1

TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOD EDUCATION REVIEWER

MASONRY
Ashlar – a quarry cut to produce smooth, flat bedding surface that stack easily.
Block – short term for Concrete Hollow Block; it consists of an outside shell with a hollow
center that is divided into two or three vertical webs
Brick – made of clay and other materials processed into workable consistency, molded to sizes,
and fired in a kiln for stronger and more attractive product
Control measures – set of procedures, guidelines or standards used to regulate or systematize
performance of shop tasks or jobs according to certain standards
Course Ashlar – stone arrangement which has a formal appearance
Course Rubble – stone which has a neater appearance than random rubble but more difficult
to construct and requires a large selection of stones
Electronic method – type of requisitioning of supplies, tools, and equipment through the use
of computer unit instead of the usual slip
Finishing tools – tools used for smoothening, roughening, plastering, and finishing surfaces
with mortar or plaster
Masonry – the structural construction of component parts laid in and bound together by a
material called as mortar
Material Handling – the movement, storage, control and protection of materials, goods and
products throughout the process of manufacturing, distribution, consumption, and disposal
Material Management – scientific method of ensuring that all items including tools and
equipment are released and utilized properly according to the requirement and shop
guidelines
Mortar – workable paste used to bind construction blocks together and fills the gaps between
stocks
Quality inspection – formal evaluation technique to ensure that deliveries are in accordance
with the specifications, quantity, and functionality or workability
Random ashlar – arrangement of stones wherein various sizes are used to make courses that
are not continuous for the whole length of the wall
Random Rubble – stone that is usually dry – laid but can also be mortared
Roughing up tools – those tools necessary in the process of preparing, arranging, forming,
laying and shaping of bricks, stones and masonry blocks
Rubble – stone that is irregular in size, shape, and texture
2
Stone Types and Varieties of Bond Pattern
Masonry stones are in various forms and set in different patterns depending on certain
considerations. Such stones chosen for various purposes have several varieties:
Ashlar is a quarry cut to produce smooth, flat bedding surface that stack easily. It is generally
cut into small rectangles with sawed or dressed face.
Random ashlar is an arrangement of stones where in various sizes are used to make courses
that are not continuous for the whole length of the wall. However, course ashlar has a formal
appearance.
Rubble is a stone that is irregular in size, shape and texture. Field stone is one type of rubble.
Random rubble is usually dry – laid but can also be mortared. Course rubble has a neater
appearance than random rubble but more difficult to construct and requires a large selection
of stones.
BRICKS. There are three classifications of bricks
Common Bricks are made from clay and sold at the market.
Face Bricks are used for exterior and interior walls and other architectural structures.
Calcium Silicate Bricks are made with alumina and silica and are used for furnaces and other
structures that require higher temperature up to 178 o C.
Brick Laying and Patterns
Bricks are laid in horizontal or vertical layer with a string or nylon cord as guide. The vertical
layer of bricks is guided by a plumb line wherein the mortar having a thickness of 3 to 10 mm. is
placed between layers.
BLOCKS. There are many types of blocks which are most widely used as masonry materials.
The CHB (sometimes called as Concrete Hollow Block) is used for all the types of construction
walls, partitions, dividers, fences, etc., it. Generally, a block consists of an outside shell with a
hollow center that is divided by two or three vertical webs. The end unit may have flanges that
accept mortar and join with the other adjacent blocks (except blocks intended for corners and
the end of walls).
JOB ORDER AND REQUISITION SLIPS
Requisition is made through a required form known as requisition slip or in the form of a letter,
if the previous is not available. Most government offices use uniform requisition slip, while
others have their own. In school shops, teachers are creative enough to devise their own form
to suit their local need. Such practice of using requisition slip promotes proper monitoring of
supplies, materials, tools, and performance and accomplishment of required service or services
among others. Here are some examples of requisition forms according to their purpose.
3
Borrower’s Slip this form is used for borrowing materials, tools, equipment. Its use promotes
proper monitoring of inventories. It has numerous purposes and outweighs disadvantages. This
form is devised according to the need of the office or accountable officer. Adopting this system
necessitates observing certain rules and penalties for violators.
Requisition Procedure: in as much as some offices or school shops do not use the electronic
method, requisition is made on a prepared slip available for use. Properly completed
Requisition Form is an important step in efficiently securing your order; otherwise expect
delays in the processing and approval of your requisition. The requisitioning process is done by
an authorized person.
Quality Inspection and Procedure: delivered or issued items should be properly inspected for
accuracy in terms of quality, specifications, quantity, and functionality or workability. The act
which involves monitoring, observing or testing, usually involving product sampling, to insure
compliance with the requirements is known as quality inspection. It includes activities such as
collecting data from the item or items to ensure quality and preciseness.
Materials Handling Operations are carried out in most offices or plants. Each handling task
poses unique demands on the worker. However, work places can help workers to perform
these tasks safely and easily by implementing and upholding proper policies and procedures.
For Industrial plants, regulations under Industrial Establishments (O. Reg. 851/90) made under
the Occupational Health and Safety Act should be properly observed.
Control Measures. The best control measure is to eliminate the need for workers to perform
manual handling tasks. Since this is not always possible, design manual handling tasks so that
they are within the workers‟ capabilities. Considerations include the load itself, the design of
the workstation and work practices. Providing mechanical handling devices or aids can often
eliminate the task itself or ease the demands on the worker.
Training. Traditional training has focused on proper lifting methods and safe work procedures.
More recently, workplaces have introduced fitness and back education approaches. In
combination with job and workplace design changes, these approaches are effective in
preventing accidents and injuries. On the job demonstrations and practice sessions are the best
methods of training. Cover basic manual materials handling procedures, and the proper use of
mechanical aids and techniques. Regularly reinforce the proper techniques to ensure their
continued use. The objectives of material handling training are to teach the worker:
Barricades – small structures made of metal, wood, or other possible materials which are used
purposely to convey a message of caution or restriction to all concerned
Doable – set of best or workable shop practices in order to achieve work simplification
4
First aid – includes all forms of remedies given immediately to humans in order to minimize or
prevent casualties or fatalities caused by accidents or normal course of time
Hazard – involves unforeseen incident that is physically unfavorable to humans or animals
Risk management – scientific technique of assessing, minimizing, and preventing accidents or
loss of lives or limbs in the performance of tasks or jobs
Sanitize – maintain high standard of housekeeping
Self-Discipline – doing things spontaneously without being told or ordered
Signs – objects made by flat sheet metal or wood suspended by a stand or nailed on the post
or wall which are located strategically
Sort – take out unnecessary items and dispose the same
Sweep – clean the workshop
Symbols – common illustrations printed on the signs which sometimes carry a descriptive word
or few words
Systematize – arrange necessary items in good order for use
Work simplification – application of workable principles that increases the awareness and
ability of the workers to be more productive and efficient without compromising their safety
and the product quality.
SEISO (SWEEP) means “Clean your workplace”. There is a very strong correlation between
quality of products and cleanliness of the workplace where products are manufactured.
Accordingly, SEISO (SWEEP) should be practiced every day, and sometimes, even during the
day.
SEIKETSU (SANITIZE) means” Maintain high standard of housekeeping”. So as not to waste your
effort, do not stop after implementing initial 3Ss.
SHITSUKE (SELF-DISCIPLINE) means “Do things spontaneously without being told or ordered.” It
is to make every one practice 4Ss spontaneously and willingly as habit or way of life. There is
no other way to foster such culture than practicing 4Ss regularly until such time when everyone
becomes fond of 5Ss.
What can an individual gain from the 5Ss?
The 5Ss makes your workplace more pleasant. In practicing 5Ss, you have to start from
discussing and agreeing what to put for efficient use by everyone. With your colleagues, you
have to clean the workplace. Such human relation and working environment will make you and
your workplace pleasant.
The 5Ss makes your work more efficient. If you have to look for something and take so much
time finding it, you are not only wasting your time but also wasting your energy and moral.
5
The 5Ss improves your safety. A clear and tidy working environment where everything is
properly placed, where clear instructions are readily available, and where no one throws
anything is safer place to work in. Practicing 5Ss improves your own safety. You can enjoy your
work more with less risk.
The 5Ss improves quality of your work and your products. People affect environment. On the
other hand, the environment also affects people. If you are accustomed to work in a clear and
tidy environment, you can develop your sensitivity so that you can feel and identify any defect
in work.
The 5Ss makes a quality life of people. The process of 5Ss requires people to think, consult and
agree with others and cooperate with each other.
SIGNS, SIGNALS AND BARRICADES
Signs, signals and barricades are important for the safety of the construction workers. Signs
and symbols should be visible at all times when work is being performed, and shall be removed
or covered promptly when the hazard does not exist anymore.
Danger Signs. Danger signs shall be used only where an immediate hazard exists. Danger signs
should be read as the predominating color for the upper panel; outline on the borders; and a
white lower panel for additional sign wording.
Caution Signs. Caution signs shall be used only to warn against or caution against practices.
Caution sign shall have yellow as the predominating color; black upper panel and borders;
yellow lettering of “caution” on the black panel; and the lower yellow panel for the additional
sign wording. Black lettering shall be used for additional wording.
Exit Signs. Exit signs, when required, shall be lettered in legible red letters, not less than 6
inches high, on a white field and the principal stroke of the letters shall be at least threefourths
in width.
Safety Instructions Signs. Safety instruction signs, when used, shall be with green upper panel
with white letters to convey the principal message. Any additional wording on the sign shall be
black letters on the white background.
Directional Signs. Directional signs, other than automotive traffic signs specified in the
paragraph below, shall be white with a black panel and white directional symbol. Any wording
on the sign shall be black letters on the white background.
6
Traffic Signs. Construction areas shall be posted with legible traffic signs at point hazard. All
traffic control signs or devices used for protection of construction workers shall conform to
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards.
Accident Prevention Tags. Accident prevention tags shall be used as temporary means of
warning of an existing hazard such as defected tools, equipment, etc. They shall not be used in
place of, or as a substitute for, accident prevention signs. Specifications for accident prevention
tags similar as shown below shall apply.
Signaling Sings and Barricades
Flagmen. Hand signaling by flagmen shall use red flags, at least 18 inches square or sign
paddles, and in periods of darkness, red lights. Flagmen shall be provided with and shall wear a
red or orange garment while flagging. Warning garments worn at night shall be of reflectorized
material.
Barricades. Barricades for protection of employees shall conform to the OSHA standards.
An emergency approach for minor sprains is called PRICE, which means:
PROTECTION - Immobilize affected area and prevent further injury using elastic wraps, slings,
splints, crutches or cane if necessary.
REST - Avoid activities that can cause pain or swelling. Rest is important to hasten tissue
healing.
ICE - Ice application immediately is necessary to avoid swelling, pain and muscle spasm. Reapply
the ice application for the first day or two.
COMPRESSION - Compress the injury until the swelling ceases with warps or compressive
bandages.
ELEVATION - Raise the swollen arm or leg higher than heart level to reduce swelling. Usually
this can be done at night time.
COMMON HAZARDS
Kick-back, push-back or pull-in – these are potentially violent forces that occur suddenly and
can be difficult to control. They are most likely to cause injury when hand-held or „quick-cut‟
concrete or masonry saws are used, especially when chasing. They can also cause fixed
concrete saws to be wrenched from their fittings, with the potential of the saw running free on
the ground. It is important that training for operators includes awareness of safe work
practices and the risks of kick-back. Employers and hire equipment suppliers must ensure
operators have information and training on safe work practices.
7
Obstructions or resistance in the material being cut – these can cause sudden kick-back, push
back or pull-in movements of the saw. They occur when different quadrants of the blade come
into contact with obstructions or resistance within the concrete or masonry such as from
reinforcing steel bars, steel mesh or brick ties.
Crooked or off-line cuts – these can cause the saw to bite or pinch resulting in kick-back, pushback
or pull-in reactions. These reactions are also most likely to occur with hand-held saws.
Pinched cuts – these are caused when the object being cut moves, resulting in the cutting
groove tightening on the saw blade, thus increasing the risk of kick-back etc.
Blunt cutting edges – these are caused by using a saw blade or drill bit with the wrong
diamond cutting bond. If the bond or matrix holding the cutting diamonds together is too hard
for the material being cut, the bonding material does not wear away quickly enough, resulting
in the surface diamonds becoming blunt. This means extra force has to be applied by the
operator, especially with hand-held saws, increasing the risk of kick-back, push-back or pull-in.
Unsafe grip, stance or stop-start procedures for hand-held saws – these can cause the saw to
swing out of control and come into contact with the operator, or strike objects that may cause
the saw to fall and run free on the ground.
Worn, misshapen, cracked or damaged saw blades, or the wrong type of blade. These can
cause the blade to wobble, vibrate, shatter, or fragment and fly off. Guarding on most concrete
and masonry equipment is designed to protect the operator from flying blade fragments, but
not others in the workplace. Guarding should, therefore, not be regarded as a total safeguard.
Blades are most likely to disintegrate when force is used, for example when the diamond
cutting edge becomes dull, an obstruction is encountered, the cutting groove is not straight or
the blade is pinched.
Worn blade shaft – incorrectly fitted blades or the wrong type of blade for the job can cause
wear on the central shaft causing even new blades to shudder, resulting in early wearing and
risk of shatter.
Wrong-size blades – these are blades either too large, too small, or the wrong type for the
cutting machine or size and shape of the concrete or masonry item being cut. For example, a
small diameter blade used to cut a thick slab may not penetrate sufficiently; increasing the risk
of kick-back or blade-shatter should the blade strike resistance.
Hazardous dusts – these are emitted by cutting and drilling operations or equipment that does
not use water for cooling cutting parts and capturing dust. Concrete dust may carry high levels
of silica dust and repeated exposure can cause silicosis, which is a scarring and stiffening of the
8
lungs. The effects are irreversible, invariably resulting in death. Coarser rock particles can cause
short term throat irritation and bronchitis.
Insufficient flow of coolant water – this can cause overheating and expansion of both metal
and masonry, resulting in poor performance, jamming, severe blade damage and projectile
hazards.
Incompatible flanges and blades – these can cause uneven blade movement, wear and tear
and the risk of blade-shatter.
Incorrectly secured blades – these are caused by nuts and flanges which are not tightened
sufficiently on the saw shaft, which can cause uneven blade movement and the risk of bladeshatter.
Inadequate securing of anchor points – these can cause a fixed saw to break free from its track
fittings.
A beard, loose hair or loose clothing – these can cause the operator to become entangled with
moving saw blades, drill bits and other moving parts.
Hand-held saw cutting above shoulder or below knee-height – this can reduce operator
control and increase the risk of kick-back, push-back or pull-in injury.
Cutting concrete pipes – this requires special safe procedures to prevent the pipe from rolling
or moving during cutting, particularly when a handheld saw is used. A specific hazard during
pipe cutting is pressure from the raised flange on the pipe-end causing the cut to close and
pinch the saw blade, resulting in kick-back or blade shatter injury. Other hazards include the
presence of steel reinforcing mesh in concrete pipes, and a practice sometimes used for pipecutting
involving a series of plunge cuts around a pre-drawn line on the pipe’s outer surface.
Toxic fumes – without adequate ventilation, petrol motor emissions containing carbon
monoxide and other toxic gases can build up to hazardous levels.
Insufficient guarding – guarding on some concrete or masonry saws is more effective than on
others. When purchasing, consider the adequacy of guarding. Part of a safe work procedure
should be to ensure that the manufacturer’s recommended guarding is fitted to such saws.
Removing guarding can greatly increase injury risk.
Electric wires, gas or water pipes – exposing services, especially in existing structures, can put
the operator at risk of slipping, electrocution, exposure to toxic gases, or explosion.
Power cords – when attached to electric-powered cutting equipment and other machinery,
these may be cut or damaged. Pools of water coolant and slurry could cause electrocution due
to an immersed cord.
9
Uneven or unstable surfaces – these can increase the likelihood that the operator may trip or
stumble, causing an unexpected movement of the blade resulting in kick-back.
Wet, slippery floors – coolant water and slurry on floors can cause slips and falls.
Obstructions in access ways – blocks of masonry and bricks in areas where the operator and
others must stand, work or move can cause trips and falls.
Vibration – whole body or hand or arm vibration caused by prolonged use of cutting or drilling
equipment can cause nerve, circulatory and joint damage.
Working alone – this can be hazardous because of the potential need for assistance in the
event of an emergency situation or injury.
Noise – excessive noise from concrete cutting and drilling is a workplace hazard.
Accessing – the process of entering information or data
Application - the observance of or putting into the work or job specifications provided for in
the manual of instruction
Catalogues - the book containing list of items, object or materials /parts
Construction sector - the group or field of specialization
Data - the factual information or applied to any given task
Instructional materials - reading materials, such as books, manuals, video tapes, cd’s and other
related items
Manual - book catalogue that explains how to use certain materials, tool or equipment
Specification - the descriptive characteristics of a certain manual, job or type of work
Store - the process of keeping the manuals or any documents to prevent them from being
damaged
Storing cabinet - a wooden or steel enclosure where manuals and catalogues are stored
Version - the style or way on how certain data are encoded
TABS - labels or tags attached at the edge of certain pages of a book or compilation
Warranty period - the number of days, months or years that a certain item purchased or
delivered is guaranteed by the supplier or the source for repair or replacement if found
damaged or destroyed under normal conditions.
TYPES OF MANUAL
Operator’s Manual is called owner’s manual, instructional book, and handbook. It shows how
to safely operate and use a machine. Usually it includes basic maintenance, safety information
and specifications.
10
Parts Manual is also called parts book, parts catalog, or spare parts list used by representatives
or dealer. It contains exploded parts, their relationship and location. Usually, it includes the
part number and their brief description.
Service Manual is also called shop, repair, workshop and technical manual. Some of the types
are very detailed, while some are shortened versions or specific areas of repair –ex. Hydraulic
system only.
3-Dimensional figures – solid objects that have length, width and height
Convert – change something into another form, substance, state, or product; transform
Dimension – measure of spatial extent, especially width, height, or length
Displacement – vector or the magnitude of a vector from the initial position to a subsequent
position assumed by a body
Face – flat surface of an object
Magnitude – number assigned to a quantity, such as weight, and used as a basis of comparison
for the measurement of similar quantities
Polygon – plane figure made up of three or more closed line segments
Scaffold – temporary platform, either supported from below or suspended from above, on
which workers sit or stand when performing tasks at heights above the ground
Shapes – objects, outlines or figures as visualized by the observer/s
Side – line segment of a polygon
Structure – something made up of a number of parts that are held or put together in a
particular way
Kinds of Measurement
1. Scalar quantity – this tells us only the magnitude or amount of quantity
Example 1. Length – 2 m
Example 2. Area = 4.5 sq. m or 4.5 m2
2. Vector quantity – this tells us not only the magnitude but also the direction.
Example 1. Force = 20 Newton’s to the right (without the direction the 20
Newton’s is senseless)
Example 2. Displacement = S20 m, N 350 E
Measuring Instruments | Measuring Tools
The measuring tape or the so-called push-pull rule is usually used to measure length, distance,
and width.
Plywood - The longer side is measuring 8 feet. The shorter side is measuring 4 feet. Each of
the 4 corners is 900
11
CHB (regardless of its thickness) the length is 16 inches. The width is 8 inches. Refer to Figure 1
below:
Reinforcing Steel Bars (Kabilya) the length is 6 m although there are other commercial lengths,
that is 7.5 m, 9 m, 12 m, etc. but usually it measures 6 m.
Cigarettes (100‟s) menthol 100‟s measures 100 mm or 10 cm roughly equal to 4 inches.
(Smoking is prohibited in the working site.)
Layout Tools
MEASURING TAPE. Instrument used to measure vertical height/depth of excavation.
WOODEN BLOCK hook onto the corner of a block and the string stretches tightly between
them to serve as a guide for all of the blocks in the course.
MASON BLOCKS AND STRING. String stretches tightly between them to serve as a guide for all
of the blocks in the course.
FRAMING SQUARE. Square up measurements and draw cut lines for form boards used a
combination square. A framing square is handy for checking corners.
CHALK LINE. You need chalk line box to snap guideline.
MEASURING BOX. A traditional box used to measure a proportion of gravel and sand with the
dimension of 12” wide; 12” in long; 12” in deep width net volume of 1 cu. Foot or 0.30 m x 0.30
m x 0.30m. Take note that these dimensions are inside the box.
PLUMB BOB. Tool used to check the correct vertical alignment of a structure.
LEVEL HOSE WITH WATER. This used to check the correct horizontal alignment of a structure.
BOARD OR PLYWOOD. This serves as scaffolds and forms and supports concrete.
Cleaning solvent – liquid, gas, or solid used to free the object or material from unwanted
element or substance
Handheld tools – collective term for masonry tools which are usually handy, lesser in weight
and in size, and operated manually
Lubricant – liquid or substance applied to prevent corrosion or occurrence of unwanted
element
Lubrication – method of applying oil or other pertinent liquid or substance to prevent or
minimize occurrence of rust or unwanted element on the object or material treated Nonfunctional
tools /equipment – collective term for non-serviceable or defective
tools/equipment which includes tools/equipment that cannot anymore produce or perform an
accurate result according to their uses or purposes
12
Preventive maintenance – set of method or procedure performed or applied on to keep a tool
or tools in good or perfect condition always that contributes to lengthening their life span or
serviceable period
Routine service – form of maintenance regularly given to equipment and tools
Suitability – the act of satisfying certain requirements or specifications either in task/job
performance or needs
Synthetic – something produced as variation or alternative from what is real or common
Techniques – proven procedures, approaches or methods used for a purpose of task/job
accomplishment or performance
Tips – proven suggestions or keys given purposely to facilitate task/job performance in reduced
resource utilization
Hand tool is a device or an instrument used to do a particular job that does not require a
motor, but is intended for hand held operation by one individual. Virtually every type of tool
can be considered a hand tool. It provides a mechanical advantage in accomplishing a physical
task. Automotive hand tools are fast gaining popularity among woodworkers and craftsman.
Manual Hand Tools: Manual hand tools are the most basic form of equipment. They do not
require the speed of powered hand tools or do not have access to power sources but are
perfect for operations. These include hoes, screwdrivers, chisels, wedges, drift pins, hammers
and others.
Pneumatic Hand Tools: Pneumatic hand tools perform the operation task at the push of a
lever. They are powered by compressed air. They include chippers, drills, hammers, sanders
etc.
Power Hand Tools: Tools which are hand held but are powered by electricity. These include
chainsaws, high grade motors, electric drills, angle grinders, jigsaw cutters, tappers, and
fasteners.
Masonry Tools and Equipment
TAMPER. The tamper tool is used in masonry for pressing exposed aggregate into concrete and
also compact the soil before pouring concrete. It is usually in the shape of a long or short
handle attached to a flat blade surface. When imprinting concrete with texture mats or skins,
this tool is used to securely tamp down the mat and ensure a good outlook.
STRAIGHTEDGES. Straightedges are used to strike off or remove freshly placed concrete and
make the surface as level as possible before finishing. Straightedges are made of various metals
like aluminum, magnesium and even wood. They are available in various lengths and cross
sections.
13
FLOATS. Floats are widely used in masonry jobs. The main purpose of using floats is to fill voids,
level ridges, and smooth the surface in preparation for troweling. The tool can also be used to
work in dry-shake color hardener. It can also be used to bring paste to the surface by pushing
down the coarse aggregate. Most floats for decorative concrete work are made of aluminum,
magnesium, or wood. Less common float materials are rubber, stainless steel, and laminated
wood or canvas resin. There are bull floats for working in large areas of concrete. They are
usually 8 inches in width and 3 to 10 feet in length. There are hand floats in length from 12 to
24 inches and in width from 3 to 5 inches. Most floats are available with rounded or square
ends. Round-end floats are perfect in tight corners and help to minimize lap marks.
FRESNO. Fresno trowels are designed in such a way that they are attached to long extension
handles so that masons don't have to walk out on the slab. Fresno’s are efficient in rapid work
over large areas, like driveways. However the only drawback is that do not achieve the same
degree of compaction that can be achieved with hand trowels. However, that can be also be
considered as an advantage when you must trowel slabs early for decorative work. In this way
they can create a smooth finish without premature sealing of the surface. Fresno’s are
available in blue, stainless, or high-carbon steel, with rounded or square ends. But they come in
longer lengths ranging from 2 to 4 feet.
EDGERS. Edgers are important masonry tools used to produce a clean edge along joints in
concrete. It can also be used to produce a clean edge along the slab perimeter. Edger’s help in
creating a neat, rounded edge that is less prone to chipping or spelling. They are available in
varied sizes. The general size range from 1 1/2 to 6 inches wide and 6 to 10 inches long. There
is a lip on one side of the tool which is actually the edge and it ranges from 1/8 inch to 2 inches
in radius and its depth is from 3/8 inch to 1 1/2 inches.
GROOVERS. Groovers as masonry tools are used to tool control joints in plastic concrete. They
are made of bronze or stainless steel. They have a V-shaped bit that is used to cut the groove.
They come with wood or comfort-grip handles like edgers that are available in various sizes
ranging from 2 to 8 inches wide and 3 to 10 inches long, but the most common groover size is 6
inches long and 4 1/2 inches wide. Bi-directional groovers have double-end bits that can help in
cutting forward or backward.
TROWEL. There are different kinds and sizes of trowels. The blade should be made of forged
steel to last longer. Handles are generally made of plastic or wood. Blades vary from 9 to 12
inches in length and 4 to 7 inches in width. The larger rowels are used for spreading mortar. A
variety of smaller trowels are used repairing old mortar joints and scraping off excess mortar. A
14
trowel that you feel comfortable with can be used to do all of the above; however, you will
need a separate tool to finish the mortar joints.
HOLDING THE TROWEL. Learning to hold the trowel correctly is important and will make the
job easier. Gripping the handle with four fingers and putting the thumb on top of the metal
band (ferrule) on the handle is how most masons hold a trowel.
LOADING THE TROWEL. Learning how to load a trowel with mortar is a skill to develop. Some
people like to fill the trowel by cutting mortar from the top. Some will load the trowel with
mortar by cutting from the front, while others load by cutting mortar from the side. Your
comfort level will dictate your style. Once the trowel is loaded, you must settle the mortar on
the trowel by snapping your wrist. This keeps the mortar from slipping off the trowel,
especially when you are buttering head joints. The head joint is the joint that runs up and down
the block vertically. The bed joint is the one that runs along the top of the block horizontally.
MASON’S HAMMER. This tool is used for hammering nails and for splitting block or brick with
the other end. One end is square and flat and is used like a hammer. The other end is sharp,
like a small chisel. The sharp chisel-end is used to make a cutting line around the masonry to be
splitted. Light blows with the chisel-end all the way around the block or brick and then a sharp
blow with the hammer end will give a clean cut.
BLOCKING CHISEL. If there are more than just a few blocks or bricks that need to be split, and
very clean cuts are required, then a blocking chisel should be used. This is a heavier, wider
chisel, up to 8 inches wide. It comes in a variety of sizes and shapes. These chisels are made of
steel and are used by holding the small end and striking the end with a heavy mashing
hammer, mallet or sledge hammer. This will give a clean cut with usually just one blow.
MASHING HAMMER. A mashing hammer is used to strike the chisel when cutting block. It is
not recommended to use a mason's hammer to strike the chisel since the tempered steel might
split and a piece fly off. A mashing hammer has two striking ends and will weigh from two to
four pounds.
MASONRY POWER SAW. If you are cutting large quantities of block or brick, you may want to
use a masonry power saw. The two basic types of saws are either hand-held or table saws. The
hand-held saws usually have a silicon blade about 6” or 7" high and, therefore, will not give a
clean cut all the way through an 8" block. But a hand-held saw is much quicker and gives a
cleaner cut rather than working with a chisel and hammer.
LEVELS. The purpose of the level is to keep the work at hand in accurate position whether
vertical, across, or horizontal. A good level usually has 6 vials installed strategically: two at the
center, while the others at both ends distributed equally. The bubble should line up between
15
the two red or black lines in order to achieve straightness or levelness. If laid on more than one
block at a time, the level may cover, the very least, about 36 inches long, depending on the
level length because some are up to 48 inches. Since most blocks are 16 inches long, use levels
from 18 to 24 inches.
MASON’S LINE. In order to have an easier time laying a straight wall, a mason's line is
recommended. Use nylon or Dacron line that is stretched between two corners of the wall you
are building. A mason's line will let you build walls without bulges or hollows. It is placed very
close to the block you are laying, but give enough room in order for you to swipe off the excess
mortar without disturbing it.
STEEL SQUARE. When laying walls, make sure the corners are at a 90 degree angle, assuming
you are building a square or a rectangle wall. A large steel square usually 24 inches long should
be used for marking and checking the corners being built.
JOINTERS. A jointer is used to finish a mortar joint after it becomes hard enough so that a
finger print will be seen in the mortar once pressed. Jointers come in many sizes and shapes,
but typically for blocks, you will use a sled jointer to create a 3/8th inch joint for long horizontal
joints. For vertical or head joints which are 8 inches high, use a smaller jointer. Jointers are
shaped to give a variety of indentations depending on the preference. The most popular are
the V joint and the half-rounded joint (concave joint). These two kinds of joints help shed water
well than any other kind of joint. If you are using clay brick, or other brick products, use a
jointer made specifically for bricks.
CHALK LINE. A chalk line comes in a metal or plastic case, with a cotton line coming out of one
end. As the line is pulled out, it passes through a fine chalk powder, usually blue or red. When
this line is stretched between two points and snapped, it will leave an imprint on the surface
being snapped. A chalk line is used for laying out a block wall on a concrete foundation to get
the alignment correct.
BRUSHES. After a wall is built, there may be some mortar stains or powder residue on the wall.
Before cleaning solutions are used, these marks can often be brushed off. A variety of brushes
are available. Powder residue can be brushed off with a medium soft bristle brush. A light
accumulation of mortar could be brushed with a stiff bristle brush. An abrasive stone or piece
of same block or brick after testing in an obscure area may serve the purpose. Stains that do
not respond to brushing should be cleaned with a special solution and brushing with a stiff
bristle brush. Watering the wall before and after washing and brushing is necessary so that the
solution will not be absorbed.
16
MIXING TOOLS. On small jobs, do not use a powered mortar mixer. Several tools are needed to
mix mortar. The regular shovel with a square edge will be needed to proportion materials. The
large hoe with two holes in the blade is used to mix the mortar sand, masonry cement and
water. The holes in the blade make it easier to pull the hoe through the mix and to break up
the lumps.
Methods of Identification
Visual inspection. It refers to the visual observation of an expert on the appearance of the
tools and equipment.
Functionality. Vibration or extra noise from the operation means problems on parts and
accessories started to develop.
Performance. When there is something wrong with the performance of either hand tools or
equipment they need an immediate repair or maintenance.
Power supply (for electrically operated equipment). Failure to meet the required power
supply, malfunction will occurs in the part of hand tools or equipment.
Person’s involved. It refers to the technical person who has the knowledge and skills about the
technology.
Safety and Maintenance Practices
Use the Right Tool for the Job. Using the correct tool for the job is the first step in safe hand
tool use. Tools are designed for specific needs. To avoid personal injury and tool damage, select
the proper tool to do the job well and safely.
Take care of and treat with respect quality professional hand tools to make them last many
years. Manufacturers design tools for specific applications Use tools only for their intended
purpose.
Use Well-Designed, High-Quality Tools. Investing high-quality tools makes the professional’s
job safer and easier. Well-designed tools save time, give professional results and help you do
your job more safely.
Make sure machinery is safe. You should check the machinery if it is suitable for the work.
Think about how and where it will be used. If you think that machinery you have bought is not
safe DO NOT USE IT. Contact the manufacturer to discuss your concerns.
Keep all tools in good condition with regular maintenance. Install or repair equipment only if
you are qualified. A faulty job could cause serious injuries from mechanical failure, fire, or
shock. Maintain tools in proper working condition.
17
Examine each tool for damage before use. Regularly inspect tools, cords and accessories.
Repair or replace problem equipment immediately. Never alter a tool in a manner that reduces
its effectiveness or safety.
Operate according to the manufacturer's instructions. Most equipment comes with guidelines
for maintenance, including advice on how to carry out equipment checks safely.
Types of Lubricants
Oils cover a broad class of fluid lubricants which has particular physical properties and
characteristics. Petroleum oils (mineral oils) are made from naphthenic or paraffinic oils.
Naphthenic oils contain little wax and their low pour point makes them good lubricants for
most applications. Paraffinic oils are very waxy which makes them useful for hydraulic
equipment and other machineries.
Greases are ideal for lubricating bearings, gaskets, seals and other moving parts. It consists of
oil or synthetic fluid (~80%), a thickening agent (~10%) and additives (~10%). The consistency of
greases is usually ranked by their relative hardness on a scale set by the National Lubricating
Grease Institute (NLGI). The softest greases are rated at 000 (which is a flowing liquid) with
higher numbers indicating harder grease. Most grease falls in the range between 1 and 4.
Solid lubricants are usually fine powders, such as Molybdenum Disulfide (Moly), graphite and
Teflon® (PTFE). They can be used alone, or as additives in grease or dispersions, or as dry film
bonded lubricants. Lubricating solids can last longer than unfortified oils and greases because
of their ability to form burnished films on surfaces.
Rust remover is used mainly to dissolve rust. It is also use as an excellent cleaner. For example,
to remove a rusted bolt, spray remover directly on the bolt, wait for approximately five
minutes and unscrew. For a bicycle chain, apply the rust remover to clean the chain, and then
apply a thick lubricant (oil or PL-100). Another useful trick, try it to remove stuck-on store
labels. It works perfectly and won't harm glass or plastic. WD-40 and Release All are two of the
many brands of rust removers on the market.
Dry lubricant is a greasy product that dries in a few minutes and leaves a protective film. Since
it dries rapidly, it doesn't attract dust, so there is no mess. It is recommended to be used on
rubber, car door gaskets, handsaws, miter saw, saw sliders, window sashes, and others. It can
also be used on balky wooden drawers, but cabinet makers usually prefer floor wax because it
is more durable. JIG-A-LOO is the common brand of a dry lubricant.
Locksmiths also use a dry lubricant, graphite, to free stuck door locks. This product should be
applied sparingly into the keyhole, as it is very messy. Graphite lubricant is composed of a fine
18
black powder that no cleaner can remove, so it is wise to protect the door when graphite is
applied.
Penetrating lubricant. Its lubricating properties persist even after having removed residues, as
it penetrates into metal. It is ideal for door hinges, even the fridge, hard to open pliers, ski
bindings and others as it does not hold dirt and dust. The PL-100 is thick and very efficient.
Synthetic lubricants cover a broad category of oils, greases, and pastes of varied properties.
Synthetic lubricants are more inert, generate less waste, are capable of a wider range of
temperatures and have a longer life than petroleum materials. They are even applicable to
elastomers, seals and O-rings.
Synthetic oils are used to lubricate instrument bearings, hydraulics, air compressors, gas and
steam turbines and other applications. They have excellent viscosity temperature
characteristics, good resistance to oxidation and an extremely wide operating temperature
range.
Synthetic greases can last a lifetime, making them very cost-effective. They are chemically
inert, and their high thermal stability makes them useful for aerospace, electrical, automotive
and other high-tech or industrial applications. Some of these lubricants keep their viscosity in
temperatures ranging as high as 550° Fahrenheit and are nonflammable up to 1,200°
Fahrenheit.
Silicones are very stable and very inert lubricants, which provide a wider range of operating
temperatures than non-silicone synthetic lubricants. Other advantages include water repulsion
and electrical insulation. Flourosilicones have higher resistance to harsh environments and the
ability to carry bearing loads. Lubricant manufacturers can provide technical data sheets on
their products to advise you on the best applications of each type of lubricant.
ELECTRONICS
Accidental - occurring unexpectedly, unintentionally, or by chance.
Alternating current - an electric current that is continually varying in value and reversing its
direction of flow at regular interval
Anode - a positive electrode of semiconductor device
Capacitance - a property that exists whenever two conductors are separated by insulating
material, permitting the storage of electricity
Capacitor - a component designed intentionally to have a definite amount of capacitance
Circuit - an arrangement of one or more complete paths of electron flow.
19
Conductor - a wire, cable, or other body or medium that is suitable for carrying electric current
Current - the rate of transfer of electricity from one point to another
Desoldering - a process of unsoldering unwanted parts or components in the circuit with the
support of soldering tool
Dielectric material - a material that serves as insulator because it has poor electric conductivity
Direct current - an electric current that flows in one direction
Discrete components- separated or individual components
Electronics - a branch of science and technology that deals with the controlled flow of
electrons
Flammable - tending to burn quickly
Hazards - risks; dangers
Malfunction - not in normal functionality
Ohmmeter - an instrument that measures the amount of resistance in certain component or
circuits
Resistance - the opposition that a component or material offers to the flow current
Resistor – a component designed intentionally to have a definite amount of resistance
Soldering - a process of joining two metals caused by heat
Soldering technique - a right process in which the solder (lead) is being applied in a connection
or in the printed circuit board
Splicing – connecting two lengths of conductor
Technician - a person skilled in mechanical or industrial techniques or in a particular technical
field
Tool kit - a small bag or box equipped with hand tools Troubleshooting - identifying and
repairing faults in equipment
Voltage - the electrical pressure that existed between two points and capable of producing a
flow of current when a close circuit is connected between the points.
Voltmeter - an instrument that measures the amount of electromotive force in a component or
circuit.
PCB – Printed Circuit Board
PPE – Personal Protective Equipment
VOM – Volt-Ohm-Milliameter
Driving of Tools
Screwdrivers are hand tools specifically designed to insert and tighten, or to loosen and
remove screws. A screwdriver comprises a head or tip, which engages with a screw, a
20
mechanism to apply force by rotating the tip, and some way to position and support the
screwdriver, the tip of which is shaped in to fit a particular type of screw.
a. Slotted Screwdriver is used to drive or fasten negative slotted screws.
b. Phillips Screwdriver – used to drive or fasten positive slotted screws. It is a screwdriver
that could take greater torque and could provide tighter fastenings.
c. Jeweler's Screwdriver Set – is a set of small screw drivers composed of slotted and
Phillips screwdrivers.
Soldering Tools
1. Soldering Iron – is a device for applying heat to melt solder in attaching two metal
parts. A soldering iron is composed of a heated metal tip and an insulated handle. For
electrical work, wires are usually soldered to printed circuit boards, other wires, or
small terminals. A low-power iron (20-30 Watts) is suitable for this work.
2. Soldering Tool Stand – is a place where the soldering iron is placed during usage. This
will keep the soldering iron away from flammable materials. The stand often comes
with a sponge used in cleaning the tip of the soldering iron.
3. Desoldering tool is used in removing soldered wires and components on printed circuit
boards for troubleshooting and repair purposes.
Splicing Tools
1. Long Nose is used for holding, bending, and stretching the lead of electronic
component or connecting wires.
2. Side Cutter is a wire-cutting pliers, though they are not used to grab or turn anything,
but are used to cut wires.
3. Wire Stripper is a pair of opposing blades much like scissors or wire cutters. The
addition of a center notch makes it easier to cut the insulation without cutting the wire.
Boring Tools
1. 12V Mini-Drill – is used to bore or drill holes in the printed circuit board (PCB) with sizes
from 1/32” – 1/16”.
2. Portable Electric Drill is used for boring hole(s) in plastic or metal chassis with the used
of drill bits having sizes from 1/6” to approximately 1/4”.
a. Metal Files These are hand tools having a series of sharp, parallel ridges or
teeth. Most files have a narrow, pointed tang at one end to which a handle can
be fitted.
b. Flat File is parallel in width and tapered in thickness; they are used for flat
surfaces and edges.
21
c. Half Round File is tapered in width and thickness, coming to a point, and is
narrower than a standard half round and used for filing inside of rings.
d. Round File - is also called rat-tail file which is gradually tapered and used for
many tasks that require a round tool, such as enlarging round holes or cutting a
scalloped edge.
Cutting Tools
1. Utility Knife is a common tool used in cutting various trades and crafts for a variety of
purposes.
2. Hacksaw is used for cutting metals. Some have pistol grips which keep the hacksaw firm
and easy to grip. The small hand-held hacksaws consist of a metal arch with a handle
that fits around a narrow, rigid blade.
Auxiliary Tools
1. Magnifying Glass is a convex lens which is used to produce a magnified image of an
object. The lens is usually mounted on a frame with a handle. Roger Bacon is the
original inventor of the magnifying glass. A magnifying glass works by creating a
magnified virtual image of an object behind the lens. Some magnifying glasses are
foldable with built-in light.
2. Paint Brush – made of bristles set in handle, use for cleaning dirty parts of a circuit or
an object.
Electronic equipment: Aside from hand tools, equipment are also needed for more accurate
and quality output. In this connection, three of the most used equipment are presented here
for you to be familiar with their uses and the proper way of maintaining them.
a. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter. It is an equipment that combines three functions: as a
voltmeter that measures both ac and dc voltages; an ohmmeter that measures
resistance; and milliammeter that measures small amount of dc current. As safety
precautions in the maintenance of this instrument, the following should be observed:
b. Always rest the function switch at 250V AC if an OFF position is not available in the
instrument.
c. For current and voltage measurements, always set the function switch in the correct
setting which is a little higher than the expected current or voltage present in the
circuit. Place the instrument in a cool dry place, away from any magnetic devices, and
free from vibrations.
b. Oscilloscope. An oscilloscope (commonly abbreviated CRO, for cathode-ray
oscilloscope, or scope) is a piece of electronic test equipment that allows signal voltages
22
to be viewed, usually as a two-dimensional graph of one or more electrical potential
differences (vertical axis) plotted as a function of time or of some other voltage
(horizontal axis).
c. Signal generator. A signal generator is a device which produces simple wave forms.
Oscilloscope and signal generator should be given regular checkup for at least once a week by
connecting them in the power line. This will help prevent their components from having
moisture that might cause trouble in their circuits.
Common Faults in Using Hand Tools
Pliers:
 Do not increase the handle length of pliers to gain more leverage. Use a larger pair of
pliers or bolt cutters if necessary.
 Do not substitute pliers for a wrench when turning bolts and nuts. Pliers cannot grip these
items properly and might cause a slip and create an accident.
 Cut hardened wires only with pliers designed for that purpose.
 Always cut the wires in right angle. Never rock from side to side or bend wire back and
forth against the cutting edges.
Screwdrivers:
 Never use screwdrivers as a pry bar, chisel, and punch stirrer or scraper.
 Never use screwdrivers with broken or worn-out handles. Screwdrivers of these kinds
should have tags to indicate that it is defective.
 Never use pliers on a screwdriver for extra leverage. Only use wrench or screwdrivers
specifically designed for purpose.
Utility Knives | Blades:
 Do not use dull blades because they require more force, thus are more likely to slip.
 Replace the blade when it starts to “tear” instead of cut.
 Never leave a knife unattended with the blade exposed.
Disassembly and assembly of the circuit
Desoldering: At some stage, you will probably need to desolder a joint to remove or re-position
a wire or component. The easiest and most common way is the use of desoldering pump.
Ampere - basic unit of current
Current - the flow of electrons moving in a given direction
Electronic measuring instrument - portable instruments used to measure electrical quantities
such as current, voltage, and resistance
23
Ohmmeter - an electronic instrument used to measure resistance of a component or the entire
circuit
Ohmmeter scale - section of the ohmmeter where the value of the resistance is being
indicated
Range multiplier - a portion in the ohmmeter where the actual reading is multiplied by the
range value
Resistance - the opposition to the flow of electrons
Resistor - an electronic component that is used to offer opposition to current in an electrical
circuit
Resistor color coding - a scheme to determine the value of resistors by color bands printed on
their bodies as code
Test Probes - connectors connected to terminals of the VOM and component’s terminals or
test points in a circuit to be tested. They are oftentimes red and black in color
Tolerance - the fourth color in the 3-band color coding that indicates the percentage of
deviation from its color coded value
Volt - basic unit of voltage
Voltage - an electrical pressure that pushes current to flow within a load through a conductor
Zero-ohm adjuster - part of the ohmmeter that is used in adjusting the pointer of the
ohmmeter to zero before resistance measurements or continuity tests are made.
Electronics is a branch of technology that deals with many applications. Audio electronics,
video electronics, digital, medical up to weapons and banking are covered by the influence of
electronics. There are quite a number of components used in the application of electronics. To
name a few of these electronic components are resistors, capacitors, inductors and semiconductors.
Resistors are very common and are the cheapest electronic components in the market for so
many years. Their features are so interesting and are very colorful. That’s why resistors are
very popular among students studying electronics.
Resistor color coding gives us the color coded value of a given resistor as well as the maximum
and minimum value as dictated by the tolerance but the actual resistance is still unknown to
us. The actual value of the resistor and the recorded data will confirm the status of the resistor
whether good or defective.
OHMMETER is a measuring instrument used to determine the resistance of a component or
equipment. This instrument is a great help in knowing the actual resistance of the resistors we
use in the two operation sheets. The commonly used ohmmeter in electro-electrical
24
laboratories now nowadays is embedded in a multi-function testing instrument called the
(Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter) VOM. For this discussion the VOM will be used but confined only to
the ohmmeter section.
Parts of an Ohmmeter
Pointer. It is the most important part of the ohmmeter. It indicates the value of electrical
quantity that has been measured.
Ohmmeter Scale - Nonlinear scale where reading of the resistance is based. It is usually found
in the uppermost part of the VOM.
Range Multiplier - The portion of the ohmmeter where the actual reading is being multiplied.
Zero Ohm Adjustment – is it the portion of the ohmmeter where it is adjusted when the
pointer of the ohmmeter fails to point to zero.
Test Probe - Serves as the input portion of the ohmmeter. Red test probe becomes positive in
some instances, while the black one is negative.
An ohmmeter scale is nonlinear which means the value of one line or calibration may not be
true to other lines. It is therefore proper to assign values to every line for proper and accurate
interpretation
Measuring instruments in electronics are confined only to analog testers and sometimes digital
millimeter. Either way the maintenance of these instruments is a priority in all electronics
laboratory rooms.
Electronic Measuring Instruments: Aside from hand tools, measuring instruments are also
needed for more accurate and quality output. In this connection, three of the most used
instruments are presented here for you to be familiar with their uses and the proper way of
maintaining them.
Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter. It is equipment that combines three functions: as a voltmeter that
measures both ac and dc voltages; an ohmmeter that measures resistance; and milliammeter
that measures small amount of dc current.
Oscilloscope. An oscilloscope (commonly abbreviated CRO, for cathode-ray oscilloscope, or
scope) is a piece of electronic test equipment that allows signal voltages to be viewed, usually
as a two-dimensional graph of one or more electrical potential differences (vertical axis)
plotted as a function of time or of some other voltage (horizontal axis).
Signal generator. A signal generator is a device which produces simple waveforms.
AC voltage - a voltage in which the polarity alternates
Anode - the positive electrode or terminal of a device. The “P” material of a diode
Bridge Rectifier - a circuit using four diodes to provide full-wave rectification.
25
Converts AC voltage to a pulsating DC voltage
Calibration – used to adjust the correct value of a reading with comparison to a standard value
Color Code - set of colors used to indicate value of a component
DC Power Supply - Set of colors used to indicate value of a component
Diode - a two terminal device that conducts in only one direction
Full Wave Rectifier - the rectifier that makes use of the full ac wave in both positive and
negative half cycles
Fuse - a device in the current path that melts or breaks when current protective exceeds a
predetermined maximum value
Half Wave Rectifier - a diode rectifier that converts AC to pulsating DC by eliminating either the
negative or positive alternation of each input AC cycle
Leakage - small undesirable flow of current through an insulator or dielectric
Light Emitting Diode - a semiconductor diode that converts electric energy into
electromagnetic radiation at a visible and near infrared frequencies when its PN junction is
forward bias
Output - terminal at which a component, circuit or piece of equipment delivers current, voltage
or power
Power Supply - electrical equipment used to deliver either AC or DC voltage
Primary - first winding of a transformer winding that is connected to the source as opposed to
secondary which is a winding connected to a load
PCB - insulating board containing conductive tracks for circuit connection.
Rectification - process that converts alternating current to direct current
Rectifier - diode circuit that converts AC to pulsating DC
Regulated Power Supply - power supply that maintains a constant output voltage under
changing load condition
Rotary Switch - electromechanical device that has a rotating shaft connected to one terminal
capable of making, breaking a connection to one or more other terminals
Schematic Diagram - illustration of an electrical or electronic circuit with the components
represented by their symbol
Secondary - output winding of a transformer winding that is connected to a load
Short Circuit - also called a short. Low resistance connection between two points in a circuit
typically causing excessive current
Solder - metallic alloy used to join two metal surfaces
26
Soldering Iron - tool with an internal heating element used to heat surfaces being soldered to
the point where the solder becomes molten
Substrate - mechanical insulating support upon which a device is fabricated
Switch - electrical device having two states, ON (closed) or OFF (open)
Test - sequence of operations intended to verify the correct operation or malfunctioning of a
piece of equipment or system
Transformer - inductor with two or more windings
Troubleshooting - systematic approach to locate the cause of a fault in an electronic circuit or
system
Volt-Ohm - Milliammeter - known as a multi-tester. A test equipment used to check AC, DC
voltages, current in a circuit and resistance of any components out of the circuit
Drawing instruments are used in preparing accurate drawings. Quality drawing instruments
can produce accurate and good and presentable drawings. Below is a list of some of the most
common used drawing instruments and materials in electronic drafting.
1. Drawing board. A smooth board usually rectangular in shape provided with perfectly
straight edge which is used as working edge on which the T-square is moved while
making drawings.
2. T-square. A T-square consists of two parts namely the stock and the blade joined
together at right angles to each other by means of screws. The stock is made to slide
along the working edge and the blade moves on the drawing board. The working edge of
a T-square is used to draw parallel lines, vertical lines or inclined lines at 30 or 60
degrees.
3. Drafting machine or drafter. In a drafting machine, the uses and advantages of Tsquares,
scales, set squares, and protractors are combined. One end of the drafter is
clamped at the left top end of the drawing board by a screw provided in the drafter.
4. Set squares. Set squares are generally made from plastic material. They are triangular in
shape with one corner, a triangle. A pair of set squares (30o- 60o) and 45o. They are used
to draw lines at 30o, 60o and 45o to the vertical or horizontal.
5. Protractor. Protractors are used to mark or measure angles between 0 and 180o. They
are semicircular in shape and are made of plastic. Protractors with circular shape are
capable of marking and measuring 0 to 360 o are also available in the market.
6. Drawing pencils. The accuracy and appearance of a drawing depends on the quality of
pencil used to make drawing. The grade of a pencil lead is marked on the pencil. HB
denotes medium grade. Increase in hardness is shown by the value put in front of H such
27
as 2H, 3H, etc. Softer pencils are marked as 2B, 3B, and 4B etc. A pencil marked 3B is
softer than 2B and pencil marked 4B is softer than 3B and so on. Beginning of a drawing
may be made with H or 2H. For lettering and dimensioning, H or HB pencils are used.
7. Compass. Compass is used for drawing circles and arcs of circles. The compass has two
legs hinged at one end. One of the legs has pointed needle fitted at the lower end
whereas the other end has provision for inserting pencil lead.
8. Drawing pins and clips. These are used to fix the drawing sheet on the drawing board.
Electronic templates include symbols for electronic and electrical design that can be
traced using a drawing pencil.
A resistor is a device with a known value of resistance. Its main function is to reduce voltage
and to limit the flow of current in a circuit. This resistance is actually the opposition that a
component or material offers to the flow of current.
Resistance may or may not be useful in circuit/s. When too much current passes through a
conductor, (solid, liquid, gas through which electrons pass easily) the resistance of the
conductor may cause it to become hot. This, in turn, can create a fire hazard or cause the
conductor to burn out. In this case, it is not desirable. In other cases, when it is placed
intentionally in the circuit, it performs its specific task.
Variable Resistor are used when it is necessary to change the amount of resistance in a circuit.
There are two common variable resistors, the potentiometer and rheostat. Generally a
potentiometer is generally has carbon resistive element while the rheostat is generally made of
resistance wire.
A potentiometer is commonly used as control device. It can be used to vary the value of
voltage applied to a certain circuit such as in the amplifier, television, and different kinds of
meter circuit.
Resistor Power Rating of resistors changes with their sizes, the bigger the resistor the greater
the wattages and the smaller the resistor the lesser the wattage. Different sizes of resistors are
shown below which are drawn to the exact proportion.
A capacitor is a device that consists essentially of two conducting surfaces separated by a
dielectric material like air, paper, mica, ceramic, glass, or Mylar. It makes it possible to store
electric energy. Electrons are detained within a capacitor. This, in effect, is stored electricity. It
is known as electrical potential or an electrostatic field. Electrostatic field hold electrons. When
the increase of electrons becomes great enough, the electrical potentials are now ready to be
discharged.
28
Characteristics of Capacitor: It can store electric charge even though the voltage source is
already disconnected. It can discharge electrical voltages.
Pictorial diagram - It shows the pictures of the actual components and wiring connections
although it does not provide the exact size of components. It shows exact shape in proportion
to the actual component or device.
Block Diagram – This form usually uses block of squares, rectangles or triangles to represent
components, group of components or units of equivalent. Block diagrams are particularly used
to represent internal components of an integrated circuit.
Schematic diagram - It shows the components used in their interconnection. Each graphic
symbol is also accompanied with a reference designation to distinguish it from other similar
symbols. It does not illustrate the physical size, shape or chassis location of the component
parts and devices.
Wiring diagram – It shows wiring connection in a simplified, easy to follow manner. It may
show either internal or external connections or both and is usually drawn as simple as possible
to trace out the connection of a circuit. The components of the circuit are identified by name or
are represented by means of pictorial illustrations that do not follow any well-defined standard
form.
Electronics Laboratory - a place where activities pertaining to electronics projects are done
Electric shock - effect on animal body on sudden discharge of electricity
Electrostatic discharge - releasing of the electrical charges produced by the human body to
ground
Gloves - covering of leather, cotton, silk, etc. for the hand usually with separated fingers.
Goggle - spectacles for protecting eyes from glare, dust, and other pollutants.
Hazard - something causing danger
Mask - covering for concealing the face
Maintenance - keeping up with an A1 operation
Occupational health - pertaining to wellness of an individual with reference to an activity or
job in an electronics lab
Personal Protective Equipment - (PPE) equipment used to protect one’s body from hazards
and danger of the electronics trades
Risk - exposure to something unpleasant
Safety practices - set of rules or procedure intended for a safe execution of a certain activity or
job in a laboratory
29
5S - five actions that start with letter S that helps in the arrangement of things in a laboratory
Systematize. Sort, Sweep, Self-discipline, Sanitize
Systematize - arrange methodically things in a laboratory
Standardize - to make things in same features or level in quality or achievement
Sort - arrange things according to kinds, types, or classification
Injury - damage or harm caused to the structure or function of the body caused by an outside
agent or force, which may be physical or chemical
Cuts - break in the skin inflicted by sharp objects
Burns - damage in the skin caused by exposure to fire or excessive heat
Fire extinguisher - an equipment of chemicals intended to terminate or extinguish fire
First Aid Kit – medicine for initial treatment of any wounds inflicted to a person
Hand Tool Design, Selection, and Setup
1. Weight - Use the lightest weight tool possible to avoid injury. Excessively heavy tools must
be equipped with mechanical support and attached hoses should be supported.
2. Balance - Additional force is required to use an unbalanced tool. The tool's center of gravity
should be close to the body, close to the handles, and in line with the center of the hand
holding the tool.
3. Torque Control - High torque requires a lot of force to keep the tool from rotating out of
your hand. Torque settings should be set to the minimum required by job specifications,
especially for in-line and pistol-shaped tools.
4. Grip - Tool handles should allow stable and efficient grip. The handle should be cylindrical
or oval in shape, with a diameter of between 1.25 and 1.75 inches. Tool handles should
contact as much of the hand and fingers as possible. Grips should be made of non-slip
compressible and non-conductive material. Avoid form-fitting handles (handles with finger
grooves), since they may not fit the hand size of every user. Handles should be kept clean
and free from slippery grease, oil, or sweat.
5. Span - On two-handled manual tools, like pliers, the open span should be about
4 inches and the closed span should only be about 1.5 inches.
6. Spring-loaded handles - A spring-loaded mechanism saves muscular effort and reduces
mechanical stress on the backs and sides of fingers for such tools as scissors, pliers, and
other manual cutting and gripping tools which have to be opened and closed repeatedly
during use.
30
7. Choose the right tool shape - Pistol-shaped tools should be used on a vertical surface or on
a horizontal surface below waist height. Bend the tool, not the wrist.
Altering is changing portion of a garment so that it fits the body.
Cutting tools is a cutting implement; a tool for cutting
Soldering iron - used in joining two or more electronic components’ terminals and connecting
wires on printed circuit board (PCB). The ideal power rating used for this purpose is 30 watts
Soldering gun- has a larger power rating, usually 100-140 watts. It is used for soldering work
requiring higher temperature like direct chassis soldering. This device is also convenient for
intermittent operation, since it heats almost instantaneously when you press the trigger
Desoldering tool- used to remove soldering lead when a component is to be removed from the
PCB where it is soldered. The soldered joint is heated by a soldering iron or a soldering gun,
and then the soldering tool pulls the molten solder out of the connection
Soldering iron stand- used to support a heated soldering iron when not in used
Paint brush- used in cleaning components mounted on printed circuit boards. It is also used in
removing dust inside and outside of electronic apparatus
Mini-drill - a tool used for drilling small holes through printed circuit boards (PCB), wood or
plastic. It consists of a chuck which is adjustable to handle drill bits from 1/32” to 1/16”
diameter. This device is supplied with 12V dc voltage from a battery or from an adapter with
12V dc output
Screwdriver - instruments designed to drive in and take out screws. The two most common
types used in the shop are the standard screwdrivers with a flat blade, and the Philip
Screwdriver with the crossed tip to fit the recesses of a Philips-head screw. Both of these types
are manufactured in various sizes and styles such as the standard, stubby, and offset. An
important rule to remember in the use of screwdrivers is to use the right size for the right
screw. Too big a size damages the slot of the screw and may even cause the screw to break.
Too small a size will dent the screwdriver and also damage the slot of Philips screws
Pliers - designed for gripping the holding small parts in electronic servicing, assembly and
troubleshooting
Side-cutting pliers - these are used mainly for gripping, bending, cutting small electronic
components’ terminal or wire. When this pliers is provided with insulated handles, it is also
called electrician’s pliers
Long-nosed pliers - these are manufactured either straight or bent. They are used for holding
very small parts and for positioning in hard-to-get-at place. They are also very useful in making
31
small loops or rings out of wires. This is sometimes called needle-nosed pliers. The bent kind is
also known as crooked-nosed pliers
Diagonal-cutting pliers- or simply diagonals are useful in cutting excess terminals of
components after soldering them in the printed circuit board
Nipper-type diagonal cutter- used for precise cutting of components’ terminal. This type of
pliers is used where accuracy is a factor in cutting the excess leads of components soldered in
the printed circuit board
DRESSMAKING AND TAILORING
Fabric is the cloth used in making garments
Measuring tools are an instruments used for obtaining quantities, dimensions or forces of real
world objects.
Sewing Machine is a textile machine used to stitch fabric, cards and other material with
thread.Sewing Tools are instruments that aid in accomplishing a sewing task
Tape Measure A flexible measuring device used in taking body measurements. The front has
the measurement of 150 centimeters and 60 inches on the other side. Fiberglass tape is
commonly used by dressmakers.
Sewing Gauge A small ruler with a sliding guide and is about six inches long. This gauge is used
for measurements at hem lines, button holes and areas where other small measurements
require checking, such as pleats and tucks. The gauge is usually made of metal or plastic.
Rulers A ruler measuring 12 inches or even 18 inches, either clear or solid. It is a useful tool to
have for measuring and drawing straight seam lines and cutting lines. It also aids in connecting
lines. A clear ruler is also a good tool for marking buttonholes.
Yardstick is made of smooth, shellacked hardwood or metal. It is used for marking hemlines
and checking grain lines when laying out the pattern.
L-square (tailor square or "L") is used to transfer measurements to the draft pattern. It also
divides the garment into the desired measurement. It has perfect squares and is useful in
making straight lines and numbers. It can also function as a tape measure. It has two arms
connected perpendicularly.
a. The longer arm is twenty-four (24) inches long.
b. The shorter arm is fourteen (14) inches long.
32
French curve is used to shape the depth of the neck hole and armhole of the pattern.
Cutting tools are instruments that serve well if properly maintained. Sharp cutting tools make
clean cuts and well-defined notches and they do not damage fabric. On the other hand, dull
tools slow the cutting process, and make your hand and wrist tire easily. Sewing cutting tools
should not be used for other household task. Cutting tools must be sharpened regularly and
the joints are oiled occasionally for better use.
Bent-handled dressmaker’s shears these are made of quality steel and hold a sharp cutting
edge. The blades move easily and cut smoothly along the entire length and the points should
come together. Shears have the length of 7- 12 inches and are satisfactory for most apparel
fabrics.
Pinking Shears this is popular in zigzagging or scalloped edge or for seam finishes. This is used
to finish seams and raw edges and to create decorative edges on many types of fabric. It cuts a
ravel-resistant edge. This is not satisfactory for straight cutting.
Trimming scissor is 3-4 inches long. It is used for trimmings, clipping threads and snipping
slashes.
Embroidery scissor has 4-5 inches finely tapered blades. Both points are sharp for use in
working with fine details in delicate fabrics and in embroidery work.
Buttonhole scissor is intended for making buttonholes.
Thread Clippers are a handy little spring loaded cutting tool that allows for the snipping of
threads. These clippers are specifically used to snip threads and they are not designed to cut
fabric.
Seam Ripper are specifically designed for ripping out stitches from seams, either as a result of
an error or during alterations. They should be used carefully to prevent damage to the fabric.
Rotary Cutter and Mat is an adaptation of the giant rotary cutter used by the garment
industry. It works like a pizza cutter and can be used by left or right-handed sewers. The rotary
cutter is available in different sizes with different blades. When using a rotary cutter, work on a
cutting mat to protect the blade and the cutting surface.
Marking tools are required for transferring pattern markings to garment fabric pieces and for
making alterations on garments.
Chalk Pencils | Dressmaker pencil is available in white or pastel shades. This chalk pencil is
used to make fine lines on fabric. It has an erasing brush at one end.
Liquid Marking Pen come in two types. There is one that washes out and one that fades after
48 hours. Those that wash out should not be used on fabric that show water marks. The mark
should be removed before pressing the fabric.
33
Tailor’s Chalk is essential as a marker for use on materials. Tailor‘s chalk is available in a range
of colors and is Removed by brushing.
Wax chalk is available in black or white and is used for woolen fabrics. Wax can be removed by
pressing.
Tracing Wheel are two types of tracing wheels, those with a serrated edge and those with a
smooth edge. The serrated edge wheel produces dots on the fabric and is suitable for most
types of fabrics. The smooth edge wheel is best for delicate fabrics and unlike the serrated
edge will not pierce more delicate fabrics. The smooth edge wheel creates a solid line.
Dressmaker’s Carbon Paper is also called dressmaker‘s tracing paper is a specially waxed
carbon paper that transfer‘s the tracing wheel‘s markings to the fabric. A color of tracing paper
should be chosen that is close to the color of the fabric.
Pincushion holds the straight pins and needles while working to prevent accidents.
Hand Needle is used in making temporary stitches and buttonholes. The sizes of 7 to 10 are for
general hand sewing.
Sewing Needle Threader aids in putting the thread to the needle. It consists of two parts. The
handle and the wire. The end of the wire that is away from the holder is folded. Place the
folded wire of the needle threader through the eye of the sewing needle.
Thimble is a small hard pitted cup worn for protection on the finger that pushes the needle in
sewing.
Fabric is the cloth used in making garments. The plain cotton fabrics, flour sack or catcha is the
most appropriate material for beginners because these are very easy to handle.
Thread is used in assembling or constructing the parts of the garment. Threads vary in sizes.
Heavy fabrics need stronger threads. Threads should have the same color with that of the
fabric used.
Types of Sewing Machines
Lockstitch Sewing Machine is usually used in homes and sometimes in school. This is also
called ― Domestic Sewing Machine‖. It is run by foot and may also be converted to electric
power machine.
Hi-Speed Lockstitch Sewing Machine is sometimes called „straight stitching machine‖ or
industrial sewing machine. It has automatic lubrication and is used by tailors and dressmakers.
Over Edging Machine. Other companies call it ― small machine‖. It finishes the raw edges of
the pattern for construction.
34
Embroidery Machine. This is used in making fancy stitches and in making different kinds of
embroidery stitches on fabrics for the Barong Tagalog, pillow cases, linen, and other novelty
items.
Button Holder Machine. This is used in making buttonholes on garments.
Button Attachment Machine. This is used in attaching buttons to the garments.
Double Needle Machine. This is used in the construction of the different kinds of clothing
especially for the inseam, out seam and side seam.
Bar tacking Machine. This is used in reinforcing the opening and closing of pockets
Two Major Parts of the Lockstitch Sewing Machine:
The two major parts of the lock stitch sewing machine are the upper and lower parts.
The Upper Parts is composed of:
a. Head is the complete sewing machine without a cabinet or stand.
b. Arm is the curve part of the head containing mechanism for operating the needle.
c. Bed is the flat portion of the machine and beneath is the feed dog where it is
mounted, and the shuttle and lower thread are placed.
Parts of the Sewing Machine in the Arm
a. Spool Pin is the thread holder.
b. Thread Guide keeps the thread in position.
c. Thread Take up Lever releases the thread and interlocks with the bobbin thread.
d. Presser bar lifter moves the presser foot.
e. Tension controls the looseness and tightness of stitches.
f. Needle Bar holds the needle in place.
g. Needle Clamp holds and tightens the needle.
h. Presser Foot holds the fabric in place while sewing.
i. Needle is a slender tool attached in the needle clamp used for sewing.
j. Bobbin Winder controls the bobbin while winding thread.
k. Stitch regulator checks the length of the stitches.
l. Balance Wheel sets the mechanism in motion.
m. Belt connects the balance wheel to the drive wheel.
n. Stop Motion Screw hinders moving when loosened and starts
Parts of Sewing Machine under the Bed
a. Feed Dog moves the fabric while sewing.
b. Throat plate is the windows of the feed dog and it is where the bobbin threads
come out.
35
c. Slide plate is a movable plate that covers the shuttle and bobbin case.
d. Shuttle holds the bobbin case while sewing.
e. Bobbin is a metal spool for winding thread.
f. Bobbin Case holds the bobbin.
The Lower Parts of the Lock Stitch Sewing Machine
a. Band Wheel leads the balance wheel through the belt connection.
b. Band Wheel Crank moves the band wheel.
c. Pitman Rod holds the treadle to band wheel crank.
d. Belt Guide holds the belt to its place.
e. Belt Shifter removes the belt from the wheel.
f. Dress Guard protects the dress from the wheel.
g. Treadle is where the feet are stationed to drive the band wheel through the pitman
rod.
h. Legs support the cabinet of the machine.
i. Cabinet holds the head of the machine by interlocking screw on the hinges.
Accuracy – the exactness of a measured distance or circumference
Calculation – the process or an act of calculating
Calculator – an electronic device used for speed computation
Conversion – a change of figures like changing from centimeters to inches and vice versa
Cost – the amount paid or charge for something that is acquired
English System – the English system has inches for its basic unit
Grain – the direction of fabric threads
Hemline – the marked line at the bottom of the garment where the hem is turned
IMC – Individual Measurement Chart
Length – the longer or longest dimension of an object to measure
Measurement – a systematic procedure of determining the quantity or extent of the entire
measurable dimension
Metric System – a decimal system of physical units based on a unit of length known as the
meter (Greek metron, ―measure)
Pattern – a piece of paper usually one-half of the body parts used as a guide in cutting the
garments
Width – measurement taken at the shortest dimension of the object to measure
Asymmetrical - having no balance or symmetry.
Balance - a state of equilibrium or parity characterized by cancellation of all forces by
36
Cacha - a kind of cotton cloth good for beginner sewer for project making.
Colorfast – do not fade easily
Design – a blueprint
Emphasis - a special attention or effort directed toward something equal opposing forces.
Harmony - means a relationship of different portion of a design
Hue – the family group name of a color
Intensity – means the brightness or dullness of a color
Primary Colors – the sources of all colors
Proportion - part considered in relation to the whole.
Proportion – is the pleasing relationship of all parts of the object with one another.
Rhythm – these are smooth movement repeated again and again
Secondary Colors – are produced when mixing two equal amount of primary colors sides of a
dividing line or plane or about a center or an axis.
Symmetry - exact correspondence of form and constituent configuration on opposite
PRINCIPLES OF DESIGN are concepts used to organize or arrange the structural elements of
design. These the ways in which these principles are applied the affects the expressive content,
or the message of the work.
Symmetrically or the formal balance - can be described as having equal "weight" on equal
sides of a centrally placed like a see saw. This is an easy way of balancing but such balance
lends monotony to the design.
Asymmetrically or the informal balance – When the structure decoration and accessories are
different both sides from the center of the design. In this design attraction both sides is created
by using different accessories.
Proportion - is the pleasing relationship of all parts of the object with one another. Proportion
refers to the relative size and scale of the various elements in a design. The issue is the
relationship between objects, or parts, of a whole.
Emphasis – every pleasing design has one part that is more interesting than any other. This is
the emphasis or the center of interest.
Rhythm – these are smooth movement repeated again and again. Rhythm is an important
principle of art. It is created by repeated use of the design. If there is rhythm in a design, the
eye would move easily from one part to the other.
Harmony - means a relationship of different portion of a design. Harmony should be achieved
through judicious use of color, shape, and texture to give a feeling of oneness.
37
COLOR THEORY: The first thing you usually notice about clothes or anything is their color.
Before you start studying which colors look best together, you should learn the meaning of
color terms and the rules that apply to colors.
The Color Wheel
Primary Colors – the sources of all colors, even though there are thousands and thousands of
colors in the world, they are all made up of these colors – red, blue and yellow.
Secondary Colors – are produced when mixing two equal amount of primary colors. If you mix
equal amount or yellow and blue you will have green, equal parts of red and blue will have
violet, and red and yellow you will have orange. Look at the color wheel you will find these
colors – orange, green and violet.
Intermediate Colors – are produced by mixing two equal amount of primary and secondary
colors. Example, if you mix equal parts of yellow (primary color) and green (secondary color)
you will have yellow-green. Noticed that yellow-green is found between yellow and green on
the color wheel. They are:
Yellow + green = yellow-green
Blue + green = blue-green
Blue + violet = blue-violet
Red + violet = red-violet
Red + violet = red-violet
Red + orange = red-orange
Blue + orange = blue-orange
Pure Colors – are the primary, secondary and intermediate colors because they have no white,
black and gray in them. Pure colors are also called ―normal, true and basic colors.
Tints – when pure colors are mixed with white, they are made lighter. Example, when white is
added to red you have pink. In other words pink is a tint of red. The whiter you add, the lighter
the pink will be. Tints are also called ―pastels.
38
Shades – when pure colors are mixed with black, they are made darker. Example, when black is
added to red you have maroon, a shade of red. The blacker you add, the darker you have.
Grayed colors – most colors we used in clothes are grayed colors rather than bright, pure
colors you see on the color wheel. Grayed colors are also referred to as ―soft colors‖ or ―dull
colors. The grayer you add, the duller the color will be.
Neutrals – are white, black and gray. They look well with another and with all other colors.
The more grayed colors becomes, the more different colors it will harmonize with.
Cool colors – are green, blue-green, blue, blue-violet, violet. Blue is the coolest color. They are
adjacent to one another in the color wheel.
Warm colors – are red, red-orange, orange, yellow-orange, and orange. Red is the warmest
color. They are also adjacent in the color wheel.
Hue – is the family group name of a color. It is the name of a color. Ones they are combined
differently and given new names.
Value – refers to the lightness or the tint or the darkness of the shade. The scale of the value
colors are from the very lightest tint to the very darkest of the shade.
Intensity – means the brightness or dullness of a color. When you refer to a color as ―bright‖
or ―very bright‖ or ―dull‖ or ―very dull‖ you are describing its intensity. Example, green
peppers are bright yellow-green, while olives are dull yellow green.
One-color harmony (monochromatic color) – the easiest color scheme to follow is one that
uses the same color in different values and intensity. Example, dark blue suit with very dark
blue accessories and a light blue blouse.
Adjacent color harmony – or analogous color harmony. Since they are near each other on the
color wheel, neighbor color harmony. Example, yellow-orange, orange, and yellow green are
next to each other on the color wheel; therefore, a pleasing adjacent color harmony may be
made from them.
Complementary Color Harmony – these are colors that are opposite in the color wheel. Using
these colors may be very pleasing.
Complementary colors – directly opposite in the color wheel. Example, red and green, blue
and orange, yellow and violet.
Split complementary colors – a variation of the complementary color scheme. In addition to
the base color, it uses the two colors adjacent to its complement.
Triad - A triadic color scheme uses colors that are evenly spaced around the color wheel.
Triadic color harmonies tend to be quite vibrant, even if you use pale or unsaturated versions
of your hues.
39
BASIC HAND STITCHES
Sewing the basic hand stitches are very easy if you learn each step thoroughly before you start
practicing the next step. Sewing by hand is a skill that most, if not all, people should probably
attempt to master at some point.
Perform Basic Maintenance
Absorbent – a material property that sucks-up or takes in the manner of sponge.
Adjust – change present setting as in adjusting tensions.
Balance wheel – the wheel at the right of the arm that sets the mechanism in motion.
Band wheel – the wheel below the upper mechanism that leads the balance wheel through the
belt connection
Band wheel crank – moves the band wheel.
40
Bent – a change of shape or angle caused by pulling or pricking to a harder part such as
machine needle driven out of throat plate slot.
Blunt – refers to an unsharp or dull needlepoint that is irreplaceable.
Damp cloth – a cloth applied with moisture on water.
Entangle – forming knots like thread entangled in the bobbin case.
Feed dog – the toothed part mounted on the throat plate that helps move the fabric against
the presser foot.
Fault – something is wrong with the machine, system, design etc., which prevents it from
working properly.
Gummy – a thick of sticky quality such as oiled accumulated dust on sewing machine part.
Jam – to cause a machine to stick fast so that it cannot work.
Lift – moving upward as in a presser foot lifter.
Lubricant – a material capable of reducing friction when applied between moving parts.
Lubricate – the act of applying a lubricating agent between moving parts to reduce friction and
preventing the form of rust.
Manipulation – the act of managing or operating manually or mechanically a given tool or
equipment.
Posture - the correct working body position for a given task.
Pucker – wrinkling of fabric caused by very tight stitches.
Replace – putting something new in the place of an old or damaged part.
Rewind – winding again or repeat winding.
Stitch length – the length of each individual stitch.
Stitch regulator – the part of a sewing machine that controls the stroke of the feed dog and
regulates the length of stitches.
Treadle – this is where the feet rest to drive the band wheel through the pitman rod.
Tension – the force that is applied by the machine on your thread.
Trend – a general tendency in the way a situation in changing or developing.
Vital – extremely important and necessary for something to succeed or exist.
Setting of Sewing Machine and Its Troubles
A treadle sewing machine works by foot action and doesn't require any electricity. If taken
care of properly, an antique treadle sewing machine can sew a better stitch than its modern
counterpart can. It takes some practice to keep your treadle machine sewing smoothly, but
once you've mastered the foot action, you can enjoy sewing and getting a little exercise at the
same time
41
Cleaning and oiling your sewing machine is basic maintenance that bits of lint, thread, dust
and even fabric can get stuck in your machine. These make work harder and can even jam your
sewing machine. Clean your machine to fix these help the machine to last longer and perform
more smoothly. If you sew regularly, problems and use sewing machine oil to help the moving
parts function smoothly. You should clean and oil your machine after finishing any large project
as well as any time you suspect it is having a problem.
Practice Occupational Safety and Health
Biological - bacteria, viruses, insects, plants, birds, animals, and humans, etc.
Chemical - depends on the physical, chemical and toxic properties of the chemical.
Environment – The circumstances or conditions that surround one
Ergonomic - repetitive movements, improper set up of workstation, etc.
Exposure – the condition of being exposed, especially to severe weather or other forces of
nature
Health - The overall condition of an organism at a given time.
Industry – a specific branch of manufacture and trade.
Injury - Damage or harm done to or suffered by a person or thing
Harmful – Causing or capable of causing harm
Obligations – The act of binding oneself by a social, legal, or moral tie
Physical - radiation, magnetic fields, pressure extremes (high pressure or vacuum), noise, etc.
Protective – giving or capable of giving protection
Psychosocial - stress, violence, etc.
Responsibility – the ability or authority to act or decide on one's own, without supervision
Safety – Freedom from danger or risk of injury
Textile - A cloth, especially one manufactured by weaving or knitting; a fabric.
Workplace - A place, such as an office or factory, where people are employed
PPE – Personal Protective Equipment
OSH – Occupational Safety and Healthy
RADHAZ - Radiation Hazard
HERP - Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Personnel
HERO - Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
HERF - Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel
ORGANIZATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH AND PROTOCOL
Hazards and risks in the textiles sector: The textiles sector contains many hazards and risks to
workers, ranging from exposure to noise and dangerous substances, to manual handling and
42
working with dangerous machinery. Each processing stage — from the production of materials
to the manufacturing, finishing, coloring and Occupational safety and health in the textiles
sector packaging —poses risks for workers, and some of these are particularly dangerous for
women‘s health.
Exposure to chemical agents: Many different groups of chemical substances are used in the
textiles sector, including dyes, solvents, optical brighteners, crease-resistance agents, flame
retardants, heavy metals, pesticides, and antimicrobial agents. They are used in dyeing,
printing, finishing, bleaching, washing, dry cleaning, weaving slashing/sizing, and spinning.
Respiratory and skin sensitizers can be found in the textiles industry, for example textiles
fibers, reactive dyes, synthetic fibers, and formal dehyde. The textile industry has been
evaluated as a sector with an increased carcinogenic risk. Several studies have showed an
increased risk of nasal, laryngeal and bladder cancer in women.
Exposure to dusts and fibers: The exposure of workers to dusts from material such as silk,
cotton, wool, flax, hemp, sisal, and jute can occur during weaving, spinning, cutting, ginning,
and packaging. Division of tasks along gender lines may mean that women are exposed to
organic dusts more than men, with respiratory diseases being diagnosed more often in women
than men. Exposure to fibers and yarns may cause nasal or bladder cancer.
Exposure to biological agents: In some activities, such as carding and willowing, workers may
be exposed to biological agents such as anthrax, clostridium tetanus (the causative agent for
tetanus), and coxiella burnetti (which causes Q fever). Exposure to biological agents can result
in allergies and respiratory disorders.
Exposure to physical agents: Workers may be exposed to noise and vibrations, for example
during weaving, spinning, sewing, twisting, and cutting. Exposure to loud noise can result in
permanent hearing damage such as noise-induced hearing loss and tinnitus. Exposure to
vibration, particularly together with risk factors for MSDs, can lead to long-term harm.
Electromagnetic fields may also be found in some workplaces in the textiles sector.
Hazard Management Is one of the most important duties required by OHS law of all workers,
including volunteers, is to keep the workplace as safe as possible. A good way to do this is to
use the 4 SAFE‘steps: Spot the hazard, assess the hazard, Fix the hazard, and evaluate the
result.
CONTINGENCY PLAN is a plan devised for an exceptional risk that, though unlikely, would have
catastrophic consequences. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or
businesses. For example, suppose many employees of a company are traveling together on an
aircraft which crashes, killing all aboard. The company could be severely strained or even
43
ruined by such a loss. Accordingly, many companies have procedures to follow in the event of
such a disaster. The plan may also include standing policies to mitigate a disaster's potential
impact, such as requiring employees to travel separately or limiting the number of employees
on any one aircraft.
DRAFTING
Assembly drawing – a drawing that shows how different parts go together
Compass – an instrument used when drawing arcs and circles
Delivery receipt – a form that shows proof or receipt of goods or services
Detailed drawing – a drawing showing a single part of a machine
Dimensioning – the process of placing measurements in a drawing in the Metric or English
system
Divider – a drawing instrument used when transferring measurements, dividing lines, arcs into
the desired number of equal parts
Drawing – a picture, diagram made of lines, a graphic representation of real thing, an idea or a
design for production or construction
Drawing pencil – one of the most important tools of a draftsman, used for drawing English
system – a system of linear measurement where it is based on standard foot
Erasing shield – used when clearing up smudges, unnecessary pencil lines
Geometrical construction – the process wherein geometric problems are solved accurately in
mechanical drawings
Mechanical drafting – a process for making accurate drawings using special drawing tools and
instruments
Metric system – a system of linear measurement which it is based on the standard meter
Orthographic drawing – the object is presented into two or more views by projecting the
outline into the planes of projection perpendicular to each other
Pictorial view – the presentation of an object where it is viewed showing the three faces of an
object are shown
Protractor – used for determining gradations of the degrees when measuring arcs and circles
Requisition form – an official form, a printed document on which a request is made
Sketch – a quickly executed freehand drawing that is not intended as a finished work
Triangular scale – a tool generally used when reproducing a drawing in an enlarged or reduced
version to some regular proportion
44
T-Square – a drawing instrument used when drawing horizontal and vertical lines
EDP System – Electronic Data Processing System
Drawing Paper – various types of drawing are available for use but hard and soft surface
drawing papers are highly recommended to be the best. This type does not groove easily when
pressure is applied to the pencil.
Oslo paper is commonly used but bond paper is also recommended.
Masking Tape – is used for fastening the drawing paper on the drawing table or drawing board
because it does not damage the board and it will not damage the paper if it is removed by
pulling off.
Pencil sharpener
Pencils should be sharpened whenever they show sign of dullness. Various types and designs
are available in the store for use.
Eraser is used to clean the dirt off the drawing. A soft eraser is advantageous in removing
smudges and pencil marks, whereas, a harder eraser is useful for making changes and
correcting errors in the drawing.
Drawing pencil is one of the most important tools in drawing. It comes in various grades. The
grade of pencil to be used depends on the quality of paper to be used. You have to take into
consideration also the type of line work required. Hard pencils – are used where extreme
accuracy is required especially working on graphs, diagrams and charts.
Medium pencils – are used for general purpose work in drawing.
Soft pencils – are too soft to be used in mechanical drafting. They are very useful for art work
of various kinds.
Triangular Scales is a tool generally used when reproducing a drawing in an enlarged or
reduced form to some regular proportion.
Architect’s scale is the most commonly used for general drawing. Its main function is to
reproduce the measurements of an object in full size, reduced size, and enlarged size.
Erasing Shield is made up of metal with irregular holes. It is a useful tool to protect the rest of
the drawing when clearing up smudges, unnecessary pencil lines and other erasures.
T-Square is a drawing instrument used when making horizontal lines. It is also used for guiding
triangles when drawing vertical lines. It is made of wood, plastic or the combination of both.
There are three (3) types of T-square, namely:
1. Fixed Head. The head is fastened to the blade. It is used for ordinary work.
2. Movable Head or Adjustable Head. It has one fixed and one adjustable head and used
only for occasional drawing.
45
3. Detachable Head or Removable Head. It is designed for comfort when carrying the Tsquare.
Triangle is a three-sided ruler, which typically has two equal sides meeting at a 90 degree angle
and to a third side at 45, 30, including 60 degree angles. It is usually made of plastic and comes
in different sizes. If in use, the base of the triangle must rest on the blade of the T-square.
Drawing a line always starts from the point near the base going upward. Commonly used
triangles are:
a. 30 degrees X 60 degrees
b. 45 degrees X 45 degrees
Compass is used when drawing arcs and circles. It is used in a similar way to a divider. It is
composed of one with the pen leg and the needle point leg being held together with a handle.
This drawing instrument can be used for both penciling and inking.
Divider is a drawing instrument used when transferring measurements, dividing lines and arcs
into the desired number of equal parts. It can easily transfer accurate measurements by
adjusting the divider points. Constant correct practice is necessary before doing an actual work
for a quick and easy control when use.
Protractor is a semi-circular instrument divided into 180 equal parts, each of which is called a
degree. It is used to determine gradations of the degrees when Protractor measuring arcs,
angles and circles. High quality protractor is usually made of plastic.
Drawing instruments are used for drawing and designing purposes. Their quality is very
essential if you want to have good result. Cheaper drawing tools and instruments do not only
provide poor quality results but also do not last long. You have to observe proper handling and
care if you want them.
INVENTORY is an idle stock of physical goods that contain economic value, and are held in
various forms by an organization in its custody awaiting packing, processing, transformation,
use or sale in a future point of time
The Inventory form contains information about items (name, number, sales and purchase
information, and cost of goods sold account information) that any business purchases for sale,
tracks in inventory, and displays on a balance sheet.
Sample Requisition Slip Form is an official paper in the form of a printed document on which a
request in made.
Sample Purchase Requisition Form. For standard materials, little information other than the
stock number may be needed and for other purchases requests, it may be necessary to give
particular descriptions, blueprints, catalog numbers, weights, standards, brand names, exact
46
quantities to order, and suggested prices. One copy remains with the originating employee,
and the original is sent to the purchasing department for execution of the request.
Sample Delivery Receipt Form shows proof or receipt of goods or services. The receiver
acknowledges receiving a consignment of goods from supplier. The buyer signs it before it is
returned to the seller. This officially takes care of uncertainties on the part of the supplier who
gets to know the safe and timely arrival of goods to their designated destination.
Angle - geometrical figure composed of two straight lines intersecting at one of their
extremities
Calculation - act or process of or result of calculating
Circle - closed curve where all points are equally distant from the center
Concentric circles - consist of two or more circles with a common center.
Decimal - number expressed in a counting system that uses units of 10, especially a decimal
fraction
Dimension - measurable extent of length, thickness and width Eccentric circles - circles having
no common center.
English system – scaled in inches where one foot equals 12 inches.
Formula - special kind of equation. It is a mathematical rule expressing the relationship of two
or more quantities by means of numerals, variables and operating symbols
Geometric shapes - characterized by straight lines, regular curves, and angles
Graduation - scale of a measuring tool
Mensuration – act of art of measuring
Metric system – system of measurement based on the meter
Perpendicular lines – lines which make a 900 angle with each other
Radius - length of a straight line connecting the center of a circle with a point on the
circumference of a circle.
Standard - measure of reference
Different Measuring Tools
T-Square is used as guide in drawing horizontal lines and in measuring up to 48” straight line.
Triangles are used for drawing vertical and oblique lines. The most commonly used triangles
are the 45 and the 30 x 60 . Illustrations below show the proper use of drawing lines and
measuring angles using the T-square and triangle.
Ruler is the most popular type of measuring tool. It is usually 6 or 12 inches in length. It is
needed for measuring sizes and distances.
47
Triangular Scale is used in general drawing. Its main purpose is to reproduce the dimension in
full size or to reduce or enlarge them on a drawing. Scales help a drafter keep the proportions
accurate.
Protractor is used for measuring and setting of angles other than those obtainable with the
triangles.
Tape or tape ruler is a concave, spring-steel blade ranging from 1/4" to 1" wide and 6 to about
300 feet in length, coiled inside a carrying case. Metric tape ruler comes in comparable widths
and lengths up to 10 meters. It provides an easy means for accurately measuring curved
surfaces.
Compass is used to draw circles, arcs, radii, and parts of many symbols.
Divider is similar to the compass in construction. As the name implies, divider is used for
dividing distances into a number of equal parts by the trial-and-error method.
Good workmanship is associated with the use of quality hand tools. Maintaining effective use
of drafting tools in the production of quality projects is the concern of every craftsman.
Two systems of measurement
There are two systems of measurement: the English system which originated in England and
the Metric system or Systems International (S.I) which originated in France.
Axonometric – method of projection in which an object is drawn with its horizontal and vertical
axes to scale but with its curved lines and diagonals distorted
Detailed drawing – drawing of a detail part usually in orthographic projection
Detail dimension – measurements of the detail part or parts of the object
Dimensioning – process of placing measurements in a drawing in the Metric or English System
Isometric axes – light lines used as bases in constructing an isometric view of an object
Isometric drawing – pictorial drawing showing the three views of the object tilted 30 degrees
in front of the observer
Multi-view drawing – drawing that shows more than one view of an object
Notation – all lettering and other dimension found in a drawing or working sketch
Oblique drawing – kind of pictorial drawing of an object one surface of which is shown parallel
to the frontal plane and the other is inclined to it
Orthographic projection – presentation of an object in two or more views by projecting the
outline of the object to the plane of projection perpendicular to each other
Overall dimension – the total width, height and depth of the object
Perspective drawing – a drawing which shows an object as it appears to our eyes
48
Pictorial view – the presentation of an object where it is viewed showing the three faces of an
object
Working plan – a freehand drawing showing all the information needed to construct an object.
ALPHABET OF LINES
Visible line – a thick line that represents the visible edges or outline of the object; also known
as the object line
Hidden line – a medium thick line composed of short dashes about 2-3 millimeters long with
space between dashes about 1-2 millimeters wide; it represents the surface or edges that
cannot be seen
Center line – a thin line consisting of two long dashes and short dash drawn alternately with a
gap of at least 2 millimeters in between; it represents the axis or center of symmetrical shapes
like a ball, washer, rectangular block, cube
Section line – a thin lines to show the surface that has been cut; they are spaced evenly at 45
degrees with the horizontal to make shaded effect
Extension line – a thin line that extends from the object in order to show dimension limits
Dimension line – a thin line with an arrowhead in one end used to indicate the measurements
of the object
Long-break line – a medium thick line consisting of broken and straight lines drawn alternately.
This is also known as the limiting line. This limits the length of an elongated object without
changing the size of its view.
Short-break line – thick line drawn in freehand to show details that a part has been cut off or
broken out.
Leader line – a short inclined thin line with an arrowhead at the end and short horizontal line
on the other end.
Phantom line – a thin line that shows position(s) of part of an object that moves drawn by two
short dashes and one long dash.
Cutting-plane line –thick lines used to indicate an imaginary cut through an object along the
line. Made up of two long dashes broken in one end with an arrowhead and two short dashes
drawn in between the long dashes.
Artist’s drawing is generally called freehand drawing that is, drawings are made without the
use of drawing instruments or straightedges. Freehand drawing is synonymous to sketching.
This technique is necessary in any area of drafting and an important skills for everyone. Skills in
freehand drawing can be achieved through constant training and correct practice.
THEORIES AND PRINCIPLES OF ORTHOGRAPHIC PROJECTION
49
Multi-view drawing – a drawing that shows more than one view of an object.
Orthographic Projection – A system for graphical representation of an object by a line drawing
on a flat surface.
Orthographic View – a drawing that shows a side of an object viewed directly from 90 degrees.
PICTORIAL DRAWING shows likeness (shape) of an object as viewed by the observer. It
represents a portion of the object and shows the method of its construction. In some
presentations, the whole object is shown in one view.
Axonometric Pictorial Drawing
Isometric drawing – a pictorial drawing showing the three surfaces of the object tilted 30
degrees in front of the observer.
Diametric drawing – the angle that is used for the horizontal planes varies according to the
angle of view that has been chosen. This type is not widely used.
Trimetric drawing - a classification of an axonometric projection where in a cube is positioned
in the way that no axes and angles are equal when projected to the plane projection.
Oblique Pictorial Drawing
Cavalier drawing – an oblique drawing in which the depth axis lines are full scale or in full size.
Cabinet oblique – depth axis lines are drawn one-half scale.
General oblique – depth axis lines vary from one-half to full size.
Perspective Pictorial Drawing
a. 1-pt. or Parallel perspective – a perspective drawing using one vanishing point, the
front view is drawn in its true shape in full or scale size.
b. 2-pt. or Angular perspective – a perspective drawing using having two vanishing points.
c. 3-pt. or Oblique perspective – a perspective drawing using three vanishing points.
Isometric drawing – a pictorial drawing showing the three surfaces of the object tilted 30
degrees in front of the observer.
Isometric lines – are lines drawn parallel to the isometric axes.
More information on Oblique Drawing
Oblique drawing – the kind of pictorial drawing of an object one surface of which is shown
parallel to the frontal plane and the other is inclined to it.
Classifications of Oblique Pictorial Drawing
Cavalier drawing – An oblique drawing in which the depth axis lines are full scale or in full size.
The receding lines are true depth – that is makes an angle of 45 degrees and 30 degrees with
the plane of projection.
50
Cabinet oblique – Depth axis lines are drawn one-half scale. When the receding line is drawn to
half – size, and the projectors makes an angle of 30, 45, 60 degrees respectively.
General oblique – Depth axis lines vary from one-half to full size. Drawn at any convenient
angle and the receding lines are drawn to full size, one-third size, one-half size, or one fourthsize.
SCALING
Proportion – a size or distance in comparison to another.
Proportion Scale – a scale for measuring distances for drawings. Marks on a proportion scale
indicate the reduced size in proportion to the full or actual scale.
Scale – a graduated measurement to allow production of a drawing to any size desired.
Commonly Used Scale
Full-Size Scale – has a ratio of 1:1. This means that 1 mm on the drawing represents 1 mm of
the actual object. The views on the drawing paper are the same size as those of the actual
object.
Reduced Scale (Scaled-down) – has a ratio of 1:2. This means that 1 mm on the drawing
represent 2 mm on the actual object. The views of the actual object are twice the size of the
views on the drawing paper.
Enlarged Scale (Scaled-up)
Scale 2:1 - This means that every 2 mm on the drawing represent 1 mm on the actual object.
The views on the drawing paper are twice the size of those of the actual object.
Scale 5:1 - This means that every 5 mm on the drawing represent 1mm on the actual object.
The views on the drawing paper are five times larger than those of the actual object.
Dimensioning
Dimensioning – placing sizes and related information on a drawing
Size dimension – gives the detail and overall sizes of the object
Location dimension – merely locates part or parts and features of the object
Aligned Method. All dimensions are placed aligned with the dimension line and be read from
either the bottom or right side of the paper.
Unidirectional Method. In the unidirectional method, all dimensions are read from the bottom
of the page as illustrated. This is a new method.
Kinds of Dimensions
Over-all dimension – every object, regardless of its shape, has three over-all dimensions. An
over-all dimension indicates the over-all width, height and depth of an object.
51
Detail dimensions – provide size or location information concerning any feature or details of an
object other than its over-all dimension.
A parts list is a list of all parts required to put an assembly together. This list itemizes important
data about each part of an assembled machine or product such as part name, material,
quantity required, and size specifications.
Ergonomic principles - a principle of handling a delicate object or task.
First aid - it implies includes all forms of remedies given immediately to humans in order to
minimize or prevent casualties or fatalities caused by accidents or normal course of time.
Hazard - particular place, thing, or situation that is a risk or danger to the person involved.
Health – overall condition of the body
Injury - damage or harm caused to the structure or function of the body caused by an outside
agent or force, which may be physical or chemical.
Quality standards - set of exact specifications to become patterns of actions.
Sanitize - maintain high standard of housekeeping.
Self-Discipline - refers to doing things spontaneously without being told or ordered.
Standard - any established measure; an accurate type; an authoritative model as an example or
comparison.
Symbols - generally common illustrations printed on the signs which sometimes carry a
descriptive word or few words.
Waste disposal - proper discharge of any solid waste into or in any hand Workplace - office,
premises or worksite where a worker is temporary or habitually assigned.
OHSC – Occupational Health and Safety Commission
OHSS - Occupational Health and Safety Standards
PPE - Personal Protective Equipment actions.
Seiri (Sorting). Take out unnecessary items and dispose. Keep only the items you need at work,
and discard or store everything else.
Seiton. "Set in order" means that there's a place for everything, and everything should be in its
place. Arrange necessary items in good order for use.
Seiso (Sweeping). At the end of each working day, take time to clean up your office space.
Clean up any mess you make.
Seiketsu (Standardizing). Maintain high standard of housekeeping
Shitsuke (Sustaining). Do things spontaneously without being told or ordered.
Mechanical Drafting requires headwork and must be done in quiet surroundings. But
sometimes they are also going outside to see the actual project site they are developing and
52
planning for. They have to think and explore other design that will fit the needs of present
technology. In this case they must be aware of using the PPE.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). Using personal protective equipment (PPE) helps to
prevent the transmission of communicable diseases between patients and health care
providers. It can also help to prevent the contamination of exposed wounds or sores from
germs or bacteria that can travel from a health care provider to the patient. Knowing how to
properly use PPE can help to insure the safety and well-being of health care providers and
emergency responders.
Engineering and administrative controls are not exempted in the different hazardous things
normally happened in the workplace, the use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) protects
workers from injury. Personal Protective Equipment must be used and worn in many work
situations in order to protect employees from harm.
COSMETOLOGY
Cosmetologist are trained and licensed to perform cosmetic treatments to the hair, skin, and
nails. This can be expanded into multiple parts including cutting and chemically treating hair,
chemical hair removal without a sharp blade, fashion trends, wigs, nails and skin care, skin and
hair analysis; relaxation techniques including head, neck, scalp, hand and feet basic massage
and aroma therapies; plus ability to expertly apply makeup applications to cover or promote
and can expand into further specialties such as reflexology; theatrical applications; cosmetics
and others as listed below. A cosmetologist is someone who is an expert in the care of hair and
makeup as well as skincare and beauty products. They can also offer other services such as
coloring, extensions, perms and straightening. Cosmetologists help their clients improve on or
acquire a certain look by applying advance trending aesthetic applications. Hair stylists often
style hair for weddings, proms, and other special events in addition to routine hair styling.
Hair colorist. A hair color specialist, aka hair colorist, specializes in the modification of natural
hair color utilizing various application methods while using a colorant product from a
professional company. In the US, some colorists are qualified through the American Board of
Certified Hair Colorists. This designation is used to recognize colorists that have a greater level
of competency in the industry through a written exam and a practical exam. A hair color
specialist’s duties might include, but are not limited to, basic color applications like covering
grey and lightening or darkening natural hair color. A color specialist also has the ability to
53
perform corrective color applications and create special effects using foiling techniques or any
other advanced color application methods
Shampoo technician. A shampoo technician shampoos and conditions a client's hair in
preparation for the hair stylist. This is generally an apprentice position and a first step for many
just out of cosmetology school.
Aesthetician are licensed professionals who are experts in maintaining and improving skin. An
aesthetician's general scope of practice is limited to the epidermis (the outer layer of skin).
Aestheticians work in many different environments such as salons, med spas, day spas, skin
care clinics, and private practices. Aestheticians may also specialize in treatments such
as microdermabrasion, micro current (also known as non-surgical "face lifts"), cosmetic
electrotherapy treatments (galvanic current, high frequency), LED (light emitting diode)
treatments, ultrasound/ultrasonic (low level), and mechanical massage (vacuum and g8
vibratory).
Chemical exposures
Toluene is a clear, water insoluble liquid with a distinct and pungent smell, similar to paint
thinners. Toluene is found in cosmetic products like nail polish, nail glue, and hair dyes and is
widely used as an industrial solvent and is used to make fingernail polishes, lacquers,
adhesives, rubber, and paint thinners. It is used in the production of benzene, gasoline, nylon,
plastics, and polyurethane. Toluene can be found on cosmetic labels under the names,
benzene, toluol, phenyl methane, and methylbenzene.
Toluene enters the environment when materials like fingernail polish, paints, paint thinners,
and adhesives are used. It rapidly mixes with the air and individuals who work with paint,
lacquer, or dyes have greater exposures to toluene via dermal and respiratory routes. Toluene
inhalation during pregnancy has led to neonatal effects, including intrauterine growth
retardation, premature delivery, congenital malformations, and postnatal developmental
retardation.
Dibutyl phthalate (DBP) is a manufactured chemical used as a plasticizer. It's used to make
plastics more flexible and can be found in paints, glue, insect repellents, hair spray, nail polish,
and rocket fuel. Due to its flexibility and film forming properties, making it an ideal ingredient
in cosmetics and cosmetology products. DBP is mainly used in nail products as a solvent for
dyes and as a plasticizer that prevents nail polishes from becoming brittle, but is also used in
hair sprays, to help avoid stiffness by allowing them to form a flexible film on the hair. When a
nail polish is applied, it dries to the nail as some of the other chemicals volatilize and DBP
remains on the nail, making the polish less brittle and apt to crack. The chemical may not only
54
be absorbed through the nail, but through the skin as well. When nail-polished hands are
washed, small amounts of DBP can leach out of the polish and come into contact with the skin.
The application of nail polish can also provide an opportunity for skin absorption.
Formaldehyde is a colorless, strong smelling liquid that is highly not volatile, making exposure
to both workers and clients potentially healthy. Both the Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA) and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) classify formaldehyde as
a human carcinogen. Formaldehyde has been linked to nasal and lung cancer, with possible
links to brain cancer and leukemia.
COOKERY
Cleaning a physical removal of visible soil and food.
Disinfectant a substance used to destroy germs and diseases
Exterminate to destroy totally
Filth anything that is dirty
Grates frames of iron bars for holding fuel while it burns
Infestation the state of being infested as with parasites or vermin
Kitchen a room especially set apart and containing the necessary utensils for cooking food
Parts per million is commonly used as a measure of small levels of pollutants in air, water,
body fluids, etc. Parts per million is the mass ratio between the pollutant component and
the solution. Usually describes the concentration of something in water or soil. One ppm is
equivalent to 1 milligram of something per liter of water (mg/l) or 1 milligram of something per
kilogram soil (mg/kg).
Pedestal a base or support
Sanitizer a chemical agent used for cleansing and sanitizing surfaces and equipment.
Sanitizing process of reducing number of harmful organisms to safe level on food contact
services.
Stack a case compose of several rows of shelves.
Materials of kitchen utensils and equipment commonly found in the kitchen.
Aluminum is the best for all-around use. It is the most popular, lightweight, attractive and less
expensive. It requires care to keep it shiny and clean. Much more, it gives even heat
distribution no matter what heat temperature you have. It is available in sheet or cast
aluminum. Since it is a soft metal, the lighter gauges will dent and scratch easily, making the
55
utensil unusable. Aluminum turns dark when used with alkalis, such as potatoes, beets, carrots
and other vegetables. Acid vegetables like tomatoes will brighten it.
Stainless Steel is the most popular material used for tools and equipment, but is more
expensive. It is easier to clean and shine and will not wear out as soon as aluminum. Choose
those with copper, aluminum or laminated steel bottoms to spread heat and keep the pot from
getting heat dark spots. Stainless steel utensils maybe bought in many gauges, from light to
heavy.
Glass is good for baking but not practical on top or surface cooking. Great care is needed to
make sure for long shelf life.
Cast Iron is sturdy but must be kept seasoned to avoid rust. Salad oil with no salt or shortening
can be rub inside and out and dry. Wash with soap (not detergent) before using.
Ceramic and heat-proof glass is used especially for baking dishes, casseroles, and measuring
cups. Glass and ceramic conduct the heat slowly and evenly. Many of these baking dishes are
decorated and can go from stove or oven to the dining table.
Teflon is a special coating applied to the inside of some aluminum or steel pots and pans. It
helps food from not sticking to the pan. It is easier to wash and clean, however, take care not
to scratch the Teflon coating with sharp instrument such as knife or fork. Use wooden or plastic
spatula to turn or mix food inside.
Plastic and Hard Rubber are used for cutting and chopping boards, table tops, bowls, trays,
garbage pails and canisters. They are much less dulling to knives than metal and more sanitary
than wood. Plastics are greatly durable and cheap but may not last long.
Cooking Utensils List That Every Kitchen Needs
1. A baster is handy for returning some of the meat or poultry juices from the pan, back to
the food. Basting brushes can be used for the same purpose, but they are also
convenient for buttering the tops of breads and baked goods after they come out of the
oven.
2. Cans, bottles, cartoons opener use to open a food tin, preferably with a smooth
operation, and comfortable grip and turning knob.
3. Colanders also called a vegetable strainer are essential for various tasks from cleaning
vegetables to straining pasta or tin contents.
4. Cutting Boards a wooden or plastic board where meats and vegetables can be cut.
5. Dredgers – used to shake flour, salt, and pepper on meat, poultry, and fish.
6. Double boiler – used when temperatures must be kept below boiling, such as for egg
sauces, puddings, and to keep foods warm without overcooking.
56
7. Emery boards/sharpening steel – used to sharpen long knives.
8. Flipper use for turning hamburgers and other food items
9. Funnels – used to fill jars, made of various sizes of stainless steel, aluminum, or of
plastic
10. Garlic Press is a kitchen tool which is specifically designed for the purpose of pulping
garlic for cooking.
11. Graters used to grate, shred, slice and separate foods such as carrots, cabbage and
cheese.
12. Handy Poultry & Roasting Tools make it easier to lift a hot roasted turkey from the
roaster to the serving platter, without it falling apart.
13. Kitchen Knives often referred to as cook's or chef's tools, knives are a must for all types
of kitchen tasks, from peeling an onion and slicing carrots, to carving a roast or turkey
14. Kitchen Shears They are practical for opening food packages, cutting tape or string to
package foods or simply to remove labels or tags from items. Other cutting tools such
as box cutters are just as handy, especially for opening packages.
15. Measuring Cups, Spoons Measuring tools are among the most important items found in
any kitchen, since consistently good cooking depends upon accurate measurements.
Measuring tools should be standardized. Measuring cups and spoons are also in the
home kitchen. Scales are used to weigh materials of bigger volumes. These are delicate
and precision instruments that must be handled carefully and are more dependable in
terms of accuracy.
16. Pasta Spoon or Server is use to transfer a little or much cooked pasta to a waiting plate,
without mess. Pasta spoons are best used with spaghetti-style or other long pasta
noodles; you can use a large slotted serving spoon for short pastas.
17. Potato Masher used for mashing cooked potatoes, turnips, carrots or other soft cooked
vegetables.
18. Rotary eggbeater – used for beating small amount of eggs or batter. The beaters should
be made up of stainless steel, and gear driven for ease in rotating
19. Scraper- a rubber or silicone tools to blend or scrape the food from the bowl; metal,
silicone or plastic egg turners or flippers
20. Seafood Serving Tools make the task of cleaning seafood and removing the shell much
easier. For cooking seafood, utensils will vary depending on what you are cooking.
