Preview of TOEFL Test

TOEFL or Test of English as a Foreign Language is a test that measures a person’s general
ability in English. The total number of questions is 150 divided into 3 sections:

I. Listening Comprehension = 50 questions

II. Structure and Written Expression = 40 questions
III. Reading Comprehension and Vocabulary = 50 questions

I. Listening Comprehension
Listening Comprehension consists of 50 questions divided into three parts:

1. Part A: Understanding Short Conversations

This section consists of 30 short conversations usually between a man and a woman. At the
endof each dialogue there will be a question about the dialogue.You must listen carefully
because the conversations and questions are only played only one time.

The dialogues contained in section A are informal in nature and you will hear alot of
contractions, idioms or idiomatic expressions. Some of the dialogues are related to campus
life in the United States, for example about teachers, test scores, and so on. Some of the
conversations are related to public places such as gas stations or restaurants. And some are
related to daily life.

Example 1:
(The italicized words will not be seen in the actual test books and will only be heard from the
recording)

Man : Have you finished studying for the math test?

Woman : Not quite.

You will hear a question:

What does the woman mean?

You will read in the test book:

(A) She is quite finished with her studies.
(B) She thinks it is quite a difficult test.
(C) She has a little more studying to do.
(D) She has not finished the math test.

In the dialogue, the man asks if the woman has finished studying, and the woman says Not
quite. This means that she has not quite finished studying and that she has a little more
studying to do. Answer (C) is therefore the best answer to the question.

Example 2:
Woman : Did you get a lot of work done at the library today?
Man : I couldn’t. It wasn’t very quiet there.

Question: What is the man saying?

Answer choices:
(A) The library was noisy.
(B) He got a lot done.
(C) He couldn’t quite get to the library today.
(D) The library is a good place to work because it’s quiet.

The correct answer is (A). If it was not quiet in the library, this means that it was noisy.

2. (PartB): Longer Conversation

Part B of Listening Comprehension consists of two longer conversations between two people,
usually a man and a woman. Each conversation is followed by 3-5 questions. The
conversations are mostly about campus life among students or between students and lecturers.

Example:

Narrator: Questions 1 through 4 . Listen to a conversation between two poeple who are
decorating an apartment
Woman: Hey,Walt, Do you think you can help me hange these pictures on the wall? There
are only two of them.
Man : Sure, Monica. Where do you want them to go?
Woman: I’d like the picture of the mountains over the fireplace, and I’d like the picture of my
family over the sofa. What do you think?
Man : I think they will look fine there. How about if you hold the picture while I hammer the
nails into the wall?
Woman: Okay, let’s start with the picture of my family.

Questions:
1. On the recording you hear:
What are the man and woman discussing?

In your test book you read:

(A) Taking some pictures

(B) Hanging some plants
(C) Taking a trip to the mountains.
(D) Putting some pictures on the wall.

2. On the recording you hear:

How many pictures are there?

In the test book you read:

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

3. On the recording you hear:

Where is the picture of the woman’s family going?

 In the test book you read:

(A) In the fireplace

(B) Above the sofa
(C) Home with Walt
(D) To the top of the mountain

4. On the recording you hear:

What is Walt probably going to do next?

In the test book you read:

(A) Sit on the sofa
(B) Photograph Monica’s family
(C) Hammer the nails into the wall
(D) Climb the walls

The first question asks what the man and woman are discussing. Since the woman
asks the man to help hang these pictures on the wall, the best answer to this question is
answer (D), putting some pictures on the wall. The second question asks how many pictures
there are, and the woman clearly says that there are two, so the best answer is answer (B). The
third question asks where the family picture is going. The woman says that she would like the
family picture over the sofa, so the best answer to this question is answer (B), above the sofa.
The last question asks what Walt is probably going to do. Walt has suggested he should
hammer the nails into the wall, so the best answer is (C).

Part C : Mini Talk (Ceramah Singkat)

Part C of the Listening Comprehension section contains three short lectures followed by 3-5
questions. Lectures are more formal like the ones given in specific subject areas such as
biology, natural science, or history. Lectures can also contain on-campus registration
procedures or procedures for the use of the campus library. This section also contains a
lecture on the museum from tour guides and so on.

Example:
On the recording, you hear:

Questions 1 through 4. Listen to a lecture on history class.

Woman: Salt, which today seems so plentiful to us, in the past used to be a valuable
commodity. In the ancient past in China, salt was used to make coins, and in parts of Africa it
was traded in place of money. In the Roman Eimpire, soldiers were not paid in money but
were instead paid in salt. In fact, the English word “salary”, which means the amount of
money that one earns, come from the Latin root for “salt”.

1. On the recording you hear:

What is the topic of the talk?
 In your test book you will read:
(A) Valuable commodities.
(B) Salt
(C) Ancient China.
(D) Money.

