ENGLISH LANGUAGE 

Direction (Qs. 1 to 5) :   

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) 
and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase 
printed in bold in the given sentence to make it 
grammatically correct?  If the sentence is correct as it is 
and no correction is required, then mark your answer as (5) :

 
1.    Ultimately he received the honour he deserve. 
    (1)    Gained the honour he deserve 
    (2)    Received the honour he deserves 
    (3)    Received the honour he deserved 
    (4)    Bags the honour he deserve 
    (5)    No correction required
Ans: ( 3 )    Received the honour he deserved

2.  I am totally opposite in the statement of some of our 

Managers. 
    (1)    Totally oppose to the 
    (2)    Absolutely oppose by the 
    (3)    Totally opposed to the 
    (4)    Completely opposed in the 
    (5)    No correction required
Ans: ( 3 )    Totally opposed to the
3.Gayatri turned down the job offer to accommodate her friend. 
    (1)    Job offered in accommodate 
    (2)    Job offers for accommodate 
    (3)    Job offer to accommodating 
    (4)    Job offer in accommodate 
    (5)    No correction require
Ans:    ( 5 )    No correction required

4. She was informed that everyone of them are aware of the fact. 
    (1)    Were aware of 
    (2)    Are aware of 
    (3)    Was aware of 
    (4)    Is aware of 
    (5)    No correction required 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Was aware of 
5.    She has being venturing into areas which she had always 
avoided in the past. 
    (1)    Has been venturing into 
    (2)    Has venturing into 
    (3)    Would venturing into 
    (4)    Had venturing into 
    (5)    No correction required 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Has been venturing into
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) :    Read each sentence to find out 
whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in 
it.   The error, if any, will be in one part of the 
sentence.  The number of that part will be your answer.  If 
there is no error (ignore errors of punctuation, if any), 
then your answer will be (5).
6.    They never thought (1) / that Joshi is (2) / oldest than 
the other (3) / Professors in the Faculty. (4) / No error (5) 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    
7.    Taken into consideration (1) / the advice of his (2) / 
colleagues he decided (3) / to stay in the Institute. (4) / 
No error (5) 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    
8.    I am likely contact (1) / you sometime in (2) / next week 
to (3) / discuss with you in detail. (4) / No error (5) 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    
9.    The police has making (1) / every effort to provide (2) / 
best help and (3) / attention to each citizen. (4) / No 
error (5) 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    
10.    He cannot withdraw (1) / all his money (2) / unless he 
do not (3) / give advance notice. (4) / No error (5) 
    Ans:    ( 3&4 )  
  
Directions (Qs. 11 to 25) :    Read the following passage to 
answer these questions given below it.  Certain words / 
phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them 
while answering some of the questions :
    The suicide attacks by militant Palestinian groups killing 
large numbers of Israeli civilians and the harsh Israeli 
response, have raised the renewed hopes of peace in the 
region.  It is Arafat?s leadership and authority that are 
being severely tested in the latest phase of the west Asian 
crisis. 
    By accusing the Palestinian Authority (PA) of supporting 
terrorism by groups, Israel hopes to put pressure on Arafat 
to act.  Arafat, on the other hand, has never looked a less 
powerful force than he does today.  If he acts against the 
militants and elements in his own Fatah movement sympathetic 
to them, he risks a Palestinian civil conflict.  But if he 
chooses to do nothing, he faces erosion of his authority and 
all claim to a central role in the peace process.   Whatever 
he does, sections of the Palestinians will hold that he has 
gone too far and Israel that he has not gone for enough. 
This is, of course, why Arafat has invariably shrunk from 
hard decision.  He has refrained from curbing the militant 
groups, explaining his inaction as necessary to maintain 
Palestinian unity.  
    The Palestinian leadership?s inability to improve economic 
conditions for its people has been a decisive factor in the 
erosion of its ability to act.  Palestinians in Gaza have 
targeted the PA as being responsible for their condition. 
The Militant organizations have capitalized on the PA?s 
failure to establish a functioning administrative 
infrastructure by setting up a parallel welfare system with 
the help of the millions of dollars.   Though the 
Palestinian security forces claim to have arrested more than 
100 militants after the suicide bomb attacks in Israel, the 
other similar militant groups remain defiant, confident of 
their popular support and of the certainty that in the 
ultimate analysis the PA leadership will stop short of 
decisive action against them. 
    That the militant groups enjoy popular support in Gaza is 
hardly surprising.  The Gaza Strip today resembles a vast 
prison camp in which some 1.2 million Palestinians are 
crammed.  Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers 
still remain in 20 percent of the Gaza?s area and are 
protected by heavily armed Israeli forces.  With its recent 
blockade of and extensive incursion into PA controlled 
territories, the Israeli government has placed the whole 
civil society in Palestine under siege.  Over 450 NGOs, 
eight universities and numerous other educational, civic, 
social, developmental and health institutions have had their 
work impeded and their vital services to the population 
blocked.  An international conference on Israel?s treatment 
of human rights in West Bank and Gaza, attended by 
signatories to the 1949 Geneva Conventions, that has opened 
in Switzerland overriding Israeli and American protests, is 
expected to censor Israel for its treatment of civilians in 
the Palestinian territories. 
    Arafat?s standing among Palestinians rests on the authority 
conferred on the PA by the international community to 
represent and speak for the Palestinians.  Even the major 
militant group has so far never openly challenged Arafat?s 
leadership.  Israel?s latest vicious attacks directed 
against the PA and Arafat present the international 
community with the danger that this precarious balance of 
power in the Palestinian community may be destroyed. 
Continuance of the Israeli attacks can only further 
radicalize and harden the attitudes of ordinary 
Palestinians.  On the other hand, Israeli moves to freeze 
further expansion of Jewish settlements in the West Bank and 
Gaza and, as soon as security conditions permit it, ease the 
economic blockade of Palestinian towns?however remote such 
measures appear just now?alone can restore the authority of 
the PA and give it a chance to get a grip on Palestinian 
militancy.
11. Which of the following factors have raised the hope for 
peace in West Asia? 
A.  Killings of Israeli civilians 
B.  Harsh response of Israelites 
C.  Revocation of Oslo Accord 
    (1)    Only A and C 
    (2)    Only B and C 
    (3)    Both A and B 
    (4)    Either A or B 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Both A and B
12.    Which of the following explains the lack of action on 
the part of Palestinian leader? 
    (1)    He fears the army action against him 
    (2)    This according to him will fasten peace process 
    (3)    He feels that this step will keep Palestinians united 
    (4)    He is seriously worried about the degeneration of his 
power base 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    He is seriously worried about the degeneration 
of his power base
13.    What is ultimate analysis of other similar militant groups? 
    (1)    The PA leadership will only act if a definite forceful 
action is taken on the PA 
    (2)    The suicidal attacks will only aggravate the situation 
    (3)    The PA leadership should be changed 
    (4)    The action on the Palestinians was justified 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 5 )    None of these
14.    Which of the following words is just opposite in meaning 
to the word impeded as used in the passage? 
