2O –––––® Ca(OH)2
the nuclear charge smaller will be the size CO2 is acidic as it dissolve in water forming
i.e. unstable carbonic acid.
O– – > F– H2O + CO2 –––––® H2CO3
further Li + and B3+ are isoelectronic. Silica (SiO2) is insoluble in water and acts
therefore as a very weak acid.
Li+ > B3+ SnO2 is amphoteric as it reacts with both
Hence the correct order of atomic size is. acid and base.
O-- > F– > Li+ > B3+ SnO2 + 2H2SO4–––––® Sn(SO4)2 + 2H2O
4. (d) As the size increases the basic nature of SnO2 + 2KOH–––––® K2SnO3 + H2O
oxides changes to acidic nature i.e., acidic 7. (c) In a period the value of ionisation potential
nature increases. increases from left to right with breaks
SO 2 > P 2 O 3 > SiO 2 > Al 2 O 3 where the atoms have some what stable
Acidic Weak Amphoteric configuration. In this case N has half filled
acidic
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C-14 Chemistry
stable orbitals. Hence has highest 11. (b) As we move down in a group electron gain
ionisation energy. Thus the correct order enthalpy becomes less negative because
is the size of the atom increases and the
B< C< O < N distance of added electron from the nucleus
and not as given in option (c) increases. Negative electron gain enthalpy
8. (b) The alkali metals are highly reactive because of F is less than Cl. This is due to the fact
their first ionisation potential is very low that when an electron is added to F, the
and hence they have great tendency to added electron goes to the smaller n = 2
loses electron to form unipositive ion. energy level and experiences significant
repulsion from the other electrons present
NOTE On moving down group- I from
in this level. In Cl, the electron goes to the
Li to Cs ionisation enthalpy decreases larger n = 3 energy level and consequently
hence the reactivity increases. The
occupies a larger region of space leading
halogens are most reactive elements due
to much less electron–electron repulsion.
to their low bond dissociation energy, high
So the correct order is
electron affinity and high enthalpy of
hydration of halide ion. However their Cl > F > Br > I.
reactivity decreases with increase in atomic 12. (c) On moving down a group size increases
number hence ionisation enthalpy decreases,
9. (b) In hydrides of 15th group elements, basic hence Se < S and Ba < Ca. Further, Ar being
character decreases on descending the an inert gas has maximum IE.
group i.e. 13. (a) For isoelectronic species, size of anion in-
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3. creases as negative charge increases. Thus
the correct order is
10. (d) All the given species contains 10 e– each
14. (b) Alkali metals have the lowest ionization
i.e. isoelectronic. energy in each period on the other hand Sc
For isoelectronic species anion having is a d - block element.
high negative charge is largest in size and Transition metals have smaller atomic radii
the cation having high positive charge is and higher nuclear charge leading to high
smallest. ionisation energy.
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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure C-15
4
Chemical Bonding and
Molecular Structure
1. In which of the following species the interatomic 7. The pair of species having identical shapes for
bond angle is 109° 28’? [2002] molecules of both species is [2003]
(a) NH3, (BF4) –1 +
(b) (NH4) , BF3 (a) XeF2, CO2 (b) BF3, PCl3
(c) NH3, BF4 (d) (NH2)–1, BF3. (c) PF5, IF5 (d) CF4, SF4
2. Which of the following are arranged in an 8. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first)
increasing order of their bond strengths? [2002] in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is [2004]
(a) O2– < O2 < O2+ <O22– (a) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3
(b) O22– < O2– < O2 <O2+ (b) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
(c) O2– < O22– < O2 <O2+ (c) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3
(d) O2+ < O2 < O2– <O22– (d) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4
3. Hybridisation of the underline atom changes in: 9. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3.
[2002] Which of the following statements is true for
these two species ? [2004]
(a) AlH3 changes to AlH -4
(a) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
(b) H 2 O changes to H3O+ (b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(c) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
(c) NH 3 changes to NH +4 (d) Bond length is unpredictable
(d) in all cases 10. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen
4. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively
the same molecular formula. This is due to [2004]
[2003] (a) sp3 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp 3
(a) alcohols having resonance structures (c) sp2 and sp2 (d) sp3 and sp3
(b) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers 11. Which one of the following has the regular
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in tetrahedral structure ? [2004]
alcohols (a) BF4- (b) SF4
(d) dipolar character of ethers
5. Which one of the following pairs of molecules (c) XeF4 (d) [ Ni(CN) 4 ]2 -
will have permanent dipole moments for both
(Atomic nos. : B = 5, S = 16, Ni =28, Xe = 54)
members ? [2003]
12. The maximum number of 90º angles between
(a) NO2 and CO2 (b) NO2 and O3
bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in
(c) SiF4 and CO2 (d) SiF4 and NO2 [2004]
6. Which one of the following compounds has the (a) dsp2 hybridization
smallest bond angle in its molecule ? [2003]
(b) sp3d hybridization
(a) OH2 (b) SH2
(c) dsp3 hybridization
(c) NH3 (d) SO2
(d) sp3d2 hybridization
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C-16 Chemistry
13. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends 21. Which one of the following pairs of species
upon [2005] have the same bond order? [2008]
(a) Charge on the ion and size of the ion (a) CN– and NO+ (b) CN– and CN+
(b) Packing of ions only (c) O–2 and CN– (d) NO+ and CN+
(c) Size of the ion only 22. The bond dissociation energy of B – F in BF3 is
(d) Charge on the ion only 646 kJ mol–1 whereas that of C – F in CF4 is 515
14. Which of the following molecules/ions does not kJ mol–1. The correct reason for higher B – F
bond dissociation energy as compared to that of
contain unpaired electrons? [2006]
C – F is [2008]
+
(a) N2 (b) O2 (a) stronger s bond between B and F in BF3 as
compared to that between C and F in CF4.
(c) O 22 - (d) B2
(b) significant pp – pp interaction between B
15. In which of the following molecules/ions are all and F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility
the bonds not equal? [2006] of such interaction between C and F in CF4.
(a) XeF4 (b) BF4 – (c) lower degree of pp – pp interaction between
(c) SF4 (d) SiF4 B and F in BF3 than that between C and F
16. The decreasing values of bond angles from NH3 in CF4.
(106º) to SbH3 (101º) down group-15 of the (d) smaller size of B– atom as compared to that
periodic table is due to [2006] of C– atom.
(a) decreasing lp-bp repulsion 23. Using MO theory, predict which of the following
(b) decreasing electronegativity species has the shortest bond length? [2008]
(c) increasing bp-bp repulsion (a) O +2 (b) O 2–
(d) increasing p-orbital character in sp3 (d) O 2+
(c) O 2–
2 2
17. Which of the following species exhibits the
24. The number of types of bonds between two
diamagnetic behaviour? [2007]
carbon atoms in calcium carbide is : [2011RS]
(a) NO (b) O2 2–
(a) One sigma, One pi (b) Two sigma, one pi
(c) O2+ (d) O2.
(c) Two sigma, two pi (d) One sigma, two pi
18. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its
25. Ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than
polarizing power. Which one of the following
p- and m- Nitrophenols because : [2012]
sequences represents the increasing order of
the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, (a) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile steam than
Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+? [2007] those of m- and p-isomers.
(a) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be+ < K+ (b) o-Nitrophenol shows intramolecular
H-bonding
(b) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
(c) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular
(c) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+
H-bonding
(d) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+.
(d) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower
19. In which of the following ionization processes, than those of m- and p-isomers.
the bond order has increased and the magnetic
26. In which of the following pairs the two species
behaviour has changed? [2007]
are not isostructural ? [2012]
(a) N 2 ® N2 + (b) C2 ® C2 + - +
(a) CO23 - and NO3 (b) PCl 4 and SiCl4
(c) NO ® NO + (d) O 2 ® O 2 + .
20. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the (c) PF5 and BrF5 (d) AlF63 - and SF6
strongest? [2007] 27. Which one of the following molecules is
(a) O – H - - - F (b) O – H - - - H expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour ?
(c) F – H - - - F (d) O – H - - - O. [2013]
www.crackjee.xyz
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure C-17
(a) C2 (b) N2 (a) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(c) O2 (d) S2 (b) It is neutral oxide
28. Which of the following is the wrong statement (c) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen
[2013] dioxide
(a) ONCl and ONO– are not isoelectronic. (d) It’s bond order is 2.5
(b) O3 molecule is bent 31. The species in which the N atom is in a state of
(c) Ozone is violet-black in solid state sp hybridization is : [JEE M 2016]
(d) Ozone is diamagnetic gas. (a) NO 3- (b) NO 2
29. In which of the following pairs of molecules/
ions, both the species are not likely to exist ? (c) NO +2 (d) NO 2-
[2013] 32. Which of the following species is not
+ 2 - - 2-
(a) H 2 , He 2 (b) H 2 , He 2 paramagnetic ? [JEE M 2017]
(c) H 22 + , He2 (d) H -2 , He 22 + (a) NO (b) CO
30. Which one of the following properties is not (c) O2 (d) B2
shown by NO? [2014]
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (a) (c) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a, b) () (c) (a)
31 32
(c) (b)
{p2py2 = p2p2z , {p* 2 p1y =p2p0z decreases, stability also decreases and
hence the bond strength also decreases.
1 5 Hence the correct order of their increasing
Bond order = (8–3) = = 2.5
2 2 bond strength is
O2 (16) = KK s 2s2, s* 2s2, s 2px2,
O 22 - < O2– < O2 < O2+
{ p2py2 = p2pz2,{ p* 2py1 = p* 2pz1
3. (a)
1
Bond order = (8 – 4) = 2
2 é æ No. of electronsö
O2– (17) = KK s 2s2, s* 2s2, s 2px2, 1 êç ÷+
{p2py2 = p2pz2,{p* 2py2 = p* 2pz1 Hybridisation =
2 ê ç in valence ÷
ê è shell of atom ø
1 ë
Bond order = (8 – 5) = 1.5
2 æ No.of monovalentö æ charge on ö
– ç +
O22– (18) = KK s 2s2 s* 2s2 s2px2, çè atoms around it ÷ø è cation ÷ø
{p2py2 = p 2pz2,{p* 2py2 = p* 2pz2
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
C-18 Chemistry
9. (b) Now since bond order of NO+ given (3) is
æ charge on ö higher than that of NO (2.5). Thus bond
çè anion ÷ø length of NO+ will be shorter.
(a) For AlH3, 10. (b) H 3
O sp
Hybridisation of Al atom = 1 [ 3 + 3 - 0 + 0]
2
= 3 = sp2
For AlH4–, B sp
2
Hybridisation of Al atom = 1 [ 3 + 4 - 0 + 1]
2
= 4 = sp3
sp3 O O
H
(b) For H2O, sp3
Hybridisation of O atom H
1
= [ 6 + 2 - 0 + 0] = 4 = sp3
2
For H3O+, Hybridisation of O atom
11. (a) XeF4 (sp3d 2 square planar),
1
=
2
[ 5 + 4 - 1 + 0] = 4 = sp3
Thus hybridisation changes only in
option (a).
4. (c) In ether, there is no H-bonding while
alcohols have intermolecular H-bonding
5. (b) Both NO2 and O3 have angular shape and dsp2 hybridisation sp 3 d or dsp 3
hybridisation
hence will have net dipole moment.
Number of 90° angle Number of 90°
6. (b) In H2S, due to low electronegativity of
angle
sulphur the L.P. - L. P. repulsion is more
between bonds = 4 between bonds = 6
than B. P. - B. P. repulsion and hence the
bond angle is minimum.
SO 2 H 2 O H 2S NH3
Bond angle 119.5° 104.5° 92.5° 106.5°
7. (a) Both XeF2 and CO2 have a linear structure.
F — Xe — F O=C=O
8. (a) The order of bond angles sp3d2 hybridisation
BF3 > SiH 4 > NH 3 > H 2S Number of 90° angle
120º 109º 28¢ 107 º 92.5º between bonds = 12
www.crackjee.xyz
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure C-19
13. (a) The value of lattice energy depends on the more unpaired electrons as in
charges present on the two ions and the O2 ® s1s2 , s*1s 2 , s2 s2 , s* 2s 2 , s2 px2 ,
distance between them.
14. (c) The distribution of electrons in MOs is as {p 2 p 2y = p 2 pz2 ,
follows :
{ p* 2 p1y = p* 2 p1z - 2 unpaired electrons
N 2 + (electr ons 13) s 2 s *2 s 2 s *2
p2 s1 p* s*
p2 p* O+2 ® s1s 2 , s*1s 2 , s2s 2 , s* 2s 2 , s2 p 2,
x
States of Matter
5
1. For an ideal gas, number of moles per litre in 7. Which one of the following statements is NOT
terms of its pressure P, gas constant R and true about the effect of an increase in temperature
temperature T is [2002] on the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas?
(a) PT/R (b) PRT [2005]
(c) P/RT (d) RT/P. (a) The area under the distribution curve
2. Value of gas constant R is [2002] remains the same as under the lower
(a) 0.082 litre atm temperature
(b) 0.987 cal mol–1 K–1 (b) The distribution becomes broader
(c) 8.3 J mol–1 K–1 (c) The fraction of the molecules with the most
probable speed increases
(d) 83 erg mol–1 K–1.
(d) The most probable speed increases
3. Kinetic theory of gases proves [2002]
8. If 10–4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3
(a) only Boyle’s law
flask at 300 K, how many moles of water are in
(b) only Charles’ law the vapour ph ase when equilibrium is
(c) only Avogadro’s law established ? [2010]
(d) all of these. (Given : Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is 3170
4. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an Pa; R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
ideal gas, between two successive collisions a (a) 5.56× 10–3 mol (b) 1.53 × 10–2 mol
gas molecule travels [2003] (c) 4.46 × 10 mol (d) 1.27 × 10–3 mol
–2
(a) in a wavy path 9. When r, P and M represent rate of diffusion,
(b) in a straight line path pressure and molecular mass, respectively, then
(c) with an accelerated velocity
the ratio of the rates of diffusion (rA / rB ) of
(d) in a circular path
two gases A and B, is given as [2011RS]
5. As the temperature is raised from 20ºC to 40ºC,
the average kinetic energy of neon atoms (a) ( PA / PB ) ( M B / M A )1/ 2
changes by a factor of which of the following ? (b) ( PA / PB )1/ 2 ( M B / M A )
[2004]
(c) ( PA / PB ) ( M A / M B )1/ 2
(a) 313 (b) (313 / 293)
293 (d) ( PA / PB )1/ 2 ( M A / M B )
(c) 1 (d) 2 10. The molecular velocity of any gas is : [2011RS]
2
(a) inversely proportional to absolute
6. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas temperature.
law, the constant ‘b’ is a measure of [2004] (b) directly proportional to squar e of
(a) volume occupied by the molecules temperature.
(b) intermolecular attraction (c) directly proportional to square root of
(c) intermolecular repulsions temperature.
(d) intermolecular collisions per unit volume (d) inversely proportional to the square root
www.crackjee.xyz
States of Matter C-23
of temperature. 14. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a
11. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
pressure is : [2012] number of their molecule is: [2014]
RT (a) 1 : 4 (b) 7 : 32
(a) 1 + (b) 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 3 : 16
pb
15. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent
pb pb on the inverse cube of distance between the
(c) 1 + (d) 1 – molecules is : [JEE M 2015]
RT RT
12. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is (a) London force
denoted by C*, average speed by C and mean (b) hydrogen bond
square speed by C, then for a large number of (c) ion - ion interaction
molecules the ratios of these speeds are: (d) ion - dipole interaction
[2013] 16. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) contain-
ing an ideal gas initially at pressure pi and tem-
(a) C* : C : C = 1.225 : 1.128 : 1
perature T1 are connected through a narrow
(b) C* : C : C = 1.128 : 1.225 : 1
tube of negligible volume as shown in the figure
(c) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225 below. The temperature of one of the bulbs is
(d) C* : C : C = 1 : 1.225 : 1.128 then raised to T2. The final pressure pf is :
13. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals [JEE M 2016]
equation at low pressure can be written as:
[2014] æ T ö æ T T ö
(a) 2 pi ç 2 ÷ (b) 2 pi ç 1 2 ÷
è T1 + T2 ø è T1 + T2 ø
RT a
(a) Z = 1+ (b) Z =1-
Pb VRT æ T T ö æ T1 ö
(c) pi ç 1 2 ÷ (d) 2 pi ç ÷
Pb Pb è T1 + T2 ø è T1 + T2 ø
(c) Z = 1- (d) Z = 1+
RT RT
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b)
16
(a)
1. (c) PV = nRT (number of moles = n/V) with the walls of the container and between
\ n/V = P/RT.. two successive collisions molecules travel
2. (c) Value of gas constant in a straight line path but show haphazard
( R ) = 0.0821L atm K–1 mol–1 motion due to collisions.
= 8.314 × 107 ergs K–1mol–1 3
= 8.314JK–1mol–1 = 1.987 cal K–1 mol–1 K ´ 313
K .E of neon at 40 °C 313
3. (d) Kinetic theory of gases proves all the given 5. (a) = 2 =
gas laws. K.E of neon at 20°C 3 293
K ´ 293
4. (b) According to kinetic theory the gas 2
molecules are in a state of constant rapid 6. (a) In van der waals equation ‘b’ is for volume
motion in all possible directions colloiding correction
in a random manner with one another and 7. (c) Distribution of molecular velocities at two
different temperature is given shown below.
EBD_7764
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C-24 Chemistry
Most probable 8RT
Fraction of molecules velocity Average Speed (C) =
pM
300 K 3RT
Root mean square velocity (C) =
M
600 K
2RT 8RT 3RT
V C*: C : C = : :
M pM M
Molecular velocity
4 3
NOTE At higher temperature more = 1: : = 1:1.128 :1.225
p 2
molecules have higher velocities and less PV
molecules have lower velocities. 13. (b) Compressibility factor ( Z ) =
As evident from fig. thus it is clear that RT
(For one mole of real gas)
With the increase in temperature the most van der Waals equation
probable velocity increase butthe fraction a
of such molecules decreases. (P + )(V - b ) = RT
8. (d) From the ideal gas equation : V2
At low pressure, volume is very large and
PV = nRT
hence correction term b can be neglected
PV 3170 ´ 10-3 in comparison to very large volume of V.
or n = = = 1.27 × 10–3
RT 8.314 ´ 300 i.e. V - b » V
P æ a ö
9. (a) r µ
m çè P + 2 ÷ø V = RT
V
rA PA M B a
= PV + = RT
rB PB M A V
10. (c) The different type of molecular velocities a
possessed by gas molecules are PV = RT -
V
2RT PV a
(i) Most probable velocity (a) = = 1-
M RT VRT
2RT a
(ii) Average velocity v = Hence, Z = 1 -
M VRT
(iii) Root mean square velocity in all three w
3RT
14. (b) Number of moles of O 2 =
cases v = 32
M 4w w
In all the above cases Number of moles of N 2 = =
28 7
Velocity × T
a
\ Ratio = w : w = 7 : 32
æ a ö 32 7
11. (c) çè P + 2 ÷ø (V - b) = RT at high pressure 2
V V 15. (b) Hydrogen bond is a type of strong
can be neglected electrostatic dipole-dipole interaction and
PV – Pb = RT and PV = RT + Pb dependent on the inverse cube of distance
PV Pb between the molecular ion-dipole
= 1+ interaction.
RT RT 16. (a) For a given mass of an ideal gas, the
Pb volume and amount (moles) of the gas are
Z = 1+ ; Z > 1 at high pressure
RT directly proportional if the temperature and
pressure are constant. i.e
2RT Hence in the given case.
12. (c) Most probable speed (C*) = Initial moles and final moles are equal
M
(nT)i = (nT)f
www.crackjee.xyz
Thermodynamics C-25
Thermodynamics
6
1. If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous change for the reaction
at freezing point of water and becomes feasible H 2 C = CH 2 (g) + H 2 (g) ® H 3C — CH 3 (g) a t
at its boiling point, then [2002] 298 K will be [2003]
(a) DH is –ve, DS is +ve (a) – 250 kJ (b) + 125 kJ
(b) DH and DS both are +ve (c) – 125 kJ (d) + 250 kJ
(c) DH and DS both are –ve 7. In an irreversible process taking place at constant
(d) DH is +ve, DS is -ve T and P and in which only pressure-volume work
2. A heat engine abosrbs heat Q1 at temperature is being done, the change in Gibbs free energy
T1 and heat Q2 at temperature T2. Work done (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria
by the engine is J (Q1 + Q2). This data [2002] [2003]
(a) violates 1st law of thermodynamics (a) (dS)V, E > 0, (dG)T, P < 0
(b) violates 1st law of themodynamics if Q1 is –ve (b) (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, P = 0
(c) (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, P > 0
(c) violates 1st law of thermodynamics of Q2 is –ve
(d) (dS)V, E < 0, (dG)T, P < 0
(d) does not violate 1st law of themodynamics.
8. The correct relationship between free energy
3. For the reactions, [2002] change in a reaction and the corresponding
2C + O2 ® 2 CO2 ; DH = -393 J equilibrium constant Kc is [2003]
2Zn + O2 ® 2ZnO ; DH = -412 J (a) – DG = RT ln Kc (b) DGº = RT ln Kc
(a) carbon can oxidise Zn (c) – DGº = RT ln Kc (d) DG = RT ln Kc
(b) oxidation of carbon is not feasible 9. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not
(c) oxidation of Zn is not feasible depend upon [2003]
(d) Zn can oxidise carbon. (a) use of different reactants for the same
4. The heat required to raise the temperature of product
body by 1 K is called [2002] (b) the nature of intermediate reaction steps
(a) specific heat (b) thermal capacity (c) the differences in initial or final
(c) water equivalent (d) none of these. temperatures of involved substances
5. The internal energy change when a system goes (d) the physical states of reactants and
products
from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system goes
10. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10–3 to
from A to B by a reversible path and returns to
1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure
state A by an irreversible path what would be the
of 1×105 Nm–2. The work done is [2004]
net change in internal energy ? [2003]
(a) 270 kJ (b) – 900 kJ
(a) > 40 kJ (b) < 40 kJ
(c) – 900 (d) 900 kJ
(c) Zero (d) 40 kJ
11. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
6. If at 298 K the bond energies of C — H, C — C, carbon monoxide are – 393.5 and – 283 kJ mol–1
C = C and H — H bonds are respectively 414, respectively. The enthalpy of formation of
347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy carbon monoxide per mole is [2004]
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
C-26 Chemistry
(a) – 676.5 kJ (b) 676.5 kJ Cl2(g) = 2Cl(g), 242.3 kJ mol–1
(c) 110.5 kJ (d) – 110.5 kJ I2(g) = 2I(g), 151.0 kJ mol–1
12. Consider the reaction : N 2 + 3H 2 ® 2 NH 3 ICl(g) = I(g) + Cl(g), 211.3 kJ mol–1
carried out at constant temperature and I2(s) = I2(g), 62.76 kJ mol–1
pressure. If DH and DU are the enthalpy and Given that the standard states for iodine and
chlorine are I2 (s) and Cl 2 (g), the standard
internal energy changes for the reaction, which
enthalpy of formation for ICl(g) is : [2006]
of the following expressions is true ? [2005] –1
(a) +16.8 kJ mol (b) +244.8 kJ mol–1
(a) DH > DU (b) DH < DU
(c) –14.6 kJ mol–1 (d) –16.8 kJ mol–1
(c) DH = DU (d) DH = 0
17. (DH – DU) for the formation of carbon monoxide
13. If the bond dissociation energies of XY,
(CO) from its elements at 298 K is [2006]
X 2 and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the (R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and DHf for the formation of XY (a) –2477.57 J mol–1 (b) 2477.57 J mol–1
is – 200 kJ mole -1 . The bond dissociation (c) –1238.78 J mol–1 (d) 1238.78 J mol–1
energy of X 2 will be [2005] 18. In conversion of lime-stone to lime,
CaCO3(s) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g) the values of
-1
(a) 400 kJ mol (b) 300 kJ mol -1
DH° and DS° are + 179.1 kJ mol-1 and 160.2 J/K
-1 -1 respectively at 298 K and 1 bar. Assuming that
(c) 200 kJ mol (d) 100 kJ mol
14. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly DH° and DS° do not change with temperature,
and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is temperature above which conversion of
the initial temperature and T f is the final limestone to lime will be spontaneous is[2007]
temperature, which of the following statements (a) 1118 K (b) 1008 K
is correct? [2006] (c) 1200 K (d) 845 K.
(a) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrev 19. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas, the
(b) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible
processes internal energy change (DU) when 1 mol of
(c) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev water is vapourised at 1 bar pressure and 100°C,
(d) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti (given : molar enthalpy of vapourisation of water
for irreversible process at 1 bar and 373 K = 41 kJ mol–1 and R = 8.3 J
15. The standard enthalpy of formation (DfHº) at mol–1 K–1) will be [2007]
298 K for methane, CH4 (g) is –74.8 kJ mol–1. (a) 41.00 kJ mol–1 (b) 4.100 kJ mol–1
The additional information required to determine (c) 3.7904 kJ mol–1 (d) 37.904 kJ mol–1
the average energy for C – H bond formation 20. Identify the correct statement regarding a
would be [2006] spontaneous process: [2007]
(a) the first four ionization energies of carbon (a) Lowering of energy in the process is the
and electron gain enthalpy of hydrogen only criterion for spontaneity.
(b) the dissociation energy of hydrogen (b) For a spontaneous process in an isolated
molecule, H2 system, the change in entropy is positive.
(c) the dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy (c) Endothermic processes are never
of sublimation of carbon spontaneous.
(d) latent heat of vapourization of methane (d) Exothermic processes are always
16. The enthalpy changes for the following spontaneous.
processes are listed below : [2006] 21. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution
www.crackjee.xyz
Thermodynamics C-27
can be determined by the parameters indicated 26. The value of enthalpy change (DH) for the
below: reaction
1
D H Q C2 H5OH(l) + 3O2 (g) ®
1 2 diss D eg HQ
Cl2 (g) ¾¾¾¾¾ ® Cl(g) ¾¾¾¾ ® Cl– (g)
2 2CO 2 (g) + 3H 2O(l)
D Q
H at 27° C is – 1366.5 k J mol–1. The value of internal
Hyd
¾¾¾¾ ® Cl– (aq) energy change for the above reaction at this
(using the data, temperature will be : [2011RS]
–1
D diss H Cl = 240 kJ mol , (a) – 1369.0 kJ (b) – 1364.0 kJ
2
–1
(c) – 1361.5 kJ (d) – 1371.5 kJ
D eg H Cl = –349 kJ mol , 27. Consider the reaction :
–1
D hyd H Cl – = –381 kJ mol ), will be [2008] 4NO2 (g) + O 2 (g) ® 2N 2 O5 (g),
DrH = – 111 kJ.
(a) + 152 kJ mol–1 (b) – 610 kJ mol–1
If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in the
(c) – 850 kJ mol–1 (d) + 120 kJ mol–1
above reaction, the DrH value will be :
22. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and X Y3 are 60, 40
(given, DH of sublimation for N2O5 is 54 kJ
and 50 J K–1 mol –1 , respectively. For the
mol–1) [2011RS]
reaction,
(a) + 54 kJ (b) + 219 kJ
1 3 (c) – 219 J (d) – 165 kJ
X 2 + Y2 ® XY3 , DH = –30kJ , to be at
2 2 28. The incorrect expression among the following
equilibrium, the temperature will be [2008]
is: [2012]
(a) 1250 K (b) 500 K
(c) 750 K (d) 1000 K DGsystem
(a) = -T
23. On the basis of the following thermochemical DStotal
+
data : (Δ f G°H (aq) = 0) [2009] (b) In isothermal process,
+ –
H 2 O(l ) ® H (aq) + OH (aq); DH = 57.32kJ V
wreversible = –nRT ln f
1 Vi
H2 (g)+ O2 (g) ¾¾ ® H2 O(l); ΔH=–286.20kJ
2
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH– ion DHº -TDSº
(c) ln K =
at 25° C is: RT
(a) –228.88 kJ (b) +228.88 kJ (d) K = e–DGº/RT
(c) –343.52 kJ (d) –22.88 kJ 29. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas
24. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
is – 46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation constant temperature of 37.0ºC. As it does so, it
of H2 from its atoms is – 436 kJ mol–1 and that of
absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for
N2 is – 712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy
the process will be: [2013]
of N – H bond in NH3 is [2010]
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) (ln 7.5 = 2.01)
(a) – 964 kJ mol–1 (b) + 352 kJ mol–1
(c) + 1056 kJ mol–1 (d) – 1102 kJ mol–1 (a) q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J
25. For a particular reversible reaction at (b) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
temperature T, DH and DS were found to be both (c) q = – 208 J, w = + 208 J
+ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium, the (d) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
reaction would be spontaneous when 30. For complete combustion of ethanol,
(a) Te > T (b) T > Te [2010] C2 H5 OH ( l ) + 3O2 ( g ) ¾¾
® 2CO2 ( g ) + 3H 2 O ( l ) ,
(c) Te is 5 times T (d) T = Te
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C-28 Chemistry
the amount of heat produced as measured in 32. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon
bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol–1 at 25ºC. monoxide are –393.5 and –283.5 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of
Assuming ideality the enthalpy of combustion, carbon monoxide per mole is : [JEE M 2016]
DcH, for the reaction will be: (a) –676.5 (b) – 110.5
(R = 8.314 kJ mol–1) [2014] (c) 110.5 (d) 676.5
33. DU is equal to [JEE M 2017]
(a) -1366.95 kJ mol-1
(a) Isochoric work (b) Isobaric work
(b) -1361.95 kJ mol-1 (c) Adiabatic work (d) Isothermal work
34. Given [JEE M 2017]
(c) -1460.95 kJ mol-1
C(graphite) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) ;
(d) -1350.50 kJ mol-1 DrH° = –393.5 kJ mol–1
31. The following reaction is performed at 298 K.
[JEE M 2015] 1
H2 (g) + O (g) ® H2O(l) ; DrH° = –285.8 kJ
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g) 2 2
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) mol–1
is 86.6 kj/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) ® CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K? DrH° = + 890.3 kJ mol–1
(Kp = 1.6 × 1012) Based on the above thermochemical equations,
(a) 86600 – the value of DrH° at 298 K for the reaction
(b) 0.5[2 × 86,600 – R(298) ln(1.6 × 1012)] C(graphite) + 2H2(g) ® CH4(g) will be :
(c) R(298) ln(1.6 × 1012) – 86600 (a) + 74.8 kJ mol–1 (b) + 144.0 kJ mol–1
(d) 86600 + R(298) ln(1.6 × l012) (c) – 74.8 kJ mol–1 (d) – 144.0 kJ mol–1
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b) (N) (c) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (a)
31 32 33 34
(b) (b) (c) (c)
– 54
= 0.5 [2 × 86600 – R (298) ln (1.6 × 1012)]
D H' 32. (b) Given
2N 2 O5 (s) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g); DH= –393.5 kJ mol–1 …(i)
– 111 – 54 = D H' CO(g)+ O2(g) ® CO2(g); DH= –283.5 kJ mol–1…(ii)
D H' = – 165 kJ \ Heat of formation of CO = eqn(i) – eqn (ii)
28. (c) DG° = DH° – TDS° = –393.5 – (–283.5)
– RT lnK = DH° – TDS° = –110 kJ
DH° - TDS° 33. (c) From 1st law of thermodynamics
lnK = -
RT DU = q + w
29. (a) Process is isothermal reversible expansion, For adiabatic process :
hence q=0
DU = 0, therefore q = – w.
\ DU = w
Since q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J
34. (c) Given
30. (a) C 2 H 5 OH(l ) + 3O 2 ( g ) ¾¾
®
CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) ® CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
2CO2 ( g ) + 3H2O(l)
DrH° = 890.3...(i)
Bomb calorimeter gives DU of the reaction
C(graphite) + O2 (g) ® CO2(g) ;
Given, DU = –1364.47 kJ mol–1
Dng = – 1 DrH° = – 393.5 kJ mol–1 ...(ii)
DH = DU + DngRT = 1
H2(g) + O2(g) ® H2O(l);
1 ´ 8.314 ´ 298 2
-1364.47 - DrH° = – 285.8 kJ mol–1 ...(iii)
1000
= – 1366.93 kJ mol–1 D r H° = å (D r H°) products – å (Df H°)Reactants
31. (b) DG°NO(g) = 86.6k J/mol = 86600 J/mol 890.3 = é1´ ( D f H °)CH + 2 ´ 0 ù – [1´ ( -393.5 ) + 2 ( –285.8 ) ]
ë 4 û
= x J/mol
12 ( D f H °) CH = 890.3 – 965.1 = –74.8 kJ / mol
T = 298, KP = 1.6 × 10 4
DG° = – RT ln K
P
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7
C-32 Chemistry
Equilibrium
7
1. 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous 8. For the reaction equilibrium [2003]
solution. The solution is [2002] N2O4 (g) 2 NO2 (g)
(a) not a buffer solution with pH < 7 the concentrations of N 2 O 4 and NO 2 at
(b) not a buffer solution with pH > 7 equilibrium are 4.8 × 10–2 and 1.2 × 10–2 mol L–1
(c) a buffer solution with pH < 7 respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction is
(d) a buffer solution with pH > 7. (a) 3 × 10–1 mol L–1 (b) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1
2. Species acting as both Bronsted acid and base (c) 3 × 103 mol L–1 (d) 3.3 × 102 mol L–1
is [2002] 9. Consider the reaction equilibrium [2003]
(a) (HSO4) –1 (b) Na2CO3 2 SO2 (g) + O2(g) 2 SO3 (g) ; DHº = –198 kJ
(c) NH3 (d) OH–1. On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the
3. Let the solubility of an aqueous solution of condition favourable for the forward reaction is
Mg(OH)2 be x then its Ksp is [2002] (a) increasing temperature as well as pressure
(a) 4x 3 (b) 108x 5
(b) lowering the temperature and increasing the
(c) 27x4 (d) 9x. pressure
4. Change in volume of the system does not alter (c) any value of temperature and pressure
which of the following equilibria? [2002] (d) lowering of temperature as well as pressure
(a) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g) 10. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm,
(b) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) the collected rain water will have a pH value
(c) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) [2003]
(d) SO2Cl2 (g) SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g). (a) slightly higher than that when the
5. For the reactionCO (g) + (1/2) O2 (g) = CO2 (g), thunderstorm is not there
Kp / Kc is [2002] (b) unin fluenced by occurrence of
(a) RT (b) (RT) –1 thunderstorm
(c) (RT)–1/2 (d) (RT)1/2 (c) which depends on the amount of dust in
6. Which one of the following statements is not air
true? [2003] (d) slightly lower than that of rain water without
(a) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions thunderstorm.
(b) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8
11. The conjugate base of H 2 PO -4 is [2004]
(c) 96,500 coulombs of electricity when passed
through a CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram (a) H3PO4 (b) P2O5
equivalent of copper at the cathode
(c) PO 34- (d) HPO 24 -
(d) The conjugate base of H 2 PO -4 is HPO 24-
7. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble 12. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction
salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility P4 (s) + 5O2 (g) P4 O10 (s) ? [2004]
product number will be [2003]
(a) 4 × 10–10 (b) 1 × 10–15 (a) Kc = [O 2 ]5
(c) 1 × 10–10 (d) 4 × 10–15
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Equilibrium C-33
(b) Kc = [P4O10 ] / 5[P4 ][O2 ] 18. The exothermic formation of CIF3 is represented
by the equation :
(c) Kc = [P4 O10 ]/[P4 ][O 2 ]5 Cl2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g) ;
[ NO]2 1
14. (b) Kc = = 4 ´10 - 4 5.4 = log
[ N 2 ][O 2 ] [H + ]
On solving, [H+] = 3.98 × 10–6
[N 2 ]1/ 2 [O 2 ]1/ 2 1 21. (a) Conjugate acid-base pair differ by only one
K ¢c = =
[NO] Kc proton.
1 OH - ¾
¾® H + + O 2 - Conjugate base
= = 50
4 ´ 10 -4 of OH– is O2–
22. (a) NH 4 HS(s ) NH 3(g ) + H 2 S(g )
15. (d) MX4 M 4+ + 4X -
S 4S start 0 .5 atm 0 atm
At equib. 0 .5 + x atm x atm.
Ksp = [s] [4s]4 = 256 s5
Then 0.5 + x + x = 2x + 0.5 = 0.84 (given)
1/ 5
æ Ksp ö Þ x = 0.17 atm.
\s = ç ÷
è 256 ø
p NH3 = 0.5 + 0.17 = 0.67 atm
+ -–
16. (b) Na 2SO 4 2Na + SO 4
2a
; p H 2S = 0.17 atm
1- a a
2
1 - a + 2a + a K= pNH 3 ´ pH 2S = 0.67 ´ 0.17 atm
Vant. Hoff’s factor i = = 1 + 2a
1 = 0.1139 = 0.11
17. (c)
MX 2 M + + + 2X -
s 2s 23. (c) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Where s is the solubility of MX2
1–x x x
then Ksp = 4s3; s × (2s)2 = 4×10–12
Total moles after dissociation
= 4s3; s = 1 × 10–4
1–x+x +x =1+x
\ [M++] = s = 1[M++] = 1.0 × 10– 4
18. (a) The reaction given is an exothermic reaction p = mole fraction of
PCl 3
thus accordingly to Lechatalier’s principle æ x ö
lowering of temperature, addition of F2 and PCl3 × Total pressure = ç ÷P
è1+ x ø
or Cl2 favour the for ward direction and
hence the production of ClF3 . 1
24. (c) SO3(g) SO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g)
19. (d) For the reaction:- 2
2NO 2 (g) 2NO(g) + O 2 (g) [SO 2 ] [O2 ]½
Kc = = 4.9 ´ 10-2 ;
Given Kc = 1.8 × 10–6 at 184 ºC [SO3 ]
R = 0.0831 kj/mol. k On taking the square of the above reaction
Kp= 1.8 × 10–6 × 0.0831 × 457 = 6.836 × 10–
6
[SO 2 ]2 [O 2 ]
[ Q 184°C = (273 + 184) = 457 k, = 24.01´10 - 4
[SO 3 ]2
Dn = (2 + 1, –1) = 1]
Hence it is clear that Kp > Kc now K'C for 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3
1
20. (a) pH = –log [H+] = log [SO 3 ]2 1
[H + ] = = = 416
2
[SO 2 ] [O 2 ] 24.01´10 - 4
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C-38 Chemistry
+ -
25. (b) (i) Ag ¾
¾® Ag + e E º = - 0.800 V \ s = K sp = 1´10-8
(ii) Ag + I - ¾
¾® AgI + e - E º = 0 .152 V = 1.0 × 10–4 mol/lit = 1.0 × 10–4 × 283 g/lit
From (i) and (ii) we have, (Q Molecular mass of Ag IO3 = 283)
¾® Ag + + I - E º = -0.952 V
AgI ¾
1.0 ´10-4 ´ 283 ´100
= gm /100ml
0.059 1000
Eocell = log K
n = 2.83 × 10–3 gm/ 100 ml
0.059 29. (a) Let the initial moles of X be ‘a’ and that of
\ –0.952 = log [Ag+] [I–] Z be ‘b’ then for the given reactions, we
1
[ Q k = [Ag+][I–]]
X
2Y
0.952 have
or - = log K sp or –16.13 = log
0.059 Initial a moles 0
Ksp At equi. a(1 – a) 2aa
(moles)
26. (d) H∗ ∗ HA,
H 2 A
Total no. of moles = a (1 – a) + 2aa
+ - = a – aa + 2aa
\ K = 1.0 × 10–5 = [H ][HA ] (Given) = a (1 + a)
1
[H 2 A] Dn
(n y ) 2 æ PT ö
HA- ¾¾
® H+ + A-- Now, K P1 = ´ç 1 ÷
nx ç ån ÷
è ø
[H + ][A -- ] (Given)
\ K 2 = 5.0 ´ 10 -10 = (2aa)2 .PT1
[HA - ] or, K P1 =
[a(1 - a)][a(1 + a)]
[H + ]2 [A 2 - ]
K= = K1 ´ K2
[H 2 A]
Z P + Q
= (1.0 × 10–5) × (5 × 10–10) = 5 × 10–15
8
Redox Reactions
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6
(d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a)
9
Hydrogen
1. Which of the following species is diamagnetic 5. In which of the following reactions H2O2 acts
in nature? as a reducing agent? [2014]
(a) H -2 (b) H +2 [2005] (a) H 2 O 2 + 2H + + 2e - ® 2H 2 O
+
(c) H 2 (d) He 2 (b) H 2 O 2 + 2e - ® O2 + 2H +
2. Which of the following statements in relation to (c) H 2 O 2 + 2e - ® 2OH -
the hydrogen atom is correct ? [2005]
(d) H 2 O 2 + 2OH - - 2e - ® O2 + 2H 2 O
(a) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same
energy 6. From the following statements regarding H2O2,
(b) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than choose the incorrect statement : [JEE M 2015]
3d orbital (a) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined
(c) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital glass bottles in dark
(d) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital (b) It has to be kept away from dust
3. In context with the industrial preparation of (c) It can act only as an oxidizing agent
hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of (d) It decomposes on exposure to light
the following is the correct statement? [2008] 7. Which one of the following statements about
(a) CO and H2, are fractionally separated using water is FALSE ? [JEE M 2016]
differences in their densities (a) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen
(b) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous bonding in the condensed phase.
Cu2Cl2 solution (b) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal
(c) H2 is removed through occlusion with pd water.
(c) Water is oxidized to oxygen during
(d) CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the
photosynthesis.
presen ce of a catalyst followed by
(d) Water can act both as an acid and as a
absorption of of CO2 in alkali
base.
4. Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be made by which 8. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and
of the following processes ? [2012] iron in a water sample from an underground lake
(a) Reaction of methane with steam was found to be 1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and
(b) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable
molecular weight for drinking due to high concentration of :
(c) Electrolysis of water [JEE M 2016]
(d) Reaction of salts like hydrides with water (a) Nitrate (b) Iron
(c) Fluoride (d) Lead
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(c) (a) (d) (d) (d) (c) (a) (a)
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C-44 Chemistry
10
The s-Block Elements
1. KO2 (potassium super oxide) is used in oxygen (a) hydration energies of cations
cylinders in space and submarines because it (b) inter-ionic attraction
[2002] (c) entropy of solution formation
(a) absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content (d) lattice energies of solids
(b) eliminates moisture 7. Which one of the following processes will
(c) absorbs CO2 produce hard water ? [2003]
(d) produces ozone. (a) Saturation of water with MgCO3
2. The metallic sodium disolves in liquid ammonia (b) Saturation of water with CaSO4
to form a deep blue coloured solution. The deep
(c) Addition of Na2SO4 to water
blue colour is due to formation of: [2002]
(d) Saturation of water with CaCO3
(a) solvated electron, e(NH3 )-x
8. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction
(b) solvated atomic sodium, Na(NH3)y
with an excess of water gives : [2004]
(c) (Na+ + Na–)
(a) two moles of ammonia
(d) NaNH2 + H2
(b) one mole of nitric acid
3. A metal M readily forms its sulphate MSO4 which
(c) one mole of ammonia
is water-soluble. It forms its oxide MO which
becomes inert on heating. It forms an insoluble (d) two moles of nitric acid
hyroxide M(OH)2 which is soluble in NaOH 9. Based on lattice energy and other
solution. Then M is [2002] considerations which one of the following alkali
(a) Mg (b) Ba metal chlorides is expected to have the highest
(c) Ca (d) Be. melting point ? [2005]
4. In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from (a) RbCl (b) KCl
time to time. This helps in [2003] (c) NaCl (d) LiCl
(a) developing interlocking needle-like crystals 10. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous
of hydrated silicates solution is maximum for [2006]
(b) hydrating sand and gravel mixed with (a) Li + (b) Na +
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (a) (d) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b)
16 17 18
(d) (b) (a)
CaCO 3
D
CaO + CO 2 3MgCO3 . Mg(OH)2 . 3H2O ¯
Basic oxide Acidic oxide While Li can form only carbonate (Li2CO3)
not basic carbonate.
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C-48 Chemistry
11
The p-Block Elements
(Group-13 and 14)
1. Alum helps in purifying water by [2002] (a) forming covalent halides
(a) forming Si complex with clay partiles (b) forming polymeric hydrides
(b) sulphate part which combines with the dirt (c) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
and removes it (d) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
(c) coagulaing the mud particles 6. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in
(d) making mud water soluble. solid state as well as in solution of non-polar
2. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in
difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous water, it gives [2004]
behaviour is that graphite [2003]
(a) [Al(OH) 6 ]3- + 3HCl
(a) is an allotropic form of diamond
(b) has molecules of variable molecular masses (b) [Al(H 2 O) 6 ]3+ + 3Cl -
like polymers
(c) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates (c) Al 3+ + 3Cl -
of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms
(d) Al 2 O3 + 6HCl
with weak interplate bonds
(d) is a non-crystalline substance 7. Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium
chloride to dryness will give [2005]
3. Glass is a [2003]
(a) super-cooled liquid (a) Al(OH)Cl 2 (b) Al 2O 3
(b) gel
(c) Al 2 Cl 6 (d) AlCl3
(c) polymeric mixture
(d) micro-crystalline solid 8. In silicon dioxide [2005]
4. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float (a) there are double bonds between silicon and
glass are used. These are obtained by floating oxygen atoms
molten glass over a liquid metal which does not (b) silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen
solidify before glass. The metal used can be atoms
[2003] (c) each silicon atom is surrounded by two
(a) tin (b) sodium oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is
(c) magnesium (d) mercury bonded to two silicon atoms
5. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties (d) each silicon atom is surrounded by four
which are similar. But, the two elements differ in
oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is
[2004]
bonded to two silicon atoms.
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The p-Block Elements (Group-13 and 14) C-49
9. The structure of diborane ( B2 H 6 ) contains 11. Among the following substituted silanes the
one which will give rise to cross linked silicone
[2005]
polymer on hydrolysis is [2008]
(a) four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
(a) R4Si (b) R2SiCl2
(b) two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds (c) RSiCl3 (d) R3SiCl
(c) two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
12. In view of the sings of D r G ° for the following
(d) four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds
reactions :
10. Which one of the following is the correct
statement? [2008] PbO 2 + Pb ® 2PbO, DrG° < 0
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(c) (c) (a) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (c) (c)
1. (c) Alum furnishes Al3+ ions which bring about 3. (a) Glass is a translucent or transparent
coagulation of negatively charged clay amorphous supercooled solid solution or
particles, bacteria etc. we can say super cooled liquid of silicates
2. (c) In graphite, carbon is sp2 hybridized. Each and borats having a general formula R2O.
carbon is thus linked to three other carbon MO . 6 SiO2. where R = Na or K and M = Ca,
atoms forming hexagonal rings. Since only Ba, Zn or Pb.
three electrons of each carbon are used in 4. (d) It is mercury because it exists as liquid at
making hexagonal ring, fourth electron of room temperature.
each carbon is free to move. This makes 5. (c) The maximum valency of beryllium is +2
graphite a good conductors of heat and while that of aluminium is +3.
electricity.
Further graphite has a two dimensional sheet 6.
(b) Al2Cl6 + 12H2O
like structure. These various sheets are held 2[Al(H2O)6]3+ + 6 C1-
together by weak van der Waal’s force of
7. (b) The solution of aluminium chloride in water
attraction. due to these weak forces of
is acidic due to hydrolysis.
attraction, one layer can slip over the other.
AlCl3 + 3H2O –––––® Al(OH)3 + 3HCl.
This makes graphite soft and a good
On heating it till dryness Al(OH)3 is
lubricating agent.
converted into Al2O3
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C-50 Chemistry
acid so (a) is incorrect statement.
Al(OH)3 ¾¾ D Al O + 3H O
® 2 3 2 The coordination number exhibited by
8. (d) In SiO2 (quartz), each of O-atom is shared beryllium is 4 and not 6 so statement (b) is
between two SiO44– tetrahedra. incorrect.
Both BeCl 2 and AlCl 3 exhibit bridged
structures in solid state so (c) is correct
statement.
11. (c) The cross linked polymers will be formed
by RSiCl3
OH
|
3nH 2O
9. (d) In diborane structure B2H6 there are two nRSiCl3 ¾¾¾¾ ® nR - Si - OH ¾¾
®
-3nHCl |
2c-2e bonds and two 3c–2e bonds (see
OH
structure of diborane).
Structure of B 2H6 :
| |
O O
Hb | |
R - Si - O - Si
Ht •• Ht | |
O O
B B | |
R - Si - O - Si - R
| |
Ht •• Ht
O O
Hb | |
(Cross linked polymer)
10. (c) The correct formula of inorganic benzene
is B3N3H6 so (d) is incorrect statement
12. (c) Negative D r G° value indicates that + 2
OH oxidation state is more stable for Pb2+. Also
|
Boric acid (H3BO3 or B - OH ) is a lewis it is supported by inert pair effect that + 2
| oxidation state is more stable for Pb and +
OH 4 oxidation state is more stable for Sn.
i.e. Sn++ < Pb++, Sn4+ > Pb4+
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Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles & Techniques C-51
12
Organic Chemistry-Some
Basic Principles & Techniques
1. Arrangement of (CH3)3 – C –, (CH3)2 – CH –, 2-methyl-3-butanol
CH3 – CH2 – when attached to benzyl or an
O
unsaturated group in increasing order of ||
inductive effect is [2002] (d) CH 3 – C H – C – CH 2 – CH 3 ® 2-methyl-
|
(a) (CH3)3 –C – < (CH3)2 – CH – < CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(b) CH3 –CH2– < (CH3)2– CH – < (CH3)3 – C – 3-pentanone
(c) (CH3)2 – CH– <(CH3)3 –C –< CH3 –CH2 – 6. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is[2003]
(d) (CH3)3 – C– < CH3 –CH2 –<(CH3)2 –CH – (a) 2-methyl-3-butanone
2. A similarity between optical and geometrical (b) 4-methylisopropyl ketone
isomerism is that [2002] (c) 3-methyl-2-butanone
(a) each forms equal number of isomers for a (d) Isopropylmethyl ketone
given compound 7. In which of the following species is the
(b) if in a compound one is present then so is underlined carbon having sp3 hybridisation?
the other [2002]
(c) both are included in stereoisomerism (a) CH3 COOH (b) CH3 CH2 OH
(d) they have no similarity. (c) CH3 COCH3 (d) CH2 = CH –CH3
3. Which of th e following does n ot show 8. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two [2002]
geometrical isomerism? [2002] (a) isomeric compounds
(a) 1,2-dichloro-1-pentene (b) chiral compounds
(b) 1,3-dichloro-2-pentene (c) meso compounds
(c) 1,1-dichloro-1-pentene (d) enantiomers with chiral carbon.
(d) 1,4-dichloro-2-pentene 9. Following types of compounds (as I, II) [2002]
4. The functional group, which is found in amino CH3 CH === CHCH3 CH3 CHOH
acid is [2002] |
(a) – COOH group (b) – NH2 group CH 2CH3
(c) – CH3 group (d) both (a) and (b). are studied in terms of isomerism in:
5. Which of the following compounds has wrong (a) chain isomerism
IUPAC name? [2002] (b) position isomerism
(c) conformers
(a) CH3–CH2–CH2 –COO–CH2CH3 ® ethyl
(d) stereoisomerism
butanoate
10. The reaction: [2002]
(b) CH 3 - C H - CH 2 - CHO ® H 2O
| (CH3)3C – Br ¾¾¾® (CH3)3 – C –OH
CH (a) elimination reaction
3-methyl-butanal (b) substitution reaction
(c) free radical reaction
(c) CH 3 - C H - C H - CH 3 ®
| | (d) displacement reaction.
OH CH 3
EBD_7764
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C-52 Chemistry
11. In the anion HCOO– the two carbon-oxygen 17. Amongst the following compounds, th e
bonds are found to be of equal length. what is optically active alkane having lowest molecular
the reason for it ? [2003] mass is [2004]
(a) The C = O bond is weaker than the C — O
bond H
|
(b) The anion HCOO– has two resonating (a) CH 3 - C - <
structures |
(c) The anion is obtained by removal of a C 2 H5
proton from the acid molecule CH3
(d) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are |
hybridised (b) CH 3 - CH 2 - C H - CH 3
12. The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open
(c) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3
chain [2003]
(a) carboxylic acids (b) diols (d) CH 3 - CH 2 - C º CH
(c) dialdehydes (d) diketones 18. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids :
13. Among the following four structures I to IV,
(a) PhCOOH
[2003]
(b) o-NO2C6H4COOH
CH3 O CH3
| || | (c) p-NO2C6H4COOH
C 2 H 5 - CH - C3H 7 , CH 3 - C - C H - C 2 H 5 ,
(d) m-NO2C6H4COOH
( I)
( II ) Which of the following order is correct? [2004]
H (a) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 (b) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1
| Å CH3
H- C |
C2 H5 - CH- C2H5 (c) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (d) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1
|
H , 19. Which of the following is the strongest base ?
( III ) ( IV ) [2004]
it is true that
(a) only I and II are chiral compounds (a)
(b) only III is a chiral compound
(c) only II and IV are chiral compounds
(d) all four are chiral compounds (b) NHCH3
14. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(c) NH2
HO
(a) 3, 3-dimethyl - 1- cyclohexanol [2004] (d) CH2NH2
(b) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane
(c) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane 20. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
(d) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol (a) 1-chloro-2-methyl pentane [2004]
15. Which one of the following does not have sp2 (b) 2-chloropentane
hybridized carbon ? [2004] (c) 1-chloropentane
(a) Acetonitrile (b) Acetic acid (d) 3-chloro-2-methyl pentane
(c) Acetone (d) Acetamide 21. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron,
16. Which of the following will have a mesoisomer free radicals are: [2005]
also? [2004] (a) cations
(a) 2, 3- Dichloropentane (b) anions
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
(c) chemically inactive
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) chemically reactive
(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
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Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles & Techniques C-53
22. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among • • •
(b) (CH3)2 C H < (CH3)3 C < (C6H5)2 C H <
the nucleophiles [2005] •
(C6H5)3 C
(A) CH 3C - O - • • •
(c) (CH3)2 C H < (CH3)3 C < (C6H5)2 C H <
||
•
O (C6H5)3 C
• • •
(B) CH 3 O - (d) (C6H5)3 C < (C6H5)2 C H < (CH3)3 C <
•
(CH3)2 C H
(C) CN -
27. CH 3 Br + Nu - ¾
¾® CH 3 - Nu + Br -
O The decreasing order of the rate of the above
||
(D) H 3C S – O – is reaction with nucleophiles (Nu–) A to D is
|| [2006]
O
[Nu = (A) PhO , (B) AcO , (C) HO–, (D)
– – –
(a) (C), (B), (A), (D) (b) (B), (C), (A), (D) CH3O–]
(c) (D), (C), (B), (A) (d) (A), (B), (C), (D) (a) A > B > C > D (b) B > D > C > A
23. The reaction [2004, 2005] (c) D > C > A > B (d) D > C > B > A
O
Me
||
||
R–C + Nu R–C +X D
28.
X Nu Å
is fastest when X is N Me
OH
(a) OCOR (b) OC 2 H 5 n-Bu Et
The alkene formed as a major product in the
(c) NH 2 (d) Cl above elimination reaction is [2006]
24. Which types of isomerism is shown by 2, 3- Me Me
dichlorobutane? (a) (b)
(a) Structural (b) Geometric [2005]
(c) Optical (d) Diastereo
(c) Me (d) CH2 = CH2
25. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below
29. Increasing order of stability among the three
is : main conformations (i.e. Eclipse, Anti, Gauche)
Cl of 2-fluoroethanol is [2006]
(a) Eclipse, Anti, Gauche
(b) Anti, Gauche, Eclipse
Br (c) Eclipse, Gauche, Anti
(a) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene [2006]
(d) Gauche, Eclipse, Anti
(b) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
(c) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
30. The IUPAC name of is
(d) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
26. The increasing order of stability of the following
(a) 3-ethyl-4-4-dimethylheptane [2007]
free radicals is [2006]
•
(b) 1, 1-diethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
• •
(a) (C6H5)2 C H < (C6H5)3 C < (CH3)3 C < (c) 4, 4-dimethyl-5,5-diethylpentane
•
(CH3)2 C H (d) 5, 5-diethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane.
EBD_7764
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C-54 Chemistry
31. Which of the following molecules is expected to 36. The correct decreasing order of priority for the
rotate the plane of plane-polarised light? [2007] functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is [2008]
COOH CHO (a) – COOH, – SO3H, – CONH2, – CHO
(b) – SO3H, – COOH,– CONH2, – CHO
(a) H2N H (b) HO H
(c) – CHO, – COOH, – SO3H, – CONH2
H (d) – CONH2, – CHO, – SO3H, – COOH
CHOH
2
37. The IUPAC name of neopentane is [2009]
(c)
(a) 2, 2 dimethylpropane
SH (b) 2 methylpropane
H2N NH2 (c) 2, 2 dimethylbutane
(d) H H (d) 2- methylbutane
Ph Ph 38. Arrange the carbanions, [2009]
32. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring
(CH3 )3 C , C Cl3 , (CH3 ) 2 C H , C6 H5 CH 2
[2007]
(a) deactivates the ring towards electrophilic in order of their decreasing stability :
substitution (a) (CH3 ) 2 C H > CCl3 > C6 H5 C H2 > (CH3 )3 C
(b) activates the ring towards electrophilic
substitution (b) C Cl3 > C6 H5 CH 2 > (CH 3 )2 CH > (CH3 )3 C
(c) renders the ring basic (c) (CH3 )3 C > (CH3 )2 CH > C6 H 5 CH 2 > C Cl3
(d) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic (d) C6 H5 CH 2 > C Cl3 > (CH3 )3 C > (CH 3 ) 2 CH
substitution.
33. Which one of the following conformations of 39. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:
cyclohexane is chiral? [2007] (a) 2- methyl propene [2009]
(a) Boat (b) Twist boat (b) 2-butene
(c) Rigid (d) Chair. (c) 2- methyl -2- butene
34. The absolute configuration of [2008] (d) propene
HO2C CO2H 40. The number of stereoisomers possible for a
compound of the molecular formula
OH CH3 – CH = CH – CH(OH) – Me is: [2009]
HO H H (b) 2 (c) 4
(a) S, S (b) R, R
(d) 6 (d) 3
(b) R, S (c) S, R
41. The correct order of increasing basicity of the
35. The electrophile, E Å attacks the benzene ring given conjugate bases (R = CH3) is [2010]
to generate the intermediate s-complex. Of the (a) RCOO < HC º C < R < NH 2
following, which s-complex is lowest energy?
[2008] (b) R < HC º C < RCOO < NH 2
NO2
(c) RCOO < NH 2 < HC º C < R
H
+ E (d) RCOO < HC º C < NH 2 < R
(a) (b) +
42. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits
H E optical isomerism is [2010]
NO2 NO2 (a) 3-methyl-2-pentene
H
(b) 4-methyl-1-pentene
(c) + E (d) + H (c) 3-methyl-1-pentene
E (d) 2-methyl-2-pentene
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Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles & Techniques C-55
43. The change in the optical rotation of freshly 48. Which of the following compounds will exhibit
prepared solution of glucose is known as: geometrical isomerism ? [JEE M 2015]
[2011RS] (a) 2 - Phenyl -1 - butene
(a) racemisation (b) specific rotation (b) 1, 1 - Diphenyl - 1 - propene
(c) mutarotation (d) tautomerism (c) 1 - Phenyl - 2 - butene
44. The non aromatic compound among the
(d) 3 - Phenyl -1 - butene
following is : [2011RS]
49. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250
mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr.
(a) (b) The percentage of bromine in the compound is :
S [JEE M 2015]
(at. mass Ag =108; Br = 80)
(a) 48 (b) 60
(c) (d)
(c) 24 (d) 36
– 50. The absolute configuration of [JEE M 2016]
CO2H
45. A solution of ( – ) – 1 – chloro –1– phenylethane
in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of a H OH
small amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of :
H Cl
[2013]
(a) carbanion (b) carbene CH3
(c) carbocation (d) free radical is :
46. The order of stability of the following (a) (2S, 3S) (b) (2R, 3R)
carbocations : [2013] (c) (2R, 3S) (d) (2S, 3R)
Å 51. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in
CH 2
the figure below is : [JEE M 2016]
Å Å region 4
CH 2 = CH - C H 2 ; CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 ; is :
I II region 3
III
(a) III > II > I (b) II > III > I region 2
(c) I > II > III (d) III > I > II
region 1
47. For which of the following molecule significant
m ¹ 0?
Cl CN
(a) region 3 (b) region 4
(i) (ii) [2014] (c) region 1 (d) region 2
52. Which of the following molecules is least
Cl CN resonance stabilized? [JEE M 2017]
OH SH
(a) (b)
O
(iii) (iv)
OH SH (c) (d)
(a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (ii) N O
(c) Only (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
EBD_7764
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C-56 Chemistry
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) (d) (a) (a) (a) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (c) (d) (c)
46 47 48 49 50 51 52
(d) (d) (c) (c) (d) (d) (d)
1. (b) –CH3 group has +I effect, as number of 5. (c) The correct name is 3 - methylbut - 2 - ol
–CH3 group increases, the inductive effect
O CH 3
increases. 1 2| | 3| 4
Therefore the correct order is 6. (c) C H3 - C - C H - C H 3 ;
CH3– CH2– < (CH3)2 – CH– < (CH3)3 C – 3- methyl-2-butanone
2. (c) Sterioisomerism involve those isomers 7. (b) In molecules (a), (c) and (d), the carbon
which contain same ligands in their atom has a multiple bond, only (b) has sp3
co-ordination spheres but differ in the hybridization.
arrangement of these ligands in space. 8. (d) A mixtur e of equal amount of two
Stereo-isomerism is of two type geomerical enantiomers is called a racemic mixture. A
isomerism and optical isomerism. In racemic mixture does not rotate plane–
geomerical isomerism ligands occupy polarized light. They are optically inactive
different positions around the central metal because for every molecule in a racemic
atom or ion. mixture that rotate plane of polarized light
in one direction, there is a mirror image
NOTE In optical isomerism isomers molecule that rotates the plane in opposite
have same formula but differ in their ability direction.
to rotate directions of the plane of 9. (d)
polarised light.
Stereoisomerism is of two types i.e.,
Cl geometrical isomerism and optical
3. (c) C = CH - CH 2 - CH 2 CH3 does isomerism
Cl Both the structures shows sterioisomerism.
not show geometrical isomerism due to Structure I shows geometrical isomerism
presence of two similar Cl atoms on the as it contains two different atoms(H) and
same C-atom. Geometrical isomerism is groups (CH3 ) attached to each carbon
shown by compounds in which the groups/ containing double bond.
atoms attached to C = C are different. H3C CH3 H CH3
C=C C=C
H H H3C H
4. (d) Amino acids contain – NH2 and – COOH
Cis butene Trans butene
NH 2 Structure II shows optical isomerism as it
groups e.g Glycine CH 2
COOH
contains a chiral carbon (attached to four
different group) atom.
