ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND KINESIOLOGY
Must have at least nine months clinical
AUGUST 1999
1. Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculoskeletal
anomaly with the following characteristics, EXCEPT
a. Children referred to PT before one year of age
have better outcomes than those referred later
b. Conservative treatment approach is a stretching
program to lengthen the involved muscle
c. Clinical features include a head tilt away from the
side of the shortened muscle and head rotation
toward the ipsilateral side
d. Restricted neck range of motion secondary to a
shortened sternocleidomastoid
e. A surgical treatment approach is lengthening of
the involved muscle
2. Which of the following statements is true of
individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?
a. The increased in ventilation (VE) and CO are
inversely proportional to the increase in
metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and
pH levels to remain close to baseline values
during exercise
b. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are
closely matched to the decrease in metabolic
rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to
remain close to baseline values during exercise
c. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are
closely matched to the increase in metabolic
rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to
remain close to baseline values during exercise
d. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are
closely matched to the increase in metabolic
rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to
remain close to baseline values during exercise
e. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are
closely matched to the decrease in respiratory
rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to
lower than baseline values during exercise
3. To be admitted to the PT-OT examination, the
applicant at the time of filing of application and must
satisfy the following requirements, EXCEPT
a. A foreign applicant can be admitted to the PT-OT
examination even if his country of citizenship
does not allow Filipino therapists to practice in
his country on the same as the subjects/citizens
of that country
b. Clinical experience must include neurological,
musculoskeletal, pulmonary, cardiovascular,
paediatrics and psychosocial functions
c. He/she is at least twenty-one years of age
d.
internship in physical and occupational therapy
in an adequate PT-OT department of a certified
hospital or clinic under the supervision of a
competent and duly registered therapist
e. Applicant must have received a degree from a
school of physical therapy duly recognized by the
government
4. The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system
based on the following, EXCEPT
a. Identification of a specific treatment plan
b. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment
plans
c. Preparation of the informed consent
d. Formation of present and past information about
the patient
e. Development of a specific, current problem
5. The radial nerve innervates the following muscle
a. Extensor indicis proprius
b. The medial lumbricals
c. Two radial lumbricals
d. Flexor digitorum communis
e. Abductor pollicis brevis
6. A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock”
the joint when the knee is fully extended. This key is
the
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Biceps femoris
c. Piriformis
d. Soleus
e. Popliteus
7. Leaning the trunk forward when standing from a
sitting position is better accomplished because
a. Forward increase shifting of the line of gravity
b. Increased posterior torque
c. Center of gravity is shifted forward
8. Increased base of supporting of cardiac dysfunction
include the following, EXCEPT
a. A heart rate that is either excessively high or
exceptionally low during exercise
b. An increase in diastolic blood pressure during
exercise that is greater than 15-20 mmHg
c. Electrocardiographic changes such as
dysrhythmias or ST segment depression
d. A diastolic blood pressure that does not rise
progressively as work level increases
e. A systolic blood pressure that falls during
exercises
9. If the tendon surface becomes irritated and rough and
if the sheath becomes inflamed and continues to
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 press on the tendon, the following condition may be d. Calcium channel blockers
diagnosed e. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
a. Tendinitis
b. Epicondylitis 16. A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward
c. Stenosing tenosynovitis above the temporal pole and then continues on the
d. Tenobursitis superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards,
e. Cysticis marking the line along which the hemisphere became
folded. The speech and hearing area are both closely
10. In Allen Test, if the hand does not react or if it flushes
associated with it
very slowly
a. Medial
a. The released artery is not occluded
b. Central
b. The released vein is not occluded
c. Lateral
c. The released artery is partially or completely
d. Collateral
occluded e. Calcarine
d. The released vein is partially or completely
occluded 17. This joint is the upper extremity’s only attachment to
e. The released artery and vein are partially or the trunk
completely occluded a. Sternoclavicular
b. Acromioclavicular
11. Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if c. Scapuloclavicular
a. Stroke volume increases d. Glenohumeral
b. There is maintained exertion e. Scapulothoracic
c. Calcium channel blockers are administered
d. Cardiac output decreases 18. The shapes of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints
e. There is generalized vasodilation are either
a. Plane or saddle
12. Licenses of registered physical and occupational b. Condyloid or ellipsoid
therapist shall be renewed upon presentation of c. Pivot or condyloid
credit units earned in the past three years totalling d. Hinge or pivot
a. 30 credit units e. Ball and socket
b. 50 credit units
c. 70 credit units 19. Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root
d. 60 credit units a. Erector pilii
e. 80 credit units b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
13. Denervation hypersensitivity d. Epidermis
a. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors e. Dermis
b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of
receptors 20. Proximal side to side tremor found on heel shin or
c. Is due to an increase in the amount of finger-nose testing
neurotransmitters released a. Cerebellar tremor
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve b. Parkinsonian tremor
e. Is due to an increased sensitivity to c. Myoclonus
neurotransmitter d. Senile tremor

14. Crystalloids and colloids solution in water 21. Theoretical relationship are established between the
a. Blood platelets primary concept to be measured and one or more
b. White blood cells other concepts n this type of validity
c. Plasma a. Prescriptive
d. Macrophages b. Content
e. Phagocytes c. Predictive
d. Construct
15. Decrease vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium- e. Face
mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle
a. Calcium channel blockers 22. Facial expression is an age-related change that may
b. Beta-adrenergic blockers affect expressive communication in the elderly. The
c. Diuretics sagging cheeks or jowls which give a resting