    (1)    Hindered 
    (2)    Facilitated 
    (3)    Felicitated 
    (4)    Stopped 
    (5)    Courage 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Hindered
15.    What does the word overriding mean as used in the passage? 
    (1)    Notwithstanding 
    (2)    Concurring 
    (3)    Welcoming 
    (4)    Criticizing 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Notwithstanding
16.    Which of the following best describes the meaning of the 
word challenged as used in the passage? 
    (1)    Questioned 
    (2)    Accepted 
    (3)    Attacked 
    (4)    Scared 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Questioned
17.    Which of the following is the most similar word as 
accusing as used in the passage? 
    (1)    Abusing 
    (2)    Blaming 
    (3)    Charging 
    (4)    Responding 
    (5)    Praising 
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Blaming
18.    Which of the following is the expected outcome of 
International Conference which is in progress in Switzerland? 
    (1)    To revoke 1949 Geneva Convention 
    (2)    Impose censorship on propaganda of PA 
    (3)    To build cordial relations between Conflicting parties 
    (4)    To put a curb on Israel?s policies while treating 
civilians in an alien territory 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    To build cordial relations between Conflicting 
parties
19.    Which of the following best explains the word vicious as 
used in the passage? 
    (1)    Dangerous 
    (2)    Fatal 
    (3)    Reoccurring and cyclic 
    (4)    Cyclic but not reoccurring 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Reoccurring and cyclic
20.    Which of the following best explains the word remote as 
used in the passage? 
    (1)    Far away from reality 
    (2)    Distant 
    (3)    Most likely to happen 
    (4)    Control in someone else?s hand 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Far away from reality
21.    Who according to the passage conferred the authority to PA? 
    (1)    Arafat 
    (2)    Israel 
    (3)    Militant groups 
    (4)    International community 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    International community
22.    Which of the following can restore the degenerating 
authority of the PA? 
A.  Arresting the expansion of Jewish settlements 
B.  Easening the economic blockade of Palestinian towns 
    (1)    Only A 
    (2)    Only B 
    (3)    Either A or B 
    (4)    Both A and B together 
    (5)    Neither A or B 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Both A and B together
23.    Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning 
as the word shrunk as used in the passage? 
    (1)    Coming forward 
    (2)    Abdicating 
    (3)    Control 
    (4)    Expand 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Coming forward
24.    What may be the affect of continuous Israeli attacks? 
    (1)    It may harness a negative attitude amongst the civil 
Palestinians 
    (2)    It may destroy militancy from its basic roots 
    (3)    It may revitalize the weakening leadership of the PA 
    (4)    It may enhance militant activities 
    (5)    None of these
    Ans:    ( 4 )    It may enhance militant activities 
25.    What dangers are being perceived by the International 
Community? 
    (1)    Both the nations may get destroyed if war erupts 
    (2)    The PA and Israel will never strike a deal 
    (3)    The attacks against the PA may destroy the balance of 
power in Palestinians 
    (4)    The militancy may spread in other countries also 
    (5)    None of these 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    The attacks against the PA may destroy the 
balance of power in Palestinians
Directions (Qs. 26 to 35) :    In the following passage there 
are blanks, each of which has been numbered.  These numbers 
are printed below the passage and against each, five words 
are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. 
Find out the appropriate word in each case: 
    Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth 
century disappeared when the Mughal Empire ???(26) apart. 
The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious 
intolerance, which led to the open rebellion.  It was to 
???(27) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent ???(28) 
years in the field, with immense armies consuming the 
revenues of the country.  There were, however, more 
deep-seated ???(29)   The corruption of officials and the 
oppression of the masses steadily ???(30) away the empire?s 
life blood.  For sometime, there had been a noticeable 
deterioration in the character of the ruling class.  Wars of 
succession ???(31) wiped out the leading families, and new 
blood from central Asia was no ???(32) recruited for the 
higher governmental posts.  Finally, the Mughal Empire was 
an alien regime.  It continues to be so ???(33) Akbar?s 
policy of conciliation was abandoned, and it wore itself out 
trying to maintain its power ???(34) the ceaseless 
opposition, only now and then overt but always present, of 
the (35) citizens. 
26.    (1)    Joined 
    (2)    Broke 
    (3)    Dashed 
    (4)    Banged 
    (5)    Became 
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Broke
27.    (1)    Run out 
    (2)    Crash 
    (3)    Crush 
    (4)    Cajole 
    (5)    Motivate 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Crush
28.    (1)    No 
    (2)    Hardly 
    (3)    Many 
    (4)    Inexpensive 
    (5)    Most 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Many
29.    (1)    Variables 
    (2)    Attributes 
    (3)    Characteristics 
    (4)    Causes 
    (5)    Affect 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Causes
30.    (1)    Drained 
    (2)    Gone 
    (3)    Sucked 
    (4)    Released 
    (5)    Went 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Drained
31.    (1)    Has 
    (2)    Have 
    (3)    Was 
    (4)    Did 
    (5)    Had 
    Ans:    ( 5 )    Had
32.    (1)    Longer 
    (2)    Pumped 
    (3)    Far 
    (4)    Candidate 
    (5)    Shorter 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Longer
33.    (1)    At 
    (2)    Into 
    (3)    Over 
    (4)    After 
    (5)    Before 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    After
34.    (1)    Far 
    (2)    At 
    (3)    Against 
    (4)    Favouring 
    (5)    For 
    Ans:    ( 3 )    Against 
35.    (1)    Discontented 
    (2)    Weeping 
    (3)    Ruling 
    (4)    Calm 
    (5)    Contented 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Discontented
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) :    Pick out the most effective 
word/phrase from the given words to fill in the blanks to 
make the sentences meaningfully complete:
36.    Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to the extreme to _____ his 
business reputation. 
    (1)    Speak 
    (2)    Enhance 
    (3)    Cajole 
    (4)    Provoke 
    (5)    Advocate 
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Enhance
37.    A group of junior college boys _____ the highest peak of 
the Shivalik range of the Himalayas. 
    (1)    Scaled 
    (2)    Walked 
    (3)    Climb up 
    (4)    Avoided 
    (5)    Won 
    Ans:    ( 1 )    Scaled
38.    A special programme to raise the standard of living of 
the village folks has been _____ by the Government. 
    (1)    Affixed 
    (2)    Stalled 
    (3)    Glued 
    (4)    Launched 
    (5)    Propose 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Launched
39.    A herd of elephants _____ ready to attack the lion. 
    (1)    Were 
    (2)    Is 
    (3)    Was 
    (4)    Are 
    (5)    Has been 
    Ans:    ( 2 )    Is
40.    It is not possible this year to run this company with so 
many employees, without increasing the _____ of deficit. 
