MOCK TEST FOR NEET 2019

TOPIC OF THE TEST

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

 Mock Test for NEET-2019

Time : 3 Hrs. MOCK TEST FOR NEET 2019 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. In an experiment mass and velocity of an object are 6. Linear momentum p of an object changes with time
measured as 1.00 kg and 2.00 m/s respectively. t3
Maximum percentage error in calculation of kinetic t as p = t2 – (kg m/s). If mass of the object is
3
energy of the object is 1 kg then velocity of the object when its acceleration
(1) 1% (2) 2% becomes zero is
(3) 1.5% (4) 2.5% 8
2. Acceleration (a) of a particle moving in a straight line (1) 1 m/s (2) m/s
3
is given as a = – 2 v. At what position, the particle
4 2
will come to rest, if it starts its motion with initial (3) m/s (4) m/s
3 3
velocity 10 m/s from origin?
7. Two blocks are pulled with two different horizontal forces
(1) 6 m (2) 2.5 m as shown in figure. Coefficient of friction between the
(3) 5 m (4) 10 m two blocks is  = 0.3. The ground is smooth. Force of
3. A particle is thrown from ground as a projectile with friction acting between the two blocks is
initial speed of 20 2 m/s making 45° with the  = 0.3
horizontal. Centripetal acceleration of the particle 2 kg 4N
after one second of projection is
5 kg 10 N
(1) 2 5 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
Smooth
(3) 4 5 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2
(1) 5 N (2) 4 N
4. Velocity of a particle moving in a plane is given by
(3) 6 N (4) Zero

v  4 sin(t )i  6 cos( t ) j . If the particle starts its 8. A body moves on a straight line by a machine
motion from origin then the shape of the trajectory is delivering constant power. The variation of velocity (v)
(1) Ellipse (2) Circle with position s is best shown by
(3) Parabola (4) Straight line v v

5. A car of mass 100 kg is moving on rough horizontal

(1) (2)
road of radius 200 m. If speed of the car increases
at the rate of 2 m/s2 then the force of friction exerted s s
by the road when its speed is 20 m/s is v v
(1) 200 N (2) 200 2 N
(3) (4)
(3) 400 N (4) 400 2 N s s
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9. A block of mass 1 kg is released from the top of a 12. Position of centre of mass of quarter of a uniform
fixed rough wedge of height 10 m. When the block circular ring of radius R from its center O as
reaches the ground, its speed becomes 10 m/s. shown is
Work done by the force of friction is
(1) 100 J R
(2) 50 J
O R
(3) – 25 J
(4) – 50 J R 
(1) (0, 0) (2)  , 0 
 
10. A ball moving with velocity 10 2 m/s hits the
 2R 2R   2R 
horizontal ground making angle 45° with the vertical. (3)  ,  (4)  0, 
      
If coefficient of restitution between the ground and
13. A circular disc of mass M is under pure rolling on
1 horizontal surface with velocity of centre of mass as
the ball is then angle made by the ball with the v0 and angular speed 0 about its central axis as
3
horizontal after collision is shown. The angular momentum of the disc about
point O is
(1) 45°
(2) 60° O

(3) 30° d
(4) tan–1 (2)
v0
11. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
R 0
density  is bent into circular loop with centre at O.
The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis
XX is
MR 2 0
X X (1) Mv0d (2)  Mv 0d
2
90º
MR 20 MR 2 0
(3) (4)  Mv 0 d
2 2
14. Two satellites A and B of masses m 1 and m 2
(m2 = 2m1) are moving in circular orbits R1 and R2
(R1 = 4R2) respectively around the earth. Ratio of
3L3 2L3 TA
(1) (2)
8 2 3 2 their time period of revolution T is
B

L3 3L3 (1) 2 (2) 4

(3) (4)
2 2 2 (3) 8 (4) 16
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15. A tunnel is made along the chord AB inside the a

earth as shown. An object is released at point B
from rest. Speed of the particle when it reaches the
mid-point P is (g - acceleration due to gravity on the 3m
2m
earth’s surface)

P 5m
A B
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
60°
R
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
O
18. Velocity of liquid coming out the small hole
containing two different liquids of density 2  and 
as shown is

5gR
(1) gR (2)
2
2h
3 gR
(3) 7.1gR (4)
4 ld

16. A uniform rod of length L and mass M is pulled h

horizontally on a smooth surface with force 3 F as 
shown. The cross sectional area of the rod is A and
(1) 6 gh (2) 2gh
Young’s modulus is Y. The elongation produced in
the rod is
(3) 2 gh (4) gh
3F 19. W hat is the diff erence in water lev el in two
communicating capillary tubes of radius 1.5 mm and
2 FL 3 FL 1 mm, if surface tension of water is 0.06 N/m?
(1) (2)
AY AY
3 mm 2 mm

FL 3 FL
(3) (4)
AY 2 AY

17. An open rectangular tank of dimension 5 m × 4 m ×

3 m containing water upto height 2 m is accelerated
along the direction as shown in figure. Then
maximum acceleration a that can be given without (1) 4 mm (2) 8 mm
spilling the water is (3) 12 mm (4) 16 mm
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20. A solid cylindrical object of length L and density s 22. A whistle executes SHM along x-axis with amplitude
is floating while submerged completely between two 
liquids of density 1 and 2 as shown. Now the 10 cm and time period s . If the frequency of
15
cylinder is pushed a little down and released for whistle is 100 Hz then ratio of maximum and
SHM. Then time period of small oscillation is minimum frequency heard by listener standing on
x-axis is (speed of sound = 300 m/s)
(1) 1.02 (2) 1.5
(3) 2.2 (4) 3
l
23. Two wires A and B of identical length and material
having radii R and 2 R are joined together as shown.
They are fixed between two points under some
tension. If they are vibrated by a tuning fork then
ratio of number of loops formed in them is
1  2  l s l
(1) 2 (2) 2  1  2  g A B
s g

