Questions for both Cessna 172R and Cessna 172T

1. “CAUTION” on the Pilot operating handbook means:

a. Non-compliance with these safety rules could lead to injury or even death.
b. Non-compliance with these special notes and safety measures could cause damage to
the engine or to the other components.
c. Information added for a better understanding of an instruction.
2. Section 7 on the POH deals with:
a. PERFORMANCE
b. WEIGHT & BALANCE
c. SUPPLEMENTS
d. AIRPLANE & SYSTEMS DESCRIPTION
3. Take-off and Max. continuous RPM:
a. 2250
b. 2450
c. 2300
4. Minimum permissible fuel temperature in the fuel tank before Take-off and during flight with
JET A-1 is:
a. 0deg , -5deg
b. -32deg , -30deg
c. -30deg , -35deg
5. Green range marking of Gearbox temperature instrument is:
a. <115
b. <120
c. 115-120
6. Mark the incorrect statement:
a. With ½ tank or less, prolonged uncoordinated flight is prohibited when operating on
either left or right tank.
b. In turbulent air it is strongly recommended to use the BOTH position.
c. To prevent air from penetrating into the fuel system avoid flying the tanks dry. As soon
as the "Low Level" Warning Light illuminates, switch to a tank with sufficient fuel or
land.
7. C172 R&S normal category- Total capacity of usable fuel each tank:
a. 23.8 US GALLONS
b. 22.3 US GALLONS
c. 25.3 US GALLONS
8. Mark the incorrect statement on Engine malfunctioning DURING TAKE-OFF (WITH SUFFICENT
RUNWAY AHEAD)
a. Engine Master (“IGN“ resp.) – ON
b. Fuel Shut-off Valve – CLOSED
c. Wing flaps (if extended) - RETRACT to increase the braking effect on the runway
d. Circuit Breaker (Switch resp.) “Alternator“ and Switch "Battery" – OFF
9. In case od one FADEC Light is flashing, Press FADEC-Testknob, FADEC light extinguished (LOW
warning category):
a. Land as soon as practical.
b. Continue flight normally, Inform service centre after landing.
 c. Observe the other FADEC light.
10. In case a tank was flown empty, proceed at the first signs of insufficient fuel feed as follows:
1) Immediately switch the Fuel Selector to BOTH
2) Check the engine (engine parameters, airspeed/altitude change, whether the
engine responds to changes in the Thrust Lever position).
3) Electrical Fuel Pump – ON
4) Select airspeed to avoid engine over speed.
5) If the engine acts normally, continue the flight and land as soon as practical.
a) 1,3,4,2,5
b) 1,2,5.4.3
c) 1,2,3,4,5
d) 3,1,4,2,5
11. The first action to be taken when Coolant Temperature "CT" TOO HIGH (RED RANGE):
a. Cabin Heat – COLD
b. Be prepared for an emergency landing
c. Land as soon as practical
d. Increase airspeed and reduce power as quickly as possible
12. When Gearbox Temperature "GT" is TOO HIGH (RED RANGE):
a. Reduce power to 50% as quickly as possible, and land as soon as practical.
b. Reduce power to 60% to 85% as quickly as possible, and continue the flight.
c. Reduce power to 55% - 75% as quickly as possible, and land as soon as practical.
d. None of the above.
13. Immediate action if the propeller RPM fluctuates by more than + / - 100 RPM with a constant
Thrust Lever position:
a. Set power as required to maintain altitude and land as soon as practical.
b. Reduce power
c. Change the power setting and attempt to find a power setting where the propeller
RPM no longer fluctuates.