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Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles & Techniques C-57
CH3 H3C O
sp3 sp sp3 ||
H
*
C OH OH C H CH3 - C º N ; CH3 - C - NH 2
sp 2
Acetonitrile Acetamide
CH2CH3 H3CH2C
butyl alcohol (Two enantiomers) 16. (b) NOTE The compounds containing two
10. (b) The hydrolysis of t-butyl bromide is an similar assymmetric C-atoms have plane of
example of SN1 reaction. The reaction symmetry and exist in Meso form.
consists of two steps. CH3
CH3 CH3 H Cl
Slow step
(i) CH3 C Br ¾¾¾¾ ¾® CH3 C+ :Br plane of symmetry
H Cl
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3 CH3
Meso 2, 3 dichlorobutane
+ Fast step
(ii) CH3 C+ OH – ¾¾¾¾® CH3 C OH 17. (a) Only 2- cylcopropyl butane has a chiral
|
|
|
CH3 centre.
CH3
11. –
(d) HCOO exists in following resonating H
structures *
CH3 – C – chiral centre
O OΠ
|| | C2H5
H , C, O, « H , C < O 18. (d) In aromatic acids presence of electron
Hence in it both the carbon oxygen bonds withdrawing substituent e.g. –NO 2
are found equal. disperses the negative charge of the anion
12. (a) CnH2nO2 is general formula for carboxylic and stablises it and hence increases the
acid acidity of the parent benzoic acid.
13. (a) CH3
Further o-isomer will have higher acidity
O CH3 Chiral
Carbon than corresponding m and p isomers. Since
C2H5 C* C3H7 CH3 C C* C2H5
nitro group at p-position have more
H Chiral H
(I) carbon pronounced electron withdrawing than
(II)
–NO 2 group at m-position hence the
H CH3 correct order is the one given above.
|
|
H — C* C2H5 — C — C2H5
| Achiral
H Carbon | Achiral COOH COOH
H carbon
(III) (IV)
<
NO2
COOH COOH
14. (a) 1 3 IUPAC name –
2 NO2
HO < <
3, 3-Dimethyl -1 cyclohexanol
NO2
O O
sp 3 || sp 3 sp3 ||
15. (a) H3 C - C - CH 3 ; CH3 - C - OH ; 19. (d) Lone pair of electrons present on the
sp 2 sp2 nitrogen of benzyl amine is not involved
Acetone Acetic acid
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C-58 Chemistry
in resonance. Cl
20. (c) 1-chloropentane is not chiral while others 1
are chiral in nature 6 2
25. (a)
ClCl ClCl 5 3 Br
| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 4
- -CC
– –CC - -CC
- -CC
- -CC
; ; C-C-C C
-C- -CC
- -CC
-C-, -,
| | | | | | | | | | | |* |* | | | | | | 3-bromo-1chlorocyclohexene
1- chloropentane 2 - chloropentane
26. (b) The order of stability of free radicals
• •
| | (C6 H 5 ) 3 C > (C 6 H 5 ) 2 C H > (CH 3 ) 3
- Cl - C - –C – Cl
| | | | | | | | | | • •
- C – C – C– C– C – C– C – C – C – C – C > (CH3 ) 2 CH
| |* | | | | | |* | |
1-chloro-2-methyl 3-chloro-2-methyl The stabilisation of first two is due to
pentane pentane resonance and last two is due to inductive
21. (d) Free radicals are electrically neutral, effect.
unstable and very reactive on account of 27. (c)
the presence of odd electrons.
The stronger the acid, the weaker the
22. (a) In moving down a group, the basicity and conjugate base formed.
nucleophilicity are inversely related, i.e.
The acid character follows the order :
nucleophilicity increases while basicity
decreases. In going from left to right across CH3COOH > C6H5OH > H2O > CH3OH
a period, the basicity and nucleophilicity The basic character will follow the order
are directly related. Both of the CH3COO– < C6H5O– < O–H < CH3O–
characteristics decrease as the 28. (b) Hofmann's rule : When theoretically more
electronegativity of the atom bearing lone than one type of alkenes are possible in
pair of electrons increases. If the eliminations reaction, the alkene containing
nucleophilic centre of two or more species least alkylated double bond is formed as
is same, nucleophilicity parallels basicity, major product. Hence
i.e. more basic the species, stronger is its
Me Me
nucleophilicity. D
Hence based on the above facts, the +
OH N Me
correct order of nucleophilicity will be n-Bu |
O Et
– – –
H3C S— O– > CN > CH3O > CH3 C– O It is less stearically b-hydrogen is
O O removed
(D) (C) (B) (A)
H
29. (a) H H
O
||
23. (d) R - C - X ; when X is Cl the C–X bond is d–
H F
more polar and ionic which leaves the
d+
compound more reactive for nucleophilic O–H
substitution reaction.
Due to hydrogen bonding between H & F
Cl Cl gauche conformation is most stable hence
24. (c) CH3 CH3 . 2, 3-dichloro butane will the correct order is
H H
exhibit optical isomerism due to the Eclipse, Anti, Gauche
presence of two asymmetric carbon atom.
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Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles & Techniques C-59
CH3 O O
7 6 5 4| 3 2 1 || ||
30. (a) CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - C - CH - CH 2 - CH3 –COOH > –SO3 H > – C - NH 2 > - C - H
| |
CH3 CH 2 37. (a) CH3
| |
1 3 2
CH3 H3C- C - CH3
3- ethyl - 4,4 -dimethyl heptane |
CH3
31. (b) NOTE The organic compounds which Neopentane
have chiral carbon atom (a carbon atom or 2, 2- Dimethylpropane
attached to four different group or atoms
38. (b)
and do not have plane of symmetry rotate
plane polarised light. Cl
– – – –
CHO C Cl > C6H5CH2 > (CH3)2 CH > (CH3)3C
| Cl
HO - C*- H (* is asymmetric carbon) –ve charge –M effect +I effect of CH3 group
| highly dispersed delocalises intensifies the –ve charge
–ve charge
CH 2 OH due to – I effect
32. (a) Nitro group is electron withdrawing group, 39. (b) H3C CH3 H3C H
so it deactivates the ring towards C=C C=C
electrophilic substitution.
H H H CH3
33. (b) Chiral conformation will not have plane of
symmetry. Since twist boat does not have *
40. (b) CH 3 – CH = CH – CHCH 3
plane of symmetry it is chiral. |
OH
4 1 exhibits both geometrical as well as optical
isomerism.
cis - R cis - S
3 6
trans - R trans - S
41. (d) The correct order of basicity is
RCOO - < CH º C - < NH 2 - < R -
5 2
42. (c) For a compound to show optical isomerism,
34. (b) The absolute configuration is (R, R)
presence of chiral carbon atom is a
(using priority rules to get the absolute necessary condition.
configuration)
So the correct answer is (b) H
35. (b) In option (b) the complex formed is with |
benzene where as in other cases it is formed H 2 C < HC — C* — CH 2 , CH3
with nitrobenzene with –NO2 group in |
different position (o-, m-, p-). The complex CH3
formed with nitrobenzene in any position 3- methyl-1-pentene
of –NO2 group is less stable than the 43. (c) When either of the two forms of glucose is
complex formed with benzene so the correct dissolved in water there is change in
answer is (b) rotation till the equilibrium value of + 52.5º.
NOTE The most stable complex has This is known as mutarotation
a–D(+)Glucose Equilibrium Mixture
lowest energy.
+111.5º +52.5º
36. (a) The correct order of priority for the given
b–D–(+)Glucose
functional group is +111.5º +19.5º
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C-60 Chemistry
H H H
44. (d) sp3 Carbon |
48. (c) H3C — C = CH — CH 2
|
Ph
Cyclopentadiene does not obey Huckel's 1- Phenyl-2-butene the two groups around
Rule, as it has sp3 carbon in the ring. each of the doubly bonded carbon
45. (c) Carbocations are planar hence can be attacked Because, all are different. This compound
on either side to form racemic mixture. can show cis-and trans-isomerism.
SbCl
Å 49. (c) Mass of substance = 250 mg = 0.250 g
Cl - CH- CH3 ¾¾¾¾ 5 ® Ph - C H - CH + SbCl- ¾¾
®
Toluene 3 6 Mass of AgBr = 141 mg = 0.141 g
| (carbocation) 1 mole of AgBr = 1 g atom of Br
Ph 188 g of AgBr = 80 g of Br
(- )
\ 188 g of AgBr contain bromine = 80 g
Ph - CH - CH3 + SbCl5 0.141 g of AgBr contain bromine =
| 80
Cl ´ 0.141
(d+l) mixture 188
This much amount of bromine present in
46. (d) Higher stability of allyl and aryl substituted
0.250 g of organic compound
methyl carbocation is due to dispersal of
\ % of bromine = = 24%
positive charge due to resonance
50. (d) CO2H
+ +
CH 2 = CH - C H 2 ¬¾® CH 2 - CH = CH 2 H 1 OH
Resonating structures of allyl carbocation
2
+
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 H Cl
Å Å CH3
At (1),
Å 3 1
S
Resonating structures of benzyl carbocation
whereas in alkyl carbocations dispersal of posi- 4 1 2 3
tive charge on different hydrogen atoms is due
to hyperconjugation. Hence the correct order of
stability will be 2 4
Å
CH2 It is ‘S’configurated
At. (2),
Å Å 2 1
> CH 2 = CH - C H 2 > CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 R
Allyl, I Propyl, II
Benzyl, III 4 1 3 2
H
O O 3 4
47. (d)
H 51. (d) Region 2 (blue flame) will be the hottest region
H of Bunsen flame shown in given figure
S S O
H
In both the molecules the bond moments 52. (d) is nonaromatic and hence least
are not canceling with each other and hence
the molecules has a resultant dipole and
hence the molecule is polar. reasonance stabilized whereas other three
are aromatic.
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Hydrocarbons C-61
13
Hydrocarbons
1. Which of these will not react with acetylene? 8. Of the five isomeric hexanes, the isomer which
[2002] can give two monochlorinated compounds is
(a) NaOH (b) ammonical AgNO3 [2005]
(c) Na (d) HCl. (a) 2-methylpentane
2. What is the product when acetylene reacts with (b) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
hypochlorous acid? [2002] (c) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(a) CH3COCl (b) ClCH2CHO (d) n-hexane
(c) Cl2CHCHO (d) ClCH2COOH. 9. The compound formed as a result of oxidation
3. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is [2007]
irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only (a) benzyl alcohol (b) benzophenone
one monochloroalkane. This alkane could be
[2003] (c) acetophenone (d) benzoic acid.
(a) pentane (b) isopentane 10. Which of the following reactions will yield
(c) neopentane (d) propane 2, 2-dibromopropane? [2007]
4. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by (a) CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr ®
reaction with [2003] (b) CH3 – C º CH + 2HBr ®
(a) Sn – HCl (b) Zn – Hg (c) CH3CH = CHBr + HBr ®
(c) Pd/H2 (d) Zn – HCl (d) CH º CH + 2HBr ®
5. Which one of the following has the minimum 11. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of
boiling point? [2004] FeCl3 gives predominantly [2007]
(a) 1 - Butene (b) 1 - Butyne (a) m-chlorobenzene
(c) n- Butane (d) isobutane (b) benzoyl chloride
6. 2-Methylbutane on reacting with bromine in the (c) benzyl chloride
presence of sunlight gives mainly [2005] (d) o- and p-chlorotoluene.
(a) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane 12. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is
(b) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The
(c) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane product so obtained is diazotised and then
(d) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane heated wth cuprous bromide. The reaction
7. Reaction of one molecule of HBr with one mixture so formed contains [2008]
molecule of 1, 3-butadiene at 40°C gives (a) mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
predominantly [2005] (b) mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes
(a) 1-bromo-2-butene under kinetically (c) mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines
controlled conditions
(d) mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes
(b) 3-bromobutene under thermodynamically
controlled conditions 13. In the following sequence of reactions, the
(c) 1-bromo-2-butene under thermodyna- alkene affords the compound ‘B’
mically controlled conditions CH 3 - CH = CH - CH 3 ¾¾3¾
O
® A ¾¾¾
H O
2 ® B.
(d) 3-bromobutene under kinetically controlled Zn
conditions The compound B is [2008]
EBD_7764
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C-62 Chemistry
(a) C H3CH2CHO (b) C H3COCH3 CH3
(c) C H3CH2COCH3 (d) C H3CHO CH3
14. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium (a) (b) H3C
in liquid ammonia is [2008]
CH3
(a) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 C º CCH 2CH 2 CH3
CH3
(b) CH 3CH 2C º CH CH3
(c) CH 3CH = CHCH3
(c) CH3 (d)
(d) CH 3CH 2C º CCH 2CH3
CH3
15. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH 3C º C - H
produces [2008] 21. The product of the reaction given below is:
(a) CH 3 - CH = CH 2
1. NBS/hv
(b) CH 3C º C - CH3 X
H H 2. H 2O/K 2CO3
| |
(c) CH 3 - C = C - CH3
[JEE M 2016]
(d) CH4
16. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis O CO2H
gives two moles of an aldehyde having a
molecular mass of 44 u. The alkene is [2010]
(a) (b)
(a) propene (b) 1-butene
(c) 2-butene (d) ethene
17. Ozonolysis of an organic compound 'A' produces
OH
acetone and propionaldhyde in equimolar
mixture. Identify 'A' from the following
compounds: [2011RS] (c) (d)
(a) 1 – Pentene
(b) 2 – Pentene 22. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 + H2O)
(c) 2 – Methyl – 2 – pentene
proceeds through the intermediate:
(d) 2 – Methyl – 1 – pentene
[JEE M 2016]
18. Which branched chain isomer of the
hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only (a) CH 3 – CH ( OH ) - CH 2+
one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide ?
[2012] (b) CH3 – CHCl - CH 2+
(a) Tertiary butyl chloride
(b) Neopentane (c) CH3 – CH + - CH 2 – OH
(c) Isohexane
(d) Neohexane (d) CH3 – CH + - CH 2 – Cl
19. 2-Hexyne gives trans-2-Hexene on treatment
with : [2012] 23. 3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in
(a) Pt/H2 (b) Li / NH3 presence of peroxide forms an addition product.
(c) Pd/BaSO4 (d) Li AlH4 The number of possible stereoisomers for the
20. Which compound would give 5 - keto - 2 - product is : [JEE M 2017]
methylhexanal upon ozonolysis ? (a) Six (b) Zero
[JEE M 2015] (c) Two (d) Four
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Hydrocarbons C-63
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (c) (c) (d) (c) (c) (c) (d) (b) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
(c) (c) (b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d)
1. (a) Acetylene reacts with the other three as: boiling points than the corrosponding
alkanes.
CH 2 Thus B.pt. follows the order
Na
CH º CNa CH º CH +HCl
liq. NH 3
CHCl alkynes > alkene > alkanes (straight chain)
CH3 > branched chain alkanes.
+HCl
CH3
CHCl CHCl2 |
Br
[AgNO3+NH4OH] 6. (c) CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH3 ¾¾®
¾2
CH º CH sun light
CH3
[AgNO +NH OH] |
AgCº CAg + NH4NO3 CH3 - C - CH2CH3
white ppt. |
Br
CHOH 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
2. (c) CH º CH + HOCl ¾¾
® ||
Ease of replacement of H-atom 3° > 2° > 1°.
CHCl
7. (c) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2CH2 + HBr
Br
HOCl é
CH (OH ) 2 ù CHO
- H 2O
¾¾¾®ê | ú ¾¾ ¾ ¾® |
CH2 = CH – CH – CH3
ëê CHCl 2 ûú CHCl 2
dichloroacetaldehyde At –80°C the product is
1, 2-addition
3. (c) In neopentane all the H atoms are same (1º).
CH2 – CH = CH – CH3
CH3
| Br
CH 3 - C - CH 3 At 40°C the product is
| 1, 4-addition
CH3
CH3 CH3
4. (c) Alkenes combine with hydrogen under | |
pressure and in presence of a catalyst (Ni, 8. (c) CH 3 - C H - C H - CH 3 . Since it contains
Pt or Pd) and form alkanes. only two types of H-atoms hence it will
H 2 / Pd give only two mono chlorinated
Butene - 1 ¾¾¾¾® Butane
CH3 CH3
5. (d) NOTE Among isomeric alkanes, the | |
straight chain isomer has higher boiling compounds viz. Cl.CH 2 - C H - C H - CH 3
1-chloro -2,3 -dimethyl butane
point than the branched chain isomer. The
CH 3 CH 3
greater the branching of the chain, the | |
lower is the boiling point. Further due to CH 3 - C - C H - CH 3
the presence of p electrons, these moleculs |
and Cl
are slightly polar and hence have higher 2 -chloro - 2,3-dimethyl butane
EBD_7764
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C-64 Chemistry
9. (d) When alkyl benzene are oxidised with alkaline
KMnO4, (strong oxidising agent) the entire CH3
alkyl group is oxidised to –COOH group (HNO3+ HSO)
2 4
regardless of length of side chain.
CH2CH3
( O ), KMnO4 / OH-
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH3 CH3
Ethyl benzene (HNO + HSO)
NO2
COOH +
NO2
Benzoic aicd
o- p-
10. (b) The reaction follows Markownikoff rule on reduction with Sn/HCl they will form
which states that when unsymmetrical corresponding anilines in which –NO2 group
reagent adds across unsymmetrical double
changes to –NH2. The mixture now contains
or triple bond the negative part adds to
carbon atom having lesser number of CH3 CH3
hydrogen atoms. NH2
CH3 - C º CH + HBr ® and . These anilines
Br NH2
HBr |
CH3 - C = CH 2 ¾¾¾
® CH3 - C - CH3 when diazotized and then treated with CuBr
| | forms o-, p- bromotoluenes.
Br Br
13. (d) Completing the sequence of given reactions,
2, 2-
dibromo-propane O
CH 3 – CH = CH - CH 3 ¾¾3¾
®
11. (d) FeCl3 is Lewis acid. In presence of FeCl3 side
chain hydrogen atoms of toluene are
O
substituted.
CH3 Zn / H O
CH3 CH3– CH CH – CH3 ¾¾¾¾®
2
Cl
FeCl3
+ Cl2 ¾¾¾® + O O
Toluene o-chloro toluene ‘A’
(ozonide)
CH3
2CH3CHO+ H 2 O + ZnO
Cl 'B '
p-chloro toluene Thus ‘B’ is CH3CHO
Hence (d) is correct answer.
CH3
14. (b) Alkynes having terminal –C º H react with
Na in liquid ammonia to yield H2 gas of the
12. (a) NOTE Toluene ( ) contains –
given compounds CH3CH2C º CH can react
with Na in liquid NH3 so the correct answer
CH3 group which is o-, p- directing group so is (b).
on nitration of toluene the –NO2 group will
Na in
occupy o-, p- positions. CH3CH 2 C º CH ¾¾¾¾¾
®
liquid NH3
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Hydrocarbons C-65
19. (b) Anti addition of hydrogen atoms to the triple
1
CH3 CH 2 C º C – Na + + H 2 (g) bond occurs when alkynes are reduced with
2 sodium (or lithium) metal in ammonia,
15. (d) Writing the reaction we get ethylamine, or alcohol at low temperatures.
This reaction called, a dissolving metal
CH 3 MgX + CH 3 – C º C – H ¾¾
®
reduction, produces an (E)- or trans-alkene.
CH3 – C º CMgX + CH 4 (g) Sodium in liq. NH3 is used as a source of
So we find that CH4 is produced in this electrons in the reduction of an alkyne to a
trans alkene.
reaction.
16. (c) The given molecular formula suggests that CH3 CH2 CH2 C C CH3
2-Hexyne
the aldehyde formed will be acetaldehyde
Li/NH 3
hence the alkene will be CH3 CH2 CH2 H
Birch reduction
CH3CH = CH CH3 C C
H CH3
2- butene
Trans-2-Hexene
O3 H O 20. (d) When 1, 3-dimethylcyclopentene is heated with
¾¾® H
ozone and then with zinc and acetic acid,
C C
oxidative cleavage leads to keto - aldehyde.
O O
CH3 CH3
O
1O - 78° C
Zn / H 2O 2CH3CHO + H 2O 2 ¾ ¾ ¾3¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
® O C–H
¾¾¾¾® 2 - Zn- CH 3 COOH
17. (c) From the products formed it is clear that
the compound has 5 carbon atoms with a CH3 CH3
double bond and methyl group on 2 nd
carbon atom.
O O
CH3 || ||
| CH3 — C— CH 2 — CH 2 — CH— C— H
CH3 - C = CH - CH 2 - CH3 |
CH3
O / Zn, H O
¾¾¾¾¾¾
3 2 ® 5- keto – 2 – methylhexanal
21. (d) N – bromosuccinimide results into bromination
(2–Methyl–2–pentene) at allylic and benzylic positions
(A)
CH3 O
| NBS/hv
CH3 - C = O + CH3 - CH 2 - C
Acetone Propionaldehyde
18. (b)
More stable
CH3
Cl2/hv Br HO
H 2O/K 2CO 3
H3C C CH3 monohalogenation
single product NBS
CH3
neopentane
EBD_7764
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C-66 Chemistry
22. (d)
Å C2H5 C2H5
CH2 – CH – CH3 OH CH2 – CH – CH3 (I) (II)
Cl Cl OH
23. (d) If two chirality centres are created as a CH3 CH3
result of an addition reaction four
stereoisomers can be obtained as products. Br H H Br
14
Environmental
Chemistry
1. The smog is essentially caused by the presence (c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
of [2004] (d) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can
(a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen cause the depletion of ozone layer.
(b) O2 and N2 (c) O2 and O3 4. What is DDT among the following ? [2012]
(d) O3 and N2 (a) Greenhouse gas
2. Identify the wrong statement in the following: (b) A fertilizer
[2008] (c) Biodegradable pollutant
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for (d) Non-biodegradable pollutant
ozone layer depletion 5. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union
(b) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was: [2013]
warming (a) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared (b) Methylamine
radiation from the sun to reach the earth (c) Ammonia
(d) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of (d) Phosgene
nitrogen and sulphur 6. A water sample has ppm level concentration of
3. Identify the incorrect statement from the following anions [2017]
following : [2011RS] – 2– –
F = 10; SO4 = 100; NO3 = 50
(a) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet the anion/anions that make/makes the water
radiation of the sun. sample unsuitable for drinking is/are :
(b) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its (a) only NO3– (b) both SO42– and NO3–
chemical reactions with chlorofluoro –
alkanes. (c) only F (d) only SO42–
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) (c) (c) (d) (a) (c)
15
The Solid State
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (c)
16
(d)
361 ´ 2 2a a
r= = 127.6 » 128pm \ closest distance (2r) = =
4 4 2
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Solutions C-71
16
Solutions
1. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is 6. Which one of the following aqueous solutions
(–0.186)°C. Elevation of boiling point of the same will exihibit highest boiling point ? [2004]
solution is Kb = 0.512°C,Kf = 1.86°C, find the (a) 0.015 M urea (b) 0.01 M KNO3
increase in boiling point. [2002] (c) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (d) 0.015 M glucose
(a) 0.186°C (b) 0.0512°C 7. For which of the following parameters the
(c) 0.092°C (d) 0.2372°C. structural isomers C2 H5 OH and CH3 OCH3
2. In mixture A and B components show -ve would be expected to have the same
deviation as values?(Assume ideal behaviour) [2004]
(a) D Vmix > 0 [2002] (a) Boiling points
(b) D Hmix < 0 (b) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
(c) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B (c) Heat of vaporization
– B interaction (d) Gaseous densities at the same temperature
(d) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and and pressure
B – B interaction. 8. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a
3. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution [2003] positive deviation from Raoult’s law ? [2004]
(a) the entropy of mixing is zero (a) Water - nitric acid
(b) the free energy of mixing is zero (b) Benzene - methanol
(c) the free energy as well as the entropy of (c) Water - hydrochloric acid
mixing are each zero (d) Acetone - chloroform
(d) the enthalpy of mixing is zero 9. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
4. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid [2004]
HX the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking kf for (a) The correct order of osmotic pressure for
water as 1.85, the freezing point of the solution 0.01 M aqueous solution of each
will be nearest to [2003] compound is
(a) – 0.360º C (b) – 0.260º C BaCl 2 > KCl > CH 3COOH > sucrose
(c) + 0.480º C (d) – 0.480º C (b) The osmotic pressure (p) of a solution is
5. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food given by the equation p = MRT, where M is
because [2003] the molarity of the solution
(a) boiling point of water involved in cooking (c) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure
is increased of a component over a solution is
(b) the higher pressure inside the cooker proportional to its mole fraction
crushes the food material (d) Two sucrose solutions of same molality
(c) cooking involves chemical changes helped prepared in different solvents will have the
by a rise in temperature same freezing point depression
(d) heat is more evenly distributed in the 10. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solution.
cooking space At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75
torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial
EBD_7764
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C-72 Chemistry
vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a (a) 210.0 g mol–1 (b) 90.0 g mol–1
solution containing 78 g of benzene and 46 g of (c) 115.0 g mol–1 (d) 105.0 g mol–1.
toluene in torr is [2005] 17. At 80° C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’
(a) 53.5 (b) 37.5 is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000
(c) 25 (d) 50 mm Hg. If a mixture solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils
11. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have at 80° C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of ‘A’ in
[2005] the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg) [2008]
(a) Different boiling and different freezing (a) 52 mol percent (b) 34 mol percent
points (c) 48 mol percent (d) 50 mol percent
(b) Same boiling and same freezing points 18. The vapour pressure of water at 20° C is 17.5
(c) Same freezing point but different boiling mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C6 H12 O 6) is added
points to 178.2 g of water at 20° C, the vapour pressure
(d) Same boiling point but different freezing of the resulting solution will be [2008]
points (a) 17.325 mm Hg (b) 15.750 mm Hg
12. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as (c) 16.500 mm Hg (d) 17.500 mm Hg
the major interaction, is present in [2006] 19. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-
(a) KCl and water heptane and ethanol. Which one of the following
(b) benzene and carbon tetrachloride statements is correct regarding the behaviour
(c) benzene and ethanol of the solution? [2009]
(d) acetonitrile and acetone (a) The solution is non-ideal, showing – ve
deviation from Raoult’s Law.
13. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of
water. The vapour pressure of water for this (b) The solution is non-ideal, showing + ve
aqueous solution at 100ºC is [2006] deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(a) 76.00 Torr (b) 752.40 Torr (c) n-heptane shows + ve deviation while
ethanol shows – ve deviation from Raoult’s
(c) 759.00 Torr (d) 7.60 Torr
Law.
14. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol
(d) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
has a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The
vapour pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If 20. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At
the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
0.6, its vapour pressure (in mm) at the same containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mmHg.
temperature will be [2007] At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further
added to this solution, vapour pressure of the
(a) 360 (b) 350
solution increases by 10 mmHg. Vapour pressure
(c) 300 (d) 700
( in mmHg) of X and Y in their pure states will be,
15. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed respectively: [2009]
in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of
(a) 300 and 400 (b) 400 and 600
the total pressure exerted by oxygen is [2007]
(c) 500 and 600 (d) 200 and 300
(a) 1/2 (b) 2/3
21. If sodium sulphate is considered to be
1 273 completely dissociated into cations and anions
(c) ´ (d) 1/3.
3 298 in aqueous solution, the change in freezing point
of water (DTf), when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate
16. A 5.25% solution of a substance is isotonic with a
is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg
1.5% solution of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) in
mol–1) [2010]
the same solvent. If the densities of both the
solutions are assumed to be equal to 1.0 g cm–3, (a) 0.372 K (b) 0.0558 K
molar mass of the substance will be [2007] (c) 0.0744 K (d) 0.0186 K
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Solutions C-73
22. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal (a) 0.875 M (b) 1.00 M
solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the (c) 1.75 M (d) 0.975 M
two liquid components (heptane and octane) are 27. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M
105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3 (PO4)2 (aq), 0.250
of the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M
heptane and 35 g of octane will be
Na3PO4(aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true
(molar mass of heptane = 100 g mol–1 and of about these solutions, assuming all salts to be
octane = 114 g mol–1) [2010] strong electrolytes? [2014]
(a) 72.0 kPa (b) 36.1 kPa (a) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(c) 96.2 kPa (d) 144.5 kPa
(b) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest
23. A 5% solution of cane sugar (molar mass 342) is osmotic pressure.
isotonic with 1% of a solution of an unknown
(c) 0.125 M Na3 PO 4 (aq) has the highest
solute. The molar mass of unknown solute in g/
osmotic pressure.
mol is : [2011RS]
(d) 0.500 M C2 H5OH(aq) has the highest
(a) 171.2 (b) 68.4
osmotic pressure.
(c) 34.2 (d) 136.2
28. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185
24. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour
water is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol–1)
is : [2012] of the substance is : [JEE M 2015]
(a) 0.50 M (b) 1.78 M (a) 128 (b) 488
(c) 1.02 M (d) 2.05 M
(c) 32 (d) 64
25. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. If your automobile
radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how many grams 29. The freezing point of benzene decreases by
of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to 0.45°C when 0.2g of acetic acid is added to 20 g
get the freezing point of the solution lowered to of benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a
–2.8ºC ? [2012] dimer in benzene, percentage association of
(a) 72 g (b) 93 g acetic acid in benzene will be : [JEE M 2017]
(c) 39 g (d) 27 g (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol –1)
26. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing (a) 64.6% (b) 80.4%
750 mL of 0.5(M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M) HCl will (c) 74.6% (d) 94.6%
be : [2013]
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
(a) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (d)
WB DTb K b DTb
1. (b) DTb = K b ´1000 ; = =
M B ´ WA DTf Kf -0.186
WB 0.512
DTf = K f ´1000 ; = = 0.0512°C.
M B ´ WA 1.86
EBD_7764
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C-74 Chemistry
2. (d) In solution containing A and B component between ethanol molecules which weaken
showing negative deviation A–A and B–B intermolecular forces. This results in
interactions are weaker than that of A–B increase in vapour pressure.
interactions. For such solutions. 9. (d) DTf = K f ´ m ´ i . Since Kf has different
DH = –ve and DV = –ve
values for different solvents, hence even
3. (d) When A and B form an ideal solution,
DHmix = 0 if the m is the same DTf will be different
4. (d) DTf = Kf × m × i ; 10. (d) Given, Vapour pressure of benzene = 75
DTf = 1.85 × 0.2 × 1.3 = 0.480º C torr
\ Tf = 0 – 0.480ºC = – 0.480ºC Vapour pressure of benezene = 22 torr
+ mass of benzene in = 78g
( HX H + X - , i = 1.3) 78
1- 0.3 0. 3 0.3
hence moles of benzene = = 1mole
5. (a) NOTE On increasing pressure, the 78
(mol.wt of benzene = 78)
temperature is also increased. Thus in mass of toluence in solution = 46g
pressure cooker due to increase in pressure
46
the b.p. of water increases. hence moles of toluene = = 0.5 mole
6. (c) Q DTb° = Tb – Tbº 92
Where Tb = b.pt of solution now partial pressure of benezene
Tb° = b.pt of solvent or Tb = Tb° + DTb 1 1
= Pºb. Xb = 75 × = 50 torr = 75 ×
NOTE Elevation in boiling point is a 1 + 0.5 1.5
colligative property, which depends upon 2
the no. of particles.Thus greater the = 75 × = 50
3
number of particles, greater is it elevation
and hence greater will be its boiling point. 11. (d) Equimolar solutions of normal solutes in
the same solvent will have the same b. pts
Na2SO4 2Na + SO4 and same f. pts.
Since Na2SO4 has maximum number of d+ d-
particles (3) hence has maximum boiling 12. (d) Acetonitrile ( CH 3 - C º N ) and acetone
point. d+
7. (d) Gaseous densities of ethanol and dimethyl (CH3)
d–
ether would be same at same temperature C = O both are polar
and pressure. The heat of vaporisation, V.P. d–
and b.pts will differ due to (CH3)
H-bonding in ethanol. molecules, hence
dipole-dipole interaction exist between
8. (b) NOTE Positive deviations are shown
them. Between KCl and water ion-dipole
by such solutions in which solvent- interaction is found and in Benzene ethanol
solvent and solute-solute interactions are and Benzene–Carbon tetra chloride
stronger than the solvent interactions. In dispersion force is present
such solution, the intcractions among
molecules becomes weaker. Therefore their 13. (b) Moles of glucose = 18 = 0.1
escaping tendency increases which results 180
in the increase in their partial vapour Moles of water = 1 78 .2
= 9.9
pressures. 18
In a solutions of benzene and methanol Total moles = 0.1 + 9.9 = 10
there exists inter molecular H– bonding.
p H 2O = Mole fraction × Total pressure
9.9
= ´ 760
10
In this solution benzene molecules come = 752.4 Torr
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Solutions C-75
Electrochemistry
17
1. Conductivity (unit Siemen’s S) is directly (a) 29.5 × 10–2 (b) 10
proportional to area of the vessel and the (c) 1 × 1010 (d) 1 × 10–10
concentration of the solution in it and is 7. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three
inversely proportional to the length of the metals A, B & C are respectively + 0.5 V, – 3.0 V &
vessel then the unit of the constant of –1.2 V. The reducing powers of these metals are
proportionality is [2003]
(a) Sm mol–1 (b) Sm2 mol–1 [2002] (a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A
(c) S–2m2 mol (d) S2m2 mol–2. (c) A > C > B (d) B > C > A
2. EMF of a cell in terms of reduction potential of 8. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3
its left and right electrodes is [2002] 9650 coulombs of charge pass through the
(a) E = Eleft - Eright (b) E = Eleft + Eright electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited
(c) E = Eright - Eleft (d) E = – (Eright + Eleft). on the cathode will be [2003]
3. What will be the emf for the given cell [2002] (a) 10.8 g (b) 21.6 g
Pt | H2 (P1) | H+ (aq) | | H2 (P2) | Pt (c) 108 g (d) 1.08 g
RT P2 9. For the redox reaction : [2003]
RT P
(a) log e 1 (b) 2 F loge P Zn (s) + Cu 2 + (0.1 M ) ® Zn 2 + (1 M ) + Cu (s)
F P2 2
RT P º
taking place in a cell, E cell is 1.10 volt. Ecell for
(c) log e 2 (d) none of these.
F P1
the cell will be æç 2.303 ö
RT
4. Which of the following reaction is possible at = 0.0591÷ [2003]
anode? [2002] è F ø
(a) 2 Cr + 7H2O ® Cr2O7 + 14H
3+ 2– + (a) 1.80 volt (b) 1.07 volt
(b) F2 ® 2F – (c) 0.82 volt (d) 2.14 volt
10. In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of
(c) (1/2) O2 + 2H+ ® H2O
hydrogen occurs to [2004]
(d) none of these. (a) produce high purity water
5. When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is (b) create potential difference between two
to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes
electrodes are [2002] (c) generate heat
Cathode Anode (d) remove adsorbed oxygen from elctrode
(a) pure zinc pure copper surfaces
(b) impure sample pure copper 11. Consider the following Eº values
(c) impure zinc impure sample Eº = +0.77 V ; E º = -0.14 V
(d) pure copper impure sample. Fe3 + / Fe 2 + Sn 2 + / Sn
6. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron Under standard conditions the potential for the
change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is found reaction
to be 0.295 V at 25ºC. The equilibrium constant
of the reaction at 25ºC will be [2003] Sn(s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) ® 2Fe 2+ (aq) + Sn 2+ (aq) is
EBD_7764
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C-78 Chemistry
(a) 0.91 V (b) 1.40 V [2004] To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this
(c) 1.68 V (d) 0.63 V method we require [2005]
12. The standard e.m.f. of a cell involving one
(a) 5.49 × 101 C of electricity
electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25ºC.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (b) 5.49 × 10 4 C of electricity
(F = 96,500 C mol–1; R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(a) 1.0 × 1010 (b) 1.0 × 105 [2004] (c) 1.83 × 10 7 C of electricity
(c) 1.0 × 10 1 (d) 1.0 × 1030
(d) 5.49 × 10 7 C of electricity
13. The limiting molar conductivities Lº for NaCl,
Electrolyte: KCl KNO 3 HCl NaOAc NaCl
KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol–1 19.
2 –1
L ¥ (S cm mol ) : 149.9 145 426.2 91 126.5
respectively. The Lº for NaBr is [2004]
(a) 278 S cm2 mol–1 (b) 176 S cm2 mol–1 ¥
Calculate L HOAc using appropriate molar
(c) 128 S cm2 mol–1 (d) 302 S cm2 mol–1 conductances of the electrolytes listed above
14. In a cell that utilises the reaction at infinite dilution in H 2 O at 25°C [2005]
Zn(s) + 2H + (aq) ® Zn 2+ (aq) + H 2 (g)
addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment, will (a) 217.5 (b) 390.7
[2004] (c) 552.7 (d) 517.2
(a) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the o o
20. The molar conductivities L NaOAc and L HCl
right
at infinite dilution in water at 25ºC are 91.0 and
(b) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right
426.2 S cm2/mol respectively. To calculate
(c) lower the E and shift equlibrium to the left
o
(d) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left L HOAc , the additional value required is [2006]
15. The E º 3+ 2 + values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co o o
M /M (a) L NaOH (b) L NaCl
are – 0.41, + 1.57, + 0.77 and + 1.97V respectively. o
o
For which one of these metals the change in (c) LH O (d) L KCl
2
oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest?
21. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a
(a) Fe (b) Mn [2004]
solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1
(c) Cr (d) Co M is 100 W. The conductivity of this solution is
16. For a spontaneous reaction the D G, equilibrium 1.29 S m–1. Resistance of the same cell when
filled with 0.2 M of the same solution is 520 W.
constant (K) and E oCell will be respectively
The molar conductivity of 0.2 M solution of
[2005] electrolyte will be [2006]
(a) –ve, >1, –ve (b) –ve, <1, –ve (a) 1.24 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(c) +ve, >1, –ve (d) –ve, >1, +ve (b) 12.4 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
17. The highest electrical conductivity of the (c) 124 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
following aqueous solutions is of [2005]
(d) 1240 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
(a) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
22. The equivalent conductances of two strong elec-
(b) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid trolytes at infinite dilution in H2O (where ions
(c) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid move freely through a solution) at 25°C are given
(d) 0.1 M acetic acid below : [2007]
18. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C
LoCH3COONa = 91.0 S cm 2 / equiv.
to furnish aluminium metal (At. Mass = 27 amu;
1 Faraday = 96,500 Coulombs). The cathode L o HCl = 426.2 S cm 2 / equiv.
reaction is– Al 3+ + 3e- ® Al ° What additional information/ quantity one needs
www.crackjee.xyz
Electrochemistry C-79
(a) 0.385 V (b) 0.770 V
to calculate Lo of an aqueous solution of acetic
(c) –0.270 V (d) –0.072 V
acid?
27. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of
(a) Lo of chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH) Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows :
(b) Lo of NaCl 2 4
Al2 O3 ® Al + O2 , D r G = + 966 kJ mol -1
3 3
(c) L o of CH3COOK
(d) the limiting equivalent coductance of The potential difference needed for electrolytic
reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at least [2010]
H + (l° ). (a) 4.5 V (b) 3.0 V
H+
23. The cell, (c) 2.5 V (d) 5.0 V
Zn | Zn 2+ (1 M) || Cu 2+ (1 M) | Cu (E°cell = 1.10 V)
28. The correct order of E ° 2 + values with
M /M
was allowed to be completely discharged at 298 negative sign for the four successive elements
K. The relative concentration of Zn 2+ to Cu2+ Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is [2010]
(a) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (b) Cr < Fe > Mn > Co
æ [Zn 2+ ] ö
ç ÷ (c) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co (d) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co
ç [Cu 2+ ] ÷ is [2007]
è ø 29. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is
(a) 9.65 × 104 (b) antilog (24.08) 50 W. The specific conductance of the solution
is 1.3 S m–1. If resistance of the 0.4 M solution
(c) 37.3 (d) 1037.3.
of the same electrolyte is 260 W, its molar
24. Given Eº = –0.72 V, Eº
Cr 3+ / Cr Fe2 + / Fe conductivity is : [2011RS]
–4
(a) 6.25 × 10 S m mol 2 –1
= – 0.42 V. The potential
for the cell (b) 625 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
Cr|Cr3+ (0.1M)|| Fe2 + (0.01 M)| Fe is [2008] (c) 62.5 S m2 mol–1
(a) 0.26 V (b) 0.336 V (d) 6250 S m2 mol–1
(c) – 0.339 (d) 0.26 V 30. The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn,
25. In a fuel cell methanol is used as fuel and oxygen Ni2+/Ni and Fe2+/Fe are –0.76,–0.23 and –0.44 V
gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is respectively.
Fe3+ (aq) + e – ¾¾
® Fe 2+ (aq) will be: [2009]
the highest Eo 3+ 2+ value ? [2013]
M /M
EBD_7764
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C-80 Chemistry
( )
(a) Cr(Z = 24) (b) Mn(Z = 25)
(c) Fe(Z = 26) (d) Co(Z = 27) 2 Mn3+ + e - ® Mn 2+ ; E o = +1.51V
33. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is
50 W. The specific conductance of the solution The Eo for 3Mn 2 + ® Mn + 2Mn 3+ will be:
is 1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of [2014]
the same electrolyte is 280 W. The molar (a) –2.69 V; the reaction will not occur
conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte (b) –2.69 V; the reaction will occur
in S m2 mol–1 is: [2014] (c) –0.33 V; the reaction will not occur
(a) 5 × 10–4 (b) 5 × 10–3 (d) –0.33 V; the reaction will occur
(c) 5 × 103 (d) 5 × 102 36. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a
34. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at solution of CuSO 4 . The mass of copper
concentration C and at infinite dilution are lC deposited at the cathode is
(at. mass of Cu = 63.5 amu) [JEE M 2015]
and l¥ , respectively. The correct relationship (a) 2g (b) 127 g
between lC and l¥ is given as: (c) 0 g (d) 63.5 g
(Where the constant B is positive) [2014] 37. Given [JEE M 2017]
(a) lC = l ¥ + ( B ) C Eo
Cl /Cl –
= 1.36V, E o 3 +
Cr / Cr
= –0.74V,
2
(b) lC = l ¥ - ( B ) C E o
= 1.33V, Eo = 1.51V.
Cr /O2– /Cr3+ – /Mn 2 +
MnO4
2 7
(c) lC = l¥ - ( B ) C
Among the following, the strongest reducing
(d) lC = l¥ + ( B ) C agent is
(a) Cr (b) Mn 2+
35. Given below are the half-cell reactions:
(c) Cr3+ (d) Cl–
Mn 2 + + 2e - ® Mn ; E o = -1.18V
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
(d) (d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (a)
NOTE The higher the negative value of L° KBr = l°K + + l°Br - ....(ii)
reduction potential, the more is the
reducing power. L° KCl = l°K + + lCl- ....(iii)
Hence B > C > A. operating (i) + (ii) - (iii)
8. (a) When 96500 coulomb of electricity is
passed through the electroplating bath the L° NaBr = l° Na + + l º Br –
amount of Ag deposited = 108g
= 126 + 152 - 150 = 128 S cm 2 mol -1
\ when 9650 coulomb of electricity is
passed deposited Ag. 14. (a) Zn(s) + 2H + + (aq) Zn 2+ (aq) + H 2 (g)
108
= ´ 9650 = 10.8 g 0.059 [Zn 2 + ][H 2 ]
96500 E cell = E °cell - log
2 [H + ]2
0.059 [Cu +2 ] Addition of H2SO4 will increase [H+]and
9. (b) E cell = E º cell + log
n [ Zn + 2 ] Ecell will also increase and the equilibrium
will shift towards RHS
0.059 15. (c) The given values show that Cr has
= 1.10 + log[0.1]
2 maximum oxidation potental, therefore its
= 1.10 - 0.0295 = 1.07 V oxidation will be easiest. (Change the sign
to get the oxidation values)
10. (b) In H 2 - O 2 fuel cell, the combustion of
H2 occurs to create potential difference 16. (d) NOTE For spontaneous reaction DG
between the two electrodes should be negative. Equilibrium constant
should be more than one
EBD_7764
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C-82 Chemistry
(DG = – 2.303 RT log Kc, If Kc = 1 then m (molar conductivity) = ?
DG = 0; If Kc < 1 m = k × V (k can be calculated as
1 æ1ö
then DG = +ve). Again DG = - nFE ocell . k= now
R çè a ÷ø
E ocell must be +ve to have DG –ve. cell constant is known.)
Hence,
17. (a) Thus difluoro acetic acid being strongest
1 1000
acid will furnish maximum number of ions m= ´ 129 ´ ´ 10 -6 m 3
showing highest electrical conductivity. 520 0.2
The decreasing acidic strength of the = 12.4 ×10–4 Sm2 mol–1
carboxylic acids given is
22. (b) NOTE According to Kohlrausch’s law,,
difluoro acetic acid > fluoro acetic acid
> chloro acetic acid > acetic acid. molar conductivity of weak electrolyte
18. (d) 1 mole of e– = 1F = 96500 C acetic acid (CH3COOH) can be calculated
as follows:
27g of Al is deposited by 3 × 96500 C
5120 g of Al will be deposited by (
L oCH3COOH = L oCH3COONa + L oHCl - L oNaCl )
=
3 ´ 96500 ´ 5120
= 5.49 ´ 10 7 C \ Value of L o NaCl should also be known
27
for calculating value of LoCH 3COOH .
23. (d) E cell = 0; when cell is completely
mFz
q=
We know, Q discharged.
M
5120 ´ 96500 ´ 3 æ é Zn 2 + ù ö
0.059
q=
\Q = 5.49 ´ 107 C Ecell = E°cell - log ç ë û÷
27 ç + ÷
2 ç é Cu ù ÷
2
èë ûø
19. (b) L¥
HCl = 426.2 (i)
æ é Zn 2 + ù ö
L¥
AcONa = 91.0 (ii) 0.059
or 0 = 1.1 - log ç ë û÷
2 ç é 2+ ù ÷
ç Cu ÷
L¥
NaCl = 126.5 (iii) èë ûø
æ é Zn 2+ ù ö
¥
L AcOH = (i) + (ii) - (iii) log ç ë û ÷ = 2 ´1.1 = 37.3
ç é 2+ ù ÷ 0.059
ç Cu ÷
= [426.2 + 91.0 - 126.5] = 390.7 èë ûø
20. (b) o
L CH is given by the following æ é Zn 2 + ù ö
3COOH çë û ÷ = 1037.3
\ ç 2+ ù ÷
equation é
ç Cu ÷
èë ûø
LoCH COOH
3 (o
= L CH
3COONa )(
+ L oHCl - L oNaCl ) 24. (d) From the given representation of the cell,
o
Ecell can be found as follows.
Hence L NaCl is required.
0.059 [Cr3+ ]
2
1ælö Ecell = Eo - Eo - log
21. (b) R = 100 W , k = ç ÷ , Fe 2+
/ Fe Cr 3+
/ Cr 6 [Fe2+ ]3
R è aø
l [Nernst -Equ.]
(cell constant) = 1.29 × 100m–1
a 0.059 (0.1)2
Given, R = 520W, C = 0.2 M, = –0.42 – (–0.72) - log
6 (0.01)3
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Electrochemistry C-83
0.059 0.1´ 0.1 \ The potential difference needed for the
= –0.42 + 0.72 - log reduction = 2.5 V.
6 0.01´ 0.01´ 0.01
0.059 10-2 0.059 28. (a) The value of E o for given metal ions
= 0.3 - log = 0.3 - ´4 M 2∗ M
6 -6 6
10 are
= 0.30 – 0.0393 = 0.26 V Eo < ,1.18 V,
Hence option (d) is correct answer. Mn 2∗ Mn
3 Eo < ,0.9 V,
25. (c) CH3OH (l) + O (g) ® CO2 (g) + 2H2O Cr 2∗ Cr
2 2
(l) Eo < ,0.44 V and
Fe 2∗ Fe
DG r = DG f (CO 2 , g) + 2DG f (H 2 O, l) -
Eo < ,0.28 V.
3 Co 2∗ Co
DG f (CH3OH, l ) – DG f (O2 ,g)
2 The correct order of E o 2∗ values
= – 394.4 + 2 (–237.2) – (–166.2) – 0 M M
= – 394.4 – 474.4 + 166.2 = – 702.6 k J without considering negative sign would
be
702.6
% efficiency = ´ 100 = 97% Mn2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Co2+.
726
26. (b) Given 1 l
29. (a) k= ´
R A
Fe3+ + 3e - ® Fe ,
1 l
E° 3+ = –0.036 V … (i) 1.3 = ´
Fe / Fe 50 A
Fe 2 + + 2e - ® Fe , l
= 65m-1
E° = –0.439V … (ii) A
Fe 2+ / Fe
we have to calculate k ´ 1000
L=
molarity
Fe3+ + e - ® Fe2 + , DG = ? [molarity is in moles/litre but 1000 is used
To obtain this equation subtract equ (ii) to convert liter into cm3]
from (i) we get
æ 1 ö
çè ´ 65 m -1 ÷ ´ 1000 cm 3
Fe3+ + e – ® Fe 2 + … (iii) 260 ø
=
As we know that DG = –nFE 0.4 moles
Thus for reaction (iii) 650 m -1 1
DG = DG1 - DG = ´ m3
260 ´ 4 mol 1000
– nFE° = – nFE1 – (–nFE2) = 6.25 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
–nFE° = nFE2 – nFE1 30. (d) For a spontaneous reaction DG must be –ve
–1FE° = 2× 0.439F – 3 × 0.036 F
Since DG = – nFE°
–1 FE° = 0.770 F
\ E° = – 0.770V Hence for DG to be -ve DE° has to be
positive. Which is possible when X = Zn,
O -- > F- > Na + > Mg ++ > Al3+ Y = Ni
27. (c) DG = – nFE Zn + Ni++ ¾¾
® Zn++ + Ni
ΧG 966´10 3
E° + E°
or E < < < ,2.5 V Zn / Zn +2 Ni 2+ / Ni
,nF 4´96500
EBD_7764
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C-84 Chemistry
= 0.76 + (– 0.23) = + 0.53 (positive)
2.5 ´ 10-3 ´ 1000
31. (d) Higher the value of standard reduction =
potential, stronger is the oxidising agent, 0.5
hence MnO4– is the strongest oxidising = 5 S cm2 mol–1 = 5 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1
agent. 34. (c) According to Debye Huckle onsager
equation,
E° = – 0.41 V E°Fe3+ / Fe 2 + = +
32. (d) Cr 3+ / Cr 2 +
lC = l¥ - B C
0.77 V
35. (a) (a)
E ° 3+ = + 1.57 V,,
Mn / Mn 2 +
Mn 2+ + 2e- ® Mn; E o = -1.18V ; ...(i)
E° = + 1.97 V
Co3+ / Co 2 +
33. (a) Given for 0.2 M solution (b) Mn 3+ + e ® Mn 2+ ; E o = -1.51V ; ...(ii)
R = 50 W Now multiplying equation (ii) by two and
k = 1.4 S m–1 = 1.4 × 10–2 S cm–1 subtracting from equation (i)
l 1 l 3Mn 2+ ® Mn + + 2Mn 3+ ;
Now, R = r = ´
a k a
l E o = EOx. + ERed.
-2
Þ = R ´ k = 50 ´1.4 ´ 10
a = – 1.18 + (– 1.51) = – 2.69 V
For 0.5 M solution (–ve value of EMF (i.e. DG = +ve) shows
R = 280 W that the reaction is non-spontaneous)
k =? 36. (d) Cu 2+ + 2e – ¾¾
® Cu
l
= 50 ´ 1.4 ´ 10-2 2F i.e. 2 × 96500 C deposit Cu = 1 mol = 63.5g
a
37. (a) E° – / Mn 2 + = 1.51V
l 1 l MnO 4
Þ R=r = ´
a k a E° = 1.36V
Cl2 /Cl –
1
Þ k= ´ 50 ´ 1.4 ´ 10 -2
280 E° = 1.33V
Cr2 O72 - /Cr3+
1
= ´ 70 ´ 10-2
280 E° = – 0.74
Cr3+ / Cr
= 2.5 × 10–3 S cm–1
Since Cr 3+ is having least reducing
k ´1000
Now, L m = potential, so Cr is the best reducing agent.
M
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Chemical Kinetics C-85
Chemical Kinetics
18
1. Units of rate constant of first and zero order 6. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three
reactions in terms of molarity M unit are hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256
respectively [2002] g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18
(a) sec–1 , Msec–1 (b) sec–1, M hours would be [2003]
(c) Msec–1 , sec–1 (d) M, sec–1. (a) 8.0 g (b) 12.0 g
2. For the reaction A + 2B ® C, rate is given by (c) 16.0 g (d) 4.0 g
R = [A] [B]2 then the order of the reaction is 7. In respect of the equation k = Ae - E a / RT in
chemical kinetics, which one of the following
[2002]
statements is correct ? [2003]
(a) 3 (b) 6
(a) A is adsorption factor
(c) 5 (d) 7.
(b) Ea is energy of activation
3. The differential rate law for the reaction (c) R is Rydberg’s constant
H2 + I2 ® 2HI is [2002] (d) k is equilibrium constant
d[ H 2 ] d[ I 2 ] d[ HI ] 8. For the reaction system : [2003]
(a) - =- =- 2NO(g) + O 2 (g) ® 2 NO 2 (g) volume is
dt dt dt
suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing
d[H 2 ] d[I 2 ] 1 d[Hl ] the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order
(b) = = with respect to O2 and second order with respect
dt dt 2 dt
to NO, the rate of reaction will
1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[I 2 ] d[Hl] (a) diminish to one-eighth of its initial value
(c) = =-
2 dt 2 dt dt (b) increase to eight times of its initial value
(c) increase to four times of its initial value
d[H 2 ] d[I 2 ] d[HI]
(d) -2 = -2 = (d) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value
dt dt dt 9. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the
4. If half-life of a substance is 5 yrs, then the total reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M is 15
amount of substance left after 15 years, when minutes. The time taken for the concentration to
initial amount is 64 grams is [2002] change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is [2004]
(a) 16 grams (b) 2 grams (a) 7.5 minutes (b) 15 minutes
(c) 32 grams (d) 8 grams. (c) 30 minutes (d) 60 minutes
5. The integrated rate equation is [2002] 10. The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B ® C is
Rt = log C0 - logCt. found to be: rate = k[A][B]. The correct statement
The straight line graph is obtained by plotting in relation to this reaction is that the [2004]
(a) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of
1 disappearance of A
(a) time vs logCt (b) vs C
time t
(b) t1 / 2 is a constant
1 1 (c) unit of k must be s–1
(c) time vs Ct (d) vs (d) value of k is independent of the initial
time Ct
concentrations of A and B
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C-86 Chemistry
11. The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the 16. A reaction was found to be second order with
initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide.
remaining after 24 hours undecayed is [2004] If the concentration of carbon monoxide is
(a) 3.125 g (b) 2.084 g doubled, with everything else kept the same,
(c) 1.042 g (d) 4.167 g the rate of reaction will [2006]
12. A reaction involving two different reactants (a) increase by a factor of 4
can never be [2005] (b) double
(a) bimolecular reaction (c) remain unchanged
(b) second order reaction
(c) first order reaction (d) triple
(d) unimolecular reaction 17. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius
equation as : [2006]
13. A schematic plot of ln K eq versus inverse of
k = A e–E/RT
temperature for a reaction is shown below [2005]
In this equation, E represents
6.0 (a) the total energy of the reacting molecules
at a temperature, T
ln Keq
how much time does it take for its concentration 0.1 M 0.2 M 1.2 × 10 –3
to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is a zero –3
order reaction ? [2010] 0.2 M 0.1 M 2.4 × 10
(a) 4 h (b) 0.5 h
(c) 0.25 h (d) 1 h The rate law for the formation of C is: [2014]
25. Consider the reaction : dc dc
= k [ A][ B ] = k [ A] [ B ]
2
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (a) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (d) (c) (b) (a) (d) (c)
31 32
(d) (d)
Given
k2
= 2 ; T2 = 310 K ; T1 = 300 K d [ O2 ] 1 d[H 2 O 2 ]
k1 \ = ´
dt 2 dt
= log 2 =
- Ea æ 1
-
1 ö 1.386 ´10-3
ç ÷ = = 6.93 ´ 10–4 mol min–1
2.303 ´ 8.314 è 310 300 ø 2
Ea = 53598.6 J/mol = 53.6 kJ/mol. 32. (d) From arrhenius equation,
d [C ] – Ea
29. (d) Let rate of reaction = = k[A]x [B]y k = A.e RT
t
Now from the given data –E a /RT
so, k1 = A.e 1 .....(1)
1.2 × 10 – 3 = k [0.1]x[0.1]y .....(i)
1.2 × 10 – 3 = k [0.1]x[0.2]y .....(ii) –E a / RT
k 2 = A.e 2 .....(2)
2.4 × 10 – 3 = k [0.2]x[0.1]y .....(iii)
Dividing equation (i) by (ii) On dividing equation (2) (1)
-3 x y
1.2 ´10 k[0.1] [0.1]
Þ = (E a – Ea )
-3
1.2 ´10 k [0.1]x [0.2] y k 1 2
Þ 2 =e RT
We find, y = 0 k1
Now dividing equation (i) by (iii)
æ k ö Ea – Ea 2 10, 000
1.2 ´10-3 k[0.1]x [0.1] y ln ç 2 ÷ = 1 = =4
Þ = è k1 ø RT 8.314 ´ 300
2.4 ´10 -3 k [0.2] x [0.1] y
EBD_7764
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C-92 Chemistry
19
Surface Chemistry
1. The formation of gas at the surface of tungsten (b) Mixing the sols has no effect
due to adsorption is the reaction of order [2002] (c) Sodium sulphate solution causes
(a) 0 (b) 1 coagulation in both sols
(c) 2 (d) insufficient data. (d) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates,
the gold sol more readily than the iron (III)
2. Which one of the following characteristics is
hydroxide sol
not correct for physical adsorption ? [2003] 6. In Langmuir's model of adsorption of a gas on a
(a) Adsorption increases with increase in solid surface [2006]
temperature (a) the mass of gas striking a given area of
(b) Adsorption is spontaneous surface is proportional to the pressure of
(c) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption the gas
are negative (b) the mass of gas striking a given area of
(d) Adsorption on solids is reversible surface is independent of the pressure of
3. Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes the gas
[2004] (c) the rate of dissociation of adsorbed
(a) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts molecules from the surface does not
that cannot be poisoned depend on the surface covered
(d) the adsorption at a single site on the surface
(b) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous
may involve multiple molecules at the same
catalysts that are very specific in their
time
action
7. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D
(c) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts
are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 amd 0.005, respectively. the
that can normally function at very high
correct order of their protective powers is [2008]
temperatures (T~1000K) (a) D < A < C < B (b) C < B < D < A
(d) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts (c) A < C < B < D (d) B < D < A < C
that possess well-defined active sites 8. Which of the following statements is incorrect
4. The volume of a colloidal particle, VC as regarding physissorptions? [2009]
compared to the volume of a solute particle in a (a) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed
readily.
true solution VS , could be [2005]
(b) Under high pressure it results into multi
VC ~ 10 3 VC ~ - 3 molecular layer on adsorbent surface.
(a) - (b) - 10
VS VS (c) Enthalpy of adsorption ( DH adsorption) is
VC VC ~ low and positive.
(c) ~ 10 23
- (d) -1 (d) It occurs because of van der Waal’s forces.
VS VS 9. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm
5. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) which of the following is correct? [2012]
hydroxide and colloidal gold is positively and x
negatively charged, respectively. Which of the (a) µ p0
m
following statements is NOT correct ? [2005]
x
(a) Coagulation in both sols can be brought (b) µ p1
about by electrophoresis m
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Surface Chemistry C-93
x 12. The Tyndall effect is observed only when
(c) µ p1/n following conditions are satisfied: [JEE M 2017]
m
(d) All the above are correct for different (i) The diameter of the dispersed particles is
ranges of pressure much smaller than the wavelength of the
10. The coagulating power of electrolytes having light used.
ions Na+, Al3+ and Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol
increases in the order : [2013] (ii) The diameter of the dispersed particle is
(a) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+ (b) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+ not much smaller than the wavelength of
(c) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+ (d) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+ the light used.
11. For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in a (iii) The refractive indices of the dispersed
Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the phase and dispersion medium are almost
following statements is correct? (k and n are
constants) [JEE M 2016] similar in magnitude.
(a) Only 1 n appears as the slope. (iv) The refractive indices of the dispersed
phase and dispersion medium differ
(b) log (1 n ) appears as the intercept. greatly in magnitude.
(c) Both k and 1 n appear in the slope term. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(d) 1 n appears as the intercept. (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b)
1. (b) It is zero order reaction 5. (b) When oppositely charged sols are mixed
their charges are neutralised. Both sols may
[ NOTE Adsorption of gas on metal sur--
be partially or completely precipitated.
face is of zero order] 6. (a) According to Langmuir's Model of
2. (a) As adsorption is an exothermic process. adsorption of a gas on a soild surface the
\ Rise in temperature will decrease adsorption mass of gas adsorbed(x)per gram of the
(according to Le-chatelier principle). adsorbent (m) is directly proportional to
3. (d) Enzymes are very specific biological the pressure of the gas (p) at constant
catalysts possessing well - defined active temperature i.e.
sites x
4. (a) Particle size of colloidal particle = 1mµ to µp
m
100 mµ 7. (c) For a protective colloid µ lesser the value
(suppose 10 mµ) of gold number better is the protective
power.
4 3 4 3
Vc = pr Vc = p(10) Thus the correct order of protective power
3 = 3 of A, B, C and D is
Particle size of true solution particle = 1mm Þ (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)
Gold number 0.50 0.10 0.01 0.005
4 3 Vc 3
Vs = p(1) hence now = 10 Hence (c) is the correct answer
3 Vs
EBD_7764
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C-94 Chemistry
8. (c) Adsorption is an exothermic process, 11. (a) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm
hence DH will always be negative x 1
9. (d) The Freundlich adsorption isotherm is log = log K + log P
m n
mathematically represented as
Thus if a graph is plotted between log(x/m) and
x log P, a straight line will be obtained
= kP1/n
m n
1/
at high pressure 1/n = 0. Hence, x / m µ =
pe
P° s lo
log x/m
at low pressure 1/n = 1 Hence, x/m µ P¢
Intercept = log K
10. (c) According to Hardy Schulze rule, greater
the charge on cation, greater is its log P
coagulating power for negatively charged The slope of the line is equal to 1/n and the
sol (As2S3), hence the correct order of intercept on log x/m axis will correspond to log
coagulating power : Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+ K.
12. (b)
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General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements C-95
20
General Principles and
Processes of Isolation of Elements
1. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of 6. Which method of purification is represented by
[2002] the following equation ? [2012]
(a) bauxite
523K
(b) alumina Ti(s) + 2I 2 (g) ¾¾¾®
(c) alumina mixed with molten cryolite
1700K
(d) molten cryolite. TiI 4 (g) ¾¾¾¾
® Ti(s) + 2I 2 (g)
2. The metal extracted by leaching with a cyanide
(a) Zone refining (b) Cupellation
is [2002]
(a) Mg (b) Ag (c) Polling (d) Van Arkel
(c) Cu (d) Na. 7. The metal that cannot be obtained by
3. Which one of the following ores is best electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts
concentrated by froth-flotation method? [2004] is: [2014]
(a) Galena (b) Cassiterite (a) Ag (b) Ca
(c) Magnetite (d) Malachite (c) Cu (d) Cr
4. During the process of electrolytic refining of
copper, some metals present as impurity settle 8. In the context of the Hall - Heroult process for
as ‘anode mud’. These are [2005] the extraction of Al, which of the following
(a) Fe and Ni (b) Ag and Au statements is false ? [JEE M 2015]
(c) Pb and Zn (d) Sn and Ag 3+
(a) Al is reduced at the cathode to form Al
5. Which of the following factors is of no (b) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte
significance for roasting sulphide ores to the (c) CO and CO2 are produced in this process
oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to
(d) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the
carbon reduction directly? [2008]
(a) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically melting point of the mixture and brings
more stable than CS2 conductivity
(b) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than 9. Which one of the following ores is best
CS2 concentrated by froth floatation method?