21. Serving spoons- a utensil consisting of a small, shallow bowl on a handle, used in
preparing, serving, or eating food.
57
22. Serving Tongs enables you to more easily grab and transfer larger food items, poultry or
meat portions to a serving platter, to a hot skillet or deep fryer, or to a plate. It gives
you a better grip and the longer the tongs, the better especially when used with a deep
fryer, a large stock pot or at the barbecue.
23. Soup Ladle is used for serving soup or stews, but can also be used for gravy, dessert
sauces or other foods. A soup ladle also works well to remove or skim off fat from soups
and stews.
24. Spoons – solid, slotted, or perforated. Made of stainless steel or plastic, the solid ones
are used to spoon liquids over foods and to lift foods, including the liquid out of the pot
25. Temperature Scales - used to measure heat intensity. Different thermometers are used
for different purposes in food preparation – for meat, candy or deep-fat frying. Other
small thermometers are hanged or stand in ovens or refrigerators to check the accuracy
of the equipment’s thermostat.
26. Two-tine fork – used to hold meats while slicing, and to turn solid pieces of meat while
browning or cooking Made of stainless steel and with heat-proof handle.
27. Vegetable peeler used to scrape vegetables, such as carrots and potatoes and to peel
fruits. The best ones are made of stainless steel with sharp double blade that swivels.
28. Whisks for Blending, Mixing used for whipping eggs or batter, and for blending gravies,
sauces, and soups. The beaters are made of looped steel piano wires which are twisted
together to form the handle
29. Wooden spoons continue to be kitchen essentials because of their usefulness for used
for creaming, stirring, and mixing. They should be made of hard wood
There are many kinds of knives, each with a specialized use
1. Butcher knife – used to section raw meat, poultry, and fish. It can be used as a cleaver to
separate small joints or to cut bones. Butcher knives are made with heavy blade with a
saber or flat grind
2. French knife – used to chop, dice, or mince food. Heavy knives have a saber or flat grind
3. Roast beef slicer – used to slice roasts, ham, and thick, solid cuts of meats
4. Boning knife – used to fillet fish and to remove raw meat from the bone
5. Fruit and salad knife - used to prepare salad greens, vegetables, and fruits
6. Spatula – used to level off ingredients when measuring and to spread frostings and
sandwich fillings
7. Citrus knife – used to section citrus fruits. The blade has a two-sided, serrated edge
58
8. Paring knife – used to core, peel, and section fruits and vegetables. Blades are short,
concave with hollow ground.
Equipment
Refrigerators | Freezers are necessary in preventing bacterial infections from foods. Most
refrigerators have special compartment for meat, fruits and vegetables to keep the moisture
content of each type of food. Butter compartment holds butter separately to prevent food
odors from spoiling its flavor. Basically, refrigerator or freezer is an insulated box, equipped
with refrigeration unit and a control to maintain the proper inside temperature for food
storage.
Auxiliary equipment like griddles, tilting skillets, broilers/grills, steamers, coffee makers, deepfat
fryers, wok, crockery, cutting equipment (meat slicer, food choppers, grinders) mixers and
bowls, pots and pans are utilized most commonly in big food establishments, some with
specialized uses and some are optional.
Microwave Ovens have greatly increased their use in the food industry. Foods can be prepared
ahead of time, frozen or refrigerated during the slack periods, and cooked or heated quickly in
microwave ovens
Blenders are used to chop, blend, mix, whip, puree, grate, and liquefy all kinds of food. A
blender is a very useful appliance. They vary in the amount of power (voltage/wattage). Others
vary and do not do the same jobs.
CLEANING AND SANITIZING
Cleaning and sanitizing procedures must be part of the standard operating procedures that
make up your food safety program. Improperly cleaned and sanitized surfaces allow harmful
microorganisms to be transferred from one food to other foods.
Cleaning is the process of removing food and other types of soil from a surface, such as a dish,
glass, or cutting board. Cleaning is done with a cleaning agent that removes food, soil, or other
substances. The right cleaning agent must be selected because not all cleaning agents can be
used on food-contact surfaces. (A food-contact surface is the surface of equipment or utensil
that food normally comes into contact.) For example, glass cleaners, some metal cleaners, and
most bathroom cleaners cannot be used because they might leave an unsafe residue on the
food contact surface. The label should indicate if the product can be used on a food-contact
surface. The right cleaning agent must also be selected to make cleaning easy.
Cleaning agents are divided into four categories:
59
1. Detergents – Use detergents to routinely wash tableware, surfaces, and equipment.
Detergents can penetrate soil quickly and soften it. Examples include dishwashing
detergent and automatic dishwasher detergents.
2. Solvent cleaners – Use periodically on surfaces where grease has burned on. Solvent
cleaners are often called degreasers.
3. Acid cleaners -- Use periodically on mineral deposits and other soils that detergents
cannot remove. These cleaners are often used to remove scale in ware washing
machines and steam tables.
4. Abrasive cleaners -- Use these cleaners to remove heavy accumulations of soil that are
difficult to remove with detergents. Some abrasive cleaners also disinfect. Clean foodcontact
surfaces that are used to prepare potentially hazardous foods as needed
throughout the day but no less than every four hours. If they are not properly cleaned,
food that comes into contact with these surfaces could become contaminated.
Sanitizing is done using heat, radiation, or chemicals. Heat and chemicals are commonly used
as a method for sanitizing in a restaurant; radiation rarely is. The item to be sanitized must first
be washed properly before it can be properly sanitized. Some chemical sanitizers, such as
chlorine and iodine, react with food and soil and so will be less effective on a surface that has
not been properly cleaned.
Sanitizing Methods
Heat. There are three methods of using heat to sanitize surfaces – steam, hot water, and hot
air. Hot water is the most common method used in restaurants. If hot water is used in the third
compartment of a three-compartment sink, it must be at least 171oF (77oC). If a hightemperature
ware washing machine is used to sanitize cleaned dishes, the final sanitizing rinse
must be at least 180oF (82oC). For stationary rack, single temperature machines, it must be at
least 165oF (74oC). Cleaned items must be exposed to these temperatures for at least 30
seconds.
Chemicals. Chemicals that are approved sanitizers are chlorine, iodine, and quaternary
ammonium. Different factors influence the effectiveness of chemical sanitizers. The three
factors that must be considered are:
Concentration - The presence of too little sanitizer will result in an inadequate
reduction of harmful microorganisms. Too much can be toxic.
Temperature - Generally chemical sanitizers work best in water that is between
55oF (13oC) and 120oF (49oC).
60
Contact time - In order for the sanitizer to kill harmful microorganisms, the cleaned
item must be in contact with the sanitizer (either heat or approved chemical) for the
recommended length of time.
Markup is the difference between how much an item costs you, and how much you sell that
item for--it's your profit per item. Any person working in business or retail will find the skill of
being able to calculate markup percentage very valuable.
Work Centers – focused around major appliances – refrigerator-freezer, range, or sink. These
centers make possible an orderly flow of activities connected with food storage, preparation,
cooking serving, and clean-up.
Work Flow – where work is done most efficiently when it flows in a natural progression, either
from left to right or right to left.
Work Simplification – means doing the job in the easiest, simplest and quickest way.
Work Station – simply means a specific work area where a particular kind of food is produced
or a specific job is done.
Work Triangle – an imaginary line drawn from each of the three primary work stations in the
kitchen, and avoid traffic flow problems.
UNDERSTANDING THE BASIC KITCHEN LAYOUT will help take much of the mystery out of the
design process. One of the most basic layout principles is the work triangle. The work triangle is
an imaginary line drawn from each of the three primary work stations in the kitchen - the food
storage, preparation/cooking, and clean-up stations. By drawing these lines, you can assess the
distance required to move to and from each area and thus determine how well the traffic will
flow. To help avoid traffic flow problems, work triangles should have a perimeter that
measures less than 26 feet.
The three primary kitchen work stations which create the work triangle are:
1. The food storage station - Your refrigerator and pantry are the major items here.
Cabinetry like lazy susan or swing-out pantry units adds function and convenience.
Options like wine racks, spice racks, and roll-out trays help to organize your groceries.
2. The preparation/cooking station - Your range, oven, microwave, and smaller
appliances are found in this area. Counter space is important in this section. Conserve
space by moving appliances off the counter with appliance garage cabinets and spacesaving
ideas like towel rods and pot lid racks.
3. The clean-up station - Everyone's least favorite activity is one of the kitchen's most
important - clean-up. This area is home to the sink, waste disposal, and dishwasher.
61
Cabinetry for this station is designed to organize with the trash bin cabinet and roll-out
tray baskets for storage convenience.
DETERMINING YOUR KITCHEN’S LAYOUT
Since the kitchen is one of the most active work areas of the home, it is important to select the
right layout to complement your lifestyle and taste. There are five kitchen layout shapes – the
U-Shaped, L-Shaped, Island, G-Shaped, Corridor | Gallery, and Single Wall Shapes.
1. The U-Shaped Kitchen - Named for the "U" shape it resembles, this kitchen is popular in
large and small homes alike.
Perfect for families who use their kitchens a great deal
Provides plenty of counter space
Efficient work triangle
Can convert one cabinet leg into a breakfast bar
2. The L-Shaped Kitchen - This kitchen shape is one of the most flexible and most popular,
providing a compact triangle.
Very flexible layout design
Major appliances can be placed in a variety of areas
Work areas are close to each other
Can easily convert to a U-Shape with a cabinet leg addition
3. The Island Option. Islands are extremely popular in homes today and are most often
seen in L-Shaped kitchens. Islands can not only keep work areas traffic-free, but also
create a wealth of extra counter and storage space. An island can be an indispensable
food preparation station or act as a butcher block area. The island is also an ideal place
to add an extra sink or an island grill.
4. The G-Shaped Kitchen - Built very much like the U-Shaped with the addition of an
elongated partial wall, the G-Shaped kitchen offers a great deal of space.
Ideal for larger families needing extra storage space
Plenty of counter and cabinet space
Multiple cooks can function well in this layout
Can convert one cabinet leg into a breakfast bar or entertaining area
5. The Corridor/Galley Kitchen - This style kitchen makes the most out of a smaller space.
Great for smaller kitchens
Appliances are close to one another
Easy for one cook to maneuver
Can easily convert to a U-Shape by closing off one end
62
6. The Single Wall/Pullman Kitchen - Designed for homes or apartments, the single wall
kitchen offers a very open and airy feel.
Ideal for apartments and smaller homes
Works well with the open designs found in many contemporary homes
Small moveable table can provide eating space
Can be enhanced with the addition of an island
Bacteria – a simple, single celled microorganism. They food, moisture and warmth to thrive.
Electroshock - caused by touching exposed electrical wire or a piece of electrical equipment
which is not grounded properly.
Force Majure - a calamity caused by nature e.g. storm, flood, earthquake
Grounded – means that the electrical conductor is connected to the ground, which becomes
part of the electrical circuit
Hazard – a situation that could be dangerous to people in the workplace
Microorganisms – are living cells so small that they can only be seen in a microscope. They are
commonly found to contaminate food – bacteria, molds, and yeast.
Molds – also a microorganism, that has “furry” growth often found on spoiled food.
Sanitation – the science and practice of maintaining clean and healthy conditions of food
production so that the food served to customers cannot make him ill.
Toxin – a poisonous substance that makes you sick
List of unexpected kitchen hazards (and some suggestions about how to prevent them).
1. Rinsing Raw Meat and Poultry. Dean Cliver, PhD, an Institute of Food Technologists
spokesperson on food and kitchen safety, says the USDA has backed off the idea that
meat and poultry should be washed or rinsed—in fact, the organization’s website says
there’s no need to do so. ―Sometimes you may buy a chicken, and it has salmonella. If
you cook it thoroughly, it would kill it, Cliver says. ―Washing it might spread the
salmonella around.
2. A Greasy Range Hood and Filter. Captain Peggy Harrell of the Plano Fire Department in
Texas says grease that has accumulated under your range hood and on the filter is
―just the kind of thing that can start a grease fire.‖ Keep the underside of your hood
clean, and follow the manufacturer’s guidelines for changing the filter regularly.
3. Radon Gas. Radon is a radioactive gas generated in rock soil that causes lung cancer—
and sometimes collects in homes. The EPA says that radon is often found in water
(people using wells rather than municipal water systems are at a higher risk), and is
released when the water is agitated, as when washing dishes. The New York Times also
63
recently investigated radon emission from granite countertops and cited studies that
found some levels to be unsafe. The gas is not detectable by sight, smell, or taste, so
the EPA suggests testing for it. Hardware stores sell inexpensive kits you can use to
check the radon levels in your home.
4. No Fire Extinguisher. Do you have a fire extinguisher near your kitchen? Captain Harrell
says you should (she even suggests that you give extinguishers as housewarming gifts).
Look for an extinguisher that works on class A (ordinary combustibles), B (flammable
liquids), and C (electrical fires), often called a multipurpose dry chemical extinguisher.
5. Dirty Sponges. Sponges harbor disease-causing bacteria and spread those bacteria
around kitchens. A study by microbiologist Carlos Enriquez at the University of Arizona
found salmonella in about 15 percent of the sponges examined. Dean Cliver says that
research shows that microwaving sponges for about one minute sterilizes them. But, he
says, ―There’s a caveat: The sponges should be wet. It never occurred to me that
someone might microwave the sponge when it’s dry. A dry sponge can catch fire in a
microwave.
6. Carbon Monoxide (CO). CO is another invisible, odorless gas that could be hanging
around in your kitchen. The EPA says at moderate levels it causes headaches, dizziness,
nausea, and fainting—and at high levels it can be fatal. The gas is emitted anytime
combustion appliances (such as gas stoves) are used, but dangerous levels occur only
when these appliances are misused or misadjusted. To be safe, the EPA suggests that
you have your gas range and oven inspected annually by a professional; never use a gas
oven to heat your home; and never burn charcoal indoors. You can pick up CO test kits
and alarms/detectors at hardware stores.
7. Mold. The EPA says that mold exposure can cause allergies, asthma, and other
respiratory problems. Mold grows in areas where moisture accumulates, such as near
leaky plumbing (check under your kitchen sink). The organization says that waterdamaged
areas should be dried ―within 24 to 48 hours to prevent mold growth. If you
have a mold problem, the agency recommends decreasing indoor humidity by fixing
leaks, using dehumidifiers, and turning on exhaust fans whenever cooking or using the
dishwasher.
8. Overloaded Circuits. The U.S. Fire Administration says that in urban areas, faulty wiring
accounts for 33 percent of residential fires; many avoidable electrical fires are caused
by overloaded circuits. Older apartments often have few outlets, so tenants use
extension cords or power strips. But this isn’t safe, according to the FEMA
64
9. Bad Storage Habits in the Refrigerator. ―The fridge is one place we ought to be paying
attention says Dean Cliver. ―Don’t put drippy raw stuff over the salad bar. The USDA
Food Safety and Inspection Service suggests placing raw meat, seafood, and poultry in
sealed containers or plastic bags to prevent their juices from contaminating other
foods.
10. Leaving High Heat Unattended. Peggy Harrell says that the most important thing you
can to do be safe in the kitchen is to stay close when using high heat on the stovetop. If
you must answer the door or the phone, she suggests keeping a spoon or a potholder in
your hand so you have a visual reminder to get back in the kitchen.
11. Stove and Oven Hazards. Whether your stove is gas or electric, it can pose a safety risk
for every member of the household. Many people have burned their hands on a hot
stove or as a result
12. Garbage Disposals are common in many homes, and using them improperly can result
in injury.
13. Small Appliances Most kitchens house a variety of small appliances, including blenders,
mixers, crock pots, toasters, can openers, etc. Here are a few tips to keep in mind:
CARPENTRY
Bill – a statement of payment due to goods and services
Damage – a destruction, injury, or harm to a person or thing
Job – a piece of work of a definite extent or character for a set of fee
Material – a stuff upon which a thing is made
Quantity – a number, amount in size
Requisition – act of requiring something to be furnished; a written request for something
authorized but not made available automatically
Tool – a simple implement, as a hammer, saw, and spade chisel etc. used in work
Work – something made or accomplished
Lumber - sawn Timber
Nails - made of metal used for fastening woods
Cement -
a powdered substance which when mixed with water acts
as
binder of aggregate
Sand - fine gritty, substance found in the shore and desert
65
Plywood - thin cross laminated sheet of wood
Gravel - coarse aggregate
Tools:
Pull-push-rule - used for measuring long distances
Claw hammer - used for driving and pulling out nails
Cross-cut-saw - tool used for cutting across the grain
Ripsaw - used for cutting along the grain
Plumb-bob - used for vertical alignment
Try square - used to test the squareness of a stock
Hack saw - fine toothed saw used to cut metals and pipes
Level bar -
tool used in checking vertical and horizontal
position
Finishing materials – chemical or substance applied in finishing carpentry
Hardware – metal supplies used in furniture
Inventory – the accounting of tools and materials
Label – refers to the indicated name of tools and equipment
Lubricants – oils or grease which is use to help the machine to run smoothly
Mensuration – the act or art of measuring
Perimeter – the bounding line or curve of a plain area
Power tools – handy machines operated by current/electricity
Scaler – marked for use in measurement
Segregate – set aside things from the others
Standard – serves as a measure of reference
Stock – refers to a lumber for a certain carpentry job
Store – to put tools and materials in their proper places
Substrate – wood to be cut in a cutting machine
CLASSIFICATION OF HANDTOOLS
A. Measuring tools
a. Pull-Push Rule - flexible tape that slides into a material case and it is used to
measure irregular and regular shapes.
b. Ruler - 12-inch or one foot rule and it is used to take/make simple
measurements.
c. Meter Stick- used to measure a work piece.
66
d. Try Square- squaring, measuring and testing tool used to check adjacent
surfaces for squareness.
e. Calip – used to transfer measurements from the rule to the work.
B. MARKING LINING TOOLS
a. Pencil – used to layout or mark cutting lines
b. Marking Gauge – wood or metal tool consisting of a beam, head
and a point used to mark a line parallel to the grain of the wood.
c. Chalk Line – used to establish a straight line on the surface
d. Divider – tool with the two metal legs used to lay-out an arc circle
or step off division on a line.
e. Compass – used to scribe arcs and circle in a metal wood.
C. TESTING TOOLS
a. Try Square- tool used in squaring, measuring and testing the squareness of a
wood.
b. Steel Square- framing square used to mark out the work for squaring and
checking of angles and is used in the construction of roof framing and large
furniture.
c. Spirit Level- tool used for testing vertical and horizontal surfaces.
d. Plumb bob- tool used to test the vertical and horizontal surfaces.
D. EDGE CUTTING TOOLS
a. Chisel is a tool used to trim and shape wood.
b. Plane is used to obtain a smooth and flat surface.
c. Spoke shave - small plane like tool from irregularly shaped objects.
d. Cabinet scraper - rectangular piece of steel with two cutting edges used for
working flat and curved shapes.
E. TOOTH-CUTTING TOOLS
a. Cross Cut Saw - handsaw used to cut the wood across the grain.
b. Rip-saw - hand saw used to cut the wood along the grain
c. Back Saw - handsaw with a metal back and plywood and joinery.
d. Compass Saw - used to cut irregular shape either in large or small board.
e. Turning Saw - used to rip, cross and cut curves in lumber.
f. Coping Saw - u-shaped saw used for cutting irregular shape in small board.
g. Dovetail Saw - small back saw with a straight chisel type handle used to cut very
fine joints.
67
F. BORING TOOLS
a. Auger bit - tool used to make hole in woods.
b. Expansive bit - tool used to drill holes of various sizes in woods.
c. Drill Bit - tool used for boring holes either in metals, woods or plastics.
G. HOLDING TOOLS
a. C-Clamp - used for holding together pieces of lumber while working.
b. Bench Vise - used to hold any materials or tools in place.
c. Bar Clamp - used to hold large boards or frames together while assembling or
gluing.
H. MISCELLANEOUS TOOLS
a. Oil stone is used for sharpening edge cutting tools such as chisel.
b. Files is used to smoothen metal and wood surfaces.
c. Paint Brush is used to apply paint or vanish on wood surfaces.
d. Nail Set is used to drive the head of nails lower than surface of wood.
e. Saw Set is used to bend the upper half of each tooth to one side or the other to
form a set.
I. PORTABLE POWERTOOLS
a. Sander is a portable power tool used for sanding furniture pieces.
b. Router is used for shaping surfaces and edges of furniture parts.
c. Jigsaw is a power tool used primarily for cutting curved or irregular shapes of
wood surfaces
d. Circular saw - power saw used for many types of cutting, particularly on large
panel stock.
e. Electric Drill - power drill which is used to drill holes in various materials to
perform a multitude of tasks.
J. PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)
a. Goggles - used to protect the eyes against flying debris and harmful
liquids.
b. Ear Protector- used to protect the ears against high frequency noise.
c. Face Mask- used to prevent the inhalation of sprayed paint fumes.
d. Gloves is used to protect the hands while working
e. Apron is used to protect the worker against flying debris.
K. DRIVING TOOLS
a. Claw Hammer is used to drive and pull out nails on wooden surfaces.
68
b. Mallet is made out of wood or rubber used to drive other tools like chisel.
c. Nail Set is used to setting the head of finishing nail below the surface of the
wood.
d. Screw Driver is used to drive and loose crews.
Area – extent of part of a surface enclosed within a boundary
Calculation – the act or process of or result of calculating
Circumference – distance around the circle
Classification – group or category within an organized system
Decimal – number expressed in a counting system that uses units of 10, especially a decimal
fraction
Dimension – measurable extent such as length, thickness and width
Fraction – number expressed as a quotient of two other numbers
Geometric Shapes – characterized by straight line, regular curves and angles
Graduation – scale of a measuring tool
Mensuration – act or art of measuring
Perimeter – bounding line or curve of a plain area
Standard – serves as a measure of reference
Stock – refers to a lumber for a certain furniture job
Substrate – wood to be cut in a cutting machine
Volume – space inside a solid figure
TYPES OF MEASURING TOOLS
1. Pull-push rule – used for measuring long pieces of stock.
2. Zig Zag Rule – a folded measuring tool.
3. Ruler – used for measuring short pieces of stock.
4. Caliper – used for measuring diameter.
5. Try Square – used for checking flatness and squareness.
6. Meter Stick – a measuring device which is one (1) meter in length.
7. Divider – used for dividing distances.
8. Compass – used for scribing arcs and circles.
9. Protractor – used for laying out angles.
HANDLING OF MEASURING INSTRUMENTS / TOOLS
A. DO’S
1. Wipe measuring tools/instruments before returning them to the storage room.
69
2. Oil the movable parts of the measuring tools such as zigzag rules, calipers,
dividers and compasses to avoid stock-up.
3. Make sure that grits like sand do not get inside the housing or case of a pullpush
rule to avoid wearing off of the graduations.
4. Check the lock of a pull-push rule if it is working.
B. DON’T’S
1. Do not wipe off edges of the steel tape of pull-push rule with bare hands to
avoid injury.
2. Do not pull the steel tape of pull-push rule too much to avoid the coil spring
from damage.
3. Do not use the caliper as tongs.
Axis – line about which a body turns or rotates
Design – drawing showing the plan, elevations, sections, and other features.
Detail drawing – separate drawing showing a small part of a machine or structure
Dimension – definite measure shown on a drawing in detail
Isometric Drawing – drawing which resembles a respective drawing
Orthographic Projection – arrangement in a drawing of the three principal views of an object
Perspective Drawing – the representation of an object on a plan surface, pertaining to
materials, styles and finish presented as to have the same appearances as when seen from a
particular viewpoint
Projections – the cutting out of any part or any member of a structure
Reduced – made smaller than the actual size as in the size of object
Scaled Drawing – drawing plan made according to a scale, smaller than the actual work Sketch
– freehand drawing of an object
Specification –
Accident – is an event occurring unintentionally or by chance?
Control – means to direct or determine
First Aid – as it implies includes all forms of remedies given immediately to humans in order to
minimize or prevent casualties or fatalities caused by accidents or normal course of time
Hazard – involves unforeseen incident that is physically unfavorable to humans or animals
Occupation – is an activity in which one is engaged in
Safety – state of being out of danger, uninjured, not involving risk
Sanitize – to maintain high standard of housekeeping
Self-Discipline – refers to doing things spontaneously without being told or ordered
70
Signs – generally refer to objects made by flat sheet metal or wood suspended by a stand or
nailed on the post or wall which are located strategically
Sort – to take out unnecessary items and dispose the same
Sweep – means to clean the workshop
Symbols – are generally common illustrations printed on the signs which sometimes carry a
descriptive word or few words
Systematize – means to arrange necessary items in good order for use
Toxic – deadly, harmful and poisonous
BREAD AND PASTRY
Baking is the process of cooking food by indirect heat or dry heat in a confined space as in
heated oven using gas, electricity, charcoal, wood, or oil at a temperature from 250 oF- 450 oF
Batter is a flour mixture that can be stirred or poured
Convection oven is a stove in which a fan circulates heated air through the oven for fast, even
cooking.
Discard is to get rid of as of being no further use
Dough is a flour mixture that can be rolled or kneaded
Dutch oven is a brick oven
Igniter is the carborundum rod used to initiate the discharge in an ignitron tube
Microwave oven is an oven that utilizes electromagnetic energy below the magnetic spectrum
Mixing is to bring together into uniform mass
Pre-heat is to heat (an oven, for example) before hand
Sift is separating course particles in the ingredient by passing through a sieve or sifter
Baking wares are made of glass or metal containers for batter and dough with various sizes and
shapes.
Cake pans comes in different sizes and shapes and may be Round Square rectangular or heart
shaped.
Tube center pan is deeper than a round pan and with a hollow center, it is removable which is
used to bake chiffon type cakes
Muffin pan has 12 formed cups for baking muffins and cup cakes
Pop over pan is used for cooking pop over
Jelly roll pan is shallow rectangular pan used for baking rolls
Bundt pan is a round pan with scalloped sides used for baking elegant and special cakes
71
Custard cup is made of porcelain or glass used for baking individual custard
Griddle pans are used to bake griddles
Loaf Pan is used to bake loaf bread
Biscuit and doughnut cutter is used to cut and shape biscuit or doughnut.
Cutting tools include a knife and chopping board that are used to cut glazed fruit, nuts, or
other ingredients in baking.
Electric mixer is used for different baking procedure for beating, stirring and blending.
Flour sifter is used for sifting flour.
Grater is used to grate cheese, chocolate, and other fresh fruits.
Kitchen shears are used to slice rolls and delicate cakes.
Measuring cups consist of two types namely:
a. A graduated cup with fractions (1, 3/4, 2/3, ½, 1/3, ¼, 1/8) marked on each side.
b. A measuring glass made of transparent glass or plastic is more accurate for
measuring.
Measuring spoons consist of a set of measuring spoons used to measure small quantities of
ingredients.
Mixing bowl – comes in graduated sizes and has sloping sides used for mixing ingredients.
Mortar and Pestle is used to pound or ground ingredients.
Paring knife is used to pare or cut fruits and vegetables into different sizes.
Pastry bag is a funnel shaped container of icing or whipped cream
Pastry blender has a handle and with wire which I used to cut fat or shortening in the
preparation of pies, biscuits or doughnuts.
Pastry brush is used in greasing pans or surface of pastries and breads.
Pastry tip is a pointed metal or plastic tube connected to the opening of the pastry and is used
to form desired designs.
Pastry wheel has a blade knife used to cut dough when making pastries.
Rotary egg beater is used in beating eggs or whipping cream.
Rolling pin is used to flatten or roll the dough.
Rubber scrapper is used to remove bits of food in side of the bowl.
Spatula comes in different sizes; small spatula are used to remove muffins and molded cookies
from pans which is 5 to 6 inches; large spatula for icing or frosting cakes; flexible blade is used
for various purposes.
Strainer is used to strain or sift dry ingredients.
72
Timer is used to in timing baked products, the rising of yeast and to check the doneness of
cakes.
Weighing scale is used to measure ingredients in large quantities.
Utility tray is used to hold ingredients together.
Wire whisk is used to beat or whip egg whites or cream.
Wooden spoon is also called mixing spoon which comes in various sizes suitable for different
types of mixing.
Cake decorator (Cylindrical) is used in decorating or designing cake and other pastry products.
Cookie press – is used to mold and shape cookies.
Ovens are the workhorses of the bakery and pastry shop and are essential for producing the
bakery products. Ovens are enclosed spaces in which food is heated, usually by hot air. Several
kinds of ovens are used in baking.
DECK OVENS are so called because the items to be baked either on sheet pans or in the case of
some bread freestanding are placed directly on the bottom, or deck of oven. This is also called
STACK OVEN because several may be stacked on top of one another. Breads are baked directly
on the floor of the oven and not in pans. Deck oven for baking bread are equipped with steam
ejector.
RACK OVEN is a large oven into which entire racks full of sheet pans can be wheeled for baking.
MECHANICAL OVEN The food is in motion while it bakes in this type of oven. The most
common types are a revolving oven, in which his mechanism is like that of a Ferris wheel. The
mechanical action eliminates the problem of hot spots or uneven baking because the
mechanism rotates throughout the oven. Because of its size it is especially used in high volume
operations. It can also be equipped with steam ejector.
CONVECTION OVEN contains fans that circulate the air and distribute the heat rapidly
throughout the interior. Strong forced air can distort the shape of the products made with
batter and soft dough.
Dutch oven is a thick-walled (usually cast iron) cooking pot with a tight-fitting lid. Dutch ovens
have been used as cooking vessels for hundreds of years. They are called “casserole dishes” in
English speaking countries other than the USA, and cocottes in French, They are similar to both
the Japanese tetsunabe and the Sač, a traditional Balkan cast-iron oven, and are related to the
South African Potjie and the Australian Bedourie oven.
73
CLASSIFICATION OF BAKING TOOLS AND EQUIPMENT
MIXING TOOLS OVENS
Mixing Bowls Convection ovens
Wooden spoon Rotary ovens
Rubber scrapper Deck or Cabinet
Electric and handy mixer Microwave Oven
Rotary egg beater BAKING PANS
OTHER BAKING EQUIPMENT Tube center pan
Bread toaster Muffin pan
Double broiler Cake pans (round, square, rectangle, or heart
shaped)
Dutch oven Jelly roll pan
CUTTING TOOLS Bundt pan
Pastry blender Custard cup
Pastry wheel Griddle pans
Biscuit and doughnut cutter Pop over pans
Kitchen shears Macaroon molders
Paring knife Baking sheets
PREPARATORY TOOLS MEASURING TOOLS
Flour sifter Measuring cups
Grater Measuring spoons
Pastry brush Weighing scale
Spatula Measuring cups for liquid ingredients
Rolling pin Timer
Pastry cloth
Pastry tips
Utility tray
Bushel refers to any of various unit of measure of capacity
Confectioner sugar is a very fine or powdered sugar
Granulated sugar is a sugar in granular form
Lump is a firm irregular mass
Mass is an undefined quantities upon which all physical measurements are based
Ounce is a unit of weight equal to 1 /16 of a pound (28.35 grams)
74
Peck is a little – used dry measure, one quarter of a bushel for measuring grain.
Pound is a unit of measure of mass equal to 1 /16 ounce.
Shortening is a butter or fat etc. is used to make pastry or cake crispier or flakier.
Sift is to separate or strain the finer from the coarser particle of a material using a sieve or a
sifter
CONVERSION | SUBSTITUTION OF WEIGHTS AND MEASURES
1 tablespoon all-purpose flour 1/2 tablespoon cornstarch, potato starch, rice starch or
arrowroot starch
1 tablespoon cornstarch 2 tablespoon all-purpose flour
1 cup sifted cake flour 7/8 cup all-purpose flour sifted, 1cup all-purpose flour
minus 2 tablespoon
1 cup sugar granulated 1 1/3 cup brown sugar, lightly packed, 1 ½ cup corn syrup
minus ½ cup liquid, 1 cup honey minus ½ to 1/3 cup liquid
1 cup honey 1 ¼ cup sugar plus 1 /2cup liquid
1 ounce chocolate ¼ teaspoon baking soda plus ½ cup fully soured milk or
lemon juice mixed with sweet milk to make ½ cup, ¼
teaspoon baking soda plus ¼ to ½ cup molasses, ¼ cream of
tartar
1 teaspoon active dry yeast 1 package (7gram) dry yeast compressed yeast cake
1 whole egg 2 egg yolks or 3 tablespoon thawed from frozen eggs, 2 ½
tablespoon sifted dry whole eggs powder plus 21/2
tablespoon lukewarm water
1 egg yolk 1 1/3 tablespoon frozen egg yolk
1 egg white 2 tablespoon frozen egg white, 2 teaspoon dry egg yolk
powder plus 2 teaspoon water
1 square unsweetened chocolate 3 tablespoon cocoa plus 1 tablespoon fat
1 cup butter 1 cup margarine,7/8 to 1 cup hydrogenated fat plus ½
teaspoon of fat, 7/8 cup of lard plus ½ teaspoon salt
1 cup coffee cream ( 20 percent ) 3 tablespoons butter plus about 7/8 cup milk
1 cup heavy cream ( 40 percent ) 1/4 cup butter plus 3 /4 cup of milk
1 cup whole milk 1 cup reconstituted non- fat dry milk plus 2 ½ teaspoons of
butter or margarine
1 cup milk 3 tablespoon of sifted non- fat dry milk plus 1 cup water, 6
tablespoons of sifted crystals plus 1 cup water
1 cup butter milk or sour milk 1 tablespoon of vinegar or lemon juice plus enough sweet
milk to make1 cup (let stand for 5 minutes), 1 ¾ teaspoon
of cream of tartar plus1 cup of sweet milk
Contamination is the presence of minor and unwanted constituents (contaminants) in
material, physical body, natural environment, workplace, etc.
Defective means having faults, incomplete
Fragile means easily broken
Inventory is an itemized list
Microorganism is a living things that are too small and can be seen only thru a microscope
75
Storage is a space for keeping something.
Workplace refers to the office, premises or worksite where a worker is temporary or habitually
assigned. Where there is a no fixed or definite workplace, the term shall include the place
where the worker actually performs regular work, or where he regularly reports to render
service or to take an assignment.
Knives are sharp, quality knives are important in the kitchen. They cut better and are easier to
work with than dull knives. Select knives that are light, comfortable and balanced in your hand.
It is necessary to have the following knives in your kitchen:
1. Paring Knife is helpful for peeling fruits and vegetables.
2. Serrated Knife is ideal for cutting bread.
3. Chef's Knife is useful for most cutting and chopping jobs.
Cutting Boards Always keep your counter tops clean and scratch-free. It is important to have
separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables to prevent germs and cross contamination.
Cutting boards are made of many different materials from wood to plastic.
Measuring Cups/Measuring Spoons is a necessity in the kitchen and of various sizes which
come in glass, metal or plastic. An angled measuring cup is easy to read when measuring
liquids. Measuring spoons are also important for determining the correct amount of dry or wet
ingredients.
Spoons and Whisks are long-handled, wooden or plastic spoons are necessary for mixing and
stirring. Other useful spoons are slotted spoons for draining, ladles for serving soups and
gravies, and pasta spoons for keeping pasta separated. Whisks are useful tools for mixing
sauces, pancake batter, and whipping egg whites. An electric hand mixer is important for
mixing cakes and whipping potatoes.
Tongs and Spatulas are useful for many jobs including turning food and come in a variety of
sizes. Spatulas come in different materials like metal or plastic and their purpose is to slide
under food like burgers, cookies or pancakes.
Mixing Bowls are essential in every kitchen. A variety of sizes is useful for mixing ingredients
and also for serving food. These come in many colors and materials from stainless steel, to
plastic or colored glass.
Colander You need to have at least one colander for draining liquid from canned or cooked
vegetables and pasta. Use it for washing fresh fruits and vegetables. It's a good idea to select a
colander with stand, so it doesn't sit in the liquid which is draining in the sink.
Miscellaneous Tools are grater for shredding, shaving and zesting is a versatile tool to have in
the kitchen. Also, useful is a can opener, bottle opener. A potato masher and vegetable peeler
76
are always part of a well-stocked kitchen. A kitchen timer is important for timing recipes
accurately. A meat thermometer will assure the proper temperature for food safety.
Safety tools of and equipment
The safety of tools and equipment is not only the concern of the management, but of the
workers who use the equipment as well. Proper maintenance and safety of tools and
equipment are important for the following reasons:
1. Good quality of service. Modern equipment has built-in controls, thermometers and
timing and regulating devices. A breakdown of these devices may affect the quality of
the food being prepared and caused slowdown in production and service.
2. Sanitation. Mechanical function of equipment like the refrigerator and freezers
encourages the development of disease causing bacteria. Negligence of their
cleanliness leads to the growth of food-borne bacteria.
3. Fire prevention. Grease and dirt that gather in stove rims and hoods are fire hazards.
Daily inspection of grease collecting equipment will minimize the danger of fire.
4. Safety. Most food service accident happens in the kitchen. This is due to lack of
knowledge and training of food worker in the use of tools and equipment.
5. Less cost of production. Expenses will be minimized if tools and equipment are in good
condition.
TYPES AND USES OF CLEANING MATERIALS/DISINFECTANT
Disinfection does not necessarily kill all microorganisms, especially nonresistant bacterial
spores; it is less effective than sterilization, which is an extreme physical and/or chemical
process that kills all types of life.
Vinegar is a great natural cleaning product as well as a disinfectant and deodorizer. Mix a
solution of 1 part water to 1 part vinegar in a clean spray bottle and you have a solution that
will clean most areas of your kitchen. Don't worry about your kitchen smelling like vinegar. The
smell disappears when it dries. You can use it in the kitchen for cleaning the stove top,
appliances counter tops, and floor. Improperly diluted vinegar is acidic and can eat away tile
grout. Never use vinegar on marble surfaces.
Lemon juice can be used to dissolve soap scum and hard water deposits. Lemon is a great
substance to clean and shine brass and copper. Lemon juice can be mixed with vinegar and or
baking soda to make cleaning pastes. Cut a lemon in half and sprinkle baking soda on the cut
section. Use the lemon to scrub dishes, surfaces, and stains. Mix 1 cup olive oil with ½ cup
lemon juice and you have a furniture polish for your hardwood furniture.
77
Baking Soda can be used to scrub surfaces in much the same way as commercial abrasive cleansers.
Baking soda is great as a deodorizer. Place a box in the refrigerator and freezer to absorb odors. Put
it anywhere you need deodorizing action.
Bacteria-free sponge and some muscle Sponges are great scrubbers which help to disinfect your
kitchen by cleaning away the food debris that bacteria thrive on. To keep your sponges disinfected,
wet them down and place them in the microwave and heat for one minute each.
Borax this common household product is another natural cleaning powder, and like baking soda
(but stronger) acts as a kitchen disinfectant and stain remover. Borax is also used to kill mould and
mildew spores while removing their stains making it great for mopping floors.
Tea tree oil this natural, essential concentrated oil from the tea tree is a natural disinfectant which
removes mould and mildew while also working to remove build-up from dirty kitchen surfaces. It’s
completely non-poisonous and perhaps a bit more expensive than other natural cleaning products
but worthy due to the aromatic fragrance that will freshen up areas as well as clean them.
Other uses of disinfectants
1. Use a plain, liquid, vegetable-based soap or rub a sponge with bar soap. You may add a
few slices of lemon to the water to help cut grease and make dishes smell like lemon.
2. Use soap, water, and borax or sodium carbonate monohydrate (washing soda). Wash
large surfaces with a solution of one-half cup borax dissolved in one gallon of hot water.
3. Oven Cleaner If there are spills, wipe away along with any grease after each meal.
Periodically clean with baking soda and water. Remove baked grease or spills by
scrubbing with a nonmetallic metal brush using a paste made of baking soda, salt, and
water.
PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE TECHNIQUE AND PROCEDURE
Establishing a preventive maintenance program helps to ensure that all equipment and tools
function as intended. Failure to perform maintenance activities during production may increase the
risk of microbial contamination. Preventive maintenance includes periodic examination and
maintenance of tools and equipment. Saving money is one good reason in performing preventive
maintenance.
Preventive maintenance practices
Cutting Tools
1. Sharpen knives frequently including retractable knives and disinfect before use.
2. Replace knives if damaged or if they cannot otherwise be maintained in sanitary
condition.
78
3. Frequently inspect cutting blades before and during operation for damage, product
residue build up or cleaning needs.
4. Remove the blades and clean separately, and remaining parts are disassembled (if
possible) and cleaned on regular basis.
5. Store them in their designated places.
Handy Tools
1. Protect all handy tools from dirt, rust and corrosion by air drying them.
2. Wash and dry utensils with a clean dry rag before storing them.
3. Rinse tools and utensils in very hot clean water to sterilize them.
4. Have a periodic inspection and cleaning of tool.
Equipment
1. For longer and efficient use of baking equipment the following pointers will be helpful
Cleaning the Range
1. Switch off and remove the electric plug to allow the range to cool before cleaning.
2. Remove and wipe food particles, burnt sediments and grease away from top of the
range.
3. Clean the parts thoroughly particularly those that are removable. Clean the burners with
a dry brush or with a clean dry cloth.
4. Remove the grates before cleaning the entire oven. Scrape the food particles carefully.
Wash and dry the removable parts very well.
Cleaning the mixer
1. Remove the detachable parts.
2. Wash the beaters and bowls after use.
3. Wipe the parts with dry cloth thoroughly.
Airborne is carried by air
Antidote a remedy counteracting a poison
First aid is the provision of initial care for an illness or injury
Injury means damage or harm of the structure or function of the body caused by an outside force,
which may be physical or chemical
PPE – (Personal Protective Equipment) refers to devices worn by workers to protect them against
hazards in the work environment including but not limited to safety helmet, safety spectacles, face
shields etc
Occupational hazards refer to various environmental factors or stresses that can cause sickness,
impaired health
Quality standard is a set of exact specifications to become pattern of action
79
Safety means free from danger, risk or injury
Sanitation is the practice or measure to create an environment conducive to good health
Workplace refers to the office, premises or worksite where a worker is temporarily assigned
Vermin is a term applied to various animal species regarded as pests or nuisances and especially to
those associated with the carrying of disease
HAZARD AND RISKS IDENTIFICATION AND CONTROL
Hazard is a term used to describe something that has the potential to cause harm or adverse
effects to individuals, organizations property or equipment. Workplace hazards can come from a
wide range of sources. General examples include any substance, material, process, practice, etc
that has the ability to cause harm or adverse health effect to a person under certain conditions.
Types of workplace hazards include:
1. Safety hazards: Inadequate and insufficient machine guards, unsafe workplace conditions,
unsafe work practices.
2. Biological hazards: Caused by organisms such as viruses, bacteria, fungi and parasites.
3. Chemical hazards: Solid, liquid, vapor or gaseous substances, dust, fume or mist
4. Ergonomic hazards: Anatomical, physiological, and psychological demands on the worker,
such as repetitive and forceful movements, vibration, extreme temperatures, and awkward
postures arising from improper work methods and improperly designed workstations, tools,
and equipment.
5. Physical hazards: Noise, vibration, energy, weather, electricity, radiation and pressure.
6. Psychological hazards: Those that are basically causing stress to a worker. This kind of
hazard troubles an individual very much to an extent that his general well-being is affected
Risk is the chance or probability that a person will be harmed or experience an adverse health
effect caused by a hazard. It may also apply to situations with property or equipment loss. For
example: The risk of developing cancer from smoking cigarettes could be expressed as "cigarette
smokers are more likely to die of lung cancer than non-smokers”.
Factors that influence the degree of risk include:
how much a person is exposed to a hazardous thing or condition; and
how the person is exposed (e.g., breathing in a vapor, skin contact), and how severe are the
effects under the conditions of exposure.
Risk assessment. Risk assessment is the process where you:
identify hazards;
analyze or evaluate the risk associated with that hazard; and
determine appropriate ways to eliminate or control the hazard.
80
Occupational safety and health (OSH) is a cross-disciplinary area concerned with protecting the
safety, health and welfare of people engaged in work or employment. The goal of all occupational
safety and health programs is to foster a safe work environment. As a secondary effect, it may also
protect co-workers, family members, employers, customers, suppliers, nearby communities, and
other members of the public who are impacted by the workplace environment.
Safety signs are the alert signs that help in indicating various hazards ahead. These labels help in
reducing accidents at workplace and on road side. It is a process of providing information or
instructions by means of placing required signboards.
Safety Signs consist of words, messages and a pictorial symbol with variety of shapes, size and
colors. Each label color is standardized and reflects a specific meaning.
Sign colors defined:
Red color reflects immediate hazardous situations that will cause death or other serious
injuries like Danger signs and Fire symbols.
Orange Color represents a potentially unsafe situation that could cause serious injury and
indicated by warning signs.
Yellow color used to alert against unsafe practices, which if not avoided, may results in
minor or moderate injuries like Caution Signs.
Green color indicates the emergency egress location, first aids and other safety equipment.
Blue color is used to convey safety information.
OSH Standards are mandatory rules and standards set and enforced to eliminate or reduce
occupational safety and health hazards in the workplace. It aims to provide at least the minimum
acceptable degree of protection that must be afforded to every worker in relation to the working
condition and danger that may arise by reason of his occupation The provision of OSH Standards by
the State is an exercise of the police power, with the intention of promoting the welfare and wellbeing
of workers. All establishments, workplaces and other undertakings are covered, including
agricultural enterprises whether operating for profit or not, except:
residential places exclusively devoted to dwelling purposes;
those directly engaged in land, sea and air transportation, except their dry dockers, garages,
hangers and maintenance, and repair shops and offices; and
the activities of a lessee regarding the safety of the mining claim or lease, including mines
safety, mineral conservation and pollution in establishments or work places falling under
mining industry.
The Secretary of Labor and Employment, through the Regional Director or other authorized
representative enforced the OSH Standards. These are the duties of the employers and employees
in relation to enforcement and compliance with the OSH Standards in the workplace.
81
Adopt administrative policies on safety in accordance with the provisions of the Standards.
Report to the Regional Director or his/her duly authorized representative the policies
adopted and the safety organization established.
Submit report to the Regional Director or his/her duly authorized representative once in
every three months on the safety performance, safety committee meetings and its
recommendations and measures taken to implement the recommendation.
Act on recommended safety measures.
Provide access to appropriate authorities.
Duties of the employees to the supervisor.
1. Serve as member of the Health and Safety
2. Follow safety policies.
3. Report unsafe condition and practices to Safety Committee
4. Cooperate with Health and Safety Committee.
5. Assist government agencies in the conduct of safety and health inspection.
Check the guide below for some of the OSH responsibilities for the workers to ensure their
personal safety.
1. First Aid. The requirement for a first aid kit or a trained first aid person will depend on the
number of people in the workplace. Where 25 or more people are located in a workplace on
you need to train a first aid person. There is also the requirement for a first aid kit, register of
injuries book and a notice specifying who to contact in the workplace if first aid is required. A
first aid room is only required where there are 200 employees in an office workplace.
2. Ergonomics. Ergonomics is crucial in offices yet commonly overlooked. A workstation has
correct ergonomics if the alignment of the computer screen, keyboard, person and chair is in a
straight line, with no twisting of the head or body. The height of the screen, keyboard and
chair will also be important for good ergonomics. A footrest and document holder may be
required, depending on the situation.
3. Fire control. Sources of ignition and combustible materials should be separated to avoid
potential fires. Fire equipment should be available and unobstructed, with some employees
trained in its use. The complexity of your evacuation system will depend on the size of the
business, number of floors involved and number of people to be evacuated.
4. Emergency Evacuation. Have a documented evacuation procedure, which has been
communicated to all employees, and has been practiced as an evacuation drill at least once
each year. The evacuation procedure should differentiate between bomb threat and other
types of emergencies, as the procedure will vary slightly. Your office area will have a different
82
procedure to other parts of the business if you are part of a high rise office block while other
areas are in an industrial estate.
5. Electrical Hazards. All electrical cables should be periodically inspected for integrity and
replaced if damaged. The practice of 'piggy backing' double adaptors should be eliminated as
this can create a fire risk. If there are insufficient power points, a power board is a safer
option. Alternatively, you could have an electrician install more power points. Electrical
switchboards should be checked to ensure that neither combustible materials nor flammable
liquids are stored nearby.
6. Chemical Safety. You have legal obligations even if your office keeps very small quantities of
dangerous chemicals. These include addressing hazardous substances requirements in the
OSH Regulation 2001. This requires you keep a register of hazardous substances, copies of
material safety data sheets, precautions in place to prevent injury to anyone using the
chemicals, and assessing whether control measures (gloves, glasses etc.) are sufficient. All
containers must be labeled with the product name, and any hazards associated with it, for
example flammable, corrosive, poison etc.
7. Housekeeping. Untidy offices with materials placed in boxes or in piles on the floor create a
hazardous environment - not only a trip hazard, but could indicate that there is insufficient
storage space, insufficient time for storing materials, or just poor management of the work
area.
8. Temperature. Many workplaces have difficulty finding a temperature setting that all workers
find comfortable. The recommended range is 22 to 26 person's egress from the workplace, as
well as leading to injury if a person is constantly moving around a cluttered work area.
9. Manual handling. Whenever staff are required to lift, shift or move heavy items, for example
moving stationery supplies in and out of cabinets and printers/photocopiers, or moving
quantities of mail, computers, printers and other office furniture, there are manual handling
procedures that should be used to avoid injury.
The responsibilities of the employer mainly stem from legislation such as the Health and Safety at
Work etc. Act (1974) is very important in managing Health and Safety at work. These include the
Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations, Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
Regulations, Manual Handling Operations Regulations, Personal Protective Equipment at Work
Regulations, and various others.
EFFECTS OF HAZARDS IN THE WORKPLACE
The effect that occupation may have on a worker's health is dependent on the exposure (expressed
quantitatively) to relevant agents, and on host factors. Taking a history is often very important in
identifying relevant exposures and linking them to ill-health. The concept of "cumulative exposure"
83
i.e. a quantitative measure of the intensity of exposure and the duration of exposure is important,
since generally it is the main determinant of risk. Health may be harmed by occupational exposures
in many different ways, and practically any organ system can be affected. Some examples follow -
(starting with the lungs and skin, the organs of first contact for most chemical occupational
exposures).
Asthma e.g. from glutaraldehyde in health care workers, (the image shows a hospital radiographer
loading film processing chemicals, through a closed system, since emanations of sulphur dioxide or
of glutaraldehyde can cause asthmatic symptoms). Other causes of asthma may include flour, or
other agents in bakeries, or di-isocyanates in twin-pack spray painting.
Allergic alveolitis (e.g. Farmer's lung from fungal spores)
Pneumononiosis (e.g. silicosis caused by inhaling quartz)
Cancer (e.g. from asbestos inhalation)
Musculoskeletal
Tenosynovitis and similar conditions
Back pain from manual handling
Nervous and Mental
1. Peripheral neuropathy (e.g. caused by lead or n-hexane)
2. Nerve deafness induced by noise
3. Mental ill-health (e.g. caused by stress, or by chemical exposures such as mercury)
Blood/Marrow
1. Anemia (e.g. caused by lead, which may impair the synthesis of normal hemoglobin). A
plastic anemia may be caused by high exposures to benzene
2. Leukemia (a cancer of certain white blood cells) caused by benzene.
Genitourinary and Endocrine
1. Kidney damage caused by some solvent exposures, or by cadmium
2. Bladder cancer e.g. caused by beta naphthylamine, or compounds of similar structure
(generally aromatic amines, with an aromatic group in the 'para' position to the amine)
3. Infertility caused by some chemical exposures e.g. male infertility caused by DBCP
(dibromochloropropane). A range of chemicals have been implicated in the potential for
endocrine disruption and/or effects on reproduction such as phthalates, glycol ethers,
and organophosphates
Liver
1. Hepatitis (e.g. toxic from some chemicals or viral e.g. in health care workers)
84
2. Cancer (e.g. Vinyl chloride monomer causing angiosarcoma)
Stress can be associated with severe physical and/or psychological effects, such as sleep disorders;
fatigue; chronic aches and pains; depression; changes in sexual activity; conflict with family, friends,
and co-workers; weight gain or weight loss; greater susceptibility to injury; immune system
depression; and greater vulnerability to illness and disease.
CLEAN AIR ACT is the name of any of several pieces of legislation aimed at reducing smog and other
types of air pollution and less damage of the ozone layer.
Philippines: Clean Air Act outlines the government’s measures to reduce air pollution and
incorporate environmental protection into its development plans. It relies heavily on the polluter
pays principle and other market-based instruments to promote self-regulation among the
population. It sets emission standards for all motor vehicles and issues registration only upon
demonstration of compliance. It also issues pollutant limitations for industry. Polluting vehicles and
industrial processes must pay a charge. Any individual, enterprise, corporation or groups that
installed pollution control devices or retrofitted its existing facilities to comply with the emissions
standards in the Act can apply for tax incentives of accelerated depreciation, deductibility of R&D
expenditures or tax credits on the VAT of the equipment and are exempt from real property tax on
the machinery or equipment used to comply. It also establishes a R&D program for air pollution
reduction mechanisms and technologies. It bans incineration and smoking in public places. At the
local and municipal levels, governments are allowed to set emission quotas by pollution source,
and the development of recycling programs is encouraged.
The Food Processing Concept (FPC) Clean Air Act it has been developed for use in large variety of
baking and cooking processes. The system provides the perfect combination of vapor extraction
and cleaning. The FPC Clean Air Act is able to reduce vapor pollution from the emission by 80%. The
pollution from the vapor emissions is transformed into biodegradable residue, which benefits the
environment, your employees and neighbors and your profits. The unit has variable ventilators that
pulls out the vapor released in the cooking process, so that the working area can be kept free from
any irritating and greasy air.
WASTE MANAGEMENT is the collection, transport, processing or disposal, managing and
monitoring of waste materials. The term usually relates to materials produced by human activity,
and the process is generally undertaken to reduce their effect on health, the environment or
aesthetics. Waste management is a distinct practice from resource recovery which focuses on
delaying the rate of consumption of natural resources. The management of wastes treats all
materials as a single class, whether solid, liquid, gaseous or radioactive substances, and tried to
reduce the harmful environmental impacts of each through different method. Proper waste
85
management plays a very important role especially in the kitchen where foods are being prepared
and cooked.
Waste avoidance is engaging in activity that prevents generation of waste.
Waste segragation is the process of dividing garbage and waste products in an effort to reduce, re
– use and recycle materials.
Waste reduction is the minimization of wasteful consumption of goods.
Re-use is the process of recovering materials intended for some purpose without changing their
physical and chemical appearance.
Recyling is the treatment of waste materials through a process of making them suitable for
beneficial use and for other purposes.
Composting is the controlled decomposition of organic matter by microorganism mainly bacteria
and fungi into a humus like product.
Waste disposal refers to the proper discharge of any solid waste into or any land.
EVACUATION: the Contingency Plan must include an evacuation plan for facility personnel where
there is a possibility that evacuation could be necessary situations which would warrant partial or
complete evacuation. The evacuation plan must ensure the safe egress of facility personnel. The
evacuation plan must indicate a recognizable signal to start evacuation, evacuation routes, and
alternate evacuation routes (incase primary exit routes are blocked by releases of hazardous waste
or fires)
DECONTAMINATION is the process of removing or neutralizing harmful materials that have
gathered on personnel or worker and/or equipment during the response to a chemical incident.
Many stories are told of seemingly successful rescue, transport, and treatment of chemically
contaminated individuals by unsuspecting emergency personnel who in the process contaminate
themselves, the equipment, and the facilities they encounter along the way.
Using personal protective equipment and clothing (PPE)
PPE can protect you from hazards associated with jobs such as handling chemicals or working in a
noisy environment. In food preparation this is the cooking outfit which gives protection to the
worker against different hazards that may be encountered during cooking. These are the following:
Hair covering/ hairnet – prevents hair from falling into food product
Facial mask – barrier to airborne contamination during sneezing, coughing and talking
Aprons – reduce risk of contamination and help maintain cleanliness.
Gloves – reduce risks of contamination.
Pot holder – protects against burns when taking hot items on top of the stove.
86
Emergency Evacuation Drills
Fire is only one type of emergency that happens at work. Large and small workplaces alike
experience fires, explosions, medical emergencies, chemical spills, toxic releases, and a variety of
other incidents. Here are some basic drills that you should know.
Fire Drill is a practice event, where people leave a building. They are practicing what they would do
if there was a fire in the building. The event is started when a fire alarm is turned on.
ELECTRICAL
Ampere - a unit of measure of electric current
Circuit - the path of electric current from the source to the components and goes back to the
source
Kilowatt - a unit of power which is equivalent to 1000w
Conductor - a wire or a cord which provides path for current flow
Resistance - the quality of electric current measured in ohms that resist the flow of current
Hot wire - a wire through which current flows
Insulator – material used to cover electric wires which may be made from plastic, rubber, or
asbestos.
Tools - are implements used to modify raw materials for human use
Corrugated plastic conduit (CPC) - commonly known as flexible non-metallic conduit or the “mold
flex”
Metallic Conduits- metal raceways that was classified into four; rigid steel conduit (RSC),
intermediate metallic conduit or tubing (IMC or IMT), electrical metallic conduit or tubing (EMC or
EMT) and the flexible metallic conduit (FMC)
Non-metallic conduits- plastic conduits or raceways designed to be a channel of wire that are
classified as; rigid non-metallic conduit or the PVC, the flexible non-metallic or CPC, and the surface
plastic molding
Connectors and Adapters - accessories that are used to connect from boxes to conduits or
raceways to the other boxes in the electrical system
Electrical Tools and Equipment
Electrical task can be accomplished systematically to save time, effort, and resources. Most of the
work cannot be done using bare hands. To do the task, electrical tools or equipment are needed to
perform the job. This lesson will discuss the function/use of each tool or equipment used in
electrical wiring installations.
87
The following are common electrical tools and equipment needed in the installation of electrical
wiring.
SCREW DRIVERS. These tools are made of steel hardened and tempered at the tip used to loosen
or tighten screws with slotted heads. They come in various sizes and shapes.
Standard/Flat Screw Driver. The blade tip is wedge-shaped and resembles a negative (-) sign. This
is used to drive screws with a single slot head.
Philips Screw Driver. This has a cross tip resembling a positive (+) sign. This is used to drive screws
with cross slot heads.
Stubby Screw Driver. It comes in either Standard or Philips screw driver with short shank or blade
and a shorted handle used to turn screws in tight space where standard screw driver cannot be
used.
Allen Screw Driver/Wrench. This could be in the shape of a screw driver or a wrench. Its screw
driver or a wrench. Its driver or a wrench. Its function is to drive screw with hexagonal slot head.
HAMMERS. These are tools used in driving or pounding and pulling out nails. They are made of
hard steel, wood, plastic or rubber. The following are types of hammer:
a. Claw hammer
b. Mallet(rubber head)
c. Ballpeen hammer
PLIERS. These are made from metal with insulators in the handle and are used for cutting, twisting,
bending, holding, and gripping wires and cables.
a. Combination Pliers (Lineman’s Pliers). This is used for gripping, holding, and cutting
electrical wires and cables and even small nails. They are usually used by linemen in doing
heavy tasks.
b. Side Cutting Pliers. This type of pliers is used for cutting fine, medium and big wires and
cables.
c. Long Nose Pliers. This is used for cutting and holding fine wires. This can reach tight space
or small opening where other pliers cannot reach and also used in making terminal loops of
copper wires
Wire Stripper - A tool used for removing insulation of medium sized wires ranging from gauge #10
to gauge #16.
Electrician’s Knife. This is used by linemen to remove insulation of wire and cables in low and high
voltage transmission lines.
Portable Electric drill. A small drilling machine with a chuck capacity of ¼‖ to 3/8‖. It is used in
making holes on metal sheets and concrete walls.
Hacksaw. This tool is used to cut metal conduit and armored cable.
88
Electrical materials are developed and constructed for a special purpose such as to:
1. control the flow of current in an electrical circuit;
2. carry electrical current from the source to the load or current consuming apparatus;
3. hold and secure wires to its fixtures inside and outside houses and buildings; and
4. Protect the houses, buildings, appliances’ and instruments from any destruction and
damage.
Convenience outlet - a device that acts as a convenient source of electrical energy for current
consuming appliances. It is where the male plug of an appliance is inserted and usually fastened on
the wall or connected in an extension cord. It maybe single, duplex, triplex or multiplex and could
be surface type or flush type
Male plug - a device inserted to a convenience outlet to conduct electric current. A flat cord is
attached to it on one end and the other end is connected to a Male current consuming
instrument or appliance.
Lamp holders - devices that hold and protect the lamp and are also called as ― Lamp
Sockets/Receptacles‖. These come in many designs and sizes. They are classified as flush, hanging
(weather proof/chain) and surface types.
Switch - a device that connects and disconnects the flow of electric current in a circuit. There are
many shapes, designs, and types and they are classified as hanging, flush, and surface types.
Fuse - a circuit protective device that automatically blows and cut the current when and
over load or short circuit happens.
Circuit Breaker - a protective device used to automatically blow and cuts the current when trouble
in the circuit such as short circuit or overload occurs.
Junction Box - an octagonal shaped electrical material where the connections or joints of wires
are being done. It is also where the flush type lamp holder is attached. This could be made of
metal or plastic (PVC) Polyvinylchloride.
Utility Box - a rectangular shaped metallic or plastic (PVC) material in which flush type convenience
outlet and switch are attached.
Flat Cord - Is a duplex stranded wire used for temporary wiring installation and commonly used in
extension cord assembly. It comes in a roll of 150 meters and with sizes of gauge # 18 and gauge #
16 awg (American wire gauge) material that could be:
a. Stranded wire which is made of multiple strands joined together to make a single wire
b. Solid wire is made of a single strand of copper or aluminum wire. These are used in wiring
installation inside and outside the buildings.
89
Conduits/Pipes- electrical materials used as the passage of wires for protection and insulation.
These could be rigid metallic, flexible metallic conduit (FMC), rigid non - metallic (PVC), and flexible
non-metallic or corrugated plastic conduit (CPC)
Clamps - electrical materials used to hold and anchor electrical conduits in its proper position.
Connectors - used to attach metallic or non-metallic conduit to the junction or utility Metal
connector Flexible non boxes.
Common Wire Splices and Joint
Rat Tail or Pig Tail is commonly used to join two or more conductors inside the junction box.
Y – Splice is generally used on small cables because the strands are flexible and all can be wrapped
in one operation.
Knotted Tap is used where the tap wire is under heavy tensile stress.
Plain Tap Joint is used where the tap wire is under considerable tensile stress circuit.
Aerial Tap is used as a temporary tap usually done in constructions sites. The easy twist will
facilitate tap wire movement
Duplex Cross joint is a two tap wire turned simultaneously and is used where the two tap wire is
under heavy tensile stress
Western Union Short Tie Splice is the most widely used splice or joint in interior wiring installation
to extend the length or wire from one point to another.
Western Union Long Tie is used extensively for outside wiring to extend the length of wire from
one end to another.
Cross Joint is done as in plain tap and the only difference is that this tap is a combination of two
plain taps place side by side with each other.
Wrapped Tap or Tee Joint is used on large solid conductors where it is difficult to wrap the heavy
tap wire around the main wire.
EXTENSION CORD is a span of flexible electrical power cable with a plug on one end and multiple
sockets on the other end. It comes in several varieties to suit the needs of the user. One of the
most important considerations is the power handling capacity to make it safe and functional.
Electrical gadgets are product of modern technology to make our life better. The number of
electrical gadgets available at home and in offices may exceed the existing convenience outlet
installed in every room. The best remedy to address the insufficiency of available outlet is to use an
extension cord especially if the electrical gadgets need to operate at the same time.
PROJECT PLAN IN MAKING AN EXTENSION CORD
90
A project plan is necessary before undertaking any project because it serves as your guide in
accomplishing an activity. It will give you an idea what needs to be done, how much to spend and
what procedures to undertake.
RECEIVING AND INSPECTING FREIGHT SHIPMENTS
One of the tasks of a supply officer or logistics officer is the purchase of the company’s supplies,
materials and anything that the company needs. But his duty does not end in just purchasing but
also in receiving the deliveries of what he purchased. In receiving the deliveries, understand that
you need to ensure that the right materials and supplies were delivered and all in good condition
without defects.
When you receive a shipment, ask the shipper the following questions:
Is it for me? Check the delivery receipt for the consignee's name and address. If your
agency has more than one location, make sure the goods are for this exact address.
Check the freight to see if it is the same as described on the delivery receipt. Look at the
label on each item to make sure the shipment belongs to you.
Is it damaged? Do not sign the receipt before inspecting for damage. Check for holes,
water, stains, and tears. Pick up cartons if you can. Check for rattling. Listen for
something broken inside. Check to see if any package has been opened or if the sealing
tape has been tampered with.
Is the piece count correct? Count the pieces and match the number on the delivery
receipt to the number you have counted. If the shipment is on a pallet, check to make
sure the pallet is solid with no voids inside the stack. If the shipment is shrink or stretch
wrapped, make sure the wrap hasn't been cut and pieces removed. Sign only for the
type of unit you receive. For example: two pallets. Don't sign for the number of
packages that are supposed to be on the pallet. However, if time permits or the pallet is
not banded or shrink wrapped, count the packages, and only then sign for the number
of packages.
C. If your delivery doesn't check out, do one of the following:
1. Refuse shipment if it isn't yours, if the shipment does not meet the terms specified by your
agency, or is damaged to the point where it no longer has a value.
2. If yours, and only partially damaged or short, accept it and note exceptions on the delivery
receipt.
D. How to note exceptions:
91
1. Damage Notations: Be specific. Describe the damage accurately. Pinpoint the locations of
all defects. If you can see the damage, have the driver wait while you open and inspect the
packages. Write down the number and identity of the damaged pieces. This is called a "joint
inventory."
2. Shortage Notations: If part of shipment is missing, write the number of pieces actually
delivered on the delivery receipt and circle it. Then write down the number of pieces
missing and note them as "short."
3. Signatures: Write down all exceptions on both copies of the delivery receipt. Have the
driver sign both copies of the delivery receipt in his full name (not initials or nicknames).
After the driver signs, you sign also. Write your agency's name, your full name, the date, and
the time of day.
E. Follow these steps when requesting an inspection:
1. The receiving person is responsible for requesting the carrier to inspect the damaged goods
and packaging. The formal request should be made by phone right after discovering any loss
or damage.
2. After the phone request, make a request for inspection by the carrier in writing. Note the
date and time of your previous phone call and the person contacted. Keep a copy of your
request letter on file.
3. Once contacted about damage or shortage, the carrier may waive inspection and tell you so.
If so, write down the name of the person who waived the inspection, and the date and time
of waiver. Then conduct your own detailed inspection. Write up your findings in a report
and attach it to the file. If you can, take photographs to confirm your inspection report.
Amperage (Amps) - a unit of measurement of electrical current flow
Ampere - a unit of measurement which describes the amount of electric current passing a certain
point at a particular time
Centimeter - hundredth of a meter
Inch - a portion of a foot, which is an English unit of linear measurement
Megger - an instrument used to measure the insulation resistance of conductors or wire. It gives
measurement in ohms or meg-ohms
Millimeter - one-thousandth of a meter
Multi-tester - an electrical measuring instrument used to measure the voltage, the resistance or
the current of a circuit. It is connected either through parallel or series with the circuit depending
on what to measure
Ohm - the unit of measurement used to express resistance
Ohmmeter - an instrument used to measure resistance in ohms
92
Volt - a unit of measurement of electrical pressure or voltage
Voltmeter - an instrument specially designed for measuring voltage
Wire Gauge - used to measure the diameter of magnetic wire
MEASURING TOOLS AND INSTRUMENTS
Measurement is the process or the result of determining the ratio of a physical quantity, such as a
length, time, temperature, etc., to a unit of measurement, such as the meter, second or degree
Celsius. The science of measurement is called metrology.
The English word measurement originates from the Latin mēnsūra and the verbmetiri through the
Middle French measure.
Electrical measuring tools and instruments are sensitive and delicate so extra care is necessary in
handling them. These are used to measure currents, voltages, resistances, wattages and other
important elements in electrical works. This topic, will tackle the function/use of each measuring
tool and instrument used in doing an electrical task. Different kinds of measuring tools and
precision measuring instruments are as follows:
Test Light is a pocket size tool used to test the line wire or circuit if there is current in it.
Micrometer is used to measure the diameter of wires/conductors in circular mils. It can measure
small and big sizes of wires and cables.
Wire Gauge is used in determining the size of wires/conductors. The gauge ranges from 0 to 60
awg (American wire gauge).
Ruler/foot rule is a measuring tool used to measure length, width and thickness of short flat object
and in sketching straight lines
Pull-Push Rule is a measuring tool used to measure the length of an object in centimeter and
inches
Ammeter is an instrument used to measure the amount of electrical current intensity in a circuit.
The unit of measure is ampere (a). It is connected along or series to the circuit.
Voltmeter is an instrument used to measure electrical pressure or voltage of a circuit. The unit of
measure is volt (v). This is connected across or parallel to the circuit.
Clamp Ammeter is also called tong-tester. It is used to measure current flowing in a conductor. It is
clamped or hanged in a conductor
Volt-Ohmmeter (VOM) otherwise called as Multi-tester; is used to measure the voltage, resistance
and current of a circuit. It is connected in parallel or series with the circuit depending on what to
measure
SYSTEM OF MEASUREMENT
93
A system of measurement is a set of units which can be used to specify anything can be measured.
These are common units of measurement used in making layout and installation of electrical
materials:
a. Linear measures
b. English system provides the creative way on how people can measure by themselves. For
example, people measure shorter distance on the ground with their feet. They measure
long distances by their palms which is equal to a yard.
Inch
Yard
Miles
c. Metric system is a decimalized system of measurement. It exists in several variations with
different choices of base units. Metric units are widely used around the world for personal,
commercial and scientific purpose.
Millimeter
Centimeter
Decimeter
Meter
d. English units and each equivalent
12 inches = foot(ft)
1 foot = 3yard (yd)
1 yard = 36 nches
e. English to metric equivalent
a. 1 inch = 2.54 cm
b. 1 foot = 30.48 cm
c. 1 yard = 91.44 cm
f. The centimeter graduation
g. The inch graduation
THE MULTITESTER
The Multitester or multimeter is sometimes called the VOM (voltmeter, ohmmeter, milliammeter).
It is the best instrument that can measure voltage, resistance and current. It is generally made of
two types: the analog and the digital.
PARTS OF A MULTI TESTER
POINTER. The needle-shaped rod that moves over the scale of a meter.
94
Pointer It is mechanically connected to the moving coil. It indicates the measured values on the
multimeter
RANGE SELECTOR KNOB (Selector switch) makes it possible to select different functions and range
of the meter.
Adjustment screw makes it possible to adjust the pointer to the zero position of the scale.
Test probe positive (red), negative (black) is used to connect the circuit to the electrical
components being tested
Zero-ohm Adjusting Knob is used to zero-in the pointer before measuring resistance.
Ampere (I) - the unit of electrical current (coulombs per second)
Caution - indicates some precautionary measures against potential hazardous situation which, if
not avoided, may result to a minor or moderate injury
Danger - specifies hazardous situation which, if not avoided, will result to a serious injury or even
death
Isometric - a kind of drawing which shows the object in 3 dimensional views
Joule (J) - a metric unit of energy: watt per second. 1 Kw hr. = 2,655,000 ft-lb = 1.341 hp-hr = 3413
Btu = 3,600,000 joules
Kilovolt-ampere (KVA) - a measurement of apparent electric power
Kilowatt hour (Kwhr) - a unit of electrical energy or work performed
Ohm - the unit of electrical resistance (volts/ampere)
Orthographic - a drawing which shows the front top and side view of the object
Volt (E) - the unit of electric pressure or electromotive force which will produce a current of 1
ampere through a resistance of 1 ohm
Watts (W) and kilowatts (KW) - are units of electric power
COMMON ELECTRICAL SYMBOLS
Electrical Symbols are small drawings or pictograms used to represent various electrical devices in
a diagram or plan of an electrical circuit. These symbols are used in sketching schematic diagrams
and electrical plans for numerous types of electrical works. Practically any electrical fixture found in
a house has a symbol that coincides to said fixture on an electrical wiring diagram. These are very
useful guide for an electrician or electrical contractor, thus, making the wiring easier to install as
well. The following are common electrical symbols used in sketching wiring plan and diagram.
ELECTRICAL WIRING DIAGRAM
A. Pictorial diagram is a sketch of electrical circuit that shows the external appearance of each
component. It is much like a photograph of the circuit and uses simple images of parts.
95
B. Schematic diagram is a sketch showing the components of the circuit using standard
electrical symbols. It shows the actual number of components and how the wiring is routed but not
the actual location.
Types of Circuit
Series Circuit is a circuit in which lamps are arranged in a chain, so that the current has
only one path to take. The current is the same through each load. Example of this is the
Christmas lights. It consists of a number of bulbs that are connected side by side to meet
the voltage requirement which is 220 volts for alternating current.
Parallel Circuit is a circuit in which lamps are connected across the wires. The voltage
across each load on parallel circuit is the same. The advantage of using parallel circuit is
that even if one of the lamps fails, still the remaining lamps will function.
ELECTRICAL PLAN
Electrical plan is a graphical presentation of electrical wiring connections to install in a particular
house or building. It indicates the position of electrical fixtures such as convenience outlets,
switches, lightings, door bells, and others to be installed.
5S - Sort, Systematize, Sweep, Sanitize, and Self-Discipline
Functional tools and equipment - those that are in good condition and can perform its regular
functions
Lubricant - a substance introduced to lessen friction between moving surfaces; also functions to
transport external particle
Lubrication additives - many of the physical properties of various oils and greases
Non-functional tools and equipment - those that are not able to perform its regular function
because of impaired and damage part
Nonpolar solvents - solvents which do not dissolve/are insoluble in water
Pneumatic tool - instrument activated by air pressure
Polar solvents - solvents which dissolve/are soluble in water
Solvent - a component of a solution that dissolves solute and is usually present in large proportion
or amount
Sorting - to sort everything in a work area
Classification of Tools and Equipment
A tool is a device that can be used to produce an item or accomplish a task, but that is not
consumed in the process. It can be considered as extension of the human hand thus increasing
speed, power, and accuracy and on the other hands equipment includes any machine powered by
electricity.
96
1. Hand tools are tools manipulated by hands without using electrical energy such as: puller,
hacksaw, pull-push rule, pliers, hammer, and others.
2. Machine/Power tools are tools manipulated by our hands and with the use of electrical
energy such as: electric drill, grinding wheels, vacuum cleaner and others.
3. Pneumatic tools are tools or instruments activated by air pressure. Pneumatic tools are
designed around three basic devices: the air cylinder, the vane motor, and the sprayer.
Hand tools
They include screwdrivers, hammers, pliers, wrenches and pullers.
1. Screwdrivers are used to drive, or turn screws. The common type has a single flat blade for
driving screws with slotted heads. The other type has the cross slotted head
2. Hammers are mostly used tools in the shop. They should be gripped at the end of the
handle.
3. Pliers are specified types of adjustable wrenches. The two legs move on a pivot so that
items of various sizes can be gripped.
4. Wrenches are used to turn screws, nuts and bolts with hexagonal heads. ―Hexagonal‖
means six-sided. A variety of wrenches are used in the shop.
5. Pullers are used to remove gears and hubs from shafts, bushings from blind holes, and
cylinders’ liners from the engine blocks.
Machine | Power Tools
1. Electric drill has an electric motor that drives a chuck. The chuck has jaws that can be
opened and then closed to grip a drill kit.
2. Grinding tool can be either bench-mounted or installed on a pedestal. They may either have
a grinding wheel, view wheel, or two grinding wheels.
3. Vacuum cleaner is used for cleaning the floor and car interiors after service.
Pneumatic tools
1. Pneumatic Torque Wrench. This wrench uses compressed air to quickly and powerfully turn
nuts, bolts, and other objects.
2. Air chisel uses reciprocating motion to drive a cutting hammering tool. An air hammer
drives a chisel to cut off a nut that has frozen to a stud. It can be used with a variety of
tools-cutters and punches to do many jobs.
3. Air drill is lighter than a comparable electric drill. Repeatedly stalling or overloading does
not damage or overheat the air drill.
4. Air racket uses the sockets and attachments from a standard socket set.
97
5. Pneumatic floor jack uses compressed air to flow into the jack cylinder and causes the ram
to extend and raise the vehicle.
Basic Maintenance of Electrical Tools and Equipment
To ensure that your electric tools work when you need them, you must take proper care of them. A
good routine of maintenance for your tools is one thing that you can do to make sure that the tool
you need is working when you need it.
1. Clean out the Dust. To make sure that your electric tools are ready to go when you are,
keep them clean and free of dust. Spend some time to clean out the dust every once in a
while on your tools while they are inactive in storage.
2. Check the Cords. Look for tear/cut insulator on the power cords on your electric tools. This
will ensure that your electric tool can get the power that it needs to function without an
accident.
3. Use the right tool correctly. Use tools correctly and for their intended purposes. Follow the
safety directions and operating procedures recommended by the manufacturer. When
working on a circuit, use approved tools with insulated handles.
4. Protect your Tools. Keep tools and cords away from heat, oil, and sharp objects. These
hazards can damage insulation. If a tool or cord heats up, stop using it. Report the condition
to a supervisor or instructor immediately.
5. Use double-insulated tools - Portable electrical tools are classified by the number of
insulation barriers between the electrical conductors in the tool and the worker.
6. Storing Your Tools- Keep your electric tools stored in their original cases and containers. This
will keep them free of dust and dirt while they are not being used.
Classification of non-functional and functional tools
Tools are very useful to us in our homes especially to our job. But tools that are no longer
functional may cause harm.
A. Make an inventory of functional and non-functional tools in your shop.
B. Classify your tools according to is function.
Method of identifying non-functional tools and equipment
1. Visual inspection. It refers to the visual observation of an expert on the appearance of the
tools and equipment.
2. Functionality. Vibration or extra noise from the operation means problems on parts and
accessories started to develop.
3. Performance. When there is something wrong with the performance of either hand tools
or equipment they need an immediate repair or maintenance.
98
4. Power supply (for electrically operated only). Failure to meet the required power supply,
malfunction will occurs in the part of hand tools or equipment.
5. Person’s involved. It refers to the technical person who has the knowledge and skills
about the technology.
Classifications of tools and equipment according to their uses:
1. Measuring tools
2. Holding tools
3. Cutting tools
4. Driving tools
5. Boring tools
6. Electrical equipment
7. Miscellaneous tools/instrument/equipment
Non-functional tools and equipment are those that are not able to perform its regular function
because of impaired and damage part. Examples of these are the following:
Functional tools and equipment are those that are in good condition and can perform its regular
functions.
Solvent is a component of a solution that dissolves solute and is usually present in large proportion
or amount. It can be classified as polar and nonpolar. Polar solvents are solvents which
dissolve/are soluble in water; while nonpolar solvents are solvents which do not dissolve/are
insoluble in water.
5’S is a reference to a list of five Japanese words translated into English. This is an approached of
organizing and managing the workplace and work flow with the intent to improve efficiency by
eliminating wastes, improving flow of production, reducing process delays.
Ampere - unit of measurement for electric current
Circuit - the path of electric current
Conductor - a wire or a cord which provides path for current flow
Connectors and Adapters - accessories that are used to connect from boxes to conduits or
raceways to the other boxes in the electrical system
Corrugated plastic conduit (CPC) - commonly known as flexible non-metallic conduit or the “mold
flex”.
Hot wire - a wire through which current flows
Insulator - a plastic, rubber, or asbestos material used to cover electric wires
99
Kilowatt - a unit of power
Metallic Conduits - metal raceways that was classified into four; rigid steel conduit (RSC);
intermediate metallic conduit or tubing (IMC or IMT); electrical metallic conduit or tubing (EMC or
EMT); and the flexible metallic conduit (FMC)
Non-metallic conduits - plastic conduits or raceways designed to be a channel of wire that are
classified as; rigid non-metallic conduit or the PVC, the flexible non-metallic or CPC, and the surface
plastic molding
Philippine Electrical Code (PEC) - the governing rules and regulations that ensure safety and firefree
environment
Resistance - the quality of electric current measured in ohms.
Threshold limit value (TLV) - a level to which it is believed a worker can be exposed day after day
for a working lifetime without adverse health effects.
OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration
PPE - Personal Protective Equipment
AUTOMOTIVE
Adjusting - an activity or task done to arrange parts in relation to position or regulate a clearance in
relation to accuracy
Air cleaner – a paper or cellulose element that filters the air before entering the engine
Assembling - an activity or task of putting together of parts or mechanism in correct and complete
position
Bolt - a round rod metal with external threads. The external thread can be screwed in an internally
threaded stock or nut. It usually has square or hexagonal head where wrench a can be inserted to
loosen and tighten
Checking - a process of verifying and confirming the condition of parts by observation or
inspection
Fault - a condition of flaw or imperfection
Hand tools - a portable devices that are guided and operated by hands
Hose - a flexible and heat resistant rubber that serves as a passage of coolant in the cooling system
Inspection - examining or looking closely as a course of action
Loosen - release from tightness or free from restraint
Major task - a work which is reasonably great in scope
100
Malfunction - a condition where a part or system does not function normally
Measuring - an activity or task of getting the amount, size or quantity of a certain thing or
stock/parts
Nuts - a usually square or hexagonal shape block of metal with internal threaded hole where an
externally threaded bolt can be screwed
Overhauling - a process of examining and repairing of condition if necessary
Principle - a fundamental truth or law as the basis of reasoning or action
Repairing - restoring a faulty condition after damage or wear
Safety - freedom from danger or risk
Standard procedure - an established, prescribed way of doing a task or series of action
Technique - a method of skillful manipulation of activity for efficient and time saving task
Testing - a process of determining the working condition of a system or mechanism
Tighten - to give additional twisting force to make it tighter
Tune-up - an orderly process of inspection, diagnosis, testing, and adjustment that is
periodically necessary to maintain peak engine performance
Under chassis- the underparts of a vehicle. It is composed of different systems such as the
power trains, steering, suspension, wheels, and tires. It aids the vehicle in performing its duties.
CLEANING TOOLS
Scraper is a flat thin sheet of metal with wooden or plastic handle. It is used to scrape hard to
remove dirt or stubborn grime or plastic sticker.
Steel/Wire brush are thin strips of metal inserted in a wooden or plastic stock. It is used to remove
rust, hard to remove dirt and grime with sweeping action.
Utility rag is a fibrous cloth used in cleaning and wiping dirt and dust.
BENDING |HOLDING | TWISTING | CRIMPING TOOLS
Pliers are generally used as all-around tools. They have the capability for bending, crimping,
cutting, holding, stripping and twisting. They are available in various shapes and sizes. Generally,
pliers used for electrical job are insulated, whereas those for mechanical work are not insulated but
sometimes equipped with rubber for gripping. Pliers are not used as substitute for wrenches.
Side cutting pliers are tools having a broad, flat, and rough jaw. They have a pair of nipper-like
blades used for cutting and bending wires.
Combination pliers are equipped with adjustable opening by means of a slip joint. It is used for
gripping object because of its inner notch and also used for cutting and bending small wires. Longnose
pliers have a needle-nose ends used for holding or picking small object. They have a razor-like
blade on its jaw for stripping, cutting and bending wires.
101
Stripping and crimping pliers have two-half round edges used to strip electrical wire and a
crimping nose to fold and lock wire connector.
Vise grip or locking jaw pliers are specially-designed pliers used for holding work pieces together.
Machinist pliers have adjustable and cutting jaws with tooth-edged nose used for holding,
bending and cutting wires.
Bench vise is a device for holding and bending pieces of metal. It consists of one fixed and one
movable jaw operated by a clamping action of the screw.
CUTTING TOOLS
Chisel is a hand tool essentially used for cutting bolts, nuts and rivets. It comes in different types
and sizes. A flat cold chisel is used for general cutting. Special chisels like a diamond point are
used for cutting sharp-bottomed groove and a round-end chisel for cutting oil grooves.
Electric Drill is a tool for boring holes. It is made of either carbon steel which requires frequent
sharpening or high speed steel which requires less sharpening. Electric drill is designed for slow
and high speed drilling. It can be hand operated for slow drilling or electrically operated
portable or heavy duty machine for high speed drilling with replaceable drill attachment at the
end. Drills come in various diameter sizes. Electric drill can also be used as a portable grinding
machine by attaching a handy grinder on its end.
File is a hard steel tool used for smoothening metal. It comes in various shapes such as flat, round,
half-round, and triangular. It also comes in different fine-to-coarse cutting edges. A single-cut file
has a single series of cutting edges parallel to each other whereas a double-cut file has two sets of
cutting edges that cross at an angle.
Hacksaw is an excellent tool for cutting bolts, tubing and light to fairly thick metal. It has a light
frame handle with blade connected to both ends of the frame. Depending on the type of work to
be cut, a hacksaw blade tooth per inch (TPI) determines the extent of metal to be cut. It comes in
14, 18, 24, 32 teeth per inch. The lower the number, the lesser the number of TPI and the greater
it’s cutting ability. A special hacksaw such as hole saw is used when boring thin and large diameter
sheet of metal. It is electrically operated by an electric drill
Tin Snip is a scissor-shaped tool used for cutting thin sheets of metal.
DRIVING TOOLS
Hammers are generally used for driving or striking work. It comes in various sizes, weights, and
kinds.
Ball peen hammer is basically used by machinists as in automotive applications. It has a weighty
ball-shaped metal at the end of the handle with flat surface on one side for striking a chisel or
appropriate work and a rounded shaped for riveting or penning.
102
Brass or plastic-tipped hammers are used for striking soft and delicate part such as aluminum or
plastic to avoid danger of breaking or marring the surface.
Puncher is a tool made of steel. It is used to cut or drive out a bolt or lock needle pin out of a
hole.
Starting punch is a punch with tapered portion used for initially starting a pin or rivet removal.
After initially starting the pin, the drift punch or pin punch is used to complete the job of
removing the pin.
Hole punch is used in cutting a paper gasket in making holes.
LOOSENING AND TIGHTENING TOOLS
Wrenches are tools for loosening and tightening of bolts and nuts. It comes in different forms
and number in Metric or in English sizes.
a. Allen wrench is used in a type of screw bolt with a hexagonal hole on the head.
b. Box end wrench is an enclosed end tool used for moderate application for loosening and
tightening bolts and nuts.
c. Combination wrench is a tool with an open-end on one side and box-end on the opposite
side. It has the same size on both ends and used in loosening and tightening bolts and nuts.
d. Oil filter wrench is a circular-shaped steel with internal tooth and handle. It is inserted to the
oil filter body, tightened as it is turned for removal.
e. Open end wrench is a tool with open end used for light application in loosening and
tightening bolts and nuts.
f. Socket wrench is a tubular-like tool with an enclosed end used for heavy application for
loosening and tightening bolts and nuts.
g. Spark plug wrench is a socket-like wrench intended for removing and installing spark plugs.
h. Tire wrench is a cross-like or sometimes L-shaped piece of round bar used to remove the
wheels of the vehicle.
Philips screw driver has cross-like tip at the end and used in a cross groove head of the screws.
Depending on the kind of application used, a screwdriver can be of special types such as stubby
screwdriver that has a short shank and handle. It is used for tight space where a typical screwdriver
cannot be used.
Offset screwdriver has a shank bent in opposite direction several distance just before the end of the
tip. It is used to loosen and tightened screws in difficult areas
MARKING TOOLS
103
Center punch is a tool made of hardened steel with conical tip point on its end. It is about 3 to 4 in.
long in length and used for marking the material before drilling. It is also used for marking two parts
so that after removing, it can be easily replaced by aligning the marks together.
Scriber is a thin steel rod with pointed tip on its end. It is used for marking fine lines on metal for
layout work.
Pencil is a thin strip of graphite enclosed in a wooden case and used for making drawings and
marking lines.
MEASURING TOOLS
Torque wrench is a special service tool for measuring the twisting force applied when tightening
bolts and nuts.
Steel rule is a measuring strip of steel available in various lengths in metric and English system. It
is available in 12, 24, 36 and 48 inches size. It is used in linear measurement of short length or
height.
Caliper is a tool used in measuring the diameter of a circular work. The Inside caliper is used in
measuring the inside diameter whereas the outside caliper is used in measuring the outside
diameter of an object. The caliper is adjustable. The Vernier caliper is a good example that is
capable to measure both the inside and outside diameter of an object with accuracy. It can also
measure the thickness and thinness in thousandths of an inch.
Metal tape measure is a push and pull, long strip of thin sheet of metal with corresponding
increments in millimeter and inches graduation. It is used for measuring stock and can be bought
in different sizes of length.
Feeler gauge is a thin strip of metal with different thickness used to measure or set gap and
clearance between parts of mechanism.
A hand tool is the best friend of every serviceman. With it, work becomes easy and efficient. But, if
tools are not given careful attention they will easily give up without maximizing its usefulness. If this
condition continues, it will result in a faulty condition. This faulty condition results from ineffective
use which eventually might create the risk of danger and accident.
Common faults of hand tools are usually blamed on manufacturer’s defect. However, it doesn’t
mean that whenever hand tools become faulty or defective, the manufacturer always carries the
responsibility.
Metal fatigue is one of the usual causes of faulty hand tools especially those that are made from
steel. Like human body that sometimes needs rest, metal fatigue is developed from overuse of
tools. It can also result from too much imposition of force on tools which is less than its capacity to
endure. It will render the tools unserviceable.
104
Because of wrong habits or attitudes, human error also contributes to faulty hand tools. Wrong use
of tools for the job will create bad effect on the tools. A screwdriver which is intended for loosening
and tightening screws becomes defective and reduces its usefulness when used like cold chisel.
Natural tear and wear causes tools to widen or reduce its size. A slack is noticeable when a box
wrench for removing the bolt becomes loose when the internal sides of the wrench is bigger than
the external sides of the bolts head. If used in this condition, both the bolt and the wrench will
develop fault.
Tools not kept, not maintained, and unused will become rusty. Tools with jaws become difficult to
operate. It will take time cleaning and removing the corrosion before it becomes functional.
Cleaning tools. Wire and fiber brush must be tightly fit and securely intact on its recess. Frayed
brushes indicate overuse. Bristles can easily be removed and may splatter. They can pose danger to
the eyes and skin. Likewise, dirty rags can create dust and affect the respiratory system.
Bending | Cutting | Holding | Twisting tools. Overused, dulled teeth cutting edge of tools such as
hacksaw, tin snip and cutter pliers will reduce time and work performance. Loose hacksaw blade to
frame must be repaired or replaced at once. Dulled teeth and loose pivot lever of holding tools such
as machinist and combination pliers lessen the grip and reduces its holding power. As a
consequence, it will result in slippage. Pliers‟ teeth and its cutting edge must be reconditioned or
must be replaced. Mushroom- headed cold chisel can cause danger when driven with a hammer.
The driving force of a hammer may change direction due to the mushroom-like contusion on the
head of the chisel. If this happens, body part is hammered rather than the object itself. Thus, injury
is certain.
Driving tools. A swollen striking edge and loose hammer head handle can create a very devastating
injury and fatal blow when the head flies out of its handle and hits a delicate part of the body.
Loosening and tightening tools. A slacked wren overused or wrong sized tool when forcefully used.
Incorrect position of tools or the person doing the job will create an unbalanced force. When force
is applied, the possibility of accident may happen. There is also a tendency of slippage when the
surrounding sides of the wrench don’t fit squarely with the sides of the bolt or nut being removed or
tightened. Therefore, this kind of fault must be addressed right away and the wrench or screwdriver
be replaced at once.
Marking tools. A bent and dulled tip of marking tool will not give accurate marking. A dulled tip
creates blurred lines; therefore, interpretation of lines and dimensions are not precise.
Measuring Tools. A measuring tool must be always kept clean. Dirty, bent, and creased measuring
tools like measuring tape, steel rule, and caliper will give inaccurate reading if the gradation lines
are not readable.
105
Tools produced in the industry must pass the Work Equipment Law. In this law, procedures on the
extent, fitness, correctness, and usability of tools and equipment are provided in accordance with
specified task. This ensures safety standards before tools are released in the market.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURE IN TOOLS AND EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE
SAFE USE. Assurance of safe use is expected. This can be done by knowing the purpose, application,
and requirement of tools and equipment. Without this knowhow, the user will only be guessing and
wrong use is expected. Risk of injury is more likely to happen. Shop / industry owners are expected
to train their workers. This will build morale and reduce danger.
SAFEKEEPING. Regular maintenance of tools and equipment through safekeeping must be a part of
the health and safety of users and owners. Dangers to theft and exposure to moisture is avoided,
property is taken care of, and risk is evaded. Putting the tools, equipment and paper documents
such as manual of specifications in a very protected but easy to retrieve place is a good habit of
safekeeping. Storage room must be properly locked and ventilated.
SAFETY SIGNS AND SYMBOLS. By putting safety signs and symbols, users are informed and warned
of what to do and what not to do. Risk is limited and put in control. Specific safety signs for
mechanical, electrical, pneumatic, and hydraulic must be clearly defined and placed in a visible area.
SAFETY PROTECTION. The use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is necessary. Safety gears
must be worn properly. Suitability of PPE to the workplace must conform to the work being done. It
must be comfortable so that user will not be irritated. The PPE can control health risk and decrease
possibility of threat or injury. For face protection, eye wear, goggles, and safety shield used in
welding are used. The body protection such as aprons or cover-all garment serves as protection for
the frontal body. High grade, heat and chemical resistant hand gloves protect the hands and a
simple dust mask or respirator can ward off chemical fumes and dust for the respiratory system.
Appropriate shoes can also protect from accidental fall of metallic parts. Not only that, safety in the
workplace is also included. Fire extinguishers play a vital role in reducing and totally putting out the
fire. Saw dust is a good cleaner for spilled oil on the floor.
Accuracy- the preciseness of result as in mathematical solution which is free from error
Calculation - a process of working out the answer by solving mathematical problems
Compression pressure gauge - an instrument for checking the compression pressure of the
engine
Maintain - ensure that something continues to work properly by checking it regularly and
making repairs and adjustments if required
Maintenance - the periodic upkeep something such as tools, equipment or workplace in a
regular basis
106
Measuring - an activity or task of getting the amount, size or quantity of a certain thing or
stock/parts
Oil pressure gauge - an instrument that indicates the flow of oil pressure in the engine
Safety - the freedom from danger or risk
Standard procedure- an established, prescribed way of doing a task or series of action
Techniques - course of action of skill used in specific task
Tolerance - the ability of parts or components to endure deviation from standard limit within
which it is allowed without harmful effect
V.O.M. tester - an instrument used in checking the resistance, voltage and current.
For Mechanical Use
The Vernier and Micrometer calipers are both precision instrument that can measure even the
smallest and tiniest thickness and diameter of an object. Vernier or micrometer calipers are
usually used in measuring the diameter of engine crankshaft and camshaft journals pistons and
valve adjusting shims. These engine parts need to be measured in a precise way.
Verniers and Micrometers can be bought equipped with digital or analogue reading. This will
lessen the time consumed in analyzing the reading of data because of the direct data available
as you measure the part.
Dial gauge is an instrument that measures “thrust‟ or “backlash‟. A backlash is the result of force
that comes from an abnormal clearance or gap between two parts as in the differential gears. When
two parts wear-out, slack is developed and backlash is the result of it. Dial gauge is also used in
getting the clearance of engine valves. It is more accurate than feeler gauge. The movement of
pointer in the dial gauge determines the amount of backlash being measured.
For Electrical Use
V.O.M. tester is a multi-tester. It is an electrical instrument that measures or tests the voltage,
resistance and current in a circuit. V.O.M. can be digital or analogue. Digital reading have digitized
screen and a direct number of data can be read at once. Analogue reading have pointer that
determines the reading on the screen.
Clamp ammeter is also available in the market. This kind of tester is clamped in the wire itself. It
measures current in amperes.
Megger Tester is a test instrument in finding out grounds and shorts in a motor. A good example
to test is the starter motor. When the starter motor is subjected to a megger test, a flat, thin
piece of metal (like a hacksaw blade) is placed above the starter motor. When the megger tester
is turned „on‟ and starter motor is rotated, a spot where a hacksaw blade is attracted means
that the starter motor is faulty and need to be repaired or replaced.
Engine Analyzer is a compact instrument that tests and measures the following:
107
a. Contact point resistance
b. Ignition coil resistance
c. Battery voltage
d. Ignition current flow
e. Engine revolution per minute (RPM)
f. Dwell /Cam angle
g. Alternator diode
Timing | Strobe light is a device that produces stroboscopic effect from ignition pulses. Ignition
timing is achieved by aligning the timing marks on the crankshaft pulley and timing cover of the
engine.
For Pneumatic Use
Vacuum gauge is an instrument that measures the atmospheric pressure drawn by the engine. It is
also used to find out the air-fuel ratio of the engine.
Compression gauge is an instrument that measures the compression pressure of the engine
cylinder.
Radiator pressure tester is used to test the cooling system for internal and external leaks and to
make sure that it has the ability to hold pressure.
Compression gauge is an instrument that measures the compression pressure of the engine
cylinder.
Radiator pressure tester is used to test the cooling system for internal and external leaks and to
make sure that it has the ability to hold pressure.
For Hydraulic Use
Fuel pump pressure tester is an instrument that has the capability to check the pump pressure.
Oil pressure gauge is an excellent indicator instrument that determines the pressure of oil flowing.
Temperature gauge is an instrument that determines if the engine temperature is normal or
overheating.
ABS or Anti-lock Brake System - a safety system that allows the wheels on a motor vehicles to
continue interacting with the road surfaces as directed by driver steering inputs while braking,
preventing the wheels from locking up and therefore avoiding skidding
Airbag- a vehicle safety device. It is an occupant restraint consisting of a flexible envelope designed
to inflate rapidly during an automobile collision
Cell - a device that produces electrical energy by the chemical action of electrodes in an electrolyte
Charging system - to generate enough current to keep the battery fully charged, and to satisfy the
demands of ignition and electrical system and it includes the alternator, voltage regulator which
often a part of the alternator itself, the battery and the indicator gauge or warning light on the dash
108
Current A flow of electric charge through a medium. This charge is a typically carried by moving
electrons in a conductor such as wire
ECU or Engine Control Unit- a type of electronic control unit that controls a series of actuators on an
internal combustion engine to ensure the optimum running
Electrical device - any physical entity in an electronics system used to affect the electrons or their
associated fields in a desired manner consisted with the intended functions of the electronics
components
Engine - a machine designed to convert energy into useful mechanical motion
Fabrication - an industrial term refers to building metal structure by cutting bending, and
assembling
Fog beam - provide a wide, a bar shaped beam of light with a sharp cutoff at the top and are
generally aimed and mounted low
Frame - a structural system that supports other components of a physical construction
Ignition Coil - an induction coil in an automobile’s ignition system which transforms the batteries
low voltage to the thousands of volts needed to create an electrical spark
Ignition- a spark in an internal-combustion engine that ignites and explodes a mixture of fuel
and air
Information notice - a publicly displayed notice or board bearing directions, instructions, or
warnings
Layout - the way component parts or individual items are arranged
Mandatory - needing to be done, followed, or complied with, usually because of an official
requirement.
Motorize- to fit something with motor: to fit something with a motor
Pavement- the layered structured that forms the surfaces of path, road, highway, or aircraft
runway
Plans- drawing or diagram on a horizontal plane of the layout or arrangement
Power train - the portion of a vehicles drive mechanism that transmits power the engine to the
wheels, tracks, or propellers
PPE or Personal Protective Equipment- the protective clothing, helmets, goggles, or other
garments or equipment designed to protect the wearer’s body from injury
Roundabout - a type of circular intersection, a junction in which road traffic flows in one
direction around a central island
109
Schematic (diagram) - used extensively n repair manuals to help users understand the
interconnections of parts, and to provide graphical instruction to assist in taking apart and
rebuilding mechanical assemblies
Signage- any kind of visual graphics created to displays
Splice - to join two pieces of rope or wire by weaving the strands of each into the other
Symbol- written or printed sign or character (image) that can represents something in a specific
context
Taillight- a part of lighting system of the vehicle usually mounted at the rear of the vehicles and
usually come in pairs
Traffic signs or road signs - signs erected at the side of roads to provide information to road
users
Transmission - it provides controlled applications of the power
Unification - the act of identifying two terms with a suitable substitution.
Regulatory signs are symbols in circle intended to instruct on what one must do (or not do) under
a given circumstance. It is also used to reinforce laws, regulations or requirements which apply
either at all times or at specific times or places. Ignoring these signs may result to a violation of
existing law or regulation.
DIAGRAMS, PLANS AND DRAWING
Drawing is a picture of something made with a pencil or pen usually consisting of lines generally
without color.
Plan is used to communicate fabrication instruction.
Diagram is a “simple drawing” which uses a symbolic presentation of information according to
some visualization technique. In automotive servicing, a graph-based diagram is commonly utilized
in expressing information such as schematic, pictorial, semi-schematic, and a layout diagram.
A pictorial diagram uses simple images of components,
A schematic diagram uses simplified standard symbols
A semi-schematic diagram combines some of the standard symbols with other elements displayed
as simple images.
A layout diagram or the “physical design” which shows the actual connection being used. This is
more artistic than schematic and pictorial diagram.
Plans are a set of drawings or two-dimensional diagrams used to describe a place or object, or to
communicate building or fabrication instructions. The purpose of a plan is to capture all the
geometric features of a component. This is also for presentation or orientation purposes.
COMMON ELECTRICAL SYMBOLS
110
BATTERY. The pair of long and short lines represent a cell. A series of cells make up a battery. Long
lines represent the positive plates while the
The GROUND symbol represents the electrical connection to the metal body or frame of the
vehicle. In turn, the negative cable of the battery is connected between the negative battery
terminal and the body/frame of the vehicle.
The FUSE is a circuit protection device. If the current exceeds the maximum rating for the circuit,
the fuse element melts, thereby opening the circuit.
The BULB (light bulb) symbol can represent any type of light bulb (headlight, taillight, etc.
A fixed RESISTOR is an electrical device that is used to reduce current flow.
MOTOR is an electrical device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy in a rotary
motion
HORN is an electrical device that converts electrical energy into sound.
Apron - a garment for covering the front of the clothes
Automotive waste - any harmful, discarded automotive byproducts
Cleaning - a process of removing dirt by wiping or by brushing
Corrosives - those chemicals that pose risk to organic material, especially human flesh. Corrosive
materials and most cleaners are composed of acids and bases
Coveralls - a protective clothing that provides full body protection
Flammable - a condition capable for easy combustion
Gloves - a rubber or leather-made hand protecting device
Goggles - a transparent or dark eyeglass that protect the welders‟ eyes from injury
Hand tools - portable devices that are guided and operated by hands
Hazardous material - any material that can cause bodily injury or pose a threat to the
environment
Inspection - examining or looking closely as a course of action
Lubricant - a substance applied to a surface to reduce friction
Protection - prevention from being harmed or injured
Safety- freedom from danger or risk
Service procedures - an established method of work or task
Signs and symbols - a mark that expresses information to warn or to give direction
Toxic material - any poisonous material that can cause illness or death
Waste management - activities that deal with proper disposal of waste
Waste material - any discarded or unusable byproducts or materials
Workshop - a workplace where activities of service procedures are done
111
Strong alkalis are those that have sodium hydroxide and are used in removing paints like paint
remover.
Heavy-duty alkalis are those that contains sodium carbonate and are used in removing greasy
substance like thinner.
Mild alkali is a sodium bicarbonate contained chemicals. They are also known as baking soda used in
removing oily substance in automobile body before wash-out painting.
Acid base type cleaning chemicals have at least three types.
Strong acid cleaners are highly corrosive. They are good in removing hard deposits. Hydrochloric
acid or the well-known muriatic acid is a good example of this type.
Mild acid cleaners are good in removing rusty stains and blemish. Anti-rust cleaners, wheels and
tires dressing compound are good example of this type, and the soft acid cleaners are those that are
used in cleaning glasses. This kind of cleaners is available in detergent, liquid, and bar.
PRINCIPLES OF TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM) - 5 S
Sorting – a process of taking things that are needed and taking away those that are not needed
anymore. In this way, eliminating unnecessary items gives more free space to those items that are
needed. To be more specific, those items for disposal must be marked or tagged with appropriate
color for easy identification.
Setting in order, Straightening, Simplifying – a process of making things easy to see, easy to get and
easy to return.
Sweeping, Shining, Systematic cleaning – a process of clearing out the dirt, dust and residual
grime to make the space, machines, and fixtures clean.
Standardizing – a process of having a uniform procedures of work or placement of things in proper
place.
Sustaining - a process of maintaining a continuous and consistent implementation of doing the 5 S
principles.
Avalanche - also called a snow slide or snow slip. It is a sudden, drastic flow of snow down a slope,
occurring when either natural triggers, such as loading from new snow or rain, or artificial triggers,
such as snowmobilers, explosives or backcountry skiers, overload the snowpack
Capacitor - formerly known as condenser. It is a passive two - terminal electrical component used to
store energy in an electric field. Capacitors are widely used as parts of electrical circuits in many
common electrical devices
Cliff - is a significant vertical, or near vertical, rock exposure Colleagues - a person with
whom one is associated in a profession or occupation
Combustibility - a measure of how easily a substance will set on fire, through fire or combustion.
112
Dermatitis - derives from Greek derma "skin" + -it is "inflammation". Dermatitis symptoms vary with
all different forms of the condition. They range from skin rashes to bumpy rashes or including
blisters. Although every type of dermatitis has different symptoms, there are certain signs that are
common for all of them, including redness of the skin, swelling, itching and skin lesions and
sometimes oozing and scarring
Earmuffs - objects designed to cover a person's ears for protection. They consist of a thermoplastic
or metal head-band that fits over the top of the head, and a pad at each end, to cover the external
ears
Electrode - an electrical conductor used to make contact with a nonmetallic part of a circuit (e.g. a
semiconductor, an electrolyte or a vacuum). The word was coined by the scientist Michael Faraday
from the Greek words electron (meaning amber, from which the word electricity is derived) and
hoods, a way.