    (1)    Loss 
    (2)    Altitude 
    (3)    Gain 
    (4)    Magnitude 
    (5)    Extend 
    Ans:    ( 4 )    Magnitude

RRB General Awareness Question

1. 1. The Indian Economy will grow as per the estimates given by the Asian
Development Bank (ADB) at which of the following rates in 2008 ? 
(A) 6.7% 
(B) 7.5% 
(C) 8.5% 
(D) 8% 
Ans (D)
2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit
for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is— 
(A) 26% 
(B) 49% 
(C) 51% 
(D) 75% 
Ans: (B)
3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is
the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the
country ? 
(A) 22.20% 
(B) 21.30% 
(C) 20.60% 
(D) 19.90% 
Ans: (C)
4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of— 
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat 
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar 
(C) T. S. Vijayan 
(D) Laxmi Narayan 
Ans: (C)
5. SEBI is a— 
(A) Statutory body 
(B) Advisory body 
(C) Constitutional body 
(D) Non-statutory body 
Ans: (A)
6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The
changed venue of the summit is— 
(A) New Delhi 
(B) Sri Lanka 
(C) Maldives 
(D) Bangladesh 
Ans: (B)
7. When was the SAARC established ? 
(A) On December 8, 1984 
(B) On January 1, 1984 
(C) On December 8, 1985 
(D) On January 1, 1985 
Ans: (C)
8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic
Community ? 
(A) 15 
(B) 12 
(C) 25 
(D) 20 
Ans: (B)
9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ? 
(A) Chelliah Committee 
(B) Kelkar Committee 
(C) Shome Committee 
(D) None of the above 
Ans: (B)
10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ? 
(A) Switzerland 
(B) Malta 
(C) The Czeck Republic 
(D) Poland 
Ans: (A)
11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to— 
(A) Communication 
(B) Social Integration 
(C) Linking of Rivers 
(D) Development of Highways 
Ans: (D)
12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with— 
(A) A drilling vessel 
(B) A project of port development 
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean 
(D) None of the above 
Ans: (B)
13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee”
in— 
(A) Current account 
(B) Capital account 
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account 
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) 
Ans: (B)
14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce
and Industry) is— 
(A) K. C. Raina 
(B) V. P. Shetty 
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar 
(D) Som Mittal 
Ans: (C)
15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for
Indian economy has been estimated to be— 
(A) 9.0% 
(B) 9.2% 
(C) 9.4% 
(D) 9.6% 
Ans: (D)
16. CENVAT is related to— 
(A) Sales Tax 
(B) Excise Duty 
(C) Custom Duty 
(D) Service Tax 
Ans: (B)
17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to— 
(A) All labours in rural areas 
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas 
(C) All labours in urban areas 
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas 
Ans: (B)
18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about— 
(A) 35 : 65 
(B) 32 : 68 
(C) 28 : 72 
(D) 25 : 75 
Ans: (C)
19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for
2006-07 is estimated at— 
(A) 80.11 MT 
(B) 90.0 MT 
(C) 93.4 MT 
(D) 101.60 MT 
Ans: (C)
20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is— 
(A) U.P. 
(B) Maharashtra 
(C) Tamil Nadu 
(D) Kerala 
Ans: (B)
21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the
level— 
(A) 9.2% 
(B) 8.5% 
(C) 11.0% 
(D) 12.0% 
Ans: (D)
22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega
Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to— 
(A) Reliance Group 
(B) Tata Group 
(C) Birla Group 
(D) NTPC 
Ans: (B)
23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development
Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing
universal elementary education ? 
(A) Kerala and Orissa respectively 
(B) Kerala and Bihar repectively 
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively 
(D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively 
Ans: (B)
24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is— 
(A) 41110 MW 
(B) 66463 MW 
(C) 68963 MW 
(D) 86283 MW 
Ans: (B)
25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ? 
(A) Service Sector 
(B) Manufacturing Sector 
(C) Transport and communication 
(D) Agriculture Sector 
Ans: (C)
26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is— 
(A) Secretary of Finance Ministry 
(B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha 
(C) Secretary of Planning Commission 
(D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission 
Ans: (C)
27. 15th SAARC Summit was held in July–August 2008. The venue of the summit was— 
(A) New Delhi 
(B) Sri Lanka 
(C) Maldives 
(D) Bangladesh 
Ans: (B)
28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment
from private sector— 
(A) Coal 
(B) Iron 
(C) Gold 
(D) Platinum 
Ans: (A)
29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is– 
(A) 20% 
(B) 40% 
(C) 60% 
(D) 80% 
Ans: (D)
30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 7–8 February, 2008 at— 
(A) Gurgaon (Haryana) 
(B) Chandigarh 
(C) Mohali (Punjab) 
(D) Panchkula (Haryana) 
Ans: (D)
31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance
Commission to be transferred to States ? 
(A) 28.5% 
(B) 29.5% 
(C) 30.5% 
(D) 31.5% 
Ans: (C)
32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ? 
(A) U.P. 
(B) M.P. 
(C) Kerala 
(D) Punjab 
Ans: (D)
33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural
Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)— 
(A) Upto January 1, 2008 
(B) Upto March 31, 2008 
(C) w.e.f April 1, 2008 
(D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009 
Ans: (B)
34. What is ‘NIKKEI’ ? 
(A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market 
(B) Name of Japanese Central Bank 
(C) Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission 
(D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan 
Ans: (A)
35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ? 
(A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution 
(B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration 
(C) Members do not require any minimum education 
(D) All of these 
Ans: (D)
36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1,
2007 ? 
(A) Tamil Nadu 
(B) Uttar Pradesh 
(C) Gujarat 
(D) Goa 
Ans: (A)
37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2007–08 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs.
50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at— 
(A) Rs. 50,603 crore 
(B) Rs. 52,603 crore 
(C) Rs. 64,460 crore 
(D) Rs. 64,640 crore 
Ans: (A)
38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of— 
(A) Public Account Committee 
(B) Shivaraman Committee 
(C) Narsimham Committee 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (B)
39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from— 
(A) 1st April, 2001 
(B) 25th Sept., 2001 
(C) 30th Sept., 2001 
(D) No scheme of such title has yet launched 
Ans: (B)
40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ? 
(A) MTNL 
(B) BSNL 
(C) Reliance Infocom 
(D) Bharti Tele 
Ans: (B)
41. VAT is imposed— 
(A) Directly on consumer 
(B) On final stage of production 
(C) On first stage of production 
(D) On all stages between production and final sale 
Ans: (D)
42. The newly elevated person as Joint Chairman–cum–Managing Director of National
Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is— 
(A) S. Sridhar 
(B) Viswapati Trivedi 
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar 
(D) Venugopal Dhoot 
Ans: (B)
43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with— 
(A) Promoting cottage industry in villages 
(B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth 
(C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line 
(D) All of these 
Ans: (C)
44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with— 
(A) Tata Steels 
(B) SAIL 
(C) HINDALCO 
(D) Jindal Steels 
Ans: (C)
45. OTCEI is— 
(A) Atomic Submarine of China 
(B) Economic policy of USA 
(C) An Indian Share Market 
(D) A defence research organisation 
Ans: (C)
46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is—
(A) M. Damodaran 
(B) C. B. Bhave 
(C) Venugopal Dhoot 
(D) Sunil K. Munjal 
Ans: (B)
47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs.