(c) Metal sulphides are less stable than the [JEEM 2016]
corresponding oxides (a) Galena (b) Malachite
(d) CO2 is more volatile than CS2 (c) Magnetite (d) Siderite
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (a)
EBD_7764
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C-96 Chemistry
1. (c) Pure aluminium can be obtained by From this we find that on thermodynamic
electrolysis of a mixture containing alumina, considerations CO2 is more stable than CS2
crayolite and fluorspar in the ratio 20 : 24 : and the metal sulphides are more stable
20. The fusion temperature of this mixture than corresponding oxides.
is 900ºC and it is a good conductor of In view of above the factor listed in choice
electricity. (c) is incorrect and so is of no significance.
2. (b) Silver ore forms a soluble complex with Hence the correct answer is (c)
NaCN from which silver is precipitated 6. (d) Van Arkel is a method in which heat
using scrap zinc. treatment is used to purify metal in this
Zn
Ag 2 S + 2 NaCN ® Na[Ag (CN ) 2 ] ¾¾® process metals are converted into other
metal compound for loosly coupled like as
Na 2 [ Zn (CN ) 4 ] + Ag ¯
iodine to make metal iodide which are easily
sodargento-cynanide
(soluble) decomposed and give pure metal.
The process is known as Van Arkel
3. (c) NOTE Galena is PbS and thus purified method.
by froth floatation method. 7. (b) On electrolysis of aqueous solution of
Froath floatation method is used to s-block elements H2 gas discharge at
concentrate sulphide ores. This method is cathode.
based on th e preferential wetting
1
properties with the froathing agent and At cathode: H 2O + e- ® H 2 + OH -
water. 2
4. (b) During the process of electrolytic refining 8. (b) In the metallurgy of aluminium, purified Al2O3
Ag and Au are obtained as anode mud. is mixed with Na3AlF6 or CaF2 which lowers
the melting point of the mix and brings
5. (c) NOTE The reduction of metal sulphides conductivity.
9. (a) Froth floatation method is mainly applicable
by car bon reduction process is not
for sulphide ores.
spontaneous because DG for such a (1) Malachite ore : Cu(OH)2 . CuCO3
process is positive. The reduction of metal (2) Magnetite ore : Fe3O4
oxide by carbon reduction process is (3) Siderite ore : FeCO3
spontaneous as DG for such a process is (4) Galena ore : PbS (Sulphide Ore)
negative.
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Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (b) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
(d) (a) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (c) (c)
1. (d) In the formation of XeF 2 , sp 3 d are available. Hence phosphorous can from
hybridisation occurs which gives the pentahalides also but nitrogen can not form
molecule a trigonal bipyramidal structure. pentahalide due to absence of d-orbitals
F
O
••
••
Xe ||
5s 5p 5d
Ground state P
••
configuration F O O
3. (d)
O
O P P O
||
||
Excited state
O
configuration O P
In the formation of XeF 4 , sp 3 d 2 || O
hybridization occurs which gives the O
molecule an octahedral structure.
F F 4. (d) CaOCl2 –– or it can also be written as
Ca (OCl) Cl
xe x1 x2
Excited state config.
F F hence oxidation no of Cl in OCl– is
–2 + x2 = –1
In the formation of XeF 6 , sp 3 d 3
hybridization occurs which gives the
x2 = 2–1 = +1
molecule a pentagonal bipyramidal
structure. now oxidation no. of another Cl is –1 as it
F is present as Cl–.
F 5. (d) On mixing phosphine with chlorine gas PCl5
F and HCl forms. The mixture cools down.
xe
PH3 + 4Cl2 –––––® PCl5 + 3HCl
6. (a) 4HCl + O2 ® 2Cl2 + 2H2O
F F
air cloud of white fumes
F . .
2. (a) 2 2 3 2 2 6 2 3
7N = 1s 2s 2p ; 15P = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 7. (b) Among the given compounds, the N H 3 is
NOTE In phosphorous the 3d- orbitals most basic. Hence has highest proton af-
finity
EBD_7764
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C-100 Chemistry
8. (d) The fluorine has low dissociation energy atom having fully or half filled stable
of F - F bond and reaction of atomic fluorine orbitals.
is exothermic in nature In this case P has a stable half filled
-1
electronic configuration hence its ionisation
0
9. (b) 4 KI +2CuSO4 ® I 2 + Cu 2 I 2 + 2 K 2SO 4 enthalapy is greater in comparision to S.
Hence the correct order is B < S < P<F.
0 2+ +2.5 -1 15. (b) During disproportionation same compound
I 2 + 2Na 2 S2 O3 ® Na 2 S4 O6 + 2 NaI undergo simultaneous oxidation and
In this CuI2 is not formed. reduction.
10. (c) Helium is heavier than hydrogen although Oxidation
it is non-inflammable redution
- + -1 +5
3HO Cl ¾ ¾® 2HCl+ HClO 3
H
| 16. (d) Chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia to
11. (c) Hypophosphorous acid H - O - P ® O produce ammonium chloride and nitrogen.
|
H 17. (a) (NH4)2SO4 + 2H2O¾¾ ® 2H2SO4 + NH4OH
H2SO4 is strong acid and increases the
Two H-atoms are attached to P atom.
acidity of soil.
12. (c) The H–X bond strength decreases from HF 18. (d) The products of the concerned reaction
to HI. i.e. HF > HCl > HBr > HI. Thus HF is react each other forming back the reactants.
most stable while HI is least stable. This is
XeF6 + 3H 2 O ¾¾ ® XeO3 + 6HF .
evident from their decomposition reaction:
HF and HCl are stable upto 1473K, HBr
decreases slightly and HI dissociates F
considerably at 713K. The decreasing
stability of the hydrogen halide is also
reflected in the values of dissociation
energy of the H–X bond 19. (c) XeF2 : Xe
H-F H - Cl H - Br H-I
135kcal mol-1 103kcal mol -1 87kcal mol-1 71kcal mol -1
+5 +3
F
13. (b) The HNO3 is stronger than HNO 2 . The 3l p
more the oxidation state of N, the more is
the acid character.
14. (b) The correct order of ionisation enthalpies F F
is
F>P>S>B Xe
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (c) (a) (a) (b) (a) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
(b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d)
EBD_7764
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C-106 Chemistry
1. (c) Common oxidation states of Ce(Cerium) are 8. (a) When KI is added to mercuric iodide it
+ 3 and + 4 disssolve in it and form complex.
2. (a) In lanthanides there is a regular decrease HgI 2 ∗ KI ® K 2 [HgI 4 ]
in the atomic radii as well as ionic radii of red, solid (so lub le)
trivalent ions as the atomic number (inso lub le)
increases from Ce to Lu. This decrease in On heating HgI2 decomposes as
size of atoms and ions is known as
HgI 2 Hg + I 2
lanthanide contraction. Although the
(violet vapours)
atomic radii do show some irregualrities but
ionic radii decreases from La to Lu. Thus 9. (b) f-block elements show a regular decrease
the correct order is. in atomic size due to lanthanide/actinide
contraction.
Yb+3 < Pm +3 < Ce +3 < La +3
10. (a) When a solution of potassium chromate is
86.8pm 97pm 102pm 103pm
treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid.
3. (a) Mn++ –5 unpaired electrons Potassium dichromate and H2O are formed.
Fe++ – 4 unpaired electrons 2K2CrO4 + 2HNO3 –® K2Cr2O7 + 2KNO3 +
Ti++ – 2 unpaired electrons H2O
Cr++ – 4 unpaired electrons Hence Cr2O7– and H2O are formed.
hence maximum no. of unpaired electron is 11. (c) AgNO3 on heating till red hot
present in Mn++.
decomposes as follows :
NOTE Magnetic moment µ number of 1
AgNO3 ® Ag + NO 2 + O2
unpaired electrons 2
4. (c) The cyano and hydroxo complexes are far 12. (d) (n–1)d5ns2 attains the maximum O.S. of + 7
more stable than those formed by halide 13. (b) Grey tin white tin
ion. This is due to the fact that CN– and
OH– are strong lewis bases (nucleophiles). Grey tin is brittle and crumbles down to
powder in very cold climate
Further [Fe(OH)5]3– is not formed. hence
most stable ion is [Fe(CN)6]3- The conversion of grey tin to white tin is
acompained by increase in volume., This
+3 +7 +6
5. (c) - 4e - -e - 2- is knwon as tin plaque or tin disease.
Mn2 O 3 ¬¾¾ ¾ [KMnO4 ] ¾ ¾¾® [MnO 4 ]
14. (a) CN– ion acts good complexing as well as
– 5e
–
– 3e
–
reducing agent.
+4
Mn
2+
MnO2 15. (a) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is also
known in solution.
1 4–
6. (c) Ionic radii µ 16. (c) [Fe (CN)6] ®
z
– no of unpaired electron = 0
z 1.06 71
Thus, 2 Þ < [MnCl4] ®
2–
z1 3+
(Ionic radii of Lu ) 57
– no of unpaired electron = 5
Þ Ionic radii of Lu3+ = 0.85 Å 2–
.. + [CoCl4] ®
7. (a) N H3 + H + (acid medium) N H4 – no of unpaired electron = 3
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The d-and f-Block Elements C-107
t2g eg = 8 = 2.82
26. (d) Reluctance of valence shell electrons to
m = 3(5) = 15 = 3.87 B.M. participate in bonding is called inert pair
d 4– in weak ligand field effect. The stability of lower oxidation state
(+2 for group 14 element) increases on
going down the group. So the correct order
t2g eg is
SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2< PbX2
m = 4(8) = 24 = 4.89 27. (a) 4f orbital is nearer to nucleus as compared
d 4– in strong ligand field to 5f orbital therefore, shielding of 4 f is
more than 5f.
Co-ordination Compounds
23
1. A square planar complex is formed by (d) the number of only anionic ligands bonded
hybridisation of which atomic orbitals? to the metal ion.
[2002] 7. Which one of the following complexes is an
outer orbital complex ? [2004]
(a) s, px , py , dyz (b) s, px , p y , d x2 - y2 3+ 4–
(a) [Co(NH3)6] (b) [Mn(CN)6]
(c) s, p x , p y , d z 2 (d) s, py , pz , dxy (c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
2. The type of isomerism present in (Atomic nos. : Mn = 25; Fe = 26; Co = 27, Ni = 28)
nitropentammine chromium (III) chloride is 8. Coordination compounds have great importance
[2002] in biological systems. In this context which of
(a) optical (b) linkage the following statements is incorrect ? [2004]
(c) ionization (d) polymerisation. (a) Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
3. CH3 – Mg – Br is an organo metallic compound (b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood
due to [2002] and contains irons
(a) Mg – Br bond (b) C – Mg bond (c) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants
and contain calcium
(c) C – Br bond (d) C – H bond.
(d) Carboxypeptidase - A is an exzyme and
4. One mole of the complex compound
contains zinc.
Co(NH3 ) 5 Cl 3 , gives 3 moles of ions on
dissolution in water. One mole of the same 9. Which one of the following has largest number
complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 of isomers? [2004]
solution to yield two moles of AgCl (s). The (a) [Ir(PR 3 ) 2 H(CO)]2 +
structure of the complex is [2003]
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]. 2 NH3 (b) [Co( NH 3 )5 Cl]2+
(b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl . NH3
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl] Cl2. NH3 (c) [Ru ( NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+
(d) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2
(d) [Co(en ) 2 Cl 2 ]+
5. In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the
oxidation state of nickel is [2003] (R = alkyl group, en = ethylenediamine)
(a) 0 (b) +1 10. The oxidation state Cr in [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+ is
(c) +2 (d) –1
(a) 0 (b) + 1 [2005]
6. The coordination number of a central metal atom
in a complex is determined by [2004] (c) + 2 (d) + 3
(a) the number of ligands around a metal ion 11. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound
bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both K 3[Fe(CN ) 6 ] is [2005]
(b) the number of ligands around a metal ion (a) Tripotassium hexacyanoiron (II)
bonded by pi-bonds (b) Potassium hexacyanoiron (II)
(c) the number of ligands around a metal ion (c) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
bonded by sigma bonds (d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
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C-110 Chemistry
12. Which of the following compounds shows (a) 6 and 2 (b) 4 and 2
optical isomerism? [2005] (c) 4 and 3 (d) 6 and 3
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3 - (b) [Cr(C 2 O 4 )3 ]3 - 20. In which of the following complexes of the Co
(at. no. 27), will the magnitude of D0 be the
(c) [ ZnCl4 ]2 - (d) [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ]2 + hightest? [2008]
(a) [Co(CN)6] 3– (b) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
13. Which one of the following cyano complexes 3+
would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic (c) [Co(H2O)6] (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+
behaviour ? [2005] 21. Which of the following has an optical isomer
[2009]
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3 - (b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3 - (a) [Co(en) (NH3)2] 2+
(b) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+
(c) [Mn (CN) 6 ]3 - (d) [Cr (CN) 6 ]3 -
(c) [Co(en)2 (NH3)2]3+
(At. Nos : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(d) [Co(NH3)3Cl] +
14. The IUPAC name for the complex
22. Which of the following pairs represent linkage
[Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 is : [2006]
isomers? [2009]
(a) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt(II) chloride
(a) [Pd(P Ph3)2(NCS)2 ] and [Pd ( P Ph3)2
(b) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride (SCN)2]
(c) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(III) chloride
(b) [Co(NH3)5NO3] SO4 and
(d) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(II) chloride [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3
15. Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative (c) [PtCl2(NH3)4] Br2 and [Pt Br 2 (NH3)4] Cl2
monodentate ligand X– to form a paramagnetic
(d) [Cu(NH3)4][Pt Cl4] and [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4]
complex [NiX4 ]2–. The number of unpaired
electron(s) in the nickel and geometry of this 23. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3. 6 NH3
complex ion are, respectively : [2006] (molar mass = 267.5 g mol–1) is passed through
a cation exchanger. The chloride ions obtained
(a) one, square planar (b) two, square planar
in solution were treated with excess of AgNO3
(c) one, tetrahedral (d) two, tetrahedral
to give 4.78 g of AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g
16. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses [2006] mol–1). The formula of the complex is
(a) ionic character
(At. mass of Ag = 108 u) [2010]
(b) s-character only
(c) p-character (a) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3
(d) both s and p characters (b) [CoCl2 (NH3 )4 ]Cl
17. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic
acid) molecules are required to make an (c) [CoCl3 (NH3 )3 ]
octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion? [2006] (d) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]Cl2
(a) One (b) Two
24. Which one of the following has an optical
(c) Six (d) Three
isomer? [2010]
18. Which of the following has a square planar
(a) [Zn(en) (NH3)2]2+ (b) [Co(en)3]3+
geometry? [2007]
(c) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ (d) [Zn(en)2]2+
(a) [PtCl4]2– (b) [CoCl4]2–
(en = ethylenediamine)
(c) [FeCl4]2– (d) [NiCl4]2–
(At. nos.: Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Pt = 78) 25. Which one of the following complex ions has
geometrical isomers ? [2011]
19. The coordination number and the oxidation
state of the element ‘E’ in the complex (a) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+ (b) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
[E (en)2 (C2O4)]NO2 (where (en) is ethylene (c) [Cr(NH3)4(en)2]3+ (d) [Co(en)3]3+
diamine) are, respectively, [2008] (en ethylenediamine)
www.crackjee.xyz
Co-ordination Compounds C-111
26. Which among the following will be named as (d) K3[Co(NO2)6]
dibromidobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) 30. The number of geometric isomers that can exist
bromide? [2012] for square planar complex [Pt (Cl) (py) (NH3)
(a) [Cr (en)3]Br3 (b) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br (NH2OH)]+ is (py = pyridine) : [JEE M 2015]
(c) [Cr(en)Br4]– (d) [Cr(en)Br2]Br (a) 4 (b) 6
27. Which of the following complex species is not (c) 2 (d) 3
expected to exhibit optical isomerism ? [2013] 31. Which one of the following complexes shows
(a) [Co(en)3]3+ optical isomerism? [JEE M 2016]
(b) [Co(en)2 Cl2]+ (a) trans [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(c) [Co(NH3)3 Cl3] (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(d) [Co(en) (NH3)2 Cl2]+ (c) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
28. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M3+ with (d) cis[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
four monodentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4 (en = ethylenediamine)
absorb wavelengths in the region of red, green, 32. The pair having the same magnetic moment is:
yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing [At. No.: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]
order of ligand strength of the four ligands is: [JEE M 2016]
[2014]
(a) [Mn(H2O)6] and [Cr(H2O)6]2+
2+
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (a) (a) (d) (a) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d)
31 32 33
(d) (d) (d)
[Co(NH 3 ] 3+ ,[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] 2+
d 2sp 3 sp 3d 2 It contains two unpaired electrons and the
Hence [ Ni( NH3 ) 6 ] 2+
is outer orbital hybridisation is sp3 (tetrahedral).
complex. 16. (d) Due to some backbonding by sidewise
overlapping of between d-orbitals of metal
8. (c) The chlorophyll molecule plays an and p-orbital of carbon, the Fe–C bond in
important role in photosynthesis, contain Fe(CO)5 has both s and p character.
porphyrin ring and the metal Mg not Ca.
17. (a) EDTA has hexadentate four donor O atoms
9. (d) Isomers and 2 donor N atoms and for the formation
[Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl2 ]+ ,[Co(NH 3 )5 Cl]2 + , of octahedral complex one molecule is
cis and trans none required
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Co-ordination Compounds C-113
18. (a) Complexes with dsp2 hybridisation are 24. (b) For a substance to be optical isomer
square planar. So [PtCl4]2– is square planar following conditions should be fulfiled
in shape. (a) A coordination compound which can
19. (d) In the given complex we have two bidentate rotate the plane of polarised light is
ligands said to be optically active.
(i.e en and C2O4), so coordination number (b) When the coordination compounds
of E is 6 have same formula but differ in their
(2 × 2 + 1 × 2 = 6) abilities to rotate directions of the
Let the oxidation state of E in complex be x, plane of polarised light are said to
then exhibit optical isomerism and the
[x + (–2) = 1] or x – 2 = 1 molecules are optical isomers. The
optical isomers are pair of molecules
or x = + 3, so its oxidation state is + 3
which are non-superimposable mirror
Thus option (d) is correct.
images of each other.
20. (a) In octahedral complex the magnitude of Do (c) This is due to the absence of elements
will be highest in a complex having of symmetry in the complex.
strongest ligand. Of the given ligands CN–
(d) Optical isomerism is expected in
is strongest so D o will be highest for
tetrahedral complexes of the type
[Co(CN)6]3–. Thus option (a) is correct.
Mabcd.
21. (c) H3N NH3
3+ 3+
Based on this only option (2) shows
NH3
optical isomerism
NH3
Co en Co [Co(en)3]3+
en en en
en 3+ en 3+
3+
Enantiomers of cis- éë Co(en) 2 (NH 3 ) 2 ûù
en Co Co
22. (a) The SCN– ion can coordinate through S or en
N atom giving rise to linkage isomerism
en en
M ¬ SCN thiocyanato
d–form Mirror –form
M ¬ NCS isothiocyanato.
23. (a) ® xCl-
CoCl3.6NH3 ¾¾
2.675g
xCl - + AgNO3 ¾¾
® x AgCl ¯ en Co en en
4.78g
Number of moles of the complex
2.675 'Meso' or optically inactive form
= = 0.01 moles
267.5
Number of moles of AgCl obtained Complexes of Zn++ cannot show optical
isomerism as they are tetrahedral complexes
4.78
= = 0.03 moles with plane of symmetry.
143.5
\ No. of moles of AgCl obtained [Co(H 2 O)4 (en)]3+ have two planes of
= 3 × No. of moles of complex symmetry hence it is also optically inactive.
0.03 Hence the formula of the complex is
\n= =3 [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
0.01
EBD_7764
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C-114 Chemistry
create a complex with smaller D, which will
25. (b) 3+ absorbs light of longer l and thus lower
en
frequency. Conservely, stronger field
NH3
ligands create a larger D, absorb light of
Co shorter l and thus higher v i.e. higher
energy.
en NH3 Red < Yellow < Green < Blue
l = 650 nm 570 nm 490 nm 450 nm
cis- So order of ligand strength is
L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
NH3 3+ 29. (c)
30. (d) Square planar complexes of type M[ABCD]
form three isomers. Their position may be
obtained by fixing the position of one
en Co en ligand and placing at the trans position any
one of the remaining three ligands one by
one.
HOH2N Cl
NH3
26. (b) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br
Pt
dibromidobis(ethylenediamine) chromium
(III) Bromide.
27. (c) Octahedral coordination entities of the type py NH3
trans
Ma3b3 exhibit geometrical isomerism. The
HOH2N NH3
compound exists both as facial and meridi-
onal isomers, both contain plane of sym-
metry
Pt
NH3 NH3 py Cl
cis
Cl NH3 NH3 Cl HOH2N NH3
Co Co
NH3 Cl Cl
Cl Pt
Cl NH3
fac- mer Cl py
cis
31. (d) Optical isomerism occurs when a molecule is
28. (b) B non-super imposable with its mirror image hence
the complex
V G cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl is optically active.
+ +
en en
Cl Cl
R Y CO CO
Cl
O en
Cl
en
Molarity ´ Volume(ml)
=
1000
EBD_7764
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C-116 Chemistry
CH2CN
(c) CH2Br
CH2Br
CN (c) (d)
CH3
CH2Cl CH3
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22
(b) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b)
+ AgNO
1. NaOH C H ONa HNO3 /H
(d) C6H5I ¾¾ ® 6 5 ¾¾ ¾3¾® yellow ppt.
¾¾¾ ®
AgNO
Since benzyl iodide gives yellow ppt.
C6H5OH ¾¾¾¾
3
® No yellow ppt. hence this is compound B and A was
NaOH phenyl iodide (C6H5I).
C6H5CH2I ¾¾¾¾ ® C6H5CH2ONa
+ 2. (b) DDT is prepared by heating chlorbenzene
HNO3/H
¾¾¾¾¾ ® C6H5CH2OH and chloral with concentrated sulphuric
acid
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Haloalkanes and Haloarenes C-119
8. (a) The reaction is dehydrohalogenation
Br
CCl3CHO + 2 H Cl
alc. KOH
C6H5
C6H5
Cl 1-phenyl cyclopentene
H2SO4 9. (b)
CCl3CH
–H2O
CH2Cl CH2CN
NaCN
Cl ¾¾ ¾
¾®
DM F
1,1,1-trichloro–2,2 bis
(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
I I
or Nuclear substitution will not take place.
DDT
10. (c) In S N2 mechanism transition state is
pentavelent. For bulky alkyl group it will
3. (a) Due to steric hindrance tertiary alkyl halide have sterical hinderance and smaller alkyl
do not react by SN2 mechanism they react group will favour the SN2 mechanism. So
by SN1 mechanism. SN2 mechanisam is the decreasing order of reactivity of alkyl
followed in case of primary and secondary halides is
alkyl halides
RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
The order is
11. (d) SN2 reaction is favoured by small groups
CH3 – X > CH3– CH2X > (CH3)2 – CH.X >
on the carbon atom attached to halogen.
(CH3)3 – C–X
4. (b) In Corey House synthesis of alkanes alkyl So, the order of reactivity is
halide react with lithium dialkyl cuprate CH 3Cl > (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl > (CH 3 ) 3 CCl
R 'X + LiR 2 Cu ¾¾ ® R '- R + RCu + LiX > (C 2 H 5 ) 2 CHCl
Br
|
Alc. KOH NOTE SN2 reaction is shown to maximum extent by
5. (c) CH3 - CH - CH 2 - CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
®
primary halides. The only primary halides
CH3 - CH = CH - CH 3 + HBr given is CH3Cl so the correct answer is
The formation of 2-butene is in accordance (d).
to Saytzeff’s rule. The more substituted 12. (a)
alkene is formed.
6. (d) CH 3OH + C 6 H 5 MgBr ¾¾ ® + –
Me Br ionisation +Br
CH 3O.MgBr + C6 H 6 Me
7. (d) A
NH2 N2Cl Me Me
ionisation Me
+ + Br –
Na NO + HCl HBF Br
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾2¾ ¾¾® ¾ ¾ ¾4 ®
0 - 5 º diazotisation B
Me
N2+BF4 F Me ionisation Me
+ Br
–
Me +
Be
D
¾¾® + BF3 + N2 C
Br Br H
(it decolorises
bromine solution)
C6H5 t-BuOK
C6H5
O O 1, 2 elimination
(c) tert - BuONa
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® H H
Br
(it decolorises bromine OtBu
solution)
C6H5
+ t-BuOH + Br
C6H5
EBD_7764
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C-122 Chemistry
Alcohols, Phenols
and Ethers 25
1. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by
CH 3
heating with conc. H2SO4 the initiation step is
[2003]
(a)
(a) formation of carbocation CH 2 COOH
(b) elimination of water OH
(c) formation of an ester
(d) protonation of alcohol molecule CH 3
CH 2 COOH
2. Among the following compounds which can be
(b)
dehydrated very easily is [2004]
OH
CH3
|
(a) CH3 CH 2 C CH 2 CH3 CH 3
|
OH
(c)
OH CH(OH)COOH
| OH
(b) CH3CH 2 CH 2CHCH3
CH 3
(c) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
CH(OH)COOH
(d) CH3 CH 2 CHCH 2 CH 2 OH (d)
|
CH3 OH
3. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into 5. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under
pent-3-en-2-one is [2005] anhydrous conditions at room temperature to
(a) Pyridinium chloro-chromate give [ 2006]
(a) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3
(b) Chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(b) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
(c) acidic dichromate
(c) CH3CHO and CH3Br
(d) Acidic permanganate
(d) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
4. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline 6. Among the following the one that gives positive
medium to give the compound A which adds iodoform test upon reaction with I2 and NaOH
hydrogen cyanide to form, the compound B. The is [ 2006]
latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic
acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is CH3
|
[2005] (a) CH 3 - C HCH 2 OH
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Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers C-123
(b) PhCHOHCH3 11. The major product obtained on interaction of
(c) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon
(d) C6H5CH2CH2OH dioxide is [2009]
7. The structure of the compound that gives a (a) salicylaldehyde (b) salicylic acid
tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine (c) phthalic acid (d) benzoic acid
water is [2006] 12. From amongst the following alcohols the one
CH 3 CH3 that would react fastest with conc. HCl and
anhydrous ZnCl2, is [2010]
OH
(a) (b) (a) 2-Butanol
(b) 2- Methylpropan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methylpropanol
OH
(d) 1- Butanol
CH3 CH2OH 13. The main product of the following reaction is
conc.H SO
C6 H5CH 2CH(OH)CH(CH 3 )2 ¾¾¾¾¾
2 4¾
®?
(c) (d)
OH [2010]
– +
(a) H 5C 6 H
OH O Na C=C
8. + CHCl3 + NaOH H CH(CH3)2
CHO
(b) C6H5CH2 CH3
The electrophile involved in the above reaction C=C
is [2006] H CH3
(c) H5C6CH2CH2
(a) trichloromethyl anion (CCl3) C = CH 2
H 3C
Å
(b) formyl cation (CHO) (d) C6H5 CH(CH3)2
Å
C=C
(c) dichloromethyl cation (CHCl2) H H
(d) dichlorocarbene (: CCl2) 14. Consider thiol anion (RSQ ) and alkoxy anion
9. In the following sequence of reactions,
(ROQ ) . Which of the following statements is
P +I Mg HCHO
correct ? [2011RS]
CH 3CH 2 OH ¾¾¾
2 ® A ¾¾¾® B ¾¾¾¾
®
ether
(a) RSQ is less basic but more nucleophilic
H O
C ¾¾¾
2 ®D
than ROQ
the compound D is [2007]
(b) RSQ is more basic and more nucleophilic
(a) propanal (b) butanal than ROQ
(c) n-butyl alcohol (d) n-propyl alcohol
(c) RSQ is more basic but less nucleophilic
10. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated
sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric than ROQ
acid, gives [2008]
(d) RSQ is less basic and less nucleophilic
(a) 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
(b) o-nitrophenol than ROQ
(c) p-nitrophenol 15. The correct order of acid strength of the
(d) nitrobenzene following compounds : [2011RS]
EBD_7764
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C-124 Chemistry
(A) Phenol (B) p–Cresol 19. The most suitable reagent for the conversion
(C) m–Nitrophenol (D) p–Nitrophenol of R - CH 2 - OH ® R - CHO is: [2014]
(a) D > C > A > B (b) B > D > A > C (a) KMnO4
(c) A > B > D > C (d) C > B > A > D (b) K2Cr2O7
16. Consider the following reaction : (c) CrO3
C2H5OH + H2SO4 ¾¾ ® Product (d) PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate)
20. Sodium phenoxide when heated with CO2 under
Among the following, which one cannot be
pressure at 125ºC yields a product which on
formed as a product under any conditions ?
acetylation produces C [2014]
[2011RS]
(a) Ethylene (b) Acetylene ONa 125° H+
+ CO 2 ¾¾¾¾
® B ¾¾¾® C
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Ethyl-hydr ogen 5 Atm Ac2O
sulphate The major product C would be
17. Arrange the following compounds in order of
decreasing acidity : [2013] OCOCH3
OH OH OH OH COOH
(a)
; ; ; ;
OH
(a) II > IV > I > III (b) I > II > III > IV COCH3
(c) III > I > II > IV (d) IV > III > I > II
18. An unknown alochol is treated with the “Lucas OH
reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is
primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol COOCH3
reacts fastest and by what mechanism : (c)
[2013]
(a) secondary alcohol by SN1
OCOCH3
(b) tertiary alcohol by SN1
(c) secondary alcohol by SN2
(d) tertiary alcohol by SN2 (d)
COOH
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (a)
16 17 18 19 20
(b) (c) (b) (d) (a)
www.crackjee.xyz
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers C-125
+ H OH H OH
+
CH3–CH2 – O –H + H CH3CH2 –– O Cyanohydrin
H
(Protonated
ethanol) 5. (b) Methyl vinyl ether under anhydrous
Step (2) Formation of carbocation condition at room temperature undergoes
addition reaction.
+ H Slow +
CH3–CH2–– O ––––––® HBr
H Ethyl
CH 2= CH - OCH3 ¾¾¾
® CH3 - CH - O - CH3
|
carbocation Br
Step (3)Elimination of a proton to form
ethene 6. (b) Only those alcohols which contain
– CHOHCH3 group undergo haloform
+ Fast + reaction. Among the given options only
H– CH 2––– CH2 CH2 = CH 2+ H
(b) contain this group, hence undergo
ethene
haloform reaction.
2. (a) 3-methyl pentan-3-ol will be dehydrated
most readily since it produces tertiary 7. (c) NOTE OH group activates the benzene
carbonium ion as intermediate. nucleus and
CH3 OH OH
|
CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH 2 - CH3 Br Br
| Br2 / H 2O
¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾®
OH CH3 CH3
Br
CH3
|
H+ 8. (d) NOTE This is Riemer-Tiemann reaction
¾¾¾
® CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH 2 - CH3
Å
and the electrophile is dichlorocarbene.
OH Cl
|
3. (a) CH3 - CH - CH = CH - CH3 ¾¾
® | ••
H – C – Cl + NaOH Cl – C – Cl + NaCl + H2O
|
O Cl
dichlorocarbene
||
CH3 - C - CH = CH - CH3 a-elimination
OH OH H
EBD_7764
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C-126 Chemistry
Mechanism
CH 2 CH3
|
HCHO
¾¾¾¾
® H - C - OMgI CH3
|
|
H Step 1 : CH3 — C — OH + H - Cl
|
(C) CH3
2 Methyl Propan-2-ol
H2 O
¾¾¾
® ∗
CH 2 CH3 (CH3 )3 C — OH 2 ∗ Cl,
|
H - C - OH ∗
| Step 2 : (CH 3 )3 C∗ ∗ H 2 O
(CH3 )3 C , OH 2
H 3° Carbocation
(D) ∗ ,
n - propyl alcohol Step 3 : (CH3 )3 C ∗ Cl (CH3 )3 C , Cl
t,Butylchloride
10. (b) Phenol on reaction with conc. H2SO4 gives 13. (a) Whenever dehydration can produce two
a mixture of o- and p- products (i.e., –SO3H different alkenes, major product is formed
group, occupies o-, p- position). At room according to Saytzeff rule i.e. more
temperature o-product is more stable, which substituted alkene (alkene having lesser
on treatment with conc. HNO3 will yield number of hydrogen atoms on the two
o-nitrophenol. doubly bonded carbon atoms) is the major
product.
OH
Such reactions which can produce two
Conc.H2SO4 or more structural isomers but one of them
in greater amounts than the other are
OH OH called regioselective ; in case a reaction
SO3H is 100% regioselective, it is termed as
Conc.H SO regiospecific.
+
In addition to being regioselective, alcohol
o- dehydrations are stereoselective (a
SO3H reaction in which a single starting
p-
At room temperature o- product is more material can yield two or more
stereoisomeric products, but gives one of
stable
them in greater amount than any other).
OH OH C6H5 ,CH2 ,CH, CH ,CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
2 4¾
↑
Conc.H SO
SO3H NO2 | |
Conc. HNO 3 OH CH3
o- nitrophenol H H H CH(CH3)2
Hence (b) is the correct answer. C=C + C=C
C6H5 CH(CH3)2 C6H5 H
OH OH cis trans
NaOH
11. (b) CO2
(minor) (major)
COOH 14. (a) On moving down a group, the basicity &
12. (b) Tertiary alcohols react fastest with conc. nucleophilicity are inversely related, i.e.
HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 (lucas reagent) nucleophilicity increases while basicity
as its mechanism proceeds through the decreases. i.e RSQ is more nucleophilic but
formation of stable tertiary carbocation.
less basic than ROQ . This opposite
www.crackjee.xyz
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers C-127
behaviour is because of the fact that – CH3, – OCH3 decreases acidity. hence
basicity and nucleophilicity depends upon the correct order of acidity will be
different factors. Basicity is directly related OH OH OH OH
to the strength of the
H–element bond, while nucleophilicity is
indirectly related to the electronegativity > > >
of the atom to which proton is attached.
NO2 Cl CH3 OCH3
OH OH OH
III I II IV
15. (a) (–M, –I) (–I > +M) (+I, + HC ) (+ M)
18. (b) Reaction of alcohols with Lucas reagent
NO2 proceeds through carbocation formation,
CH3 SN1 mechanism.
+I –I Further 3° carbocations (from tertiary
effect effect alcohols) are highly stable thus reaction
(A) (B) (C) proceeds through SN1 mechanism.
19. (d) An excellent reagent for oxidation of 1°
OH alcohols to aldehydes is PCC.
PCC
R - CH 2 - OH ¾¾¾
® R - CHO
ONa
NO2 20. (a) + CO2 ¾¾
®
– M, – I
Sodium
effect Phenoxide
(D)
OH
Electron withdrawing substituents H SO
increases the acidity of phenols; while ¾¾¾¾
2 4®
(d) CHO
DIBAL–H
CHO
COOH
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (b) (c) (a) (c) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22
(d) (a) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b)
1.
Cl2
(c) CH3CH2COOH ¾¾¾® CH3CHClCOOH CH2 = CH - CH 2OH
red P
5. (c) There is no reaction hence the resultant
alc.KOH mixture contains CH3 COOC2H5 + NaCl.
¾¾ ¾¾® CH 2 = CHCOOH
- HCl Acrylic acid
CHO CH2OH -H O
¾¾¾¾
2 ® CH CHO
3
50% NaOH
O
+ – ||
fast
COO Na
15. (a)
Ph – C –H + OH –
+
– O
O
Ph – C – H
9. (c) pKa = –log Ka; HCOOH is the strongest Ph – C – H slow
acid and hence it has the highest Ka or
OH
lowest pKa value.
10. (c) O O–
|| |
OH Ph – C + Ph – C –H
| |
O + HN(CH3)2 N (CH3)2
OH H
–H2O
O OH
N (CH3)2 + || |
H exchange
¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® Ph – C + Ph – C –H
enamine
fast | |
O– H
11. (a) NOTE Addition of HCN to carbonyl 16. (d) Iodoform test is given by methyl ketones,
compounds is nucleophilic addition acetaldehyde and methyl secondary
reaction. The order of reactivity of carbonyl alcohols.
compounds is CH3 CH CH2 OH
Aldehydes (smaller to higher) Ketones
(smaller to higher), Then CH3
HCHO > CH3COCH3 > PhCOCH3 > PhCOPh isobutyl alcohol is a primary alcohol hence
NOTE The lower reactivity of Ketones does'nt give positive iodoform test.
17. (a) Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to
is due to presence of two alkyl group which hydrocarbons by the action (i) of
shows +I effect. The reactivity of Ketones amalgamated zinc and concentrated
decreases as the size of alkyl group hydrochloric acid (Clemmensen reduction),
increases. or (b) of hydrazine (NH2NH2) and a strong
12. (a) The correct order of increasing acid base like NaOH, KOH or potassium tert-
strength butoxide in a high-boiling alcohol like
EBD_7764
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C-132 Chemistry
ethylene glycol or triethylene glycol (Wolf-
Kishner reduction) O O
CH CH COCH3
[Ag(NH3)2]OH
20. (a)
Tollens reagent
HO
–
NH 2NH 2/OH
CHO CO2H
Wolf-kishner
Reduction H+/CH3OH
CH CH CH2 CH3 (esterification)
HO O
–OH group and alkene are acid-sensitive
groups so clemmensen reduction can not
be used.Acid sensitive substrate should
be reacted in the Wolf-Kishner reduction
which utilise strongly basic conditions.
C
18. (d) O OCH3
NH
3 ® B ¾¾ D Br
2 ® CH CH NH
A ¾¾¾ ® C ¾¾¾¾¾ 3 2 2 CH3MgBr
(I) II KOH,(III)
Amines
27
1. When primary amine reacts with chloroform in (a) Curtius reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
ethanolic KOH then the product is [2002] (c) Hofmann method (d) Hinsberg method
(a) an isocyanide (b) an aldehyde 6. Amongst the following the most basic
(c) a cyanide (d) an alcohol. compound is [2005]
2. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH (a) p -nitroaniline (b) acetanilide
and p-toluidine forms [ 2003] (c) aniline (d) benzylamine
7. An organic compound having molecular mass
60 is found to contain C = 20%, H = 6.67% and
(a) H3C N2Cl
N = 46.67% while rest is oxygen. On heating it
gives NH3 alongwith a solid residue. The solid
residue give violet colour with alkaline copper
(b) H3C NHCHCl2 sulphate solution. The compound is [2005]
(a) CH 3CH 2CONH 2 (b) ( NH 2 ) 2 CO
(c) CH 3CONH 2 (d) CH 3 NCO
(c) H3C NC
8. Which one of the following is the strongest
base in aqueous solution ?
[2007]
(d) H3C CN (a) Methylamine (b) Trimethylamine
(c) Aniline (d) Dimethylamine
3. The correct order of increasing basic nature for
9. In the chemical reaction,
the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is
[ 2003] CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ®
(a) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2 (A) + (B) + 3H2O, the compounds (A) and (B)
are respectively [2007]
(b) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(a) C2H5NC and 3KCl
(c) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3
(b) C2H5CN and 3KCl
(d) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH
(c) CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCl
4. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium
generates [2003] (d) C2H5NC and K2CO3.
(a) propanoic acid and ammonium salt 10. In the chemical reactions,
(b) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt NH 2
(c) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
(d) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid NaNO2 HBF 4
HCl, 278 K
A B
5. Which one of the following methods is neither
meant for the synthesis nor for separation of
amines? [2005]
EBD_7764
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C-134 Chemistry
the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are NaNO /HCl CuCN/KCN
[2010] ¾¾¾¾¾2
0–5° C
® D ¾¾¾¾¾
D
® E + N2
(a) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene the product E is :
(b) phenol and benzene
CN
(c) benzene diazonium chloride and
fluorobenzene
(d) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene (a)
11. In the chemical reactions : [2011RS]
NH 2 CH3
(c) (d)
CH3
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Amines C-135
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d) (a) (a)
16 17
(b) (c)
C ºN + –
NH2 N = NCl CN
¾ NaNO
¾ ¾ 2¾/HCl
¾¾ ® ¾ CuCN/KCN
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®
0 - 5° C D
Biomolecules
28
1. RNA is different from DNA because RNA
(b) C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar
contains [2002]
(a) ribose sugar and thymine molecule
(b) ribose sugar and uracil (c) C '2 and C5' respectively of the sugar
(c) deoxyribose sugar and thymine
molecule
(d) deoxyribose sugar and uracil.
2. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives [2003] (d) C5' and C '2 respectively of the sugar
(a) D-ribose (b) D-glucose molecule
(c) L-glucose (d) D-fructose 8. The term anomers of glucose refers to [2006]
3. The reason for double helical structure of DNA (a) enantiomers of glucose
is operation of [2003] (b) isomers of glucose that differ in
(a) dipole-dipole interaction configuration at carbon one (C-1)
(b) hydrogen bonding (c) isomers of glucose that differ in
(c) electrostatic attractions configurations at carbons one and four
(d) van der Waals’ forces (C-1 and C-4)
4. Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA ? (d) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine [2004] 9. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are [2006]
(c) Uracil (d) Thymine (a) cytosine and thymine
5. Insulin production and its action in human body (b) cytosine and uracil
are responsible for the level of diabetes. This (c) cytosine and adenine
compound belongs to which of the following (d) cytosine and guanine
categories ? [2004] 10. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(a) An enzyme (b) A hormone [2007]
(c) A co-enzyme (d) An antibiotic (a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide
6. Which of the following is a polyamide? [2005] backbone
(a) Bakelite (b) Terylene (b) a– helical backbone
(c) Nylon-66 (d) Teflon (c) hydrophobic interactions
7. In both DNA and RNA, heterocylic base and (d) sequence of a– amino acids.
phosphate ester linkages are at – [2005] 11. a - D-(+)-glucose and b-D-(+)-glucose are [2008]
(a) C5' and C1' respectively of the sugar (a) conformers (b) epimers
(c) anomers (d) enatiomers
molecule
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Biomolecules C-139
12. The two functional groups present in a typical (a) Quinoline (b) Adenine
carbohydrate are: [2009] (c) Cytosine (d) Thymine
(a) – CHO and – COOH 18. Which of the vitamins given below is water
(b) > C = O and – OH soluble ? [2015]
(c) – OH and – CHO (a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K
(d) – OH and – COOH (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
13. Biuret test is not given by [2010] 19. Thiol group is present in : [2016]
(a) Cysteine (b) Methionine
(a) carbohydrates (b) polypeptides
(c) Cytosine (d) Cystine
(c) urea (d) proteins
20. Which of the following compounds will behave
14. Which of the following compounds can be
as a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?
detected by Molisch's Test ? [2012]
(a) Nitro compounds
HOH2C O CH2OH
(b) Sugars
(c) Amines (a) HO OCOCH
3
(d) Primary alcohols
15. Which one of the following statements is OH
correct? [2012]
(a) All amino acids except lysine are optically HOH2C O CH2OH
active
(b) All amino acids are optically active (b) HO
(c) All amino acids except glycine are optically
active OH
(d) All amino acids except glutamic acids are
optically active HOH2C O CH2OH
16. Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in
photosynthesis involves : [2013] (c) HO OCH
3
(a) 18 molecules of ATP
OH
(b) 10 molecules of ATP
(c) 8 molecules of ATP
(d) 6 molecules of ATP HOH2C
17. Which one of the following bases is not present O CH2OCH3
in DNA? [2014] (d) OH
OH
OH
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a) (b) (c)
16 16 17 18 19 20
(b) (a) (a) (c) (a) (a)
EBD_7764
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C-140 Chemistry
4. (c) RNA contains cytosine and uracil as pyrimidine bases while DNA has cytosine and thymine.
Both have the same purine bases i.e., Guanine and adenine.
5. (b) Insulin is a biochemically active peptide harmone secreted by pancreas.
6. (c) Nylon is a general name for all synthetic fibres forming polyamides.
7. (b) In DNA and RNA heterocyclic base and phosphate ester are at C 1' and C5' respectively of the sugar
molecule.
HO N
| N
5
HO – P – O – C H 2 4¢ O N
|| N
C
O C¢
H H
H | |
C3––– C2 H
| |
OH OH
8. (b) Cyclization of the open chain structure of D-(+)-glucose has created a new stereocenter at C 1 which
explains the existence of two cyclic forms of D-(+)-glucose, namely a– and b–. These two cyclic
forms are diasteromers, such diastereomers which differ only in the configuration of chiral carbon
developed on hemiacetal formation (it is C1 in glucose and C2 in fructose) are called anomers and
the hemiacetal carbon (C1 or C2) is called the anomeric carbon.
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Biomolecules C-141
9. (a) The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are 13. (a) Biuret test produces violet colour on
cytosine and thymine. addition of dilute CaSO 4 to alkaline
10. (b) The secondary structure of a protein refers solution of a compound containing
to the shape in which a long peptide chain can peptide linkage.
exist. There are two different conformations of Polypeptides, proteins and urea have
the peptide linkage present in protein, these
- C- NH - (peptide) linkage while
are a-helix and b-conformation. The a-helix ||
always has a right handed arrangement. In O
Polymers
29
1. Polymer formation from monomers starts by (a) teflon (b) nylon 6, 6
[2002] (c) polystyrene (d) natural rubber
(a) condensation reaction between monomers 7. Thermosetting polymer, Bakelite is formed by
(b) coordinate reaction between monomers the reaction of phenol with : [2011RS]
(c) conversion of monomer to monomer ions (a) CH3CHO (b) HCHO
by protons (c) HCOOH (d) CH3CH2CHO
(d) hydrolysis of monomers. 8. The species which can best serve as an initiator
2. Nylon threads are made of [2003] for the cationic polymerization is : [2012]
(a) polyester polymer (a) LiAlH4 (b) HNO3
(b) polyamide polymer (c) AlCl3 (d) BaLi
(c) polyethylene polymer 9. Which one is classified as a condensation
(d) polyvinyl polymer polymer? [2014]
3. Which of the following is fully fluorinated (a) Dacron (b) Neoprene
polymer? [2005]
(a) PVC (b) Thiokol (c) Teflon (d) Acrylonitrile
(c) Teflon (d) Neoprene 10. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of
4. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with paints and lacquers ? [2015]
[2008] (a) Polypropene (b) Polyvinyl chloride
(a) (CH2OH)2 (b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3 COCH3 (d) HCHO (c) Bakelite (d) Glyptal
5. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of : 11. Which of the following statements about low
[2009] density polythene is FALSE? [2016]
(a) H2C = CH – CH = CH2 and H5C6 – CH = CH2
(a) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a
(b) H2C = CH – CN and H2C = CH – CHCH2 peroxide initiator as a catalyst.
(c) H2C = CH – CN and H 2 C = CH – C = CH 2
| (b) It is used in the manufacture of buckets,
C H3 dust-bins etc.
Cl (c) Its synthesis requires high pressure.
|
(d) H 2 C = CH – C = CH 2 and (d) It is a poor conductor of electricity.
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (b) (c) (a) (d) (b) (a)
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C-144 Chemistry
O
OH H2N
HO + NH2
O
Adipic acid Hexamethylenediamine
H2O
H
O O
H2N N OH
NH2 + HO NH2 + HO
O O
Hexamethylenediamine Adipic acid
H2O H2O
Polymerization
H H
O O
N N
N N
O
H H
Nylon
7. (b)
8. (c) Lewis acids are the most common compounds used for initiation of cationic polymerisation. The
more popular Lewis acids are SnCl4, AlCl3, BF3 and TiCl4.
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Polymers C-145
9. (a) Except Dacron all are additive polymers. dustbins, bottles, pipes etc. Low density
Terephthalic acid condenses with ethylene polythene is used for insulating electric wires
glycol to give Dacron. and in the manufacture of flexible pipes, toys,
coats, bottles etc.
– CH2 – CH2 – OH ¾¾
HO O ® O
Ethylene glycol
NH H 2O
H2 N(CH2)5COOH
[
CO CH 2 - CH 2 - O - ] n Caprolactam e-Amino Caproic acid
Dacron (Polyester)
O O
10. (d) Glyptal is used in the manufacture of paints
and lacquers. –(NH(CH2)5–C–NH–(CH2)5–C)–n
Polymerise
11. (b) High density polythene is used in the Nylon-6
manufacture of housewares like buckets,
EBD_7764
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Chemistry in
Everyday Life 30
OCOCH3 4. Aspirin is known as : [2012]
COOH (a) Acetyl salicylic acid
1. The compound is used as [2002] (b) Phenyl salicylate
(c) Acetyl salicylate
(a) antiseptic (b) antibiotic (d) Methyl salicylic acid
(c) analgesic (d) pesticide. 5. Which of the following compounds is not an
2. Which of the following could act as a propellant antacid ? [2015]
for rockets? [2003] (a) Phenelzine
(a) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon (b) Ranitidine
(b) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen (c) Aluminium hydroxide
(c) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen (d) Cimetidine
6. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
(d) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen [2016]
3. Which one of the following types of drugs (a) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide.
reduces fever ? [2005] (b) Glyceryl oleate.
(a) Tranquiliser (b) Antibiotic (c) Sodium stearate.
(c) Antipyretic (d) Analgesic (d) Sodium lauryl sulphate.
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6
(c) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d)
1. (c) The given compound is aspirin which is 5. (a) Phenelzine is an antidepressant, while
antipyretic and analgesic others are antacids.
2. (b) Liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen are used 6. (d) Sodium lauryl sulphate (C11H23CH2OSO–
+
as excellent fuel for rockets. H2(l) has low mass 3Na ) is an anionic detergent. Glyceryl
and high enthalpy of combustion whereas oleate is a glyceryl ester of oleic acid.
oxygen is a strong supporter of combustion. Sodium stearate (C17H35COO–Na+) is a
3. (c) An antipyretic is a drug which is responsible soap. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
for lowering the temperature of the feverish é + ù -
organism to normal but has no effect on ê CH3 (CH 2 )15 N(CH 3 )3 ú Br
normal temperature states. ë û
O–COCH3 is a cationic detergent.
COOH
4. (a) Aspirin (Acetyl salicylic acid)
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Analytical Chemistry C-147
Analytical Chemistry 31
1. When H2S is passed through Hg2S we get (a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (b) Na3[Fe(CN)6]
[2002] (c) Fe(CN)3 (d) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(a) HgS (b) HgS + Hg2S 5. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing
(c) Hg2S + Hg (d) None of these. nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl’s
2. How do we differentiate between Fe3+ and Cr3+ method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed
in group III? [2002] in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of
(a) by taking excess of NH4OH solution the acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution
(b) by increasing NH4+ ion concentration for complete neutralization. The percentage of
nitrogen in the compound is [2010]
(c) by decreasing OH– ion concentration
(a) 59.0 (b) 47.4
(d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 23.7 (d) 29.5
3. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
6. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic
[2003]
compound was digested by Kjeldahl method and
(a) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI,
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl
(b) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate M
sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required
on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution 10
(c) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and
M
HCO 3- ions we get a precipitate of 20 mL of sodium hydroxide for complete
10
K2Ca(CO3)2
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the
(d) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead
compound is: [2014]
test in the reducing flame
4. The compound formed in the positive test for (a) 6% (b) 10%
nitrogen with the Lassaigne solution of an (c) 3% (d) 5%
organic compound is [2004]
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6
(c) (b) (a) (a) (c) (b)
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C-148 Chemistry
1. (c) When H2S is passed through Hg2S we get 5. (c) Moles of HCl taken = 20 × 0.1 × 10– 3
a mixture of mercurous sulphide and = 2 × 10–3
mercury (Hg 2S + Hg) . Moles of HCl neutralised by NaOH solution
2. (b) When we add NH4Cl, it suppresses the = 15 × 0.1 × 10–3 = 1.5 × 10–3
ionisation of NH4OH and prevents the Moles of HCl neutralised by ammonia
precipitation of higher group hydroxide in
= 2 × 10–3 – 1.5 × 10–3
gp(III).
= 0.5 × 10–3
NOTE Further ferric chloride and
1.4 ´ N ×V
chromium chloride form different colour % of nitrogen = ´ 100
w.t. of Substance
precipitates with NH4OH.
® Fe(OH)3 ¯ + 3NH4Cl
FeCl3 + 3NH4OH ––––– 1.4 ´ 0.5 ´ 10 -3
= ´ 100
reddish brown 29.5 ´ 10 -3
® Cr(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl
CrCl3 + 3NH4OH –––––
= 23.7%
Bluish green.
3. (a) Between AgCl and AgI, AgI is less soluble, 1.4 ´ meq. of acid
hence ammonia can dissolve ppt. of AgCl 6. (b) % of N =
mass of organic compound
only due to formation of complex as given
below: M
AgCl + 2NH3 ® [Ag (NH3)2]Cl meq. of H2SO4 = 60´ ´ 2 = 12
10
4. (a) Prussian blue Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]3 is formed
M
in lassaigne test for nitrogen. meq. of NaOH = 20´ = 2
10
3Na 4 [Fe(CN) 6 + 4Fe3+ ¾¾
® \ meq. of acid consumed = 12 – 2 = 10
Sets 1
1. If A, B and C are three sets such that (a) 52 (b) 35
A Ç B = A Ç C and A È B = A È C , then (c) 25 (d) 53
[2009] æ1 ö
(a) A = C (b) B = C
3. ç ÷÷ = 3x , x ¹ 0 and
If f(x) + 2f ç
èx ø
S = {x Î R : f(x) = f(–x)}; then S: [2016]
(c) AÇB = f (d) A = B
(a) contains exactly two elements.
2. Let X ={1,2,3,4,5}. The number of different (b) contains more than two elements.
ordered pairs (Y,Z) that can formed such that (c) is an empty set.
Y Í X , Z Í X and Y Ç Z is empty is : [2012] (d) contains exactly one element.
Answer Key
1 2 3
(b) (b) (a)
Relations
and Functions 2
1. Domain of definition of the function 3. The graph of the function y = f(x) is symmetrical
3 about the line x = 2, then [2004]
f ( x) = + log10 ( x 3 - x) , is [2003]
4 - x2 (a) f ( x ) = - f (- x )
(a) ( -1,0) È (1,2) È ( 2, ¥) (b)
(a, 2) (b) f (2 + x ) = f (2 - x )
(c) ( -1,0) È (a,2) (d) (1,2) È (2, ¥) . (c) f ( x ) = f ( - x)
2. If f : R ® R satisfies f ( x + y ) = f ( x) + f ( y ) , (d) f ( x + 2) = f ( x - 2)
n
for all x, y Î R and f(1) = 7, then S f (r ) is 1
r=1 4. The domain of the function f ( x) = is
[2003] x -x
7 n (n + 1) 7n
(a) (b) [2011]
2 2 (a) (0, ¥ )
7 (n + 1)
(b) (– ¥ , 0)
(c) (d) 7n + (n + 1) . (c) (– ¥ , ¥ ) – {0} (d) (– ¥, ¥)
2
Answer Key
1 2 3 4
(a) (a) (b) (b)
3 Y
1. (a) f ( x) = 2
+ log10 ( x 3 - x) -x x
4- x
4 - x 2 ¹ 0; x 3 - x > 0;
x ¹ ± 4 and - 1 < x < 0 or 1 < x < ¥
– +
+ –
–1 0 1
X
{ 4} x1 x2
\ D = ( -1, 0) È (1, ¥) -
x=2
D = ( -1, 0) È (1, 2) È (2, ¥). From the figure
2. (a) f ( x + y ) = f (x ) + f ( y ) . f ( x1 ) = f ( x2 ), where x1 = 2 - x
Function should be f (x) = mx and x2 = 2 + x
f (1) = 7; \ m = 7, f ( x ) = 7 x \ f (2 - x) = f (2 + x)
n n
7 n ( n + 1)
S f (r ) = 7 S r = 1
4. (b) f ( x) = , define if | x | – x > 0
r =1 12 x -x
3. (b) Let us consider a graph symm. with respect
to line x = 2 as shown in the figure. Þ | x | > x, Þ x < 0
Hence domain of f(x) is (– ¥, 0)
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Trigonometric
Functions 3
1. The number of solution of tan x + sec x = 2cos x
in [0, 2 p ) is [2002] (4 + 7 ) (1 + 7 )
(c) – (d)
(a) 2 (b) 3 3 4
(c) 0 (d) 1 6. Let A and B denote the statements
2. Let a, b be such that p < a - b < 3p . A : cos a + cos b + cos g = 0
21 27 B : sin a + sin b + sin g = 0
If sin a + sin b = - and cos a + cos b = - , 3
65 65 If cos (b – g) + cos (g – a) + cos (a – b) = - ,
a -b 2
then the value of cos [2004] then : [2009]
2
3 (a) A is false and B is true
-6
(a) (b) (b) both A and B are true
65 130
(c) both A and B are false
(d) A is true and B is false
6 3
(c) (d) -
65 130 4 5
7. Let cos (a + b ) = and sin (a - b) = ,
5 13
3. If u = a 2 cos 2 q + b 2 sin 2 q + a 2 sin 2 q + b 2 cos 2 q
then the difference between the maximum and p
where 0 £ a , b £ . Then tan 2a = [2010]
minimum values of u2 is given by [2004] 4
(a) ( a - b) 2 (b) 2 a 2 + b2 56 19
(a) (b)
33 12
(c) ( a + b) 2 (d) 2(a 2 + b2 )
4. The number of values of x in the interval [0, 3p] 20 25
(c) (d)
7 16
satisfying the equation 2sin 2 x + 5 sin x - 3 = 0 is 8. If A = sin2 x + cos4x, then for all real x :
[2006] [2011]
(a) 4 (b) 6
13
(a) £ A £1 (b) 1 £ A £ 2
(c) 1 (d) 2 16
1 3 13 3
5. If 0 < x < p and cos x + sin x = , then tan x (c) £ A£ (d) £ A £1
2 4 16 4
is [2006] 9. The possible values of q Î( 0, p) such that
(a)
π 5π π 2π 3π 8π
, , , ,
4 12 2 3 4 9
, 13. Let f k ( x ) =
1
k
( )
sin k x + cosk x where x Î R
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b ) (d) (a) (a) (c) (b) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (b)
16 17
(a) (a)
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Trigonometric Functions M-5
1 1170
Þ sin x = , –1.; Þ 2 éë1 + cos ( a - b ) ùû =
2 4425
Þ x = 30°, 150°, 270°.
æ a - b ö 1170
2. (d) p < a - b < 3p Þ 4 cos 2 ç ÷=
è 2 ø 4425
p a - b 3p a-b
Þ < < Þ cos <0 a -b 9
2 2 2 2 Þ cos 2 =
2 130
21
sin a + sin b = -
65 a-b -3
Þ cos =
2 130
a+b a-b 21
Þ 2 sin cos =- ....(1) Negative sign is taken because
2 2 65
p a - b 3p
27 < <
cos a + cos b = - 2 2 2
65
+ a 2 b2 (1 - 2cos 2 q sin 2 q )
21
Given that sin a + sin b = ....(1)
65 = (a4 + b4 - 2a 2b 2 ) cos 2 q sin 2 q + a 2 b2
-27
cos a + cos b = ....(2) sin 2 2q
65 = (a 2 - b 2 )2 . + a 2b2 …(2)
4
Squaring and adding equations (1) and
(2) we get Q 0 £ sin 2 2q £ 1
sin 2 a + sin 2 b + 2sin a sin b + cos 2 a
sin 2 2q (a 2 - b 2 ) 2
Þ 0 £ (a 2 - b 2 )2 £
4 4
EBD_7764
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M-6 Mathematics
æ q p ö
sin 4q (1 + 2 cos 3q) = 0 ççQ cos a = and sina = ÷÷
è p2 + q2 p2 + q2 ø
1 12. (b) Given expression can be written as
sin 4q = 0 or cos 3q = -
2
sin A sin A cos A cos A
4q = n p ; n Î I ´ + ´
cos A sin A - cos A sin A cos A - sin A
2p
or 3q = 2np ± ,n ÎI
3 æ sin A ö
Q tan A = and
ç cos A ÷
p p 3p 2p 8p 4 p ç ÷
q= , , or q = , , cos A
4 2 4 9 9 9 ç cot A = ÷
è sin A ø
[Q q, Î (0, p)]
10. (b) Given equation is esinx – e–sinx – 4 = 0
1 ìï sin 3 A - cos3 A ïü
Put esin x = t in the given equation, we get = í ý
t2 – 4t – 1 = 0 sin A - cos A îï cos A sin A þï
Principle of
Mathematical Induction 4
1. If an = 7 + 7 + 7 + ... ... having n radical 2. Let S ( K ) = 1 + 3 + 5... + (2 K - 1) = 3 + K 2 .
signs then by methods of mathematical induction Then which of the following is true [2004]
which is true [2002] (a) Principle of mathematical induction can
be used to prove the formula
(a) an > 7 " n ³ 1 (b) an < 7 " n ³ 1
(b) S ( K ) Þ S ( K + 1)
Answer Key
1 2
(b) (b)
Complex Numbers
and Quadratic Equations 5
1. z and w are two non zero complex numbers such 7. If p and q are the roots of the equation
that | z | = | w| and Arg z + Arg w = p then z equals x2 + px + q = 0, then [2002]
[2002] (a) p = 1, q = –2 (b) p = 0, q = 1
(a) w (b) – w (c) p = –2, q = 0 (d) p = – 2, q = 1
(c) w (d) – w 8. If z and w are two non-zero complex numbers
2. If | z – 4 | < | z – 2 |, its solution is given by p
such that zw = 1 and Arg ( z ) - Arg (w ) = ,
[2002] 2
(a) Re(z) > 0 (b) Re(z) < 0 then zw is equal to [2003]
(a) – 1 (b) 1
(c) Re(z) > 3 (d) Re(z) > 2 (c) – i (d) i
3. The locus of the centre of a circle which touches 9. Let Z1 and Z 2 be two roots of the equation
the circle | z – z1 | = a and | z – z2 | = b externally
(z, z1 & z2 are complex numbers) will be Z 2 + aZ + b = 0 , Z being complex. Further ,
[2002] assume that the origin, Z1 and Z 2 form an
(a) an ellipse (b) a hyperbola equilateral triangle. Then [2003]
(c) a circle (d) none of these (a) a 2 = 4b (b) a2 = b
4. If a ¹ b but a2 = 5a – 3 and b2 = 5b – 3 then the
equation having a/b and b/a as its roots is (c) a 2 = 2b (d) a 2 = 3b
[2002] x
2 2 æ1+ i ö
(a) 3x – 19x + 3 = 0 (b) 3x + 19x – 3 10. If ç ÷ = 1 then [2003]
è1- i ø
=0
(c) 3x2 – 19x – 3 = 0 (d) x2 – 5x + 3 = 0. (a) x = 2n + 1 , where n is any positive integer
5. Difference between the corresponding roots of (b) x = 4n , where n is any positive integer
x2+ax+b=0 and x2+bx+a=0 is same and a ¹ b, (c) x = 2n , where n is any positive integer
then [2002] (d) x = 4n + 1 , where n is any positive integer..