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 appearance of “anger” or “crabbiness” to many
elderly are actually the result of
a. Pessimistic outlook over the years
b. Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the
face
c. Denervated facial nerve
d. None of these
e. All of these
23. The following statements describe the Median nerve,
EXCEPT
a. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of
the brachial plexus
b. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep
branch. The anterior interosseous nerve
d. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow
region
e. It enters the plan with the long tendons and
supplies the three thenar muscles and all
lumbricals
24. The following statements characterize the radial
nerve, EXCEPT
a. A little farther down the arm, it passes obliquely
lateralwards to run behind the humerus in its
spiral groove, deep to the triceps
b. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the
muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar
ridge: the brachioradialis, and extensor carpi
radialis brevis
c. It is the largest nerve of the upper limb
d. Its nerve roots include C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
e. The nerve divides into a long Superficial branch
and the Deep branch or posterior interosseous
nerve
25. The Act known as the Philippine Physical and
Occupational Therapy Law, creating the board of
examiners for PT and OTs is known as Republic Act
No.
a. 8066
b. 5680
c. 5670
d. 8056
e. 5690
26. Assistive device are often used and prescribed to
facilitate the process of gait training. The following
statements are true, EXCEPT
a. These devices may be used as permanent
functional aids that can be used for home or
community ambulation
b. When a person using an assistive device has
compromised cardiorespiratory function, the
increased demand may not be within the limits
of his or her reserve capacity
c. Ambulating while using an assistive device is
known to create a metabolic demand different
from that for unassisted ambulation
d. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids
towards the goal of independent ambulation
e. The decreased metabolic demand with the use
of assistive devices is at least in part due to the
lower speed
27. The following statements characterize De Quervain’s
disease, EXCEPT
a. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful
gripping can cause the disease
b. Repetition friction accounts for the abnormal
thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant
constriction of the tendon
c. Attributed to excessive friction between two
thumb tendons and their common sheath
d. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and
at the base of the thumb
e. The tendons affected are connected to the
muscles on the back of the forearm that contract
to pull the thumb back and away from the hand
28. This procedure stretches the spinal cord and
reproduces pain. The patient is in supine and asked to
forcibly flex his head onto his chest with his hands
behind his head. The result may be pain in cervical
spine and occasionally in the low back or down the
legs indicating meningeal irritation, nerve root
involvement or irritation of the dural covering of the
nerve root.
a. Kernig’s test
b. Milgram test
c. Gaenslen’s test
d. Hoover’s test
e. Naffziger’s test
29. The osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium is
maintained because
a. The vasa recta is permeable only to water and
not to the solutes
b. The oncotic concentration in the vasa recta
increases from the cortex to the medulla
c. The rate of fluid flow in the vasa recta is slower
than the tubules
d. The flow of fluid in the ascending extremities of
the vasa recta is perpendicular but along the
same direction
e. The direction of fluid in the descending and
ascending limb of the vasa recta is parallel and
counter to each other
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30. Neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT) is the most
commonly used approach to treatment with cerebral
palsy. The following statements describe NDT, EXCEPT
a. Treatment outcomes are supposed to be
achieved through physical handling of the child
during movement, giving the child more normal
sensorimotor experience
b. As the child gains postural control, the therapist
gradually withdraws support
c. This approach focuses on encouraging and
building upon normal movement patterns and
normal postural reactions while trying to reduce
abnormal movements
d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include
the importance of functional skill practice in
treatment
e. It is implicit in NDT that improved postural
control will lead to improvement in functional
skills without necessarily working on those
specific skills
31. True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip
produces pain on the
a. Lateral aspect of the thigh
b. Groin
c. On the acetabular area
d. Medial aspect of thigh
e. Posterior aspect of thigh
32. Resolution No. 381, Series of 1995 standardized the
guidelines and procedures for the implementation of
the continuing professional education program, which
includes the following, EXCEPT
a. The CPEC is composed of a chairman from the
members of the PRB and two members, the first
is the president of the PPTA and OTAP, the
second is the president of the Association of PT
and OT Schools
b. The Continuing Professional Education (CPE)
Council for PT and OT assists its corresponding
Professional Regulatory Board (PRB) for PT and
OT implementations CPE program
c. The CPEC does not accept, approve applicant for
accreditation of CPE providers
d. The term of office of the chairman of each CPE
council is co-terminus with his/her incumbency
in the PRB
e. The term of office of the first and second
member is co-terminus with his/her incumbency
as officers of their respective organizations
33. Disinfection is a process distinct from sterilization. The
following statements are true, EXCEPT
a. Something that is sterile is free of any microbial
life
b. Disinfection is a process that results in the
complete removal of all microbial life form an
object
c. Sterilization may be accomplished thought
autoclaving or irradiation by x-rays or gamma
rays
d. Disinfection tends to kill vegetative
microorganisms or inhibit their growth
e. Most disinfectants are chemical, generally used
on inanimate objects or surface rather than on
living tissues
34. The following characterizes straight posterior knee
instability, EXCEPT
a. May be caused by hyperextension, when some
other force is directed against the extended knee
b. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate
ligament and themeniscotibial portions of the
capsule
c. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weigh
falls on the extended joint
d. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the
flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the
tibial head and drives it rearward
e. Primary structures involved are the posterior
cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the
capsule
35. Following statements characterize pernicious anemia,
EXCEPT
a. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of
the spinal cord including gray matter
b. There is diminished two-point discrimination and
joint sensation
c. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs
and positive Romberg sign
d. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the
feet
e. In later stage, muscles stretch reflex may
diappear
36. Vestibular influence on the geocentric frame of
reference are as follow, EXCEPT
a. Detection of head acceleration
b. Tibialis anterior muscle activity increases during
ambulation when head is tilted backward
c. Otolith organ provide reference for head position
with respect to earth-vertical
d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when
head position changes
e. Used for repositioning the eyes based on
changes in head orientation
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 e. Association
37. Deep tendon reflex are
a. Polysynaptic nerve response 42. The aorta leaves this chamber of the heart
b. Excitatory transmission a. Right ventricle
c. Monosynaptic reflex response b. It bypasses the heart
d. Excitatory presynaptic potential c. Right auricle
e. Bisynaptic reflex pressure d. Left ventricle
e. Left auricle
38. The following statements describe the “Carrying
Angle” EXCEPT 43. Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the
a. The angularly of the extended and supinated outside and negatively charged on the inside
limb disappears on pronation a. Active potentials
b. As the ulna swings round the trochlea from b. Action potentials
flexion to extension, the trochlea is forced c. Hyperpolarization
d. Depolarization
gradually lateralwards
e. Resting membrane potential
c. The difference in circumference between the two
ends (ulna and trochlea) of the hour-glass is 44. The following statements describe Down Syndrome,
responsible for forcing the ulna gradually out of EXCEPT
line with the humerus a. Deficits in eye-hand coordination laterality and
d. The difference in alignment between humerus visual control were present in older children
and ulna is compensated for when the lower end b. The presence of monosynaptic reflex during
of the radius crosses over the medial side of the platform perturbations suggested that balance
ulna problem do not result from hypotonia but from
e. This difference in alignment between the defects within higher level postural control
humerus and ulna amounts to about 15 degrees mechanism
when the elbow is fully extended c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down
Syndrome scored equally in running speed,
39. Allograft rejection is a result of
balance, strength and visual motor controls than
a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized
the group without
lymphocytes, wither or both of which may
d. In children 1-6 years of age,
destroy the antigen, a property of acquired
__________responses to loss of balance were
immunity
slow and therefore _________ for maintaining
b. Histocompatibility complexes
c. That function to which protects an individual stability
e. Attachment of early motor milestones is thought
from toxins that might cause tissue damage
d. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a to be delayed because of problems with
property of innate immunity ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased
e. Provoked immunity strength and hypotonia

40. These mechanoreceptors are found in the skin and 45. Transaction of the pituitary stalk will produce
connective tissues surrounding bones and joints to a. Increased LH
b. Decreased TSH
detect vibration
c. Decreased prolactin
a. Muscle spindle
d. Increased FSH
b. Ruffini’s end organ
e. Increased ACTH
c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Pacinian corpuscles
46. The following statements apply to Duchenne
e. Kraus end bulbs
(pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT
41. A pathway of communication between the two a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed
hemispheres is created as these fibers cross the position without using his hands to assist the
midline from one hemisphere to the other movement
a. Transhemisphere b. Contractures are common and patients seldom
b. Projection survive into the third decade
c. Commissural c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty
d. Superior longitudinal bundle infiltration and the muscles are weak