Fatigue - the decreased capacity or complete inability of an organism, an organ, or a part to function
normally because of excessive stimulation or prolonged exertion
Fumes - vapor, gas, or smoke, especially if irritating, harmful, or strong Glare - to express by staring
angrily
Glazing - also (less commonly) used to describe the insertion of ophthalmic lenses into an eyeglass
frame
Hazardous fumes - to expose to the action of fumes; to treat with vapors, smoke, etc.; as, to bleach
straw by fuming it with sulfur; to fill with fumes, vapors, odors, etc., as a room. She fumed the
temple with an odorous flame
Hazards - a term used to describe something that has the potential to cause harm
Hierarchy - a series in which each element is graded or ranked
Hydrazine - also called diazane. It is an inorganic compound with the formula N2H4. It is a colorless
flammable liquid with an ammonia-like odor. Hydrazine is used within both nuclear and
conventional electrical power plant steam cycles to control concentrations of dissolved oxygen in an
effort to reduce corrosion
Illness - sometimes referred to as ill-health or ailment. It is a state of poor health. Illness is
sometimes considered another word for disease
Isolating - to set apart (a component, circuit, or system) from a source of electricity or to set apart
or cut off from others
Jeopardy - in a situation in which someone or something is exposed to possible injury, loss, or in
danger
Jerky movement - a condition which is associated with unintentional erratic or irregular
movements
113
Legislation - the act or process of making laws; enactment
Pedestrians - a person traveling on foot, whether walking or running. In some communities,
those traveling using roller skates or skateboards are also considered to be pedestrians
Risks - a measure of the possibility of a specific harmful effect in given circumstances
Severity - used of the degree of something undesirable e.g. pain or weather
Tendinitis - is informally also tendonitis, It is the inflammation of a tendon (the suffix -it is
denotes diseases characterized by inflammation), is a type of tendinopathy often confused with
the more common tendinosis, which has similar symptoms but requires different treatment.[1]
The term tendinitis should be reserved for tendon injuries that involve larger-scale acute injuries
accompanied by inflammation
Triggered - a device that activates or releases or causes something to happen
Ventilation - the process of "changing" or replacing air in any space to provide high indoor air
quality (i.e. to control temperature, replenish oxygen, or remove moisture, odors, smoke, heat,
dust, airborne bacteria, and carbon dioxide). Ventilation is used to remove unpleasant smells
and excessive moisture, introduce outside air, to keep interior building air circulating, and to
prevent stagnation of the interior air
Workplace - applies to a wide range of premises including shops, offices, schools, hospitals and
places of entertainment. It also includes the common parts of shared buildings and temporary
work sites (but not construction sites)
3 Modes | Forms of a hazard
Dormant – The situation has the potential to be hazardous, but no people, property, or
environment is currently affected by this. For instance, a hillside may be unstable, with the
potential for a landslide, but there is nothing below or on the hillside that could be affected. For
a shop work area, dormant hazard is an undetected hazard created by the design of equipment
or layout of the workshop area.
Armed – The situation has the potential to be hazardous and there are people, property, or
environment that is in potential harm's way. This is a dormant hazard that has become armed
and ready to cause harm during certain work circumstances.
Active - A harmful incident involving the hazard has actually occurred. Often this is referred to
not as an "active hazard" but as an accident, emergency, incident, or disaster. This is an armed
hazard triggered into action by the right combination of factors. At this point it is too late to take
any preventive action to escape injury or avoid death.
Hazards are classified into six different types. They are:
114
Physical - includes floors, stairs, work platforms, steps, ladders, fire, falling objects, slippery surfaces,
manual handling (lifting, pushing, pulling), excessively loud and prolonged noise, vibration, heat and
cold, radiation, poor lighting, ventilation, air quality
Mechanical and/or electrical - includes electricity, machinery, equipment, pressure vessels,
dangerous goods, forklifts, cranes, hoists
Chemical - includes chemical substances such as acids or poisons and those that could lead to fire or
explosion, cleaning agents, dusts and fumes from various processes such as welding
Biological - includes bacteria, viruses, mould, mildew, insects, vermin, animals
Psychosocial environment - includes workplace stressors arising from a variety of sources.
Ergonomic- repetitive movements, improper set up of workstation, etc.
Petrol containers and gas cylinders must be stored securely, away from heat sources and out of
the path of vehicle traffic. These are highly flammable substances and could cause fatality and
serious injury if not carefully handled and stored.
Solvents are often used as cleaners or degreasers. They can enter the body when a person
breathes in their vapor, through skin contact, or through the mouth from contact with food or
fingers.
Spray paints contain harmful substances. Inhaling paint fumes may cause occupational asthma.
Long term exposure can affect the brain, damage the reproductive system and cause kidney or
liver damage. Contact with the skin may cause dermatitis (an inflammation of the skin).
Batteries contain acid and must be treated with caution. If you are asked to handle batteries,
you must be given instruction and provided with appropriate PPE - rubber gloves, eye protection
(you may need goggles to avoid splashes), overalls and solid work boots. (You should always
wear work boots - not sneakers or soft shoes - in the automotive industry, no matter what job
you are doing.
115
TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION VOLUME 1
1. The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair is coarse, medium or fine is:
a. air analysis
b. hair elasticity
c. hair porosity
d. hair texture
2. Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove stubborn dirt when giving foot spa is:
a. foot balm
b. foot scrub
c. foot soak
d. foot spray
3. Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
I. Apply cuticle remover
II. Cut & file nails
III. Push cuticle
IV. Trim cuticle
a. I, III, II, IV
b. II, I, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. I, III, IV, I
4. One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of shave is:
a. epilation
b. Epilation
c. Threading
d. Waxing
5. A heavy make-up is suitable for:
a. casual affair
b. evening affair
c. picture affair
d. night swimming
6. The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail polish is:
a. base coat
b. colored nail polish
c. cuticle remover
d. top coat
7. What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller, more workable pieces for the
purpose of control?
a. Bunching
b. Spitting
c. Sectioning
d. Texturizing
8. A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye appear ________.
a. Lighter
b. Darker
c. Smaller
d. Deeper
9. Which is NOT desirable quality for effective client relation?
a. emotional control
b. positive approach
c. good manners
116
d. discussing personal life
10. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
a. Cosmetologist is one of the best advertisements for a salon.
b. Salon owners and managers do not consider appearance, personality and poise to be as important as
technical knowledge and manual skills.
c. The female cosmetologist should wear stylish shoes that fit and are comfortable at the end of a long
day.
d. All female stylists should have their hair done at least once a week and their hair should reflect the
best workmanship of the salon.
11. Miss T was invited as one of the principal sponsors in her best friend's daughter's wedding. She went to a
salon to have hairstyle, makeup, manicure and pedicure. Miss T wants a neatly finished up style. Which of
the following styles is best suited for her?
a. French Twist Hairstyle
b. Laced-up and Elegant Hairstyle
c. Chignon
d. Petal and Blooms Hairstyle
12. Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Round nail
b. Oval nail
c. Square nail
d. Pointed nail
13. A schedule 40 pipe is:
a. Thicker than schedule 20
b. Thicker than schedule 80
c. Thinner than schedule 10
d. None among the choices
14. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape
b. Teflon tape
c. Scotch tape
d. Adhesive gum
15. What must be installed to prevent siphon age or backflow of the water seal in the drainage system?
a. Vent pipe
b. Drain pipe
c. Soil pipe
d. Cleanout
16. Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water.
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout.
c. No vent pipe is needed.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
17. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing Code?
a. 2% slope b. 3% slope
c. 4% slope d. 0% slope or level position
18. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, what must be installed in the pipe system?
a. Vent pipe b. Cleanout c. Drain d. Tee fitting
19. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays. Which of the following is
preferred?
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX) d. Polyethylene
20. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two closets that shall
discharge into a ________ pipe diameter.
a. 3 inches or 75 mm b. 80 mm c. less than 75 mm d. 70 mm
117
21. As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what should be connected for each faucet, toilet, and
fixtures?
a. Fixture shutoffs b. Main shutoffs
c. Intermediate shutoffs d. Valves
22. A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hacksaw b. Back saw c. Handsaw d. Drywall knife
23. Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted with a hook or corkscrew is called ________.
a. plumber's snake b. plunger c. valve d. bushing
24. If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument attached to the end of the handle for
unblocking. What is this tool?
a. plumber's snake b. valve c. plunger d. bushing
25. The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:
a. rainwater harvesting
b. water conservation
c. gray water recycling
d. excessive water consumption
26. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to:
a. Provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building.
b. Maintain quality workmanship.
c. Avoid overloaded circuit.
d. Protect the circuit from high current.
27. Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the capacity rating of the
breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose circuits?
a. 20 amperes b. 30 amperes c. 15 amperes d. 60 amperes
28. An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different locations is called:
a. four-way switch
b. three-way switch
c. push-button switch
d. remote controlled switch
29. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting fixtures?
a. Incandescent lamp
b. Mercury lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Neon lamp
30. The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures is:
a. No. 12 AWG b. No. 10 AWG c. No. 18 AWG d. No. 14 AWG
31. What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a resistance of 20 ohms when the
current flowing is 8 amperes?
a. 240 volts b. 480 volts c. 120 volts d. 160 volts
32. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How many more
bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open?
a. One b. Two c. All d. None
33. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is connected to ________.
a. Terminal 1 of the load
b. Terminal 2 of the load
c. Terminal 1 of the switch
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
34. Which of the following electrical symbols in wiring diagram means that there are three wires running in a
line?
a. ----/-/-/---- b. -----/-/-/-/---- c. ------------ d. S3W
35. A series connected dry cells will result to ________.
a. increase in the amount of current
b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. increase total resistance
d. more powerful supply of electricity
118
36. What type of switch is used to control alternately three-phase line system using two sources of power?
a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch
b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch
c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch
d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch
37. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
a. Copper b. Aluminum c. Silver d. Gold
38. What type of switch is used when you want to control one lamp or group of lamps in two different
locations?
a. Two, 3-way switch
b. One, 4-way switch
c. Two, single switch
d. Duplex switch
39. Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ________ capacity of the cells.
a. current b. voltage c. resistance d. inductance
40. The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of circuit connections namely series, parallel,
series-parallel and parallel-series. Which type of connection will give the least amount of equivalent
resistance?
a. Series b. Parallel c. Series-parallel d. Parallel-series
41. Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, knobs, tubes and flexible tubing for the protection
and support of single insulated conductor run in or on building and not concealed by the building
structure?
a. Open wiring on insulators
b. Armored cable wiring
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
d. Metal clad cable wiring
42. What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V incandescent lamps are connected in series across a 230 V source?
a. Both lamps will consume more power. b. Both lamps will get burnt.
c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights. d. Each lamp will give more output lights.
43. What is the reason why electrical appliances are connected in parallel rather than in series?
a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power.
b. Parallel connection is simpler than series connection.
c. Each appliances consumes more power if connected in series.
d. It makes the operation of each appliance independent of each other.
44. When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is important?
a. same size and type
b. same type but different rating
c. same size but different rating
d. different size and type
45. Which of the following is a source of alternating current?
a. Dynamo b. Battery c. Dry cell d. Alternator
46. Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our bloodstream. Saturated fats can be found in?
a. Olives b. Beans
c. Movie theater popcorn d. Fish
47. Water boils at 212 degrees. What does "rolling boil" means? The bubbles are:
a. rolling non-stop
b. forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred
c. forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred
d. spilling out of a container
48. Which of the following ingredients will use creaming method?
a. butter, flour and egg
b. flour, butter and egg
c. butter, egg and sugar
d. flour butter and sugar
119
49. Onions when peeled or cut irritate the eyes and give biting sensations on the tongue. This is due to the
presence of:
a. sulfoxide b. sulfur compounds c. sodium nitrate d. mustard oil
50. The practice of adding baking soda when cooking vegetables for the purpose of retaining the green color
and the crispness should be avoided primarily because:
a. the flavor of the vegetable is modified
b. vitamin C is destroyed in the presence of alkali
c. they become less palatable
d. they become hard to digest
51. To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its nutritive value, the best cooking temperature is?
a. moist heat b. low to moderate heat c. high heat d. dry heat
52. What does "proofing" mean?
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size.
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide.
c. Testing cakes for doneness.
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a shiny glazed finish.
53. Why should eggs be beaten with the use of copper bowl? Copper bowl ________.
a. is special metal that makes egg fresher
b. makes egg fluffy and moist
c. keeps eggs fresh and firm
d. has special property which stabilizes the eggs
54. What do you call that pourable mixture of flour, liquid and other ingredients?
a. Dough b. Butter c. Cream d. Syrup
55. Which flour typically forms the most gluten?
a. cake flour b. all-purpose flour c. bread flour d. pastry flour
56. Diana is cooking eggs for breakfast. She breaks the eggs one at a time into a dish and slide them into a
hot water for about 3 to 5 minutes or unit the whites are coagulated and yolks are still soft. What
procedure in cooking eggs does she apply?
a. Boiling b. Poaching c. Simmering d. Blanching
57. Every chef knows that "mise en place" is the first step to a successful food preparation. This French term
which means putting everything in place applies to ________.
a. throwing the garbage b. sautéing the spices
c. creaming the butter d. pre-heating the oven
58. Mixed vegetables are best when cooked very briefly by dipping the food into a boiling water until they
are crisp-tender and then into cold water. This practice is called ________.
a. Blanching b. Baking c. Sautéing d. Steaming
59. Pasta is cooked in boiling water with salt and oil for about 12 to 15 minutes or until "al dente." Al dente is
an Italian term which means ________.
a. firm yet tender to the bite b. soft and soggy
c. pleasant flavor d. crisp texture
60. A student is preparing chicken macaroni salad as an appetizer dish. What will the student do for the
cooked chicken?
a. chop b. mince c. flake d. grate
61. Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of colorful food such as celery, parsley and tomatoes
are added to a dish to improve its appearance. Which of the term applied to the statement?
a. glace b. garnish c. frosting d. decoration
62. What vegetable cut is appropriate for potato in preparing menudo?
a. slice b. mince c. julienne d. cubes
63. Which is a thickening agent made by the combination of 1 part melted butter and 1 part flour, cooked
together?
a. Roux b. Roe c. Raw d. Row
64. The food is prepared by skewing the meat, seasoned and brushed with oil, placed on greased grid and
cooked over live coals. Which is referred to?
a. Broil b. Bake c. Barbeque d. Pan fry
120
65. Which term applies when eggs and cream are beaten rapidly until thick and stiff with a whisk to
incorporate air and increase volume?
a. Creaming b. Whipping c. Blending d. Stirring
66. The strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs is ________.
a. miter b. mortise and tenon
c. dado d. butt and lap
67. You are almost finished with your project. One of the procedure below is done before the application of
finishing materials.
a. cutting b. spraying c. sanding d. varnishing
68. A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is called:
a. S3S b. S2S c. Rough d. S4S
69. In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is called:
a. Lapping b. Scarfing c. Fishing d. Jointing
70. There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest and easiest to make is ________.
a. Lap joint b. Dado joint c. Miter joint d. Butt joint
71. In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member upon which the floor system is laid is the
________.
a. Floor joist b. Sill c. Header d. Girder
72. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of the
roof is ________.
a. Girts b. Rafter c. Truss d. Purlins
73. A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. What is the angle of the file set against the bevel of the tooth of
a cross cut saw?
a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 60 degrees
74. What kind of wood finishing material is used when you want a solid color instead of a wood pattern
finish?
a. Opaque finishes b. Bleaches c. Stains d. Lacquers
75. A saw angle should be adjusted depending on the kind of wood. What is the recommended angle for soft
and thin wood?
a. 30-45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 80 degrees d. 20 degrees
76. Which is considered to be the oldest and most commonly used building material?
a. Cement b. Wood c. Steel d. Sand
77. A wood which is obtained from conifers and are used for framing?
a. Hard wood b. Soft wood c. Dark wood d. Brown wood
78. Which wood is obtained from deciduous trees?
a. Hard wood b. Soft wood c. Dark wood d. Brown wood
79. Which is a binding agent that reacts with water to form a hard stone-like substance?
a. Glue b. Cement c. Mortar d. Grout
80. Which term refers to inert materials when bound together into a conglomerated mass from concrete?
a. Aggregates b. Gravel c. Cement d. Water
81. A lumber that has been sawed, edged, and trimmed in which cutting marks are visible is ________.
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
82. Which lumber has been put through planning machine which gives fine surface?
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
83. Which lumber that has been dresses and matched, ship lapped, or patterned?
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
84. Which is a plank of wood that has been roughly cut?
a. Timber b. Board c. Lumber d. Block
85. Which lumber has been cut from logs radially to the growth rings and the fiber runs about parallel to the
face?
a. Edge-grain b. Angle-grain c. Flat-grain d. Close-grain
86. A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply water in buildings and to
dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter b. Plumber c. Mason d. Mechanic
87. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the house sewer.
a. Septic tank b. Manhole c. Water tank d. Waste tank
121
88. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum b. Sediment c. Sludge d. Silt
89. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from a home or town is called:
a. Drainage system b. Fixture c. Sewerage d. Sewer
90. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe b. Soil pipe c. Vent pipe d. Drain pipe
91. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
a. Loop b. Fixture c. Sewer d. Trap
92. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise b. Pliers c. Wrenches d. Threader
93. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ________.
a. Wye fitting b. Coupling c. Union fitting d. Reducer
94. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Ball valve b. Check valve c. Blackwater valve d. Gate valve
95. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or troubleshooting
of fixtures.
a. Check valve b. Gate valve c. Ball valve d. Float valve
96. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape b. Teflon tape c. Scotch tape d. Adhesive gum
97. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing Code?
a. 2% slope b. 3% slope c. 4% slope d. 0% slope or level position
98. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer b. Elbow c. Union d. Coupling
99. A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Flux c. Pipe wrench d. Butane torch
100. Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?
a. monkey wrench b. chain wrench c. yoke vise d. pipe wrench
101. A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
102. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
a. Vise grip b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
103. A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?
a. Vise grip b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
104. Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system. Which term is referred to?
a. Water flow b. Back flow c. Pressure d. Harvesting
105. The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. water closet b. drainage c. shower d. urinals
106. Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards based on Republic Act 1378 which is known as
"Plumbing Law"?
a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be equipped with a water-sealed trap.
b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum quantity of water consistent with
proper performance and cleaning.
c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly lighted and ventilated.
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive mixtures, destroy the pipes or their joints
or interfere unduly with the sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter the building drainage
system.
107. A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of the gravity
system is called ________.
a. septic b. sump c. trap d. interceptor
108. Which is true toxic substance?
a. Hazardous to human health b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Not hazardous to human health d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain
109. Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ________.
a. potable b. purified c. clean d. healthy
122
110. Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl?
a. A room or booth containing a toilet
b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near
d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its disposal, e.g. sinks, tubs, toilet
111. Plumbing ventilation means to ________.
a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage system
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping
c. maintain the trap seals
d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer
112. Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?
a. Down spout b. Conductor c. Gutter d. Vent
113. In which type of pipes does portable water travel
a. ABS pipes b. Galvanized pipes
c. Cast iron pipes d. PVC pipes (orange)
114. A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses from entering the building. What
device is needed?
a. Union b. Trap c. Backflow preventer d. Pump
115. A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is appropriate?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
116. What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints to prevent
leakage?
a. Rubber bond b. Masking tape c. Teflon tape d. Tape
117. If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a male adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the flow of the
water?
a. Elbow b. Coupling c. Cap d. Plug
118. How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?
a. 2 pcs. b. 2.5 pcs. c. 3 pcs. d. 3.5 pcs.
119. If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a female adopter, what fitting will be used to stop the flow of
the water?
a. Elbow b. Coupling c. Cap d. Plug
120. A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?
a. Coupling b. Elbow c. Tee d. Pipe wrench
121. If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 2% d. 1%
122. If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic tank?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 5 meters d. 20 meters
123. No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
124. If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum meter radius
from a well to the residences?
a. 150 meters b. 100 meters c. 50 meters d. 200 meters
125. Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be _________.
a. self-regulating b. tight c. fix d. self-cleaning
126. There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
127. The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft. b. 2.0 m c. 6.0 m d. 10 ft.
128. If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main supply, what is
the standard length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
129. If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main supply, what is
the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
130. All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
a. lavatory b. water closet c. sink d. bath tub
123
131. The preparation of good quality lumber includes several stages. When it is dried, the process involved
is?
a. seasoning b. staining c. lumbering d. logging
132. The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the steel rule is ________.
a. decimeter b. centimeter c. millimeter d. meter
133. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimeters?
a. 25.4 b. 2.54 c. 0.254 d. 0.0254
134. Find the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2" x 4" x 12'.
a. 8 bd. ft. b. 96 bd. ft. c. 48 bd. ft. d. 480 bd. ft.
135. A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which among the following is best to use?
a. Sun dried b. Kiln dried c. Air dried d. Natural dried
136. There are numerous kinds of saw. When sawing along the grain of wood, you need a ________.
a. back saw b. cross cut saw c. rip saw d. circular saw
137. In measuring cylindrical object, what is the appropriate tool to be used?
a. ruler b. caliper c. pull-push rule d. meter stick
138. Fastening materials are important in woodworks. The most common of these materials is ________.
a. dowel b. bolts c. screw d. nails
139. A wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are laid one upon the other and bonded
with glue or synthetic resin is ________.
a. Pressed wood b. Plywood c. Particle board d. Soft wood
140. Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness of the corners and flatness of a
surface?
a. Straightedge b. Steel square c. Sliding T-bevel d. Try square
141. You are almost finished with your project. One of the procedure below is done before the application
of finishing materials.
a. cutting b. spraying c. sanding d. varnishing
142. A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is called:
a. S3S b. S2S c. Rough d. S4S
143. In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is called:
a. Lapping b. Scarfing c. Fishing d. Jointing
144. In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member upon which the floor system is laid
is the ________.
a. Floor joist b. Sill c. Header d. Girder
145. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of
the roof is ________.
a. Girts b. Rafter c. Truss d. Purlins
146. A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. What is the angle of the file set against the bevel of the
tooth of a cross cut saw?
a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 60 degrees
147. What kind of wood finishing material is used when you want a solid color instead of a wood pattern
finish?
a. Opaque finishes b. Bleaches c. Stains d. Lacquers
148. A saw angle should be adjusted depending on the kind of wood. What is the recommended angle for
soft and thin wood?
a. 30-45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 80 degrees d. 20 degrees
149. Which is considered to be the oldest and most commonly used building material?
a. Cement b. Wood c. Steel d. Sand
150. A wood which is obtained from conifers and are used for framing?
a. Hard wood b. Soft wood c. Dark wood d. Brown wood
151. Which wood is obtained from deciduous trees?
a. Hard wood b. Soft wood c. Dark wood d. Brown wood
152. Which is a binding agent that reacts with water to form a hard stone-like substance?
a. Glue b. Cement c. Mortar d. Grout
153. Which term refers to inert materials when bound together into a conglomerated mass from
concrete?
a. Aggregates b. Gravel c. Cement d. Water
124
154. A lumber that has been sawed, edged, and trimmed in which cutting marks are visible is ________.
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
155. Which lumber has been put through planning machine which gives fine surface?
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
156. Which lumber that has been dresses and matched, ship lapped, or patterned?
a. rough b. smooth c. dressed d. worked
157. Which is a plank of wood that has been roughly cut?
a. Timber b. Board c. Lumber d. Block
158. Which lumber has been cut tangentially to the growth rings and the fiber runs about 90 degrees to
the face?
a. Edge-grain b. Angle-grain c. Flat-grain d. Close-grain
159. Which is the art of building with stone, bricks, and concrete blocks of other similar materials?
a. Carpentry b. Concrete c. Mortar d. Masonry
160. If you want to upstairs, which part do you step on?
a. Handrail b. Tread c. Handle d. Riser
161. What makes the door swing when you close and open it?
a. Door knob b. Door lock c. Door shutter d. Door hinge
162. A carpenter wants to construct a stair, what could be the standard height of the riser?
a. 5-6 inches b. 6-8 inches c. 8-10 inches d. 10-12 inches
163. In masonry works, it is necessary to wear protective equipment, EXCEPT:
a. mask b. goggles c. gloves d. ear muffs
164. In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from falling objects?
a. Hat b. Belt and harness c. Helmet d. Shed
165. These are compress baked clay that are processed into workable materials?
a. Stone b. Sand c. Bricks d. CHB
166. Which lumber has wood fibers that are packed closely together?
a. Edge-grain b. Angle-grain c. Flat-grain d. Close-grain
167. Which lumber has wood fiber that do not run parallel to the board?
a. Edge-grain b. Cross-grain c. Flat-grain d. Close-grain
168. A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which type of joint is appropriate?
a. Dado joint b. Tenon joint c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
169. A carpenter fixes shelves of a bookcase. Which type of joint is appropriate?
a. Dado joint b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
170. In which wood joint is the end of one member inserted to hole of the other member?
a. Dado joint b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
171. Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by putting one side over the other?
a. Dado joint b. Butt joint c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
172. A carpenter wants to make a dining table. Which joint is appropriate to become rigid and durable?
a. Miter joint b. Mortise and Tenon joint
c. Dado joint d. Butt joint
173. Which is the simplest type of wood joint?
a. Dado joint b. Butt joint c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
174. Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces by cutting of 45 degrees angle?
a. Rabbet joint b. Butt joint c. Lap joint d. Miter joint
175. Which wood joint protects the room occupants from seeing outside?
a. Rabbet joint b. Butt joint c. Bridle joint d. Miter joint
176. Which wood joint is used to support the middle of a bench?
a. Dado joint b. Butt joint c. Bridle joint d. Miter joint
177. Which unit is the basic linear unit of an English system?
a. foot b. meter c. yard d. inch
178. Which unit is the basic linear unit of a Metric system?
a. foot b. meter c. yard d. inch
179. If you have 2 ft. length of a piece of wood, how long is it in inches?
a. 25 b. 12 c. 22 d. 24
125
180. If you have 2 yards length of a piece of wood, how long is it in inches?
a. 82 b. 72 c. 84 d. 64
181. 10 yards length of wood is how many feet?
a. 36 b. 35 c. 30 d. 24
182. One decameter of G.I. sheets is how many centimeters?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 100 d. 1,000
183. A 2" x 3" x 12' lumber is how many board feet?
a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
184. 5 pcs. of a 1" x 1' x 8' lumber is how many board feet?
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
185. 50 millimeters length of a piece of lumber is how many decimeter?
a. 5 b. 0.05 c. 0.005 d. 0.5
186. How tall is a 10 meter building in inches?
a. 3.937 b. 39.37 c. 393.7 d. 3,937
187. A carpenter wants to measure long distances. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Ruler b. Extension rule c. Meter stick d. Pull-push rule
188. A carpenter wants to mark very rough objects. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Chalk line b. Extension rule c. Level d. Border line
189. A carpenter wants to obtain vertical line. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Ruler b. Level c. Plum bob d. Pull-push rule
190. A carpenter wants to cut lumber across the grain. Which tool is appropriate?
a. crosscut saw b. rip cut saw c. back saw d. hacksaw
191. A carpenter wants to fasten and remove nails. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hammer b. Ballpen hammer c. Claw hammer d. Sledge hammer
192. A carpenter wants to smoothen wood surfaces. Which tool is appropriate?
a. File b. Sand paper c. Back saw d. Plane
193. A mason wants to create a smooth finish of concrete after floating. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Brick hammer b. Concrete trowel c. Plane d. Float
194. A mason wants to set or cut brick, block, or stone. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Claw hammer b. Crandall c. Mason's hammer d. Star drill
195. A mason wants to repair mortar joints. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pointing trowel b. Crandall c. Cold chisel d. Brick trowel
196. A mason wants to mix and move mortar in brick laying. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pointing trowel b. Crandall c. Cold chisel d. Brick trowel
197. A mason wants to mix concrete. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Shovel b. Buttering c. Trowel d. Float
198. A mason lays bricks. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Shovel b. Hawk c. Trowel d. Float
199. Which is flat with handle at the back usually made of wood?
a. Shovel b. Buttering c. Trowel d. Float
200. Which tool is used in shaping and forming concrete edges?
a. Shovel b. Buttering c. Edger d. Float
201. A mason wants to mix concrete for column and slab. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4 b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 d. 1 : 3 : 6
202. A mason wants to mix class B mixture. Which mixture is correct?
a. 1 : 2 : 4 b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 d. 1 : 3 : 6
203. A mason wants to mix concrete for a slab in the ground. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4 b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 d. 1 : 3 : 6
204. A mason wants to mix concrete for hollow block filler. Which mixture is appropriate?
a. 1 : 2 : 4 b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 d. 1 : 3 : 6
205. Which refers to the ease with which the fresh concrete can be molded without segregation?
a. Plasticity b. Consistency c. Mobility d. Grout
206. Which refers to the degree of wetness or slump of the concrete mixture?
a. Plasticity b. Consistency c. Mobility d. Grout
207. Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement, sand, gravel, and water?
a. Concrete b. Grout c. Mortar d. Bricks
126
208. Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement, sand, and water?
a. Concrete b. Grout c. Mortar d. Bricks
209. Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement and water?
a. Concrete b. Grout c. Mortar d. Bricks
210. Which term refers to the process of finishing using mortar?
a. Finishing b. Fine finishing c. Concreting d. Plastering
211. A mason wants to lay ceramic tiles. Where does he start?
a. Front b. Left c. Right d. Center
212. A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks. Where does he start?
a. Front b. Left c. Right d. Center
213. A mason wants to mix mortar for plastering. What does he mix?
a. cement and water b. cement and sand
c. sand and water d. water and cement
214. A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks into a 10 sq. meter wall. How many CHB are needed?
a. 100 pcs. b. 120 pcs. c. 122.5 pcs. d. 125 pcs.
215. A mason wants to lay 16" by 16" ceramic tiles in a 10 sq. meter. room. How many tiles are needed?
a. 60 pcs. b. 61.5 pcs. c. 62.5 pcs. d. 63 pcs.
216. How many CHBs are installed for a wall having a dimension of 2.5 m width and 4.0 m height?
a. 125 pcs. b. 122.5 pcs. c. 300 pcs. d. 400 pcs.
217. How many 8" x 8" wall tiles are needed in a wall 2.5 m width and 4.0 m height?
a. 300 pcs. b. 500 pcs. c. 550 pcs. d. 600 pcs.
218. A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 3" x 8' lumber. If the price of lumber is ₱50.00 per board foot,
how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800 b. ₱1,900 c. ₱2,000 d. ₱2,100
219. A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 4" x 6' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per board foot,
how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800 b. ₱1,900 c. ₱2,000 d. ₱2,100
220. A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 6" x 4' lumber. If the price of lumber is P50.00 per board foot,
how much did he pay?
a. ₱1,800 b. ₱1,900 c. ₱2,000 d. ₱2,100
221. Which tile is appropriate in the toilet and bathroom flooring?
a. Glaze tiles b. Ceramic tiles
c. Non-skid granite tiles d. Clay tiles
222. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement is called ________.
a. Header b. Stretcher c. Bond d. Mortar
223. The most widely used masonry materials for construction works are?
a. Ashlar b. Bricks c. Rubble stones d. Concrete hollow blocks
224. It is a masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials?
a. Stones b. Stucco c. Bricks d. Concrete pavers
225. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks?
a. Plumb bob b. Water hose level c. Spirit level d. String or chord
226. Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete?
a. Crandal b. Bolster c. Float d. Spade
227. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning concrete mixture?
a. Economy b. Workability c. Strength d. Flexibility
228. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without segregation. This
characteristic is known as ________.
a. Consistency b. Plasticity c. Mobility d. Workability
229. The following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete, EXCEPT:
a. correct proportion of ingredients.
b. Proper method of mixing.
c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing.
d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation.
230. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand, and 4 cu. ft. of gravel
or 1:2:4?
a. Class AA b. Class A c. Class B d. Class C
127
231. How many cubic yard of concrete do you need to cover a space with an area of 25 square foot and a
slab thickness of four (4) inches?
a. 0.34 cu. yd. b. 0.32 cu. yd. c. 0.25 cu. yd. d. 0.51 cu. yd.
232. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level of a concrete fence?
a. Water hose level b. Spirit level c. Plumb bob d. Straight edge
233. According to the building code of the Philippines, for how many days shall concrete be maintained
above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition?
a. 3 days b. 5 days c. 7 days d. 10 days
234. Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates in a concrete mixture?
a. Sand b. Soil c. Gravel d. Stones
235. What do you call the process of hardening of concrete?
a. Curing b. Setting c. Hardening d. Molding
236. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in small and large construction including roads
and highways?
a. Hydraulic cement b. Portland cement
c. Pozzolan cement d. Lime
237. How many pieces of 4" x 8" x 16" concrete hollow blocks (CHB) can be laid per bag of cement as
mortar?
a. 55 to 60 pcs. b. 25 to 30 pcs. c. 30 to 36 pcs. d. 40 to 40 pcs.
238. What ingredient in concrete is added to the batch immediately before or during its mixing to improve
its durability and accelerate strength development?
a. Fine aggregates b. Coarse aggregates
c. Admixture d. Water
239. Which of the following refers to the structural reinforcing member that holds or binds together the
main reinforcement of a column?
a. Lateral tie b. Stirrups c. Spiral tie d. Rebars
240. The structure that holds the poured concrete until it hardens to form the concrete beam or post.
a. Scaffolding b. Batter board c. Forms d. Stake
241. To convert from feet to get number of meters, multiply feet by?
a. 0.3048 b. 25.4 c. 30.48 d. 2.54
242. In facial, make-up foundation serves as make-up base. What is the type of foundation recommended
for dry skin?
a. cake b. cream c. liquid d. stick
243. The purpose of thinning the hair is to remove its excess bilk without shortening its length. What is the
best shear to use for thinning bulky hair?
a. all-purpose shear b. clipping shear c. razor d. thinning shear
244. The process of thinning, tapering and shortening of the hair is called:
a. hair cutting b. hair drying c. hair setting d. hair styling
245. Make-up is applied to the face for the purpose of improving its appearance. To give color to the
cheeks, which of the following should be applied?
a. Eye shadow b. Lipstick c. Mascara d. Rogue
246. To correct misshaped eyebrows, it is best to use:
a. depilatory b. eyebrow pencil c. electric clipper d. razor
247. Arrange the following cosmetics in their order of use in applying make-up?
I. Curl lash
II. Eyeliner
III. Eye shadow
IV. Mascara
a. I, II, III, IV b. II, III, IV, I c. III, II, I, IV d. IV, I, II, III
248. A make-up tool that makes eyelashes wavy is:
a. blush on brush b. curl lash c. eye liner d. mascara
249. A corrective make-up that makes small eyes appear bigger is:
a. adding lines on the eyelids b. using dark colored eye shadow
c. using light colored eye shadow d. using mascara
128
250. An emery board is used to shape the ________ of the nails.
a. cuticle b. free edge c. lunula d. root of the nails
251. An orange wood stick is used to:
a. apply oil on the nails b. remove excess cuticle remover
c. remove excess nail polish around the nails d. remove stain on nails
252. The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair is coarse, medium or fine is:
a. hair analysis b. hair elasticity c. hair porosity d. hair texture
253. Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove stubborn dirt when giving foot spa is:
a. foot balm b. foot scrub c. foot soak d. foot spray
254. Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
I. Apply cuticle remover
II. Cut & file nails
III. Push cuticle
IV. Trim cuticle
a. I, III, II, IV b. II, I, III, IV c. III, I, IV, II d. I, III, IV, I
255. One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of shave is:
a. Depilation b. Epilation c. Threading d. Waxing
256. A heavy make-up is suitable for:
a. casual affair b. evening affair c. picture affair d. night swimming
257. The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail polish is:
a. base coat b. colored nail polish c. cuticle remover d. top coat
258. What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller, more workable pieces for
the purpose of control?
a. Bunching b. Spitting c. Sectioning d. Texturizing
259. A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye appear ________.
a. Lighter b. Darker c. Smaller d. Deeper
260. Mariana would like to apply the principles she learned in corrective make-up to a friend whose lips
are broad. Which should you not recommend?
a. apply light color lipstick b. apply lip gloss
c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips d. use lip liner on the inner lips
261. The nail is composed mainly of:
a. Melanin b. Keratin c. Collagen d. Sebum
262. Customer A is complaining and getting pushy about the pedicure service she received. If you were the
pedicurist, what would you do?
a. Tell your customer to look for another pedicurist.
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and continue working without being bothered by the complained.
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and professional.
d. Ask for an apology, maintain professionalism and ask what she wants.
263. Which of these is the first thing the pedicurist should do to avoid such situation?
a. Be courteous.
b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the shape, color, etc.
c. Decide you own design and styles.
d. Proceed to the service right after customer A says that she wants pedicuring.
264. The following are guidelines for good human relations and professional attitude, EXCEPT one:
a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice.
b. Show interest in the client's personal preferences.
c. Make a good impression by wearing obtrusive jewelry to look at your best.
d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with whom you come in contact.
265. Lisa applied as public teacher. She doesn't have any experience for job interview. Could you please
help her decide? What type of clothing will she wear?
a. Casual dress b. Sunday dress c. Business attire d. Party dress
266. In relation to question 281, what type of make-up may she put on?
a. Corrective make-up b. Light make-up
c. Heavy make-up d. Photographic make-up
129
267. Which of the following makeup does she need?
a. Day make-up b. Evening make-up
c. Photographic make-up d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
268. Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Round nail b. Oval nail c. Square nail d. Pointed nail
269. Which of these are implements?
a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl
b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat, and cuticle remover
c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper, nail file and orange wood stick
d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
270. Which of these are cosmetics?
a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle remover
c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair
d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle nipper, nail file and nail brush
271. Which of these are equipment?
a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and assorted colored polish
b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange wood stick and cuticle pusher
c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and antiseptic solution
d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl
272. Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file?
a. The pointed side is used to push back and moisten the cuticles.
b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the cuticles.
c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles.
d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticles.
273. Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert the ring finger and pinky in the nail brush
handle and brush the nails with a _________.
a. downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
b. sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
c. upward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
d. sawing motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
274. Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight and then filing the tip straight across at
right angles with the rest of the nail plate?
a. round nail b. square nail c. pointed nail d. oval nail
275. Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. When is a massage applied? Before
_________.
a. removing old polish b. coloring polish c. base coat d. top coat
276. Which of the following is the last step in manicuring/pedicuring?
a. apply top coat b. clean under free edge
c. re-examine nails and cuticles d. dry fingertips
277. Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of caring for the nails and toenails, involving
special care and expertise for bringing out the best effects?
a. nail tattoo b. nail art c. nail extender d. nail technician
278. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a month.
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people.
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails.
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter.
279. Which is the technical term for nail?
a. Onyx b. Onychosis c. Onychology d. Keratin
280. Which refer to hand-held tools used in manicure which are durable and must be sanitized after use
with each client?
a. Cosmetics b. Equipment c. Materials d. Implements
130
281. Which of the following term refers to a light, continuous stroking movement applied with the fingers
and palms in a slow and rhythmic manner?
a. friction b. vibration c. petrissage d. effleurage
282. It is not good to apply massage when a person has _________.
a. high blood pressure and heart condition b. mayoma and diabetic
c. deliver a baby d. cancer
283. If you are going to start a home service as a manicurist/pedicurist and your parents give you ₱500.00
to start with, which equipment, implements, cosmetics and materials should you buy first?
I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, assorted nail polish, base coat, and top coat
II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art designs
III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood stick, nail brush, nail file, and nail polish remover
IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, antiseptic solution, and nail buffer
a. I only b. I and II c. I and III d. I and IV
284. In shaping the nails, what comes first?
a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb and the two fingers of the left hand.
b. Hold the file or emery board in the right hand and tilt it slightly so that filling is confined mainly to the
underside of the free edge.
c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best suited for him/her. File the nails at the left hand starting with
the little finger and working towards the thumb.
d. Shape the nails.
285. Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher. Sometimes or most of the time she is exposed to the sunlight. What
type of skin protection should she apply?
a. face toners b. anti-aging body creams
c. body mask d. SPF lotion
286. Which of the following drinks can she take to hydrate herself?
a. soft drinks b. Gatorade c. cobra juice d. plain water
287. Which part of the body is best for the color testing of a foundation?
a. earlobe b. jawline c. nose d. cheek
288. Which aids in maintaining face?
a. face cleansers b. face toners c. face lotions d. face serums
289. Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost moisture and hydrate the skin to slow down the
skin's aging process?
a. anti-aging face creams b. face toners c. face exfoliators d. face cream
290. Which among the following would be the first step in giving facial?
a. apply cleansing cream b. apply treatment mask
c. apply moisturizer d. apply massage cream
291. Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in analyzing the client's skin? If the _________.
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily b. shape of the face
c. lines or creases exist d. skin texture is smooth or rough
292. Which of the following is NOT beneficial for facial treatments?
a. Softening and improving skin texture and complexion
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles and aging lines
c. weakening muscle tissue
d. correcting skin disorders
293. Which of the following is a common skin disorder caused by the formation of sebaceous matter
within or under the skin?
a. blackheads b. whiteheads c. pimples d. acne
294. Which of the following facial is recommended for dry, scaly skin, or skin that is inclined to wrinkles?
a. plain facial b. packs and masks c. facial for dry d. hot oil mask facial
295. Mitch has acne problem so she went to a cosmetologist for an advice, though she is under medical
care. What would be the role of the cosmetologist?
a. Work closely with the client's physician to carry out instructions as to the kind and frequency of facial
treatments.
b. Advice the client to stop the medication from the physician.
c. She can have her own separate medication aside from the physician.
d. Refuse and do not give further service.
131
296. Under medical direction, the following are the measures of limitation in cosmetic treatment for acne,
EXCEPT:
a. Remove blackheads using proper procedures
b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local application
c. Apply moisturizer
d. Clean the face
297. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small
flaws or blemishes?
a. powder b. lipstick c. eyeliner d. blush
298. Which of the following provides the backdrop for the entire colorful facial make-up artistry?
a. concealer
b. blush
c. cheek color
d. foundation
299. How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A highlight is produced when:
a. a darker foundation than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features
300. What must one remember in giving facial manipulations to induce relaxation?
a. routine b. tempo c. pressure d. skin type
301. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has some obvious abrasions on her scalp.
Which treatment would be acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.
302. Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is only 11 years old and she is not an albino. What may be the
cause of gray hairs at this early age?
a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers.
b. She has serious illness.
c. She has defects in pigment formation occurring at birth.
d. A result of the natural aging process of humans.
303. Who is an albino? A person born with _________.
a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal development of hair
b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is accompanied by no marked of pigment
coloring in the skin or irises of the eyes
c. androgenetic alopecia
d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a hair follicle
304. What type of haircutting is done when one holds the shears at an angle to the hair strand other than
90 degrees?
a. blunt cut b. beveled cut c. graduated cut d. undercutting
305. Which of the following safety measures in haircutting is NOT true?
a. Always palm the shears when combing the hair.
b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin.
c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting.
d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of the hand.
306. Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes and styles?
a. Hairstyling b. Hair trimming c. Curling d. Waving
307. David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did partially wet and partially dry of Miss P's hair. What would
be the result of Miss P's hair?
a. Even b. Uneven c. Perfect d. Curly
308. Following a haircut, when is texturizing performed most effectively?
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn.
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is applied.
132
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed.
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling.
309. The following are some myths about hair growth, EXCEPT:
a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting, or singeing has an effect on the rate of hair growth.
b. The application of oils increases hair growth.
c. Hair grows after death.
d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each follicle repeatedly cycles through three stages.
310. Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called _________.
a. taped haircutting b. wedge haircutting
c. sectioning d. barbering
311. Which of the following is an art of creating curls or weaving?
a. Hairstyling b. Thermal styling
c. Hair setting d. Traditional finger waving
312. Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to the scalp, rest and soothe the nerves,
stimulate the muscles and the activity of the scalp glands?
a. Shampooing b. Hair treatment
c. Scalp manipulation d. Rebonding
313. Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair before hairstyling.
a. Crown b. Forehead c. Nape of the neck d. Back of the head
314. Under normal circumstances, how many strands of hair does an average person shed per day?
a. 20-50 b. 40-100 c. 80-120 d. 150-200
315. Hair is distributed all over the body, EXCEPT:
a. Soles of the feet b. Earlobe c. Hands d. Eyes
316. A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction:
a. voltage b. power c. alternating current d. direct current
317. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as ________.
a. power b. resistance c. electromagnetism d. frequency
318. A part of an electric circuit which converts electrical energy into another form of energy to do work is
________.
a. load b. circuit c. source d. control
319. A part of an electrical circuit, consists of batteries, generator or a main electrical power which
supplies electricity is called ________.
a. control b. load c. source d. voltage
320. A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to
resistance is known as ________.
a. PEC b. Law of Resistivity c. Kirchoff's Law d. Ohm's Law
321. In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the formula to be used is:
a. E = I x R b. E = I / R c. I = E / R d. R = E / I
322. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power source?
a. 5.5 amperes b. 0.18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
323. There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the foremost consideration is
________.
a. cost b. labor c. safety d function
324. The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet layout should be?
a. 12 b. 14 c. 18 d. 10
325. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code, the appropriate fuse rating for
lighting outlet should be ________.
a. 15 amperes b. 30 amperes c. 60 amperes d. 20 amperes
326. Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric current when light falls upon them?
a. Solar cell b. Dry cell c. Solar lamp d. Solar light
327. Which is synchronous alternating-current machine that changes mechanical power into electrical
power?
a. Dynamo b. Motor c. Alternator d. Lathe machine
328. Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Energizer b. Eveready
c. Primary battery d. Secondary battery
133
329. Which generator generates direct current?
a. Alternator b. Dynamo c. Battery d. Adaptor
330. Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Primary battery b. Energizer c. Eveready d. Secondary battery
331. Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical energy?
a. Battery b. Circuit c. Dry cell d. Generator
332. A process in splitting the atom of uranium is called ________.
a. fusion b. fission c. friction d. tension
333. A process by joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter than the sun is called ________.
a. fusion b. fission c. friction d. tension
334. Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?
a. Transformers b. Battery c. Generator d. Thermocouple
335. Which is the kinetic energy of falling water?
a. Thermo energy b. Hydro energy c. Solar energy d. Mechanical energy
336. Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing voltage when exposed to radiant energy
(sunlight)?
a. Photoelectric b. Photovoltaic system
c. Photoemission system d. Solar light
337. Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of the earth is called ________.
a. volcanic b. geothermal c. thermal d. chemical
338. Which refers to the extraction of electrons from a substance by sunlight on incident electromagnetic
radiation?
a. Photoelectric effect b. Photovoltaic effect
c. Photoemission d. Electron microscopy
339. Which statement is TRUE?
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance. b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance.
c. Long wire has lesser resistance. d. Short wire has higher resistance.
340. A small light bulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is connected across a 120-v line. What is the current
through the bulb?
a. 1.2 A b. 0.012 A c. 0.12 A d. 12 A
341. A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in watts of lamp is ________.
a. 100 w b. 600 w c. 200 w d. 250 w
342. If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total resistance is
________.
a. 36 ohms b. 2 ohms c. 648 ohms d. 54 ohms
343. A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The power used is:
a. 12 w b. 130 w c. 1,200 w d. 120 w
344. What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v incandescent lamp?
a. 121 ohms b. 115 ohms c. 125 ohms d. 12.1 ohms
345. How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a current of 10 amperes and has a resistance of 23
ohms?
a. 23 Kw b. 2,300 Kw c. 230 Kw d. 2.3 Kw
346. The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely proportional to its ________.
a. length b. cross sectional area
c. temperature d. material
347. A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a 110v AC line takes 1.2A and requires 110w power. What is its
power factor?
a. 0.9 b. 0.833 c. 0.866 d. 0.8
348. An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If the voltage across the heater is 240 volts. What is the
heater resistance?
a. 2.5 ohms b. 83.3 ohms c. 23.04 ohms d. 2.30 ohms
349. The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 300 ohms. What current is required to operate the
lamp?
a. 0.85 A b. 0.77 A c. 1.30 A d. 7.74 A
134
350. A group of lamps operates a current of 12 A and a voltage of 120v. What is the total power of the
lamps?
a. 1.44 kw b. 1.20 kw c. 1.34 kw d. 14.4 kw
351. What is the maximum load capacity of a 15A circuit breaker protecting a branch circuit that supplies a
continuous load?
a. 15 A b. 10 A c. 12 A d. 14 A
352. What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if it has a power rating of 1.75 Kw?
a. 2 Hp b. 2.3 Hp c. 2.5 Hp d. 23 Hp
353. How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consume for 5 hours of use if it has a power rating of
1.5 Hp?
a. 56 Kw b. 7.5 Kw c. 5.6 Kw d. 75 Kw
354. A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a period of 20 hours until its terminal voltage falls to an
unacceptable level. How long can it be expected to supply a current of 100mA?
a. 50 hours b. 100 hours c. 60 hours d. 70 hours
355. A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to supply a constant current of 8Ah. How long can the battery
last until it becomes unusable?
a. 20 hours b. 2.5 hours c. 15 hours d. 2.5 hours
356. The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms. What length of the same wire will have a
resistance of 60 ohms?
a. 24 meters b. 225 meters c. 240 meters d. 235 meters
357. If three equal resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of the circuit will be
________ the value of one resistor.
a. three time b. half c. one-third d. the same
358. Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp for 20 hours at P3.00 per kW-hr?
a. P6.00 b. P9.00 c. P10.00 d. P60.00
359. Which is a box with a blank cover is inserted in one or more runs of raceway to facilitate pulling of the
conductors?
a. Blank box b. Junction box c. Terminal box d. Pull box
360. Which is a box with a blank cover for joining runs of conduits and providing space for connection and
branching of enclosed conductors?
a. Blank box b. Junction box c. Terminal box d. Pull box
361. The minimum size of wire used in electrical wiring is the no.14 AWG. Under the SI standard, what is
the diameter of this wire?
a. 1.2 mm b. 1.6 mm c. 1.5 mm d. 2.0 mm
362. A thin-walled steel raceway of circular with a corrosion-resistant coating for protection of wires or
cable is ________.
a. rigid metal conduit b. flexible metal pipe
c. metal moulding d. electrical metallic tubing
363. Armored cable is commercially known as ________.
a. BX cable b. flat cable c. metallic cable d. duplex cable
364. Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed in a flexible metal
sheath?
a. Underground cable b. Armored cable
c. Flat cable d. Flexible cable
365. Flat cable assembly shall be installed for ________.
I. concealed work only
II. exposed work only
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. cannot be determined
366. An assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided with grooves for holding one or more
conductors at a definite spacing from the surface wired over and from each other, and with holes for
fastening in position is called:
a. split knob b. cleat c. spool insulator d. strain insulator
367. Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes, and flexible non-metallic tubing for the protection
and support of single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls and ceilings of buildings?
a. Knob and tube wiring b. Open wiring on insulators
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring d. Open wiring with knob and tubes
135
368. Which term refers to that switch or outlet body that is embedded or hidden in the wall?
a. Surface type b. Flush type c. Concealed type d. Open type
369. The use of surface non-metallic raceway is not permitted in all the following, EXCEPT:
a. dry locations b. where subject to severe physical damage
c. where voltage is over 300 V d. where concealed
370. When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and extends beyond the wall surface, the device is
said to be ________.
a. Wall type b. Surface type c. Flush type d. Open type
371. What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment an overload or short circuit occurs?
a. Breaker switch b. Overload c. Circuit breaker d. Main switch
372. Which term is used when two conductors are embedded in one solid mass of rubber insulation?
a. two in one b. three in one c. stranded d. duplex
373. What type of socket is used for outdoor or wet location in wiring installation?
a. Waterproof socket b. Special purpose socket
c. Weatherproof socket d. Outdoor socket
374. What is the smallest size of wire permitted by the Code to be used in wiring installation?
a. 2.0 mm squared b. 3.5 mm squared c. 2.0 mm d. 1.25 mm squared
375. Which one of the following uses is permitted by the Code to be used for surface non-metallic
raceway?
a. dry locations b. where concealed
c. where subject to severe physical damage d. where voltage is over 300 V
376. Service entrance using copper conductors shall have sufficient capacity and shall not be smaller than
________.
a. 5.5 mm squared b. 3.5 mm squared c. 14 mm squared d. 8.0 mm squared
377. If two identical lamps give normal light when connected in parallel in a 230v line are reconnected in
series in the same line, the bulb will ________.
a. give more light b. not light c. give less light d. blows out
378. When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed raceway, it shall be secured within ________ on
each side of every outlet box.
a. 250 mm b. 300 mm c. 100 mm d. 150 mm
379. A short circuit can be detected by using ________.
a. an ohmmeter b. a megger c. an oscilloscope d. an ammeter
380. The electrical plans for residential house include the following items, EXCEPT:
a. Substation plan b. Location plan
c. Floor plan showing location of service
d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting and receptacles outlets
381. If installed in raceways, conductors of size ________ and larger shall be stranded.
a. 5.5 mm squared b. 8.0 mm squared c. 14 mm squared d. 3.5 mm squared
382. At least ________ of free conductor shall be left at each outlet, junction and switch point for splices
or connection of fixture or devices.
a. 250 mm b. 175 mm c. 150 mm d. 300 mm
383. A certain residential house has lighting load of 1.1 kVA and an appliance load of 10A at 220 volts,
single phase, two wires, 60 Hz. The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting and appliance loads are
________ and ________, respectively.
a. 20 A and 60 A b. 20 A and 30 A c. 15 A and 30 A d. 15 A and 20 A
384. Live vegetation or trees ________ used for support of overhead conductors spans.
a. shall be b. should be c. shall not be d. should not be
385. Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should be wired so that the wires ________.
a. will be grounded b. will not touch the chains
c. will support the fixture d. will not support the fixture
386. In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-20 mm diameter shall be supported at least every
________.
a. 2,500 mm b. 3,500 mm c. 1,800 mm d. 3,800 mm
136
387. Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?
a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical harm.
b. Wires are connected by joints therefore need reinsulation.
c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need protection.
d. Wires skin is weak.
388. What is the total number of mechanical degrees that an electrical pipe run maybe bent between pull
points?
a. 360 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 270 degrees
389. Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within ________ of each box.
a. 600 mm b. 800 mm c. 900 mm d. 760 mm
390. Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ________ electrical trade size shall NOT be used.
a. 12 mm b. 10 mm c. 15 mm d. 20 mm
391. Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples, straps, hangers or similar fittings at intervals NOT
exceeding ________.
a. 1,250 mm b. 1,300 mm c. 1,500 mm d. 1,000 mm
392. In concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be maintained between conductors is ________.
a. 65 mm b. 45 mm c. 76 mm d. 50 mm
393. Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a single switch. If one of the 3 bulbs is busted,
what will happen to the remaining bulbs?
a. it will not lit b. its brightness is reduced
c. its brightness increases d. its brightness in maintained
394. Find the profit of Wang’s water refilling business with revenue of ₱56,000,000 and costs of
₱42,000,000.
a. ₱14,000,000 b. ₱140,000 c. ₱1,400,000 d. ₱14,000
395. Norma's food stall has costs of ₱2,900. Her total food sales are ₱11,600. What percent of her food
sales do the food costs represent?
a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
396. Marvin needs 250 cookies for a buffet. He will make oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk
cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How
many chocolate chunk cookies must Marvin bake?
a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
397. If a shirt is marked down 25%, what will the purchase price be?
a. ₱25 b. 75% of its original price
c. 50% off d. ₱75
398. A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer's
catalog is ₱1,600. 480 Furniture receives a 35% trade discount. What is the net price for the furniture
order?
a. ₱560 b. ₱1,535 c. ₱1,565 d. ₱1,040
399. Ron's Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its products. What is the trade discount rate on an
item with a list price of ₱16.79 and a net price of ₱2.42?
a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
400. What type of financial statement summarizes the information concerning the cash inflows and
outflows during a particular period?
a. Balance sheet b. Statement cash flows
c. Income statement d. Statement of retained earning
401. Closing entries are made:
a. so that financial statements can be made
b. in order to terminate the business as an operating entity
c. in order to transfer net income/loss and owner's drawings to the owner's capital account
d. so that all assets, liabilities, and owner's capital accounts will have zero balances when the next
accounting period starts
402. Suppliers who allow business to receive goods and services before paying for them are known as:
a. Finance companies b. Leasing companies c. Trade Credits d. Trade debtors
403. Which of the following is an example of external finance?
a. Disposal by a business of surplus assets
b. Bank loan
137
c. Day to day cash from sales to customers
d. Money loaned from trade suppliers through extended credit
404. A shareholder sells his shares for more than he paid for them. This is known as:
a. Capital gain b. Profit on disposal c. God deal d. Capital allowance
405. The point at which the level of sales of a business exactly equals its costs is known as the:
a. Break-even point b. Insolvency point c. Start-up stage d. Profit point
406. Working capital is:
a. Current Assets-Current Liabilities b. Notes Payable
c. Current Liabilities d. Accounts Payable
407. Which of the following does not appear in a Balance Sheet?
a. Cash b. Equipment
c. Accounts Payable d. Depreciation Expense
408. Adjusting entries are used to:
a. close the books b. record accruals
c. correct errors d. all of the listed answers are correct
409. Net Income or Profit results from:
a. revenues exceeding expenses b. assets exceeding liabilities
c. expenses exceeding revenues d. liabilities exceeding assets
410. Assets are normally recorded at:
a. cost b. appraised value
c. market value d. management's estimated value
411. Which financial report measures results for a period of time?
a. Balance Sheet b. Income Statement
c. Trial Balance d. All of the listed answers
412. Using the double entry system, every business transaction _________.
a. affects two or more accounts b. affects only asset accounts
c. affects only one account d. affects only income statement
413. A debt incurred by buying goods or services from a supplier on credit is called _________.
a. property b. accounts payable
c. an expense d. accounts receivable
414. In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and opportunities are evolving. What is the ability to create
new things, invest in new enterprises and expand business?
a. Creativity b. Entrepreneurship
c. Manufacturing d. Producing
415. Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He observed that there is an opportunity for him to put up his
own business since he has enough capital and very much interested to the idea. Which of these factors
must he possess so that he will not rely on the services of the employees?
a. Markets b. Manpower
c. Supply of resources d. Knowledge/Skills
416. Management functions and principles play a very critical role in running a business. What principle of
planning specifies that the objectives of an entrepreneur should match the needs of the society?
a. must be realistic b. must be based on felt needs
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis d. must start with a simple project
417. Entrepreneurs use various management tools to succeed in a business. What management tool is
used to analyze business opportunities?
a. Environmental scanning b. Market study
c. Market survey d. SWOT
418. When an entrepreneur communicates with people through interviews, observations and
advertisement on what is new, what entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?
a. Statistical study b. Marketing study
c. Entrepreneurial scanning d. Environmental scanning
419. There are P's in preparing market research. Which P in marketing is designed to communicate the
product to customers?
a. Place b. Price c. People d. Promotion
138
420. The site of the business enterprise is one of the requirements of entrepreneurship. Which of the
following is the most important in choosing the best location for the business?
a. access to supplies and raw materials b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
c. less competitors in the area d. enough capital to pay space rental
421. Which term refers to people, institutions or organizations for whom the business is designed?
a. sample b. population c. market d. society
422. Which one is not included in planning a business?
a. how and when to do it b. how to increase profits
c. what to expect in the future d. what to do
423. What is the benefit of business planning wherein the entrepreneur determines whether the business
is profitable or not?
a. minimize cost production b. detect the weakness of the business
c. eliminate business risk d. estimate sales
424. What is thinking ahead of objectives, strategies, financing, production, marketing, profit proposal,
and growth facilities?
a. forecasting b. managing c. planning d. projecting
425. Business enterprises should operate in a dynamic environment in order to survive. What kind of
environment includes technological, social and ethical/political factors?
a. Macro environment b. Micro environment
c. Technological environment d. Social environment
426. Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an already established business, what type of retail ownership
is it?
a. Corporate b. Franchise
c. Independent d. Single-store-ownership
427. Who among the following is the principal actor of the production?
a. Entrepreneur b. Customer c. Production manager d. Worker
428. These are the perishable tangible used in the production process.
a. Financial resources b. Human resources
c. Information resources d. Material resources
429. Which method of establishing a business starts from scratch?
a. buy-out b. franchising c. loan d. start-up
430. What brief description of the market describes the buyers and users of the product and the area of
dispersion?
a. market analysis b. market dispersion c. marketing d. market study
431. It is a type of organization wherein a superior delegates authority to a subordinate.
a. committee type b. functional type c. line type d. line and staff type
432. Which is one disadvantage of a functional type of organization?
a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is weak.
b. Each manager is supreme in his own field.
c. It is difficult to secure executives and superiors with an all-around knowledge.
d. There is greater flexibility.
433. What type of product, as designed, produced and marketed by the seller?
a. Licensed brand b. National brand c. Private label brand d. Trademark
434. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term "entrepreneur"? A person who ________.
a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources
b. starts a new business with the aim of making a profit
c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or customer by starting new ventures which exploit
new products, processes or markets.
d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic activity, by identifying and
exploiting new products, processes or markets
435. Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an entrepreneur?
a. Technical skills b. Personal entrepreneurial skills
c. Working skills d. Business management skills
436. Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?
a. Study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills.
b. Cope with failures of the business.
139
c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills.
d. Know what characteristics are needed to become an entrepreneur.
437. Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Mr. Fajardo's future business?
a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the Philippines.
b. Borrow money from friends and relatives.
c. Avail of the government program on financing micro-macro business.
d. Use part of her retirement benefit.
438. If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future entrepreneur is INAPPROPRIATE?
a. Relaxed b. Hard worker c. Risk taker d. Innovative
439. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a. Coping with failure b. Irritated
c. Opportunity seeker d. Persistent
440. Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur is UNDESIRABLE?
a. Opportunity seeker b. Goal setter
c. Futuristic d. Impassive
441. Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small business?
a. Poor financial control b. Poor location
c. Management mistakes d. Improper inventory control
442. Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his feet and puts him into action, turning daydream
into reality?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
443. Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur a positive outlook in life which gives the energy to
pursue his endeavors?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
444. Which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that come with a starting business?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
445. What is the general function of marketing, involves the physical meeting point for buyers and sellers
at the point of production or via some other means of communication?
a. Specific functions b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions d. Facilitating functions
446. Which type of marketing functions, enables the actual flow of commodities through space and time
from producer to consumer and their transformation to a form desirable function to the consumers?
a. Specific functions b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions d. Facilitating functions
447. From a social viewpoint, which of the following statements about marketing objective is NOT true?
a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources.
b. Create wealth and promote economic growth.
c. Improve income distribution among different sectors of the economy.
d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods.
448. Which is considered a vehicle for informing target market about the enterprise and the products or
services?
a. Product b. Price c. Place d. Promotion
449. At what stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new market of
buyers and taking market share from competitors by price cutting or re-launching the product?
a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline
450. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-scale business?
a. Keeping clear records b. Verifying profit and loss
c. Managing cash flow d. Distribution channel
451. Which marketing channel operates with capital owned directly by the operators and their partners,
or in some cases by shareholders?
a. Cooperatives
b. Independent, locally based private enterprise
c. Marketing boards and other state enterprises
d. Transnational companies
452. At which stage of a product life cycle must an entrepreneur decide whether he wants to try to
rejuvenate the product by investing in development and aggressive marketing or to quietly admit defeat
140
and exit the market?
a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline
453. A marketing mix that can have both tangible and intangible aspects and is the thing you offer to
satisfy your customers' wants and needs is ________.
a. Product b. Packaging c. Price d. Promotion
454. Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial projects or business ventures?
a. Environmental analysis b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis d. PEST analysis
455. An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats of a business to make better
decisions regarding marketing plan is termed ________.
a. Environmental analysis b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis d. PEST analysis
456. The acronym SWOT stands for:
a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing
b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Testing
c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats
d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Threats
457. Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing planning process of an enterprise?
a. Where are we now? b. Where are we heading?
c. Are we on course? d. Where would we like to be?
458. Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning process flow chart?
a. Control b. Marketing planning mix
c. Setting marketing objectives d. Setting the product price
459. An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because the target market ________.
a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply capabilities
b. is large and well-served with existing products
c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
d. has a proven track record for buying product
460. A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is extraordinary well documented and
clearly written to safeguard any wastage of further investment project is called ________.
a. Portfolio b. Business plan c. Resume d. Feasibility study
461. Which is considered as a comprehensive and effective blueprint to guide an entrepreneur in a
business venture?
a. Resume b. Portfolio c. Business plan d. Insurance plan
462. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of:
a. Symbol b. Construction c. Physical appearance d. Linear appearance
463. What is the best place for electronic hand tools and equipment?
a. Tool box b. Tool cabinet c. Tool room d. Tool bag
464. Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 ohms, 27 ohms, and 33 ohms. If a 12 V battery is
connected across this combination, what is the current drawn from the battery?
a. 1.4 A b. 15 mA c. 150 mA d. 1.5 A
465. Which of the following is a non-polarized electronic component?
a. Transistor b. Resistor c. Diode d. Electrolytic capacitor
466. The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called ________.
a. Peak-reverse voltage b. Working voltage
c. Blow-up voltage d. Breakdown voltage
467. A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to do one of the following functions. Which
one is it?
a. allow current to flow in both directions b. multiply voltage
c. allow current to flow in one direction only d. not allow any current flow
468. There are various types of diodes. This diode that acts as a regulator is the ________.
a. Silicon diode b. Crystal diode c. LED d. Zener diode
469. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
a. Anode b. Cathode c. Gate d. Main Terminal
470. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is ________.
a. Shorted b. Open c. Leaky d. Good
141
471. If the transistor is an NPN type, the base is ________.
a. negative & positive b. negative
c. positive d. common
472. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us that the transistor is:
a. NPN b. PNP c. Bipolar d. Injunction
473. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the:
a. Emitter b. Base c. Collector d. Cathode
474. The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is ________.
a. Electromagnetism b. Ferromagnetism c. Magnetism d. Diamagnetism
475. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in rectifier is known
as ________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current b. Damped Alternating Current
c. Varying Direct Current d. Saw tooth wave
476. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering _________.
a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz b. 88 - 108 MHz c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz d. 535 - 1,605 kHz
477. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component responsible for this
function is the:
a. Tuning capacitor b. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer d. Detector diode
478. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the ranges listed below:
a. R x 1K b. R x 10 c. R x 1 d. R x 10K
479. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to:
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper b. Making the tip pointed
c. Cutting the tip d. Applying flux to the tip
480. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective?
a. Amplifier b. Volume control c. Antenna d. Tuner
481. An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What
component is usually destroyed?
a. Switch b. AC plug c. Line fuse d. Power transformer
482. The word electron was derived from the Greek word "elektron", which means:
a. to rub b. to flow c. amber d. friction
483. The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC outlet is ________.
a. 620 V b. 165.5 V c. 331 V d. 220 V
484. Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carriers is changed in accordance with
demodulating signal?
a. FM b. PDM c. AM d. PCM
485. The actual flow of current is from ________.
a. negative to positive b. positive to negative
c. positive to positive d. negative to negative
486. The rate of doing work is called ________.
a. energy b. power c. voltage d. resistance
487. MilliHenry is equal to ________.
a. 10th Henry b. 100th Henry c. 1,000th Henry d. 1,000,000th Henry
488. An inductor opposes any change in ________.
a. voltage b. current c. frequency d. modulation
489. A circuit having two or more current paths is a ________ connection.
a. parallel b. series c. series-parallel d. cannot be determined
490. Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Watt d. Volt
491. A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's Law is ________.
a. linear b. non-linear c. potentiometer d. resistance
492. Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a circuit?
a. Capacitor b. Resistor c. Diode d. Inductor
493. An instrument that is used to measure the amount of resistance in a circuit is called ________.
a. DC voltmeter b. ohmmeter c. AC voltmeter d. ammeter
494. Solder is a mixture of ________.
a. tin lead b. zinc and lead c. zinc and tin d. copper and lead
142
495. The common used soldering lead is ________.
a. 40-60 b. 60-40 c. 50-50 d. 50-40
496. A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ________.
a. 45 Hz b. 30 Hz c. 50 Hz d. 60 Hz
497. A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as ________.
a. tweeter b. squeaker c. woofer d. howler
498. The three leads of a common transistor are a/an:
a. collector base emitter b. emitter collector base
c. base collector case d. collector base emitter
499. Connecting lead from the negative to the positive of a battery will produce a/an ________.
a. high resistance circuit b. low current path
c. short circuit d. open circuit
500. What is the approximate characteristic voltage that develops across a red LED?
a. 1.7 V b. 0.6 V c. 3.4 V d. 6 V
501. If two resistors are placed in series, the final resistance is ________.
a. higher b. lower c. the same d. cannot be determined
502. A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n produces ________.
a. 90n b. 110n c. 100n d. cannot be determined
503. The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k produces ________.
a. 10K b. 20K c. 5K d. cannot be determined
504. The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected in series. The output voltage is ________.
a. 3V b. 6V c. 0V d. cannot be determined
505. An electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a circuit is called a
________.
a. capacitor b. resistor c. diode d. inductor
506. Which tool is needed in removing soldered components in the circuit board?
a. Long nose pliers b. Desoldering pump c. Diagonal cutting pliersd. Wire stripper
507. Which tool is used in joining or soldering electronic components in the circuit board?
a. Soldering iron b. Electrical pliers c. Desoldering pump d. Long nose plier
508. Which tool is used to hold or pick up components in the circuit board?
a. Mechanical pliers b. Long nose pliers c. Electrical pliers d. Wire stripper
509. Which tool is used in turning slotted screws?
a. Flat screw driver b. Phillips screw driver c. Electrical pliers d. Wire stripper
510. Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides maximum safety when pulling cartridge fuses and checking
electrical connections?
a. Fuse puller b. Screw driver c. Desoldering tool d. Mini drill
511. If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v supply, the current will be ________.
a. 10 mA b. 0.001 mA c. 1 mA d. 65 mA
512. A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal display) is ________.
a. high current demands b. slow reactance to input
c. environmental temperature sensitivity d. persistence limitations
513. Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load?
a. Tends to stop or not start b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed
c. Has reverse direction d. Becomes an AC generator
514. A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an "open fuse" supply voltage of ________.
a. 125 Volts b. 500 Volts c. 5,000 Volts d. 250 Volts
515. To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ________.
a. silicon grease b. insulator c. heat sink d. exhaust fan
516. To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are ________.
a. reverse b. parallel c. forward d. series
517. Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an insulator?
a. a slow-blow type fuse b. an inductive fuse
c. a capacitive fuse d. intended for high voltage fuse
518. Which would be considered "basic components of a power supply"?
a. zener, regulator, transformer b. regulator, diode, AC power, load
c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer
143
519. Which presents the rise and fall of alternating current and voltages?
a. Graph b. Sine wave c. Fluctuation d. Cycle
520. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the capacitance will ________.
a. increase b. have the same value
c. decrease d. increase and decrease
521. Which circuit has the most gain?
a. Common emitter b. Common collector c. Common base d. Emitter follower
522. Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its rectification?
a. half-wave rectifier b. full-wave rectifier
c. full-wave rectifier d. split type rectifier
523. When a resistor is open, the resistance ________.
a. increases b. gets zero
c. decreases d. is infinite
524. A low voltage power supply converts ________.
a. AC voltage output b. Pulsating DC voltage
c. DC output voltage d. AC and DC voltage outputs
525. When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the resistance reads
________.
a. zero level b. high resistance but within the tolerance
c. infinite d. low but not zero
526. Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the other will ________.
a. decrease capacitance b. increase capacitance
c. decrease voltage rating d. increase mutual transconductance
527. In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky, you would use the _____ohmmeter range.
a. lowest b. highest c. middle d. upper
528. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of ________.
a. a symbol b. a construction
c. physical appearance d. linear appearance
529. If there are only two resistors with the same values in parallel circuit, which formula may be used to
find its total resistance?
a. Rt = R/n b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2)
c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2)
530. Which hand tool is used solely for cutting metals?
a. utility knife b. saw
c. magnifying glass d. paint brush
531. What is the reason why threads become stripped?
a. screws are over tightened b. screws are heated
c. screws are molded d. screws are painted
532. In what instrument is the ohmmeter found?
a. Ammeter b. Tube tester
c. Capacitor tester d. VOM
533. From what part of the ohmmeter do you derive resistance reading?
a. Range multiplier b. Reading scale c. Test probes d. Pointer
534. Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in one?
a. Audio generator b. Oscilloscope c. Signal generator d. VOM
535. Which device produces simple waveforms?
a. Audio amplifier b. VOM c. Signal tracer d. Signal generator
536. What is the other name for connection diagram?
a. Wiring diagram b. Block diagram c. Pictorial diagram d. Schematic diagram
537. Which equipment is used to discharge electrical charges produced by the human body?
a. Audio generator b. Signal generator c. ESD d. VOM
538. Which term refers to the set of rules or practices to ensure no accident prevention?
a. Safety practices b. Rules and regulation c. Policy order d. Action plan
539. What tools are NOT recommended to be used in electronics works?
a. brand new tools b. branded tools
c. damaged tools d. locally produced tools
144
540. Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkages between components or parts on schematic
diagram?
a. Connecting lines b. Dashed lines
c. Medium lines d. Thin lines
541. What does VOM mean?
a. AC Voltmeter b. Ohmmeter
c. DC Milliammeter d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter
542. Which tool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the wire?
a. utility knife b. hacksaw c. side cutter d. wire stripper
543. What does LED stands for?
a. Light emitting display b. Low energy display
c. Light emitting diode d. Light emitting detector
544. Which picture or sketch shows the components of a circuit and how these components are
connected together?
a. Wiring diagram b. Block diagram
c. Pictorial diagram d. Schematic diagram
545. 3 pieces of resistors in which the values are 10 ohm, 20 ohms, and 50 ohms. If the 20 ohms is open,
what will be the reading in the ohmmeter?
a. 60 ohms b. 0 c. infinite d. 80 ohms
546. Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-up signal despite the far distance from the transmitter
compared to the FM receiver?
a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the transistor.
b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to sight.
c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to ground.
d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to televise.
547. Why is it needed to place antenna in higher or an elevated area particularly in a mountainous place?
I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line to ground; the higher antenna the
more signal can be received.
II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to capture the wind direction.
III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line of sight; the higher antenna the more
signal can be received.
a. I only b. III only c. II only d. I, II, III
548. A Service Electronics Technician cleaned the terminal of the component using sand paper or knife
before it soldered to the PCB. What is the main purpose of that cleaning?
a. To attract more charges.
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made easily.
c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons.
d. To maximize the desired voltages.
549. If the Service Electronics Technician applied the so-called pre-tinning, how should be the process be?
a. The Service Electronics Technician applies a little amount of soldering lead and soldering flux to the tip
during pre-heating of the soldering iron.
b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans the soldering tip using files, sand paper or a cutter.
c. The Service Electronics Technician allows his soldering iron to heat at least 40 minutes before he uses it
and solders with the terminal of the component.
d. The Service Electronics Technician checks the temperature of the tip before soldering is made.
550. Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan.
While the pan was still on the stove, he added some white wine and scarped the bottom of the pan.
What do you call the techniques just used?
a. Cleaning b. Deglazing c. Caramelizing d. Flambé
551. Energy value is express in terms of calories which represents the chemical energy that released as
heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram?
a. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Fat d. Minerals
145
552. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs. Which of the following nutrients is
needed as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Fat d. Fiber
553. Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What kind of sugar is used primarily in
the preparation of flat icings with butter cream?
a. brown sugar b. refined sugar c. granulated sugar d. confectioner sugar
554. Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind of protein is found in connective tissue of meat that
converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
a. Elastic b. Gluten c. Marbling d. Collagen
555. Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant?
a. Vitamin E b. Calcium c. Fiber d. Vitamin B12
556. Which cooking method destroys nutrients?
a. Boiling b. Roasting c. Slow cooking d. All of the above
557. Which food is the "best source of thiamine?"
a. Pork b. Milk c. Carrots d. Potatoes
558. What happens to carbohydrates that are not used right away as energy?
a. They are stored in the body as fat.
b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they are burned as fat.
d. They are all used immediately as energy.
559. All of these are good sources of Vitamin C. Which one has the most vitamin C?
a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers
c. 1 cup of orange sections
d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes
560. Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our bloodstream. Saturated fats can be found in?
a. Olives b. Beans
c. Movie theater popcorn d. Fish
561. Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of colorful food such as celery, parsley and
tomatoes are added to a dish to improve its appearance. Which of the term applied to the statement?
a. glace b. garnish c. frosting d. decoration
562. To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil, vinegar and wine to add flavor and make it tender is to
________ it.
a. marinade b. season c. dip d. marinate
563. Working the dough by stretching and folding in a floured surface to obtain the required consistency is
________.
a. Beating b. Kneading c. Punching d. Folding
564. Which of the following term may apply in cutting vegetables into thin match sticks size which are
used to garnished dishes?
a. Mirepoix b. Macedoine c. Brunoise d. Julienne
565. A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g fat, 22g carbohydrates and 3g protein. How many kcal
are in a serving size of chiffon cake?
a. 117 kcal b. 127 kcal c. 137 kcal d. 147 kcal
566. Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in fat. The following are examples of fat soluble vitamins,
EXCEPT:
a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin C
567. The food pyramid illustrates the balance of foods needed for a healthy lifestyle. Fat, sugar, salt and
alcohol are group under what classification?
a. Eat Least Food b. Eat Moderately Foods
c. Eat All Foods d. Eat Most Foods
568. The following are physiological functions of food, EXCEPT:
a. give energy b. build and repair cells
c. provide satisfaction d. regulate body process
569. CHON is the chemical formula for ________.
a. carbohydrates b. protein c. fat d. minerals
146
570. What vitamin deficiency is present when a person suffers from poor night vision or blindness?
a. Retinol b. Thiamine c. Niacin d. Folic acid
571. What disease would result to a person who has an iron deficiency?
a. Cough and cold b. Nose bleed c. Anemia d. Xeropthalmia
572. Which of the following fruit and vegetables have higher water percentage composition?
a. Apple b. Strawberry c. Carrots d. Tomatoes
573. Which is NOT a function of fat?
a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
c. Protect the heart and kidneys d. Repair body tissues
574. The following vegetables are good sources of carotene, EXCEPT:
a. Mangoes b. Carrots c. Legumes d. Tomatoes
575. Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide Pyramid?
a. water, milk, yogurt b. food additives
c. chicken, pork, egg d. rice, corn, pasta
576. Which statement regarding vitamins is most accurate?
a. Inorganic substances needed in the body
b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen
c. Regulate physiological processes
d. Control composition of body fluids
577. Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit with 16g total carbohydrates.
a. 54 kcal b. 64 kcal c. 74 kcal d. 84 kcal
578. Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E
579. Which is not a function of water?
a. Regulate body processes b. Carrier of waste products
c. Provides energy d. Regulates body temperature
580. What do you call the sugar in milk or milk carbohydrate?
a. Fructose b. Lactose c. Glucose d. Sucrose
581. The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented if milk is ________.
a. heated to a boiling point b. pasteurized before packing
c. kept cold and protected from light d. fermented and sealed
582. Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a restaurant. She ordered food from appetizer to dessert at
P300.00 per cover, good for 60 pax and she paid a total amount of P18,000. What type of menu did she
avail of?
a. Table d'hote b. Cycle menu c. Ala carte d. Static menu
583. A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken Galantina for her food and nutrition class. What cooking
method is applied for this chicken dish?
a. Broiling b. Roasting c. Frying d. Steaming
584. Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used to complement a meal. What leading sauce is used in
making Carbonara?
a. Veloute sauce b. Brown sauce c. Bechamel sauce d. Tomato sauce
585. Vegetables have different degrees of doneness. It is done when it has reached the desired degree of
tenderness. The following are the guidelines to achieve proper doneness in vegetables, EXCEPT:
a. cook vegetables close to serving time b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces
c. separate tough part from tender part d. cook different kinds of vegetables together
586. Eggs serve many important functions in cookery. What is the function of eggs when it is used to bind
food together?
a. as a leavening agent b. as a thickening agent
c. as a clarifying agent d. as an emulsifying agent
587. In an American service, all drinks should be served ________ of the guest.
a. at the right side b. at the left side c. across d. in front
588. Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for father's birthday party. Which variety of meat could you
suggest for these recipes?
a. Tongue b. Tripe c. Heart d. Liver
147
589. The teacher demonstrated to the students the proper way of slitting the abdominal part of the
poultry and pulling out the entrails. This step in dressing chicken is referred to as ________.
a. slaughtering b. defeathering c. evisceration d. scalding
590. The students are preparing food for their culminating activity. They are expected to invite 100 guests.
What type of service is more convenient for 100 guests with limited space and food servers?
a. Counter service b. Russian service c. Buffet service d. French service
591. Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering function. Which part of pork cuts would she buy?
a. Leg b. Loin c. Picnic d. Variety
592. What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise preparation?
a. Emulsifying agent b. Thickening agent
c. Browning agent d. Leavening agent
593. Why do we buy food from approved sources?
a. cheaper price b. guarantee safe and wholesome food
c. good customer service d. accessibility and comfort
594. Which of the following reasons for cooking meat is FALSE?
a. improve flavor and appearance b. tenderize meat
c. unavailability of nutrients d. destroy harmful microorganisms
595. Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat method of cooking?
a. Scalding b. Stewing c. Baking d. Steaming
596. One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g orange flavor. How many liters of water should be added
if the proportion is 1g powder, 20 mL water?
a. 3.5 L b. 2.3 L c. 2.0 L d. 1.2 L
597. How many ounces is 1 cup of soda?
a. 6 ounces b. 8 ounces c. 12 ounces d. 16 ounces
598. Which of the statement about the general direction for Low-Cholesterol diets is FALSE?
a. use of corn oil b. avoid coconut milk
c. use of margarine d. trim all visible fats from meat
599. What is the menu pattern for breakfast?
a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert
c. cereal, protein dish, beverage d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert
600. Which is considered as the most important meal of the day?
a. Supper b. Lunch c. Breakfast d. Brunch
601. The main course or courses of dinner consisting usually of meat, fish or pulses with or without
accompaniments is called ________.
a. entrée b. espagnole c. emincer d. entremets
602. The main goal in meal planning, food preparation and service is _________.
a. present low cost foods b. serve appetizing meals
c. satisfaction of family members d. keep meals nutritionally adequate
603. Which food group is a good source of fiber?
a. milk, yogurt, cheese b. meat, poultry, eggs
c. bread, rice, pasta d. banana, apples, oranges
604. Which of the following is NOT a principle in planning meals?
a. Plan meals ahead of time.
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety.
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients.
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more time to prepare.
605. Which of the following has the biggest expense in the food budget?
a. Meat b. Fruits c. Cereals d. Dairy
606. Which is a low cost but nutritious dish?
a. Grilled fish b. Beef with broccoli
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce
607. One of the functions required before assembling the food materials to produce quality meals is
________.
a. market list b. menu planning c. mis en place card d. standardized recipe
608. When guests enter into a restaurant the first thing that a receptionist should offer is ________.
a. water b. appetizer c. bread and butter d. menu card
148
609. Which of the following is the CORRECT menu sequence?
a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages, desserts
b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages, desserts
c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages, desserts
d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers, beverages
610. Which of the following statement about service rule is FALSE?
a. Serve women before men
b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with service person's left hand
c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
611. Which of the following is an example of a low cost dish?
a. Pork adobo b. Chicken kare-kare
c. Baked mussels d. Seafood sinigang
612. When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a steamer is not available, what will you do?
a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a tightly covered frying pan containing water.
b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with coconut milk.
c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue stick and apply heat.
d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and cook.
613. Baking chiffon cake requires a baking temperature of 350 degrees Fahrenheit. What is its equivalent
in Centigrade if your oven thermostat was set in degree Celsius?
a. 176 degree Celsius b. 186 degree Celsius
c. 196 degree Celsius d. 206 degree Celsius
614. Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly firm, porous structure. What gives structure to the cheese
bread?
a. Albumen b. Gluten c. Whey d. Casein
615. What will you do to the shortening if you want to make quick breads using the biscuit method?
a. Melt the shortening b. Cream the shortening
c. Fold in the shortening d. Cut in the shortening
616. The students are cutting apples for their apple pie filling. They noticed that browning occurs at the
cut surfaces of apples. What process may have caused the browning color of an apple?
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and sugar b. Oxidative enzymatic changes
c. Carmelization of sugar d. Over handling
617. Which is NOT a function of salt in food?
a. flavor enhancer b. preservative
c. increase volume d. control agent
618. Which statement about conventional method of mixing is FALSE?
a. time consuming b. produce velvety texture
c. one-bowl method d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients
619. Which ingredient controls and regulates the fermentation in bread making?
a. Yeast b. Salt c. Baking powder d. Sugar
620. A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel blade primary used for mixing colors in cake designing
is ________ knife.
a. cake b. serrated c. chef d. palette
621. Which is usually done with a fork to make small holes in bottoms and side of crust for single crust
pies?
a. Docking b. Punching c. Cutting d. Fluting
622. Which is known as strong flour because it contains 12-14% protein?
a. All-purpose flour b. Cake flour c. Pastry flour d. Bread flour
623. Which phrase describes a good characteristic of pastry?
a. wet and brown b. tender and flaky
c. dry and hard d. sweet and mushy
624. The following are some safety risks in baking, EXCEPT:
a. hot oven b. moving parts
c. sufficient light d. cutting equipment
149
625. Which icing is made from shortening, sugar syrup and eggs?
a. boiled icing b. royal icing
c. buttercream icing d. fondant icing
626. When the pastry shell is baked before it can be filled, this is called ________.
a. molding b. blind baking
c. proofing d. resting
627. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Muffin b. Popover
c. Waffle d. Pie
628. Which living organism feeds in sugar to produce alcohol and carbon dioxide?
a. Yeast b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Mold
629. What disease-causing microorganism is commonly found in eggs?
a. Escherichia coli b. Salmonella
c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Shigella
630. A kind of needle work in which loops of thread or yarn are interwoven with a hooked needle is
A. Crocheting B. Embroidery C. Smocking D. Stenciling
631. A form of decorative darning using straight embroidery stitches in fabrics with even weave is known
as
A. Smocking B. Calado C. Recycling D. Hardanger
632. If you want to go upstairs, which part do you hold on to?
a. Handrail
b. Tread
c. Handle
d. Riser
633. Which of the following should be taken into account before preparing the farm lots?
a. Soil and water supply b. Sunlight and air circulation
c. Accessibility and proximity to market d. all of the above
634. Which of the ff. is a characteristic of good soil?
a. should be viable b. fresh and mature
c. damage free and free from seed – borne diseases d. all of the above
635. It is the first and most important tillage operation in preparing the land for to make it
more moisture – retentive
a. Cleaning b. Plowing
c. Harrowing d. Pulverizing
636. Is an organic material consisting of very fine routed animal waste, plant parts and other organic
and biodegradable material
a. Biomass b. Compost
c. Heap d. Fertilizer
637. This method of fish – culture is characterized by the use of net enclosures in shallow
protected areas in inland waters
a. Cage method b. Fish pen method
c. Aquarium method d. Open – water method
638. The objective of applying fertilizers to fish ponds
a. Promote fish growth b. Enhance production
c. Neutralize acidity d. Enhance the color of the water
639. This type of plants contains nitrogen in its roots which is converted to nitrates by rhizobia,
thus, contributing to soil fertility
a. Vine crops b. Root crops
c. Legumes d. Tubers
640. Which of the ff. is NOT an aspect of fish – culture?
a. Fish cultivation b. Fish propagation
c. Fish conservation d. Fish marketing
641. The object is represented by the sides seen at one time
a. perspective b. projection
c. Orthographic d. Isometric
150
642. The system of representing the true shape of any object arranged on a plane in two or more views at
right angle to each other
a. Perspective b. Dimension
c. Orthographic d. Oblique drawing
643. Isometric projection is drawn on tree axes namely the vertical and 2 ________ degree lines.
a. 90 b. 60 c. 40 d. 30
644. It is part of the electrical circuit which converts electrical energy into another form to do work
a. Voltage b. Load c. Current d. Ampere
The system on which the flow of electricity is always in one direction
a. Power b. Integrated circuit
c. Alternating current d. Direct current
645. The amount of heat required to take 1 lb. of water to change its temperature 1 degree F
a. British Thermal Unit (BTU) b. Voltage
c. Watt d. Calorie
646. Property of metal w/c can be hammered and flattened into sheets without breaking
a. Ductility b. Brittleness
c. Elasticity d. Malleability
647. A system of principles to conduct life
a. Beliefs b. Values
c. Philosophy d. Goals and Objectives
648. Process of reaching solution to a problem which is based on family goals,
a. Assessment b. Reorganization
c. Decision – Making d. Problem Solving
649. Human resources which the family can use to achieve its goals
a. Energy b. Abilities and skills
c. Knowledge d. all of the above
650. Earnings of corporations which are distributed among stocks holders
a. profit b. Retained earnings
c. Stocks d. Dividends
651. Brings about a successful entrepreneurial activity
a. careful planning b. good luck
c. big capital d. proper connection
652. As an entrepreneur, he must be aware if his business is good. He must then
identify a good business
through? availability of supply, interest in business, capacity and skills
a. pricing of the products and services b. single product practice
c. human – resources oriented d. profit – oriented
653. It is the profile of an entrepreneur’s intuitions, philosophy, ideals, perception
and details of a planned project
a. Thesis b. Project proposal
c. Project description d. Rationale
654. Provides the entrepreneur information on market, sources and consumption of
products and services
a. Consultancy assistance b. Organizational assistance
c. Training assistance d. marketing assistance
655. There are agencies that provide counseling or consultancy serviced to entrepreneurs
who have difficulty solving their own business problems
a. Technology and livelihood Center b. National Manpower and youth Council
c. UP Institute of Small Scale Industries d. All of the above
656. Painting on cloth or other materials with the use of needle and thread is called
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
657. A kind of needle work applied to hold gathers in place is known as
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
658. A process of regaining the usefulness of discarded material is
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
151
659. A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply
water in buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter b. Plumber c. Mason d. Mechanic
660. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum b. Sediment c. Sludge d. Silt
661. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from
a home or town is called:
a. Drainage system b. Fixture c. Sewerage d. Sewer
662. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe b. Soil pipe c. Vent pipe d. Drain pipe
663. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
a. Loop b. Fixture c. Sewer d. Trap
664. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise b. Pliers c. Wrenches d. Threader
The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ________.
a. Wye fitting b. coupling c. Union fitting d. Reducer
665. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Ball valve b. Check valve c. Blackwater valve d. Gate valve
666. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve b. Gate valve c. Ball valve d. Float valve
667. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two
closets that shall discharge into a ________ pipe diameter.
a. 3 inches or 75 mm b. 80 mm c. less than 75 mm d. 70 mm
668. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer b. Elbow c. Union d. Coupling
669. A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Flux c. Pipe wrench d. Butane torch
670. A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hacksaw b. Back saw c. Handsaw d. Drywall knife
671. Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?
a. monkey wrench b. chain wrench c. yoke vise d. pipe wrench
672. A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
673. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
a. Vise grip b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
674. Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system.
Which term is referred to?
a. Water flow b. Back flow c. Pressure d. Harvesting
675. The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. water closet b. drainage c. shower d. urinals
676. A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of
the gravity system is called ________.
a. septic b. sump c. trap d. Interceptor
677. Which is true toxic substance?
a. Hazardous to human health b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Not hazardous to human health d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain
678. Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ________.
a. Potable b. purified c. clean d. Healthy
679. Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?
a. Down spout b. Conductor c. Gutter d. Vent
680. A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________.
a. vent pipe b. soil pipe c. main pipe d. waste pipe
681. If you install water supply inside the building, what is the diameter of pipes needed?
a. 4 inches b. 1 inch c. 0.75 inch d. 0.5 inch
152
682. In which type of pipes does portable water travel
a. ABS pipes b. Galvanized pipes c. Cast iron pipes d. PVC pipes (orange)
683. If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the flow of water?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
684. A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses from entering the building.
What device is needed?
a. Union b. Trap c. Backflow preventer d. Pump
685. A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is appropriate?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
686. What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints
to prevent leakage?
a. Rubber bond b. Masking tape c. Teflon tape d. Tape
687. How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?
a. 2 pcs. b. 2.5 pcs. c. 3 pcs. d. 3.5 pcs.
688. A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?
a. Coupling b. Elbow c. Tee d. Pipe wrench
689. If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink, and water closet,
which valve are you going to shut off?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
690. If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 2% d. 1%
691. If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic tank?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 5 meters d. 20 meters
692. No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
693. If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum meter radius
from a well to the residences?
a. 150 meters b. 100 meters c. 50 meters d. 200 meters
694. Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be _________.
a. Self-regulating b. tight c. fix d. self-cleaning
695. There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
696. The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft. b. 2.0 m c. 6.0 m d. 10 ft.
697. If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main supply,
what is the standard length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
698. 89. If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main supply,
what is the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
699. 90. All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
a. Lavatory b. water closet c. sink d. Bath tub
700. To achieve a satisfying family life, each member is expected to live his role with corresponding _________.
a. loyalty b. Responsibilities c. needs d. wants
701. Which is true about dark colored vegetables
a. Affordable and fresher b. Cheaper and juicer
c. Fresher and sweeter d. Nutritious and cheaper
702. The branch of science that deals with the use of vacuum tube, transistors, and photo devices is
a. Electronics b. Biology c. Electricity d. Chemistry
703. The financial record that tells you how much your business is worth is the ________.
a. Cash flow report b. Income statement c. Cash report d. Balance statement
704. What quantity pushes electrons to move?
a. Voltage b. Frequency c. Wattage d. Resistance
705. It refers to as the title of a person who is skilled in the field of sanitation.
a. Engineer b. Plumber c. Doctor d. Teacher
706. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument.
153
a. Ruler b. Triangles c. Meter stick d. T-square
707. The handle of the tool is generally made of plastic or wood and is used for spreading mortar.
a. Mason's hammer b. Mason's line c. Blocking chisel d. Trowel
708. It comes from the latin word "manus" which means hand, and "cura" meaning care and refers to care for
the hand.
a. Cosmetology b. Electrology c. Manicure d. Pedicure
709. If you have a small business, you want people to patronize the store. The best way of attracting more
buyers
depends on
a. Store layout b. High-pricing of local merchandise
b. Beautiful saleslady d. Consumers' likes
710. Static electricity is produced by massive collision of charges called _______________.
a. Carbon plate b. Friction c. Magnets d. Zinc plate
711. It is a process of changing the color of the tabletop using varnish.
A. Bleaching B. Staining C. Coloring D. Blending
712. It is recommended that the mixed concrete should be poured before the initial setting takes place
and this within.
A. 30min. B. 45min. C. 1hour D. 1hour and 30min.
713. It is kind of chisel used for hand chiseling work on a very small space to work. This kind of chisel has a
long blade
A. Mortise chisel B. Firmer chisel C. Paring chisel D. Butt chisel
714. A plumbing permit is required for the replacement of which of the following?
a. Water closet b. Water heater c. Bathing unit d. Faucet
715. The provisions for licensing are determined by which of the following:
a. State Board of Plumbing b. Authority having jurisdiction
b. Plumbing inspector d. The responsible master plumber
716. Which of the following is suitable for testing a DWV system for leaks?
a. Air b. Water c. Smoke d. All of the above
717. All pipe used in plumbing applications will have all of the following markings except:
a. Pressure rating in psi b. Nominal pipe size
c. Length of pipe d. Manufacturer's brand name
718. What is the likely height of a handicap toilet?
a. 13 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 22 inches
719. What is the minimum unobstructed opening of egress when a shower door is installed for a typical
shower?
a. 22 inches
b. 24 inches
c. 28 inches
d. 30 inches
720. Which of the following is considered to be the best method for connecting an indirect waste to a
sanitary drainage system?
a. Air gap
b. Air break
c. Both a and b are equal
d. None of the above
721. The minimum vertical distance from the bottom of an indirect drain line to its receptor's flood rim is
_____________________________.
a. 1"
b. ¾"
c. ½"
d. 2"
722. Which of the following types of fixtures can be served by a combination-waste-and-vent system?
a. Urinals
b. Toilets
c. Sinks
d. Bidets
723. You are connecting two back to back lavatories, two urinals and two water closets to one horizontal
branch. What are the maximum number fixtures that can be connected to a horizontal branch?
154
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
724. Piping for building drains and horizontal drainage branches require the installation of cleanouts.
Spacing for these cleanouts is determined by the diameter of the drain and other factors. In this scenario
the drain pipe diameter is three inches. This drain has a running length of 77 feet. During this run the pipe
takes one 90-degree turn. How many cleanouts are required for this installation?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
725. One trap arm may serve a total of how many P-traps?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
726. Flexible water connections are required to be _________.
a. Readily accessible
b. Accessible
c. Limited to first-floor installations
d. Supported
727. Water heaters, hose bibs and sill cocks are normally protected from backflow with ________.
a. An air gap
b. An air break
c. A vacuum breaker
d. A reduced-pressure backflow preventer
728. What is the typical amount of grade required per liner foot on a household drainage pipe?
a. 1/8 inch
b. 1/4 inch
c. 3/4 inch
d. 1 inch
729. What will result when a 4 inch pipe is reduced in size in the direction of the flow?
a. The waste will travel faster which will allow for better cleaning of the pipe.
b. This could cause blockage to build up at the reduction point.
c. This could cause slugging in the waste system.
d. This will have no effect on the drainage system.
730. In Med Gas systems, the exhaust from vacuum pumps must be discharged into the following:
a. Designated receptor
b. Indirect drain
c. Outdoors
d. Relief vent
731. Flux can only be used in the brazing process when:
a. Brazing copper to brass
b. Brazing copper to copper
c. Not allowed
d. Both a and b
732. Where is the maximum allowable working pressure of a storage tank and water heater required to be
shown?
a. In the installation guide
b. Stamped in the metal
c. On a permanently attached plate
d. Either b or c
733. The minimum depth thickness for a water heater drip pan is ____________.
a. 1"
b. 1.5"
155
c. 3/4"
d. 2"
734. Gray water that enters a collection reservoir must be ________.
a. Measured
b. Flow controlled
c. Filtered
d. Monitored
735. What is the maximum amount of time that gray water is allowed to be retained for use to flush a
toilet or urinal?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours
736. Gas piping installed in a laundry chute ____________.
a. Must be secured at maximum intervals of 6 feet
b. Must be protected from damage in the normal course of use of the chute
c. Is required to be installed with only vertical pipe sections
d. Is a code violation
737. When flow controls are installed on gas piping, they _____________.
a. Must be accessible
b. Must not contain sediment traps
c. Must be equipped with a leak-limiting device
d. Are used to keep operating pressure lower than the supply pressure
738. What is the angle made when you offset a sewer with a 1/8 bend?
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 72°
d. 90°
739. What is the total force in pounds on a 6 inch diameter test plug with a water head of 15 feet?
a. 3.00 psi
b. 4.25 psi
c. 6.51 psi
d. 7.20 psi
740. The unit of energy in MKS system is
a. volt
b. erg
c. ohm
d. joule
741. For safety, the fuse wire used in the mains for household supply of electricity must be made of metal
having
a. low specific heat
b. high melting point
c. high resistance
d. low melting point
742. For galvanizing iron which of the following metals is used?
a. Lead
b. Aluminium
c. Copper
d. Zinc
743. Steel is more elastic than Rubber because
a. it is a metal
b. its density is high
c. ratio of stress to strain is more
d. ratio of stress to strain is less
744. Pressure cooker cooks rice faster because
a. it always lets the steam escape
156
b. high pressure crushes the hard covering of rice grains
c. it does not let the heat energy escape easily
d. high pressure raises the boiling point of water
745. The chief purpose of crop rotation is to check the loss of top soil
a. by weathering
b. by wind erosion
c. by water erosion
d. of its mineral content
746. Of the following foods, which one is the best source of protein?
a. Butter
b. Fish
c. Lettuce
d. Milk
747. The credit of inventing the television goes to
a. Edison
b. Baird
c. Faraday
d. Marconi
748. Wright Brothers are regarded inventors of the
a. Hot Air Balloon
b. Bicycle
c. Aeroplane
d. None of the above
749. The element of an electric stove made
a. invar
b. copper
c. magnalium
d. nicrome
750. Which of these is a modified underground stem?
a. Sweet Potato
b. Carrot
c. Potato
d. Radish
751. Microphone is used to convert
a. sound waves into electrical energy
b. sound waves into light rays
c. electrical energy into sound waves
d. sound waves into magnetic currents
752. The electron was first identified by
a. J. Kepler
b. D. Rutherford
c. J. J. Thompson
d. James Chadwick
753. The chemical name of Vitamin B is
a. thiamine
b. ascorbic acid
c. riboflavin
d. nicotinamide
754. What is done to raise dough while making bread?
a. Alcohal is added.
b. Yeast is added.
c. Carbon dioxide is passed.
d. Air is passesd.
