Midterm LG Set A

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LANDING GEAR SYSTEM – TEST SET ‘A’

1. What type of landing gear will have the aircraft centre of gravity located ahead of
its two main wheels?
L1
A) Conventional type
B) Tricycle type *
C) Auxiliary type

2. In a large aircraft, multiple wheels or bogie type landing gears are used to:
L1
A) absorb greater landing shock.
B) allow smaller turning radius on ground.
C) spread the aircraft weight over a large area. *

3. A removable ‘live' axle would be found on a:


L1
A) main leg.
B) nose leg. *
C) bogie.

4. Generally the oleo pneumatic shock strut could be described as a device that
stabilizing static load and convert:
L1
A) hydraulic pressure to mechanical motion.
B) kinetic energy to heat energy. *
C) mechanical motion to hydraulic pressure.

5. Regardless of its condition, what is the recommended replacement interval of


rubber cord shock absorber?
L1
A) Five years *
B) Seven years
C) Ten years

6. In a typical oleo pneumatic shock strut, wheels and axles are mounted on the:
L2
A) centering cam of the shock strut.
B) inner cylinder of the shock strut. *
C) outer cylinder of the shock strut.

7. The rate of fluid flow from the lower chamber to the upper chamber of the landing
gear shock strut is controlled by the:
L2
A) one way restrictor.
B) orifice plate.
C) metering pin. *

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8. What absorb the taxi shocks in an oleo-pneumatic type shock strut?
L2
A) Spring
B) Compressed gas *
C) Hydraulic oil

9. The correct means of releasing the nitrogen pressure from a shock strut is by:
L2
A) turning the valve swivel nut clockwise.
B) removing the valve core.
C) depressing the valve core. *

10. On small aircraft equipped with castering nose wheel, steering generally done by:
L1
A) differential braking. *
B) steering wheel.
C) rudder pedal.

11. To prevent accidental retraction of the gear while the aircraft is on the ground, the
landing gear:
L2
A) hydraulic system inoperative on ground.
B) circuit is incorporated with a safety switch/ squat switch. *.
C) lever has a detent position.

12. The landing gear doors clearance depends upon the:


L2
A) volume of hydraulic system used.
B) length of the landing gear actuating cylinder.
C) length of the door linkage and the adjustment of the doorstops. *

13. With regard to wheels alignment, what is meant by toe?


L1
A) The amount the wheels tilted from vertical
B) The amount of shim added to correct the misalignment
C) The amount the wheels deviate from a straight ahead condition *

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14. A snap ring (lock ring) is used in conjunction with a wheel.
L1
A) well base
B) detachable flange *
C) divided or split hub

15. What is the advantage of having wheel constructed in two pieces (divided or split
type wheel)?
L1
A) Ease of mounting the tyre *
B) Greater resistance to tyre wear
C) Ability to with stand greater static load

16. Steel keyways on the inboard wheel are fitted to:


L2
A) turn rotating brake disk. *
B) hold stationary brake disk.
C) house the wheel bearing.

17. In a divided or split hub type aircraft wheel, where are the fusible plugs fitted?
L1
A) Outboard wheel half
B) Inboard wheel half *
C) Inside the inflation valve

18. When removing the wheels with a multiple disk brake, the wheel brake should be:
L2
A) disconnected first.
B) set OFF (released).
C) set ON (applied). *

19. Recommended crack detection method on aircraft wheel bolts is:


L2
A) dye penetrant.
B) magnetic particle inspection. *
C) ultrasonic testing or eddy current.

20. What precaution must be observed before loosening the bolts securing the divided
or split hub type aircraft wheels?
L2
A) Ensure the tyre is fully deflated *
B) Ensure the tyre is partially inflated
C) Loosen the bolts in crisscross sequence

3 ACD 20401/A/03/06
21. Defect on wheel bearing which appear as slight chipping of the rolling surface is
termed as:
L2
A) spalling. *
B) brinelling.
C) water stain.

22. Heat generated by braking action is dissipated through the wheel and tyre by:
L2
A) radiation and conduction. *
B) convection and cooling.
C) conduction and convection.

23. The compensating port in a independent brake master cylinder will:


L2
A) maintains uniform brake pressure at all times.
B) vents fluid to atmosphere during thermal expansion. *
C) automatically maintain disc to brake lining clearance.

24. The rotating discs of multi-disc brake unit is segmented to:


L2
A) prevent rapid wear of friction pads.
B) prevent heat distortion and brake drag. *
C) increase friction surface and improve braking.