1  2  l s l
1
(3) 2 (4) 2  1  2  g (1) 1 (2)
s g 2

21. Two springs each of spring constant k, are attached

1 1
to a block of mass m1 as shown in the figure. The (3) (4)
4 8
block can slide smoothly along a horizontally
platform clamped to the opposite walls of the trolley 24. Two moles of helium is mixed with two moles of
of mass m 2. If the block is displaced by x and oxygen. Average degree of freedom in the mixture
released, the time period of oscillation is per molecule is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
k k
m1 25. Pressure P of n moles of an ideal gas changes as
P = P 0 – V, where V is v olume of the gas.
Maximum temperature of the gas is
m1  m2 2(m1  m2 )
(1) 2 (2) 2 2P02 P02
2k k (1) (2)
nR nR

2m1m2 m1m2 P02 P02

(3) 2 (m  m )k (4) 2 (m  m )2k (3) (4)
1 2 1 2 4 nR 2 nR
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26. A cup of tea cools from 40°C to 30°C in 10 minutes 31. In the CE amplifier circuit shown if the current gain
when it is kept in surroundings temperature of 15°C.  = 100 and voltage drop between base and emitter
Assuming Newton’s law of cooling to be valid. Find is 0.7 V then value of potential drop between
the time taken by the tea to come down to 20°C collector and emitter VCE is
(1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes
100 
(3) 20 minutes (4) 25 minutes
27. For f irst Bohr orbit of circumf erence 2r the
8.6 k
de-Broglie wavelength of revolving electron will be 18 V

(1) r (2) 2r 5V

1 1
(3) (4)
2r 4r

28. If first excitation potential of hydrogen like atom is (1) 10 V (2) 5 V

V electron volt then ionization energy of the atom
(3) 13 V (4) Zero
will be
32. In the following network of logic gates if X = 0 and
4V
(1) V (2) Y = 0 then output Z =
3
X
6V 9V
(3) (4)
5 8 Z
Y
29. A radioactive substance has half life of 5 years.
Probability of decay in 10 years is
(1) Zero
(1) 100% (2) 75%
(2) One
(3) 50% (4) 25%
(3) Between 0 and 1
30. Which of the following diodes is forward biased?
(4) Can’t be determined
– 2V – 5V
(1)
33. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential
– 2V 2V
(2) (1) Depends on angle of incidence of light

5V 10V (2) Depends on intensity of light

(3)
(3) Is independent of material
– 4V – 3V
(4) (4) Is independent of intensity of light
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34. In the experiment on polarization of light, the 38. In the following RLC alternating current circuit, the
polarizer and analyzer axis make 60° with each frequency () of alternating voltage is 2000 rad/s.
other. Percentage of incident intensity of unpolarized RMS v alue of the current f lowing will be
light passing through the system is approximately

(1) 75% (2) 50% 5 mH, 4  50 F

6
(3) 25% (4) 12.5%

35. In the Young’s double slit experiment when a thin

glass plate of refractive index  = 1.5 and thickness 
t is introduced in the path of one of the interfering 20 V
beams of wavelength , the intensity at the central (1) 2 A (2) 3.3 A
maxima remains unchanged. Which of the following
may not be the thickness of the plate? 2
(3) A (4) 5A
5
(1)  (2) 2 
39. An emf of 15 V is applied in R – L circuit containing
(3) 4  (4) 6 
L = 5 H and R = 10 . The ratio of current at t = 
36. An illuminated object of height H is kept at one and t = 1 s is
metre from a vertical screen. For two different
positions of a convex lens kept in between the e e2
(1) (2)
object and the screen, the image size on the screen e 1 e2  1
is 18 cm and 8 cm respectively. The value of H is

(1) 13 cm (2) 12 cm e 1 1
(3) (4)
e e
(3) 16 cm (4) 14 cm
40. Two identical small bar magnets are placed one over
37. An object is placed at 12 cm to the left of a the other such that they are mutually perpendicular.
converging lens of focal length 8 cm. Another Time period of the combination in a horizontal
converging lens of focal length 6 cm is placed at a magnetic field is T. Time period of each magnet in
distance of 28 cm to the right of the first lens. the same field is
The second lens will produce image which will be (1) 2T
(1) Real, enlarged
(2) 21 4 T
(2) Virtual, enlarge
(3) 21 4 T
(3) Real, diminished

(4) Virtual, diminished (4) 21 2 T

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41. A rod of length l with uniformly distributed charge Q Vs

is rotated about one end with a constant frequency
f. Its magnetic moment is
A B
 E
(1) 2fQl 2 (2) fQl 2
3 G

4 6 k
(3) fQl 2 (4) 4fQl 2
3
(1) 1.5  (2) 2 
42. Two charged particles having same mass m and (3) 0.5  (4) 1 
charges + q and – q are separated by distance d in
a uniform magnetic field B as shown. If particles start 44. In the circuit shown the current I is
with velocities v1 and v2 as shown then they will not
collide if 30  I

X X X X
B
– v1 40 
X X X X 40 V
d
X X X X
+ v2
X X X X 40  80 V

(1) 0.4 A (2) 0.8 A

m  v1  v 2  m  v1  v 2 
(1) d > (2) d < (3) 1.2 A (4) 1.6 A
qB qB
45. A capacitor with the dielectric is charged completely
2m and the battery is disconnected. Now the dielectric
(3) d > v  v  (4) v1 = v2
qB 1 2 is pulled out. Hence,

(1) Charge stored will decrease

43. In the arrangement shown for potentiometer to find
internal resistance of the cell E, the balance point is (2) Electric field between the plates will decrease
obtained at a distance of 75 cm from A when key k
(3) Potential difference between the plates will
is open. The balance point is at distance 60 cm
decrease
from A when key k is closed. The internal resistance
of the cell is (4) Energy stored will increase

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[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Which of the following aqueous solutions of salt have 49. For the following compounds
CHO
maximum freezing point?
O O
(1) 0.2 m NaCl (aq) ( = 80%) CH3 C O C2H5
(2) 0.4 m (aq) MgCl2 ( = 60%) (a) (b) (c)