(a) a + b + 4 = 0 (b) a + b – 4 = 0 11. The value of 'a' for which one root of the quadratic
(c) a – b – 4 = 0 (d) a – b + 4 = 0
equation (a 2 - 5a + 3) x 2 + (3a - 1) x + 2 = 0 is
6. Product of real roots of the equation
t2 x2 + | x | + 9 = 0 [2002] twice as large as the other is [2003]
(a) is always positive 1 2
(a) - (b)
(b) is always negative 3 3
(c) does not exist
2 1
(d) none of these (c) - (d)
3 3
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Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations M-11
æ a 2 + b2 ö p p
Þ x2 - x ç
Also arg (z) –arg (w) = Þ q-f =
÷ +1 = 0 2 2
è ab ø
or 3x2 – 19x +3 = 0 Now z w = r1e - iq .r2eif
5. (a) Let a, b and g, d be the roots of the ip
-i( q-f ) -
equations x2 + ax + b = 0 and = r1r2e =e 2 = –1
x2 + bx + a = 0 respectively.
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Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations M-15
1 - 3a Þ ( z 2 - 1)( z 2 - 1) = ( zz + 1) 2
Þ a=
(
3 a 2 - 5a + 3 ) Þ z 2 z 2 - z 2 - z 2 + 1 = z 2 z 2 + 2zz + 1
é 1 (1 - 3a)2 ù 2 2 ( z + z )2 = 0 Þ z = - z
\ 2 ê ú= 2 Þ z 2 + 2 zz + z Þ =0
9 2 2
ëê (a - 5a + 3) ûú a - 5a + 3 Þ z is purely imaginary
1
(1 - 3a) 2 Let z = r (cosq + i sinq)
= 9 or 9a 2 - 6 a + 1
2
(a - 5a + 3) Then | z 2 - 1|=| r 2 (cos 2q + i sin 2q) - 1 |
= 9 a 2 - 45a + 27 and
= r 4 - 2r 2 cos 2q + 1
2
or 39a = 26 or a = | z 2 - 1|2 = (| z |2 +1) 2
3
Þ r 4 - 2r 2 cos 2q + 1 = r 4 + 2r 2 + 1
2 2
12. (c) x - 3 x + 2 = 0 Þ| x | -3 | x | +2 = 0
p
( x - 2)( x - 1) = 0 Þ 2 cos 2 q = 0 Þ cos q = ±
2
x = 1, 2 or x = ±1, ±2 \ z lies on imaginary axis.
\ No.of solution = 4
EBD_7764
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M-16 Mathematics
2 æ 1ö
ç 0, ÷ is same hence z lies on bisector
We know that, if z1 + z2 = z1 + z2 è 3ø
then origin, z1 and z2 are collinear of the line joining points (0, 0) and (0, 1/
Þ arg ( z1 ) = arg ( z2 ) 3).
Hence z lies on a straight line.
As per question z + ( -1) = z + -1
2 2
æ Pö æ Qö
21. (b) tan ç ÷ , tan ç ÷ are the roots of
è 2ø è 2ø
( )
Þ arg z 2 = arg ( -1)
ax 2 + bx + c = 0
p æ Pö æ Qö b
Þ 2arg ( z ) = p Þ arg ( z ) = tan ç ÷ + tan ç ÷ = -
2 è 2ø è 2ø a
Þ z lies on imaginary axis.
16. (c) Let the second root be a. æ Pö æ Qö c
tan ç ÷ × tan ç ÷ =
Then a + (1 - p ) = - p Þ a = -1 è 2ø è 2ø a
Also a.(1 - p) =1 - p æ Pö æ Qö
tan ç ÷ + tan ç ÷
Þ (a - 1)(1 - p) = 0 Þ p =1[Q a = -1] è 2ø è 2ø æ P Qö
= tan ç + ÷ = 1
æ Pö æ Qö è 2 2ø
\ Roots are a = -1 and p - 1 = 0 1 - tan ç ÷ tan ç ÷
è 2ø è 2ø
17. (d) 4 is a root of x 2 + px + 12 = 0
b
Þ 16 + 4 p + 12 = 0 Þ p = -7 -
a =1 b a c
Þ Þ - = -
Now, the equation x 2 + px + q = 0 c a a a
1-
has equal roots. a
Þ – b = a – c or c = a + b.
p 2 49
\ p 2 - 4q = 0 Þ q = = 22. (c) both roots are less than 5
4 4
Y axis
1/ 3
18. (c) ( x - 1)3 + 8 = 0 Þ ( x - 1) = (-2) (1)
Þ x – 1 = – 2 or -2w or - 2w 2 0 X axis
or x = – 1 or 1 – 2 w or 1 – 2 w 2 . x=5
19. (c) | z1 + z2 | = | z1 | + | z2 | Þ z1 and
z2 are collinear and are to the same side then (i) Discriminant ³ 0
(ii) p(5) > 0
of origin; hence arg z1 – arg z2 = 0.
Sum of roots
z (iii) <5
20. (c) As given w = 2
1 Hence (i) 4k2– 4(k2 + k – 5) ³ 0
z- i
3 4k2 – 4k2 – 4k + 20 ³ 0
|z| 4k £ 20 Þ k £ 5
Þ |w|= =1 (ii) Þ f(5) > 0 ; 25 – 10 k + k2 + k – 5 > 0
1
|z- i| or k2 – 9k + 20 > 0
3 or k (k – 4) –5(k – 4) > 0
1 or (k – 5) (k – 4) > 0
Þ z = z- i
3 Þ k Î ( – ¥ , 4 ) U ( – ¥ , 5)
Þ distance of z from origin and point Sum of roots b 2k
(iii) Þ =– = <5
2 2a 2
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Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equations M-17
The intersection of (i), (ii) & (iii) 2 2
gives 26. (c) Equation x - 2mx + m - 1 = 0
k Î ( – ¥ , 4 ). ( x - m) 2 - 1 = 0 or
10
2k p 2k p ö ( x - m + 1)( x - m - 1) = 0
23. (d) å æçè sin 11
+ i cos
11 ø
÷ x = m - 1, m + 1
k =1
m – 1 > –2 and m + 1 < 4
10
æ
= i å ç cos
2k p 2k p ö Þ m > - 1 and m < 3 or,, -1 < m < 3
- i sin ÷
è 11 11 ø 27. (a) z lies on or inside the circle with centre
k =1
(–4, 0) and radius 3 units.
2k p ì 10 - 2k p i ü Y
10 - i ï ï
= iå e 11 = i í å e 11 - 1ý Im.
k =1 ïî k =0 ïþ
é 2p 4p ù
- i - i
ê
= i 1+ e 11 + e 11 + ....11 terms ú - i (-7, 0) (-4, 0) (-1, 0) Real
ê ú X
ë û X'
é
= iê e ( )
2 p 11 ù
ê1 - - 11 ú é 1 - e - 2p i ù
ú-i = iê ú
2p - i
ê 2p
- i ú
ê - iú Y'
ëê 1 - e 11 ûú ë1 - e 11 û From the Argand diagram maximum value
=i×0–i [Q e -2 pi = 1] of | z + 1| is 6
=–i |z+1|=|z+4–3|
24. (d) z 2 + z + 1 = 0 Þ z = w or w 2 £ | z + 4 | + | –3 | £ | 3 | + | – 3|
1 2 Þ | z + 1 | £ 6 Þ | z + 1|max = 6
So, z + = w + w = -1
z 28. (c) Let a and b are roots of the equation
1 x2 + ax + 1 = 0
z 2 + 2 = w 2 + w = -1,
z a + b = – a and ab = 1
1
z 3 + 3 = w3 + w3 = 2 given | a - b | < 5
z
1 1 Þ (a + b)2 - 4ab < 5
z + 4 = -1, z 5 + 5 = -1
4
z z (Q (a - b) 2 = (a + b ) 2 - 4ab )
1
and z 6 + 6 = 2 Þ a 2 - 4 < 5 Þ a2 – 4 < 5
z
\ The given sum = 1+1 + 4 + 1 + 1 + 4 Þ a2 – 9 < 0 Þ a2 < 9 Þ – 3 < a < 3
= 12 Þ a Î (–3, 3)
Þ (a - a1 ) x + (b - b1 ) x + (c - c1 ) = 0.
2
æ 1+ z ö æ 1+ z ö
\ arg ç = arg = arg (z) = q.
It has only one solution, x = – 1 è 1 + z ÷ø ç 1÷
çè 1 + ÷ø
Þ b - b1 = a - a1 + c - c1 ...(1) z
vertex = ( -1, 0) 42. (d) We know minimum value of |Z1 + Z2| is | |Z1|
b - b1 1
Þ = -1 – |Z2|| Thus minimum value of Z + is
2 (a - a1 ) 2
Þ Þ b - b1 = 2 ( a - a1 ) ....... 2 ...(2) |Z |-
1
£ Z+
1
£| Z | +
1
Now p (– 2) = 2 2 2 2
Þ f (– 2) – g (– 2) = 2 Since, | Z |³ 2 therefore
Þ 4a – 2b + c – 4a1 + 2b1 – c1 = 2
Þ 4 (a – a1) – 2 (b – b1) + (c – c1) = 2 ...(3) 1 1 1
From equations, (1), (2) and (3) 2- < Z + < 2+
2 2 2
1
a - a1 = c - c1 = ( b - b1 ) = 2 3 1 5
2 Þ < Z+ <
2 2 2
Now, p ( 2) = f ( 2) - g (2) 43. (c) Consider –3(x – [x])2 + 2 [x – [x]) + a2 = 0
= 4 ( a - a1 ) + 2 ( b - b1 ) + ( c - c1 ) Þ 3{x}2 – 2{x} –a2 = 0 (Q x – [x] =
{x})
= 8 + 8 + 2 = 18
æ 2 ö
39. (a) Since we know z = z if z is real. Þ 3 ç {x}2 - {x} ÷ = a2 , a ¹ 0
è 3 ø
z2 z2
Therefore, = æ 2ö
z-1 z -1 Þ a 2 = 3{x} ç {x} - ÷
2 2
è 3ø
Þ zzz - z = z. z . z - z
2 2
Þ z .z - z 2 = z .z - z 2
1/3
Þ z 2 ( z - z ) - ( z - z )( z + z ) = 0
2
(
Þ (z - z ) z -(z + z ) = 0 ) –1/3 2/3
Either z - z = 0 or z 2 - ( z + z ) = 0
Either z = z Þ real axis
-2
or z 2 = z + z Þ zz - z - z = 0 Now, {x} Î (0,1) and £ a2 < 1
3
represents a circle passing through origin. (by graph)
40. (a) Given equations are Since , x is not an integer
x2 + 2x + 3 = 0 …(i)
\ a Î (-1,1) - {0}
ax2 + bx + c = 0 …(ii)
Roots of equation (i) are imaginary roots. Þ a Î (-1, 0) È (0,1)
According to the question (ii) will also have
both roots same as (i). Thus z1 - 2z 2
44. (a) =1
a b c 2 - z1 z2
= = = l (say)
1 2 3
Þ a = l, b = 2l, c = 3l 2 2
Þ z1 - 2z 2 = 2 - z1z2
Hence, required ratio is 1 : 2 : 3
41. (c) Given | z | = 1, arg z = q
Þ (z1 - 2z 2 )(z1 - 2z 2 ) = (2 - z1z2 )(2 - z1z2 )
1
As we know, z = Þ (z1 - 2z 2 )(z1 - 2z2 ) = (2 - z1z2 )(2 - z1z 2 )
z
EBD_7764
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M-20 Mathematics
Þ (z1z1) - 2z1z2 - 2z1z 2 + 4z 2 z2 Case II
x2 – 5x + 5 = –1 and x2 + 4x – 60 has to be an
even number
= 4 - 2z1z 2 - 2z1z2 + z1z1z 2 z2
Þ x = 2, 3
2 2 2 2 where 3 is rejected because for x = 3,
Þ z1 + 4 z 2 = 4 + z1 z2 x2 + 4x – 60 is odd.
Case III
2 2 2 2
Þ z1 + 4 z 2 – 4 – z1 z2 =0 x2 – 5x + 5 can be any real number and
x2 + 4x – 60 = 0
(z 1
2
)(
- 4 1 - z2
2
)=0 Þ x = –10, 6
Þ Sum of all values of x = –10 + 6 + 2 + 1 + 4 = 3
z2 ¹ 1 47. (b) Rationalizing the given expression
Q
(2 + 3isin q)(1 + 2isin q)
2
\ z1 =4 1 + 4sin 2 q
For the given expression to be purely imaginary,
Þ z1 = 2 real part of the above expression should be equal
to zero.
Þ Point z1 lies on circle of radius 2.
2 - 6 sin 2 q 1
Þ =0 Þ sin 2 q =
6 ± 36 + 8 1 + 4 sin q 2 3
45. (a) a, b = = 3 ± 11
2 1
Þ sin q = ±
a = 3 + 11 , b = 3 - 11 3
48. (a) We have
( ) ( )
n n
\ an = 3 + 11 – 3 – 11 n
(
é
) - (3 - 11) ùúû n
9 9
2 ê 3 + 11
Þ å (x + (2r - 1)x + r(r - 1) = 10n
2
ë
r= 1
( 3 + 11)8 éêë( 3 + 11)2 – 2ùúû + ( 3 - 11)8 éêë2 - (3 - 11)2 ùúû Þ nx2 + {1 + 3 + 5 + .... + (2n – 1) }x + {1.2 + 2.3
+.... + (n – 1) n} = 10 n
=
2 ê( 3 + 11 ) - (3 - 11) ú
é 9 9ù
(n - 1) n(n + 1)
ë û Þ nx2 + n2 x + = 10n
3
( 3 + 11)8 ( 9 + 11 + 6 11 – 2) + (3 - 11)8 (2 - 9 - 11 + 6 11) Þ x2 + nx +
n 2 - 31
=0
=
2 ê( 3 + 11 ) – ( 3 - 11) ú 3
é 9 9ù
ë û Let a and a + 1 be its two solutions
(Q it has two consequtive integral solutions)
( )9 – 6 (3 - 11)9 6
6 3 + 11 Þ a + (a + 1) = – n
= = =3 -n - 1
2 ê( 3 + 11) - ( 3 - 11 ) ú
é 9 9ù 2 Þa= ...(1)
ë û 2
2 n 2 - 31
46. (c) (x 2 - 5 x + 5) x + 4x - 60
=1 Also a (a+1) = ...(2)
3
Case I Putting value of (1) in (2), we get
x2 – 5x + 5 = 1 and x2 + 4x – 60 can be any real 2
æ n + 1ö æ 1 - n ö n - 31
number -ç ÷ ç ÷ =
Þ x = 1, 4 è 2 øè 2 ø 3
Þ n2 = 121 Þ n = 11
www.crackjee.xyz
Linear Inequality 6
1. If a, b, c are distinct +ve real numbers and a2 + 3. Statement-1 : For every natural number n³ 2,
b2 + c2 = 1 then ab + bc + ca is [2002]
1 1 1
(a) less than 1 (b) equal to 1 + + ......... + > n.
(c) greater than 1 (d) any real no. 1 2 n
Statement-2 :For every natural number n ³ 2,
3x 2 + 9 x + 17
2. If x is real, the maximum value of n(n + 1) < n + 1. [2008]
3x 2 + 9 x + 7
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
is [2006]
-3 1 1
which is minimum when x = 3< nÞ > ;
2 3 n
10 1 1
\ f max = 1 + = n£ nÞ ³
9 3 n n
3´ -9´ +7
4 2
1 1
Also > \ Adding all, we get
10 ´ 4 1 n
1+ = 41
27 – 54 + 28
1 1 1 1 n
3. (b) Statement 2 is n(n + 1) < n + 1, n ³ 2 + + + ............ + > = n
1 2 3 n n
Þ n < n + 1, n ³ 2 which is true Hence both the statements are correct
and statement 2 is a correct explanation
Þ 2 < 3 < 4 < 5 < ------- n
of statement-1.
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Permutations and
Combinations 7
1. Total number of four digit odd numbers that can 8. How many ways are there to arrange the letters
be formed using 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 (using repetition in the word GARDEN with vowels in
allowed) are [2002] alphabetical order [2004]
(a) 216 (b) 375 (a) 480 (b) 240
(c) 400 (d) 720 (c) 360 (d) 120
2. Number greater than 1000 but less than 4000 is
9. The number of ways of distributing 8 identical
formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 (repetition
balls in 3 distinct boxes so that none of the
allowed). Their number is [2002] boxes is empty is [2004]
(a) 125 (b) 105
(c) 375 (d) 625 (a) 8 (b) 21
C3
3. Five digit number divisible by 3 is formed using
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7 without repetition. Total (c) 38 (d) 5
number of such numbers are [2002] 10. If the letters of the word SACHIN are arranged
(a) 312 (b) 3125 in all possible ways and these words are written
(c) 120 (d) 216 out as in dictionary, then the word SACHIN
4. The sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are appears at serial number [2005]
divisible by 2 or 5 is [2002] (a) 601 (b) 600
(a) 3000 (b) 3050 (c) 603 (d) 602
(c) 3600 (d) 3250
11. At an election, a voter may vote for any number
5. n
If Cr denotes the number of combination of n of candidates, not greater than the number to be
things taken r at a time, then the expression elected. There are 10 candidates and 4 are of be
selected, if a voter votes for at least one
n
Cr +1 + nC r -1 + 2´n Cr equals [2003] candidate, then the number of ways in which he
can vote is [2006]
(a) n +1 (b) n+ 2
Cr +1 Cr (a) 5040 (b) 6210
(c) n+2
Cr +1 (d) n +1
Cr . (c) 385 (d) 1110
6. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions 12. The set S = {1, 2, 3, ......., 12} is to be partitioned
in an examination such that he must choose at into three sets A, B, C of equal size.
least 4 from the first five questions. The number Thus A È B È C = S,
of choices available to him is [2003] A Ç B = B Ç C = A Ç C = f. The number of
(a) 346 (b) 140 ways to partition S is [2007]
(c) 196 (d) 280
7. The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women 12! 12!
(a) (b)
can dine at a round table if no two women are (4!) 3
(4!) 4
to sit together is given by [2003]
(a) 6! × 5! (b) 6 × 5 12! 12!
(c) (d)
(c) 30 (d) 5 × 4 3!(4!) 3
3!(4!) 4
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
M-24 Mathematics
13. How many different words can be formed by (c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
jumbling the letters in the word MISSISSIPPI in (d) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
which no two S are adjacent? [2008] 18. There are 10 points in a plane, out of these 6 are
(a) 8. 6C4. 7C4 (b) 6.7. 8C4 collinear. If N is the number of triangles formed
(c) 6. 8. 7C4. (d) 7. 6C4. 8C4 by joining these points. Then : [2011RS]
14. From 6 different novels and 3 different (a) N £ 100
dictionaries,4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be
selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that (b) 100 < N £ 140
the dictionary is always in the middle. Then the (c) 140 < N £ 190
number of such arrangement is: [2009] (d) N > 190
(a) at least 500 but less than 750
(b) at least 750 but less than 1000
(c) at least 1000
{
19. If X = 4n - 3n - 1 : n Î N and}
(d) less than 500 Y = {9 ( n - 1) : n Î N } , where N is the set of
15. There are two urns. Urn A has 3 distinct red natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to:
balls and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. From [2014]
each urn two balls are taken out at random and (a) X (b) Y
then transferred to the other. The number of ways (c) N (d) Y – X
in which this can be done is [2010] (c) 8 (d) 64
(a) 36 (b) 66 20. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two
(c) 108 (d) 3 elements respectively. Then the number of
16. Statement-1: The number of ways of distributing subsets of the set A × B, each having at least
10 identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that no three elements is : [2013, 2015]
box is empty is 9C3 . (a) 275 (b) 510
Statement-2: The number of ways of choosing (c) 219 (d) 256
any 3 places from 9 different places is 9C3. 21. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that
[2011] can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8,
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; without repetition, is : [2015]
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for (a) 120 (b) 72
Statement-1. (c) 216 (d) 192
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
22. If all the words (with or without meaning) having
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
five letters, formed using the letters of the word
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; SMALL and arranged as in a dictionary; then the
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for position of the word SMALL is : [2016]
Statement-1. (a) 52nd (b) 58th
17. Statement - 1 : For each natural number n, (n + 1)7–1 (c) 46th (d) 59th
is divisible by 7. 23. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies
Statement - 2 : For each natural number and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3
of them are ladies and 4 are men. Assume X
n, n 7 - n is divisible by 7. [2011 RS]
and Y have no common friends. Then the
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; total number of ways in which X and Y
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and
Statement-1. 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X and Y are in
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; this party, is : [2017]
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation (a) 484 (b) 485
for Statement-1 (c) 468 (d) 469
www.crackjee.xyz
Permutations and Combinations M-25
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
(d) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (c) (a) (d)
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
(c) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b)
1. (d) Required number of numbers (i) Selecting 4 out of first five question and
= 5 ´ 6 ´ 6 ´ 4 = 36 ´ 20 = 720. 6 out of remaining question
2. (c) Required number of numbers
= 5C4 ´8 C6 = 140 choices.
= 3 ´ 5 ´ 5 ´ 5 = 375
3. (d) We know that a number is divisible by 3 (ii) Selecting 5 out of first five question and
only when the sum of the digits is divisible 5 out of remaining 8 questions
by 3. The given digits are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. = 5C5 ´8 C5 = 56 choices.
Here the possible number of combinations
Therefore, total number of choices
of 5 digitsout of 6 are5C4 = 5, which are as
=140 + 56 = 196.
follows–
7. (a) No. of ways in which 6 men can be arranged
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15 = 3 × 5
at a round table = (6 - 1)! = 5!
0 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 14 (not divisible by 3)
0 + 1 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 13 (not divisible by 3) Now women can be arranged in 6 P5
0 + 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 = 12 = 3 × 4 = 6! Ways.
0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 = 11 (not divisible by 3) Total Number of ways = 6! × 5!
0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 ( not divisible by 3)
8. (c) Total number of arrangements of letters in
Thus the number should contain the digits
the word GARDEN = 6 ! = 720 there are
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or the digits 0, 1, 2, 4, 5. two vowels A and E, in half of the
Taking 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, the 5 digit numbers are
arrangements A preceeds E and other half
= 5! = 120 A follows E.
Taking 0, 1, 2, 4, 5, the 5 digit numbers are So, vowels in alphabetical order in
= 5! – 4! = 96
\ Total number of numbers = 120 + 96 1
´ 720 = 360
= 216 2
4. (b) Required sum 9. (b) We know that the number of ways of
= (2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 100) distributing n identical items among r
+ (5 + 10 + 15 + ... + 100) persons, when each one of them receives
– (10 + 20 + ... + 100) at least one item is n -1
Cr -1
= 2550 + 1050 – 530 = 3050.
\ The required number of ways
5. (c) n
Cr +1 + n Cr -1 + 2 n Cr
8 -1 7! 7´ 6
n n n n = C3-1 = 7C2 == = 21
= Cr -1 + Cr + Cr + Cr +1 2!5! 2 ´1
10. (a) Alphabetical order is
= n +1Cr + n +1Cr +1 = n + 2 Cr +1 A, C, H, I, N, S
6. (c) As for given question two cases are No. of words starting with A – 5!
possible. No. of words starting with C – 5!
EBD_7764
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M-26 Mathematics
No. of words starting with H – 5!
= 10 -1 C4 -1 = 9 C3
No. of words starting with I – 5!
No. of words starting with N – 5! 17. (a) Statement 2 :
SACHIN – 1 P ( n ) : n 7 - n is divisible by 7
\ sachin appears at serial no 601
Put n = 1, 1 – 1 = 0 is divisible by7, which is true
10 10 10 10
11. (c) C1 + C2 + C3 + C4 Let n = k, P (k) : k7 – k is divisible by 7, true
= 10 + 45 + 120 + 210 = 385 Put n = k + 1
12. (a) Set S = {1, 2, 3, ...... 12} \ P (k + 1) : (k + 1) – ( k + 1) is div. by 7
7
7! \ P(k + 1) is divisible by 7
Which can be done in ways Hence P(n) : n7 – n is divisible by 7
4!2!
Ö MÖ IÖIÖ IÖIÖ PÖPÖ Statement 1 : n7 - n is divisible by 7
Now 4 S can be kept at any of the ticked
places in 8C4 ways so that no two S are Þ ( n + 1) 7 - ( n + 1) is divisible by 7
adjacent.
Total required ways Þ ( n + 1) 7 - n7 - 1 + ( n7 - n)
7! 8 7! 8 is divisible by 7
= C4 = C4 = 7 ´ 6C4 ´ 8C4
4!2! 4!2! Þ ( n + 1) 7 - n7 - 1 is divisible by 7
14. (c) 4 novels, out of 6 novels and 1 dictionary
Hence both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
out of 3 can be selected in 6 C4 ´3C1 ways and Statement 2 is the correct explanation
Then 4 novels with one dictionary in the of Statement -1.
middle can be arranged in 4! ways. 18. (a) Number of required triangles = 10 C3 -6 C3
\ Total ways of arrangement
10 ´ 9 ´ 8 6 ´ 5 ´ 4
= 6 C4 ´3C1 ´ 4! = 1080 = - = 120 - 20 = 100
6 6
15. (c) Total number of ways = 3 C2 ´ 9C2 19. (b) 4n – 3n – 1 = (1 + 3)n – 3n –1
9´8 = [nC0 + nC1.3 + nC2.32 +......+ nCn3n] – 3n – 1
=3× = 3 ´ 36 = 108 = 9 [nC2 +nC3.3+....+nCn.3n–2]
2
16. (a) The number of ways of distributing 10 \ 4n – 3n – 1 is a multiple of 9 for all n.
identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that \ X = {x : x is a multiple of 9}
no box empty is same as the number of Also, Y = {9 (n – 1) : n ÎN}
ways of selecting (r – 1) places out of = {All multiples of 9}
(n – 1) different places, that is n -1
Cr -1 . Clearly X Ì Y. \ X È Y = Y
20. (c) Given
Hence require number of ways
n(A) = 2, n(B) = 4, n(A × B) = 8
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Permutations and Combinations M-27
Required number of subsets =
8C + 8C +.... + 8C = 28 – 8C – 8C – 8C SMALL ® 58 th word
3 4 8 0 1 2
= 256 – 1 – 8 – 28 = 219
21. (d) Four digits number can be arranged in 3 × 4 ladies 3 ladies
4! ways. 23. (b) X Y
Five digits number can be arranged in 5!
ways. 3 men 4 men
Number of integers = 3 × 4! + 5! = 192. Possible cases for X are
22. (b) ALLMS (1) 3 ladies, 0 man
No. of words starting with (2) 2 ladies, 1 man
(3) 1 lady, 2 men
4!
A: A
_____ = 12 (4) 0 ladies, 3 men
2!
Possible cases for Y are
L : L
_ _ _ _ _ 4! = 24 (1) 0 ladies, 3 men
4! (2) 1 lady, 2 men
M: M
_____ = 12 (3) 2 ladies, 1 man
2!
(4) 3 ladies, 0 man
3! No. of ways = 4C3 . 4C3 + (4C2 . 3C1)2 +
S : S
_A_____ =3
2! (4C1 . 3C2)2 + (3C3)2
: S_ L_ _ _ _ 3! = 6 = 16 + 324 + 144 + 1 = 485
EBD_7764
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M-28 Mathematics
Binomial Theorem 8
1. The coefficients of xp and xq in the expansion of
(1+ x )p+q are [2002]
(a) ( -1)n -1 n (b) ( -1)n (1 - n)
(a) equal (c) ( -1)n -1 (n - 1) 2 (d) (n - 1)
(b) equal with opposite signs
(c) reciprocals of each other 6
(d) none of these 9. The value of 50
C4 + å 56 - r C3 is [2005]
2. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of r =1
(a + b)n is 4096, then the greatest coefficient in 55
55 C3
the expansion is [2002] (a) C4 (b)
(a) 1594 (b) 792 56 56
(c) 924 (d) 2924 (c) C3 (d) C4
3. The positive integer just greater than 11
é ù
10. If the coefficient of x in ê ax 2 + æç 1 ö÷ ú
7
(1 + 0.0001)10000 is [2002]
(a) 4 (b) 5 ë è bx ø û
(c) 2 (d) 3 11
-7 é 1 öù
4. r and n are positive integers r > 1, n > 2 and equals the coefficient of x in ê ax - æç ú ,
coefficient of (r+2)th term and 3rth term in the ë è bx 2 ÷ø û
expansion of (1 + x)2n are equal, then n equals then a and b satisfy the relation [2005]
[2002] (a) a – b = 1 (b) a + b = 1
(a) 3r (b) 3r + 1
(c) 2r (d) 2r + 1 a
(c) =1 (d) ab = 1
5. If x is positive, the first negative term in the b
expansion of (1 + x)27 5 is [2003] 11.
3
If x is so small that x and higher powers of x
(a) 6th term (b) 7th term 3 3
(c) 5th term (d) 8th term æ 1 ö
6. The number of integral terms in the expansion (1 + x) 2 - ç 1 + x÷
è 2 ø
may be neglected, then
of ( 3 + 8 5 )256 is [2003] 1
(a) 35 (b) 32 (1 - x ) 2
(c) 33 (d) 34
may be approximated as [2005]
7. The coefficient of the middle term in the binomial
3 3
expansion in powers of x of (1 + ax )4 and of (a) 1 - x2 (b) 3x + x2
8 8
is the same if a equals [2004]
3 x 3 2
3 10 (c) - x2 (d) - x
(a) (b) 8 2 8
5 3
-3 -5 12. For natural numbers m, n if (1 - y ) m (1 + y ) n
(c) (d)
10 3 = 1 + a1 y + a2 y 2 + ....... and a1 = a2 = 10, then
8. The coefficient of x n in expansion of
(m, n) is [2006]
(1 + x )(1 - x )n is [2004]
www.crackjee.xyz
Binomial Theorem M-29
(a) (20, 45) (b) (35, 20) (c) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true .
(c) (45, 35) (d) (35, 45) (d) Statement - 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ;
13. In the binomial expansion of (a – b)n, n ³ 5, the Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
Statement -1.
sum of 5th and 6th terms is zero, then a/b equals
18. The coefficient of x7 in the expansion of (1– x –
[2007]
x2 + x3 )6 is [2011]
n -5 n-4 (a) –132 (b) –144
(a) (b)
6 5 (c) 132 (d) 144
19. If n is a positive integer , then
5 6
(c) (d) .
( ) ( )
2n 2n
n-4 n -5 3 +1 - 3 -1 is : [2012]
14. The sum of the series [2007] (a) an irrational number
(b) an odd positive integer
20
C0 - 20
C1 + 20
C2 - 20
C3 + .....-..... + 20
C10 (c) an even positive integer
(d) a rational number other than positive
is
integers
(a) 0 (b) 20
C10 20. The term independent of x in expansion of
1 20 x +1 x -1 ö
10
(c) - 20 C10 (d) C10 æ
2 çè 2 / 3 1/3 - ÷ is [2013]
x - x + 1 x - x1/ 2 ø
n (a) 4 (b) 120
15. Statement -1 : å (r + 1) nCr = (n + 2)2n –1. (c) 210 (d) 310
r =0 21. Let Tn be the number of all possible triangles
n formed by joining vertices of an n-sided regular
Statement-2: å (r + 1) nCr x r polygon. If Tn+1 – Tn = 10, then the value of n
r =0 is : [2013]
n n –1 (a) 7 (b) 5
= (1 + x) + nx(1 + x ) . [2008]
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true (c) 10 (d) 8
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; 22. The sum of coefficients of integral power of x in
( )
50
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for the binomial expansion 1 - 2 x is :
Statement-1
(c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; [2015]
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation 1 50 1 50
for Statement-1 (a)
2
(
3 -1 ) (b)
2
2 +1 ( )
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
1 50 1 50
16. The remainder left out when 82n – (62)2n+1 is
divided by 9 is: [2009]
(c)
2
(
3 +1 ) (d)
2
3 ( )
(a) 2 (b) 7 23. If the number of terms in the expansion of
(c) 8 (d) 0
10 10
æ 2 4 ön
çç1 - + ÷÷ , x ¹ 0, is 28, then the sum of the
17. Let S1 = å j ( j - 1) 10
C J , S2 = å j10C j è x x2 ø
j =1 j =1
coefficients of all the terms in this expansion, is :
10
and S3 = å j 2 10C j . [2010] [2016]
(a) 243 (b) 729
j =1
(c) 64 (d) 2187
Statement -1 : S3 = 55 × 29.
24. The value of
Statement - 2: S1 = 90 × 28 and S2 = 10 × 28 .
(a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ; (21C1 – 10C1) + (21C2 – 10C2) + (21C3 – 10C3) +
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation or (21C4 – 10C4) + .... + (21C10 – 10C10) is : [2017]
Statement -1. (a) 220 – 210 (b) 221 – 211
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false. (c) 221 – 210 (d) 220 – 29
EBD_7764
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M-30 Mathematics
A n sw er K ey
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) ( c) ( b) (d) (d) (c) (d) (b) (d) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
(a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (b) ( c) ( b) (a)
æ 1ö
n
(1 + ax) 4 = T3 =4 C2 (ax )2 = 6a 2 x 2
3. (d) (1 + 0.0001)10000 = ç1 + ÷ , n = 10000
è nø The middle term in the expansion of
1 æ 1 ö 1 æ 1 ö æ 2ö 3
= 1+ 1+ ç1 - ÷ + ç1 - ÷ + ç1 - ÷ + ...
6a 2 = -20a 3 Þ a = -
2! è n ø 3! è n ø è n ø 10
8. (b) Coeff. of xn in ( 1+x) (1 – x)n
1 1 1 1
< 1+ + + + ........+ = coeff of xn in
1! 2! 3! (9999)!
1 1
= 1+ + + .......¥ = e < 3 (1 + x )(1 - n C1 x + n C2 x 2 - .... + (-1)nn Cn x n )
1! 2!
4. (c) tr + 2 = 2nCr + 1 xr + 1;t3r = 2nC3r – 1 x3r – 1 n n
= ( -1) n C n + ( -1) n -1 C n -1 = ( -1) n + ( -1) n -1 .n
Given 2nCr + 1 = 2nC3r – 1 ;
Þ 2nC2n – (r + 1) = 2nC3r – 1 = ( -1)n (1 - n)
Þ 2n – r – 1 = 3r – 1 Þ 2n = 4r Þ n = 2r
5. (d)
Coeff of x n in (1 + x ) (1 - x )
n
n (n - 1)(n - 2).........( n - r + 1) r
Tr +1 = ( x)
r! = Coeff of xn in
For first negative term,
n - r +1 < 0 Þ r > n +1
(1 - x) n + Coeff of x n -1 in (1 - x )
n
= ( -1) n [1 - n] Þ 11
C5 (a)6 (b) - 5 = 11C6 a5 ´ (b) - 6
Þ ab = 1.
6
11. (c) Q x3 and higher powers of x may be
9. (d) 50
C4 + å 56 - r
C3
neglected
r =1
3 3
(1 + x) 2 - æçè1 +
xö
é 55 C3 + 54C3 + 53C3 + 52 C3 ù ÷
= 50 C4 + ê ú \ 2ø
êë + 51C3 + 50C3 úû
n +1
(1-
1
x2 )
én
We know ë Cr + Cr -1 =
n
Cr ù
û
éæ 3 1 ö ù
-1 êç 3 . æ 3 x 3.2 x 2 ö ú
50 50 2 2 2÷
= ( C4 + C3 ) = (1 - x ) 2 êçè 1 + x + x ÷ - ç1 + + ÷ú
2 2! ø è 2 2! 4 ø úû
êë
+51 C3 +52 C3 + 53 C3 +54 C3 +55 C3
= é 1 3 ù
ê x .
= ê1 + + 2 2 x 2 ú é -3 x 2 ù = -3 x 2
(51 C4 + 51C+352
) C3 + 53 C3 + 54 C3 + 55 C3 úê ú 8
ë 2 2! ûë8 û
Proceeding in the same way, we get (as x3 and higher powers of x can be
= 55
C4 + 55
C3 = 56
C4 . neglected)
11 r = [1 - m C1 y + m C2 y 2 - ......]
é 2 1 ù 11 2 11 - r æ 1ö
ê ax + bx ú = Cr (ax ) çè ÷ø
ë û bx [1 + n C1 y + n C 2 y 2 + .....]
= 11C6 a5 ´ 1 ´ (b) - 6 n! an n! a n b5
Þ . .b4 - . =0
\ Coefficient of x7 = Coefficient of x–7 4!(n - 4)! a 4 5!(n - 5)! a5
EBD_7764
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M-32 Mathematics
n !.a n b 4
é 1 b ù + 2 n +1C2 (63)2 n -1 – ........+ (–1)2n+1 2n+1C2+1 ù
Þ - =0 û
4 ê ( n - 4) 5.a ú
4!( n - 5)!.a ë û = 63 ×
1 b a n-4 é nC0 (63)n -1 + n C1 (63)n - 2 + n C2 (63)n -3
or, - =0 Þ = ë
n - 4 5a b 5
14. (d) We know that, (1 + x) = C0 + 20C1x +
20 20 +........] + 1 – 63 ×
20C x2 + ...... 20C x10 + ..... 20C x20
2 10 20 é 2n+1C (63) 2n - 2n+1C (63)2n -1 + .......ù + 1
ë 0 1 û
Put x = –1, (0) = 20C0 – 20C1 + 20C2 – 20C3
= 63 × some integral value + 2
+ ...... + 20C10 – 20C11 .... + 20C20 = 82n – (62)2n+1when divided by 9 leaves
Þ 0 = 2[20C0 – 20C1 + 20C2 – 20C3 2 as the remainder.
+ ..... – 20C9] + 20C10 10 10
Þ 20C = 2[20C – 20C + 20C – 20C
10 0 1 2 3
17. (b) S2 = å j 10
C j = å 10 9 C j -1
j =1 j =1
+ ...... – 20C9 + 20C10]
Þ 20C – 20C + 20C – 20C + .... + 20C
0 1 2 3 10 = 10 é 9 C0 + 9C1 + 9 C2 + .... + 9 C9 ù = 10.29
1 ë û
= 20C10
2 18. (b) (1 – x – x2 + x3)6 = [(1– x) – x2 (1 – x)]6
15. (b) We have
= (1– x)6 (1 – x2)6
n n
n = (1 – 6x + 15x2 – 20x3 + 15x4 – 6x5 + x6)
å (r + 1) nCr x r = å r. nCr x r + å nCr xr × (1 – 6x2 + 15x4 – 20x6 + 15x8 – 6x10 + x12)
r =0 r =0 r =0
Coefficient of x7 = (– 6) (– 20) + (– 20)(15)
n + (– 6) (–6) = – 144
n
=år× r
n –1
Cr –1 x r + (1 + x)n
( ) ( )
2n 2n
r =1 19. (a) Consider 3 +1 - 3 -1
n
= nx å
n –1
Cr –1 x r –1 +(1 + x )n
( 3) ( 3)
2 n -1 2 n -3
= 2 é 2n C1 + 2 n C3
r =1 êë
= nx (1+ x) n–1 + (1+ x) n = RHS
( 3)
2n-5
\ Statement 2 is correct. + ....ù
+ 2 n C5
úû
Putting x = 1, we get
n
(Using binomial expansion of (a + b) and
n
(a – b)n)
å (r + 1)n Cr = n × 2n –1 + 2n = (n + 2) × 2n –1. = which is an irrational number.
r=0
\ Statement 1 is also true and statement 2
is a correct explanation for statement 1. 20. (c) Given expression can be written as
16. (a) (8)2n – (62) 2n + 1 10
= (64) n – (62)2n + 1 æ 1/ 3 æ x +1 ö ö
ç ( x + 1) - çç ÷÷
= (63 + 1)n – (63 – 1)2n + 1 ç
è è x ÷ø ÷ø
=
10
é nC (63)n + nC (63)n -1 + nC (63)n - 2 æ 1 ö
ë 0 1 2 = ç x1/ 3 + 1 - 1 - ÷
è xø
+ ........+
n
Cn-1 (63) + nCn ù = (x1/3 – x–1/2)10
û
General term = Tr+1
2n +1
= éë C0 (63) 2n +1 - 2n +1C1 (63)2 n = 10Cr (x1/3)10–r(–x–1/2)r
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Binomial Theorem M-33
10 - r
-r 50
10
Cr x 3 · ( -1) r · x 2 +... + C3 (2 x )3 - 50
C 4 (2 x ) 4 ...(2)
=
Adding equation (1) and (2)
10- r - r
50 50
= 10 Cr ( -1) r · x 3 2 (1 - 2 x) + (1 + 2 x )
Term will be independent of x when
= 2 éë 50 C0 + 50C2 22 x + 50
C4 23 x 2 + ...ùû
10 - r r
- = 0
3 2 350 + 1
Putting x = 1, we get above as
Þ r=4 2
So, required term = T5 = 10C4 = 210 23. (b) Total number of terms = n+2C2 = 28
21. (b) We know, (n + 2) (n + 1) = 56; x = 6
Tn = nC3, Tn+1 = n+1C3 24. (a) We have (21C1 + 21C2 ...... + 21C10)
ATQ, Tn+1 – Tn = n+1C3 – nC3 = 10 – (10C1 + 10C2 ..... 10C10)
Þ nC2 = 10 1 21
Þ n = 5. = [( C1 + .... + 21C10 ) + (21C11 + .... 21C20)]
2
– (210 – 1)
(1 - 2 x )50 =50C0 -50C1 2 x +50C2 ( 2 x )
2
22. (c)
(Q 10C1 + 10C2 + .... + 10C10 = 210 – 1)
...(1)
1 21
50 50 50 50 2 = [2 - 2] - (210 - 1)
(1 + 2 x ) = C0 + C1 2 x - C 2 (2 x ) 2
= (220 – 1) – (210 – 1) = 220 – 210
EBD_7764
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M-34 Mathematics
n
Statement-2: å ( k 3 - ( k - 1)3 ) = n3, for any 9 9
+10 (11) = k (10 ) , then k is equal to: [2014]
k =1
(a) 100 (b) 110
natural number n. [2012]
(a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true. 121 441
(c) (d)
(b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; 10 100
statement-2 is a correct explanation for 31. Three positive numbers form an increasing G. P.
Statement-1. If the middle term in this G.P. is doubled, the new
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; numbers are in A.P. then the common ratio of
statement-2 is not a correct explanation for the G.P. is: [2014]
Statement-1.
(a) 2- 3 (b) 2+ 3
(d) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
26. If 100 times the 100th term of an AP with non zero (c) 2+ 3 (d) 3 + 2
common difference equals the 50 times its 50th 32. The sum of first 9 terms of the series.
term, then the 150th term of this AP is : [2012]
13 13 + 23 13 + 23 + 33
(a) – 150 + + + .... [2015]
(b) 150 times its 50th term 1 1+ 3 1+ 3 + 5
(c) 150 (a) 142 (b) 192
(d) Zero (c) 71 (d) 96
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Sequences and Series M-37
33. If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers l and
16
n(l, n > 1) and G1, G2 and G3 are three geometric is m, then m is equal to : [2016]
5
means between l and n, then G14 + 2G 24 + G 34 (a) 100 (b) 99
equals. [2015] (c) 102 (d) 101
(a) 4 lmn2 (b) 4 l2m2n2 36. For any three positive real numbers a, b and c,
(c) 4 l2 mn (d) 4 lm2n 9(25a2 + b2) + 25(c2 – 3ac) = 15b(3a + c). Then :
34. If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant [2017]
A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this
(a) a, b and c are in G.P.
G.P. is : [2016]
(b) b, c and a are in G.P.
7 (c) b, c and a are in A.P.
(a) 1 (b)
4 (d) a, b and c are in A.P.
8 4 37. Let a, b, c Î R. If f(x) = ax2 + bx + c is such that a
(c) (d) + b + c = 3 and f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy, " x, y Î R,
5 3
35. If the sum of the first ten terms of the series 10
then å f ( n ) is equal to : [2017]
æ 3 ö2 æ 2 ö2 æ 1 ö2 2 æ 4 ö2 n =1
çç1 ÷÷ + çç2 ÷÷ + çç3 ÷÷ + 4 + çç4 ÷÷ + ......., (a) 255 (b) 330
è 5ø è 5ø è 5ø è 5ø (c) 165 (d) 190
A n sw er K ey
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (b) (b) (b ) (a) ( a) (d) (d ) (d) (b) (b) ( b) (c) (d) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) (d) (d) (b ) (b) ( a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37
(b) (d) (d) (d ) (d) ( c) (b)
2 t n
é4´5ù =\ n
= (45) 2 - 16.ê ú = 2025 – 1600 = 425 Sn 2
ë 2 û
1
1 1 1 9. (d) Tm = a+ (m – 1) d = .....(1)
6. (a) - + ...............¥ n
1.2 2.3 3.4
1
1 æ1 1 ö Tn = a + (n - 1)d = .....(2)
Tn = =ç - ÷ m
n (n + 1) è n n + 1ø
S = T1 - T2 + T3 - T4 + T5 ............¥ 1 1 1
(1) – (2) Þ (m - n )d = - Þd=
n m mn
æ1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö 1
= ç - ÷ - ç - ÷ + ç - ÷ - ç - ÷.....
è1 2 ø è 2 3 ø è 3 4 ø è 4 5 ø From (1) a = Þa-d =0
mn
é1 1 1 1 ù
= 1 - 2 ê - + - ................¥ú 10. (b) If n is odd, the required sum is
ë 2 3 4 5 û
æ4ö 12 + 2.22 + 32 + 2.42 + ...... + 2.(n - 1) 2 + n2
= 1 - 2[- log(1 + 1) + 1] = 2 log 2 - 1 = logç ÷.
-b cè e ø (n - 1)(n - 1 + 1) 2
7. (d) ax 2 + bx + c = 0, a + b = , ab = = + n2
a a
2
1 1 [Q (n–1) is even
As for given condition, a + b = 2
+
a b2
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Sequences and Series M-39
\ using given formula for the sum of a, b, c are in A.P. OR 2b = a + c
(n–1) terms.]
æ 1ö 1 1
2 2 ç1 - ÷ = 1 - + 1 -
æ n - 1 ö 2 n (n + 1) è yø x y
=ç + 1÷ n =
è 2 ø 2
2 1 1
= + Þ x, y, z are in H.P..
1 1 1 y x z
11. (b) We know that e = 1 + + + + .......
1! 2! 3!
15. (d) e x + e- x x 2 x 4 x6
-1 1 1 1 = 1+ + + .............
and e = 1 - + - + ....... 2 2! 4! 6!
1! 2! 3!
1
é 1 1 ù
\ e + e -1 = 2 ê1 + + + ....ú Putting x =
2
we get
ë 2! 4! û
1 1 1
1 1 1 e + e -1 1+ + + + ......
\ + + + ...... = -1 4.2! 16.4! 64.6!
2! 4! 6! 2
1 -1 1
e+
e 2 + 1 - 2e (e - 1)2 e2 + e 2
e e +1
= = ¥= = =
2e 2e 2 2 2 e
a+b
12. (b) Let two numbers be a and b then =9 p
2 [2a + ( p - 1)d ]
2 1 p2
16. (d) =
and ab = 4 q 2
[2a1 + (q - 1)d ] q
\ Equation with roots a and b is 2
x 2 - (a + b ) x + ab = 0 2a1 + ( p - 1)d p
2
Þ 2a + (q - 1)d = q
Þ x - 18 x + 16 = 0 1
m m m
13. (c) Given Cr -1 , Cr , Cr +1 are in A.P.. æ p - 1ö
a1 + ç d
è 2 ÷ø p
2m Cr = m Cr -1 + m Cr +1 =
æ q - 1ö q
a1 + ç d
m è 2 ÷ø
Cr -1 m Cr +1
Þ 2= +
m m
Cr Cr a6 a 11
For , p = 11, q = 41 Þ 6 =
r m-r a21 a21 41
= +
m - r +1 r +1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 17. (d) a - a = a - a =..........= - =d
Þ m - m(4r + 1) + 4r - 2 = 0 . 2 1 3 2 an an -1
¥
(say)
1 1
14. (d) x = å an =
1- a
a = 1-
x Then a1a2 =
a1 - a2
, a2 a3 =
a2 - a3
,
n=0 d
d
¥ an -1 - an
1 1
y= å bn = 1 - b b = 1-
y
..........., an -1an =
d
n=0
\ a1a2 + a2 a3 + ......... + an-1an
¥ 1
1
z = å cn = c = 1-
n=0
1- c z
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M-40 Mathematics
a1 - a2 a2 - a3 a -a 21. (a) We have
= + + .... + n -1 n
d d d 2 6 10 14
S = 1 + + 2 + 3 + 4 + .......¥ ....(1)
3 3 3 3
1
= [a1 - a2 + a2 - a3 + .... + an -1 - an ]
d 1
Multiplying both sides by we get
a1 - an 3
=
d 1 1 2 6 10
S = + 2 + 3 + 4 + ........¥ ....(2)
1 1 3 3 3 3 3
Also, = + (n - 1)d
an a1 Subtracting eqn. (2) from eqn. (1) we get
2 1 4 4 4
a1 - an S = 1 + + 2 + 3 + 4 + ........¥
Þ = (n - 1)d 3 3 3 3 3
a1an
2 4 4 4 4
a -a Þ S = + 2 + 3 + 4 + ........¥
Þ 1 n = (n - 1)a1an 3 3 3 3 3
d
Which is the required result. 4
2 3 = 4´3 Þ S =3
x 2 x3 Þ S=
18. (d) We know that ex = 1 + x + + + ........¥ 3 1 3 2
2! 3! 1-
3
Put x = – 1
22. (a) Till 10th minute number of counted notes
\ 1 1 1 = 1500
e–1 = 1 - 1 + - + ........¥
2! 3! 4! n
3000 = [ 2 ´ 148 + ( n - 1)( -2) ] = n [148 - n + 1]
1 1 1 1 2
\ e–1 = - + - ........¥
2! 3! 4! 5! n 2 - 149 n + 3000 = 0
19. (b) Let the series a, ar, ar2, ..... are in geometric Þ n = 125, 24
progression. But n = 125 is not possible
given, a = ar + ar 2 \ total time = 24 + 10 = 34 minutes.
Þ 1= r + r2 Þ r2 + r – 1 = 0 23. (c) Let required number of months = n
-1 ± 1 - 4 ´ -1 \ 200 × 3 + (240 + 280 + 320 + ... + (n – 3)th
Þ r= term)
2
= 11040
-1 ± 5
Þ r= n-3
2 Þ [ 2 ´ 240 + (n - 4) ´ 40]
2
5 -1 = 11040 - 600
Þ r= [Q terms of G.P. are positive
2 Þ (n - 3)[240 + 20n - 80] = 10440
\ r should be positive] Þ(n - 3)(20n + 160) = 10440
20. (b) As per question,
Þ(n - 3)(n + 8) = 522
a + ar = 12 …(1)
ar2 + ar3 = 48 …(2) Þn2 + 5n - 546 = 0
(n + 26) (n – 21) = 0
Þ
ar 2 (1 + r ) 48 \ n = 21
Þ = Þ r2 = 4, Þ r = –2
a(1 + r ) 12 24. (b) Let A.P. be a, a + d , a + 2d ,.........
(Q terms are = + ve and –ve alternately) a2 + a4 + ........... + a200 = a
Þ a = –12
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Sequences and Series M-41
100
Þ é 2 ( a + d ) + (100 - 1) d ùû = a ....(i) éæ 1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 öù
2 ë 7 êç1 - ÷ + ç1 - 2 ÷ + ç1 - 3 ÷ ú
= êè 10 ø è 10 ø è 10 ø ú
and a1 + a3 + a5 + ......... + a199 = b 9
100 ëê +¼...up to 20 terms ûú
Þ
2
[2a + (100 – 1) d ] = β ....(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii), we get é 1 æ æ 1ö öù
20
ê ç ç ÷ ÷ú
1 -
a -b 7ê 10 è è 10 ø ø ú
d= = ê 20 - ú
100 9ê 1
1- ú
25. (b) nth term of the given series ê 10 ú
ë û
2
= Tn = ( n - 1) + ( n - 1) n + n 2
7 é179 1 æ 1 ö
20 ù
=
( ( n - 1)3 - n 3 ) 3
= n - ( n - 1) 3
= ê + ç ÷
9 êë 9 9 è 10 ø
ú
úû
( n - 1) - n
7
n = [179 + (10)–20]
Þ Sn = å é k 3 - ( k - 1) 3 ù Þ 8000 = n3
ë û
28.
81
(a) Since, x, y, z are in A.P.
k =1
Þ n = 20 which is a natural number. \ 2y = x + z
Now, put n =1,2,3,....20 Also, we have
T1 = 13 – 03 2 tan–1 y = tan–1x + tan–1 (z)
T2 = 23 – 13 æ 2y ö -1 æ x + z ö
M Þ tan–1 ç ÷ = tan çè 1 - xz ÷ø
è 1 - y2 ø
T20 = 203 – 193
Now, T1 + T2 + --- + T20 = S20 x+ z x+z
Þ S20 = 203 – 03 = 8000 Þ = (Q 2y = x + z)
1- y 2
1 - xz
Hence, both the given statement is true.
26. (d) Let 100th term of an AP is a + (100 –1) d Þ y2 = xz or x + z = 0 Þ x = y = z
= a + 99d where 'a' is the first term of A.P 29 (b) Let p, q, r are in AP
and 'd' is the common difference of A.P. Þ 2q = p + r ...(i)
Similarly, 50th term = a + (50 – 1) d 1 1
= a + 49d Given + =4
Now, According to the question a b
100 (a + 99d) = 50 (a + 49d) a +b
Þ 2a + 198 d = a + 49d Þ a + 149 d = 0 Þ =4
ab
This is the 150th term of an A.P.
Hence, T150 = a + 149 d = 0 r
27. (c) Given sequence can be written as We have a + b = – q/p and ab =
p
7 77 777
+ + + ...¼+ up to 20 terms
10 100 103 q
-
p
é 1 11 111 ù Þ = 4 Þ q = - 4r ....(ii)
= 7ê + + +¼... + up to 20 termsú r
ë10 100 103 û p
Multiply and divide by 9
From (i), we have
7 é 9 99 999 ù 2( – 4r) = p + r
= ê + + + ...¼up to 20 termsú
9 ë10 100 1000 û p = –9r
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M-42 Mathematics
q = – 4r
r=r 32. (d) nth term of series
æ 11ö l+n
x ç1 - ÷ = 109 + 11 (10)8 + 112 × (10)7 33. (d) m= and common ratio of G.P.
è 10 ø 2
+ ... + 119 – 1110 1
= r = æç ö÷ 4
n
é æ 11 ö10 ù èlø
ê ç ÷ - 1ú
x
- = 109 ê è ø
10 ú - 1110 \ G1 = l3/4n1/4, G2 = l1/2n1/2, G3 = l1/4 n3/4
Þ ê 11 ú
10
ê -1 ú 3 2 2
G14 + 2G 42 + G34 = l n + 2l n + ln
3
êë 10 úû
= ln (l + n)2
= ln × 2m2
x
Þ - = (1110 - 1010 ) - 1110 = -1010 = 4lm2n
10 34. (d) Let the GP be a, ar and ar 2 then a = A + d;
Þ x = 1011 = k.109 Given ar= A + 4d; ar2 = A + 8d
Þ k = 100
31. (b) Let a, ar, ar2 are in G.P. ar 2 - ar (A + 8d)-(A + 4d)
According to the question Þ =
ar - a (A + 4d)-(A + d)
a, 2ar, ar2 are in A.P.
Þ 2 × 2ar = a + ar2 4
Þ 4r = 1 + r2 Þ r2 – 4r + 1 = 0 r=
3
4 ± 16 - 4 35. (d)
r= = 2± 3
2 æ 8 ö2 æ12 ö2 æ16 ö2 æ 20 ö2 æ 44 ö2
Since r > 1 çç 5 ÷÷ + çç 5 ÷÷ + çç 5 ÷÷ + çç 5 ÷÷ ... + çç 5 ÷÷
è ø è ø è ø è ø è ø
\ r = 2 - 3 is rejected
16 2 2 2
Hence, r = 2 + 3 S=
25 (
2 + 3 + 4 + ... + 112 )
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Sequences and Series M-43
Þ a + b = 2c
16 æ11(11 + 1)(22 + 1) ö
= ç
ç - 1÷
÷ Þ b, c, a are in A.P.
25 è 6 ø 37. (b) f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
16 16 f(1) = a + b + c = 3 Þ f (1) = 3
= ´505 = ´101 Now f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy ...(1)
25 5
Put x = y = 1 in eqn (1)
16 16 f(2) = f(1) + f(1) + 1
Þ m = ´101 = 2f(1) + 1
5 5
f(2) = 7
Þ m = 101. Þ f(3) = 12
36. (c) We have Now, Sn = 3 + 7 + 12 + ......... tn ...(1)
9(25a2 + b2) + 25 (c2 – 3ac) = 15b (3 a + c) Sn = 3 + 7 + ......... tn–1 + tn ...(2)
Þ 225a2 + 9b2 + 25c2 – 75ac = 45ab + 15bc Subtract (2) from (1)
Þ (15a)2 + (3b)2 + (5c)2 – 75ac – 45ab–15 bc= 0 tn = 3 + 4 + 5 + .... upto n terms
1
[(15 a – 3b)2 + (3b – 5c)2 + (5c – 15a)2 ] = 0 (n 2 + 5n)
2 tn =
2
it is possible when 15a – 3b = 0, 3b – 5 c =
0 and 5c – 15a = 0 (n 2 + 5n)
Þ 15a = 3b = 5 Sn = å tn = å 2
5c c Sn=
Þb= ,a =
3 3 1 é n(n + 1)(2n + 1) 5n(n + 1) ù n(n + 1)(n + 8)
+ ú=
2 êë 6 2 û 6
c 5c 6c
Þa+b= + =
3 3 3 10 ´11 ´18
S10 = = 330
6
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M-44 Mathematics
9. If the equation of the locus of a point 13. If one of the lines given by
x y x y (a) x + y = 7 (b) 3 x - 4 y + 7 = 0
(d) + = -1 and + = -1
2 3 -2 1 (c) 4 x + 3 y = 24 (d) 3 x + 4 y = 25
12. If the sum of the slopes of the lines given by
17. If (a, a 2 ) falls inside the angle made by the
x 2 - 2cxy - 7 y 2 = 0 is four times their product
x
c has the value [2004] lines y = , x > 0 and y = 3x , x > 0 , then a
2
(a) –2 (b) –1
(c) 2 (d) 1 belong to [2006]
EBD_7764
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M-46 Mathematics
23. The lines p(p2 +1)x – y + q = 0 and
(a) æç 0, 1 ö÷ (b) (3, ¥) (p2 + 1)2x + (p2 + 1)y + 2q = 0 are perpendicular
è 2ø to a common line for : [2009]
(a) exactly one values of p
æ1 ö æ 1ö
(c) ç , 3 ÷ (d) ç - 3, - ÷ (b) exactly two values of p
è 2 ø è 2ø
(c) more than two values of p
18. Let A (h, k), B(1, 1) and C (2, 1) be the vertices (d) no value of p
of a right angled triangle with AC as its 24. Three distinct points A, B and C are given in
hypotenuse. If the area of the triangle is 1square the 2-dimensional coordinates plane such that
unit, then the set of values which 'k' can take is the ratio of the distance of any one of them
given by [2007] from the point (1, 0) to the distance from the
(a) {–1, 3} (b) {–3, –2} 1
(c) {1, 3} (d) {0, 2} point (–1, 0) is equal to . Then the
3
19. Let P = (–1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3 3 ) be circumcentre of the triangle ABC is at the point:
three point. The equation of the bisector of the [2009]
angle PQR is [2007] æ5 ö æ5 ö
(a) çè , 0÷ø (b) çè , 0÷ø
3 4 2
(a) x+ y =0 (b) x + 3 y = 0
2
æ5 ö
(c) çè , 0÷ø (d) (0, 0)
3 3
(c) 3x + y = 0 (d) x + y = 0.
2 25. The lines L1 : y – x = 0 and L2 : 2x + y = 0
20. If one of the lines of my2 + (1– m2) xy – mx2= 0 intersect the line L3 : y + 2 = 0 at P and Q
is a bisector of the angle between the lines xy = respectively. The bisector of the acute angle
0, then m is [2007] between L1 and L2 intersects L3 at R. [2011]
(a) 1 (b) 2 Statement-1: The ratio PR : RQ equals
(c) –1/2 (d) –2. 2 2: 5
21. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment Statement-2: In any triangle, bisector of an
j o i n i n g angle divides the triangle into two similar
P (1, 4) and Q(k, 3) has y-intercept –4. Then a triangles.
possible value of k is [2008] (a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
(a) 1 (b) 2 Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(c) –2 (d) – 4 Statement-1.
22. The shortest distance between the line y – x = (b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
1 and the curve x = y2 is : [2009] (c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
2 3 3 2 (d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
(a) (b) Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
8 5
Statement-1.
3 3 2 26. The lines x + y = a and ax – y = 1 intersect
(c) (d)
4 8 each other in the first quadrant. Then the set of
all possible values of a in the interval :
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Straight Lines & Pair of Straight Lines M-47
[2011RS] the reflected ray is [2013]
(a) ( 0, ¥ ) (b) [1, ¥) (a) y = x + 3 (b) 3y = x – 3
A n sw er K ey
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (d) (a) (a) (a) (a) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(c) (c) (a) (c) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) (b ) (b) (c) (c) (b)
31 32 33 34
(b) (d) (a) (a)
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M-48 Mathematics
M (x1, y1) æp ö
y = tan ç + a ÷ x
è4 ø
O A
X CA ^ r to OB
æp ö
x cos a y sin a \ slope of CA = - cot ç + a ÷
Þ + = 1; è4 ø
p p Equation of CA
x y æp ö
Þ + =1 y - a sin a = - cot ç + a ÷( x - a cos a )
p / cos a p / sin a è4 ø
So co-ordinates of A and B are æ æp öö
Þ (y - a sin a) ç tan ç + a ÷ ÷ = (a cos a - x)
æ p ö æ p ö è è4 øø
çè , 0÷ and ç 0, ;
cos a ø è sin a ÷ø
æ p ö
So coordinates of midpoint of AB are tan + tan a
ç 4 ÷
æ p p ö Þ (y - a sin a ) ç ÷ (a cos a - x)
p
çè , ÷ = ( x1 , y1 )(let ) ; ç 1 - tan tan a ÷
2 cos a 2sin a ø è 4 ø
p p Þ (y - a sin a ) (1 + tan a )
x1 = & y1 = ;
2 cos a 2 sin a = (a cos a - x)(1 - tan a)
Þ cos a = p/2x1 and sin a = p/2y1 ; Þ (y - a sin a ) (cos a +=sin
(aacos
) a - x)(cos a - sin a )
cos2 a + sin2 a = 1
Þ y(cos + sin a ) - a sin a cos a - a sin 2 a
1 1 4
Locus of (x1, y1) is + = . 2
x2 y 2 p 2 = a cos a - a cos a sin a - x(cos a - sin a)
3. (a) Put x = 0 in the given equation Þ y(cos a + sin a ) + x(cos a - sin a ) = a
Þ by2 + 2 fy + c = 0. y (sin a + cos a ) + x(cos a - sin a ) = a.