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 d. A primary, genetic disorder characterize by the c. Is a 2nd class lever
early weakness and enlargement of the d. Cannot be moved
musculature of the calves, thighs, hips and e. Is a 3rd class lever
shoulders
52. Following statements are true of upper motor
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs
neurons, EXCEPT
almost exclusively in boys
a. Provide final direct link with muscles through
47. This structure resists the tendency of the femur to myoneural junctions
b. Synapses directly on alpha, beta, and gamma
slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface in
motor neuron in the spinal cord and cranial
actions such as in jumping with knees bent
a. Lateral collateral ligament nerve nuclei
b. Posterior cruciate ligament c. Completely contained within the central nervous
c. Medial and lateral menisci system
d. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
e. Medial collateral ligament e. Lesion results in exaggerated deep reflexes and
muscle rigidity
48. Plantar-flexion contracture can interfere with the
performance of functional tasks through the 53. Gait patterns between young (20-40 years old) and
following, EXCEPT old (60-80 years old) people differ in their gait
a. Soft tissue passively limit dorsiflexion to the performance as follows, EXCEPT
muscle moment developed about the ankle a. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older,
during the stance phase while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in
b. Decrease the plantarflexion moment when the older people
ankle is in dorsiflexed position b. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in
c. There is knee hyperextension during the stance older persons
phase c. Peak knee extension is significantly greater in the
d. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the younger persons
swing phase d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
e. There is decreased peak hip extension in late
stance phase 54. The following statements describe clavicular motion,
EXCEPT
49. This joint is primarily responsible for a. After the shoulder has been abducted 90
inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the degrees, clavicular transverse rotation occurs to
foot complete scapular upward rotation and shoulder
a. Talonavicular flexion
b. Talocrural b. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint
c. Subtalar approximately 40 degrees around its long axis
d. Tranverse tarsal c. Clavicle motion include elevation-depression and
e. Calcaneocuboid protraction-retraction
d. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments
50. This muscle has an extensive origin from the whole
cause the upward rotation of the clavicle
lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by e. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm
a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the elevation is limited to 90 degrees
coronoid process, its sole concern is flexion of the
elbow joint 55. The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT
a. Brachialis a. The anterior and lateral portions of the greater
b. Brachioradialis trochanter are covered by the tensor fascia lata
c. Pronator teres and the gluteus medius muscle
d. Biceps brachii b. When the iliac crests are not level in relation to
e. Coracobrachialis
each other, it is usually because of pelvic
51. When force is applied at a site intermediate between obliquity
c. When the greater trochanters are unequal, they
the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever
a. Does not exist may be due to a congenital dislocation of the hip
b. Is a 1st class lever

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 or a hip fracture that has healed in a poor 60. These carpal bones form the radiocarpal joint by their
position biconcave distal end of the radius and the biconcave
d. The pubic tubercles are just above the top of proximal articulating surface
the greater trochanters a. Scaphoid and capitates
e. About three inches from the top of the iliac b. Scaphoid and lunate
crest, the iliac tubercle marks the widest point c. Capitates and lunate
on the crest d. Lunate and capitates
e. Scaphoid and trapezoid
56. Functional capacity evaluation are often used to
61. Which the following meal will be emptied first?
determine the following, EXCEPT
a. 300 cal semi solid high protein
a. A person’s readiness to return to work
b. 300 cal liquid high carbohydrate
b. The degree of the person’s disability in order to
c. 300 cal liquid high protein
collect disability pay d. 300 cal solid high protein
c. The need for further rehabilitation e. 300 cal solid high carbohydrate
d. Physical capabilities and work tolerance
e. The need for job modification 62. A frame of reference for balance and head control
that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-
57. In this lifting technique, the individual establishes a
segment position
wide solid base of support with one foot positioned in
a. Exocentric
front of the other. The body is slightly over the load b. Proprioceptive
with the knees bent in half squatting position. No c. Gravitational
bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, d. Egocentric
the head moves first, followed by the straightening of e. Geocentric
the legs
a. Golfer’s lift 63. The great parasympathetic nerve supplies the thorax
b. Deep squat lift and abdomen
c. Tripod lift a. Abducens
d. Power lift b. Hypoglossal
e. Partial equal lift with support c. Pelvic sphlanic
d. Vagus
58. Bilateral vestibular deficits result in the following, e. Glossopharyngeal
EXCEPT
a. None of these 64. The following statements characterize carpal tunnel
b. Oscillopsia syndrome, EXCEPT
c. Skew deviation a. Pain, numbness and tingling of the heads
d. Disequilibrium b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the
e. Postural instability hypothenar eminence and an apparent
clumsiness of the hand
59. The following statements are true of the pituitary c. Condition may affect both hand or only the
gland, EXCEPT dominated hand
a. Its rich blood supply is derived from the small d. Symptoms are most often acute while sleeping
branched of the right and left internal carotid e. Uncomfortable sensations are usually felt on the
arteries first three fingers and the base of the thumb
b. It is made of the anterior and posterior lobe that
function differently 65. In the revised category-ratio rating of perceived
c. It is pea-sized gland hanging by a stalk, the exertion (RPE), a rating of 7 is described as
infundibulum, from the floor of the third a. Very strong
ventricle of the brain, just behind the optic b. Very, very strong
chiasma c. Somewhat strong
d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature d. Weak
e. Moderate
pine cone, projecting backwards from the back
of the roof of the third ventricle 66. Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic
components of the movement being attempted by
the patient

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 a. Result oriented a. When adults with BKSs walked at the same
b. Knowledge of performance speed as adults without, their energy costs were
c. Knowledge of function approximately 32% greater
d. Knowledge of results b. Energy costs are the same between adults with
e. Performance oriented
BKAs and those without when walking at the
67. The following characteristics describe Type IIS muscle same speed
c. They have the same energy costs because the
fibers, EXCEPT
a. Contained in motor units characterized by a high person with amputations walked at slower
firing frequency or discharge rate speeds
b. High threshold for activation and slow-twitch d. Adults with BKAs and short residual limbs (less
contraction than 6% of total body height) had a 40% increase
c. Have cytological properties that fall between when they perform the same activities
type I and type II B fiber e. Adults with BKAs and long residual limbs (greater
d. Relatively fatigue resistant than 8% of total body height) had a 10% increase
e. With intermediate levels of glycolytic and in oxygen consumption compared with adults
oxidative enzyme activity without

68. If there is anterior cruciate instability, the tibia will 73. Hypocoagulopathy can lead to
rock a. Increased heart workload
a. Backward b. Hemorrhage and edema
b. Medially c. Embolus formation
c. Forward d. Thrombus formation
d. Laterally e. Increased breathing
e. Diagonally
74. Normally, the movement of the contents of the
69. A solute with a high portion coefficient is gastrointestinal tract is slowest along this segment
a. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty a. Mouth
b. Where saturation can occur b. Large intestine
c. Directed against a chemical gradient c. Esophagus
d. More soluble in fat than in water d. Small intestine
e. More soluble in water than in fat e. Stomach

70. Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle 75. The following statements characterize thoracic outlet
area is syndrome, EXCEPT
a. 10 x 10 a. There is numbness in the fingers of the hand
b. 8 x 8 b. Involves both the nerves and adjacent blood
c. 6 x 8 vessels of the shoulder and the upper arm
d. 8 x 12 c. Arm may feel as if it is “going to sleep”
e. 8 x 10 d. There is compression of the nerves and blood
vessels between the neck and shoulder
71. This vertically directed device acts as the pivot round e. Wrist pulse remain strong
which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral
rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) 76. The following statements describe work hardening
to a halt programs, EXCEPT
a. Lateral collateral ligament a. Attempts to meet the functional and physical
b. Posterior cruciate ligament needs of clients
c. Medial collateral ligament b. Emphasize physical conditioning through
d. Semilunar cartilage strengthening, endurance and coordination
e. Anterior cruciate ligament exercise
c. Supposed to stimulate or duplicate actual job
72. Energy costs during walking adults with below knee
tasks
amputations (BKAs) and those without amputation d. Work oriented
may be generalized as follows, EXCEPT e. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that
attempts to address vocational and behavioural
needs of clients