(3) 0.8 m CaCl2 ( = 30%) O

I3C C CH3 OHC CI3
(4) 0.6 m AlCl3 ( = 10%)
(d) (e)
47. When pressure is applied on NaCl type unit cell
then Negative iodoform test is given by

(1) Mass of new unit cell decreases (1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (b) & (c)

(2) Density of crystal increases (3) (c), (d) & (e) (4) All of these

(3) Number of ions per unit cell decreases 50. If the order of Cannizzaro reaction is four, then which
of the following will form?
(4) All of these
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
CH3
(3) Carbene (4) Dianion
(i) BD3/THF 51. Consider the following statements
48. A. Compound ‘A’ can be
(ii) H2O2
a. Melting point of ice decreases on increasing
CH3 pressure.

b. Adding inert gas in Haber’s process at constant

CH3 CH3
volume does not affect the equilibrium.

(1) (2) c. Vapour pressure increases on increasing surface

OH OH area.
H3C D H3C H
d. Work done under adiabatic condition is state
function.
CH3 CH3
Correct statement is/are
(3) (4) (1) a & c only (2) b, c & d only
OH OH
H3C D H3C D (3) a & b only (4) a, b & d only

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52. In isothermal expansion of gas 55. If the ratio of time of revolution of electron in two
a. The kinetic energy of gas molecules remains same. different orbits of H-like specie is 8 : 1, the ratio of
b. The kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases. the radius will be

c. The pressure of gas decreases. (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

d. The kinetic energy of gaseous molecules (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
increases.
56. For the following reaction
Correct statement is/are
O
(1) a & b (2) b, c & d Br2 + NaOH
R C NH2 R NH2 + NaBr + Na2 CO3
(3) a & c (4) b & d
Correct statement is/are
53. Packing fraction and nearest neighbour distance in
body centered cubic respectively are (1) 4 moles of NaOH consumed

 3 3  (2) Formation of isocyanate is the rate determine

(1) , a (2) ,a step
8 2 6
(3) 3 moles of NaOH consumed
64 a 
(3) , (4) , 2a
3 2 6 (4) Both (1) & (2)
54. The reaction of HBr with the following compound 57. What is the pH of the solution when 0.2 mole of HCl
would produce is added to one litre of a solution containing 1 M
each of acetic acid and acetate ion?
OH
(pKa for CH3COOH = 4.76, log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)
(1) 4.1 (2) 4.6
OH (3) 5.2 (4) 6.25
(1) NaNH2
58. Reactant (A) Product .
Br Liq. NH3

Br Which of the following compounds can form meta

OH isomer as major product?
(2)
CF3 OCH3 CH3
Cl
Br
(3) Cl
Br Br
Br (a) (b) (c)

Br (1) (a) only (2) (b) & (c) only

(4)
(3) (c) only (4) (a) & (c) only
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59. 0.759 g of a silver salt of a dibasic organic acid on 62. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO 4 solution and
ignition left 0.463 g metallic silver. Equivalent weight Na 2S 2O 3 solution is added to it. Which of the
of acid is following statements is incorrect for the reaction?

(1) 70 (2) 108 (1) Evolved I2 is reduced (2) CuI2 is formed

(3) 60 (4) 50 (3) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (4) Cu2I2 is formed

60. Molecules in which all -orbitals are in same plane 63. In the series of reaction
OH
C6H6 O C C C O H2C C CH2
Zn/ (1) HCN/HCl/AlCl3 LiAlH4
(a) (b) (c) A B C
(2) H2O
MnO2
H2C CH CH CH2 H2C C C CH2 D
The product D is a/an
(d) (e)
(1) Alcohol (2) Ketone
(1) (a) & (c)
(3) Aldehyde (4) Carboxylic acid
(2) (a) & (d)
64. Which of the statements are correct for following
(3) (a), (b) & (e) graph?
(4) (d) only

Fraction of molecule
61. Consider the following statements T1
N
K
a. in Arrhenius equation represents fraction of N
A
molecules having energy greater than or equals
to threshold energy.
speed
b. Rate of exothermic reaction decreases on
increasing temperature. a. Area under the curve represents total number of
molecule.
c. Ecell and Eocell are intensive properties.
b. On increasing temperature fraction of molecules
d. Go = 0 when Q = K having most probable speed increases.
Incorrect among the following are c. On increasing temperature fraction of molecules
having high speed increases.
(1) b & c
d. Area under the curve decreases on decreasing
(2) a, b & d temperature.
(3) d only (1) a, b & d (2) a & c
(4) b & d (3) b & d (4) b, c & d

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65. A given mass of gas expands from state A and state CH3
B by three paths 1, 2 and 3 as shown in the figure
(1) H3C C CH CH2
below. If w1, w2 and w3, be the work done by gas
along three paths CH3

CH3
A
(2) H3C C CH3
3 CH3
P 2
1 (3) H2C C CH2 CH3
B
CH3
V
CH3
(1) w1 > w2 > w3
(4) CH 3 C CH CH 3
(2) w1 < w2 < w3
68. Correct statement among the following is/are
(3) w1 = w2 = w3
(1) Nitrogen of azobenzene and pyridine cannot be
(4) w1 < w2 > w3 estimated by Kjeldahl’s method