2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it has been raised to— 
(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore 
(B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore 
(C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore 
(D) Rs. 28,456 crore 
Ans: (B)
48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to
— 
(A) 1995 
(B) 1998 
(C) 2000 
(D) 2001 
Ans: (D)
49. In Budget proposals for 2008–09, which of the following gives 24% contribution in
revenue collection of union government ? 
(A) Income Tax 
(B) Excise 
(C) Corporation Tax 
(D) Non-tax Revenue 
Ans: (C)
50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees
(CPI—UNME) is— 
(A) 1980-81 
(B) 1981-81 
(C) 1982-83 
(D) 1984-85 
Ans: (D)
51. CAPART is related with— 
(A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes 
(B) Computer hardware 
(C) Consultant service of export promotion 
(D) Controlling pollution in big industries 
Ans: (A)
52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth— 
(A) Rs. 85 crore 
(B) Rs. 115 crore 
(C) Rs. 200 crore 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (B)
53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ? 
(A) National Saving Certificate 
(B) Indira Vikas Patra 
(C) National Saving Scheme 
(D) Public Providend Fund 
Ans: (B)
54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on— 
(A) 31 March, 1997 
(B) 31 March, 1996 
(C) 1 April, 1992 
(D) 1 April, 1995 
Ans: (A)
55. SEBI was established in— 
(A) 1993 
(B) 1992 
(C) 1988 
(D) 1990 
Ans: (C)
56. The working of SEBI includes— 
(A) To regulate the dealings of share market 
(B) To check the foul dealings in share market 
(C) To control the inside trading of shares 
(D) All of these 
Ans: (D)
57. The “Ad hoc Treasury Bill System” of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by
‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on— 
(A) March 31, 1997 
(B) April 1, 1996 
(C) April 1, 1997 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (C)
58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4•0% in 2004–05 which sliped down in 2008–
09 (Budget Estimates) to— 
(A) 3.2% 
(B) 2.8% 
(C) 2.5% 
(D) 2.1% 
Ans: (C)
59. According to the Economic Survey 2007–08 during the period April 3, 2007 and
February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by— 
(A) 5.6% 
(B) 6.8% 
(C) 8.9% 
(D) 9.3% 
Ans: (C)
60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ? 
(A) It is not an agency of UNO 
(B) It can grant loan to any country of the world 
(C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country 
(D) It grants loan only to member nations 
Ans: (D)
61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at— 
(A) 3.8% 
(B) 5.9% 
(C) 0.0% 
(D) 6.3% 
Ans: (A)
62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ? 
(1) FCI Food Corporation of India 
(2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India 
(3) Cotton Corporation of India 
(4) Jute Corporation of India 
(A) Only 1 and 2 
(B) Only 2, 3 
(C) Only 3, 4 
(D) All of these 
Ans: (D)
63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and
Children Development ? 
(A) April 5, every year 
(B) July 9, every year 
(C) October 9, every year 
(D) December 9, every year 
Ans: (D)
64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was— 
(A) Rs. 4500 crore 
(B) Rs. 5500 crore 
(C) Rs. 10000 crore 
(D) Rs. 12000 crore 
Ans: (D)
65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as— 
(A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively 
(B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively 
(C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively 
(D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively 
Ans: (D)
66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below
poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ? 
(A) Price for APL is double of BPL price 
(B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price 
(C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt. 
(D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt. 
Ans: (A)
67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the
11th Plan (2007–12) ? 
(A) 42% 
(B) 33% 
(C) 29% 
(D) 26% 
Ans: (D)
68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their
account in— 
(A) Rural Post Offices 
(B) Commercial Banks 
(C) Rural Development Bank 
(D) Any of the above 
Ans: (A)
69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08
at— 
(A) Again 6% 
(B) 4.3% 
(C) 3.3% 
(D) 2.6% 
Ans: (D)
70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08
released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at— 
(A) 110.52 Million Tonnes 
(B) 112.24 Million Tonnes 
(C) 114.42 Million Tonnes 
(D) 115.9 Million Tonnes 
Ans: (D)
71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by— 
(A) 2008 end 
(B) 2009 end 
(C) 2010 end 
(D) 2011 end 
Ans: (A)
72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ? 
(A) Bhootlingam Committee 
(B) Wanchoo Committee 
(C) Raj Committee 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (d)
73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is— 
(A) 8% 
(B) 9% 
(C) 10% 
(D) 12% 
Ans: (D)
74. The cause of deflation is— 
(A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply 
(B) Lack of imports as compared to exports 
(C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (C)
75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ? 
(A) Employment 
(B) Size of exports 
(C) Rural consumption 
(D) National Income 
Ans: (D)
76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ? 
(A) Central Bank of India 
(B) State Bank of India 
(C) Reserve Bank of India 
(D) Above (A) and (B) 
Ans: (C)
77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-
09 budget proposals? 
(A) 12 Paise 
(B) 10 Paise 
(C) 8 Paise 
(D) 7 Paise 
Ans: (C)
8. ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in— 
(A) 1996 
(B) 1997 
(C) 1995 
(D) 1992 
Ans: (A)
79. Mixed Economy means— 
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries 
(B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy 
(C) Co-existence of public and private sectors 
(D) Co-existence of rich and poor 
Ans: (C)
80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to— 
(A) 65% 
(B) 70% 
(C) 75% 
(D) 100% 
Ans: (D)
81. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by— 
(A) ICICI Bank 
(B) HDFC Bank 
(C) SBI 
(D) UTI Bank 
Ans: (C)
82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at— 
(A) 16.4% 
(B) 17.4% 
(C) 17.8% 
(D) 15.8% 
Ans: (A)
83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is— 
(A) Maharashtra 
(B) Goa 
(C) Gujarat 
(D) Kerala 
Ans: (D)
84. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for— 
(A) Internet Banking 
(B) Credit Card 
(C) Cash with Bank 
(D) Cash with Public 
Ans: (B)
85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ? 