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 e. Popliteal artery
77. Shortly after the brachial plexus exit the vertebral
bodies and pass between the scalenus anticus and 83. The sensory cranial nerve supply of the eyeball is
medius muscles, the nerve roots of C5 and C6 joint to a. Fourth (trochlear)
b. Third (oculomotor)
form
c. Sixth (abducens)
a. The middle trunk
d. Ophthalmic division of the Fifth (trigeminal)
b. Posterior cord
e. Seventh (facial)
c. Lateral cord
d. The upper trunk
84. Muscle contraction strength gradation can be
e. The lower trunk
accomplished in the following manner, EXCEPT
78. In retinacular test, the proximal IP joint is held in a a. Motor neurons with greatest innervations ratio
neutral position and the distal IP joint attempts to are activated initially activating few muscle fibers
b. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of
move into flexion. Then the proximal IP joint is flexed
individual motor units
to slightly relax the retinaculum and the distal IP joint
c. Simultaneously recruiting the number of
still does not flex
activated motor unit
a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted
d. Initially activating few muscle fibers
b. There is no contraction in the distal IP joint
e. As each active muscle fiber is developing
capsule
maximum tension, the percentage of time is
c. The retinacular ligaments are loose
d. The retinacular ligaments are tight increased
e. None of these
85. Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration
79. Coordination disturbances are usually assessed in patients with diabetes include the following,
through the following methods, EXCEPT EXCEPT
a. “finger to nose test” a. Food deformities
b. Reciprocal tracking tasks b. Limited mobility of the great toe
c. Tracking tasks metatarsophalangeal joint
d. Unilateral tapping tracking tasks c. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint
e. Kinematic analysis d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
e. Increased plantar sensation
80. Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the
cell 86. The following are true of Tetanic contractions, EXCEPT
a. Potassium a. Serial, continuous contractions, in which
b. Magnesium individual contractions cannot be distinguished
c. Chloride b. Series of increasing stronger twitch contractions
d. Sodium occurring in response to repeated contractions
e. plutonium c. They occur in response to a bombardment of the
muscle by rapid, successive stimuli
81. Normal spread of excitation in the heart is d. Incomplete tetanic contractions may convert to a
a. SAN, AVN, bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers,
normal contraction if the excessive stimulation
Ventricles
ceases abruptly
b. AVN, bundle of His, Atrium, Purkinje Fibers,
Ventricles 87. In evaluating the client, the caregiver
c. SAN, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, Bundle of His, a. Initiate planning for extended treatment as
Ventricles necessary
d. SAN, Bundle of His, AVN, Purkinje Fibers, b. Prepare and document the treatment plan and
Ventricles program
e. AVN, SAN, Purkinje Fibers, Ventricles c. Determines the client’s current condition, his
functional abilities and limitations
82. Supplying the lower limb, this artery enters the thigh
d. Documents client’s condition and functional
in the midline in front then descends vertically
outcome abilities
a. Tibial artery
e. Determine and selects the appropriate
b. Left femoral circumflex artery
c. Femoral artery treatment techniques and equipment
d. Sciatic artery

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88. Splints that incorporate some elastic component such 92. Segmental development is evidence of the human
as springs or rubber bands that exerts force on the torso’s nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal
joint but allow for some change of joint position nerves: i.e one pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-
a. Dynamic-progressive like area of skin and is knows as a
b. Static-progressive a. Myotome
c. Static-progressive b. Terminal branches
d. Static c. Dermatome
e. Dynamic d. Spinal nerves
e. Vertebral nerves
89. When defining the motion between the foot and leg,
a common center of rotation is assumed with this 93. Differentiation of these three vesicles at the costal
joint primarily responsible for end of the neural tube initiates brain development
dorsiflexion/plantarflexion components a. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and
a. Metatarsophalangeal metencephalon
b. Talonavicular b. Telencephalon, diencephalon and
c. Talocrural mesencephalon
d. Tranverse tarsal c. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and
e. Calcaneocuboid rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and
90. The following statements are true of biceps brachii,
metencephalon
EXCEPT e. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and
a. A simultaneous flexion of the shoulder and
myelencephalon
elbow and supination of the forearm will result
from an isolated unopposed contraction of the 94. When digital muscles have their proximal attachments
biceps in the forearm or humerus, they are classified as
b. When the forearm is supinated, it acts in flexion a. Extrinsic
of the elbow with or without a load, in slow or b. Thenar
fast movements in either concentric or eccentric c. Intrinsic
contraction d. Midtrinsic
c. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four e. Hypothenar
times as effective as a supinator at an angle of 90
95. These muscles retract the protacted scapula and turn
degrees
the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering
d. It is most effective as supinator when the elbow
the raised arm, with other muscles, they keep the
is flexed at about a 145 degrees angel
e. Its effectiveness as supinator diminishes as the scapula applied to the chest wall
a. Serratus anterior
elbow is extended
b. Trapezius
c. Pectoralis minor
91. The following statements describe repair of acute
d. Rhomboids
instability, EXCEPT e. Levator scapulae
a. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament
is a reconstructive procedures that is almost 96. The most important factor giving rise to a
always used concentrated urine is the presence of
b. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is a. Digital convoluted tubule
salvaged by suturing the structure to the b. Proximal tubule
capsular ligaments c. Anti-diuretic hormone
c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach d. Well develop zonula occludens at the collecting
ligaments is seldom necessary is as much as the tubule
periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures e. Non-reabsorbable solute in the lumen of the
well connecting tubule
d. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually
avoided 97. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation has been used
e. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to for the following, EXCEPT
“strangle” a. Facilitate motor control
b. Increase strength
c. Temporarily decrease hypereflexia