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Straight Lines & Pair of Straight Lines M-49
6. (a) Equation of bisectors of second pair of æ h -2 + k ö
straight lines is, or çè , ÷ . It lies on 2x + 3y = 1
3 3 ø
qx 2 + 2 xy - qy 2 = 0 ....(1) 2h
It must be identical to the first pair Þ - 2 + k = 1 Þ 2h + 3k = 9
3
x 2 - 2 pxy - y 2 = 0 ....(2) Þ Locus of C is 2x + 3y = 9
from (1) and (2) x y
11. (a) Let the required line be + = 1 ....(1)
q 2 -q a b
= = Þ pq = -1 . then a + b = –1 ....(2)
1 - 2 p -1
4 3
a cos t + b sin t + 1 (1) passes through (4, 3) , Þ + =1
7. (c) x= a b
3
Þ a cos t + b sin t = 3 x - 1 Þ 4b + 3a = ab ....(3)
a sin t - b cos t Eliminating b from (2) and (3), we get
y=
3 a 2 - 4 = 0 Þ a = ±2 Þ b = -3 or 1
Þ a sin t - b cos t = 3 y \ Equations of straight lines are
Squaring and adding, x y x y
+ = 1 or + =1
(3 x - 1) 2 + (3 y ) 2 = a 2 + b 2 2 -3 -2 1
8. (b) Taking co-ordinates as 12. (c) Let the lines be y = m1x and y = m2x then
æx yö 2c 1
ç , ÷; ( x, y ) & ( xr , yr ) . m1 + m2 = - and m1m2 = -
èr rø 7 7
Then slope of line joining Given m1 + m2 = 4 m1m2
æ 1ö 2c 4
y ç1 - ÷ Þ =- Þc=2
æ x yö è rø y 7 7
çè , ÷ø , ( x, y ) = =
13. (a) 3 x + 4 y = 0 is one of the lines of the pair
r r æ 1ö x
x ç1 - ÷
è rø 3
6 x 2 - xy + 4cy 2 = 0 , Put y = - x ,
and slope of line joining (x, y) and (xr, yr) 4
y ( r - 1) y 3 2 æ 3 ö
2
= = we get 6 x 2 + x + 4c ç - x ÷ = 0
x ( r - 1) x 4 è 4 ø
\ m1 = m2 3 9c
Þ Points lie on the straight line. Þ 6+ + = 0 Þ c = -3
4 4
9. (b) ( x - a1 ) 2 + ( y - b1 ) 2 14. (a) The line passing through the intersection
2
= ( x - a2 ) + ( y - b2 ) 2 of lines ax + 2by = 3b = 0 and
(a1 - a2 ) x + (b1 - b2 ) y bx - 2ay - 3a = 0 is
1 ax + 2by + 3b + l (bx – 2ay – 3a) = 0
+ ( a22 + b22 - a12 - b12 ) = 0
2 Þ (a + b l ) x + (2b – 2a l )y + 3b – 3 l a = 0
1 2 As this line is parallel to x-axis.
c= ( a2 + b2 2 - a12 - b12 )
2 \ a + b l = 0 Þ l = – a/b
10. (d) Let the vertex C be (h, k), then the a
centroid of Þ ax + 2by + 3b – (bx – 2ay – 3a) = 0
b
æ 2 - 2 + h -3 + 1 + k ö 2a 2 3a 2
DABC is ç , ÷ø Þ ax + 2by + 3b – ax + y+ =0
è 3 3 b b
EBD_7764
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M-50 Mathematics
æ 17. (c) Clearly for point P,
2a 2 ö 3a 2
y ç 2b + ÷ + 3b + =0
b ø b y
è y = 3x
æ 2b 2 + 2a 2 ö æ 3b2 + 3a 2 ö 2
yç ÷ = -ç ÷ • P(a, a )
è b ø è b ø x
y=
2 2 2
-3(a + b ) -3
y= = O x
2 2 2
2(b + a )
So it is 3/2 units below x-axis.
15. (c) Vertex of triangle is (1, 1) and midpoint of a 1
sides through this vertex is (– 1, 2) and (3, 2) a 2 - 3a < 0 and a 2 - > 0 Þ <a<3
22
18. (a) Given : The vertices of a right angled
A (1, 1) triangle A(l, k), B(1, 1) and C(2, 1) and Area
of DABC = 1 square unit
Y
(-1, 2) (3, 2) A (1, k)
B C
C (2, 1)
B (1, 1)
Þ vertex B and C come out to be (– 3, 3) O X
and (5, 3)
1- 3+ 5 1+ 3+ 5 We know that, area of right angled triangle
\ Centroid is , 1
3 3 1
= × BC × AB = 1 = (1) | (k – 1)|
2 2
æ 7ö
Þ ç1, ÷ Þ ± (k - 1) = 2 Þ k = – 1, 3
è 3ø
19. (c) Given : The coordinates of points P, Q, R
16. (c) y
are (–1, 0), (0, 0), (3,3 3) respectively..
P(0, b)
Y R (3, 3 3 )
A(3, 4)
M
Q(a, 0)
x
O
2p / 3 p/3
X' X
Q A is the mid point of PQ , therefore P (-1, 0) Q (0, 0)
a+0 0+b
= 3, = 4 Þ a = 6, b = 8 Y'
2 2
x y
\ Equation of line is + = 1 y2 - y1 3 3
6 8 Slope of QR = =
or 4x + 3y = 24 x2 - x1 3
p
Þ tan q = 3 Þ q =
3
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Straight Lines & Pair of Straight Lines M-51
Þ ÐRQX = p
a2 - a + 1 1 é 1 2 3ù
3 D= = êë (a - 2 ) + 4 úû
p 2p 2 2
\ ÐRQP = p - =
3 3 1
Let QM bisects the ÐPQR , It is min when a = and Dmin
2
2p 3 3 2
\ Slope of the line QM = tan =– 3 = =
3 4 2 8
\ Equation of line QM is (y – 0) = – 3 (x – 0) 23. (a) If the lines p (p2 + 1) x – y + q = 0
and (p2 + 1)2 x + (p2 + 1) y +2q = 0
Þ y= – 3 x Þ 3 x + y= 0 are perpendicular to a common line then
20. (a) Equation of bisectors of lines, xy = 0 are y = these lines must be parallel to each other,
±x p ( p 2 + 1) ( p 2 + 1) 2
\ m1 = m2 Þ - =-
y -1 p2 + 1
Þ (p2 + 1) ( p + 1 ) = 0
y=x Þ p=–1
y = -x
\ p can have exactly one value.
24. (a) Given that P (1, 0), Q (– 1, 0)
x
(0, 0) AP BP CP 1
and = = =
AQ BQ CQ 3
\ Put y = ± x in the given equation Þ 3AP = AQ
my2 + (1 – m2)xy – mx2 = 0
Let A = (x, y) then
\ mx2 + (1 – m2)x2 – mx2 = 0
3AP = AQ Þ 9 AP2= AQ2
Þ 1 – m2 = 0 Þ m = ± 1
Þ 9 (x – 1)2 + 9y2 = (x + 1)2 + y2
3–4 –1 Þ 9 x2 – 18x + 9 + 9y2 = x2 +2x +1 + y2
21. (d) Slope of PQ = =
k –1 k –1 Þ 8x2 – 20x + 8y2 + 8 = 0
\ Slope of perpendicular bisector of 5
PQ = ( k –1) Þ x2 + y2 – x +1 = 0 ....(1)
3
æ k +1 7ö \ A lies on the circle given by eq (1). As B
Also mid point of PQ ç , .
è 2 2 ÷ø and C also follow the same condition, they
\ Equation of perpendicular bisector is must lie on the same circle.
\ Centre of circumcircle of D ABC
7 æ k + 1ö
y – = (k –1) ç x – ÷ æ5 ö
2 è 2 ø = Centre of circle given by (1) = ç , 0÷
è4 ø
Þ 2y – 7 = 2(k –1) x –(k2 –1)
Þ 2(k – 1)x – 2y + ( 8 – k2) = 0
L3
2 L1
8–k 25. (b)
\ y-intercept = – = –4
–2 0
x= P(–2, –2)
Þ 8 – k2 = –8 or k2 = 16 Þ k = ± 4 y–
22. 2
(d) Let (a , a) be the point of shortest distance R(–1, –2)
on x = y2 O
Then distance between (a2, a) and line (0, 0) 2x
+y Q
x – y + 1 = 0 is given by =0
L2
EBD_7764
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M-52 Mathematics
L1 : y – x = 0
L2 : 2x + y = 0 æ a 2 + 1ö a2 + 1
Þ -ç ÷ > 0 Þ <0
L3 : y + 2 = 0 è a +1 ø a +1
On solving the equation of line L1 and L2
Since a2+ 1 > 0
we get their point of intersection (0, 0) i.e.,
origin O. \ a+1<0
On solving the equation of line L1 and L3, Þ a < –1 .... (6)
we get P = (– 2, – 2).
–1
Similarly, we get Q = (– 1, – 2) From (5) and (6), a Î f
We know that bisector of an angle of a
Hence Case-II is not possible.
triangle, divide the opposite side the
triangle in the ratio of the sides including So, correct answer is a Î[1, ¥)
the angle [Angle Bisector Theorem of a
Triangle] 27. (b) A(2, –3)
PR OP (-2)2 + (-2) 2 2 2
\ = = =
RQ OQ 2
(-1) + (-2) 2 5
26. (b) x+ y = a G
and ax - y = 1 (h, k)
Case I : If a > 0
x+ y = a .... (1) B(–2, 1) C (a, b)
ax - y = 1 .... (2)
On adding equation (1) and (2), we get a = 3h
b - 2 = 3k
x (1 + a ) = 1 + a Þ x = 1
y=a–1 b = 3k + 2
It is in first quadrant
Third vertex (α, β ) lies on the line
so a – 1 ³ 0
2x + 3 y = 9
Þ a ³1
2a + 3b = 9
Þ a Î[1, ¥)
Case II : If a < 0 2 ( 3h) + 3 ( 3k + 2) = 9
x + y = -a .... (3)
2h + 3k = 1
ax - y = 1 .... (4) 2x + 3 y =1
On adding equation (3) and (4), we get 28. (c) Let the joining points be A (1,1) and B (2,4).
x (1 + a) = 1 - a Let point C divides line AB in the ratio 3 :
2.
1- a a -1 So, by section formula we have
x= >0Þ <0
1+ a a +1
æ 3´ 2 + 2´1 3 ´ 4 + 2´1 ö
Since a – 1 < 0 C=ç , ÷
\ a+1>0 è 3+2 3+2 ø
Þ a > –1 .... (5) æ 8 14 ö
=ç , ÷
–1 è5 5 ø
Since Line 2x + y = k passes through
1- a -a - a2 - 1 + a
y = -a - >0 = >0
1+ a 1+ a æ 8 14 ö
Cç , ÷
è5 5 ø
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Straight Lines & Pair of Straight Lines M-53
\ C satisfies the equation 2x + y = k. m 2
2 + 8 14 Let Area = f (m) = 2 - -
Þ + =k Þ k=6 2 m
5 5 -1 2
29. (c) Equation of a line passing through (x1,y1) Now, f ' ( m ) = +
having slope m is given by y – y1 = m (x – 2 m2
x1 ) Put f ¢ (m) = 0
Since the line PQ is passing through (1,2) Þ m2 = 4 Þ m = ± 2
therefore its equation is (y – 2) = m (x – 1) -4
Now, f '' ( m ) =
where m is the slope of the line PQ. m3
Now, point P (x,0) will also satisfy the
1
equation of PQ f '' ( m ) m = 2 = - < 0
\ y –2 = m (x –1) Þ 0 – 2 = m (x – 1) 2
-2 1
f '' ( m ) m = - 2 = > 0
Þ – 2 = m (x – 1) Þ x – 1 = 2
m
Area will be least at m = –2
-2 Hence, slope of PQ is –2.
Þ x= +1
m
30. (b) Suppose B(0, 1) be any point on given line
Also, OP = ( x - 0 ) 2 + ( 0 - 0 )2 = x
and co-ordinate of A is ( 3, 0). So,
-2
= +1 equation of
m
Similarly, point Q (0,y) will satisfy equation (0, –1)
of PQ B
\ y –2 = m (x– 1)
Þ y – 2 = m (–1)
Þ y = 2 – m and OQ = y = 2 – m
1 A 3, 0
Area of DPOQ = ( OP )( OQ )
2
1æ 2ö
= ç 1 - ÷ ( 2 - m) B' (0, –1)
2è mø
-1 - 0 y -0
1 Reflected Ray is =
(Q Area of D = ´ base ´ height ) 0- 3 x- 3
2
1é 4 ù
Þ 3y = x - 3
= 2 - m - + 2ú
2 êë m û 31. (b) From the figure, we have
1é æ 4 öù a = 2, b = 2 2, c = 2
= 4 - ç m + ÷ú
2 êë è m øû x1 = 0, x2 = 0, x3 = 2
m 2
=2- -
2 m
Q
(1,2)
P
O
EBD_7764
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M-54 Mathematics
Now, x-co-ordinate of incentre is given as The point of intersection will be
ax1 + bx2 + cx3 x -y 1
= =
a+b+c 2 ad - 2bc 4ad - 5bc 8ab - 10ab
Þ x-coordinate of incentre 2(ad - bc) bc - ad
Þ x= =
2 ´ 0 + 2 2.0 + 2.2 -2ab ab
=
2+ 2+ 2 2 5bc - 4ad 4 ad - 5bc
Þ y= =
2 -2ab 2 ab
= = 2- 2 Q Point of intersection is in fourth quadrant
2+ 2 so x is positive and y is negative.
Also distance from axes is same
32. (d) Let P, Q, R, be the vertices of DPQR So x = – y (Q distance from x-axis is –y as
y is negative)
P (2, 2)
bc - ad 5bc - 4ad
= Þ 3bc – 2ad = 0
ab 2ab
5=0
+m=
Since PS is the median
S is mid-point of QR O (–1,–2)
–
7x – y
7x – y
æ 7 + 6 3 - 1ö æ 13 ö
So, S = ç , ÷ = ç ,1÷
è 2 2 ø è2 ø
A x–y +l =0 B
2 -1 2
Now, slope of PS = =- Let other two sides of rhombus are
13 9
2-
2 x–y+l=0
Since, required line is parallel to PS and 7x –y + m = 0
therefore then O is equidistant from AB and DC and
from AD and BC
slope of required line = slope of PS
Now, eqn of line passing through (1, –1) \ -1 + 2 + 1 = -1 + 2 +l Þl= – 3
2
and having slope - is and -7 + 2 - 5 = -7 + 2 +m Þm= 15
9
\ Other two sides are x – y – 3 = 0 and 7x – y +
2
y - (-1) = - ( x - 1) 15 = 0
9 On solving the eqns of sides pairwise, we get
9y + 9 = –2x + 2 Þ 2x + 9y + 7 = 0 the vertices as
33. (a) Given lines are æ 1 -8 ö æ -7 -4 ö
4ax + 2ay + c = 0 ç , ÷
ç ÷ , (1, 2), ç
ç , ÷ ÷ , (-3, -6)
è3 3 ø è3 3ø
5bx + 2by + d = 0
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Conic Sections 11
1. If the chord y = mx + 1 of the circle x2+y2=1
6. If the two circles ( x - 1) 2 + ( y - 3) 2 = r 2 and
subtends an angle of measure 45° at the major
segment of the circle then value of m is x 2 + y 2 - 8 x + 2 y + 8 = 0 intersect in two
[2002]
distinct point, then [2003]
(a) 2 ± 2 (b) –2 ± 2 (a) r > 2 (b) 2 < r < 8
(c) r < 2 (d) r = 2.
(c) –1 ± 2 (d) none of these
7. The lines 2 x - 3 y = 5 and 3x - 4 y = 7 are
2. The centres of a set of circles, each of radius 3,
diameters of a circle having area as 154
lie on the circle x2+y2=25. The locus of any point
sq.units.Then the equation of the circle is
in the set is [2002]
[2003]
(a) 4 £ x2 + y2 £ 64 (b) x2 + y2 £ 25
(a) x 2 + y 2 - 2 x + 2 y = 62
4 4 (a) 4( 2 +1 ) (b) 2 ( 2 +1 )
(c) (d)
2( 2 - 1) 4( 2 - 1)
3 3
(c) (d)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (b) (d) (b) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(a) (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (d) (a)
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(c) (a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c)
61
(None)
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Conic Sections M-61
-2 ± 2 2
= = -1 ± 2 . Given AD = 3a.
2
2. (a) For any point P (x, y) in the given circle, In D ABD, AB2 = AD2 + BD2 ;
Þ x2 = 9a2 + (x2/4) where AB = BC = AC
Y = x.
B
3 2
P x = 9a2 Þ x2 = 12a2.
A C 4
X In D OBD, OB2 = OD2 + BD2
O
x2
Þ r2 = (3a – r)2 +
we should have 4
OA £ OP £ OB Þ r2 = 9a2 – 6ar + r2 + 3a2 ; Þ 6ar = 12a2
Þ r = 2a
Þ (5 - 3) £ x 2 + y 2 £ 5 + 3 So equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 4a2
Þ 4 £ x 2 + y 2 £ 64 5. (b) Any tangent to the parabola y2 = 8ax is
3. (b) Let the required circle be 2a
y = mx+ ...(i)
x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 m
Since it passes through (0, 0) and (1, 0) If (i) is a tangent to the circle, x2 + y2 = 2a2
1 2a
Þ c = 0 and g = - then, 2a = ±
2
m m2 + 1
Points (0, 0) and (1, 0) lie inside the circle x2
+ y2 = 9, so two circles touch internally Þ m2(1 + m2) = 2 Þ ( m2 + 2)(m2 – 1) = 0
Þ c1c2 = r1 – r2 Þ m = ± 1.
So from (i), y = ± (x + 2a).
3 6. (b) r1 - r2 < C1C2 for intersection
\ g 2 + f 2 = 3 - g 2 + f 2 Þ g2 + f 2 =
2
Þ r -3< 5Þ r <8 ...(1)
EBD_7764
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M-62 Mathematics
and r1 + r2 > C1C2 , r + 3 > 5 Þ r > 2 ...(2) 10. (b) Let the variable circle is
From (1) and (2), 2 < r < 8. x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy + c = 0 ......(1)
(bt 2
2 , 2bt 2 ) then \ p 2 + q 2 + 2 gp + 2 fq + c = 0 ....(2)
Circle (1) touches x-axis,
2bt2 = – t1 bt22 + 2 bt1 + bt13
\ g 2 - c = 0 Þ c = g 2 . From (2)
(
2t2 – 2t1 = – t1 t22 – t12 ) p 2 + q 2 + 2 gp + 2 fq + g 2 = 0 ....(3)
= –t1(t2 + t1) (t2 – t1)
Let the other end of diameter through (p,
2 q) be (h, k), then
Þ 2 = – t1(t2 + t1) Þ t2 + t1 = – t
1
h+ p k+q
= - g and =-f
2 2 2
Þ t2 = – t1 –
t1 Put in (3)
2
x2 y2 æ h + pö æ k + qö æ h + pö
9. (d) - =
1 p2 + q 2 + 2 p ç - ÷ + 2q ç - ÷ +ç ÷ =0
è 2 ø è 2 ø è 2 ø
144 81 25
144 81 81 15 5
a= ,b = , e = 1+ = = Þ h2 + p 2 - 2hp - 4kq = 0
25 25 144 12 4
\ locus of (h, k)
\ Foci = ( ±3 , 0)
\ foci of ellipse = foci of hyperbola is x 2 + p2 - 2 xp - 4 yq = 0
\ for ellipse ae = 3 but a = 4,
Þ ( x - p )2 = 4qy
3
\ e= 12. (d) Two diameters are along
4
2 x + 3 y + 1 = 0 and 3x - y - 4 = 0
Then b 2 = a 2 (1 - e 2 )
solving we get centre (1, –1)
Þ b 2 = 16æç1 - 9 ö÷ = 7 circumference = 2pr = 10p
è 16 ø \ r = 5.
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Conic Sections M-63
\ The two equations should represent
Required circle is, ( x - 1)2 + ( y + 1)2 = 52
the same line
Þ x 2 + y 2 - 2 x + 2 y - 23 = 0 a c - d a +1
Þ = = Þ a + 1 = -a 2
13. (d) Solving y = x and the circle 1 b -a
x 2 + y 2 - 2 x = 0, we get a2 + a + 1 = 0
No real value of a.
x = 0, y = 0 and x = 1, y = 1 17. (d) Equation of circle with centre (0, 3) and
\ Extremities of diameter of the required
radius 2 is x 2 + ( y - 3)2 = 4
circle are (0, 0) and (1, 1). Hence, the
equation of circle is Let locus of the variable circle is (a , b )
( x - 0)( x - 1) + ( y - 0)( y - 1) = 0 Q It touches x - axis.
\ It¢s equation is
Þ x2 + y 2 - x - y = 0
( x - a )2 + ( y + b)2 = b 2
14. (d) Solving equations of parabolas
y 2 = 4ax and x 2 = 4ay
we get (0, 0) and ( 4a, 4a)
Substituting in the given equation of line c1
r1
2bx + 3cy + 4d = 0,
r2 c2
we get d = 0 and 2b +3c = 0 (a , b )
Þ d 2 + (2b + 3c )2 = 0
1 a
15. (b) e = . Directrix , x = = 4
2 e
Circle touch externally Þ c1c2 = r1 + r2
1
\a = 4´ = 2
2 \ a 2 + (b - 3) 2 = 2 + b
1
\b = 2 1- = 3 a 2 + (b - 3) 2 = b 2 + 4 + 4b
4
Equation of ellipse is Þ a 2 = 10(b - 1 / 2)
x2 y 2
\ Locus is x 2 = 10 æç y - ö÷
1
+ = 1 Þ 3x 2 + 4 y 2 = 12
4 3 è 2ø
16. (b) s1 = x 2 + y 2 + 2ax + cy + a = 0 Which is parabola.
18. (d) Let the centre be (a, b)
s2 = x 2 + y 2 - 3ax + dy - 1 = 0
2 2 2
Equation of common chord of circles Q It cuts the circle x + y = p
s1 and s2 is given by s1 - s2 = 0 orthogonally
Þ 5ax + (c - d ) y + a + 1 = 0 \ Using 2 g1 g2 + 2 f1 f 2 = c1 + c2 ,
we get
Given that 5x + by – a = 0 passes through
P and Q 2(-a ) ´ 0 + 2(- b) ´ 0 = c1 - p2
EBD_7764
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M-64 Mathematics
c1 = p 2 h +1 k+0
a= , b=
Let equation of circle is 2 2
2 a -1 = h 2 b = k.
x 2 + y 2 - 2ax - 2by + p 2 = 0
It passes through (2b) 2 = 8(2a - 1) Þ b 2 = 4a - 2
y = mx ± a 2 m2 - b2
q Given that y = a x + b is the tangent of
3q hyperbola
19. (d)
Þ m = a and a 2 m2 - b2 = b 2
\ a 2a 2 - b 2 = b 2
As per question area of one sector = 3
area of another sector Locus is a 2 x 2 - y 2 = b2 which is
Þ angle at centre by one sector hyperbola.
= 3 ´ angle at centre by another sector 22. (a) Q ÐFBF ' = 90° Þ FB 2 + F ' B 2 = FF ' 2
Let one angle be q then other = 3q
Clearly q + 3q = 180 Þ q = 45o
( ) ( )
2 2
\ Angle between the diameters repre- \ a 2e2 + b2 + a 2e 2 + b2 = (2ae) 2
sented by combined equation
b2
ax 2 + 2 ( a + b ) xy + by 2 = 0 is 45o 2
Þ 2(a 2 e 2 + b2 ) = 4a 2 e 2 Þ e = 2
a
B (0, b)
2 h2 - ab
\ Using tan q =
a+b
F' (-ae, 0) O F (ae, 0)
we get tan 45o =
2 ( a + b) 2 - ab
a+b
2 a 2 + b2 + ab Also e 2 = 1 - b 2 / a 2 = 1 - e2
Þ1=
a+b
1
Þ 2e 2 = 1, e = .
2
(
Þ ( a + b) = 4 a + b + ab
2 2
) 2
23. (d) Point of intersection of 3 x - 4 y - 7 = 0
Þ a 2 + b 2 + 2 ab = 4a 2 + 4b 2 + 4ab and 2 x - 3 y - 5 = 0 is (1, - 1) which is
2 2
Þ 3a + 3b + 2 ab = 0 the centre of the circle and radius = 7
O (0, 0)
3
p/3 (h, k)
A M(h, k) B
(-1,1)
X' X
p p 3
\ ÐAOM = . Also OM = 3cos =
3 3 2
3 9
Þ h2 + k 2 = Þ h2 + k 2 = (radius of circle = k because circle is tangent
2 4
to x-axis)
2 2 9 Equation of circle passing through (–1, +1)
\ Locus of (h, k) is x + y =
4 \ (–1 –h)2 + (1 – k)2 = k2
Þ 1 + h2 + 2h + 1 + k2 – 2k = k2
a3 x 2 a 2 x Þ h2 + 2h – 2k + 2 = 0
25. (a) Given parabola is y = + - 2a
3 2 D³0
\ (2)2 – 4 × 1.(–2k + 2) ³ 0
a3 æ 3 3 9 ö 3a
Þy= çè x + 2a x + ÷- - 2a Þ 4 – 4(–2k + 2) ³ 0 Þ 1 + 2k – 2 ³ 0
3 16a 2 ø 16
1
3 2
Þ k³
35a a æ 3ö 2
Þy+ = çx+ ÷
16 3 è 4a ø 28. (b) Given, equation of hyperbola is
æ -3 -35a ö x2 y2
\ Vertex of parabola is çè , ÷ -
=1
4a 16 ø cos 2 a sin 2 a
To find locus of this vertex, We know that the equation of hyperbola is
-3 -35a x2 y2
x= and y = - = 1 Here, a 2 = cos 2 a and
4a 16 a 2
b 2
-3 16 y
Þ a= and a = - b 2 = sin 2 a
4x 35
We know that, b 2 = a 2 (e2 - 1)
-3 -16 y
Þ = Þ 64xy = 105
4x 35 Þ sin 2 a = cos 2 a (e 2 - 1)
105 Þ sin 2 a + cos2 a = cos 2 a.e2
Þ xy = which is the required locus.
64
Þ e 2 = 1 + tan 2 a = sec 2 a
26. (a) 2ae = 6 Þ ae = 3 ; 2b = 8 Þ b = 4 Þ e = sec a
2 2 2
b 2 = a 2 (1 - e 2 ) ; 16 = a - a e 1
\ ae = cos a . =1
cos a
Þ a 2 = 16 + 9 = 25 Þ a = 5
EBD_7764
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M-66 Mathematics
Co-ordinates of foci are (± ae, 0)
Y
i.e. ( ± 1, 0)
Hence, abscissae of foci remain constant æa ö
çè - ae÷ø
when a varies. e
29. (b) Parabola y2 = 8x X´ X
O S
(ae, 0)
Y y 2 = 8x
Y´ x= a/e
(2,0) 8
X' X Þa =
F 3
x+2=0
Q B (0,1) P (2, 1) x
O
A
O (2,0) (4,0)
R S
3 2
So shortest distance between them is
8
Then it passed through P (2,1 )
4 1 x2 y2
\ + = 1 ....(A) 39. (d) Let the ellipse be =1 +
2
a 2
b2 a b2
Also, given that, it passes through (4, 0) It passes through (– 3, 1) so
16 9 1
\ 2 + 0 = 1 Þ a 2 = 16 2
+ 2 = 1 ..(i)
a a b
Þ b2 = 4/3 [substituting a2 = 16 in eqn (A)] Also, b 2 = a 2 (1 - 2 / 5)
Þ 5b2 = 3a 2 ...(ii)
x2 y2
\ The required ellipse is + =1 32 32
16 4 / 3 Solving (i) and (ii) we get a2 = , b2 =
or x2 + 12y2 =16 3 5
So, the equation of the ellipse is
35. (a) Circle x 2 + y 2 - 4 x - 8 y - 5 = 0
Centre = (2, 4), Radius =
3x 2 + 5 y 2 = 32
4 + 16 + 5 = 5 40. (b) Circle whose diametric end points are (1,0)
If circle is intersecting line 3 x - 4 y = m, at and (0,1) will be of smallest radius. Equation
two distinct points. of this smallest circle is
Þ length of perpendicular from centre to (x – 1) (x – 0) + (y – 0) (y – 1) = 0
the line < radius Þ x2 + y2 – x – y = 0
41. (b) ae = 2
6 - 16 - m
Þ < 5 Þ 10 + m < 25 e=2
5 \ a =1
Þ –25 < m + 10 < 25 Þ – 35 < m < 15
36. (b) The locus of perpendicular tangents is (
b 2 = a 2 e2 - 1)
directrix i.e., x = - a; x = -1 b = 1( 4 - 1)
2
1 7
yy1 = (x + x1) Þ e=
2 4
1 Now, radius of this circle = a2 = 16
Þ 2y = (x + 2) Þ 4y = x + 2
2 Þ Focii = (± 7, 0)
x 1 Now equation of circle is (x – 0)2 + (y – 3)2
Þy= + = 16
4 2
x2 + y2 – 6y – 7 = 0
1
So, slope of tangent = 48. (b) Let common tangent be
4
\ Slope of normal = – 4 5
y = mx +
46. (c) Since circle touches x-axis at (3, 0) m
\ the equation of circle be Since, perpendicular distance from centre
(x – 3)2 + (y – 0)2 + ly = 0 of the circle to the common tangent is equal
to radius of the circle, therefore
5
m 5
=
1+ m 2 2
A (3, 0) On squaring both the side, we get
m2 (1 + m2) = 2
Þ m4 + m2 – 2 = 0
A
(1, –2) Þ (m2 + 2)(m2 – 1) = 0
Þ m= ±1 (Q m ¹ ± 2 )
9 y = mx ± a 2 m2 + b2 ...(i)
a = 4, b = 3, e = 1 -
16 where m is slope of the tangent
So, equation of perpendicular line drawn
from centre to tangent is
-x
y= ...(ii)
m
Eliminating m, we get
( x4 + y 4 + 2 x2 y 2 ) = a 2 x2 + b2 y 2
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M-70 Mathematics
ALTERNATIVE METHOD:
Þ ( x 2 + y 2 )2 = a 2 x 2 + b2 y 2
1
Let tangent to y2 = 4x be y = mx +
Þ ( x2 + y 2 )2 = 6 x2 + 2 y 2 m
Since this is also tangent to x2 = – 32y
50. (b) æ 1ö
C \ x 2 = -32 ç mx + ÷
è mø
(0, y) (1, 1) 32
Þ x2 + 32mx + =0
T m
Now, D = 0
æ 32 ö
Equation of circle (32) 2 - 4 ç ÷ = 0
è mø
C º ( x - 1)2 + ( y - 1)2 = 1 4 1
3
Radius of T = | y | Þm = Þ m=
32 2
T touches C externally therefore,
52. (b) Let P(h, k) divides
Distance between the centres = sum of their
radii OQ in the ratio 1 : 3
Let any point Q on x2 = 8y is (4t, 2t2).
Þ (0 - 1)2 + ( y - 1)2 = 1+ | y |
Þ (0 – 1)2 + (y –1)2 = (1 + |y|)2
Q (4t, 2t2)
Þ 1 + y2 + 1 – 2y = 1 + y2 + 2| y | P3
1
2 | y | = 1 – 2y
O
1
If y > 0 then 2y = 1 – 2y Þ y =
4
If y < 0 then –2y = 1 – 2y Þ 0 = 1
(not possible)
Then by section formula
1
\ y=
4 t2
51. (c) Given parabolas are Þ k= and h = t
2
y2 = 4x ...(i)
2
x = –32y ...(ii) Þ 2k = h 2
Let m be slope of common tangent Required locus of P is x2 = 2y
Equation of tangent of parabola (1) 53. (a) x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 ...(i)
1 Centre, C1 = (2, 3)
y = mx + ...(i)
m Radius, r1 = 5 units
Equation of tangent of parabola (2) x2 + y2 + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0 ...(ii)
y = mx + 8m2 ...(ii) Centre, C2 = (–3, –9)
(i) and (ii) are identical
Radius, r2 = 8 units
1 1 1
Þ = 8m 2 Þ m3 = Þ m =
m 8 2 C1C2 = (2 + 3)2 + (3 + 9)2 = 13 units
r1 + r2 = 5 + 8 = 13
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Conic Sections M-71
\ C1 C2 = r1 + r2 By symmetry area of quadrilateral
27
= 4 × (Area DOAB) = 4 ´ = 27 sq. units.
4
55. (a) Intersection point of 2x – 3y + 4 = 0 and x – 2y
C1 + 3 = 0 is (1, 2)
C2 A(2, 3)
x 2
y 2 æ b 2ö
+ = 1 in first quadrant is ç ae, ÷
2 2 è aø B(a, b)
a b
and the tangent at this point intersects x-axis at
Since, P is the fixed point for given family of
æa ö lines
çè , 0÷ø and y-axis at (0, a).
e So, PB = PA
(a – 1)2 + (b – 2)2 = (2 – 1)2 + (3 – 2)2
x2 y 2
The given ellipse is + =1
9 5 (a – 1)2 + (b –2)2 = 1 + 1 = 2
Then a2 = 9, b2 = 5
(x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = ( 2) 2
5 2 (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 = r2
Þ e = 1– =
9 3
Therefore, given locus is a circle with centre (1,
\ end point of latus rectum in first quadrant is
2) and radius 2.
L (2, 5/3) 56. (b)
2x y
Equation of tangent at L is + =1
9 3
It meets x-axis at A (9/2, 0) and y-axis at B (0, 3) C(4, 4)
1 9 27
\ Area of DOAB = ´ ´3= 6
2 2 4
k
Y P(h, k)
B
(0, 3) k
X' X
L(2,5/3)
For the given circle,
C O S A X centre : (4, 4)
(9/2, 0) radius = 6
2
6+ k = (h - 4) + (k - 4) 2
D
(h – 4)2 = 20k + 20
EBD_7764
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M-72 Mathematics
\ locus of (h, k) is Centre of new circle = P(2t2, 4t)
(x – 4)2 = 20(y + 1), = P(2, – 4)
which is a parabola.
Radius = PC = (2 – 0) 2 + (–4 + 6)2
2b 2 1
57. (a) =8 and 2b = (2ae)
a 2 =2 2
\ Equation of circle is :
Þ 4b2 = a 2 e2 Þ 4a 2 (e 2 - 1) = a 2 e 2
2
2
(x –2)2 + (y + 4) = 2 2 ( )
Þ 3e2 = 4 Þ e =
3 Þ x2 + y2 – 4x + 8y + 12 = 0
x2 y2
60. (c) Equation of hyperbola is - =1
58. (d) S a2 b2
(–3, 2)
O foci is (±2, 0) Þ ae = 2 Þ a2e2 = 4
Since b2 = a2 (e2 – 1)
b2 = a2 e2 – a2 \ a2 + b2 = 4 ...(1)
5 2
5
B A Hyperbola passes through ( 2, 3 )
(2, –3)
2 3
\ - =1 ...(2)
2
a b2
Centre of S : O (–3, 2) centre of given circle
2 -3
A(2, –3) =1
4 - b b2 2
Þ OA = 5 2
Þ b4 + b2 – 12 = 0
Also AB = 5 (Q AB = r of the given circle)
Þ (b2 – 3) (b2 + 4) = 0
Þ Using pythagoras theorem in DOAB
Þ b2 = 3
r=5 3 b2 = – 4 (Not possible)
59. (c) Minimum distance Þ perpendicular distance For b2 = 3
Eqn of normal at p111(2t2, 4t)
y = –tx + 4t + 2t3 2 2
It passes through C(0, –6) Þ a2 = 1 \ x - y = 1
1 3
Þ t3 + 2t + 3 = 0 Þ t = – 1
2x 3y
Equation of tangent is - =1
1 3
k2
Þ 1y2 – y(2k + 1) + + 4= 0
2
It will give equal roots \ D = 0
0
æ k2 ö
Þ (2k + 1)2 = 4 ç + 4 ÷
è 2 ø
Þ 2k2 + 4k – 15 = 0
-2 + 34
Þ k=
0-k 2
Þ =r
2 k -2 + 34
\ r= =
Þ k= r 2 2 2 2
\ Equation of circle becomes Which is not matching with any of the option
given here.1
k2
x2 + (y – k)2 = ...(i)
2
EBD_7764
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M-74 Mathematics
(a) e4 (b) e2 1 2
(c) - (d)
3 3
(c) e3 (d) 1
é æ xö ù
3. Let f (x) = 4 and f ¢ (x) = 4. Then ê1 - tan çè 2 ÷ø ú [1 - sin x]
ë û
8. lim is [2003]
xf (2) - 2 f ( x) x®
p é æ ö
x ù 3
lim is given by [2002] 2 ê1 + tan çè ÷ø ú [ p - 2 x ]
x®2 x-2 ë 2 û
1
(a) 2 (b) –2 (a) ¥ (b)
8
(c) – 4 (d) 3
1
(c) 0 (d)
1 p + 2 p + 3 p + ..... + n p 32
4. lim is [2002]
n ®¥ n p +1 2x
lim æ a b ö = e2 , then the values of
9. If x®¥ çç1+ + ÷÷
1 1 è x x2 ø
(a) (b)
p +1 1- p a and b, are [2004]
1 1 1 (a) a = 1 and b = 2 (b) a = 1, b Î R
(c) - (d)
p p -1 p+2 (c) a Î R, b = 2 (d) a Î R, b Î R
10. Let a and b be the distinct roots of
log x n - [ x]
5. lim , n Î N , ([x] denotes greatest 2
[ x]
ax 2 + bx + c = 0 , then lim 1 - cos(ax + bx + c )
x ®0
2
integer less than or equal to x) [2002] x®a ( x - a)
(a) has value -1 (b) has value 0 is equal to [2005]
(c) has value 1 (d) does not exist a2
(a) (a - b ) 2 (b) 0
2
f ( x) - 1
6. If f (1) = 1, f ¢(1) = 2, then lim is -a 2 1
x ®1 x -1 (c) (a - b ) 2 (d) (a - b) 2
2 2
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Limits and Derivatives M-75
11. Let f : R ® R be a positive increasing function (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
f (3x ) f (2 x)
with lim = 1 then lim = (1 - cos 2 x )(3 + cos x )
x ®¥ f ( x) x ®¥ f ( x) 14. lim is equal to [2013]
x®0 x tan 4 x
[2010]
1 1
2 3 (a) - (b)
(a) (b) 4 2
3 2
(c) 1 (d) 2
(c) 3 (d) 1
( f ( x ) )2 - 9 = 0 1 1
and lim [2011RS] (a)
4
(b)
24
x® 5 x -5
1 1
Then lim
x® 5
f(x) equals : (c) (d)
16 8
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (a) (c) (a) (d) (a) (d) (d) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b)
16
(c)
1. (d) x
æ x 2 + 5 x + 3ö
2. (a) lim ç 2 ÷
1 - cos 2 x 1 - (1 - 2 sin 2 x) x ®¥ è x + x + 2 ø
lim Þ lim ;
2x 2x
x
æ 4x +1 ö
= lim ç1 + 2 ÷
2 sin 2 x | sin x | x ®¥ è x + x + 2ø
lim Þ lim
x®0 2x x®0 x ( 4 x +1) x
é x2 + x + 2 ù x2 + x + 2
The limit of above does not exist as êæ 4 x + 1 ö 4 x+1 ú
LHS = –1 ¹ RHL = 1 = lim êç1 + 2 ÷ ú
x ®¥ ê è x + x + 2ø ú
ëê ûú
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M-76 Mathematics
4x2 + x æ yö
tan ç - ÷ .(1 - cos y )
lim é 1
lù è 2ø
êQ lim (1 + lx ) x = e ú
2
= e x®¥ x + x+ 2 = lim
ë x®¥ û y®0 ( -2 y )3
y y
4+
1 - tan 2sin 2
x = lim 2 2
lim
x ®¥ 1+ 1 + 2 y®0 y3
x =ex 2 4 (-8). .8
=e 8
3. (c) Apply L H Rule
xf (2) - 2 f ( x ) æ 0ö y
We have, lim çè ÷ø tan é 2
x®2 x-2 0 1 2 sin y / 2 ù 1
= lim .ê ú =
y ®0 32 æ ö ë y / 2 û
y 32
ç ÷
= lim f (2) - 2 f ¢( x ) = f (2) - 2 f ¢ (2) è2ø
x® 2
1
= 4 – 2 ´ 4 = –4. 9. (b) We know that lim (1 + x ) x = e
x ®¥
1p + 2 p + .... + n p
4. (a) We have lim ; 2x
n® ¥ n p+1 æ a bö
\ lim ç1 + + ÷ = e2
1 1 x ®¥ è x x2 ø
n
rp é x p +1 ù 1
lim å
n ®¥ r =1 n p × n
= ò x p
dx = ê
p + 1
ú =
p +1 æa b ö
0 ëê ûú0 é æ 1 öù
2xç + ÷
è x x2 ø
êæ a b ö ç a + b ÷ ú
5. (d) Since lim [ x ] does not exist, hence the Þ lim ê ç1 + + ÷ çè x 2 ÷ø ú = e2
x ®0 x®¥ è x x2 ø x
ê ú
ë û
required limit does not exist.
é bù
æ0ö
f ( x) - 1 lim 2 ê a + ú 2a 2
6. (a) lim ç ÷ form using L’’ Þ e x®¥ ë xû
= e2 Þ e = e
x ®1 x -1 è0ø
1
f ¢ ( x) Þ a = 1 and b Î R
2 f ( x)
Hospital’s rule = lim
x ®1 1/ 2 x
2x
lim æ a bö
f ¢ (1) 2 x ®¥ ç 1 + + = e2
= = =2. è x x 2 ÷ø
f (1) 1 lim æ a b ö
x ®¥ ç 1+ + 2 -1÷ 2 x
log(3 + x) - log(3 - x) Þe è x x ø = e2
7. (d) lim =k
x ®0 x
æ 2b ö
(by L 'Hospital rule) Þlim
x®¥ ç 2a + ÷=2
è xø
1 -1
- Þ 2a + 0 = 2, b Î R Þ a = 1, b Î R
Þ lim 3 + x 3 -x =k \2 = k 10. (a) Given limit =
x ®0 1 3
1 - cos a ( x - a )( x - b )
lim
æ p xö x ®a ( x - a )2
tan ç - ÷ .(1 - sin x )
è 4 2ø
8. (d) lim
p ( p - 2 x )3 æ ( x - a )( x - b) ö
x® 2sin 2 ç a ÷ø
2 è 2
= lim
p x® a ( x - a )2
Let x = + y; y ® 0
2
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Limits and Derivatives M-77
= (1 - cos 2 x ) (3 + cos x) x
lim ·
æ ( x - a ) ( x - b) ö x®0 x 2 1 tan 4 x
sin 2 ç a ÷ø
2 è 2
lim ´ 2sin 2 x 3 + cos x x
x ® a ( x - a)2 a 2 ( x - a ) 2 ( x - b) 2 = lim 2
· ·
x®0 x 1 tan 4x
4
sin 2 x x
a 2 ( x - a )2 ( x - b)2 = 2 lim · lim 3 + cos x · lim
´ x®0 x 2 x®0 x ®0 tan 4 x
4
a 2 (a - b)2 1 4x 1
= . = 2.4 lim = 2.4. = 2
2 4 x®0 tan 4 x 4
Mathematical Reasoning 13
DIRECTIONS: Given below question contains Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
two statements: Statement-1(Assertion) and Statement-1.
Statement-2(Reason). This question also has (b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
four alternative choices, only one of which is (c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
the correct answer. You have to select the correct
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true,
choice.
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
1. Let p be the statement “x is an irrational number”,
statement -1
q be the statement “y is a transcendental number”,
and r be the statement “ x is a rational number iff 4. Let S be a non-empty subset of R. Consider the
y is a transcendental number”. [2008] following statement :
Statement-1 : r is equivalent to either q or p P : There is a rational number x Î S such that
Statement-2 : r is equivalent to ~(p«~q). x > 0.
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true Which of the following statements is the
negation of the statement P ? [2010]
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for (a) There is no rational number x Î S such than x < 0.
Statement-1 (b) Every rational number x Î S satisfies x < 0.
(c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; (c) x Î S and x < 0 Þ x is not rational.
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation (d) There is a rational number x Î S such that x < 0.
for Statement-1 5. Consider the following statements [2011]
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false P : Suman is brilliant
2. The statement p ® (q®p) is equivalent to Q : Suman is rich
[2008] R : Suman is honest
(a) p ® (p® q) (b) p ® (p Ú q) The negation of the statement “Suman is
(c) p ® (p Ù q) (d) p ® (p «q) brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is
rich” can be expressed as
DIRECTIONS: Given below question contains two
statements: Statement-1(Assertion) and Statement (a) ~ (Q « ( P Ù ~ R))
2(Reason). This question also has four alternative (b) ~ Q «~ P Ù R
choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You (c) ~ ( P Ù ~ R) « Q
have to select the correct choice.
(d) ~ P Ù (Q «~ R )
3. Statement-1 : ~ ( p «~ q) is equivalent to
6. The only statement among the following that is
p «q.
a tautology is [2011RS]
Statement-2 : ~ ( p «~ q) is a tantology (a) A Ù (A Ú B)
[2009]
(b) A Ú (A Ù B)
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
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Mathematical Reasoning M-79
(c) [A Ù (A ® B)] ® B 9. The statement : ( p « : q ) is: [2014]
(d) B ® [A Ù (A ® B)] (a) a tautology
7. The negation of the statement
(b) a fallacy
"If I become a teacher, then I will open a school",
is : [2012] (c) equavalent to p « q
(a) I will become a teacher and I will not open (d) equivalent to : p « q
a school.
(b) Either I will not become a teacher or I will 10. The negation of ~ s Ú (~ r Ù s) is equivalent to :
not open a school. [2015]
(c) Neither I will become a teacher nor I will
open a school. (a) s Ú (r Ú ~ s) (b) sÙ r
(d) I will not become a teacher or I will open a (c) s Ù ~ r (d) s Ù (r Ù ~ s)
school.
11. The Boolean Expression
8. Consider
Statement-1 : (p ^ ~ q) ^ (~ p ^ q) is a fallacy. (p Ù : q) Ú qÚ (: p Ù q) is equivalent to:
Statement-2 : (p ® q) « (~ q ® ~ p) is a [2016]
tautology. [2013] (a) p Ú q (b) p Ú : q
(a) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is true; (c) : p Ù q (d) p Ù q
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
12. The following statement [2017]
Statement-1.
(p ® q) ® [(~p ® q) ® q] is :
(b) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is true;
(a) a fallacy
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(b) a tautology
Statement-1.
(c) equivalent to ~ p ® q
(c) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-1 is false; Statement-2 is true. (d) equivalent to p ® ~q
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
(None) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b)
\ It is tautology.
7. (a) Let p : I become a teacher. Clearly equivalent to p « q
q : I will open a school
Negation of p ® q is ~ (p ® q) = p ^ ~q 10. (b) :[:sÚ(:r Ù s)]
i.e. I will become a teacher and I will not = sÙ:(:r Ù s)
open a school. = sÙ(r Ú:s)
8. (b) Statement-2 : (p ® q) « (~q ® ~p) = (s Ù r) Ú (s Ù: s)
º (p ® q) « (p ® q) = (s Ù r) Ú 0
which is always true. =sÙr
So statement 2 is true
Statement-1: (p ^ ~q) ^ (~p ^ q) 11. (a) (pÙ : q) Ú q Ú (: p Ù q)
= p ^ ~q ^ ~p ^ q
= p ^ ~p ^ ~q ^ q 40. (1) (pÙ : q) Ú q Ú (: p Ù q)
= f^f=f Þ {(p Ú q) Ù (: q Ú q)} Ú (: p Ù q)
So statement-1 is true
Þ {(p Ú q) Ù T} Ú (: p Ù q)
9. (c) p q ~q p « ~ q ~ ( p « ~ q) Þ (p Ú q) Ú (: p Ù q)
F F T F T Þ {(p Ú q) Ú : p} Ù (p Ú q Ú q)
F T F T F Þ TÙ (p Ú q)
T F T T F Þ pÚq
T T F F T
Statistics 14
1. In a class of 100 students there are 70 boys whose 6. If in a frequency distribution, the mean and
average marks in a subject are 75. If the average
median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its mode
marks of the complete class is 72, then what is
is approximately [2005]
the average of the girls? [2002]
(a) 22.0 (b) 20.5
(a) 73 (b) 65
(c) 25.5 (d) 24.0
(c) 68 (d) 74
2. The median of a set of 9 distinct observations 7. Let x1 , x 2 , .............. xn be n observations such
is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of
that å xi = 400 and å xi = 80. Then the
2
the set is increased by 2, then the median of the
new set [2003] possible value of n among the following is
(a) remains the same as that of the original set [2005]
(b) is increased by 2 (a) 15 (b) 18
(c) is decreased by 2 (c) 9 (d) 12
(d) is two times the original median. 8. Suppose a population A has 100 observations
3. In an experiment with 15 observations on x, the 101, 102, ............., 200 and another population B
following results were available: [2003] has 100 obsevrations 151, 152, ................ 250. If
Sx 2 = 2830, Sx = 170 VA and VB represent the variances of the two
One observation that was 20 was found to be VA
wrong and was replaced by the correct value populations, respectively then is [2006]
VB
30. The corrected variance is [2003]
(a) 8.33 (b) 78.00 9
(c) 188.66 (d) 177.33 (a) 1 (b)
4
4. Consider the following statements :
(A) Mode can be computed from histogram 4 2
(B) Median is not independent of change of scale (c) (d)
9 3
(C) Variance is independent of change of origin
and scale. 9. The average marks of boys in class is 52 and
Which of these is / are correct ? [2004] that of girls is 42. The average marks of boys
(a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) only (B) and girls combined is 50. The percentage of
(c) only (A) and (B) (d) only (A) boys in the class is [2007]
5. In a series of 2 n observations, half of them equal (a) 80 (b) 60
a and remaining half equal –a. If the standard (c) 40 (d) 20.
deviation of the observations is 2, then |a| 10. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and
equals. [2004] the variance is 6.80. Then which one of the
2 following gives possible values of a and b?
(a) (b) 2 [2008]
n
(a) a = 0, b = 7 (b) a = 5, b = 2
1
(c) 2 (d) (c) a = 1, b = 6 (d) a = 3, b = 4
n
EBD_7764
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M-82 Mathematics
DIRECTIONS:This question contains two always under reported every fish weight by 2
statements: statement-1 (Assertion) and gm. The correct mean and standard deviation
statement-2 (Reason). This question also has (in gm) of fishes are respectively : [2011RS]
four alternative choices, only one of which is (a) 32, 2 (b) 32, 4
the correct answer. You have to select the correct (c) 28,2 (d) 28, 4
choice. 16. Let x1 , x2,...., xn be n observations, and let x be their
11. Statement-1 : The variance of first n even natural arithmetic mean and s2 be the variance.
Statement-1 : Variance of 2x1, 2x2, ..., 2xn is 4s2.
n2 –1
numbers is . Statement-2 : Arithmetic mean 2x1, 2x2, ..., 2xn is 4 x .
4
[2012]
Statement-2 : The sum of first n natural numbers (a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
n(n + 1) (b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
is and the sum of squares of first n statement-2 is a correct explanation for
2
Statement-1.
natural numbers is n (n + 1)(2n + 1) . [2009] (c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
6 statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true Statement-1.
(d) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for 17. All the students of a class performed poorly in
Statement-1. Mathematics. The teacher decided to give grace
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false. marks of 10 to each of the students. Which of
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true. the following statistical measures will not
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true. change even after the grace marks were given ?
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for [2013]
Statement-1. (a) mean (b) median
12. If the mean deviation of the numbers 1, 1 + d, (c) mode (d) variance
1 + 2d, .... 1 + 100d from their mean is 255, then d 18. The variance of first 50 even natural numbers is
is equal to : [2009] [2014]
(a) 20.0 (b) 10.1 437
(a) 437 (b)
(c) 20.2 (d) 10.0 4
13. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are 833
(c) (d) 833
given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means 4
are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The variance 19. The mean of the data set comprising of 16
of the combined data set is [2010] observations is 16. If one of the observation
valued 16 is deleted and three new observations
11
(a) (b) 6 valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data, then the
2 mean of the resultant data, is: [2015]
13 5 (a) 15.8 (b) 14.0
(c) (d)
2 2 (c) 16.8 (d) 16.0
14. If the mean deviation about the median of the 20. If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a
numbers a, 2a,.......,50a is 50, then | a | equals [2011] and 11 is 3.5, then which of the following is true?
(a) 3 (b) 4 [2016]
(c) 5 (d) 2 2
(a) 3a – 34a + 91 = 0
15. A scientist is weighing each of 30 fishes. Their
mean weight worked out is 30 gm and a (b) 3a2 – 23a + 44 = 0
standarion deviation of 2 gm. Later, it was found (c) 3a2 – 26a + 55 = 0
that the measuring scale was misaligned and (d) 3a2 – 32a + 84 = 0
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Statistics M-83
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a) (b) (a)
16 17 18 19 20
(d) (d) (d) (b) (d)
1 2 æ1 ö
2 (As å di2 is same in both the cases)
Variance = Sx' -ç Sx' ÷
n èn ø 9. (a) Let the number of boys be x and that of
2 girls be y.
1 æ1 ö Þ 52x + 42y = 50(x + y)
= ´ 3330 - ç ´ 180 ÷ = 222 - 144 = 78.
15 è 15 ø Þ 52x – 50x = 50y – 42y
4. (c) Only first (A) and second (B) statements
x 4 x 4
are correct. Þ 2x = 8y Þ = and =
5. (c) Clearly mean A = 0 y 1 x+ y 5
Þ a 2 –12a + 36 + (1 – a ) 2 + 21 = 34 1 1
5
å xi2 - (2)2 = 4; å yi2 - (4)2 = 5
5
[using eq. (i)]
Þ 2a2 –14a + 24 = 0 Þ a2 – 7a + 12 = 0 å xi2 = 40; å yi2 = 105
Þ a = 3 or 4 Þ b = 4 or 3
Þ å ( xi + yi ) = 145
2 2
\ The possible values of a and b are a
= 3 and
b= 4 Þ å ( xi + yi ) = 5(2) + 5(4) = 30
or, a = 4 and b = 3 Variance of combined data
11. (c) For the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, ......., 2n 2
x =
2[ n ( n + 1)]
= (n + 1) =
1
10
( )
æ1 ö
å xi2 + yi2 - çè 10 å ( xi + yi ) ÷ø
2n
S ( x – x )2 S x2 =
145
-9 =
11
And Var = = – ( x )2
2n n 10 2
14. (b) Median is the mean of 25th and 26th
4S n 2 observation
== – (n + 1)2
n 25a + 26a
\ M = = 25.5a
4n (n + 1) (2n + 1) 2
= – (n + 1)2
6n å xi - M
2(2n + 1) ( n + 1) M .D (M ) =
= – ( n + 1)2 N
3
é 4n + 2 – 3n – 3 ù 1
= (n + 1) ê Þ 50 = [2 ´ a ´ (0.5 + 1.5 + 2.5 + ....24.5)]
ë 3 úû 50
25
=
( n + 1)( n –1) = n2 - 1 Þ 2500 = 2 a ´
2
(25)
3 3 Þ a =4
\ Statement-1 is false. Clearly, statement -
2 is true. 15. (a) Correct mean = observed mean + 2 = 30 + 2
= 32
101 + d(1 + 2 + 3 + ......+100) Correct S. D. = observed S.D. = 2
12. (b) Mean =
101 16. (d) A.M. of 2x1, 2x2, ..., 2xn is
d × 100 × 101 2 x1 + 2x2 + ... + 2xn
=1+ =1 + 50 d
101 × 2 n
Q Mean deviation from the mean = 255
æ x + x2 + .... + xn ö
Þ 1 =2ç 1 ÷ = 2x
[| 1 - (1 + 50d ) | + | (1 + d ) - (1 + 50 d ) | è n ø
101
æ sum of observations ö
+ | (1 + 2d )-(1 + 50d ) | +....+ | (1 + 100 d ) - (1 + 50 d ) |]= çQ Mean = ÷
255 è Number of observations ø
So statement-2 is false.
Þ 2d [1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 50] = 101´ 255
variance (2xi) = 22 variance (xi) = 4s2
50 ´ 51 where i = 1, 2,......n
Þ 2d ´ = 101´ 255
2 So statement-1 is true.
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Statistics M-85
17. (d) If initially all marks were xi then
æ 50 ´ 51 ´ 101ö
= 4ç - (51)2 = 3434 – 2601
å ( xi - x )2 è 50 ´ 6 ÷ø
s12 = i
Þ s2 = 833
N
19. (b) Sum of 16 observations = 16 × 16 = 256
Now each is increased by 10 Sum of resultant 18 observations
= 256 – 16 + (3 + 4+5) = 252
å ( xi - x )
2
å [ ( xi +10) -( x +10) ]2
i
= i 252
s12 = = s12 Mean of observations = = 14
N N 18
Hence, variance will not change even after 2 + 3 + a + 11 a
the grace marks were given. 20. (d) x = = +4
4 4
18. (d) First 50 even natural numbers are 2, 4 , 6
....., 100 x i2
( )
2
s= å - x
Variance =
å xi2
- ( x) 2
n
N 2
4 + 9 + a 2 +121 æ a ö
2 2 2 Þ3.5= - çç + 4 ÷÷
2 + 4 + ... + 100 4 è4 ø
Þ s2 =
50
2 49 4(134 + a 2 ) - (a 2 + 256 + 32a)
æ 2 + 4 + ... + 100 ö Þ =
-ç ÷ø 4 16
è 50
Þ 3a 2 - 32a + 84 = 0
2 2 2 2
4(1 + 2 + 3 + .... + 50 )
= - (51)2
50
EBD_7764
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M-86 Mathematics
Probability 15
1. A and B are events such that P(A È B)=3/4, (a) equally likely and mutually exclusive
P(A Ç B)=1/4, P( A ) =2/3 then P ( A Ç B) is (b) equally likely but not independent
[2002] (c) independent but not equally likely
(a) 5/12 (b) 3/8 (d) mutually exclusive and independent
(c) 5/8 (d) 1/4 5. A die is thrown. Let A be the event that the
2. Events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events number obtained is greater than 3. Let B be the
event that the number obtained is less than 5.
3x + 1 1- x Then P(AÈB) is [2008]
such that P ( A) = , P( B) = and
3 4
3
(a) (b) 0
1 - 2x 5
P (C ) = The set of possible values of x
2 2
are in the interval. [2003] (c) 1 (d)
5
é1 1 ù 6. Four numbers are chosen at random (without
(a) [0 , 1] (b) ê 3 , 2 ú replacement) from the set {1, 2, 3, ...20}.
ë û
[2010]
é1 2 ù é 1 13 ù
(c) ê 3 , 3 ú (d) ê 3 , 3 ú Statement -1: The probability that the chosen
ë û ë û
numbers when arranged in some order will form
3. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of
the horses at random and bets on them. The 1
an AP is .
probability that Mr. A selected the winning horse 85
is [2003] Statement -2 : If the four chosen numbers form
2 4 an AP, then the set of all possible values of
(a) (b)
5 5 common difference is (±1, ±2, ±3, ±4, ±5) .
3 1 (a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ;
(c) (d) Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
5 5
4. Let A and B be two events such that Statement -1
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statment -2 is false
1 1 1
P ( A È B ) = , P ( A Ç B ) = and P ( A) = , (c) Statement -1 is false, Statment -2 is true.
6 4 4
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ;
where A stands for complement of event A. Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
Then events A and B are [2005] Statement -1.
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Probability M-87
7. Assuming the balls to be identical except for 1
difference in colours, the number of ways in = P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) = and
4
which one or more balls can be selected from 10 1
white, 9 green and 7 black balls is : [2012] P(All the three events occur simultaneously) = .
16
(a) 880 (b) 629 Then the probability that at least one of the
events occurs, is : [2017]
(c) 630 (d) 879
3 7
8. For three events A, B and C, (a) (b)
P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) 16 32
= P(Exactly one of B or C occurs) 7 7
(c) (d)
16 64
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) (b) (a) (c) (c) (b) (d) (c)
P ( A È B È C ) = P ( A) + P ( B ) + P ( C )
1. (a) P (A È B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A Ç B);
3x + 1 1 - x 1 - 2 x
3 1 ÞP ( A È B È C ) = + +
Þ =1 – P( A ) + P(B) – 3 4 2
4 4
1 + 3x 1 - x 1 - 2 x
2 2 \ 0£ + + £1
Þ 1=1– + P(B) Þ P(B) = ; 3 4 2
3 3
0 £ 13 - 3x £ 12 Þ 1 £ 3 x £ 13
Now, P( A Ç B ) = P(B) – P ( A Ç B )
1 13
2 1 5 Þ £x£
= – = . 3 3
3 4 12
Considering all inequations, we get
2. (b) 3x + 1 1- x
P ( A) = , P( B) = , ì 1 1 1ü ì 2 1 13 ü
3 4 maxí- ,-3,- , ý £ x £ min í ,1, , ý
î 3 2 3þ î3 2 3 þ
1 - 2x
P (C ) = 1 1 é1 1 ù
2 £ x £ Þ xÎê , ú
3 2 ë3 2 û
Q For any event E , 0 £ P ( E ) £ 1
3. (a) Let 5 horses are H1, H2, H3, H4 and H5. Selected
Þ 0 £ 3 x + 1 £ 1, 0 £ 1 - x £ 1 pair of horses will be one of the 10 pairs (i.e.;
3 4
5
C2 ): H1 H2, H1 H3, H1 H4, H1 H5, H2H3, H2
1 - 2x
and 0 £ £1 H4, H2 H5, H3 H4, H3 H5 and H4 H5.
2
Þ -1 £ 3x £ 2, - 3 £ x £ 1 and - 1 £ 2 x £ 1 Any horse can win the race in 4 ways.
For example : Horses H2 win the race in 4
1 2 ways H1 H2, H2H3, H2H4 and H2H5.
Þ - £ x £ £ -3 £ x £ 1, and
3 3
4 2
1 1 Hence required probability = =
- £x£ 10 5
2 2
Also for mutually exclusive events A, B, C,
EBD_7764
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M-88 Mathematics
4. (c)
1 1 17 + 14 + 11 + 8 + 5 + 2 1
P ( A È B) = , P ( A Ç B ) = and Prob. = =
6 4 20 85
C4
1 Statement -2 is false, because common
P ( A) =
4 difference can be 6 also.
