Angeles University Foundation A. slowly growing cells.
College of Nursing B. cells in the dormant phase of the cell cycle.
NCM 0106: Pharmacology
Quiz: Cancer Drugs/Endocrine Drugs
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the BEST answer.
1. Many properties of cancer cells are similar with that of normal
cells. Which of the ff. is an exception?
A. anaplasia
B. metastasis
C. miosis
D. autonomy
2. Cancer can be difficult to treat because:
A. cells no longer progress through the normal cell cycle.
B. cells can develop resistance to drug therapy.
C. cells can remain dormant state for long periods.
D. the exact cause of cancer is still unknown.
3. Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely
to cause cell death among healthy cells that:
A. have poor cell membranes.
B. are rapidly turning over and progress through their cell cycle
rapidly.
C. are in dormant tissues.
D. are across the blood-brain barrier.
4. Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different phases. A
common determinant of the appropriateness of another round
of chemotherapy is:
A. hair loss
B. bone marrow function
C. anorexia
D. heart rate
5. Patient teaching for client receiving chemotherapy includes
the ff. Which is an exception?
A. The importance of keeping the head covered at extremes of
temperature.
B. The need to use barrier contraceptives due to risk of serious
fetal effects.
C. Avoiding exposure to infection.
D. The importance of avoiding food if nausea and vomiting is a
problem.
6. Chemotherapy should not be used during the 1 st trimester of
pregnancy due to:
A. the tendency to cause nausea and vomiting increases.
B. serious teratogenic effects on the cells of the fetus.
C. bone marrow toxicity alters hormone levels.
D. the client may weaken by the drug treatment.
7. Alopecia is an adverse effect of many cancer drugs. Patient
teaching include the ff. Which is an exception?
A. Warnings that this will occur.
B. Cover the head at extremes of temperature.
C. Advise the client to lie with the legs elevated and head low to
promote circulation.
D. Encourage to arrange for a wig before hair loss occurs.
8. Most cancer drugs are most effective against:
C. cells that multiply rapidly and go through the cell cycle quickly.
D. cells that have moved from their normal site in the body.
9. A pt. is having stomatitis after a round of chemotherapy.
Which nursing intervention is correct?
A. Clean the mouth with a soft-bristled toothbrush and warm
saline solution.
B. Rinse the mouth with commercial mouthwash twice a day.
C. Use oil-based swabs to keep the mouth moist.
D. Keep dentures fitted in the mouth in between meals.
10. The nurse is caring for a pt. who becomes severely nauseated
during chemotherapy. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage light activity during chemotherapy as a way of
distraction.
B. Provide antiemetic meds 30-60 minutes before chemotherapy
begins.
C. Provide antiemetics only upon the request of the patient.
D. Hold fluids during chemotherapy to avoid vomiting.
11. A pt. on chemotherapy is experiencing severe bone marrow
suppression. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate at this
time?
A. Activity Intolerance
B. Risk for infection
C. Disturbed body image
D. Impaired physical mobility
12. During treatment with Doxorubicin, the nurse must monitor
closely for which potentially life-threatening adverse effect?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Ototoxicity
13. When alkylating drugs is planned for chemotherapy, the
nurse expects to implement which intervention to prevent
nephrotoxicity?
A. Hydrating the pt. with IV fluids before chemotherapy.
B. Limiting fluids before chemotherapy to avoid N/V.
C. Monitor serum drug levels during chemotherapy.
D. Assessing creatinine clearance during chemotherapy.
14. A client is receiving Cyclophosphamide. The nurse instructs
the pt. to watch out for which potential adverse effect?
A. cholinergic diarrhea
B. hemorrhagic cystitis
C. peripheral neuropathy
D. ototoxicity
15. During therapy with Bleomycin, the nurse will assess for
which potentially life threatening adverse effect by monitoring:
A. blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
B. cardiac ejection fraction
C. respiratory function
D. cranial nerve function
16. Internal body homeostasis and communication are regulated
by:
A. the cardiovascular and respiratory system.
B. the nervous and cardiovascular system. B. weight gain
C. the endocrine and nervous system. C. bradycardia
D. the endocrine and cardiovascular system. D. poor mental acuity

17. An example of a negative feedback system would be: 26. Thyroid replacement is indicated for the treatment of:
A. growth hormone control A. obesity
B. prolactin hormone control B. myxedema
C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone control C. Grave’s disease
D. thyroid hormone control D. acute thyrotoxicosis

18. Some endocrine glands do not respond to the hypothalamic- 27. A pt. is receiving bisphosphonate for the tx of
pituitary axis. This gland include: postmenopausal osteoporosis should be taught:
A. thyroid gland A. to take Vit. D, calcium, and hormone replacement.
B. ovaries B. to restrict fluids as much as possible.
C. parathyroid gland C. that severe bone pain can occur.
D. adrenal gland D. to avoid exercise that is age-approriate.

19. The posterior pituitary gland: 28. Miglitol’s mechanism of action includes:
A. secretes a number of stimulating hormones. A. stimulates pancreatic insulin release
B. produces endorphins to modulate pain. B. increases insulin sensitivity
C. has no function that has yet been identified. C. delays absorption of glucose
D. stores ADH and oxytocin that are produced by the D. cannot be used in combination with other OHA’s.
hypothalamus.
29. Insulin is available in several forms which differ in their:
20. The hypothalamus is considered as the master endocrine A. effect on the pancreas
gland because: B. onset and duration of action
A. it releases stimulating hormones that cause endocrine glands C. means of administration
to produce their hormones. D. tendency to cause adverse effects
B. no hormone-releasing gland responds unless stimulated by the
hypothalamus. 30. Treatment of diabetes mellitus is primarily aimed at:
C. it secretes releasing hormones that are an important part of A. controlling caloric intake
the hypothalamic-pituitary axis that regulates the endocrine B. increasing exercise levels
system. C. tightly regulating blood sugar levels
D. it regulates temperature control and arousal. D. decreasing fluid loss

21. Adrenocortical agents are widely used: BONUS. Which is better, manok na puti or manok na pula? Why?
A. to cure chronic inflammatory disorders.
B. for short-term treatment to relieve inflammation.
C. for long-term treatment of chronic disorders.
D. to relieve minor aches and pains.

22. Glucocorticoids are hormones that:

A. are released in response to high glucose levels.
B. help to regulate electrolyte levels.
C. help to regulate water balance in the body.
D. promotes availability of energy.

23. Signs of adrenal crisis may include:

A. physiological exhaustion, shock, and fluid shift.
B. acne development and hypertension.
C. water retention and increased wound healing.
D. hyperglycemia and water retention.

24. Patients taking corticosteroids usually report all of the ff.

Which is an exception?
A. weight gain
B. moon face appearance
C. feeling of well-being
D. weight loss

25. Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism would not include:

A. increased body temperature