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 d. Improve ROM 103. Thin, strong sheet of fibrous tissue that
e. Muscle re-education occasionally attaches flattened muscles:
a. Raphe
98. As gliding occurs, the “No” movement takes place on b. Tendons
the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and c. Aponeurosis
circular d. Retinaculae
a. Axial
b. Antlanto-occipital 104. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some
c. Antlanto-axial unwanted movement that would otherwise be
d. Axial-occipital produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an:
e. Occipital a. Prime mover
b. Fixator
99. The most important substance regulating blood c. Antagonist
pressure that is produced by the kidney is: d. Coordinator
a. Vasopressin e. Synergist
b. Renin
c. Atrial natriuretic hormone 105. The following statements are true of LMNL,
d. Prostaglandin EXCEPT:
e. Progesterone a. Muscle atrophy may begin to show within a few
weeks
100. The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, b. Even with the loss of sensory feedback to the
EXCEPT: nervous system coordinated movements are still
a. Large objects may be held by widening the grip properly accomplished
b. This grasp is used to pick small objects c. The muscle loses both its voluntary & reflex
c. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the responses
hand grasp around it & the thumb closes in over d. Hypotonia is observed as well as absence of
the glass muscle stretch reflex
d. The thumb opposes one or more of the other
digits 106. Which of the following is NOT true of the deltoid?
a. The nerve supply is by C5 & C6 via the circumflex
101. Postoperative rehabilitation of acute posterolateral nerve
instability of the knee consists of the following, b. It can carry the arm higher than the horizontal
EXCEPT: position
a. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot- c. It is a powerful abductor of the humerus but
orthosis with a dial lock is applied cannot initiate that movement
b. Active extension is controlled because the d. The middle fibers concern themselves with
arcuate complex has been advanced abduction alone
c. Orthosis is worn at all times & the dial lock is
adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 107. Decrease in resting membrane potential, making it
degrees each week more positive:
d. The long leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow a. Depolarization
full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 b. Membrane denervation
c. Hyperpolarization
degrees
d. Action potential degradation
e. The subject begins partial weight bearing when
e. Variable conductance
the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of
extension 108. Diffusion occurs faster if:
a. The temperature is lower
102. In performing this test, the patient with contracture b. The partition coefficient is higher
will be unable to keep his leg, spine & pelvis flat on c. The partition coefficient is higher & the
the table when the opposite hip is flexed: molecular size is bigger
a. Baker’s test d. The molecular size is bigger
b. Segal’s maneuver e. The molecular size is bigger & the temperature is
c. Patrick’s test
higher
d. Gallic flexion test
e. Thomas test

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109. The following statements are true of straight leg lidocaine & frequently hydrocortisone is
raising test, EXCEPT: combined with a gel base to formulate a 10%
a. The normal angle between the table & the leg hydrocortisone solution
measures approximately 80 degrees b. Combined use of a drug-impregnated coupling
b. At the point where patient experiences pain, medium with US to drive whole molecules of
lower the leg slightly & then dorsiflex the foot-if topically applied medication percutaneously into
there is no pain, the pain induced is probably inflamed tissues
due to the sciatic nerve c. Often applied via continuous US with an intensity
c. Designed to reproduce back & leg pain between 1.0 & 2.0 W.cm at a frequency of 5MHz
d. If there is a positive reaction to the SLR test &
& with a treatment duration of 5 minutes
the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain maybe d. The physical mechanism which phonoporesis
either in the lumbar spine or along the course of acts is unknown
the sciatic nerve e. Acts as fast, painless, non-invasive alternative to
e. The foot is lifted upward supporting the local injection
calcaneus & with the knee remaining straight,
raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain 115. In this type of gating, protein channel gates are
opened by the binding of another molecule with
110. Which crutch walking technique would you choose the protein causing a conformational change in the
for patients with a walking cast, DJD or new leg protein molecule that opens or closes the gate:
prosthesis or for a patient who has had a leg a. Ligand gating
surgery? b. None of these
a. Swing through 3 point gait c. Voltage gating
b. 3 point & 1 gait (partial weight bearing) d. Both of these
c. 3 point gait (non-weight bearing)
d. 4 point gait 116. Babinski’s sign is a strong indication of a disorder
e. 2 point gait of:
a. Basal nuclei
111. Muscles will develop strength very rapidly even if b. Reticulospinal tract
the contractions are performed only a few times c. Corticospinal tract
each day & if they contract at or near their maximal d. Vestibulospinal tract
force of contraction: e. Tectospinal
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true 117. This elbow flexor is innervated by the radial nerve
c. 1st statements is false, 2nd statement is true & attaches proximally to a ridge on the humerus
d. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false above the lateral epicondyle:
a. None of these
112. This nerve provides innervations to the superior, b. Brachioradialis
inferior & medial rectus & the inferior oblique c. Biceps
muscle of the eye: d. Brachialis
a. Trigeminal
b. Oculomotor 118. If your patient can’t support his full weight on his
c. Optic legs but does have a reasonably good muscular
d. Abducens coordination & arm strength, which crutch walking
e. Throchlear gait would you choose?
a. 4 point gait
113. The left & right cerebral hemisphere is separated by b. Swing point 3 point gait
the: c. 3 point & 1 gait (partial weight bearing)
a. Medial longitudinal fissure d. 3 point gait (non weight nearing)
b. Anterior median sulcus e. 2 point gait
c. Central sulcus
d. Parieto-occipital 119. Components of subtalar joint pronation when the
e. Lateral fissure foot is bearing weight:
a. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar abduction &
114. The following statements are true in the technique talar dorsiflexion
known as phonoporesis, EXCEPT: b. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar adduction &
a. Medications commonly used include talar plantar flexion
hydrocortisone, dexamethasone, salicylates &

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 c. Moderate calcaneal inversion & talar dorsiflexion a. Central transmission of pain impulses via large
d. Excessive calcaneal inversion, talar adduction & diameter, myelinated fibers is via inhibition of 2 nd
talar plantar flexion order neurons located in the dorsal horn
e. Talar adduction & talar dorsiflexion & moderate b. Intramuscular receptors sent afferent impulses
calcaneal inversion via group III & IV fibers & the spinothalamic tract
to brainstem cardiovascular centers
120. The hormone regulating Ca++ metabolism that is c. The transmission rate of action potentials from
produced by the kidney is: peripheral nociceptors to the CNS can be
a. Estrogen
modulated by convergence of other afferent
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid inputs at the level of SC
d. 1,25 (OH)2 cholecalciferol d. Some group III & IV afferent mediate the pressor
e. Calcitonin response to sustain isometric muscle contraction
e. TENS of group I & II afferent fibers is thought to
121. The following apply to distraction, EXCEPT: modulate central transmission of pain impulses
a. Relieves pain in the cervical spine by decreasing carried by group III & IV fibers
pressure on the joint capsule around the facet
joint 126. If a 40 kg force is applied over an area of 4 sq cm, the
b. May help alleviate muscle spasm by relaxing the pressure (in kg per sq cm) is equal to:
contracted muscle a. 20
c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the b. 5
upper extremity from the cervical spine c. 10
d. The test demonstrates the effect the neck d. 160
e. 80
traction might have in relieving pain
e. Relieves pain due to a narrowing of the neural
127. These muscles are said to place the hand in “writing
foramen by widening the foramen
position” (MCP joints flexed, IP joints extended):
a. FDS
122. Changes in the capability to produce a given response
b. 4 lumbricals
during practice when augmented feedback about the c. Palmar interossei
performance is provided: d. Dorsal interossei
a. Initiative
b. Response 128. Informed consent includes the following, EXCEPT:
c. Learning a. Maybe given before, during or after the initial
d. Performance treatment
e. Function b. The client or surrogate may sign a document to
document the process indicating authorization to
123. This type of contraction occurs when muscular
the proposed treatment
tension equals the opposing force:
c. Known or potential risks associated with the
a. Relaxed
b. Isometric treatment are explained & the client must be
c. Isotonic able to ask questions & receive responses about
d. Concentric any aspects of treatment
e. Eccentric d. Consent from a legally qualified surrogate is
necessary if the patient has not reached the legal
124. The most abundant cation inside the living cell is: age of consent or mentally confused
a. Na+ e. Provide sufficient information about the
b. K+
proposed & alternative treatment/s appropriate
c. Mg+
to the client’s condition, to allow him to make a
d. Cl-
e. Ca++ knowledgeable decision