25. The clamping force is applied to the rotors and stators of hydraulic operated
multiple discs brake by the movement of the:
L2
A) torque plate and the pistons.
B) torque plate and the thrust plate.
C) pressure plate and the pistons. *

26. In a single disk brake without automatic adjustment, the lining wear is determined
by measuring the distance between the disc and:
L2
A) brake housing with the brake released.
B) brake housing with the brake applied. *
C) lining with the brake applied.

27. What is the function of spool spring in the power brake control valve?
L2
A) Increases the pressure exerted on the spool
B) Aids pilot in applying the brake
C) Provides artificial feel to the pilot *

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28. When there is a impending skid the flapper valve will:
L3
A) unbalance and moves over. *
B) position in the centre of the two nozzles.
C) control the discharge of the fluid equally from each nozzle.

29. What is indicated if a tyre wears excessively on the shoulder of the tread?
L2
A) Tyre operated with inadequate inflation pressure *
B) Tyre operated with excessive inflation pressure
C) Excessive brake usage

30. What component in an anti skid system circuit conserve the main hydraulic system
pressure by limiting the flow of fluid to the brakes after initial brake application?
L3
A) A modulator *
B) A maintaining valve
C) A pressure reducing valve

31. A contributory cause of tyre creep could be:


L3
A) over inflation.
B) worn tread pattern.
C) under inflation. *

32. When tyre fitted to an aircraft has been moved beyond its maximum creep mark,
it must be:
L3
A) deflated, reversed backwards in line with the creep mark.
B) deflated, and moved forwards in line with the creep mark.
C) deflated, removed and inspected for damage before re-use. *

33. Remedy for a deform flat tyre which has developed in a nylon casing tyre due to too
long standing in one position is by:
L3
A) jacking up, deflating the wheel and re-inflating to correct pressure.
B) towing the aircraft for short distance. *
C) inflating to normal pressure plus 25% and then reducing pressure to normal.

34. When tyre fitted to an aircraft has been moved beyond its maximum creep mark, it
must be: L3
L3
A) deflated, reversed backwards in line with the creep mark.
B) deflated, and moved forwards in line with the creep mark.
C) deflated, removed and inspected for damage before re-use. *

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35. Heat generated by braking action is dissipated through the wheel and tyre by:
L 3L2
A) heat and conduction.
B) convection and cooling.
C) conduction and convection. *

36. Dry operation of the aircraft wheel bearing is indicated by: L2


L3
A) discolouration of roller surface.
B) rusting on the roller surface. *
C) slight chipping on the roller surface.

37. What factor generally determines the method you should use for bleeding brake
systems? L3
L3
A) The type and design of the brake system to be bled *
B) The type of hydraulic fluid used in the brake system
C) The amount of air in the brake system

38. A contributory cause of tyre creep could be: L2


L3
A) over inflation.
B) worn tread pattern.
C) under inflation. *

39. The landing gear doors clearance depends upon the: L2


L2
A) volume of hydraulic system used.
B) length of the landing gear actuating cylinder.
C) length of the door linkage and the adjustment of the doorstops. *

1. 40. In wheel assembly eddy current inspection, checking for crack is used on;
a. bead seat area
b. disk drive key slot area
c. wheels bolts
L; 2

2. 41. Almost all wheels must be statically balanced when they are built if the diameter is
;
a. less than 10 inches
b. more than 10 inches
c. 8 to 9 inches
L; 2

3. In multi disk brake, the plate that sit on the torque tube is;
a. rotating disk
b. stationary disk
c. floating disk
L; 2

4. In a single disk brake, to maintain a constant clearance between the lining and the disk
when the brake is released is;
a. automatic adjuster
b. return spring
c. spring retainer
L; 2

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5. In expander tube brake system, when the brake is released the fluid will flow back to
the system by;
a. flat steel spring
b. return spring
c. automatic adjuster
L; 2

6. In master cylinder brake, the fluid from the wheel unit is vented to the atmosphere
through the;
a. filler plug
b. piston
c. compensator port
L; 2

7. Power brake on large aircraft operated by the pressure from the;


a. main hydraulic system
b. brake master cylinder
c. boosted brake master cylinder
L; 2

8. In order to ensure the safety of the pneumatic brake control valve it is;
a. wire locked using stainless steel wire
b. wire locked using copper wire
c. Not locked for easy operation
L; 2

9. In power brake system, to reduce the system pressure and increase volume of
hydraulic fluid is by the used of;
a. pressure reducer
b. deboosters
c. pressure regulator
L; 2
10. Oleo strut landing gear, the toe in and toe out may be adjusted by repositioning the ;
a. tapered shims between the torque links
b. tapered shim between landing gear leg and wheel axle
c. washers between the torque links

L; 2

L 1 = 10

L 2 = 30

L 3 = 10

diploma

7 ACD 20401/A/03/06

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