755. The instrument used to measure electric current is
a. ammeter
b. electrometer
157
c. galvanometer
d. spectrometer
756. The reaction which converts sugar solution into alcohol is an example of
a. saponification
b. hydrogenation
c. fermentation
d. hydrolysis
757. The refrigerant commonly used for domestic refrigerators is
a. alcohol
b. ammonia
c. neon
d. None of the above
758. The SI unit of ___ is named after Andre Marie Ampere.
a. power
b. potential difference
c. electric current
d. energy
759. The purest form of water can be obtained from
a. a deep tubewell
b. a running stream
c. a hot water spring
d. a heavy shower of rain
760. The unit of current is
a. ohm
b. watt
c. ampere
d. None of the above
761. What is the function of a dynamo?
a. To convert heat energy into light energy
b. To convert light energy into heat energy
c. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
d. To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
762. When cream is separated from milk
a. the density of milk increases
b. the density of milk decreases
c. the density of milk remains unchanged
d. it becomes more viscous
763. Most commonly used bleaching agent is
a. alcohol
b. carbon dioxide
c. chlorine
d. sodium chloride
764. Transferring text to another location w/out deleting it from its original location is called;
a. Scrolling
b. Searching
c. copying
d. moving
765. What bar that displays the part of the document that is temporarily off the screen?
a. scroll bar
b. tool bar
c. menu bar
d. status bar
766. A bar that contains shortcut buttons in graphic form, which is an alternative in using the menu bar.
a. tool bar
b. menu bar
c. ruler
158
d. title bar
767. Before a block of text can be copied or moved, what must be done first?
a. select /highlight blocks of text
b. mark the text
c. move the text
d. copied the text
768. What are words printed in darker type is said to be?
a. bold
b. Italic
c. Font style
d. Font size
769. If you accidentally erased a word, what feature to reversed?
a. redo
b. undo
c. copy
d. edit
770. What is the shortest command to open a document?
a. Ctrl + N
b. Ctrl + P
c. Ctrl + O
d. Ctrl + D
771. To select all
a. Press Ctrl + A c. Press Ctrl + B
b. Press Ctrl + C d. Press Ctrl + D
772. Which of the following is not found in the menu bar?
a. file b. edit c. table d. wood art
773. In saving files, which of the following is the first step?
a. change entry c. click minimize button
b. click on the file menu d. click open button
774. A general purpose word processing software.
a. word processing c. microsoftt word
b. microsoft Excel d. all of them
775. Which of the following component acts like “eyes and the ears “of the computer.
a. Input devices b. Output devices c. CPU d. software
776. What is the typical storage size of a floppy disk?
a. 1.4 MB b. 3.5 MB c. 600 MB d. 1GB
777. All of the following are components of a hardware in a typical computer system except
a. CPU c. compact discs
b. input and output devices d. storage devices
778. Are no-removable disks, fixed inside the cabinet, used for storing [read and write] very large amount
of information called
a. CPU b .Compact Disks c. floppy Disks d. hard disks
779. 16. What do you call the application programs that is used to store very large amount of data in a
structured manner, maintaining various relationships among these data?
a. Word processing b. Desktop Publishing
b. Networking d. Word processing
780. All of the following is an example of input devices except
a. mouse b. monitor c. keyboard d. scanners
781. A sequence of commands written in a computer programming language that specifies a task the
computer will perform is called
a. programs b. Data c. Documents d. Networks
782. What is the term given to the programmed formula
a. cell b. function c. graph d. range
783. A button in toolbar that let you arrange text in alphabetical order from A to Z
a. text alignment c. text direction
159
b. sort descending d. sort ascending
784. What is the extension of Microsoft Excel?
a. doc b. .xls c. .pub d. .html
785. To edit text in excel
a. double click the cell
b. click on the formula bar
c. From edit menu click copy
d. both a and b
786. How do call the group of cells?
a. rows b. range c. address d. columns
787. Text that are entered are
a. left aligned b. centered c. right aligned d. justified
788. In excel rows have
a. Alphabets c. alphabetic cells
b. numbers d .numeric labels
789. Temporarily stores the data and instructions entered from the disks drive or other input devices
a. RAM b. ALU c .DOS d. computer
790. Performs arithmetic and logic operations
a. hardware b. DOS c. ALU d. RAM
791. Disk operating system
a. hardware b. DOS c. ALU d. RAM
792. Refers to the computer equipment and all other physical devices connected to it.
a. computer aided instruction
b. computer
c. software
d. hardware
793. An instruction that tells the computer what you want it to do.
a. computer aided instruction
b. computer
c. software
d. hardware
794. A machine that performs mathematical calculations or electronic communication under the control
of a set of instructions
a. computer b. software c. hardware d. program
795. Kind of teaching where computers are used so that students will appreciate and understand the
lessons well.
a. Information c. program
b. computer aided instruction d. computer
796. Set of instructions that tells the computer what to do and how to it
a. data b. program c. information d .computer
797. A processed data
a. information b. data c .program d. system
798. A collection of facts about people, things, ideas and events
a. Information b. data c .program d .system
799. To delete text at the right of your cursor.
a. Del key b. bark space key c. space bar d. end key
800. The paper size w/c commonly known as long.
a. portrait b. landscape c. letter d. legal
801. The Ctrl + x means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
802. The paper size which is commonly as short.
a. portrait b. landscape c. letter d. legal
803. The command button used to verify if the document is properly layout for printing.
a. save b. print c. preview d. verify
804. To delete text located at the left of your cursor.
160
a. del key b. shift +spacebar c. backspace d. tab
805. The Ctrl + V means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
806. The feature of MS-Word where you can have gradient color of your auto shapes object.
a. color button b. file color c. shading color d .file efforts
807. The CTRL+C means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
808. The feature in MS Word where you can remove portion of graphics to fit your needs.
a. slice b. crop c. rotate d. cut
809. Which of the following that refers to the programs or instructions that the computer executes to
perform its task.
a. hardware b. software c. people ware d. store
810. A person who writes or creates a program.
a. Installer
b. Programmer
c. debugger
d. Computer
811. Which of the following software is most appropriate for an accountant/
a. Word Processing c. Spreadsheets
b. COBOL d. QBasic
812. What will you use to display the smallest value out of the set of values?
a. DIS b. MAX c. LARGE d. MIN
813. Loading an operating system into the computer is called
a. Booting b. Paging c. Prompting d. Interrupting
814. Microsoft Excel is how many times larger than Lotus 123 in terms of number of cell?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
815. The command to transfer text to another location without erasing it from its original location is
a. Copy b. Move c. Scroll d. Search
816. What feature allows viewing any part of the document or worksheet on screen?
a. Editing b. Pasting c. Scrolling d. Searching
817. In spreadsheets, which of the following that cannot be used for calculations
a. Labels b. Values c. Dates c. Numbers
818. The term for restarting the operating system in a computer already powered is
a. warm boot b. cold boot c. warm start d. both a and c
819. This contains several menu names, if you click on one of these, a drop-down list of commands
appears.
a. Selection bar c. Menu bar
b. Document control menu d. Status bar
820. Which of the following toolbar is used to specify different fonts, styles, size, and text alignment and
so on?
a. Standard toolbar
b. Auto text
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Control toolbox
821. What output device allows the computer to communicate with the system unit?
a. Plotter b. Printer c. Monitor d. Scanner
822. Which feature of Word Processing transfer text to another location without deleting its form in its
original location?
a. Copying b. Moving c. Searching d. Scrolling
823. What document contains rows and columns of text and numbers?
a. Word b. Database c. Desktop d. Spreadsheet
824. How do you call a group of cells?
a. rows b. range c. address d. columns
825. What will you do to restore an accidentally erased word?
a. Edit b. Undo c. Redo d. Format
826. What is the keyboard shortcut for opening another new document?
161
a. Ctrl + N b. Ctrl + D c. Shift + N d. Shift + D
827. What is termed as the general accepted electronic device capable of interpreting and performing
programmed instruction?
a. Computer b. Fax Machine c. Internet d. Television
828. A valid DOS filename specification consist of
a. 10 alphanumeric characters
b. a 9-character filename
c. an 8-character filename pus an optional extension of a period followed by 3 characters
d. an 11 character name, separated by a period at any position within the name
829. To select all existing text, press:
a. Ctrl + Shift + A c. Ctrl + E
b. Ctrl + A d. Shift + A
830. What will you click on if you want to divide the empty space where you enter a text into two or three
parts?
a. Page Break b. Columns c. Gutter d. Parameter
831. In saving files, which is the fastest way?
a. Click the save button c. click the file menu
b. click the open button d. both a and b
832. Which of the following is defined as the distance of your text from the edge of the paper?
a. Margins c. Set tabs
b. Line Spacing d. Page Numbering
833. The numeric keypad can be used to
a. type numbers b. alphabet keys c. function keys d. 1 to 10 keys
834. The boldface function can be specified by pressing
a. the F8 keys c. Ctrl + B
b. shift + f8 d. none of the above
835. What do you call the text information in a cell?
a. Label
b. Value
c. Formula
d. Cell Address
836. What is the extension of Microsoft Excel workbook?
a. .sys b. .xls c. .doc d. .com
837. What do you call the bar that displays the menu options?
a. Title bar c. Menu bar
b. Toolbar d. Formatting toolbar
838. What are the buttons found on the upper right hand corner of an application program window or
folder?
a. Options buttons
b. Command buttons
c. Application Buttons
d. Program Control Buttons
839. What DOS internal command which means “clear screen”?
a. DIR b. CLS c. VER d. PROMPT
840. A static bitmap picture that appears in Window desktop.
a. Patterns c. Screen saver
b. Wallpaper d. Animated Picture
841. It is a moving bitmap picture on the screen so that an image is not permanently etched into the
screen.
a. Patterns c. Screen saver
b. Wallpaper d. Animated Picture
842. What do you call the set of letters, numbers, and symbols that have different styles and sizes?
a. font c. character
b. formatting set d. formatting tools
162
843. It refers to Disk Operating System commands that reside on disk as program files, what are these
commands?
a. DOS system files c. DOS utility programs
b. Internal DOS commands d. External DOS commands
844. What do you call the bar that provides tool buttons for speedy processing of a file?
a. Title bar c. Menu bar
b. Tool bar d. Formatting bar
845. What does ENIAC stands for?
a. Electronic Numeric Integrator and Computer
b. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
c. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Compiler
d. Electronic Numerical Integrated and Computer
846. What type of software enables you to design pages with elaborate charts and graphics, with text and
headlines in a variety of typefaces?
a. Word Processing b. Desktop Publishing
b. Electronic Spreadsheet d. Database Management System
847. The conversion of data to information is,
a. Processed b. Processor c. Processing d. Possessed
848. What symbol is used to separate filename and file extension?
a. Slash (/) b. Asterisk (*) c. Dot or period (.) d. Back slash (\)
849. What do you call an electronic instruction that tell the hardware to perform a task?
a. Icon b. Button c. Software d. Command
850. An operating system is a ________.
a. set of users c. set of programs
b. supervisor program d. form of time-sharing
851. What do you call the actual number entered into a cell?
a. Label b. Value c. Graph d. Cell Address
852. What bar that displays the filename of the document?
a. title bar b. Menu bar c. Toolbar d. Formatting toolbar
853. What do you call an on screen picture?
a. Icon b. Page c. Spool d. Bullets
854. A relatively small and inexpensive type of computer, usually used by an individual in home or office
setting. What is the other term for this type of computer?
a. Mainframe c. Supercomputer
b. Minicomputer d. Personal computer
855. What is a machine or device that allows data to be read from a disk?
a. Hard disk c. Disk drive
b. c. Optical Scanner d. Primary memory
856. What is the largest and most powerful category of computers?
a. Mainframe c. Supercomputer
b. Microcomputer d. Personal computer
857. What GUI stands for?
a. Graphical User Interactive b. Graphical User Interface
b. Graphical User Interrupt d. Graphical User Imaging
858. The MKDIR, or MD, command will
a. manage directory files c. create a file copy
b. make a directory on a disk d. either a or b
859. This contains several menus and submenus. If you click on one of these, a drop-down list of
commands appears.
a. Selection bar c. Document control menu
b. Menu Bar d. Status bar
860. A valid DOS filename specification consist of
a. 10 Alphanumeric characters
b. a 9-character filename
c. C. an 11 character name, separated by a period at any position within the name
163
d. an 8-character filename plus an optional extension of a period followed by 3 characters
861. The manner of saving, giving filename, making folder, naming folder and placing folder in your
desired directory.
a. File Management skills c. File naming skills
b. cut, copy, paste skills d. Ms Word skills
862. The following are commands in Disk Operating System, which of these is considered as external
command.
a. Dir c. cls
b. chkdsk d. ren
863. Which is the correct syntax in the following
a. c:\format a:/p c. c:\del *.*/p
b. c:\format d:/p d. c:/ren Monday.xls Tuesday.xls
864. The following are the functions of an Operating system except
a. a. Ready both hardware and software
b. terminate software and hardware during error
c. Supervise and manage the hardware and software
d. Interact with users
865. The collection of unorganized facts is known as
a. Data
b. Information
c. Digits
d. Bytes
866. The speed of microprocessor is measured in terms of
a. bytes c. mbps
b. Hz d. lts
867. Which of the following toolbar is used to specify different fonts, styles, point sizes, text alignment and
so on?
a. Standard Toolbar
b. Formatting Toolbar
c. Auto Text
d. Control Toolbox
868. To Select All existing text,
a. press Ctrl + Shift+ A C. press Ctrl + A
b. press Ctrl + Number 5 D. either B or C
869. The teacher ask you to create a document containing the list of top ten students according to their
rank more likely you will use this MS-Word feature.
a. column
b. table
c. b. header and footer
d. d. page border
870. One of the powerful feature of MS Word is spell checking. Accessing function key for spell checking
enable the user to work faster. Which of the following is use for checking spelling?
a. ALT+O+S C. F6
b. F7 D. CTRL+ALT+7
871. There are many toolbars in MS Word. What toolbars can you used to create or insert clipart.
a. Picture toolbar c. Drawing toolbar
b. Clipart toolbar d. table toolbar
872. One of the button of this toolbar is used to tilt down object or graphics.
a. Picture toolbarl c. drawing toolbar
b. 3d settings toolbar d. shadow setting toolbar
873. Page setup can be found in File menu. This dialog box is used to set document layout. Which of the
following is the horizontal layout of a document.
a. Portrait
b. horizontal
c. standing
164
d. landscape
874. You are using station 5 while station 20 have printer connected to its USB. You click the print button
but the printer is nor responding. Which of the following is the possible reason.
a. It will not print since it is not connected in your CPU.
b. The printer do not have ink
c. The printer is not shared in the network
d. The printer is not compatible with your unit
875. Line spacing can be found in format menu and paragraph command. However, it is best to use its key
stroke to fasten your work and performance. Which of the following is the key stroke for line spacing
equivalent to 1.5 line.
a. ctrl + 1.5 c. ctrl + 1
b. ctrl + 5 d. ctrl + 2
876. If you want to print a tri-fold documents like activity program and brochure, you will use this feature.
a. column c. table
b. header and footer d. page border
877. The application program use for lecture and training by the speakers.
a. Ms - Word c. Ms - Excel
b. Ms - PowerPoint d. Ms – publisher
878. Graphics or pictures is now created using computer. It is more advantage than manual because of its
capability to undo, redo, edit, change color, etc. One of the following is very useful computer aided
design application software.
a. Ms – Word
b. Adobe Photoshop
c. Quark Express
d. Adobe In Design
879. It is more powerful in designing newsletter, brochure, certificates, advertisement, calling card, poster
and streamers.
a. Ms - Word c. Ms - Excel
b. Ms - PowerPoint d. Ms – publisher
880. Formula or operators are powerful feature of Ms Excel to generate values. In getting the final grades
of the student which the following given D4= 84, D8 = 86, D12= the formulata should be
a. =sum(D4:D12)/3 c. =AVERAGE(D4:D12)/3
b. =sum(D4,D8,D12)/3 d. =AVERAGE(D4,D8,D12)/3
881. The MS Excel functions feature is so powerful that it can fasten your work specially arranging and
selecting the top ten according to grades. Which is the best function is appropriate to the situation?
a. Rank
b. Arrange
c. Topten
d. MAX
882. This Ms Excel feature is useful to get the name of the student who got the highest score in the test.
a. Rank
b. arrange
c. sum
d. d. MAX
883. This Ms Excel feature is used to get the quantity of students who passed the periodical test once you
determined the passing score.
a. rank
b. if
c. count if
d. else
884. If you type “partipants01” in one of the Excel cell, then you fill down using mouse. The lower cell will
have
a. blank cell
b. partcipants02
c. participants01
165
d. d. error message
885. The key stroke in fill down values is
a. ctrl + D c. ctrl + shift + d
b. ctrl + alt + d d. shift + d
886. To resize columns using mouse, the arrow pointer is
a. fat pointer
b. double arrow pointer
c. hour glass pointer
d. standard pointer
887. Internet, since it is introduced to the public has change the life of society. You can communicate in
your relatives and friends abroad at minimum cost. Which of the following is the function of the
internet where you can send textual message and may attached documents and graphics even the
receiver in not online?
a. chat
b. e-mail
c. Blog
d. information retrieval (web documents)
888. Two student are tired of collecting URL they visited. Realizing this problem, they come up with
the search engine technology in which every website address, topic, pages etc. can be index through
encoding its.
a. URL
b. domain name
c. IP address
d. Keywords
889. One of the greatest person in 21st century because he invented the World Wide Web as part of his
research.
a. Bill Gates c. Time Berners - Lee
b. Vinton Cerf d. Marc Andreessen
890. Back, forward, stop, refresh and home are buttons in what application software?
a. Ms Word 2003 c. Ms Publisher
b. Ms Internet Explorer 6 d. Ms Paint
891. Web Browser are application software that display the web pages according to HTML and other web
editor. The first ever graphical web browser is
a. Internet explorer c. Netscape Navigator
b. mosaic d. Mozilla
892. What is best role of internet to you as a student?
a. video - chat with friends
b. play on line games
c. Friendster and mp3 download
d. download discussions relevant to subjects.
893. A message “you won a trip to Caribbean” display even you are not clicking the link/s. This message is
known as
a. pops – up c. you have a lucky day
b. cookies d. ranking
894. BPS means bytes per seconds while the frequency of a transmission channel in hertz, kilohertz, etc.
This frequency is known as _________.
a. anti virus c. spam
b. bandwidth d. domain nam
895. Chatting have been the favorite of students, teachers and even grandparents. It allows the chatter to
communicate in real time to any places in the world. Normally, the begins of chatting text is “asl”
which means
a. Area where you live, system you are using and language you speaks.
b. Announcing your entry and you are Searching for friend and later wished to be Liken.
c. Age of the chater, his/her sex and the place you are chatting.
d. All of the following
896. The address depedcebu.ph, .deped.gov.ph, .stepcentralvisayas.co.nr, etc. are known as
166
a. data name c. Dynamic name
b. domain name d. digital name
897. What will you do if the browser hang up while it is displaying the homepage?
a. F3 c. F4
b. F5 d. F6
898. Protocol allows us to communicate to another person in different places. Which of the following
protocol is used for World Wide Web.
a. TCP/IP c. SMTP
b. DHCP d. ISP
899. The following are suffix that describe the type of the organization. Which one is used by corporation?
a. .net
b. .com
c. .org
d. .edu
900. CVISNET, Pldt, Globe, Smart, msn, bayantel, infocom, mozcom are companies that sells access to the
internet. They are known as
a. IRC
b. ISP
c. ISDN
d. DHCP
901. Everytime you open a web page, the computer store file/s in your hard drive. You will notice that it is
faster to open a page/s when you click the back button than to open a new one because it will
download file from web server while the other is already downloaded by computer. The downloaded
web page in your hard disk in known as
a. file
b. document
c. temporaty
d. cache
902. The following are very important skills if you want to communicate with your friends abroad. Which
one is not necessarily be a member of the group?
a. c c
b. b c c
c. subject
d. Pfc
903. The part of web browser where you can type the URL.
a. name bar c. address bar
b. URL bar d. menu bar
904. This new trends of internet is exciting since you can post your pictures, forum topic, comments.
Member of the group can post comments, objections and greetings to your personal web page.
Personal web page is also known as
a. Electronic mail c. On – line game
b. blog d. Video conferencing.
905. The first page of your browser always display www.msn.com. What menu or command in the browser
can you use for setting the home page to www.stepcentralvisayas.co.nr.
a. setting menu c. favorite menu
b. tools menu d. home page menu
906. The following are suggested tips for e-mail users except
a. Consider carefully what you write; it is permanent record and can be forwarded easily to others.
b. When sending web site address, always type it in the form of http://
c. You can forward any e-mail you received since it is your message already
d. Write descriptive subject lines. Many busy people will only open messages with captivating subject
lines.
907. Respect other people’s online rights, respect the privacy of other people, be responsible online, do not
read others chat message and do not forward malicious graphics are known as
a. good practices
b. netiquette
167
c. users guide
d. FAQ
908. One of the function of the internet that which cause the reduction of student performance especially
male.
a. Electronic mail c. On – line game
b. blog d. Video conferencing.
909. The global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web.
a. URL b. http c. html d. www
910. What is the term used to indicate a large container of liquid usually used in culturing fish.
A. Reservoir
B. Tank
C. Basin
D. Fishpond
911. How to remedy a tank with low dissolved oxygen?
A. Start the blower
B. Start the water pump
C. Start the puddle wheel
D. Start the electric fan beside the tank
912. Tool used for measuring the distance between two symmetrically opposing sides. It can be like a
compass.
A. Caliper
B. Folder ruler
C. Ruler
D. Square
913. A device for measuring the weight of an object.
A. Paper weight
B. Measuring tool
C. Weighing scale
D. Square
914. The meaning of calculation is:
A. To ascertain by estimating
B. To ascertain by computing
C. To ascertain by visualizing
D. To ascertain by converting
915. Which of the ff. is a project caretaker?
A. Prepare a feasibility study
B. Form a functional working team
C. Secure loan from a bank
D. Delegate work to others
916. What is the listing of activities in relation to manpower requirements?
A. Project estimation
B. Project development
C. Project programming
D. Project proposal making
917. What should be prepared in order to estimate the quality of materials and resources needed to
complete a work?
A. Schedule of development
B. Bill of materials
C. Feasibility study
D. Project proposal
918. What is needed to analyze the demand of a particular job in relation to the qualification of a job
applicant?
A. Job requirement
168
B. Educational qualification of applicants
C. Materials needed to complete a work activity
D. Financial requirements
919. It refers to domesticated birds or fowls.
A. Poultry
B. Livestock
C. Amphibians
D. Mammals
920. It is the practices related to production and work process.
A. Occupational safety
B. Safety
C. Psychosocial environment
D. Biological
921. It includes workplace stressors arising from a variety of sources.
A. Psychosocial environment
B. Biological
C. Chemicals
D. Mechanical/electrical
922. It includes bacteria, viruses, mold, mildew, insects, vermin & animals.
A. Biological
B. Chemicals
C. Mechanical/ electrical
D. Psychosocial environment
923. It includes electricity, machinery, equipment, pressure vessels, dangerous goods, fork lifts, cranes &
hoists.
A. Mechanical/or electrical
B. Chemicals
C. Biological
D. Psychosocial environment
924. Which tool resembles the appearance of spoon and use for transferring soil?
A. Spade
B. Shovel
C. Spading fork
D. Grab hoe
925. A tool with one end of its blade flattened and the other pointed at right angles to its handle is a
_____.
A. Mattock
B. Crowbar
C. Bolo
D. Spade
926. What tool does NOT belong to the group?
A. Crowbar
B. Mattock
C. Shovel
D. Pruning shear
927. Which tool is used for cutting grasses?
A. Shovel
B. Bolo
C. Crowbar
D. Mattock
928. Which of the ff. is an example of a digging tool?
A. Bolo
169
B. Crowbar
C. Grab hoe
D. Pruning shear
929. The physical unit associated with computer.
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Microchip
D. Application
930. An electronic device designed to generate useful information through proper manipulation of data.
A. Digital computer
B. Computer
C. Calculator
D. Robots
931. Largest and fastest machine with a capacity of 50 million operations per second.
A. Large scale computers
B. Super computers
C. Medium size computer
D. Analog computer
932. Process data in continuous forms at high speed.
A. Large scale computer
B. Super computer
C. Medium size computer
D. Analog computers
933. Unlocks the margin stop.
A. Margin stop
B. Margin release
C. Tab clear key
D. Card holder
934. Means satisfying human wants and needs.
A. Utility
B. Manufacturing
C. Manufacturer
D. Processing
935. The products are brought to it instead of the products moving from one area to another.
A. Project manufacturing
B. Batch manufacturing
C. Flow shop
D. Job order
936. Manufacturing activity that falls midway between continuous flow and the job order type.
A. Flow shop
B. Job order
C. Project manufacturing
D. Batch manufacturing
937. Costumer and storeowner agreement on the amount to be paid by the costumer to the latter on
specified dates.
A. Selling price
B. Installment
C. Mark up
D. Mark down
938. Anyone who engages in entrepreneurial activities/enterprises.
A. Entrepreneur
B. Entrepreneurship
170
C. Services
D. Retailing
939. Activities/Benefits offered for sale.
A. Services
B. Retailing
C. Installment
D. Wholesaling
940. Production of goods and services.
A. Manufacturing
B. Wholesaling
C. Retailing
D. Purchasing
941. A part of the amount of the merchandise is paid in cash by the costumer and the rest of the amount
is charged to his/her account.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
942. The costumer and the store owner agree that a certain amount be paid on a specified date until the
merchandise is fully paid.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
943. Upon delivery of the merchandise to his/her home the costumer pay cash for it.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
944. The costumer takes home the merchandise that has been charge to him/her.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
945. The goods are charged to the costumer and then deliver to his/her home.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
946. The customer pays for the goods and takes these homes w/ him/her.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
947. This sales type requires the costumers to pay for cash for the goods he/she buys and store delivers
the goods to his/her home.
a. Cash-Send or cash deliver sale
b. Charge-send or charge-deliver
c. Cash-take-sale
d. Charge-take-sale
948. Requires wise purchasing, vigilant checking, proper storage of goods, and reasonable pricing.
a. Wholesaling
171
b. Purchasing
c. Pricing
d. Retailing
PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Ms. Cruz was hired in a well-equipped school but she has to start preparing her instructional
materials before classes begin. Which of the following is a systematic process in preparing her
materials?
a. design – utilization – evaluation - development
b. design – development – utilization – evaluation
c. development – design – utilization – evaluation
d. development – utilization – evaluation – design
2. Ms. Briones is planning to integrate technology in her Mathematics class. Which of the following
would be her second step?
a. set the objectives
b. analyze the learners
c. utilize the materials with showmanship
d. evaluate the performance of the students
3. Which of the following should Ms. Gomez primarily consider in determining her teaching and
learning objectives and use of instructional media?
172
a. The learner
b. The listener
c. The instructional activity
d. The instructional strategy
4. Ms. Villegas is thinking of an educational technology that can relay information clearly to her
class. Which principle will guide her in the selection of the material?
a. Interest
b. Meaningfulness
c. cost effectiveness
d. communication effectiveness
5. Mrs. Martha presented real samples of rocks when she discussed the different forms of rocks.
What principle in the selection of instructional material did she apply?
a. Interest
b. authenticity
c. cost effective
d. responsiveness
6. Which of the following is a limitation of conventional technologies in teaching and learning?
a. They pose problems on storage.
b. They are less abstract and more concrete.
c. They are readily available in the environment, around school, and in the home.
d. They provide hands-on learning experiences and emphasize real-world applications
7. Which of the following is not a contribution of technology to the learning process?
a. The quality of learning can be improved
b. The delivery of instructions can be more interesting
c. The role of the teacher can be changed into a demonstrator.
d. The method of teaching and learning becomes more interactive
8. In what way can instructional aids foster learning?
a. Reinforce learning
b. Entertain students
c. Take the place of the teacher
d. Holds students in the classroom
9. With the pervasiveness of technologies nowadays, a learner-centered instruction can be
promoted. Which of the following statements support this approach to teaching?
i. It focuses on transformation of facts.
ii. It supports the use of lecture and drill methods.
iii. It gives emphasis on collaboration and authentic assessment.
iv. Students work on tasks determined and controlled by the teacher
a. I and II only
b. II and IV only
c. I and III only
d. D. III and IV only
10. Prof. Yeye’s students use cooperative learning, inquiry based and project-based learning
approaches in creating their digital unit plans. What can be developed among the learners
through these approaches?
a. repetition and active learning
b. repetition & information delivery
c. information processing and active learning
d. construction of knowledge and information exchange
11. Which group of technologies has the highest degree of abstraction?
a. book, imaginative literature, programmed instruction
b. digital video, film, versatile compact disc
c. video, pictures and television
d. realia and computer
12. Mrs. Soriano, a Grade V teacher prefers to use textbooks than other instructional materials. What
could be her reason for using it?
a. Textbooks can be easily duplicated.
b. Textbooks quickly become updated.
c. Textbooks address the needs of diverse students.
173
d. Textbooks contain most of the materials they need to learn in the course.
13. It is impractical to bring real objects to the classroom so Ms. Berns constructed a three
dimensional visual instead. Which of the following did she construct?
a. Cartoon
b. Chart
c. Graphic
d. model
14. If a teacher wants to teach her pupils the skill to organize and integrate related concepts, which
of the following is the most appropriate graphic organizer to use?
a. Timeline
b. Fishbone
c. Venn diagram
d. Semantic webbing
15. In classical conditioning, which are paired together in order to elicit the desired response?
a. UCS and NS
b. CS and NS
c. UCS and CS
d. UCR and NS
16. Which graphic organizer is used to show how a series of events interact to produce a set of
results again and again?
a. Series of events chart
b. Web
c. Cycle
d. Timeline
17. According to Thorndike, what law states that the strength of a connection is influenced by the
consequences of the response?
a. Law of disuse
b. Law of effect
c. Law of exercise
d. Law of readiness
18. A burglary occurred in Jason's neighborhood. Since then, Jason is very careful of locking their
doors and closing windows. What theory best explains Jason's behavior?
a. Observational learning
b. Imitation learning
c. Self-regulated learning
d. Vicarious learning
19. Which instructional aid requires pupils to verbalize?
a. graphic
b. diorama
c. model
d. video
20. In observation and imitation learning, what should be the learner's response when the teacher
initially models the behavior?
a. produce and match
b. Pay Attention
c. Imitate and practice
d. Shows satisfaction
21. What is the correct sequence of information processing?
a. Sensory register-STM-LTM
b. STM-sensory register-LTM
c. Sensory register-LTM-STM
d. LTM-sensory register- STM
22. What should be the hierarchy of the types of learning according to the cumulative learning
theory?
1. Problem solving learning
2. Rule learning
174
3. Discrimination learning
4. Concept learning
a. 2-1-3-4
b. 2-1-4-3
c. 2-3-4-1
d. 2-4-3-1
23. Which of the following is inappropriate in using printed visuals such as charts, graphs, and drawings?
a. Provide written or verbal cues to highlight important aspects of visuals.
b. Allow the students to pass the materials from one person to another.
c. Use materials that everyone can see.
d. Present the material one at time.
24. Which is essential in meaningful reception learning?
a. Concepts are presented to learner and received by them.
b. Concepts are discovered by the learner
c. Concepts are related to one another
d. Concepts are solicited from the learners
25. Grace is bilingual. She speaks both English and Filipino fluently. She begins to study Spanish and
immediately recognizes many similarities between the Spanish and Filipino languages and uses this
information to acquire the new language faster. What kind of transfer was Grace able to use?
a. Lateral Transfer
b. General Transfer
c. Specific Transfer
d. Vertical Transfer
26. Under what category will a globe as an instructional material fall?
a. Realia
b. Mock up
c. Solid model
d. Cutaway model
27. Cristina is almost asleep when she felt the need to go to the bathroom. She tried to sleep it off but
after a while, she was forced to stand up and go to the bathroom. What theory of motivation
explains Cristina's behavior?
a. Attribution Theory
b. Drive Theory
c. Expectancies and Values Theory
d. Solomon's Opponent Theory
28. Marko excels in adding numbers. He learned this skill in his Math class. He is now able to apply
this skill in his Music class. What type of transfer was used?
a. Lateral transfer
b. General transfer
c. Specific transfer
d. Vertical transfer
29. Mr. Lorenzo would always give the chapter test on a Friday. What schedule of reinforcement is
used by Mr. Lorenzo?
a. Fixed interval
b. Fixed ratio
c. Variable interval
d. Variable ratio
22. Prof. Agustin would like to provide hands-on experience on the expansion and contraction of
matter. Which of the following materials would be the best to use?
a. Models
b. Pictures
c. Realias
d. Slides
30. To remember the six digits, 8, 4, 3, 9, 4, 5, the Math teacher grouped the numbers in two's 84,
39, 45 or in threes 843, 945. What control process of retaining information is referred to?
a. Chunking
b. Interfering
175
c. Rehearsing
d. Remembering
31. Rob regularly practice playing the guitar so he can finish Book I. His mother promised to buy him a
Nintendo when he finishes Book I. How is Rob motivated?
a. Extrinsically
b. Intrinsically
c. with Self-Determination
d. with Self-Efficacy
32. Lara excels in dancing and in certain sports. According to Gardner what intelligence is dominant in
Lara?
a. Bodily kinesthetic
b. Intrapersonal
c. Musical
d. Spatial
33. Ms. Sarah finds the chalkboard an effective instructional material up to present. However, just like
any other materials, it also has its limitations. Which one is it?
a. It allows spontaneity, speed and change.
b. Absent students cannot keep up with their assignments.
c. It is valuable for emphasizing the major points of the lesson.
d. It can be used for displaying pictures and important clippings.
34. According to Bronfen brenner, what system contains structures that has direct contact with the
child?
a. Chronosystem
b. Exosystem
c. Mesosystem
d. Microsystem
35. Some learners like to find specific and concrete answers. What kind of learners are they?
a. Accommodators
b. Assimilators
c. Convergers
d. Divergers
36. With which learning style group are manipulative MOST effective?
a. Master style group
b. Interpersonal style group
c. Understanding style group
d. Self- expressive style group
37. Mrs. Mercado, the Home Economics teacher, constantly gives verbal guidance to her pupils while
practicing a sewing skill. What is the value of giving verbal guidance in improving pupils learning
behavior?
a. It promotes the growth of interest in the new learning tasks
b. It serves as informational feedback
c. It facilitates perfection of skills
d. It directs pupils' attention to more adequate and better techniques
38. Why should learning be aided by formulating and asking questions?
a. Students will have a grade in recitation
b. Students will develop their self-confidence
c. The teacher will know who among the students can communicate very well
d. The teacher will not always do the talking but the students will be given a chance to do the same
thing.
39. Which does a pupil use when s/he sings a concept to a familiar tune in order to help himself commit
the concept to memory?
a. Rap
b. Jingle
c. Pop
d. Lullaby
40. Ms. Baquiran, the VE teacher, and her pupils, while working on the concept of honesty, agreed
that no cabinets and book cases would be locked throughout the day. Which principle in affective
176
learning is being implemented?
a. Provide exemplary models
b. Provide appropriate practice
c. Provide for pleasant emotional experience
d. Provide for independent attitude cultivation
41. Instead of asking her students to write about their reaction to a story, the teacher asked her
students to interpret the story in dance form. What principle of learning is considered?
a. Concepts should be presented in varied and different ways
b. Effort if put forth when tasks are challenging
c. Learning by doing is more effective than just sitting and listening
d. Learning is aided by formulating and asking questions
42. Prof. Arcilla would like to use audiocassette tape in teaching a lesson in English. In which activity is
audiocassette tape very effective in the teaching-learning process?
a. in developing listening skills
b. in teaching creative writing
c. in composing poems
d. in building concepts
43. In performing the minuet, first raise your heel, second make three steps forward, third step make
a point. What kind of knowledge was exhibited?
a. Conditional Knowledge
b. Declarative Knowledge
c. Domain-Specific Knowledge
d. Procedural Knowledge
44. Why should teachers provide positive feedback and realistic praise?
a. To motivate the students to study
b. So the students will know what to do
c. To be liked and loved by the students
d. So the students will praise him/her
45. Which statement does not refer to cognitive theories?
a. Prefer to concentrate on analyzing cognitive process
b. Conclusions are based on observation of external manifestations on learning
c. Study of the structures and components of information processing
d. Believe in non-observable behavior
46. Romalyn is going to discuss about The ADDIE Model to a big class. She is planning to use a
technology by which parts of her presentation could be partly hidden to make it more exciting
and interesting. What do you think shall she use?
a. Model
b. Realia
c. Transparency
d. Video
47. To ensure the lesson will go smoothly, Teacher A listed down the steps she will undertake
together with those of her students. This practice relates to?
a. Teaching style
b. Teaching method
c. Teaching strategy
d. Teaching technique
48. The class of Grade 6 - Einstein is scheduled to perform an experiment on that day. However, the
chemicals are insufficient. What method may then be used?
a. Project
b. Laboratory
c. Lecture
d. Demonstration
49. Teacher C gives the class specific topic as assignment which they have to research and pass the
following day. However, the students could not find any information about it. What method
should Teacher C use to teach the assignment?
a. Project method
b. Discovery approach
177
c. Lecture method
d. Demonstration method
50. Pictures, models and the like arouse student’s interest on the day's topic, in what part of the
lesson should the given materials be presented?
a. Initiating activities
b. Culminating activities
c. Evaluation activities
d. Developmental activities
51. Marie wants to make a presentation material wherein more additional transparent sheets with
information can be placed over a base transparency. Which one should she make?
a. Cut-out
b. Puppet
c. Silhouette
d. Overlay
52. In Bloom's taxonomy of educational objectives, the domains are stated from lowest to highest
level. Which of the following objectives belongs to the lowest level?
a. To identify the characters of the story.
b. To differentiate active from passive voice.
c. To give the available resources that could be recycled to useful things.
d. To explain the procedure in changing improper fraction to mixed number
53. The class of IV - Kalikasan is tasked to analyze the present population of the different cities and
municipalities of the National Capital Region for the last five years. How can they best present
their analysis?
a. By means of a table
b. By looking for a pattern
c. By means of a graph
d. By guessing and checking
54. Which one is used with 2d and 3d materials?
a. Opaque projector
b. overhead projector
c. digital projector
d. slide projector
55. There are several reasons why problem-solving is taught in Math. Which is the LEAST important?
a. It is the main goal for the study of Math
b. It provides the content in which concepts and skills are learned and applied
c. It provides an opportunity to develop critical and analytical thinking
d. It provides pupils an opportunity to relate Math in the real world
56. Teacher D teaches in a remote high school where newspapers are delivered irregularly. Knowing the
importance of keeping the students aware of current affairs, what is probably the best way to keep
the students updated?
a. Gather back issues of newspapers and let pupils compile them.
b. Urge the pupils to listen to stories circulating in the community.
c. Encourage the pupils to listen to daily broadcast from a transistor radio.
d. The teacher should try all available means to get the newspaper delivered to the school
57. Devices can make a lecture more understandable and meaningful. What is the most important
thing a teacher should consider in the selection and utilization of instructional materials?
a. Objectives of the lesson
b. Availability of instructional materials
c. Attractiveness of instructional materials
d. Degree of interest on the part of the students
58. After watching the film, “Muro Ami’, the students of Mrs. Tamaray are expected to show a
demonstrative proof of what they have learned. How is the technology used in this situation?
a. entertainment
b. informational
c. instructional
d. entertainment and informational
178
59. Teacher E asks student A to identify and analyze events, ideas or objects in order to state their
similarities and differences. In which part of the lesson does said activity take place?
a. Preparation
b. Generalization
c. Application
d. Comparison and Abstraction
60. Self-made charts and illustrations serve as universal aid for bringing fascinating and exciting
experiences in the classroom. To tap the optimum potentials of these materials, which of the
following should be avoided?
a. Giving due consideration to lettering.
b. Presenting materials with accurate facts.
c. Giving more importance to austerity over legibility.
d. Focusing on the main idea of the lesson presented.
61. Which part of the lesson is involved in the giving of situation or activities based on the concepts
learned?
a. Preparation
b. Generalization
c. Application
d. Comparison and Abstraction
62. Teacher F wants the class to find out the effect of heat on matter. Which method will help him
accomplish his objective?
a. Project Method
b. Laboratory Method
c. Problem Method
d. Expository Method
63. In Math, Teacher G presents various examples of plane figures to her class. Afterwards, she asks
the students to give definition of each. What method did she use?
a. Inductive
b. Laboratory
c. Deductive
d. Expository
64. Amyl used overhead transparencies when she presented her assigned topic to class. What type of
educational technology are transparencies?
a. printed material
b. projected material
c. graphic material
d. non-projected material
65. Teaching Tinikling to I-Maliksi becomes possible through the use of?
a. Inductive Method
b. Expository Method
c. Demonstration Method
d. Laboratory Method
66. Which instructional material/s is/are MOST fit in contextualized learning?
a. TV
b. slides
c. pictures
d. field trip
67. What is the implication of using a method that focuses on the why rather than the how?
a. There is best method
b. Typical one will be good for any subject
c. These methods should be standardized for different subjects.
d. Teaching methods should favor inquiry and problem solving.
68. Ms. Villanueva wants to teach the students the performance of a certain skill such as dancing. Which
technology would be the most appropriate and convenient to use?
a. film
b. video
c. television
179
d. printed material
69. When using problem solving method, the teacher can
a. Set up the problem
b. Test the conclusion
c. Propose ways of obtaining the needed data
d. Help the learners define what is it to be solved
70. Which of the following characterizes a well-motivated lesson?
a. The class is quiet.
b. The children have something to do.
c. The teacher can leave the pupils
d. There are varied procedures and activities undertaken by the pupils.
71. Slides are miniature transparencies. They can be created with simple cameras and simple
equipment. They display color in a realistic manner. However, they also have some limitations.
Which one is it?
a. They can be easily updated and revised.
b. They can be adapted to group or to individual use
c. They can get out of sequence if handled individually.
d. They can be combined with taped narration for greater effectiveness.
72. Learners must be developed not only in the cognitive, psychomotor but also in the affective
aspect. Why is development of the latter also important?
a. It helps them develop a sound value system.
b. Their actions are dominated by their feelings.
c. It helps them develop an adequate knowledge of good actions.
d. Awareness of the consequences of their action is sharpened.
73. Which of the following attributes characterizes a learner who is yet to develop the concept?
a. The learner can identify the attributes of the concept.
b. The learner can summarize the ideas shared about the concept.
c. The learner can distinguish examples from non-examples.
d. The learner gets a failing grade in the tests given after the concept has been discussed.
74. The strategy which makes use of the old concept of "each-one-teach-one" of the sixty's is similar
to?
a. Peer learning
b. Independent learning
c. Partner learning
d. Cooperative learning
75. Which part of the lesson does the learner give a synthesis of the things learned?
a. Motivation
b. Application
c. Evaluation
d. Generalization
76. Mrs. Santos used a film clip in teaching science concepts to her Grade Six class. However, she
found out that it was inefficiently used in the classroom. When the technology is considered
inefficient?
a. When it makes viewing more interesting.
b. When it increases the time to master the lesson.
c. When it helps attain the objectives of the lesson.
d. When it enhances understanding of new lesson.
77. Educational objectives are arranged from simple to complex. Why is this?
a. Each level is built upon and assumes acquisition of skills from the previous level.
b. Objectives are broad and value-laden statements that lead to the philosophy of education.
c. Be idealistic and ambitious to begin with grandiose scheme for using taxonomy in all levels.
d. These are guidelines to be taught and learned where teachers and students evaluate learning.
78. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Lesson plan should be in constant state of revision.
b. A good daily lesson plan ensures a better discussion.
180
c. Students should never see a teacher using a lesson plan.
d. All teachers regardless of their experience should have daily lesson plan.
79. In Music, Teacher 1 wants to teach the class how to play the piano in the Key of C. Which of the
following should be his objective?
a. To play the piano in the key of C chords
b. To improve playing the piano in the key of C
c. To interpret property of chords of Key of C in the piano
d. To exhibit excellent playing of piano in the key of C
80. When using instructional material, what should the teacher primarily consider?
a. The material must be new and skillfully made.
b. It must be suited to the lesson objective.
c. The material must stimulate and maintain students' interest
d. It must be updated and relevant to Filipino setting.
81. Prof. Manhattan’s lesson in EPP is about “Pagtatanim ng halaman” to her students. How can she
make her lesson more interesting and meaningful?
a. Have a viewing activity about the lesson.
b. Have them read their EPP book.
c. Give them a collaborative work.
d. Let them listen to a gardener.
82. Which is NOT a provision for the development of each learner in a good curriculum?
a. Extensive arrangements are made for the educational diagnosis of individual learners.
b. Self-directed, independent study is encouraged wherever possible and advisable.
c. Self-motivation and self-evaluation are stimulated and emphasized throughout the learning
opportunities of the school.
d. The program provides a wide range of opportunities for individuals with same abilities, needs
and interests.
83. Teacher Lily would like to take part in developing a subject-centered curriculum because she
believes that all subjects in this type of curriculum are geared towards the holistic development
of the learner. Is her belief about the subject-centered curriculum true?
a. Yes, because the subject-centered curriculum focuses on the learners needs, interests and
abilities.
b. No, because it is the experience-centered curriculum that emphasizes the teaching of facts and
knowledge for future use.
c. Yes, because the subject-centered curriculum involves cooperative control.
d. No, because it is the experience centered and not the subject-centered curriculum that
emphasizes integration of habits and skills in learning the knowledge component of subject areas.
84. In the elementary level, English literature and Social studies relate well. While history is being
studied, different literary pieces during the historical period is being studied as well. What
curriculum design is shown here?
a. Separate subject design
b. Correlation design
c. Discipline design
d. Broad field design
85. This phase of curriculum development involves decisions, among other things, on grade
placement and sequencing of content. Which phase is this?
a. Curriculum planning
b. Curriculum evaluation
c. Curriculum organization
d. Curriculum implementation
86. One example of this design of subject-centered curriculum is that which shows social studies
being combined with geography, civics, culture and history to comprise subject area. Which
design is this?
a. Correlated
b. Broadfields
c. Separate Subject
d. Core
181
87. Ms. Ortiz, as Science teacher tries to enrich the content of her lesson by identifying related
concepts in Math. What pattern of organizing subjects did Ms. Ortiz consider?
a. Broadfield
b. Correlated
c. Core
d. Separate Subject
88. Prof. Delos Santos would like her students to give more accurate observations about plants in the
environment. Which technique would help her attain her objective?
a. Bring them to the garden.
b. Bring actual plants to class.
c. Show colorful pictures to the class.
d. Let the class read books about the topic.
89. Which design is easy to deliver because complementary books and materials are commercially
available?
a. Experience centered design
b. Problem design
c. Process design
d. Subject centered design
90. What refers to the matching between curriculum and test to be used to assess the learners?
a. Alignment
b. Auditing
c. Articulation
d. Delivery
91. Ms. Mateo, a History teacher considers the element of time in arranging content of her lessons in
World History. What way of establishing sequence is given emphasis by Ms. Mateo?
a. Simple to complex
b. Part to whole
c. Concrete to abstract
d. Chronological
92. Which of the following should be avoided in presenting visuals?
a. Show visuals with an element of suspense.
b. Shut off the overhead projector when explaining
c. lengthily shutting off the overhead
d. Present all the materials simultaneously to hold the learners’ interest.
93. Mr. Rivera, a new teacher believes that education is a process of development and is life itself;
therefore, experience related to the child's need and interest should be given primary
consideration. What educational philosophy is being exhibited by Mr. Rivera?
a. Idealism
b. Reconstructionism
c. Progressivism
d. Realism
94. A stakeholder in curriculum development, Mr. Cruz, a district supervisor and a member of the
school board has one of the following primary roles.
a. Support and participate in parent-school organization activities.
b. Authorize school expenditures for curriculum development, implementation and evaluation
c. Enact legislation to effect curriculum improvement.
d. Recommend changes in curriculum.
95. After listing down the advantages and disadvantages of computers, Mrs. Muñoz decided to
purchase a computer for her class. Which do you think is the last consideration in purchasing the
equipment?
a. Computers can make her more efficient.
b. Computers can be a form of entertainment.
c. Computers can enhance teaching and learning.
d. Computers can be used for interactive presentations.
96. The schools in the first District plan to adopt the reading program used in the third district. What
level of curriculum improvement is used?
182
a. Variation
b. Value orientation
c. Substitution
d. Restructuring
97. Mr. Bernardo, a curriculum consultant on Economics insists that in selecting the curriculum
content, it is better that throughout the high school years, economic geography concepts be used
to recur and be repeated with depth for effective learning. What criterion in content selection is
shown here?
a. Validity
b. Continuity
c. Significance
d. Learnability
98. The Filipino learners envisioned by the Department of Education (DepEd) in the light of K-12
Curriculum is
a. Technologically literate or logistically developed Filipino
b. Functionally literate or logistically developed Filipino
c. Scientifically Advanced and Values Oriented Filipino
d. National Oriented and Internationally Competitive Filipinos
99. Teacher Dominguito believes that a new respect for the child is fundamental in curriculum. Thus,
all activities in the classroom are geared towards the development of the child - the center of the
educative process. To which approach in curriculum does Teacher Dominguito adhere?
a. Learner-centered
b. Subject-centered
c. Problem-centered
d. Pragmatic
100. Mrs. Manuel, the Principal of Bagong Barrio Elementary School invited the Brgy. Captain in the
school to solicit inputs for a new curriculum in Social Science which highlights indigenous
knowledge in the community. What is shown in this situation?
a. Community members as supporters of curriculum
b. Community members as curriculum resources
c. Community members as managers of curriculum
d. Community members as beneficiaries of curriculum
101. Teacher Bert puts emphasis on the immediate felt interests and needs of his students and not
on the anticipated needs and interests. What type of curriculum does teacher Bert adheres?
a. Subject-centered
b. Learner-centered
c. Experience-centered
d. Culture-based
102. Markel prepares his school research works using computer to submit his requirements on time.
Does the computer make him productive and efficient? Why?
i. Yes, because it can generate its own data.
ii. Yes, because it can make one’s work easier.
iii. Yes, because it can perform tasks fast and accurately.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
103. What type of curriculum divides the school day into different periods such as language
arts, social studies, science and health, arithmetic, etc.?
a. Correlated
b. Broad fields
c. Integrated
d. Separate Subject
183
104. Which curriculum design element is taking place when Eduardo, a 4th year student can
connect the lessons he learned in a subject area to a related content in another subject area?
a. Articulation
b. Balance
c. Continuity
d. Integration
105. The following curricular changes took place in what particular period? Restore Grade VII,
double-single session was abolished and more textbooks were written by Filipino authors.
a. American Period
b. Philippine Republic
c. Japanese Occupation
d. New Society
106. Prof. Aguinaldo would like to integrate technology in writing a friendly letter. How can he
do it effectively?
a. Let the pupils surf a friendly letter from the Internet.
b. Have the pupils write a friendly letter and send it through an email.
c. Have the pupils forward a downloaded friendly letter to others via email.
d. Let the pupils write a friendly letter using word processing and have it critiqued by their peers.
107. This concept includes the sub-processes of curriculum planning, organization,
implementation and evaluation. Which concept is this?
a. Curriculum development
b. Curriculum assessment
c. Curriculum management
d. Curriculum and instruction
108. If curriculum is the "means", what is the "end"?
a. Strategies
b. Instruction
c. Technique
d. Approaches
109. The curriculum used during the period in Philippine history terminated the use of English
as a medium of instruction, what period is this?
a. American
b. Spanish
c. Commonwealth
d. Japanese
110. Which of the following statements about the concept of curriculum is NOT quite
acceptable?
a. It refers to all experiences that both the school and the teacher provide the students with.
b. It is the set of acquired knowledge, habits and skills
c. It consists of everything that goes within the school.
d. It is a planned action for instruction
111. Which of the following is known for its strength of giving immediate feedback?
a. video
b. story book
c. digital encyclopedia
d. computer assisted instruction
112. What process is being undertaken by curriculum developers when they enrich or modify
certain aspects of a particular program without changing its fundamental conceptions?
a. Curriculum improvement
b. Curriculum change
c. Curriculum design
d. Curriculum implementation
113. What design element establishes the vertical linkage from level to level to avoid glaring
gaps and wasteful overlaps?
a. Articulation
b. Balance
184
c. Scope
d. Sequence
114. Which of the following computer-based instructional material can be used to learn new
concepts?
a. games
b. tutorial
c. simulation
d. drill and practice
115. What refers to the authenticity of the content selected by the curriculum developer?
a. Feasibility
b. Learnability
c. Significance
d. Validity
116. What do we call the allocation of content to a definite grade capable of learning?
a. Time allotment
b. Grade placement
c. Grade level
d. Maturity level
117. Which pattern of experience-centered curriculum centers on the normal activities of
children and is based on each child's needs, interests and potentials?
a. Child-centered
b. Activity
c. Social function
d. Specific competencies
118. Prof. Natividad would like to create a presentation material for his lesson on the types of
computer-assisted Instruction. Which tool should he use?
a. communicative tool Informative
b. tool
c. productivity tool
d. situating tool
119. Which curriculum development phase focuses on the change which will take place in
certain aspects of the curriculum without changing the fundamental conceptions?
a. Curriculum planning
b. Curriculum design
c. Curriculum improvement
d. Curriculum evaluation
120. Which is not a component of curriculum designing?
a. Objective
b. learning content
c. learning experiences
d. Diagnosis of needs
121. Which type of curriculum design serves as a response to society's demand for integration of
knowledge and enables the learner to see relationship among various aspects?
a. Broadfield
b. Correlated
c. Core
d. Separate subjects
122. Prof. De Guzman uses an online learning approach by which content provides links to
information at other locations and serves as a focal point for a distance education experience.
Which of the following does he use?
a. computer-aided instruction
b. web-based instruction
c. self-paced program
d. teleconferencing
123. Who controls the subject centered-curriculum?
a. Learner
b. Teacher
185
c. Parent
d. Teacher and parent
124. To provide individual differences in the classroom, how is curriculum designed?
a. Minimum learning competencies are included
b. Realistic and meaningful experiences are provided
c. Some degree of flexibility is provided
d. Social skills are emphasized
125. To ensure success in curriculum development, which of the following specific actions
should a curriculum leader avoid?
a. Work with people over them.
b. Use your status frequently to establish discipline
c. Keep channels of communication open
d. Show that you too desire to improve
126. Mr. Milena searches for related literature by accessing several databases in the library
computer that is connected with other computers that have databases. How is this termed?
a. CD ROM search
b. Computer Search
c. mechanical search
d. online search
127. Which of the following is a reason for the continuous appraisal of the existing curriculum in all
levels?
a. New national policies in government
b. Changing needs and condition of society
c. Economic status of the people
d. Political trust of the country
128. Which of the following best defines curriculum development?
a. The total mental phenomena directly received at any given time
b. The planning of learning opportunities intended to bring about certain desired changes in
pupils and the assessment of the extent to which these changes have taken place.
c. A continuous cycle of activities in which all elements of curriculum are considered.
d. Education is aiding each child to be socially creative individuals.
129. To build a sense of pride among Filipino youth, which should be done in the curriculum?
a. Re-study our history and stress on our achievements as a people.
b. Re-study our history from the perspective of our colonizer.
c. Replace the study of folklore and myths with technical subjects.
d.Set aside the study of local history.
130. What do you call the curriculum when the teacher puts into action all the different
planned activities in the classroom?
a. Recommended Curriculum
b. Written Curriculum
c. Taught Curriculum
d. Supported Curriculum
131. Which pair of tools provide synchronous communication?
a. chatroom and email
b. email and bulletin board
c. video conferencing and blogs
d. instant messaging and chatroom
132. Which statement about the subject-centered curriculum is NOT true?
a. There is a high level of cooperative interaction
b. It covers much content in a short period of time
c. The teacher has full control of the classroom activities
d. The main task is mastery of learning
133. Schools divide the school hours to different subjects such as reading, grammar, literature,
math, science, history and geography. What curriculum design is referred here?
a. Problem-centered
b. Learner-centered
186
c. Subject-centered
d. Culture-based
134. Which is NOT a description of the learner-centered curriculum?
a. Emphasis is on the total growth and development of the learners
b. Controlled and cooperatively directed by learners, teachers and parents
c. Education is a means to develop social creative individual
d. Emphasis upon facts and knowledge for future use
135. The K-12 curriculum is otherwise called as
a. 2002 Basic Education Curriculum
b. Revitalized Basic Education Curriculum
c. Enhanced Basic Education Curriculum
d. Extended Basic Education Curriculum
136. What refers to an individual or group of individuals who have a direct and indirect influence
in curriculum development?
a. Stockholders
b. Stakeholders
c. Promoters
d. Incorporators
137. Should Mrs. Reyes allow her pupils to surf the Internet in creating a group newsletter during
her English class? Why?
a. No, because pupils may just be exchanging messages via email.
b. No, because the pupils might open undesirable websites.
c. Yes, to allow the pupils to chat with their friends.
d. Yes, as long as it is used effectively.
138. What refers to the appropriateness of the content in the light of the particular students who
are to experience the curriculum?
a. Significance
b. Validity
c. Interest
d. Learnability
139. Which of the following statements is NOT acceptable?
a. Instruction is the actual engagement of learners in the planned learning activities.
b. Curriculum determines what assessment should be done, and how to do it.
c. Instruction requires teachers to use a variety of action to accomplish a variety of functions.
d. Assessment establishes what is to be accomplished in teaching and learning.
140. Which characteristic of a good curriculum highlights the psychological nature of the learner?
a. Provisions are made for the smooth transition and continuing achievement of pupils.
b. Curriculum plans in areas which extend over several years are developed vertically.
c. Classroom practices give attention to the maturity and learning problems of each pupil.
d. Cooperative planning and teaching provide for exchange of information about pupil's learning
experiences.
141. Objectives must be evaluated in the light of practical considerations, including teacher
competence, availability of instructional materials, time allotment, etc. What characteristic of
educational objective is defined by the aforementioned statement?
a. Comprehension
b. Attainability
c. Consistency
d. Feasibility
142. Which of the following should you ask yourself in evaluating the content of an instructional
material?
a. Do the materials reinforce learning effectively?
b. Are the materials of high technical quality?
c. Does the content match the curriculum?
d. Is it appropriate for the students?
143. "Knowledge is true if it is workable". What philosophical foundation supports this
statement?
a. Idealism
187
b. Realism
c. Pragmatism
d. Essentialism
144. As a member of the curriculum committee, your chief concern is to give the child freedom
to choose what to learn and believe, as you allow them to set their own identities and standards.
What philosophy will you consider?
a. Existentialism
b. Realism
c. Idealism
d. Pragmatism
145. Which of the following statements does NOT describe educational technology?
i. It includes hardware and software.
ii. It refers to the efficiency of teachers in using computers
iii. It is the development, application, and evaluation of systems, techniques and aids to
improve human learning.
a. i only
b. ii only
c. Both ii and iii
d. Both i and iii
146. Which of the following statements has a very limited definition of educational technology?
a. It is a profession composed of various job categories.
b. It refers to the computers used for teaching and learning.
c. It includes audiovisual materials, interactive multimedia and self-instructional materials.
d. It is the development, application and evaluation of system, techniques and aids to improve
human learning
147. Which of the following statements is correct about the domains of educational technology?
a. Design is the production stage while development is the planning stage.
b. Both the design and development are the planning stage.
c. Evaluation is synonymous with implementation.
d. Utilization is the action phase.
148. What should Mr. Asuncion determine first in the selection of media in teaching?
a. needs of the students
b. availability of the media
c. technique to be used
d. objectives of the lesson
149. Ms. Gomez is planning to integrate technology in her Mathematics class. Which of the
following would be the logical steps in doing this?
I. Set the objectives
II. Analyze the learners
III. Utilize the materials with showmanship
IV. Evaluate the performance of the students
a. I, II, III, IV
b. II, I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV, III
d. II, I, IV, III
150. Which of the following is a limitation of models and real objects in teaching and learning?
a. They pose problems on storage
b. They make learning more concrete.
c. They provide hands-on learning experiences.
d. They are readily available in the environment, around school and in the home.
151. Which group of technologies has the highest degree of concreteness?
a. Realia and computer
b. Video, picture and television
c. Digital video, film, versatile compact disc
d. Book, imaginative literature, programmed instruction
152. Which is the most important reason why teachers preview materials to be used in class?
a. To gain confidence in using them.
188
b. To encourage viewers to be more focused.
c. To avoid potential problems that might occur while materials are in use.
d. To ensure appropriateness of the materials with the objectives and target audience.
153. Mrs. Del Prado placed text together with the relevant graphics on the same page in her
multimedia presentation. Which principle did she apply?
a. Split attention
b. Spatial contiguity
c. Cost effectiveness
d. Communication effectiveness
154. Mrs. Olivarez presented real samples of rocks in her General Science class. What principle
did she apply?
a. Appropriateness
b. Authenticity
c. Responsiveness
d. Simplicity
155. After Ms. Rica planned her lesson in English, she found out that the materials at hand do not
match her objectives. Which is the best thing that she can do?
a. Modify the available materials.
b. Teach the lesson the following day.
c. Change the objectives to match with the available materials.
d. Carry out the lesson as planned and use the materials at hand.
156. Which is the best reason why teachers state the objectives before using instructional media?
a. To secure materials
b. To prepare the materials beforehand.
c. To determine which media to use best.
d. To be able to practice how to operate the equipment
157. Which of the following should Mr. Rivera primarily consider in determining the teachinglearning
objectives and use of instructional media?
a. The assessment tool to be used
b. The learning activities
c. The learner
d. The teacher
158. Which of the following technologies provide iconic experiences to students/ children?
a. Video and books
b. Pictures and videos
c. Radio and recording
d. Modules and periodicals
159. Which of these technologies used in the classroom are arranged from the most symbolic to
multisensory?
a. Real objects, print, audio-visual materials and visual materials
b. Visual materials, audio visual materials, print and computers
c. Visual materials, print, audio-visual materials and realia
d. Print, audio-visual materials, computers and realia
160. Prof. Balatas used worksheets, manipulative and models in teaching math to help her
students understand the lesson and love the subject. What did she bear in mind when she used
these materials?
a. appropriateness
b. balance
c. breadth
d. variety
161. Which of the following is inappropriate in using printed visuals such as charts, graphs and
drawings?
a. Provide written or verbal cues to highlight important aspect of visuals
b. Present the instructional materials simultaneously
c. Use materials that everyone can see
d. Make the presentation suspenseful
189
162. Susan wants to learn more English. Specifically, she wants to improve her listening skills.
She has a CD player, a tape recorder and has internet access. As an English teacher, what do you
suggest?
I. CDs with English listening drills
II. Tapes with English listening drills
III. Internet website such as Go4English, English Language Listening Lab or Randall's listening Lab
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I or III
d. I, II and III
163. Ms. Torres always makes sure that text, animation and color do not confuse students in her
presentation materials. Which principle is applied?
a. Simplicity
b. Variety
c. Responsiveness
d. cost effectiveness
164. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the contributions of technology to
student learning?
a. The quality of learning can be improved.
b. The delivery of instruction can be more interesting.
c. The method of teaching and learning becomes more interactive.
d. The role of the teacher can be changed into knowledge dispenser.
165. Mr. Ternate, an ICT teacher takes into account technology standards to address the
needs of the students and help them adapt with the changing society and technology. Which of
the following standards is an exception?
a. Creativity and innovation
b. Research and information literacy
c. Model digital-age work and learning
d. Technology operations and concepts
166. Mrs. Reyes, a librarian, informed the students as well as the teachers that several software
are available for classroom instruction and individual learning. Which material is she referring to?
a. Computers
b. CD-ROM
c. Television set
d. VCD and DVD players
167. Ms. Vilna, a computer teacher demonstrates understanding of local and global issues and
exhibits ethical and legal use of information and communications technology tools. Which is true
about her?
a. She models digital-age work and learning
b. She facilitates and inspires student learning and creativity.
c. She promotes and models digital citizenship and responsibility.
d. She designs and develops digital-age learning experiences and assessments
168. With the fast-paced evolution of technologies nowadays, why are teachers encouraged to
shift gradually from a teacher-centered instruction to a learner-centered instruction?
I. A learner-centered instruction focuses on transformation of facts.
a. II and IV only
b. I, II and IV only
c. I, III and IV only
d. II, III and IV only
169. Ms. Hernandez employs student-centered instruction as the learners create their digital
portfolios in her computer class. What could be developed among them through this approach?
a. Repetition and active learning
b. Mastery of skills and information delivery
c. Information processing and passive learning
d. Construction of knowledge and information exchange
170. Susan’s mother tongue is a vernacular. Which of the following materials would be the most
efficient and effective material to learn a second language?
190
a. interactive multimedia
b. pictures and print materials
c. audio compact discs and radio
d. printed materials and real objects
171. Mr. Torres will have a multimedia presentation in his Science class. Which of the following
should he avoid?
a. Consider technical quality.
b. Apply different computer effects per slid.
c. Present information through graphic organizers
d. Use contrasting colors for text and background.
172. Mrs. Simon would like to integrate technology in writing a friendly letter. Which of the
following is the most effective way of doing it?
a. Let the pupils surf a friendly letter from the internet
b. Have the pupils write a friendly letter and send it through an email.
c. have the pupils forward a downloaded friendly letter to others via email.
d. Let the pupils write a friendly letter using word processing and have it critiqued by their peers.
173. Which of the following computer-based instructional materials can be used to learn new
concepts?
a. Games
b. Tutorial
c. Simulation
d. Drill and practice
174. Computer can be a good tool for individualized instruction. Which of the following aspects
can be a deterrent for its full utilization in the classrooms?
a. economic
b. physical
c. social
d. technical
175. Professor dela Cruz would like to create a presentation material for her lesson on the types
of computer-assisted instruction. To make her presentation effective, which?
a. Situating tool
b. Informative tool
c. Productivity tool
d. Communicative tool
176. Professor Reyes is thinking of an online learning approach by which content provides links to
information at other locations and serves as a focal point for a distance education experience. Which
of the following should she use?
a. Teleconferencing
b. Self-paced program
c. Web-based instruction
d. Computer-aided instruction
177. With the increasing use of educational technology inside the classroom, what roles are
expected of the teacher?
a. facilitator
b. demonstrator
c. knowledge giver
d. source of information
178. Which is NOT a basic consideration in selecting and evaluating the content of an educational
technology tool?
a. Does it match the content?
b. Can it be easily dismantled?
c. Will it motivate and maintain interest?
d. Is there evidence of its effectiveness?
179. Your father wanted to finish his long dreamed course but he wanted to do it at home during
his free time. Would you recommend an online learning?
a. Yes, because online learning is the "in" thing
191
b. No, because online learning inhibits student-teacher interaction.
c. No, because hiring a helper would enable him to attend regularly in his class.
d. Yes, because he could learn at his own pace using a wide spectrum of technologies.
180. Ms. Delos Santos is a fresh graduate teacher who was hired to teach in an elementary school
where there are enough resources for instruction. She wanted to start preparing her instructional
materials. Which is the most systematic process in doing this?
a. Design, utilization, evaluation, development
b. Design, development, utilization, evaluation
c. Development, design, utilization, evaluation
d. Development, utilization, evaluation, design
181. Which of the following technologies are properly classified?
a. computers, compact discs, film, television
b. imaginative literature, book, programmed instruction
c. versatile compact disc, printed material, diagram, sketches
d. digital video, phonograph, compact discs, radio, audio tape
182. Which is the most important reason why teachers need to preview their instructional
materials that will be used in the class?
a. To gain confidence in using them
b. To encourage viewers to be more focused
c. To avoid potential problems that might occur while materials are in use
d. To ensure appropriateness of the materials with the objectives and target audience
183. After Ms. Rivas planned her lesson in English, she found out that the materials at hand do
not match her objectives. Which is the best thing that she can do?
a. Modify the available materials
b. Teach the lesson the following day.
c. Change the objectives to match with available materials.
d. Carry out the lesson as planned and use the materials at hand.
184. With increasing use of educational technology inside the classroom, what role is expected of
the teacher?
a. Facilitator
b. Researcher
c. Knowledge giver
d. Source of information
185. It is impractical to bring real objects to the classroom so Aaron constructed a threedimensional
visual instead. Which of the following did he construct?
a. Chart
b. Cartoon
c. Model
d. Graphic organizer
186. Which of the following technologies are arranged from the most concrete to the most
abstract?
a. motion pictures, verbal symbols, visual symbols, radio, realias
b. realias, visual symbols, television, motion pictures, still pictures
c. realias, motion pictures, still pictures, visual symbols, verbal symbols
d. verbal symbols, still pictures, visual symbols, models, motion pictures
187. You asked your students to show a two-dimensional illustration of what they have
understood from what they have read. Which of the following non-projected visuals are you
referring to?
a. Graphic organizer
b. Print materials
c. Model
d. Realia
188. There are several reasons why teachers are reluctant in using electronic media in the
teaching-learning process. Which is the most common reason?
a. The limited exposure of teachers to new equipment
b. Their incompatibility to diverse needs of the learners’
192
c. The difficulty in integrating technology in the curriculum
d. The excessive availability of local technology in the community
189. Prof. Mandalas would like to use an audio compact disc in teaching a lesson in Filipino. In
which activity in the teaching-learning process is it very effective?
a. In developing listening skills
b. In teaching creating thinking
c. In composing poems
d. In building concepts
190. Which is the best way to present instructional materials?
a. concrete ->semi-concrete-> abstract->semi-abstract
b. semi-concrete-> concrete -> abstract-> semi-abstract
c. abstract->semi-abstract-> semi-concrete-> concrete
d. concrete ->semi-concrete-> semi-abstract -> abstract
191. Plants, pebbles, and blocks are just some of the effective instructional materials readily
found in the environment if they are utilized properly. Which of the following is INCORRECT about
their classroom use?
a. Pass a single object around the class.
b. Familiarize yourself with the object or model before its actual utilization.
c. Use the objects as springboard in encouraging students' active participation.
d. Make sure that the realia and model are large enough to be seen by the whole class.
192. Prof. Ruiz uses projected visuals such as Digital Liquid Projector (DLP) in presenting her
lesson. What could be her main reason for using it?
a. The projected materials are readily available.
b. They are more abstract than any other visuals.
c. Most projected visuals can be obtained at no cost.
d. She can easily prepare for own transparencies in advance.
193. Ms. Simonton used a film clip in teaching Social Studies concepts to her First Year High
School class. However, she found out that it was ineffectively used in the classroom. When
technology is considered INEFFECTIVE?
a. When it promotes mastery of the lesson
b. When it makes viewing more interesting
c. When it helps attain the objectives of the lesson
d. When it induces alienation on the part of the learners
194. Which of the following technologies provide iconic experiences?
a. videos and computer
b. books and periodicals
c. audio and audio materials
d. printed and verbal symbols
195. Your principal purchased new computer units for your Learning Resource Center. Which of
the following should be your last consideration in using the technology?
a. Computers can be used for entertainment.
b. Computers can be used for research activity.
c. Computers can be used for interactive presentation.
d. Computers can be used to reinforce discussion of difficult concepts in class.
196. Computers can be classified according to the roles they play namely communicative tool,
informative tool, and constructive tool. What is the other role of computers not mentioned in this
item?
a. Instructional tool
b. Situating tool
c. Utility tool
d. Application tool
197. Which of the following categories of CAI will you use in your class if your objective is to
increase proficiency in a newly learned skill or refresh an existing one?
a. Tutorial
b. Simulation
193
c. Drill and practice
d. Instructional game
198. How can Prof. Urbana best promote the use of multimedia in teaching Science to her coteachers?
a. Sell multimedia at low cost.
b. Demonstrate its use to them.
c. Explain the literature supporting its use.
d. Convince the principal to require the use of technology.
199. Which of the following is NOT an example of a communicative tool?
a. Chat
b. Electronic mail
c. Teleconferencing
d. Multimedia encyclopedia
200. Why is one-way delivery of information a misuse of communication tools?
a. Because the teacher expects the student to study more
b. Because it requires activities that focus on thinking than responding
c. Because it enables the users to focus more on higher level cognitive activities
d. Because this kind of practice lessens interaction capabilities of communication tools
201. Internet consists of thousands of connected computer networks around the world. Which
term does not refer to internet?
a. NET
b. On-line
c. Cyberspace
d. Information Superhighway
202. There are countless things in the environment that you and your students can use to
learn from such as trees, globes, pebbles, blocks etc. These real objects and models are really
effective if they are utilized properly. Which of the following is incorrect about the use of real
objects and models?
a. Familiarize yourself with the object or model.
b. Allow passing of a single object around the class.
c. Make sure that objects/models are large enough to be seen by the whole class.
d. Encourage students’ participation through questioning and having students decide the next
step.
203. Which technology tool can Prof. Soriano use to communicate asynchronously with her
students?
a. Chat and blog
b. Chat and instant messaging
c. Blog and video conferencing
d. Electronic bulletin board and email
204. In your computer subject, you allow your class to chat as part of your motivation before
discussing to them the roles of computer as a tool. How is chat used in this context?
a. Information tool
b. Application tool
c. Communicative tool
d. Situating tool
205. Which statement is INCORRECT about computer conferencing?
a. It refers to live student interaction with an expert.
b. It is also known as discussion forum or bulletin board.
c. It also refers to online class discussions, forums or debates.
d. It permits two or more individuals
206. Aaron constructed a three dimensional material to simulate the circulation of blood. Which
of the following did he construct?
a. solid model
b. cutaway model
c. mock-up model
d. cross-sectional model
194
207. Which instructional application will you introduce to your class if your objective is to help
them find and use information resources available in the internet?
a. Webquests
b. Hybrid course
c. Scavenger Hunt
d. Distance education
208. In the delivery of distance education, what computer application is used to organize
instructions and track students records and progress?
a. Computer-based Multimedia
b. Computer-assisted Instruction
c. Computer-mediated Education
d. Computer-managed Instruction
209. Which is a two-dimensional representation of the earth’s geographic and/or political
features?
a. globe
b. map
c. mock-up
d. model
210. When is distance education as effective as the traditional instruction?
a. When the method, technologist and assessment used are appropriate to the required
competencies.
b. When the course requires more face-to-face communication between the students and teachers.
c. When students depend more on their online mentor.
d. When there is student to student interaction.
211. Who among the teachers described below is doing assessment?
a. Mrs. Bautista who is administering a test to her students.
b. Mr. Ferrer who is counting the scores obtained by the students in his test.
c. Ms. Leyva who is computing the final grade of the students after completing all their
requirements.
d. Prof. Cuevas who is planning for a remedial instruction after knowing that students perform
poorly in her test
212. Mr. Fernandez is judging the accuracy of these statements. Which statements will he
consider as correct?
I. Test is a tool to measure a trait.
II. Measurement is the process of qualifying a given trait.
III. Assessment is the gathering of quantitative and qualitative data.
IV. Evaluation is the analysis of quantitative and qualitative data for decision making
A. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III and IV
213. You asked your students to illustrate what they have understood from what they have read.
Which of the following non-projected visuals are you referring to?
a. printed visuals
b. graphics
c. models
d. realias
214. If I have to use the most authentic method of assessment, which of these procedures should
I consider?
a. Traditional Test
b. Performance-based Assessment
c. Written Test
d. Objective Assessment
215. After doing the exercise on verbs, Ms. Borolo gave a short quiz to find out how well students
have understood the lesson. What type of assessment was done?
195
a. Summative Assessment
b. Formative Assessment
c. Diagnostic Assessment
d. Placement Assessment
216. Which software should Dr. Yu to manipulate numerical data in the computer?
a. Spreadsheet
b. desktop publishing
c. word processing
d. multimedia
217. Who among the teachers below performed a diagnostic assessment?
a. Ms. Santos who asked questions when the discussion was going on to know who among her
students understood what she was trying to emphasize.
b. Mr. Colubong who gave a short quiz after discussing thoroughly the lesson to determine the
programs of learning.
c. Ms. Ventura who gave 10-item test to find out the specific lessons which the students failed to
understand.
d. Mrs. Lopez who administered a readiness test to the incoming grade one pupils.
218. You are assessing for learning. Which of these will you likely do?
a. Giving grades to students’
b. reporting to parents the performance of their child.
c. Recommending new policies in grading students.
d. Assessing the strengths and weaknesses of students.
219. Prof. Silva uses projected visuals such as OHP in presenting her lesson. What could be her
main reason in using such an educational technology?
a. The materials are readily available.
b. Most visuals can be obtained at no cost.
c. It is more abstract than any other visuals.
d. She can easily prepare her own transparencies in advance.
220. Mr. Gerald is planning to do an assessment of learning. Which of these should she
include in her plan considering her purpose for assessment?
a. How to give immediate feedback to student's strengths and weaknesses
b. How to determine the area of interest of learners’
c. How to certify student's achievement
d. How to design one's instruction
221. Ms. Pica showed a segment of matter in “sine skwela” to her pupils without a follow-up
activity. Thus, the pupils got low in the test. What does this imply?
a. TV makes viewing enjoyable.
b. TV promotes mastery of the lesson.
c. TV induces alienation on the part of the learners.
d. TV is effective when learners attain the lesson objectives.
222. You targeted that after instruction, your students should be able to show their ability to
solve problems with speed and accuracy. You then designed a tool to measure this ability. What
principle of assessment did you consider in this situation?
a. Assessment should be based on clear and appropriate learning targets or objectives.
b. Assessment should have a positive consequence on student's learning
c. Assessment should be reliable.
d. Assessment should be fair.
223. Which activity is closest to the real thing?
a. hear
b. view images
c. watch a demonstration
d. perform in a presentation
224. Ms. Ortega tasked her students to show how to play basketball. What learning target is she
assessing?
a. Knowledge
b. Reasoning
196
c. Skills
d. Products
225. Mr. Favelas made an essay test for the objective "Identify the planets in the solar system".
Was the assessment method used the most appropriate for the given objective? Why?
a. Yes, because essay test is easier to construct than objective test.
b. Yes, because essay test can measure any type of objective.
c. No, he should have conducted oral questioning.
d. No, he should have prepared an objective test.
226. Your department would like to purchase a computer set as your project. Which of the
following advantages of computer will be your last consideration in purchasing it?
a. It can enhance the teaching and learning process.
b. It can be used for interactive presentation.
c. It can be used for research activity
d. It can be used for entertainment.
227. Mr. Cadre wants to test students' knowledge of the different places in the Philippines, their
capital and their products and so he gave his students an essay test. If you were the teacher, will
you do the same?
a. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of essay.
b. No, such method of assessment is inappropriate because essay is difficult.
c. Yes, essay test could measure more than what other tests could measure.
d. Yes, essay test is the best in measuring any type of knowledge.
228. What type of validity does the Pre-board examination possess if its results can explain how
the students will likely perform in their licensure examination?
a. Concurrent
b. Predictive
c. Construct
d. Content
229. Prof. Edmund will have a digitized presentation to pre-service teachers. Which of the
following will make her presentation appealing and effective?
a. Observe maximum use of animations and graphics together.
b. Apply as many computer effects per slide as possible.
c. Reinforce textual information with graphic organizers.
d. Use as many color as possible.
230. Ms. Elena wants to determine if the students' scores in their Final Test is reliable. However,
she has only one set of test and her students are already on vacation. What test of reliability can she
employ?
a. Test-Retest
b. Kuder Richardson Method
c. Equivalent Forms
d. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms
Refer to this case in answering items 231 to 232
Two teachers of the same grade level have set the following objectives for the day's lesson. At the
end of the period, the students should be able to: a. Construct bar graph, and b. Interpret bar graphs
To assess the attainment of the objectives, Teacher A required the students to construct a bar graph
for the given set of data then she asked them to interpret this using a set of questions as guide.
Teacher B presented a bar graph then asked them to interpret this using also a set of guide
questions.
231. Whose practice is acceptable based on the principles of assessment?
a. Teacher A
b. Teacher B
c. Both Teacher A and B
d. Neither Teacher A nor Teacher B
232. Which is true about the given case?
a. Objective A matched with performance-based assessment while B can be assessed using the
traditional pen-and-paper objective test.
b. Objective A matched with traditional assessment while B can be assessed using a performance197
based method.
c. Both objective A and B matched with performance-based assessment.
d. Both objective A and B matched with traditional assessment.
233. In the context of the Theory of Multiple Intelligence, which is a weakness of the paper-pencil
test?
a. It puts non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage.
b. It is not easy to administer.
c. It utilizes so much time.
d. It lacks reliability.
234. Mr. Litton is doing a performance-based assessment for the day's lesson. Which of the
following will most likely happen?
a. Students are evaluated in one sitting.
b. Students do an actual demonstration of their skill.
c. Students are evaluated in the most objective manner.
d. Students are evaluated based on varied evidences of learning
235. Ms. Sharon rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of some laboratory
equipment and measurement tools and the student’s ability to follow the specified procedures.
What mode of assessment should Miss Del Rosario use?
a. Portfolio Assessment
b. Journal Assessment
c. Traditional Assessment
d. Performance-based Assessment
236. Mrs. Papaya presented the lesson on baking through a group activity so that the students
will not just learn how to bake but also develop their interpersonal skills. How should this lesson be
assessed?
I. She should give the students an essay test explaining how they baked the cake.
II. The students should be graded on the quality of their baked cake using a rubric.
III. The students in a group should rate the members based on their ability to cooperate in their
group activity.
IV. She should observe how the pupils perform their tasks.
a. I, II, and III only
b. I, III, and IV only
c. I, II and IV only
d. I, II, III, and IV
237. Why are computers increasingly becoming pervasive in schools nowadays?
a. Schools advocate the use of computers.
b. They increase efficiency and productivity.
c. Anybody can operate computers without formal training.
d. Students have access to computers in school and at home.
238. If a teacher has set objectives in all domains or learning targets and which could be assessed
using a single performance task, what criterion in selecting a task should she consider?
a. Generalizability
b. Fairness
c. Multiple Foci
d. Teachability
239. Which term refers to the collection of students' products and accomplishments in a given
period for evaluation purposes?
a. Diary
b. Portfolio
c. Anecdotal record
d. Observation report
240. There are several reasons why teachers are reluctant in using electronic media in the
teaching-learning process. Which is the most common reason?
a. The difficulty in integrating them in the curriculum.
b. The limited exposure of teachers to new equipment.
c. Their incompatibility to diverse needs of the learners.
198
d. The excessive availability of local technology in the community.
241. Mrs. Carbon allowed the students to develop their own portfolio in their own style as long
as they show all the non-negotiable evidences of learning. What principle in portfolio assessment
explains this practice?
a. Content Principle
b. Learning Principle
c. Equity Principle
d. Product Principle
242. How should the following steps in portfolio assessment be arranged logically?
I. Set targets
II. Select evidences
III. Collect evidences
IV. Rate Collection
V. Reflect on Evidences
a. I, II, III, IV, V
b. I, III, II, V, IV
c. I, II, III, V, IV
d. I, III, V, II, IV
243. Which could be seen in a rubric?
I. Objective in a high level of cognitive behavior
II. Multiple criteria in assessing learning
III. Quantitative descriptions of the quality of work
IV. Qualitative descriptions of the quality of work
a. I and II only
b. II, III and IV only
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
244. With the number of senses to be stimulated as criterion, which one should be first in the
list?
a. multi-sensory
b. audio-visual aid
c. visual aid
d. audio aid
245. The pupils are to be judged individually on their mastery of the singing of the national
anthem so their teacher let them sing individually. What should the teacher use in rating the
performance of the pupils considering the fact that the teacher has only one period to spend in
evaluating her 20 pupils?
a. Analytic
b. Holistic
c. either holistic or analytic
d. Both holistic and analytic
246. Mrs. Irene is judging the worth of the project of the students in her Science class based on a
set of criteria. What process describes what she is doing?
a. Testing
b. Measuring
c. Evaluating
d. Assessing
247. Which of the following is considered in terms of technical quality of a material?
a. stereotyping
b. audio-visual aid
c. color and size of text
d. students’ achievement
248. Mrs. Altos is comparing measurement from evaluation. Which statement explains the
difference?
a. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a given trait while evaluation is giving meaning to
the numerical value of the trait.
b. Measurement is the process of gathering while evaluation is the process of quantifying the data
199
gathered.
c. Measurement is the process of quantifying data while evaluation is the process of organizing data.
d. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing.
249. Which statement is true about the opaque projector and overhead projector?
a. An opaque projector allows more flexibility than an overhead projector.
b. An overhead projector allows more flexibility than an opaque projector.
c. Opaque and overhead projectors can instantaneously project 3D visuals well.
d. The series of still visuals in an opaque projector are arranged in a fixed pattern but not in an
overhead projector.
250. Ms. Luisa uses alternative methods of assessment. Which of the following will she not likely use?
a. Multiple Choice Test
b. Reflective Journal Writing
c. Oral Presentation
d. Developing Portfolios
251. Ms. Cambia aims to measure a product of learning. Which of these objectives will she most likely
set for her instruction?
a. Show positive attitude towards learning common nouns
b. Identify common nouns in a reading selection
c. Construct a paragraph using common nouns
d. User a common noun in a sentence
252. A grade II teacher wanted to show the parts of a seed by using a large, wooden seed visual aid with
detachable cotyledons and tiny seed. Under what classification does wooden structure fall?
a. assembly model
b. cutaway model
c. realia
d. solid model
253. The students of Mrs. Valens are very noisy. To keep them busy, they were given any test available
in the classroom and then the results were graded as a way to punish them. Which statement best
explains if the practice is acceptable or not?
a. The practice is acceptable because the students behaved well when they were given a test.
b. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of reliability.
c. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of validity.
d. The practice is acceptable since the test results are graded.
254. Ms. Delos Angeles advocates assessment for learning. Which will she NOT likely do?
a. Formative Assessment
b. Diagnostic Assessment
c. Placement Assessment
d. Summative Assessment
255. Which term refers to a model which is constructed so as to emphasize a particular part or function?
a. audio recording
b. simulation
c. mock-up
d. realia
256. At the beginning of the school year, the 6-year old pupils were tested to find out who among them
can already read. The result was used to determine their sections. What kind of test was given to
them?
a. Diagnostic
b. Formative
c. Placement
d. Summative
257. The grade six pupils were given a diagnostic test in addition and subtraction of whole numbers to
find out if they can proceed to the next unit. However, the results of the test were very low. What
should the teacher do?
a. Proceed to the next lesson to be able to finish all the topics in the course.
b. Construct another test parallel to the given test to determine the consistency of the scores.
c. Count the frequency of errors to find out the lessons that the majority of students need to
relearn.
200
d. Record the scores then inform the parents about the very poor performance of their child in
mathematics.
258. Mrs. Rogueries is doing an assessment of learning. At what stage of instruction should she do it?
a. Before instruction
b. After instruction
c. Prior to instruction
d. During the instructional process
259. Which is the best use of computers to students like you?
a. They are used for chatting and surfing the net.
b. They are used for research and collaboration.
c. They are used for playing online games.
d. They are used for watching movies.
260. Mr. Carrillo developed an Achievement Test in Math for her grade three pupils. Before she
finalized the test she examined carefully if the test items were constructed based on the
competencies that have to be tested. What test of validity was she trying to establish?
a. Content-validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Construct validity
261. Mrs. Robles wants to establish the reliability of her achievement test in English. Which of the
following activities will help achieve her purpose?
a. Administer two parallel tests to different groups of students.
b. Administer two equivalent tests to the same group of students’
c. Administer a single test but two different groups of students.
d. Administer two different tests but to the same group of students.
Refer to the situation below in answer items 262 and 263
A teacher set the following objectives for the day's lesson:
At the end of the period, the students should be able to: a. Identify the parts of friendly letter ;b.
Construct a friendly letter using the MS Word, and c. Show interest towards the day's lesson To
assess the attainment of the objectives, Ms. Cadre required the students to construct friendly letter
and have it encoded at their Computer Laboratory using the MS Word. The letter should inform one's
friend about what one has learned in the day's lesson and how one felt about it.
262. Which is NOT true about the given case?
A. Ms. Cadre practices a balanced assessment.
B. Ms. Cadre’s assessment method is performance-based.
C. Ms. Cadre needs a rubric in scoring the work of the students.
D. Ms. Cadre’s assessment targets are all in the cognitive domain.
263. If Mr. Paradise will have to make a scoring rubric for the student's output, what format is
better to construct considering that the teacher has limited time to evaluate their work?
a. Analytic Rubric
b. Holistic Rubric
c. either A or B
d. Neither A nor B
264. The school principal has 3 teacher applicants all of whom graduated from the same
institution and are licensed teachers. She only needs to hire one. What should she do to choose the
best teacher from the three?
I. Give them a placement test.
II. Interview them on why they want to apply in the school.
III. Let them demonstrate how to teach a particular lesson.
IV. Study their portfolios to examine the qualities of the students' outputs when they were in
College.
a. I and II.
b. II and III.
201
c. I and III, IV
d. II, III and IV
265. Which statement makes technology ineffective in student learning?
a. It develops higher thinking skills.
b. It prepares students for the workforce.
c. It enhances students’ collaborative skills.
d. It decreases achievement in content learning.
266. What should be done first when planning for a performance-based assessment?
a. Determine the "table of specifications" of the tasks
b. set the competency to be assessed.
c. Set the criteria in scoring the task.
d. Prepare a scoring rubric.
267. To maximize the amount of time spent for performance-based assessment, which one
should be done?
a. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time.
b. Assess one objective for one performance task.
c. Set objectives only for cognitive domains.
d. Limit the task to one meeting only.
268. Who among the teachers below gave the most authentic assessment task for the objective
"Solve word problems involving the four basic operations"?
a. Mrs. Juliana who presented a word problem involving a four fundamental operations and then
asked the pupils to solve it.
b. Mrs. Mandy who asked her pupils to construct a word problem for a given number sentence that
involves four fundamental operations and then asked them to solve the word problem they
constructed.
c. Mrs. Malang who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves the four
fundamental operations and then asked them to show how to solve it.
d. Mrs. Pontipedra who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves the four
fundamental operations then formed them by twos so that each pair exchanged problems and help
solve each other's problem.
269. Which is wrong to assume about traditional assessment?
a. It can assess individuals objectively.
b. It can assess individuals at the same time.
c. It is easier to administer than performance test.
d. It can assess fairly all the domains of intelligence of an individual
270. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
a. It emphasizes merely process.
b. It also stresses doing, not only knowing.
c. It accentuates on process as well as product.
d. Essay tests are an example of performance-based assessments.
271. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
a. Portfolio assessment is a dynamic assessment.
b. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.
c. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.
d. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.
272. Which is a good portfolio evidence of a student's acquired knowledge and writing skills?
a. Project
b. Test Results
c. Reflective Journal
d. Critiqued Outputs
273. You plan to use instructional materials to a big class-size. Which of these will you not use?
a. pictures
b. projection
c. 27-inch television
d. computer with LCD projector
202
274. When planning for portfolio assessment, which should you do first?
a. Set the targets for portfolio assessment.
b. Exhibit one's work and be proud of one's collection
c. Select evidences that could be captured in one's portfolio
d. Reflect on one's collection and identify strengths and weaknesses
275. Which kind of rubric is best to use in rating students' projects done for several days?
a. Analytic
b. Holistic
c. either holistic or analytic
d. Both holistic and analytic
276. Computers can be classified according to the roles they play namely communicative tool,
informative tool, and constructive tool. What is the other role of computes in the options below?
a. instructional tool
b. situating tool
c. utility tool
d. application tool
277. Which is not true of an analytic rubric?
a. It is time consuming
b. It is easier to construct than the holistic rubric
c. It gives one's level of performance per criterion
d. It allows one to pinpoint the strengths and weaknesses of one's work.
278. Mrs. Banana prepared a rubric with 5 levels of performance described in 5-excellent, 4-very
satisfactory, 3-satisfactory, 2 needs improvement, 1-poor. After using this rubric with these
descriptions, she found out that most of her students had a rating of 3. Even those who are
evidently poor in their performance had a rating of satisfactory. Could there be a possible error in
the use of the rubric?
a. Yes, the teacher could have committed the generosity error.
b. Yes, the teacher could have committed the central tendency source of error.
c. No, it is just common to see more of the students having grade of 3 in a 5-point scale.
d. No, such result is acceptable as long as it has a positive consequence to the students.
279. In a positively skewed distribution, the following statement are true except
a. Median is higher than the mode.
b. Mean is higher than the Media.
c. Mean is lower than the Mode.
d. Mean is not lower than the Mode.
280. Which of the following categories of CAI will you use in your class if your objective is to
increase proficiency in a newly learned skill or refresh an existing one?
a. tutorial
b. drill and practice
c. simulation
d. instructional game
281. Which of the following questions indicate a norm - referred interpretation?
a. How does the pupils test performance in our school compare with that of other schools?
b. How does a pupil's test performance in reading and mathematics compare?
c. What type of remedial work will be most helpful for a slow- learning pupil?
d. Which pupils have achieved master of computational skills?
282. What is the performance of a student in the National Achievement Test (NAT) if he
obtained/got a standing score of 5?
a. Between average and above average
b. Between average and below average
c. Below average
d. Average
283. Based on the figure, which is true about the distribution?
a. Mean=55, median=48, mode=34
b. Mean=46, median=40, mode=37
c. Mean=63, median=63, mode=63
d. The distribution is mesokurtic
203
284. If quartile deviation is to median, what is to mean?
a. Standard deviation
b. Mode
c. Range
d. Variance
285. In a normal distribution, which of the following is true?
a. median=mode=mean
b. median≠mode=mean
c. median≠mode≠mean
d. Mean=median=mode
286. Which of the following situations may lower the validity of test?
a. Mrs. Josea increases the number of items measuring each specific skill from three to five.
b. Mr. Santosa simplifies the language in the directions for the test.
c. Miss. Lopeza removes the items in the achievement test that everyone would be able to answer
correctly.
d. None of the above.
287. In a negatively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?
a. Mode is lower than the mean.
b. Mean is lower than the mode.
c. Median is higher than the mode.
d. Mode is lower than the median.
288. In a negatively skewed distribution, the following statements are true EXCEPT?
a. Mean is not higher than the median
b. Median is lower than the mode.
c. Mean is lower than the mode.
d. Mode is less than the median.
289. Miss Cortez administered a test to her class and the result is positively skewed. What kind of
test do you think Miss Cortez gave to her pupils?
a. Post test
b. Pretest
c. Mastery test
d. Criterion-referenced test
290. The result of the test given by teacher A showed a negatively skewed distribution. What kind
of test did Teacher Mina give?
a. The test is difficult
b. It is not too easy nor too difficult
c. It is moderately difficult
d. It is easy
291. When the distribution is skewed to the right, what kind of test was administered?
a. Difficult
b. Easy
c. Average/moderately difficult
d. Partly easy- partly difficult
204
292. In a negatively skewed distribution, what kind of students does Teacher B have?
a. Very good
b. Very poor
c. Average
d. Heterogeneous
293. In a positively skewed distribution, the students are?
a. Very good
b. Very poor
c. Average
d. Normally distributed
294. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?
a. Mode = 67 while Media = 54
b. Median = 53 while Mean = 41
c. Mean = 73 while Mode = 49
d. Median = 34 while Mode = 42
295. Which statements represent criterion-referenced interpretation?
a. Lucresia did better in solving the linear equation than 80% of representative Algebra students.
b. Lucresia's score indicates that she is able to solve about two thirds of all one-variable linear
equations of such complexity.
c. Students who have reached Lucresia's level on linear equations usually succeed in the subsequent
unit on simultaneous equations with special help or extra time; i.e., Lucresia is ready to move ahead.
d. All of the above
296. Bernard obtained a 97 percentile rank in an aptitude test. This means
a. He answered 97% of the items correctly.
b. He belongs to the 97% of the group who took the test.
c. 79% of the examinees did better than her on the test.
d. He surpassed 97% of those who took the test.
297. Which set of scores has the least variability?
Set 1 0,5,10,15,20
Set 2 25,35,45,55
Set 3 0,2,8,15,20
Set 4 505,501,503
a. Set 1
b. Set 2
c. Set 3
d. Set 4
298. Standard deviation is to variability as mode to?
a. Correlation
b. Discrimination
c. Central tendency
d. Level of difficulty
299. Goring performed better than 65% of the total number of examinees in the district
achievement test. What is his percentile rank?
a. P35 b. P65 c. P66 d. P75
300. Which is a guidance function of a test?
a. Identifying pupils who need corrective teaching
b. Predicting success in future academic and vocational education
c. Assigning marks for courses taken
d. Grouping pupils for instruction within a class
301. Mr. Reyes, an elementary school teacher in Science found out that many of his pupils got
very high scores in the test. What measure of central tendency should he use to describe their
average performance in the subject?
a. Mean
b. Median
205
c. Mode
d. Range
302. Which of the following indicates how compressed or expanded the distribution of scores is?
a. Measures of position
b. Measures of central tendency
c. Measures of correlation
d. Measures of variability
303. The proportion passing the upper and lower group is .80 and .95, respectively. What is the
index of difficulty?
a. .38
b. .40
c. .58
d. 1.02
304. Mr. Gringo tried to correlate the scores of his pupils in the Social studies test with their
grades in the same subject last 3rd quarter. What test validity is he trying to establish?
a. Content validity
b. Construct validity
c. Concurrent validity
d. Criterion related validity
305. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.06, how would you describe the test item?
a. It is very easy.
b. It is moderately difficulty.
c. It is very difficult
d. It is difficult
306. Two sections have the same mean but the standard deviation of section 2 is higher than
section 1. Which of the two sections is more homogeneous?
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
307. Miss Cortes administered a test to her class and the result is positively skewed. What kind of
test do you think Miss Cortes gave to her pupils?
a. Posttest
b. Pretest
c. Mastery test
d. Criterion-referenced test
308. In his second item analysis, Mr. Gonzales found out that more from the lower group got the
test item 15 correctly. What does this mean?
a. The item has become more valid
b. The item has become more reliable
c. The item has a positive discriminating power
d. The item has a negative discriminating power
309. Q1 is 25th percentile as media is to what percentile?
a. 40th percentile
b. 60th percentile
c. 50th percentile
d. 75th percentile
310. Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?
a. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
b. Most of the scores are high
c. Most of the scores are low.
d. The mode is high
311. In a normal distribution curve, what does a T-score of 60 mean?
a. Two SDs below the mean
b. Two SDs below the mean
206
c. One SD below the mean
d. One SD above the mean
For items 312 to 317, what does each figure/distribution on the right indicate?
312.
a. mean > median > mode
b. mean < mode > median
c. mean > mode < median
d. mean < median < mode
313.
a. mode < mean < median
b. mode > mean > median
c. median < mode > mean
d. none of the above
314.
a. equal means, unequal standard deviations
b. equal means, equal standard deviations
c. unequal means, equal standard deviations
d. unequal means unequal standard deviations
207
315.
a unequal means, equal standard deviations
b. unequal means, equal standard deviations
c. equal means, equal standard deviations
d. equal means, unequal standard deviations
316.
a. unequal variability, equal means, different shapes
b. unequal means, equal variability, different shapes
c. equal variability, equal means, different shapes
d. unequal variability, unequal means, different shapes
317.
a. unequal means, equal standard deviations
b. equal means, unequal standard deviations
c. equal means, equal standard deviations
d. unequal means, unequal standard deviations
318. In conducting a parent- teacher conference, which of the following is NOT true?
a. Be friendly and informal
b. Be a know-it-all person
c. Be willing to accept suggestions
d. Be careful in giving advice
208
319. In a frequency distribution, what is the midpoint of the class interval whose lower and upper
limits are 99.5 and 109.5?
a. 107.0
b. 105.0
c. 104.5
d. 102.5
320. In a frequency distribution, what is the interval size of the class whose lower and upper
limits are 9.5 and 19.5?
a. 11.0
b. 10.0
c. 9.0
d. 5.0
321. Given a mean of 55 and a standard deviation of 8, what two scores include one standard
deviation below and above the mean?
a. 46 and 63
b. 47 and 64
c. 47 and 63
d. 46 and 64
322. Given the same mean of 55 and standard deviation of 8, what score corresponds to two
standard deviation above the mean?
a. 70
b. 71
c. 72
d. 73
323. What principle of test construction is violated when one places very difficult items at the
beginning; thus creating frustration among students particularly those of average ability and below
average?
a. All the items of particular type should be placed together in the test.
b. The items should be phrased so that the content rather than the form of the statements will
determine the answer.
c. All items should be approximately 50 percent difficulty.
d. The items of any particular type should be arranged in an ascending order of difficulty.
324. Which of the following is an ineffective use of presentation software?
a. Darken the room
b. Use appropriate pacing
c. Read directly from the slides.
d. Allow interaction with the learner.
325. Mrs. Reyes would like to find out how well her students know each other. What assessment
instrument would best suit her objective?
a. Self-report instrument
b. Sociometric technique
c. Guess-who technique
d. All of the above
326. Mr. Reyes asked his pupils to indicate on the piece of paper the names of their classmates
whom they would like to be with for some group activity, what assessment technique did Mr. Reyes
use?
a. Self-report technique
b. Guess-who technique
c. Sociometric technique
d. Anecdotal technique
327. Which of the following assessment procedures/tools is useful in assessing social relation
skills?
209
a. Anecdotal record
b. Attitude scale
c. Peer appraisal
d. any of the above
328. If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is .90 and .30 respectively, what is
the discrimination index?
a. .40
b. .50
c. .60
d. .70
329. Which of the following is NOT an example of communicative tool?
a. multimedia encyclopedia
b. teleconferencing
c. electronic mail
d. chat
330. Which is an example of affective learning outcome?
a. Interpret stimuli from various modalities to provide data needed in making adjustments to the
environment
b. Judge problem and issues in terms of situations involved than in terms of fixed dogmatic thinking
c. Appreciate the quality and worth of the story read
d. None of the above
331. Mr. Mirasol who is a high school teacher in English conducted an item analysis of her test.
She found out that four of the items of the test obtained the following difficulty and discrimination
indices and as follows:
332.
1. Item Number 2. Difficulty Index 3. Discrimination Index
4. 1 5. .58 6. .49
7. 2 8. .92 9. .72
10. 3 11. .09 12. .32
13. 4 14. .93 15. .15
333. Which of the above items should be discard in her item pool?
a. Item 1
b. Item 2
c. Item 3
d. Item 4
334. Which of the following emphasizes the right of citizens to quality education?
a. The basic education level
b. Tertiary level
c. The graduate level
d. All levels
335. Which is a characteristic of the teaching machines of B. F. Skinner?
a. It does not need any feedback.
b. It requires teacher’s assistance.
c. It is meant for a collaborative work.
d. It allows a student to learn at his/her own pace.
336. Which educational level/s provide/s for free and compulsory education as stipulated in
Article IV, Section 2 of the Philippine Constitution?
a. Elementary level
b. Secondary level
c. Elementary and secondary levels
d. Tertiary level
337. Who among the following is in the category of non-academic personnel as provided for
under Education Act of 1982?
210
a. Guidance counselors
b. School principal
c. School nurse
d. School librarian
338. How is gradual progression of teacher's salary from minimum to maximum done?
a. Regular increment every year
b. Increment after ten years of service
c. Regular increment every 3 years
d. Increment after five years
339. Which of the following is NOT recognized by the Magna Carta for Public School Teachers?
a. Quality education depends primarily on the quality of socio-economic status of teachers.
b. Advancement in education depends on the teachers' qualifications and ability.
c. Education is an essential factor in the economic growth of the nation.
d. Education is development and vice-versa.
340. What appointment can be given to Teacher Apple who possesses the minimum
qualifications but lacks the appropriate but lacks the appropriate civil service eligibility?
a. Contractual basis
b. Permanent
c. Provisional
d. Substitute
341. Which of the following rights is intended for parents under Education Act of 1982?
a. The right to academic freedom
b. The right to privacy of communication
c. The right to seek redress of grievance
d. The right to full access to the evidence of the case
342. What can help achieve relevant quality education?
a. Strong curriculum
b. Competent instruction
c. School-community relations
d. Competent administrator
343. Which of the following provisions under the Magna Carta for Public School Teachers will
most likely promote teachers' welfare and defend their interests?
a. Be promoted in rank and salary
b. Regulate their social involvement
c. Undergo and participate in professional development
d. Establish, join and maintain professional and self-regulation organizations
344. What does "teachers are persons in authority" imply?
a. Teachers cannot be charged.
b. No person can assault a teacher.
c. Teachers have immunity from arrest.
d. Decisions made by teachers are deemed right.
345. Who among the following characterizes a professional teacher?
a. An education graduate who received honors
b. A teacher who has taught for at least six years
c. A teacher who has attended national seminars on teaching
d. A teacher who qualifies for a permanent position under RA 4670
346. Who are covered by RA 4670?
a. Teachers in all levels
b. Teachers in all public elementary schools
c. Teachers in both public and private schools
d. Teachers in public elementary and secondary schools
347. Teacher B has been in active service for 10 years when he decided to pursue higher studies.
Under RA 4670, what kind of leave of absence can s/he avail of?
a. Indefinite leave
b. Scholarship leave
211
c. Study leave
d. Vacation leave
348. When can teachers be required to work on assignment not related to their duties?
a. When on probation
b. When found inefficient
c. When lacking in educational qualifications
d. When compensated under existing laws
349. Teacher C has been teaching 7 straight years and therefore qualities for a study leave with
pay for one year. Should she pursue it, how much pay is she entitled to receive?
a. 50% of monthly salary
b. 60% of monthly salary
c. 70% of monthly salary
d. 100% monthly salary
350. Which of the following laws strengthens teacher education in the Philippines through the
establishment of centers of excellence?
a. RA 7722
b. RA 7784
c. RA 7796
d. RA 7834
351. What does free public secondary educational under the law mean?
a. Right of every student to enter public secondary schools
b. Free from being screened to enter pubic secondary schools
c. Free from payment of school fees identifies and authorized by law
d. Free from payment of tuition and other fees for students enrolled in public secondary schools
352. Teacher D is assigned in a rural area; Teacher E in a depressed community; Teacher F in a
hazardous area; and Teacher G in a place where standard of living is high. Who is entitled to a
hardship allowance?
a. Teacher D
b. Teacher E
c. Teacher F
d. Teacher G
353. Teacher H contracted an illness that required rest for more than one year. Which leave
should she apply for?
a. Sick leave
b. Personal leave
c. Vacation leave
d. Indefinite leave
354. A school personnel can avail of free legal service under certain circumstances. Principal I was
accused of maligning her neighbor. Is Principal I entitled to the said service?
a. Yes, she should defend herself.
b. No, if funds are not available.
c. No, it might bring some disagreements in school
d. No, the case is not related to her professional duties.
355. Teacher J discusses conflicts between warring groups in Mindanao. Which pillar should he
stress more?
a. Learning to be
b. Learning to live together
c. Learning to do
d. Learning to know
356. Teacher K teaches in a public school in her locality. Due to teacher shortage, her classroom
teaching starts from 6 am and ends at 3 pm. Is the assignment given her just?
a. Yes, the situation demands that she render longer teaching hours.
b. Yes, as long as she signs a conform letter to that effect.
c. No, rendering longer teaching hours would make the teacher tired and exhausted.
d. No, Magna Carta for Public School Teachers states that in the exigencies of service, any teacher
212
may be required to render more than six hours and not more than eight hours of actual classroom
teaching a day.
357. Teacher L, a graduate of BSEd with majorship in Mathematics teaches in a national high
school in her province. Since she has been rated outstanding in her performance, can she be
exempted from taking the LET?
a. Yes, that is a privilege that must be given to teachers whose performance is outstanding.
b. Yes, if approved by PRC.
c. No, RA 7836 states that no person shall practice or offer to practice the teaching profession in the
Philippines or be appointed as teacher to any position calling for a teaching position without having
previously obtained a valid certificate and a valid license from the Commission.
d. No, professional license is required of all teachers regardless of age and teaching performance.
358. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Code of Ethics for Professional
Teachers?
a. The teacher must select which information to keep confidential
b. The teacher must demonstrate full commitment and devotion to duty
c. The teacher must manifest pride in the nobility of the teaching profession
d. The teacher must make no prejudice or discrimination against any learner
359. Which of the following could be the reason for the teacher's suspension from the practice of
the teaching profession?
a. Immoral, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct
b. Observing proper procedures in obtaining a certificate of registration
c. Faithfulness to the code of ethical and professional standards for professional teachers
d. Willingness to attend seminars, workshops, conferences and the like or the continuing education
program prescribed by the Board and the Commission.
360. Ms. Sanchez, a BSE graduate, has not passed the LET yet. On what capacity can she be
hired?
a. Permanent status
b. Emergency status
c. Provisional for not less six months
d. Provisional for not less than one year
361. Teacher M suffers from hypertension and experiences difficulty in speech. Which would be
affected if he continues teaching?
a. Personality
b. Punctuality
c. Effectiveness
d. Devotion to duty
362. Teacher N wants to continue with her study leave for another six months after completing a
school year. Could she be allowed?
a. Yes, if her grades are excellent.
b. Yes, but without compensation.
c. No, other teachers should have the chance.
d. No, study leave should not exceed one year.
363. Teacher O tutors her students, who have difficulty coping with Math, after class hours. Is her
act ethical?
a. Yes, provided she receives jut compensation.
b. Yes, provided she does not require a fee from the parent.
c. No, that is unfair to other students.
d. No, she should be free after her official time.
364. Teacher P, the English coordinator, was assisted by Teacher Q throughout the celebration of
English Week. What could Teacher P do to acknowledge Teacher Q's assistance?
a. Buy her a gift
b. Keep quiet about the assistance received.
c. Mention formally to the principal the assistance received.
d. Make an announcement giving due recognition of the assistance received.
365. Is holding a rally to protest the delay of benefits due a person ethically acceptable?
a. Yes, when hold while on official time.
213
b. Yes, when hold outside the official time.
c. Yes, when hold with approval of the principal.
d. Yes, when hold together with parents and students.
366. What should a teacher do when he/she falls in love with his/her student?
a. Court the student at home.
b. Propose and marry the student.
c. Wait till the student is no longer under his/her tutelage.
d. Act normally as if nothing happens and the student does not exist.
367. When a Principal starts to exercise his/her powers over making and promoting students, is
his/her action acceptable?
a. Yes, when the teacher cannot make decision on time.
b. Yes, when there is abuse of judgment on the part of the teacher.
c. No, teachers are more knowledgeable of their student's performance.
d. No, grading and promoting students are exclusive functions of teachers.
368. Teacher R was asked by her principal to teach pre-school class in addition to her regular
grade one class. What will be the basis for her additional compensation?
a. Her basic salary
b. Performance rating
c. Providing public information of their policies and procedures
d. Encouraging appreciation of government agencies
369. Which of the following shows responsiveness of public officials and employees?
a. Avoiding wastage in public funds
b. Formulating rules and policies regarding work
c. Providing public information of their policies and procedures
d. Encouraging appreciation of government services
370. Teacher S, a Science teacher has been accused of sexual harassment by one of her students.
What should the school principal do?
a. Ask the teacher to surrender to the police.
b. Tell the teacher to stop reporting to school.
c. Advice the teacher to transfer to other school.
d. Create a committee to investigate the accusation.