(A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch) 
(B) Airtel 
(C) BSNL 
(D) Reliance 
Ans: (B)
86. The main objective of TRYSEM was— 
(A) To train rural youth for self employment 
(B) To train urban youth for self employment 
(C) Both of the above 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (A)
87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-
operation) was officially declared on— 
(A) March 5, 1996 
(B) March 5, 1997 
(C) April 1, 1997 
(D) August 15, 1947 
Ans: (B)
88. Inside Trading is related to— 
(A) Share Market 
(B) Horse racing 
(C) Taxation 
(D) Public Expenditure 
Ans: (A)
89. The largest source of National Income in India is— 
(A) Service Sector 
(B) Agriculture 
(C) Industrial Sector 
(D) Trade Sector 
Ans: (A)
90. ‘Public Sector’ means— 
(A) Government ownership on commerce and trade 
(B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade 
(C) Private ownership on trade 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (A)
91. NABARD is— 
(A) A bank 
(B) A board 
(C) A block 
(D) A department 
Ans: (A)
92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in— 
(A) Wheat and Potato 
(B) Jwar and Oil Seeds 
(C) Wheat and Rice 
(D) Tea and Coffee 
Ans: (C)
93. The period of 10th plan in India was— 
(A) 2000-2005 
(B) 2001-2006 
(C) 2002-2007 
(D) 2003-2008 
Ans: (C)
94. Economic Planning is in— 
(A) Union list 
(B) State list 
(C) Concurrent list 
(D) Not any specified list 
Ans: (C)
95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is— 
(A) 7.0% 
(B) 6.75% 
(C) 6.25% 
(D) 6.0% 
Ans: (D)
96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average
percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ? 
(A) 26.4% 
(B) 31.4% 
(C) 34.8% 
(D) 35.2% 
Ans: (B)
97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest
rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is
this recommended interest rate ? 
(A) 7.0% 
(B) 7.5% 
(C) 8.0% 
(D) 8.5% 
Ans: (B)
98. MRTP is related to— 
(A) Monopoly and trade restrictions 
(B) Inflation control 
(C) Transport control 
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulations 
Ans: (A)
99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of— 
(A) Fiscal Policy 
(B) Industrial Policy 
(C) Monetary Policy 
(D) None of these 
Ans: (C)
100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is— 
(A) National Income 
(B) Consumer Price Index 
(C) Standard of Living 
(D) Per Capita Income 
Ans: (B)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
01.’White Leg Horn’ is a disease which affects: 
A. sambars                   B. elephants         C.cattle     D. birds 
02. Atacama Desert is in : 
A.  North America     B. South Africa     C. Russia      D. South America 
03. Mahatma Gandhi University came in the existence on: 
A. 26th October 193           B. 26lh October 194    C.26th October 195 D. 26th October 196 
04. Who is supposed to be the mythical founder of Jainism: 
A. Mahavira      B.  Rishaba C. Parswanath      D.None of these 
05. The Mughal Emperor who wrote their autobiographies 
A. Akbar and Jehangir         B. Aurangazeb and Shahjahan        C. Babar and Humayun        D.
Babar and Jehangir 
06. Most  of the   Ajanta  Paintings   were completed during the reign of: 
A. Satavahana          B. Vardhanas   C..Guptas    D. Sakas 
07. Which one of the following contains the Gayatri Mantra ? 
A. Yajur Veda            B.Upanishad        C Aranyaka         D. Rig Veda 
08. The prose explanations of the vedas were known as the: 
A. Brahmanas       B. Upanishads           C. Samhitas                   D. Aranyakas 
09.In  which of the following modern Indian states Asokan’s inscriptions are 
Not found ? 
A. Karnataka        B.Andhra Pradesh               C.Tamil Nadu D. Orissa 
10. The study of rocks is known as: 
,A. seismology          B. paleontology     C. petrology            D. bathymetry 
11. Gandhiji organised Dandi March in 1930 against: 
A. the communal award       B.  imposition of tax on salt  C.  repression of the Congress      D.
atrocities on Harijans 
12. The battle of Plassey was a notable incident because: 
A. the English East India Company got more trade commission   B. the British won over the
French  C. Company’s rule came to an end   D. it established English control over Bengal 
13. Chengiz Khan invaded India during the rule of: 
A. Iltumish      B. Balban               C.  Alauddin Khilji           D. Qutubuddin Aibak 
14. Who is the author of the book Ain-e-Akbari ? 
A. Todarmal               B. Sheikh Saadi        C. Akbar        D. AbulFazal 
15. Name the last Hindu King of Northern India: 
A.  Harshavardhana             B. Samudra Gupta       C. Chandra Gupta Maurya 
D. Vikramaditya 
16. Which metal is mostly used for the manufacture of aeroplanes and is also 
used by doctors to repair injured bones? 
A. Pig iron  B. Tin             C. Aluminium            D. Silver 
17. Which of the following is the national emblem of United Kingdom? 
A. Rose          B.  Lilly        C. Eagle         D.   Shamrock 
18. The Damodar Vally Corporation, the first multipurpose rivervalley project of 
Government of  India, was setup on: 
A. 10th April 199      B. 7th July 194         C. 12 th July 19      D. 14 thJuly 199 
19. Name of the author of the book ‘Tales from Shakespeare’ ? 
A. Tolstoy       B. Charles Lamb       C.Thomas Hardy      D. William Shakespear 
20. Bacteriophage is a kind of: 
A.  RNA          B. Suga             C. Fungus   D. Virus 
21. Census In India is being held rcgulary after every 
A.  years       B.10 years C.6 years        D.12 years 
22. J.J. Thomson discovered : 
A. Positron    B. Electron        C.Proton            D.Neutron 
23. Hercule.Poirot is the character in the books written by: 
A. James Hardly Chase       B. P.G. Wodehouse C. George Bernard Shaw 
D. Agatha Christie 
24. Diagonal relationship exists between 
A. Sodium and Magnesium B. Sodium and Boron           C Lithium and Magnesiunr   D.
Potassium and Magnesium 
25. In blood, a universal recipient belongs to the group: 
A. A                       B.B             C. AB              D. O 
26.       The paths of a projectile is a/an : 
A.    trajectory            B. elliptical     C. hyperbola         D. parabola 
27. Chese is a source of: 
A.  both fats and proteins     B. proteins     C. fats D. none of these 
28. Which of the following elementary particles is unstable ? 
A. positron      B. neutron             C.electron             D. proton 
29.The somatotrophic  hormone is secreted by : 
A. thyroid gland          B. pituitary gland       C. adrenal gland        D. pancreas gland 
30. The National Income  of India is compiled by: 
A.  Planning Commission       B. Finance Commission      C. Indian statistical Institut   D.
Central Statistical Organisation 
31. The Indus valley civilization existed around : 
A.   500 B.C.              B. 1700 B.C               C. 3000 B.C              D. 2500B.C 
32. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus? 