125. The gate theory of Melzack & Wall had been used to 129. This is formed when synovial fluid extends into the
explain the effectiveness or conventional sensory popliteal space & becomes exposed in a membrane:
a. DVT
level TENS in reducing pain. The following statements
b. Lateral meniscus
discuss the theory, EXCEPT:
c. Baker’s cyst
d. Thrombophlebitis

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 e. Inflammation of the PCL 136. The following statements describe the anterior
compartment on the leg’s anterolateral side between
130. To test this muscle, the proximal IP joint of the hand is the tibia & fibula, EXCEPT:
stabilized: a. The tibialis anterior, extensor, hallucis longus &
a. Interossei the extensor digitorum longus inserts into this
b. FDS
compartment
c. Lumbricals
b. The anterior fascia, posterior tibia, fibula &
d. FDP
e. Pronator teres interosseous ligament render it inflexible &
unyielding
131. The following are actions of the upper fibers of the c. If the structures are tight & intractable & if the
trapezius: palpation elicits tenderness, there is evidence of
a. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level an anterior compartment syndrome
but in fatigue allow the shoulder to droop d. Because of its instability to expand, swelling in
b. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the anterior compartment can create foot drop
movement of raising the arm above the head or anterior compartment syndrome
c. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards e. Necrosis of the muscles, nerves & vessels may
d. Cooperate with the horizontal fibers to rotate result from pathology that may causes swelling
the glenoid cavity upward within the anterior compartment
e. Retract the scapula
137. The ulnar nerve innervates the following structures,
132. Due to their innervated tripod arrangement, they EXCEPT:
function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis & a. All interossei
capable of cooperating with the splint mechanism of b. Medial half of the FDP
the Iliotibial tract on the lateral side: c. Adductor pollicis
a. Sartorius, gacillis & semitendinosus d. Palmaris longus
b. Adductor magnus, vastus lateralis & biceps e. All hypothenar
c. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus & gracillis
d. Semitendinosus, biceps & gracillis 138. Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity
e. Piriformis, quadratus femoris & obturator whirlpool in hydrotherapy area is:
internus a. 8 x 8
b. 5 x 7
133. The ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on c. 7 x 8
the body: d. 10 x 8
a. Sensory extinction e. 8 x 10
b. Cutaneous tactile sensation
c. Stereognosis 139. This test helps determine whether the patient is
d. Grapesthesia malingering when he states that he cannot raise his
e. Sensory inattention leg in that as the patient tries to raise his leg, he puts
pressure on the calcaneus of his opposite leg to gain
134. This nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle & leverage, the patient is not really trying if he does not
arises from C5, C6 & C7 roots of the brachial plexus: bear down as he attempts to raise his leg:
a. Subscapular nerve a. Hoover’s test
b. Musculocutaneous nerve b. Kernig’s test
c. Long thoracic nerve c. Milgram’s test
d. Lateral pectoral nerve d. SLR test
e. Valsalva maneuver
135. The nutritional components necessary for proper
erythrocyte formation & malnutrition is/are: 140. Blood cells which is activated by antigen only when
a. All of these this is associated with another host cell:
b. Riboflavin (Vit. B2) a. B-lymphocytes
c. Iron & folic acid b. T-lymphocytes
d. Folic acid c. Eosinophils
e. Iron d. Neutrophils
e. Basophils

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141. These muscle mainly flex the IP joint: recommendation to authorize schools to offer
a. FDP & FPL courses in PT or OT
b. FDS & FCU b. To study, promote & improve the conditions of
c. Lumbricals & flexor longus the practice of PT & OT
d. Lumbricals c. To issue, suspend, revoke or re-issue any
e. FDS & Lumbricals
certificate or registration for the practice of PT &
142. This type of traction temporarily immobilizes an OT
d. To give examinations to applicants for the
injured area through hands pulling on an injured body
practice of PT & OT in accordance with the
part:
a. Manual traction provisions of the Philippine PT & OT law
b. Reduction traction e. To look into the conditions affecting the practice
c. Mobilization traction of PT & OT & delegate to accredited professional
d. Skin traction associations so they may adopt measures of
e. Skeletal traction good ethics & high professional standard in the
practice
143. After successfully passing the Board Examination, the
following initials maybe added after the name of the 146. Incorrect entries in the documentation maybe edited
successful PT/OT examinee: by doing the following, EXCEPT:
a. PTRP/OTRP a. Corrected statement must be entered in the
b. PTR/OTR chronological sequence
c. PTRP/OTR b. On the margin, state why the correction was
d. RPT/ROT necessary
e. RPT/OTRP c. Single line drawn through the inaccurate
information, but still making it legible
144. In a recent study conducted on phonoporesis, where
d. Correction must be dated& initiated
hydrocortisone was prepared by blending e. Erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate
hydrocortisone acetate with Aquasonic gel, which of information
the following statement is true?
a. 5 mins of hydrocortisone phonoporesis with 10% 147. In as much as the knee extensor mechanism is
hydrocortisone using continuous US at 1.0W/cm involved, the following statements applied, EXCEPT:
did not result in an increase in human serum a. The exercise is increased according to subject’s
cortisol level tolerance
b. 5 mins of hydrocortisone phonoporesis with 10% b. SLR exercises are progressed slowly
hydrocortisone using continuous US at 1.0W/cm c. By the time of discharge, (about 7 days) the
resulted in an increase human serum cortisol subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises
levels d. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
c. 5 mins of hydrocortisone phonoporesis with 10% e. Repetitions should be aggressively increased
hydrocortisone using continuous US at 5.0W/cm until about 8 sets of 10 leg raises daily are
did not result in an increase human serum performed over the next 3 weeks after discharge
cortisol levels
d. 10 mins of hydrocortisone phonoporesis with 148. If excessive tightness of the hip ligament muscles or
20% hydrocortisone using continuous US at fasciae prevents commonly complete extension of the
5.0W/cm resulted in an increase human serum hip joints, an individual commonly compensates for
cortisol levels this limitation by:
e. 5 mins of hydrocortisone phonoporesis with 10% a. Lengthening the vastus group
b. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis &
hydrocortisone using continuous US at 5.0W/cm
lumbar lordosis
resulted in an increase humam serum cortisol
c. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
levels d. Lumbar kyphosis

145. The powers & duties of the Board of PT & OT include 149. The following statements apply to translation ,
the following, EXCEPT: EXCEPT:
a. To study the conditions affecting PT & OT
education & prepare a written favorable