14. FUEL TEMPERATURE TOO HIGH (RED RANGE):
a. Switch to fuel tank with lower fuel temperature, if this contains sufficient fuel
b. Land as soon as possible.
c. Be prepared for an emergency landing
d. Expect an engine failure
15. If the main battery and alternator fail simultaneously, the engine will only operate for a
maximum of…………….on FADEC backup battery power.
a. 20 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 30 minutes
16. Propeller manufacturer and no. of blades:
a. MTV-6-A/187-109, 03
b. MTV-6-A/187-129, 02
c. MTV-6-A/187-129, 03
d. MTV-6-A/187-109, 02
17. Diameter of the propeller blade:
a. 1.87 m
b. 1.97 m
 c. 1.65 m
d. 1.50 m
18. Green Range on the Tachometer :
a. 50-2300rpm
b. 1250-2350rpm
c. 2300rpm and less(up to zero)
d. None of the above
19. Lower amber range on the OIL TEMPERATURE indicator is
a. -32 to +50
b. 50 to 125
c. -32 to +60
20. The maximum Ramp weight for the normal category is:
a. 953kgs
b. 1000kgs
c. 1112kgs
21. Wing area is:
a. 174 square feet.
b. 174 square metre.
c. 184 square metre
d. none of the above
22. Wing Loading of the aircraft is:
a. 14.1 lbs. /sq. ft.
b. 15.3 lbs. /hp.
c. 15.3 lbs. /sq. ft.
23. Va for this aircraft type means:
a. Is the speed limit that may not be exceeded at any time.
b. Is the speed that should not be exceeded except in smooth air, then only with caution.
c. Is the maximum speed at which full or abrupt control movements may be used
without overstressing the airframe.
24. …………………. is the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity (C.G.)
of an item:
a. Station
b. Arm
c. Moment
25. Mark the correct statement inrespect to the load factors:
a. Flaps Up +3.8g, -1.52g(normal category)
b. Flaps Down +3.0g(Normal category)
c. Flaps Up +4.4g, -1 .76g(Utility Category)
d. All the above are correct
26. For operation on dry grass runway, increase distances by……. of the "ground roll" figure:
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. none of the above
27. For operation with tail winds up to 10 knots, increase distances by :
a. 10% for each 9 knots
b. 10% for each 2 knots
c. 10% for each 5 knots
28. ARTEX C406-N EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER (ELT) is fitted with:
a. Lithium battery and operates for 72 hours.
b. Nickel Cadmium battery and operates for 24 hours.
c. Lead acid battery and operates for 72 hours.
d. None of the above
29. Maximum demonstrated headwind and crosswind component is:
a. 10kts and 25 kts
b. 25kts and 20kts
c. 27kts and 15kts
30. Altitude loss during a stall recovery may be as much as:
a. 230 feet.
b. 600 feet
c. 300 feet
31. Vy is:
a. Best angle of climb speed, 60 KIAS(sea level)
b. Best rate of climb speed, 71 KIAS(sea level)
c. Best rate of climb speed, 79 KIAS(sea level)
d. Best angle of climb speed, 65 KIAS(sea level)
32. The initial procedure for Spin recovery is:
1) APPLY AND HOLD FULL RUDDER OPPOSITE TO THE DIRECTION OF ROTATION.
2) MOVE THE CONTROL WHEEL BRISKLY FORWARD FAR ENOUGH
3) TO BREAK THE STALL. Full down elevator may be required
4) RETARD THROTILE TO IDLE POSITION
5) PLACE AILERONS IN NEUTRAL POSITION.
a. 4,2,1
b. 4,3,2,1
c. 1,3,2,4
d. 1,2,3,4
33. Speed to be maintained while landing without engine power with flaps up:
a. 60KIAS
b. 65KIAS
c. 57KIAS
34. Maximum baggage capacity is:
a. 120 POUNDS MAXIMUM BAGGAGE FORWARD OF BAGGAGE DOOR LATCH
b. 50 POUNDS MAXIMUM BAGGAGE AFT OF BAGGAGE DOOR LATCH
c. MAXIMUM 120 POUNDS COMBINED
d. ALL THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
35. Green arc on the airspeed indicator is between:
a. Normal Operating Range. Lower limit is maximum weight Vs 1 at most forward C.G.
with flaps retracted. Upper limit is maximum structural cruising speed.
b. Full Flap Operating Range. Lower limit is maximum weight V so in landing configuration.