371. Teacher T receives a love letter from one of her third year high school students in English.
What should Mr. Martin do?
a. Read her letter to the class.
b. Let the student express her feelings through letters.
c. Return the letter to the student and tell her not to do it again.
d. Surrender the letter to the parent of the student.
372. Mr. Nico, a Social Science teacher is advocating reforms which the principal failed to
recognize. What should the principal do?
a. Subject Mr. Nico to a disciplinary measure.
b. Just keep quiet about the behavior of Mr. Nico
c. Call Mr. Nico to the office and clarify things out with him.
d. Send Mr. Nico a memo requiring him to explain his behavior.
373. Which of the following manifests "Commitment to democracy" as explained in RA 6713?
a. Maintaining the principle of accountability.
b. Committing to democratic values and ways of life.
c. Manifesting by deeds the supremacy of civilian authority over the military.
d. All of the above
374. Teacher U was ordered by her principal to come to school on four consecutive Saturdays for
the training of students' editorial staff of their school paper. Is this allowed under RA 4670?
a. Yes, provided the teacher is compensated.
b. No, because it's not within the regular functions of the classroom teacher.
c. Yes, because it’s part of the teacher's other duties
d. No, because it's not clearly indicated in the law
375. Dr. Velasco, a schools' division superintendent acted on the complaint filed by a group of
parents against the alleged misconduct of a particular teacher. She issued a memorandum requiring
214
her to take a leave of absence for a week while the complaint is being heard yet. Was the action of
the superintendent legal?
a. Yes, because she is the superintendent.
b. No, because the complaint has not been heard yet.
c. Yes, the superintendent has disciplinary authority over teachers.
d. No, the superintendent has no disciplinary authority over teachers.
376. A school's academic coordinator has been found to have engaged in gambling which has
caused him to be absent most of the time. Can his certificate of registration as a teacher be
revoked?
a. No, unless he's proven guilty.
b. No, because he's protected by his rights as a teacher.
c. Yes, because he's incompetent.
d. Yes, because habitual gambling is a dishonorable conduct and is against the practice of teaching.
377. Mr. Santos is a holder of a valid certificate of eligibility as a teacher issued by the Civil
Service Commissioner and the then DECS, while Mr. Cruz is a registered professional. Who is allowed
to practice the teaching profession in the Philippines?
a. Mr. Santos, because of his CSC eligibility certificate.
b. Mr. Cruz, because their credentials are both recognized by law.
c. Both of them, because their credentials are both recognized by law.
d. Neither of the two because they did not take and pass the LET.
378. What is RA 6713 also called?
a. Ethical Standards for public Employees
b. Code of Ethical Standards for Government Officials and Employees
c. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees
d. Code of Ethical Standards and Conduct of Government Officials and Employees
379. Teacher V, a BEED graduate is preparing for the LET. Which of the following should she focus
her attention more?
a. General Education
b. Specialization
c. Professional Education
d. General Education and Professional Education
380. What norm of conduct is manifested by being loyal to the republic and to the Filipino
people?
a. Professionalism
b. Nationalism and Patriotism
c. Responsiveness to the public
d. Honesty
381. Mr. Salazar, a school superintendent, filed his statement of assets and liabilities upon
assuming to office. Under what ethical standard does this practice fall?
a. Divestment
b. Prohibited Acts and Transactions
c. Statement of Assets and Liabilities
d. System of Incentives
382. Principal B acted on the letter of complaint received by his office 30 days after saying he was
preoccupied by more important things the past days. Is his reason acceptable?
a. Yes, because he has to prioritize things.
b. No, RA 6713 states that public officials and employees must act promptly on letters and requests
within 15 working days from receipt thereof.
c. Yes, because the letter of complaint can wait and is of no urgency.
d. No, the reason is simple unacceptable.
383. Which of the following is NOT in the norms of conduct under RA 6713?
a. Professionalism
b. Justness and sincerity
c. Commitment to public interest
d. Responsiveness to the private
215
384. Which of the following is true about the teacher as a person under the Code of Ethics for
Professional Teachers?
a. Live with dignity at all times wherever he/she is
b. Serve as a model worthy of emulation
c. Place premium upon self-respect and self-discipline
d. All of the above.
385. Which of the following conditions manifests trend of globalization?
a. Establishment of stronger boundaries between and among nations.
b. Increased awareness on the importance of national cultures and traditions.
c. Less and less impact of human activity on the planet earth.
d. The incorporation of local and national economies into a worldwide global economy.
386. According to the Delors report, there are a number of main tensions central to the problems
of the twenty first century that we need to overcome. One of them is the challenge to an individual
how he or she can adapt to the changing world without forgetting or turning his/her back from the
past. What kind of tension or conflict is manifested in this situation?
a. Tension between tradition and modernity
b. Tension between the global and the local
c. Tension between the universal and the individual
d. Tension between long term and short term considerations
387. Which of the following features represents the new paradigm shift in education?
a. Traditional pedagogies
b. Lifelong education for all
c. Rigid subject matter boundaries
d. Knowledge as the only learning outcome
388. What is the measure of relevance in education?
a. Democratization of access
b. Functionality and meaningfulness
c. Ability to sustain education through the future
d. Excellence and effectiveness
389. What is the concern of Multicultural Education?
a. Anticipating the future and imagining possible and probable futures.
b. Gender equality and harnessing of the role of women in development.
c. Promoting care for the environment and building a global culture of ecological responsibility.
d. The exploration of concepts of cultural diversity, similarities and prejudices to promote cultural
understanding.
390. Which of the following may be considered an economic impact of globalization on
education?
a. Increasing commercialization of education and the corporate takeover of education
b. weakening of the notion of the "citizen" as a unified and unifying concept.
c. New technologies of information and communication creates new approaches to learning
d. Reduction of state and government support and subsidy for education
391. Which of the following aptly describes Marshall Mcluhans' concept of global village?
a. The idea that because of rapid globalization and development in technology, the world has
become one global village where increased diversity and difference among people has become more
pronounced than ever.
b. Rapid integration of the planet through media and technology where events in one part of the
world could be experienced from other parts in real-time, similar to what human experience was
like when we lived in small villages.
c. Global Village is the kind of global world we are experiencing, characterized by fundamentalism,
apathy and conflict brought about by clashes of cultures.
d. People's cultural and religious identities will be the primary source of conflict in the post-Cold War
world as evidenced by the conflict between fundamentalist Muslims and the western world.
392. When planning her lessons and units, Mrs. Jones is careful to include books and resources
from a variety of cultures and ethnic groups. What kind of education is this?
a. Multilingual education
216
b. Transformative education
c. Multicultural education
d. Gender free education
393. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of globalization?
a. Stretching a social, political and economic activities across political frontiers, regions and
continents.
b. The growing magnitude of interconnectedness and flows of trade, investment and migration.
c. A speeding up of global interactions and processes through worldwide systems of transportation
and communication.
d. The expansion of economic protectionism and isolation of poor countries.
394. Which of the following illustrates the major paradigm shift in education in the 21st century?
a. Shift from rigid subject matter to a more interdisciplinary and multidisciplinary pedagogical
approach.
b. Shift from values education and emotional learning to knowledge dominated curriculum
c. From contextualized themes generated from global and local realities to pre-organized subject
matter
d. From more flexible learning styles to a prescribed pedagogy
395. What educational approach/perspective recognizes the knowledge and experience of
women, racial groups and ethnic groups as being just, as valid and relevant as the knowledge of
dominant groups in mainstream academic discourse?
a. Transformative education
b. Multicultural education
c. Inclusive education
d. Global education
396. How does the notion of cultural relativity and variability affect the teaching-learning
processes in school?
a. The students' varied cultural background will in no way affect the way they will learn the lessons
in school.
b. The students can readily adjust to the way the teacher initiates learning in school because
children are adaptable beings no matter what culture they come from.
c. The child's cultural background influences the children's way of interpreting and viewing the
world; hence, teachers must consider the children's world view when teaching.
d. The teacher should be wary of differing cultural points of view and must make sure that students
will see things the same way.
397. Which among the following is the focus of Civic Education?
a. Promote understanding of human rights, concepts and values to enable learners to comprehend
and transform conditions which give rise to human rights violations.
b. Learning for effective participation in democratic and development processes at both local and
national levels.
c. Foster a vision of education for sustainable development and care for the environment.
d. Empower people with the skills, attitudes and knowledge to build a peaceful world based on
justice and human rights.
398. Which of the following initiatives would NOT help a school address diversity?
a. Using ability grouping
b. Using cooperative learning
c. Working with neighborhood groups
d. Using culturally-relevant teaching methods
399. If the teacher is emphasizing the development of the learner's competency to transform
knowledge into innovations and job-creation, what pillar of education does s/he is actually
promoting?
a. Learning to Know
b. Learning to Do
c. Learning to Live Together
d. Learning to Be
400. What pillar of education which emphasizes learning to be human, through acquisition of
knowledge, skills and values conducive to personality development?
217
a. Learning to Know
b. Learning to Do
c. Learning to Live Together
d. Learning to Be
401. A class is composed of students coming from several ethnic communities including Muslims
and lumads. They seem to have difficulty understanding each other’s behavior and points of view.
What should the teacher do?
a. Introduce multiculturalism in the class and provide activities for practice.
b. Threaten the students that if there are students who do not behave and tolerant of their
classmates, s/he will be dropped from class.
c. Inform students that they will all be learning new ways of thinking and behaving in this class, so
they might as well leave their cultural idiosyncrasies at home.
d. Assign bright students to monitor and control behavior of poor students.
402. Which of the following qualities should be developed by the pillar, learning to Live
Together?
a. Strong appreciation of the diversity of the human race
b. Readiness to take risks and resolve or manage conflicts
c. Scientific spirit and an inquiring mind
d. Complete fulfillment of humans, in all the richness of his/her personality
403. Which of the following statements about Gender is correct?
a. Gender is biologically determined.
b. Gender is socially and culturally-constructed.
c. Gender roles are the same in all societies.
d. Gender is an ascribed status in society.
404. UNICEF and UNESCO are two key UN agencies which are particularly active advocates of
education for peace. Which of the following is not supported by UNESCO in promoting peace in the
schools?
a. Uphold children's basic rights as outlined in the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)
b. Develop a climate that models peaceful and respectful behavior among all members of the
learning community
c. Demonstrate the principles of equality and non-discrimination in administrative policies
d. Enable the teachers to stress peace-making in social studies classroom only when necessary
405. One way to advance peace education is through partnerships of various non-governmental
organizations, education institutions, United Nations specialized bodies which link ideals of peace
with research and practice. One such significant examples is the Hague Agenda for Peace and Justice
for the 21st Century. What is the aim of the Agenda's Global Campaign for Peace Education?
a. Helps coordinate local initiatives and unite educators in the common practice of educating for a
culture of peace.
b. Supports the UN Decade for a Culture of Peace and Non-violence for the Children of the World
and to introduce peace and human rights education into all educational institutions.
c. Brings together multiple traditions of pedagogy, theories of education, and international
initiatives for the advancement of total human development and care for the environment through
learning.
d. Serves to enhance learning across subjects like conflict resolution initiatives.
406. The impact of conflict on children whether as victims of war or child soldiers has been
brought to world attention through media, international organizations and eye witness account?
What is the best thing to do to help children affected by conflict?
a. Employ education to regain parts of a lost children and to facilitate the experiences that support
healthy social, emotional and intellectual growth and development
b. Provide employment opportunity for them as well as their parents to attain financial
independence
c. Offer them to migrate in neighboring country as foreign refugees
d. Secure their safety by imposing strict curfew hours
407. The United Nations is committed to address climate through mitigation and adaptation.
Which of the following is the best way of addressing the issue?
a. Deepen strategic and operational collaboration with international and regional organizations,
218
including international financial institutions and regional development banks, and other
stakeholders.
b. Developing a policy framework that identifies basic elements needed to prevent human rights
violations.
c. Facilitate and execute agreements on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation to protect forests and sustain the livelihoods of the people who depend on them.
d. Enhancing collaboration among humanitarian organizations, particularly from the global South, at
the local, national and regional levels, to strengthen community resilience and emergency response,
and establishing a monitoring system to assess progress on the implementation of preparedness
measures.
408. Why are educational environments very crucial to peace education?
a. The social, cultural, economic and political contexts in which educators work shape the specific
content and methods they choose for peace education.
b. The variety of different educational settings from rural to urban, school-based to community and
within the formal curricula or non-formal popular education projects are relevant to peace
education.
c. Many teachers infuse peace education into traditional academic subjects such as literature, math,
science, history, language, civics and the arts.
d. All of the above
409. In your computer subject, you allow your class to chat as a part of your motivation before
discussing them the roles of computer. How is chat 410. used in this context?
a. Communicative tool
b. Informative tool
c. Application tool
d. Situating tool
411. What is celebrated every December 10?
a. Mother Language day
b. Human Rights Day
c. Earth's Day
d. International Day of Tolerance
412. Maryjane is looking for an organized instructional program in which the teacher and learners
can be physically separated. Which of the following will she choose?
a. Distance Education
b. Uniform Resource Locator
c. Web Quests
d. Computer-Based Instruction
413. What kind of tension is referred to when people prefer to have quick answers and ready
solution to many problems even if its calls for a patient, concerted, negotiated strategy of reform?
a. Tension between modernity and tradition
b. Tension between long term and short term considerations
c. Tension between spiritual and material
d. Tension between individual and universal
414. Your mother wanted to finish her long dreamed course but she wanted to do it at home
during her free time. How could you help your mother in pursuing her dream?
a. Encourage her to hire a helper so that she can attend regularly to her class.
b. Give up your study so that your mother can attend her classes.
c. Enroll her to the school where you enrolled.
d. Enroll her in distance education
415. In what strands of the four pillars of education implies a shift from skill to competence, or a
mix of higher-order skills specific to each individual?
a. Learning to Know
b. Learning to Do
c. Learning to Live Together
c. Learning to Be
416. Prof. Russo would like to show Rizal’s museum to the students but due to financial
constraint, she couldn’t bring them there. What should she do to make the teaching learning
process more realistic?
219
a. Conduct a virtual tour.
b. Use DVD with less resolution.
c. Show pictures of the museum to the whole class.
d. Go to the museum and relate all observations made.
417. Which of the following is NOT true about the Four Pillars of Learning?
a. The pillars of learning stress the goal of contributing to social cohesion, intercultural and
international understanding, peaceful interchange, and harmony.
b. The Pillars of Learning imply a shift from schooling to learning throughout life by "learning how to
learn"
c. The pillars of learning stress the importance of closer linkage between education and the world of
work.
d. The Pillars of Learning adheres to the instrumental and purely academic view of education that
focuses on the achievement of specific aims of education such as economic productivity.
418. What pillar of education of J. Delors (UNESCO) focuses on voc-tech relevant to peoplecentered
human development?
a. Learning to Know
b. Learning to Do
c. Learning to Live Together
d. Learning to Be
419. The following statements are true about computer conferencing. Which is an exception?
a. It refers to live student interaction with an expert.
b. It is also known as discussion forum or bulletin board.
c. It also refers to online class discussions, forums or debates
d. It permits two or more individuals to engage in asynchronous text-based dialogue.
420. The rapid traversing of ideas, attitudes and values across national borders that generally
leads to an interconnectedness and interaction between peoples of diverse cultures and ways of life.
What is being referred to?
a. Cultural Globalization
b. Fundamentalism
c. Multiculturalism
d. Clash of civilization
421. Which of the following should you avoid if you were asked to evaluate the effectiveness of
an instructional game after using it in teaching a lesson in high school science?
a. Present problems which are relevant to learning objectives.
b. Allow learners to select different content materials.
c. Provide a cooperative learning atmosphere.
d. Provide a scoring system.
422. Which is considered a political impact of globalization?
a. Changing role of education in terms of preparing students for the world of work
b. The threat to the autonomy of national educational systems by globalization.
c. Reforms in education as lifelong education
d. Branding, globalization and learning to be consumers
423. What United Nation Decade are we celebrating for 2005-2014?
a. Educating for Culture of Peace
b. Educating for International Understanding
c. Educating for Sustainable Development
d. Promoting the Rights of the Elderly
424. With the growing competition brought about by globalization, what is preferred by most
employers in hiring their employees?
a. Flexible
b. Selective
c. Quick
d. None of the above
425. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe contextualized learning as a major
paradigm shift in education?
a. From limited access to time-bound and space limited education, to borderless education, lifelong
learning for all in a learning society.
220
b. From traditional pedagogies to more modern strategies of teaching and learning.
c. From knowledge limited to the local scene to the globalized knowledge, values, attitudes, and
skills interfaced with local wisdom.
d. Pre-organized subject matter to localized themes generated from the global realities and the
cultural relevant, meaningful and useful to learner.
426. What current trend in education focuses on the study of the basic concepts, beliefs and
values underlying our democratic political community and constitutional order?
a. Civic education
b. Development education
c. Peace education
c. Multicultural education
427. Which of the following is the first target of the Millennium Development Goals (MDG's)
formulated by member states of the UN in September 2000?
a. Reduce child mortality
b. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
c. Reduce death due to HIV/AIDS and malaria
d. Achieve universal access to primary education
428. Which among the following statements about Human Rights Education (HRE) is correct?
a. HRE is more of the responsibilities of the state to implement human rights law rather than the
protection of the rights holders
b. HRE should focus more on rights based on "law in books", rather than "law in real-life".
c. HRE needs to focus on the values, principles, and standards and human rights and how they can
be translated into day-to-day actions
d. Human Rights Standards vary from society to society and HRE therefore should also vary in terms
of approaches and methods
429. What is the implication and globalization to the practice and experience of education?
a. Increase of state and government support and subsidy for education
b. Commodification and the corporate takeover of education
c. Greater autonomy of national educational systems
d. Delocalization of technologies and orientations in education
430. Which of the following skills corresponds to the Fourth Pillar of Learning, "Learning to live
together"?
a. Empathy and cooperative social behavior
b. Personal commitment and sense of responsibility
c. Adaptability to change in the world of work
d. Reasoning and problem solving skills
431. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Multicultural education?
a. Personality empowering
b. Socially transformative
c. Pedagogically humanistic
d. Culturally discriminating
432. What is the character of education that manifests democratization of access and inclusivity?
a. Relevance
b. Sustainability
c. Quality
d. Equity
433. What is the kind of education that emphasizes human-earth relationships and fosters a
vision of education for sustainable development to build a global culture of ecological responsibility?
a. Human Rights Education
b. Development Education
c. Environmental Education
d. Global Education
434. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of multicultural education?
a. Multicultural education increases positive relationships through achievement of common goals,
respect, appreciation and commitment to equality among the teachers and students.
b. Multicultural education decreases stereotyping and prejudice through direct contact and
221
interaction among diverse individuals.
c. Multicultural education promotes independence of various ethnic groups in development and
supports fragmented view of the world.
d. Multicultural education renews vitality of society through the richness of the different cultures of
its members and fosters development.
435. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of social media?
a. Mass media decreases prejudice and discrimination.
b. Mass media enriches the educational programs.
c. Mass media increases student's exposure to diversity.
d. Mass media helps provoke discussion of current issues.
436. Which among the following rights manifests rule of law and good governance?
a. Right to education
b. Right to environment protection
c. Right of participation
d. Right to work
437. Which among the following is NOT a core principle of human rights?
a. Human dignity
b. Non-discrimination
c. Universality
d. Independency
438. How are human rights principles reflected in the activities of national and local governments?
a. Legislating laws to include rights education in all levels of schooling
b. Organizing local exhibit or event to highlight the children's talents and local products
c. Asking the community leaders to volunteer in the construction of a barangay hall
d. Lobbying to the UN High Commission for Human Rights to allocate higher budget for Philippines'
Commission on Human Rights.
439. Which of the following could be a reason to justify peace education as a series of "teaching
encounters" or teaching-learning process?
a. Desire for peace
b. Nonviolent alternatives for managing conflict
c. Skills for critical analysis of structural arrangements that produce and legitimize injustice and
inequality
d. All of the above
440. Which of the following is accurate in regard to working with parents in diverse classrooms?
a. The parent's culture is important, but should not influence their children's education.
b. Teachers should demonstrate their "expertise" to parents to show they know best.
c. Teachers should strive to use a variety of ways to keep parents informed, including parents who
cannot speak English or Filipino
d. The importance of the family's influence on children's education has diminished over the past few
years.
441. Which of the following is NOT a guiding statement of peace education?
a. Peace education teaches students what to think rather than how to think.
b. Peace education employs holistic and participatory approach.
c. Peace education aims not to reproduce but transform.
d. Peace builds bridges of support among key participants.
442. With R.A. 9155, to which body were all the functions, programs, and activities of the
Department of Education related to Sports competition transferred?
a. Technical Education Services Department Authority
b. Philippine Sports Commission
c. National Commission for Culture and the Arts
d. Commission on Higher Education
443. Parenting style influences children’s development. Read the following parent’s remarks for their
children then, answer the question.
Parent C – Tells her child: “You should do it my way or else. There is no discussion.”
222
Parent D – Tells her husband: “It is 10:00 PM, do you know where your child is?”
Parent E – Tells her child: “You know, you should have not done that. Let’s talk about it so you can
handle the situation better next time.”
Parent F – Tells her child: “You may do what you want. We will always be here for you, no matter
what you do.” Which Parenting style is Authoritarian?
a. D b. F c. E d. C
444. Two identical beakers A and B are presented to the child. Teacher Sonny pours the liquid from B to
C which is taller and thinner than A and B but has equal capacity with B. The teacher asks if the
beakers A and C have the same amount of liquid. The child says “NO” and points to C as the beaker
that has more liquid. In which cognitive developmental stage is the child?
a. Sensorimotor stage
b. Concrete operational stage
c. Pre-operational stage
d. Formal Operational stage
445. To determine her students’ level of moral development, Teacher Evangeline presents to her class a
morally ambiguous situation and asks them what they would do in such a situation. On whose
theory is Teacher Evangeline’s technique based?
a. Bruner
b. Kohlberg
c. Freud
d. Piaget
446. According to R.A. 9155, which among the following is considered the “heart of the formal
education system”?
a. The pupil
b. The teacher
c. The classroom
d. The school
447. You arrange the rows of blocks in such a way that a row of 5 blocks is longer than a row of 7
blocks. If you ask which row has more, Grade 1 pupils will say that it is the row that makes the
longer line. Based on Piaget’s cognitive development theory, what problem is illustrated?
a. Assimilation problem
b. Accommodation problem
c. Conservation problem
d. Egocentrism problem
448. According to R.A. 9155, a school head has two roles, namely administrative manager and
____.
a. Health officer
b. Instructional leader
c. Facilitator
d. Guidance counselor
449. After reading and paraphrasing Robert Frost’s Stopping by the Woods on Snowy Evening,
Teacher Marko asked the class to share any insight derived from the poem. In which domain in
Bloom’s taxonomy of objectives is the term paraphrase?
a. Analysis
b. Comprehension
c. Application
d. Synthesis
450. Which characterizes a constructivist teaching-learning process?
a. Conceptual interrelatedness
b. Multiple perspectives
c. Authentic assessment
d. Passive acceptance of information
451. On what theory is the sequencing of instruction anchored?
a. Gagne’s hierarchical theory
b. B.F. Skinner’s operant conditioning theory
c. Bandura’s social learning theory
223
d. Thorndike’s law of effect
452. A common complaint of teachers about pupils is this: “You give them assignment, the
following day they come without any. You teach them this today, asks them tomorrow and they
don’t know. It is as if there is nothing that you taught them at all.” Based on the theory of
information processing, what must teachers do to counteract pupil’s forgetting?
I. Punish every child who can’t give correct answers to questions.
II. Work for meaningful learning by connecting lesson to what pupils know.
III. Reward every child who remembers past lessons.
a. III only c. II and III
b. I and III d. II only
453. When small children call all animals “dogs”, what process is illustrated, based on Piaget’s
cognitive development theory?
a. Assimilation c. Reversion
b. Conservation d. Accommodation
454. Based on Bandura’s theory, which conditions must be present for a student to learn from a
model?
I. Attention III. Motor reproduction
II. Retention IV. Motivation
a. I and II c. I, II, III and IV
b. I, II and III d. III and IV
455. According to Tolman’s theory on purposive behaviorism, learning is goal-directed. What is
its implication to teaching?
a. Evaluate lessons based on your objective/s
b. Set as many objectives as you can
c. Stick to your objectives/s no matter what happens
d. Make the objective/s of your lesson clear and specific
456. Which is the ideal stage of moral development? Stage of _____.
a. Social contract
b. Universal ethical principle
c. Law and order
d. Good boy/good girl
457. Cristina’s family had a family picture when she was not yet born. Unable to see herself in the
family picture, she cried despite her mother’s explanation that she was not yet born when the family
picture was taken. What does Cristina’s behavior show?
a. Limited social cognition
b. Egocentrism
c. Semi-logical reasoning
d. Rigidity of thought
458. To help a student learn to the optimum, Vygotsky advises us to bridge the student’s present skill
level and the desired skill level by ______.
a. Challenging c. Inspiring
b. Scaffolding d. Motivating
459. Based on Piaget’s theory, what should a teacher provide in the formal operational stage?
a. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with
b. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skills
c. Activities for hypothesis formulation
d. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering
460. “Do not cheat. Cheating does not pay. If you do, you cheat yourself” says the voiceless voice from
within you. In the context of Freud’s theory, which is/are at work?
a. Id c. Ego
b. Id and Superego d. Superego
461. Here are comments from School Head Carmen regarding her observations on teacher’s practice in
lesson planning:
The words “identify,” “tell” and “enumerate” are overused. Many times they make use of nonbehavioral
terms. Often their lesson objectives do not include value formation and inculcation.
224
What can be inferred from the School Head’s comments regarding teacher formulated lesson
objectives?
a. Often lesson objectives are in the low level
b. Very often lesson objectives are in the cognitive domain
c. Quite often lesson objectives describe teacher’s behavior
d. Often lesson objectives are in the psychomotor domain
462. Sassi, a Grade I pupil is asked, “Why do you pray everyday?” Sassi answered, “Mommy said so.”
Based on Kohlberg’s theory, in which moral development stage is Sassi?
a. Pre-convention level
b. Conventional level
c. In between conventional and post-conventional levels
d. In between pre- and post-conventional levels
463. Teacher Fatima tells her students: “You must be honest at all times not only because you are afraid
of the punishment but more because you yourselves are convinced of the value of honesty.” Based
on Kohlberg’s theory, which level of moral development does the teacher want her students to
reach?
a. Conventional level
b. Between conventional and post-conventional levels
c. Between pre-conventional and post-conventional levels
d. Post-conventional level
464. Why is babyhood referred to as a “critical period” in personality development? Because:
a. At this time the baby is exposed to many physical and psychological hazards
b. Changes in the personality pattern take place
c. At this time the foundations are laid upon which the adult personality structure will be built
d. The brain grows and develops at such an accelerated rate during babyhood
465. It is good to give students creative learning tasks because ______.
a. Development is affected by cultural changes
b. The development of individuals is unique
c. Development is the individual’s choice
d. Development is aided by stimulation
466. According to Havighurst’s development tasks, reaching and maintaining satisfactory
performance in one’s occupational career is supposed to have been attained during ____.
a. Middle age and Early adulthood
b. Middle age
c. Old age
d. Early adulthood
467. Student Deina says: “I have to go to school on time. This is what the rule says.” In what level
of moral development is the student?
a. Pre-conventional
b. Post-conventional
c. Conventional
d. Cannot be specifically determined
468. In planning for instruction, can a teacher begin with assessment?
a. No, it may discourage and scare the learners
b. Yes, determine entry knowledge or skill
c. Yes, to make the class pay attention
d. No, assessment is only at the end of a lesson
469. Which among the following is closest to the real human digestive system for study in the
classroom?
a. Drawing of the human digestive system on the board
b. Model of the human digestive system
c. The human digestive system projected on an OHP
d. Drawing of the human digestive system on a page of a textbook
470. Here is a question: “Is the paragraph a good one?” Evaluate. If broken down to simplify,
which is the best simplification?
a. Why is the paragraph a good one? Prove
225
b. Is the paragraph a good one? Why or Why not?
c. If you asked to evaluate something, what do you do? Evaluate the paragraph?
d. What are the qualities of a good paragraph? Does the paragraph have these qualities?
471. Which one is in support of greater interaction?
a. Probing
b. Repeating the question
c. Not allowing a student to complete a response
d. Selecting the same student respondents
472. With this specific objective, to reduce fractions to their lowest terms, this is how the teacher
developed the lesson.
Step 1 – Teacher stated the rule on how to reduce fractions to their lowest term
Step 2 – Teacher wrote 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
4 6 8 10 12
and showed how to reduce them to 1
2
Step 3 – Teacher wrote 3 , 6 , 4 and
9 9 12
showed how to reduce them to their lowest term.
Step 4 – Teacher gave this written exercise to the class.
Reduce the following fractions to their lowest terms: 3 , 7 , 5 , 8 , 5 , 4
12 14 10 16 15 6
Did the lesson begin with concrete experience then developed into the abstract?
a. No
b. Yes, a little
c. Yes, by way of the examples given by the teacher
d. Yes, the pupils were involved in arriving at the rule on reducing fractions to their lowest terms
473. I want to compare two concepts. Which technique is most appropriate?
a. Attribute wheel
b. K-W-L techniques
c. Venn diagram
d. Spider web organizer
474. Which activity should a teacher have more for his students if he wants them to develop
logical-mathematical thinking?
a. Focus group discussion
b. Problem solving
c. Games
d. Small group discussion
475. I want to use a pre-teaching strategy that will immediately engage my students in the
content and will enable me to get an insight into how students think and feel about the topic. Which
is most appropriate?
a. K-W-L chart c. Graphic organizer
b. Story boarding d. Document analysis
476. For a discussion of a topic from various perspectives, it is best to hold a ______.
a. Debate c. Panel discussion
b. Brainstorming d. Symposium
477. After establishing my learning objectives, what should I do to find out what my students
already know and what they do not yet know in relation to my lesson objectives in the cognitive
domain?
a. Give a pretest
b. Study the least learned competencies in the National Achievement Test
c. Analyze my students’ grades last year
d. Interview a sample of my students
478. What characterizes genuine change? Change in _____.
a. Appearance
b. Substance
226
c. Form
d. Physical attribute
479. In which strategy, can students acquire information from various perspectives, and led to
reflective thinking and group consensus?
a. Debate
b. Small group discussion
c. Panel discussion
d. Symposium
480. At the end of my lesson on the role of a teacher in learning, I asked the class: “In what way is
a teacher an enzyme?” With this question, it engaged the class in _______.
a. Allegorical thinking
b. Concrete thinking
c. Metaphorical thinking
d. Symbolical thinking
481. Which must be primarily considered in the choice of instructional aide?
a. Must stimulate and maintain student interest
b. Must be updated and relevant to Filipino setting
c. Must be suited to the lesson objective
d. Must be new and skillfully made
482. For lesson clarity and effective retention, which should a teacher observe, according to
Bruner’s theory?
a. Begin teaching at the concrete level but go beyond it by reaching the abstract
b. Use purely verbal symbols in teaching
c. Start at the concrete level and end there
d. End teaching with verbal symbols
483. Is it advisable to use realias all the time?
a. No, for the sake of variety of instructional materials
b. No, only when feasible
c. Yes, because there is no substitute for realias
d. Yes, because it is the real thing
484. I want my students to look at the issues on the call for President Arroyo to step down from
several perspectives. Which activity is most fitting?
a. Cross examination c. Symposium
b. Panel discussion d. Debate
485. I intended to inculcate in my students the value of order and cleanliness. I begin my lesson
by asking them to share their experiences about the dirtiest and the cleanest place they have seen
and how they felt about them. From there I lead them to the consequences of dirty and clean home
of surroundings. In my lesson development plan, how do I proceed?
a. Transductively c. Deductively
b. Inductively d. Concretely
486. Teacher Nero wants to develop the ability of sound judgment in his students. Which of the
following questions should he ask?
a. What is the essayist saying about judging other people?
b. With the elements of a good paragraph in mind, which one is best written?
c. Why is there so much poverty in a country where there is plenty of natural resources?
d. Of the characters in the story, with whom do you identify yourself?
487. The teacher is the first audio-visual aid in the classroom. What does this imply?
a. You take care that you follow the fashion or else students won’t listen to you
b. Your physical appearance and voice should be such that students are helped to learn
c. Make good use of the radio and TV in the classroom
d. Include singing in your teaching method
488. I used the gumamela flower, a complete flower, to teach the parts of a flower. Which
method did I use?
a. Demonstration method
b. Type-study method
c. Drill method
227
d. Laboratory method
489. A teacher would use a standardized test ______.
a. To serve as a unit test
b. To serve as a final examination
c. To engage in easy scoring
d. To compare her students to national norms
490. Other than finding out how well the course competencies were met, Teacher Kathy also
wants to know her students’ performance when compared with other students in the country. What
is Teacher Kathy interested to do?
a. Formative evaluation
b. Authentic evaluation
c. Norm-referenced evaluation
d. Criterion-referenced evaluation
491. I want to help my students retain new information. Which one will I use?
a. Questions c. Games
b. Mnemonics d. Simulations
492. I want to use a diagram to compare the traditional and authentic modes of assessment.
Which one is most fit?
a. Affinity diagram
b. Tree diagram
c. Venn diagram
d. Fishbone diagram
493. A big story in your local newspaper. You want to use the headlines as an inquiry device. To
increase student participation, you might begin by ____.
a. Asking one to read the news story and interpret what he read after
b. Asking the class to infer connotations and denotations from the headline
c. Explaining what you believe to be the underlying causes
d. Describing the background of the story as you know it
494. If a triadic interaction includes three (3) persons, how many persons are included in a dyadic
interaction?
a. Two
b. Two groups composed of two persons each
c. One, the person and himself
d. Four
495. When I teach skills that are critical to the learning of the next topics, what should I employ?
a. Direct instruction
b. Mastery learning
c. Socratic method
d. Cooperative learning
496. I want my students to have mastery learning of a basic topic. Which can help?
a. Drill
b. Socratic method and drill
c. Morrisonian technique and drill
d. Socratic method
497. Teacher Feng wanted to teach the pupils the skill of cross stretching. Her check-up quiz was
a written test on the steps of cross stitching. What characteristic of a good test does it lack?
a. Predictive validity
b. Objectivity
c. Reliability
d. Content validity
498. In the parlance of test construction, what does TOS mean?
a. Table of Specification
b. Team of Specifications
c. Table of Specifics
d. Terms of Specifications
499. If I favor “assessment for learning,” which will I do most likely?
228
I. Conduct a pre-test results
II. Teach based on pre-test results
III. Give specific feedback to students
IV. Conduct peer tutoring for students in need of help
a. I, II and IV
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV
500. After a lesson on the atom, the students were asked to work on a physical model of the
atom to determine learning. For which group of students is building an atom model intended?
a. Interpersonality intelligent
b. Kinesthetically intelligent
c. Mathematically intelligent
d. Linguistically intelligent
501. If I want to develop creative thinking in my students, which one/s should I use?
I. Problem solving
II. Brainstorming
III. Dramatics
a. I and II
b. III only
c. II only
d. I, II and II
502. Which is/are effective method/s in teaching students critical reading skills?
a. Read and interpret three different movie reviews
b. Interpret editorials about a particular subject from three different newspaper
c. Distinguish fiction from non-fiction materials
d. Interpret editorials and read and interpret three different movie reviews
503. I want to present the characteristics features of a constructivist approach. What should I
use?
a. Fishbone diagram
b. Venn diagram
c. Narrative frame
d. Attribute wheel
504. If all of your students in your class passed the pretest, what should you do?
a. Administer the posttest
b. Go through the unit as usual because it is part of the syllabus
c. Go through the lesson quickly in order not to skip any
d. Go on to the next unit
505. Teacher Vicky shows her students a picture of people in thick jackets. Then she asks them to
tell her the kind of climate when the picture was taken. If she asks 5 questions of this kind and her
students do not get them, it is safe to conclude that pupils are quite weak in the skill of _______.
a. Analyzing c. Synthesizing
b. Inferring d. Generalizing
506. Which must go with self-assessment for it to be effective?
a. Scoring rubric
b. Consensus of evaluation results from teacher and student
c. External monitor
d. Public display of results of self-evaluation
507. Which group of scores is most varied? The group with ________.
a. 0.90 SD c. 0.10 SD
b. 0.50 SD d. 0.75 SD
508. The main purpose in administering a pretest and a posttest to students is to _____.
a. Measure gains in learning
b. Measure the value of the material taught
c. Keep adequate records
229
d. Accustom the students to frequent testing
509. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher ________.
a. Consider students’ suggestion in teaching
b. Gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test
c. Gives students real-life task to accomplish
d. Includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures
510. The following are computed means of a hundred-item test: Physical science, 38; Math, 52;
English, 33. Based on the data, which is true?
a. The examinees seem to be very good in Physical Science
b. The Math test appears to be the easiest among the three
c. The examinees seem to excel in English
d. The English test appears to be the easiest among the three
511. An examinee whose score is within x + 1 SD belongs to which of the following groups?
a. Above average
b. Average
c. Below average
d. Needs improvement
512. Which is true of a bimodal distribution?
a. The scores are neither high nor low
b. The group has two different groups
c. The score are high
d. The score are low
513. When you reach the “plateau of learning”, what should you do?
a. Forget about learning
b. Reflect what caused it
c. Force yourself to learn
d. Rest
514. What can be said if student performance in a positively skewed scores distribution?
a. Most students performed well
b. Most students performed poorly
c. Almost all students had averaged performance
d. A few students performed excellently
515. A number of test items in a test are said to be non-discriminating? What conclusion/s can be
drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could get it.
a. II only c. III only
b. I and II d. II and III
516. A test item has a difficulty index of 0.51 and a discrimination index of 0.25. What should the
teacher do?
a. Revise the item
b. Retain the item
c. Make it a bonus item
d. Reject the item
517. The difficulty index of a test item is 1. This means that _____________.
a. The test item is a quality item
b. The test is very difficult
c. The test is very easy
d. Nobody got the item correctly
518. If the compound range is low, this means that _____________.
a. The students performed very well in the test
b. The difference between the highest and the lowest score is low
c. The difference between the highest and the lowest score is high
d. The students performed very poorly in the test
230
519. What is the mastery level of a school division in a 100-item test with a mean of 55? 42%
b. 55% c. 45% d. 50%
520. A negative discrimination index means that ____________.
a. The test item has low reliability
b. More from the lower group answered the test item correctly
c. The test item could not discriminate between the lower and upper groups
d. More from the upper group got the item correctly
521. In an entrance examination, student Anna’s Percentile is 25 (P25). Based on this Percentile
rank, which is likely to happen?
a. Student Anna will be admitted
b. Student Anna will not be admitted
c. Student Anna has 50-50 percent chance to be admitted
d. Student Anna has 75 percent chance to be admitted
522. What does a percentile rank of 62 mean?
a. It is the student’s score in the test
b. The student answered sixty-two (62%) of the items correctly
c. The student’s score is higher than 62 percent of all students who took the test
d. Sixty-two percent (62%) of those who took the test scored higher than the individual
523. What does the computer have in common with the TV?
a. Key board c. Screen
b. File d. Disk drive
524. Which depicts in graphic form the social relations present in a group?
a. Interest inventory
b. Sociogram
c. Anecdotal record
d. Johari’s window
525. Planned ignoring, signal interference, and proximity control are techniques used in _____.
a. Managing temper tantrums
b. Managing surface behavior
c. Operant conditioning
d. Life-space interviewing
526. What should you do to get the child’s attention when she/he is distracted by an object in the
room?
I. Call him by his name and tell him to pay attention
II. Put away the distracting influence
III. Involve him in helping with an activity
a. I and II c. II and III
b. I and III d. I, II and III
527. Which practice in our present educational system is in line with Plato’s thought that
“nothing learned under compulsion stays with the mind”?
a. Clarification of school policies and classroom rules on Day 1
b. Presentation of standards of performance in the learner
c. Making the teaching-learning process interesting
d. Involving the learner in the determination of learning goals
528. In Values Education, faith, hope, and love are believed to be permanent values whether they
be valued by people or not. Upon what philosophy is this anchored?
a. Realism
b. Idealism
c. Existentialism
d. Pragmatism
529. In the schools, we teach realities that cannot be verified by the senses like an Invisible God
or Allah. Whose beliefs does this practice negate?
a. Stoicists’
b. Skeptics’
c. Rationalists’
d. Empiricists’
231
530. Which emphasized on non-violence as the path to true peace as discussed in peace
education?
a. Taoism
b. Hinduism
c. Buddhism
d. Shintoism
531. I make full use of the question-and-answer as a model for discussion. From whom is this
question-and-answer method?
a. Socrates c. Aristotle
b. Kant d. Plato
532. A wife who loves her husband dearly becomes so jealous that in a moment of savage rage,
kills him. Is the wife morally responsible and why?
a. Not necessarily. Antecedent passion may completely destroy freedom and consequently moral
responsibility
b. Yes, she killed her husband simply because of jealousy
c. It depends on the case of the wife’s jealousy
d. It depends on the mental health of the wife
533. Martin Luther King Jr. once said, “Man may understand all about the rotation of the earth
but he may still miss the radiance of the sunset.” Which type of education should be emphasized as
implied by Martin Luther King Jr.?
a. Science and education
b. Vocational education
c. Liberal education
d. Technical education
534. Computer-assisted instruction is an offshoot of the theory of _____.
a. J. Piaget
b. B.F. Skinner
c. J. Brunner
d. J. Watson
535. The use of varied teaching and testing strategies on account of students’ multiple
intelligences is in line with the thoughts of ______.
a. Daniel Goleman
b. Jean Piaget
c. Howard Gardner
d. Benjamin Bloom
536. Applying Confucius’s teachings, how would hiring personnel select the most fit in
government positions?
a. By record evaluation done by an accrediting body
b. By government examinations
c. By accreditation
d. By merit system
537. “Moral example has a greater effect on pupils’ discipline than laws and codes of
punishment” is an advice of teachers from _________.
a. Confucius c. Lao tzu
b. Mohammed d. Mencius
538. “The principle of spontaneity against artificiality will make you accomplish something. Leave
nature to itself and you will have harmony” is an active advice from the _____.
a. Hindu c. Shintoist
b. Taoist d. Buddhist
539. The significance of liberal education in holistic development of students is supported by
_____.
a. Perennialism
b. Pragmatism
c. Confucian teaching
d. Perennialism and Confucian philosophy
540. Is a sick teacher, the only one assigned in a remote school, excused from her teaching duty?
232
a. No, she is the only one assigned in that school
b. Yes, teaching is a demanding job
c. Yes, she is sick
d. No, she must abide by her contract
541. What is a demonstration of your authority as a professional teacher?
a. You make your pupils run errands for you
b. You decide on how to teach a particular lesson
c. You absent from class to enjoy your leave even without prior notice
d. You select to teach only those lessons which you have mastered
542. The right hemisphere of the brain is involved with the following functions except:
a. Visual functions
b. Nonverbal functions
c. Intuitive functions
d. Detail-oriented functions
543. To build a sense of pride among Filipino youth, which should be done?
a. Re-study our history from the perspective of our colonizer
b. Re-study our history and stress on our achievements as a people
c. Replace the study of folklores and myths with technical subjects
d. Set aside the study of local history
544. Which is in accordance with the “with-it-ness” principle of classroom management of Kounin?
a. Students agree to disagree in class discussions
b. Teacher is fully aware of what is happening in his classroom
c. Student is with his teacher in everything he teaches
d. Both parents and teachers are involved in the education of children
545. Below are questions that must be considered in developing appropriate learning activity
experiences except one. Which is it?
a. Can experiences benefit the pupils?
b. Do the experiences save the pupils from learning difficulties?
c. Are the experiences in accordance with the patterns of pupils?
d. Do the experiences encourage pupils to inquire further?
546. Which is a characteristic of an imperfect type of matching test?
a. An item may have no answer at all
b. An answer may be repeated
c. There are two or more distracters
d. The items in the right and left columns are equal in number
547. Which is a proactive management practice?
a. Tell them that you enforce the rules on everyone, no exception
b. Set and clarify your rules and expectation on Day 1
c. Punish the misbehaving pupils in the presence of their classmates
d. Stress on penalty for every violation
548. I like to develop the synthesizing skills of my students. Which one should I do?
a. Ask my students to formulate a generalization from the data shown in the graphs
b. Direct my students to point out which part of the graph are right and which part is wrong
c. Ask my students to answer the questions beginning with “what if”
d. Tell my students to state data presented in the graph
549. To reach out to clientele who cannot be in the classroom for one reason or another, which of
the following was established?
a. Informal
b. Special education (SPED)
c. Pre-school education
d. Alternative learning delivery system
550. Tira enjoys games like scrabble, anagrams and password. Which type of intelligence is strong
in Tira?
a. Interpersonal intelligence
b. Linguistic intelligence
233
c. Logical and mathematical intelligence
d. Spatial intelligence
551. Teacher Milla observes cleanliness and order in the classroom to create a conducive
atmosphere for learning. On which theory is her practice based?
a. Psychoanalysis
b. Gestalt psychology
c. Behaviorism
d. Humanistic psychology
552. Which learning principles is the essence of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences?
a. Almost all learners are linguistically intelligent
b. Intelligence is not measured on one form
c. Learners have different IQ level
d. Learners have static IQ
553. Teacher Ada uses direct instruction strategy. Which will she first do?
a. Presenting and structuring
b. Independent practice
c. Guided student practice
d. Reviewing the previous day’s work
554. The free public elementary and secondary educations in the country are in the line with the
government effort to address educational problems of _________.
a. Productivity
b. Relevance and quality
c. Access and quality
d. Effectiveness and efficiency
555. Which objective in the affective domain is the lowest level?
a. To accumulate examples of authenticity
b. To support viewpoints against abortion
c. To respond positively to a comment
d. To formulate criteria for honestly
556. “Using the six descriptions of elements of good short story, IDENTIFY IN WRITING THE SHORT
STORY BY O. HENRY, with complete accuracy.” The words in capital letters are referred to as
the ____________.
a. Criterion of success
b. Condition
c. Performance statement
d. Minimum acceptable performance
557. You have presented a lesson on animal protective coloration. At the end, you ask if there are
any questions. There are none. You can take this to mean that ______.
a. The students are not interested in the lesson
b. You need to ask specific questions to elicit responses
c. The students did not understand what you were talking about
d. The students understood everything you presented
558. Teacher Vina feels offended by her supervisor’s unfavorable comments after a classroom
supervision. She concludes that her supervisor does not like her. Which Filipino trait is
demonstrated by Teacher Vina?
a. Extreme family-centeredness
b. Extreme personalism
c. “Kanya-kanya” syndrome
d. Superficial religiously
559. Teachers are encouraged to make use of authentic assessments such as:
a. De-contextualized drills
b. Unrealistic performances
c. Answering multiple choices test items
d. Real world application of lessons learned
560. What does the principle of individual difference require teachers to do?
a. Give less attention to gifted learners
234
b. Provide for a variety of learning activities
c. Treat all learners alike while teaching
d. Prepare modules for slow learners in class
561. Which quotation goes with a proactive approach to discipline?
a. “An ounce of prevention is better than a pound of cure.”
b. “Do not make a mountain out of a molehill.”
c. “Walk your talk.”
d. “Do not smile until Christmas.”
562. I’d like to test whether a student knows what a particular word means. What should I ask the
student to do?
a. Give the word a tune then sing it
b. Define the word
c. Spell the word and identify its part of speech
d. Give the etymology of the word
563. A teacher’s quarrel with a parent makes her develop a feeling of prejudice against the
parent’s child. The teacher’s unfavorable treatment of the child is an influence of what
Filipino trait?
a. Lack of self-reflection
b. Extreme personalism
c. Extreme family-centeredness
d. “Sakop-mentality”
564. In the context of grading, what is referred to as teacher’s generosity error? A teacher
_______.
a. Rewards students who perform well
b. In overgenerous with praise
c. Has a tendency to give high grades as compare to the rest
d. Gives way to students’ bargain for no more quiz
565. For mastery learning and in line with outcome-based evaluation model which element
should be present?
a. Inclusion of non-performance objectives
b. Construction of criterion-referenced tests
c. Construction of norm-referenced tests
d. Non-provision of independent learning
566. Which statement about standard deviation is correct?
a. The higher the standard deviation the more spread the scores are
b. The lower the standard deviation the more spread the scores are
c. The higher the standard deviation the less spread the scores are
d. It is a measure of central tendency
567. The State shall protect and promote the right of citizens to quality education at all levels.
Which government program is in support of this?
a. Exclusion of children with special needs from the formal system
b. Free elementary and secondary education
c. Deregulated tuition fee hike
d. Re-introduction of the NEAT and NSAT
568. The American Teachers who were recruited to help set the public educational system in the
Philippines during the American regime were called Thomasite’s because:
a. They were devotees of St. Thomas Aquinas
b. They disembarked from the CIS Transport called Thomas
c. They first taught at the University of Sto. Tomas
d. They arrived in the Philippines on the feast of St. Tomas
569. The Filipino learner envisioned by the Department of Education is one who is imbued with
the desirable values of person who is:
a. Makabayan, makatao, makakalikasan at maka-Diyos
b. Makabayan, makatao, makahalaman, at maka-Diyos
c. Makabayan, makasarili, makakalikasan, at maka-Diyos
d. Makabayan, makakaragatan, makatao, at maka-Diyos
235
570. The right hemisphere of the brain is involved with the following function except:
a. Intuitive functions
b. Nonverbal functions
c. Visual functions
d. Detail-oriented functions
571. What function is associated with the right brain?
a. Visual, non-verbal, logical
b. Visual, intuitive, non-verbal
c. Visual, intuitive, logical
d. Visual, logical, detail-oriented
572. Behavior followed by pleasant consequences will be strengthened and will be more likely to
occur in the future. Behavior followed by unpleasant consequences will be weakened and will
be less likely to be repeated in the future. Which one is explained?
a. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory
b. Thorndike’s law of effect
c. B.F. Skinner’s Operant conditioning theory
d. Bandura’s social learning theory
573. Theft of school equipment like TV, computer, etc. by people on the community itself is
becoming a common phenomenon. What does this signify?
a. Prevalence of poverty in the community
b. Inability of school to hire security guards
c. Deprivation of Filipino schools
d. Community’s lack of sense of co-ownership
574. The main purpose of compulsory study of the Constitution is to _____.
a. Develop students into responsible, thinking citizen
b. Acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution
c. Make constitutional experts of the students
d. Prepare students for law-making
575. Which goals of educational institution, as provided for by the Constitution, is the development
of work skills aligned?
a. To develop moral character
b. To develop vocational efficiency
c. To teach the duties of citizenship
d. To inculcate love of country
576. Which is closest to the real human digestive system for study in the classroom?
a. Model of the human digestive system
b. Drawing of the human digestive system on the board
c. The human digestive system projected on an OHP
d. Drawing of human digestive system on a page of a textbook
577. Which one is in support of greater interaction?
a. Repeating the question
b. Not allowing a student to complete a response
c. Probing
d. Selecting the same student respondents
578. Which is/are effective methods/s in teaching students critical reading skills?
a. Interpret editorials about a particular subject from three different newspapers
b. Read and interpret three different movie reviews
c. Distinguish fiction from non-fiction materials
d. Interpret editorials and read and interpret three different movie reviews
579. Which is true of a bimodal score distribution?
a. The group tested has two different groups
b. The scores are neither high nor low
236
c. The scores are high
d. The scores are low
580. Who stressed the idea that students cannot learn if their basic needs are not first met?
a. Thorndike
b. Maslow
c. Wertheimer
d. Operant conditioning
581. A person, who has had painful experience as the dentist’s office, may become fearful at the
mere sight of the dentist’s office building. What theory can explain this?
a. Attribution theory
b. Classical conditioning
c. Generalization
d. Operant conditioning
582. I want my students to have mastery learning of a basic topic. Which of the following can help?
a. Socratic method and drill
b. Drill
c. Socratic method
d. None of the above
583. As a teacher you are a skeptic. Which among these will be your guiding principle?
a. I must teach the child to the fullest
b. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a better future
c. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything
d. I must teach the child so he is assured
584. With forms of prompting in mind, which group is arranged from least to most instructive
prompting?
a. Verbal, physical, gestural
b. Verbal, gestural, physical
c. Gestural, physical, verbal
d. Physical, gestural, verbal
585. In which way does heredity affect the development of the learner?
a. By providing equal potential to all
b. By making acquired traits hereditary
c. By compensating for what environment fails to develop
d. By placing limits beyond which the learner cannot develop
586. For which lesson objective will a teacher use the direct instruction method?
a. Distinguish war from aggression
b. Appreciate Milton’s Paradise Lost
c. Use a microscope properly
d. Become aware of the pollutants in the environment
587. With indirect instruction in mind, which does not belong to the group?
a. Lecture-recitation
b. Experiential method
c. Inductive method
d. Discovery method
588. A master teacher is the resource speaker in an in-service training. He presented the situated
learning theory and encouraged his colleagues to apply the same in class. Which of the following
did he not encourage his colleagues to do?
a. Apprenticeship
b. Decontextualized teaching
c. Learning as it normally occurs
d. Authentic problem solving
589. I want to engage my students in small group discussions. Which topic lends itself to a lively
discussion?
a. The exclusion of Pluto as a planet
b. The meaning of the law of supply and demand
c. The law of inertia
237
d. Rules on subject-verb agreement
590. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on working
with and relating to people?
a. Organizing a community project
b. Writing articles on working and relating to people
c. Home visitation
d. Conducting mock election
591. We are very much interested in a quality professional development program for teachers.
What characteristic should we look for?
a. Required for renewal of professional license
b. Prescribed by top educational leader
c. Responsive to identified teacher’s needs
d. Dependent on the availability of funds
592. Which statement applies correctly to Edgar Dale’s “CONE of experience”?
a. The farther you are from the base, the more direct the learning experience becomes
b. The farther you are from the bottom, the more direct the learning experience becomes
c. The close you are to the base, the more indirect the learning experience become
d. The closer you are to the base, the more direct the learning experience becomes
593. Teacher Jenny teaches a lesson in which students must recognize that ¼ is the same as 0.25.
They use this relationship to determine that 0.15 and 0.20 are slightly less than ¼. Which of the
following concept/s is/are being taught?
a. Numeration skills
b. Place value of decimals
c. Numeration skills for decimal and relationship between fractions and decimals
d. Relationship between fractions and decimals
594. To nurture student’s creativity, which activity should the teacher avoid?
a. Ask “what if” questions
b. Ask divergent thinking questions
c. Emphasize the need to give right answer
d. Be open to “out-of-this world” ideas
595. After reading an essay, Teacher Bebe wants to help sharpen her students’ ability to interpret.
Which of these activities will be most appropriate?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences
c. Getting the main idea
d. Listing facts separately from opinion
596. What is the best way to develop math concepts?
a. Solving problems using multiple approaches
b. Solving problems by looking for correct answer
c. Learning math as applied to situations such as being a tool of science
d. Solving problems by applying learned formulas
597. Teacher Cita, an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lessons in order to ________.
a. Provide her pupils with a sense of continuity
b. Introduce a new lesson
c. Reflect on how she presented the previous lesson
d. Determine who among her pupils are studying
598. Research says that mastery experiences increase confidence and willingness to try similar or
more challenging tasks such as reading. What does this imply for children reading
performance?
a. Children who have mastered basic skills are more likely to be less motivated to read
because they get fed up with too much reading
b. Children who have not mastered the basic skills are more likely to be motivated to read in
order to gain mastery over basic skills
c. Children who have a high sense of self-confidence are not necessarily those who can read
d. Children who have gained mastery over basic skills are more motivate to read
238
599. Bruner’s theory on intellectual development moves from enactive to iconic and symbolic
stages. Applying Bruner’s theory, how would you teach?
a. Begin with the abstract
b. Be interactive in approach
c. Begin with the concrete
d. Do direct instruction
600. Under no circumstance shall a teacher be prejudiced nor discriminatory against any learner
according to the Code of Ethics. When is a teacher prejudice against any learner?
a. When he makes a nearsighted pupil sit at the front
b. When he considers multiple intelligences in the choice of his teaching strategies
c. When he makes a farsighted pupil sit at the back
d. When he refuses a pupil with a slight physical disability in class
601. The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that:
a. There is no score of 25
b. Twenty five (25) is the score that occurs most
c. Twenty five is the average of the score distribution
d. Twenty five is the score that occurs least
602. The following characterize a child-centered kindergarten except:
a. Focus on the education of the whole child
b. Importance of play in development
c. Extreme orientation on academic
d. Emphasis on individual uniqueness
603. As a classroom manager, how can you exhibit expert power on the first day of school?
a. By citing to my students the important of good grades
b. By making my students feel my authority over them
c. By making them feel a sense of belongingness and acceptance
d. By making my students feel I know what I am talking about
604. Which may help an adolescent discover his identity?
a. Parents pushing in to follow a specific path
b. Relating to people
c. Decision to follow one path only
d. Exploring many different roles in a healthy manner
605. Which terms refers to a teacher helping a colleague grow professionally?
a. Technology transfer
b. Peer mentoring
c. Facilitating
d. Independent study
606. A mathematics test was given to all Grade V pupils to determine the contestants for the math
quiz bee. Which statistical measure should be used to identify the top 15?
a. Percentage score
b. Mean percentage score
c. Quartile score
d. Percentile score
607. Which is the true foundation of the social order?
a. Strong, political leadership
b. The reciprocation of rights and duties
c. Equitable distribution of wealth
d. Obedient citizenry
608. The following are sound specific purposes of questions except:
a. To stimulate learners to ask questions
b. To call the attention of an inattentive student
c. To arouse interest and curiosity
d. To teach via student answers
609. What is not a sound purpose in making questions?
a. To remind students of a procedure
b. To probe deeper after an answer is given
239
c. To encourage self-reflection
d. To discipline a bully in class
610. A student passes a book report written but ornately presented in a folder to make up for the
poor quality of the book content. Which Filipino trait does this practice prove?
a. Art over science
b. Art over academic
c. Substance over “porma”
d. “Porma” over substance
611. Between pursuing a college course where there is no demand and a vocational course which is
highly in demand, the Filipino usually opts for the college course. Which Filipino trait is shown?
a. Interest to obtain a skill
b. Penchant for a college diploma
c. Desire for entrepreneurship
d. Appreciation of manual labor
612. Which of the following does extreme authoritarianism in the home reinforce in pupils?
a. Sense of initiative
b. Dependence on other for direction
c. Ability for self-direction
d. Creativity in work
613. Teacher Bart wants his students to master the concept of social justice. Which series of
activities will be most effective?
a. Pre-teaching > posttest > re-teaching of unlearned concept > posttest
b. Pre-test > teaching > posttest
c. Review > pretest > teaching > posttest
d. Teaching > posttest
614. To provide for individual differences how is curriculum designed?
a. Minimum learning competencies are included
b. Realistic and meaningful experiences are provided
c. Some degree of flexibility is provided
d. Social skills are emphasized
615. Which types of play is most characteristic of a four- to six-year-old child?
a. Solitary and onlooker plays
b. Associative and cooperative plays
c. Associative and onlookers plays
d. Cooperative and solitary plays
616. How can you exhibit referent power on the first day of school?
a. By making the students feel you know what you are talking about
b. By telling them the importance of good grades
c. By reminding your students your authority over them again and again
d. By giving your students a sense of belonging and acceptance
617. To ensure that all Filipino children are functionally literate, which mechanism is meant to reach
out to children who are far from a school?
a. A school in every barangay
b. Multi-grade classroom
c. Mobile teacher
d. Sine’s skwela
618. Referring to the characteristics of the latest Basic Educational Curriculum which does not
belong to the group?
a. More flexible
b. Less prescriptive
c. More compartmentalized
d. More integrated
619. If student’s inappropriate behavior is low level or mild and that it appears that the misbehavior
will not spread to others, it is sometimes best for the teacher not to take notice of it. What
influence technique is this?
a. Planned ignoring
240
b. Antiseptic bouncing
c. Proximity control
d. Signal interference
620. Which among the following objectives in the psychomotor domain is highest in level?
a. To distinguish distant and close sounds
b. To contract a muscle
c. To run a 100-meter dash
d. To dance the basic steps of the waltz
621. Which material consists of instructional units that cater to varying mental level pupils?
a. Plantilia
b. Multi-level materials
c. Multi-grade materials
d. Minimum learning competencies
622. Which statement on counseling is false?
a. For counseling to be successful, the counselee is willing to participate in the process
b. The ultimate goal of counseling is greater happiness on the part of the counselee
c. Counseling is the program that includes guidance
d. The school counselor is primarily responsible of counseling
623. Arianna describes Teacher Monica as “fair, caring and approachable.” Which power does
Teacher Monica possess?
a. Legitimate power
b. Expert power
c. Referent power
d. Reward power
624. Kounin claims “with-it-ness” is one of the characteristics of an effective classroom manager.
Which among the following is a sign of “with-it-ness”?
a. Giving attention to students having difficulty with school work
b. Seeing only a portion of the class but intensively
c. Knowing where instructional materials are kept
d. Aware of what’s happening in all part of the classroom
625. When a significantly greater number from the lower group gets a test item correctly, this
implies that the test item:
a. Is not highly reliable
b. Is not very valid
c. Is highly reliable
d. Is very valid
626. Which statement about guidance is false?
a. The classroom teacher is not part of the school guidance program since she is not trained
to be a guidance counselor
b. Guidance embraces curriculum, teaching, supervision and all other activities in school
c. Guidance is a function of the entire school
d. A guidance program is inherent in every school
627. A teacher should not be a slave of his lesson plan. This means that:
a. A teacher must be willing to depart from her lesson plan if students are interested in
something other than her intended lesson
b. A lesson plan must be followed by a teacher no matter what
c. A teacher must be ready to depart from her lesson plan if she remembers something
more interesting than what she earlier planned
d. Teacher is the best lesson plan designer
628. With a death threat over her head, Teacher Donita is directed to pass an undeserving
student. What will a utilitarianist do?
a. Pass the student, why suffer the threat?
b. Pass the student. That will be of use to the student, his parents and you
c. Don’t pass him; live by your principle of justice. You will get reward, if not in this life, in
the next
241
d. Don’t pass him. You surely will not like someone to give you a death threat in order to
pass
629. Teacher Alessandra knows of the illegal activities of a neighbor but keeps quiet in order not
to be involved in any investigation. Which foundational principle of morality does Teacher
Alessandra fail to apply?
a. Always do what is right
b. The end does not justify the means
c. The end justifies the means
d. Between two evils, do the lesser evil
630. You are very much interested in a quality professional development program for teachers.
What characteristic should you look for?
a. Prescribe by top educational teachers
b. Responsive to identified teacher’s needs
c. Dependent on the availability of funds
d. Required for renewal of professional license
631. As a community leader, which of the following should a teacher not do?
a. Solicit donation from philanthropists in the community
b. Support effort of the community to improve their status in life
c. Make herself aloof to ensure that her decisions will not be influenced by the community
politics
d. Play an active part in the activities of the community
632. A teacher is said to be “trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation and is
under obligation to transmit to learners such heritage”. Which practice makes the teacher
fulfill such obligation?
a. Use interactive teaching strategies
b. As a class, study the life of Filipino heroes
c. Use the latest educational technology
d. Observe continuing professional education
633. The failure of independent study with most Filipino students may be attributed to students’?
a. Unpreparedness for schooling
b. Ambivalence
c. High degree of independence
d. High degree of independence on authority
634. The following are characteristics of interdisciplinary teaching except:
a. Allows learners to see connectedness between things
b. Provides learning opportunities in a real-world context
c. Eliminates boundaries between content area
d. Discussion from a single perspective
635. What does the acronym EFA imply for schools?
a. The acceptance of exclusive schools for boys and for girls
b. The stress on the superiority of formal education over that of alternative learning system
c. Practice of inclusive education
d. The concentration on formal education system
636. The wide acceptance of “bottom up” management style has influenced schools to practice
which management practice?
a. Exclusion of politicians from the pool of guest speakers during graduation exercises
b. Prescription of what ought to be done from the Center Office
c. Involvement of students, parents, teachers, and community in school planning
d. Allowing schools to do what they think is best
637. Material development at the expense of human development points to the need to do
more in school. This is base on which pillar of learning?
a. Learning to do
b. Learning to know
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to be
242
638. The specialization requires of every professional teacher for him/her to be competent is in
line with which pillar of learning?
a. Learning to know
b. Learning to be
c. Learning to live together
d. Learning to do
639. Widespread abuse of Mother Earth prompted schools to teach sustainable development.
Which one does this prove about schools?
a. The curricula of schools are centered on Mother Earth
b. Environment factors influence the school as an agent of change
c. Schools can easily integrate sustained development in their curriculum
d. Sustained development cannot be effectively taught in the classroom
640. Which pillar of learning is aimed at the holistic development of man and his complete
fulfillment?
a. Learning to live together
b. Learning to be
c. Learning to know
d. Learning to do
641. A father tells his daughter “You are a woman. You are meant for the home and so for
you, going to school is not necessary.” Is the father correct?
a. It depends on the place where the daughter and the father live
b. No, there is gender equality in education
c. Yes, women are meant to be a mother only
d. No, today women can take on the jobs of men
642. Is there a legal basis for increasing the teacher’s starting salary to PHP18,000 a
months?
a. No, it is a gift to teachers from Congress
b. Yes, R.A 7836
c. Yes, the Philippine Constitution
d. No, it is simply an act of benevolence from President GMA
643. As provided for the Educational Act of 1982, how are the institutions of learning
encouraged setting higher standards of equality over the minimum standards required
for state recognition?
a. Voluntary accreditation
b. Continuing Professional Education
c. Granting of Special Permit
d. Academic freedom
644. Despite of opposition from some school official, DepEd has continuously enforced the
“no collection of fees” policy during enrolment period in public schools. In this policy in
accordance with EFA goals?
a. No, it violates the mandate of equality education
b. Yes, it somewhat eliminates gender disparities
c. Yes, it supports equitable access to basic education
d. No, it does not support parent of adult education
645. A student complains to you about his failing grade. When you recomputed you found out
that you committed an error in his grade computation. Your decision is not to accept the
erroneous computation before the student and so leave the failing grade as is for fear
that you may lose credibility. Is this morally right?
a. No, the reason for not accepting the error before the students is flimsy
b. No, the end does not justify the means
c. Yes, the end justifies the means
243
d. Yes, as a teacher you must maintain your credibility
646. To earn units for promotion, Teacher Flora pays her fee but does not attend class at all.
Does this constitute professional growth?
a. Not immediately but yes after promotion
b. No, it is simply earning MA units for promotion
c. It depends on the school she is enrolled in
d. Yes, just enrolling in an MA program is already professional growth
647. Misdemeanor has a “ripple effect.” This implies that as a classroom manager, a
teacher:
a. reinforces positive behavior
b. responds to misbehavior promptly
c. is consistent in her classroom management practice
d. count 1 to 10 before she deals with a misbehaving student
648. The students of Teacher Yue scan an electronic encyclopedia, view a film on subject, or
look at related topics at the touch of a button right there in the classroom. Which
device/s does teacher Yue’s class have?
a. Teaching machines
b. CD
c. Video disc
d. Videotaped lesson
649. Which is an inappropriate way to manage off-task behavior?
a. Redirect a child’s attention to task and check his progress to make sure he is continuing
work
b. Stop your class activity to correct a child who is no longer on task
c. Make eye contact to communicate what you wish to communicate
d. Move closer to the child to make him feel your presence
650. Teacher Hannah strives to draw participation of every student into her classroom discussion.
Which of these student needs is she trying to address? The need to _______.
a. feel significant and be part of a group
b. show one’s oral abilities to the rest of the class
c. get everything and be part of a group
d. be creative
651. Which of the following questions must be considered in evaluating teacher-made materials?
a. In the material new?
b. Does the material simulate individualism?
c. Is the material expensive?
d. Is the material cheap?
652. Kounin claims that “with-it-ness” is one of the characteristics of an effective classroom manager.
What is one sign of “with-it-ness”?
a. Giving attention to students who are having difficulty with school work
b. Aware of what’s happening in all parts of the classroom
c. Seeing only a portion of the class but intensively
d. Knowing where instructional materials are kept
653. Which characteristics must be primarily considered as a choice of instructional aides?
a. Stimulate and maintain students interests
b. Suited to the lesson objectives
c. Updated and relevant to Filipino setting
d. New and skillfully made
654. You can exhibit referent power on the first day of school by __________.
a. telling them the importance of good grades
b. giving your students a sense of belongingness and acceptance
c. making them feel you know what you are talking about
d. reminding your students your authority over them again and again
655. What must Teacher Luke do to ensure orderly transitions between activities?
a. Have the materials ready at the start of the activity
244
b. Allow time for the students to socialize in between activities
c. Assign fewer exercise to fill the allotted time
d. Wait for students who lag behind
656. The task of setting up routine activities for effective classroom management is a task that a
teacher should undertake:
a. as soon as the students have adjusted to their schedules
b. on the very first day of school
c. every day at the start of the session
d. every homeroom day
657. Teacher Sandra uses the low-profile classroom control technique most of the time. What
does this imply?
a. She is reactive in her disciplinary orientation
b. She manages pupils personalities
c. She reacts severely to a misbehaving student
d. She stops misbehaving without disrupting lesson flow
658. If you make use of the indirect instruction method, you begin your lesson with:
a. Guided practice
b. A review of previous day’s work
c. Advance organizers that provide an overall picture of the lesson
d. Independent
659. School curriculum reflects the world’s economic and political integration and
industrialization. What does these points in curriculum development?
a. The trend towards the classical approach to curriculum development
b. The trend towards the globalization and localization
c. The trend towards participatory curriculum development
d. The shift in the paradigm of curriculum development from a process-oriented to a
product-oriented one
660. You choose cooperative learning as a teaching approach. What thought is impressed on your
students?
a. Interaction is a must, but not necessarily face to-face interaction
b. Student’s success depends on the success of the group
c. Student’s individuality evaluates how effectively their group worked
d. The accountability for learning is on the group not on the individual
661. Which statement applies correctly to Edgar Dale’s “Cone of Experience”?
a. The farther you are from the base, the more direct the learning experience becomes
b. The farther you are from the bottom, the more direct the learning experience becomes
c. The closer you are from the base, the more indirect the learning experience becomes
d. The closer you are from the base, the more direct the learning experience becomes
662. “When more senses are stimulated, teaching and learning become more effective.” What is
an application of this principle?
a. Appeal to student’s sense of imagination
b. Use multisensory aids
c. Make your students touch the instructional material
d. Use audiovisual aids because the eyes and the ears are the most important senses in
learning
663. Which is a classroom application of the theory of “operant conditioning”?
a. Help student see the connectedness of facts, concepts, and principles
b. Create a classroom atmosphere that elicits relaxation
c. Reinforce a good behavior to increase the likelihood that the learner will repeat the
response
d. Make students learn by operating manipulatively
664. Teacher Atilla teaches English as a Second Language. She uses vocabulary cards, fill-in-theblanks
sentences, dialogues, and dictation and writing exercises in teaching a lesson about
grocery shopping. Based on this information, which of the following is a valid conclusion?
a. The teacher wants to make her teaching easier by having less talk
245
b. The teacher emphasizing reading and writing skills
c. The teacher is applying Bloom’s hierarchy of cognitive learning
d. The teacher is teaching in a variety of ways because not all students learn in the same
manner
665. Teacher Georgina, an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lessons in order to:
a. introduce a new lesson
b. reflect on how she presented the previous lessons
c. provide her pupils with a sense of continuity
d. determine who among her pupils are studying
666. I combined several subject areas in order to focus on a single concept for interdisciplinary
teaching. Which strategy did I use?
a. Reading-writing activity
b. Thematic introduction
c. Unit method
d. Problem-centered learning
667. When I teach, I often engage in brainstorming. Which do I avoid?
a. Break down barriers
b. Selectively involves pupils
c. Increase creativity
d. Generate many ideas
668. Teacher Sammy teaches a lesson in which students must recognize that ¼ is the same as
0.25. He use this relationship to determine that 0.15 and 0.20 are slightly less than ¼.
Which of the following concept/s is/are being taught?
a. Numeration skills of decimals and relationships between fractions and decimals
b. Numeration skills
c. Place value of decimals
d. Relationship between fraction and decimals
669. What is the best way to develop math concept?
a. Solving problems using multiple approaches
b. Solving problems by looking for correct answer
c. Learning math as applied to situations, such as being a tool of science
d. Solving problems by applying learned formulas
670. Teacher Carlo, a Reading teacher, advised the class to “read between the lines”. What does
she want his pupils to do?
a. Determine what is meant by what is stated
b. Make an educated guess
c. Apply the information being read
d. Describe the characters in the story
671. To nurture students’ creativity, which activity should a teacher avoid?
a. Ask “What if…” questions
b. Emphasize the need to give right answers
c. Ask divergent thinking questions
d. Be open to “out-of-this-world” ideas
672. Teacher Rodel wants to develop his students’ creativity. Which type of questions will be most
appropriate?
a. Synthesis questions
b. Fact questions
c. “What if…” questions
d. Analysis questions
673. Floramay enjoyed the roller coaster when she and her family went to Disneyland. The mere
sight of a roller coaster gets her excited. Which theory explains Floramay’s behavior?
a. Operant conditioning
b. Pavlovian conditioning
c. Social learning theory
d. Attribution theory
246
674. You want your students to answer the questions at the end of a reading lesson. “What did I
learn?”, “What still puzzles me?”, “What did I enjoy, hate and accomplish in the class
today?” and “How did I learn from the lesson?” Which of the following are you asking them
to do?
a. Work on an assignment
b. Make journal entry
c. Work on a drill
d. Apply what they learned
675. William Glasser’s control theory states that behavior is inspired by what satisfies a person
want at any given time. What then must a teacher do to motivate students to learn?
a. Make schoolwork relevant to students’ basic human needs
b. Make teaching-leaning interactive
c. Avoid giving assignments
d. Organize a curriculum in a spiral manner
676. After reading an essay. Teacher Beatrice wants to help sharpen her students’ ability to
interpret. Which of these activities will be most appropriate?
a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences
c. Getting the main idea
d. Listing facts separately from opinion
677. Research says that mastery experiences increase confidence and willingness to try similar
or more challenging tasks as reading. What does this imply for children’s reading
performance?
a. Children who have not mastered the basic skills are more likely to be motivated to read
in order to gain mastery over basic skills
b. Children who have mastered basic skills are more likely to be less motivated to read
because they get fed up with too much reading
c. Children who have gained mastery over basic skills are more motivated to read
d. Children who have a high sense of self-confidence are not necessarily those who can
read
678. Bruner’s theory on intellectual development moves from enactive to iconic and symbolic
stages. Applying Bruner’s theory. How would you teach?
a. Be interactive in approach
b. Begin with the abstract
c. Begin with the concrete
d. Do direct instruction
679. A person who has painful experiences at the dentist’s office may become fearful at the
mere sight of the dentist’s office building. Which theory can explain this?
a. Generalization
b. Operant Conditioning
c. Attribution theory
d. Classical conditioning
680. According to Erikson, what years are critical for the development of self-confidence?
a. High school years
b. Elementary school years
c. College years
d. Preschool years
681. Which of the following does not describe the development of children aged 11 to 13?
a. They exhibit increased objectivity in thinking
b. Sex difference in IQ become more evident
c. They shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability
d. They show abstract thinking and judgment
682. What does Gagne’s hierarchy theory propose for effective instruction?
a. Be concerned with the socio-emotional climate in the classroom
b. Sequence instruction
247
c. Teach beginning with the concrete
d. Reward good behavior
683. Which appropriate teaching practice flows from this research finding on the brain: “The brain’s
emotional center is tied into its ability to learn”.
a. Establish the discipline of being judgmental in attitude
b. Come up with highly competitive games where winners will feel happy
c. Create a learning environment that encourages students to explore their feeling and
ideas freely
d. Tell the students to participate in class activities or else won’t receive plus points in class
recitation
684. Research on Piagetian tasks indicates that thinking becomes more logical and abstract as
children reach the formal operation stage. What is an educational implication of this finding?
a. Engage children in analogical reasoning as early as preschool to train them for higher
order thinking skills (HOTS)
b. Learners who are not capable of logical reasoning from ages 8 to 11 lag behind in their
cognitive development
c. Let children be children
d. Expect hypothetical reasoning for learners between 12 to 15 years of age
685. Research says: “People tend to attribute their successes to internal causes and their failures to
external causes.” Based on this finding, what should be taught to students for them to be
genuinely motivated to succeed?
a. Tell them the research finding when applied will make them genuinely motivated
b. Convince them that genuine motivation is the only factor that matters for a person to
succeed
c. Make them realize that failure is a part of life
d. Make them realize that both success and failure are more a function of internal causes
686. Which of the following steps should be completed first in planning an achievement test?
a. Define the instructional objective
b. Set up a table of specialization
c. Select the types of test items to use
d. Decide on the length of the test
687. The computed r for scores in Math and Science is 0.92. What does this mean?
a. Math score is positive related to Science score
b. The higher the Math score, the lower the Science score
c. Math score is not in any way related to Science score
d. Science score is slightly related to Math score
688. Which types of test is most appropriate if Teacher Yanny wants to measure student’s ability
to organize thoughts and ideas?
a. Short answer type of test
b. Extended response essay
c. Modified alternative response
d. Limited response essay
689. I want to test student’s synthesizing skills. Which has the highest diagnostic value?
a. Multiple choice test
b. Performance test
c. Essay test
d. Completion test
690. If Teacher Betty wants to measure her students’ ability to discriminate, which of these is an
appropriate type of test item as implied by the direction?
a. “Outline the Chapter on The Cell.”
b. “Summarize the lesson yesterday.”
c. “Group the following items according to shape.”
d. “State a set of principle that can explain the following events.”
691. A test item has a difficult index of 0.89 and a discrimination index of 0.44. What should the
teacher do?
248
a. Reject the item
b. Revise the item
c. Make it a bonus item
d. Make it a bonus item and reject it
692. A mathematician’s test was given to all Grade V pupils to determine the contestants for the
Math Quiz Bee. Which statistical measure should be used to identify the top 15?
a. Mean percentage score
b. Quartile Deviation
c. Percentile Rank
d. Percentage Score
693. Which can be said of Nina who obtained a score of 75 out of 100 items in a Grammar
objective test?
a. She performed better than 25% of her classmates
b. She answered 75 items in the test correctly
c. Her rating is 75
d. She answered 75% of the test items correctly
694. The criterion of success in Teacher Butch’s objective is that “the pupils must be able to spell 90%
of the words correctly”. Student Dave and 24 others in the class spelled only 40 out of 50 words
correctly while the rest scored 45 and above. This means that Teacher Butch _____________.
a. attained his lesson objective
b. failed to attain his lesson objective as far as the 25 pupils are concerned
c. did not attain his lesson objective because of the pupils’ lack of attention
d. attained his lesson objective because of his effective spelling drill
695. Which of these can measure awareness of values?
a. Sociogram
b. Moral dilemmas
c. Projective techniques
d. Rating scales
696. Marking on a normative basis means that:
a. the normal distribution curve should be followed
b. some should fall
c. some get high marks
d. the grading is based on a present criteria
697. Which process enhances the comparability of grades?
a. Using a table specifications
b. Determining the level of difficulty of the tests
c. Giving more HOTS (higher order thinking skills)
d. Constructing departmentalized exams for each subject area.
698. If the scores of your test follow a negatively skewed score distribution, what should you do?
Find out __________?
a. why your items were easy
b. why most of the scores are high
c. why most of the scores are low
d. why some pupils scored high
699. Principal Gemma is talking about “grading on the curve” in a faculty meeting. What does this
expression refers to?
a. A student’s mark compares his achievement to his effort
b. A student’s grade or mark depends on how his achievement compares with the
achievement of other students in a class
c. A student’s grade determines whether or not a student attains a defined standard of
achievement
d. A student’s mark tells how closely he is achieving to his potential
249
700. Which tests determine whether students accept responsibility for their own behavior or pass
on responsibility for their own behavior to other people?
a. Locus-of-control tests
b. Thematic tests
c. Stylistic test
d. Sentence-completion tests
701. Which of the following is a weakness of self-supporting personality checklists?
a. Many personality measures have built-in lie scales
b. They lack stability
c. They may not get true information because individuals can hide or disguise feelings
d. They have poor internal consistency
702. The class was asked to share their insights about the poem. The ability to come up with an
insight stems from the ability to:
a. analyze the parts of a whole
b. evaluate the worthiness of a thing
c. relate and organize things and ideas
d. comprehend the subject that is being studied
703. To ask the class any insight derived from the poem is based on the theory of:
a. Realism c. Conditioning
b. Behaviorism d. Constructivism
704. On which assumption about the learner is Mr. Sales’s act of asking the class to share their
insight based?
a. Learners are like empty receptacles waiting to be filled up
b. Learners are meant to interact with one another
c. Learners have multiple intelligence and varied learning styles
d. Learners are producers of knowledge not only passive recipients of information
705. Which materials will her teachers least prefers?
a. Controversial issues
b. Open-ended topics
c. Unquestionable laws
d. Problem or cases
706. Why learning activities should be carefully planned?
a. The ability of the teacher to plan is tested
b. This is expected by pupils
c. The accomplishment of objectives is dependent on the plan
d. This is required of a teacher
707. Which statement on IQ and EQ is correct?
a. EQ has a greater contribution to performance than IQ
b. IQ has a greater contribution to performance than EQ
c. Blending of both IQ and EQ can make a difference in performance
d. The contribution of IQ and EQ to performance is dependent on factors like age and gender
708. Teacher Nikko helped his students recall that stalagmites grow on the “ground” while
stalactites grow on the “ceiling” of a cave by associating “G” in stalaGmites with ground and
“C” in stalaCtites with ceiling. What did Teacher Nikko make use of it?
a. Visual aid
b. Mnemonic device
c. Audio-visual aid
d. Meaning-maker device
709. “Makabayan” as a subject in the re-structured Basic Education Curriculum is the “laboratory
for life.” What does this mean? It is in this subject where the learner ____________.
a. Will be taught the Filipino strengths and weaknesses
b. Will demonstrate practical knowledge and skills gained in the other subjects
c. Will be taught the true concept of being “pagkamakabayan”
d. The biographies of heroes who are “makabayan” will be taught
250
710. In the faculty room everyone is talking about a teacher who is torturing for a fee from her
own pupil who is vying for honors. What is the professional thing for the other teachers to
do?
a. Talk to the parents of the tutee. Tell them what teachers doing is unprofessional
b. Leave her alone, she might accuse you of meddling in her personal life
c. Correct her and remind her torturing one’s own pupil for a fee is unethical
d. As a group, report her to the principal
711. When Teacher Demi presents a set of data then asks the students to enter a conclusion,
generalization or a pattern of relationship which method does she use?
a. Process approach
b. Type method
c. Unit method
d. Inductive inquiry method
712. Which individualized teaching method makes use of workbooks, teaching machines or
computers?
a. Project method
b. Unit method
c. Programmed instruction
d. Inductive inquiry method
713. I want to elicit more student responses. Which one should I avoid?
a. Creating an evaluative atmosphere
b. Using covert responses
c. Prompting to covert wrong answers to correct ones
d. Giving non-threatening comments
714. For practice to be effective, which guideline should bear in mind? Practice should _______.
a. Be done in an evaluative atmosphere
b. Be arranged to allow students to receive feedback
c. Take place over a long period of time
d. Be difficult enough for students to remember and learn
715. Which of the following is a practice in progressive education?
a. Open classroom
b. Study of classics
c. Academic orientation
d. Cognitive education
716. The workers’ rights to form unions or to strike can be suppressed in times of national
emergency. On what norm is this based?
a. Higher law, inalienable rights before alienable
b. Wider social order, the society before the individual
c. Clearer title, the certain before the title
d. Nobler person, God before man
717. Which skills should be taught if Teacher Joey wants to equip his students with the skill to
organize information gathered?
a. Note-taking, outlining, using the library
b. Outlining, summarizing, using the card catalogue
c. Note-taking, outlining, summarizing
d. Summarizing, note taking using the library
718. Annual medical checkup required of teachers is done in the interest of:
a. Filipino medical doctors
b. Parents
c. The state and of every teacher
d. School administration
719. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they preferred if given a
choice. Majority of the pupils wanted to be an American. In this case, in which obligation
relative to the state are schools seemed to be failing? In their obligation to:
a. Respect for all duly constituted authorities
b. Instill allegiance to the Constitution
251
c. Promote obedience to the laws of the state
d. Promote national pride
720. To be an effective classroom manager, teachers must be friendly but at the same time be:
a. Buddy-buddy
b. Rigid
c. Business-like
d. Highly demanding
721. Which of the following field of Social Sciences below is more connected with the study of
social traditions and cultures?
a. Theology
b. Psychology
c. Sociology
d. Anthropology
722. Which appropriate teaching practice flows this research finding on the brain: “The brain’s
emotional center is tied into its ability to learn.”
a. Tell the students to participate in class activities or else won’t receive plus points
b. Create a learning environment that encourages students to explore their feelings and ideas
c. Come up with highly competitive games where winners will feel happy
d. Establish the disciple of being judgmental in attitude
723. Which statement holds true to grades? Grades _________.
a. are exact measure of IQ and achievement
b. are a measure of achievement
c. are necessarily a measure of students’ IQ
d. are intrinsic motivation for learning
724. Which practice does not fit in a classroom that recognizes individual differences?
a. Uniform requirements
b. Sharing from multiple perspective
c. Accommodating student’s learning styles
d. Various modes of assessing learning
725. Why is it sound to encourage students to define terms in their own words? Because
____________.
a. Defining the terms in their own words helps them memorize the definition faster
b. Students remember information better when they mentally process in some way
c. They ought to connect the terms that they learn with other terms
d. This is one opportunity to brush up with other terms
726. Grade 1 pupils will likely say that it is the row that makes the longer line. Based on Piaget’s
cognitive development theory, what problem is illustrated?
a. Conservation problem
b. Assimilation problem
c. Egocentrism problem
d. Accommodation problem
727. Were teachers in the Philippines required of a professional license since the establishment of
the Philippine educational system?
a. No, but the equivalent of a license required was a certificate in teaching
b. Yes, it was required since the Americans established the educational system
c. No, it was only with the effectivity of R.A. 7836 that professional license was required
d. Yes, except for the Thomasites
728. The increase in the number of school children left by OFW parents intensifies the teacher role as
______________.
a. Student’s friends
b. Guidance counselors
c. Facilitator of learning
d. Substitute parents
729. As a teacher, you are a rationalist. Which among these will be your guiding principle?
a. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven
b. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the fullest
252
c. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything
d. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill and value that needs for a better future
730. In the formulation of classroom regulations, which of the following should a teacher refrain from
doing?
a. State classroom regulation as clearly as possible
b. Teacher and the class should make as many regulations as possible
c. Enlist student aid in the formation of classroom regulation
d. Enforce classroom regulations consistently and fairly
731. Zero standard deviation means that:
a. The students’ scores are the same
b. 50% of the scores obtained is zero
c. More than 50% of the score obtained is zero
d. Less than 50% of the scores obtained is zero
732. Which is the least authentic mode of assessment?
a. Paper-and-pencil test in vocabulary
b. Oral performance to assess student’s spoken communication skills
c. Experiments in science to assess skill in the use of scientific methods
d. Artist production for music or art subject
733. In what period of a child is physical growth fastest?
a. Prenatal period
b. Early adolescence
c. Early childhood
d. Prenatal and early adolescence
734. How does fear affect the voluntariness of an act?
a. Makes the act involuntary
b. No effect at all
c. Increases voluntariness
d. Lessens but not destroy voluntariness
735. A group of people asserts that their culture is superior to another. This exemplifies:
a. Cultural gap
b. Ethnocentrism
c. Cultural conflict
d. Norm conflict
736. A test consists of a graph showing the relationship between age and population. Follow a
series of true-false items based on the graph. Which type of test does this illustrate?
a. Laboratory exercise
b. Interpretative
c. Problem solving
d. Performance
737. Which curricular move served to strengthen spiritual and ethical values?
a. Integration of creative thinking in all subject
b. Introduction of Value Education as a separate subject area
c. Reducing the number of subject areas into the skill subject
d. Re-introducing Science as all subject in Grade 1
738. A teacher is a facilitator of learning and of the development of the youth. Which practice is
not keeping with his role as facilitator?
a. Considers the multiple intelligences of learners
b. Humiliates misbehaving pupils
c. Dialogs with parents and with other members of the community
d. Keeps himself abreast with educational trends
739. Which one indicates a teacher’s genuine enthusiasm and pride in teaching?
a. Sticking to teaching for the moment that there are no better offers
b. Telling everyone that he went to teaching for there was no other choice then
c. Engaging himself in continuing professional education
d. Belittling the remuneration one gets from teaching
740. When is giving praise ineffective? When it?
253
a. Uses the accomplishment of peers as the context for describing a student’s present
accomplishment
b. Provides information to student’s about their competence and the value of their
accomplishment
c. Focuses students attention on her own task relevant behavior
d. Shows spontaneity, variety and other signs of credibility
741. Which statement applies when scores distribution is negatively skewed?
a. The mode corresponds to a lower value
b. The median is higher that the mode
c. The mode and median are equal
d. The mean corresponds to a high value
742. The use of the process approach gives the student the opportunity to:
a. Learn to their own
b. Apply the scientific method
c. Make use of laboratory apparatuses
d. Learn how to learn
743. A comprehension skill of higher level which may be inferred or implied from reading is:
a. Picking out the main idea
b. Drawing conclusion
c. Nothing specific details
d. Following direction
744. In the Preamble of the Code of Ethics of Professional Teachers, which is not mention about
teachers?
a. Dully licensed professionals
b. Possess dignity and reputation
c. LET passers
d. With high moral values
745. What does a skewed score distribution mean?
a. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end
b. The mode, the mean and the median are equal
c. The mean and median are equal
d. The scores are normally distributed
746. What is implied by a negatively skewed score distribution?
a. The scores are evenly distributed from the left to the right
b. Most pupils are underachieves
c. Most of the scores are high
d. Most of the scores are low
747. A teacher discovers that a product of a certain bottling company brings about damage to teeth.
Much as he wants to share the products of his research, he could not because of harassment
from all sides. Which teacher’s right is violated?
a. Right to property
b. Academic freedom
c. Right to one’s honor
d. Right to make a livelihood
748. Why can the calculator do arithmetic? Because:
a. A computer inside the calculator tells it how
b. A watch inside direct it
c. A typewriter inside does it
d. A TV inside shows it
749. On which constitutional provision is the full or partial integration of capable deaf and blind
students in the classroom based? The provision on:
a. Protecting and promoting the right of all citizen to qualify education
b. Providing citizenship and vocational training to adult citizen
c. Academic freedom
d. Creating scholarship for poor and deserving students
254
750. Teaching in the cognitive, psychomotor and effective domains is based on the concept that
the learner is
a. Moral and feeling being
b. Maternal and an acting being
c. Thinking, feeling and acting being
d. Spiritual and maternal being
751. To build a sense of pride among Filipino youth what should be done?
a. Re-study our history and stress on our achievements as a people
b. Set aside the study of local history
c. Re-study our history from the perspective of our colonizers
d. Replace the study of folklores and myths with technical subjects
752. When necessary conditions are present, the use of inductive method is preferred because:
a. It gives the teacher more time to rest
b. There is greater active participation on the part of the pupils
c. It needs only few instruction materials
d. Academic time is used wisely
753. Which is the best reason why teacher begins a lesson in Math by checking and reviewing on
the previous day’s assignment and provides practice and drills?
a. Check if parents guide their children in the making of assignment
b. Make sure that the students understand the pre-requisite skills of the lesson
c. Prepare the students for the mastery test
d. Make learning interesting and enjoyable for students
754. For counseling to be successful which assumption must be avoided?
a. The environment must provide assurance of confidentiality
b. The counselor tells the student what to do
c. The student is willing to participate in the process
d. The counselor must be able to relate to the student
755. Which technique is most appropriate when a teacher wants a group to agree on a plan of
action?
a. Composite report
b. Consensus decision making
c. Symposium
d. Agenda
756. What term applies to the search for related literature by computing access of databases of
discs kept in libraries?
a. Compact discs computer research
b. On line research
c. Manual research
d. Computer research
757. What best indicates the effectiveness of classroom activities?
a. The laughter and enjoyment of students
b. The application of concept learned in daily life
c. The utilization of varied techniques and approaches
d. The variety of instructional materials used
758. The main purpose of the compulsory study of the Constitution in Philippine schools is to:
a. Develop the students into responsible thinking citizens
b. Acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution
c. Prepare students for law making
d. Make constitutional experts of the students
759. Some students who are high in the scholastic aptitude test have failed in college. Some who
are below the standards set for admission but who for various reasons were admitted,
attained satisfactory standings? This proves that:
a. Human beings are certainly predictable
b. Admission tests are not accurate, hence should not be used
c. Aptitude tests do not measure all factors important for success
d. Aptitude test can be perfectly relied on
255
760. If the teachers pattern in questioning consists of calling on a student then asking the
question:
a. All students may be encouraged to participate
b. The student called to answer may be able to think well of his answer
c. The rest of the class may just dictate the answer
d. The rest of the class may not engage themselves in thinking of the answer
761. Freud expounded that there is a period when young girls experience rivalry with their mother
for their father’s affection. This is called:
a. Electra complex
b. Oedipus complex
c. Achilles syndrome
d. Cassandra syndrome
762. Education is a lifelong process. This simply means that education:
a. May take place formally or informally to enable the individual to grow
b. May take place anywhere and anytime the individual so desires
c. Is a continuous process of experiencing and reorganizing experiences
d. Take place in the school where the individual is exposed, self-contained experiences
763. How is Values Education offered in the National Secondary Education Curriculum?
a. Emphasized in Science and Technology
b. Integrated in all subject areas
c. As a separate subject
d. Integrated with Technology and Home Economics
764. The NSEC orients secondary education to:
a. The teaching of the national symbols
b. Health values development
c. The development of competencies and values for social living
d. National development requirement and reflects search based direction
765. The child cannot distinguish abstracts during the sensory motor of development. Which of these
techniques should a teacher apply to accommodate learning?
a. Make use of individualize instruction
b. Explain the lesson very well
c. Utilize concrete objects to clarify concept
d. Provide variety of educational toys
766. Which of these systems of learning includes ways and methods which are used in preserving and
building certain within cultural communities?
a. Non-formal learning
b. Multi-level learning
c. Cultural learning
d. Indigenous learning
767. Which of the following statement is true in the use of experiments and demonstrations in teaching
Science:
a. It is valuable if used in the context of a lesson that related observation to other information
b. It should be encouraged in elementary school since the concept the encompass are difficult
for your children
c. It is as valuable as teaching by lecturing
d. It is less valuable than teaching through inquiry and discussion
768. Identical twins are more alike than fraternal twins. Which of the following statement principle
supported by this?
a. Environment affects both fraternal and identical twins
b. Intelligence hinges in physical structure
c. Heredity has a part in determining intelligence
d. Intelligence is determined partly by pre-natal nutrition
769. In testing which of the following is referred to as cultural bias?
a. Some culture do better on test than others
b. Test items are more familiar with some culture
c. Test will show who is more cultured
256
d. Cultured people do better on tests
770. Which is the most obvious and familiar way of reporting variability?
a. Standard deviation
b. Range between highest with some culture
c. Standard error of the mean
d. Distribution of raw scores
771. The theory of identical elements in learning holds that transfer is facilitated when the:
a. Teacher uses different teaching devices
b. Learner has a memory of specific responses
c. Development task is easily identified
d. Experience is similar to the application situation
772. If this need is not met, the adolescent tends to be critical and always tries to find fault. This is the
need:
a. For adventure
b. For recognition
c. To belong
d. For material security
773. Audio-visual aids are used in classroom teaching to __________.
a. Help make learning more permanent
b. All of these
c. Help clarify important concept
d. Arouse and sustain student’s interest
774. Which of the following is the most important purpose for using achievement test? To measure the
_________.
a. Quality and quantity of previous learning
b. Quality and quantity of previous teaching
c. Educational and vocational aptitude
d. Capacity for future learning
775. In a multiple choice test, keeping the options brief indicates ____________.
a. Inclusion in the item irrelevant clues such as the use in the correct answer
b. Non-inclusion of option that mean the same
c. Plausibility and attractiveness of the item
d. Inclusion in the item any word that must otherwise repeated in each response
776. Which of these criteria is the most important in test constructions?
a. The stem should contain the central problem
b. Items should be congruent with the objectives
c. A table of specification should be prepared
d. Options should be of almost the same length
777. Which of the following abilities is stressed by humanistic education?
a. Learn the different philosophies of education
b. Develop man into a thinking individual
c. Enjoy the great works of man such as the classics
d. Make man distinctly civilized, educated and refined
778. An appreciation lesson is one that is designed to lead the class to conduct and enjoy something.
Which of the following statements closely approximate the meaning of the above?
a. An appreciation lesson should be a lesson in values
b. Appreciation lessons help pupils weigh and clarify values
c. One cannot fully appreciate what one does not understand or enjoy
d. A teacher should plan lessons that will guide children to appreciate what is beautiful
779. Which of the following is the best time for a teacher to set up routine activities that will
contribute to effective classroom management?
a. As soon as the students have established
b. Daily at the start of the session
c. During his homeroom days
d. On the every first day of school
257
780. In large classes where little of the work pupils can be individualized, the most effective and
practical ways to individualize instruction is to:
a. Devise group activities which afford every pupils an opportunity to work at his own
b. Give the pupils freedom to launch individual projects
c. Assign homework and check it regularly
d. Assigned program material for out-of-class hours
781. Which of these is the most important principle that a teacher should follow in initiating a
program with positive reinforcement?
a. Make sure the reward comes immediately after the appropriate behavior
b. Punish negative behavior and reward positive behavior
c. Provide regular opportunity for socially acceptable behavior
d. Consider peer approval and recognition
782. The trend of focusing attention on the child’s interests, abilities and needs and on the
improvement of community living necessitate the use of the:
a. Discovery approach
b. Conceptual technique
c. Integrative approach
d. Project method
783. The best way the teacher can be of the appropriateness of an instructional materials is to:
a. Try it out before using it in class
b. Consider its technical quality
c. Consider its availability
d. Consider its cost
784. Tasks analysis involves the breaking down of a learning task into subtasks or sub skills. Given a
task to retell a story, which of the following skills is not needed?
a. To disseminate information
b. To outline a selection
c. To identify topic sentences
d. To arranged events in sequence
785. You are assigned to teach students with varied abilities. You want to teach a more homogenous
grouping. Which type of grouping will tend to benefit your students?
a. Mixed ability grouping
b. Low ability group
c. Within class ability grouping
d. High ability grouping
786. Which of the following examples illustrate the use of questions to focus pupil’s attention on the
key points of the lesson?
a. What is Rizal Park known for?
b. Why are machine made goods cheaper than those made by hand?
c. Have you ever enjoyed watching the clouds on a bright day?
d. Who came while I was writing on the blackboard?