R (2) Maleic acid and fumaric acid are diastereomers

– (3) Gauche form of glycol is more stable than anti-

66. C + OH (aq.) Substitution product.
form
R Cl (Nucleophile)
R (4) All of these
(1) Configuration of product is 100% inverted 69. Coagulation of 90 ml of a negative sol requires
10 mL of 0.5 M NaCl. The coagulation value of
(2) Configuration of product is 100% retention
NaCl is
(3) Percentage of inverted product is less than
(1) 25.30 (2) 50.25
retention product
(3) 55.5 (4) 100
(4) Product will be a racemic mixture
70. Collector used in Froth-floatation process is
CH3
alc. KOH
(1) NaCN
67. H3C C CH2 CH2 Br 'A'
(Major product) (2) CuSO4
CH3
(3) Pine oil
Product ‘A’ in the above reaction is (4) Cresol
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71. The correct order of the mobility of alkali metals ions 76. Consider the following statements
in aqueous solution is
a. V2O5, Benzene and NaCl are diamagnetic species.
(1) Rb > K > Na > Li b. Gmix, Hmix and Smix are zero for ideal solution.
(2) Li > Na > K > Rb c. Ethanol is more acidic than phenol.
Correct statement is/are
(3) Na > K > Rb > Li
(1) a & b (2) b & c
(4) K > Na > Rb > Li
(3) c only (4) a only
72. Correct reaction among the following is
77. The correct statement about the compound A, B &
Cl C is
Cl2
(1) R CH2 COOH R CH COOH
PBr3 COOC2H5 COOH COOH
Cl H OH H OH H OH
Br2 H OH H OH HO H
(2) R CH2 COOH R CH COOH
PCl3 COOH COOC2H5 COOC2H5
O A B C
Br2 (1) A & B are diastereomers
R CH 2 COOH R CH 2 C Br
(3) PBr3
(Final product) (2) A & B are enantiomers
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) A & C are enantiomers
73. Which of the following complexes exhibits cis-trans (4) A & B are identical
isomerism?
78. In which of the following none of the sulphur atom
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)2] (2) [PdCl2BrI] has zero oxidation state?
(3) [PtNH3PyClBr] (4) All of these (1) Na2S4O6 (2) Na2S2O3
74. Which of the following order is correct? (3) S8 (4) All of these
(1) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 (Boiling point) 79. A mixture of NaCl(s), K2Cr2O7 (s) and conc. H2SO4
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Te (Acidic nature) is heated. The orange red fumes are

(3) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (Oxidising power) (1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3

(4) All of these (3) CrO2 (4) CrO2Cl2

75. The group attached to C-1 of glucose in its cyclic 80. The total number of isomers possible for square
structure is planar complex K2 [Pd Cl Br2 SCN] is
(1) Acetal (2) Hemiacetal (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Alcohol only (4) Aldehyde (3) 4 (4) 6
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81. Consider the following statements 86. Which among the following has highest pKa?
a. Under the inf luence of strong f ield ligand
NH2 CH2NH2
d-electrons in t2g and eg does not obey Hund’s rule.
b. [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry. (1) (2)

c. d have more energy than dxy in square

x2  y 2
planar complex. NH2 NH2
NO2
d. [PdL4]2– is square planar complex when L is (3) (4)
Cl and CN–.
NO2 NO2
Correct statement among the above is/are
(1) a, b & d only (2) a, c & d only 87. Total number of chiral molecules in the following
examples is
(3) b only (4) a, b, c & d
Cl H CH3
82. Correct statement among the following is
CH3
(1) CO is a -acid ligand
C
(2) I is a weak field ligand Cl Cl T H
D
(3) Ferrocene and Zeise’s salt are -organometallic
complexes
N CHCl3 H3C CH C CH CH3
(4) All of these CH3
83. A 0.1 M, 10 L solution of MgCl2(aq) is electrolysed
(1) 2 (2) 3
with 965 F electricity then the weight of Mg(s)
deposite on cathode is (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 0.12 g (2) 0.24 g 88. Which among the following is not a thermoplastic
(3) 0.06 g (4) Zero polymers?

84. Correct order of bond length is (1) Bakelite (2) Polythene

(3) Polystyrene (4) Polyvinyls
(1) O22  O2  O2 (2) O2  O2  O22
89. The compound which is an artificial sweetener is
(3) O2  O22  O2 (4) O2  O2  O22
(1) Terpenoids (2) Chloramphenicol
85. Which of the following products are formed when (3) Bithionol (4) Aspartame
potassium iodide reacts with potassium permanganate
in alkaline medium? 90. Which is not a disaccharide?
(1) IO3–, MnO2 (2) IO4–, Mn2+ (1) Lactose (2) Sucrose
(3) I2, MnO2 (4) IO–, MnO2–
4 (3) Maltose (4) Galactose
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[BIOLOGY]
91. Select correct statements w.r.t. reproduction in 94. With respect to male reproductive part the most
organisms. resistant organic material is synthesised by (i)
a. The common asexual spore in fungi is haploid and constitutes (ii)
and endogenous. (1) (i) Anther, (ii) Sporoderm
b. Tape grass is aquatic weed which propagates (2) (i) Tapetum, (ii) Exine
vegetatively by stolon.
(3) (i) Endothecium, (ii) -cellulose fibrous wall
c. Few perennial plants are monocarpic also. (4) (i) Tapetum, (ii) Intine
d. Monoecious condition represents bisexuality of 95. How many structures are of sporophytic origin from
plants and flower. the given below?
(1) a & b (2) a & c a. Microspores tetrad
(3) b & c (4) c & d b. Nucellus
92. Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair? c. Aril
(1) Progenitor of next – Embryo d. Placenta
generation e. Embryosac
(2) Clear cut vegetative, – Jackfruit and mango f. Central cell
reproductive and
g. Aleurone layer
senescent phases
are distinct h. Generative cell

(3) Monoecious, – Stone wort (1) b, c, d & g (2) a, b, d & g

protandrous (3) b, c, d & f (4) a, d, f & g
and oogamous 96. Find correct match w.r.t. all the three columns.
(4) Recovery phase – Monocarpic plants Column-I Column-II Column-III
absent
(1) Zostera Hypohydrophily Filamentous
93. Anther is pollen grain

(1) Upper fertile part with non-vasculated connective (2) Amorpho- Foul odoured flower Pollinated by
phallus bees
(2) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate at proximal end
of filament (3) Cereals Multiovulate ovary Anemophily