Upper limit is maximum speed permissible with flaps extended.
c. Operations must be conducted with caution and only in smooth air.
36. 1 litre equals:
a. 1.58 pounds
b. 2.2 pounds
c. 0.72 kgs
d. Both a and c are correct.
37. Vso is defined as:
a. The minimum speed at which the airplane is controllable in the landing configuration
at the most forward center of gravity.
b. The minimum speed at which the airplane is controllable.
c. The minimum speed at which the airplane is controllable at most forward C.G. with flaps
retracted.
38. What is the maximum certified altitude in our C172?
a. 13500ft
b. 12700ft
c. 17500ft
39. The freezing point of the coolant is:
a. -36deg C
b. -56deg C
c. -18deg C
40. Total unusable fuel each tank is:
a. 2.5 gallons
b. 1.5 gallons
c. 3 gallons
41. When considering the coolant temperature, the minimum engine starting temperature is
a. 105deg C
b. 60deg C
c. -32deg C
42. Minimum oil pressure (at Take-off power) is:
a. 1.2 bar
b. 2.3 bar
c. 6.0 bar
d. 6.5 bar
43. The "Fuel L" or "Fuel R" Warning Light illuminates:
a. 5 gallons
b. 19 Litres
c. Both a and b are correct
d. 1.5 gallons
44. Wing span of the airplane is:
a. 36’1” with the strobe lights installed
b. 36’1” without the strobe lights installed
c. 28’2”
d. None of the above
45. Basic Empty weight of the aircraft is defined as:
a. Is the standard empty weight plus the weight of optional equipment?
b. Is the weight of a standard airplane, including unusable fuel, full operating fluids and full
engine oil.
c. Is the difference between ramp weight and the Standard empty weight?
46. Type of brakes installed in this airplane is
a. Single disc, hydraulic brake system
b. Double disc, drum brake system
c. Double disc, hydraulic brake system
d. None of the above.
47. Stall warning blows in all flight conditions by:
 a. 2 to 6 knots before the stall
b. 5 to 10 knots before the stall
c. During the stall
d. 4 knots before the stall.
48. Correct inflation of the nose and the main wheels are as follows:
a. 34psi, 29psi
b. 29psi,34psi
c. 36psi,28psi
d. 28psi,36psi
49. Aertex C406-N ELT transmits distress signals on:
a. 121.5 MHZ
b. 243.0 MHZ
c. 406.028 MHZ
d. All the above
50. Wind velocity limitations for taxi operations on an uncontaminated paved taxiway is
a. 15kts
b. 27kts
c. 10kts
d. 05kts
51. Compact Engine Display 125 in instrument panel contains indication of:-
a. Load, Oil pressure, Oil temperature, Fuel flow, Gearbox temperature.
b. Propeller rotary speed, Gearbox temperature, EGT.
c. Propeller rotary speed, Gearbox temperature, Load, Oil temperature, Fuel flow
d. Propeller rotary speed, Gearbox temperature, Load, Coolant Temperature.
52. Auxiliary Engine Display 125 in instrument panel contains indication of:-
a. Fuel flow, Load, Oil temperature, Oil pressure.
b. Fuel flow, Fuel temperature, Coolant temperature.
c. Fuel flow, Fuel temperature, Voltage, Warning light.
d. Fuel flow, Fuel temperature, Voltage, Gearbox temperature.
53. Total capacity of usable fuel in each tank:-
a. 44.5 U.S. gallons
b. 47.6 U.S. gallons
c. 22.3 U.S. gallons
d. 23.8 U.S. gallons
54. Engine master switch :-
a. If switched off it will shut down all electrical system.
b. If switched off it will shut down FADEC.
c. If switched on it will start the avionics.
d. If switched on it will start the engine.