A. Scurvy                    B. Rickets      C. Polio       D. Beri-Beri 
33. On which of the following rivers is Washing ton (USA) situated ? 
A. Nile            B.Hudson         C. Danube               D.   Potomac 
34.    Who discovered the medicine “Streptomycin” 
A. Dewar        B. Waksman              C. Reed          D. Bushwell 
35. Who wrote the book Mudraraff-shasam ? 
A.  Vishakhadatta        B. Kalidas          C. Rabindranath Tagore           D. Bhavabhuti 
36. Mahayana and Hinayana are the two divisions of: 
A. Hinduism      B. Jainism               C.Christianity             D.Buddhism 
37. Name the first Indian scientist to be awarded the Nobel Prize: 
A.C.V.Raman       B. H.J.Bhabha     C.S. Chandrasekhar 
D. M.N.Sahay 
38. In which year was the Battle of Bauxar fought ? 
A. 176      B. 1766          C. 1764          D.1765 
39. Red, green and blue are known as: 
A. Complementary colours  B. Primary colours    C. Secondary colours 
D. Primary pigments 
40. Earthquake waves travel fastest in 
A. flexible rock           B. liquid water       C. motten rock      D. solid rock 
41. Universal blood donors have blood type 
A. 0              B. AB             C. B               D. A 
42.Psychology is mainly concerned with: 
A. structure of the body         B. diseases of the body       C. growth of the body 
D. activity of the body 
43. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally: 
A. varies widely         B. remains the same            C. decreases   D.  increases 
44. Which nutrient is not able to provide energy for cell use ? 
A. fats B. carbohydrates       C. water          D. proteins 
45. A large blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart is called : 
A. an artery       B. a vein      C.nerve       D. a capillary 
46. An important ore of uranium is : 
A. chalcocite              B. pithchblende         C. taconite     D. carnallite 
47. The hottest flame is produced by the: 
A. atomic hydrogen torch       B. oxyacetylene torch          C. miner’s safety lamp 
D. oxyhydrogen torch 
48. Odissi is the dance style of: 
A. Madhya Pradesh              B. Andra Pradesh     C. Haryana        D. Orissa 
49. Who invented the telephone: 
A.Newton       B. J.L.Baird                C. Alexander Graham Bell      D. Thomas Edison 
50. The Ganapati festival is associated with which of the following states ?  . 
A.Punjab         B.Maharashtra           C. Kerala    D.Karnataka
Answers

01. C.cattle 
02. D. South America 
03. A. 26th October 1983 
04. B.  Rishaba 
05. D. Babar and Jehangir 
06. C..Guptas 
07. D. Rig Veda 
0. A. Brahmanas 
09. C.Tamil Nadu 
10. C. petrology 
11. B.  imposition of tax on salt 
12. D. it established English control over Bengal 
13. A. Iltumish 
14. D. AbulFazal 
15. A.  Harshavardhana 
16. C. Aluminium 
17. A. Rose 
1. B. 7th July 1948 
19. B. Charles Lamb 
20. D.D.Virus 
21. B.10 years 
22. B. Electron 
23. D. Agatha Christie 
24. C Lithium and Magnesiunr 
25. C. AB 
26. D. parabola 
27. A.  both fats and proteins 
2. B. neutron 
29. B. pituitary gland 
30. D. Central Statistical Organisation 
31. C. 3000 B.C 
32. C. Polio 
33. D.   Potomac 
34. B. Waksman 
35. A.  Vishakhadatta 
36. D.Buddhism 
37. A.C.V.Raman 
3. C. 1764 
39. B. Primary colours 
40. D. solid rock 
41. A. 0 
42. D. activity of the body 
43. D.  increases 
44. C. water 
45. A. an artery 
46. B. pithchblende 
47. A. atomic hydrogen torch 
4. D. Orissa 
49. C. Alexander Graham Bell 
50. B.Maharashtra
RRB GENERAL INTELLIGENCE 
1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ? 
(A) 26 
(B) 32 
(C) 24 
(D) 35 
2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to— 
(A) Teacher 
(B) School 
(C) Student 
(D) Tuition 
3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series— 
S, V, Y, B, ? 
(A) C 
(B) D 
(C) E 
(D) G 
4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20 
(A) 11 
(B) 10 
(C) 8 
(D) 9 
5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark— 
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? 
(A) IYZ 
(B) HWX 
(C) IWX 
(D) JWX 
6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ? 
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ? 
(A) 48 
(B) 49 
(C) 52 
(D) 56 
7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th from the top. If
there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ? 
(A) 26 
(B) 12 
(C) 10 
(D) 33 
8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same
language ? 
(A) VSS 
(B) URR 
(C) VTT 
(D) UTT 
9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the
same code as— 
(A) CBIECD 
(B) CIBCED 
(C) CBICED 
(D) CIBECD 
10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for
BETTER is— 
(A) 213310 
(B) 213301 
(C) 123301 
(D) 012334 
11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is
called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called
in that language ? 
(A) Blue 
(B) Fish 
(C) Rain 
(D) Pink 
12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and
goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ? 
(A) East 
(B) West 
(C) North 
(D) South 
13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back
towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction
Shanu was facing ? 
(A) East 
(B) West 
(C) North 
(D) South 
14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller than Namarata but
not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ? 
(A) Mihir 
(B) Paumpi 
(C) Namarata 
(D) Neelam 
15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as Minal. Minal got
more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are
not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ? 
(A) Minal 
(B) Rupali 
(C) Raja 
(D) None of these 
16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daughter but her
mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with
Raja’s mother ? 
(A) Sister in law 
(B) Grand Daughter 
(C) Daughter in law 
(D) None of these 
17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a
daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ? 
(A) Uncle–Nephew 
(B) Father–Daughter 
(C) Father–Son 
(D) Grandfather–Grandson 
18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next
day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the 
application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the
application was received by the inward clerk ? 
(A) Tuesday 
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday 
(C) Wednesday 
(D) Monday 
19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight
took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for 
the next flight ? 
(A) 2 : 20 a.m. 
(B) 3 : 30 a.m. 
(C) 3 : 55 p.m. 
(D) 3 : 20 p.m. 
20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination.
How many boys were there in that class ? 
(A) 44 
(B) 40 
(C) 50 
(D) 55
21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their
position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ? 
(A) 21st 
(B) 19th 
(C) 23rd 
(D) 20th 
22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as— 
(A) MENOPM 
(B) MENOMP 
(C) NJOGPM 
(D) MNJOPM 
23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the
same manner as— 
(A) CJCEFQPYWC 
(B) CJGERQTYVG 
(C) CNCERQPCRG 
(D) GJGAVMTYVC 
24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to… 
(A) Drink 
(B) Fish 
(C) Wash 
(D) Swim 
25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………. 
(A) Injure 
(B) Peel 
(C) Prick 
(D) Attack 
Answers with Hints 
1. (D) 
2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is used by a ‘Student’. 
3. (C) 
4. (D) 
5. (C) 
6. (B) 
7. (B) 
8. (C) 
9. (B) 
10. (A) 
11. (C) 
12. (A) 
13. (D) 
14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata 
= The tallest is Mihir. 
15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali 
16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the girl is grand
daughter of Raja’s mother. 
17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo. 
18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the senior clerk received it
on Thursday and the inward clerk received the application on Wednesday. 
19. (D) The time for the next flight 
= 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00 
= 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m. 