787. The new teacher entered a noisy classroom. She shouted immediately at the students desperately
trying to get order and discipline. Since then the teacher has not controlled the class. Which is the
most probable cause of the teacher’s failure?
a. The students reaction to the teacher is the consequence of her behavior
b. Rules are not defined and procedures to sustain order is not put into place
c. The new teacher wants to show the class who is authority
d. The class wants to test the ability and patience of the teacher
788. The educational implementation of research findings relative to the ability of dull learners and
bright learners to organize and generalize is for teacher:
a. To make the bright learners guide the dull ones in learning to generalize
b. To make the bright learners to generalize and the dull ones to memorize
c. To give the dull learners to more concrete experiences to serve as basis for generalizing
d. To give both the dull and bright learners concrete and abstract experiences to serve as basis
for generalizing
789. Which of the following will do the first to establish good class management?
258
a. Discuss the required rules for proper class behavior
b. Discuss the work plan for the year
c. Prepare a seat plan
d. Train the class in the distribution of material
790. A student was diagnosed to have a high IQ but is failing in his academic subject. What should the
teacher do to help him?
a. Talk to his parents
b. Examine his study habits
c. Talk the student and find out his problem
d. Refer him to the guidance counselor
791. Which is the true foundation of the social order?
a. Strong, political leadership
b. The reciprocation of rights and duties
c. Equitable distribution of wealth
d. Obedient citizenry
792. When do test, inventories and career information become effective for counseling services?
a. When the data generated are interpreted on time by professionally competent person
b. The psychological test result are still valid and reliable
c. When the records are updated
d. When the records are kept for ready reference when needed
793. Which of the following is a major advantage in using arithmetic mean?
a. It is more commonly used than other measures
b. It is simple to compute
c. It discriminates between the lowest and the lowest
d. It is more than stable than the median
794. Learners often find it much easier to fit into a new social situation when given encouragement and
support. How can this be done?
a. By discovering his new interest
b. By giving him room responsibility
c. By assigning “peers or Buddies” to him
d. By giving him special help
795. Who expounded on the need to study the child carefully for individualized instruction?
a. Da Feltre
b. Boccacio
c. Erasmus
d. d. Ascham
796. Which of the following should a teacher do if she cannot pay the monthly installment of an
appliance she got from a department store in their town?
a. Reject any notice of demand for payment to make the impression that she did not receive
b. Move to another neighborhood to escape payment
c. Inform the manager of the store personally and make a satisfactory arrangement of
payment on or before the due date of payment
d. Offer the return of the used appliance to the store on the condition that she will be
refunded on the monthly installment she paid
797. Which of the following will you recommended to a senior high school scholar who is impregnated
by a fellow student?
a. Tell her parent about her condition
b. Stop schooling until after she gives birth
c. Direct her to an abortion clinic
d. Force her boyfriend to marry her
798. The government prescribes a higher percentage on the administration of educational institution to
Filipino citizens in order to:
a. Minimize the unemployment problem
b. Produce globally competitive graduates
c. Protect the rights of the citizen
d. Ensure the teaching of Filipino
259
799. Which of the following is the best situation wherein you can balance responsibility and
accountability?
a. A teacher paid on an hour basis, takes her time with the subject matter until the end of the
period
b. A teacher paid on an hour basis, teaches as much as she could for the duration of the period
c. A teacher paid on an hour basis, spends most of the time on the latest gossips in showbiz
d. A teacher paid on an hour basis, entertain her students with stories until the end of the
period
800. You have a pupil who is so talkative, naughty and aggressive that he is a burden to the entire
members of the class. How would you remedy this problem?
a. Talk to him seriously
b. Call the parents for dialogue
c. Report the case to the principal
d. Reprimand him always
801. What should a teacher do before constructing items for a particular test?
a. Prepare a table specifications
b. Review the previous lessons
c. Determine the length of time for answering it
d. Announce to students the scope of the test
802. Which of the following you will do to an examinee you caught cheating and who offered a certain
sum of money to keep quiet?
a. Confiscate his test paper and report him to the examination supervisor
b. Motion him to keep quiet and watch for him after the examination
c. Announce to all examinees the name of the cheater
d. Ignore him but let him feel you saw him
803. Which of the following is the best situation wherein you can balance rights and authority?
a. Allow all their only daughter’s suitor to come and go as she pleases
b. Caution their only daughter’s choice of a boyfriend
c. Censor all their only daughter’s suitor
d. Choose a life-partner for their only daughter
804. An adolescent combines his ability to use deductive and inductive reasoning in realistic rules
that he can respect and live by. When he does this, how does he perceive his environment?
a. He sees the world through the eyes of the people
b. He interprets events from a limited point of view
c. He sees events apart for himself and other people
d. He views the world from his own perspective
805. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words be avoided in
constructing multiple choices tests?
a. Might be overlooked
b. Stems tends to be longer
c. More difficult to construct option
d. Increase the difficulty of the test item
806. Student David was asked to report to the guidance office. Student David and his classmates at
once remark: “What’s wrong?” what does this mean?
a. Guidance counselor are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient”
b. The parents of student Jay must be of the delinquent type
c. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior
d. Student Jay is a “problem” student
807. What do you think would be the actions of a teacher who found out and has proven that his
principal is involved in the malversation of funds of their school?
a. Malign him through an anonymous letter
b. Present the charge to a complete authority
c. Ignore what the teacher has discovered about this action of the principal
d. Circulate this issue and let it become a gossip
808. The discriminating index number 15 is 0.44 this means that:
a. Equal number of student got the correct answer
260
b. More students from the upper group got the item correctly
c. More students from the lower group got the item correctly
d. The test item is very easy
809. What is the main advantage of using table of specification when constructing periodic test?
a. It reduces the scoring time
b. It improves the sampling of content areas
c. It makes test construction earlier
d. It increase the reliability of the test result
810. If a teacher is an advocate of banking concept in Education he or she viewed student as?
a. Clear account to be filled up by the teacher
b. Dormant account to be activated by the teacher
c. Wobble account to be balanced by the teacher
d. All of the above
811. Teacher Maechelle is a neophyte teacher. One time a mother of one of her students confronted
and maligned her in front of her colleagues. How should conduct Teacher Myla react on this kind
of situation?
a. Walk away and ignore the mother
b. Answer back the mother and malign her too
c. Wait until the emotion of the mother subsides and invite her to discuss the concern with the
principal or guidance counselor
d. Allow the mother to keep on maligning her until it’s her turn to do the same
812. Ms. Teodora is always guarded by the principle that she has a foremost responsibility as a
teacher. Given the following which do you think is the main responsibility of Ms. Sanchez?
a. Ask the challenging question
b. Guides students in learning process
c. Shares responsibility in counseling
d. Inspires student to interesting lessons
813. Which of the following would best describe the role of the schools?
a. To educate the citizens
b. To educate the citizens to change the society
c. To fit the citizens into the society
d. All of the above
814. Manual aesthetic activities involving attitudes and feelings are primarily expressive of emotions
and values not thoughts. An example of this motor skills is:
a. Baking a cake with background music
b. Saving a board for the wall of a book cabinet
c. Dancing and playing musical instruments
d. Manipulating a bowling ball to achieve a strike
815. Parents and teachers are considered as authorities and models by children at the early
childhood stage. What does this statement imply?
a. Parent Teacher conference should always be an activity in school
b. Parents should enforce strict discipline at home and teachers in school
c. Teachers and Parents should serve as role models at all times
d. Teachers should demand complete obedience from the learners in school
816. Which of these statements regarding professional’s teachers is the major difference in the
professionalization of teachers and teaching as promulgated in Presidential Decree 1006 and in
Republic Act 7836?
a. Assigned at the tertiary level in both private and state colleges and universities
b. Assigned at the elementary and secondary levels in both public and private schools
c. Holder of valid professional license and certificate of registration
d. Appointed on full-time basis and on permanent status
817. Social stratification is greatly developed in the classroom. Which of these activities would be an
effective way of avoiding or minimizing this?
a. Encourage higher education aspirations among the less privileged pupils
b. Provide limited experience to children of less privileged classes
c. Assign leadership roles to the children of the upper social class
261
d. Avail the influence of mass media for children of all classes
818. The freedom constitution which provided the present philosophy of education was the
contribution of the Aquino administration. Which of this statement is NOT consistent with our
education philosophy?
a. Restore Ethical and moral values
b. Appreciate the roles of foreigners on the historical saga of the country
c. Foster nationalism and patriotism
d. Introduce vocational and scientific efficiency
819. In the preamble of the Code of Ethics for Professional Teachers, which of the following teacher
descriptions is included in the Code of Ethics of the Professional Teachers?
a. With satisfactory teaching performance
b. Duly licensed professional
c. Persons of dignity and reputation
d. Passed the Licensure Exams for teacher
820. Babyhood is often referred to as a “critical period” in the development of personality because:
a. Changes in the personality pattern take place
b. At this time the foundations are laid upon which the adult personality structure we built
c. The brain grows and develops at such an accelerated rate during babyhood
d. At the time the baby is exposed to many hazards both physical and psychological
821. If children are cooperatively engaged with the teacher in a group project the children will
discipline themselves as each member of the group exercises:
a. Special interest
b. Moral compulsion
c. Obedience to the teacher
d. Peer influence
822. Operation “Return to the basic” was launched by the department of education, Culture and
sports not only to upgrade pupil achievement but also to:
a. Emphasize the importance of the 3Rs
b. Develop thinking skills
c. Encourage pupils to study
d. Serve as the basis for learning continuum
823. Which of the following embodies the operation “return to the Basics”?
a. National Secondary Achievement Test
b. New Elementary School Curriculum
c. New Secondary Education Curriculum
d. National Elementary Achievement Test
824. As provider for the education act of 1982, how much are the institutions of learning
encouraged to set higher standards of quality over and above the minimum required for state
recognition?
a. Formal education
b. Academic freedom
c. Voluntary accreditation
d. Continuing Professional Education (CPE)
825. The following is TRUE in the development of understanding in early childhood except:
a. Sensory experiences
b. Abilities to reason & to see relationship
c. Ability to ask questions
d. Ability to explore their environment
826. Values development is integrated in all subjects in the NSEC while values education is:
a. Emphasized in science and technology
b. Offered as a separate subject
c. Emphasize for creativity and productivity
d. Integrated with technology and home economics
827. Which of the following is a mark of a good teacher?
a. Has the habit of preparing for visual aids
b. Has the mastery of the lesson
262
c. Has the control of the class
d. Has the capability to implement corporal punishment
828. The main function of a philosophy of education is to:
a. Aid the learner to build his own personal philosophy
b. Define the goals and set the direction for which education is to strive
c. Provide the academic background prerequisite to learning
d. Reconsider existing education goals in the light of society’s needs
829. During the class reunion of teacher, Eric learned that most of his classmates are successful in
their fields. Also, he found out that most of them are wealthy because they have chosen a
lucrative profession. Confronted with this situation, how should teacher Eric react?
a. Hide to those asked his real profession
b. Tell with pride that he is a teacher by profession
c. Leave the event so as to avoid being asked about his profession
d. Answer not their question concerning his profession
830. Teachers being the trustee of the cultural and educational heritage of the nation are under
obligation to:
a. Promote obedience to the laws of the state
b. Promote national pride, cultivate love of country & instill allegiance to the constitution
c. Transmit to learners such heritage and elevate national morality
d. All of the above
831. The principal is very much interested in a quality professional development program of her
teachers. Which of the following should she consider to realize this?
a. Prescribe by top educational teachers
b. Required for renewal of professional license
c. Responsive to identified teachers needs
d. Dependent on the availability of funds
832. Ms. Soriano wants to help in ending Ms. Del Mundo’s act of immorality but doesn’t have to
encourage confronting her. What she did was to write and secretly distribute copies of
anonymous letter to her colleagues. What should have been done instead?
a. Secretly give anonymous letter only to the people concerned
b. If the charge is valid; present such charge under oath before her school head
c. Ask a third party to write the anonymous letter to prevent her from being involved
d. Talk to the married man with whom Ms. Del Mundo is having an illicit affair
833. The principal ask his good teacher to write modular lesson in Filipino, then he had them
published with his name printed as author. Which is unethical in this case?
a. He burdened the teachers with work not related to teaching
b. He got the merit which was due for his teacher-writer
c. He had the modular lessons published when they worth publishing
d. He wants to exclusive beneficiary of the royalty from the modules
834. Teacher Vincent, a teacher for thirty two years, refuses to attend seminars. He claims that his
thirty two years of teaching is more than all the seminars he is asked to attend. Are his actuation
and thinking in accordance with the code of Ethics for professional teachers?
a. Yes, provided he has an excellent performance rating
b. No, nonattendance to seminars would mean no increase in salary
c. No, a professional teacher, regardless of teaching experience, ought to go through CPE
d. Yes, because he taught for thirty two years and may have mastered the traded
835. Education is a continuous process of experiencing and visiting or reorganizing experiences
according to a Progressivist. What does it mean?
a. Education takes place anytime and anywhere
b. Education goes on throughout life
c. Education happens formally or informally
d. Education begins and ends in school
836. The main contribution of the Arroyo Administration in education is Republic Act No. 9155. This
provision:
a. Started the national scholarship program
b. Renamed the DECS to DepEd
263
c. Conceptualized the K-12 Education Program
d. Established the study now-pay later system
837. The main Purpose of compulsory education of the constitution is to:
a. Prepare students to be lawyer
b. Develop students with into responsible thinking citizen
c. Acquaint students with the historical development of the constitution
d. Make student’s constitutional expert
838. Which of the following situations which violate the principle of respect?
a. Teacher B is giving special favor to students to please so that she can get a remarkable result
in the evaluation
b. Teacher A tells her student that what teacher B taught is wrong
c. Teacher B, upon learning what teacher A did, asked the students not to attend her class
d. All of the above
839. Teacher finds teaching in a multicultural classes very challenging. Which among the following
choices will alleviate the difficulty of addressing these challenges?
a. She must embody a curriculum rather than perspective
b. She must nurture diversity rather than practicing domination and oppression
c. She must consider stereo typing rather than cultural identities and biased attitudes
d. She must welcome one sided view rather than the recognition of biases
840. Ms. Janina is the most admired pre-school teacher in her school. Which among the following can
best explain her being a good teacher?
a. She endorses all the projects of the school for her students
b. She manages to instill control to her students
c. She gives easy exams to her students
d. She adheres to the want of the parents for their children
841. B.F. skinner is a known psychologist and the one who first to describe operant conditioning.
Which of the techniques is an application of operant conditioning?
a. Master learning
b. Process approach
c. Project method
d. Computer assisted instruction
842. Which of the following choices is considered as social force that affects the school and the
curriculum?
a. Nature of knowledge
b. Learners’ characteristics
c. Learner’s style
d. Changes in gender roles
843. Which of the following is an expression of child’s interest in his body?
a. Comparing themselves with others
b. Looking at themselves in the mirror
c. Commenting on various parts of the body
d. Looking the picture of adult men and women
844. Motor development is satisfied by a particular child who;
a. Recognize the different sizes of toys given to him
b. Learns how to walk, run, steer and jump
c. Has playmates within the neighborhood & is popular among kids
d. Known how to control his emotions because he could not ride the motor cycle
845. What is the main reason why children with ADHD have limited learning skills?
a. Act on impulse and cannot concentrate
b. Must take stimulants which shorten attention span
c. Are given sedatives which make them listen
d. Are mildly retarded
846. Many concerned parents commonly make the mistake of:
a. Deliberately creating high levels of stress for their child
b. Unintentionally rewarding their children for creating stress
c. Attempting to protect their children from all stress
264
d. Unintentionally creating high levels of stress for their child
847. Stuttering is commonly caused by:
a. Problem with physical origin
b. Psychological consequence of permissive parenting
c. Side effects of authoritarian parenting
d. Result of fixation caused by conflicts during toilet training
848. How can parents foster initiative and independence in children?
a. Mastering psychomotor skills
b. Encouragement from parents when a child plans carries out a task
c. Identity versus role confusion
d. None of the above
849. Which stage considers teachers, peers and adults outside the home important in shaping attitude
toward oneself?
a. Initiative versus guilt
b. Industry versus inferiority
c. Trust versus mistrust
d. Integrity versus despair
850. Providing variety of learning activities to students is a characteristics of a teacher who
understands the principle of:
a. Proactive teaching as a modem technique of teaching
b. Facilitating learning with emphasis on individual differences
c. Reward as a potential means of increasing the participation
d. Allowing the student to be exposed to various teaching techniques
851. All of the following shows respect for individual differences except:
a. Give greater attention to gifted learners
b. Treat all learners alike while the classroom
c. Provide for a variety of learning activities
d. Prepare modules for slow learners in class
852. Students who are disobedient and display negative attitudes towards others are best handled by
teacher who will:
a. Detain him after office hours for him to do what he has been ordered to
b. Avoid giving him orders or if you do and the objects take back the order
c. Take every opportunity to praise him for every positive attitude displays
d. Insist on compliance to the same degree required of pupils
853. Which of the following develops critical thinking skills among the students?
a. Asking convergent question
b. Blind obedience to authority
c. A willingness to suspend judgment
d. Asking low level questions
854. A child who always fights with his/her classmates, who has a very short attention span, and who
has frequent tantrums is believed to be suffering from:
a. Mental retardation
b. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. Down syndrome
d. Learning disability
855. Planned ignoring, signal interference and proximity control are techniques used in:
a. Operant conditioning
b. Managing surface behavior
c. Managing temper tantrums
d. Life space interviewing
856. The concept that learning to read or write does not happen quickly but is built upon many small
steps that occur over the course of the child’s early childhood.
a. Innate literacy
b. Emergent literacy
c. Functional literacy
265
d. Academic Literacy
857. Laughing at two year old child who uttered a bad word is not a proper thing to do because in this
stage of the child’s life, the child is:
a. Considering the views of others
b. Distinguishing right from wrong
c. Distinguishing sex differences
d. Socializing
858. The school director emphasizes the necessity of clean and green environment to contribute to
effective teaching and learning. This is an example of:
a. Establish rapport between teachers and pupils
b. Providing an atmosphere conductive to learning
c. Providing adequate physical facilities
d. Utilize educational technology
859. The teachers are facilitators of learning. Which of the following negates this principle?
a. Performs not only classrooms roles but community involvement as well
b. Focus background of the students
c. Familiar with the latest innovations in teaching
d. Uses pro-active discipline method
860. The nearest to the real thing according to Edgar Dale’s Cone of Experience is:
a. Watching demo
b. Viewing images
c. Attending Exhibit
d. Hearing and listening
861. Which of the following statements is one of the strength of an autobiography as a technique for
personality appraisal?
a. It can replace data obtain from other data techniques
b. It may be read by unauthorized people
c. It gives complete data about the author
d. It makes possible presentation of intimate experiences
862. The present Philippine Teachers professionalization Act had its beginning on what period of
roman history?
a. 295 B.C. - schools were elementary only
b. A.D. 100 - A.D. 175 - government increased its subsidy for education
c. 132 B.C. - A.D. 100 - Latin literature and grammar were perfected
d. A.D. 274-259 - government establish a monopoly on education
863. During the distribution of the report card, which of the following must be the foremost concern
of teacher?
a. Discuss the projects of the school
b. Discuss the unsettled bill of the students
c. Discuss the progress as well as the deficiencies of the stu7dent
d. Discuss the complaints of other teachers and classmates of the students
864. Teacher Vincent is a new teacher. He realizes that handling his student’s misbehavior is a very
demanding aspect of classroom management. In this regard he thought of giving up teaching.
What advice can you give him?
a. Report every student’s misbehavior to the principal
b. Agree with the class on what rules to follow
c. Set the ground rules for the whole class
d. None of the above
865. Which of the following is a result of compressing a file?
a. The file size is smaller
b. The file deleted
c. The three character extension is hidden
d. All file properties
866. Vincent parents do not want their child with ADHD to undergo drug treatment, their better
alternative would be
a. Behavior modification or behavior management
266
b. Psychotherapy
c. Punishment
d. Progressive inhibition
867. Ripple effect can also be seen in misdemeanor. The teacher should therefore:
a. Reinforce positive behavior
b. Immediately responds to misbehavior
c. Be consistent in classroom management
d. Count 1 to 10 before she gets angry
868. Metacognition is primarily characterized by:
a. Recalling the past lesson
b. Thinking about their thinking
c. Visualizing in advance
d. Formulating hypothesis
869. A person who is friendly and has a capacity to make people laugh possesses:
a. Interpersonal intelligence
b. Naturalistic intelligence
c. Spatial intelligence
d. Intrapersonal intelligence
870. Which of the following is an example of norm-referenced interpretation?
a. Josh’s test score is higher than 89% of the class
b. Francis set up his laboratory equipment in 2 minutes
c. RJ solve five problems correctly out of thirty words
d. Bea must spell twenty five words correctly out of thirty words
871. A type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the rater who avoids
both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as revenge
a. Severity error
b. Central tendency error
c. Generosity error
d. Logical error
872. Which of the following test items can be effectively measure higher order of cognitive learning
objectives?
a. Achievement test
b. Extended essay test
c. Completion test
d. Objective test
873. A student finding it hard to read. When the guidance counselor traced the child’s history, the
counselor was able to find out the student came from a dysfunctional family, aside from that
the child was abused and neglected. What could have caused the students reading disability?
a. Poor teaching
b. Emotional factors
c. Neurological factors
d. Immunity
874. The best example Operant conditioning among the following is:
a. Fostering conductive learning environment
b. Connecting facts and concept
c. Using reinforcement
d. Using manipulative device
875. The failure in the test of independence among Filipino students can be attributed to
a. Lack of skills
b. High degree of dependence to authority
c. Strong family ties
d. All of the above
876. Which of the following would be the most fitting action for the teacher who is having a
relationship with his/her student?
a. Deny the relationship
b. Continue the relationship and exercise utmost professional discretion about this
267
c. Enjoy the relationship while it last
d. Defer the relationship until they are already to admit it
877. The following is TRUE in the development of understanding in early childhood, except:
a. Abilities to reason and to see relationship
b. Sensory experiences
c. Ability to explore their environment
d. Ability to ask questions
878. Which of the following are the basic components of curriculum design?
a. Assessment, teaching strategies and textbooks
b. Content, structure and deliver
c. Philosophy, goals and objectives
d. Standards, learning competencies, and evaluation
879. The following are examples of learning centered design except:
a. Child centered design
b. Life situation design
c. Humanistic centered design
d. Experience centered design
880. Which of the following statements about computer viruses are TRUE?
a. Text files are the only files to be corrupted by virus.
b. Files damaged by computer viruses can be cured
c. Files are always permanently damage by viruses
d. Compressed files can never be damaged by viruses
881. A child submitted a poor written report but package with boringly colored paper cover. This
showcase____.
a. Art over academics
b. “porma” over substance
c. Substance over “porma”
d. Art over science
882. Clearance has inherent skills in taking care of plants. It is highly possible that she has ________
intelligence.
a. Intrapersonal intelligence
b. Naturalistic intelligence
c. Spatial intelligence
d. Existential intelligence
883. Mrs. Cruz dreams to organize a seminar with a known poet from another country but she
cannot afford to spend for a transportation of the said poet. Which of the following can she
use so she won’t need to spend much?
a. Distant communication
b. Instant messaging
c. Video conferencing
d. Podcasting
884. Which is the first step in planning periodic test?
a. Select the type of test to be used
b. Construct a table specification
c. Go back to the instructional objectives
d. Determine the group of whom the test is intended
885. What is meaning of TOS in the parlance of test construction?
a. Table of specifics
b. Table of specification
c. Table of specific test
d. Table of subject
886. Ms. Soriano will be absent for two days because of a national conference. She wants her
student to work on a certain module. What is the fastest way of sending the module to her
students while she is away?
a. Share it to all her students in her live account
b. Email a module to her students
268
c. Send the module through group instant messaging
d. Message each of the students on a social networking site
887. Teacher Vincent is assigned to handle a multiple grade class. What instructional material must
be used to provide the need of each grade?
a. Differentiated materials to cater to different levels
b. Multisensory materials
c. Colorful, useful and durable materials
d. Materials of high level thinking skills
888. A document publishes by a school district that identifies rules of behavior that must be
followed by anyone using the school districts computers, network, or internet connection.
a. Ethical internet use policy
b. Classroom rules
c. Acceptable use policy
d. Fair use
889. Using Bloom’s Taxonomy, the highest among the following is:
a. Critical Comprehension
b. Critical evaluation
c. Integration
d. Literal comprehension
890. To improve comprehension and retention among the students, the teachers best option
would be use
a. Six thing hats
b. SQ3R
c. Contextual Clues
d. Autodidactic Activities
891. What practice(s) will demonstrate the teacher’s genuine concern on the learning of students?
a. Confer progress of students to their parent
b. Guides students to meet their learning goals
c. Validates if learning goals were met
d. All of the above
892. Which of the following is the most important component of educational reform?
a. Allowing the students to participate more in extra-curricular activities
b. Implementing a better curriculum for students
c. Hiring only the excellent teachers
d. Involving parents in the dedication for the children
893. To increase the difficulty of a multiple choice test item, which of the following should be
done?
a. Make the options equal in length
b. Make the options homogeneous
c. Make it grammatically correct
d. Make the stem
894. Teacher Anna set 85% accuracy in a test on predicting the kind of weather given 5 different
atmospheric conditions. May obtain a score of 82% can be interpreted as:
a. She is 3% short of the set percentile score
b. She did not meet the set standards by 3%
c. She obtained 82% percentile score
d. She is higher than 82% of the group
895. Teacher Vilma constructed a matching type test item. IN her column of descriptions are
combinations presidents, current issues, and sports. Which of the constructing a matching
type test items was NOT followed?
a. The descriptions must be homogenous
b. The options must be greater than the descriptions
c. The descriptions must be heterogeneous
d. Arrange the options according the orders
896. Which of the following does not belong to the group when we talk about projective
personality test?
269
a. Sentence completion test
b. Word association test
c. Interview
d. Thematic Apperception test
897. Which of the following is the main purpose of administering a pretest and posttest to the
stu8dents?
a. Measure the value of the materials used
b. Accustom the students in frequent testing
c. Measure gain in learning
d. Measure the effectiveness of instruction
898. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution?
a. The mean, The median and the moderate are equal
b. Most of the scores are low
c. Most of the scores are high
d. The mode is high
899. A teacher put together the output of her colleagues in one workshop and published it with her
name as author. Which is unprofessional about the teacher’s behavior?
a. Failing to correct what appears to be unprofessional conduct
b. Giving due credit to others of their work
c. Not giving due credit to others for their work
d. Holding inviolate all confidential information concerning associates
900. In what way can teachers uphold the highest possible standards of the teaching profession?
a. By pointing out the advantages of joining the teaching profession
b. By good grooming to change people’s perception of teacher
c. By continuously improving themselves personally and professionally
d. None of the above
901. To reach out to clientele who cannot be in the classroom for one reason or another, which of
the following was established?
a. Special education (SPED)
b. Informal education
c. Alternative learning delivery system
d. Pre-school education
902. In the context of multiple intelligences, which one is the weakness of the paper-pencil test?
a. It put non-linguistically intelligent pupils at a disadvantage
b. It requires paper and printing and is so expensive
c. It utilizes so much time
d. It lacks reliability
903. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely X, Y and Z, no pupil chose Z as an
answer. This implies that Z is ________.
a. An effective distracter
b. A plausible distracter
c. A vague distracter
d. An ineffective distracter
904. The Thematic Appreciation Test is an example of a (an) __________.
a. Self-report technique
b. Projective technique
c. Interest inventory
d. Socio-metric technique
905. The following are features of the Restructure Basic Education Curriculum, except:
a. Increased time for tasks to gain mastery of competencies
b. Interdisciplinary modes of teaching
c. Greater emphasis on content, less on the learning process
d. Stronger integration of competencies and values, across the learning area
906. The free public elementary and secondary education in the country is in the line with the
government effort to address educational problems of _______.
a. access and equity
270
b. relevance and quality
c. effectiveness and efficiency
d. productivity
907. The task of setting up routine activities for effective classroom management as a task that a
teacher should undertake ______.
a. on the very first day of school
b. every day at the start of the session
c. every homeroom day
d. as soon as the students have adjusted on their schedule
908. Teacher Honey uses direct instruction strategy. Which will she first do?
a. Independent practice
b. Guided student practice
c. Review the previous day’s work
d. Presenting and structuring
909. Teacher Janice observes cleanliness and order in her classroom to create a conductive
atmosphere for learning. On which theory is her practice based?
a. Behaviorism
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Gestalt psychology
d. Humanistic psychology
910. Which activity is meant for kinesthetically intelligent pupils?
a. Independent study
b. Individualized study
c. Pantomime
d. Cooperative learning
911. With which will the existentialist agree? The school is a place where individuals _____.
a. Listen and accept what the teacher say
b. Can meet to pursue dialogue and discussion about their lives and choices
c. Can observe by using their senses to the maximum
d. Can reflect on ideas
912. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on working with
and relating to people?
a. Writing articles on working and relating to people
b. Organizing a community project
c. Home visitation
d. Conducting mock election
913. Which physical arrangement of chairs contributes to effective classroom management?
a. Sticks to the traditional chair arrangement in the classroom
b. Distinguishes teacher from students
c. Makes it easier to clean the room
d. Enhances classroom interaction
914. Each teacher said to be a trustee of cultural and educational heritage of the nation and under
obligation to transmit to learners such heritage. Which practice makes him fulfill such obligation?
a. Use of the latest instructional technology
b. Study of the life of Filipino heroes
c. Use of interactive teaching strategies
d. Observing continuing professional education
915. Under which type of guidance service does the concern of schools to put students into their most
appropriate courses fall?
a. Individual inventory service
b. Research service
c. Placement service
d. Information service
916. Conducting follow up studies of graduates and drop out is a guidance service that falls under:
a. Placement services
b. Research service
271
c. Individual inventory services
d. Counseling service
917. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
a. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge
b. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score
c. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score
d. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment
918. Which program was adopted to provide universal access to basic education to eradicate
illiteracy?
a. Values educational framework
b. Education for all
c. “Paaralan sa bawat barangay”
d. Science and Education Development Plan
919. Which schools are subject to supervision, regulation and control by the state?
a. Public, Private sectarian and Non-sectarian
b. Sectarian and non-sectarian school
c. Private school
d. Public schools
920. Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12,
9, 8, 6, 3, 1. what is the characteristic of the score distribution?
a. Bimodal
b. Trimodal
c. Skewed to the right
d. No discernible pattern
921. What do the school campus expression “promdi” and barriotic” indicate?
a. The powerlessness of the poor
b. The power of the rich
c. Low literacy rate of the country
d. The prevalence of ethnocentrism
922. Why is babyhood referred to as a “critical period” in personally development? Because
_________.
a. The foundation is laid upon in which the adult personally structure will be built
b. The baby is exposed to many physical and psychological hazards
c. The brain grows and develops as such accelerated rate during babyhood
d. Changes in the personality pattern take place
923. Billy, a grade 1 pupil is asked, “Why do you pray every day?” Billy answer. “Mommy said so.”
Based on Kohlberg’s theory, in which moral development stage is Billy?
a. Pre-Conventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Between conventional and post conventional levels
d. Post-Conventional level
924. If you plan to develop a lesson on using s-verb with the third person singular as subject
deductively, what is the first step in your lesson development outline?
a. Give sentences using s-verb form
b. Ask the students about s-verb form and third person singular as subject
c. State the rule on subject-verb agreement for third person as subject
d. Conduct appropriate sentence drill
925. For lesson clarity and effective retention, which one should a teacher observes, according to
Bruner’s theory?
a. Start at the concrete level and end there
b. Begin teaching at the concrete level but go beyond it by reaching the abstract
c. End teaching with verbal symbol
d. Use purely verbal symbols in teaching
926. The criterion of success in Teacher Edna’s objective is that “the pupils must be able to spell 90%
of the words correctly.” Linda and other 24 students in the class spelled only 40 out of 50 words
correctly while the rest scored 45 and above. This means that Teacher Edna ________.
272
a. Did not attain her lesson objective because of the pupil’s lack of attention
b. Attained her lesson objective because of the pupil’s lack of attention
c. Attained her lesson objective
d. Failed to attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 pupils are concerned
927. Which is true when standard deviation is big?
a. Scores are concentrated
b. Scores are not extremes
c. Scores are spread apart
d. The bell curve shape is steep
928. Theft of school equipment like TV, computer, etc. by teenagers in the community itself is
becoming a common phenomenon. What does this incident signify?
a. Deprivation of Filipino schools
b. Inability of school to hire security guards
c. Prevalence of poverty in the community
d. Community’s lack of sense of co-ownership
929. What does extreme authoritarianism in the home reinforce in learners?
a. Creativity in work
b. Ability to direct themselves
c. Doing things on their own initiative
d. Dependence on others for direction
930. The main purpose of compulsory study of the constitution is to ________.
a. Make constitutional experts of the students
b. Develop students into responsible, thinking citizens
c. Prepare students for law-making
d. Acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution
931. Studies in the areas of neurosciences disclosed that the human brain has limitless capacity. What
does this imply?
a. Every child is a potential genius
b. Pupils can possibly reach a point where they have learned everything
c. Some pupils are admitted not capable of learning
d. Every pupil has his its own native ability and his learning is limited to this native ability
932. The principle of individual differences requires teachers to _____.
a. Treat all learners alike while in the classroom
b. Prepare modules for slow learners in class
c. Give greater attention to gifted learners
d. Provide for a variety of learning activities
933. Which assumption underlines the teacher’s use of performance objectives?
a. Performance objectives assure the learner of learning
b. Learning is defined as a change in the learner’s observable performance
c. The success of learners is based on teacher performance
d. Not every form of learning is observable
934. Which is/are sign/s of the student with Attention Deficit Disorder?
a. Impatient while waiting for his/her turn during games
b. Completes work before shifting to another
c. Excessively quiet
d. Cares for his/her personal things
935. You observe that pupils answer even when not called, shouts MA’AM to get your attention, and
laugh when someone commits mistakes. What should you do?
a. Send the misbehaving pupils to the guidance counselor
b. Set the rules for the class to observe
c. Involve the whole class in setting rules of conduct for the whole class
d. Make a report to the parents about their children’s misbehavior
936. Which seating arrangement has been proven to be effective for learning?
a. Flexible to suit varied activities
b. Fixed arrangement to maximize instructional time
273
c. Any seat arrangement to suit varied learning styles
d. A combination of fixed and flexible arrangement
937. Which can run counter to the encouragement you give to your students to ask questions?
a. Eye to eye contact
b. An encouraging hand gesture
c. Radiant face
d. Knitted eyebrows when a question is raised
938. Teacher Lenny demonstrated to the class how to focus the microscope, after which the students
were asked to practice. Which teacher prompting is least intrusive? Teacher Lenny ________.
a. Held the hand of a student and with her hand holding the student’s hand adjusted the
mirror
b. Pointed to the mirror and made an adjusting gesture with her hand
c. Adjusted the mirror
d. Reminded the class to first adjust the mirror
939. Which educational trend is occurring in all modern societies as a result of knowledge explosion
and rapid social, technological and economic changes?
a. Nuclear education
b. International education
c. Lifelong learning
d. Team teaching
940. With the advent of multi-media resources and computers, which is the most favorable result of
the optimal use of educational media technology?
a. Interactive learning
b. Increase learning
c. Speed learning
d. More interesting learning
941. Which refers to the Filipino trait of practicing conflicting values in different venues and with
different social groups?
a. “Kanya-kanya” mentality
b. Procrastination
c. Existential intelligence
d. Crab mentality
942. Which of these can measure awareness of values?
a. Projective techniques
b. Rating scales
c. Moral dilemmas
d. Sociogram
943. Which test determines whether students accept responsibility for their own behavior or pass on
responsibility for their own behavior to other people?
a. Locus-of-control tests
b. Sentence-completion tests
c. Thematic tests
d. Stylistic tests
944. Which process enhances the comparability of grades?
a. Giving more Higher Order thinking skills
b. Constructing departmentalized exam for each subject area
c. Determining the level of difficulty of the test
d. Using a table of specification
945. Under which type of guidance service does the concern of school to put students into their most
appropriate courses fall?
a. Information service
b. Placement service
c. Individual inventory services
d. Research services
946. The teacher’s role in the classroom according to cognitive psychologist is to _______.
a. Make the learning task easy for the learner
274
b. Dictate what to learn upon the learner
c. Fill the minds of the learner with information
d. Help the learner connect what they know with new information from the teacher
947. Which questioning technique would be appropriate for inductive lessons?
a. Involve students actively in the questioning process
b. Expect participation only among the more motivated students
c. Use questions requiring only memory responses
d. As a teacher, you ask no questions
948. Which statement is true in a bell-shaped curve?
a. There are more high scores than low scores
b. Most scores are high
c. The scores are normally distributed
d. The bell curve shape is steep.
949. Can an insane person be blamed for killing a stranger?
a. Yes, because an insane person possesses a little degree of voluntariness
b. Yes, because an insane person is not totally ignorant
c. No, because of his ignorance and lack of voluntariness
d. No, because the one killed is a stranger, not in any way related to him
950. A political boss builds a school in a distant barrio in order to get the votes for an unworthy and
corrupt candidate. Is the action of the political boss moral?
a. No, the candidate is undeserving
b. No, his move was not meant for good effect
c. Yes, the votes were exchange for the school built
d. Yes, it was his duty to strategies for his candidate to win
951. The teacher’s first task in the selection of media in teaching is to determine the:
a. Choice of the teacher
b. Availability of the media
c. Technique to be used
d. Choice of the students
952. Which is the true foundation of the social order?
a. Strong political leadership
b. The reciprocation of rights and duties
c. Equitable distribution of wealth
d. Obedient citizen
953. All the examinees obtained scores below the mean. A graphic representation of the score
distribution will be:
a. Perfect normal curve
b. Negatively skewed
c. Positively skewed
d. Leptokurtic
954. In a normal distribution curve, a T-score of 70 is:
a. Two SDs above the mean
b. Two SDs below the mean
c. One SD below the mean
d. One SD above the mean
955. Which one stifles student’s initiative?
a. “Bahala na”
b. “Utang na loob”
c. Rationalism
d. Extreme authoritarianism
956. The following are trends in marking and reporting system, except:
a. Supplementing subject grades with checklist on traits
b. Conducting parent-teacher conferences as often as needed
c. Raising the passing grade from 70 to 80
d. Indicating strong points as well as those needing improvement
957. Which is a type of graph in which lines represent each score or set of scores?
275
a. Histogram
b. Scatter gram
c. Scatter plot
d. Frequency polygon
958. Which is an example of a perfect duty?
a. Paying the worker the wages agreed upon
b. Donating an amount for a noble project
c. Giving alms to the needy
d. Supporting a poor but deserving student to school
959. In what way can instructional aides enhance learning?
a. Entertain student
b. Hold students in the classroom
c. Reinforce learning
d. Take the place of the teacher
960. The study on types of reading exercises gives practice in:
a. All sorts of study methods
b. Reading skills needed in other project
c. Recognizing the precise meaning of words
d. Picking out the man ideas
961. How students learn may be more important than what they learn. From this principle, which of
the following is particularly important?
a. Knowing how to solve a problem
b. Solving a problem within time allotted
c. Getting the right answer to a word problem
d. Determining the given
962. Which illustrates vicarious punishment?
a. We feel so bad to a classmate who is punished for being tardy so we convince him go to
school on time
b. Out of comparison, we volunteer to get punished in place of a friend
c. We charge to experience our being punished
d. See someone get punished for habitual tardiness. In effect, we are less likely to be tardy
963. Teacher Marissa wants to review and check on the lesson of the previous day? Which one will be
most reliable?
a. Having students correct each other’s work
b. Having students identify difficult homework problems
c. Explicitly reviewing the task relevant information for the day’s lesson
d. Sampling the understanding of a few students
964. To promote effective practice, which guideline should you bear in mind? Practice should be ____.
a. Difficult for students to learn a lesson
b. Arranged to allow students to receive feedback
c. Done in an evaluative atmosphere
d. Take place over a long period of time
965. Which is one role of play in the pre-school and early childhood years?
a. Separates reality from fantasy
b. Develops the upper and lower limbs
c. Develop competitive spirit
d. Increase imagination due to expanding knowledge and emotional range
966. For which may you use the direct instruction method?
a. Use a microscope properly
b. Distinguish war from aggression
c. Appreciate Milton’s Paradise Lost
d. Become aware of the pollutants around us
967. By what name is indirect instruction or Socratic methods also known?
a. Questioning method
b. Morrison method
c. Indirect method
276
d. Mastery learning
968. Which does not belong to the group of alternative learning systems?
a. Multi-age grouping
b. Multi-grade grouping
c. Non-graded grouping
d. Graded education
969. Student Ben was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student Ben and his classmates at once
remarked. “What’s wrong?” What does this imply?
a. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior
b. Student Ben is a “problem” student
c. Guidance counselors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient”
d. The parents of Students Ben must be of the delinquent type
970. A teacher combined several subject areas in order to focus on a single concept for
interdisciplinary teaching. Which strategy/method did he use?
a. Unit method
b. Thematic instruction
c. Problem entered learning
d. Reading-writing method
971. Which is a major advantage of curriculum-based assessment?
a. It tends to focus on anecdotal information on student’s progress
b. It is based on a norm referenced measurement model
c. It is informal in nature
d. It connects testing with teaching
972. A school Division Superintendent was enthusiastically lecturing on the Accreditation Program for
Public Elementary Schools (APPES), its benefits and demands. Thinking of its many demands,
most of the school heads were not very happy about it and the older one were whispering “we
have very reason to retire soon.”
What does this tell about the change process?
a. People resist change for no reason
b. People tend to resist change
c. Resistance to change is insurmountable
d. Leadership can affect the desired change in persons despite opposition from the persons
themselves.
973. I want to engage my students in small group discussion. Which topic lends itself to a lively
discussion?
a. The meaning of the law of supply and demand
b. Rules on subject-verb agreement
c. The law of inertia
d. The exclusion of Pluto as a planet
974. In which of the following would programmed learning to be most likely to be found?
a. In a class divided into small groups
b. Independent study
c. In dyadic groups
d. In a class where teacher tries to individualized instruction
975. A master teacher, the resource speaker in an in-service training, presented the situated learning
theory and encouraged her colleagues to apply the same in class. Which did she not encourage
her colleagues to do?
a. Apprenticeship
b. Learning as it normally occurs
c. Authentic problem solving
d. Decontextualized teaching
976. Which is the ultimate aim of classroom management?
a. To set up condition that brings about effective teaching and learning
b. To secure conformity to rules with ease
c. To make children realize that they cannot do everything they want
d. To remove the physical condition in the room
277
977. Under which teaching strategy does a School’s division practice of assigning a Girl Scout to serve
as Superintendent of the Day or Mayor of the Day for leadership training fall?
a. Panel discussion
b. Symposium
c. Simulation
d. Dramatization
978. The grades make valid indicators of students’ achievements. Which process should be observed?
a. Explaining the meaning of marks and grades
b. Defining the course objective as intended learning outcomes
c. Adopting letter grades such as A, B, C and D
d. Giving objective type of tests
979. Who are not covered by the Code of Ethics of Professional Teachers?
a. All full time or part time public and private school teacher and administrator
b. Teachers of academic, vocational, special, technical or non-formal institution
c. Teacher in the tertiary level
d. Teacher in all educational institutions at all levels
980. Which of the UNESCO’s four pillars of education is most related to peace education?
a. Learning to do
b. Learning to know
c. Learning to live
d. Learning to be
981. The failure of independent study with most Filipino students may be attributed to students’
______.
a. high degree of independence
b. ambiance
c. unpreparedness for schooling
d. high degree of dependence on authority
982. Where do you make the correction of your notes while using the overhead projector?
a. On the slide
b. On the overhead projector
c. On the projector wall
d. On the screen
983. Authority comes from God and is meant to:
a. Help those given the authority to do their task
b. Distinguish those with authority from those without
c. Be lorded over others
d. Make the subjects of authority recognize their superiors
984. A person, who has had painful experiences at the dentist’s office, may become fearful at the
mere sight of the dentist’s office building. Which theory can explain this?
a. Classical conditioning
b. Generalization
c. Operant conditioning
d. Attribution theory
985. One strength of an autobiography as a technique for personality appraisal is that ________.
a. It may be read by unauthorized people
b. It can replace data obtained from other data-gathering technique
c. It makes possible the presentation of intimate experiences
d. It gives complete data about the author
986. All of the following describe the development of children aged eleven to thirteen, except:
a. Sex differences in IQ become more evident
b. They exhibit increased objectivity in thinking
c. They shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability
d. They show abstract thinking and judgment
987. The environment in order to facilitate learning must be interactive. Which of the following best
typifies this kind of environment?
278
a. The child listens to a lecture on fossils given by the teacher
b. The child goes out and discovers for himself some rock or fossil
c. The child summarize the section on fossils in his science textbook
d. The child copies a list of facts concerning fossils on the blackboard
988. Social development means the acquisition of the ability to behave in accordance with:
a. Stereotyped behavior
b. Social expectation
c. Social insight
d. Universal norms
989. When an adolescent combines ability to use deductive and inductive reasoning in constructing
realistic rules that he can respect and live by, how does he perceive his environment?
a. He views the world from his own perspective
b. He sees the world and himself through the eyes of other people
c. He interprets events form a limited views
d. He sees events apart from himself and other people
990. The authoritarian setting in the Filipino home is reinforced by a classroom teacher who:
a. Is open to suggestions
b. Encourage pupils to ask questions
c. Prescribes what pupils should do
d. Ask open ended questions
991. The Constitutional provision on language has the following aim, except:
a. To make Filipino the sole medium of instruction
b. To make the regional dialect as auxiliary media of instructions in regional school
c. To maintain English as a second language
d. To make Filipino the national Language and medium of instruction and communication
992. The tendency to emphasize so much on school beautification to the detriment of pupils’
performance illustrates the:
a. Filipino’s lack of seriousness
b. Filipino’s love for “porma”
c. Filipino’s lack of reflection
d. Filipino’s sense of humor
993. In order to avoid disgrace, a pregnant, unmarried woman takes drugs to induce abortion. Is she
morally justified to do that?
a. Yes, it can save her and child from disgrace when he grows up
b. No, the act of inducing abortion is bad in itself
c. No, the unborn child cannot be made to suffer the consequences of the sins of his parents
d. No, it is better to prevent the child from coming into the world who will suffer very much
due to the absence of a father
994. In which way does heredity affect the development of the learner?
a. By placing limits beyond which the learner cannot develop
b. By providing equal potential to all
c. By compensating for what environment fails to develop
d. By blocking the influence of environment
995. A child refuse to obey orders or displays negativism as a development trait. How may you best
handle him?
a. Detain him after office hours for him do to what he has been ordered to do
b. Take every opportunity to praise him for every positive attitude display
c. Insist on compliance to the same degree required of pupils
d. Avoid giving him orders if you do and he objects take back the order
996. If a resilient child with superior intelligence is reared in a poor environment the probable
outcome would be:
a. No change in IQ because environment deprivation has nothing to do with intelligence
b. Mental retardation since he is culturally deprived
c. Slight change in IQ although he can overcome frustration and obstacle
d. Great change in IQ because he is culturally deprived
997. Section 5, Article XIV, of the Constitution states that academic freedom shall be enjoyed in:
279
a. Public assemblies
b. All institution of higher learning
c. State colleges and universities
d. All levels of learning
998. A teacher who subscribes to the pragmatic philosophy of education believes that experience
should follow learning in her teaching, she therefore exerts effort in:
a. Encouraging learners to memorize factual knowledge
b. Providing learners opportunities to apply theories and principles
c. Equipping learners with the basic abilities and skills
d. Requiring learners full mastery of the lesson
999. As a parent and at the same time a teacher, which of the following will you do to show your
cooperation to a PTA project in your school to be financed with the proceeds of the sales of the
school canteen where food prices are little bit higher?
a. Bring food for you and your children, but always make it a point to buy in the school canteen
b. Buy all your food in the school canteen but request for a discount
c. Bring food enough for you and your children but do not eat in the canteen
d. Buy all your food from the school canteen even if you cannot afford to do every day
1000. How can you help a habitual borrower of money get rid of his habit?
a. Let him do something for you in return for the money you lent him
b. Direct him to others
c. Do not lend him anymore
d. Ask for a collateral for the cash he is loaning
1001. Periodic checks on student seatwork with a smile and pat on the shoulder effectively reinforce
good study habit is an example of:
a. Discrimination reinforcement
b. Variable-ratio schedule
c. Continuous reinforcement
d. Fixed interval and variable-interval schedule
1002. A person strives to work at a given task because of a need. Which of the following situations can
make a person strive to meet his needs?
a. Minimize the unpleasant consequences of student involvement
b. Utilize your own opinion as teacher in making final decisions in the classroom
c. Use unfamiliar materials as examples in order to initially arouse their curiosity
d. Ask pupils to submit test questions or reactions which you can select topics
1003. Which is not a characteristic of a democratic discipline?
a. Child has opportunity to expense his/her opinion
b. Child’s given punishment is related to the misdeed
c. Child understands the meaning of rules
d. Child obeys blindly
1004. Which of the following reasons of measuring student achievement is not valid?
a. To prepare feedback on the effectiveness of the learning process
b. To certify that students have attained a level of competence in a subject area
c. To discourage students from cheating during test and getting high scores
d. To motivate students to learn and master the materials they think will be covered by the
achievement test
1005. Which characterizes the perfectionist type of students?
a. Does not volunteer or initiate
b. Give up easily
c. Rarely complete tasks
d. Often anxious, fearful or frustrated about quality of work
1006. When a school decides to work on a thematic curriculum which should be out of the picture?
a. Peer collaboration
b. Integration
c. Team teaching
d. Competition
1007. Positive interdependence as an element of collaborative learning means that the students must:
280
a. Learn to depend on each other to achieve a goal
b. Depend on the diligent students
c. Help one another in the individual test for everyone to pass
d. Be grouped heterogeneously
1008. Which computer seems to have the most potential for the classroom?
a. Mainframe computer
b. Minicomputer
c. Microcomputer
d. LPC
1009. “No pain, no gain.” This means that:
a. One should be penitent every Friday by carrying his cross
b. Only those willing to carry the crosses imposed can share the joy of life
c. The more suffering in this life, the more one is assured of heaven
d. One should look for suffering to save himself/herself
1010. Which interactive teaching should be avoided?
a. Using multiple response strategy
b. Using “put down” strategy
c. Asking more divergent questions
d. Asking more evaluative questions
1011. Which is in line with equitable access to education but runs counter to quality?
a. Selective retention of students
b. Deregulated tuition fee hike
c. Open admission
d. Program accreditation
1012. A negative discrimination index means that:
a. The items could not discriminate between the lower and upper group
b. More from the lower group answered the test items correctly
c. More from the upper group answered the test item correctly
d. Less from the lower group got the test item correctly
1013. For brainstorming to be effective which one should be out?
a. Making use of the others ideas shared
b. Teacher’s judge mental attitude
c. Non-threatening atmosphere
d. Openness to idea
1014. Which statement on spaced and massed learning is correct?
a. Massed learning is better than spaced learning
b. Massed learning is as effective as spaced learning
c. Spaced learning is better than massed learning
d. Both massed learning and spaced learning are not effective
1015. Which of the following measures should a teacher do to a principal whom she would like to file a
case of sexual harassment without violating the relationship of the teacher and her superiors?
a. Write an anonymous letter to a higher school official to denounce the superior
b. Present the case before a competent authority and prepare to prove the charge
c. Call a parent-teacher meeting and denounce the superior
d. Encourage the other teachers and students to hold a demonstration to oust the superior
1016. Pick out the situation that illustrates the duty of a new teacher to the state:
a. Take a long vacation which she firmly believes she deserves after four years of diligent study
before taking the examination for teachers
b. Take the licensure examination for teacher and an oath to do her best to help carry out the
policies of the state
c. Apply for teaching job where eligibility is not required to gain teaching experience before
taking the teachers board examination
d. Prepare for the wedding she and her boyfriend have long planned to able to raise a family
with children which they plan to rear as good citizen of our country
1017. Parents are up in arms on the telephone bills that pay for sex calls. What is the solution to this
problem?
281
a. The telephone company is to blame for this
b. Parents, school and students should discuss this openly
c. The government restriction have no teeth
d. Parents allow this to make their children modern
1018. Cooperative is encouraged in as many groups as possible. What agency controls the different
cooperatives?
a. Security and Exchange Commission
b. Department of Local Government
c. Commission on Audit
d. Bureau of Cooperative
1019. Society and media know drinking starts off drug addiction. What should be discussed in schools?
a. Nobody drinks at home except father
b. Drug addiction has been traced to drinking wine
c. TV ads show drinking is a source of fellowship
d. High taxes on liquor will be deterrent to eventual drug use
1020. Cooperatives have branched out to consumers cooperative. Schools have included the concepts
of cooperatives. Where is it practiced?
a. School book stores
b. Schools uniform purchases
c. School canteen
d. Class stores
1021. A student collapsed in her social studies class. It was found out that he did not eat her lunch.
What principle is shown in the situation?
a. Psychological need
b. Physiological need
c. Psychosomatic
d. Safety need
1022. The main function of a philosophy of education is to:
a. Aid the learner to build his own personal philosophy
b. Reconsider existing educational goals in the light of society’s needs
c. Provide the academic background prerequisite to learning
d. Define the goals and set the direction for which education is to strive
1023. Teachers and students can participate in levels of computer use. Give the order of computer use
from simplest to complex?
a. Computer competency, computer literacy, competency expertise
b. Computer literacy, computer competency, computer expertise
c. Computer literacy, computer expertise, computer competency
d. Computer competency, computer expertise, computer literacy
1024. Which is one role of play in the pre-school and early childhood years?
a. Develops competitive spirit.
b. Separates reality from fantasy.
c. Increases imagination due to expanding knowledge and emotional range.
d. Develops the upper and lower limbs.
1025. Student Z does not study at all but when the Licensure Examination for Teachers (LET) comes,
before he takes the LET, he spends one hour or more praying for a miracle, i.e. to pass the exam.
Which attitude towards religion or God is displayed?
a. Religion as fake
b. Religion as magic
c. Religion as authentic
d. Religion as real
1026. As a teacher, you are a rationalist. Which among these will be your guiding principle?
a. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything.
b. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the full.
c. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven.
d. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a better future.
282
1027. All men are pretty much alike. It is only by custom that they are set apart, said one Oriental
philosopher. Where can this thought be most inspiring?
a. In a multi-cultural group of learners
b. In multi-cultural and heterogeneous groups of learners and indigenous peoples' group
c. In a class composed of indigenous peoples
d. In heterogeneous class of learners
1028. Teacher A discovered that his pupils are very good in dramatizing. Which tool must have helped
him discover his pupils' strength?
a. Portfolio assessment
b. Performance test
c. Journal entry
d. Paper-and-pencil test
1029. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT
fall under __________.
a. intelligence test
b. aptitude test
c. criterion-referenced test
d. norm-referenced test
1030. In a social studies class, Teacher I presents a morally ambiguous situation and asks his students
what they would do. On whose theory is Teacher I's technique based?
a. Kohlberg
b. Bandura
c. Piaget
d. Bruner
1031. 8. Which is a sound classroom management practice?
a. Avoid establishing routines
b. Establish routines for all daily needs and tasks.
c. Apply rules and policies on a case to case basis.
d. Apply reactive approach to discipline.
1032. A sixth grade twelve-year old boy comes from a dysfunctional family and has been abused and
neglected. He has been to two orphanages and three different elementary schools. The student
can decode on the second grade level, but he can comprehend orally material at the fourth or
fifth grade level. The most probable cause/s of this student's reading problem is/are
__________.
a. emotional factors
b. poor teaching
c. neurological factors
d. immaturity
1033. Teacher U teaches to his pupils that pleasure is not the highest good. Teacher's teaching is
against what philosophy?
a. Realism
b. Hedonism
c. Epicureanism
d. Empiricism
1034. With which goals of educational institutions as provided for by the Constitution is the
development of work skills aligned?
a. To develop moral character
b. To teach the duties of citizenship
c. To inculcate love of country
d. To develop vocational efficiency
1035. Direct instruction is for facts, rules, and actions as indirect instruction is for ____, _______,
_______.
a. hypotheses, verified data and conclusions
b. concepts, patterns and abstractions
c. concepts, processes and generalizations
d. guesses, data and conclusions
283
1036. To elicit more student's response, Teacher G made use of covert responses. Which one did she
NOT do?
a. She had the students write their response privately.
b. She showed the correct answers on the overhead after the students have written their
responses.
c. She had the students write their responses privately then called each of them.
d. She refrained from judging on the student's responses.
1037. What should you do if a parent who is concerned about a grade his child received compared to
another student's grade, demands to see both students' grades?
a. Refuse to show either record.
b. Show both records to him.
c. Refuse to show any record without expressing permission from principal.
d. Show only his child's records.
1038. John Watson said: Men are built not born. What does this statement point to?
a. The ineffectiveness of training on a person's development.
b. The effect of environmental stimulation on a person's development.
c. The absence of genetic influence on a person's development
d. The effect of heredity.
1039. A guest speaker in one graduation rites told his audience: "Reminder, you are what you choose to
be." The guest speaker is more of a/an __________.
a. realistic
b. pragmatist
c. idealist
d. existentialist
1040. The best way for a guidance counselor to begin to develop study skills and habits in
underachieving student would be to __________.
a. have these underachieving students observe the study habits of excelling students
b. encourage students to talk about study habits from their own experiences
c. give out a list of effective study approaches
d. have them view film strips about various study approaches
1041. Principal C shares this thought with his teachers: Subject matter should help students
understand and appreciate themselves as unique individuals who accept complete responsibility
for their thoughts, feelings, and actions. From which philosophy is this thought based?
a. Perennialism
b. Essentialism
c. Existentialism
d. Progressivism
1042. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line to
connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed __________.
a. compact disc search
b. manual search
c. on-line search
d. computer search
1043. Teacher W wants to review and check on the lesson of the previous day? Which one will be most
reliable?
a. Having students identify difficult homework problems.
b. Having students correct each other's work.
c. Sampling the understanding of a few students.
d. Explicitly reviewing the task-relevant information necessary for the day's lesson.
1044. During the Spanish period, what was/were the medium/media of instruction in schools?
a. The Vernacular
b. English
c. Spanish
d. Spanish and the Vernacular
1045. With indirect instruction in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
284
a. Problem solving
b. Lecture-recitation
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Discovery
1046. I combined several subject areas in order to focus on a single concept for inter-disciplinary
teaching. Which strategy/method did I use?
a. Problem-entered learning
b. Thematic instruction
c. Reading-writing activity
d. Unit method
1047. In his second item analysis, Teacher H found out that more from the lower group got the test
item # 6 correctly. This means that the test item __________.
a. has a negative discriminating power
b. has a lower validity
c. has a positive discriminating power
d. has a high reability
1048. Which is a teaching approach for kindergarten that makes real world experiences of the child
the focal point of educational stimulation?
a. Montessori approach
b. traditional approach
c. Eclectic approach
d. Situational approach
1049. The use of mnemonics helps a pupil’s ___________ information.
a. analyze
b. understand
c. apply
d. remember
1050. Which program was adopted to provide universal access to basic education to eradicate
illiteracy?
a. “Paaralan sa Bawat Barangay”
b. Education for All
c. Values Education Framework
d. Science and Education Development Plan
1051. Teacher Z instructs her class to refer to the dictionary in correcting their spelled words.
Which particle is exemplified?
a. Curriculum indigenization
b. Computer assisted instruction
c. Multi level instruction
d. Self evaluation
1052. In research, which is the dependent variable?
a. Stimulus
b. Input
c. Attribute
d. Predictor
1053. What is the mean of this score distribution: 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10?
a. 8.5
b. 6
c. 7.5
d. 7
1054. Which statement correctly applies to student who got a score of 72 in the test?
a. He surpassed the scores of 72 students
285
b. He correctly answered 72% of the items in the test
c. He obtained a raw score of 72
d. He answered only items in the test
1055. Which measure (s) of central tendency can be determined by mere inspection?
a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Mode & Median
1056. It is not wise to laugh at a two year old child when he utters bad words because in his stage he is
learning to:
a. Consider other’s views
b. Distinguish right and wrong
c. Socialize
d. Distinguish sex differences
1057. Mothers who demand their 3 to 5 children to spend their time in serious academic study forget
that early childhood is the
a. questioning age
b. pre school age
c. initiative age
d. toy age
1058. Which refers to a single word or phrase that tells the computer to do something with a
program or file?
a. Computer program
b. Command
c. Password
d. Computer language
1059. To determine student’s entry knowledge and skills that test should be given?
a. Aptitude
b. Standardized
c. Diagnostic
d. Placement
1060. What is the mode in the following score distribution: 96, 97, 98, 97, 93, 90, 89, 97,
81, and 80?
a. 96
b. 98
c. 97
d. 33
1061. If a teacher is concerned with the development of student’s higher order thinking skills, his
lesson objectives must go beyond.
a. Analysis
b. Recall
c. Comprehension
d. application
1062. Which statement on counseling is FALSE?
a. The ultimate goal of counseling is greater happiness on the part of the counselee.
b. For counseling to be successful, the counselee is willing to participate in the process.
c. The school counselor is primarily responsible for counseling
d. Counseling is the program that includes guidance.
286
1063. A test item has a difficulty index of .81 and discrimination index of .13. What should the test
constructor do?
a. Retain the item
b. Make it a bonus item
c. Revise the item
d. Reject the item
1064. Which is the final, indispensable component of a lesson plan?
a. Assignment
b. References
c. Activity
d. Evaluation
1065. For mastery of learning in a certain subject, which type of testing is appropriate?
a. Formative testing
b. Criterion reference testing
c. Aptitude testing
d. Norm reference testing
1066. Which is NOT included in item analysis?
a. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score
b. Identifying the highest score
c. Determining the cut off score
d. Determine the effectiveness of distracters
1067. The first thing to do in constructing a periodic test is for a teacher to.
a. decide on the type of test to conduct
b. go back to her instructional objective
c. decide on the number of items for the test
d. study the content
1068. The strengthening of liberal education which includes classical literature in the curriculum is
based on the thought of the
a. rationalists
b. hedonists
c. humanists
d. stoics
1069. Which statement of human right is CORRECT?
a. Human rights are unlimited.
b. Human right is a moral power not a physical power.
c. All human rights are inalienable.
d. Human right is might.
1070. Which is an example of an alienable right?
a. Right to possess a house through inheritance
b. right to life
c. Right to alms
d. Right to marry
1071. It is an area of philosophy which deals on the nature of knowledge and the best methods of
teaching is
a. Epistemology
b. Metaphysics
c. Ethics
d. Aesthetics
287
1072. To occupy a government position, one has to pass an examination on Confucian thought. From
whom did this influence come?
a. Hebrews
b. Chinese
c. Hindus
d. Greeks
1073. Who was a strong supporter of inclusive education and “education for all” concept?
a. Dewey
b. Hegel
c. Rousseau
d. Kung fu tsu
1074. A son put a time bomb in the luggage of his mother who took it abroad a Philippine airline. The
bomb exploded while the airplane was in flight killing the mother and forty other passengers.
Although the motive of the criminal act was never revealed by the son, he aroused suspicion,
when he named himself beneficiary to an insurance policy he had previously taken out on his
mother’s life. Was the son accountable for the death of his mother and the other passengers?
a. Yes. He may have been directly interested only in the insurance money but directly as
foreseen consequence, he willed the death for all passengers.
b. No. He did not directly the death of his mother and the other passengers.
c. No, if he refused to get the insurance money after the incident.
d. Yes, if he got the insurance money after the death.
1075. Which software allows teachers and students to write, edit, and polish assignments and reports?
a. Spreadsheets
b. Word processing
c. Database
d. Graphics
1076. To have a test with a wide coverage, power to test analytical thinking and ease of scoring. Which
type should teachers use?
a. Completion
b. Short answer
c. Alternate response
d. Multiple choice
1077. What does a conservative Filipino student experience when she migrates to the United States
and witness for herself public display of affection?
a. Acculturation
b. Culture shock
c. Colonial mentality
d. Enculturation
1078. In what way can teachers uphold the highest possible standards of quality education?
a. By working out undeserved promotions.
b. By putting down other professions to lift the status of teaching
c. Wearing expensive clothes to change people’s poor perception of teachers
d. By continually improving themselves personally and professionally
1079. Which learning activity is most appropriate if teacher’s focus is attitudinal change?
a. Field trip
b. Role play
c. Game
d. Exhibit
288
1080. Which questioning practice promotes more class interaction?
a. Asking rhetorical questions.
b. Focusing on convergent actions.
c. Focusing in divergent questions.
d. Calling a student to answer before asking the question
1081. Which holds true to norm reference testing?
a. comparing individual’s performance to the average performance of a group
b. Determining tasks that reflect instructional objectives
c. Constructing test items in term of instructional objective
d. Identifying an acceptable level of mastery in advance
1082. The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that
a. twenty five is the average of the score distribution.
b. twenty five is the score that occurs least.
c. twenty five (25) is the score that occurs most
d. there is no score of 25.
1083. If a teacher gets the difference between the highest and lowest score, he obtains the
_______
a. range
b. standard deviation
c. level of difficulty
d. median
1084. Which one described the percentile rank of a given score?
a. The percent of cases of a distribution within the given score
b. The percent of cases of a distribution above the given score
c. The percent of cases of a distribution below and above a given score
d. The percent of cases of a distribution below the given score
1085. To the rationalist, which is the highest faculty of a man?
a. Senses
b. Reason
c. Emotion
d. Will
1086. The index of difficulty of a particular test is .10. What does this mean? My student’s
___________.
a. found the test item was neither easy nor difficult
b. performed very well against expectation
c. were hard up in that item
d. gained mastery over that item
1087. Jose reads WAS for SAW or D for P or B. from his reading behavior, one can say that
Jose suffers from ___________.
a. dysgraphia
b. dyslexia
c. dysphasia
d. dyspraxia
1088. If you want a child to eliminate an undesirable behavior, punish him. This in accordance with
Thorndike’s law of ____________.
a. multiple response
b. reinforcement
c. exercise
d. effect
289
1089. In which cognitive development stage is a child unable to distinguish between his own
perspective and someone else’s?
a. Pre operational stage
b. Concrete operational stage
c. Sensorimotor stage
d. Formal operational
1090. Which developmental stage is sometimes called the pre school years?
a. Middle childhood
b. Adolescence
c. Early childhood
d. Late Infancy
1091. According to Piaget’s theory, in which developmental stage can the child do symbolic thinking
and go beyond the connection of sensory information and physical action?
a. Pre operational
b. Concrete operational
c. Formal operational
d. Sensorimotor
1092. In which competency do the students find greatest difficulty? In the item with the difficulty
index of __________.
a. 0.10
b. 0.90
c. 1.00
d. 0.50
1093. What psychological principle is invoked when a teacher connects the new lesson to the one just
completed so that the student may gain a holistic view of the subject?
a. Conceptualization
b. Recognition
c. Stimulation
d. Apperception
1094. Which teaching method is intended primarily for skill and concept mastery by way of practice?
a. Project
b. Supervised study
c. Drill
d. Review
1095. What is the possible effect of an overcrowded curriculum?
a. In depth learning tends to be given greater emphasis
b. Lifelong learning skills tend to be fully developed
c. There is lack of personal analysis and reflection on major concepts
d. There is greater concept of understanding
1096. Teacher D begins her lesson with concrete life experiences then leads her students to
abstraction. Which method does she employ?
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. Transductive
d. Intrusive
1097. The Department of Education gives greater emphasis on the development of basic skills. What is
the philosophical basis for this?
a. Essentialism
b. Existentialism
290
c. Perennialism
d. Pragmatism
1098. Teacher M views his students as unique, free-choosing and responsible individuals. All classroom
activities revolve around the said premise. What theory underlies this?
a. Essentialism
b. Existentialism
c. Progressivism
d. Realism
1099. Religious rituals in the classroom and in the school programs prove the deep natural religiosity
of the Filipinos. Which philosophy has greatly contributed to the tradition?
a. Buddhism
b. Confucianism
c. Hinduism
d. Islam
1100. In order to make Roman education truly utilitarian, how should the day-to-day lessons be
taught?
a. Taught in the students' native dialect
b. Taught interestingly through the play way method
c. Related and linked to the events happening in everyday life
d. Practiced at home under the guidance of their respective parents.
1101. Which influenced the military training requirements among students in the secondary and
tertiary levels?
a. Chinese
b. Greeks
c. Orientals
d. Romans
1102. Which philosophy has the educational objective to indoctrinate Filipinos to accept the teachings
of the Catholic Church which is foster faith in God?
a. Realism
b. Pragmatism
c. Idealism
d. Existentialism
1103. Virtue as one component in the teaching of Rizal as a course focuses on the teaching of good
and beauty consistent with the good and beauty in God. What philosophy supports this?
a. Existentialism
b. Idealism
c. Progressivism
d. Social Reconstructionism
1104. Giving education the highest budgetary allocation, the Philippine government recognizes the
possible contribution of its future citizens to the national development goals of the Philippine
society. Which stressed this goal of education for social transformation?
a. Athenian education
b. Followers of Christ
c. Greek education
d. Roman education
1105. The progressivists emphasized the individuality of the child. What is the concern of the
reconstructionists?
a. Experiential learning
b. Socialization
291
c. Social problem
d. Social Interaction
1106. One of the following quotations does not conform to the Christian doctrine of Education for
Humanitarianism. Which one is it?
a. Do unto others as you would like others do unto you
b. Love they neighbor as thyself
c. Not on bread alone is man to live but on every utterance that comes from mouth of God
d. Whatever good things we do to our poor, helpless brothers, we do it for God.
1107. Scouting and Citizen's Army Training (CAT) give training in character-building, citizenship
training, etc. Which leads to the creation of a new social order and a new society eventually.
What philosophy supports this?
a. Existentialism
b. Perennialism
c. Progressivism
d. Social reconstructionism
1108. Teacher V demonstrated the technique on how to group students according to their needs and
interests and how to use self-paced instructional materials. Which philosophy is manifested in
this activity?
a. Essentialism
b. Progressivism
c. Realism
d. Social Reconstructionism
1109. Teacher G, a Christian Living teacher, puts so much significance on values development and
discipline. What could be her educational philosophy?
a. Idealism
b. Pragmatism
c. Progressivism
d. Realism
1110. Which one does not illustrate the principle that rights and duties are correlative?
a. The right of an unmarried pregnant teacher to abort her baby in relation to her duty to
protect her name and her job as a teacher
b. The right of a state to compel students to military service is reciprocated by the duty of the
state to protect them.
c. The right to a living wage involves the duty of the school administrators to give the salary
agreed upon and the duty of the teachers to give a fair amount of work.
d. The right to life of children and to be given respect of such right.
1111. Why should a teacher take the obligation upon himself to study and understand the custom and
traditions of the community where he works?
a. To change the culture of the community.
b. To have a sympathetic attitude for the people of the community.
c. To identify the weaknesses of the culture of the community.
d. To please the people of the community.
1112. A teacher who is a recognized expert in carpentry works, taught his students how to prepare
and construct good and aesthetic furniture from local resources. What cultural transmission
process is this?
a. Acculturation
b. Enculturation
c. Indoctrination
d. Observation
292
1113. Every first day of the school year, Miss Reyes prepared activities which will make her Grade 2
children, sing, plan, learn and introduce themselves to the class. What process did the teacher
emphasize?
a. Acculturation
b. Enculturation
c. Indoctrination
d. Socialization
1114. Which program in the educational system seems to be aligned to the Christian humanitarian
principle respect for the human personality?
a. The alternative learning system delivery
b. The functional literacy program for the out-of-school youth and adults
c. The promotion of the basic human rights of the Filipino
d. The study of the Philippine Constitution
1115. With a death threat over his head, Teacher Liza is directed to pass an undeserving student, if she
is a hedonist, which of the following will she do?
a. Don't pass him, live her principle of justice. She will get reward, if not in this life, in the next.
b. Don't pass him. She surely will not like someone to give you a death threat in order to pass.
c. Pass the student. That will be of use to her, the student and his parents.
d. Pass the student. Why suffer the threat?
1116. Which philosophy approves a teacher who lectures most of the time and requires his students
to memorize the rules of grammar?
a. Existentialism
b. Idealism
c. Pragmatism
d. Realism
1117. In a student conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they would prefer if given a
choice. Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative
to the state are schools seemed to be failing?
a. Instill allegiance to the constitutional authorities
b. Promote national pride
c. Promote obedience to the laws of the state
d. Respect for all duly constituted authorities.
1118. Which subject in the elementary and likewise in the secondary schools are similar to the goal of
Rome to train the students for citizenship?
a. Communication ARts
b. MAPEH/PEHMS
c. Science
d. THE/TLE
1119. Which of the following schools practices is not based on Social Reconstructionism?
a. Establishment of SDF
b. Exemption of Scouts from CAT
c. Promoting culture and arts in schools
d. Promoting project WOW
1120. Which of the following is the focus of the Japanese education in the Philippines?
a. Democratic ideals and nationalism
b. Love and service to one's country
c. Religion and love for Asian brothers
d. Vocational and health education
293
1121. According to reconstructionism, the goal of education is to bring about a new social order.
Which practice best manifests this view?
a. The class conducts scientific experiments to discover or verify concepts.
b. The class discusses role models and their impact on society.
c. The class allowed to engage in divergent thinking.
d. The class undertakes well-planned projects in the community.
1122. Teacher A, a Values Education teacher emphasizes ethics in almost all her lessons. Which of the
following emphasizes the same?
a. Liberal Education
b. Moral Education
c. Religious Training
d. Social Education
1123. Which reform in the Philippine Educational System advocates the use of English and Filipino as
media of instruction in specific learning areas?
a. Alternative Learning
b. Bilingual Education
c. K-12 Program
d. Multilingual Education
1124. Activities planned by school clubs/ organizations show school-community connection geared
towards society's needs. What philosophy is related to this?
a. Existentialism
b. Progressivism
c. Realism
d. Social reconstructionism
1125. What philosophy is related to the practice of schools acting as laboratory for teaching reforms
and experimentation?
a. Essentialism
b. Existentialism
c. Progressivism
d. Social Reconstructionism
1126. Which of the following situations presents a value conflict?
a. The teacher and his students have class standing as their priorities.
b. The teacher and the administrator follow a set of criteria in giving grades.
c. The teacher has students whose parents want their children to obtain higher grades
than what they are capable of getting.
d. The teacher sets high expectations for intelligent students such as getting higher grades.
1127. Which situation shows that a sense of nationhood is exemplified?
a. The class conducted a debate using Filipino as medium
b. The class is required to watch the TV sitcom of Oprah to improve their English communication
skills.
c. The class opted to make a choral rendition of the theme song of a foreign movie.
d. When Teacher Chris asked her Grade 2 students in what country they wish to live, most of
them chose United States.
1128. A teacher who believes in the progressivist theory of education would embrace certain reforms
on methodology. Which reform would be consistent with this theory?
a. Active participation of teachers
b. Formal instructional pattern
c. Strict external discipline
d. Teacher domination of class activities
294
1129. What philosophy of education advocates that the curriculum should only include universal and
unchanging truths?
a. Essentialism
b. Idealism
c. Perennialism
d. Pragmatism
1130. Which of the following is not a function of the school?
a. Changing cultural practices
b. Development of attitudes and skills
c. Reproduction of species
d. Socialization among children
1131. Which move liberalized access to education during Spanish period?
a. The education of illiterate parents
b. The establishment of at least one primary school for boys and girls in each municipality
c. The hiring of tribal tutors to teach children
d. The provision of vocational training for school age children
1132. Which of the following is the chief aim of Spanish education?
a. Conformity and militarism
b. Perpetuation of culture
c. Propagation of the Catholic religion
d. Utilitarianism and conformity
1133. Which of the following is the aim of our education during the Commonwealth period?
a. Designed after Japanese education
b. Patterned after the American curriculum
c. Predominantly religious
d. Purely nationalistic and democratic
1134. Which of the following is not a reason why the basic education curriculum has been
restructured?
a. To become globally competitive during this industrial age
b. To be relevant and responsive to a rapidly changing world
c. To empower the Filipino learners for self- development throughout their life.
d. To help raise the achievement level of students
1135. Which philosophy of education influence the singing of the National Anthem in schools?
a. Nationalism
b. Naturalism
c. Pragmatism
d. Socialism
1136. Who among the following believes that learning requires disciplined attention, regular
homework, and respect for legitimate authority?
a. Essentialist
b. Progressivist
c. Realist
d. Reconstructionist
1137. Which of the following is the main function of the philosophy of education?
a. Reconsider existing educational goals in the light of society's needs
b. Provide the academic background prerequisite to learning
c. Define the goals and set the direction for which education is to strive
d. Aid the learner to build his own personal philosophy
295
1138. Homeroom advisers always emphasize the importance of cleanliness of the body. Children are
taught how to wash their hands before and after eating. What is this practice called?
a. Folkway
b. Laws
c. Mores
d. Social norm
1139. Which curricular move served to strengthen spiritual and ethical values?
a. Integration of creative thinking in all subject
b. Introduction of Values education as a separate subject area
c. Reducing the number of subject areas into skill subject
d. Re-introducing science as a subject in Grade 1
1140. The greatest happiness lies in the contemplative use of mind, said Plato. Which of the following
activities adheres to this?
a. Cooperative learning
b. Instrospection
c. Role Playing
d. Social Interaction
1141. Your teacher is of the opinion that the word and everything in it are ever changing and so
teaches you the skill to cope with the changes. Which in his governing philosophy?
a. Experimentalism
b. Existentialism
c. Idealism
d. Realism
1142. Teacher Myra says: "If it is billiard that brings students out of the classroom, let us bring it into
the classroom. Perhaps, I can use it to teach Math". To which philosophy does teacher Myra
adheres to?
a. Essentialism
b. Idealism
c. Progressivism
d. Reconstructionism
1143. Which of the following should be done to build a sense of pride among Filipino youth?
a. Replace the study of folklores and myths with technical subjects
b. Re-study our history and stress on our achievements as people
c. Re-study our history from the perspective of our colonizers
d. Set aside the study of local history
1144. A teacher who subscribes to the pragmatic philosophy of education believes that experience
study should follow learning in her teaching. Which of the following does she do to support her
belief?
a. Encouraging learners to memorize factual knowledge
b. Equipping learners with the basic abilities and skills
c. Providing learners opportunities to apply theories and principles
d. Requiring learner’s full master of the lesson.
1145. Which philosophy influenced the cultivation of reflective and meditative skills in teaching?
a. Confucianism
b. Existentialism
c. Taoism
d. Zen Buddhism
296
1146. Of the following situation manifests a balance between teacher’s responsibility and
accountability?
a. She entertains her students with personal stories until the end of the period.
b. She spends most of the time on the latest gossips in showbiz.
c. She teaches as much as she could for duration of the period.
d. She teaches as well as entertains the students with per personal stories.
1147. Dr. Escoto, the school physician conducted a physical examination in Ms. Manuel's class. What
concept best describes the quantitative increase observed by Dr. Escoto among learners in
terms of height and weight?
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Learning
d. Maturation
1148. Which situation best illustrates the concept of growth?
a. A kinder pupil gains 2 pounds within two months.
b. A high school student gets a score of 85 in mental ability test.
c. An education student has gained knowledge on approaches and strategies in teaching
different subjects
d. An elementary grader has learned to play piano.
1149. Which statements below best describes development?
a. A high school student's height increased by 5'2" to 5'4"
b. A high school student's change in weight from 110 lbs. to 125 lbs.
c. A student had learned to operate the computer
d. A student's enlargement of hips
1150. What concept can best describes Francisco's ability to walk without a support at age of 12
months because of the "internal ripening" that occured in his muscles, bones and nervous
system development?
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Learning
d. Maturation
1151. Teacher Jesus in now 69 years old has been observing changes in himself such as the aging
process. Which term refers to the development change in the individual?
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Learning
d. Maturation
1152. Manuel, a five-year old boy can hold his pen and write his name with his right hand. Which term
describes Manuel's action/ behavior?
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Learning
d. Maturation
1153. Which of the following theory can help Miss Samson determine the readiness of her learners by
administering a readiness test?
a. Conditioning Theories
b. Cognitive Development Theory
c. Maturation Theory
d. Ethological Theory
297
1154. Mr. Francisco was very much worried about the thumb sucking of his son. A friend of him says
that certain behavior among infants. Who presented that notion that certain behavior like
thumb-sucking is normal behavior?
A. Sigmund Freud
b. Erick Ericson
c. John Bowlly
d. Urie Bronfrenbenner
1155. A newborn infant move his whole body at one time, instead of moving a part of it. Which of the
following principles is illustrated by his behavior?
a. Development proceeds from specific to general.
b. Development proceeds from general to specific.
c. Development follows an orderly pattern.
d. Development follows a general pattern.
1156. Train up a child in the way he should be; when he grows up, he will not depart from it. Which
principle supports this?
a. Development is determined by his heredity
b. Development is determined by the environment
c. Early development is more critical than the late development
d. Early development is less critical than late development.
1157. Which state of the psycho-sexual theory does young boys experience rivalry with their father for
their mother's attention and affection?
a. Oral
b. Anal
c. Phallic
d. Latency
1158. Angela focuses her attention on the school work and vigorous play that consume most of her
physical energy. Which stage of psychosexual theory illustrates her behavior?
a. Oral
b. Anal
c. Phallic
d. Latency
1159. Which of the following is likely to be developed if infants are shown genuine affection?
a. Trust
b. Autonomy
c. Initiative
d. Industry
1160. Christian develops an integral and coherent sense of self. He seeks answers to the question.
"Who am I"? Which of the following is Christian likely to develop?
a. Initiative
b. Identity and Role Confusion
c. Intimacy
d. Autonomy
1161. Ms. Reyes uses images and language to represent and understand her various lessons to
preschool learners. What stage in the cognitive theory of development explains this?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operation
d. Formal operation
298
1162. Connie develops concepts necessary for everyday living, builds healthy attitudes towards
oneself, and achieve personal independence. These are among the attributes of an individual in
what particular stage?
a. Infancy and early childhood
b. Middle childhood
c. Adolescence
d. Early adulthood
1163. Some children are more active than others, as everyone knows-extremely high levels of activity
or hyperactivity are considered problematic. How may a teacher help a child who is hyperactive?
a. Make him the leader of the class
b. Transfer him to another class
c. Give him challenging activities that are appropriate to his ability level and interests.
d. Allow him to spend longer at the playground until he gets tired.
1164. Tessa gets jealous whenever she sees her father showing love and affection to her mother.
Which of the following is she showing according to Freud?
a. Complex
b. Phallic
c. Electra Complex
d. Oedipus Complex
1165. In Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development, which of the following statements would illustrate
Edward who is 11 years old?
a. Able to see relationships and to reason in the abstract.
b. Unable to breakdown a whole into separate parts.
c. Differentiates goals and goal-directed activities.
d. Experiments with methods to reach goals.
1166. Trisha goes with her mother in school. She enjoys the workplace of her mother. Which of the
following ecological theories is illustrated by the situation?
a. Microsystem
b. Mesosystem
c. Exosystem
d. Macrosystem
1167. Lito, a student in secondary level tends to spend more time with his friends and his family, thus,
his behavior is greatly affected by them. In which stage in the Psychosocial Stages of
Development does Lito belong?
a. Autonomous vs Shame and Doubt
b. Identity vs. Role Confusion
c. Intimacy vs. Isolation
d. Initiative vs. Guilt
1168. Anna believes that authority is respected. She is now in what particular level in moral
development theory of Lawrence Kholberg?
a. Social contract
b. Law and order orientation
c. Interpersonal concordance
d. Universal ethics orientation
1169. What level has a four year old learner like Maryann reached when she acquired new skills such
as putting the same shapes and the same colors together?
a. Development
b. Maturation
299
c. Zone of Proximal Development
d. Learning
1170. Which of the following principles can be the basis of the growing realization of the significance
of the early childhood education?
a. The young children are capable of doing many things at an early stage.
b. The child should be seen and should learn.
c. The first five years of life are the formative years of the child.
d. Early childhood experiences can be interesting and challenging.
1171. Which of the following learner's characteristics will affect most of the learners learning in the
academic class?
a. His affective characteristics
b. His cognitive characteristics
c. His psychomotor characteristics
d. His socio-emotional characteristics
1172. Which of the following is true about human development?
a. Human development considers both maturation and learning.
b. Development refers to the progressive series of changes of an orderly coherent type toward
the goal of maturity.
c. Development is the gradual and orderly unfolding of the characteristics of the individuals as
they go through the successive stages of growth.
d. All of the above
1173. What do you call the quantitative increase in terms of height and weight as observed by the
school physician during the physical examination of the students?
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Learning
d. Maturation
1174. Mrs. Gomez conducts research on the psychosocial domain of development. In what particular
area of the child's development is Mrs. Gomez most likely to be interested with?
a. Perceptual abilities
b. Brain-wave patterns
c. Emotions
d. Use of language
1175. Which of the following is the correct order of psychosexual stages proposed by Sigmund Freud?
a. Oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency stage, genital stage
b. Anal stage, oral stage, phallic stage, latency stage, genital stage
c. Oral stage, anal stage, genital stage, latency stage, phallic stage
d. Anal stage, oral stage, genital stage, latency stage, phallic stage
1176. What is the best description of Erickson's psychosocial theory of human development?
a. Eight crises all people are thought to lace
b. Four psychosocial stages in latency period
c. The same number of stages as Freud's, but with different names
d. A stage theory that is not psychoanalytic
1177. In Erickson's theory, what is the unresolved crisis of an adult who has difficulty establishing a
secure, mutual relationship with a life partner?
a. Initiative vs. Guilt
b. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
c. Intimacy vs. Isolation
d. Trust vs. Mistrust
300
1178. Alyssa is eight years old, and although she understands some logical principles, she still has
troubles in understanding hypothetical concepts. According to Piaget, Alyssa belongs to what
particular stage of cognitive development?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operational
d. Formal operational
1179. Which of the following provides the best broad description of the relationship between heredity
and environment in determining height?
a. Heredity is the primary influence, with environment affecting development only in severe
situations.
b. Heredity and environment contribute equally to development
c. Environment is the major influence on physical characteristics.
d. Heredity directs the individual's potential and environment determines whether and to what
degree the individual reaches the potential.
1180. What is the correct sequence of prenatal stages of development?
a. Embryo, germinal, fetus
b. Germinal, fetus, embryo
c. Germinal, embryo, fetus
d. Embryo, fetus, germinal
1181. When a baby realized that a rubber duck which has fallen out of the tub must be somewhere on
the floor, he is likely to achieved what aspect of cognitive development?
a. Object permanence
b. Deferred imitation
c. Mental combinations
d. Goal-directed behavior
1182. Which of the following will be Freud's description of the child's behavior if he has biting, sarcastic
manner?
a. Anally expulsive
b. Anally retentive
c. Fixated in the oral stage
d. Experiencing the crisis of trust vs. mistrust
1183. What is Freud's idea about a young boy's guilt feelings brought about by jealousy of his father's
relationship with his mother?
a. Electra complex
b. Oedipus complex
c. Phallic complex
d. Penis envy complex
1184. When a little girl who says she wants her mother to go on vacation so that she can marry her
father, Freud believes that he is voicing a fantasy consistent with?
a. Oedipus complex
b. Electra complex
c. Theory of mind
d. Crisis of initiative vs. Guilt
1185. Which of the following can best describe the preschooler's readiness to learn new task and play
activities?
a. Emerging competency and self-awareness
b. Theory of the Mind
301
c. Relationship with parents
d. Growing identification with others
1186. James noted that when the preschoolers eagerly begin many new activities but are vulnerable to
criticism and feelings of failure, they are experiencing what particular crisis?
a. Identity vs. Role Confusion
b. Initiative vs. Guilt
c. Basic trust vs. mistrust
d. Efficacy vs. Helplessness
1187. What stage of Piaget's Cognitive Development does a person belong to when he can understand
specific logical ideas and apply them to concrete problems?
a. Preoperational thought
b. Operational thought
c. Create operational thought
d. Formal operational thought
1188. What is the best explanation of Piaget's concrete operational thought to describe the school-age
child's mental ability?
a. A child can reason logically about things and events he or she perceives.
b. A child's ability to think about how he thinks
c. Can understand that certain characteristics of an object remain the same when other
characteristics are changed
d. Can understand that moral principles may supersede the standards of society.
1189. Elisa who is in between 9 and 11 years of age are most likely to demonstrate moral reasoning at
which Kohlberg's stage?
a. Pre-conventional
b. Conventional
c. Post-conventional
d. None of the above
1190. According to Kohlberg, a dutiful citizen who obeys the laws set down by society is at which level
of moral reasoning?
a. Pre-conventional Stage One
b. Pre-conventional Stage Two
c. Conventional
d. Post-conventional
1191. Ana, who is low-achieving, shy and withdrawn, is rejected by most of her peers. Her teacher
wants to help Ana increase her self-esteem and social acceptance. What can Joy's teacher
suggest to her parents?
a. Transfer her to a different school
b. Help their daughter improve her motor skills
c. Help their daughter learn to accept more responsibility for her academic failures
d. Help their daughter improve her skills in relating to peers
1192. What is the most accurate definition of puberty stage?
a. Rapid physical growth that occurs during adolescence
b. Stage when sexual maturation is attained.
c. Rapid physical growth and sexual maturation that ends childhood
d. Stage when adolescents establish identifies separate from their parents.
1193. Fifteen year old Marie is preoccupied with her "disgusting appearance" and seems depressed
most of the time. What is the best thing her parents can do to help her get through this difficult
time?
a. Ignore her self-preoccupation because their attention would only reinforce it.
302
b. Encourage to "shape up" and not give in the self-pity
c. Kid her about her appearance in the hope that she will see how silly she is acting.
d. Offer practical advice, such as clothing suggestions, to improve her body image.
1194. What can be the best comparison of the behavior of a 17 year old girl to that of her 13 year old
brother?
a. She is more likely critical about herself
b. She tends to be more egocentric.
c. She had less confidence in her abilities.
d. She is more capable of reasoning hypothetically.
1195. According to Erikson, what is the primary task of adolescent?
a. To establish trust
b. To search for his identity
c. To be more intimate with others
d. To establish integrity
1196. What is the main source of emotional support for most young people who are establishing
independence from their parents?
a. Older adolescents of the opposite sex
b. Older sibling
c. Teachers
d. Peer groups
1197. Which theory operates on the "stimulus-response principle", which means all behaviors are
caused by external stimuli?
a. Contextual theory
b. Behaviorist theory
c. Cognitive theory
d. Constructivist theory
1198. Ms. Erika in her Biology class accompanies her discussion with interesting visual aids. She strongly
believes that students learn better when lessons are presented with images, real or imagined
aside from mere lecture method. Which learning theory does she upholds?
a. Dual-Coding Theory
b. Information Processing Theory
c. Meaningful Reception Learning Theory
d. Social Cognitive Theory
1199. Miss Rita is an excellent Physical Education teacher. She started teaching volleyball to her Grade
2 class. Despite all her efforts, her class does not seem to learn how to play the game. What law
of learning was disregarded?
a. Law of Disuse
b. Law of Effect
c. Law of Exercise
d. Law of Readiness
1200. Teacher jay, a physical education teacher, demonstrates the new skill to be learned so that his
students can watch him and later reproduce the skill. What learning theory is associated with the
situation?
a. Dual-Coding Learning Theory
b. Information Processing
c. Schema Learning Theory
d. Social Learning
1201. Patrice is always fearful of freely roaming dogs but does not mind dogs in a pen or on a leash.
What feature of classical conditioning is exhibited?
303
a. Discrimination
b. Extinction
c. Generalization
d. Practice
1202. A music teacher is careful in planning activities for each lesson. He praises liberally and rewards
correct answers. What view of learning is exhibited?
a. Classical conditioning
b. Meaningful learning
c. Operant conditioning
d. Social learning
1203. Which of the theories of learning presents or states that learning skills are hierarchically
arranged?
a. Cumulative Learning
b. Meaningful Learning
c. Social Cognitive Learning
d. Theory of Instruction
1204. Which of the following best describes what meaningful learning is?
a. When what is to be learned is new and easy for the students
b. Materials presented are difficult and challenging to the students
c. When the materials to be learned is related to what students already know
d. Students find the lessons easy and relevant to what was assigned to them
1205. Rita easily remember dates and events in history. What component of LTM does Rita have?
a. Creative thinking
b. Critical thinking
c. Reflective thinking
d. Logical thinking
1206. An Earth Science has just completed a unit on the sun. As she recognizes her next unit on other
stars, she uses the sun as a frame of reference. What view of learning was used?
a. Discovery learning
b. Informative learning
c. Meaningful learning
d. Transfer learning
1207. Which is an application of cognitive approach to motivation?
a. Explain the reasons for studying the topic
b. Create a supportive classroom climate for students
c. Provide clear and prompt feedback on assignments
d. Begin lessons with challenging questions and conflicting events
1208. The first people power was held in February 25, 1986. What kind of knowledge is presented?
a. Conditional Knowledge
b. Cognitive Knowledge
c. Domain-Specific Knowledge
d. Procedural Knowledge
1209. The students of Mrs. Reyes were not able to learn the concepts that she presented yesterday so
she taught the same concepts again but this time using a different teaching method. What
principle of learning was applied?
a. Concepts should be presented in varied and different ways
b. Effort was put forth when tasks are challenging
c. Learning by doing is more effective than just by sitting and listening
d. Learning is aided by formulating and asking questions
304
1210. Alvin is a transferee and feels uneasy with his new school. His teacher is very accommodating,
warm and caring. Alvin felt comfortable with the teacher display of genuine warmth. The teacher
is consistent in his manner and Alvin began to associate school with the teacher's warmth. Which
theory is being illustrated?
a. Meaningful learning
b. Operant conditioning
c. Classical conditioning
d. Observational learning
1211. After just being introduced to another guest in the party, Tom cannot remember the name of the
guest he was introduced to. In what memory stage was the information stored in?
a. Episodic memory
b. Semantic memory
c. Sensory memory
d. Working memory
1212. Vygotsky claimed that social interaction is important for learning. What does this imply?
a. Children are independent problem solvers
b. Children learn from adults and other children
c. Children learn by passive presentation of information
d. Children in the crib has no learning yet, since they are not capable of interaction
1213. How would you help a student who is intelligent but is underachieving in class?
a. Provide challenging activities which he/she can accomplish
b. Recognize his talents by asking him/her to help other students with their work
c. Identify the immediate causes of difficulties that cause his/her being an underachiever
d. Allow him/her to work with the slow learner group to cope with the academic needs of the
lesson.
1214. Mrs. Corpuz always makes sure that her pre-school classroom is well organized and clean. She
puts up interesting and colorful visuals on the bulletin boards. What principle of motivation was
applied?
a. Incentives motivate learning
b. Internal motivation is longer lasting and more self-directive than is external motivation
c. Motivation is enhanced by the way in which instructional material is organized.
d. The environment can be used to focus the student's attention on what needs to be learned.
1215. For every correct answer, the teacher would give a star to her students. What schedule of
reinforcement was used?
a. Fixed interval
b. Fixed ratio
c. Variable interval
d. Variable ratio
1216. Marga, a six year old, always asked her playmates to sit in front of her small black board and she
plays teacher. Her mother is a teacher. What theory explains Marga's behavior?
a. Classical Conditioning
b. Operant Conditioning
c. Social Learning
d. Information Processing
1217. What should the teacher do to help students learn psychomotor skills?
a. Teacher uses verbal explanation and description of the movements in addition to live
demonstration of the movements
b. Teacher provides feedback to the learner about his/her progress
c. Teacher encourages the learner to practice, in order to maintain his/her sharpness of the
305
movements
d. All of the above
1218. The teacher presented a new lesson where in the students were asked to work on a new project
which was somewhat complicated. The students showed interest while working on the project.
What principle applies to the situation?
a. Effort was put forth when tasks are challenging
b. Lessons should be presented in varied and different ways
c. Meaningful materials are readily learned than nonsense materials
d. Teachers should provide opportunities for meaningful and appropriate practice
1219. Maturation should precede certain types of learning. How is this applied in the classroom?
a. Concepts should be taught from simple to complex
b. Consider the age level of students in assigning tasks
c. Follow the interest of students in assigning tasks
d. Give the same task to all students in a particular grade level
1220. Luz easily learns a lesson when she is working with laboratory equipment but hardly remembers
a lesson the teacher lectured on. What type of learner is Luz?
a. Auditory Learner
b. Kinesthetic Learner
c. Tactile Learner
d. Visual Learner
1221. Which of the following statements about motivation is false?
a. External motivation is longer lasting and more self-directive than internal motivation
b. Internal motivation is fueled by one's goals or ambitions
c. Motivation is enhanced by the way in which the instructional material is organized
d. Motivation to perform is affected by expectancy and value
1222. Which of the following principles of learning applies to considering student's age in presenting
certain content and cognitive processes?
a. Principle of readiness
b. Principle of learning by doing
c. Principle of presenting challenging tasks
d. Principle of learning aided by formulating and asking questions
1223. Among components of a morally mature person, which demonstrate that a teacher seeks
peaceful resolution of conflict?
a. Doing community work
b. Fulfilling commitments
c. Accepting responsibility for choices
d. Working peace/reconciliation
1224. What mistake is teacher Benny trying to avoid when he never drops a topic before it is
completed?
a. Non-directional topic
b. Dangling topic
c. Bounded topic
d. Non-assessed topic
1225. Which of the following refer to teamwork among teachers in classroom teaching?
a. Peer evaluation
b. Peer teaching
c. Peer assessment
d. Peer discussion
1226. What is being shown by teachers who ignore slow-learners and take pride in the work of fast
learners?
a. Hurling invectives
306
b. discrimination
c. cursing
d. bullying
1227. Of the goals of education, which relates to the strengthening of our society’s sense of belonging
and identity?
a. Autonomy
b. Enculturation
c. Citizenship
d. Moral character
1228. With closeness to direct experience as standard, which one should a teacher choose?
a. Dramatized experience
b. Demonstration
c. Contrived experiences
d. Study trip
1229. What is aroused among viewing learners by dramatic educational films in what is known as “cliff
hangers”?
a. Significance
b. Relevance
c. Expectancy
d. Satisfaction
1230. Of the following, which is a form of direct experience?
a. Internet research
b. Preparation of learning materials
c. Role playing
d. Village interview
1231. In using Essay Question, what of the following are these tests susceptible to, such as to make
them less reliable to measure board knowledge of the subject matter?
a. Guessing
b. Cheating
c. Bluffing
d. Time consuming
1232. What is known as learning a new word by studying its roots and reflexes?
a. Phonetic analysis
b. Contextualizing
c. Structural analysis
d. Morphology
1233. In cognitive learning, what are firmly established and thoroughly tested principles or theories?
a. Concept
b. Hypothesis
c. Facts
d. Laws
1234. On cluster of meaning learning activities, which does NOT belong to bodily kinesthetic learning
activities?
a. Dance
b. Hands-on demonstration
c. Role-playing
d. Story telling
1235. In the 5’S formula to create a conducive learning environment, which S stands for cleanliness of
the work place?
a. Shine
b. Sweep
c. Systematized
d. Sort
1236. Which of the following classroom climate is less threatening?
a. Individualistic
b. Autocratic
307
c. Cooperative
d. Competitive
1237. To what cause is generally blamed the failure of independent study among Filipino students?
a. Late schooling
b. Lack of reading materials
c. Hyper active children
d. High dependence on authority
1238. Which is the highest in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
a. Health and safety
b. Self- actualization
c. Self esteem
d. Socialization
1239. Upon which philosophy is the basis of the Back-to-Basic movement?
a. Existentialism
b. Progressivism
c. Behaviorism
d. Essentialism
1240. Which program directly embodied both the pre-service and in-service programs for Teachers?
a. Basic Education Sector Reform Agenda (BESRA)
b. Basic Education Curriculum
c. K-12 Program
d. Teacher Education Development Program (TEDP)
1241. What role does the teacher assumes as a “sage on the stage”?
a. Facilitator of learning
b. Authority to impose rules
c. Dispenser of knowledge
d. Mentor to student
1242. Which is vital to education for the building of a testing culture of peace in this world?
a. Learning to do
b. Learning to know
c. Learning to be
d. Learning to live together
1243. What is the most fundamental moral principle?
a. Do not steal
b. Do not kill
c. Do good and avoid evil
d. Ontological approach
1244. How can mastery of the multiplication table be best taught?
a. Game
b. Discussion
c. Drill
d. Simulation
1245. What facet of photography is training on how subjects are properly framed by the camera?
a. Lighting
b. Composition
c. Focus
d. Depth of held
1246. What does Fascism as state rule connote?
a. Respect of civic rights
b. Dictatorship
c. Benevolent activity goals
d. Respect of human rights
1247. What does it mean if the difficulty index of an item is 1?
a. Very difficult
b. Missed by everyone
c. Very easy
308
d. quality item
1248. John Dewey, Rouseau, Pestallozi and Froebel have greatly influenced the development of:
a. Child-friendly design curriculum
b. Problem centered design curriculum
c. Humanistic design curriculum
d. Subject centered design curriculum
1249. What are behaviors that school expect all students to know and follow?
a. Procedure
b. Standards
c. Goals
d. Rules
1250. In SPED, what is the chair arrangement that is effective for students grouped and working
together based on personality and work style?
a. Full circle
b. Cooperative
c. Horseshoe or U-shape
d. Cooperation
1251. It refers to the nature of child, his psychological and physiological endowments?
A. Starting Principles
B. Guiding Principles
C. Assessing Principles
D. Ending Principles
1252. According to him, intelligence is the ability to adjust to new environment?
a. Stern
b. Colvin
c. Terman
d. Gardner
1253. According to Thorndike's Classification of Intelligence, it is a capacity to respond symbols,
letters, etc.?
a. Abstract
b. Mechanical
c. Concrete
d. Social
1254. It is the blending sensation caused by the profound and widespread changes in the body?
a. Manipulation
b. Imitation
c. Emotion
d. Play
1255. He states that the mind has mental power such as memory, reason, judgment, etc.?
a. Cristian Wolf
b. Thorndike
c. Watson
d. Pavlov
1256. It is a natural desire of the individual to learn?
a. Extrinsic
b. Learning by conditioning
c. Insight
d. Intrinsic
1257. It is a response which has been exercise and rewarded most recently is the one which likely to
occur?
a. Law of Recency
b. Law of Effect
c. Law of Exercise
d. Law of Frequency
1258. Level of questioning uses "tying up" questions, what is it?
a. Critical
309
b. Interpretative
c. Integrative
d. Comprehensive
1259. It is a starting point of learning.
a. Lesson Plan
b. Objective
c. Questioning
d. Motivation
1260. This is obtained from the sweet smile of the child who was helped from his daily contributions to
the classroom?
a. A process of praise and encouragement
b. An artistic achievement
c. Self-satisfaction and fulfillment
d. A process of transformation
1261. Which situation best illustrates the concept of growth?
a. A kinder pupil gains 2 pounds within 2 months
b. A high school student gets a score of 85 in a mental ability test
c. An education student has gained knowledge on approaches and strategies in teaching
different subject
d. An elementary graded has learned to play piano
1262. Marlin, who is low-achieving, shy, and withdrawn, is rejected by most of her peers. Her teacher
wants to help Joy increase her self-esteem and social acceptance. What can Marlyn’s teacher
suggest to her parents?
a. Transfer her to a different school
b. Help their daughter improve her motor skills
c. Help their daughter learn to accept more responsibility for her academic failures
d. Help their daughter improve her skills relating to peers
1263. Fifteen-year-old RJ is preoccupied with her “disgusting appearance” and seems depressed most
of the time. What is the best thing her parents can do to help her get through this difficult time?
a. Ignore her self-preoccupation because their attention would only reinforce it
b. Encourage to “shape up” and not give in to self-pity
c. Kid her about her appearance in the hope that she will see how silly she is acting
d. Offer practical advice, such as clothing suggestions, to improve her body image
1264. Which statement below best describes development?
a. A high school student’s height increased from 5’2” to 5’4”
b. A student had learned to operate the computer
c. A high school students’ change in weight from 110 lbs to 125lbs
d. A students’ enlargement of hips
1265. Teacher Rhea teaches in a remote high school where newspapers are delivered irregularly.
Knowing the importance of keeping the students aware of current affairs, what is probably the
best way to keep the students updated?
a. Gather back issues of newspapers and let pupils compile them
b. Urge the pupils to listen to stories circulating in the community
c. Encourage the pupils to listen to daily broadcast from a transistor radio
d. The teacher should try all available means to get the newspaper delivered to the school
1266. Which of the following characterizes a well-motivated lesson?
a. The class is quite
b. c. The teachers can leave the pupils to attend to some activities
c. The children have something to do
d. d. There are varied procedures and activities undertaken by the pupils
1267. Learners must be developed not only in the cognitive, psychomotor but also in the affective
aspect. Why is the development of the latter also important?
a. It helps them develop a sound value system
b. c. It helps them develop an adequate knowledge of good actions
c. Their actions are dominated by their feelings
d. Awareness of the consequences of their action is sharpened
310
1268. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Lesson plan should be in constant state of revision
b. A good daily lesson plan ensures a better lesson
c. Students should never see a teacher using a lesson plan
d. All teachers regardless of their experience should have daily lesson plan
1269. Which of the following best describes what meaningful earning is?
a. When what is to be learned is new and easy for the students
b. Materials presented is difficult and challenging to the students
c. When the materials to be learned is related to what students already know
d. Students find the lessons easy and relevant to what was assigned to them
1270. What is NOT a technique in motivating learners?
a. The teacher is building on the students strengths first
b. The teacher offers choices to develop students’ ownership
c. Provide a secure environment which permits children to fail without penalty
d. Encourage them to take opportunities beguilingly
1271. Vgotsky claimed that social interaction is important for learning. What does this imply?
a. Children are independent problem solvers
b. Children learn from adult and other children
c. Children learn well by passive presentation of information
d. Children in the crib has no leaning yet, since they are not capable off interaction
1272. Which is NOT a provision for the development of each learner in a good curriculum?
a. Extensive arrangements are made for the educational diagnosis of individual learners
b. Self-directed, independent study is encouraged wherever possible and advisable
c. Self-motivation and self-evaluation are stimulated and emphasized throughout the learning
opportunities of the school
d. The program provides a wide range of opportunities for individuals with same abilities,
needs, and interest
1273. Teacher Rukla would like to take part in developing a subject-centered curriculum because she
believes that all subjects in this type of curriculum are geared towards the holistic development
of the learner. Is her belief about the subject centered curriculum true?
a. Yes, because the subject-centered curriculum focuses on the learner’s needs, interests,
abilities
b. No, because it is the experience-centered curriculum that emphasizes the teaching of facts
and knowledge for future use
c. Yes, because the subject-centered curriculum involves cooperative control
d. No, because it is the experience centered and not the subject-centered curriculum that
emphasizes integration of habits and skills in learning the knowledge component of a
subject area
1274. A stakeholder in curriculum development, Mr. Gin, a district supervisor and a member of the
school board has one of the following primary roles. Which one is this?
a. Support and participate in parent –school organization activities
b. Authorize school expenditures for curriculum development, implementation and evaluation
c. Enact legislations to effect curriculum development
d. Recommend changes in curriculum
1275. Which of the following statements has a very limited definition of educational technology?
a. It is a profession composed of various job categories
b. It refers to the computer used for teaching and learning
c. It includes audiovisual materials, interactive multimedia, and self-instructional materials
d. It is the development, application, and evaluation of systems, techniques and aids to
improve human learning
1276. Mr. Chad, an ICT teacher, takes into account technology standards to address the needs of the
students and help them adapt with the changing society and technology. Which of the following
standards is an exception?
a. Creativity and innovation
b. Model digital-age work and learning
c. Research and information literacy
311
d. Technology operations and concepts
1277. Mr. Uryu, a computer teacher demonstrates understanding of local and global issues and exhibits
ethical and legal use of information and communication technology tools. Which is true about
him?
a. He models digital-age work learning
b. He facilitates and inspires student learning and creativity
c. He promotes and models digital citizenship and responsibility
d. He designs and develops digital-age learning experience and assessment
1278. There are several reasons why teachers are reluctant in using electronic media in the teachinglearning
process. Which is the most common reason?
a. The limited exposure of teachers to new equipment
b. Their incompatibility to diverse needs of the learners
c. The difficulty in integrating technology in the curriculum
d. The excessive availability of local technology in the community
1279. You targeted that after interaction, your student should be able to show their ability to solve
problems with speed and accuracy. You then designed a tool to measure this ability. What
principle of assessment did you consider in this situation?
a. Assessment should be based on clear and appropriate learning targets or objectives
b. Assessment should have a positive consequence on students’ learning
c. Assessment should be reliable
d. Assessment should be fair
1280. Why should a teacher take the obligation upon himself to study and understand the custom and
traditions of the community where he works?
a. To change the culture of the community
b. To identify the weaknesses of the culture of the community
c. To have a sympathetic attitude for the people of the community
d. To please the people of the community
1281. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they prefer if given a choice.
Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative to the
state are schools seemed to be failing?
a. Instil allegiance to the constitutional authorities
b. Promote obedience to the laws of the state
c. Promote national pride
d. Respect for all duly constituted authorities
1282. A teacher who subscribes to the pragmatic philosophy of education believes that experience
should follow learning in her teaching. Which of the following does she do to support her belief?
a. Encouraging learners to memorize factual knowledge
b. Providing learners opportunities to apply theories and principle
c. Equipping learners with the basic abilities and skills
d. Requiring learners full mastery of the lesson
1283. Which of the following is NOT a function of the school?
a. Changing cultural practices
b. Reproduction of species
c. Development of attitude and skills
d. Socialization among children
1284. Teacher Unohana, a values education teacher emphasizes ethnics in almost all her lessons. Which
of the following emphasizes the same?
a. Liberal education
b. Moral education
c. Religious training
d. Social education
1285. How is gradual progression of teachers’ salary from minimum to maximum done?
a. Regular increment every year
b. Regular increment every 3 years
c. Increment after 10 years of service
d. Increment after 5 years
312
1286. Which of the following rights is intended for parents under education act of 1982?
a. The right to academic freedom
b. The right to seek redress of grievance
c. The right to privacy communication
d. The right to full access to the evidence of the case
1287. When can teacher be required to work on assignment not related to their duties?
a. When on probation
b. When lacking in educational qualifications
c. When found inefficient
d. When compensated under existing laws
1288. Teacher Momo, a graduate of BSEd with majorship in English teaches in a national high school in
her province. Since she has been rated outstanding in her performance, can she be exempted
from taking the LET?
a. Yes, that is privilege that must be given to teachers whose performance is outstanding
b. Yes, if approved by PRC
c. No, it is against RA 7836
d. No, professional license is required of all teachers regardless of age and teaching
performance
1289. What is the concern of multicultural education?
a. Anticipating the future and imagining possible and probable futures
b. Gender equality and harnessing of the role of women in development
c. Promoting care for the environment and building a global culture of ecological responsibility
d. The exploration of concepts of cultural diversity, similarities, and prejudices to promote
cultural understanding
1290. A class is composed of students coming from several ethnic communities including Muslims and
Lumads. They seem to have difficulty understanding each other’s behavior and points of view.
What should the teacher do?
a. Introduced multiculturalism in the class and provide activities for practice
b. Threaten the students that if there are students who do not behave and tolerate their
classmates, they will be dropped from class
c. Inform students that they will all be learning new ways of thinking and behaving in this class,
so they might as well leave their cultural idiosyncrasies at home
d. Assign bright students to monitor and control behavior of poor students
1291. Which of the following is the first target of the Millennium Development Goals (MDG’s)
formulated by member states of the UN in September 2000?
a. Reduce child mortality
b. Reduce death due to HIV/AIDS and malaria
c. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
d. Achieve universal access to primary education
1292. UNICEF and UNESCO are two key UN agencies which are particularly active advocates of
education of peace. Which of the following is not supported by UNESCO in promoting peace in
the schools?
a. Uphold children’s basic rights as outlined in the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)
b. Develop a climate that models peaceful and respectful behavior among all members of the
learning community
c. Demonstrate the principle of equality and non-discrimination in administrative policies
d. Enable the teachers to stress peace-making in social studies classroom only when necessary
1293. Which of these statements regarding professional teachers is the major difference in the
professionalism of teachers and teaching as promulgated in Presidential Decree 1006 and in
Republic Act 7836?
a. Holder of valid professional license and certificate of registration
b. Appointed of full time basis and permanent status
c. Assigned at the elementary and secondary levels in both public and private schools
d. Assigned at the tertiary level in both private and state colleges and universities
1294. Which principle of development is manifested in the saying “as the tree is bent, so shall it grow”,
that is an “a person’s actions reflect the training he receives as a child”?