55. The duration of engine operation only on FADEC battery backup is :-
a. Min 20 minutes.
b. Min 30 minutes.
c. Max 20 maximum.
d. Max 30 minutes
56. FADEC battery backup is connected to :-
 a. Both A-FADEC & B-FADEC.
b. B-FADEC, if A-FADEC fails.
c. Only A-FADEC.
d. Only B-FADEC.
57. To reset the FADEC warning:-
a. Reduce throttle
b. Increase throttle
c. FADEC Test knob is pressed for 2 seconds
d. FADEC Test knob is pressed for 5 seconds
58. If cooling water temperature rises above 94° Celsius:-
a. The complete volume of coolant flows through the small circuit.
b. The complete volume of coolant flows through the small & large circuit.
c. The complete volume of coolant flows through expansion reservoir.
d. The complete volume of coolant flows through the large circuit.
59. Q59.If the coolant level is ‘low’ in the expansion reservoir:-
a. Illuminates the warning light on the instrument panel.
b. Illuminates the warning light “water level” on the instrument panel.
c. Coolant flows through the small circuit.
d. Coolant flows through the small circuit.
60. For best combination of engine cooling, climb speed and visibility, pilot should fly :-
a. 5-10 knots higher than best rate of climb speeds on full load & flaps up.
b. 5-10 knots higher than best rate of climb speeds on full load & flaps 10°.
c. 5-10 knots higher than best angle of climb speeds on full load & flaps up.
d. 5-10 knots higher than best angle of climb speeds on full load & flaps 10°.
61. Using 10° flap for short field take-off:-
a. Reduces the ground roll and total distance over a 15 m obstacle by approx. 10%
b. Reduces the ground roll and total distance over a 20 m obstacle by approx. 10%
c. Reduces the ground roll and total distance over a 50 ft obstacle by approx. 15%
d. Reduces the ground roll and total distance over a 50 m obstacle by approx. 20%
62. To warm up the engine:-
a. Operate the engine for at least 2 minutes at 890 RPM.
b. Operate the engine for about 2 minutes at 1000 RPM.
c. Operate the engine for about 2 minutes at 890 RPM.
 d. Operate the engine for maximum 5 minutes at 890 RPM.
63. For alternator check, electrical system is loaded:-
a. 3-5 seconds with engine load of 20%.
b. 3-5 seconds with engine load of 50%.
c. 3-5 seconds with engine load of 70%.
d. 5-10 seconds with engine load of 20%.
64. The freezing point of coolant is:-
a. -10° Celsius.
b. -36° Celsius.
c. -36° Fahrenheit.
d. +10° Fahrenheit.
65. Switch Force B allows:-
a. To switch manually to B-FADEC.
b. To switch manually to A-FADEC.
c. To switch automatically to B-FADEC, if A-FADEC fails.
d. To switch automatically to A-FADEC, if B-FADEC fails.
66. When operating on FADEC back battery only:-
a. The “Force B” switch must not be activated.
b. The “Force B” switch must be activated.
c. A-FADEC will switch off.
d. B-FADEC will switch on.
67. If “Force B” switch is activated when operating on FADEC backup battery:-
a. Engine will continue to run
b. Fuel flow decreases.
c. Engine will shut down.
d. Fuel flow increase.
68. Which statement is correct, when operating on FADEC backup battery only :-
a. The “Force B” Switch must not be activated. This will shut down the engine.
b. The “Force B” Switch must not be activated. This will keep the engine running.
c. The “Force B” Switch must be activated. This will switch on the A-FADEC.
d. The “Force B” Switch must be activated. This will switch on the B-FADEC.
69. Mark the correct statement in respect of liquid cooling system:-
a. Three-way thermostat regulates the flow of coolant in small circuit.
 b. Two-way thermostat regulates the flow of coolant between small & large circuit.
c. Both a & b are incorrect
d. Both a & b are correct.