5 3 7. (d) Number of white balls = 10
Þ P ( A È B ) = , P( A) = Number of green balls = 9
6 4
Also and Number of black balls = 7
\ Required probability
Þ P ( A È B ) = P ( A) + P ( B ) - P ( A Ç B )
= (10 + 1) (9 + 1) (7 + 1) – 1
5 3 1 1 = 11.10.8 –1 = 879
Þ P( B) = - + =
6 4 4 3 [Q The total number of ways of selecting
3 1 1 one or more items from p identical items of
Þ P ( A) P ( B ) =
- = = P( A Ç B) one kind, q identical items of second kind;
4 3 4
r identical items of third kind is
Hence A and B are independent but not
equally likely. (p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1) –1 ]
5. (c) A º number is greater than 3 64
=
3 1 127
Þ P( A) = = 8. (c) P (exactly one of A or B occurs)
6 2
B º number is less than 5 1
= P(A) + P (B) – 2P (A Ç B) = ...(1)
4 2 4
Þ P( B) = = P (Exactly one of B or C occurs)
6 3
A Ç B º number is greater than 3 but 1
less than 5. = P(B) + P (C) – 2P (B Ç C) = ...(2)
4
1 P (Exactly one of C or A occurs)
Þ P( A Ç B) =
6 1
\ P(A È B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A Ç B) = P(C) + P(A) – 2P (C Ç A) = ...(3)
4
1 2 1 3 + 4 –1 Adding (1), (2) and (3),we get
= + – = =1
2 3 6 6 3
6. (b) n(S) = 20C4 2SP(A) – 2SP (A Ç B) =
4
Statement-1:
common difference is 1; total number of 3
\ SP(A) – SP (A Ç B) =
cases = 17 8
common difference is 2; total number of 1
cases = 14 Now, P (A Ç B Ç C) =
common difference is 3; total number of 16
cases = 11 \ P (A È B È C)
common difference is 4; total number of = SP (A) – SP (A Ç B) + P (A Ç B Ç C)
cases = 8 3 1 7
common difference is 5; total number of = + =
8 16 16
cases = 5
common difference is 6; total number of
cases = 2
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Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) (d) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (b) (b) (b)
16 17 18 19
(a) (a) (b) (d)
\ f is onto.
21 - cos 2q 2p Also each negative integer is an image of
1. (b) sin q = ; Period = =p
2 2 even natural number and each positive
integer is an image of odd natural number.
2. (b) Q cos x is non periodic
\ f is onto.
\ cos x + cos 2 x can not be periodic. Hence f is one one and onto both.
5. (a) f ( x) is onto \ S = range of f (x)
3. (c) f ( x ) = log( x + x 2 + 1)
Now f (x) = sin x - 3cos x + 1
{
f( - x ) = log - x + x 2 + 1 } æ pö
= 2sin ç x - ÷ + 1
è 3ø
ìï - x 2 + x 2 + 1üï
= log í æ pö
ý Q -1 £ sin ç x - ÷ £ 1
ïî x + x 2 + 1 ïþ è 3ø
æ pö
= - log( x + x 2 + 1) = - f ( x ) -1 £ 2sin ç x - ÷ + 1 £ 3
è 3ø
Þ f(x) is an odd function. \ f ( x) Î[ -1, 3] = S
4. (d) We have f : N ® I
If x and y are two even natural numbers, We know that
-x - y
then f ( x) = f ( y ) Þ
= Þx=y - a 2 + b2 £ a sin q + b cos q £ a 2 + b2
2 2
Again if x and y are two odd natural \ -2 £ sin x - 3 cos x £ 2
numbers then
x -1 y - 1
f ( x) = f ( y) Þ = Þx=y
2 2
EBD_7764
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M-92 Mathematics
Also f (x) = 4x + 3 = y
Þ -1 £ sin x - 3 cos x + 1 £ 3
y –3 y –3
\ f ( x) Î[ -1, 3] Þx= \ g ( y) =
4 4
6. (c) Q (1, 1) Ï R Þ R is not reflexive (2,3) Î R 12. (d) Given S = {(x , y) : y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2}
but (3, 2) Ï R Q x ¹ x + 1 for any x Î(0, 2)
\ R is not symmetric Þ (x, x) Ï S
æ 2x ö \ S is not reflexive.
7. (d) Given f (x) = tan -1 ç = 2tan–1x
è 1 - x 2 ÷ø Hence S in not an equivalence relation.
for x Î (-1, 1) Also T ={x, y): x – y is an integer}
æ -p pö Q x – x = 0 is an integer " x Î R
If x Î( -1, 1) Þ tan -1 x Î ç , ÷ \ T is reflexive.
è 4 4ø
If x – y is an integer then y – x is also an
æ -p p ö \T is symmetric
Þ 2 tan -1 x Î ç , integer
è 2 2 ÷ø If x – y is an integer and y – z is an
æ p pö integer then
Clearly, range of f (x) = ç - , ÷ (x – y) + (y– z) = x – z is also an integer.
è 2 2ø
For f to be onto, codomain = range \ T is transitive
\ Co-domain of function = B = 13. (b) Given that f (x) = (x + 1)2 –1, x ³ –1
Clearly Df = [–1, ¥ ) but co-domain is not
æ p pö
ç- , ÷ . given. Therefore f (x) need not be
è 2 2ø necessarily onto.
8. (a) f (2a – x) = f (a – (x – a)) But if f (x) is onto then as f (x) is one one
= f (a) f (x – a) – f (0) f (x) = f (a) f (x –a) – f (x) also, (x + 1) being something +ve,
= – f (x) f –1(x) will exist where
(x + 1)2 –1 = y
[Q x = 0, y = 0, f (0) = f 2 (0) - f 2 (a)
Þ x +1 = y +1
2
Þ f (a) = 0 Þ f (a) = 0 (+ve square root as x +1 ³ 0 )
Þ f (2a - x) = - f ( x ) Þ x =–1+ y+1
9. (a) Reflexive and transitive only.
e.g. (3, 3), (6, 6), (9, 9), (12, 12) [Reflexive] Þ f –1 (x) = x + 1 – 1
(3, 6), (6, 12), (3, 12) [Transitive]. Then f (x) = f –1 (x)
(3, 6) Î R but (6, 3) Ï R [ non symmetric] Þ (x + 1)2 – 1 = x + 1 –1
and xlim f ( x) = ¥
®¥
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Relations and Functions M-93
\ Range of f = ( - ¥, ¥) = R Hence statement-1 is correct
Hence f is onto also. So, f is one one and 18. (b) Since f (x) and g(x) are inverse of each other
onto R. 1
15. (b) x Ry need not implies yRx \ g'( f (x)) =
f '( x )
m p
S: s
n q Þ g '( f ( x)) = 1 + x5
p m
Given qm = pn Þ = æ 1 ö
q n
çèQ f ¢ ( x) = ÷
m m m p p m 1 + x5 ø
\ s reflexive n s q Þ q s n symmetric
n n Here x = g(y)
m p p r
g ¢( y ) = 1 + [ g ( y )]
s , s 5
qm = pn, ps = rq \
n q q s Þ
p m r Þ g ¢ ( x ) = 1 + ( g ( x) ) 5
Þ q = n = s Þ ms = rn transitive.
S is an equivalence relation. é 1 1ù
19. (d) we have f : R ® ê - , ú ,
16. (a) Let for statement 1: xRy = x – y Î I . As xRx ë 2 2û
is an integer and yRx as well as xRz (for x
xRy and yRz) is also an integer. f (x) = "x Î R
1 + x2
Hence equivalence.
Similarly as x = ay hence a =1 for reflexive (1 + x 2 ).1 - x.2x -(x + 1)(x - 1)
Þ f ¢(x) = 2 2
=
1 (1 + x ) (1 + x 2 ) 2
and being a rational for symmetric for
a – + –
some non zero a and product of rationals
also being rational Þ equivalence x = –1 x=1
But not symmetric because of a = 0 case sign of f¢ (x)
Both relations are equivalence but not the Þ f¢ (x) changes sign in different intervals.
correct explanation. \ Not injective
f ( x ) = ( x - 1) + 1, x ³ 1
2
17. (a) x
Now y =
Since f is a bijective function 1 + x2
Þ y + yx2 = x
\ f :[1, ¥) ® [1, ¥)
Þ yx2 – x + y = 0
Þ y = ( x - 1) + 1 Þ ( x - 1) = y - 1
2 2 For y ¹ 0, D = 1 – 4y2 ³ 0
é -1 1 ù
Þ x = 1± y - 1 Þ f -1 ( y ) = 1 ± y - 1 Þ y Î ê , ú - {0}
ë 2 2û
Þ f -1 ( x ) = 1 + x - 1 {\ x ³ 1} For y = 0 Þ x = 0
Hence statement-2 is correct é -1 1 ù
\ Range is ê , ú
Now f ( x ) = f -1
( x) ë 2 2û
Þ Surjective but not injective
Þ f ( x ) = x Þ ( x - 1) + 1 = x
2
Þ x 2 - 3 x + 2 = 0 Þ x = 1, 2
EBD_7764
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M-94 Mathematics
Inverse Trigonometric
Functions 17
cot -1 ( cos a ) - tan -1 ( cos a ) = x , æx ö
2
1. f ( x ) = 4- x + cos -1 ç - 1÷ + log (cos x) , is defined, is
è2 ø
then sin x = [2002]
[2007]
æaö æaö
(a) tan2 ç ÷ (b) cot2
ç ÷ é p pö é pö
è2ø è2ø (a) (b) ê 0, 2 ÷
ê- 4 , 2 ÷ ë ø
æaö ë ø
(c) tan a (d) cot ç 2 ÷ p p
è ø (c) [0, p] (d) æç - , ö÷
2. The domain of sin-1 [log 3 (x/3)] is [2002] è 2 2ø
(a) [1, 9] (b) [–1, 9]
æ 5 2ö
(c) [–9, 1] (d) [–9, –1] 8. The value of cot ç cos ec –1 + tan –1 ÷ is
-1 -1
è 3 3ø
3. The trigonometric equation sin x = 2 sin a
6 3
has a solution for [2003] (a) (b)
17 17
1 1 1
(a) a £ (b) < a < 4 5
2 2 2 (c) (d)
17 17
1
(c) all real values of a (d) a < –1 æ 2x ö
2 9.
–1 –1
Let tan y = tan x + tan çè ÷ ,where or
4. The domain of the function 1 - x2 ø
sin -1 ( x - 3) 1
f ( x) = is x < . Then a value of y is : [2015]
9- x 2 3
(a) [1, 2] (b) [2, 3) [2004] 3x - x 3 3x + x 3
(c) [1, 2 ] (d) [2, 3] (a) (b)
y 1 + 3x 2 1 + 3x 2
5. If cos -1 x - cos -1 = a , then 4 x 2 - 4 xy
2 3x – x 3 3x + x 3
(c) (d)
cos a + y 2 is equal to [2005] 1 – 3x 2 1 - 3x 2
(a) 2 sin 2 a (b) 4 æ 1ö
10. If for x Îç 0, ÷ , the derivative of
(c) 4 sin a 2
(d) – 4 sin a 2 è 4ø
æ x ö æ 5 ö p
6. If sin -1 ç ÷ + cosec -1 ç ÷ = , then the æ 6x x ö
è 5ø è 4ø 2 tan -1 ç ÷ is x.g ( x ) , then g(x) equals :
values of x is [2007] è 1 - 9x 3 ø
(a) 4 (b) 5 [2017]
(c) 1 (d) 3.
3 9
(a) (b)
7. The largest interval lying in æç -p , p ö÷ for which 1 + 9x 3
1 + 9x3
è 2 2ø
the function, 3x x 3x
(c) (d)
1 - 9x 3 1 - 9x3
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Inverse Trigonometric Functions M-95
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (a) (c) (b)
1
\a £
1. (a) cot–1 ( cos a ) – tan–1 ( cos a ) = x 2
æ 1 ö sin -1 ( x - 3)
tan–1 çç ÷÷ – tan–1 ( cos a ) = x 4. (b) f ( x) = is defined
è cos a ø 9 - x2
1
- cos a if (i) - 1 £ x - 3 £ 1 Þ 2 £ x £ 4
cos a
Þ tan–1 =x and (ii) 9 - x 2 > 0 Þ -3 < x < 3
1
1+ . cos a
cos a Taking common solution of (i) and (ii),
1 - cos a we get 2 £ x < 3 \ Domain = [2, 3)
Þ tan–1 =x y
2 cos a 5. (c) cos - 1 x - cos - 1 = a
2
1 - cos a 2 cos a æ æ ö
Þ tan x = OR cot x = xy y2 ö
2 cos a 1 - cos a cos - 1 ç + (1 - x 2 ) ç1 - ÷ ÷ = a
çè 2 è 4 ø÷
ø
[Considering a D with perpendicular
= (1– cosa) and base = 2 cos a ]
æ xy + 4 - y 2 - 4 x 2 + x 2 y 2 ö
1 - cos a 1 - (1 - 2 sin 2 a / 2) cos -1
ç ÷ =a
Þ sin x = = çè 2 ÷ø
1 + cos a 1 + 2 cos 2 a / 2 - 1
a Þ 4 - y 2 - 4 x2 + x 2 y 2
or sin x = tan2
2
= 4cos 2 a + x 2 y 2 - 4 xy cos a
æ æ xö ö
2. (a) f (x)=sin–1 ç log 3 ç ÷ ÷ exists Þ 4 x 2 + y 2 - 4 xy cosa = 4 sin 2 a .
è è 3ø ø
æ xö æ 5ö p
6. (d) sin -1 ç ÷ + cosec -1 ç ÷ =
æ xö x è 5ø è 4ø 2
if -1 £ log ç ÷ £ 1 Û 3-1 £ £ 31
è 3 ø 3 æ xö p æ 5ö
3
Þ sin -1 ç ÷ = - cosec -1 ç ÷
è 5ø 2 è 4ø
Û 1 £ x £ 9 or x Î [1, 9]
æ xö p æ 4ö
3. (a) sin -1 x = 2 sin -1 a Þ sin -1 ç ÷ = - sin -1 ç ÷
è 5ø 2 è 5ø
p p p p [Q sin -1 x + cos -1 x = p / 2]
- £ sin -1 x £ ; \ - £ 2sin -1 a £
2 2 2 2
æ xö æ 4ö
p p -1 1 Þ sin -1 ç ÷ = cos -1 ç ÷ ....(i)
- £ sin -1 a £ or £a£ è 5ø è 5ø
4 4 2 2
4 4
Let cos -1 = A Þ cos A =
5 5
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M-96 Mathematics
C
é –1 17 ù
= cot ê tan
5 ë 6 úû
3
æ –1 6 ö 6
= cot çè cot ÷=
A B
17 ø 17
4
Þ A = cos–1 (4/5) é 2x ù
9. (c) tan–1 y = tan -1 x + tan -1 ê ú
3 ë1 - x 2 û
Þ sin A =
5
= tan -1 x + 2 tan -1 x = 3 tan–1x
3
Þ A = sin –1
5 é 3ù
-1 3x - x
\ cos (4/5) = sin–1 (3/5)
–1 tan–1 y = tan ê 2ú
\ equation (i) become, ëê 1 - 3x ûú
x 3 x 3
sin -1 = sin -1 Þ = Þ x= 3x - x 3
5 5 5 5 Þ y=
3 1 - 3x 2
2 æx ö æ 6x x ö
7. (b) f (x) = 4- x + cos -1 ç - 1÷ + log(cos x) Let F(x) = tan –1 çç
è2 ø 10. (b) 3 ÷÷ where x
è 1 - 9x ø
æx ö æ 1ö
f (x) is defined if – 1 £ ç - 1÷ £ 1 and Î ç 0, ÷ .
è2 ø è 4ø
cos x > 0
æ 2.(3x3 / 2 ) ö
x p p = tan–1 çç ÷ = 2 tan–1 (3x3/2)
or 0 £ £ 2 and - < x < 3/ 2 2 ÷
2 2 2 è 1 - (3x ) ø
p p æ 3ö
or 0 £ x £ 4 and - < x< As 3x3/2 Î ç 0, ÷
2 2 è 8ø
é pö
\ x Î ê 0, ÷ é 1 3/ 2 1 3ù
ë 2ø êQ 0 < x < 4 Þ 0 < x < Þ 0 < 3x 3/ 2 < ú
ë 8 8û
æ 5 2ö
8. (a) cot ç cos ec –1 + tan –1 ÷ = dF(x) 1 3
è 3 3ø So =2× 3 × 3 × × x1/2
dx 1 + 9x 2
é 3 2ù
cot ê tan –1 + tan –1 ú 9
ë 4 3û = x
1 + 9x 3
é æ 3 2 öù On comparing
ê –1 ç 4 + 3 ÷ ú
= cot ê tan ç ú 9
ê 3 2÷ \ g(x) =
ç1– ´ ÷ ú 1 + 9x 3
êë è 4 3 ø úû
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Matrices M-97
10-13 delet
Matrices 18
éa b ù
If A = ê 2 éa b ù of B¢s such that AB = BA
1.
b a ú and A = ê b a ú , then (c) there exists exactly one B such that AB = BA
ë û ë û
(d) there exist infinitely many B¢s such that
[2003]
AB = BA
2
(a) a = 2 ab, b = a + b 2
5. The number of 3 × 3 non-singular matrices, with
2 2 four entries as 1 and all other entries as 0, is
(b) a = a + b , b = ab
[2010]
(c) a = a 2 + b 2 , b = 2ab
(a) 5 (b) 6
(d) a = a 2 + b 2 , b = a 2 - b 2 . (c) at least 7 (d) less than 4
6. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3.
é1 0ù é1 0 ù
2. If A = ê ú and I = ê ú , then which one of [2011]
ë1 1 û ë0 1û Statement-1: A(BA) and (AB)A are symmetric
the following holds for all n ³ 1, by the principle matrices.
of mathematical induction [2005] Statement-2: AB is symmetric matrix if matrix
(a) An = nA – (n – 1) I multiplication of A with B is commutative.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
(b) An = 2n - 1 A – (n – 1) I Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(c) An = nA + (n – 1) I Statement-1.
n (b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(d) A = 2n - 1 A + (n – 1) I
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
3. If A and B are square matrices of size n × n such
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
that A2 - B 2 = ( A - B)( A + B) , then which of Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
the following will be always true? [2006] Statement-1.
(a) A = B 7. If w ¹ 1is the complex cube root of unity and
(b) AB = BA
éω 0ù
(c) either of A or B is a zero matrix matrix H = ê ú , then H70 is equal to
(d) either of A or B is identity matrix ë0 ωû
[2011RS]
æ 1 2ö æ a 0ö
4. Let A = ç ÷ and B = ç , a, b Î N. (a) 0 (b) –H
è 3 4ø è 0 b÷ø
(c) H2 (d) H
Then [2006]
(a) there cannot exist any B such that AB = BA
(b) there exist more than one but finite number
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M -9 8 Mathematics
+ b is equal to : [2016]
é1 2 2 ù (a) 4 (b) 13 (c) –1 (d) 5
ê ú
8. If A = ê 2 1 -2ú is a matrix satisfying the é 2 -3ù
10. If A = ê 2
êë a 2 b úû ú , then adj (3A + 12A) is equal to
ë -4 1 û
equation AAT = 9I, where I is 3 × 3 identity : [2017]
matrix, then the ordered pair (a, b) is equal to: é 72 -63ù é 72 -84 ù
[2015] (a) ê ú (b) ê ú
ë -84 51 û ë -63 51 û
(a) (2, 1) (b) (–2, – 1)
(c) (2, – 1) (d) (–2, 1) é 51 63ù é 51 84 ù
(c) ê ú (d) ê ú
é5a - b ù ë84 72 û ë 63 72 û
9. If A = ê ú and A adj A = A AT, then 5a
ë 3 2 úû
ê
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(c) (a) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (c)
3. (b) A2 - B 2 = ( A - B )( A + B )
éa b ù é a b ù é a b ù
1. (c) A2 = ê ú=ê úê ú
ë b a û ë b a û ëb a û A2 - B 2 = A2 + AB - BA - B 2
éa 2 + b 2 2ab ù Þ AB = BA
=ê ú
êë 2ab a 2 + b2 úû é1 2ù éa 0ù
A= ê B = ê
4 úû b úû
4. (d)
a = a 2 + b 2 ; b = 2ab ë3 ë0
é 51 63ù
adj (3A2 + 12A) = ê ú
ë84 72 û
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M-100 Mathematics
10-13 delet
Determinants 19
1. If a > 0 and discriminant of ax2+2bx+c is –ve,
(a) A2 = I
a ax + b
b
(b) A = (–1) I, where I is a unit matrix
then b bx + c is equal to
c
-1
ax + b bx + c 0 (c) A does not exist
(d) A is a zero matrix
[2002]
(a) +ve æ 1 -1 1 ö æ 4 2 2ö
(b) (ac-b2)(ax2+2bx+c) 5. ç ÷
Let A = 2 1 -3 . and B = ç -5 0 a ÷ .
ç ÷ ç ÷
(c) –ve è1 1 1 ø è 1 -2 3 ø
(d) 0
2. If the system of linear equations [2003] If B is the inverse of matrix A, then a is [2004]
(a) 5 (b) –1
x + 2ay + az = 0 ; x + 3by + bz = 0 ; (c) 2 (d) –2
x + 4cy + cz = 0 has a non - zero solution, then 6. If a1, a2 , a3 ,......, an ,.... are in G.P., then the value
a, b, c. of the determinant [2004]
(a) satisfy a + 2b + 3c = 0 (b) are in A.P
log an log an+1 log an+ 2
(c) are in G..P (d) are in H.P.
log an+ 3 log an+ 4 log an +5
, is
3. If 1, w, w 2 are the cube roots of unity, then log an+ 6 log an+ 7 log an+8
1 wn w 2n (a) –2 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 0
D = wn w2n 1 is equal to [2003] 7. The system of equations
2n n
w 1 w ax+y +z= a –1
x + a y+ z = a – 1
(a) w 2 (b) 0 x+ y+ az = a –1
has infinite solutions, if a is [2005]
(c) 1 (d) w
(a) – 2 (b) either – 2 or 1
æ 0 0 -1ö (c) not – 2 (d) 1
4. Let A = ç 0 -1 0 ÷ . The only correct 8.
2 2 2
If a + b + c = – 2 and [2005]
ç ÷
è -1 0 0 ø
1 + a2 x (1 + b 2 ) x (1 + c 2 ) x
statement about the matrix A is [2004]
2 2 2
f (x) = (1 + a ) x 1 + b x (1 + c ) x ,
(1 + a2 ) x (1 + b 2 ) x 1 + c 2 x
www.crackjee.xyz
Determinants M-101
then f (x) is a polynomial of degree for Statement-1
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 3 (d) 2 (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
9. If a1 , a2 , a3 , ............, an , ...... are in G. P., then 14. Let a, b, c be any real numbers. Suppose that
the determinant there are real numbers x, y, z not all zero such
that x = cy + bz, y = az + cx, and z = bx + ay. Then
log an log an + 1 log an + 2 a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc is equal to [2008]
D = log an + 3 log an + 4 log an + 5 (a) 2 (b) –1
log an + 6 log an + 7 log an + 8 (c) 0 (d) 1
is equal to [2005] 15. Let A be a square matrix all of whose entries are
(a) 1 (b) 0 integers. Then which one of the following is true?
(c) 4 (d) 2 [2008]
2 (a) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 exists but all its
10. If A – A + I = 0 , then the inverse of A is
[2005] entries are not necessarily integers
(a) A + I (b) A (b) If det A ¹ ± 1, then A–1 exists and all its
(c) A – I (d) I – A entries are non integers
1 1 1 (c) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 exists but all its
11. If D = 1 1 + x 1 for x ¹ 0, y ¹ 0 , then D entries are integers
1 1 1+ y (d) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 need not exists
is [2007] 16. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix
(a) divisible by x but not y Statement -1 : adj (adj A) = A
(b) divisible by y but not x
(c) divisible by neither x nor y Statement -2 : |adj A |= |A| [2009]
(d) divisible by both x and y (a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true.
5 5a a Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
2
12. Let A = 0 a 5a . If A = 25 , then a Statement-1.
0 0 5
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
equals [2007]
(c) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(a) 1/5 (b) 5
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true.
(c) 52 (d) 1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
13. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with real entries. Let I be
Statement-1.
the 2 × 2 identity matrix. Denote by tr(A), the sum
of diagonal entries of a. Assume that A2 = I. 17. Let a, b, c be such that b(a + c) ¹ 0 if [2009]
[2008] a a + 1 a –1
Statement-1 : If A ¹ I and A ¹ –I, then det (A) = –1 –b b + 1 b –1
+
Statement-2 : If A ¹ I and A ¹ –I, then tr (A) ¹ 0. c c –1 c + 1
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
a +1 b +1 c –1
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for a –1 b -1 c + 1 = 0,
Statement-1 (-1)n+ 2 a (-1)n +1b (-1)n c
(c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; then the value of n is :
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation (a) any even integer
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M-102 Mathematics
(b) any odd integer Statement - 2 :
(c) any integer For any matrix A, det (A)T= det (A) and det (– A)
(d) zero = – det (A).
18. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with non-zero entries and Where det (B) denotes the determinant of matrix
B. Then : [2011RS]
let A2 = I , where I is 2 × 2 identity matrix. Define
(a) Both statements are true
Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and
(b) Both statements are false
|A| = determinant of matrix A. (c) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
Statement - 1 : Tr(A) = 0. (d) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
Statement -2 : |A| = 1. [2010] 23. Consider the following relation R on the set of
(a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ; real square matrices of order 3. [2011RS]
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
R = { ( A, B) A = P BP for some invertible
–1
Statement -1.
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false. matrix P}
(c) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true . Statement-1 : R is equivalence relation.
(d) Statement - 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ; Statement-2 : For any two invertible 3 ´ 3
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
matrices M and N, ( MN )
-1
Statement -1. = N -1 M -1 .
19. Consider the system of linear equations; (a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3 [2010] statement-2 is a correct explanation for
2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3 statement-1.
3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1 (b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
The system has statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(a) exactly 3 solutions statement-1.
(b) a unique solution (c) Statement-1 is true, stement-2 is false.
(c) no solution (d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(d) infinite number of solutions æ1 0 0ö
20. The number of values of k for which the linear 24. Let A = çç 2 1 0 ÷÷ . If u1 and u2 are column
equations 4x + ky + 2z = 0 , kx + 4y + z = 0 and 2x ç 3 2 1÷
+ 2y + z = 0 possess a non-zero solution is è ø
æ1ö æ0ö
[2011] ç ÷ ç ÷
(a) 2 (b) 1 matrices such that Au1 = ç 0 ÷ and Au2 = ç 1 ÷ ,
ç0÷ ç0÷
(c) zero (d) 3 è ø è ø
21. If the trivial solution is the only solution of the then u1 + u2 is equal to : [2012]
system of equations [2011RS] æ -1 ö æ -1 ö
x - ky + z = 0 ç ÷ ç ÷
(a) ç 1÷ (b) ç 1÷
kx + 3 y - kz = 0 ç0÷ ç -1 ÷
è ø è ø
3x + y - z = 0
æ -1 ö æ1ö
then the set of all values of k is : ç ÷ ç ÷
(c) ç -1 ÷ (d) ç -1 ÷
(a) R - { 2, -3} (b) R - { 2} ç0÷ ç -1 ÷
è ø è ø
(c) R - { -3} (d) { 2, -3} 25. Let P and Q be 3 ´ 3 matrices P ¹ Q. If P3= Q3
22 Statement - 1: and P2Q = Q2P then determinant of (P2 + Q2) is
Determinant of a skew-symmetric matrix of order equal to : [2012]
3 is zero. (a) – 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) – 1
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Determinants M-103
26. The number of values of k, for which the system (a) contains two elements.
of equations : (b) contains more than two elements
(k + 1) x + 8y = 4k (c) is an empty set.
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k – 1 (d) is a singleton
has no solution, is [2013] 31. The system of linear equations [2016]
x + ly – z = 0
(a) infinite (b) 1
lx – y – z = 0
(c) 2 (d) 3 x + y – lz = 0
é 1 a 3ù has a non-trivial solution for:
(a) exactly two values of l.
27. If P = ê 1 3 3ú is the adjoint of a 3 × 3 matrix (b) exactly three values of l.
ê ú
êë 2 4 4úû (c) infinitely many values of l.
A and |A| = 4, then a is equal to : [2013] (d) exactly one value of l.
32. Let k be an integer such that triangle with
(a) 4 (b) 11 vertices (k, –3k), (5, k) and (–k, 2) has area 28 sq.
(c) 5 (d) 0 units. Then the orthocentre of this triangle is at
28. If a, b ¹ 0, and f ( n ) = a n + b n and the point : [2017]
æ 1ö æ 1ö
3 1 + f (1) 1 + f ( 2 ) (a) çè 2, ÷ø (b) ç 2, - ÷
2 è 2ø
1 + f (1) 1 + f ( 2 ) 1 + f ( 3)
æ 3ö æ 3ö
1 + f ( 2 ) 1 + f ( 3) 1 + f ( 4 ) (c) çè1, ÷ø (d) ç1, - ÷
4 è 4ø
33. If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which
= K (1 - a ) (1 - b ) ( a - b)
2 2 2
, the following system of linear equations
then K is equal to: [2014] x + y+ z = 1 [2017]
(a) 1 (b) –1 x + ay + z = 1
ax + by + z = 0
1 has no solution, then S is :
(c) ab (d)
ab (a) a singleton
29. If A is an 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that AA' (b) an empty set
= A'A and B = A–1A', then BB' equals: [2014] (c) an infinite set
(d) a finite set containing two or more elements
(a) B –1 (b) ( B )¢
-1 34. Let w be a complex number such that 2w + 1 = z
(c) I + B (d) I 1 1 1
30. The set of all values of l for which the system of 2 2
where z = -3 . If 1 -w - 1 w = 3k, then
linear equations : [2015]
2x1 – 2x2 + x3 = lx1 1 w2 w7
2x1 – 3x2 + 2x3 = lx2 k is equal to : [2017]
–x1 + 2x2 = lx3 (a) 1 (b) –z
has a non-trivial solution, (c) z (d) –1
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (d) (b) (a) (a) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (a) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (b) (a) (d) (a)
31 32 33 34
(b) (a) (a) (b)
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M-104 Mathematics
a b ax + b é 0 0 -1ù é 0 0 -1ù
1. (c) We have b c bx + c Also A = ê 0 -1 0 ú ê 0 -1 0 ú
2
ê úê ú
ax + b bx + c 0 ëê -1 0 0 úû êë -1 0 0 ûú
By R3 ® R3 – (xR1 + R2);
é1 0 0ù
a b ax + b = ê0 1 0ú = I
ê ú
= b c bx + c êë0 0 1úû
2
0 0 -(ax + 2bx + c) é 4 2 2ù
= (ax2 + 2bx + c)(b2 – ac) = (+)(–) = –ve. 5. (a) Given that 10 B = ê -5 0 a ú
2. (d) For homogeneous system of equations to ê ú
have non zero solution, D = 0 êë 1 -2 3 úû
1 2a a é 4 2 2ù
1 ê
-5 0 a ú
2
1 3b b = 0 C2 ® C2 - 2C3 b - 4ac ÞB=
10 ê ú
1 4c c êë 1 -2 3 úû
( ) ( ) ( )
3n n 2n 2n 2n n 4n
6. (d) Let r be the common ratio, then
= 1 w -1 - w w - w + w w - w
log an log an+1 log an+ 2
3n 3n 6n
=w -1- 0 + w -w log an+ 3 log an+ 4 log an +5
= 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 = 0 Q w3n = 1ù
é log an+ 6 log an+ 7 log an+8
ë û
é 0 0 -1ù
ê ú log a1r n -1 log a1r n log a1r n +1
4. (a) A = ê 0 -1 0 ú
êë -1 0 0 úû = log a1r n + 2 log a1r n + 3 log a1r n + 4
clearly A ¹ 0. Also |A| = -1 ¹ 0 log a1r n +5 log a1r n + 6 log a1r n + 7
\ A-1 exists, further log a1 + ( n - 1) log r log a1 + n log r log a1 + (n + 1) log r
é -1 0 0 ù = log a1 + ( n + 2) log r log a1 + (n + 3) log r log a1 + (n + 4) log r
–1 c b (-1)n + 2 c c + 1 c -1
ÞD=0Þ c –1 a =0
C2 Û C3
b a –1
a a + 1 a -1
Þ –1(1– a2) – c(– c – ab) + b(ac + b) = 0
Þ -b b + 1 b - 1 + (-1)n+ 2
Þ –1 + a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc = 0
Þ a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc = 1 c c -1 c +1
15. (c) Q All entries of square matrix A are a a + 1 a -1
integers, therefore all cofactors should
-b b + 1 b - 1 = 0
also be integers.
If det A = ± 1 then A–1 exists. Also all c c -1 c + 1
entries of A–1 are integers.
a a + 1 a -1
16. (a) We know that | adj (adj A) | = | A | n–2 A.
Þ é1 + (-1)n+ 2 ù -b b + 1 b - 1 = 0
= | A |0 A = A ë û
Also | adj A | = | A | n–1 = | A | 2–1 = | A | c c -1 c + 1
\ Both the statements are true but C2 – C1, C3 – C1
statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1 .
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Determinants M-107
a 1 -1 21. (a) x - ky + z = 0
n+ 2 ù
Þ éë1 + (-1) û
-b 2b + 1 2b - 1 = 0 R1 + R3 kx + 3 y - kz = 0
c -1 1 3x + y - z = 0
The given system of equations will have non
a+c 0 0
trivial solution, if
Þ é1 + ( -1) n+ 2 ù -b 2b + 1 2b - 1 = 0
ë û
c -1 1 1 -k 1
Þ [1+ (– 1)n + 2](a + c) (2b + 1+ 2b – 1) = 0 k 3 -k =0
Þ 4b (a + c) [1 + (–1)n + 2] = 0 3 1 -1
Þ 1 + (–1)n + 2 = 0 as b (a + c) ¹ 0
Þ n should be an odd integer. Þ 1(-3 + k ) + k ( - k + 3k ) + 1( k - 9) = 0
æa b ö Þ k - 3 + 2k 2 + k - 9 = 0
18. (b) Let A = ç ÷ where a, b, c, d ¹ 0
èc d ø Þ k2 + k - 6 = 0
Þ k = -3, k = 2
æa b öæa bö So the equation will have only trivial
A2 = ç ÷ç ÷
èc d øèc dø solution,
when k Î R – {2, – 3}
æ a 2 + bc ab + bd ö
Þ A2 = ç ÷ 22. (d) Statement-1 : Determinant of skew
ç ac + cd bc + d 2 ÷ symmetric matrix of odd order is zero.
è ø
Þ a 2 + bc = 1, bc + d 2 = 1
T
( )
Statement-2 : det A = det (A).
det (– A) = – (– 1)n det (A).
ab + bd = ac + cd = 0 where A is a n ´ n order matrix.
c ¹ 0 and b ¹ 0 Þ a + d = 0 23. (b) For reflexive
| A |= ad - bc = -a 2 - bc = -1 ( A, A) Î R
1 2 1 A = P -1 AP is true,
19. (c) For P = I, which is an invertible matrix.
D= 2 3 1 =0
\ R is reflexive.
3 5 2 For symmetry
3 2 1 As ( A, B) ÎR for matrix P
D1 = 3 3 1 ¹ 0
A = P-1 BP
1 5 2
Þ PAP-1 = B
Þ Given system, does not have any solution. Þ B = PAP -1
Þ No solution
( )
-1
20. (a) D = 0 Þ B = P –1 A (P–1)
4 k 2
\ (B, A) Î R for matrix P -1
Þ k 4 1 =0 \ R is symmetric.
2 2 1 For transitivity
Þ 4(4 - 2) - k (k - 2) + 2(2k - 8) = 0 A = P-1 BP
Þ 8 - k 2 + 2k + 4k - 16 = 0 and B = P–1CP
k 2 - 6k + 8 = 0 Þ (
A = P –1 P -1CP P )
Þ (k - 4)(k - 2) = 0 Þ k = 4, 2
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
M-108 Mathematics
If |P2 + Q2| ¹ 0 then P2 + Q2 is invertible.
Þ A= P ( ) CP
-1 2 2
Þ P–Q=0 Þ P=Q
A = (P ) C (P )
2 -1 2 Which gives a contradiction (Q P ¹ Q)
Þ
Hence |P2 + Q2| = 0
\ (A, C) ÎR for matrix P
2
26. (b) From the given system, we have
\ R is transitive. k +1 8 4k
So R is equivalence = ¹
k k + 3 3k - 1
æ1ö æ0ö (Q System has no solution)
ç ÷ ç ÷
24. (d) Let Au1 = ç 0 ÷ and Au2 = ç 1 ÷ Þ k2 + 4k + 3 = 8k
ç0÷ ç0÷ Þ k = 1, 3
è ø è ø
8 4.1
æ 1ö æ0ö If k = 1 then ¹ which is false
ç ÷ ç ÷ 1+ 3 2
Then, Au1 + Au2 = ç 0 ÷ + ç 1 ÷
ç0÷ ç0÷ 8 4.3
è ø è ø and if k = 3 then ¹ which is true,
6 9 -1
æ 1ö therefore k = 3
ç ÷ Hence for only one value of k. System has
Þ A ( u1 + u2 ) = ç 1 ÷ ...(1)
ç0÷ no solution.
è ø 27. (b) | P | = 1(12 – 12) – a(4 – 6) + 3(4 – 6) = 2a –
6
æ1 0 0ö Now, adj A = P Þ | adj A | = | P |
ç ÷
Also, A = ç 2 1 0 ÷ Þ | A |2 = | P |
ç 3 2 1÷ Þ | P | = 16
è ø
Þ 2a – 6 = 16
Þ |A| = 1(1) – 0 (2) + 0 (4–3) = 1 Þ a = 11
We know, 28. (a) Consider
1 1 + f (1) 1 + f (2)
A-1 = adjA 3
A 1 + f (1) 1 + f (2) 1 + f (3)
Þ A -1 = adj ( A ) (Q A = 1) 1 + f (2) 1 + f (3) 1 + f (4)
Now, from equation (1), we have
1+1 +1 1+ a + b 1 + a 2 + b2
æ 1ö
-1 ç ÷ = 1+ a + b 1 + a 2 + b2 1 + a 3 + b3
u1 + u2 = A ç 1÷
ç0÷ 1 + a 2 + b2 1 + a3 + b3 1 + a 4 + b4
è ø
1 1 1 1 1 1
é 1 0 0ù æ 1 ö é 1 ù
ç ÷ a b ´ 1 a b
= êê -2 1 0 úú ç 1 ÷ = êê -1úú = 1
êë 1 -2 1úû èç 0 ø÷ êë -1úû 1 a2 b2 1 a2 b2
k -3k 1 3i - 1
1 Þ w=
5 k 1 = 28 2
2 Þ w is complex cube root of unity
-k 2 1
Applying R1 ® R1 + R2 + R3
Þ 5k2 + 13k – 46 = 0
or 5k2 + 13k + 66 = 0 3 0 0
Now, 5k2 + 13k – 46 = 0 1 -w - 1 w2
2
=
-13 ± 1089 -23 1 w2 w
Þ k= \ k= ;k = 2
10 5
= 3 (–1 – w – w) = –3 (1 + 2w) = – 3z
since k is an integer, \ k = 2
Þk=–z
Also 5k2 + 13k + 66 = 0
-13 ± -1151
Þ k=
10
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
M-110 Mathematics
10-13 delet
æ d 2 y ö æ dy ö -2 æ 2x - 1 ö
cos ç ÷ p , where [x] denotes the greatest
(b) çç 2 ÷÷ ç dx ÷ è 2 ø
è dx ø è ø integer function, then f is . [2012]
(a) continuous for every real x.
æ d 2 y ö æ dy ö-3
(c) -ç 2 ÷ç ÷ (b) discontinuous only at x = 0
ç dx ÷ è dx ø
è ø (c) discontinuous only at non-zero integral
values of x.
-1
æ d2y ö (d) continuous only at x = 0.
(d) çç 2 ÷÷
è dx ø 26. Consider the function, f (x) = | x – 2 | `+ | x – 5 |,
x Î R.
23. Define f (x) as the product of two real function
Statement-1 : f ¢(4) = 0
[2011RS]
Statement-2 : f is continuous in [2,5],
ì 1 differentiable in (2,5) and f (2) = f (5). [2012]
ïsin , if x ¹ 0
f1 ( x ) = x, x Î R, and f 2 ( x ) = í x (a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
ï if x = 0 (b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
î0,
statement-2 is a correct explanation for
as follows :
Statement-1.
ïì f1 ( x ) . f 2 ( x) , if x = 0 (c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
f ( x) = í
ïî 0 if x = 0 statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
Statement - 1 : f (x) is continuous on R. (d) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Statement - 2 : f1 ( x) and f 2 ( x) are continuous
dy
on R. 27. If y = sec(tan–1x), then at x = 1 is equal to :
dx
(a) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
[2013]
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1. 1 1
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; (a) (b)
2 2
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (c) 1 2(d)
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false 28. If f and g are differentiable functions in [0, 1]
(d) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true satisfying f (0) = 2 = g(1), g(0) = 0 and f (1) = 6,
24. If function f (x) is differentiable at x = a,
then for some c Î]0,1[ [2014]
x f (a) - a f ( x)
2 2
(a) f ¢(c) = g¢(c) (b) f ¢(c) = 2g ¢(c)
then xlim
®a
is : [2011RS]
x-a (c) 2f ¢(c) = g¢(c) (d) 2f ¢(c) = 3g¢(c)
(a) -a 2 f ' ( a )
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Continuity and Differentiability M-113
16 4 1
(c) 2 (d) (a) (b)
5 3 3
30. For x Î R, f(x) = |log2 – sinx| and g(x) = f(f(x)),
2 1
then : [2016] (c) - (d) -
3 3
(a) g'(0) = – cos(log2)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c) (d)
31
(b)
n( 1 + x 2 + x ) n 7. (b) f ( x) = ax 2 + bx + c
=
1 + x2 f (1) = f (-1)
2 dy Þ a + b + c = a - b + c or b = 0
or 1 + x = ny or 1 + x 2 y 1= ny
dx \ f ( x) = ax 2 + c or f '( x ) = 2ax
dy
( y1 = ) Squaring, Now f '(a); f '(b); and f '( c)
dx
(1 + x 2 ) y12 = n2 y 2 are 2a(a); 2a(b); 2a(c )
Differentiating, i.e. 2a2, 2ab, 2ac.
Þ If a, b, c are in A.P. then
(1 + x 2 )2 y1 y2 + y12 .2 x = n2 .2 yy 1
f '(a); f '(b) and f '(c ) are also in A.P..
or (1+x2)y2 + xy1 = n2y
1 - tan x
f (a) g ¢ ( x ) - g (a ) f ¢ ( x ) 8. (c) f ( x) = is continuous in
4. (b) lim =4 4x - p
x® a g ¢( x ) - f ¢ ( x )
(By L’ Hospital rule) é pù
ê0, 2 ú
k g ¢ ( x) - k f ¢ ( x) ë û
lim =4
x ® a g ¢ ( x) - f ¢ ( x) æ pö
\ f ç ÷ = lim p f ( x) = lim + f ( x )
\ k = 4. è 4 ø x® p
4 x®
4
æ 1 1ö
-ç + ÷ æp ö
5. (c) f (0) = 0; f ( x ) = xe è x xø = lim f ç + h÷
h ®0 è 4 ø
h
R.H.L. lim (0 + h)e -2 / h = lim =0 æp ö
h® 0 h ®0 e 2 / h 1 - tan ç + h÷
è4 ø
æ 1 1ö
-ç - ÷ = lim ,h > 0
è h hø h ®0 æ p ö
L.H.L. lim (0 - h)e =0 4 ç + h÷ - p
h® 0 è4 ø
therefore, f (x) is continuous.
æ 1 1ö 1 + tan h
-ç + ÷ 1-
(0 + h)e è h hø
-0 1 - tan h
R.H.D = lim =0 = lim
h® 0 h h® 0 4h
æ 1 1ö
-ç - ÷
-2 tan h -2 1
è h hø = lim . = =-
(0 - h)e -0 h ®0 1 - tanh 4 h 4 2
L.H.D. = lim =1
h® 0 -h
therefore, L.H.D. ¹ R.H.D.
p
f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0. Q f (x) is continuous at x =
4
6. (d) f ( x ) = x n Þ f (1) = 1
æ pö 1 - tan x
f ' ( x ) = nx n-1 Þ f ' (1) = n \ f çè ÷ø = limp f ( x ) = limp
4 x® x®
4x - p
f '' ( x ) = n ( n - 1) x n- 2 Þ f '' (1) = n ( n - 1) 4 4
.........................
- sec2 x
......................... f n
( x ) = n ! Þ f (1) = n!
n = limp [using L' Hospital’s rule]
x®
4
n n ( n - 1) n ( n - 1)( n - 2 ) n n! 4
= 1- + - + ¼ + ( -1) p
1! 2! 3! n! - sec 2
=n C0 -n C1 + n C2 - n C3 + ¼ + ( -1)
n n
Cn = 0 = 4 = -2 = -1
4 4 2
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Continuity and Differentiability M-115
y +L¥
9. (c) x = e y+ e Þ x = e y+ x . ì x
x<0
Taking log. ïï1 - x ,
14. (c) f ( x) = í
1 dy
log x = y + x Þ ï x , x³0
= +1
x dx îï1 + x
dy 1 1- x
\ = -1 = ì x
dx x x ï 2
, x<0
ï (1 - x )
f (1 + h) - f (1) Þ f '( x) = í
10. (c) f '(1) = lim ; ï x , x³0
h®0 h ïî (1 + x )2
As function is differentiable so it is
\ f '( x) exist at everywhere.
f (1 + h)
continuous as it is given that lim 15. (a) x m . y n = ( x + y ) m+ n
h®0 h
= 5 and hence f (1) = 0 Þ mlnx + nlny = (m + n)ln(x + y)
Differentiating both sides.
f (1 + h)
Hence f '(1) = lim =5 m n dy m + n æ dy ö
h®0 h \ + = ç1 + ÷
x y dx x + y è dx ø
11. (a) As f (1) = – 2 & f '( x) ³ 2 " x Î [1, 6]
Applying Lagrange’s mean value
theorem æ m m + nö æ m + n n ö dy
Þ çè x - x + y ø÷ = çè x + y - y ÷ø dx
f (6) - f (1)
= f '(c) ³ 2
5
my - nx æ my - nx ö dy
Þ f (6) ³ 10 + f (1) Þ =
x( x + y ) èç y ( x + y ) ø÷ dx
Þ f (6) ³ 10 – 2 Þ f (6) ³ 8.
f ( x + h) - f ( x ) dy y
Þ =
12. (b) f '(x) = lim dx x
h®0 h
f ( x + h ) - f ( x) 16. (a) f (x) = min {x + 1, | x | + 1} Þ f (x) = x + 1 Ú
| f '( x) | = lim x ÎR
h®0 h
(h)2 Y
£ lim
h®0 h y=-x+1 y=x+1
Þ | f '( x) | £ 0 Þ f '( x) = 0 (0, 1)
Þ f (x) = constant
As f (0) = 0 X' X
(-1, 0)
Þ f (1) = 0.
13. (a) x 2 - (a - 2) x - a - 1 = 0 Y'
( e2 x - 1) - 2 x
é0 ù dy æ 1 ö du
= lim – 2cosec2 y = ç1 + 2 ÷
; ê form ú dx è u ø dx
x ® 0 x(e 2 x - 1) ë 0 û
\ using, L'Hospital rule where u = xx Þ log u = x log x
1 du
4e 2 x Þ = 1 + log x
f (0) = lim u dx
x ® 0 2( xe 2 x 2 + e 2 x .1) + e 2 x .2
du
Þ = x x (1 + log x)
4e 2 x é0 ù dx
= lim êë 0 form úû \ We get
x ® 0 4 xe 2 x + 2e 2 x + 2e 2 x
– 2 cosec2 y
4e 2 x 4.e0 dy
= lim = =1 = (1 + x -2 x ).x x (1 + log x)
x ® 0 4( xe 2 x + e 2 x ) 4(0 + e0 ) dx
18. (c) We have
ì Þ
dy
=
( )
x x + x - x (1 + log x)
…(i)
æ 1 ö
ï(x – 1) sin ç , if x ¹ 1 dx -2(1 + cot 2 y )
f (x) = í è x – 1÷ø
ïî 0 , if x = 1 Now when x = 1, x2x – 2xx cot y – 1 = 0,
gives
f (1 + h) – f (1) 1 – 2 cot y – 1 = 0
Rf ' (1) = lim
h ®0 h Þ cot y = 0
\ From equation (i), at x = 1 and
1
h sin –0 cot y = 0, we get
h 1
= lim = lim sin
h ®0 h h ®0 h (1 + 1) (1 + 0)
= a finite number y ' (1) = = -1
-2(1 + 0)
Let this finite number be l
20. (a)
f (1 - h) - f (1)
L f ¢(1) = lim æ d ö
h®0 -h g '( x ) = 2 ( f (2 f ( x) + 2) ) ç ( f (2 f ( x) + 2) ) ÷
è dx ø
æ 1 ö
-h sin ç ÷
= lim è -h ø = 2 f (2 f ( x) + 2) f '(2 f ( x)) + 2).(2 f '( x))
h ®0 -h
æ 1 ö æ 1ö Þ g '(0) = 2 f (2 f (0) + 2). f '(2 f (0) + 2)
= lim sin ç ÷ = - lim sin çè ÷ø
h ®0 è -h ø h®0 h .2 f '(0) = 4 f (0)( f '(0)) 2 = 4(–1)(1)2 = – 4
= – (a finite number) = – l
Thus Rf ¢(1) ¹ Lf ¢(1) 21. (b) L.H .L = lim- f ( x)
( at x = 0) x ®0
\ f is not differentiable at x = 1
Also, sin{( p + 1)( - h )} - sinh
= lim
h®0 -h
1 x –1 æ 1 öù
f '(0) = sin – cos ç ÷ú = p+1+1=p+2
(x – 1) (x – 1) 2 è x – 1 ø úû x =0
= –sin 1 + cos 1 1 1
R.H .L = lim+ f ( x) = lim = =
\ f is differentiable at x = 0 ( at x =0) x ®0 h ®0 1+ 1 2
19. (d) x2x – 2xx cot y – 1 = 0
Þ 2 cot y = xx – x – x 3 1
f (0) = q Þ p = - , q =
1 2 2
Þ 2 cot y = u – where u = xx
u
Differentiating both sides with respect to x, we
get
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Continuity and Differentiability M-117
d 2x d æ dx ö d æ dx ö dx æ 2x - 1 ö
= \ f (x) = [x] cos ç ÷ is
22. (c) 2 ç ÷= ç ÷ è 2 ø
dy dy è dy ø dx è dy ø dy continuous for every real x.
d æ 1 ö dx
= ç ÷ ìx - 2 , x - 2 ³ 0
dx è dy / dx ø dy 26. (c) f (x) = x - 2 = í
î2 - x , x - 2 £ 0
1 d2 y 1 1 d2 y ìx - 2 , x ³ 2
=- . . =– =í
æ dy ö
2
dx 2 dy 3
æ dy ö dx
2
î2 - x , x £ 2
ç ÷ dx ç ÷
è dx ø è dx ø Similarly,
ìï x sin (1/ x ) , x ¹ 0 ìx - 5 , x ³ 5
23. (c) f (x) = í at x = 0 f (x) = x - 5 = í
ïî 0 , x = 0 î5 - x , x £ 5
\ f (x) = x - 2 + x - 5
ì æ 1ö ü
LHL = lim– í - h sin çè - ÷ø ý = {x - 2 + 5 - x = 3, 2 £ x £ 5}
h®0 î h þ
= 0 × a finite quantity betwen – 1 Thus f (x) = 3 , 2 £ x £ 5
and 1= 0 f ¢ (x) = 0 , 2 < x < 5
f ¢ (4) = 0
lim 1
RHL = h®0+
h sin =0 Y
h
Also, f (0) = 0
Thus LHL = RHL = f ( 0)
\ f ( x) is continuous on R.
f2 ( x) is not continuous at x = 0 X
2 5
x f ( a ) - a f ( x)
2 2
24. (c) xlim
®a
x-a Clearly, statement-2 is also true.
2 xf ( a ) - a 2 f ' ( x ) Q f (2) = 0 + |2 – 5| = 3
= xlim
®a and f (5) = |5 – 2| + 0 = 3
1
= 2af ( a ) - a 2 f ' ( a ) a = 0, b = 0 and c is any real number.
æ 2x - 1 ö 27. (a) Let y = sec(tan–1 x) and tan–1 x = q.
25. (a) Let f ( x ) = [ x ] cos ç ÷ Þ x = tan q
è 2 ø
Doubtful points are x = n, n Î I
æ 2x - 1 ö
L.H.L = lim- [ x ] cos ç ÷p
x ®n è 2 ø
æ 2n - 1 ö
= ( n - 1) cos ç ÷p = 0
è 2 ø
(Q [x] is the greatest integer function)
Thus, we have y = sec q
æ 2x - 1 ö
R.H.L = lim+ [ x ] cos ç ÷p Þ y = 1 + x 2 (Qsec2q = 1 + tan 2q)
x ®n è 2 ø
æ 2n - 1 ö dy 1
= n cos ç · 2x
÷p = 0 Þ =
è 2 ø dx 2 1 + x2
Now, value of the function at x = n is At x = 1,
f (n) = 0 dy 1
Since, L.H.L = R.H.L. = f(n) = .D
dx 2
EBD_7764
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M-118 Mathematics
28. (b) Since, f and g both are continuous function on 30. (d) g (x) = f (f (x))
[0, 1] and differentiable on (0, 1) then $ c Î (0,1) In the neighbourhood of x = 0,
f(x) = | log2 – sin x| = (log 2 – sin x)
such that
\ g (x) = |log 2 – sin| log 2 – sin x ||
f (1) - f (0) 6 - 2 = (log 2 – sin(log 2 – sin x))
f ¢(c ) = = =4
1 1 \ g (x) is differentiable
g (1) - g (0) 2 - 0
and g'(x) = – cos(log 2 – sin x) (– cos x)
and g ¢(c ) = = =2 Þ g'(0) = cos (log 2)
1 1
Thus, we get f ¢ ( c) = 2 g ¢ ( c) dy
31. (b) We have (2 + sinx) + (y + 1) cos x = 0
29. (c) Since g (x) is differentiable, it will be continuous dx
at x = 3 d
Þ (2 + sin x)(y + 1) = 0
\ xlim g(x) = lim+ g(x) dx
®3- x®3
On integrating, we get
2k = 3m + 2 ...(1)
(2 + sin x) (y + 1) = C
Also g(x) is differentiable at x = 0
At x = 0, y = 1 we have
\ xlim g ¢(x) = lim+ g¢ (x) (2 + sin 0) (1 + 1) = C
®3– x ®3
ÞC=4
k 4
=m Þ y+ 1 =
2 3 +1 2 + sin x
k= 4m ...(2) 4
y= -1
Solving (1) and (2), we get 2 + sin x
2 8 æ pö 4
m= , k= Now y ç ÷ = -1
5 5 è 2 ø 2 + sin p
k+m =2 4 1 2
= -1 =
3 3
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Application of Derivatives M-119
Application of Derivatives
21
1. The maximum distance from origin of a point on
æ9 9ö
æ at ö (a) ç , ÷
è8 2ø
(b) (2, - 4)
the curve x = a sin t–b sin çè ÷ø , y = a cos t – b
b
æ -9 9ö
æ at ö (c) ç , ÷
è 8 2ø
(d) (2, 4)
cos çè ÷ø ,both a, b > 0 is [2002]
b
(a) a – b (b) a + b 6. A function y = f ( x ) has a secon d or der
3. If the function f ( x) = 2 x3 - 9ax 2 + 12a 2 x + 1 , 7. The normal to the curve x = a(1 + cos q), y = a
where a > 0 , attains its maximum and minimum sinq at ‘q’ always passes through the fixed point
2
at p and q respectively such that p = q , then [2004]
a equals [2003] (a) (a, a) (b) (0, a)
(c) (0, 0) (d) (a, 0)
1
(a) (b) 3 8. If 2a + 3b + 6c = 0, then at least one root of the
2
(c) 1 (d) 2 equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 lies in the interval
4. The real number x when added to its inverse [2004]
gives the minimum value of the sum at x equal to (a) (1, 3) (b) (1, 2)
(a) –2 (b) 2 [2003] (c) (2, 3) (d) (0, 1)
(c) 1 (d) –1 9. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be
–
p
3
f ( x) = { k2-x+23,x, ifif xx £>--11
If f has a local minimum at x = – 1 , then a
22. How many real solutions does the equation
possible value of k is [2010]
x7 + 14x5 + 16x3 + 30x – 560 = 0 have? [2008]
(a) 7 (b) 1 1
(a) 0 (b) -
(c) 3 (d) 5 2
(c) –1 (d) 1
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M-122 Mathematics
28. Let f : R ® R be a continuous function defined 31. A spherical balloon is filled with 4500p cubic
meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon
1
by f ( x ) = x [2010] causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72p cubic
e + 2e - x meters per minute, then the rate (in meters per
minute) at which the radius of the balloon
1
Statement -1 : f (c) = , for some c Î R. decreases 49 minutes after the leakage began is:
3
9 7
1 (a) (b) [2012]
Statement -2 : 0 < f (x) £ , for all x Î R 7 9
2 2
2 9
(a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ; (c) (d)
9 2
Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
32. Let a, b Î R be such that the function f given by
Statement -1.
f (x) = ln | x | + bx2 + ax, x ¹ 0 has extreme values
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false.
at x = –1 and x = 2
(c) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true . Statement-1 : f has local maximum at x = –1 and
(d) Statement - 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ; at x = 2.
Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
1 -1
Statement -1. Statement-2 : a = and b = [2012]
2 4
29. Let f be a function defined by - [2011RS]
(a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
ì tan x (b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
ï , x¹0
f ( x) = í x statement-2 is a correct explanation for
ï1, x=0 Statement-1.
î
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
Statement - 1 : x = 0 is point of minima of f statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement - 2 : f ¢ ( 0 ) = 0. Statement-1.
(a) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; (d) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
statement-2 is a correct explanation for 33. The real number k for which the equation, 2x3 +
statement-1. 3x + k = 0 has two distinct real roots in [0, 1]
(b) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; [2013]
statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (a) lies between 1 and 2
statement-1. (b) lies between 2 and 3
(c) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false. (c) lies between .1 and 0
(d) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. (d) does not exist.
30. The curve that passes through the point (2, 3), 34. If x = –1 and x = 2 are extreme points of
and has the property that the segment of any
f ( x ) = a log x + b x 2 + x then [2014]
tangent to it lying between the coordinate axes
is bisected by the point of contact is given by : 1 1
[2011RS] (a) a = 2, b = - (b) a = 2, b =
2 2
6
(a) 2 y - 3x = 0 (b) y = 1 1
x (c) a = -6, b = (d) a = -6, b = -
2 2
2 2
æxö æ yö
(c) x2 + y 2 = 13 (d) ç ÷ + ç ÷ = 2
è 2ø è 3ø
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Application of Derivatives M-123
35. The normal to the curve, x2 + 2xy – 3y2 = 0, at (1, 1) (c) 2x = (p + 4)r (d) (4 – p) x =pr
[2015] 38. The normal to the curve y(x – 2)(x – 3) = x + 6 at
(a) meets the curve again in the third quadrant. the point where the curve intersects the y-axis
(b) meets the curve again in the fourth passes through the point:
quadrant. æ 1 1ö æ 1 1ö
(c) does not meet the curve again. (a) çè , ÷ø (b) ç - , - ÷
(d) meets the curve again in the second 2 3 è 2 2ø
quadrant. æ 1 1ö æ 1 1ö
36. Consider (c) çè , ÷ø (d) ç , - ÷
2 2 è 2 3ø
æ 1 + sin x ö æ ö
f (x) = tan -1 ç ÷, x Î ç0,p÷. 39. Twenty metres of wire is available for fencing off
ç 1 - sin x ÷ ç ÷ a flower-bed in the form of a circular sector. Then
è ø è 2ø
p the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is
A normal to y = f(x) at x = a so passes through : [2017]
6
the point : [2016] (a) 30 (b) 12.5
æp ö æp ö (c) 10 (d) 25
(a) ç ç , 0÷÷ (b) çç , 0÷ ÷ 40. The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is
è6 ø è4 ø 1
æ 2pö at the origin is . If one of its directices is x = –
(c) (0, 0) (d) çç0, ÷ ÷ 2
è 3 ø
37. A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts æ 3ö
4, then the equation of the normal to it at ç1, ÷
which are bent respectively to form a square of è 2ø
side = x units and a circle of radius = r units. If is : [2017]
the sum of the areas of the square and the circle (a) x + 2y = 4 (b) 2y – x = 2
so formed is minimum, then: [2016] (c) 4x – 2y = 1 (d) 4x + 2y = 7
(a) x = 2r (b) 2x = r
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (d) (c) (a) (b) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(a) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (b) (c) (b) (a) (c) (c) (d) (b) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (d) (c)
=a+b
1. (b) Distance of origin from (x, y) = x2 + y 2 \ Maximum distance from origin = a + b
æ at ö ax3 bx 2
= a 2 + b2 - 2ab cos ç t - ÷ ; 2. (a) Let f (x) = + + cx
è bø 3 2
Þ f (0) = 0 and
£ a 2 + b 2 + 2ab
a b 2a + 3b + 6c
f (1) = + +c = =0
éì æ at ö ü ù 3 2 6
ê í cos ç t - ÷ ý = -1ú
Also f (x) is continuous and differentiable
è b ø þ min
ëê î ûú
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M-124 Mathematics
in [0, 1] and [0, 1[. So by Rolle’s theorem, Þ 1 = (2 - 1)3 + D Þ D = 0
f ¢ (x) = 0. \ f (x) = ( x – 1)3
i.e ax2 + bx + c = 0 has at least one root in
dx dy
[0, 1]. 7. (d) = - a sin q and = a cos q
dq dq
3. (d) f ( x) = 2 x 3 - 9ax 2 + 12a 2 x + 1
dy
f '( x ) = 6 x 2 - 18ax + 12a 2 ; f ''( x ) = 12 x - 18a \ = - cot q.
dx
For max. or min. \ The slope of the normal at q = tan q
6 x 2 - 18ax + 12 a 2 = 0 Þ x 2 - 3ax + 2a 2 = 0 \ The equation of the normal at q is
Þ x = a or x = 2a.At x = a max . y - a sin q = tan q( x - a - a cos q)
(e 2 x + 2) e x - 2e 2 x .e x
f '( x ) =
(e 2 x + 2) 2
f '( x) = 0 Þ e 2 x + 2 = 2e 2 x
X´ X
O
e2 x = 2 Þ e x = 2
A (x – y)/(dy/ dx), 0)
Y´
2 1 y
= X-intercept = x -
maximum f (x) = dy / dx
4 2 2
1 xdy
0 < f ( x) £ Y-intercept = y –
"x Î R dx
2 2 According to given statement
1 1 y xdy
Since 0 < < Þ for some c Î R x - = 2 x and y - = 2y
3 2 2
dy dx
1 -y - xdy
f ( c) = =x =y
3 and
dy dx
ì tan x dx
ï , x¹0
29. (b) f ( x) = í x dx dy
Þ + =0
ï 1, x = 0 x y
î
lny = -lnc + lnc
In right neighbourhood of ‘0’ c
tan x > x y=
x
tan x
>1
x
www.crackjee.xyz
Application of Derivatives M-129
Since the above line passes through the
point (2, 3). + +
\ c=6 0
–¥ –1 – 2 – ¥
6
Hence y = is the required equation.
x
31. (c) Volume of spherical balloon So maxima at x = –1, 2
4
= V = pr 3 33. (d) f (x) = 2x3 + 3x + k
3
f'(x) = 6x2 + 3 > 0 " x Î R (Q x2 > 0)
4pr 3
Þ 4500 p = Þ f(x) is strictly increasing function
3 Þ f(x) = 0 has only one real root, so two
(Q Given, volume = 4500pm3) roots are not possible.