313
a. The early formative years are more crucial than later development
b. Development is determined by the environment or how one is nurtured
c. Development is determined by heredity or one’s inherent nature
d. It is never too late to teach a child new ways
1295. Should a teacher involve her/his students in planning the instructional objectives before starting
a lesson?
a. Yes, they will be given a tip on what question to ask
b. Yes, with shared objectives, they become self-motivated
c. No, they will not ready for it at the beginning
d. No, with cognitive objectives at the start, irrelevant questions are formulated
1296. What is the advantage of using the project method in science teaching?
a. It requires assistance of experts on the subject
b. It develops high-level thinking and learning
c. It tests the students manipulative skills
d. It requires students to present in concrete form how principle works
1297. The heroism of Jose Rizal exemplifies kholberg’s theory of moral development. Which is Rizal’s
characteristic?
a. He gives important to what people think or say
b. He is motivated to act by the benefit he gets later
c. He believes laws that are wrong can be changed
d. He possesses moral responsibility to make social changes regardless of consequences to one
self
1298. As a parent at the same time a teacher, which of the following will you do to show your
cooperation to a PTA project in your school to be financed with the proceeds of the sales from
the school canteen where foods process are a little bit higher?
a. Bring baon enough for you and your children even if you really don’t like to do it
b. Buy all your food from the school canteen even if you cannot afford everyday
c. Buy all your food in the school canteen but request for a discount
d. Bring baon but always make it a point to buy something from the school
1299. When a teacher practices professional ethics, which of the following he is not likely to do?
a. Shares an outstanding outcome or undertaking with others
b. Resects his superior
c. Maintain cordial relationship with colleagues
d. Engages in gossips
1300. Which of the following will you do if somebody confided to you an offense which will implicate
your brother?
a. Advise the person who confided to you to get the services of the lawyer
b. Encourage him to keep quite so as not to implicate your brother
c. Find out the full account of the matter
d. Tell him to report the matter to the authorities
1301. A police officer informs you that there has been a rush of stealing within the vicinity of the
school. He asks you for the names of some clients you believe might have been involved. Which
of the following will you do?
a. Provide him with the names of likely suspects
b. Ask him to seek permission from the principal
c. Remind the police officer of confidentiality of information
d. Promise him that you will ask information about the crime
1302. Parents and teachers are considered as authorities and models by children at the early childhood
stage. What does this statement imply?
a. Parent-teacher conference should always be an activity in school
b. Teachers and parents should serve as a role model at all times
c. Teachers should demand complete obedience from the learners in school
d. Parents should enforce strict discipline at home and teachers in school
1303. According to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, between ages 12 and 15 children reach
formal operational stage. What are they capable of doing at this stage?
a. Can solve abstract problems and think deductively
314
b. Can focus on one aspect of a situation or event
c. Reasoning is neither inductive nor deductive
d. Intelligence is intuitive in nature
1304. Field trip is an effective way of teaching where organisms could be observed in their natural
habitat, active and responding to stimuli in the environment. In addition, what values are
developed among the students during and after the trip?
a. On-the-spot observation to keep them active
b. Love of nature, proper behavior during exploration
c. Freedom in an open space than in classroom
d. Considerations of the rights of the others
1305. How can a teacher enhance his/her questioning technique for an effective teacher-student
interaction?
a. Immediately call another student in case one cannot answer
b. Allow sufficient “think time” at least 7-10 seconds
c. You may answer your own question if no one can
d. Extend wait time until the student responds
1306. A teacher who advocates the pragmatic philosophy of education believes that experience should
follow learning, thus she has to:
a. Equip her students with basic skills and abilities
b. Provide her students to apply their skills and abilities
c. Encourage her students to memorize facts
d. Require her students mastery of the lesson
1307. The teacher’s role in the classroom according to cognitive psychologist is to:
a. Help the learner to connect what he knows with the new information learned
b. Dictate what the learners need to know
c. Fill in minds of the learner with information
d. Make the learning task easy for the learner
1308. Instructional objectives in the affective domain includes receiving, responding, valuing and the
highest level is:
a. Selective attention or willingness to receive
b. Acceptance or preference
c. Conceptualization of a value system
d. Sequence or feelings of satisfaction
1309. An education for globalization should nurture the higher order cognitive skill and interpersonal
skills in order to develop
a. Students’ awareness of the world in which they live inn
b. Ability to think creatively and ethically
c. Ability to master one’s national origin
d. Openness to diverse heritage and culture
1310. On which policy is RA 4670 known as the Magna Carta for Public School Teachers Focused?
a. Right to establish or join organization
b. Code of ethics for professional teachers
c. Recruitment shall take place after training
d. To promote and improve anti-social economic status of public school teachers
1311. The following are the characteristics of a good teaching/learning practice except:
a. Students are governed by fixed and rigid standards
b. Life-like situations introduces as learning experiences in classroom
c. Students are given more opportunities or act or experience learning
d. Evaluation is made an integral part of teaching procedures
1312. Which of the following principles highlights that of multiple intelligence?
a. People have different Intelligence Quotient(IQ)
b. Learning is static and permanent
c. Intelligence is measured in multiple forms
d. Best learning theory is cognitive in nature
1313. Which of the following is not a developmental principle?
315
a. Development follows an orderly, predictable sequence
b. Early development is more crucial than later development
c. Numerous studies show how individual develops
d. Presence of social expectations in early developmental stage
1314. Which questioning technique would be appropriate for inductive lessons?
a. Questioning only the more motivated students
b. Using questions requiring only memory responses
c. Activity involving students in the questioning process
d. Teachers will not ask any questions
1315. Which of these is not quality of a good teacher?
a. A mastery of the subject matter
b. Aims to become rich thru teaching
c. Broad background of liberal education
d. Understand the nature of learners
1316. To accomplish many good activities in a particular class period, the teacher must provide?
a. Additional curricular activities
b. Institute a systematic plan
c. Provide unique teaching aids
d. Use of expensive materials
1317. One way to encourage a student who lacks interest in reading to love reading is to:
a. Reprimand him
b. Ask the parents to buy books
c. Provide reading materials
d. Isolate him
1318. If the teachers encounters a student who is reluctant to attend classes, the teacher should____
to encourage him to go to class regularly.
a. Report the matter to principle
b. Praise the student sincerely
c. Scold him
d. Report the matter to the parents
1319. Which of the following situation would indicate that you, as a teacher, had been effective in
instilling discipline among your students?
a. Students have develop concern to each other
b. Students behave because an award awaits them
c. Fear and fright resulting in good behavior
d. Your presence results in their being behave
1320. Which of the following style or technique would make you the teacher a good classroom
manager, “teacher with eyes on the back of her head”?
a. Give your students the “head-to-toe” look when angry
b. Fear and fright dominates the classroom atmosphere
c. Uses eye contact technique with your students
d. Being aware of all actions and activities in the classroom
1321. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the sensomotor stage?
a. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skill.
b. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering.
c. Activities for hypothesis formulation.
d. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with.
1322. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day, longer
academic year and more challenging textbooks?
a. Perennialist
b. Essentialist
c. Progressivist
d. Existentialist
1323. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line to
connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed __________.
a. compact disc search
316
b. manual search
c. on-line search
d. computer search
1324. With synthesizing skills in mind, which has the highest diagnostic value?
a. Essay test
b. Performance test
c. Completion test
d. Multiple choice test
1325. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the concrete operational
stage?
a. Activities for hypothesis formulation.
b. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering.
c. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skills.
d. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with.
1326. Which is NOT a sound purpose for asking questions?
a. To probe deeper after an answer is given.
b. To discipline a bully in class.
c. To remind students of a procedure.
d. To encourage self-reflection.
1327. A child who gets punished for stealing candy may not steal again immediately. But this does not
mean that the child may not steal again. Based on Thorndike's theory on punishment and
learning, this shows that __________
a. punishment strengthens a response
b. punishment removes a response
c. punishment does not remove a response
d. punishment weakens a response
1328. As a teacher, you are a reconstructionist. Which among these will be your guiding principle?
a. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a better future
b. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the full.
c. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven.
d. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything.
1329. How can you exhibit expert power on the first day of school?
a. By making them feel you know what you are talking about.
b. By making them realize the importance of good grades.
c. By reminding them your students your authority over them again and again.
d. By giving your students a sense of belonging and acceptance.
1330. A sixth grade twelve-year old boy comes from a dysfunctional family and has been abused and
neglected. He has been to two orphanages and three different elementary schools. The student
can decode on the second grade level, but he can comprehend orally material at the fourth or
fifth grade level. The most probable cause/s of this student's reading problem is/are
__________.
a. emotional factors
b. poor teaching
c. neurological factors
d. immaturity
1331. Teacher Q does not want Teacher B to be promoted and so writes an anonymous letter against
Teacher B accusing her of fabricated lies Teacher Q mails this anonymous letter to the Schools
Division Superintendent. What should Teacher Q do if she has to act professionally?
a. Submit a signed justifiable criticism against Teacher B, if there is any.
b. Go straight to the Schools Division Superintendent and gives criticism verbally.
c. Hire a group to distribute poison letters against Teacher B for information dissemination.
d. Instigate student activists to read poison letters over the microphone.
1332. In self-directed learning, to what extent should a teacher's scaffolding be?
a. To a degree the student needs it.
b. None, to force the student to learn by himself.
317
c. To the minimum, to speed up development of student's sense of independence.
d. To the maximum, in order to extend to the student all the help he needs.
1333. Which guideline must be observed in the use of prompting to shape the correct performance of
your students?
a. Use the least intrusive prompt first.
b. Use all prompts available.
c. Use the most intrusive prompt first.
d. Refrain from using prompts.
1334. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he is
learning to __________.
a. consider other's views
b. distinguish sex differences
c. socialize
d. distinguish right from wrong
1335. In a treatment for alcoholism, Ramil was made to drink an alcoholic beverage and then made to
ingest a drug that produces nausea. Eventually, he was nauseated at the sight and smell of
alcohol and stopped drinking alcohol. Which theory explains this?
a. Operant conditioning
b. Social Learning Theory
c. Associative Learning
d. Attribution Theory
1336. Which is a true foundation of the social order?
a. Obedient citizenry
b. The reciprocation of rights and duties
c. Strong political leadership
d. Equitable distribution of wealth
1337. As a teacher, what do you do when you engage yourself in major task analysis?
a. Test if learning reached higher level thinking skills.
b. Breakdown a complex task into sub-skills.
c. Determine the level of thinking involved.
d. Revise lesson objectives.
1338. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they preferred, if given a choice.
Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative to the
state, do schools seem to be failing? In their obligation to __________.
a. respect for all duly constituted authorities
b. promote national pride
c. promote obedience to the laws of the state
d. instill allegiance to the Constitution
1339. What is most likely to happen to our economy when export continuously surpasses import is a
thought question on __________.
a. creating
b. relating cause-and-effect
c. synthesizing
d. predicting
1340. The child fainted in your class because she has not eaten her breakfast. What is the best thing for
you to do in this situation?
a. Ignore the situation
b. Comfort the child
c. Give the child food
d. Call the parent
1341. The old adage “Do not do to others what you want others do to you” is a teaching of?
a. Lao Tzu
b. Confucius
c. Mohammad
d. Buddha
318
1342. Which is unethical for teachers to do?
a. obeying the legitimate policy of the school administration
b. cordial relation parents
c. refusing to serve in worthwhile neighborhood activities as these will adversely affect her
teaching
d. conferring with the next of kin about the problems and needs of a student
1343. Which characteristic of a good test will pupils will assured of when a teacher constructs a table of
specification for test construction purpose?
a. Scorability
b. Reliability
c. Economy
d. Content validity
1344. Which of the following is the most important contribution of Gestalt psychology to the theories
of learning?
a. Cognitive insights
b. Use of the multimedia approaches
c. Concept of readiness
d. Importance of reinforcement in the learning process
1345. Which statement on test result interpretation is CORRECT?
a. a raw score by itself is meaningful
b. A student’s score is a final indication of his ability
c. The use of statistical technique gives meaning to pupil’s score
d. Test scores do not in any way reflect teacher’s effectiveness
1346. This embodies the teacher’s duties and responsibilities as well as the proper behaviour in
performing them?
a. Code of Ethics for teachers
b. Magna Carta for Public School Teachers
c. Bill of Rights
d. Philippine Constitution of 1987
1347. Which applies when there are extreme scores?
a. The median will not be very reliable measure of central tendency
b. The mode will be the most reliable measure of central tendency
c. There is no reliable measure of central tendency
d. The mean will not be very reliable measure of central tendency
1348. What does a negatively skewed score contribution imply?
a. The scores congregate on the left side of the normal contribution curve
b. The scores are widespread
c. The students must be academically poor
d. The score congregate on the right side of the normal contribution curve
1349. The more in direct the classroom instruction, the more ______________ it is.
a. Topic focused
b. Student centered
c. Teacher centered
d. Individualized
1350. Which terms to the act of educating a child with special education needs partially in a special
education classroom and partially in regular classroom?
a. Mainstreaming
b. Inclusion
c. Individualization
d. Head Start
319
1351. It is good to give students challenging and creative tasks because
a. development is aided by stimulation
b. the development of individual is unique
c. development is effective by cultural changes
d. development is the individual’s choice
1352. The process of one’s thinking to develop critical thinking is known as _________.
a. Metacognition
b. Hypothesizing
c. Reflection
d. Meditation
1353. It is an intensive investigation of a particular individual, institution, community or any group
considered as a unit which includes the development, adjustment, remedial or corrective
procedures that suitably follow diagnosis of the causes of maladjustment or of favorable
behaviors.
a. Experimental
b. Descriptive
c. Historical
d. Case study
1354. Which of the following test is used as a basis in giving grades or rating?
a. Mastery
b. Formative
c. Summative
d. Post test
1355. It is the process of judging an attribute based on certain goals or standards.
a. Counseling
b. Measuring
c. Evaluating
d. Testing
1356. Which of the following criteria is the most important in test construction?
a. Preparation of Table of Specification
b. Items must jive with the objectives
c. Arrange events in occurrence
d. The stem should contain the central problem
1357. Which of the following type of test is not advisable to be used as a diagnostic test?
a. Multiple choice
b. Short response
c. essays
d. true false
1358. Why should negative terms be avoided in the stem of multiple choice items?
a. They may be overlooked
b. It increases the difficulty of scoring
c. It increase the length of the stem
d. They make the construction of alternatives more difficult
1359. It is equivalent to the average score of the group or class?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Standard Deviation
1360. What is the norm of a test?
a. The mean of grouping scores
b. The standard of for adequate performance
320
c. The standard deviation of a group of scores
d. The typical performance of a certain group of individuals who took the test
1361. Which of the following is the most important stage in testing process?
a. Constructing test items
b. Establishing test reliability
c. Improving test items
d. Interpreting test result
1362. What does a Table of Specification establish?
a. construct validity
b. content related validity and criterion reference
c. content validity and construct validity
d. content validity and content related validity
1363. Aura Vivian is one half standard deviation above the mean of his group in arithmetic and one
standard deviation above in spelling. What does this imply?
a. she excels both in spelling and arithmetic
b. She is better in arithmetic than in spelling
c. She does not excel in spelling nor in arithmetic
d. She is better in spelling than in arithmetic
1364. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that
NSAT and NEAT fall under?
a. criterion reference test
b. intelligence test
c. aptitude test
d. norm reference test
1365. These are significant in formation about a student, gathered through the use of various
techniques, assembled, summarize and organized in such a way that they may be used
effectively. What is referred to?
a. Cumulative record
b. Case studies
c. Test profiles
d. personnel inventory
1366. The inclusion of the study of Rizal and other national heroes in the school curriculum in order to
inculcate love of country is based on a(an).
a. pragmatist philosophy
b. existentialist philosophy
c. idealist philosophy
d. realist philosophy
1367. It is an area of philosophy which on the nature of knowledge and the best method of teaching is.
a. Epistemology
b. Ethics
c. Metaphysics
d. Aesthetics
1368. A test is considered reliable if
a. it is easy to score
b. it served the purpose for which it is constructed
c. It is consistent and stable
d. it is easy to administer
1369. Which is an element of norm referenced grading?
a. the student’s pat performance
b. an absolute standard
c. the performance of the group
d. what constitutes a perfect score
321
1370. Mario obtained an NSAT percentile rank of 80. This indicates that
a. He surpassed in performance 80% of her fellow examinees
b. He got a score of 80
c. He surpassed in performance 20% of her fellow examinees
d. He answered 80 items correctly
1371. Which element should be present for brainstorming to be effective?
a. Lax atmosphere
b. Teacher’s non judgmental attitude
c. Teacher’s use of “put down” strategy
d. Threatening atmosphere
1372. Which is a selective reading technique meant at getting important facts very fast?
a. Silent reading
b. Skim reading
c. Oral reading
d. scanning
1373. The study type of reading exercises gives practice in.
a. picking out the main ideas
b. all sorts of study methods
c. reading skills needed in other subjects
d. recognizing the precise meaning of words
1374. Which is the best reason why Mr. Cruz begins a lesson in Math by checking and reviewing on the
previous day’s assignment practice and drills?
a. Prepare the students for the mastery test
b. Make learning interesting and enjoyable for students
c. Check if parents guide their children in the making of assignment
d. Make sure that the students understand the pre requisite skills of the lesson
1375. The test item “Group the following items according to shape” is a thought question on.
a. creating
b. generalizing
c. comparing
d. classifying
1376. Which one should teacher B use if he wants to teach to pupils the relationship among details?
a. Journal entries
b. Story frame
c. Graphic organizers
d. Learning log
1377. “What I hear, I forget. What I see I remember. What I do, I understand.” This means that pupils
learn best when they.
a. learn independently
b. work with groups
c. watch TV
d. take active part in the learning process
1378. Which is a type of graph in which lines represent each score or set of scores
a. Scattergram
b. Histogram
c. Frequency polygon
d. Scatterplot
1379. According to Erikson, identity and role confusion occurs during
A. Elementary Years C. College years
B. High school years D. Preschool years
1380. According to Jerome Bruner, learning is a simultaneous process of acquisition, transformation
and_______________.
322
A. Evaluation C. Metacognition
B. Question D. Education
1381. Who among the following developed the Social Learning Theory?
A. Bandura C. Bruner
B. Kohlberg D. Skinner
1382. When a teacher present a morally ambiguous situation to his students and ask them what to do,
the teacher’s technique is based on the theory of
A. Bandura C. Kohlberg
B. Piaget D. Bruner
1383. According to Maslow, the highest of the need in the Hierarchy of Needs theory is
A. Psychological need C. belongingn
B. Self actualization D. Safety
1384. Based on Freud’s theory, which operates when a person is in the height of anger?
A. Ego C. Id and ego
B. Superego D. Id
1385. Operant conditioning can be applied to classroom by
A. Connecting facts and concepts
B. Fostering conducive learning environment
C. Using reinforcement
D. Using manipulative devices
1386. “Women should not study since they will be marrying soon”. If a father tells his daughter this, can
we consider his premise morally right?
A. Depends on the family social status
B. Yes, women are mean for the home
C. No, women can perform just like men
D. No, there is gender equality in education
1387. In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, teacher Maritel should provide_______________.
A. Activities of hypothesis formulation
B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and order
C. Activities for evaluation purposes
D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with
1388. A student is finding it hard to read. When the guidance counselor traced the child’s history, the
counselor was able to find out that the student came from a dysfunctional family, aside from
that, the child was abused and neglected. What could have caused the student’s reading
disability?
A. Emotional Factors C. Neurological factors
B. Poor teaching D. Immaturity
1389. A child was punished for cheating in an exam. For sure the child wont cheat again in short span of
time, but this does not guarantee that the child won’t cheat ever again Based on Thorndike’s
theory on punishment and learning, this shows that ______________.
A. Punishment strengthens a response
B. Punishment removes response
C. Punishment doesn’t remove a response
D. Punishment weakens a response
1390. Laughing at a two-year-old child who uttered a bad word is not a proper thing to do because in
this stage of the child’s, the child is_______________.
A. Considering the views of others
B. Distinguishing sex references
C. Socializing
D. Distinguishing right from wrong
1391. According to Sigmund Freud, the main proponent of Psychoanalytic Theory, the superego is
mainly concerned with
323
A. The resolution of conflict within the self
B. The finding of greater satisfaction
C. The idea of right and wrong
D. The development of healthy psyche
1392. Modeling is a teaching rooted on______________________ learning theory.
A. Bandura C. Thorndike
B. Skinner D. Bruner
1393. Teacher Marissa would like to employ Operant Conditioning on her students to increase the
probabilities of greater participation during discussion. It is highly possible that teacher Marissa
will
A. Put more emphasis on sharing and consistently guide them to new ideas
B. Allow them to think about thinking
C. Give a star token to those who will participate
D. Let them exercise metacognitive approaches to better understand the topic
1394. One of the traits of many students is putting more emphasis on “porma” over substance. This is
likely to be shown when
A. A written report was submitted by a student with shabby cover but comprehensive content
B. A written report was submitted by a student using “perfumed” stationary but poor content
C. A written report was submitted by a student two days ahead of time
D. A written report was submitted by a student two days late
1395. Providing variety of learning activities to students is a characteristic of a teacher who understand
the principle of
A. Reward as a potential means of increasing the participation
B. Proactive teaching as a modern technique of teaching
C. Facilitating learning with emphasis on individual differences
D. Allowing the student to be exposed to various teaching techniques
1396. The best example of Operant Conditioning among the following is
A. Connecting facts and concepts
B. Fostering conducive learning environment
C. Using reinforcement
D. Using manipulative devices
1397. He is considered as the first special education student.
A. Victor of Aveyron C.Sigmund Freud
B. Tarzan of the Jungle D. Alfred Binet
1398. The Father of modern psychology
A. Carl Jung C. Sigmund Freud
B. Aristotle D. Alfred Binet
1399. He is postulated that man psyche is composed of animus and the anima
A. Karen Horney C. Willism James
B. Carl Jung D. Cattell
1400. He pioneered in NON-Directive Counseling?
A. Thomas Gordon C. Carl Rogers
B. Erik Erikson D. Rousseau
1401. This educator proposed 3 modes of representation, enactive, iconic and symbolic
A. Bandura C. Kounin
B. Kohler D. Bruner
1402. This premier behaviorist once said: Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed and my own
specified world to bring them up in and I’ll guarantee to take any one of random and train him to
become any type of specialist I might select – doctor, lawyer, artist, merchant-chief and, yes even
beggar-man and chief, regardless of his talents, penchants, tendencies, abilities, vacations, and
race of his ancestors”
324
A. Bandura C. Rogers
B. Watson D. Erikson
1403. His best contribution to the world of education is the 3 laws (law of effect, law or readiness and
law of exercise)
A. Rousseau C. Thorndike
B. Pavlov D. Bandura
1404. The teachers’ widely accepted view of giving rewards to students is the legacy of
A. Dewey C. kounin
B. Bruner D. Skinner
1405. He believes that learning is based on Adhesive principle
A. Dewey C. Kounin
B. Bruner D. Koffka
1406. One of main proponent of Gestalt and who believes that the whole is more than the sum of all its
parts
A. Bruner C. Wertheimer
B. Thorndike D. Lewin
1407. “the child learns from what he sees in the environment” is the main thesis of this famous
educational psychologist
A. Skinner C. Bandura
B. Locke D. Koffka
1408. According to this theorist, our behavior at a particular time is a product of the interaction of two
factors, internal and external forces
A. Lewin C. Locke
B. Wertheimer D. Jung
1409. According to this developmental psychologist, children’s thinking skills move from simplicity to
complexity
A. Bandura C. Piaget
B. Thorndike D. Freud
1410. The inventor of the first usable intelligence test
A. Freud C. Skinner
B. Piaget D. Binet
1411. This particular theorist believes that the mind is blank at birth
A. Allport C. Loche
B. Skinner D. Binet
1412. He is generally considered as the father of modern education
A. Collin C. Aristotle
B. Comenius D. hagel
1413. Kindergarten movement is the legacy of this man who is considered the father of kindergarten
A. Pestalozzi C. Montessori
B. Froebel D. Collins
1414. He once said: “education is not a preparation for life…it is life”
A. Montessori C. Havighurst
B. Dewey D. Skinner
1415. He proposed that every child is born with a unique potential, his individuality, but that potential
remained unfulfilled until it was analyzed and transformed by education
A. Lewin C. Herbart
B. Kohler D. Havighurst
1416. He pioneered in coming up with a list of development task as individuals pass through the
developmental stages
A. Havigburst C. Anastasi
B. Hurlock D. Herbart
325
1417. This educator is famous for applying classical education to impoverished children of Chicago
Illinois.
A. Collins C. Froebel
B. Montessori D. Piaget
1418. This educator opposes the traditional notion that students are empty vessels. He call this
traditional technique as banking system
A. Herbart C. Freire
B. Locke D. Rousseau
1419. He pioneered in the study of language acquisition of children
A. Rousseau C. Chomsky
B. Freire D. Rubenstein
1420. He introduced the notion of zone of proximal development and “scaffolding”
A. Vygotsky C. Chomsky
B. Tyler D. Rubenstein
1421. This condition is also known as trisomy 21
A Turner Syndrome C. Down Syndrome
B. Patau Syndrome D. Autism
1422. This condition is characterized by poor spelling and pervasive difficulty in reading
A. Mental retardation C. Savant
B. autism D. dyslexia
1423. Certain injury to the language area of the brain can cause the total loss of the ability to produce
and/ or understand language, this condition is known as
A. Mutism C. aspergers
B. Aphasia D. dyslexia
1424. ___________is a disorder of neural development characterized by impaired social interaction
and communicatio9n and by restricted and repetitive behavior.
A. Mental retardation C. ADHD
B. Autism D. Physical Disabilities
1425. __________ refers to quantitative changes in an individual as he progresses in chronological age.
A. Development C. Cephalocaudal
B. Growth D. Proximodistal
1426. __________ refers to progressive series of changes of an orderly coherent type leading to the
individual’s maturation.
A. Development C. Cephalocaudal
B. Growth D. Proximodistal
1427. Teacher Kevin has not practiced his profession for the past five years. Can he go back to teaching
immediately?
a. Yes, if nobody can take his place
b. No, unless she has enrolled in refresher course of 12 units
c. No
d. Yes
1428. Is membership to the accredited professional organization for teachers mandatory for all LET
passers?
a. No
b. Yes, when the teacher is already teaching
c. Yes
d. Only for LET passers who are not repeaters
1429. Can Manny Pacquiao be given a special permit to teach boxing in a special school?
a. No, he is not a teacher education graduate
b. No, he has not passed the LET
326
c. Yes, he is a graduate of ALS
d. Yes, he has excelled and gained international recognition
1430. Is it professional for a teacher to receive gifts from the student and parents?
a. Not at all
b. No, especially if done in exchange for requested concessions
c. Yes, if deserved
d. Yes, in-season and out-of-season gifts
1431. An Education graduate without a license is accepted to teach in a private school? Is this in
violation of RA 7836?
a. No provided he has taught for at least 3 years
b. Yes. No one may teach without a license
c. No
d. Yes
1432. For relevance to business and industry, what did the First Biennial National Education on
Education (2008) impose for updating the Licensure Examination for teachers?
a. Moral or ethical values
b. Technical and scientific competencies
c. Upgraded laboratory facilities
d. Vocational skills
1433. What does the Teacher Education Development Program signify as a prerequisite for employment
of teachers in basic education schools?
a. National Standard Competencies among teachers
b. Licensure Examination for Teachers
c. Induction of new teachers
d. Job interviews for teacher applicants
1434. Among active participation of school officials and teachers in the community, which of the
following is not appropriate due to prevailing religious sentiments?
a. Literacy assistance for out of school children/youths
b. Household campaign for healthful practice
c. Promoting contraceptives for planned parenthood
d. Introducing cooperative thrift practices
1435. Which of the following is not John Dewey’s contribution to the sociological foundation of
education?
a. Facilitating learning along social conditions of the learner
b. As a social process, education begins at birth
c. True education is transmission of knowledge
d. The school is a continuation of home
1436. Of the following, which is most fundamental to building up a strong school culture of excellence?
a. High standards of performance
b. Student-centered curriculum
c. Mission and core values
d. Student handbook of conduct
1437. Among rights of the schools, which is not provided by the law?
a. Right for basic education to determine subjects of the study
b. Right to enforce administrative systems
c. Right to provide proper governance
d. Right for institutions of higher learning to determine academic grounds for admission
1438. What kind of grassroots model best advances Education for All as served children of slum city
dwellers?
327
a. Mobile education on Kariton
b. Leaf flyers for out-of-school children
c. Radio education modules
d. Educational television
1439. After the implementation of NCBTS, results of LET still reveal low performance among examinees.
What can teacher education institutions do to upgrade their graduates’ LET performance?
a. Review curriculum vis-・vis TOS
b. Intensify Field Study Courses
c. Hire expensive review trainers
d. Implement selective admission in TEIs
1440. What is the cultural trait of conflicting values that aims to please people in different venues and
situations rather than abide by principles?
a. Crab mentality
b. Split personality
c. Kanya-kanya system
d. Bahala na mentality
1441. Among qualities which employers look for in the 21st century workplace, which is the most
challenging and demanding?
a. Aptitude for teamwork
b. Skills and social behavior
c. Readiness to take risks
d. Specific competencies for work
1442. In educating the whole person as demanded by the “Learning to be” pillar of the 21st century
education, where does the concept of meaning, purpose and engagement belong?
a. Mind and body
b. Aesthetic sense
c. Spiritual values
d. Personal responsibility
1443. Which program directly embodies both the pre-service and in-service programs?
a. BESRA – Basic Education Sector Reform Agenda
b. TEDPA – Technical Education Development Program
c. K-12
d. BEC – Basic Education Curriculum
1444. How can the efforts of four agencies (DepEd, CHED, PRC, CSC) be best achieved for the training
and development of teachers?
a. Synchronization
b. cost-reduction
c. streamlining
d. sharing of resources
1445. What is the core of the Teacher Education Development Program?
a. high order thinking skills or HOTS
b. student-centered learning
c. National Competency-Based Teaching Standards
d. Technology integration in instruction
1446. What is known as a self-appraisal for professional growth that is acceptable and useful for
recognizing weakness and strengths for a new beginning teacher?
a. master teacher’s evaluation
b. student’s evaluation
c. principal’s evaluation
328
d. self-evaluation
1447. Among reforms for enhancing teacher professionalism, which has been implemented by law in
order to determine whether prospective teachers have acquired professional competencies prior
to granting them a permit to teach?
a. accrediting a national organization for teachers
b. setting up centered for excellence in teacher education centers
c. licensure examination
d. creation of a professional board for teachers
1448. From global competence as defined by international educators, which is the most appropriate
characteristic of globally competent individual?
a. familiarity with new culture
b. open-mindedness to new culture
c. adaptability to new work environment
d. foreign-language policy
1449. For a school, which of the following is most significant in repairing shorelines with depleted coral
reefs?
a. outreach by depositing rubber tires as artificial coral reefs
b. implement reporting system against dynamite fishermen
c. legislative lobby to disallow tourism in endangered shorelines
d. outreach by educating the villagers on protection of coral reefs
1450. In a tertiary school, the President organized a Fun Run for students, faculty and personnel to enjoy
camaraderie, physical exertion under the sun, sense of engagement and achievement. What does
the activity promote?
a. spiritual vigor
b. cultural consciousness
c. national integrity
d. moral integrity
1451. In the Education Act of 1901 which established a free public education in the Philippines, what
language was imposed under the one-language policy?
a. Spanish
b. English
c. Tagalog
d. Filipino
1452. Of the following, which is the most functional intervention in order to achieve a basic right of
every Filipino Child under the Constitution and Magna Carta for Disabled Persons?
a. Philosophy of education
b. policy for curricular reform
c. home study program
d. structural organization
1453. Of the following interventions, which is directly aimed at responding to the transitional gap
between academic achievement and employment?
a. identification of centers of excellence
b. deregulation of tuition fees
c. school networking with business and industry
d. voluntary accreditation of schools
1454. In the formal education system during Hispanic times in the Philippines, what was not implement
but which we enjoyed during the American period?
a. vocational education
b. private education
329
c. religious education
d. public education
1455. If Dr. Jose Rizal lives in the 21st century, what character expression and commitment would have
shown our generation?
a. inventor of techniques
b. citizen and producer
c. member of family and community
d. creative dreamer
1456. In the learning to do pillar of new education, what is the enabling factor that can make the learner
fully contribute to a peaceful and just society?
a. knowledge
b. skills
c. insights
d. values
1457. Before being able to fully learn to live and work together under the pillar of the 21st century
education, what must the learner attain for himself?
a. find peace within oneself
b. attain an altruistic mind
c. love his fellowmen
d. become self-actualized
1458. The Transparency International’s perception that the Philippines suffers a cultural malaise of
corruption, what component of our character needs to be further developed along the Learning
To Be Pillar of education in the 21st century?
a. Familial-social component
b. Physical-economic component
c. Intellectual-emotional component
d. Ethical-spiritual component
1459. This powerful European country supplied arms to Afghanistan rebels who were fighting a terrorist
war in the Middle East. What was the principle of moral discernment applicable in this case?
a. Principle of double effect
b. Principle of lesser evil
c. Principle of material cooperation
d. Principle of moral cooperation
1460. Which of the following best defines a morally mature person?
a. Cultural values clarification
b. Unhampered exercise of one’s right
c. Transmittal of one’s moral viewpoint
d. Knowledge and practice of universal moral values
1461. Educated in a religious school, Dona goes to confession every day to be free of any kind of sin.
How do you characterize Dona’s moral attitude?
a. Callous
b. Pharisaical
c. Scrupulous
d. Strict
1462. How would you characterize the moral attitude of Hispanic friars who taught religion but were
unfaithful to their vow of property by amassing the land properties of natives?
a. Scrupulous
b. Strict
c. Lax
330
d. Pharisaical
1463. How would you characterize the moral attitude of prisoners with criminal minds, who have no
sensitivity to the welfare of other people?
a. Pharisaical
b. Strict
c. Lax
d. Callous
1464. What was the degree of moral certitude when U.S. statement decided to drop the atomic
bombing on Hiroshima and Nagasaki to prevent mass deaths by a land invasion of Japan?
a. Doubtful
b. Certain
c. Perplexed
d. Probable
1465. From a broad vantage view of human development, who has the primary duty to educate the
youths or children?
a. Parents
b. Teachers
c. the state
d. the schools
1466. Of the three aspects of learning, which is not mentioned as needed so that the individual learner
in the 21st century can learn how to learn?
a. Ability to think
b. Mathematical skills
c. Memory skills
d. Concentration
1467. Which of the following belongs to the more sophisticated learning-to-learn skills for the
individual learner?
a. To ask and gather data
b. To listen and observe
c. To process and select information
d. To read with understanding
1468. Of the following effects on learning, what is the effect of simulations that make students feel and
sense experience in the classroom?
a. Reinforcing learning
b. Providing experiences that otherwise might not be had
c. Motivating students
d. Changing attitudes and feelings
1469. Of the following effects on learning, what is the effect of assigning various sections of the
newspaper, and allowing choice depending on the learner’s choice?
a. Encouraging participation
b. Reinforcing learning
c. Allowing different interests
d. Changing attitudes and feelings
1470. A young mother observes her seven year old girl glued to her computer games. What aspect of
the family life may suffer due to obsession of the young with technology gadgets?
a. Family social life
b. Family economic life
c. Discipline and obedience
d. Parent-child relationship
331
1471. Which of the following is not an advanced process of meta-cognition among learners?
a. Learning how to recognize thoughts
b. Acquisition of new knowledge
c. Assessing own thinking
d. Learning how to study
1472. Of comprehension or thinking strategies, which is relating one or two items, such as nouns
and verbs?
a. Basic elaboration strategies
b. Complex rehearsal strategies
c. Complex elaboration strategies
d. Affective strategies
1473. Of skills teacher should understand and students need to acquire, which is the ability to
integrate complex information into categories through its attributes (characteristics, principles
or functions)?
a. Scanning
b. Complex cognitive
c. Sharpening-leveling
d. Complexity-simplicity
1474. Inculcating moral maturity among students, which of the following relates to belief and ideals?
a. Promoting human equality
b. Refraining from prejudiced action
c. Avoiding deception and dishonesty
d. Respecting freedom of conscience
1475. Research studies showed that children in slums generally have lower reading achievement
then children in urban schools. What factor is shown to affect reading achievement?
a. Mobility
b. Personality and emotional factors
c. Socio-economic status
d. Listening comprehension
1476. When preacher Xian read the Genesis story on creation, he explained that God is so powerful
he created the universe in only seven days. What level of reading comprehension did preacher
John apply?
a. Evaluative reading on character, plot or style
b. Literal reading the lines
c. Applied reading beyond the lines
d. Interpretative reading between the lines
1477. What is the main organization and orientation of science and social studies reading materials?
a. Expository
b. Descriptive
c. Narrative
d. Argumentative
1478. In his History class, teacher Naomi used a current events IQ contest to determine champions
in identifying people, places, and events. What learning objective outcome does she aim to
achieve?
a. Knowledge or recall
b. Perpetual abilities
c. Application
d. Responding
332
1479. In Erikson’s stage theory of development questionnaire, which affirmation does not belong to
the stage of initiative vs. guilt?
a. People can be trusted
b. In difficulty, I will not give up
c. I feel what happens to me is the result of what I have done
d. I am prepared to take a risk
1480. For cognitive learning, what are sets of facts, concepts, and principles that describe underlying
mechanism that regulate human learning, development and behavior?
a. Facts
b. Concepts
c. Theories
d. Hypothesis
1481. Literature teacher Kim introduced figures of speech in poetry to improve ability of her
students to interpret verses. What kind of thinking is she developing in her students?
a. Critical thinking
b. Metaphoric thinking
c. Convergent thinking
d. Divergent thinking
1482. Of clusters of meaningful learning activities, which does not belong to spatial learning activities?
a. Visualization
b. Concept-mapping
c. Peer tutoring
d. Art projects
1483. From cluster of meaningful learning activities, which does not belong to verbal-linguistic
intelligence learning?
a. Ecological field trip
b. Debates
c. Journal writing
d. Reading
1484. Which of the following violates the principle that “each child’s brain is unique and vastly
different from one another”?
a. Giving ample opportunity for a pupil to explore rather than simply dish out information
b. Employing principles in multiple intelligence in teaching
c. Making a left-handed pupil write with her right hand as this is better
d. Allowing open dialogue among students of various cultural backgrounds
1485. Of the following which is normally expected of Grade VI pupils?
a. Getting along with classmates
b. Being independent of parents
c. Showing class leadership
d. Displaying a male or feminine social role
1486. From categories of exceptionalities in the young child and adolescents what involves
difficulties in specific cognitive processes like perception, language and memory due to mental
retardation, emotional/behavioral disorder, or sensory impairment?
a. Learning disabilities
b. Speech and communication disorders
c. Emotional/conduct disorders
d. Autism
1487. Of the following, which is most true of adolescents?
a. Hormonal changes
333
b. Last splurge of dependence
c. Unruly behavior
d. Defiance of peer group
1488. Research says, “people tend to attribute successes to internal causes and their failures to
external causes.” What does this imply as a most potent key to success?
a. Reasoning
b. Imagination
c. Application
d. Motivation
1489. From Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, what is the moral reasoning or perspective of
Mother Teresa who pledged her life to serve the sick and very old?
a. Social contract
b. Universal principles
c. Obedience
d. Law and order
1490. Blind cyclist and teacher Maria Bunyan won 8th place in the able-bodied Sydney 2000
Olympics. Of the following, which is the central and fundamental quality she displayed by
never thinking that blindness is an impediment to becoming a great athlete?
a. Perseverance
b. Passion
c. Dedication
d. Self-belief
1491. How can new information be made more meaningful to students?
a. Relating it to knowledge they already know
b. Valuing new knowledge
c. Demonstrating novelty of new knowledge
d. Increasing retention of new knowledge
1492. Under the domains of learning, to what domain do Reflex movements, perceptual abilities, and
non-discursive communication belong?
a. Psychomotor
b. Affective
c. Cognitive
d. Reflective
1493. In what development stage is the pre-school child?
a. Early childhood
b. Babyhood
c. Infancy
d. Late childhood
1494. What is mainly addressed by early intervention program for children with disabilities, ages 0 to
3 years old?
a. Ensuring inclusion for special children
b. Early growth development lag
c. Identifying strengths and weaknesses in special children
d. Preventing labeling of disabled children
1495. What is the degree of moral certitude of Jade Althea who entered into marriage only out of
obedience to her parents, but uncertain whether she wanted marriage at all?
a. Certain
334
b. Lax
c. Probable
d. Doubtful
1496. On categories of exceptionality in the young, what is difficulty in focusing and maintaining
attention, and/or recurrent hyperactive and impulsive behavior?
a. ADHD
b. Emotional/conduct disorders
c. Autism
d. Speech and communication disorders
1497. What kinds of skills are commonly dominant in subjects like Computer, PE, Music, and the like?
a. Problem-solving skills
b. Manipulative skills
c. Affective skills
d. Thinking skills
1498. How is the disorderly behavior of children classified when they tell lies?
a. Moral
b. Intellectual
c. Social
d. Psychological
1499. Which of the following is not among the major targets of the child-friendly school system
(CFSS)?
a. All school children are friendly
b. All children complete their elementary education within six years
c. All children 6-12 years old are enrolled in elementary schools
d. All grade six students pass the division, regional, and national tests
1500. Research studies that reading power affects college students who have insomnia, conflicts with
parents, poor rapport with other people. What factor(s) is shown to effect reading achievement?
a. Home conditions
b. Socio-economic status
c. Personality and emotional factors
d. Perception and comprehension
1501. Among the following, which is the abstract form of learning, parents teach their children?
a. Tumulong ka sa paglinis ng bahay
b. Magbasa ka ng libro
c. Palagi kang magdasal
d. Mapakabuti ka
1502. What characteristic differentiate spiritual intelligence or spiritual quotient as developed by
Harvard University, from sectarian religion (E.g. Christian, Buddhist, Jewish, etc.)?
a. Authoritarian values
b. Universal values
c. Creedal values
d. Sectarian values
1503. Among models of reading strategies, what did student Jk adopt when she reads back and
forth, attending to both what is in her mind and what’s on the page?
a. Bottoms-up
b. Interactive
c. Down-top
d. Top-down
1504. Of the following, how can self-esteem be best developed among learners?
335
a. Doing fair share in community work
b. Fulfilling commitments
c. Through relationships with others
d. Displaying self-control
1505. Of Piaget’s Cognitive Concepts, which refer to the process of fitting a new experience to a
previously created cognitive structure or schema?
a. Assimilation
b. Schema
c. Accommodation
d. Equilibrium
1506. In Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which is the tendency of the child to only see
his point of view and to assume that everyone has the same point of view?
a. Reversibility
b. Egocentrism
c. Symbolic function
d. Centration
1507. Which is the most basic in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
a. Socialization
b. Actualization
c. Self-esteem
d. Altruism
1508. Which aspect of multi-intelligence is enhanced by asking students to work on a physical model
of the atom after a teacher’s discussion on the subject of the atom?
a. Interpersonal
b. Linguistic
c. Kinesthetical
d. Mathematical
1509. Among specialist in reading, who are mainly concerned about reading as a thinking process
that involves the recognition of printed or written symbols which serve as thought stimuli?
a. Semantics
b. Psychologists
c. Linguists
d. Sociologists
1510. How is the disorderly behavior of children classified when they don’t focus and lack attention?
a. Intellectual
b. Social
c. Moral
d. Psychomotor
1511. How do you describe transfer of learning across subject matter, e.g value of thrift in Economic
and Social Science?
a. Horizontal
b. Spiral
c. Vertical
d. Cyclic
1512. What broad learning is needed for a learner to desire to learn throughout life?
a. Four basic Rs
b. Basic education
c. General education
d. Pre-school system
336
1513. What observation attests to the fact that the sudden student’s motivation vary according to
socio-cultural background?
a. Females mature earlier than boys
b. Children from low-income household meet more obstacle in learning
c. Genetic endowments may show gifted endowments among the young
d. Brains of boys are bigger and better than those of females
1514. Of the types of validity tests, what is concerned with the relation of test scores to
performance at some future time, e.g. Freshmen college test can show success in college?
a. Curriculum validity
b. Criterion validity
c. Content validity
d. Predictive validity
1515. The test questions in Teacher Dae Dae’s test were confusing and subject to wrong
understanding, especially to poorer students. What was wrong with the test?
a. Inappropriate level of difficult of items
b. Unclear directions
c. Ambiguity
d. Test items inappropriate for outcomes being measured
1516. Of the following, which exemplifies the best example of cooperation and voluntarism in the
Parent-Teacher Associations?
a. Helping hands after a natural crisis, e.g. devastating storm
b. Attending regular meetings
c. Fund raising for PT funds
d. Running the school canteen
1517. Among standardized tests, which reveals strengths and weaknesses for purposes of placement
and formulating an appropriate instructional program?
a. Personality tests
b. Achievement tests
c. Diagnostic tests
d. Competency tests
1518. Among standardized tests, which can show how students perform in comparison with each other
and to students in other schools?
a. Competency tests
b. Subject exit tests
c. Achievement tests
d. Diagnostic tests
1519. Teacher Bea Bunana makes her tests easy for students to understand, easy to administer and
score and suitable to test conditions, e.g. time. What is she achieving for her tests?
a. Efficiency
b. Usability
c. Reliability
d. Validity
1520. Of the following subjects, which does not belong to performance-based subjects in which
direct instruction is effectively used?
a. Values education
b. Music
c. Science
d. Mathematics
1521. Which of these approaches would reform assessment outcomes?
337
a. Apply sanctions on low performing schools
b. Focus on testing without investing the learner’s needs
c. Use understanding as means of giving feedback on students learning
d. Compare results of performance of all schools
1522. Using extrinsic motivational assessment, what could be the noblest motive in students pursuing a
lifetime work and mission for the teaching profession?
a. Promise of high rank and prestige
b. Social service to upcoming generations
c. Economic security and welfare
d. Respected position in society
1523. To what process of evaluation does determining the extent objectives are met belong?
a. Authentic
b. Formative
c. Criterion-referenced
d. Norm-referenced
1524. Which form of the foundation of all cognitive objects without which the next level of higher
thinking skills cannot be attained?
a. Knowledge
b. Synthesis
c. Application
d. Analysis
1525. What primary response factor is considered by Essay questions?
a. Factual information
b. Wide sampling of ideas
c. Originality
d. Less time for construction and scoring
1526. Among written categories of assessment methods, what did teacher Maggie Lagid use when
she assessed the stock knowledge of her students through questioning in an open class?
a. Oral questioning
b. Performance test
c. Product rating scale
d. Observation and self-report
1527. In the context of the 6 facets of understanding cited by Wiggins and McTIghe, what is a proof
of a student’s understanding a principle?
a. Stating given examples
b. Repeating it as given by the teacher
c. Applying it to solve his problem
d. Retaining it in memory for a long period of time
1528. What does it mean if student Pete got a 60% percentile rank in class?
a. He scored better than 60% of the class
b. He scored less than 60% of the class
c. He got 40% of the test wrongly
d. He got 60% of the items correctly
1529. Which of the following may not be adequately assessed by a paper and pencil test?
a. Sight reading in music
b. Multiplication skills
c. Subject-verb agreement
d. Vocabulary meaning
1530. What should be done with test item whose difficulty index is .98?
338
a. Revise it
b. Retain it
c. Reject it
d. Reserve it for another group of students
1531. What is known as the scoring guides for rating open-ended questions?
a. Rubrics
b. Outcomes
c. Scales
d. Outputs
1532. What does it mean to say that the facility index of a test item is .50?
a. It is reliable
b. It is valid
c. It is moderate in difficulty
d. It is very easy
1533. With the mode of answering as a point of reference, which of the following does not belong to
this test group?
a. Completion
b. Essay
c. Problem-solving
d. Matching
1534. One half of the class scored very low. Teacher Janus gave another tests to determine where
were the students were weakest. What type of test is this?
a. Aptitude test
b. Remedial test
c. Diagnostic test
d. Readiness test
1535. On what is normative marking based?
a. High marks of few students
b. Failure of some students
c. Normal curve of standard distribution
d. Student achievement relative to other students
1536. What cognitive domain is involved in the student’s clarifying information from conclusion?
a. Synthesis
b. Evaluation
c. Analysis
d. Application
1537. Which of the following indicates a strong negative correlation?
a. -75
b. -15
c. -10
d. -25
1538. What is the graphic illustration for the relationship between two variables?
a. Histogram
b. Normal curves
c. Frequency polygons
d. Scatter diagram
1539. What does a negative discrimination index mean?
a. The test item has low reliability
b. More from the lower group answered the test item correctly
339
c. More from the upper answered the test correctly
d. The test could not discriminate between the upper and lower group
1540. What is the deviation from a standard or desired level of performance?
a. A problem
b. A deficit
c. A defect
d. A gap
1541. How does a student’s 80 percentile score interpreted?
a. High in all the skills being tested
b. Higher than 80% of the members of the group
c. Better relative to the competencies targeted
d. 80% of the specified content
1542. Of the types of validity for tests, what is focused on the extent to which a particular tests
correlates with acceptable measure of performance?
a. Curricular validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion validity
d. Predictive validity
1543. Among general categories of assessment methods, what instruments did pre-school teacher
Justine use when he rated the handwriting of his students using a prototype handwriting
model?
a. Product rating scale
b. Performance test
c. Written response instruments
d. Observation and self-reports
1544. Self-evaluation can be done in various ways, but this is not one of them:
a. Use of an evaluation instrument
b. Written reflection
c. Self-videotape of class performance
d. Per feedback session
1545. In her test, Teacher Marian R unknowingly gave clues to the answers that reduce usability of
the test. What was wrong with the test?
a. Ambiguity
b. Unclear directions
c. Poorly constructed test items
d. Test too short
1546. In preparing classroom tests, which of the following checklists is the LAST among steps in tests
preparation?
a. How are the objective items to be scored?
b. How are the test results to be reported?
c. How I have prepared a table of specifications?
d. How are the test scores to be tabulated?
1547. What formula is used to total and compute test scores at the end of the year?
a. [Test scores = transmutation table] x 100
b. [Highest score + Lowest possible score] x 100
c. [Student’s score x 100]
d. [Student’s score + Highest possible score] x 100
1548. What can be said of student performance in a positively skewed score distribution?
a. A few students performed excellently
340
b. Most students performed well
c. Almost all students had average performance
d. Most students performed poorly
1549. Which is true when the standard deviation is small?
a. Scores are toward both extremes
b. Scores are spread apart
c. Scores are tightly bunched together
d. The bell curve is relatively fat
1550. In her tests, Teacher Tomden made tests that were either too difficult or too easy. What was
wrong with her tests?
a. Unclear directions
b. Inappropriate level of difficulty of the test items
c. Ambiguity
d. Identifiable patterns of answers
1551. What is an alternative assessment tool that consists of a collection of work artifacts or in
progress accomplishment by a targeted clientele?
a. Evaluation instrument
b. Rubric
c. Achievement test
d. Portfolio
1552. What computation did teacher Panny use in getting the difference between the highest and
lowest scores in each class?
a. Mean
b. Range
c. Standard deviation
d. Median
1553. Which measure of central tendency is most reliable when scores are extremely high and low?
a. Cannot be identified unless individual scores are given
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Mean
1554. Which measure of central tendency is most reliable to get a picture of the class performance
whose raw scores in a quiz are: 97, 95, 85, 86, 77, 75, 50, 10, 5, 2, 1?
a. Mode
b. None. It is best to look at individual scores
c. Mean
d. Median
1555. Self-evaluation has become an important kind of performance assessment among teachers,
useful as an honest self-criticism and a starting point to removal evaluation by supervisors,
peers, or students. How is self-evaluation described?
a. Evidence of teaching performance
b. Substitute to supervisor’s rating
c. Guide for self-adjustment
d. Tool for salary adjustment
1556. What is the common instrument used in measuring learning in the affective domain?
a. Multiple choice
b. Checklist
c. Scaling
d. Questionnaire
341
1557. On the test giver’s list of Do’s, which of the following is not relative to motivating students to
do their best?
a. Read test directions
b. Reduce test anxiety, e.g. “Take a deep breath.”
c. Explain the purpose of the test
d. Tell students: “I will be proud of you if you perform well.”
1558. What is the range if the score distribution is: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85 , 85, 70, 51, 34,
34, 34, 20, 18, 51, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1?
a. 93
b. 85
c. 97
d. Between 51 and 34
1559. What does the test mean if the difficulty index is 1?
a. Very difficult
b. Missed by everyone
c. Very easy
d. A quality item
1560. What is the meaning of a negative correlation between amount of practice and number of
errors in tennis?
a. The increase in the amount of practices does not at all affect the number of errors
b. As the amount of practice increases, the number of errors decreases
c. The decrease in the amount of practice sometimes affects the number of errors
d. Decrease in the amount of practice goes with decrease in the number of errors
1561. An entering college would like to determine which course is best suited for him. Which test is
appropriate for this purpose?
a. Aptitude test
b. Intelligence test
c. Achievement test
d. Diagnostic test
1562. Which of the following criteria is the basis for selecting tests that yield similar results when
repeated over a period of time?
a. Efficiency
b. Validity
c. Usability
d. Reliability
1563. Facilities such as classrooms, fixtures, and equipment can often damage the morale of new
teachers and become an obstacle for adapting well to the school environment. What should
be the policy for assigning said physical facilities?
a. needs of student’s basis
b. position ranking basis
c. first-come, first-served basis
d. service seniority basis
1564. There are various functions a fellow teacher or peer coach can help new teachers. What role
does a peer coach play by being present/available to share ideas, problems and success with a
new teacher?
a. a provider of technical feedback
b. a facilitator of strategies
c. an analyzer of teaching job
d. a close peer or companion
342
1565. Teacher Nancy is directed to pass an undeserving student with a death threat. Which advise
will a utilitarian give?
a. Don’t pass him. You surely will not like someone to give you a death threat in order to pass
b. Pass the student. That will be off use to the student, his parents and you.
c. Pass the student. Why suffer the threat?
d. Don’t pass him. Live by your principle of justice. You will get reward, if not in this life, in the
next!
1566. In what setting is differentiated and multi-lingual teaching most effective?
a. special children with classes
b. multi-grade classes
c. children with diverse cultural backgrounds
d. pre-school children
1567. After the embarrassing incident, Teacher Kevin vowed to himself to flunk the student at the
end of the school term. What has Dante done that is against the guidelines for using
punishment?
a. Punishing immediately in an emotional state
b. Using double standards in punishing
c. Doing the impossible
d. Holding a grudge and not starting with a clean slate
1568. Following the principles for punishing students, which of the following is the LEAST desirable
strategy for classroom management?
a. Punishing while clarifying why punishment is done
b. Punishing while angry
c. Punishing the erring student rather than the entire class
d. Give punishment sparingly
1569. According to the guidelines on punishment, what does it mean that the teacher should give
the student the benefit of the doubt?
a. Make sure facts are right before punishing
b. Doubt the incident really happened
c. Don’t punish and doubt effectiveness of punishment
d. Get the side of the students when punishing
1570. Which of the following guidelines for punishment may be done?
a. Don’t punish students outside of school rules on punishment
b. Don’t threaten the impossible
c. Don’t use double standards for punishing
d. Don’t assign extra homework
1571. For group guidance in classroom management, what element is lacking when there is too much
competitiveness and exclusiveness with the teacher being punitive and partial to some students?
a. Dissatisfaction with classroom work
b. Poor interpersonal relations
c. Poor group organization
d. Disturbance in group climate
1572. To demonstrate here authority Teacher Kokeyni made an appeal to undisciplined students. What
kind of appeal did she make by saying, “Ladies and gentlemen, don’t engage in that kind of
behavior, you can do much better?”
a. Invoke peer reaction
b. Exert authority
c. Internalizing student’s image of themselves
d. Teacher-student relationship
343
1573. What is the term for the leap from theory to practice in which the teacher applies theories to
effective teaching methods and theories?
a. Integration process
b. Informational process
c. Conceptualization process
d. Construction process
1574. Of subcategories of movement behavior, what is happening when the teacher ends an activity
abruptly?
a. Thrust
b. Truncation
c. Stimulus-bounded
d. Flip-flop
1575. Of subcategories of teacher movement behavior, what is happening when the teacher goes from
topic or activity to other topic or activities, lacking clear direction and sequence of activities?
a. Truncation
b. Dangle
c. Thrust
d. Flip-flop
1576. Of subcategories of teacher movement behavior, what is happening when the teacher is too
immersed in a small group of students or activity, thus ignoring other students or activity?
a. Truncation
b. Flip-flop
c. Stimulus-bounded
d. Thrust
1577. From classroom management strategies applied on erring students, which of the following
should not be done?
a. Surprise quiz
b. Communicating problems to parents
c. Parent-principal conference
d. Shaming erring student before the class
1578. Among mistaken goals in the Acceptance Approach to discipline, what happens when students
defy adult by arguing, contradicting, teasing, temper tantrums, and low level hostile behavior?
a. Power seeking
b. Withdrawal
c. Revenge seeking
d. Attention getting
1579. Teacher Ann Patuan dealt effectively with a minor infraction of whispering by a student to a
neighbor during class. Which of the following did she do?
a. Reprimand quietly
b. Continue to teach and ignore infraction
c. Reprimand student after class
d. Use nonverbal signals (gesture or facial expression)
1580. What mistake is teacher Senemin Basic trying to avoid by never ignoring any student or group
of students in her discussions and other activities?
a. Non-direction
b. Dangled activity
c. Divided attention
d. Abrupt end
344
1581. Teacher Dra D Explorer is a great lecturer and so she is invited to speak and represent the
school on many occasions. What is one quality of her lecturers when she follows a planned
sequence, not diverting so as to lose attention of her listeners?
a. Explicit explanations
b. Continuity
c. Inclusion of elements
d. Fluency
1582. Teacher Aldub makes certain content interesting to his students. Focusing on learners, he also
uses many simple examples, metaphors and stories. What is this quality of lesson content?
a. Interest
b. Feasibility
c. Self-sufficiency
d. Balance
1583. Teaching English, teacher Krizzy is careful about her lesson content. What quality of content
did he achieve when she made certain her information came with the “information explosion”
which she got in the Internet, such as how to effectively teach phonetics?
a. Learnability
b. Significance
c. Balance
d. Interest
1584. Teacher Kevin made certain his lesson content can be useful to his students, taking care of
their needs in a student-centered classroom. What is this kind of quality content?
a. Utility
b. Balance
c. Self-sufficiency
d. Interest
1585. In the implementation of the curriculum at the classroom level, effective strategies are called
“Green”. Which of the following belongs to the Green Flag?
a. Homogenous students grouping
b. Content delivery based on lessons
c. Excess in chalkboard talk
d. Student interest and teacher enthusiasm
1586. In the implementation of the curriculum at the classroom level, ineffective strategies are
called “Red”. Which of the following belongs to the Red Flag?
a. Content applied to real-life situations
b. Overemphasis on drill and practice
c. Available enrichment activities
d. Integration of problem solving
1587. Teacher Maggie explains by spicing her lectures with examples, descriptions and stories. What
is this quality in her lectures?
a. Planned sequence
b. Elaboration through elements
c. Use of audiovisuals
d. Simple vocabulary
1588. Can technology take the place of the teacher in the classroom? Select the most appropriate
answer:
a. No. It is only an instrument or a tool
b. Yes, when they hire less teachers and acquire more computers
c. Yes. When teachers are not competent
345
d. Yes, such as in the case of Computer-assisted instruction (not teacher-assisted instruction)
1589. What kind of tool is technology as evidenced by its use in word processing databases,
spreadsheets, graphics design and desktop publishing?
a. Analyzing tool
b. Encoding tool
c. Productivity tool
d. Calculating tool
1590. In avoiding implying sickness or suffering, which of the following is the most preferable way to
refer to those with disabilities like polio?
a. “Is polio-stricken”
b. “Had polio”
c. “Polio victim”
d. “Suffers from polio”
1591. If threat of punishment is necessary on erring students, how should this best be done?
a. Make the threat and reinforce with warning
b. Make the threat with immediate punishment
c. Ward and threat at the same time
d. First a warning before the threat
1592. Among cognitive objectives, what is also known as an understanding and is a step higher than
more knowledge of facts?
a. Comprehension
b. Analysis
c. Synthesis
d. Application
1593. What is the quality of teacher Pining Garcia’s lecture when she makes use of various pictures,
charts, graphs, videos to support her lectures?
a. Simplified vocabulary
b. Enrichment through visual aids
c. Causal and logical relationships
d. Continuing sequence
1594. In determining the materials and media to use, what consideration did Teacher Ina A. Mag
adopt when he chose materials that can arouse and sustain in curiosity?
a. Satisfaction
b. Interest
c. Expectancy
d. Relevance
1595. Which of the following is true of a democratic classroom?
a. Teacher acts as firm decision maker
b. Students decide what and how to learn
c. Consultation and dialogue
d. Suggestions are sent to higher officials for decisions
1596. This is appropriate use of technology which can unite people of the world rather than exploit
them?
a. For pornography
b. For social media
c. For financial fraud
d. For propaganda
1597. From structures in Multifunctional Cooperative Learning, which involves each student writing in
turn one answer as a paper and pencil is passed around the group?
346
a. Jigsaw
b. Inside-outside circle
c. Roundtable
d. Partners
1598. How does the “humaneness” of the teacher best described when he/she is full interest and
enthusiasm in the work of teaching?
a. Responsiveness
b. Perceptiveness
c. Knowledge
d. Sensitivity
1599. Teacher Lester Cruz Valdez gets more information about how his students learn in order to
upgrade his pedagogy. What principle is he following?
a. Teachers should keep track of learning outcomes
b. Teachers should value information
c. Teachers should document information data on students
d. Teachers should teach and test learning
1600. In order to assist new teacher, which is the most effective way to clarify the schools’ goals and
responsibilities early in the first year?
a. Student’s handbook
b. Orientation
c. Principals’ memorandum
d. School curriculum
1601. Of components of direct instruction, which involves teachers and students working together
on a skill or task and figuring out how to apply the strategy?
a. Consolidation
b. Guided practice
c. Application
d. Modeling
1602. Teacher JanJan made certain his lesson content is within the capacity of his young forum grade
learners. What is the quality of John’s lesson content when he fits lesson to learner’s capacity to
absorb lesson content?
a. Learnability
b. Balance
c. Validity
d. Interest
1603. From structures of Multifunctional Cooperative Learning, which makes each group to produce a
group product to share with the whole class?
a. Coop-coop
b. Think-pair-share
c. Team Word-Webbing
d. Partners
1604. This is the more appropriate understanding of technology in education?
a. Methods and process
b. Inventions and equipment
c. Channels and instruments
d. Hardware, designs, and environment
1605. A teacher introduces herself as teacher only. What does this imply?
a. She must have been forced to pursue a career in teaching.
b. The teaching profession is not a very significant one
347
c. The teaching profession is the lowest paid profession
d. She takes no pride in the teaching profession
1606. In the guided exploratory approach to learning, which is not the term used for Inquiry learning?
a. Heuristic learning
b. Problem-solving learning
c. Discovery learning
d. Expository learning
1607. What is another quality of teacher Lassie Pecson’s lectures when she used words that are
within the grasp of her listeners, avoiding technical terms and jargons?
a. Use of specific descriptions and examples
b. Enriched audiovisuals
c. Normal vocabulary
d. Planned sequence
1608. In delivering her lessons, teacher Blackie Lou Blanco is careful that no topic is extensively
discussed at the expense of other topics. That guiding principle in selection and
organization of lesson content is she following?
a. Significance
b. Self-sufficiency
c. Feasibility
d. Balance
1609. In determining materials and media to use, what consideration did Teacher Grachie adopt
when she gave importance to the level of outcome and the learner’s sense of fulfillment in
performing the task?
a. Expectancy
b. Satisfaction
c. Interest
d. Relevance
1610. In the inductive approach to learning, what is not among the facilitating skills needed on the
part of the teacher?
a. Teacher giving generalization of principles
b. Commenting to pave way for generalizations or principles
c. Organizing answers
d. Asking the right questions
1611. Which Filipino trait works against the shift in teacher’s role from teacher as a foundation of
information to teacher as facilitator?
a. Authoritativeness
b. Authoritarianism
c. Hiya
d. Pakikisama
1612. If a teacher plans a constructivist lesson, what will he most likely do? Plan how he can____.
a. Do evaluate his students’ work
b. Do reciprocal teaching
c. Lecture to his students
d. Engage his students in convergent thinking
1613. How would you select the most fit in government positions? Applying Confucius teachings,
which would be the answer?
a. By course accreditation of an accrediting body
b. By merit system and course accreditation
c. By merit system
d. By government examinations
348
1614. The test results revealed that a great majority of the student failed. What is the best action
that an effective teacher should take to insure that learning will take place?
a. reteach the items that are heavily missed
b. analyze the difficulty, test them again
c. give more difficult test
d. scold the pupils
1615. In any kind of education endeavor, these three interdependent processes are involved
a. evaluation, application, learning
b. teaching, learning, evaluation of results
c. testing, recording, re-teaching
d. application, valuation, recall
1616. It is a chart prepared to determine the goals, the content and the number of items to be
included in the test
a. test chart
b. test book
c. table of specifications
d. skewed chart
1617. The entire processes involved in conducting any scientific study include these sequential steps,
a. know the problem, gather and analyze needed data, then make conclusion
b. analyze, gather and collect data
c. gather data, analyze the problem, then conclude
d. give description, make a calculated guess, then conclude
1618. Mr. Pascual, being a conscientious teacher initially, feels that many of his student dislike him,
hence, they failed his course. To verify his hunch, he will conduct what study?
a. descriptive study of student behavior
b. historical study
c. achievement test
d. Self-analysis
1619. Desiring to find out which among the schools she supervises achieve or underachieve the
yearly target goals, Dr. Mendez will use what measure
a. Measure of Dispersion
b. Measure of Central tendency
c. Measure of Popularity
d. Measure of Locality
1620. A test of intelligence based on the actual measurement of what the individual can actually do
of a certain task under time pressure.
a. Performance test c. Skill test
b. Aptitude Test d. None of these
1621. A test given to determine specific aspect of achievement made on certain skills to provide the
needed remedial help to the learner.
a. daily test c. diagnostic test
b. achievement test d. none of the above
1622. A test given to get a representative sampling of the general area of accomplishment made on
certain field of learning taught and learned.
a. survey test c. aptitude test
b. diagnostic d. none of the above
1623. A child’s emotional behavior and problems can be measured by:
a. direct observations c. behavior checklist
b. psychological test d. all of the above
1624. Intelligence tests that can used with children who have language difficulties include:
a. the Draw-A-Man test
b. the Letter International Performance Scale
c. raven’s progressive Matrices Test
d. All of the above
349
1625. The law requires school personnel to make a child’s school records available to his or her
parents. Parents have the right to:
a. help plan their child’s instructional program
b. see their child’s school records
c. receive an interpretation of any data recorded about their child
d. all of the above
1626. Ken obtained a percentile rank of 30 on a mathematics test. Ken’s parents will learn that :
a. Ken is a top student in the above class
b. Ken got 30% of the test items correct
c. Ken obtained a score higher than 30% of the students in the class
d. Ken got 70% of the items correct
1627. Which of the following is a characteristic of criterion-referenced teaching strategies?
a. Desire behaviors are specified- for example,” Given 10 sentences containing errors in
noun-verb agreement, the student will be able to correct them with 100% accuracy.”
b. Adequate instruction is given to enable students to perform the behaviors that are
specified.
c. Using measures such as tests or specified performance, the teacher makes an analysis of
whether objects are being met
d. All of the above
1628. Research shows that students who follow the cognitive learning approach manifest all of the
following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. a global orientation toward the discovery of new question and solutions
b. an analytic mind-set toward new problems
c. an impulsive habit in drawing conclusions
d. a reflective manner when examining data
1629. Blood content that at least 90% of students could reach “mastery level” if appropriate
teaching techniques were used. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate advice or a
teacher who wants to help underachievers to succeed?
a. Provide more time or slower students to complete a task
b. Break the curriculum into small steps, teaching incrementally
c. Determine grades through competitive examinations, giving constant feedback to
comparative performance.
d. Pursue a comprehensive list of performance objectives
1630. Critics of behavior-referenced instruction find that it limit students in all of the following
areas EXCEPT in :
a. the range of behavioral objectives associated with such instruction.
b. The expectations for performance held out to gifted students
c. Opportunities for student decision-making
d. The accuracy of evaluations possible with such instruction
1631. When a teacher reports the outcome of norm-referenced objective tests, he or she includes:
a. the performance of all students in the class
b. the objectives that were to be measured
c. the items missed by each student
d. all of the above
1632. A teacher planning to use a criterion-reference measurement presumably would begin with:
a. a set of specific objectives for pupils achievement
b. varying norms of students of different abilities
c. modular scheduling
d. a variety of leaning experiences to determine student abilities
1633. Standardized test for measuring pupil achievement have many advantages over teachermade
test. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of standard tests?
a. Students are tested under matching conditions
b. Such test have high reliability
c. Such test have high variability
d. Such tests are most costly than teacher-made test.
1634. A non-participating classroom observer can provide valuable information to a teacher because:
350
a. the observer is probably less subjective than the teacher
b. the observer can spend full time recording observations
c. the observer can focus on certain behaviors and systematically code them for a report
d. all of the above are true
1635. Research on individual learning differences indicates the need for:
a. the traditional “lockstep” approach to classroom instruction
b. maximizing off-task behaviors
c. plenty of free time for each pupil
d. the use of the aptitude-treatment-interaction model
1636. Students with low achievement levels prefer a classroom learning environment that is:
a. innovation-oriented c. well-structured
b. task-oriented d. competition-oriented
1637. For a grade placement, which of the following tests would be best to administer to a 10-
year-old Puerto Rican boy who does not speak English?
a. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
b. The test of General Ability
c. The Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test
d. The Arthur Point Scale of Performance Test
1638. A teacher gave two forms of a standardized test to a class of third graders. She found that
the amount of fluctuation between class scores on both forms was as slight as reported in
the test publisher’s:
a. item analysis
b. standard error
c. standard deviation
d. d. history reliability
1639. Which one of the following factor is NOT a significant advantage of a standardized test over
day-to-day teacher made test?
a. The standardized test is cost-effective.
b. The standardized test is more valid.
c. The standardized test is more reliable.
d. The standardized test is based on national norms.
1640. Interest inventories are valuable for counseling secondary school student because the are given;
a. In percentiles.
b. In the form of a career advice.
c. In the form of a psychological profile.
d. In staines scores.
1641. The ratio of “exceptional” children in general population is about.
a. 1:8 b.1:20 c.1:4 d. 1:10
1642. Which of the following is useful for a teacher involved in a “majesty learning” program?
a. Summative testing over several units.
b. Formative testing during instruction.
c. Diagnostic testing.
d. All of the above.
1643. when constructing a teacher-made test, it is most important for the teacher to:
a. develop one-fourth of the question at the level of challenge appropriate for the testee.
b. ask question based on both factual and conceptual learnings
c. ask students to express their point of view
d. stress the objectives used during the lesson.
1644. When teaching concepts at the elementary grade level, it is most helpful to provide pupils with
a. examples and non-examples of the concept
b. a cluster of concepts at one time
c. a definition of the concepts
d. disjunctive concepts
1645. A junior high school principal wants to evaluate the science program. What is the first he
should take?
a. Analyze pupil achievement scores
351
b. Look at national norms for achievement in the sciences
c. Confer with parents
d. Review and, if necessary, revise objectives for the program
1646. A personal feeling, either positive or negative towards an object, a person or an institution.
a. attitude c. opinion
b. aptitude d. none of these
1647. Known as one’s preparedness for learn in a certain task brought about by the influences of
heredity and environment.
a. Characteristics c. Interest
b. Aptitude d. None of these
1648. The process of identifying educational goals and the extent to which these objectives have
been realized or met.
a. Examination c. Planning
b. Evaluation d. None of these
1649. The degree to which the test scores in a class spread.
a. Discrimination
b. Dispersion
c. Interval
d. None of these
1650. The item in a multiple-choice type of test which serves as a “joker”
a. Obstractor
b. Error
c. Distractor
d. none of these
1651. A type of scores arrangement in a class which includes all possible score values from
highest to lowest with the list of learners “names include.
a. Frequency table
b. Grade norms
c. Frequency distribution
d. None of these
1652. A special liking or inclination for a particular type of undertaking.
a. interest
b. attitude
c. goal
d. none of these
1653. In psychological measurement, a score of 50 is generally considered as
a. 49.9 – 50.9
b. 49.25 – 50.75
c. 49 – 51
d. 49.5 – 50.5
1654. What is the best measure of typical performance to use when there are extreme measures?
a. mean c. mode
b. median d. standard deviation
1655. What measure of central tendency is affected by extreme measures?
a. mean c. mode
b. median d. standard deviation
1656. If the mean is larger than the median, the mode is :
a. below the mean c. below the median
b. above the mean d. above the median
1657. When plotting the frequency polygon, which part of the score class do we use?
a. lower limit
b. midpoint
c. higher limit
d. entire class interval
1658. A distribution with the greatest frequency at and around the middle and a few high and
low scores is:
352
a. platykurtic
b. leptokurtic
c. mesokurtic
d. skewed
1659. A distribution in which the scores are cluster at either end and shows a curve which is:
a. normal
b. skewed
c. bimodal
d. mesokurtic
1660. One should interpret the percentile rank of a given score in the terms of percentage of:
a. number of correct responses
b. number of items in the test
c. number of cases in the distribution
d. number of wrong response
1661. A distribution that is step with a narrow range is called:
a. kurtosis
b. mesokurtic
c. leptokurtic
d. platykutic
1662. The least reliable measure o dispersion is the:
a. range
b. Q
c. Mode
d. SD
1663. What test includes items which measure variety of mental operations combined into a single
sequence from which only a single score is taken?
a. objective test
b. percentile
c. omnibus
d. none of the above
1664. What is measure of an individual’s intelligence which considers both his scores in an
intelligence test and his chronological age?
a. Intelligence quotient
b. Inventory
c. Individual test of intelligence
d. Mental age
1665. What diagram is used to determine the social interactions among individuals in a group?
a. scatter diagram
b. norm
c. sociogram
d. parallelogram
1666. What test is made after certain norms have been established?
a. standardized test
b. norm
c. speed test
d. none of these
1667. What type of scores is obtained when a highly reliable measuring instrument is used?
a. T-score
b. Z-score
c. True score
d. N-score
1668. The kind of statistics that is used to describe a big number o data on hand. These data
usually include numerals, decimals, fraction and percentages.
a. descriptive statistics
b. inferential statistics
c. survey statistuics
353
d. simple statistuics
1669. A test where the results are obtained from a large group. The evaluation is based on certain
norm or standard set, hence, the norm becomes the basis of the test evaluation.
a. criterion-reference test
b. summative test
c. norm-reference test
d. formative test
1670. The test results in this type o test are compared with an absolute standard. They indicate
whether or not a student needs more or less help on certain skills.
a. criterion-reference test
b. norm-reference test
c. formative test
d. summative test
1671. This evaluation device includes an analysis of all the scores in a given distribution. It is
commonly used to estimate the test validity.
a. statistics
b. standard deviation
c. variables
d. quartile deviation
1672. The information shows by these data, includes the highest, middle, and lowest scores, even
the missing scores in a tabulated data presentation.
a. frequency data
b. concluded data
c. gathered data
d. surveyed data
1673. The measure of variability not influenced by extreme scores is the:
a. Q
b. Range
c. MD
d. Sd
1674. The semi-quartile range is a measurement of:
a. probability
b. central tendency
c. reliability
d. correlation
1675. The measure of scores density around the median is the
a. range
b. quartile deviation
c. mean deviation
d. standard deviation
1676. The greatest weakness of the range as a measure of variability it its
a. intricate computation c. extreme in stability
b. ease of computation d. difficulty of interpretation
1677. The largest measure o variability from the central tendency distribution is:
a. average deviation
b. range
c. quartile deviation
d. standard deviation
1678. Which of the following cannot illustrate two distribution is:
a. Cumulative frequency curve
b. Cumulative percentage curve
c. Histogram
d. Scattergram
1679. A distribution characterized by many high scores and a few very low scores is:
a. Leptokurtic
354
b. Negatively skewed
c. Platykurtic skewed
d. Positively skewed
1680. The range is an expression of:
a. central tendency
b. concentration
c. correlation
d. variability
1681. The root-mean-square deviation is generally known as:
a. Average deviation
b. Quartile deviation
c. Range
d. Standard deviation
1682. Synonymous to median, this term refers to the common average of a set of sores.
a. arithmetic
b. class interval
c. score
d. none of these
1683. A system of grouping closely-related score values into a single category which is often
used in tallying scores for a class.
a. Criterion c. Converted scores
b. Class interval d. None of these
1684. A statistical index which represents the relationship between two varying measures
which occurs within a class.
a. cross-validation c. ceiling
b. correlation coefficient d. none of these
1685. The difference between the highest and lowest score in a given set of scores.
a. Quartile c. Profile
b. Range d. None of these
1686. Scores tendency to group at one end and spread out at the opposite end of a given
distribution of scores.
a. Skewness c. unreability
b. Unevenness d. none of these
1687. When a test succeeds in determining accurately the particular attribute of a person
who is tested, it is said to be
a. reliable
b. variable
c. valid
d. none of these
1688. The standard used to interpret test scores
a. norm
b. mode
c. percentile
d. none of these
1689. An index of a person’s intelligence in relation to other of his own age group
a. intelligence quotient c. personality
b. grade norm d. none of these
1690. Test on reading readiness examples of a group of tests.
a. prognostic test c. vocabulary test
b. cognitive test d. none of these
1691. A rational treatment of raw scores arranged in numerical order or grouped in intervals
to get information about how an individual of a group compares with the total
population.
a. norm c. equalization of scores
b. frequency distribution d. none of these
1692. Test norms are based on:
355
a. the actual performance of a representative group of students
b. the predetermined levels of standards of performance
c. he performance of a selected group of students
d. the anticipator performance of a group of students
1693. A test with a difficulty index of 0.85 is considered:
a. high, therefore difficult
b. low, therefore easy
c. high, therefore easy
d. low, therefore difficult
1694. A clear example of a future-oriented test is the :
a. Philippine Achievement Test
b. Otislemon Mental Ability
c. Personality Test
d. National College Entrance
1695. Which of the types of ability is not generally measured by intelligence tests?
a. Quantitative
b. Verbal
c. Reasoning
d. Social
1696. The Rorschach Test and Thematic Association Test are oath referred to as ______ tests.
a. projective c. sociometric
b. psychometric d. analytic
1697. Which of the following is considered as a serious with personality tests?
a. reliability c. usability
b. scorability d. validity
1698. Attitudes towards communism or socialism are best measured with:
a. sociometry
b. questionnaires & interviews
c. checklist & multiple choice
d. forced triads
1699. Two classes are given the same arithmetic test and the mean for both classes is 57. The
standard deviation for class A is 5.1, while that of Class is 10.3. On the basis of the above
data, we may conclude that with respect to arithmetic achievement:
a. Class A is more heterogeneous than Class B
b. The teaching of arithmetic is more effective in Class A.
c. Class B is more heterogeneous than Class A
d. There is no sufficient data for making a comparison.
1700. In the following distribution: 1,3,3,3,5; we can say that:
a. the mean is greater than the median
b. the median is greater than the mode
c. the mode is greater than the mode
d. the median, median and the mode have the same value
1701. The distribution given in no.39 is:
a. skewed to the left
b. skewed to the right
c. normal
d. leptokurtic
1702. Which of the following is an important duty of a teacher?
a. evaluating pupil’s progress
b. soliciting contributions
c. safekeeping of the properties of the school
d. going on a vacation
1703. Which of the following is not to be considered in preparing items for objectives tests?
a. make each test items comprehensible
b. group items belonging to the same type together
356
c. provide specific directions on how the test is to be taken
d. very difficult test items
1704. To promote better student learning, which of these should be practical in testing?
a. check the papers long after the test has been given
b. check and return corrected papers to the student as soon as possible to appraise
them of their performances
c. pile test papers in the stockroom
d. use to get even with the students
1705. In scoring essay test, which of the following is not a good practice?
a. decide what qualities are to be considered in scoring the answer
b. write comments and correct errors on the answers
c. rearrange the papers after checking one questions before starting to check the next
d. accept all answers written by the tester
1706. Which type of objective test is best or evaluating mastery of facts and information?
a. multiple-choice
b. completing type
c. true-false
d. essay
1707. In making test items of objective type, which o the following should be observed?
a. no clues to the correct response should be given intentionally
b. each test item should be related to the item
c. the vocabulary level of the test should present some form of difficulty
d. test items should include also the irrelevant part of the lesson
1708. Which of the following is not a good characteristic of an evaluative technique?
a. has clear goals
b. utilizes various forms of testing
c. consider the nature of the learners
d. has ambiguous presentation
1709. Which of the following is not an objective type of teacher-made test?
a. matching type
b. completion type
c. multiple-response
d. essay test
1710. Which of the following is not criterion in determining the effectiveness of a test?
a. validity
b. reliability
c. cost of test
d. items based on factor analysis
1711. Which of the following is not a purpose of evaluation?
a. provide educational guidance
b. appraise the total school program
c. provide for the individual differences
d. none of these
1712. When the aim is to determine where the strengths and weaknesses of the students lie
before teaching of a new lesson is done, what test is given?
a. unit
b. c. diagnostic
c. achievement
d. d. summative
1713. I teach in a traditional school that subscribes to a perennialist and essentialist philosophy of
education. Which is most likely the curricular approach implemented?
a. Activity-centered
b. Subject-centered
c. Student-centered
d. Hidden
357
1714. My class is not a very good one. The students find it hard to draw generalizations. Which
approach to lesson planning may be most efficient and effective?
a. Inductive
b. Intuitive
c. Reflective
d. Deductive
1715. Teacher Nene’s lesson plan is dominated by highly-instructive lesson consisting of pupils
watching demonstration, taking down notes and rote learning. What approach to lesson
planning does Teacher Nene use?
a. Intuitive
b. Behavioral
c. Cognitive
d. Inductive
1716. How will I develop my lesson plan if I want to develop my students’ skill to draw
generalizations?
a. Reflectively
b. Intuitively
c. Deductively
d. Inductively
1717. I want my pupils to find the rule in adding similar fractions after I have given them sufficient
examples of similar fractions with their sums. Which method should I use in my plan?
a. Discovery method
b. Deductive method
c. Reflective method
d. Expository method
1718. If I want to teach my students how to play chess, which method of lesson development is
most appropriate?
a. Direct method
b. Inquiry method
c. Discovery method
d. Inductive method
1719. The education supervisor from the Department of Education explains to the student
teachers that the content in Science must be used in the teaching of language skills in
English in Grade. Which approach does the supervisor promote?
a. Deductive
b. Integrative
c. Experiential
d. Inductive
1720. Which is expected if a teacher develops her lesson in an experiential manner?
a. She begins her lesson with pupils’ experiences and ends by connecting subject matter to
their life experiences.
b. The teacher narrates her experiences and ask questions to challenge the students think
c. Students are made to learn from vicarious experiences through the use of success
stories
d. Students are taught that experience is the best teacher
1721. Every time I plan the lesson on the human digestive system in Biology I relate it to the
disease associated with the human digestive system which are discussed in a later chapter
of the course syllabus in biology. Which approach do I use?
a. Interactive
b. Multidisciplinary
c. Interdisciplinary
d. Collaborative
358
1722. With collaborative effort as point of reference in lesson planning, which one does NOT
belong to the group?
a. Computer-assisted instruction
b. Peer tutoring
c. Team teaching
d. Project method
1723. Which one should I do if I want to apply the integrative approach in my lesson
development?
I. Design activities that cater to multiple intelligences
II. Relate lesson to other lesson in other subjects
III. Teach lesson in the cognitive, psychomotor and affective domains
a. I and II
b. I, ll and lll
c. I and lll
d. Il and lll
1724. The topic is environmental degradation. Teacher tackles it from the perspective of an
ecologist, economist, medical doctor, educator and sociologist. For his lesson plan, which
method will be most appropriate?
a. Brainstorming
b. Panel discussion
c. Debate
d. Focus group discussion
1725. In a lesson which intends to generate as many ideas as there are, which technique ought to
be used?
a. Values Clarification
b. Brainwashing
c. Brainstorming
d. Inquiry
1726. Teacher Jing wants to develop team work, group and individual accountability for learning
among her students. Which teaching technique is a major part of her lesson plan?
a. Cooperative learning
b. Small group discussion
c. Team building
d. Group dynamics
1727. If you abide by Bruner’s three-tiered model learning, which will you begin a lesson on the
definition fraction?
a. A. Show a cake divided into two
b. Write a fraction, e.g. ｾ on the board
c. Project the definition on the screen
d. Ask your students to give examples of fraction.
1728. Applying the principle, “the more senses that are involved, the more effective the learning
becomes” which instructional technology should be preferred?
a. Workbooks
b. Field trips
c. Video Presentation
d. Dramatization
1729. I want to help chemistry students develop and practice research skills by using a laboratory
similar to that of a real laboratory before the students use the riskier, more expensive real
equipment. What methodology shall I use?
a. simulation
b. apprentice-like activity
c. laboratory
d. process approach
1730. Feedback is necessary for effective teaching. Which educational technology supports person-toperson
feedback?
a. Electronic mail
359
b. Electorate
c. World-wide web
d. Computer-assisted instruction
1731. If you apply Edgar’s Dale’s Cone of Experience in teaching, which would you do?
a. Connect the concrete and the abstract
b. Use one audio-visual aid at time
c. Do away with interactive teaching
d. Avoid the use of the chalkboard since it has been overused
1732. If you apply the principle “less is more” in the use of the chalkboard for teaching-learning,
which should you do?
a. Limit your writing/diagrams on the chalkboard to the most important details
b. Write every word on the chalkboard to ensure clarity and completeness of ideas
c. Use the board only for diagrams
d. Avoid using the chalkboard all the time even when there is no other material available.
1733. Which instructional method is aligned to this lesson objective: “Given a tabular data on
weights and heights of school athletes, the students will be able to draw conclusions
regarding correlation of weights and heights of the athletes.
a. Inductive method
b. Intuitive method
c. Deductive method
d. Meta-cognitive method
1734. If I want students to connect educational theory and practice, which learning experiences will
be most appropriate?
a. School immersion
b. Role playing
c. Simulation
d. Microteaching
1735. Which activity is most fit if Teacher Flora wants to develop in her students understanding and
compassion for the aged and children with special needs?
a. Immersion in communities of the aged and children with special needs
b. Watching a movie on the aged and children with special needs
c. Conducting research on the aged and children with special needs
d. Composing poems about the aged and children with special needs
1736. I want my students to take a personal stand on the Reproductive Bill and defend the same.
Which assessment item/activity matches my objective?
a. Are you for or against the Reproductive Bill? Why or why not?
b. Research on reasons given by those who are pro Reproductive Bill and by those who are
anti.
c. Why are a number of leaders in favor for the Reproductive Bill?
d. Why is the Catholic Church against the Reproductive Bill?
1737. Give a summary of the chapter by means of a graphic organizer, jingle, dance, song, or poem
or in any manner of your choice.” Which objective is this assessment activity meant to
measure?
a. The students must be able to give a chapter summary by considering multiple
intelligences of the students
b. The students must be able to display their talents as they give a chapter summary.
c. The students show their multiple intelligences by giving a chapter summary.
d. The students must develop their multiple intelligences by giving a chapter summary.
1738. Here is a Unit objective: “To develop appreciation for all the sacrifices that our heroes made
for our freedom as a nation.” What activities will be most appropriate?
I. Dramatization of selected nationalistic episodes from the life of our Filipino heroes
II. Debate on who should have been declared as national hero- Rizal or Bonifacio
III. Writing a thank you letter to at least two Filipino heroes in appreciation of the sacrifice
they have made
a. I and III
b. III only
360
c. I only
d. II only
1739. A school wants to develop the learners’ metacognitive skills. Which practice is inconsistent
with the school’s goal?
a. Rote teaching and learning
b. Emphasis on HOTS
c. Constructivist instruction
d. Authentic assessment
1740. Schools want to develop students to become lifelong learners. Which is LEAST helpful in the
attainment of this goal?
a. Stress on factual learning
b. Mastery of the 4 r’s
c. Use of authentic assessment
d. Teaching learners the skills to learn
1741. Schools want to develop children to become critical thinkers. Which one can be of help?
a. Emphasis on HOTS
b. Application of Paolo Freire’s banking system” of education
c. Use of convergent questions
d. Authorization classroom setting
1742. If schools want to equip children with the basic skills, what should teachers do?
a. Make pupils master reading, writing and arithmetic
b. Develop pupils “multiple intelligences
c. Teach them to ask the right question
d. Teach them livelihood skills
1743. Is the learner a resource in the classroom?
a. Yes, she/he is a very important resource
b. No, he is still very inexperienced
c. No, only he teacher who is trained to teach can serve as resource
d. Yes, provided she/he is a high performing pupil
1744. To enhance metacognitive reading skills, what should I make my students do?
I. Reflect on what they have read
II. Write their reflections
III. Make them answer comprehension question on what was read
a. I and ll
b. Ill only
c. I, ll and lll
d. Il only
1745. Which question can help develop students’ creative thinking skills after reading the story of
The Monkey and the Turtle?
a. Why did the Turtle treat the Monkey that way?
b. Who is wiser – the Monkey or the Turtle? Why?
c. If you were to re-write the story, how would you end it?
d. Did you find the story interesting? Explain your answer.
1746. Is outlining an essay read in the level of creative and metacognitive reading?
a. No (cognitive only)
b. Yes
c. Yes, if a student is asked to go beyond a skeletal
d. No, if a student is asked just an ordinary outline.
1747. Which word is contrary to a creative classroom atmosphere?
a. Perspective (strong opinion, judgment, biases)
b. Non-judgmental
c. Open
d. Liberal
1748. Have factual skills something to do with metacognitive skills?
a. Yes, the prerequisite knowledge must have been mastered so a student can engage in
higher metacognitive process.
361
b. No, the prerequisite knowledge is disconnected to metacognitive processes
c. Yes, if the subject matter is extremely difficult
d. No, if the subject matter is quite easy
1749. If you apply the cognitive theories of learning with which do you agree?
a. Learning is an active process of organizing and integrating information.
b. Learning is strengthening the connection between stimulus and response.
c. Learning involves a mind that is totally blank.
d. Learning is automatically responding to a stimulus.
1750. How would you make your students look forward to coming to school every day from the
point of view of B.F. Skinner’s reinforcement theory?
a. Make them enjoy learning activities.
b. Make use of mental drills in the classroom.
c. Convince them of the importance of education.
d. Always end your lessons with a clear summary.
1751. How would you make the teaching-learning process effective from the point of view of
Gestalt theories?
a. Ask your students to draw their insights from the lesson.
b. Reward every performing child.
c. Dwell on the development of critical thinking.
d. Punish a child who does not do his/her assignment.
1752. Which is an application of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development?
a. Guide the child for learning until she/he can be on his/her own
b. Transmit information to students
c. Reward every child for every good work
d. Create a stimulating learning environment
1753. If a teacher is humanistic, on which learning goal is he focused? Facilitating the development
of _____________
a. Self-actualized individuals
b. Learners who can process information
c. Independent learners (liberal-minded)
d. Highly skilled technical individuals
1754. Which is an application of Gardner’s MI theory?
a. Make use of variety of teaching strategies
b. Stick to one proven effective teaching for learners with multi-intelligences
c. Present one model of a project for class to imitate
d. Demonstrates the steps in doing an experiment completely
1755. Which would be Piaget’s advice to teachers?
a. Challenge the learners ability but do not present information far beyond their level
b. There is no such thing as information beyond the level of learners provided it is
presented clearly
c. Use varied teaching strategies to cater to learners in varied developmental stages
d. Arrange subject matter in a hierarchal manner
1756. Which activity/ties should be used for students in the formal operation stage of Piaget?
I. Make them come up with hypothetical to explore
II. Teach facts and make them connect the facts
III. Make the students pay attention to the BIG ideas.
a. L, ll and lll
b. l and lll
c. l and ll
d. ll and lll
1757. Which flows from Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
a. Use of moral dilemmas
b. Teacher as model of values
c. Using the inculcation method of values education
d. Teaching the unchanging values
362
1758. For discipline, how should you approach a student’s misbehavior from the point of view of
Skinner’s extinction or non-reinforcement theory?
a. Ignore the misbehavior (mild)
b. Punish the misbehaving student as inconspicuously as possible (not acceptable-positive
punishment-undesirable)
c. Withdraw a privilege which the student used to enjoy (negative punishmentundesirable)
d. Isolate the student to prevent disruption of class activities (antiseptic bouncing-heavy))
1759. Applying information processing theory, how can you help learners increase retrieval of
information by context?
a. Connect the information to a situation (remembering)
b. Recite the information, not just hear
c. Personalize the information
d. Connecting pieces of information (comprehension)
1760. If you apply Bruner’s concept of knowledge representation in teaching Math, in which order
will you use these materials?
I. Symbols
II. Blocks
III. Pictorials
a. ll lll l
b. l ll lll
c. l lll ll
d. ll l lll
1761. What is an application of Ausubel’s subsumption theory to instruction?
a. Make use of advance organizers
b. Teach from the concrete to abstract
c. Arrange curriculum hierarchically
d. Connect one information to another
1762. If a teacher is guided by Gestalt’s Law of Figure/Ground when he/she teaches, what
does she/he do?
a. Highlights the words I want to give attention to
b. Relates the topic to something the student already knows (background)
c. Arranges topics logically
d. Teaches topic that are similar close to one another
1763. If you want to apply Skinner’s operant conditioning theory in reinforcing a learner’s good
behavior, what should you do?
I. Reward the learner for good behavior
II. (Punish the wrong behavior - not promoted by skinner)
III. (Ignore behavior)
a. l and lll
b. l only
c. lll only
d. ll only
1764. In the context of Bruner’s theory of learning, if a teacher teaches in the iconic level,
what does she use?
a. Models
b. Symbols
c. Realias
d. Words
1765. Which order of steps should I follow if abide by Kolb’s experiential learning theory?
I. Do ( concrete experience )
II. Plan ( testing in new situations )
III. Observe ( observation and reflection )
IV. Think ( form abstract concepts )
a. l lll 1V ll
b. l ll lll 1V
363
c. l lll ll 1V
d. l ll 1V lll
1766. If a teacher applies Kolb’s experiential learning theory in his teaching, with which will he
begin his lesson?
a. Concrete experience
b. Testing in new situations
c. Observation and reflection
d. Abstract concepts
1767. Which is a pedagogical consequence of John Locke’s tabula rasa?
a. Teacher does not expect students to have built-in mental content
b. Teacher withdraws ideas from students minds
c. Teacher expects knowledge contributions from students
d. Teacher draws insights from learners
1768. In the context of Piaget’s cognitive theory, to which do you attribute a kindergartners
inability to see reality from other’s point of view?
a. Egocentrism
b. Assimilation
c. Decent ration
d. Accommodation
1769. If your approach to teaching is constructivist, which class behavior is observable?
a. Students uncompounded words by creating their own compound words using comic
strip
b. Teacher introduces and develops the lesson without interruption
c. Students don’t ask questions as these are signs of inattention
d. Students drill on subject- verb agreement
1770. Which assumption about learning underlies the cognitive model of learning?
a. One cannot force someone to learn
b. The process of learning excludes sensory input
c. Meaningful learning can be imposed on learners
d. Mistakes committed in the process of learning are unacceptable
1771. Research says that the adolescent compares her parents to an ideal standard and then
criticizes their flaws. To which can you attribute this behavior?
a. Adolescents increased sense of idealism
b. Society urgent for model parents
c. Adolescents desire for recognition
d. Biological maturation of adolescents
1772. Research findings show that conformity to pressure in adolescence can be positive or
negative. How can a teacher channel this conformity for good? Challenge them to
__________.
a. Work on a noble project of fund raising for indigent children
b. Organize sororities/fraternities
c. Embark on class projects by group
d. Think like everyone in their group
1773. Group identity often overrides personal identity in adolescence. Which should be done for
optimum learning?
a. Organize group work
b. Assess learning by group
c. Eliminate individual projects
d. Make greater use of intrapersonal activities
1774. Harry Stack Sullivan (1953), the most influential theorist to discuss the importance of
adolescence friendships, argued that there is a dramatic increase in the psychological
importance and intimacy of close friends during early adolescence. What then should be
done?
a. Adolescents should develop genuine friendships
b. Adolescents should allowed to go dating
c. Parents should choose the friends for their children
364
d. Adolescents should set standards that govern their choice of lifetime partners
1775. Researches on the brain tell that the brain is more “plastic” in younger children and
potentially more malleable for re-routing neural circuits. What is an implication on reading
disabilities?
I. Early identification of reading disabilities is very important
II. Remediation for reading disabilities must be given as early as possible
III. Reading disabilities in late childhood are beyond remediation
a. I and ll
b. Il only
c. I only
d. Ill only
1776. In the formal operation stage of Piaget’s cognitive development, which can individuals do?
I. Views things only from his perspective
II. Begin to think abstractly
III. Reason logically
IV. Draw conclusions from given information
a. I lll and IV
b. II and IV
c. I and ll
d. I and IV
1777. According to Erikson, what happens to a young adult who is confused about his/her possible
future role as an adult?
a. Isolates himself/herself
b. Findings intimacy through meaningful friendship
c. Fails to grasp a sense of meaning in life
d. Trust himself/herself
1778. Girls start puberty earlier than boys. What is an implication of this to classroom instruction?
I. Avoid comparing performance of boys and girls
II. Use a differentiated approach to instruction
III. Compare boys’ and girls’ performance to motivate them to perform better
a. I and ll
b. Ill only
c. I only
d. Il only
1779. Assessment must be authentic. If you want to know how well children read and write, which
should you do?
a. Have them read and write
b. Have them mark, circle and underline words after you have read them
c. Allow children to select how they will be evaluated
d. Have them list the stories they read for the month
1780. Which practice goes with authentic assessment?
a. Make students dance tango to determine if they learned how to dance tango
b. Make students recite the multiplication table to check for mastery
c. Make students check their own answer after quiz
d. Make students come up with a flow chart to demonstrates a process
1781. In what way are the results of summative assessment utilized?
a. To assign a grade
b. To diagnose learning difficulties
c. To guide teacher in her choice of class activity
d. To check attainment lesson objectives
1782. What does a grade given to the student’s measure?
a. Learners achievement
b. Learners intelligence
c. Parents involvement in the learning of a child
d. Teacher effectiveness
1783. What does the phrase assessment for learning imply?
365
a. Assessment is meant to improve learning.
a. Assessment is a necessary ingredients of the teaching learning process
b. There can be no learning without assessment
c. There is no assessment without learning
1784. In an average grading system, what will be the average of grade VI students with the
following grades 75, 78, 76 and 75 in the 4 grading periods?
a. 76
b. 76.3
c. 76.1
d. 76.2
1785. _____________ introduced the idea of “child’s garden” or kindergarten.
a. A. Maria Montessori
b. Friedrich Froebel
c. B. Edward Paparazzi
d. John Locke
1786. If a teacher believes in the concept of education that makes every individual a useful citizen
to the state, then he is influenced by the concept:
a. Conformity
b. Humanitarianism
c. Security
d. Utilitarianism
1787. It is a science that deals with the methods and strategies of teachings.
a. Epistemology
b. Metaphysics
c. Pedagogy
d. Ethics
1788. If the teacher would say that honesty is still an important value even if nobody values it,
then he is considered as:
a. Pragmatist
b. Reconstructivist
c. Idealist
d. Progressivist
1789. If the teacher believes that an individual has ideas about the world and he learns these
ideas by reflecting on them, he is considered as_______________.
a. Empiricist
b. Rationalist
c. Existentialist
d. Constructivist
1790. If a teacher believes that even though there is an external world from which human beings
acquire sensory information, ideas originate from the working of the mind, then we can
consider him as:
a. Idealist
b. Empiricist
c. Existentialist
d. Pragmatist
1791. If a teacher believes that a child’s mind is TABULA RASA, then the teacher will most likely
engage the students in _____________ process for them to learn.
a. Sensory impressions
b. Reflections
c. Reasoning
d. Meta-cognition
1792. A teacher who believes that one should not trust the senses since ideas are arrived at only
by reason in influenced by:
a. Naturalist
b. Existentialist
c. Rationalist
366
d. Empiricist
1793. The individual soul is part of the absolute soul. This thought is from ____________
philosophy.
a. Greek
b. Hebrew
c. Chinese
d. Hindu
1794. The school curriculum includes the study about Rizal and other heroes to inculcate love of
country. This is in accordance with what philosophy?
a. Pragmatist
b. Nationalism
c. Existentialist
d. Realist
1795. ____________ said that schools must develop human reason because reason is superior to
experience as a source of knowledge.
a. Humanist
b. Hedonists
c. Stoics
d. Rationalists
1796. The belief that love, hope, and faith are values for eternity whether they are valued by
others or not, is deeply rooted on what philosophy?
a. Idealism
b. Realism
c. Existentialism
d. Pragmatism
1797. The concept of karma originated from:
a. Hebrews
b. Hindus
c. Greeks
d. Chinese
1798. The teacher stresses the need to revise the curriculum in order to make the curriculum
responsive to the needs of the society. What philosophy does the teacher adhere?
a. Pragmatism
b. Essentialism
c. Existentialism
d. Reconstructionism
1799. After Marcos’ declaration of Martial Law, he signed PD 6-A in order to:
a. Establish a complete, adequate and integrated system of education
b. Undertake educational development/projects and the mechanics of implementation
and financing
c. improve the quality of education in all levels
d. Regulate and control the practice of teaching profession
1800. Which law requires the teachers to be a college graduate and a passer of the Professional
Board Examinations for Teachers (PBET)?
a. RA 7836 (for LET)
b. RA 1006
c. PD 1006
d. RA 9155
1801. During the time of Marcos, which agency served as DEC’s partner in the licensing of
teachers?
a. PRC
b. CSC
c. NCCA
d. PSC
367
1802. According to Education Act of 1982, which of these processes would promote the standard
of the schools?
a. Promoting an environment conducive to learning
b. Promoting the rights and duties of citizenship
c. Submitting all programs/system to voluntary accreditation
d. Establishment of the complete, adequate, and integrated system of education
1803. If all requirements are met in accordance with the law, can religion be taught in public
schools?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It depends on the executives of education
d. It depends on the religious institution
1804. If religion is taught in public school with the completion of all requirements, where is it
done?
a. Outside class hours
b. within class hours
c. According to agreement
d. none of these
1805. _____ is the start of Education in human rights as provided for in the 1987 Constitution.
a. Loving others
b. Caring for others
c. Liking others
d. Respects towards others
1806. According to the Republic Act 7836 the licensure exam for teachers at present is with:
a. CHED
b. DECS
c. PRC
d. Civil Service Commission
1807. Which schools are under the control, regulation and supervision of the government?
a. Public, private, sectarian, and nonsectarian school
b. Private schools under the religious group
c. Public schools under the supervision of the executives of education
d. Sectarian and nonsectarian schools
1808. _____ was adopted to provide universal access to basic learning, and to eradicate literacy.
a. “Paaralan-sa-bawat-Baranggay”
b. Values Education Framework
c. Education for All (EFA)
d. Science and Education Development Plan
1809. The importance of providing free public education for both in primary and secondary levels
is highlighted in Article XIV section 2. This is needed because:
a. Elementary and Secondary school provides formal education
b. These levels provide the foundation for life functions and roles
c. No one goes to college without passing the grade and high schools
d. A few people cannot afford the expensive quality of private schools
1810. When we say that rights and duties are correlative, we mean that_______________.
a. Right and duties regulate the relationship of men in society
b. Each right carries with it one or several corresponding duties
c. Rights and duties ultimate come from God
d. Rights and duties arise from the natural law
1811. Teacher’s Professionalism Act is ___________.
a. RA 7836
b. RA 7722
c. RA 4670
d. RA 9293
1812. What should teachers teach students to eradicate bullying among kids in school?
368
a. Full development of talents
b. Respect for the dignity of persons
c. Athletic skills
d. Full development of physical power
1813. The provision on ________ enables the blind and deaf students to partially or fully
integrate inside the classroom.
a. Academic freedom for students and teachers
b. Providing vocational training to adult citizens and out of school youths
c. Creating scholarship for poor and deserving students
d. Protecting and promoting the right of all citizens to quality education
1814. A teacher compiled the outputs of her peers and put her name as the author. Which is
unprofessional in her action?
a. Not giving credit to others for their work
b. Failing to correct what appears to be unprofessional conduct
c. Giving due credit to others for their work
d. Holding inviolate all confidential information concerning associates
1815. How can teachers uphold the high standard of the teaching profession?
a. By working for the promotion in the system
b. By continuously improving themselves personally and professionally
c. By pointing out the advantages of joining the teaching profession
d. By good grooming to change people’s poor perception of teachers
1816. According to the Constitution, the State is required to establish and maintain free public and
compulsory education in the __________.
a. elementary level only
b. secondary and tertiary levels
c. secondary level only
d. elementary and secondary levels
1817. The Educational Act of 1982 expressly granted to institutions of higher learning the freedom
to determine on academic grounds who shall be admitted to study, who may teach and
what shall be the subject of the study and research. This refers to _________.
a. academic freedom
b. institutional freedom
c. educational freedom
d. constitutional freedom
1818. Article XIV of the 1987 Constitution provides that State shall assign the highest budgetary
priority to education to:
a. ensure that all schools are provided with modern equipment and facilities
b. encourage teachers to conduct more researchers and studies on the arts and culture
c. attract the best available talents to adequate remuneration (mentioned in Art. 14)
d. curtail the exodus of teachers seeking employment abroad
1819. Jerome Burner taught that curriculum should revisit basic ideas, build on them, until the
students grasp the full formal concept. Which is an off short of this taught?
a. Basic curriculum
b. Spiral curriculum
c. Hidden curriculum
d. Re-structured curriculum
1820. The design of the 2002 Basic Education Curriculum (BEC) is based on the principles that the
main sources for contemporary basic education are the expert systems of knowledge and
the learner’s experience in his/her context. This shows that the BEC is ___________ in
orientation.