70. In case of possible overheating of engine pilot must:-
a. Decrease rate of climb
b. Increase airspeed
c. Reduce power, if engine temperatures approach the red arc.
d. All the above are correct
71. In case of propeller over speed, FADEC will
a. Reduce the engine power at higher airspeeds to avoid propeller speed above 2500
rpm
b. Reduce the engine power at lower airspeeds to avoid propeller speed above 2500 rpm
c. Reduce the engine power at higher airspeeds to avoid propeller speed above 2400 rpm
d. Reduce the engine power at lower airspeeds to avoid propeller speed above 2400 rpm
72. The symptoms of impending brake failure:-
a. Gradual decrease of braking action.
b. Soft/spongy pedals
c. Noisy or dragging brakes
d. All the above
73. CO detection system senses a CO level high at volume greater than
a. 50 ppm
b. 55 ppm
c. 15 ppm
d. 0 ppm
74. If you experience the tailwind from the left while taxiing, what should be the control input?
a. Use down aileron on left hand wing and down elevator.
b. Use down aileron on left hand wing.
c. Use up ailerons on left hand wing and up elevator.
d. Use up aileron on left hand wing.
75. For operation with tail winds up to 10 knots, increase distance by ___% for each ___knots.
a. 15,5
b. 10,3
c. 10,2
 d. 15,3
76. For operation with headwinds, decrease distances ___% for each ___knots.
a. 12,3
b. 10,9
c. 10,5
d. 12,6
77. Mark the correct statement-
a. Wing flap system consist of single-slot type flaps
b. Wing flap can be extended to 10°, 20 °& 30°
c. Electrically operated.
d. All above are correct.
78. The best rate of climb speed (Vy) ________ (increases / decreases) with increase in altitude.
a. 79, decreases
b. 65, increases
c. 80, decreases
d. 57, increases
79. What is the maximum IAS at which pilot can open the window?
a. 165 KCAS
b. 163 KIAS
c. 165 KCAS
d. 126 KIAS
80. When the ALT static air valve is ON the max airspeed variation from normal static source is
____knots and max altimeter variation is ______ ft with windows (Open/ Close).
a. 10 knots, 50 ft, close
b. 6 knots, 50 ft, close
c. 6 knots, 100ft, open
d. All are incorrect.
81. At what time fuel selector valve should be on ‘Both’ position?
a. Take-off
b. Landing
c. Approach
d. All above are correct.
82. What frequency does ELT work on-
 a. Solid state 3 frequency
b. Solid state 2 frequency
c. Solid state 4 frequency
d. None of the above
83. Battery keeps on transmitting until the unit exhausts which takes-
a. 48 hrs.
b. 72 hrs.
c. 96 hrs.
d. 24 hrs.
84. ELT transmits data to different satellites which includes-
a. Airplane identification
b. Airplane identification and GPS coordinates
c. GPS coordinates
85. What kind of warning does ELT uses to tell pilots when it has energized –
a. Aural warning
b. Visual warning
c. Both
86. Only Aural warning for 3 minutes followed by Visual warning.
ELT transmits on -
a. 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz
b. 243.0 MHz and 406.028 MHz
c. Only 406.028 MHz
d. Both a and b are correct
87. Different position of ELT are-
a. ON and TEST
b. ON, ARM, TEST
c. ARM and TEST
d. ON, TEST and OFF
88. Internal G- Switch in ELT senses inertia along-
a. Horizontal Axis
b. Lateral Axis
c. Longitudinal Axis
d. All of the above
89. ELT antenna is mounted on
a. Right side of Fuselage section
b. Top of Tail cone section
c. Left of Vertical fin section
d. None of the above
90. What type of battery is fitted in Artex C-406 N-
 a. Lithium and cadmium
b. Nickel and cadmium
c. Lithium only Nickel and lithium
d. Lithium and manganese
91. After energizing , digital data will be transmitted at 50 seconds interval for detection by
COSPAS/SARSAT satellite on-
a. 406.028 MHz and 243 MHz
b. Only 406.028 MHz
c. 121.5 MHz and 406.028 MHz
d. 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz
92. Altitude loss during a stall recovery may be as much as?
a. 230ft
b. 320ft
c. 200ft
d. 430ft
93. How much distance you should decrease to takeoff distance at 2450pounds for 9kts of
headwind?