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 a. A process which a protein molecule is formed
while the messenger RNA travels along the 155. The somatic sensory examination is the most difficult
ribosome & least reliable part of the evaluation. The following
b. A codon signals the end of a protein molecule rules & generalizations will be helpful, EXCEPT:
c. The process is initiated when a molecule of a. Consistency of findings of several sensory
messenger RNA comes in contact with ribosome examination gives some assurance of validity
d. The manufacturing plant in which the protein b. Peripheral nerve lesions are often associated
molecules are formed with diminished or absent sweating, dry skin,
tropic changes in the nails & loss of
150. Receives the weight of the body when one sits up subcutaneous tissue
straight: c. The test ordinarily used for sensory examination
a. Inferior ramus are rather crude & findings are imprecise, the
b. Ischial tuberosity
more so the less complete the lesion
c. Lesser sciatic notch
d. Subjective symptoms of numbness & paresthesia
d. Spine of ischium
are unfortunately much the same qualitatively
151. Bound by these tendons, they comprise the whether they result for thalamic, spinal,
anatomical snuffbox: radicular, or peripheral neural deficits
a. EPL, APL, & EPB e. Cutaneous sensitivity is greater on the face,
b. EDC, extensor indicis proprius, ECR hand, forearms, genitalia & feet, avoid testing
c. APL, APB & extensor indicis proprius calloused areas
d. EPL, extensor indicis proprius & EPB
e. ECU, EDC & EPB 156. The following statements are generally accepted in
improving muscle strength & endurance, EXCEPT:
152. As proposed by Cyriax, the scheme of selective a. Isometric contractions close to maximal forces
tension testing is a clinical system of diagnosis of for long periods of time is necessary to increase
painful problems of soft tissues & is conducted in the muscle endurance
following manner, EXCEPT: b. Concentric contractions against light loads may
a. Resisted contractions increase endurance
b. Palpation c. To improve endurance, a muscle must maintain
c. Active motion small forces for long periods of time
d. Assistive contractions d. A muscle must generate close to maximal forces
e. Passive motion
for short periods of time to build muscle strength
e. Isometric or even eccentric forceful contractions
153. Immediate postoperative care following cardiac
maybe necessary for building strength
transplantation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate
157. Of the body water compartment, the largest is
it
occupied by the:
b. Most patients are weaned from mechanical
a. Transcellular fluid
ventilatory assistance within 24 to 36 hours b. Intracellular fluid
c. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 30 c. Plasma
beats per minute for the 1st 72 hours & then d. Spinal cord
tapered off e. Interstitial fluid
d. 1st endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10
days after transplantation 158. A patient points to lateral aspect of the thigh as his
e. Endotracheal & orogastric tubes are removed source of pain. This may indicate that underlying
within 24 to 36 hours problem may be due to:
a. RA
154. This tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the b. Trochanteric bursitis
optic nerve & the anterior & middle cerebral arteries c. Gluteal bursitis
supply most of the cerebral hemisphere: d. Sacroiliac stenosis
a. Occipital artery e. Lumbar spinitis
b. External carotid artery
c. ICA 159. Abdominal muscle exercises during pregnancy & at
d. Subclavian artery least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care
e. Optic artery because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

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 a. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis
muscle separation width, length & angle of
insertion
b. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can
parallel in time the structural adaptations as
pregnancy progressed
c. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against
resistance can be decreased as pregnancy
progresses & remain compromised post birth
d. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle
separation may be found by 4 weeks post birth
e. Continued functional deficits may be found in
parallel with incomplete resolution of structural
adaptations post birth
160. The following describe the modified Thomas test,
EXCEPT:
a. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has
80 degrees of knee flexion
b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees
of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip & knee
toward the chest while lying supine
c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has
10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the
pelvis
d. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge
of a treatment table far enough to allow the
knee to bend freely
e. It only tests the ROM & the length of one-joint
hip flexor muscles
161. In an open-packed or loose packed position:
a. The ligamentous & capsular structures are slack
b. Increased joint friction allow spinning & sliding
c. Joint surfaces may be distracted several
millimeters
d. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
e. Allows spinning, rolling & sliding, thereby
decreasing joint friction
162. The following statements describe closed kinematic
chain, EXCEPT:
a. The distal segment is fixed & proximal parts
move
b. The distal segments of the chain moves in space
c. Stair climbing is an alternating closed chain
motion during the support phase of the
extremity
d. Occurs in the upper extremity when performing
chin up
e. All segments are required to move in the
movement of the segment
163. Refers to the possibility that the conclusions drawn
from experimental results may not accurately reflect
what has gone in the experiment itself
a. Parallel reliability
b. External validity
c. Low reliability
d. Incoherency
e. Internal validity
164. It is widely believed that these muscles are involved in
“tennis elbow”, a condition in which the extensor
muscles strained by an unusual amount of stress,
cause pain at the lateral epicondyle of the elbow &
along the course of the muscles:
a. Extensor communis
b. FDS
c. ECRL
d. The mobile wad of 3 (ECRB in particular)
165. Junction formed by the terminal branches of the
basilar artery & the 2 internal carotid arteries:
a. Anterior communicating arteries
b. None of these
c. Circle of Willis
d. Posterior communicating arteries
166. An example of this class of lever is at the atlanto-
occipital joint, where the head is balanced by the peel
of the neck extensor muscles:
a. 2nd
b. 4th
c. 5th
d. 1st
e. 3rd
167. In polyneuropathy, lesions often occur bilaterally, the
effects are usually more prominent in proximal than in
distal parts of extremities:
a. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
b. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
168. A form of validity that concerns the extent to which a
test or measure appears to measure what it suppose
to measure & actually based in the personal opinion
of those either taking or giving a test:
a. Content validity
b. Face validity
c. Direct validity
d. Criterion related validity
e. Construct validity
169. If there is a compression of the subclavian artery, one
feels a marked diminution or absence of the radial
pulse. This test is called:
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 a. Swallowing test
b. Adson test 173. The digestion of food involves the process of:
c. Valsalva test a. Hydrolysis
d. Compression test b. Conjugation
e. Distraction test c. Condensation
d. Mastication
170. After internal fixation of the hip, the PT must pay e. Decarboxylation
special attention to:
a. Use of trochanter roll or proper properly placed 174. Foot dorsiflexors are composed of:
sandbags beside the thigh to avoid extreme a. None of these
b. TA, EDB, Extensor Hallucis Brevis
external rotation
c. TA, EDL, EHL
b. All of these
d. Peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis & extensor
c. Patient may not lean forward further than 30 to
digitorum brevis
40 degrees which would increase hip flexion
d. To prevent increased pain & undue strain on the
175. This characterizes DM:
fracture site, adduction, ER or acute flexion of a. Decrease blood pressure
the patient’s hip must not be allowed b. Increase lipogenesis
e. Use of pillow or abductor triangle to maintain c. Androgen binding protein
abduction & keep the affected leg to one side of d. Enhanced protein synthesis
his midline e. Insulin deficiency