20. (D) Number of boys in the class 
= (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5 
= 55 
21. (A) 
22. (D) 
23. (D) 
24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’. 
25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.
RRB Exam Model Paper 
1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the
train wheels in their proper routes are known as: 
(a) lead rail 
(b) point rail 
(c) wing rail 
(d) splice rail 
Ans:- C
2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called: 
(a) terminal 
(b) Station 
(c) rail-head 
(d) Base 
Ans:- C
3. The good quality wood for sleeper is: 
(a) Deodar 
(b) Sheesham 
(c) Teak 
(d) Sal 
Ans:- C
4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as: 
(a) 2 to 3 years 
(b) 12 to 15 years 
(c) 35 to 50 years 
(d) 5 to 8 years 
Ans:- B
5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and
splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as: 
(a) Flare 
(b) Toe 
(c) Heel 
(d) Loop 
Ans:- A
6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be: 
(a) zero cm 
(b) 30 cm 
(c) 100 cm 
(d) 60 cm 
Ans:- D
7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided
under the …….. edge of the sleeper. 
(a) upper 
(b) middle 
(c) inner 
(d) outer 
Ans:- C
8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is: 
(a) 1 in 5 
(b) 1 in 10 
(c) 1 in 20 
(d) 1 in 25 
Ans:- C
9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest
upon is known as: 
(a) anchors 
(b) ballast 
(c) subgrade 
(d) chairs 
Ans:- B
10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting: 
(a) double headed rails 
(b) flat footed rails 
(c) bull headed rails 
(d) all above are correct 
Ans:- B
11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the
gauge distance apart are known as: 
(a) fastenings 
(b) sleepers 
(c) ballast 
(d) fish plate 
Ans:- B
12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is: 
(a) 78.6 mm 
(b) 136.5 mm 
(c) 66.7 mm 
(d) 70 mm 
Ans:- B
13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are
known as: 
(a) Track pits 
(b) Inspection pits 
(c) Drop pits 
(d) Siding pits 
Ans:- C
14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to
prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is: 
(a) 1 in 5 
(b) 1 in 20 
(c) 1 in 10 
(d) 1 in 15 
Ans:- B
15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails
in a track. 
(a) inner faces 
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail 
(c) centre lines 
(d) outer faces 
Ans:- A
16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is: 
(a) adhesion of wheels 
(b) resistance due to oscillations 
(c) flange resistance 
(d) air or wind resistance 
Ans:- A
17. The rails are welded by: 
(a) Thermit welding 
(b) Gas welding 
(c) Arc welding 
(d) MIG welding 
Ans:- A
18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section. 
(a) oval 
(b) rectangular 
(c) trough 
(d) semi-spherical 
Ans:- C
19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is: 
(a) 18 
(b) 30 
(c) 12 
(d) 24 
Ans:- A
20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment
on the bridge are known as: 
(a) Stock rails 
(b) Guard rails 
(c) Check rails 
(d) Wing rails 
Ans:- B
21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as: 
(a) cropping 
(b) creeping 
(c) bulging 
(d) buckling 
Ans:- D
22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails. 
(a) longitudinal 
(b) diagonal 
(c) horizontal 
(d) vertical 
Ans:- A
23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is: 
(a) sand 
(b) Gravel 
(c) Quartzite 
(d) All the above 
Ans:- C
24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of: 
(a) Type of rails 
(b) Spacing of the sleepers 
(c) Speed of trains 
(d) All of the above 
Ans:- D
25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means: 
(a) checking of subgrade 
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade 
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work 
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees 
Ans:- D
26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as: 
(a) Rolling motion 
(b) Nosing motion 
(c) Lurching motion 
(d) Vibration 
Ans:- B
27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in
the form of motion is called: 
(a) rolling stock 
(b) railway 
(c) wagon 
(d) locomotive 
Ans:- D
28. Integrated coach factory is located in: 
(a) Chennai 
(b) Bangalore 
(c) Jamshedpur 
(d) Mumbai 
Ans:- A
29. C.T.C. stands for: 
(a) Critical Track Control 
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser 
(c) Centralised Traffic Control 
(d) None of these 
Ans:- C
30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular
plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as: 
(a) Fish plate 
(b) Chair 
(c) Saddle plate 
(d) Bearing plate 
Ans:- D
31. Generally the rail sections used in India is: 
(a) flat footed 
(b) double headed 
(c) bull headed 
(d) all above 
Ans:- A
32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is
called: 
(a) three ladder track 
(b) turn table 
(c) three throw switch 
(d) triangle 
Ans:- B
33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is: 
(a) 1.83 m 
(b) 1.52 m 
(c) 2.74 m 
(d) 1.676 m 
Ans:- C
34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of
Indian Railways is called: 
(a) Permanent Way Inspector 
(b) Gangmate 
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector 
(d) None of these are correct 
Ans:- C
35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard
should be: 
(a) 250 to 300 mm 
(b) 200 to 250 mm 
(c) 150 to 200 mm 
(d) 150 mm 
Ans:- B
36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by
locomotive is known as: 
(a) steel way 
(b) rails 
(c) railway 
(d) permanent way 
Ans:- D
37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of: 
(a) 10-15 kg/HP 
(b) 60-80 kg/HP 
(c) 20-30 kg/HP 
(d) 100-150 kg/HP 
Ans:- B
38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is: 
(a) Loose packing at joints 
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment 
(c) Defect in cross level joints 
(d) Any of the above 
Ans:- D
39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called: 
(a) lift 
(b) site distance 
(c) rail-head 
(d) lead 
Ans:- D
40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised
above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called: 
(a) Track gradient 
(b) Track slope 
(c) Super elevation 
(d) Horizontal gradient 
Ans:- C
41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is
known as: 
(a) Tractive force 
(b) Load capacity 
(c) Gauge 
(d) Track modulus 
Ans:- D 
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called: 
(a) P.W.I 
(b) Keyman 
(c) Ganger 
(d) A.P.W.I 
Ans:- C
43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as: 
(a) wing rail 
(b) stock rail 
(c) lead rail 
(d) point rail 
Ans:- B
44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is: 
(a) 19.2 m 
(b) 25.6 m 
(c) 11.8 m 
(d) 12.8 m 
Ans:- D
45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is: 
(a) 16 mm 
(b) 10 mm 
(c) 25 mm 
(d) 20 mm 
Ans:- D
46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of: 
(a) 50-65% 
(b) 25-35% 
(c) 15-20% 
(d) 10-15% 
Ans:- B
47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to: 
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels 
(b) Heavy axle load 
(c) Constant brake application 
(d) Any or all of the above 
Ans:- D
48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal,
transversal etc., is known as: 
(a) Oscillating motion 
(b) Lurching motion 
(c) Shutting motion 
(d) Vibration 
Ans:- A
49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from
below the rail joint. Such joint is called: 
(a) Wet joint 
(b) Water joint 
(c) Pumping joint 
(d) Blowing joint 
Ans:- C
50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting: 
(a) interlocking 
(b) C.T.C. system 
(c) pilot guard system 
(d) A.T.C. system 
Ans:- A
51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? 