a. 15%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. not required
94. For operation on dry grass runway what happens to ground roll?
a. Increases by 10%
b. Decreases by 15%
c. Increases by 15%
d. Does not change
95. Endurance in 172 Thielert at Takeoff weight 1,111kg flaps up and zero wind is obtained?
a. Usable fuel(188.8L)
b. Usable fuel + Reserve
c. Usable fuel(168.8l) and no reserve
d. Both a and b
96. What happens to maximum range and true airspeed per 10c above ISA temperature?
a. Maximum Range increases by 1%
b. True airspeed increases by 1%
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. Maximum range and true airspeed decreases by 1%
97. What is the range and endurance, operating with JetA1 fuel at Pressure altitude 2000, load 60%
at TAS 90.
a. Range 873nm and endurance 10hrs
b. Range 873nm and endurance 9.7hrs
c. Range 650nm and endurance 6.5hrs
98. What happens to takeoff distance operating tailwinds at a paved, level, dry runway with flaps10
and nil wind condition?
a. Increase distance by 10% for each 2kt
b. Decrease distance by 10% for each 2kt
c. Increase distance by 2% for each 10kt
d. No change
99. How much is ground roll at 1,111 kg, pressure altitude2000 in ISA conditions?
 a. 609ft
b. 189ft
c. 309ft
d. 500ft
100. What is the rate of climb at 1,111kg, Sea level in ISA condition?
a. 695ft/min
b. 500ft/min
c. 450ft/min
d. 585ft/min
101. Time, distance and fuel required are only valid from the point where the airplane climbs
at
a. Vy=70kts
b. 80kts
c. 75kts
d. 85kts
102. What are the stall speeds in KIAS at 2450pounds at most rearward centre of gravity at 0
angle of bank for flaps up, 10 and full.
a. 44,35,33
b. 44,37,33
c. 51,48,37
d. 51,34,43
103. What are the stall speeds in KIAS at 2450pounds at most Forward centre of gravity at 0
angle of bank for flaps up, 10 and full.
a. 44,35,33
b. 44,37,33
c. 51,48,37
d. 51,34,43
104. What is the maximum demonstrated X-Wind velocity:
a. 15kts
b. 20kts
c. 25mts/hr
d. 10kts
105. What happens to ground roll for operation on dry grass runway:
a. Increases by 15%
b. Decreases by 10%
c. Increases by 20%
d. None of the above.
106. What is the climb speed and maximum rate of climb in FPM at 2450pounds with flaps up
and Full throttle:
a. 770FPM and 77kts
b. 500FPM and 79kts
c. 770FPM and 79kts
d. 675FPM and 80kts
107. How much gallons of fuel is consumed for engine start, taxi and takeoff allowance
a. 1.3
b. 2.2
c. 1.1
d. 1.2
108. What is the recommended procedure of leaning fuel for operation above 80% MCP
a. Lean the mixture using cruise performance table in POH
b. Lean the mixture for best fuel economy
c. Must use full rich mixture
d. Both a and b
109. Cruise speeds in C172R are shown with speed fairings in POH, without speed fairings
what should you do cruise speeds?
a. Increase by 2kts
b. Decrease by 2kts
c. Increase by 5kts
d. Decrease by 5kts
110. For short field landing distance at 2450pounds.Conditions: Flaps full, Power off and
maximum braking. What happens to ground roll?