2. On the recording you hear:

What was salt used for in China?
In your test book you read:
(A) To spice food
(B) To build houses
(C) To make coins
(D) To locate Africa

3. On the recording you hear:

What does “salary” mean in English?
In your test book you read:
(A) Coins
(B) Earnings
(C) Soldiers
(D) Commodities

4. On the recording you hear:

What is the meaning of the root “sal” in Latin?
In your test book you read
(A) Salt
(B) Rome
(C) Money
(D) Trade

The fisrt question asks about the topic of the talk. The speaker begins with salt and continues
to talk about it throughout the passage, so the best answer is answer (B). The second question
asks about the use of salt in China. The speaker says that in China, salt was used to make
coins, so the best answer is answer (C). The third question asks the meaning of “salary”. The
speaker says that salary means the amount of money that one earns, so the best answer is
answer (B). The last question asks about the meaning of the root “sal”. The speaker says that
“salary” ... comes from the Latin root for “salt”, so the best answer is answer (A).
II. Structure and Written Expression

This section contains 40 questions with a time allocation of 25 minutes. There are two kinds
of questions in this section:

1. Structure (no. 1-15) contains 15 questions where you have to complete the sentence
by choosing 4 answers provided that best completes the sentence.

Example 1:

Homo sapiens ......................... about 40,000 years ago.

(A) their appearance

(B) first appeared
(C) first appearing
(D) they first appeared

The best answer is (B) because the sentence needs a verb appeared.

Example 2:

.......................... replaced the Franklin half dollar in 1964.

(A) The Kennedy half dollar

(B) The half dollar featured Kennedy
(C) On the Kennedy half dollar
(D) The Kennedy half dollar that

The sentence has alread got a verb “replaced”, so it needs a subject. The best answer is
(A) because it best supplies the missing subject..

Example 3:

The film ................. appearing at the local theater is my favorite.

(A) now
(B) is
(C) it
(D) was

The best answer to complete the sentence is (A) because the sentence has already got a
verb is, so it only needs adverb of time now.

2. Written Expression (no. 16 – 40): It contains 25 sentences that have 4 words or

group of words underlined. Test takers should determine which of the four underlined
words or phrases that are grammatically incorrect.

Example 1:
Both of a halibut’s eyes are on one sides of its head
A B C D

The answer is (C) because the word side should not have s at the end. The word
should be in its singular form after the quantifier one

Example 2:

Colorful rock formations is found in Haleakala’s crater.

A B C D

The answer is (B) because the subject of the sentence is plural formations, so the
corrrect verb should be are instead of is.

Example 3:

Blood pressure is measured by feeling the pulse and apply a force to the arm.
A B C D
The best answer is (B) because the verb apply should be in the ing form after
connector and. so that the verb is in parallel structure with the verb feeling. The
sentence should read “..... is measured by feeling.... and applying “.
III. READING COMPREHENSION AND VOCABULARY

This section consists of 5 reading texts with 10 questions for each text. So the number of
questions in this section is 50 questions. Multiple choice questions that appear in this section
are main idea of the text, detailed information, vocabulary, or conclusions.

Example:
Although a bee sting and a wasp sting can both be quite painful, these
two types of stings have one basic difference. A bee sting is acidic, while a
wasp sting is alkaline.
Line Because of this difference, these two types of stings should be treated
5 quite differently. Because a bee sting is acidic, it should be treated with an
alkaline solution, such as bicarbonate of soda. A wasp sting, on the other hand,
is alkaline, so it should be treated with an acidic solution, such as vinegar.

1. The topic of the passage is

(A) tha pain of wasp stings

(B) treating stings with acids
(C) different treatments for bee and wasp stings
(D) the difference between acids and bases

The best answer to the question is (C). The first sentence of paragraph one and
paragraph two talk about different treatment for bee and wasp stings.

2. According to the passage, a bee sting

(A) has no acid

(B) has both an acid and a base
(C) should be treated with an acid
(D) contains acid

The passage says a bee sting is acidic (line 2). It means that a bee sting contains acid, so
the best answer is (D).

3. The word “solution” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) difficulty
(B) mixture
(C) answer
(D) test

In the context of this passage the word solution is closest in meaning to the word
misture. So the best answer is (B).

4. Where in the passage does the writer indicate what to put on a bee sting?

(A) Lines 1 – 2
(B) Lines 3
(C) Lines 5 – 7
(D) Lines 8 – 9

When you skim the passage you will see that Lines 5-7 mention what to put on a bee
sting, so the best answer is (C)
EXERCISES
I. LISTENING COMPREHENSION
A. SHORT CONVERSATION
Directions: In this exercise, listen carefully to the short dialogue and question on the
recording, and then choose the best answer to the question.