(3) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate at distal end of filament (4) Orchids Pseudocopulation Plant provides
safe place and
(4) More than one option is correct nectar
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97. Which of the following methods is employed for the 101. Number of linkage group is one more in females than
development of embryo directly from nucellus without males in organisms having _____ sex determination.
gametophytic stage?
(1) XO type as in grasshopper
(1) Apospory
(2) XY type as in mammals
(2) Diplospory
(3) ZO type as in butterflies
(3) Adventive embryony
(4) ZW type as in birds
(4) Diploid parthenogenesis
102. Considering the flow of information in cell identify A,
98. Consider the given cross.
B & C events w.r.t. enzymes involved.
P -I P -II

Tt Rr Yy ttR rY y B
A DNA RNA Protein
a. How many zygotic combinations are possible? C

b. What is probability of getting offspring with (1) A. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
genotype TtrrYY?
B. DNA dependent DNAP
1 1
(1) a - 32, b - (2) a - 64, b - C. RNA dependent RNAP
32 16
(2) A. DNA dependent DNAP
1 8
(3) a - 16, b - (4) a - 32, b - B. DNA dependent RNAP
64 64
C. RNA dependent DNAP
99. Mutant haemoglobin molecules undergo
polymerisation under low oxygen tension when (3) A. DNA dependent RNAP
(1) Template 3-CTC-5 is mutated into 3-CAC-5 B. DNA dependent Translocase
(2) 3-GAG-5mutated into 5-GTG-3 C. Reverse transcriptase
(3) Four alleles undergo transversion mutation (4) A. DNA dependent Primase
(4) Gibberish mutation occurs B. DNA dependent RNAP
100. 50% of total males will be colour-blind from which of
C. RNA dependent DNAP
the following parental combinations?
103. How many statements are correct for autocatalytic
(1) A normal female marries a colour-blind male
function of DNA in E. coli?
(2) Carrier × Colour-blind
a. Semiconservative, bidirectional and semi-
(3) A female whose father and mother were colour- discontinuous.
blind marries a normal male
b. Rate of polymerisation is 4000 nucleotides per
(4) Colour-blind × Normal second.
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c. Removal of primer is performed by alpha DNA 107. Binding of 40S-mRNA with tRNA meth. requires
polymerase. (1) eIF1 & ATP (2) eIF3 & GTP
d. Template strand with 5  3 polarity synthesize (3) EF-G & GTP (4) eEFI & GTP
leading strand. (i)
108. Non constitutive gene of lac operon is and
(1) a & b (2) b & c its regulation by (ii) is referred to as negative
(3) a & d (4) c & d control

104. During non-cyclic journey of electron in granum
membrane
(1) Electrons move within the photosystems
(2) Protons are transported across the membrane
(3) pH of stroma is decreased
(4) NADP reductase accepts electron from PS-I and
H+ from lumen
105. CO2 concentration mechanism occurs in ______ to
prevent _____ activity in C4-plants
(1) (i) p-gene, (ii) Repressor
(2) (i) o-gene, (ii) Lactose
(3) (i) z, y, a-gene, (ii) Repressor
(4) (i) z-gene, (ii) Operator
109. A gene responsible for dwarfing in rice, reported from
Taiwan was introduced in rice varieties by IRRI,
Philippines in varieties like
(1) Remei and Jagannath
(2) Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo 64

(1) Mesophylls, pepco (3) Atomita-2 and ADT-37

(2) Bundle sheath cells, pyruvate dikinase (4) IR-8 and IR-24

(3) Bundle sheath cells, oxygenase 110. Read the following statements.

(4) Mesophylls, oxygenase a. Type of resistance in maize for stem borers is

morphological and biochemical.
106. Select incorrectly matched pair.
b. Legumes are commonly deficient in sulphur
(1) Deoxyribonucleoside – Provide energy for
containing amino acid.
monophosphates polymerisation
reaction c. SCP production also reduces environmental
pollution.
(2) Catalytic activity of – Dominance of RNA
snRNPs world d. Pathogens free clones of plants can be obtained
by embryo culture.
(3) Degenerate codons – Specifying serine,
proline and valine etc. How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?
(1) One (2) Two
(4) First loop of tRNA – Aminoacyl synthetase
from 5 binding (3) Three (4) Four

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111. Floating debris and grit from sewage are removed by 114. Select odd one out w.r.t. positive interaction in
population.
(1) Sedimentation only
a. Zoophily and Zoochory
(2) Sequential filtration only
b. Balanus and Chathamalus
(3) Sludge digester and sedimentation respectively
c. Sparrow and Plants (Seed)
(4) Sequential f iltration and sedimentation
d. Sea anemone and hermit crab
respectively
e. Clownfish and sea anemone
112. Consider the given statements A to D and select the
correct option stating True (T) and False (F). (1) a & c (2) b & c
(3) b & e (4) c & d
A. Cyclosporin A is used as an immuno-
suppressive agent and it is produced by fungi 115. The most important cause of “The Evil Quartet”
belonging to ascomycetes. driving animals and plants to extinction is

B. Trichoderma are free living fungi that are very (1) Over-exploitation
common in root ecosystem. (2) Allien species invasions
C. Baculoviruses have narrow spectrum insecticidal (3) Co-extinctions
applications.
(4) Habitat loss
D. Biofertilisers are bacteria and cyanobacteria only. 116. The most effective air pollution control measure for
A B C D removing SO2 from industries smoke/exhaust is

(1) T T F F (1) ESP

(2) Catalytic converter
(2) T F T F
(3) Scrubber
(3) F T F T
(4) Green Muffler Scheme
(4) F T T F
117. How many features in the given box are commonly
113. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. ecological f ound in mitochondria, chloroplast and golgi
succession? apparatus?
(1) Hydric to mesic condition
Membrane bound, 70S ribosome, Enzymes,
(2) Mesic to xeric condition Duplication in G2-phase, Proteins, Assimilation

(3) Xeric to mesic condition (1) Three (2) Four

(4) Species diversity and biomass increase (3) Five (4) Seven
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118. The sequence of the developmental process in a 120. A. The asexual spores are generally found in
plant cell is represented by the figure, the arrows 1, mushrooms, bracket fungi and in puffballs.
2 and 3 correctly representing B. Plasmogamy is brought by fusion of two
genetically dissimilar somatic cells in members
2 of basidiomycetes.