a. Increase by 10%
b. Decrease by 10%
c. Increase by 45%
d. None of the above
111. What is the recommended approach speed for short field landing with flaps up?
a. Increase the approach speed by 7kts and allow for 35% longer distance
b. Increase the approach speed by 9kts
c. Decrease the approach speed by 9kts
d. Increase the approach speed by 5kts
112. The maximum allowable combined weight capacity for baggage in areas A and B is:
a. 150pounds
b. 80pounds
c. 120pounds
d. 60pounds
113. The useable fuel C.G arm is situated at F.S
a. 48.00
b. 84.00
c. 84.84
d. 48.48
114. The rear passenger C.G arm is located at F.S
a. 73.00
b. 37.00
c. 108.00
d. 93.00
115. What is the maximum allowable floor loading:
a. 200lbs/sqft
b. 250lbs/sqft
c. 300kg/sqft
d. 150kg/sqft
116. Mark the correct weight in lbs and C.G arm for Lycoming engine?
a. 8lbs and F.S -18.6
b. 8lbs and F.S 18.6
c. 400.8lbs and F.S 41
d. 297.8lbs and F.S -20
117. Pilot and front passenger C.G arm s located at?
 a. F.S 37*(34-46)
b. F.S 48
c. F.S 95**(82-108)
d. None of the above
118. What is the CG arm in inches of unusable fuel?
a. 48inches
b. 54inches
c. 46inches
d. 37inches
119. What is the Reference datum for C.G arm of C172RT?
a. Firewall, frontface, lowerportion
b. Spinner
c. Instrument Panel
d. None of the above
120. Recommended airplane weighing procedure is:
a. Flaps should be at 10
b. Flaps should be retracted
c. Flaps should be at 30
d. Flaps should be at 20
121. Before weighing airplane recommended procedure is to:
a. Move sliding seats to the most rearward position
b. Move sliding seats to the mid position
c. Remove the sliding seats
d. Move the sliding seats to the most forward position
122. Before weighing airplane recommended procedure is to:
a. Place all the control surfaces in neutral position
b. Defuel airplane
c. Service engine oil as required to obtain a normal full indication approximately 7quarts
on dipstick)