1. (A) Shutting the window

(B) Moving closer to the window
(C) Closing down the building
(D) Cooling the room off
2. (A) The plane came in at night.
(B) The flight was scheduled to last two
hours
(C) The fight started at two o’clock
(D) The plane landed on time.
3. (A) In a clothing store
(B) At a pool
(C) At a race track
(D) In a restaurant
4. (A) He’s unhappy with the sofa.
(B) He likes the news.
(C) He’s heard the unpleasant news.
(D) He always tries to please everyone.
5. (A) He missed the bus he wanted to
take.
(B) He’s sorry he bought the yellow
shirt.
(C) He made a huge error.
(D) What happened was a mystery.

B. LONG CONVERSATION
Directions: Listen to the long conversation and answer the questions that follow.

1. (A) What the assignment is

(B) How good the professor is
(C) The information in chapter six
(D) What questions they should ask the professor

2. (A) Six pages

(B) six chapters
(C) Sixty pages
(D) The sixth chapter

3. (A) Whether or not they should read the chapters

(B) Whether or not they should answer the question
(C) Which chapters they should read
(D) When the professor gave the assignment

4. (A) Turn in the assignment

(B) See the professor
(C) Go to class
(D) Talk to classmate
C. MINI TALK
Directions: Listen the mini talk and answer the questions that follow.

1. (A) A beautiful plant

(B) A poisonous plant
(C) A delicious plant
(D) A fast-growing plant

2. (A) In vegetable gardens

(B) Only in the United States
(C) In supermarkets
(D) In many different places

3. (A) Its leaves resemble parsley.

(B) It grows next to carrots.
(C) Its leaves are shaped like carrots.
(D) It does not have roots.

4. (A) The person may die.

(B) The person may get lots of nutrients.
(C) The person may enjoy it and want more.
(D) The person may become dangerous.

II. STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

A. STRUCTURE
Directions: Choose the letter of the word or group of words that best completes the sentence.

1. Most cells in multi-celled organisms perform ----------------- functions.

(A) specialize
(B) specialized
(C) they specialize
(D) specialization

2. The big island of Hawaii, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean, ----------------- by five
volcanoes.
(A) creation
(B) it was created
(C) creating
(D) was created

3. The sun uses up over four million tons of hydrogen per second, ---------------- still has
enough hydrogen to last for the next five billion years.
(A) it does not
(B) it
(C) but it
(D) to it

4. For Katherine L. Bates, who ------------------ the top of Pikes Peak in 1893, the view
provided the inspiration for her hymn “America the Beautiful.”
(A) reached
(B) she reached
(C) reaching
(D) she was reaching
 B. WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: Choose the letter of the underlined word or group of words that is not correct.

5. Coal, petroleum, and natural gaseous are all fossil fuels.

A B C D

6. The mass of neutron stars generally range from one-tenth to twice the mass of the Sun.
A B C D

7. Grasses grow in ways that help them to survive being nibbled, chilly, or dried.
A B C D

8. Most of Hemingway’s novels glorifies heroic exploits such as bullfighting or boxing.

A B C D

9. Paleographers study ancient and medieval handwriting in order to establish not only its age
A B C
and also its background.
D

10. The sounds produced by bullfrogs and toads vary greatly because each species have its
A B C
own particular call.
D

III. READING COMPREHENSION

Questions 1-10
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great homed owl begins
early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the
male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male.
Line She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with
(5) a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship
dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with
an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air.
Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which
she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the
(10) beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or
even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and
rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls
nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground.
(15) The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles
herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious
charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell.
As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes
(20) and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy
supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby
crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey
to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search
for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive
(25) the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
1. What is the topic of this passage?
(A) Raising a family of great homed owls 6. The phrase "precious charges" in lines 16-17 refers to
(B) Mating rituals of great homed owls (A) the eggs
(C) Nest building of great homed owls (B) the nest
(D) Habits of young great homed owls (C) the hawks and crows
(D) other nesting owls
2. In line 3, the phrase "a resonant
hoot" is closest in meaning to 7. According to the passage, young
(A) an instrument owlets eat everything EXCEPT
(B) a sound (A) other small birds
(C) a movement (B) insects
(D) an offering of food (C) small mammals
(D) nuts and seeds
3. It can be inferred from the passage that
the courtship of great horned owls 8. In line 19, the word "they" refers to
(A) takes place on the ground (A) the wise old men
(B) is an active process (B) the adult birds
(C) happens in the fall (C) the young birds
(D) involves the male alone (D) the prey

4. According to the passage, great homed owls
(A) are discriminate nest builders
(B) need big nests for their numerous eggs
(C) may inhabit a previously used nest
(D) build nests on tree limbs
5. According to the passage, which of
the following is the mother owl's job?
(A) To initiate the courtship ritual
(B) To feed the young
(C) To sit on the nest
(D) To build the nest
9. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult
parents of the young great horned owls?
(A) They are sorry to see their young leave home.
(B) They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
(C) They probably don't see their young after November.
(D) They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
10. The phrase "weary of" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) tire of
(B) become sad about
(C) support
(D) are attracted to