I. constructivist (experience)
II. behaviourist (expertise)
III. essentialist (expertise)
a. III
b. I and III
369
c. I
d. I, II and III
1821. When a delinquent, failing student comes to you for help and asks you for extra work so he
can cope. What is ethical for you to do?
a. Give him the extra work he is asking, then if he passes quality work, give him a passing
mark
b. Make the extra work that he is asking extremely difficult for him to learn a lesson (not
helping)
c. Extend the needed assistance in solving the student’s difficulties, not necessarily by
giving the extra work that he is asking (not connected to the question)
d. Give an easy extra work so he can really be helped to pass (not helping)
1822. Which of the following is assumed under the doctrine of IN-LOCO PARENTIS?
a. Students should be under parents’ control
b. Students are not yet ready to handle full adult responsibility
c. Parent ‘s have the primary duty to educate their children
d. Students are prone to commit infractions of disciplinary conduct
1823. Which actions show that political factors affect schools as agents of change?
I. The strengthening of the teaching of English in Philippines school.
II. The introduction of mandated subjects such as Rizal in the curriculum
III. The practice of mainstreaming
IV. The transfer of cultural affairs to NCCA under R.A 9155
a. I and III
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. II and IV
1824. For more efficient and effective management of school as agents of change, one proposal is
for the DepEd to cluster remote stand-alone schools under one lead school head. Which
factor has the strongest influence on this proposal?
a. Psychological
b. Historical
c. Geographical
d. Social
1825. As provided for the Educational Act of 1982, how are the institutions of learning encouraged
setting higher standards of equality over the minimum standards required for state
recognition?
a. Granting of Special Permit
b. Academic freedom
c. Continuing Professional Education
d. Voluntary accreditation
1826. Which violate(s) the principle of respect?
I. Teacher A tells her students that what Teacher B taught is wrong.
II. To retaliate, Teacher B advises students not to enroll in Teacher A’s class.
III. Teacher C secretly gives way to a special favor (e.g. add 2 points to grade) requested by
student A who is vying for honors.
a. II and III
b. B. I, II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III
1827. The authoritarian setting in the Filipino home is reinforced by a classroom teacher who:
a. Encourage pupils to ask questions
b. Is open to suggestions
c. Prescribes what pupils should do
d. Ask open ended questions
1828. The Constitutional provision on language has the following aims, EXCEPT:
a. To make the regional dialect as auxiliary media of instructions in regional school
b. To maintain English as a second language
370
c. To make Filipino the sole medium of instruction
d. To make Filipino the national language & medium of instruction & communication
1829. “It is hereby declared that policy of the State to provide relevant, accessible, high quality
and efficient technical education and skills development in support of the development of
high quality Filipino middle-level manpower responsive to and in accordance with the
Philippine development goals and priorities.” This is the declaration of policy of ____.
a. CHED
b. DepEd
c. TESDA
d. Presidential Decree No. 6-A
1830. Which is the most authentic proof of nationalism on the part of teacher?
a. winning the award “Most Outstanding Teacher”
b. utilizing every minute of the academic time for competent teaching
c. earning graduate degree for promotion
d. being a member in the National Organization for Professional Teachers
1831. What statement is FALSE with reference to Section 1 and Section 2, Article XIV of the 1987
Constitution?
a. quality education is privilege in so far as all citizens are concerned ( it is a right)
b. public education in the elementary is free and compulsory
c. scholarship grants, student loan programs, subsidies and other incentives to deserving
students in both public and private schools
d. Non - formal, informal and indigenous learning, self-learning, independent, and out-ofschool
study programs are encouraged.
1832. Under the present Constitution, pupils’ attendance in religious instruction in public
elementary and high schools shall be allowed only if ___
a. the superintendent, supervisors and principals will issue an instruction compelling
attendance
b. the parish priest or pastor shall authorize them in writing
c. when parents shall submit written authority allowing their children to attend religious
instruction
d. when school children have become delinquents
1833. One of the millennium aims of education for economic competence is ____________.
a. Gender equality
b. Eliminate Diseases
c. Eradicate poverty
d. equal access and equity
1834. The offering of Spanish in the curriculum of education is in response to the demand of
teachers in the US where most students are Latinos. Which criteria is in focus of the new
course offering in education?
a. Balance
b. utility
c. feasibility
d. validity
1835. The use of the integrated approach in both secondary and primary level subjects is a result
of the implementation of the:
a. Program for Decentralized Education
b. Basic Education Curriculum
c. School - based management
d. School First Initiative
1836. What does the acronym EFA imply for schools?
a. The acceptance of exclusive schools for boys and for girls.
b. The stress on the superiority of formal education over that of alternative learning
system.
c. Practice of inclusive education
d. The concentration on formal education system
371
1837. The wide acceptance of “bottom up” management style has influenced schools to practice
which management practice?
a. Exclusion of politicians from the pool of guest speakers during graduation exercises.
b. Prescription of what ought to be done from the Center Office.
c. Involvement of students, parents, teachers, and community in school planning
d. Allowing schools to do what they think is best
1838. The failure of Filipino students in the study conducted about independence was attributed
to their:
a. unpreparedness from schooling
b. ambivalence
c. high degree of independence
d. high degree of dependence on authority
1839. Which is a valid assessment tool if I want to find out how well my students can speak
extemporaneously?
a. Writing speeches
b. Written quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
c. Performance test in extemporaneous speech
d. Display of speeches delivered
1840. Teacher J discovered that her pupils are weak in comprehension. To further determine
in which particular skill(s) her pupils are weak, which test should Teacher J give?
a. Standardized test
b. Diagnostic
c. Placement
d. Aptitude test
1841. “Group the following items according to phylum” is a thought test item on ___________.
a. Inferring
b. generalizing
c. Classifying
d. comparing
1842. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on
working with and relating to people?
a. Writing articles on working and relating to people
b. Organizing a community project
c. Home visitation
d. Conducting mock election
1843. While she was is in the process of teaching, Teacher J finds out if her students
understand what she is teaching. What is Teacher J engaged in?
a. Criterion-reference
b. Formative evaluation (PART OF INSTRUCTION)
c. Summative evaluation
d. Norm-reference evaluation
1844. With types of test in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
a. Restricted response essay
b. multiple choice
c. Completion
d. Short answer
1845. In a one hundred-item test, what does Ryan’s raw score of 70 mean?
a. He surpassed 70 of his classmate in terms of score
b. He surpassed 30 of his classmates in terms of score
c. He got a score above the mean
d. He got 70 items correct
1846. Which statement holds TRUE to grades? Grades___________.
a. Are exact measurements of intelligence and achievement
b. Are necessarily a measure of students’ intelligence
c. Are intrinsic motivators for learning
372
d. Are a measure of achievement
1847. Is it a wise practice to orient our students and parents on our grading system?
a. No, this will court a lot of complaints later
b. Yes, but orientation must be only for our immediate customer’s the students.
c. Yes, so that from the very start student and their parents know how grades are
derived
d. No, grades and how they are derived are highly confidential
1848. Zero standard deviation means that: (verify)
a. The students’ scores are the same
b. 50% of the score obtained is zero
c. More than 50% of the score obtained is zero
d. Less than 50% of the scores obtained is zero
1849. Which is the least authentic mode of assessment?
a. Paper-and-pencil test in vocabulary
b. Oral performance to assess student’s spoken communication skills
c. Experiments in science to assess skill in the use of scientific methods
d. Artistic production for music or art subject
1850. Which statement applies when scores distribution is negatively skewed
a. The mode corresponds to a low value
b. The median is higher than the mode
c. The mode and median are equal
d. The mean corresponds to a high value
1851. What should a teacher do before constructing items for a particular test?
a. Prepare the table of specifications
b. Determine the length of time for answering it
c. Review the previous lessons
d. Announce to students the scope of the test
1852. Under which of the multiple choice type of test can this question be classified?
Which of the following statements expresses this concept in different forms?
a. Association
b. Definition
c. Difference
d. Cause
1853. Of the following types of test which is the most subjective in scoring?
a. Matching type
b. Simple call
c. Multiple choice
d. Essay
1854. In which of these research methods can the researcher control certain variable?
a. Experimental
b. Ex post facto
c. Descriptive
d. Historical
1855. During the first grading period, a student obtained failing marks in five academic
subjects. Which of the following tests would best explain his performance?
a. Mental ability
b. Personally
c. Attitude
d. Aptitude
1856. Measuring the work done by a gravitational force is a learning task. At what level of
cognitions is it?
a. Application
b. Knowledge
c. Evaluation
d. Comprehension
1857. Setting up criteria for scoring essay tests is meant to increase their ____.
373
a. Objectivity
b. Reliability
c. Validity
d. Usability
1858. The difference between Christian and Muslim marriage, the former being
monogamous and the latter being polygamous is called _____.
a. Ethical Relativism
b. Acculturation
c. Enculturation
d. Cultural relativism
1859. A perfect duty is exemplified:
a. Supporting a poor but deserving student school.
b. Donating an amount for noble project.
c. Paying the worker the wages agreed upon.
d. Giving alms to the needy
1860. Fear of something that was caused by a painful experiences in the past is an
example of:
a. Insight
b. Operant conditioning
c. Classical conditioning
d. Imitation
1861. Who introduced the technique of sign drawing of a man as a measure of
intelligence?
a. Binet
b. Aristotle
c. Herbert
d. Goodenough
1862. The Gabaldon Act in the Philippine Assembly helps greatly in the expansion program
of the educational system by _____________.
a. authorizing the levy of taxes for school purposes
b. providing local funds for educational facilities
c. providing for a highly centralized system of administering the public schools
d. appropriating a large sum for the construction of schools (during American
Period)
1863. The teacher begins to use technology tools to deliver curriculum content to the system.
a. Transformation
b. Adoption
c. Active
d. Entry
1864. The student uses technology tools to collaborate with other rather than working individually
at all times.
a. Collaborative
b. Authentic
c. Goal directed
d. Infusion
1865. Students use technology tools to set goals, plan activities, monitor progress, and evaluation
result rather than simply completing assignments without reflection.
a. Goal directed
b. Constructive
c. Adoption
d. Entry
1866. The teacher direct students in conventional and procedural use of technology tool.
a. Infusion
b. Constructive
374
c. Entry
d. Adoption
1867. The teacher encourage the innovative use of technology tools.
a. Active
b. Transformation
c. Adaptation
d. Adoption
1868. Technology tools are used to facilitate higher order learning activities that may not have
been possible without the use of technology.
a. Adaptation
b. Adoption
c. Active
d. Transformation
1869. The teacher provides the learning context and the student choose the technology tools to
achieve outcomes.
a. Adoption
b. Adaptation
c. Infusion
d. Entry
1870. The teacher facilitates students independently using technology tools.
a. Entry
b. Infusion
c. Adaptation
d. Adoption
1871. Students are actively engaged in using technology as a tool rather than passively receiving
information from the technology.
a. Goal directed
b. Authentic
c. Active
d. Collaborative
1872. Students use technology tools to link learning activities to the world beyond the
instructional setting rather than working on decontextualized assignments.
a. Entry
b. Infusion
c. Authentic
d. Goal directed
1873. Students use technology tools to connect new information to their prior knowledge rather
than to passively receive information.
a. Collaborative
b. Constructive
c. Goal directed
d. Active
1874. Teach allows for the creation of new tasks, previously inconceivable.
a. Substitution
b. Redefinition
c. Augmentation
d. Modification
1875. Teach acts as a direct tools substitute with functional improvement.
a. Substitution
b, Redefinition
c. Augmentation
d. Modification
375
1876. Teach allows for significant task redesign.
a. Substitution
b, Redefinition
c. Augmentation
d. Modification
1877. Teach acts as a direct tools substitute with functional change.
a. Substitution
b, Redefinition
c. Augmentation
d. Modification
1878. Is a model designed to help educator infusion technology into teaching and learning?
a. Infusion
b. SMAR
c. UNESCO
d. NCBTS
1879. The Teacher used inferences about student progress to information their teaching.
a. Assessment OF learning
b. Assessment AS learning
c. Assessment FOR learning
d. Summative assessment
1880. Is commonly known as Formative and Diagnostic Assessment.
a. Assessment FOR learning
b. Assessment AS learning
c. Assessment OF learning
d. Summative assessment
1881. The teachers are now afforded the chance to adjust classroom instruction based upon the
needs of the students.
a. Assessment AS learning
b. Summative assessment
c. Assessment OF learning
d. Assessment FOR learning
1882. Is commonly known as Summative assessment.
a. Diagnostic Assessment
b. Assessment AS learning
c. Assessment OF learning
d. Assessment FOR learning
1883. When the teacher use evidence of student learning to make judgments on student
achievement goals and standards.
a. Assessment FOR learning
b. Assessment OF learning
c. Summative assessment
d. Assessment AS learning
PLUMBING
Plumbing- The word "plumbing" comes from the Latin plumbum for lead. It is the system of pipes
and drains installed in a building for the distribution of potable drinking water and the removal of
waterborne wastes. The skilled trade of working with pipes, tubing and plumbing fixtures in such
systems. Plumbing is usually distinguished from water and sewage systems, in that a plumbing
376
system serves one building while water and sewage systems serve a group of buildings or a city.
Plumbing fixtures are exchangeable devices that can be connected to a building's plumbing system
Venting system - It maintains atmospheric pressure in the drainpipes where the sewer gases can
build up enough pressure in the drainage system. The end pipe is connected above the roofing of
the house
Drainage system - is a series of pipes connections that drain off solid and liquid waste in a building
Septic tank - is a concrete structure under the ground level designed to hold and deposit solid and
liquid waste of a building
Traps- are pipe connections attached to a system designed to prevent potentially dangerous sewer
gases from entering the house
National plumbing code - a law that provides a standard codes for plumbing whose primary purpose
is to protect the health of the community against serious health hazard.
Tools used in plumbing can be classified as follows
Measuring tools like push-pull role
Loosening and tightening tools like wrenches etc.
Driving tools like screw drivers
De-clogging tools like auger
Cutting and threading tools like hacksaw
Other tools
Standard plunger, Bulb type plunger,
Pipe Cutter
Screw driver
Closet auger
Valve seal dresser
Pliers
Small auger with movable handle
Types of Wrench
Pipe Wrench - is type of tools used for loosening and tightening pipes. This kind of tool has
stationary and movable jaw that can gripe and hold the pipes during assembly of parts. The movable
jaw be adjusted to fit in the different sizes of pipes to be assembled
Adjustable wrench - a type of wrench comes in different sizes and it used to loosening and tightens
bolts and nuts with square or hexagonal heads. The movable jaw can be adjusted to fit in the size of
the screw head.
377
Valve seat wrench (square end, hex end) - is a special type wrench use to loosen or tighten valve
seat with square end and hexagonal end.
Basin wrench - a plumbing tool specifically designed to tighten and loosen basin pipes connections
Pump is a device used to move fluids, such as liquids and gases displaces a volume by physical or
mechanical action. One common misconception about pumps is the thought that they create
pressure. Pumps alone do not create pressure. They only displace fluid, causing a flow. Adding
resistance to flow causes pressure.
Water heater is appliances for providing a more-or-less constant supply of hot water. Water heating
is a thermodynamic process using an energy source to heat water above its initial temperature.
Typical domestic uses of hot water are for cooking, cleaning, bathing, and space heating. In industry,
both hot water and water heated to steam have many uses. Domestically, water is traditionally
heated in vessels known as kettles and pot. These vessels heat a batch of water but do not produce
a continual supply.
THEORIES RELATED TO THE DRAINAGE SYSTEM
1. Water disposal becomes a problem in the drainage system if it does not function /working
correctly The house drainage system does the job for the purpose of disposing and draining
water carrying away solid wastes
2. Drainage system including proper installation of venting system so that the sewer gases is
facilitated to flow and draining of water waste
3. Venting system is commonly called the “drain-waste-vent,” or DWV system.)
4. The major importance in the DWV system are the traps, the familiar U or S-shaped bends of
piping under sink.
5. Traps are designed to prevent potentially dangerous sewer gases from entering the house;
each fixture must have one.
6. The shape and position of a trap, under normal circumstances, retains water that serves as an
effective seal against rising sewer gases.
THEORIES RELATED TO VENTING SYSTEM
1. Sewer gases can build up enough pressure in your drainage that break through the water
through the water seal in a trap and enter your house through a drain.
2. The venting system is attached above the roofing of your house.
3. The venting system also maintains atmospheric pressure in the drainpipes.
4. Water running out through traps can create vacuums, causing a siphoning effect that would
empty the traps of water.
5. The constant presence of the circulating air throughout the drainage system maintains an
equilibrium that prevents siphoning.
378
6. All fixtures must be vented
7. Each may have its own vent or may connect with a main vent through a system of secondary
pipes
PLUMBING AND INSTALLATION TECHNIQUES
The drainpipes themselves lead away from all fixtures at a certain calculated slope
If the slope is too steep, water will run off too fast, leaving solid particles behind
If it’s not steep enough, water and waste will drain too slowly and stay into the fixture.
The normal pitch is ｼ inch for every horizontal foot pipe travel.
Central to the DWV system is a soil stack, a vertical section of 3 or 4-inch-diameter pipe
that carries waste away from toilets (and often fixtures) and connects with the main
house drain in the basement or crawl space.
The upper part of the stack serves as a vent. Secondary vents from other fixtures can
also be connected to it above the level of the highest fixture in the house (this is called
re-venting or back venting).
However, in many houses – especially single-story house – widely separated fixtures
make it impractical to use only one stack. Instead, each fixture or fixture group has its
own waste connection and its own vent.
The house drain is 3-inch, 4-inch or larger diameter pipe that collects all waste and
drainage from the soil stack and other drainpipes and leads out of the house where it
joins the house sewer – the underground part of the drainage system.
Cleanouts provide access to the pipes for clearing obstructions. Cleanouts should be
installed in various places in the drainage system
There should be one cleanout in each horizontal section of drainage line, including an
outdoor cleanout for access to the house sewer.
For high hot water and high pressure gasses, the following materials and specifications
are used.
Light-gauge copper tube
Capillary fittings are suitable for the transmissions of hot and cold water, gas,
compressed air and other fluids.
Capillary fittings are designed to give good flow characteristics which are easily taken
apart and are cheaper and less bulky than compression fittings.
Seams should always be mechanically fastened for strength, whether soft soldered or sealed with a
compound sealant. The sealant does not, therefore, require significant adhesive strength but must
bond positively to both opposing surfaces as a continuous layer.
379
1. Meters are often in position where the inlet and outlet rises are to be encased in
concrete.
2. When this occurs, the removal of the meter for servicing or cleaning is extremely difficult
3. As the meter rises to rigid, the deflection of the pipe work effect the removal of the
meter and it may cause fracture to the pipe
4. To eliminate the possibility of damaging meters, meter unions or pipe work, an
additional bend should be installed on the meter outlet riser so that the pipe work may
be swung aside and the meter removed.
The procedure for making the joint is as follows:
Cut the pipe ends square and remove burrs.
Place the coupling nut over the pipe end.
Fit the insert into the end of the pipe.
Push the complete and assembly into the central fitting.
Flanged Joints are generally used on large-diameter pipes and tubes where unions and other
screwed fittings prove to be impartibly. Flanged joints have the advantage of allowing sections of
piping to be removed or replaced without distributing any other section of the piping circuit
Flange Valves are normally supplied unbridled. If they are to be drilled they must be made according
to relevant Standards table. Valves are to be drilled to a specific template; the position of the holes
relative to the center line of the spindle must be clearly indicated.
Oval flanges are available in the galvanized malleable cast iron but are not intended for pressure
purposes.
Flanged PVC joints are made in a similar manner as that for steel pipes. The flanges may be joined
to the PVC pipe in two ways.
a. Solvent cementing, as for fittings and straight pipes.
b. Hot gas welding using PVC filter rod.
Sealants refer to the polymeric range and include those sealants made from natural rubber and the
various synthetic elastomers. Polymeric sealants are formulated to provide a continuous- surface
polymer bonding layer to both opposing surfaces to fill ( seal ) a gap to set ( cure ) by
polymerization.
Sealants used in conjunctions with metal roofing sections, flashings, and guttering rain water
accessories. It should possess all of the requirements listed below.
Flexibility
Water resistance
Corrosion resistance
380
Mould resistance
Resistance to ultraviolet radiation
Resistance to temperature extremes
Gap filling (no slumping)
There are several groups of valves in common use in water supply. They are:
loose valve screw-down type;
straight through screw-down type;
ground face plug type
Loose valve-screw down type
a. The spindle is raised by turning the handle in the counter-clockwise direction, pressure is
released from the valve and the water pressure acting on the underside is then able to lift
the valve and allow the water to pass through to the outlet.
b. Water is restricted to the body section by a rubber O ring fitted on the bottom of the spindle.
This O ring forms an effective seal between the spindle and the bonnet of the valve and
prevents water passing out of the tap via the bonnet.
c. Some valves and taps are not fitted with O rings but have a stuffing box which retains a
graphite-impregnated asbestos gland which serves the same purpose
d. All loose valve taps and valves have, as their name implies, a loose valve to shut off the water
supply. This loose valve allows the water to flow through in one direction only.
e. Therefore it is necessary to install this valve so that the incoming water lifts the valve from
the beneath.
PLUMBING MATERIALS
Present-day water-supply systems use a network of high-pressure pumps, and pipes are now
made of copper, brass, plastic, or other nontoxic material.
Due to lead's toxicity, lead has not been used in modern water-supply piping since the 1930’s
in the United States, although lead was used as a solder until 1986.
Drain and vent lines are made of plastic, steel, cast-iron, and lead
Copper has historically been the most common type of pipe used in home plumbing.
a. This due to its reliability and durability, it became very popular in the 1960’s and quickly
became the standard material.
381
b. Copper is more expensive than most other types of piping, and will sometimes be stolen
from building sites during construction for sale to scrap metal dealers.
Stainless steel tube is not a common type of plumbing pipe, and as such it is hard to find and rarely
seen in use in homes today.
Stainless steel tube is one of the most corrosion- resistant materials available to plumbers
for use in hot and cold water services.
It is an expensive material for piping, especially since copper is a much more appropriate
choice.
One beneficial characteristic is that stainless steel is better able to withstand the corrosive
nature of salt water over other pipes
It is often used in marine environments for that reason. This is due to the resistance of the
hard, adherent and transparent oxide film which covers the surface of the tube.
Stainless steel tube is stronger than copper and steel and weighs less. The rigidity of the
tube is an advantage when fixing
The expansion rate of stainless steel tube which is less that copper’s, resulting in less
movement in fixing and less strain on joints
The tube of fully compatible with copper or copper fittings; no galvanic or electrolytic action
occurs.
Galvanized Iron Pipes (G.I.) was used in homes prior to the 1960's and the widespread adoption of
copper, but it can still be found used in some older homes.
Galvanized pipes were especially popular in carrying water into the home from wells, and
waste-water out to sewers.
The gray galvanized coating helps prevent rust, but the interior of the pipes were prone to
leaking, corrosion and sediment build-up that reduces the overall flow of water.
These were all factors in the gradual diminishing use of galvanized steel and increased use
of copper.
This kind of pipes is used primarily in household and industrial water connections. The pipes
are coated with zinc to prevent massive rusting and corrosion when expose to air and
water.
They classified according to sizes, length and thickness. Example of G.I pipes 2’’ x 20’
schedule 40 which represent the degree of thickness of the pipe.
Cast iron pipe and fittings. This type of pipes is made of cast iron. The color is gray and it is usually
hard but brittle and not affected much by massive rusting when expose to air and water. It can be
used as flanged for the following purposes;
382
Flanged cast iron pipes are produced primarily for water main systems.
The flanges are catch/grasp/grip integrally with the pipe barrels and the joints are made
by bolting – as with other flanged systems.
Suitable flanged fittings are available to match the pipe ends.
Flanges used in water service pipe work all conform to a plumbing standard.
Concrete Pipes a type pipe made of concrete and usually use for sewer purpose due to large
diameter in size and durability. It is usually called soil pipes due to its ability to adopt soil
environment with no danger of rusting.
Plastics PVC, or polyvinyl chloride, is a form of plastic pipe used for plumbing high-pressure water.
PVC is most commonly used for drains, and is usually white or gray in color
It's less expensive than copper, but will similarly split in cold weather.
It's only capable of handling cold water transfer because hot water will warp PVC pipe, so it
needs to be used in addition to another type of pipe for hot water.
A comprehensive range of both mechanical and injection-moulded fittings is produced to
suit plastic pipe manufactured from the rigid PVC, polyethylene and nylon materials.
These materials belong to the “thermoplastic” classification of plastics and are mainly used
in a range of sizes from 15 to 50 mm only a limited range of screwed fittings is available.
Upvc pipes - a system that offers possibly the greatest range of screwed plastics fittings well suited
to domestic, commercial and industrial applications.
Majority of jointing in this system is based on the solvent weld spigot and socket
technique, many joint are of the screwed type and are used in a similar manner to that used
for steel pipes.
Moulded solvent–weld uPVC pressure fittings are manufactured and tested in accordance
with an Australian Standard and are classified in various BSP threaded fittings are available
for takeoff connections. The spigot and socket ends are connected in the usual way using
solvent cement
To connect threaded fittings, the joint is best made by using PTFE sealing tape onto the
male end and screwing firmly, avoiding over tightening. Various uPVC adaptors and other
moulded threaded fittings of the system.
Polyethylene (black polythene) - The greatest demand for fitting associated with polyethylene pipe
is still in the rural sector for water reticulation systems for some reasons like:
Polyethylene pipe cannot be solvent bonded; the greatest usage for mechanical fittings is in
conjunction with fittings produced from this material.
A complete range of BSP fittings is available to suit polyethylene, PVC and galvanized steel
pipes and fittings.
383
The normal method of joining polyethylene pipe is by compression (non-manipulative)
fittings
While the extensive variety of fittings are available to suit the various grades of pipe makes
reference to the fitting instructions provided by manufactures advisable, because particular
brands use different rings and inserts.
A relatively recent development in mechanical fittings is available and is suitable for joining
both imperial and metric sizes of medium and high density polyethylene pipe.
It is made from a nylon material and the basic component of each fitting is known as
“central fitting”.
A special insert housing an O-ring is provided and fits into the central fitting.
The joint is achieved by screwing up a coupling nut onto the central fitting.
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6541 NATIONAL BUILDING CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES
General Provision All buildings hereafter erected for human habitation should be provided with
plumbing facilities installed in conformity with the National Plumbing Code adopted and
promulgated by the National Master Plumbers Association of the Philippines pursuant to Republic
Act 1378, otherwise known as the "Plumbing Law".
The purposes of plumbing codes are to:
1. Establish standards that will protect the health of the community. Faulty plumbing is a
serious health hazard.
2. Codes have always varied widely from place to place.
3. With the increasing standardization of equipment and materials, plumbing codes in different
areas of the country are tending more and more toward uniformly,
4. There is by no means a single plumbing code. Organizations are at work encouraging the
adoption of a uniform, nationwide plumbing code.
5. Most obvious variations in code have to do with climate-pipes in underground (to prevent
freezing).
6. Plastic piping, still a relative new comer in the industry, is not accepted uniformly
throughout the country.
7. Regulations concerning it may vary; some places don’t allow its use at all.
8. Improvements in the materials and an increasing amount of experience with plastic piping
seem to indicate that more uniform regulations can be expected.
9. Since changes will always occur- in materials, in methods of joining pipes – an absolutely
current plumbing code will never be possible.
384
10. Every home plumber should have a copy of the local code. (Get this from the building
inspector’s office; cost is usually low.)
11. When you do any plumbing, check the code first. If the material you’re planning to use isn’t
mentioned in the code, check with the building inspector.
12. Some plumbing codes prevent anyone but a licensed plumber from doing certain kinds of
work.
13. Most codes, allow homeowners to do all plumbing work in homes they own and live in.
14. Check your code before you begin any work.
FOODS
Acidify - to add lemon, kalamansi juice or vinegar to a sauce or cooked dish.
Baste – to moisten meat or other foods while cooking to add flavor and to prevent drying of surface.
Liquid is usually melted fat, meat drippings, fruit juice or sauce.
Blend – to mix thoroughly two or more ingredients.
Cut in - to combine fat and dry ingredients with 2 knives, scissor fashion, or with a pastry blended
when making pastry.
Dice – to cut into cubes, usually less than ｽ inch
Dot -to scatter small bits (such as butter) over the surface of the food.
Dredge - to sprinkle or coat with flour
Flake – to break or pull apart a food like chicken or fish that divides naturally.
Fold-in - to blend ingredients into a mixture little by little, turning mixture very gently with a spatula
and continued until the ingredients are evenly blended.
Grate - to rub foods against a grater to divide into small particles.
Julienne - to cut food (usually vegetables) into long narrow strips
Knead – to manipulate with a pressing motion accompanied by folding and stretching.
Marinate – to let food stand in a marinade – usually an acid –oil mixture.
Mince - to reduce to very small particles with a minces chopper or knife.
Pare - to cut off the outside covering
Peel - to strip off the outside covering
Score - to makes cuts on surface; to cut 1/8 inch to ｽ to intervals in the fatty edges of steaks or
chops to prevent from curling during cooking.
Skim – to remove a floating layer by passing a utensil or “skimmer” under it, as skimming cream
from milk, excess fat from broth or scum from jelly and broth.
385
Whip – to beat rapidly to produce expansion due to incorporation of air. This is applied to cream
and gelatin dishes.
Toss – to tumble ingredients lightly with a lifting motion. Use two forks or a spoon or fork.
Bake - to cook by dry heat, term usually applies to oven-cooked foods, but baking may be done on
hot metal, like the baking of pancakes or waffles, under coal.
Barbeque - to roast slowly on a grid-iron, over coal, or under a free flame or electric heating unit,
usually basting with a highly seasoned sauce. The term is popularly applied to foods cooked in or
served with barbeque sauce.
Blanch - to pre-heat in boiling water or steam for one to three minutes.
Boil - to cook in water or a liquid where bubbles rise continuously and break on the surface.
Braise - to cooks slowly in a covered utensil in a small amount of liquid or in steam (the meat may or
may not be browned in a small amount of fat before braising)
Broil – to cook by direct heat such as an open fire or by a charcoal, gas or electricity.
Caramelize - to heat sugar until brown in color and caramel flavor develop.
Fry – to cook in fat; applied especially (1) to cook in a small amount of fat also called stir or pan-fry,
also means to saut・(2) to cook in a deep layer of fat also called deep-fat fry.
Parboil - to boil until partially cooked, the cooking is usually completed by another method.
Poach - to cook in hot liquid using precautions to retain shape; the temperature used varies with the
food.
Sear - to brown the surface of the meat by a short application of heat.
Simmer - to cook in liquid just below the boiling point, at temperatures of 185 to 210 ｰ F; bubbles
form slowly and collapse below the surface.
Explain the food nutrients and their sources
Nutrients are chemical substances found in most foods performing various roles in the body
namely: to provide heat and energy, to build and repair body tissues, and regulate body processes.
Thus, adequate intake of these nutrients is necessary to carry out physiological functions of the
organism. However, there are also nutrients manufactured in the laboratory. These are called
synthetic nutrients. These man-made nutrients are mostly used for therapy and for research. They
are also used for enrichment, supplementation, or fortification of some food items in which the
nutrients get lost in processing.
Nutrients can be classified in accordance with the following:
As to function
386
a. Provides heat and energy. Nutrients that furnish heat and energy are called caloric nutrients.
These are fat, carbohydrates and occasionally protein. Fat comprises 20 % or 1/5 of the body
weight while carbohydrates about 1 % only.
b. Builds and repair body tissue. Nutrient that form tissues in the body are body building. Protein is
the major nutrient responsible for this. It comprises about 20 % or 1/5 of the body weight.
c. Regulates body processes. Nutrients that regulate body processes are vitamins, minerals and
water. Minerals account for 4% of the body weight while vitamins, which are not really part of
the body’s structural components comprise a measly amount of about 28 grams. Water is
essential in regulating body processes and is most abundant in the body. It accounts for about
66% or 2/3 of body weight.
As to chemical properties
a. Organic nutrients are those which contain carbon in their compound. These are protein, fats,
carbohydrates, and vitamins.
b. Inorganic nutrients do not contain carbon such as water and minerals.
As to essentiality
In nutrition, essential is used to denote those nutrients that the body must obtained from food.
There are certain compounds needed to body function that the body cannot make for itself and
these are termed essential nutrients. Thus essential nutrient means a nutrient that can be
obtained in sufficient quantities only from the diet.
As to concentration
a. Macronutrients. Nutrients present in large amounts such as protein, fats, carbohydrates and
water. They are measured in grams.
b. Micronutrients. Nutrients that exist in very little amounts are called micronutrients. These are
vitamins and minerals. They are usually measured in milligrams and micrograms.
The Major Nutrients: Their Specific Functions and Sources
Proteins. These are complex organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and
nitrogen. Amino acids which are end-products in protein digestion are considered the building
blocks of this nutrient.
Classification of Amino Acid
1. Essential or indispensable amino acid- they are needed for life and growth and have to be
provided in one’s daily diet.
2. Non-essential or dispensable amino acid – they are amino acids which do not have to be
present in the diet since they can be synthesized by the body.
387
3. Semi essential - they are dispensable amino acids that become indispensable under special
condition e.g. malnourished children and patient recovering from injury or surgery.
The following functions of proteins show its importance in body processes.
A. For body building. Twenty percent of the body weight is protein. Minus water, in dry weight, it is
approximately 50 % of the total body weight. This consists of muscles, bones, cartilage in the skin
and body fluids. “Body building” means that protein is an integral part of all body tissues and living
cells and it is found in muscles, organs, glands, body cells, enzymes, hormones, antibodies in the
body fluids and bodily secretions (except urine, bile, and sweat) and in the supporting organic matrix
for bones, teeth, skin, hair, and nails. In cases of tissue damage or breakages, protein helps in the
repair of body tissues.
B. For energy supply. Protein provides energy but is rather an expensive source of energy compared
to fats and carbohydrates. These secondary role should as much as possible be spared by an
adequate intake of fats and carbohydrates.
c. Regulator of body processes. Protein helps in the exchange of nutrients between the cells and the
fluids within the cells, or between the cells and the blood. It also helps in maintaining fluid balance.
Since plasma in blood contains protein, the lack of protein in plasma disturbs the fluid balance. As a
result of this disturbance, fluid is accumulated in between tissues resulting in swelling, also called
edema. Nutritional edema is a symptom of low protein levels in the blood, called hypoproteinemia.
Protein deficiency is accompanied by the following symptoms:
a. loss of weight
b. general weakness
c. less resistance to infection
d. dry and scaly skin
e. edema
f. paleness
In addition, growth in children is very slow and in serious cases is retarded. Protein malnutrition is
known as kwashiorkor. Children with kwashiorkor are in many cases thin with pot-bellies, swollen
feet, dry and abnormal hair, and sometimes with skin lesions.
Sources of Protein
Excellent sources of complete proteins are animal origin. These include the following:
Meat, fish, poultry, milk, cheese, eggs, and glandular organs.
Plant sources include legumes and nuts. Prominent among this is soybean which is available in the
market in various forms such as tokwa, tofu, tahu, tausi, and soya milk. Monggo which is usually
prepared in Filipino homes as viand (ginisang monggo) is also good source.
388
Below is a partial list of protein-rich and plant sources.
Animal Sources - lean meat, chicken, eggs, cheese, dried & fresh fish, shellfish, milk & dairy
products
Plant Sources - legumes and seeds such as sitaw, monggo, kadyos, abituelas, garbanzos, linga,
sitsaro etc. nuts such as peanuts, pili, cashew, etc. rice, corn, bread carrots, beets, leafy
vegetables
2. Carbohydrates. These are large groups of organic compounds found mostly in plants. They
contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with a ratio of 2:1 of hydrogen and oxygen, similar to that of
water. Carbohydrate foods are mainly starches and sugar which constitute the biggest percentage in
one’s diet, approximately 50% to 60% and providing the same percentage in the total calorie needs
of the individual.
Classification (complexity of sugar)
Polysaccharides have more than 10 saccharide units. They consist of the digestible types which are
starch and dextrin. Starch is found in cereal grains, rice and rice products, bread and other flour
products while dextrin is found in toasted bread and the intermediate products of starch digestion.
The indigestible type consists of cellulose found in skins of fruits, in coverings of nuts and legumes,
in stems of mature leaves and hemicellulose which are found in seaweeds and slightly unripe fruits.
Glycogen or “animal starch” is carbohydrate stored in the liver and muscles. It is used to supply
energy in work and play. Glycogen in liver is changed to glucose and is circulated by the blood to
other parts of the body.
Disaccharides are sugar hydrolyzed into 2 simple sugar units. It consists of lactose, maltose, and
sucrose. Sucrose is cane sugar or beet sugar. It is also found in syrups, molasses, and some fruits. It
is used in cooking and in table service; hence it is called “table sugar”. Maltose is a malt sugar
produced from the digestion of starch (cereal grains) in the intestine. It is used in making infant milk
formulas. Lactose or milk sugar is found in milk and milk products and is the least sweet among
common sugars
Monosaccharide is the simple form of sugar consisting of glucose, fructose, and galactose. Glucose
is also known as dextrose or grape sugar. It is found in fruits, honey, corn syrup, and sweet corn. It is
the end product in starch digestion. It is the form of sugar oxidized by the body to release energy.
Fructose is the sweetest of all sugars and is found in ripe fruits, vegetables and honey. It is also
389
changed to glucose in the liver and intestine. Galactose is derived from lactose when the latter is
hydrolyzed in digestion. It is also changed to glucose to release energy.
Functions of Carbohydrates
The major functions of carbohydrates in the body are the following:
a. It is the chief source of energy. The glucose at the end phase of digestion is the most readily
available source of energy needed by the body during work and play. One gram of pure
carbohydrate yields 4 calories.
b. It is a protein sparer. The presence of carbohydrates in the diet spares the use of protein for
energy use. Instead, protein is used for body-building rather for energy-giving. Hence, there
is a need for an adequate supply of carbohydrates in the day’s meals.
c. It is a fat sparer. This means that an adequate supply of carbohydrates in the body prevents
the incomplete oxidation of fat.
d. It regulates the peristaltic movement of the intestine. With the presence of cellulose or the
indigestible fiber which acts as roughage in the intestine, peristaltic movement becomes
regular, constipation is prevented, and regular bowel movement is established.
Sources of Carbohydrates
Common food sources include sugars, cereal grains, starchy vegetables, and dried legumes.
Specifically, this includes rice and rice products – puto, kutsinta, kalamay, corn, bread, all kinds of
root crops, and all kinds of noodles, all bakery products – cookies, sugar, sweets, candies, jams,
marmalades, and other related products.
3. Fats. This refers to food fats and oils which are simple lipids. Fat consists of carbon, hydrogen, and
oxygen and is usually insoluble in water. The body combines three fatty acids and one glycerol, the
end product of fat digestion, to make its storage of fat which is triglyceride. Fats are either visible or
invisible. Visible fats, which can be seen by the eye, are butter, pork fat, beef fat, and oils used for
salads, frying, and other cooking. Invisible fats are not seen by the eye but can be recognized due to
their greasiness or oiliness. Examples are egg yolks, avocado, lean meat, and cheese.
Functions of Fats
It is concentrated form of energy. Fat supplies 9 calories per gram; which is 2 ｼ times more than
carbohydrates or protein. The fat that is not utilized immediately in the body is stored in the form of
adipose tissues found in the intramuscular tissues, around the abdominal area and in the
390
subcutaneous tissues. This is a reservoir of potential energy. At work and at play, this is usually
utilized after carbohydrates.
It is also a sparer of protein. Together with carbohydrates fats perform the function of providing
energy for the body. For as long as these two nutrients are available in the body, protein is spared
from providing energy and concentrates in body-building and repairing instead.
It carries the fat soluble vitamins. Vitamins A, D, E, and K, need a fat-soluble medium to keep them
in solution and facilitate absorption in the body.
It has high satiety value. When one eats fatty foods, he feels full in a short time and it takes a longer
time to feel hungry again.
Sources of Fats
The most important fat sources are the visible fats – butter, margarine, cooking oil, lard, and fats
from animals like pork, beef, chicken, and fish. Invisible fats found in milk, cheese, egg yolks, and in
nuts and legumes are also good sources. Other specific food products which are good sources of fats
are chocolate, sausages, sardines, salad dressings, mayonnaise, coconut, whipping cream, cream
cheese, cottage cheese, candies, coffee cream pies, avocado, butter cookies, cheese cakes, whole
milk, pastilles, bacon, and nuts.
4. Vitamins are organic compounds which occur in very small quantities in food but are very
important to life for specific regulatory functions and the maintenance of life and normal growth. All
vitamins contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen but some contain nitrogen and some sulfur and
cobalt. Vitamins are measured also in milligrams equivalent to one thousandth (1/1,000) of a gram.
Classification of Vitamins
Vitamins are classified according to their solubility, namely: the fat-soluble and water-soluble.
a. Fat-Soluble Vitamins. Fat-soluble vitamins include vitamin A, D, E and K. These vitamins
generally occur together in the fats and oils of foods. Unlike water-soluble vitamins, it is stored
in the body until the body needs them.
b. Water-Soluble Vitamins. Water-soluble vitamins include vitamins C or ascorbic acid and B
complex which include thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, cobalamin, pantothenic and folic
acid, and biotin. These vitamins are easily absorbed by our body and also easily excreted out of
the body through urine.
Fat-soluble vitamins.
Vitamin A is important for normal vision especially for normal night vision. This is because Vitamin A
maintains the integrity of the mucous linings of the eyes, the skin, the respiratory, and the digestive
391
tracts. Lack of Vitamin A results in the hardening of the linings, for example, inability of the eye to
adjust to light changes. Vitamin A acts as a catalyst in the release of enzymes that act on bone
formation. Hence it is important in normal bone and skeletal growth. It is also needed in establishing
the cells of both the nervous and reproductive systems.
Vitamin D promotes bone and teeth development because it facilitates absorption of calcium and
phosphorous.
Vitamin E or tocopherol is important for cellular respiration and the prevention of hemolysis
(anemia) of the red blood cells.
Vitamin K is needed in the proper coagulation of blood by maintaining the prothrombin level in
blood plasma.
Water-soluble vitamins.
Vitamin C is needed in holding cells together. It maintains the integrity of the cells. It builds body
resistance to infection. It improves iron absorption and helps in the healing of wounds and bone
fractures.
Vitamin B1 or thiamine helps maintain good appetite, good muscle tone, and normal function of the
nerves.
Vitamin B2 or riboflavin is essential for protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. It maintains the
health of the skin, tongue, mouth, and normal vision. It is needed for proper growth and
development.
Niacin is important in energy metabolism. It also aids in photosynthesis in plants.
Pyridoxine or Vitamin B6 is important in amino acid metabolism. It catalyzes urea production, the
synthesis of essential fatty acids, and the conversion of niacin from trytophan.
Pantothenic acid or B5 is essential for carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism. It maintains
normal growth, healthy skin, and integrity of the central nervous system.
Cobalamin or Vitamin B12 helps folate works to make red blood cells. It also helps in maintaining the
sheaths that surround and protect the nerve fibers.
5. Minerals are inorganic compounds which comprise about 4 – 6 % of the total body weight. They
are non-caloric, with ash as their end product, unlike organic compounds (protein, fat, and
carbohydrates) with carbon dioxide, water as the by-products.
Minerals are classified as micro minerals and macro minerals.
392
Macrominerals are those whose occurrence in body weight is greater than 0.005% while
microminerals are those whose occurrence in body weight is 0.005% and below. This include
calcium, phosphorous, potassium, sulfur, sodium, chlorine, and magnesium. Microminerals include
iron, zinc, selenium, manganese, copper, iodine, molybdenum, cobalt, chromium, and fluorine.
Functions
Structural function – integral part of the cell, tissue, substances or organic compounds in the body
bones and teeth- calcium, phosphorous, magnesium, fluorine hair, nails, skin – sulfur hemoglobin –
iron glandular secretions - HCl of gastric juice thyroxin – iodine insulin – zinc & sulfur vitamin B12 –
cobalt soft tissues- mainly muscles- all salts e.g. potassium, phosphorous & sulfur extracellular fluid
– sodium and chlorine
Regulatory function – include contractility of muscles- all particularly calcium, sodium and
potassium irritability of nerve - all particularly calcium, sodium and potassium normal blood clottingcalcium
maintenance of acid-base balance – sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, phosphorous,
sulfur and chlorine
Russian Service, the food is fully prepared in the kitchen and placed on platters for service to the
guests. The waiter brings the food on a silver platter into the dining room and may place the food on
a warming surface. It is proper to present the silver platter to the guests before serving. Picking up
the silver tray and holding it in his/her left hand, the waiters serves the guest from the left with his
right hand, using a spoon and fork. The waiter’s moves around the table counter-clockwise while
serving the food.
Buffet Service. The buffet is a type of meal service where food is offered from the table and dinners
help themselves to the food, and then go someplace to eat. There are no provisions on the table for
individual covers. Only the foods and table appointments are found on the buffet table. This service
is practical when the menu consists of several dishes and the number of diners is more than what
can be accommodated on the table. It is used when there is no large table available to
accommodate all diners plus the food.
Prepare a Low Cost but Nutritious Meal
The planned menu for the family should be nutritionally adequate, aesthetically acceptable and
economically feasible in terms of food cost, time and energy in preparation. The nutritive and
economic aspect must be considered in planning to meet the nutrient requirements and the food
budget of the family.
PRINCIPLES IN BAKING
393
Maintain hygiene and sanitation at all times. This means keeping oneself, the food, tools and
utensils and the surrounding clean.
Know the kind of flour to use in every type of baked product. While substitution can be made in
the absence of one type, it is always best to use the ideal type.
Batters and dough differ in terms of the ratio of liquid to flour.
Mixing techniques such as creaming, folding, beating, kneading, and stirring affects flour mixture
and the resulting baking products.
Degree of mixing may alter viscosity or fluidity and texture of the finished product. As a general
rule, breads need thorough kneading for highly developed gluten. Cakes need just enough
mixing for a well-blended batter while pastries require a special technique in mixing such that
some amount of gluten is developed but the dough retains its characteristics of flakiness and
tenderness.
Optimum mixing time varies with each recipe according to ingredients, their proportions,
temperature, and types of mixing. Optimum mixing is defined as that which partially or
completely dissolves sugar, develops gluten framework, distributes fat throughout and yield the
best flavor, texture and volume.
Ingredients combined in a product react differently at various temperatures. At higher
temperature, sugar becomes soluble, fat spreads faster, and flour absorbs water rapidly. The
degree of heat to which batters and dough are subjected varies with altitude above sea level.
The higher in elevation, the lower the temperature of boiling water, hence the need to adjust by
increasing the temperature.
The rate at which boiling point of water is reached within the baked product depends on oven
temperature, the ingredients, size and shape of pan.
Softly spongy crumb like biscuit, bread, cakes do not reach internal temperature above boiling
point.
Crisp, brittle or rapidly baked product like cookies and crackers require internal temperature
above higher than boiling temperature.
If oven temperature is too high the crust forms too fast limiting the expansion of the leavening
gas or reducing its volume
If oven temperature is too low the dough dust out and the temperature in the interior does not
rise quickly to set the gluten thus limiting its volume.
Use pan size called for it in the recipe for good size, shape, and contour. Baking pan with straight
sides gives a more velvety texture.
Baking pans made of aluminum or tins distribute heat evenly and give a delicate golden brown
crust to cake.
394
Two types of cake formulas: the butter or shortened cake and foam or unshorten types of cakes.
Butter-type is reasonably high in fat while foam-type depends on egg protein for the bulk of its
volume.
Shortened cakes / butter cakes include pound cakes and the yellow, white, spice, and chocolate
cakes used in everything from wedding cakes to traditional layered birthday cakes. These cakes
use butter, shortening, or oil for moistness and richness and are leavened with baking powder
and/or baking soda.
Examples of unshorten cakes are sponge cakes which achieve their high volume from beaten
eggs rather than a leavening agent like baking powder. Sponge cakes do not contain butter,
shortening, or oil. Angel food cakes are the most popular and are literally fat-free since they use
only egg whites, not egg yolks. Yellow sponge cakes are prepared with whole eggs. Chiffon cakes
are also lightened with beaten eggs, but they are not true sponge cakes because they contain
vegetable oil.
Dry Ingredients in Baking. Dry ingredients include flour, sugar, milk powder, and leavening agent.
Knowing and understanding the nature and characteristics of each of these dry ingredients is basic
to the acquisition of skill in baking.
Flour is the major ingredient among all other ingredients. It is a powdery product obtained from
milled cereals, foremost of which is wheat. Flour provides the structure of baked products. It also
contributes to color, texture, and flavor. Flour used in most baked products is wheat flour.
There are three (3) kinds of wheat flour:
Bread flour – Also known as strong or hard flour. It has 12–14 % gluten content. Bread flour
has a course texture. It feels gritty, sandy, dry, and granular. It has a creamy color and it usually
does not lump when pressed together. This type of flour is ideal for making breads, rolls, and
other sweet yeast-raised products.
All purpose-flour – Also known as general flour or pastry flour. It has 10-11 % gluten content.
It is a combination of bread and cake flour. Hence, it is used as a substitute for making breads,
cakes, and pastries. For bread making, it requires more kneading to develop its gluten and in
cakes, it requires less mixing to control gluten development.
Cake flour – Also known as soft flour. It has 7-9 % gluten content. It is ideal for cakes,
cookies, pastries, and crackers. This flour has a velvety and smooth texture, is whiter than the
two other types, and tends to hold shape when lumped together.
Sugar is a sweet, crystalline, soluble compound that comes from the processing of sugar cane and
sugar beets. It is available in the market in different forms.
395
Brown sugar – this sugar comes from different shades of brown depending on how well it has been
processed. The darkest brown sugar is usually sticky, lumpy, and contains more molasses than the
brown and light-brown types. Unlike white sugar, it contains some caramel, mineral water, and
more moisture. Brown sugar is less purified than white sugar.
White, granulated sugar – This is the type commonly used by bakers in practically all baked
products and in preparing varieties of icings, fillings, etc. it varies in texture, from coarse to sandy, to
fine and smooth.
Confectioner’s sugar – This sugar is the finest in texture compared with brown or white sugar. It
contains about 3 % cornstarch. This prevents the lumping or crystallization of the sugar granules.
This type of sugar is used mostly in icings and in cake mixes where a blending of flour and sugar is
done and then added in the final stages of mixing.
Other types of sugar include:
Panutsa – A solid mass of crude sugar usually in half coco shell shape.
Lump sugar – This sold in the market in cubes. It is white and porous.
Molasses – This is unrefined sugar that is liquid in form, black in color, and very thick in consistency.
Leavening Agents
There are three (3) groups of leavening agents. They are air, steam, and carbon dioxide.
a. Air is incorporated in several ways when one creams the butter and sugar; eggs are added
one at a time while mixing; the batter is folded into the whipped egg whites, or egg whites
are beaten with a whisk beater;
b. Steam or hot water vapor causes the mixture to rise as in steamed Puto and Siopao;
c. Carbon dioxide is produced by the use of yeast, a biological leavener; baking powder and
baking soda which are chemical leaveners.
Salt. A minimal amount of salt (about 2% of the weight of the flour used) is recommended in yeast
bread. Salt used should be cleaned and refined. Salt serves several purposes in baked products.
Liquid Ingredients in Baking
Liquid ingredients include water, milk or cream, and fruit juices. In baking, it is added to flour to
develop the gluten. Gluten is the elastic substance from the protein components of the flour namely
glutenin and gliadin. The amount of water in flour influences its consistency. Too much water
weakens and tends to spread the gluten. On the other hand, too little water makes the dough stiff
and difficult to handle.
Liquid ingredients are important in baking for the following reasons:
396
They are integral components in the preparation of batters and dough.
They add flavor as in milk and juices.
They contribute to the volume and texture of the products.
They promote the growth of leavening agents like yeast as in lukewarm water.
Fats and Oil in Baking
Fats and oils are the same in chemical composition but differ in appearance. Fats are solid while oils
are liquids. In baking, it is also known as shortening. Lard, butter and margarine are all suitable fats
for baking. Oils are sometimes used in one-bowl method or quick-mix cake mixtures.
Uses of Fats in Bread and Cakes
1. for all types of yeast bread
It contributes to tenderness of the product.
It helps in retaining gas in the dough, thus giving it a better volume and crust.
It lubricates the gluten strands, producing better layers; and
It gives the product better flavor.
2. for cakes
Because of its good creaming property, it helps in incorporating air in the mixture, thus giving
the cake better volume;
Because of its emulsifying property, it allows the water-in-fat and air-in-fat emulsion which
makes the product more tender and better texture; and
It gives the product better flavor
Eggs in Baking
Eggs have varied roles in baked products. Eggs are added to help strengthen the structure, to act as
emulsifiers and also to add flavor, moisture, nutritive value and yellow color. When egg whites are
beaten, it also act as leavener, adding volume and texture to cakes. There are four stages in the
whisking of egg whites:
a. Slightly beaten egg white is frothy or slightly foamy, transparent and flows easily, and has
large air bubbles. It is usually used for thickening.
b. Soft peak stage is when the egg white has lost its frothy appearance but still foamy; has
small air bubbles; is no longer transparent but is opaque white, very shiny, and moist, and
flows if the bowl is tipped. If allowed to stand, the liquid portion of the stiff foam separates
out readily. It is used for soft meringue.
397
c. Stiff peaks is when egg white is no longer foamy but moist, shiny, smooth opaque white, and
has tiny air bubbles. This is the stage of beating that is often used. It is usually used for
meringues and cakes. It should be noted that the stability of egg white is important in the
success of cake products such as angel cake.
d. Dry egg white is white but dull. It is avoided in meringues or cakes because the stability is
decreased. If allowed to stand, the liquid portion separates.
The four (4) methods of mixing batters and dough are:
Conventional Method - Fat is creamed sugar and is added gradually. Eggs are added one at a time to
the creamed mixture. Sifted flour and other dry ingredients are then added alternately with the
liquid ingredients into the creamed mixture. For much lighter cakes, the egg whites may be
separated and beaten until slightly stiff and the batter is folded in to the egg mixture.
Muffin Method – The dry ingredients are sifted together in one bowl. In another bowl, fat/ oil is
added gradually to beaten eggs. This is now added gradually to the dry ingredients in the other
bowl. Uniform mixing is done to allow a smooth blending of ingredients.
One-Bowl Method – The sifted dry ingredients are placed in a bowl. A well or hole is made at the
center. The liquid ingredients such as egg whites, oil, puree, or water are placed in the well and then
blended. Mixing direction is one way to follow the incorporation of air. Egg whites are beaten
separately and then blended with batter to create a better volume of the product.
Pastry Method – Sifted dry ingredients are placed in a bowl and hydrogenated fat is mashed lightly
in the dry ingredients with the use of a fork. Or the fat can be cut lightly into the dry ingredients are
moistened. Mixing is controlled to avoid full development of gluten. This is good for pie crust,
biscuits, and other pastries.
Measuring - the correct technique in measuring sifted flour, white sugar, powdered chocolate, and
dry milk is simply to fill up the cup or spoon without topping or pressing and level with a spatula.
Brown sugar are packed into the cup by pressing until all spaces in the cup have been filled up and
the substance retains its shape when removed from the cup. Likewise, the correct method in
measuring shortening, butter and margarine is almost the same with brown sugar, that is, to scoop
a heaping amount into a dry measuring cup, pack it down so there are no air spaces, and then level
off the top with the back of a knife. For a liquid, it is important to place a cup on a leveled surface.
The liquid is poured into the cup until the required amount is reached. View it at eye level to be sure
the liquids hits the appropriate line on the cup.
Creaming – When shortening or butter is creamed in a bowl, it should be at room temperature or
slightly below room temperature to achieve a smooth texture. Sugar should be added gradually to
the creamed butter until a smooth and fluffy consistency is achieved.
398
Cutting in – This involves fat or shortening being cut into the flour as in pastry making. A pastry
blender or two knives can be used to cut through the ingredients until the flour is moistened and a
coarse, granular mixture is formed. Avoid over mixing. It develops the gluten and what comes out is
tough, elastic dough instead of a flaky and tender pastry.
Folding – This is an important process in the mixing of beaten egg whites into the batter. Care
should be taken to incorporate and retain the air produced in the folding process – one swift cutting
stroke going down and a gentle horizontal move at the bottom then swiftly going up. Maintain a
uniform light movement of your strokes until a thorough blending of the beaten egg whites and
batter is achieved. Folding is best done with the use of a rubber scraper than with one’s bare hands.
However, for bigger mixtures an electric mixer or the hands may be used.
Beating – If the purpose of beating is to incorporate air, it is best to use a wire whip or a whisk
beater. The looped wires are excellent tools for blending and incorporating air, especially in egg
whites. Beat with a uniform motion, starting slowly then gradually increasing speed. For better
results, see to it that the egg whites are fresh, free from egg yolk mixture, and are at room
temperature.
Kneading – This is a process involving pressing, pushing, folding, and stretching of the dough. The
purpose of this is to develop the gluten to give the dough a better structure, a smooth texture, an
elastic consistency and a bigger volume.
Stirring – This is a process of mixing two or more ingredients. This is usually done by agitating the
ingredients in a bowl or container. The tool usually used is a wooden spoon. The spoon is moved in
a circular motion. The amount and intensity of stirring depends on the degree of consistency and
the texture required. However, it is good to remember to stop stirring as soon as the ingredients are
well mixed.
Temperature affects the interaction of ingredients in a mixture. This in turn affects the final
structure of the product. This is true especially in cakes. For instance, when the temperature of fat is
high, it tends to liquefy. It becomes less susceptible to creaming and in incorporating air. Hence, the
product is less in volume, a bit heavy, and the mixture particles loosely knitted. Likewise, sugar
becomes less soluble at lower temperature. Protein in flour absorbs water at a faster speed at high
temperature.
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Definitions of Entrepreneur
An entrepreneur is one who bears uncertainty, buys labor and materials, sells product at
uncertain prices ( Canutillo )
399
Entrepreneur is an adventurer, undertaker, and projector. His function is to supply
and accumulate capital.
An entrepreneur is an innovator. He does new things or does things in a new way. He
supplies new product; makes new techniques of production; discovers new markets and
develops new source of raw materials. ( Schumpeter)
An entrepreneur always searches for change, responds to it and exploits it as an
opportunity. ( Peter Drucker )
An economist, explains that an entrepreneur is one who shifts economic resources from an
area of lower productivity to an area of higher productivity and greater yield.
In the dictionary entrepreneur is defined as a person who organizes, operates, and
assumes the risk for business ventures.
The pure entrepreneurs are those who launch their own venture from scratch. They
search for new materials even from scarce resources and develop it providing new idea producing
opportunity.
According to the author of the book The Practice of Entrepreneurship Geoffrey Meredith,
entrepreneurs are people who have the ability to see and evaluate business opportunities,
to gather the necessary resources and to take advantage of them, and to initiate
appropriate action to ensure success.
Characteristics of Entrepreneurs
Characteristics are distinguishing traits or qualities of an individual. These are favorable
interdependent characteristics which make one successful and extraordinary person.
Here some of the most important characteristics of entrepreneurs :
Self-confident. Entrepreneurs have a strong belief in their abilities, talents and skills. They
do not accept things as it ordinarily exist. They see to it that they can do better.
Hardworking. Successful people work far beyond the regular time-schedule. They enjoy
challenges and difficult tasks, and love their work. When people love work they don’t
consider it sacrifice but instead joy. In fact people who are always busy forget their worries
and problems.
Reasonable risk-taker. This characteristic makes one enjoys challenges but are careful and
experience less damage. Life is very uncertain. A successful entrepreneur faces the fact that
in business there are success and failure. So, to avoid high risk situation the entrepreneur
must gather complete data about the situation, analyze data before making the decisions.
Considering the risk –taking abilities of entrepreneurs, they make things happen instead of
making them just happen.
Positive thinker. They always think of the bright sides of life that success begets success. If
one thinks of doing the right things it will not turn out wrong. Individuals who always think
of failures and other negative thoughts will exactly get what they think. Their failure
consciousness ore defeatist attitude will make them experience failure one after the other.
Innovative. Entrepreneurs are creative. They make new things in a different ways. They are
interested in exploring the unknown, and blaze new paths for progress. Innovations are
made in response to the needs of people. For instance, high costs of production serve as an
opportunity for entrepreneurs to introduce a technology that can reduce costs of
production. Without innovations people will remain in their primitive stage of
development.
Decision- maker. Being creative and innovative, an entrepreneur makes decisions on how to
improve the products, how to explore new markets, how to continuously satisfy consumers,
and how to maximize profits.
Leadership. With the nature that entrepreneurs are task-oriented, they are effective
planners, organizers, implementers and achievers. Hence they possess the qualities of good
leaders as: selfless dedication, purpose and vision, courage, conviction, integrity, tact,
enthusiasm, perseverance and honesty.
400
Concepts of Filipino Entrepreneur
Self-reliant. An entrepreneur relies mainly on his own efforts in doing works. He do away
from depending on others and refuses to be dictated.
Risk-taker. He dares to be challenged and transformed problems into opportunities.
Despite of setbacks, mistakes and failures, he continues and starts all over again.
Creative. He is not satisfied with what is existing. He keeps on trying new and better ways
of doing things. He takes the initiative of exploring the unknown.
Industrious. He has a sense of perseverance and strong pride in the workmanship of his
product. He is quality conscious in all the components of his business.
Humble. He is at work patiently, unmindful of his social status. He is hands on with the
related works of his business and not ashamed of doing it... He believes in simple needs
and humble beginnings.
Helpful. He works with others from different fields believing that through cooperative
works, he shows that he truly cares for the welfare and the development of the entire
business.
Happy. Satisfaction of customers gives joy to the entrepreneur. So he attends to the real
needs of his customers with dispatch, efficiency and graciousness. A happy man finds
rewards in the joy of giving.
Determinants of Successful Entrepreneurship
Possessing the different good traits is not enough if there is no efficient management.
The entrepreneur must possess the following managerial skills:
Ability to conceptualize and plan. An entrepreneur must plan considering all the aspects of
the business such as product, price cost inventory and other related matters in a
coordinated manner for the total operation of the business. He must have a foresight of
upcoming problems and must at least have in mind the necessary realistic solutions.
Ability to manage others. One function of entrepreneurship is to generate employment.
This requires management of people. The entrepreneur must be able to organize work
assignments properly so as to elicit maximum efficiency and productivity. Good human
relations and communication should be skills that an entrepreneur should possess to
achieve the objectives of the enterprise.
Ability to manage time and to learn. In view of the various functions of the entrepreneur,
he should be an expert on time management. He should also acquire basic training in small
business management and specialized courses in accounting, finance, marketing and
personal relations. Learning is a lifelong process. Learning can also be acquired through
reading, attending seminars, traveling and being keen observer.
Ability to adapt to change. Sticking to traditional and established practices resulted to
stagnation. An entrepreneur keep on searching for the changing needs and tastes of
consumers. Being creative and innovative make it easier for an entrepreneur to quickly
respond to change.
Nature of Production
Production is the creation of goods and services and utility. Goods and services are
produced to satisfy human needs and wants.
Entrepreneur is the vital factor in transforming resources into goods and services. He
decides the proper combination of resources, such as the application of more labor and
401
less machine. He also decides what to produce, how to produce, when to produce and
where to produce.
Producing a product or service which is new in the market comes from an idea then it is
planned and developed into a new product or service.
Production Resources
Material resources. These are tangible, physical resources which are used for production. In
an industry examples are steels, cement, glass , etc., in agriculture fertilizers, seeds machines
used in farming, etc., in schools there books, chairs, rooms laboratories and other physical
facilities.
Human resources. These are the most important resources. It is the people who plan and
implement business activities. Being so important progressive corporations emphasize
human resource development through education and training of the employees.
Financial resources. These involve funds for various purposes. Without sufficient funds there
will be impediment of production.
Informational resources. Correct and complete information is vital to the success of any
forms of business. Facts are very important in making plans, decisions and implementation
of plans. The entrepreneur must know the needs of the customers, the strategies of the
business rivals, the recent technological developments, business policies of the government
Factors of Production
Land. Includes natural resources, such as forests, mountains, and bodies of water like
rivers, lakes, and seas.
Labor. This refers to both physical and mental efforts like the works of farmers,
fishermen, outputs of workers, clerk’s lawyers, teachers, doctors, etc.
Capital. Pertains to machines, equipment, buildings and other physical resources which
are used in the production of goods and services. This is also used for starting a business.
Entrepreneurial ability. The ability to coordinates the other factors of production such as
land, labor and capital. Without this factor other resources would be useless.
Costs of Production
Costs of production represents the payments for the factors of production. These affects the
ability and willingness of entrepreneur to produce.
When production costs are high, prices go up. This decreases the purchasing power of the
customers. This results to lower quantity demanded for goods and services.
Producers must choose productive resources which are abundant in supply, because these
are much cheaper than when there is scarcity in supplies. Cheaper inputs mean lower costs
of production.
The total costs of production is the sum total of expenses in producing a product or service.
It is equivalent to the sum of fixed cost and variable cost. The rents are fixed cost while the
expenses on raw materials are variable costs.
If there are production, there is no variable cost, but there is fixed cost.
Rules of Production
For long-run period
When total revenue (TR) is greater than total cost (TC ), produce more
When total revenue is less than total cost, stop producing.
When total revenue is equal to total cost, maintain production.
TR being more than TC means profit. The opposite is loss. When TR=TC ,it is breakeven
There may be no profit, but also no loss, yet there is payment for the entrepreneur
Thus it is still good to maintain production.
402
For short –run period
When TC is greater than VC, operate
When TR is less than VC, shut down.
Variable cost (VC) refers to the operating expenses like salaries, cost of raw materials, office
supplies, and bills like water, telephone and electric.
Relevant Technology
Technology refers to the process of transforming resources into goods and services.
Technology requires modern machineries and less number of workers.
Philippines adopt intermediate technology which means it is between primitive
technology and modern technology. This requires local labor and material, and simple
management.
Our country has an abundant supply of idle labor and raw materials. Entrepreneur can
utilize such cheap resources for the production of goods and services. Such endeavor can
reduce the problems of unemployment, and can contribute to the economic development
of our country especially in the rural areas.
Inventory Control
Inventories are stocks of goods and materials. There are three types of
inventories :
1. The raw material inventory. These are stockpiles of materials for inputs of
production
2. Work-in process inventory. These are partially completed products that require
further processing.
3. Finished-goods inventory. These are completed goods for delivery to customers.
4. Each of these inventory has a storage cost and a stock out cost. The stock out cost
refers to the running out of an inventory which could mean no products to sell
Scheduling is the process of ensuring the delivery of materials at the right place and at the right
time. Such materials can be raw materials, semi-finished goods or finished goods. Movement of
these materials or products requires specific time to avoid delays.
The raw materials may be moved from the storage facility to the work station. The semi-finished
products may be moved from one work station to another work station. The finished products may
be transported from the warehouse to the stores or direct to the customers.
The PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is used to monitor and control scheduling of
activities. Under PERT, all the major activities are represented by arrows. The path that requires the
longest time from the first event to the last event is called critical path. The activities along this
path should be scheduled and controlled. A delay in just one activity causes a delay in the
completion of the whole project.
Quality Control
1. Quality control is the process of ensuring that goods and services are produced in
accordance to the specifications and requirement.
2. Quality has become the central point of business to establish reputations.
3. There are two ways to ensure the quality of products. One is the formation of quality
circle. A group of employees officially meets to study and solve problems of quality.
Another is through inspection. This is being done at various time during production
403
4. The principal objective of quality control is to sustain the standard or reputation of the
enterprise. Such objective must be in line with the goals and objective of the
establishment to maximize customer satisfaction.
5. High quality attracts more customers which results to more profits. Without quality
control, more rejects or factory defects will be result as this is additional cost of
production.
Productivity
1. Productivity means the efficient creation of goods and services. This is measured by the
number of products produced.
2. Productivity is the result of various factors. It can be the workplace, such as lighting,
ventilation, and sanitation. If these are not favorable, they may reduce productivity. This can
also be influenced by economic factors like salary, overtime pay, and other monetary
incentives. Human relations can also affect productivity. If management treats his
employees with dignity, respect and justice, productivity is improved. And they are capable
of attaining peak performance.
Marketing Process
Marketing is defined as asset of human activities directed at facilitating and consummating
exchange (Professor Kilter). These definition includes three elements:
two or more persons who are potentially interested in exchange
each person having things of value to offer to the others
each of them is capable of communication and delivery
Marketing is a transaction intended to satisfy human needs. (Professor William Stanton). Aside
from goods and services, ideas, people and places are being marketed.
Difference between marketing concept and selling Concept
1. Marketing includes an integration of various functions, such as marketing research, new
product development, advertising, customer service, distribution and selling. Selling is
only a part of marketing.
2. The marketing concept determines the needs of the customers first, then develops the
product and service to satisfy such needs. Marketing is customer-oriented while selling
concept is focus on the needs of the seller.
Importance of Consumer Service
Since customers are the heart of an enterprise, the customers should be put first in the
business. The following are some approaches in customer service :
Train all employees to be courteous and efficient. They immediately attend to the needs of
the customers. Waiting for long to get the product reduces customer satisfaction.
Coddle the customer. Customers should treated with dignity like replacing damage items
without questions.
Remember that dissatisfied customers tell others about their experiences. Dissatisfied
customers can convince other not to patronize your product or the store itself.
Listen to feedbacks about your business. Feedback can improve services and quality of
products.
Marketing Plan
A marketing plan is an outline of actions designed to achieve a specific set of goals. This
should be compatible with the marketing resources and the external environment of the
enterprise. The external environment consists of :
404
1. Economic forces - such inflation and unemployment which directly influence the
purchasing power of the consumers. For example, when prices are high, people can
only buy a lesser number of goods and services.
2. Societal forces- like social and cultural values and traditions that greatly affect the
choice of goods and services by consumers. For instance, many Western habits are
not allowed in the Middle East due to differences in religious beliefs and practices.
3. Technological forces – such as new methods and new machineries that can be both
positive and negative to marketing. Positive in the sense that entrepreneurs can
avail of the benefits of better technology to improve the quality of product and
reduce the cost of production. On the other hand, technology can make existing
products obsolete.
4. Political forces – in the form of governmental laws and policies that regulate
marketing activities. Unreasonable taxes dampen the growth of marketing. Unstable
government discourages both local and foreign investments
Marketing Strategies
Marketing strategy is a consistent, appropriate and feasible set of principles through
which a particular enterprise hopes to attain its long-run customer and profit objectives
in a particular competitive market.
Marketing strategies are the tools of achieving the goals of the enterprise. This is consist of:
product strategy, price strategy, promotion strategy and distribution strategy.
Product Strategy starts from introduction to growth and maturity and finally to decline.
Promotion strategy consists of advertising and personal selling. Advertising utilizes the
media: newspaper, magazine, radio, television, billboard, mail and yellow pages. Personal
selling is done on a person-to person basis with a customer.
Pricing strategy help in the conversion of product and services into money. In business, the
apparent objective of pricing is to maximize profit. This is possible in monopoly or
oligopoly
There are several pricing strategies: Some businessman post 4.98 pesos instead of 5.00
pesos. Others place “Buy one, take one”. There are also those who combined several lowprice
items and mark the package 9.95php, instead of 2,50php per item.
Prestige pricing strategy. A very high price is set to project an aura of quality and status.
Penetration pricing strategy. A very low price for a new product is offered. The objective is to
develop a large market for the new product as soon as possible.
Distribution Strategy is directs if producers deliver goods to the customers and indirect if a
middleman sells the goods to the final users
Forms of Selling
1. Retailing is selling in small quantities.
2. Classification of Retailing
3. General Store. This kind of store has become a permanent institution in the economic life of the
country. It carried a wide variety of items
4. Single line store specialize in one single item.
5. Convenient store includes coffee shop, bakery shops candy stores magazine and newspaper
stands located in business districts.
6. Specialty shop specializes in certain items which the busy department store cannot offer.
7. Itinerant store or rolling store
8. Large scale retailing like variety store, mail order house, supermarket department store.
Feasibility Study help obtained data about the market potentials, location, and nature of
customers, product and services needed. Putting up a business is not a game of chance. It is not a
405
win or lose activity although there are risk to undertake and cannot be avoided like natural
calamities.
Importance of feasibility study:
1. Eliminate business risks because it carefully studies the competence, interest and
resources of the entrepreneur against the needs of the consumer, together with the
presence of the competitors. Through this study the entrepreneur can determine whether
it is profitable to set up a certain kind of business or not.
2. The resources of production such as money, materials, machines and manpower are
properly used and scheduled according to plan.
3. A good feasibility study can help detect the weaknesses of the business operations.
Outline of Feasibility Study
Evaluate your personal resources and interest, and the resources of the community
Do you have the necessary funds?
Are raw materials available?
Analyze the market
Is there a good demand for the product or service?
How many competitors are there in the market?
Who are the customers?
Are they interested in the existing product or service?
Is it possible to offer a better quality or a lower price?
Business location
Is it near your prospective customers?
Are there facilities like electricity, water, transportation and communication?
Is the place clean, decent and peaceful?
Do you have good alternatives in case the best location is expensive
Is it accessible to raw materials and other supplies?
Financial Plan
What are the objectives?
How much capital is needed?
What are the sources of capital?
How soon can you recover the investment?
Production plan
Is it economical to rent or buy production equipment?
Can your production facilities meet demand?
Do you have inventory control?
Do you have proper scheduling of production?
Organizational Plan
What type of business organization is most suitable?
Who will be the officers and employees of your enterprise?
Management plan
What are your goals and objectives?
What are your strategies?
Do you have business policies for your customers?
Classifications of Business Organization
The most common forms of private business organization are: sole proprietorship,
partnership and corporation.
Sole proprietorship. This type of business organization is termed as individual enterprise.
406
Nature and functions of sole proprietorship. Only one person owns the business and is responsible
for the conduct and operation of the business in which he is engaged.
Partnership. Two or more person bind themselves to contribute money, property, or industry
to a common fund with the intention of dividing the profit among themselves.
Partnership may be classified as limited and general partnership. A general partnership subjects
each partner to the liabilities or indebtedness of the business enterprise. All partners share the
profits and losses equally or according to some fixed ratio. A limited partnership is one in which
partner is liable for the indebtedness of the firm up to a fixed amount.
Corporation is an artificial being, invisible, intangible and existing only in contemplation of law. Its
owners are the stockholders or shareholders who can sell their interest in the corporation without
affecting the continuity of its operations because the life of the corporation is independent or
distinct from that of the owner or stockholders.
Capital Requirement
Fixed capital refers to the money needed to purchase fixed assets or capital goods. This
includes amounts meant for the acquisition of machinery, building, office equipment and
all those fixed assets required in the production processes or the items needed in the
provisions of services to the customers.
Working Capital is needed to fund the day-to-day operations of the business. This capital
represents the money or hard cash to support it normal short-term operations. It is
generally used for inventory, payroll, utilities, and also take care of the unexpected
emergencies as to keep the business on-going.
Growth capital. This is needed when an existing business is set to expand, diversify or
change its direction
Sources of Capital
Internal fund is owned by the entrepreneur himself.
Mortgage takes the form of fund generated by way of pledging a designated property
as security or collateral for the loan
Bonds are form of indebtedness which promises a fixed amount of interest to the bond
holders upon maturity.
Loans from banks
Merchandise suppliers
Credit card companies
Capital equipment suppliers
Leasing companies
Receivable factors
Lending investors
COSMETOLOGY
Good grooming is keeping oneself clean, neat and attractive. It includes personal hygiene proper
care of the body and wear of clothes that are clean neat and appropriate for the occasion. Good
grooming not only enhances the personality but it can be used as an effective tool in establishing
good relationship. A well-groomed person is liked and appreciated by everyone. In turn, one who is
well-liked and appreciated builds self-confidence and radiates a feeling of security. It also helps to
look at life in a positive light is happy and tends to be productive. Good grooming is not only
407
important in improving one’s personal looks but should and must be part one’s professional
development. Appreciation and respect as a professional whether this be a teacher, a doctor, a
lawyer, a fashion model, an executive, a public relations officer can be partly attributed to the way
the person looks and carries himself. Part of good grooming is caring for one’s hair, hands and feet.
A hair that goes well with one’s face, smooth and clean looking hands and feet, well-trimmed finger
nails and toenails contribute to a well-groomed physical appearance.
Cosmetology is a field that includes several specialties. Those who are barbers or hair stylists are
part of the cosmetology field. As well, those specializing in nail care, such as manicurists and
pedicurists, are cosmetologists. However, other practitioners can be said to work in the field of
cosmetology as well. For example, those who shampoo hair are considered cosmetologists
Cosmetology fields like hairstyling, barbering, and manicuring, tend to require both training and
licensing prior to being able to legally practice. Training tends to occur in beauty schools.
Requirements prior to entering a beauty or barbering school are varied. Some schools require a
minimum of a high school education, while others merely require proven ability to read and write.
Once a student has completed school, he or she takes both written and practical exams that
demonstrate knowledge of subjects covered.
Manicure comes from the Latin word manus which means hands and cura means care, it means
care of the hands and nails. A manicure is a cosmetic beauty treatment for the fingernails and
hands performed at home or in a nail salon. A manicure treatment is not only a treatment for the
natural nails but also for the hands. A manicure consists of filing, shaping of the free edge,
treatments, massage of the hand and the application of polish. Nowadays the manicure is not just
for an aesthetic benefit. More emphasis is now given to correct preparation of the nail such as
removing the cuticle (eponychium) and applying a variety of creams and oils in order to maintain a
healthy balance of oils on and around the nail bed.
Pedicure on the other hand comes from the Latin word “Pedi” meaning foot and cura meaning
the care of the feet,
Purpose of Pedicure/Manicure
To improve the appearance of hands and nails. Natural nails has protein keratin
It cleans the nails
408
It beautifies the fingernails and toenails
To feel comfortable
Tools and Their uses
Orangewood stick – to loosen cuticle, to work around the nail, and for applying cream, oil, or
solvent to the nail and cuticle.
Nail file – used to shape and smooth the free edge of the nail.
Cuticle pusher – to push back and loosen the cuticle.
Cuticle nipper – to trim the cuticle.
Nail brush – to clean the nails and finger tips with the aid of warm soapy water.
Emery board – to shape the free edge of the finger nails with the coarse side and level the nail
on the fine side.
Nail buffer – use to smoothen the top portion of the nail plate
Nail cutter – to cut the nails
Tweezers – to gently lift small bits of cuticle
Cosmetics
Cuticle cream – used to prevent brittle nails and dry cuticle.
Cuticle remover – used to soften the dead cuticle around the nail
Cuticle Oil – used to soften and lubricate the skin around the nails.
Cuticle solvent – may contain 2 – 5 %of sodium or potassium hydroxide plus glycerin.
Nail whitener – applied as a paste, cream, or coated string, this consists mainly of white pigments
(zinc dioxide or titanium dioxide). When applied under the free edge of the nail they keep the tip
looking white.
Nail polisher – solvent containing acetone or other solvent is used to thin out the nail polish when
it is thickened.
Nail polish – is usually prepared in the form of powder or paste. It smoothest the nail and also
imparts a sheen to the nail during buffing.
Nail drier – is a fine spray which protects the nail against stickiness and dulling. Can be used
either as a spray over the top coat or directly in the nail polish.
Base coat – is a liquid product applied before the liquid nail polish. With this applicator the nail
polish adheres readily to the surface. It also has a hard glass which prevents the color in the nail
polish from staining the nail tissue.
Top coat or top sealer – is a liquid applied over the nail polish. This product protects the polish
and minimizes the chipping or cracking of the colored polish.
409
Nail strengthener – is a product designed to prevent the nails from splitting or peeling. It is
applied to the tips of the nails only.
Hand cream and lotion – keep the skin soft by replacing the natural oil lost from the skin.
Materials
Absorbent cotton – to remove cosmetics on the nails
Soap – for finger rings
Warm water – for finger bath
Towel – use individual towel for each patron.
Cleansing tissue to use whenever necessary.
Antiseptic – used for minor injuries to tissues surroundings the nails.
Disinfectants – used to sanitize implements; to sponge the manicure table.
Spatula – used to remove creams from jars
Mending tissue and mending liquid - to repair or cover broken, split, or torn nails
Different Shapes of Nails. The shape of the nail should conform to that of the tips for a more natural
effect. In general the oval shaped nail, nicely rounded at the base and slightly pointed at the tips, fits
most fingers and toes. Oval shape is the most perfect shape of the nail. If the form of the nail is
small, pointed shape is applicable and if the appearance of the nail looks longer then it is advisable
that the square shape is recommended.
Preparation for a Plain Manicure
1. Remove old polish. Moisten a piece of cotton with the nail polish remover and press over
the nail for a few moments to soften the polish. With the firm movement, bring the cotton
from the base of the nails to the tip.
2. Shape the nails. Ask the patron, the shape she wants, then file the little nail of the left hand,
from the little finger towards the thumb, in the following manner. Shape the nails into an
oval shape. Use the file or emery board to shape the nail. File each nail from corner to center
going from right to left and then left to right. On each side of the nail, use two short, quick
strokes and one long sweeping stroke.
3. Soften cuticle. After filling the sides of nails, then immerse left hand into finger bowl, to
permit softening of the cuticle. Then for few minutes remove the finger from bowl.
4. Dry finger tips. Wipe with towel on both hands, carefully dry the left hand including the area
between the fingers. At the same time, gently loosen and push back the cuticle and adhering
skin on each nail.
410
5. Apply cuticle remover. Wet the nail with cuticle remover around the edge of the nail, and
push gently and carefully loosen dead cuticle, avoid too much pressure in pushing back the
cuticle.
6. Loosen cuticle. Upon pushing the cuticle use the flat or spoon side of the pusher. Keep
cuticle moist while working. Avoid scratching the nail plate so that live tissue at the root of
the nail will not be injured.
7. Clean under free-edge. Use cotton-tipped orangewood stick, dip in soapy water and clean
under free edge from the center toward each side with gentle pressure.
8. Cleanse nails. Brush nails in soap bath with a downward movement to clean nails and fingers
of both hands. Then dry hands and nails thoroughly.
After cleaning the nails the finishing touches is applied do the following:
1. Bevel nails. Carefully re-examine the nails for defects. Use fine side of the emery board like a
nail to give the nail a smooth beveled edge.
2. Apply the base coat. Apply the base coat polish, starting with the little finger working toward
the thumb.
3. Remove excess polish. Dip a cotton-tipped orangewood stick into the nail polish remover.
Apply it carefully around the cuticle and nail edges to remove excess polish
4. Apply top or seal coat. Apply the coat with a long strokes to the left hand and then to the
right in the same manners as the base coat. Brush round and under tips of nails for added
support and protection.
5. Apply hand lotion. After the top coat is completely dry, apply hand lotion with light
manipulation over the hands from wrists to fingertips.
Tips for Good Manicure / Pedicure
1. The most flattering nail shape is not long or short or square, it's "squoval" -- not quite
square and not quite oval. Get the look yourself by filing nails into a shape that mirrors the
curve of your nail base. Square tips can make fingers look chubby, to ensure your nails are
the same length after filing, line each nail up with its counterpart.
2. Don't shake the nail polish bottle, instead roll it between your palms. This mixes the
polish without causing air bubbles.
3. Before polishing clean nails, soak a cotton ball in nail polish remover and swipe across
nails. This will remove any excess oils or soap than can cause peeling once polish is
applied.
411
4. One trick for applying nail polish: Hold the brush between the thumb and middle finger
while resting your forefinger on the top of the cap.
5. To get the best results, apply thin layers. Start with a thin layer of basecoat, then apply a
thin layer of polish down the middle then one on the left and one on the right. After the first
coat dries for a couple minutes, repeat, then follow with a thin layer of topcoat.
6. Once your pedicure or manicure is complete, run an orangewood stick dipped in nail
polish remover along either side of nail to fix any mistakes.
7. Speed up the drying process by aiming a blow-dryer at toes (set on cool) for a minute at a
time. Be sure to keep the dryer at least 12 inches from your feet.
8. If you leave the house and you want your pedicure is dry, apply cuticle oil over the
polish. This will keep anything from sticking to your polish.
9. If nails are yellowed or stained, apply a drop of lemon or lavender oil onto the nails and then
use a buffer to buff off the stains. You can also buff nails with a peroxide toothpaste.
10. For an extra spa feeling to your home pedicure, nuke a damp towel in the microwave for a
couple minutes, slather feet in moisturizer and wrap them in the warm towel.
Protecting Your Manicure
1. A fresh swipe of topcoat every other day on your manicure and once a week on your
pedicure will keep the polish from chipping.
2. When it comes to chipped polish, a nail buffer is your best friend. Repair a chip by
smoothing the ragged edges with a buffer (the smoother the chip is, the better the fix
is). Fill in the chip with polish. Once it's dry, apply a coat over the entire nail.
3. Don't file nails after a shower, when they are too soft. File in one direction only to
prevent tears.
4. For a pedicure, use a special pedicure nail clipper made for clipping toenails. The
straight-edge works better for feet because they don't allow nails to become curved,
which can lead to painful ingrown nails. You can round the edges slightly with a file.
5. For stubborn polish that stains, press the cotton on the nail for several seconds before
wiping off. Don't be stingy with the polish remover. The more nail remover you have on
the cotton, the easier it will be to remove.
6. Protect a manicure by wearing rubber gloves when cleaning and gardening.
7. If you suffer from dry cuticles, keep cuticle oil in your bag or on your desk at all times.
Cuticle oils tend to be more effective than creams.
8. If you are a Nail-biter? Get a manicure every week for 12 weeks. According to
psychologists," if you can commit to 12 weeks, you won't bite your nails. It tastes gross
412
and you'll also think twice because of the cost of getting nails done. There are many
women who backslide in week 3, but it is suggested to be persevering.
Pedicures: The Secret to Super-Soft Feet
Keep dead skin at bay by regularly exfoliating in the shower with a pumice stone. Apply a
thick lotion or cream to feet then wear socks to bed.
For extra soft feet, try this trick. Apply a thick coat of diaper rash cream to feet (yes, that's
what they meant), put feet in a thin plastic bag, and then put socks over it. If you can sleep
like that, then you are guaranteed the softest feet ever in the morning.
Apply ways of maintaining facial care and differentiate the different kinds of facial make-up
Make up- refers to the cosmetics applied in the face to improve or change appearance
Cosmetics are substances used to enhance the appearance or odor of the human body. Cosmetics
include skin-care creams, lotions, powders, perfumes, lipsticks, fingernail and toenail polish, eye and
facial makeup, towelettes, permanent waves, colored contact lenses, hair colors, hair sprays and
gels, deodorants, hand sanitizer, baby products, bath oils, bubble baths, bath salts, butters and
many other types of products. A subset of cosmetics is called "make-up," which refers primarily to
colored products intended to alter the user’s appearance.
Types of Make-Up
1. Ordinary or day make –up. This is basically simple and light make-up. It is appropriate in
ordinary occasions, church or going to work. Choose the shade that is very light. The time of
the day determines how much make-up is to be applied. Day make up is light and suits casual
wear. Applied lightly, neatly, and beautiful it will go with any kind of clothes for day wear.
2. Evening make-up or heavy make-up. It uses darker shades. Heavy application of make-up
cannot give a glowing effect to the person. Color or shades of make-up are carefully chosen
to complement the color of the dress.
3. Photographic make-up. Screen make – up is applied to the customer who wants to appear
beautiful in pictures. Those who look attractive or good looking in pictures but are not in
person. On the other hand, there are those who, due to poor lighting or incorrect make up
application, appear unattractive in pictures.
4. Stage screen/theatrical make up. What is seen on the screen are cinematic effects. Stage
make up can change the appearance of an individual’s face through the use of varied
cosmetics. Some of these cosmetics are plaster of Paris, Vaseline, zinc oxide and spirit gum
among others.
413
Preparation. Usually, make up is given after a facial massage. However, if the make-up is applied
before a comb-out is given, remove rollers and clips and be sure to drape the patron’s head to
protect her hair. The patron is reclined in a facial chair with her head slightly raised. The
cosmetologist may sit at the back of the patron to give the service or may move to the front of the
patron for ease of application.
Implements and Supplies
Lipstick – one of the most commonly used make up types. This is intended to be used on the lips
in order to add color as well as texture. There are also certain varieties of it that have chemicals in
it that would make our lips appear plumper than usual without the need for expensive collagen
injections.
Blush – also referred to as rouge, this is used on the cheekbones in order to add more color.
Typically, it is made of talcum or powder but there are variations today that come in either gel or
cream form.
Eye shadow – this serves the same purpose as the blush but is applied on the eyelids and under
eyebrows instead. It draws more attention to that particular area and is used to create depth and
dimension.
Mascara – this goes right on our eyelashes in order to make them appear fuller, thicker, darker and
longer. The different variations of this can come in either liquid or cream form and is applied with
the use of a mascara wand.
Eyeliner – this appears in the form of a thin pencil with kohl inside. It is often used together with
the eye shadow in order to further define the eyes and give it more depth. These commonly come
in either black or brown but one would also be able to find them in lighter and more colorful hues
Lip gloss, is a sheer form of lipstick that is in a liquid/ solid form.
Lipstick, lip gloss, lip liner, lip plumper, lip balm, lip conditioner, lip primer, and lip boosters. Lip
stains have a water or gel base and may contain alcohol to help the product stay on the lips. The
idea behind lip stains is to temporarily saturate the lips with a dye, rather than covering them with a
colored wax. Usually designed to be waterproof, the product may come with an applicator brush or
be applied with a finger.
Concealer makeup used to cover any imperfections of the skin. Concealer is often used for any extra
coverage needed to cover blemishes, or any other marks. Concealer is often thicker and more solid
than foundation, and provides longer lasting, and more detailed coverage.
Foundation, used to smooth out the face and cover spots or uneven skin coloration. Usually a
liquid, cream, or powder, as well as most recently, a light and fluffy mousse, which provides
414
excellent coverage as well. Foundation primer can be applied before or after to get a smoother
finish. Some primers come in powder or liquid form to be applied before foundation as a base, while
other primers come as a spray to be applied after you are finished to help make-up last longer.
Foundation – considered as the base, is applied on the face to even out skin tone and give it a
smooth, velvety feel. It comes in a variety of colors as well as coverage types. So whether you’re
looking for something thick or sheer in terms of coverage, you would be able to find something that
suits your needs.
Face powder, used to set the foundation, giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws or
blemishes.
Rouge, blush or blusher, cheek coloring used to bring out the color in the cheeks and make the
cheekbones appear more defined. This comes in powder, cream, and liquid forms.
Bronzer, used to give skin a bit of color by adding a golden or bronze glow.
Mascara is used to darken, lengthen, and thicken the eyelashes. It is available in natural colors such
as brown and black, but also comes in bolder colors such as blue, pink, or purple. There are many
different formulas, including waterproof for those prone to allergies or sudden tears. Often used
after an eyelash curler and mascara primer.[3] There are now also many mascaras with certain
components to help lashes to grow longer and thicker. There are specific minerals and proteins
that are combined with the mascara that can benefit, as well as beautify
Eyelid glue, eyelash extensions, eye liner, eye shadow, eye shimmer, and glitter eye pencils as
well as different color pencils used to color and emphasize the eyelids (larger eyes give a more
youthful appearance)
Eyebrow pencils, creams, waxes, gels and powders are used to color and define the brows.[3]
Setting Spray, used to keep applied makeup intact for long periods of time.
Procedure in Giving Make up
1. Apply cleansing cream. Remove a small quantity of cleansing cream from the bottle of cream
and place all over the face of the patron, then rub over the face to remove the dirt or clean
the face.
2. Remove cleansing cream. With a tissue, use an upward or outward motion.
3. Check shape of Eyebrow. See to it that the eyebrow is in proper shape. If not, arching is
given first before applying eyebrow pencil.
4. Apply astringent lotion or skin toner. For oily skin apply astringent lotion; for dry skin apply
a skin toner. Moisten a cotton pad with lotion and pat it lightly over the entire face, under
the chin and on the neck. Blot off excess moisture with tissues.
415
5. Apply foundation. Place the amount needed on the palm of the hand. Choose the kind of
foundations and shades best suited and apply it evenly over the entire face and around the
neckline with a gentle upward motion. Blend carefully near the hairline. Remove the excess
foundation.
6. Apply blush-on. Liquid cream or cake cheek rouge is applied on cheek bones with a sanitized
soft brush.
7. Apply eye shadow. Select shades to match eyes or to complement them. Apply lightly on the
upper lids or gently outward with fingertips.
8. Apply eyeliner. Eyeliner can be used to make the eyes look large and lashes appear thicker.
Choose the shade of eyeliner that harmonizes with the skin. Gently draw a very fine line
along entire lid as close to the lashes as possible. If an eyebrow pencil is used be sure the
point is sharp so that the line will be only an illusion. Care should be taken to avoid injury to
the patron.
9. Use eyebrow pencil. Brush the eyebrow in place with light feathery strokes. Sketch on brows
with fine-pointed pencil. Cream, liquid or cake eyebrow coloring are available and applied
with a brush.
10. Apply powder. Powder the entire face to minimize the shine of the skin and make the face
even on the application of the foundation. Powdering the eyelids will prevent eye make-up
from smearing. Remove excess powder.
11. Apply mascara. Apply cream mascara on the eyelids. Apply and brush upward on the
underside of the upper lashes. Then gently tip the lower lashes.
12. Apply lip rouge. Lip rouge is removed from the container with sanitize spatula. Outline lips
with the fine point of a lip brush. Ask the patron to close the lips in a relaxed position.
13. Give finishing touches or a final retouch.
Corrective Make-Up
Corrective facial make up helps to play up the good features and tone down the bad ones.
Facial features can be accented with proper highlighting or subdued with the correct
shadowing or shading and balanced with the proper style.
Eyebrow Arching is most commonly done by women to add precise visual definition to eyebrows
and enhance overall facial appearance. There are several methods for arching your eyebrows,
including wax treatments, most typically performed in salons by cosmetologists, or tweezing, which
you can easily do at home by yourself.
416
Importance of Eyebrow Arching
1. Eyebrow arching has a marked effect on the beauty and contour of the face.
2. The natural arch or growth of the eyebrow follows the bony structure or the curved line of
the orbit (eye socket). The majority of persons have a disorderly growth of hairs both above
and below the natural line. These hairs should be removed to give a clean-cut and attractive
appearance.
3. Correct eyebrow arching gives a clean-cut expression and attractive appearance to the
face. The eyebrows must however fit the shape of the face and the shape of the eyes.
Shaping the eyebrows has thus become an art and a need.
Tools, Supplies, and Cosmetics Necessary for an Eyebrow Arching
1. Tweezers
2. Eyebrow pencil
3. Cleansing tissue
4. Eyebrow brush
5. Absorbent cotton
6. Antiseptic
7. Creams
Procedure for Giving an Eyebrow Arching
1. Prepare all the necessary materials needed.
2. Prepare the patron. Seat patron in an inclined position as for facial massage.
3. Select the type of arch.
4. Covers the patrons eyes with cotton pledgets moistened with hazel or boric acid.
5. Brush eyebrows with a small brush to remove powder or scaliness.
6. Soften brows.
7. Saturate two pledgets of cotton or towel with warm water and place over brows. Allow to
remain on brows long enough to soften and relax eyebrow tissue sufficiently. Brows and
surrounding skin may be softened by rubbing emollient cream into them.
8. Remove hair between brows.
9. Tweezing - In tweezing, stretch the skin that with index finger and thumb of the left hand.
Grasp each hair individually with tweezers and pull with quick motions in the directions in
which the hair grows.
10. Sponge tweezed area frequently with cotton moistened with an antiseptic lotion to avoid
infection. Remoisten the cotton if necessary.
417
11. Remove hairs from above eyebrow line. Brush hairs downward. Shape the upper section of
one eyebrow, then shape the other sponge area with antiseptic frequently.
12. Remove hair from under the eyebrow line. Brush hairs upward. Shape the lower section of
one eyebrow, and then shape the other. Sponge the area with an antiseptic frequently.
13. Apply an astringent. After the tweezing has been completed sponge the brows and
surrounding skin with an astringent to contract the area.
14. Apply brow make up. Brush brows, placing the hairs in their normal position. Use eyebrow
pencil where necessary. The eyebrows should be treated about one a week.
Size-refers to the density of hair growth of the brows.
a. Thick – Some hair growth is superfluous.
b. Thin – Hair growth is sparse and strands are thin.
c. Medium thick – hair is neither too thick nor too thin.
Facial Treatments
A facial is a procedure involving a variety of skin treatments, including: steam, exfoliation, extraction
creams, lotions, facial masks, peels, and massage. It is normally performed in a beauty salon but it is
also a common spa treatment.
Purpose of Facial Treatment
1. Preventive. This treatment is given to maintain the health of the facial skin by correct cleaning
methods, increased circulation, relaxation of the nerves, and to activate the skin glands and
metabolism, through massage.
2. Corrective. To correct some facial skin condition as dryness.
Plain Facial
Skin facial is a very restful service or treatment in the beauty salon. The customers are happy and
contented in the stimulation from massage, the soothing effects of creams and lotions and the
finished application of an attractive make-up. Facials can be given as often as once a week except
where otherwise indicated.
Procedure for Plain Facial
1. Prepare all the materials needed.
2. Prepare the patron
3. Place a clean towel across the back of the facial chair.
418
4. Ask patron to remove jewelry like earrings or other accessories.
5. Put a headband or fasten the hair to protect the patron’s hair.
6. Adjust the head rest and then set the chair to a reclining position e.
Cover the eyes with wet cotton.
Procedure for Plain Facial
1. Analyze the skin. Cleanse the face to determine if the skin is dry or oily. This analysis will
determine:
 The kind of skin toner
 The color of make up to apply
 The choice of cream to be used in massage
 Apply cleansing cream
 Remove cleansing cream
 Wipe the face with tissue paper or a warm moist towel. Remove all the cream from one area
before proceeding to the next.
 Wipe the face again with warm moist towel or facial steamer.
4. Perform the facial manipulation.
5. Apply astringent lotion.
6. Apply foundation and make up the face.
7. Completion.
a. Give finishing touches.
b. Assist the patron with her garments and accessories.
8. Clean up
Facial Manipulation
Chin movement – Lift chin using a slight pressure.
Lower cheek movement – Circular movement from the chin to ear and rotate.
Mouth, nose, and cheek movement using circular movement.
Linear movement over forehead – Slide to temples, rotate slide to the left eyebrow, then stroke
the hairline across forehead and back.
Circular movement over forehead.
Stroking movement – Slide fingers to center of forehead then slide fingers with slight pressure
towards temples and rotate.
419
Eye movement – Press sides of eyes and rotate fingers around.
Nose and upper nose – Slide down nose using rotary movement.
Lip and chin – Draw fingers from center of upper lips and around mouth going under the lips and
the chin.
Lifting movement – Proceed from the mouth to the top part of the ear.
HISTORY OF BARBERING
The word "barber" comes from the Latin word "Barba," meaning beard. The earliest records of
barbers show that they were the foremost men of their tribe. They were the medicine men and the
priests.
But primitive man was very superstitious and the early tribes believed that both good and bad
spirits, which entered the body through the hairs on the head, inhabited every individual. The bad
spirits could only be driven out of the individual by cutting the hair, so various fashions of hair
cutting were practiced by the different tribes and this made the barber the most important man in
the community.
The barbers in these tribal days arranged all marriages and baptized all children. They were the
chief figures in the religious ceremonies. During these ceremonies, the hair was allowed to hang
loosely over the shoulders so that the evil spirits could come out. After the dancing, the long hair
was cut in the prevailing fashion by the barbers and combed back tightly so that the evil spirits
could not get in or the good spirits get out.
This rule by barbers was a common thing in ancient Asia. In fact, wherever there were legends and
superstitions about the hair, the barbers flourished. To this day in India, the veneration of the hair
continues and those who cut and dress the hair are important characters.
Barbers were unknown in Rome until 296 BC, when Ticinius Mena came to Rome from Sicily and
introduced shaving. Shaving soon became the fashion and the barber shop became the gathering
place for the Roman dandies. No people were better patrons of the barbers than the Romans.
They often devoted several hours each day to tonsorial operations, which included shaving, hair
cutting, hairdressing, massaging, manicuring and the application of rare ointments and cosmetics
of unknown formulas. The great ladies of Rome always had a hairdresser among their slaves and
the rich nobles had private tensors, as they were then called. Barbers were so highly prized that a
statue was erected to the memory of the first barber of Rome.
420
CARE FOR THE HAIR AND SCALP
Composition of Hair. Hair composed of a protein substance called KERATIN which is present in all
horny growth such as nails, claws, and hoofs. Chemical composition of hair are carbon, 50.65 %;
hydrogen, 6.36 %; nitrogen, 17.14 %; sulfur, 5.0 %; and oxygen, 20.8%.
Hair is divided into two principal parts:
a. Hair root – is that portion of the hair structure found beneath the skin surface. This part of the
hair is enclosed within the follicle.
b. Hair shaft – is that portion of the hair structure extending above the skin surface.
Hair Distribution. Hair is found all over the body except on the palms, soles, lips and eyelids.
Types of Hair on the Body
1. Long hair grow from the scalp, protects the scalp against the sun’s ray and injury, give
adornment to the head, and form pleasing frame for the face.
2. Short hair such as the eyebrow and the eyelashes, adds beauty and line of color to the face.
The eyelashes help protect the eyes from dust particles and light glare.
3. Lanugo hair is the fine, soft dowry hair of the cheek, forehead, and nearly all areas of the
body. It helps in the efficient evaporation of perspiration.
Hot oil treatment is used to give hair moisture as it gives the look of conditioned hair without
having to condition every day. If you have damaged or dry hair as a result of such things as coloring,
blow-drying, straightening, or other styling factors, then a hot oil treatment for hair may be good
for your hair. It most often makes hair look healthier.
Types of hot oil treatments
1. There are many products available on the market for hot oil treatments. They can also be
purchased as oils and then heated and used in the hair.
2. Generally natural essential oils are the best ones to use in hot oil treatments as they can
do the best to damage dry and weak hair... Some of the more natural oils that are popular
for hot oil treatments are olive oil, jasmine oil, and jojoba oil
Procedure in Giving Hot Oil Treatment
1. Preparation of patron for scalp treatment
2. Brush hair for about five minutes.
3. Apply scalp product.
4. Apply infrared lamp for about five minutes.
5. Give scalp manipulation for 10 to 20 minutes.
421
6. Shampoo the hair.
7. Towels dry the hair to remove excess moisture.
8. Apply suitable scalp lotion or tonic
9. Style the hair.
10. Clean up the work station.
Dandruff is a very common skin condition that nearly all people experience at one point in their lives
regardless of age or ethnicity. It affects the not just the scalp, but also the ears, eyebrows, sides of
the nose, beard, and less commonly the central (often hair-bearing) part of the chest. Dandruff can
affect any hair-bearing area or an area with even very small hair follicles.
A. Dandruff Hot Oil Treatment and Procedure:
o Prepare patrons for scalp treatment.
o Brush the hair for five minutes.
o Apply a scalp preparation according to scalp condition.
o Apply infrared lamp for about five minutes.
o Give regular scalp manipulation using either the faradic or indirect high frequency.
o Give regular scalp manipulation.
o Shampoo with corrective shampoo lotion.
o Dry the hair.
o Style the hair.
o Clean up the work station.
B. Dry Scalp Oil Treatment and Procedure:
 Prepare patron for normal scalp treatment.
 Brush hair for about five minutes.
 Apply the scalp preparation for this condition. If a vegetable oil is used, work it gently but
thoroughly into the scalp.
 Apply the scalp steamer 7 – 10 minutes, or wrap the head in warm steam towels for 7 – 10
minutes.
 Shampoo the hair.
 Dry the hair.
 Apply moisturizing scalp cream sparingly with rotary frictional motion.
 Style the hair.
422
 Clean up the work station.
HAIR SETTING AND HAIR STYLING
Kinds of Hair Setting for long hair and short hair
1. Roller Setting. These are for lifted hairstyle and for styles that are to have a straight hair
effect. Rollers come in a variety of length and sizes.
2. Clip or Pin Curls. These are good for curls and are used to set curl sections for necklines,
bangs, and to finish off the style at the bottom
3. Curlers Setting. These can be used for setting the entire head or turning ends under upward
or forward. They are handy for children’s hair and for smooth hairdos.
Hairstyling. Each type of face demands a hairstyle that is rightly proportional; balance of line, and
correctly frames the face. The essentials of an artistic hairstyle must, therefore, be based on the
following characteristics:
1. Shape of the entire head
2. Characteristics in features
3. Body structure, posture and poise
Suggested Hairstyle for Formal Occasion
Chignon is when the hair is drawn softly to back of the head, leaving the ear covered with a single
deep smooth wave at the side. The length of hair is then handled like fabric, curled, and folded into
a graceful crown shape.
Brush up. Hair is brushed at the end up all around and caught up in a band at the neck of the crown.
Curls are left free and arranged in soft ringlets. A round based hair in large rollers and is pinned to
the crown to a cluster style.
PETALS. The style is brushed up with petals on the head or slightly on the side, shaped with petal
style. Hair is looped to form the base and ends with soft natural looking waves on the side.__