d. All of the above
123. The recommended procedure to weigh airplane is
a. It can be weighed in apron
b. Should be weighed in close hangar to avoid errors caused by air currents
c. Should be weighed on runway
d. None of the above
124. What should be the order for engine malfunction during takeoff roll-
a. Engine master (IGN resp.)-OFF
b. Fuel shut off valve-CLOSED
c. Wing flaps- RETRACT
d. Circuit breakers alternator and switch battery- OFF
1) 1 2 4 3
2) 1 3 4 2
3) 1 4 2 3
4) 1 3 2 4
125. During flight if you notice both FADEC lights flashing and are not extinguished with test
knob
a. Continue flight and land as soon as possible
b. Continue flight and land as soon as practical
 c. Expect engine failure
d. Engine is independent no need to worry continue flying normally
126. In case of abnormal engine behaviour
a. Select FADEC B manually
b. Automatically FADEC B will be selected
c. Its not possible to select FADEC B manually so land as soon as possible
d. Its not possible to select FADEC B manually so land as soon as practical
127. When operating on FADEC backup battery-
a. Activate Force B switch
b. Force B switch should not be activated
c. No need of activating Force B switch
128. True or False If the propeller has to be stopped for instance due to excessive vibrations-
- Reduce airspeed below 55 KIAS
- When the propeller stops glide at 65 KIAS
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
129. What ROD is maintained during ditching?
a) 300ft/min
b) 400ft/min
c) 500ft/min
d) 450ft/min
130. What speed is maintained during ditching?
a. 65
b. 60
c. 55
d. 70
131. Squawk during ditching?
a. 7500
b. 7600
c. 7700
d. 7800
132. If red x appears on air speed indicator
a. use standby airspeed indicator
b. reset the CB
c. As in 2 reset gain if opens
d. As in 2 do not reset again
133. If forward avionics has failed
a. switch of avionics bus 1
b. switch of avionics bus 2
c. switch off stby battery
d. both 1 and 2
134. After cabin heat reduced and stby battery, the pfd or mfd cooling annunciator should
go off in
a. 5min
 b. 3 min
c. 7 min
d. 10 min
135. If pfd or mfd cooling annunciator doesn’t go off in 3 mins
a. switch off STBY battery
b. switch of avionics bus 1 And 2
c. As in 1 land as soon as possible
d. Both 1 and 2
136. If co lvl high annunciator comes on during flight
a. cabin heat knob off
b. cabin air and vents open
c. as in a and b windows open
d. as in b and land as soon as practical
137. What is the airspeed variation when ALT STATIC AIR valve is on
a. 8 kts
b. 5 kts
c. 6 kts
d. 3 kts
138. What is the altimeter variation when ALT STATIC AIR valve is on
a. Less than 60 ft
b. Less than 100 ft
c. Less than 80 ft
d. Less than 50 ft
139. Idle power engine roughness is due to?
a. excessively rich fuel flow
140. Excessive fuel vapor accumulation is shown by fuel flow indicator when fluctuation is
a. lesser than 1 gph
b. greater than 1 gph
c. lesser than 2 gph
d. greater than 2gph
141. Stall warning horn sounds between
a. 5-10 kts above stall speed
b. 10-12 kts above stall speed
c. 3-5 kts above stall speed
d. 1-3 kts above stall speed
142. The certified takeoff noise level is
a. 76.3 db(A).
b. 73.6 db(A)
c. 73.3 db(A)
 IMPORTANT STATEMENTS ON SECTION 7 AND 8
1. Fuselage of airplane conventional formed sheet metal bulkhead , stinger and skin design.(semi –
monocoque)
2. Airplane is all metal, four place, high wing, and single engine airplane, tricycle landing gear,
designed for general utility and training purposes.
3. Wing flaps are constructed same as ailerons, exception is that the balance weights and the
addition of formed sheet metal leading edge section.
4. Flight controls manually operated through cables.
5. Turning radius by pressing rudders is 10 degree each side of centre can be increased to 30
degree by applying left or right brake.
6. Nose wheel not to be turned more than 30 degree, can cause of structural damage.
7. Wing flaps are single slot on trailing edge, circuit system is protected by 10 amp CB.
8. Tricycle type landing gear, nose wheel steerable, brakes on main gear disc type and are
hydraulically actuated.
9. Shock absorption by the tubular spring steel on main gear and air/oil nose gear shock strut.
10. Baggage net is provided with tie down straps for securing baggage in baggage compartment.
11. Opening of cabin door in flight due to improper closing no need to land. Reduce air speed to 75
kias trim the airplane and forcefully close and lock the door.
12. Windows can be opened at any speed up to 163 kias
13. Brakes are connected by a hydraulic line to a master cylinder attached to each of the pilot’s
rudder pedals.
14. Symptoms for impending brake failure: gradual decrease in braking action after brakes applied,
noisy or dragging brakes, soft or spongy pedals, excessive travel and weak braking action.
15. Strobes and flashing beacon lights not to be used in clouds or overcast, use can cause loss of
orientation particularly in night.
16. Clock window gives numerical time, based on GPS time.
17. OAT window is on lower edge of PFD. Air temperature sensor located on top of the cabin.
18. Low vacuum annunciator is ON if vacuum drops below 3.5 in hg, amber in colour.
19. For avionics cooling, four DC electrical fans are provided. Single fan in the tail cone provides
aircooling to the integrated avionics units and transponder. One fan forward of the instrument
panel .Two fans blow air for PFD and MFD.
20. Power for cooling fan is from MASTER BAT and avionics BUS1 and BUS2.
21. Cooling fans for avionics not operative on Stand by battery.
22. 12 volt power outlet is limited to maximum of 10 amp.
23. Static wicks loose their effectiveness with age.
24. Fire extinguisher is portable Halon 1211 installed on floor, classified 5 B: C.
25. CO detected system located behind the instrument panel and having single detector
annunciation is ON when CO level reaches 50 ppm.
26. Park the airplane head into the wind and parking brake on. Do not set the parking brake during
cold weather that may freeze the brakes.
27. Nose gear 6 PLY rated tire 34 PSI
28. Main gear 4 PLY rated tire 29 PSI
29. Brakes MIL-H-5606.
30. Nose gear shock strut MIL-H-5606; 45 psi.