Differentiate both the side, w.r.t 't' we get, 34. (a) Let f (x) = a log | x | + bx2 + x
dV æ dr ö Differentiate both side,
= 4pr 2 ç ÷
dt è dt ø a
f ¢ ( x ) = + 2b x + 1
dV x
Now, it is given that = 72 p Since x = –1 and x = 2 are extreme points
dt
\ After 49 min, therefore f ¢ ( x ) = 0 at these points.
Volume = (4500 – 49 ´ 72)p Put x = –1 and x = 2 in f ¢( x ) , we get
= (4500 – 3528)p = 972 p m3
– a –2b + 1 = 0 Þ a +2b = 1 ...(i)
Þ V = 972 p m3
4 a
\ 972 p = pr 3 + 4b + 1 = 0 Þ a +8b = –2 ...(ii)
3 2
On solving (i) and (ii), we get
Þ r3 = 3 ´ 243 = 3 ´ 35 = 36 = (32)3
Þ r=9 1
6b = -3 Þ b = -
dV 2
Also, we have = 72 p \ a=2
dt
35. (b) Given curve is
\ æ dr ö x2 + 2xy – 3y2 = 0 ...(1)
72 p = 4 p´ 9 ´ 9 ç ÷
è dt ø Differentiatew.r.t. x
dr æ 2 ö dy dy
Þ =ç ÷ , 2x + 2x + 2y - 6y =0
dt è 9 ø dx dx
32. (b) Given, f ( x ) = ln x + bx 2 + ax æ dy ö
=1
ç ÷
1 è dx ø(1, 1)
\ f ' ( x ) = + 2bx + a
x Equation of normal at (1, 1) is
At x = –1, f '(x) = –1– 2b + a =0 y=2–x ...(2)
Þ a – 2b = 1 ...(i) Solving eq. (1) and (2), we get
1 x=1,3
At x = 2, f '(x) = + 4b + a = 0 Point of intersection (1, 1), (3, –1)
2 Normal cuts the curve again in 4th quadrant.
1
Þ a + 4b = - ...(ii) æ 1 + sin x ö
2 f ( x) = tan –1 ç
è 1– sin x ÷ø
1 1 36. (d)
On solving (i) and (ii) we get a = , b = -
2 4
1 x 1 2 - x2 + x æ 2ö
æ x xö æ xö
Thus, f ' ( x ) = - + = ç çè sin + cos ÷ø ÷ 1 + tan
x 2 2 2x 2 2 ÷ ç 2÷
= tan –1 ç –1
=
2
-x + x + 2
=
- (x 2
- x - 2) ç
ç
æ x xö
2 ÷ = tan ç
çè sin – cos ÷ø ÷
x÷
ç 1 – tan ÷
è è 2ø
2x 2x x 2 ø
- ( x + 1)( x - 2 )
= æ æ p xö ö
2x = tan –1 ç tan ç + ÷ ÷
è è 4 2ø ø
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M-130 Mathematics
p x æ1 1ö
Þ y= + \ ç , ÷ satisfy it.
4 2 è2 2ø
dy 1 39. (d) We have
Þ =
dx 2 Total length = r + r + rq = 20
–1 Þ 2r + r q = 20
Slope of normal = = –2
æ dy ö 20 - 2r
çè ÷ø Þq= ...(1)
dx r
æp p pö q 1 1 æ 20 - 2r ö
At çè , + ÷ A = Area = ´ pr 2 = r 2q = r 2 ç ÷
6 4 12 ø 2p 2 2 è r ø
A = 10r – r 2
æp pö æ pö
y – ç + ÷ = –2 ç x – ÷ For A to be maximum
è 4 12 ø è 6ø q
4p 2p r r
y– = –2 x + dA
12 6 = 0 Þ 10 – 2r = 0
p p dr
y – = –2 x + Þr =5
3 3 d 2A
2p = –2 < 0
y = –2 x + dr 2
3 \ For r = 5 A is maximum q r
This equation is satisfied only by the point
From (1)
æ 2p ö 20 - 2(5) 10
çè 0, ÷ø =
3 q = 5 5
=2
37. (a) 4x + 2pr = 2 Þ 2x + pr = 1
2
S = x2 + pr2 A= ´ p(5) 2 = 25 sq. m
2 2p
æ 1 - pr ö 2
S=ç ÷ + pr 1
è 2 ø 40. (c) Eccentricity of ellipse =
2
dS æ 1 - pr öæ -p ö a 1
= 2ç ÷ç ÷ + 2pr Now, – = – 4 Þ a = 4 × = 2 Þ a = 2
dr è 2 øè 2 ø e 2
-p p2 r 1 æ 1ö
Þ + + 2pr = 0 Þ r = We have b = a (1 – e ) = a2 ç 1 - ÷ = 4
2 2 2
2 2 p+ 4 è 4ø
2 3
Þx= Þ x = 2r × =3
p+ 4 4
x+6 \ Equation of ellipse is
38. (c) We have y = (x - 2)(x - 3) x 2 y2
+ =1
At y-axis, x = 0 Þ y = 1 4 3
On differentiating, we get Now differentiating, we get
dy (x 2 - 5x + 6) (1) - (x + 6) (2x - 5) x 2y
= Þ + ´ y¢ = 0 Þ y¢ = – 3x
dx (x 2 - 5x + 6)2 2 3 4y
dy 3 2 1
= 1 at point (0, 1) y¢ (1,3/ 2) = - ´ = -
dx 4 3 2
Slope of normal = 2
\ Slope of normal = – 1
\ Equation of normal at æç1, ö÷ is
Now equation of normal is y – 1 = –1 (x – 0) 3
Þy–1 =–x è 2ø
x+y= 1 3
y – = 2 (x – 1) Þ 2y – 3 = 4x – 4
2
\ 4x – 2y = 1
www.crackjee.xyz
Integrals M-131
Integrals 22
10 p 6. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f '(x) = f(x) with
1. ò0 | sin x | dx is [2002] f(0)=1 and g(x) be a function that satisfies
(a) 20 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 18 f(x) + g(x) = x 2 . Then the value of the integral
p/4 1
ò f ( x ) g ( x ) dx, is [2003]
ò
n
2. In = tan x dx then lim n[ I n + I n + 2 ] equals
n®¥ 0
0
[2002] e2 5 e2 5
(a) e + + (b) e - -
(a) 1 (b) 1 2 2 2 2
2 e2 3 e2 3
(c) ¥ (d) zero (c) e + - (d) e - - .
2 2 2 2
2 1
2
3. ò [x ]dx is [2002] 7. The value of the integral I = ò x(1 - x ) n dx is
0 0
[2003]
(a) 2 – 2 (b) 2 + 2
1 1 1
(c) 2 –1 (d) - 2 - 3 + 5 (a) + (b)
n +1 n + 2 n +1
p 2 x (1 + sin x )
4. ò 2
dx is [2002] (c)
1
(d)
1
-
1
.
- p 1 + cos x
n+2 n +1 n + 2
r
p2 n
1
(a) (b) p 2 8.
Lim
n®¥ å n e n is [2004]
4 r =1
p (a) e + 1 (b) e – 1
(c) zero (d) (c) 1 – e (d) e
2
b 3
5. If f (a + b - x) = f ( x) then ò xf ( x )dx is equal to
ò |1- x
9. The value of 2
|dx is [2004]
a
[2003] -2
b 1 14
a+b (a) (b)
2 ò
(a) f (a + b + x )dx 3 3
a
7 28
a+b b (c) (d)
(b) ò f (b - x)dx 3 3
2 a
p/2
(sin x + cos x ) 2
(c)
a +b b
ò f ( x)dx
10. The value of I = ò 1 + sin 2 x
dx is
2 a 0
[2004]
b-a b
(d) ò f ( x )dx . (a) 3 (b) 1
2 a (c) 2 (d) 0
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M-132 Mathematics
p p/2 1 1 2
2 3
x2
11. If ò xf (sin x)dx = A ò f (sin x ) dx, then A is 16.
x
If I1 = ò 2 dx , I 2 =
x
ò 2 dx , I3 = ò2 dx
0 0 0 0 1
[2004]
2
(a) 2p (b) p 3
and I 4 = ò 2 dx then
x
[2005]
p 1
(c) (d) 0
4
(a) I 2 > I1 (b) I1 > I 2
f ( a)
ex
12. If f ( x) =
1+ ex
, I1 = ò xg{x (1 - x )}dx (c) I3 = I 4 (d) I3 > I 4
f (-a )
p
cos 2 x
f ( a) 17. The value of ò x
dx , a > 0, is [2005]
and I 2 = ò g{x (1 - x )}dx, then the value - p 1+ a
f (-a )
p
I (a) a p (b)
of 2 is [2004] 2
I1 p
(c) (d) 2p
a
(a) 1 (b) –3
6
(c) –1 (d) 2 x
I =ò
18. The value of integral, dx is
sin x 9- x + x
If ò
3
13. dx = Ax + B log sin( x - a ), +C ,
sin( x - a ) [2006]
then value of (A, B) is [2004]
1 3
(a) (- cos a, sin a) (b) (cos a, sin a) (a) (b)
2 2
(c) (- sin a, cos a) (d) (sin a, cos a) (c) 2 (d) 1
p
dx
14. ò cos x - sin x is equal to [2004] 19. ò xf (sin x)dx is equal to [2006]
0
1 æ x 3p ö
(a) log tan ç + ÷ + C p p
2 è2 8 ø
(a) p ò f (cos x )dx (b) p ò f (sin x )dx
1 æ xö 0 0
(b) log cot ç ÷ + C
2 è 2ø p /2
p /2
p
1 æ x 3p ö
log tan ç - ÷ + C
(c)
2 ò f (sin x)dx (d) p ò f (cos x )dx
(c) è2 8 ø 0 0
2
p
1 æ x pö -
(d) log tan ç - ÷ + C 2
è 2 8ø
2 20. ò [( x + p )3 + cos 2 ( x + 3p )]dx is equal to
2 3p
ïì (log x - 1) ïü -
15. ò íï1 + (log x)2 ýï dx is equal to [2005] 2
[2006]
î þ
4 4
p p p
log x x (a) (b) +
(a) +C (b) +C 32 32 2
(log x)2 + 1 x2 + 1
p p
(c) (d) -1
xe x x
+C 2 4
(c) +C (d)
1 + x2 (log x)2 + 1
www.crackjee.xyz
Integrals M-133
a sin xdx
26. The value of 2ò is [2008]
21. The value of ò [ x] f '( x)dx , a > 1 where [x]
æ pö
sin ç x – ÷
1
denotes the greatest integer not exceeding x is è 4ø
[2006] æ pö
(a) x + log | cos ç x – ÷ | + c
(a) af (a) - { f (1) + f (2) + .............. f ([ a])} è 4ø
(b) [a ] f (a) - { f (1) + f (2) + .............. f ([a ])} æ pö
(b) x – log | sin ç x – ÷ | + c
è 4ø
(c) [a ] f ([a ]) - { f (1) + f (2) + .............. f ( a)}
æ pö
(c) x + log | sin ç x – ÷ | +c
(d) af ([ a]) - { f (1) + f (2) + .............. f ( a )} è 4ø
dx æ pö
22. ò cos x + 3 sin x
equals [2007] (d) x – log | cos ç x - ÷ | + c
è 4ø
p
æx pö
(a) log tan ç + ÷ + C
è 2 12 ø
27. ò [cot x] dx , where [ . ] denotes the greatest
0
integer function, is equal to : [2009]
(b) log tan çæ x - p ÷ö + C
è 2 12 ø (a) 1 (b) –1
p p
1 x p (c) - (d)
(c) log tan çæ + ÷ö + C 2 2
2 è 2 12 ø 28. Let p(x) be a function defined on R such that
1 æx pö p¢(x) = p¢(1 – x), for all x Î [0, 1], p (0) = 1 and p
(d) log tan ç - ÷ + C
2 è 2 12 ø 1
log t
x
(1) = 41. Then ò p( x) dx equals [2010]
Let F(x) = f (x) + f æç ö÷ ,where f ( x) = ò
1 dt , 0
23.
è xø 1+ t (a) 21 (b) 41
l
Then F(e) equals [2007] (c) 42 (d) 41
(a) 1 (b) 2
1
(c) 1/2 (d) 0, 8log(1 + x)
24. The solution for x of the equation 29. The value of ò 1+ x2
dx is [2011]
x 0
dt p p p
ò 2
=
2
is [2007] (a)
8
log 2 (b)
2
log 2
2 t t -1
(c) log 2 (d) p log 2
3 30. Let [.] denote the greatest integer function then
(a) (b) 2 2
2 1.5
ò x éë x
2ù
(c) 2 (d) None of these the value of û dx is :. [2011 RS]
1 1 0
sin x cos x 3
25. Let I = ò dx and J = ò dx. Then (a) 0 (b)
0
x 0
x 2
which one of the following is true? [2008] 3 5
(c) (d)
4 4
2 2 31. If the
(a) I > and J > 2 (b) I < and J < 2
5 tan x
3 3
òtan x - 2
dx = x + a ln sin x - 2 cos x + k ,
2 2 then a is equal to : [2012]
(c) I < and J > 2 (d) I > and J < 2 (a) – 1 (b) – 2
3 3
(c) 1 (d) 2
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M-134 Mathematics
x
1
32. ò
If g (x) = cos 4t dt , then g (x + p) equals x+
36. The integral ò æç1 + x - 1 ö÷ e x dx is equal to
0 è xø
[2012]
[2014]
g ( x) 1 1
(a) (b) g (x) + g (p) x+ x+
g ( p) (a) ( x + 1) e x +c (b) - xe x +c
(c) g (x) – g (p) (d) g (x) . g (p) 1 1
x+ x+
(c) ( x - 1) e x +c (d) xe x +c
33. If ò f ( x)dx = y(x), then òx
5
f ( x 3 )dx is equal p
x x
to [2013] 37. The integral ò 1 + 4sin 2
2
- 4sin dx equals:
2
0
1é 3 [2014]
(a) x y ( x 3 ) - ò x 2 y ( x3 )dx ùû + C p
3ë (a) 4 3 - 4 (b) 4 3 - 4 -
1 3 3
(b) x y ( x3 ) - 3ò x 3 y ( x 3 )dx + C
3 2p
(c) p - 4 (d) - 4- 4 3
1 3 3
(c) x y ( x3 ) - ò x 2 y ( x3 )dx + C
3 dx
1é 3 38. The integral ò x 2 (x 4 + 1)3/4 equals : [2015]
(d) x y ( x 3 ) - ò x3 y ( x3 ) dx ùû + C
3ë 1
34. Statement-1 : The value of the integral 1 æ x 4 + 1ö 4
p /3
dx (a) - (x 4 + 1) 4 +c (b) - ç 4 ÷ + c
è x ø
ò is equal to p/6
p/61+ tan x
1
b b æ x 4 + 1ö 4 1
(c) ç 4 ÷ + c (d) (x 4 + 1) 4 + c
Statement-2 : ò f ( x )dx = ò f (a + b - x )dx.
è x ø
a a
[2013] 4
log x 2
(a) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is true; 39. The integral ò log x 2 + log(36 - 12 x + x 2 ) dx
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for 2
Statement-1. is equal to : [2015]
(b) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is true; (a) 1 (b) 6
(c) 2 (d) 4
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1. 2x12 + 5x 9
40. The integral ò dx is equal to :
(c) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is false. 5 3 3
(d) Statement-1 is false; Statement-2 is true. (x + x +1
)
35. The intercepts on x-axis made by tangents to [2016]
x x5
(a) +C
thecurve, y = ò t dt , x Î R, which are parallel
5 3 2
0 (
2 x + x +1
)
to the line y = 2x, are equal to : [2013]
- x10
(a) ± 1 (b) ± 2 (b) +C
2
2 x5 + x3 + 1
(c) ± 3 (d) ± 4
( )
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Integrals M-135
-x 5 (a) –1 (b) –2
(c) 2
+C (c) 2 (d) 4
x5 + x3 +1
( ) n
42. Let In = ò tan x dx,(n > 1) . I4 + I6 = a tan5x + bx5
x10 + C, where C is constant of integration, then the
(d) 2
+C ordered pair (a, b) is equal to : [2017]
2 x5 + x3 +1
( )
where C is an arbitrary constant.
æ 1 ö
(a) çè - , 0÷ø
æ 1 ö
(b) çè - ,1÷ø
5 5
3p
æ1 ö æ1 ö
4
dx (c) çè , 0÷ø (d) çè , -1÷ø
5 5
41. The integral ò 1 + cos x
is equal to : [2017]
p
4
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (b) (d) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
(d) (b, c) (c) (d) (a) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) (c)
1 lim n [I + I ]
\ In + In+2 = Þ n®¥ n n+2
10 p p n +1
1. (a) I= ò | sin x | dx = 10 ò | sin x | dx
= lim n.
1
= lim
n
0p 0
n ®¥ n + 1 n®¥ n + 1
= 10ò sin x dx
n
0 = lim =1
n®¥ æ 1ö
n ç1 + ÷
[Q | sin x| is periodic with period p and sin x > 0 è nø
if 0 < x < p]
2 1 2
p/2
ò éë x ùû dx = ò éë x ùû dx + ò é x 2 ù dx +
2 2
sin x dx = 20 [ - cos x ]0
p/2 3. (d) ë û
I = 20 ò = 20
0 0 1
0
3 2
p/4
éx2 ù + é x 2 ù dx
2. (b) I n + I n+ 2 = ò
n 2
tan x(1 + tan x )dx ò ë û ò ë û
2 3
0
p/ 4 p/4 1 2 3 2
é tan n +1 x ù
= ò
n
tan x sec x dx = ê 2
ú = ò 0dx + ò 1dx + ò 2dx + ò 3dx
0 êë n + 1 úû 0 0 1 2 3
1- 0 1 = [ x ]1 + [ 2 x ]
2 3
+ [ 3x] 3
2
= = 2
n +1 n + 1
EBD_7764
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M-136 Mathematics
= 2 -1 + 2 3 - 2 2 + 6 - 3 3 [Q given that f(a + b – x) = f(x)]
b
= 5- 3 - 2 2I = (a + b)ò f ( x)dx
p 2 x (1 + sin x) a
4. (b) ò-p 1 + cos 2 x
dx
( a + b)
b
2 ò
Þ I= f ( x )dx
p 2 x dx p x sin x a
= ò-p + 2ò dx
1 + cos x 2 -p 1 + cos 2 x f ¢( x )
6. (d) Given f ¢ ( x ) = f ( x) Þ =1
é a ù
f ( x)
p x sin x dx
= 0+4 ò0 ; êQ ò f ( x ) dx = 0ú Integrating
1 + cos2 x êë - a úû log f ( x) = x + c Þ f ( x ) = e x + c
if f(x) is odd
f (0) = 1 Þ f ( x ) = e x
a
= 2ò f ( x ) dx if f(x) is even. 1 1
\ ò f ( x ) g ( x) dx = ò e x ( x 2 - e x ) dx
0 0 0
p (p - x) sin (p - x ) 1 1
I = 4 ò0 dx = ò x 2 e x dx - ò e 2 x dx
1 + cos2 (p - x ) 0 0
I=4 ò0
p (p - x) sin x
dx = [ ] - 2[xe
1
x 2e x 0 x
- ex ]1
0 -
2
[ ]
1 2x
e
1
0
1 + cos 2 x
é e2 1 ù 2
p sin x dx x sin x dx = e - ê - ú - 2[e - e + 1] = e - e - 3
Þ I = 4pò - 4ò
0 1 + cos 2 x 1 + cos 2 x ëê 2 2 úû 2 2
1 1
p sin x I = ò x(1 - x )n dx = ò (1 - x )(1 - 1 + x) n dx
Þ 2I = 4p ò dx 7. (d)
1 + cos 2 x 0
0 0
put cos x = t Þ - sin x dx = dt 1
é x n +1 x n + 2 ù
1
n
-1 1
= ò (1 - x) x dx = ê - ú
1 1 êë n + 1 n + 2 úû 0
ò 1+ t2 dt = 2p ò 0
\ I = -2 p 2
dt
1 -1 1 + t =
1
-
1
1 n +1 n + 2
-1
= 2p éë tan t ùû n r
-1 8. (b) 1
Lim
n®¥ å ne n [Using definite integrals as
= 2p éë tan 1 - tan ( -1) ùû
-1 -1 r =1
limit of sum]
1
é p æ -p ö ù p
= 2p ê 4 - ç 4 ÷ ú = 2p. 2 = p2 = ò e x dx = e - 1
ë è ø û 0
b b 3 3
ò |1 - x ò|x
2 2
5. (c) I = ò xf ( x )dx = ò (a + b - x ) f (a + b - x )dx 9. (d) | dx = - 1| dx
a a -2 -2
b b x - 1 if ì 2 x £ -1
= (a + b )ò f (a + b - x)dx - ò xf (a + b - x )dx ïï
2 2
a a Now | x - 1|= í1 - x if -1 £ x £ 1
ï 2
ïî x - 1 if x ³1
b b
= (a + b )ò f ( x) dx - ò xf ( x)dx
a a
\ Integral is
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Integrals M-137
-1 1 3 x -x
e e
ò (x - 1)dx + ò (1 - x2 )dx +ò ( x 2 - 1)dx
2 12. (d) f ( x) = Þ f (- x ) =
-2 -1 1
1+ e x
1 + e- x
-1 1 3 1
é x3 ù é x3 ù é x3 ù =
x
= ê 3 - xú + ê x - 3 ú + ê 3 - xú e +1
ëê úû -2 ëê ûú -1 ëê ûú1 \ f ( x) + f ( - x) = 1 " x
f (a )
0 ë û
é 1 2 log x ù
= òê 2
- 2 2ú
dx
êë (1 + (log x) ) (1 + (log x) ) úû
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M-138 Mathematics
é et p p
2t et ù
= òê - ú dt put log x = t 2 2
2
ëê1 + t (1 + t 2 )2 ûú Þ I = 2 ò dx - 2 ò cos x dx
2
0 0
Þ dx = et dt
æ pö p
t é 1 2t ù Þ I + I = 2ç ÷ = p Þ I =
= òe ê 2
- ú dt è 2ø 2
ëê1 + t (1 + t 2 )2 ûú 6
x
é Which is of the form e ( f ( x) + f '( x ) ) dxù 18. (b) I =ò dx … (1)
ò
x
ë û 3
9- x + x
t
e x
= +c = +c 6
9- x
1+ t2 1 + (log x ) 2 I =ò dx … (2)
3
9-x+ x
1 1
2 3
16. (b) I1 = ò 2 x dx, I 2 = ò 2 x dx, b b
0 0
[ using ò f ( x)dx = ò f (a + b - x )dx ]
1 1 a a
x2 x3 Adding equation (1) and (2)
I3 = ò 2 dx, I 4 = ò 2 dx " 0 < x < 1, x > x 2 3
6
0 0 3
2 I = ò dx = 3 Þ I =
1 1 2
2 3 3
x x
Þ ò 2 dx > ò 2 dx Þ I1 > I 2 p p
0 0
19. (d) I = ò xf (sin x)dx = ò (p - x ) f (sin x)dx
p
cos 2 x 0 0
17. (b) Let I = ò 1 + a x dx ....(1) p
-p = p ò f (sin x) dx - I
p
cos 2
( -x) 0
p
= ò -x
dx
Þ 2 I = p ò f (sin x )dx
-p 1 + a
0
é b b ù pp p /2
I = ò f (sin x )dx = p ò f (sin x )dx
ê Using ò f ( x ) dx = ò f ( a + b - x ) dx ú 20 0
êë a a úû p /2
p
= p ò f (cos x ) dx
cos 2 x 0
= ò x
dx ....(2) -
p
-p 1 + a 2
Adding equations (1) and (2) we get
20. (c) I= ò [( x + p )3 + cos 2 ( x + 3p )]dx
3p
p æ 1+ ax ö p -
2 2
2 I = ò cos x ç x÷
dx = ò cos 2 x dx Put x + p = t
-p è 1 + a ø -p p p
p 2 2
= 2ò cos 2 x dx 3
+ cos 2 t ]dt = 2 2
I= ò [t ò cos tdt
0 p p
- -
p p 2 2
2 2 [using the property of even and odd
= 2 ´ 2 ò cos 2 x dx = 4 ò sin 2 x dx function]
0 0 p
2
p p p
= ò (1 + cos 2t )dt = 2 + 0
ò (1 - cos )
2 2
Þ I = 2 ò sin x dx = 2
2 2 0
x dx
0 0
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Integrals M-139
21. (b) Let a = k + h where k is an integer such that 1 1 dz
[a] = k and 0 £ h < 1 \ Put = z Þ - 2 dt = dz Þ dt = – 2
t t z
a 2 3 and limit for t = 1 Þ z = 1 and for t = 1/e
\ò [ x] f '( x )dx = ò 1 f '( x )dx + ò 2 f '( x )dx+ Þ z=e
1 1 2
æ 1ö
k k +h log ç ÷
e è zø æ dz ö
... ò (k - 1)dx + ò kf '( x )dx \ I= ò1 1 çè - 2 ÷ø
z
k -1 k 1+
z
= {f (2) – f (1)} + 2{f (3) – f (2)} + 3{f (4) –f
(3)}+ ........ + (k – 1) {f(k) – f(k – 1)} + k{f(k e (log1 - log z ).z æ dz ö
+ h) – f(k)} =ò çè - 2 ÷ø
1 z +1 z
= – f (1) – f (2) – f (3) ......... – f (k) + kf (k + h)
= [a] f (a) - { f (1) + f (2) + f (3) + ¼ f ([a])} e log z æ dz ö
=ò - ç- ÷ [Q log1 = 0]
dx 1 ( z + 1) è z ø
22. (c) I = ò
cos x + 3 sin x e log z
dx =ò dz
Þ I =ò 1 z ( z + 1)
é1 3 ù
2 ê cos x + sin x ú e log t
ë2 2 û \ I= ò dt
1 t (t + 1)
b b
1
= ò
dx [By property òa f (t )dt = òa f ( x)dx ]
2 é p p ù Equation (A) becomes
êësin 6 cos x + cos 6 sin x úû e log t e log t
1
= .ò
dx F(e) = ò1 1 + t dt + ò1 t (1 + t ) dt
2 æ pö
sin ç x + ÷ e t.log t + log t e (log t )(t + 1)
è 6ø =ò dt = ò dt
pö
1 t (1 + t ) 1 t (1 + t )
1 æ
2ò
Þ I= . cosec ç x + ÷ dx
è 6ø e log t
But we know that
Þ F(e) = ò1 t
dt
1
ò cosec x dx = log | (tan x / 2) | + C Let log t = x \
t
dt = dx
1 x p
\ . log tan æç + ö÷ + C
I=
2 è 2 12 ø [for limit t = 1, x = 0 and t = e, x = log e = 1]
æ 1ö é x2 ù
1
23. (c) Given F (x) = f (x) + f ç ÷ ,where 1
è xø \ F(e) =
ò0 x dx F(e) = ê ú
ëê 2 ûú 0
x logt
f (x) = ò1 1+ t
dt
1
Þ F(e) =
2
\ F(e) = f (e) + f æç 1 ö÷
è eø x dt p
24. (d) ò 2t 2
t -1
=
2
e log t 1/ e log t
Þ F(e) =
ò1 1+ t
dt + ò
1 1+ t
dt ....(A)
\ ésec-1 t ù
x
=
p
ë û 2 2
1/ e logt
Now for solving, I = ò1 1+ t
dt
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M-140 Mathematics
é ù p
ò0 [cot x] dx
dx 1
êQ
ëê
ò
x x2 - 1
= sec -1 x ú
ûú
27. (c) Let I = ....(1)
p p
Þ sec–1 x – sec–1 2 =
p = ò0 [ cot (p - x) ] dx = ò0 [- cot x] dx ....(2)
2 Adding two values of I in eqn s (1) & (2),
p p p p We get
Þ sec–1x – = Þ sec–1x = +
4 2 2 4 p
3p 3p
2I = ò0 ([ cot x] + [ - cot x]) dx
Þ sec–1x = Þ x = sec 4 p
4 = ò ( -1)dx
Þ x= – 0
2
[Q[ x] + [- x] = -1, if x Ïz and [x] + [–x] =
sin x
25. (b) We know that < 1 , for x Î (0, 1) 0, if x Î z]
x p
sin x = [ - x ]p0 = -p Þ I = –
< x on x Î (0, 1) 2
Þ
x 28. (a) p '( x) = p '(1 - x)
1 1 1 Þ p ( x ) = - p (1 - x ) + c
sin x é 2 x3 / 2 ù
at x = 0
Þ ò dx < ò xdx = ê ú
0
x 0 ëê 3 ûú 0 p(0) = – p(1) + c Þ 42 = c
Now, p( x ) = - p(1 - x) + 42
1
sin x 2 2
Þ ò x
dx <
3
ÞI<
3
Þ p ( x ) + p (1 - x) = 42
0 1
ò f ( x )dx = ò f (a + b - x ) dx é x 1 x p
a a êQ sin 2 = 2 Þ 2 = 6
ë
It is fundamental property.
p x 5p 5p ù
x Þx= , = Þx= ú
35. (a) Since, y = ò t dt , x ÎR 3 2 6 3û
0 p /3 p
é xù é x ù
dy = ê x + 4cos ú + ê -4 cos - x ú
therefore = x ë 2 û0 ë 2 ûp / 3
dx
p 3 æ 3 pö
dy = +4 - 4 +ç0 - p + 4 + ÷
But from y = 2x, =2 3 2 ç 2 3 ÷ø
dx è
Þ |x|=2 Þ x=±2 p
±2 = 4 3 -4-
3
Points y = ò t dt = ± 2
dx
dx
\
0
equation of tangent is
38. (b) I= ò = ò x 3 (1 + x -4 )3/ 4
x 2 (x 4 + 1)3/ 4
y – 2 = 2(x – 2) or y + 2 = 2(x + 2)
Let x–4 = y
Þ x-intercept = ± 1. Þ –4x–3 dx = dy
-1 3
æ 1 ö x+ 1 Þ dx = x dy
36. (d) Let I = ò ç1 + x - ÷ e x dx 4
è xø
-1 x 3dy -1 dy
4 ò x 3 (1 + y)3 / 4 4 ò (1 + y)3/ 4
x+ 1 æ 1 ö x+ 1 \I= =
= òe x dx
+ ò çè x - ÷ø e x dx
x
www.crackjee.xyz
Integrals M-143
-1 10
= ´ 4(1 + y)1/ 4 = -(1 + x -4 )1/ 4 + C =
x
+C
4
2( x +x3 +1) 2
5
1/ 4
æ x 4 + 1ö
= –ç ÷ +C 3p
è x4 ø 4
dx
4
log x 2
41. (c) I= ò 1 + cos x ...(i)
p
39. (a) I=ò dx
2
2 log x + log(36 -12x + x 2 ) 4
3p
4
log x2 4
dx
I=ò dx .
2
2 log x + log(6 - x)
2 ...(i) I= ò 1 - cos x ...(ii)
p
4
log(6 - x)2 4
I=ò dx ...(ii)
b b
2
2 log(6 - x) + log x
2 Using ò f (x)dx = ò f (a + b - x) dx
Adding (i) and (ii) a a
4
Adding (i) and (ii)
2I = ò dx = [ x ]2 = 2
4
3p
4
2 2
2I = ò sin 2 x
dx
I=1 p
4
2x12 + 5x9 3p
40. (d) ò (x 5 + x3 + 1)3 dx 4
ò cosec
2
Dividing by x15 in numerator and denominator I= x dx
2 5 p
+ 6 dx
3 4
ò æ x 1 x 1 ö3 é 3p pù
ç1 + 2 + 5 ÷ I = – (cot x)3pp/ 4/ 4 = – ê cot - cot ú = 2
è x x ø ë 4 4û
1 1
Substitute 1+ + 5 =t n
x 2
x 42. (c) In = ò tan x dx, n > 1
æ –2 5 ö Let I = I4 + I6
Þ ç – dx = dt
è x 3 x 6 ÷ø = ò (tan 4 x + tan 6 x)dx = ò tan 4 x sec2 x dx
æ2 5 ö Let tan x = t
Þ çç + ÷÷ dx = - dt
è x3 x 6 ø Þ sec2 x dx = dt
This gives,
\ I = ò t 4 dt
2 5
+ 6 dx
x3 x – dt 1 t5
ò 3
= ò t3
=
2t 2
+C =
5
+C
æ 1 1ö
çè1 + 2 + 5 ÷ø
x x 1 5
= tan x + C Þ On comparing, we have
1 5
= +C
æ 1 1 ö2 1
2ç
ç1+ 2 + 5 ÷
÷ a= ,b=0
è x x ø 5
EBD_7764
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M-144 Mathematics
Applications of Integrals 23
1. If y = f(x) makes +ve intercept of 2 and 0 unit on 7. Let f (x) be a non – negative continuous function
x and y axes and encloses an area of 3/4 square such that the area bounded by the curve y = f (x),
2 p p
x - axis and the ordinates x = and x = b > is
unit with the axes then ò xf ¢ ( x)dx is [2002] 4 4
0 æ p ö æpö
ç b sin b + cos b + 2b ÷. Then f ç ÷ [2005]
(a) 3/2 (b) 1 è 4 ø è2ø
(c) 5/4 (d) –3/4
æp ö æp ö
2. The area bounded by the curves y = lnx, y = ln (a) ç + 2 - 1÷ (b) ç - 2 + 1÷
|x|,y = | ln x | and y = | ln |x| | is [2002] è4 ø è4 ø
(a) 4sq. units (b) 6 sq. units æ p ö æ p ö
(c) ç1 - - 2 ÷ (d) ç1 - + 2 ÷
(c) 10 sq. units (d) none of these è 4 ø è 4 ø
3. The area of the region bounded by the curves 8. The area enclosed between the curves y2 = x
and y = | x | is [2007]
y = x - 1 and y = 3 - x is [2003]
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/3
(a) 6 sq. units (b) 2 sq. units (c) 2/3 (d) 1
(c) 3 sq. units (d) 4 sq. units. 9. The area of the plane region bounded by the
4. The area of the region bounded by the curves curves x + 2y2 = 0 and x + 3y2 = 1is equal to
y =| x - 2 |, x = 1, x = 3 and the x-axis is [2004] [2008]
(a) 4 (b) 2 5 1
(a) (b)
(c) 3 (d) 1 3 3
5. The area enclosed between the curve y = 4
(c) 2 (d)
log e ( x + e) and the coordinate axes is [2005] 3 3
10. The area of the region bounded by the parabola
(a) 1 (b) 2 (y – 2)2 = x –1, the tangent of the parabola at
(c) 3 (d) 4 the point (2, 3) and the x-axis is: [2009]
6.
2 2
The parabolas y = 4 x and x = 4 y divide the (a) 6 (b) 9
square region bounded by the lines x = 4, y = 4 (c) 12 (d) 3
11. The area bounded by the curves y = cos x and
and the coordinate axes. If S1 , S2 , S3 are y = sin x between the ordinates x = 0 and x =
respectively the areas of these parts numbered 3p
from top to bottom; then S1 : S2 : S3 is [2005] is [2010]
2
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (a) 4 2 + 2 (b) 4 2 - 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1 : 1
(c) 4 2 + 1 (d) 4 2 - 2
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Applications of Integrals M-145
12. The area of the region enclosed by the curves 16. The area of the region described by
1
A= {( x, y ) : x 2
}
+ y 2 £ 1 and y 2 £ 1 - x is:
y = x, x = e, y = and the positive x-axis is [2011]
x [2014]
3 p 2 p 2
(a) 1 square unit (b) square units (a) - (b) +
2 2 3 2 3
5 1
(c) square units (d) square unit p 4 p 4
2 2 (c) + (d) -
2 3 2 3
13. The area bounded by the curves [2011 RS]
17. The area (in sq. units) of the region described by
y 2 = 4 x and x2 = 4y is: {(x, y) : y2 £ 2x and y ³ 4x – 1} is [2015]
32 16 15 9
(a) sq units (b) sq units (a) (b)
3 3 64 32
8 7 5
(c) sq. units (d) 0 sq. units (c) (d)
3 32 64
y
14. The area between the parabolas x 2 = and 18. The area (in sq. units) of the region {(x, y) :
4 y2 ³ 2x and x2 + y2 £ 4x, x ³ 0, y ³ 0} is :
x2 = 9y and the straight line y = 2 is : [2012] [2016]
10 2 4 2 p 2 2
(a) 20 2 (b) (a) p- (b) -
3 3 2 3
20 2
(c) (d) 10 2 4 8
3 (c) p- (d) p-
15. The area (in square units) bounded by the curves 3 3
19. The area (in sq. units) of the region
y = x , 2y – x + 3 = 0, x-axis, and lying in the
first quadrant is : [2013] {(x, y) : x ³ 0, x + y £ 3, x2 £ 4y and y £ 1 + x }
(a) 9 (b) 36 is : [2017]
27 5 59
(c) 18 (d) (a) (b)
4 2 12
3 7
(c) (d)
2 3
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(d) (a) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b) (b) (c) (a)
16 17 18 19
(c) (b) (d) (a)
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M-146 Mathematics
2
3. (d)
3
1. (d) We have ò f ( x)dx = ; Now,,
4 y=–x+1 (0,3)
0
(–1,2) y=x–1
2 2 2 (2,1)
ò xf ¢( x)dx = xò f ¢( x)dx - ò f ( x)dx
0 0 0 y=3+x (1,0) y=3–x
2 3 3
= [ x f ( x)]0 - = 2 f (2) - 0
4 4 A= ò { (3 + x) - (- x + 1)} dx +
3 3 -1
= 0 - (Q f (2) = 0) = - .
4 4
1 2
2. (a) First we draw each curve as separate graph
y=ln|x|
ò { (3 - x) - (- x + 1)} dx + ò { (3 - x) - ( x - 1)} dx
y=lnx 0 1
0 1 2
x x
= ò (2 + 2 x)dx + ò 2dx + ò (4 - 2 x)dx
-1 0 1
(1,0) (–1,0) (1,0)
0 2
+ [ 2 x] + é4 x - x2 ù
é2 x - x 2 ù 1
=
ë û -1 0ë û1
= 0 - ( -2 + 1) + (2 - 0) + (8 - 4) - (4 - 1)
y=|l n x| y=|l n |x|| = 1 + 2 + 4 - 3 = 4 sq. units
Y
Note: Graph of y = | f(x) | can be obtained from the
graph of the curve y = f(x) by drawing the mirror (y = 2 – x) (y = x – 2)
image of the portion of the graph below x-axis,
with respect to x-axis. Clearly the bounded area
is as shown in the following figure.
y
Y 3
é ( y - 2)3 ù
A (–2, 1) = 3+ ê + yú
ëê 3 úû 0
D é1 8ù
X = 3 + ê + 3 + ú = 3 + 6 = 9 Sq. units
X´ C (1, 0) ë3 3û
B 11. (d)
(–2, –1)
cos x sin x
Y´
5p 3p
The required area is ACBDA, given by
p 4 2
1 é 3 ù1 0 p p 2p
5y
= ò (1 – 3 y – 2 y )dy = ê y – 3 ú
2 2
4 2
–1 ëê ûú –1
Area above x-axis = Area below x-axis
æ 5ö æ 5ö
= çè1 – 3 ÷ø – ç –1 + ÷ = 2 ´ 2 = 4 sq. units. \ Required area
è 3ø 3 3
é p ù
10. (b) The given parabola is (y – 2)2 = x – 1 ê 2 ú
Vertex (1, 2) and it meets x –axis at (5, 0) ê p (cos x - sin x)dx + ò (sin x - cos x)dx + ú
Also it gives y2 – 4y – x + 5 = 0 ê4 p ú
So, that equation of tangent to the parabola ê
= 2êò 4
ú
ú
at (2, 3) is ê0 p ú
1
y.3 – 2 (y + 3) – (x + 2) + 5 = 0
ê
ê
ò sin x dx ú
ú
2 p
êë 2 úû
or x – 2y + 4 = 0
which meets x-axis at (– 4, 0). = 4 2 -2
In the figure shaded area is the required 12. (b) Area of required region AOBC
area. 1 e
1
Let us draw PD perpendicular to y – axis. = ò xdx + ò dx
0 1
x
Y
1 3
(2, 3) = + 1 = sq. units
D 2 2
P
(0,2)A y x=e
B y=x
X
(–4, 0) O C(5,0)
(1, 1)
Then required area = Ar DBOA + Ar (OCPD) A
– Ar (DAPD) 1
B e, e
1 3 1 O
= ×4×2+
2 ò 0
xdy - ´ 2 ´ 1
2 C
x
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Applications of Integrals M-149
13. (b) 3 3 2
é2 1 2 2 ùú
ê
= 2 ´ 3.y - ´ .y
2
ê3 2 3 ú
ë û0
é 3 1 3ù 3 2
5
= 2 ê2y 2 - y 2 ú = 2 ´ y 2
ê 3 ú 3
ë û 0
5 20 2
= 2. 2 2 =
3 3
15. (a) Given curves are
y= x …(1)
and 2y – x + 3 = 0 …(2)
4
æ x2 ö On solving both we get y = –1, 3
Area = ò ç 2 x - ÷ dx Y
0è
4ø
4
é æ x3/ 2 ö x3 ù 4 64
= ê2 ç ÷ - 12 ú = ´ 8 -
ëê è 3 / 2 ø ûú 0 3 12
32 16 X
= - 16 = sq. units
3 3
2 y
14. (c) Given curves x = and x2 = 9y are the
4
parabolas whose equations can be written 3
ò { (2 y + 3) - y } dy
2
1 Required area =
as y = 4x2 and y = x2 .
9 0
3
Y 1 2 y3
y = 4x2 y = 9 x = y2 + 3y – = 9.
3 0
y=2
16. (c) Given curves are x2 + y2 = 1 and y2 = 1 –x.
Intersecting points are x = 0, 1
X Area of shaded portion is the required area.
So, Required Area = Area of semi-circle
Also, given y = 2. + Area bounded by parabola
Now, shaded portion shows the required 1
area which is symmetric. pr 2
= + 2 ò 1 - xdx
2 2
æ yö 0
\
è
ò
Area = 2 çç 9y - ÷ dy
4 ÷ø p
1
0 = + 2 ò 1 - x dx (Q radius of circle = 1)
2 2
æ yö 0
ò
Area = 2 ç 3 y -
ç
è
÷ dy
2 ÷ø é (1 - x ) 3 2 ù
1
0 p
= + 2ê ú
é 1
+1
1 ù
+1
2 2 ê -3 ú
ë 2 û0
ê 3.y 2 1 y2 ú
= 2ê - . ú p 4 p 4
ê 1 +1 2 1 +1ú = - (-1) = + Sq. unit
ëê 2 2 ûú 0 2 3 2 3
EBD_7764
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M-150 Mathematics
17. (b) Required area Points of intersection of the two curves are (0,
0), (2, 2) and (2, –2)
Area = Area (OAB) – area under parabola (0 to 2)
B æ 1 ,1ö p ´ (2) 2
2
çè ÷ = - ò 2 x dx = p - 8
2 ø
4 3
0
O C æ 1 - 1ö
çè , ÷ø 19. (a)
8 2
x+y=3
y=1+ x
1 1 (1, 2)
y +1 y2 4y = x 2
= ò 4
dy - ò 2
dy
(0, 1)
-1/ 2 -1/ 2
1 1
1 é y2 ù 1 é y3 ù (2, 1)
= ê + yú - ê ú
4 ëê 2 úû -1/ 2 2 ëê 3 ûú -1/ 2
(0, 0) (1, 0) (2, 0)
1 é 3 3 ù 9 15 9 27 9
+ - = - = =
4 êë 2 8 úû 48 32 48 96 32
=
Area of shaded region
A (2, 2) 1 2
x2
2
=ò (1 + x )dx + ò (3 - x)dx - ò 4 dx
0 1 0
18. (d) 3 ù1
O B 2 2
x2 ú x2 ù x3 ù 5
= x] + + 3x ]
1 2
- ú - ú = sq.units
3 úú
0 1 Sq.unit
2 úû 12 úû 2
1 0
2 úû 0
(2, –2)
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Differential Equations M-151
Differential Equations 24
1. The order and degree of the differential 5. The differential equation for the family of circle
2/3 x 2 + y 2 - 2ay = 0, where a is an arbitrary
æ dy ö d3y
equation ç1 + 3 ÷ =4 are [2002] constant is [2004]
è dx ø dx3
(a) ( x 2 + y 2 ) y ¢ = 2 xy
2
(a) (1, ) (b) (3, 1)
3 (b) 2( x 2 + y 2 ) y ¢ = xy
(c) (3, 3) (d) (1, 2)
(c) ( x 2 - y 2 ) y ¢ = 2 xy
2
d y
2. The solution of the equation = e -2 x (d) 2( x 2 - y 2 ) y ¢ = xy
dx 2
6. Solution of the differential equation
[2002]
ydx + ( x + x 2 y )dy = 0 is [2004]
e -2 x e -2 x
(a) (b) + cx + d 1
4 4 (a) log y = Cx (b) - + log y = C
xy
1 -2 x 1 -4 x
(c) e + cx 2 + d (d) e + cx + d
4 4 1 1
(c) + log y = C (d) - = C
3. The degree and order of the differential xy xy
equation of the family of all parabolas whose 7. The differential equation representing the family
axis is x - axis, are respectively.
(a) 2, 3 (b) 2, 1 [2003] of curves y 2 = 2c ( x + c ) , where c > 0, is a
(c) 1, 2 (d) 3, 2. parameter, is of order and degree as follows :
4. The solution of the differential equation [2005]
-1 dy (a) order 1, degree 2 (b) order 1, degree 1
(1 + y 2 ) + ( x - e tan y
) = 0 , is [2003] (c) order 1, degree 3 (d) order 2, degree 2
dx
-1 -1 dy
(a) xe 2 tan y
= e tan y
+k
8. If x = y (log y – log x + 1), then the solution
dx
-1 of the equation is [2005]
(b) ( x - 2) = ke 2 tan y
æ xö æ yö
-1 -1 (a) y log ç ÷ = cx (b) x log ç ÷ = cy
(c) 2 xe tan y
= e 2 tan y
+k è yø è xø
-1
(d) xe tan y
= tan -1 y + k æ yö æ xö
(c) log ç ÷ = cx (d) log ç ÷ = cy
è xø è yø
EBD_7764
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M-152 Mathematics
9. The differential equation whose solution is dV (t )
by differential equation = - k (T - t ),
2 2 dt
Ax + By = 1 where A and B are arbitrary
where k > 0 is a constant and T is the total life in
constants is of [2006]
years of the equipment. Then the scrap value
(a) second order and second degree V(T) of the equipment is [2011]
(b) first order and second degree
(c) first order and first degree kT 2 k (T - t )2
(a) I - (b) I -
(d) second order and first degree 2 2
10. The differential equation of all circles passing 21
through the origin and having their centres on (c) e– kT (d) T -
k
the x-axis is [2007] 16. Consider the differential equation [2011RS]
dy (b) 2 dy
(a) y 2 = x 2 + 2 xy y = x 2 - 2 xy æ 1ö
dx dx y 2 dx + ç x - ÷ dy = 0. If y (1) = 1, then x is
è yø
dy dy
(c) x 2 = y 2 + xy (d) x 2 = y 2 + 3 xy . given by :
dx dx
1 1
11. The solution of the differential equation y y
2 e 1 e
dy x + y (a) 4 - - (b) 3 - +
= satisfying the condition y(1) =1 is y e y e
dy x 1 1
y y
[2008]
(c) 1 + 1 - e (d) 1 - 1 + e
(a) y = ln x + x (b) y = x ln x + x2 y e y e
(c) y = xe(x – 1) (d) y = x ln x + x 17. The population p (t) at time t of a certain mouse
12. The differential equation which represents the
dp ( t )
c2 x , species satisfies the differential equation =
family of curves y = c1e where c1, and c2 dt
are arbitrary constants, is [2009] 0.5 p(t) – 450. If p (0) = 850, then the time at which
(a) y" = y'y (b) yy" = y' the population becomes zero is : [2012]
(c) yy" = (y')2 (d) y' = y2 (a) 2ln 18 (b) ln 9
13. Solution of the differential equation 1
p (c) ln 18 (d) ln 18
cos x dy = y (sin x - y ) dx, 0 < x < is[2010] 2
2 18. At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items.
(a) y sec x = tan x + c (b) y tan x = sec x + c It is estimated that the rate of change of
(c) tan x = (sec x + c) y (d) sec x = (tan x + c) y production P w.r.t. additional number of workers
dy
14. If = y + 3 > 0 and y (0) = 2, then y (ln 2) is dP
dx x is given by = 100 – 12 x . If the firm
dx
equal to : [2011]
employs 25 more workers, then the new level
(a) 5 (b) 13
of production of items is [2013]
(c) – 2 (d) 7
(a) 2500 (b) 3000
15. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and
V (t) be the value after it has been used for t (c) 3500 (d) 4500
years. The value V(t) depreciates at a rate given 19. Let the population of rabbits surviving at time
t be gover ned by the differen tial
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Differential Equations M-153
(a) 2 (b) 2e
dp ( t ) 1
equation = p ( t ) –200.If p(0) = 100, (c) e (d) 0
dt 2 21. If a curve y = f(x) passes through the point (1, –1)
then p(t) equals: [2014] and satisfies the differential equation, y(1 + xy)
(a) 600 - 500 e t 2 (b) 400 - 300 e -t 2 æ 1ö
dx = x dy, then f ç ÷ is equal to :
ç- ÷ [2016]
(c) 400 - 300 et 2 (d) 300 - 200 e -t 2 è 2ø
20. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential 2 4
(a) (b)
dy 5 5
equation (x log x) + y = 2x log x, (x ³ 1).
dx 2 4
(c) - (d) -
Then y (e) is equal to: [2015] 5 5
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(c) (b) (c) (c) (c) (b) (c) (c) (d) (a) (d) (c) (d) (d) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21
(c) (a) (c) (c) (a) (b)
2 3 1
æ d yö æ 4d3yö ò dy
tan -1 y
1. (c) 1 + 3 = ç ÷ (1+ y 2 )
çè d x ÷ø I .F = e =e
è d x3 ø
-1
tan -1 y e tan y -1
æ d yö
2
æ d yö 3 3 x( e )=ò e tan y
dy
2
Þ ç1 + 3 = 16 ç ÷ 1+ y
è ÷
d xø è d x3 ø -1
tan -1 y e 2 tan y
2
d y -2 x x( e )= +C
2. (b) 2
= e -2 x ; dy = e +c; 2
dx dx -2 -1 -1
\ 2 xe tan y
= e2 tan y
+k
-2 x
e
y= + cx + d 5. (c) x 2 + y 2 - 2ay = 0 ...........(1)
4
Differentiate,
3. (c) y 2 = 4a( x - h), 2 yy1 = 4a Þ yy1 = 2a
dy dy x + yy ¢
Differentiating, Þ y12 + yy2 = 0 2x + 2 y - 2a =0 Þa=
dx dx y¢
Degree = 1, order = 2.
æ x + yy ¢ ö
-1 dy Put in (1), x 2 + y 2 - 2 ç y=0
4. (c) (1 + y 2 ) + ( x - e tan y ) =0 è y ¢ ÷ø
dx
-1 Þ ( x 2 + y 2 ) y '- 2 xy - 2 y 2 y ' = 0
dx x e tan y
Þ + =
dy (1 + y 2 ) (1 + y 2 ) Þ ( x 2 - y 2 ) y ' = 2 xy
EBD_7764
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M-154 Mathematics
ln z = ln x + ln c
6. (b) ydx + ( x + x 2 y )dy = 0
æ yö
dx x dx x x = cx or log v = cx or log ç ÷ = cx.
Þ = - - x2 Þ + = - x2 , è xø
dy y dy y
It is Bernoulli form. Divide by x2 9. (d) Ax 2 + By 2 = 1 ...(1)
dx æ 1ö dy
x -2 + x -1 ç ÷ = -1. Ax + By =0 ....(2)
dy è yø dx
2
dx dt d2y æ dy ö
put x -1 = t , - x -2 = A + By + Bç ÷ = 0 ....(3)
dy dy dx 2 è dx ø
We get, From (2) and (3)
dt æ 1ö dt æ 1 ö ìï d2y æ dy ö üï
2
dy
- + t ç ÷ = -1 Þ - t =1 x í - By 2 - B ç ÷ ý + By =0
dy è y ø dy çè y ÷ø dx è ø
dx ïþ dx
ïî
It is linear in t. Dividing both sides by –B, we get
Integrating factor
2
1 d2yæ dy ö dy
ò - dy xy + xç ÷ - y =0
=e y
= e - log y = y -1 dx 2 è dx ø dx
Which is a DE of order 2 and degree 1.
\ Solution is t ( y -1 ) = ò ( y -1 )dy + C 10. (a) General equation of circles passing through
origin and having their centres on the x-axis
1 1 1 is
Þ . = log y + C Þ log y - =C
x y xy x2 + y2 + 2gx = 0...(i)
On differentiating w.r.t x, we get
7. (c) y 2 = 2c ( x + c ) ........ (i)
dy æ dy ö
2 yy ' = 2c.1 or yy ' = c ........ (ii) 2x + 2y .
dx
+ 2g = 0 Þ g = – çè x + y ÷ø
dx
Þ y 2 = 2 yy ' ( x + yy ') \ equation (i) be
[On putting value of c from (ii) in (i)] ì æ dy ö ü
On simplifying, we get x2 + y2 + 2 í - ç x + y ÷ ý . x = 0
î è dx ø þ
( y - 2 xy ')2 = 4 yy '3 ........ (iii)
dy
Hence equation (iii) is of order 1 and Þ x2 + y2 – 2x2 – 2x .y = 0
degree 3. dx
xdy dy
8. (c) = y (log y – log x + 1) Þ y2 = x2 + 2xy
dx
dx
dy x + y y
dy y æ æ yö ö 11. (d) = = 1+
= ç log ç ÷ + 1÷ dx x x
dx x è è xø ø
dy dv
Put y = vx Putting y = vx and =v+x
dx dx
dy xdv xdv
=v+ Þ v+ = v (log v + 1) we get
dx dx dx
dv dx
= 1+ v Þ ò
x ò
xdv dv dx v+x = dv
= v log v Þ = dx
dx v log v x
Þ v = ln x + c Þ y = xlnx + cx
Put log v = z As y(1) = 1
1 dz dx \ c = 1 So solution is y = x lnx + x
dv = dz Þ =
v z x
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Differential Equations M-155
c2 x k k
12. (c) We have y = c1e V (T ) = I + (T 2 - 2T 2 ) = I - T 2
2 2
Þ y ¢ = c1c2 e c2 x = c2 y
dx x 1
y ¢¢ 2 16. (c) + =
Þ = c2 Þ y ¢¢ y - ( y ¢ ) = 0 dy y 2 y 3
y y2 1
ò dy –
1
y2 y
Þ y ¢¢ y = ( y ¢ ) 2 I.F. = e =e
1 1
-
13. (d) cos x dy = y (sin x - y ) dx 1 –
So x.e y
=ò e y
dy
dy y3
= y tan x - y 2 sec x -1
dx Let =t
y
1 dy 1
- tan x = - sec x ...(i) 1
y 2 dx y Þ dy = dt
y2
1 1 dy dt
Let =tÞ- = Þ I = - ò tet dt = et - tet
y y 2 dx dx
1 1
From equation (i) -
y 1 -y
=e + e +c
dt y
- - t tan x = - sec x 1 1 1
dx - - 1 -
y y
Þ xe =e + e y +c
dt y
Þ + (tan x )t = sec x
dx 1
Þ x = 1+ + c.e1/ y
I.F. = e ò tan x dx = (e ) log|sec x|
sec x y
Since y (1) = 1
Solution : t(I.F) = ò (I.F) sec x dx
1
1 \ c=-
e
Þ y sec x = tan x + c
1 1
Þ x = 1 + - .e1/ y
dy y e
dy
14. (d)
dx
= y+3 Þ ò y + 3 = ò dx 17. (a) Given differential equation is
dp ( t )
= 0.5 p ( t ) - 450
Þ ln y +3 = x+ c dt
Since y (0) = 2, \ l n 5 = c dp ( t ) 1
Þ = p ( t ) - 450
Þ ln y + 3 = x + ln5 dt 2
When x = ln 2 , then ln |y + 3| = ln 2 + ln5 dp ( t ) p ( t ) - 900
Þ ln | y + 3 | = ln 10 Þ =
\ y + 3 = ±10 Þ y = 7, – 13 dt 2
dV (t ) dp ( t )
Þ 2 = - éë900 - p ( t ) ùû
15. (a) = - k (T - t ) dt
dt
dp ( t )
Þ ò dVt = - k ò (T - t )dt Þ 2
900 - p ( t )
= -dt
k (T - t )2
V (t ) = +c Integrate both the side, we get
2
dp ( t )
k
at t = 0, V (t) = I Þ V (t ) = I + (t 2 - 2tT )
-2 ò 900 - p ( t ) = ò dt
2
EBD_7764
w w w . c r a c k j e e . x y z
M-156 Mathematics
Let 900 – p (t) = u
d ( p (t ))
Þ
\
– dp (t) = du
We have,
ò1 = ò dt
p (t ) - 200
du 2
2 ò u ò
= dt Þ 2 ln u = t + c
Let
1
p (t ) - 200 = s Þ
dp(t )
= ds
Þ 2ln [900 – p(t)] = t + c 2 2
when t = 0, p (0) = 850 d p (t )
2 ln (50) = c So, òæ1 ö
= ò dt
é æ 900 - p ( t ) ö ù ç p (t ) - 200 ÷
Þ 2 êln ç ÷ú = t è2 ø
ë è 50 øû
2ds
t Þ ò s
= ò dt
Þ 900 - p ( t ) = 50 e 2 Þ 2 log s = t + c
t
æ p (t ) ö
Þ p (t ) = 900 - 50e 2 Þ 2log ç - 200÷ = t + c
è 2 ø
let p (t1) = 0
t1 1
\ t1 = 2ln 18 p(t )
0 = 900 - 50 e 2 Þ - 200 = e 2 k
2
dP Using given condition p(t) = 400 – 300 et/2
18. (c) Given, Rate of change is = 100 - 12 x
dx dy æ 1 ö
+ y=2
dx çè x log x ÷ø
20. (a) Given,
Þ dP = (100 – 12 x ) dx
By integrating 1
I.F. = ò x log x dx
e
ò dP = ò (100 - 12 x ) dx
P = 100x – 8x3/2 + C = elog(log x) = log x
Given when x = 0 then P = 2000
y. logx = ò 2 log xdx + c
Þ C = 2000
Now when x = 25 then y logx = 2[x log x – x] + c
P = 100 × 25 – 8 × (25)3/2 + 2000 Put x = 1, y.0 = –2 + c
= 4500 – 1000 c=2
Þ P = 3500 Put x = e
19. (c) Given differential equation is y loge = 2e(log e – 1) + c
y(e) = c = 2
dp (t ) 1
= p (t ) - 200
dt 2 21. (b) y (1 + xy)dx = xdy
By separating the variable, we get xdy - ydx
= xdx
é1 ù y2
æx ö
dp(t) = ê p(t ) - 200ú dt Þò- d çç ÷÷ =òxdx
ë2 û
èyø
x x2
dp(t ) - = + C as y(1) = –1 Þ C = 1
Þ = dt y 2 2
1 -2x æ -1 ö 4
p (t ) - 200 Hence, y = 2 Þfç
2 ç ÷ ÷=
x +1 è2ø 5
Integrate on both the sides,
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Vector Algebra M-157
Vector Algebra 25
r r r ® Ù Ù ® Ù Ù
1. If | a |= 4,| b |= 2 and the angle between a and 6. a = 3 i-5 j an d b = 6 i + 3 j are two
r r r
b is p /6 then (a ´ b )2 is equal to [2002] ®
vectors and c is a vector such that
(a) 48 (b) 16 ® ® ® ® ® ®
® c = a ´ b then | a |:| b |:| c |
(c) a (d) none of these
[2002]
® ® ® ®®®
2. If a , b , c are vectors such that [ a b c ] = 4 (a) 34 : 45 : 39 (b) 34 : 45 : 39
® ®® ® ® ®
then [ a ´ b b ´ c c ´ a ] = [2002] (c) 34 : 39 : 45 (d) 39 : 35 : 34
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
(a) 16 (b) 64
7. If a ´ b = b ´ c = c ´ a then a + b + c =
(c) 4 (d) 8 [2002]
® ® ® ® ® ® (a) abc (b) –1
3. If a , b , c are vectors such that a + b + c = 0 (c) 0 (d) 2
® ® ® 8. The sum of two forces is 18 N and resultant whose
and | a |= 7,| b |= 5,| c |= 3 then angle direction is at right angles to the smaller force is
12 N. The magnitude of the two forces are [2002]
® ® (a) 13, 5 (b) 12, 6
between vector b and c is [2002] (c) 14, 4 (d) 11, 7
(a) 60° (b) 30° 9. A bead of weight w can slide on smooth circular
(c) 45° (d) 90° wire in a vertical plane. The bead is attached
r r r
4. If | a |= 5, | b |= 4, | c |= 3 thus what will be the by a light thread to the highest point of the
wire and in equilibrium, the thread is taut and
rr rr rr
value of | a.b + b .c + c.a | , given that make an angle q with the vertical then tension
of the thread and reaction of the wire on the
® ® ®
a+ b+ c =0 [2002] bead are
(a) 25 (b) 50 (a) T = w cos q R = w tan q [2002]
(c) –25 (d) –50 (b) T = 2w cos q R=w
r r (c) T = w R = w sin q
5. If the vectors c , a = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ and bˆ = ˆj
r r (d) T = w sin q R = wcot q
are such that a, c and form a right handed r r r
r 10. L e t u = iˆ + ˆj, v = iˆ - ˆj and w = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ .
system then c is: [2002] r
r If n̂ is a unit vector such that u.nˆ = 0 and
ˆ
(a) zi - xkˆ (b) 0 r r
v .nˆ = 0 , then w. nˆ is equal to [2003]
(c) yj ˆ (d) - ziˆ + xkˆ
(a) 3 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2.
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M-158 Mathematics
11. A particle acted on by constant forces r r r
17. If u , v and w are three non- coplanar vectors,
4iˆ + ˆj - 3kˆ and 3iˆ + ˆj - kˆ is displaced from r r r r r r r
then (u + v - w).(u - v ) ´ (v - w) equals [2003]
rr r
the point ˆi + 2jˆ - 3kˆ to the point 5iˆ + 4jˆ + kˆ . (a) 3u .v ´ w (b) 0
The total work done by the forces is [2003] r r r rr r
(c) u .(v ´ w) (d) u.w ´ v .
(a) 50 units (b) 20 units r
(c) 30 units (d) 40 units. 18. A couple is of moment G and the force forming
r r
12. The vectors AB = 3iˆ + 4kˆ & AC = 5iˆ - 2 ˆj + 4kˆ the couple is P . If P is turned through a
are the sides of a triangle ABC. The length of right angle the moment of the couple thus
r r
the median through A is [2003] formed is H . If instead , the force P are turned
(a) (b) through an angle a , then the moment of couple
288 18
becomes [2003]
(c) 72 (d) 33 r r
(a) H sin a - G cos a
r r r r r r r r
13. a , b , c are 3 vectors, such that a + b + c = 0 , (b) G sin a - H cos a
r r r rr rr rr r r
a = 1, b = 2, c = 3, then a.b + b .c + c .a is (c) H sin a + G cos a
r r
equal to [2003] (d) G sin a + H cos a .