(a) 1982 
(b) 1989 
(c) 1984 
(d) 1992 
Ans: – C
52. Shatabdi Express train was started in 
(a) 1984 
(b) 1988 
(c) 1990 
(d) 1985 
Ans: – B
53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? 
(a) Jamshedpur 
(b) Patiala 
(c) Perambur 
(d) Varanasi 
Ans: – B
54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? 
(a) Central Railway 
(b) Northern Railway 
(c) Eastern Railway 
(d) Western Railway 
Ans: – C
55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is 
(a) Chennai 
(b) Cochin 
(c) Kanyakumari 
(d) Trivandrum 
Ans: – C
56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called 
(a) Dock platform 
(b) Passenger platform 
(c) Island platform 
(d) Goods platform 
Ans: – C
57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done? 
(a) 1952 
(b) 1950 
(c) 1951 
(d) 1954 
Ans: – B
58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established? 
(a) 1954 
(b) 1957 
(c) 1959 
(d) 1967 
Ans: – B
59. Railway Staff College is situated at 
(a) Bangalore 
(b) Secundrabad 
(c) Chennai 
(d) Vadodara 
Ans: – D
60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated? 
(a) Lucknow 
(b) Bangalore 
(c) Pune 
(d) New Delhi 
Ans:- A
61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true? 
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad 
(b) Central railway – Bhopal 
(c) South Railway – Chennai 
(d) North Railway – New Delhi 
Ans:- B
62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started? 
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi 
(b) From Mumbai to Thane 
(c) From Mumbai to Surat 
(d) From Mumbai to Madras 
Ans:- B
63. When was the first train in Indian started? 
(a) 1851 
(b) 1852 
(c) 1853 
(d) 1854 
Ans:- C 
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick 
(b) Lord Cornwallis 
(c) Lord Kenning 
(d) Lord Dalhousie 
Ans:- D
65. A station where the rail lines end, is called 
(a) junction station 
(b) way-side-station 
(c) block station 
(d) terminal station 
Ans:- D
66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? 
(a) 33 km 
(b) 36 km 
(c) 34 km 
(d) 46 km 
Ans:- C
67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail
lines? 
(a) First 
(b) Second 
(c) Third 
(d) Fourth 
Ans:- D
68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? 
(a) 4300 Km 
(b) 3700 Km 
(c) 4290 km 
(d) 5298 km 
Ans:- B
69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at 
(a) Mumbai (V.T) 
(b) Guwahati 
(c) Gorakhpur 
(d) New Delhi 
Ans:- C
70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? 
(a) 15th Jan, 1958 
(b) 15th Jan, 1955 
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956 
(d) 14th April, 1952 
Ans:- A
71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is 
(a) Calcutta 
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati) 
(c) Chennai 
(d) Gorakhpur 
Ans:- B
72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? 
(a) Mumbai 
(b) Delhi 
(c) Calcutta 
(d) Chennai 
Ans:- C
73. General Manger is responsible for 
(a) Railway Board 
(b) Railway Ministry 
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry 
(d) None of these 
Ans:- A
74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at 
(a) Mumbai (V.T) 
(b) Chennai 
(c) Secundrabad 
(d) Mumbai (Central) 
Ans:- C
75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at 
(a) New Delhi 
(b) Guwahati 
(c) Gorakhpur 
(d) Mumbai (V.T) 
Ans:- A
76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at 
(a) Calcutta 
(b) Chennai 
(c) Delhi 
(d) Mumbai 
Ans:- B
77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? 
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering 
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering 
(c) Railway Staff College 
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering 
Ans:- B
78. Who invented the railway engine? 
(a) Charles Babbage 
(b) Isaac Newton 
(c) James Watt 
(d) George Stephenson 
Ans:- D
79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
Institution situated? 
(a) Nasik 
(b) Baroda 
(c) Jamalpur 
(d) Pune 
Ans:- C
80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? 
(a) Gujarat 
(b) Maharashtra 
(c) West Bengal 
(d) Tamil Nadu 
Ans:- C
81. The zone with the minimum length is 
(a) North-Eastern Railway 
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway 
(c) South-East Railway 
(d) South-Central Railway 
Ans:- B
82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? 
(a) Pune 
(b) Chennai 
(c) Nasik 
(d) Sikandrabad 
Ans:- A
83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? 
(a) Three 
(b) Four 
(c) Five 
(d) Six 
Ans:- C
84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? 
(a) First 
(b) Second 
(c) Third 
(d) Forth 
Ans:- B
85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? 
(a) Broad gauge 
(b) Meter gauge 
(c) Narrow gauge 
(d) Special gauge 
Ans:- C
86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? 
(a) Jammutavi 
(b) Amritsar 
(c) Pathancoat 
(d) Guwahat 
Ans:- A
87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? 
(a) One 
(b) Two 
(c) Three 
(d) Four 
Ans:- B
88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at 
(a) Perambur 
(b) Varanasi 
(c) Kapurthala 
(d) Bangalore 
Ans:- B
89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in 
(a) 1974 
(b) 1961 
(c) 1971 
(d) 1973 
Ans:- C
90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following
places? 
(a) Kapurthala 
(b) Chittranjan 
(c) Perambur 
(d) Bangalore 
Ans:- C
91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how
many regions? 
(a) 7 
(b) 9 
(c) 8 
(d) 10 
Ans:- B
92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for
Konakan Railway Project? 
(a) Kerala 
(b) Tamil Nadu 
(c) Gujarat 
(d) Andhra Pradesh 
Ans:- A
93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in 
(a) 1988 
(b) 1972 
(c) 1982 
(d) 1965 
Ans:- C
94. When was the Central Railway established? 
(a) 5th Nov 1951 
(b) 14th Nov 1951 
(c) 14th April 1951 
(d) 16th August, 1951 
Ans:- A
95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones? 
(a) Northern region 
(b) Western region 
(c) North-Western region 
(d) Central Region 
Ans:- B
96. The largest national enterprise of India is 
(a) Indian Railway 
(b) Indian Shipyard 
(c) Airways 
(d) None of these 
Ans:- A
97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on 
(a) November 1950 
(b) October 1950 
(c) September 1949 
(d) October 1954 
Ans:- A
98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated? 
(a) Chittranjan 
(b) Kapurthala 
(c) Bangalore 
(d) Perambur 
Ans:- C
99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway? 
(a) 1965 
(b) 1963 
(c) 1967 
(d) 1965 
Ans:- D
100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated? 
(a) Mumbai (V.T) 
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate) 
(c) Gwalior 
(d) Gorakhpur 
Ans:- A