Meristematic 1 Differentiation Find correct w.r.t. Basidiomycetes.

cells
(1) Both A & B are incorrect
Mature (2) Only A is incorrect
Expansion 3 cell
(3) Both A & B are correct
(4) Only B is incorrect
(1) 2 - Death 121. Find correct match.
3 - Maturation (1) Sporozoans – Activity moving
(2) 1 - Elongation organisms

2 - Senescence (2) Flagellated protozoans – Infectious spores

(3) 1 - Plasmatic growth (3) Ciliated protozoans – Silica shells on their

surface
3 - Maturation
(4) Amoeboid protozoans – False feet
(4) 2 - Plasmatic growth
122. Features in the given box can be included under how
3 - Elongation many taxonomical aids?
119. a. Protonema
Dried and pressed specimens, Pennisetum,
b. Rhizoids Labelling of scientific names, Quick referral
c. Dioecious gametophyte system, Preserved plants and animals specimens,
d. Rhizophore Analytical, Food habits and behaviour

e. Micro and megaspores (1) Two (2) Five

f. Seed habit (3) Four (4) Three
g. Homospores 123. W hich of the f eatures of Trifolium cannot be
The features a, b, c, g and b, c, d, e, f are found in understood by using floral formula % K(5) C1 +2+(2)
respectively A(9) +1 G1?
(1) Marchantia and Equisetum (1) Sexuality and symmetry
(2) Sphagnum and Salvinia (2) Aestivation and superior ovary
(3) Sphagnum and Selaginella (3) Placentation and number of ovules
(4) Polytrichum and Dryopteris (4) Number of stamens and carpels
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124. Find incorrect statements. 126. All are the functions of boron, except

(1) The structure and function of a tissue would also a. Nitrogen metabolism
be independent on location b. Cell differentiation
(2) In grasses all adaxial epidermal cells along the c. Carbohydrate translocation
veins modify into large, empty and colourless
d. Present in methionine
cells, called bulliform cells
e. Utilisation of Ca2+
(3) In monocot stem, phloem parenchyma is
present and schizolysigenous water cavities f. Pollen germination inhibition
present within conjoint, closed and endarch g. Cell elongation
vascular bundles (1) b, c & e
(4) More than one option is incorrect (2) a, d & f
125. The flow sheet showing (ETS), find correct match (3) d only
w.r.t. A, B and C.
(4) a & g
Cytoplasm Outer membrane
127. Select the correct option.
+ + +
2H 2H 2H Space
DNA
a. 2 pg  4 pg (i) Interkinesis
– – – – –
Inner 4 chromosomes 4 chromosomes
A 2e 2e 2e 2e 2e
membrane
UQ UQ B b. Homologous pair (ii) Interphase
+
NAD +
1
separate but sister
2H O
Matrix 2 2 chromatids remain
NADH2
C associated
TCA
cycle
c. Centriole duplicates (iii) Prophase I
but DNA not
(1) B - Complex III Cyt a - a3
replicated
C - Final hydrogen acceptor d. Synapsis is (iv) Anaphase I
(2) A - Complex II - Succinic reductase accompained by
synaptonemal
B - Cytochrome - c complex
(3) C - Metabolic water (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
B - Cytochrome c - oxidase (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) A - ATPase (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
C - ATP (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

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128. When fat like tripalmitin acts as respiratory substrate, 132. During light reaction of photosynthesis (Z-scheme)
the RQ value showing chlorophyll a absorbs (PS II) wavelength of C
(1) Less use of O2 than evolved CO2 red light, electrons become excited and jump
B , then passes to an electron transport
(2) Use volume of O2 is equal to evolved volume of A . Complete the above
system consisting of
CO2
statements with blanks A, B & C.
(3) RQ value more than one
(1) A - NADP-reductase
(4) More use of O2 than evolved CO2
B - 700 nm
129. Epigynous and perigynous flower are not found in
(2) C - 680 nm
(1) Guava and rose
B - Uphill
(2) Ray florets of Helianthus and plums
(3) B - Downhill
(3) China rose and brinjal
A - Cytochromes
(4) Cucumber and peach
(4) C - 680 nm
130. The following assumption based on evolution of
C4 - photosynthesis system, it explains correctly B - Ground state

fixed fixed
133. Select correct statement for dedifferentiated tissue
used 0.1% CO2 used
2 ml H2O 1 ml H2O in extra-stelar region
_ Plant
B A
_ Plant A. Couple of layer thick having rectangular thick-
walled cells.
0.3 gm 0.3 gm
Carbohydrate Carbohydrate B. Ontogenetically and functionally secondary
(1) B - C4, plants are twice as efficient as C3 (A) meristem.
plants in terms of fixing carbon to making sugar C. Produces dead tissue on outer side.
(2) A - C4, plants loses only half as much water as (1) A & B
C3 (B) plants for the same amount of CO2 fixed
(2) B & C
(3) A - C 3, plants minimising water loss and
(3) A & C
maximising availability of CO2
(4) B - C 4 plants maximising water loss and (4) B only
minimising availability of CO2 134. Poleward movement of chromosome as dyad can be
131. Modified underground stem does not show observed in

(1) Perennation (1) Metaphase I

(2) Storage of food (2) Anaphase II

(3) Mechanical support (3) Anaphase I

(4) Vegetative reproduction (4) More than one option is correct

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135. Plantae members having dependent, reduced
gametophytes and siphonogamy condition are
exemplified by
(1) Non-archegoniates and non-embryophytes
(2) Vascular cryptogams
(3) Angiosperms only
(4) Phanerogams
136. If a person is infected with Clostridium tetani
microbes, to which quick immune response is
required, the doctors will give
(1) DPT vaccine, providing the person with artificially
acquired active immunity
(2) ATS injection, providing the person with artificially
acquired passive immunity
139. Assume that 6 of 24 students have attached
earlobes. Calculate the allele frequency within this
gene pool.
(1) The allele frequency of q is 0.2, so p is 0.8
(2) The allele frequency of q is 0.5 and p is 0.5
(3) The frequency of q is 0.80, then the frequency
of p is 0.10
(4) The frequency of q is 0.5, and frequency of p is
0.25
140. Which of the following is a direct method of gene
transfer?
(1) Ti plasmid
(2) Retro viruses