(a) 1 (b) 0 r r r r
19. The resultant of forces P and Q is R . If Q
(c) –7 (d) 7
r
14. A tetrahedron has vertices at O(0, 0, 0), A(1, 2, 1) is doubled then R is doubled. If the direction
B(2, 1, 3) and C(-1, 1, 2). Then the angle between r r
the faces OAB and ABC will be [2003] of Q is reversed,then R is again doubled.
-1 æ 19 ö Then P 2 : Q 2 : R 2 is [2003]
(a) 90 o (b) cos ç ÷
è 35 ø (a) 2 : 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 3.
(c) cos -1æç
17 ö
÷ (d) 30 o 20. A body travels a distance s in t seconds. It starts
è 31 ø
from rest and ends at rest. In the first part of the
a a2 1 + a3 journey, it moves with constant acceleration f
and in the second part with constant retardation
15. If b b2 1 + b 3 = 0 and vectors (1, a, a 2 ),
r. The value of t is given by [2003]
c c2 1 + c3
æ 1 1ö æ1 1ö
(a) 2sçç + ÷÷ (b) 2 sçç + ÷÷
(1, b, b2 ) and (1, c, c 2 ) are non- coplanar, then è f rø è f rø
the product abc equals [2003]
(a) 0 (b) 2 2s
(c) –1 (d) 1 (c) (d) 2s( f + r )
1 1
+
16. Consider points A, B, C and D with position vectors f r
7iˆ - 4 ˆj + 7 kˆ, iˆ - 6 ˆj + 10kˆ , - iˆ - 3 ˆj + 4 kˆ and 21. Two stones are projected from the top of a cliff h
metres high , with the same speed u, so as to hit the
5iˆ - ˆj + 5kˆ respectively. Then ABCD is a [2003] ground at the same spot. If one of the stones is
(a) parallelogram but not a rhombus projected horizontally and the other is projected
(b) square horizontally and the other is projected at an angle
(c) rhombus (d) rectangle. q to the horizontal then tan q equals [2003]
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Vector Algebra M-159
26. A particle is acted upon by constant forces
2 2u
(a) u gh (b) gh 4iˆ + ˆj - 3kˆ and 3iˆ + ˆj - kˆ which displace it
from a point iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ to the point
u u
(c) 2 g (d) 2 h g 5iˆ + 4 ˆj + kˆ . The work done in standard units
h
22. Two particles start simultaneously from the by the forces is given by [2004]
same point and move along two straight lines, (a) 15 (b) 30
r (c) 25 (d) 40
one with uniform velocity u and the other from r r r
r 27. If a, b , c are non-coplanar vectors and l is a real
rest with uniform acceleration f . Let a be the
angle between their directions of motion. The number, then the vectors a + 2b + 3c , lb + 4c
relative velocity of the second particle w.r.t. the and (2l - 1)c are non coplanar for [2004]
first is least after a time [2003]
(a) no value of l
u sin a
(a) u cos a
(b) all except one value of l
(b)
f f (c) all except two values of l
(d) all values of l
f cos a
(c) (d) u sin a 28. Let u , v , w be such that | u |= 1,| v |= 2,
u
3
| w |= 3. If the projection v along u is equal
23. The upper th portion of a vertical pole to that of w along u and v , w are
4
perpendicular to each other then
3
subtends an angle tan -1 at a point in the | u - v + w | equals [2004]
5
horizontal plane through its foot and at a (a) 14 (b) 7
distance 40 m from the foot. A possible height
of the vertical pole is [2003] (c) 14 (d) 2
(a) 80 m (b) 20 m
29. Let a , b and c be non-zero vectors such that
(c) 40 m (d) 60 m.
24. Let R1 and R2 respectively be the maximum 1
(a ´ b ) ´ c = | b || c | a . If q is the acute
ranges up and down an inclined plane and R 3
be the maximum range on the horizontal plane. angle between the vectors b and c , then
Then R1, R , R2 are in [ 2003] sinq equals [2004]
(a) H.P (b) A.G..P
2 2 2
(c) A.P (d) G..P. (a) (b)
r r r 3 3
25. Let a, b and c be three non-zero vectors such
2 1
that no two of these are collinear. If the vector (c) (d)
3 3
r r r r
a + 2b is collinear with c and b + 3cr is 30. With two forces acting at point, the maximum
collinear with ar (l being some non-zero scalar)
affect is obtained when their resultant is 4N. If
they act at right angles, then their resultant is
r
then ar + 2b + 6cr equals [2004] 3N. Then the forces are [2004]
r
(a) 0 (b) lb æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
r (a) çè 2 + 3 ÷ N and ç 2 - 3÷ N
(c) lc (d) lar 2 ø è 2 ø
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M-160 Mathematics
iˆ + ˆj + rkˆ ( p ¹ q ¹ r ¹ 1) vector are coplanar,, 67. Let a , b and c be three non-zero vectors such
that no two of them are collinear and
then the value of pqr - ( p + q + r ) is [2011RS] ® ® ® 1® ®®
(a) 2 (b) 0 (a ´ b) ´ c = b c a . If q is the angle
3
(c) – 1 (d) – 2
r r r ® ®
62. Let a, b, c be three non-zero vectors which between vectors b and c , then a value of sin q
r r is : [2015]
are pairwise non-collinear. If a + 3b is collinear
r r r r 2 -2 3
with c and b + 2c is collinear with a , then (a) (b)
r r r 3 3
a + 3b + 6c is : [2011RS] 2 2 - 2
r r (c) (d)
(a) a (b) c 3 3
r r r ® ® ®
(c) 0 (d) a + c 68. Let a , b and c be three unit vectors such that
r r
63. Let a and b be two unit vectors. If the vectors ® æ® ® ö
r 3 æç® ® ö ®
r a ´ çç b´ c ÷÷ = b+ c ÷ . If b is not parallel
c = aˆ + 2 bˆ and d = 5 aˆ - 4bˆ are perpendicular è ø 2 è
ç ÷
ø
to each other, then the angle between â and ® ® ®
to c , then the angle between a and b is:
b̂ is : [2012] [2016]
p p
(a) (b) 2p 5p
6 2 (a) (b)
3 6
p p
(c) (d) 3p p
3 4 (c) (d)
4 2
64. Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that r r r
uuur r uuuur r 69. Let a = 2i + j - 2k and b = i + ˆj . Let c be a
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
AB = q , AD = p and ÐBAD be an acute angle.
r r r r r
r
If r is the vector that coincide with the altitude ( )
vector such that | c - a | = 3, a ´ b ´ c = 3
r r
and the angle between rc and a ´ b be 30°.
directed from the vertex B to the side AD, then
r
r is given by : [2012] rr
rr r r Then a.c is equal to : [2017]
r r 3 ( p.q ) r ( p .q )
(a) r = 3q - r r p (b) rr = -qr + r r pr 1 25
( p.p ) ( p . p) (a) (b)
r r r r 8 8
r r (p.q) r r r 3 ( p.q ) r (c) 2 (d) 5
(c) r = q - r r p (d) r = -3q - r r p
(p.p) (p .p)
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M-164 Mathematics
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(b) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(none ) (c) (c) (c) (a) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d) (c) (c) (a) (c)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (d) (c) (d) (b) (d) (d) (d)
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(a) (b) (a) (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (a) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (c)
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
(d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c) (b) (c)
® ® ® p Þ 2 × 5 × 3cos q = 15;
1. (b) We have, a . b = | a | | ®
b | cos 6 p
Þ cos q = 1/2; Þ q = = 60°
3 3
= 4 ´ 2´ =4 3.
2 4. (a) We have, ® ® ® ®
a+ b+ c = 0
® ® ® ®
Now, ( a ´ b )2 + ( a × b )2 = a 2b 2 ; ® ® ®
Þ ( a + b + c )2 = 0
® ®
Þ ( a ´ b ) 2 + 48 = 16 ´ 4 ® ® ®
Þ | a |2 + | b |2 | + | c |2
® ®
Þ ( a ´ b )2 = 16 ® ® ® ® ® ®
+ 2( a × b + b × c + c × a ) = 0
® ® ® ® ® ®
2. (a) We have, [ a ´ b b x c c ´ a] ® ® ® ® ® ®
Þ 25 + 16 + 9 + 2( a × b + b × c + c × a ) = 0
® ® ì ® ® ® ®ü ® ® ® ® ® ®
= ( a ´ b ). í( b x c ) ´ ( c ´ a )ý Þ ( a × b + b × c + c × a ) = -25 .
î þ
® ® ®® ®®
® ® ì ® ® ® ® ® ®ü \ | a × b + b × c + c × a |= 25 .
= ( a ´ b ). í( m × a ) c - ( m × c ) a )ý
î þ r r r
5. (a) Since a , c , b form a right handed system,
® ® ® iˆ ˆj kˆ
(where m = b ´ c ) r r r
\ c = b ´ a = 0 1 0 = ziˆ - xkˆ
® ® ® ® ® ®
= {( a ´ b ). c }.{( a × ( b ´ c )} x y z
®®®
= [ a b c ]2 = 42 = 16 . ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® 6. (b) We have a ´ b = 39 k = c
3. (a) a+ b+ c = 0 Þ b+ c = - a
® ® ®
Also | a |= 34,| b |= 45, | c |= 39 ;
® ® ® ®®
Þ ( b + c ) 2 = ( a ) 2 = 52 + 32 + 2 b × c = 7 2 ® ® ®
\ | a |:| b |:| c |= 34 : 45 : 39 .
® ®
Þ 2 | b | | c | cos q = 49 - 34 = 15 ;
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Vector Algebra M-165
r r r r
7. (c) Let a + b + c = r . Then
i j k
r r r r r r
a ´ (a + b + c ) = a ´ r 1 1 0
r r r r r r 1 -1 0 -2 kˆ
Þ0+a´b +a´c =a ´r nˆ = = = - kˆ
r r r r r r r r r 2´ 2 2
Þ a ´b -c ´a = a ´r Þ a ´r =0 r
r r r r r r w.nˆ = (i + 2 j + 3k ).( - k ) = -3 = 3
Similarly b ´ r = 0 & c ´ r = 0
Above three conditions will be satisfied r r r
11. (d) F + F1 + F2 = 7i + 2 j - 4k
r r
for non-zero vectors if and only if r = 0 r r r
8. (a) Given P + Q = 18 .......(1) d = PV
. of B - PV . of A = 4i + 2 j - 2k
r r
P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos a = 144 ......(2) W = F .d = 28 + 4 + 8 = 40 unit
Q sin a 12. (d) A
tan 90º =
P + Q cos a
R=12 3i + 4 k 5i – 2j + 4k
Q
a
B D C
P
Þ P + Q cos a = 0 ......(3) uuur (3 + 5)i + (0 - 2) j + (4 + 4) k
From (2) and (3), P.V of AD =
2
Q2 – P2 = 144 Þ (Q – P) (Q + P) = 144 uuur
= 4i - j + 4k or AD = 16 + 16 + 1 = 33
144
\ Q-P=
18
=8 r r r r r r r r r
13. (c) a + b + c = 0 Þ (a + b + c ).( a + b + c ) = 0
From (1), On solving, we get Q = 13, P = 5 r2 r2 r2 rr rr rr
9. (b) Ð TQW = 180 – q ; Ð RQW = 2q ; a + b + c + 2(a.b + b .c + c .a ) = 0
Ð RQT = 180 – q r r r r r r -1 - 4 - 9
P a.b + b .c + c .a = = -7
2
14. (b) Vector perpendicular to the face OAB
q T
O q iˆ ˆj kˆ
q uuur uuur
Q = OA ´ OB = 1 2 1 = 5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ
90–2q
2 1 3
R
Vector perpendicular to the face ABC
w
Applying Lami's theorem at Q. iˆ ˆj kˆ
uuur uuur
T R W = AB ´ AC = 1 -1 2 = iˆ - 5 ˆj - 3kˆ
= =
sin 2q sin(180 - q) sin(180 - q) -2 -1 1
Þ R = W and T = 2W cos q
r r r Angle between the faces = angle between
10. (a) sin ce n is perpendicular u and v , their normals
r r
r u´n 5+5+9 19 æ 19 ö
n= r r cos q = = or q = cos -1 ç ÷
| u || n | 35 35 35 è 35 ø
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M-166 Mathematics
r r r r
18. (c) G=r ´ p; G = rp sin q
a a 2 1 + a3
r
15. (c) b b 2 1 + b3 = 0 H = rp cos q éQ sin(90o + q) = cos qù
ë û
c c2 1 + c3
G = rp sin q.......(1) H = rp cos q........(2)
x = rp sin( q + a)...... ( 3 )
a a2 1 a a2 a3
From (1), (2) & (3),
Þb b 2
1+ b b 2 3
b =0 r r
x = G cos a + H sin a .
2 2
c c 1 c c c3 19. (c)
R 2 = P 2 + Q 2 + 2 PQ cos q .......(1)
2 2 2
1 a a2 4 R = P + 4Q + 4 PQ cos q .......(2)
Þ (1 + abc) 1 b b 2 = 0 4 R 2 = P 2 + Q 2 - 2 PQ cos q ........(3)
2 2 2 2
1 c c On (1) + (3), 5R = 2 P + 2Q ........(4)
1 c c2 3P 2 + 6Q 2 - 12R 2 = 0 .....(7)
2 2 2 .
\ abc = -1 P Q R
= =
-24 + 30 24 - 15 12 - 6
16. (none)
P 2 Q2 R 2
= = or P 2 : Q 2 : R 2 = 2 : 3 : 2
6 9 6
A = (7,-4,7), B = (1,-6,10), C = (-1, - 3, 4)
20. (a) Let the body travels from A to B with
and D = (5, –1, 5) constant acceleration t and from B to C
with constant retardation r.
AB = (7 - 1)2 + ( -4 + 6)2 + (7 - 10)2 x y
= 36 + 4 + 9 = 7 A t1 B t2 C
If AB = x, BC = y, time taken from A to B = t1
Similarly BC = 7, CD = 41, DA = 17 and time taken from B to C = t2, then s = x +
\ None of the options is satisfied y and t = t1 + t2
r r r r r r r r r r r For the motion from A to B
17. (c) (u + v - w).(u ´ v - u ´ w - v ´ v + v ´ w)
v 2 = u 2 + 2 fs Þ v 2 = 2 fx (Q u = 0 )
r r r r r r r r r
= (u + v - w).(u ´ v - u ´ w + v ´ w)
r r r v2
= u.(u ´ v ) Þ x= ....(1)
r r r r r r r r r r r r 2f
-u.(u ´ w) + u.(v ´ w) + v .(u ´ v ) - v .(u ´ w) and v = u + ft Þ v= ft1
r r r r r r r r r r r r
+v .(v ´ w) - w.(u ´ v ) + w.(u ´ w) - w.(v ´ w) v
r r r r r r r r r Þ t1 = ...(2)
= u.(v ´ w) - v .(u ´ w) - w.(u ´ v ) f
rrr rr r r rr r r r For the motion from B to C
= [uvw)] + [vwu )] - [ wuv ] = u.(v ´ w)
v 2 = u 2 + 2 fs
v2
Þ 0 =v2 – 2ry Þ y = ...(3)
2r
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Vector Algebra M-167
and v = u + ft Þ 0 = v – rt2 1
and h = -u sin q ´ t + gt 2 ....(3)
v 2
Þ t2 = From (1) and (2) we get
r
Adding equations (1) and (3), we get
2h
v2 é 1 1 ù u = u cos q ´ t
x+ y = ê + ú = s g
2 ë f rû
Adding equations (2) and (4), we get 1 2h
é 1 1ù Þ t=
t1 + t 2 = v ê + ú = t cos q g
ë f rû Substituting this value of t in eq (3) we get
2
é 1 1ù
v2 ê + ú
t 2
ë f rû = 1 + 1 u sin q 2h 1 é 2h ù
= h=- + gê ú
\ 2s v2 æ 1 1 ö f r cos q g 2 êë g cos 2 q ûú
2´ ç + ÷
2 è f rø 2h
h = -u tan q + h sec 2 q
æ 1 1ö g
Þ t = 2s ç + ÷
è f rø 2h
h = -u tan q + h tan 2 q + h
21. (a) For the stone projected horizontally, for g
horizontal motion, using distance
= speed × time Þ R = ut
2 2
and for vertical motion tan 2 q - u tan q = 0; \ tan q = u
hg hg
u
1
h = 0 ´ t + gt 2 22. (a) We can consider the two velocities as
2 r
r $ $
v1 = ui$ and v2 = ( ft cos a ) i + ( ft sin a ) j
2h
Þ t =h
g ft
2h
\ We get RR= u ....(1)
g
a
For the stone projected at an angle q, for
horizontal and vertical motions, we have u
\ Relative velocity of second with
u respect to first
q r r r
v = v2 - v1 = ( ft cos a - u ) $i + ft sin a $j
r2
v = ( ft cos a - u ) + ( ft sin a )
2 2
Þ
h 2 2 2
= f t + u - 2uft cos a
r
For v to be min we should have
2
dv
R = 0 Þ 2 f 2t - 2uf cos a = 0
dt
R = u cos q ´ t ....(2) u cos a
Þ t=
f
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M-168 Mathematics
r r r r r r r
2 2 Þ a + 2b + 6c = tc + sa - b + 3c
d v
Also = 2 f 2 = + ve r r r r r r
dt 2 = tc + (b + 3c ) - b + 3c = (t + 6)c
r r r
2
and hence v is least at the time é using s a = b + 3c ù
\ v ë û
r
= lc , where l = t + 6
u cos a
r
f 26. (d) Resultant of forces F = 7iˆ + 2 ˆj - 4kˆ
r
Displacement d = 4iˆ + 2 ˆj - 2kˆ
23. (c) 3
h r r
4 \ Work done = F .d = 28 + 4 + 8 = 40
¯ r r r r r
27. (c) Vectors a + 2b + 3c , lb + 4c , and
h r
b 4 (2l - 1)c are coplanar if
a q ¯
40 m 1 2 3
0 l 4 =0
æ3ö
q = a + b , b = tan -1 ç ÷ 0 0 2l - 1
è5ø
or b = q - a 1
Þ l(2l - 1) = 0 Þ l = 0 or
tan q - tan a 2
Þ tan b = \ Forces are noncoplanar for all l, except
1 + tan q.tan a
1
h h l = 0,
- 2
3 40 160 rr rr
or = r r v . u v .u
5 h h 28. (c) Projection of v along u = r =
1+ .
40 160 |u | 2
r r rr
h2 - 200h + 6400 =
0 r r w. u w.u
projection of w along u = r =
|u | 2
Þ h= 40 or 160 metre
rr rr
\ possible height =40 metre v .u w.u
Given = ....(1)
2 2
24. (a) Let b be the inclination of the plane to the
Also , vr.wr = 0 ....(2)
horizontal and u be the velocity of
r r r
projection of the projectile Now | u - v + w |2
u2 u2 r 2 r2 r 2 rr r r rr
R1 = and R2 = = | u | + | v | + | w | -2u.v - 2v .w + 2u.w
g (1 + sin b) g (1 - sin b)
= 1 + 4 + 9 + 0 [ From (1) and (2)] = 14
1 1 2g 1 1 2é u2 ù r r r
+ = 2 or + = êQ R = ú \| u - v + w |= 14
R1 R2 u R1 R2 R êë g úû
\ R1 , R, R2 arein H .P. r r r 1 r r r
r r r r r 29. (a) Given (a ´ b ) ´ c = | b || c | a
r 3
25. (c) Let a + 2b = tc and b + 3c = s a, where t
r r
and s are scalars. Adding, we get Clearly a and b are noncollinear
r r r r r
a + 3b + 3c = tc + sa
rr r rr r 1 r r r
Þ (a.c )b - (b .c )a = | b | | c | a
3
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Vector Algebra M-169
rr rr 1 r r A
\ a.c = 0 and - b.c = | b || c |
3
-1
Þ cos q = P
3
1 2 2 I
\ sin q = 1 - =
9 3 A R
r r 90+
[q is acute angle between b and c ] Q 2
30. (c) Let forces be P and Q. then P + Q = 4 ....(1) B C
P Q R
and P 2 + Q 2 = 32 ....(2) = =
A æ Bö æ Cö
Solving we get the forces sin(90° + ) sin ç 90° + ÷ sin ç 90° + ÷
2 è 2ø è 2ø
æ 2ö æ 2ö
ç 2 + 2 ÷ N and ç 2 - 2 ÷ N A
P : Q : R = cos
B C
è ø è ø Þ : cos : cos
2 2 2
31. (c) Since, the moment about A is zero, hence
r 33. (d) Time taken by the particle in complete
F passes through A. Taking A as origin. journey
r
Let the line of action of force F be 12 5
y = mx . (see figure) T= + = 4 hr.
4 5
3m r
Moment about B = | F |= 9 ....(1)
2
1+ m
Y
C(0,4) 5 km
F
(y = mx)
A 12km B
12 + 5 17
\ Average speed = =
A B(3,0) 4 4
4 r
Moment about C= | F |= 16....(2) 12 2 + 5 2 13
Average velocity = =
1 + m2 4 4
Dividing (1) by (2), we get [using vector addition]
3 v 1
m= Þ| F |= 5 N . 34. (a) If v = , component along OB
4 4
32. (d) IA, IB, IC are bisectors of the angles A, B 1 1
´
and C as I is incentre of DABC. v sin 30° 6- 2
= = 4 2 =
B C A sin(45° + 30°) 3 +1 8
Now ÐBIC = 180 - - = 90° + etc.
2 2
2 2 2
Applying Lami’s theorem at I 35. (b) For same horizontal range the angles of
p
projection must be a and -a
2
2u sin a
\ t1 = and
g
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M-170 Mathematics
æp ö
2u sin ç - a ÷ l ( a1 + b1 ) l ( a2 + b2 ) l ( a3 + b3 )
è2 ø 2u cos a
t2 = = Þ l 2b1 l 2b2 lb3
g g
lc1 lc2 lc3
2
4u
\ t12 + t22 =
g2 a1 a2 a3
uuur uuur uuur uuur = b1 + c1 b 2 + c2 b3 + c3
36. (a) PA + AP = 0 and PC + CP = 0
b1 b2 b3
uuuur uuuur uuuur
Þ PA + AC + CP = 0
uuuur uuuur uuuur a1 + b1 a2b2 a3 + b3
and PB + BC + CP = 0 4
Þl b1 b2 b3
Adding, we get
uuuur uuuur uuuur uuuur uuur c1 c2 c3
PA + PB + AC + BC + 2CP = 0.
uuuur uuuur uuuur uuuur a1 a2 a3
Since AC = - BC & CP = - PC
uuuur uuuur uuuur = b1 + c1 b2 + c2 b3 + c3
Þ PA + PB - 2PC = 0. b1 b2 b3
P R1 - R2 R2 - R3
a1 a2 a3 a1 a2 a3
Þ l 4 b1 b2 b3 = c1 c2 c3
c1 c2 c3 b1 b2 b3
A C B Þ l 4 = -1
r r r r Hence l has no real values.
37. (c) Let a = xi + yj + zk r r
39. (d) a = iˆ - kˆ, b = xiˆ + ˆj + (1 - x)kˆ and
r r r r r r r
a ´ i = zj - yk Þ (a ´ i )2 = y 2 + z 2 c = yiˆ + xjˆ + (1 + x - y )kˆ
Similarly, 1 0 -1
r r r r r rr rr r
(a ´ j )2 = x 2 + z 2 and (a ´ k )2 = x 2 + y 2 [a b c ] = a.b ´ c = x 1 1- x
r r r r r r y x 1+ x - y
Þ (a ´ i )2 + (a ´ j )2 + (a ´ k )2
r = 1 é1 + x - y - x + x 2 ù - é - x 2 - y ù
= 2( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) = 2a 2 ë û ë û
38. (b) Let us consider = 1 - y + x 2 - x2 + y
r =1
a = a1$i + a2 $j + a3kˆ rrr
Hence éë a b c ùû is independent of x and y
r
b = b1$i + b2 $j + b3kˆ both.
r 40. (c) IA, IB, IC are bisectors of the angles A, B
c = c1i$ + c2 $j + c3kˆ and C as I is incentre of DABC.
then as per question B C A
r r r r Now ÐBIC = 180 - - = 90° + etc.
é l ar + b l 2 b lcr ù = é ar b + cr b ù
( ) 2 2
Applying Lami’s theorem at I
2
ë û ë û
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Vector Algebra M-171
and AC respectively are
A
æ 1 öˆ æ 1 ö
çè ÷ i and çè ÷ ĵ
AB ø AC ø
P \ Their resultant along AD
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
=ç i+ j
è AB ÷ø çè AC ÷ø
I
A R
90+ \ Magnitude of resultant is
Q 2
B C
P
=
Q
=
R æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
2 2 AC 2 + AB 2
= ç +ç =
Sin(90° +
A
) æ Bö
sin ç 90° + ÷
æ Cö
sin ç 90° + ÷ è AB ÷ø è AC ÷ø AB 2 + AC 2
2 è 2ø è 2ø
A B C BC
Þ P : Q : R = cos : cos : cos =
2 2 2 AB. AC
41. (d) u cos 60° = v cos 30° C
(as horizontal component of velocity
remains the same)
1 3 1
Þ u× = v× or v = u ^j
2 2 3 1 D
Y AC
q
q
o 30
o A B
60
u
30°
o
vcos30 1 ^
v
i
60°
o
30 AB
o X
O ucos60
But from figure DABC ~ DDBA
42. (b) Let A and B be displaced by a distance x
BC AC BC 1
then Change in moment of (A + B) Þ = Þ =
=applied moments AB AD AB ´ AC AD
\ The required magnitude of resultant
H
Þ ( A + B) ´ x = H Þ x = 1
A+ B becomes .
43. (d) F ' = 3F cos q and F = 3F sin q AD
F 45. (d) ( a ´ b ) ´ c = a ´ ( b ´ c ) , a .b ¹ 0 ,
3F b .c ¹ 0
Þ (a . c ).b - ( b . c )a = (a . c ).b - (a . b ).c
F' Þ (a . b ).c = ( b . c ) a Þ a || c .
uuur
46. (a) CA = (2 - a )iˆ + 2 ˆj ;
Þ F ' = 2 2 F Þ F : F ' :: 3 : 2 2 . uuur
CB = (1 - a)iˆ - 6 kˆ
44. (d) If we consider unit vectors iˆ and ĵ in uuur uuur
CA.CB = 0Þ (2 - a)(1 - a) = 0
the direction AB and AC respectively,
then as per quesiton, forces along AB Þ a = 2, 1
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M-172 Mathematics
47. (b) For two velocities u and u at an angle q 1
1 2
to each other the resultant is given by 48. (a) Using h = gt 2 and h + 400 = g (t + 4)
2 2
D C
u R h
E
q/2 q/4 R¢ Q(t)
u/2
q/2 q/4 400m
A B
u
P(t+4)
R2 = u2 + u2 + 2u2 cosq = 2u2
(1 + cos q)
Subtracting, we get 400 = 8g + 4gt
q Þ t = 8 sec
Þ R 2 = 4u 2 cos 2 q / 2 or R = 2u cos
2 1
Now in second case, the new resultant \ h = ´ 10 ´ 64 = 320m
2
AE (i.e., R¢) bisects ÐCAB , therefore \ Desired height = 320 + 400 = 720 m
using angle bisector theorem in DABC , 49. (b) Given | 2uˆ ´ 3vˆ | = 1 and q is acute angle
we get
between û and v̂ , | uˆ | = 1, | vˆ | = 1
AB BE u u/2
= Þ = ÞR=u Þ 6 | uˆ | | vˆ | | sin q | = 1
AC EC R u/2
q 1
Þ 2u cos = u Þ 6 | sin q | = 1 Þ sin q =
2 6
q 1 q Hence, there is exactly one value of q for
Þ cos = = cos 60° Þ = 60° which 2 û × 3 v̂ is a unit vector..
2 2 2
r r
or q = 120° 50. (b) Given a = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ , b = $i - $j + 2k$ and
r
c = xi$ + ( x - 2) $j - k$
u r r
q
sin q r
tan = 2 If c lies in the plane of a and b , then
4 u + u cos q rrr
[a b c ] = 0
2
q 1 q 1 q 1 1 1
Þ sin + sin cos q = sin q cos
4 2 4 2 4 i.e. 1 -1 2 =0
q 3q q q x ( x - 2) -1
\ 2 sin = sin = 3sin - 4sin 3
4 4 4 4 Þ 1[1 – 2(x – 2)] – 1[– 1 – 2x] + 1[x – 2 + x] = 0
q 1 q Þ 1 – 2x + 4 + 1 + 2x + 2x – 2 = 0
\ sin 2 = Þ = 30° or q = 120° Þ 2x = –4 Þ x = – 2
4 4 4
R2 R1 r 8r
51. (d) Clearly a = – c
7
r r
Þ a || c and are opposite in direction
r r
\ Angle between a and c is p.
u qq
44
q/ 2 rr r r
a.c 8b × (–7b )
u/2 u cos q = r r = r r = –1 Þ q = p
ac 8b 7b
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Vector Algebra M-173
52. (c) Given : Force P = Pn, Q = 3n, resultant R = é aù
= a tan a ê1 - ú
7n & P' = Pn, Q' = (–3)n, R' = 19 n ë Rû
æ u 2 sin 2 a ö
ç Q R = ÷
è g ø
Ö19 P
7
Þ é aù
b = a tan a ê1 - ú
a ë cû
æ c - aö
Þ b = a tan a . ç
è c ÷ø
–3 3
( )(
Þ b1iˆ + b2 ˆj + b3 kˆ . iˆ - ˆj - kˆ = 0,) p 1 1
r 1 q 1 =0
where b = b1iˆ + b2 ˆj + b3 kˆ
1 1 r
b1 - b2 - b3 = 0 ...(i)
r r Þ p ( qr - 1) + 1(1 - r ) + 1(1 - q) = 0
and a. b = 3 Þ ( ˆj - kˆ).(b1iˆ + b2 ˆj + b3kˆ) = 3
Þ pqr - p + 1 - r + 1 – q = 0
Þ b2 - b3 = 3 Þ pqr - ( p + q + r ) = -2
From equation (i) r r r
62. (c) a + 3b = l c .............(i)
b1 = b2 + b3 = (3 + b3 ) + b3 = 3 + 2b3 r r r
r b + 2c = μa ............(ii)
b = (3 + 2b3 )iˆ + (3 + b3 ) ˆj + b3 kˆ
On solving equation (i) and (ii)
From the option given, it is clear that b3 equal to r r
either 2 or –2.
r
(1 + 3μ ) a - (λ + 6) c = 0
If b3 = 2 then b = 7iˆ + 5 ˆj + 2kˆ which is not r r
possible As a and c are non collinear,,
r
If b = -2, then b = -iˆ + ˆj - 2kˆ \ 1 + 3μ = 0 and l + 6 = 0
3 r r r r
From (i), a + 3b + 6c = 0
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Vector Algebra M-175
r r r r rrr r r rr
63. (c) Let c = aˆ + 2 bˆ and d = 5 aˆ - 4bˆ = (a ´ b).[[b c a ] c] [Q b ´ c. c = 0]
r r r rr r r r rrr 2
Since c and d are perpendicular to each other
r r = [a b c].(a ´ b. c ) = [a b c ]
\ c .d = 0 r r r r r r rrr
= [a ´ b b ´ c c ´ a ] = [a b c ]2
Þ ( aˆ + 2bˆ ) .( 5aˆ - 4bˆ ) = 0
r r
So l = 1
r r r 1 r rr
Þ 5 + 6 aˆ.bˆ - 8 = 0
1 p
( Q a .a = 1) 67. (c) ( )
a´b ´c = b c a
3
Þ aˆ.bˆ = Þ q = r r r 1 r rr
64. (b) Let ABCD
2
be a
3
parallelogram such that
Þ ( )
–c ´ a ´ b = b c a
3
uuur r uuuur r rr r rr r 1 r r r
AB = q , AD = p and ÐBADbe an acute angle. Þ ( ) ( )
– c.b a + c.a b = b c a
3
We have r r r rr r 1 r rr
B C Þ ( )
– b c cos qa + c.a b = b c a
3
r r r
Q a, b, c are non collinear, the above
q equation is possible only when
r rr
1
– cosq = and c.a = 0
3
A X D 1 2 2
p Þ cosq = – Þ sinq = ; qÎ II quad
3 3
uuur æ pr . qr öæ pr ö pr.qr r r r r 3 r r
AX = ç r ÷ç r ÷ = r 2 p 68. (b) a ´ (b ´ c) = (b + c)
ç p ÷ç p ÷ 2
è øè ø p rr r r r r r r 3r 3r
r uuur uuur uuur r p.q r Þ (a × c)b - (a × b)c = b+ c
Let r = BX = BA + AX = -q + r p 2 2
2
p
65. (c) We have, On comparing both sides
uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur r r
AB + BC + CA = 0 Þ BC = AC - AB 3 3
uuur uuur uuur a ×b = - Þ cosq= -
uuuur AC - AB æ uuuur BC ö 2 2
r r
Now, BM = çQ BM = 2 ÷ [Q a and b are unit vectors]
2 è ø
r r
where q is the angle between a and b
5p
q=
6
69. (c) Given :
r r
a = 2iˆ + ˆj - 2k,
ˆ b = ˆi + ˆj
r
Þ | a |= 3
r r
Also, we have \ a ´ b = 2iˆ - 2jˆ + kˆ
uuur uuuur uuuur
AB + BM + MA = 0 r r
uuur uuur | a ´ b |= 22 + 22 + 12 = 3
uuur AC - AB uuuur r r r r r r
Þ AB + = AM We have (a ´ b) ´ c = | a ´ b || c | sin 30 n
2
uuur uuur r r r r 1 r 1
uuuur AB + AC Þ | (a ´ b) ´ c | = 3| c |. Þ 3 = 3 | c | .
Þ 1 AM = = 4iˆ - ˆj + 4kˆ r
2 2
2 \ |c| =2
uuuur r r
Þ AM = 33 Now | c - a | = 3
On squaring, we r rget rr
r r r r r r Þ c2 + a2 – 2 – c.a = 9 Þ 4 + 9 – 2 – a.c = 9
66. (b) L.H.S = (a ´ b).[(b ´ c) ´ (c ´ a)] rr rr rr
r r r r r r r rr r Þ a.c = 2 [Q c.a = a.c ]
= (a ´ b).[(b ´ c. a )c - (b ´ c.c )a ]
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M-176 Mathematics
(c) æç - , - ,1ö÷
17 19 x – 2 y – 3 z –1
(d) None of these = = intersect at a point, then
è 3 3 ø 3 k 2
the integer k is equal to [2008]
22. If a line makes an angle of p / 4 with the positive
(a) –5 (b) 5
directions of each of x- axis and y- axis, then
(c) 2 (d) –2
the angle that the line makes with the positive
direction of the z-axis is [2007] x – 2 y –1 z + 2
28. Let the line = = lie in the
p p 3 –5 2
(a) (b) plane x + 3y – az + b = 0. Then (a, b) equals
4 2
[2009]
p p (a) (–6, 7) (b) (5, –15)
(c) (d)
6 3 (c) (–5, 5) (d) (6, –17)
23. If (2, 3, 5) is one end of a diameter of the sphere 29. Statement -1 : The point A(3, 1, 6) is the mirror
x2 + y2 + z2 – 6x – 12y – 2z + 20 = 0, then the image of the point B(1, 3, 4) in the plane x – y +
cooordinates of the other end of the diameter z = 5.
are [2007] Statement -2: The plane x – y + z = 5 bisects
(a) (4, 3, 5) (b) (4, 3, – 3) the line segment joining A(3, 1, 6) and B(1, 3, 4).
(c) (4, 9, – 3) (d) (4, –3, 3). [2010]
24. Let L be the line of intersection of the planes 2x + (a) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true ;
3y + z = 1 and x + 3y + 2z = 2. If L makes an angle Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
a with the positive x-axis, then cos a equals Statement -1.
[2007] (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is false.
(c) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true .
1
(a) 1 (b) (d) Statement - 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ;
2 Statement -2 is a correct explanation for
1 1 Statement -1.
(c) (d) .
3 2 30. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles
r 45° and 120° with the positive x-axis and the positive
25. The vector a = a iˆ + 2 ˆj + bkˆ lies in the plane y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle q
r r with the positive z-axis, then q equals [2010]
of the vectors b = iˆ + ˆj and c = ˆj + kˆ and
(a) 45° (b) 60°
r
bisects the angle between b and cr . Then (c) 75° (d) 30°
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Three Dimensional Geometry M-179
x y (a) 10 3 (b) 5 3
31. The line L given by + = 1 passes through
5 b (c) 3 10 (d) 3 5
the point (13, 32). The line K is parallel to L and 35. The length of the perpendicular drawn from
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (b) (d ) (a) (d) (d) (a) (c) (b) (d) (a) (c) (a) (b) (c)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(c) (d) (a) (a) (c) (a) (c) (c) (c) (c) (c) (a) (b) (d) (b)
46 47
(c) (c)
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Three Dimensional Geometry M-181
Þ l=
3 1 1 1 1 1 –2
= ,m = - ,n =
27 3 3 3 Þ k 2 3 =0
Line L, makes an angle a with +ve x-axis
3 k 2
1
\ l = cos a Þ cos a = Þ 1(4 –3k) –1(2k – 9) – 2(k2– 6) = 0
3
r r r 5
25. (d) Q a lies in the plane of b and c Þ –2k2 – 5k + 25 = 0 Þ k = –5 or
r r r 2
\ a = b + lc Q k is an integer, therefore k = –5
Þ aiˆ + 2 ˆj + bkˆ = iˆ + ˆj + l ( ˆj + kˆ) x - 2 y -1 z + 2
28. (a) Q The line = = lie in the
Þ a = 1, 2 = 1+ l, b = l Þ a = 1, b = 1 3 -5 2
plane
r r r x + 3y – a z + b = 0
Q a bisects the angle between b and c . \ Pt (2, 1, – 2) lies on the plane
r i.e. 2 + 3 + 2a + b = 0
\ a = l(bˆ + cˆ)
or 2a + b + 5 = 0 ....(i)
l (iˆ + 2ˆj + k)
ˆ Also normal to plane will be perpendicular
Þ aˆi + 2ˆj + bkˆ = to line,
2
\ 3 × 1 – 5 × 3 + 2 × (– a ) = 0
l l Þ a=–6
Þa= , l = 2 , b= From equation (i) then, b = 7
2 2
\ (a, b) = (– 6, 7)
Þ a=b=1
29. (a) A(3, 1, 6); B = (1, 3, 4)
26. (c) Equation of line through (5, 1, a) and
Mid-point of AB = (2, 2, 5) lies on the plane.
x – 5 y –1 z – a and d.r’s of AB = (2, –2, 2)
(3, b, 1) is = = =l
–2 b –1 1– a d.r’s of normal to plane = (1, –1, 1).
\ Any point on this line is a Direction ratio of AB and normal to the
[–2l + 5, (b – 1) l + 1, (1– a) l + a] plane are proportional therefore,
AB is perpendicular to the plane
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Three Dimensional Geometry M-185
\ A is image of B 5
Statement-2 is correct but it is not correct But it is given that q = cos -1
explanation. 14
30. (b) Direction cosines of the line : (5 + 3l ) 2 5
1 , -1 , \ 1- =
l = cos 45° = m = cos120° = 14(5 + l 2 14
2 2
2
n = cos q Þ l=
where q is the angle, which line makes with 3
33. (a) The direction ratio of the line segment
positive z-axis.
joining points A(1, 0, 7) and B(1, 6, 3) is 0, 6,
Now l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1 –4.
1 1 2 The direction ratio of the given line is 1, 2, 3.
Þ + + cos q = 1
2 4 Clearly 1 × 0 + 2 × 6 + 3 × (–4) = 0
1 So, the given line is perpendicular to line AB.
cos 2 q =
4 Also , the mid point of A and B is (1, 3, 5)
1 which lies on the given line.
Þ cos q = ( q being acute)
2 So, the image of B in the given line is A, because
p the given line is the perpendicular bisector of
Þ q=
3 line segment joining points A and B.
b 34. (a) Equation of line through P (1, -5,9) and
31. (c) Slope of line L = -
5 parallel to the plane x = y = z is
3 x -1 y + 5 z - 9
Slope of line K = - = = = l ( say )
c 1 1 1
Line L is parallel to line k.
Q = ( x = 1 + l, y = -5 + l, z = 9 + l )
b 3
Þ = Þ bc = 15 Given plane x – y + z =5
5 c \ 1+ l + 5 - l + 9 + l = 5
(13, 32) is a point on L.
Þ l = -10
13 32 32 8 \ Q = (– 9 , – 15, – 1)
\ + =1 Þ =-
5 b b 5
3 \ PQ = (1 + 9) 2 + (15 - 5) 2 + ( 9 + 1) 2
Þ b = -20 Þ c = -
4 = 300 = 10 3
Equation of K : 35. (c) Let feet of perpendicular is
y - 4 x = 3 Þ 4x - y + 3 = 0
Distance between L and K ( 2a, 3a + 2, 4a + 3)
52 - 32 + 3 23 Þ Direction ratio of the ^ line is
= =
17 17 2a - 3,3a + 3, 4a - 8. and
32. (d) If q be the angle between the given line Direction ratio of the line 2, 3, 4 are
and plane, then Þ 2 ( 2α –3) +3 (3α + 3) +4 (4α – 8) =0
1´1+ 2 ´ 2 + l ´ 3
sin q = Þ 29a - 29 = 0
12 + 22 + l 2 . 12 + 22 + 32 Þ a =1
5 + 3l Þ Feet of ^ is (2, 5, 7)
=
14. 5 + l 2 Þ Length ^ is 12 + 6 2 + 42 = 53
(5 + 3l ) 2 36. (a) Given equation of a plane is x – 2y + 2z – 5 = 0
Þ cos q = 1 - So, Equation of parallel plane is given by
14(5 + l 2 ) x – 2y + 2z + d = 0
2 Now, it is given that distance from origin to
\ q = cos -1 1 - (5 + 3l ) the parallel plane is 1.
14(5 + l 2 )
d
\ =1 Þ d = ±3
1 + 2 2 + 22
2
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M-186 Mathematics
So equation of required plane
A (1, 3, 4)
x – 2y + 2z ± 3 = 0
x -1 y +1 z -1
37. (c) Given lines are = = 3i + j - 5k
2 3 4
x-3 y-k z P
and = =
1 2 1 3i + j - 5k
r r r r A
Thus, a , b , c and d are given as
r r r (a, b, c)
a ( 1, -1,1 ) , b ( 2, 3, 4 ) , c ( 3, k , 0 ) ; and
r
d ( 1, 2,1) æ a +1 b + 3 c + 4 ö
P =ç , , ÷
These lines will intersect if lines are è 2 2 2 ø
coplanar
r r r r æ 6-l l +8ö
i.e., a - c , b & d are coplanar = ç l + 1, , ÷
è 2 2 ø
r r r r
\ ëé a - c , b , d ûù = 0 6-l l +8
r r \ 2(l + 1) - + +3= 0
Now, a - c = (3 – 1, k + 1, 0 –1) 2 2
= (2, k + 1, –1) 3l + 6 = 0 Þ l = –2
2 k + 1 -1 a = –3, b = 5, c = 2
Þ 2 3 4 =0 x+3 y -5 z - 2
Required line is = =
1 2 1 3 1 -5
41. (c) Given, l + m + n = 0 and l 2 = m2 + n2
Þ 2 (3 – 8) – k + 1 (2 – 4) – 1 (4 – 3) = 0
Now, (–m –n)2 = m2 + n2
Þ 2 (–5) – ( k +1) (–2) – 1 (1) = 0
Þ mn = 0 Þ m = 0 or n = 0
Þ – 10 + 2k + 2 – 1 = 0 Þ k = 9 If m = 0 then l = –n
2 1
38. (c) 2x + y + 2z – 8 = 0 …(Plane 1) We know l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1 Þ n = ±
5 2
2x + y + 2z + =0 …(Plane 2)
2 æ 1 1 ö
i.e. (l1, m1, n1) = ç - , 0, ÷
Distance between Plane 1 and 2 è 2 2ø
5 If n = 0 then l = –m
-8 - l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1 Þ 2m2 = 1
2 -21 7
= = =
22 + 12 + 22 6 2 1
Þ m=±
2
39. (c) Given lines will be coplanar
1 1
Let m = Þl=- and n = 0
-1 1 1 2 2
If 1 1 - k = 0
æ 1 1 ö
k 2 (l2, m2, n2 ) = ç - , , 0÷
è 2 2 ø
Þ –1(1 + 2k) – (1 + k2) + 1(2 – k) = 0
Þ k = 0, –3 1 p
\ cos q = Þ q=
a -1 b - 3 c - 4 2 3
40. (c) = = = l (let) 42. (a) Equation of the plane containing the lines
2 -1 1 2x – 5y + z = 3 and x + y + 4z = 5 is
Þ a = 2l + 1 2x – 5y + z – 3 + l (x + y + 4z – 5) = 0
b=3–l Þ (2 + l) x + (–5 + l) y+ (1 + 4l)z + (–3 – 5l) = 0
c=4+l ...(i)
Since the plane (i) parallel to the given plane x
www.crackjee.xyz
Three Dimensional Geometry M-187
+ 3y + 6z = 1
Þ distance OP = 10 3
2 + l -5 + l 1 + 4l
\ = = 45. (b) Line lies in the plane Þ (3, –2, –4) lie in the
1 3 6 plane
11 Þ 3l – 2m + 4 = 9 or 3l – 2m = 5 ..... (1)
Þ l=- Also, l, m,–1 are dr's of line perpendicular
2
Hence equation of the required plane is to plane and 2, –1, 3 are dr's of line lying in
the plane
æ 11ö æ 11ö æ 44 ö æ 55 ö Þ 2l – m – 3 = 0 or 2l – m = 3 .....(2)
çè 2 - ÷ø x + çè -5 - ÷ø y + çè1 - ÷ø z + çè -3 + ÷ø Solving (1) and (2) we get l = 1 and m = –1
2 2 2 2
=0 Þ l2 + m2 = 2.
46. (c) Equation of line PQ is
Þ (4 - 11)x + (-10 - 11)y + (2 - 44)z + ( -6 + 55) = 0
x -1 y + 2 z - 3
Þ -7x - 21y - 42z + 49 = 0 = =
1 4 5
Þ x + 3y + 6z - 7 = 0
Let F be (l + 1, 4l - 2, 5l + 3)
Þ x + 3y + 6z = 7
43. (b) General point on given line º P(3r + 2, 4r – P(1, –2, 3)
1, 12r + 2)
Point P must satisfy equation of plane
(3r + 2) – (4r – 1) + (12r + 2) = 16
11r + 5 = 16
r=1
P(3 × 1 + 2, 4 × 1 – 1, 12 × 1 + 2) = P(5, 3, 14)
distance between P and (1, 0, 2) F
Probability 27
1. A problem in mathematics is given to three For the events E = {X is a prime number } and
students A, B, C and their respective probability F = { X < 4}, the P( E È F ) is [2004]
1 1 1 (a) 0.50 (b) 0.77
of solving the problem is , and .
2 3 4 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.87
Probability that the problem is solved is [2002] 6. The mean and the variance of a binomial
distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the
3 1
(a) (b) probability of 2 successes is [2004]
4 2
28 219
2 1 (a) (b)
(c) (d) 256 256
3 3
2. A dice is tossed 5 times. Getting an odd number 128 37
(c) (d)
is considered a success. Then the variance of 256 256
distribution of success is [2002] 7. Three houses are available in a locality. Three
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/8 persons apply for the houses. Each applies for
(c) 4/5 (d) 5/4 one house without consulting others. The
3. The mean and variance of a random variable X probability that all the three apply for the same
having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 house is [2005]
respectively, then P (X = 1) is [2003] 2 1
(a) (b)
1 1 9 9
(a) (b)
4 32 8 7
(c) (d)
1 1 9 9
(c) (d) 8. A random variable X has Poisson distribution
16 8
with mean 2. Then P (X > 1.5) equals [2005]
4
4. The probability that A speaks truth is , while 2
5 (a) 2 (b) 0
3 e
the probability for B is . The probability that 3 3
4 (c) 1 - (d) 2
they contradict each other when asked to speak e2 e
on a fact is [2004] 9. At a telephone enquiry system the number of
4 1 phone calls regarding relevant enquiry follow
(a) (b) Poisson distribution with an average of 5 phone
5 5
calls during 10 minute time intervals. The
7 3 probability that there is at the most one phone
(c) (d)
20 20 call during a 10-minute time period is [2006]
5. A random variable X has the probability
6 5
distribution: (a) (b)
e 6
X: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
5
p(X): 0.2 0.2 0.1 0.1 0.2 0.1 0.1 0.1 6 6
(c) (d)
55 e5
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Probability M-189
10. Two aeroplanes I and II bomb a target in 2 1
succession. The probabilities of I and II scoring (a) (b)
7 21
a hit correctly are 0.3 and 0.2, respectively. The
second plane will bomb only if the first misses 2 1
(c) (d)
the target. The probability that the target is hit 23 3
by the second plane is [2007] 16. Consider 5 independent Bernoulli’s trials each
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.7 with probability of success p. If the probability
(c) 0.06 (d) 0.14. of at least one failure is greater than or equal to
11. A pair of fair dice is thrown independently three 31
times. The probability of getting a score of , then p lies in the interval [2011]
32
exactly 9 twice is [2007]
(a) 8/729 (b) 8/243 æ 3 11 ù é 1ù
(c) 1/729 (d) 8/9. (a) çè , ú (b) ê0, ú
4 12 û ë 2û
12. It is given that the events A and B are such that
1 1 2
æ 11 ù æ 1 3ù
P ( A) = , P ( A | B ) = an d P ( B | A) = . (c) çè ,1ú (d) çè , ú
12 û 2 4û
4 2 3
Then P(B) is [2008] 17. If C and D are two events such that C Ì D and
P(D) ¹ 0, then the correct statement among
1 1 the following is [2011]
(a) (b)
6 3 (a) P (C | D ) ³ P (C )
2 1 (b) P (C | D ) < P (C )
(c) (d)
3 2
P( D )
13.
æ 1ö
In a binomial distribution B ç n, p = ÷ , if the (c) P (C | D) =
P (C )
è 4ø
probability of at least one success is greater than (d) P (C | D ) = P (C )
18. Let A, B, C, be pairwise independent events
9
or equal to
10
, then n is greater than: [2009] with P (C) > 0 and P ( A Ç B Ç C ) =0. Then
(a)
1 9
(b) log 4 – log 3
(
P Ac Ç B c / C .) [2011RS]
log10 4 + log10 3
( ) ( ) ( )
10 10
c c
(a) P B – P ( B ) (b) P A + P B
c
4 1
P( A ) - P(B ) ( )
(c) (d)
log10 4 – log10 3 log10 4 – log10 3 (d) P A - P ( B )
c c c
(c)
14. One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets 19. Three numbers are chosen at random without
numbered 00,01,02,...,49. Then the probability replacement from {1,2,3,..8}. The probability
that the sum of the digits on the selected ticket that their minimum is 3, given that their maximum
is 8, given that the product of these digits is is 6, is : [2012]
zero, equals: [2009]
3 1
1 5 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 8 5
7 14
1 1 1 2
(c) (d) (c) (d)
50 14 4 5
15. An urn contains nine balls of which three are 20. A multiple choice examination has 5 questions.
red, four are blue and two are green. Three balls Each question has three alternative answers of
are drawn at random without replacement from which exactly one is correct. The probability
the urn. The probability that the three balls have that a student will get 4 or more correct answers
different colours is [2010] just by guessing is: [2013]
EBD_7764
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M-190 Mathematics
17 13 22. A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow
(a) 5 (b) balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, one-
3 35 by-one, with replacement, then the variance
11 10 of the number of green balls drawn is :
(c) 5 (d) [2014]
3 35
21. Let A and B be two events such that 6 12
(a) (b)
25 5
(
P AÈ B = ) 1
6
( 1
, P A Ç B = and
4
) (c) 6 (d) 4
23. If two different numbers are taken from the
( ) 1
P A = , where A stands for the
4
set (0, 1, 2, 3, ......., 10), then the probability
that their sum as well as absolute difference
complement of the event A. Then the events A are both multiple of 4, is : [2014]
and B are [2014] 7 6
(a) independent but not equally likely. (a) (b)
55 55
(b) independent and equally likely.
(c) mutually exclusive and independent. 12 14
(c) (d)
(d) equally likely but not independent. 55 55
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(a) (d) (b) (c) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (b) (b) (d) (d) (a)
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
(b) (a) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b)
((
P Ac Ç B c Ç C ) ) = P (( A È B) Ç C )
c
Þ P( B) =
1
3
P (C ) P (C ) Q P ( A) ¹ P ( B ) so they are not equally likely.
P ((1 - A È B) Ç C) 3 1 1
Also P ( A) ´ P( B ) =
´ =
=
P (C) 4 3 4
= P( A Ç B)
P ((1 - A - B + A Ç B ) Ç C ) So A & B are independent.
= 22. (b) We can apply binomial probability
P (C )
distribution
P(C) – P(A Ç C) – P(B Ç C) + P(A Ç B Ç C) We have n = 10
=
P(C) p = Probability of drawing a green ball =
P(C) – P(A).P(C) – P(B)P(C) + 0 15 3
= =
P(C) 25 5
= 1 - P ( A) - P ( B) 3 2
Also q = 1 - =
( )
= P Ac - P ( B ) 5 5
Variance = npq
19. (b) Given sample space = {1,2,3,.....,8}
Let Event 3 2 12
= 10 × ´ =
A : Maximum of three numbers is 6. 5 5 5
B : Minimum of three numbers is 3.
This is the case of conditional probability 23. (b) Let A º {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ......., 10}
We have to find P (minimum) is 3 when it n (S) = 11C2 = 55 where 'S' denotes sample
is given that P (maximum) is 6. space
Let E be the given event
æ B ö P ( B Ç A)
2
C \ E º {(0, 4), (0, 8), (2, 6), (2, 10), (4, 8), (6, 10)}
\ Pç ÷ = =5 1
èAø P ( A) C2 Þ n (E) = 6
2 1 n(E) 6
= = \ P(E) = =
10 5 n(S) 55
www.crackjee.xyz
Properties of Triangles M-193
Properties of Triangles 28
1. The sides of a triangle are 3x+4y, 4x+3y and (a) 150° (b) 90°
5x+5y where x, y > 0 then the triangle is [2002] (c) 120° (d) 60°
(a) right angled (b) obtuse angled 7. A person standing on the bank of a river
(c) equilateral (d) none of these observes that the angle of elevation of the top
of a tree on the opposite bank of the river is 60°
2. In a triangle with sides a, b, c, r1 > r2 > r3 and when he retires 40 meters away from the
(which are the ex-radii) then [2002] tree the angle of elevation becomes 30°. The
(a) a >b > c (b) a < b < c breadth of the river is [2004]
(c) a > b and b < c (d) a < b and b > c (a) 60 m (b) 30 m
3. The sum of the radii of inscribed and (c) 40 m (d) 20 m
circumscribed circles for an n sided regular p
polygon of side a , is [2003] 8. In a triangle ABC, let ÐC = . If r is the inradius
2
a æp ö æp ö and R is the circumradius of the triangle ABC,
(a) cot ç ÷ (b) a cot ç ÷ then 2 (r + R) equals [2005]
4 è 2n ø ènø
(a) b + c (b) a + b
a æp ö æp ö (c) a + b + c (d) c + a
(c) cot ç ÷ (d) a cot ç ÷
2 è 2n ø è 2n ø 9. If in a DABC , the altitudes from the vertices A,
4. In a triangle ABC, medians AD and BE are drawn. B, C on opposite sides are in H.P, then sin A, sin
p p B, sin C are in [2005]
If AD = 4, ÐDAB = and ÐABE = , then (a) G. P. (b) A. P.
6 3
the area of the D ABC is [2003] (c) A.P -G.P. (d) H. P
10. A tower stands at the centre of a circular park. A
64 8 and B are two points on the boundary of the
(a) (b)
3 3 park such that AB (= a) subtends an angle of 60°
16 32 at the foot of the tower, and the angle of elevation
(c) (d) of the top of the tower from A and B is 30°. The
3 3 3
height of the tower is [2007]
2æ C ö 2 æ A ö 3b
5. If in a DABC a cos ç ÷ + c cos ç ÷ = , then (a) a/ 3 (b) a 3
è2ø è2ø 2
the sides a, b and c [2003] (c) 2a / 3 (d) 2a 3
(a) satisfy a + b = c (b) are in A.P 11. AB is a vertical pole with B at the ground level
and A at the top. A man finds that the angle of
(c) are in G..P (d) are in H.P. elevation of the point A from a certain point C
6. The sides of a triangle are sin a, cos a and on the ground is 60°. He moves away from the
pole along the line BC to a point D such that
p CD =7 m. From D the angle of elevation of the
1 + sin a cos a for some 0 < a < . Then the
2 point A is 45°. Then the height of the pole is
greatest angle of the triangle is [2004]
EBD_7764
www.crackjee.xyz
M-194 Mathematics
[2008] b+c c+a a+b
14. If in a triangle ABC, = = , then
7 3 1 7 3 11 12 13
(a) m (b) ( 3 + 1)m cosA is equal to [2012]
2 3 –1 2
(a) 5/7 (b) 1/5
7 3 7 3 1 (c) 35/19 (d) 19/35
(c) ( 3 –1)m (d) m
2 2 3 +1 15. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m
12. For a regular polygon, let r and R be the radii of high and its elevation from a point O on the
the inscribed and the circumscribed circles. A ground is 45° . It flies off horizontally straight
false statement among the following is [2010] away from the point O. After one second, the
r 1 elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 30° .
(a) There is a regular polygon with = Then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is [2014]
R 2
7. (d) T
A N B
a
é p ù é p ù y
cos + 1ú 2cos 2
aê n a ê 2n ú
= ê ú= ê
2ê p ú 2 ê 2sin p p ú
sin cos ú 30° 60°
R
ë n û ë 2n 2n û Q
P 40m x
a p From the figure
= cot
2 2p y
A tan 60° = Þ y = 3 x ....................(1)
4. (d) x
y x + 40
tan 30° = Þy= ...............(2)
30º x + 40 3
From (1) and (2),
E
x + 40
90º 3x = Þ x = 20m
P 3
60º
8. (b) We know that for the circle circumscrib-
B D C ing a right triangle, hypotenutse is the
2 8 4 diameter As ÐC = 90o
AP = AD = ; PD = ; Let PB = x
3 3 3
o 8/3 8 c
tan 60 = or x = \ 2R = c Þ R =
x 3 3 2
1 8 16 1
Area of DABD = ´ 4 ´ = ´ a ´b
2 3 3 3 3 D 2
also r = =
16 32 s a+b+c
\ Area of DABC = 2 ´ =
3 3 3 3 2
[Q Median of a D divides it into two D¢s of ab
equal area.] Þr=
a+b+c
2æ C ö 2 æ A ö 3b
5. (b) If a cos ç ÷ + c cos ç ÷ = 2 ab
è 2ø è2ø 2 \ 2r + 2 R = +c
a[cos C + 1] + c[cos A + 1] = 3b a+b+c
(a + c ) + (a cos C + c cos B) = 3b 2ab + ac + bc + c2 2ab + ac + bc + a 2b 2
= =
a + c + b = 3b or a + c = 2b a+b+c a+b+c
or a, b, c are in A.P. (Q c 2
= a 2 + b2 )
6. (c) Let a = sin a, b = cos a and
( a + b) 2 + ( a + b ) c
c = 1 + sin a cos a = = ( a + b)
a+b+c
Clearly a and b < 1 but c > 1 as sina > 0 and
cosa > 0
EBD_7764
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M-196 Mathematics
1 1 1 h
9. (b) D= p1a = p2 b = p3b Þx=
2 2 2 3
p1, p2 , p3 , are in H.P.. In D ABD
2D 2D 2D are in H.P.. h
Þ , , = tan45° =1
a b c x+7
1 1 1 h
Þ , , are in H.P.. Þ h=x+7Þh– =7
a b c 3
Þ a, b, c are in A.P. 7 3 3 +1
Þ h= ´
Þ KsinA, K sin B, K sin C are in AP 3 –1 3 +1
Þ sinA, sinB, sinC are in A.P.
10. (a) In the D AOB, Ð AOB = 60°, and Ð OBA = Þ h=
7 3
2
(3 +1 m )
Ð OAB (since OA = OB = AB radius of same 12. (b) If O is centre of polygon and
circle). \ D AOB is a equilateral triangle.
Let the height of tower is h AB is one of the side, then by figure
O
C
p/n
R
p r r
h cos =
n R
A B
30° a
A r 1 1 3
60° O = , ,
a a Þ for n = 3, 4, 6 respectively..
30° R 2 2 2
13. (b) Given 3 sin P + 4cos Q = 6 ...(i)
B 4 sin Q + 3cos P = 1 ...(ii)
m. Given distance between two points A & Squaring and adding (i) & (ii) we get
B lie on boundary of circular park, subtends 9 sin2 P + 16cos2Q + 24 sin P cos Q
an angle of 60° at the foot of the tower is + 16 sin2Q + 9cos2 P + 24 sin Q cos P
AB i.e. AB = a. A tower OC stands at the = 36 + 1 = 37
centre of a circular park. Angle of elevation Þ 9 (sin2P + cos2P) + 16 (sin2 Q + cos2 Q)
of the top of the tower from A and B is 30°. + 24 (sinP cosQ + cosP sinQ) = 37
h 1 h Þ 9 + 16 + 24 sin ( P + Q) = 37
In DOAC, tan 30° = Þ = [Q sin2q + cos2q = 1 and sin A cos B +
a 3 a cos A sin B = sin (A + B)]
a 1
Þ h= Þ sin ( P + Q ) =
3 2
h p 5p
11. (b) In D ABC = tan 60° = 3 Þ P + Q = or
x 6 6
A
Þ R = 5 p or 5 p (Q P + Q + R = p)
6 6
5p p
If R = then 0 < P , Q <
h 6 6
1
Þ cos Q < 1 and sin P <
2
11
Þ 3 sin P + 4 cos Q <
60° 2
45° p
B x So, R =
C 7m D 6
www.crackjee.xyz
Properties of Triangles M-197
20 b
45° 20 a
A P
30°
O x C y D
tan a + tan b
Let O be the point on the ground such that As tan (a + b) =
1 - tan a tan b
ÐAOC = 45°
Let OC = x, Time t = 1 s tan a + tan b
Þ
20 1 - tan a tan b
From DAOC, tan 45° = ...(i)
x é AB ù
ê Qtan(a + b) = ú
20 1 AP
and from DBOD, tan 30° = ...(ii) = ê ú
x+ y 2ê 1
tan(a + b) = [ From(1) ]ú
From (i) and (ii), we have x = 20 and êë 2 úû
1 20 1
= + tan b
3 x+ y 1 2
Þ 4 = \ tan b =
1 20 1 2 9
= 1 - tan b
Þ Þ 20 + y = 20 3 4
3 20 + y
So, y = 20( 3 - 1)
i.e., speed = 20( 3 - 1) m/s
EBD_7764