171. The following characterizes the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral dislocation is resisted by the lateral lip of
the trough being projected forwards
b. It maintains a constant relationships with the
fibula as the knee is flexed
c. Its posterior surface is articular since it lies in
front of the expanded lower end of the femur
d. It is easily dislocated medially due to the
powerful extensors of the knee that pull
obliquely & chiefly from the lateral side of the
thigh
e. Enhances the power of knee extensors by
increasing the leverage of that muscle
172. The following statements apply to myocardial
ischemia & infarction, EXCEPT:
a. Characteristics symptoms of pain associated with
angina pectoris is caused by an imbalance
between myocardial oxygen supply & demand
b. Resolving thrombus formation in the coronary
arteries cannot control factors leading to
coronary occlusion
c. Caused primarily by coronary artery
atherosclerosis that decreases the ability of the
coronary arteries to supply adequate oxygen to
meet the demands of the myocardium
d. Progressive atherosclerosis also leads to the
development of coronary artery thrombosis
resulting in vessel before occlusion & MI
e. Drugs are often used to treat the symptoms of
ischemic heart disease & restore myocardial
oxygen balance before additional damage occurs
to the heart
176. The product of breathing frequency & tidal volume
(Vt)
a. Ventilation (in liters per minute)
b. Stroke volume
c. Metabolic rate
d. Heart rate
e. Cardiac output
177. Which of the following examples therapeutically
increase the pressure on a given area?
a. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
b. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
c. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length
d. Frequent body weight shifts
e. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics
178. Following statements are true of the corticospinal or
pyramidal tact, EXCEPT:
a. About 1/3 of the axons in the pyramidal tract
arise from the primary motor cortex in areas 4 &
6
b. About 90% of the tracts decussate to the
opposite side at the lower levels of the medulla
c. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral
part of area 4 on lateral surface of the
hemisphere & from area 8
d. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal
muscles of the limb
179. The following statements describe the triceps brachii,
EXCEPT:
a. The long head may help also in extending the
shoulder joint

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 b. The long & lateral heads lie side by side &
together are comparable to the biceps
c. Of the 3 heads, only the long head arises from
the scapula
d. It acts in a lever system of the 2 nd class but its
lever arm is extremely short
e. The medial head has fleshly origin from the back
of the shaft similar to the brachialis
180. Histologically, warm receptors in the skin are called:
a. Naked nerve endings
b. Flower spray endings
c. None of these
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. End organs of Ruffini
181. Fast twitch fibers differ from slow twitch fibers,
EXCEPT:
a. Number of capillaries per mass of fibers is
greater in slow twitch fibers
b. Fast twitch fibers are organized for endurance
c. Fast twitch fibers can achieve double the
maximal power
d. Fast twitch fibers are twice in diameter
182. A functional map of the motor cortex resembling an
image of the body turned upside down & reversed left
to the right:
a. Brodmann’s area
b. Hemisphere
c. Parietal lobe
d. Homunculus
e. Premotor cortex
183. The following statements are true of the tibialis
posterior, EXCEPT:
a. Innervated by the tibial nerve
b. The most deeply situated muscle of the calf
c. Inverts & supinates of the subtalar joint only in
dorsiflexion
d. Inverts & assists in ankle plantar flexion
184. The following statements describe ataxia, EXCEPT:
a. Can result from damage to the dorsal &
ventricular spinocerebellar pathways & pontine
nuclei
b. Can result from damage to the afferent portions
of peripheral nerves & the dorsal column of the
SC
c. Can result to damage to several different motor
or sensory regions of the CNS
d. Can result in high amplitude tremor that
accompanies movement
e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is
manifested contralaterally to the lesion
185. The gateway to pain is opened by:
a. Intense stimulation of large diameter fibers
b. None of these
c. Mild stimulation of small diameter fibers
d. Mild stimulation of large diameter fibers
e. Intense stimulation of small diameter fibers
186. The combined action of these muscles is vertebral
extension & are continuous from the sacrum to the
occiput:
a. None of these
b. Erector spinae or sacrospinalis
c. Transversopinalis
d. Quadratus lumborum
187. Increase in resting membrane potential, making one
negative:
a. Depolarization
b. Velocity excitation
c. Hyperpolarization
d. Action potential propagation
e. Variable conductance
188. In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the
supporting leg is performing:
a. Isometric contraction
b. Positive work
c. Eccentric contraction
d. No work
189. Ergonomic design in office settings has become
increasingly important, particularly because of the
increased use of computers. The following are
acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:
a. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide
stability
b. Top of the monitor placed at eye level to allow
proper head & neck & position
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm & shoulder
discomfort
d. Keyboard placed at 15 degrees from elbow
height with a slight incline
e. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye
motions and discomfort and allow proper neck
posture
190. The following characteristics describe Type I muscle
fibers, EXCEPT:
a. Higher myosin ATPase activity than the other
fiber type
b. Resistant to fatigue, with high levels of oxidative
enzyme activity & low levels of glycolytic enzyme
activity
c. Contained in motor units characterized by a low
firing frequency or discharge rate
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 d. Associated with extensive capillary density & a b. Establishes the functional diagnosis & outcome
high concentration of myoglobin goals
e. Low threshold for activation & slow twitch c. Prepares a written home program for the client
contraction & family member
d. Evaluates the patient’s responses to treatment,
191. Vacuum compression therapy may be applied determine progress towards functional outcomes
following whirlpool cleansing of the wound at these e. Gathers data & information for documentation
manufacturer prescribed settings to emphasize the
vacuum phase of the cycle in an attempt to increase 196. The kinetic variable that reflects the rate of work
capillary filling: performed at given point:
a. -0.10 bar (-75 mmHg) of negative pressure for 90 a. Torque
b. Velocity
seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mmHg) of
c. Strength
positive pressure for 30 seconds d. Energy
b. -0.10 bar (-75 mmHg) of negative pressure for 60 e. Power
seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mmHg) of
positive pressure for 90 seconds 197. Dividing the body into (R) & (L), flexion & extension
c. -0.10 bar (-75 mmHg) of negative pressure for 90 occurs in this plane:
seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mmHg) of a. Trans-sagittal
positive pressure for 30 seconds b. Horizontal
d. -0.10 bar (-75 mmHg) of negative pressure for 90 c. Sagittal
seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mmHg) of d. Transverse
positive pressure for 30 seconds e. Frontal
e. -0.10 bar (-75 mmHg) of positive pressure for 90
198. The following are determinants of gait, EXCEPT:
seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mmHg) of
a. Knee flexion in stance
negative pressure for 30 seconds b. Trendelenburg
c. Medial displacement of the pelvis
192. Constricts the pupil & is involved in light & d. Pelvic rotation
accommodation reflex due to their connections with e. Knee, ankle, & foot rotation
postganglionic neurons:
a. Facial nerve 199. After transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
b. Trigeminal nerve procedure, the following techniques maybe used to
c. Optic nerve reduce stress on the sutures of the abdominal wound
d. Trochlear nerve
closure, EXCEPT:
e. Oculomotor nerve
a. Teach log rolling techniques for moving safely in
193. Unusually violent & flinging motions of the limbs: bed without disrupting the sutures
a. Chorea b. Positioning the bed at a 90 degree angle, patient
b. Dystonia lying on the uninvolved side in fetal position
c. Ballismus c. Lifting & sit-ups are not permitted until 6 weeks
d. Spasticity after the surgery
e. Athetosis d. Exercises designed for co-contraction of the
oblique transverse abdominis & mulitfidus
194. This ligament, in accompany the supraspinatus muscles for optimal trunk strengthening
muscle, prevents the downward dislocation of the e. Avoid valsalva manueuver by exhaling during
humeral head: physical exertion
a. Glenohumeral
b. Coracoacromial 200. Occupies an extensive area on the medial aspect of
c. Coracoclavicular the hemisphere, this lobe of the lateral surface of the
d. Biceps hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from
e. Coracohumeral
the parietooccipital fissures to the preoccipital notch
195. When developing a treatment program, the caregiver: and:
a. Bases the treatment goals on the outcome & a. Temporal
b. Frontal lobe
function
c. Insular lobe
d. Parietal lobe

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e. Occipital lobe

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