(3) Preformed antibodies or antitoxins, providing the (3) Chemical mediated gene transfer
person with artifically active immunity (4) Transposons
(4) Tetanus toxoid 141. Which of the following is not a cause of genetic
137. Which of the following is a powerful technique to change?
identify many genetic disorder? It is also being used
(1) Genetic drift
to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer
patients. (2) Random mating

(1) ELISA, based on the principle of antigen – (3) Natural selection

antibody interaction (4) Mutation
(2) PCR and probe
142. W hich of the f ollowing is not an important
(3) Recombinant DNA technology component in the event of parturition?
(4) Monoclonal antibodies (1) High levels of estrogen, prostaglandins and
138. W hich of the f ollowing is not included in oxytocin, cause the smooth muscle of the
downstreaming processing? uterus to contract
(1) Separation of product (2) Estrogen/progesterone ratio increase
(2) Product is formulated with suitable preservatives (3) Increase in oxytocin level due to positive
(3) Expression of genes feedback controls

(4) Metabolite specific purification (4) Release of prolactin

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143. Pregnancy is characterised by all, except
(1) Corpus luteum is rescued from regression by
hCG, produced by syncytiotrophoblast or chorion
in the first trimester
(2) In first trimester corpus luteum, stimulated by
hCG is responsible for the production of estrogen
and progesterone
(3) Human placental lactogenic hormone keeps
increasing throughout pregnancy
(4) Pulsatile GnRH stimulates the anterior lobe to
secrete FSH and LH
144. The blood from a person with an AB blood type
(1) Would agglutinate with anti-A antibodies only
(2) Would agglutinate with anti-B antibodies only
(3) Would agglutinate with both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies
(4) Would not agglutinate with either anti-A and anti-
B antibodies
145. When you feel thirsty or there is dehydration, it
results in increase in osmolarity of blood above
300 mos mL–1. It would stimulate the release of all
the following, except
(1) This triggers the release of ADH. ADH causes
the walls of the distal convoluted tubules and
collecting ducts in the kidney to become more
permeable to water
(2) Aldosterone will stimulate the distal convoluted
tubules and collecting ducts to reabsorb Na+
(3) Increase in osmolarity may also trigger the
release of atrial natriuretic hormone
(4) A lowering of blood volume stimulates the
release of renin
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146. Plasmodesmata are a type of
(1) Gap junction
(2) Anchoring junction
(3) Communicating junction
(4) Tight junction
147. Second messengers are activated in response to
(1) Steroid hormones (2) Thyroxine
(3) Peptide hormones (4) Estrogen
148. A sexually transmitted disease that can be treated
with antibiotics is
(1) Genital herpes (2) Hepatitis B
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) AIDS
149. Ectopic pregnancy is characterised by all, except
(1) Blastocyst occasionally embeds and develops in
the fallopian tubes
(2) Such a pregnancy is extremely painful and
potentially fatal to the mother because heavy
bleeding occurs as the embryo grows
(3) CAT scanning is generally used to detect the
disorder
(4) The embryo cannot survive in the fallopian tube,
and it must be removed surgically
150. By the end of the first trimester, which of the
following has occurred in the foetus?
(1) The f irst mov ements of the f oetus and
appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed
(2) The body is covered with fine hair, eyelids
separate, and eyelashes are formed
(3) Most of the major organ systems are formed,
limbs and external genitalia are well developed
(4) The foetus uses its lungs to breathe

151. Most sensory receptors function by producing
depolarising potentials to the stimulus. Which of the
following function by hyperpolarization rather than
depolarization?
(1) Proprioceptors (2) Nocireceptors
(3) Olfactory receptors (4) Photoreceptors
152. ‘Birds are glorified reptiles’ have evolved along
dinosaur line. Which group of living reptiles is most
closely related to birds?
(1) Pteranodon (2) Tuataras
(3) Crocodiles (4) Turtles
153. W hat ev idence conv inced scientists that
Archaeopteryx should be classified as a bird rather
than a small dinosaur?
(1) Scales
(2) A toothless, elongated mouth like beak
(3) A tail similar to that of modern birds
(4) Fused collarbone, indicating flying ability
154. ‘Homo sapiens’ arose in Africa and moved across
continents and developed into distinct races. What
evidence the scientists have used to estimate when
and where modern humans evolved?
(1) Cave paintings
(2) Articles buried with the dead
(3) Analysis of mDNA and Y-chromosome
(4) Analysis of language
155. Roundup ready crop plants have been genetically
engineered to be resistant to
(1) Pesticide Bt toxin
(2) Glyphosate
(3) Abiotic environmental stresses
(4) Ringspot virus
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156. When a mammal swallows, the food is prevented
from going up into the nasal cavity by the
(1) Oesophagus (2) Tongue
(3) Soft palate (4) Epiglottis
157. What is the role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction?
(1) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling troponin to
move and reveal binding sites for cross bridges
(2) It binds to troponin, enabling tropomyosin to
move and reveal binding sites for cross bridges
(3) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling troponin to
release ATP
(4) It binds to troponin, enabling tropomyosin to
release ATP
158. The ear detects sound by the movement of
(1) Basilar membrane
(2) The tectorial membrane
(3) The cupula that surrounds the hair cells
(4) Fluid in semicircular canals
159. False statement is
(1) Bt toxins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
cryIIAb control cotton bollworm, a lepidopteran
(2) RNAi is a method of cellular defense in all
eukaryotes
(3) Bt toxins encoded by cryIAb control corn borer
a coleopteran
(4) Thurioside is a Bt toxin which can kill insect
pest and its larvae by inhibiting the transport of
ions in the midgut
160. Mating of animals within the same breed but having
no common ancestors on either side of their
pedigree upto 4-6 generations is called
(1) Outbreeding
(2) Cross-breeding
(3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Inbreeding
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161. Creation of antibodies in passive immunity is
(1) By the recipient
(2) By preformation
(3) Created by fresh exposure
(4) Created by antitoxins
162. Which of the following represents the action of
insulin?
(1) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of
glycogen
(2) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating
glucagon production
(3) Decreases blood glucose levels by forming
glycogen
(4) Increases blood glucose levels by promoting
cellular uptake of glucose
163. Breathing rate will automatically increase when
(1) Blood pH is high and the amount of carbon
dioxide is high
(2) The amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
increase and oxygen decreases
(3) The amount of carbon dioxide increases
(4) Hemoglobin is unloaded
164. False statement about HIV.
(1) HIV infects helper T cells with CD4 receptors and
automatically kills them
(2) HIV does not rupture and kills the macrophage
cells it infects. They are HIV factory
(3) HIV mainly spreads by sexual contact
(4) HIV can also be transmitted through the toilet
seats, kissing and insect bites
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165. If the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron failed,
what effect would this likely have on the neuron’s
function?
(1) The concentration of positive and negative ions
would cause the neuron to be negative inside
(2) Voltage gated potassium and sodium ion
channels would no longer function
(3) The neuron could not conduct another action
potential until the resting potential was fully
restored
(4) The concentration of sodium ion would be higher
outside the cell and that of potassium ions would
be higher inside
166. A fight or flight response in the body is controlled by
the
(1) Sympathetic division of the nervous system
(2) Parasympathetic division of the nervous system
(3) Release of acetylcholine from post ganglionic
neurons
(4) Somatic neural system
167. Which of the following is the false statement?
(1) Mutations are random and directionless while
Darwinian variations are small and directional
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult
human skull than adult chimpanzee skull
(3) Neanderthal man with brain size of 1400 CC first
used hides to protect their body and buried their
dead
(4) After industrialization there were more dark
winged moths in the same area, they became
dark due to industrial smoke and soots
168. Which evolutionary force decreases the genetic
diversity of a population by increasing the proportion
of similar individuals?
(1) Mutation (2) Gene flow
(3) Bottleneck effect (4) Random mating
 Mock Test for NEET-2019

169. Over the time the same bones like humerus, radius,
ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges in the
forelimbs in different group of vertebrates were put to
different uses. This falls under the category of
(1) Missing limbs
(2) Vestigial structures
172. Which of the following is the false statement?
(1) Aedes aegypti is the vector of diseases like
dengue and chikungunya
(2) Chikungunya is caused by alpha group of
arbovirus and the symptoms are fever, rash and
joint pain

(3) Convergent evolution and analogous organs (3) Polysaccharides vaccines are available for
pneumonia caused by pneumococcus
(4) Divergent evolution and homologous structures
(4) Common cold caused by Rhino viruses can be
170. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. name,
treated by antibiotics
source and action of some drugs?
173. The function of spermathecae in Periplaneta is
Name Source Action
(1) To help in copulation
(1) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Acts as a
stimulant (2) To store eggs
interferes
(3) To secrete outermost covering of spermatophore
with the
transport of (4) To store sperms
dopamine 174. The open circulatory system is not of any
(2) Morphine Latex of Papaver Relieves physiological hindrance to cockroach because
somniferum pain
(1) Excretion occurs with the help of malpighian
(3) Vincristine Rosy periwinkle To treat tubules
childhood
(2) Heart is dorsal and thirteen chambered
leukemia
(3) Blood is without any respiratory pigment
(4) Amphetamine Synthetic Stimulant
analogue of (4) The circulatory system and respiratory system
acetylcholine are not linked
171. Each of the following statements concerning malaria 175. Which of the following epithelium is found in the
is correct, except epithelium of ducts, of gland and tubular part of
nephrons in the kidneys and its main functions are
(1) The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector
secretion and absorption?
(2) Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(2) Ciliated epithelium
causes periodic fever and chills
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) The principal site of gametocytes formation is
human gastrointestinal tract (4) Squamous epithelium

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176. False statement is 179. Which of the following is not correctly matched with
(1) NAD is a nucleotide of vitamin niacin and acts its typical examples and key characteristics?
as coenzyme Phylum Examples Key characteristics

(2) Haem is prosthetic group of peroxidase and (1) Mollusca Pila, Aplysia 1. Unsegmented
catalase body

(3) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate 2. Usually

can be removed by increasing the concentration dioecious and
of succinic acid oviparous with
X Y indirect
development
(4) The reaction C C X Y + C = O, is
catalysed by transferase (2) Echinodermata Ophiura, 1. Excretory system
Antedon absent
177. Read the following statements and mark the correct
2. Fertilisation
answer.
external and
Assertion : Ornithorhynchus is an oviparous development is
mammal. indirect
Reason : It possesses hair, mammary glands, (3) Hemichordata Balanoglossus, 1. Deuterostomic
pinnae and is homoiothermous.
Saccoglossus 2. Pattern of
(1) Both statement and reason are true and the coelom
reason explains the statement development is
schizocoely
(2) Statement and reason are true in themselves but
the reason does not explain the statement (4) Aschelminthes Wuchereria, 1. Dioecious

(3) The statement is true but the reason is false Ancylostoma 2. Often the females

(4) The statement and reason are false are longer than
males
178. Chameleon is well adapted for arboreal mode of life,
because 180. Key evolutionary advances of flatworms are bilateral
symmetry and
(1) It shows camouflaging and is ectothermal
(1) A one way digestive tract
(2) It is poikilotherm and the body is covered by dry
and cornified skin (2) A body cavity

(3) It has prehensile tail and shows syndactyly (3) Internal organs

(4) Fertilisation is internal and it is amniote (4) Intracellular digestion

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Space for Rough Work

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