Baliyans Test 4 Explanations Indian

INSIGHT PRELIMS TEST SERIES
INDIAN POLITY - II
(FUNDAMENTAL LEVEL TEST)
1. A
Statement 1 is correct: The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be
allotted to British India and 93 seats, to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to the British India, 292 me mbe rs
were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four chief commissi oners’ provinces, one
from each. Each province and princely state (or groups of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in
proportion to their respective population; roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million population.
Statement 2 is correct: Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal
communities-Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The members of the constituent assembly were elected by the Provincial assemblies by
method of single transferable vote system of proportional representations.
Thus, Option A is correct.
2. B
Borrowed features from British Constitution
1. Parliamentary government 5. Cabinet system
2. Rule of Law 6. Prerogative writs
3. Legislative procedure 7. Parliamentary privileges
4. Single citizenship 8. Bicameralism
Thus, Option B is correct.
3. D
All the statements are portraying the characteristics of a free society.
Thus, Option D is correct.
4. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 25 (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity
which may be associated with religious practice.
Statement 2 is correct: The preamble indicates that the source of constitution is “we the people of India”.
5. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) has established the network of 18
Population Research Centres (PRCs) spread over 17 major States/UTs, with the mandate to provide, inter alia, critical
research based inputs related to the Health and Family Welfare programs and policies at the national and state l e ve l s.
The PRCs are established as well as fully funded by the Ministry of health & family Welfare.
Statement 2 is correct: The PRCs were established to undertake research projects relating to family planning,
demographic research and biological studies & qualitative aspect of population control, with a view to gai nful ly uti li ze
the feedback from these research studies for plan formulation, strategies and policy interventions of ongoing schemes.
6. D
Statement 1 is correct: The constitution provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst
members of a society. It also lays out the fundamental principles according to which a state is constituted or governed.
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ADMIN1: ADMIN2:
Statement 2 is correct: It sets some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are
fundamental means government may never trespass them. For example, there are certain fundamentals rights provided
to the citizens of the country, which the government can never trespass.
Statement 3 is correct: It specifies the basic allocation of power in a society, and gives certain decision making powers to
the law makers.
Statement 4 is correct: The constitution enables the government to fulfil the aspirations of the society and to implement
the ideals of justice, liberty and fraternity.
7. C
Statement 1 is correct: This resolution enshrined the aspirations and values behind the Constitution making. On the
basis of the Objectives Resolution, India’s Constitution gave institutional expression to the fundamental commi tments:
equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity. This made the moral commitment to e stabl i sh a
government that will fulfil the many promises that the nationalist movement held before the people of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Before the framing of the constitution started, an Objectives Resolution (the resolution that
defined the aims of the Assembly) was moved by Nehru in 1946.
Thus, Option C is correct.
8. B
Art. 51A: It shall be the duty of every citizens of India-
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending re l igious,
linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassi on
for living creatures;
9. A
Statement 1 is correct: The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the
house.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in
Parliament Act, 1977.
Statement 3 is correct: LoP plays a crucial role in bringing bipartisanship and neutrality to the appointments in
institutions of accountability and transparency – CVC, CBI, CIC, Lokpal etc.
10. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are protected and guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Judiciary if it finds any act of the government (either by Executive or by Legislature) equivalent to
violation of the Fundamental Rights, can be declared that act illegal or restrict them.
11. B
Liberalism is a group of political, social and economic theories that centres on the values of individual liberty, e quality,
economic freedom, limited and democratic government and the rule of law. So, its main concern is enhancing the
liberty of individuals. Curtailing trade practices, state intervention in religion and restrictions in divorce laws tantamount

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to state intervening into the sphere of individuals. Right to privacy and legalizing same sex marriage uphold the rights of
individuals.
12. A
Statement 1 is correct: The major difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI auto fuel norms
is the presence of sulphur. The newly introduced fuel is estimated to reduce the amount of sulphur released by 80%,
from 50 parts per million to 10 ppm. As per the analysts, the emission of NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars i s al so
expected to reduce by nearly 70% and 25% from cars with petrol engines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bharat Stage norms are the automotive emission norms which the automotive manufacturers
have to comply to sell their vehicles in India. These norms are applicable to all two wheelers, three wheelers, four
wheelers and construction equipment vehicles.
13. A
Statement 1 is correct: Preventive Detention is the most contentious part of fundamental rights in the Indian
constitution. The imprisonment of a person with the aim of preventing them from committing further offences or of
maintaining public order. The Article 22 (3) of the Indian constitution provides that if a person is arrested or detained
under a law providing for preventive detention, then the protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 (1) and
22 (2) shall not be available.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Preventive detention cannot extend beyond a period of 3 months.
14. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Writ of Mandamus is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing
his/her legal duty.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Writ of Prohibition is issued by higher court to lower court, when the lower court e xce e ds i ts
jurisdiction.
15. C
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are non-justi ciable i n
nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation,
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the
country and it shall be the duly of the state to apply these principles in making laws’ . Hence, they impose a moral
obligation on the state authorities for their application.
16. A
Article 25 & 26 are not absolute. No person can do such religious things which affect the public order, morality and
health. For example no one has right to conduct human sacrifice. No one can perform worship on busy highway or other
public places which disturb the community.
Thus Option A is correct.
17. A
The Chhattisgarh government is processing habitat rights for Abujh Marias, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group
(PVTG).Since Abujh Marias is a PVTG community, they are entitled to the habitat rights under FRA. Abujhmarh, where
this tribe lives, is considered by the government to be one of the last remaining strongholds of Left -wing
extremism. Abujh Marias have their own governance structure. The Abujhmarh forest is spread over 1,500 square mi l e s
in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.

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18. D
Statement 1 is correct: Proportional Representation is an electoral device in which seats are allotted to the political
parties on the basis of the number of votes polled for them.
Statement 2 is correct: A party gets seats, as per the proportion of votes, it gets.
19. A
Statement 1 is correct: No time limit is imposed by the Constitution upon the President either to declare hi s asse nt or
that be withholds his assent.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both House s of
Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and
the voting in such an election is by secret ballot.
20. D
Civil rights, guarantees of equal social opportunities and equal protection under the law, regardless of race, re l i gion, or
other personal characteristics. Civil rights are an essential component of democracy; when individuals are being deni ed
opportunities to participate in political society, they are being denied their civil rights.
21. B
The wording ‘by law’ indicates that these articles can be modified by the Parliament without recourse to the proce dure
laid down in Article 368. Many other articles of the Constitution can be modified by the Parliament in this simple
manner.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 2: Parliament may by law admit into the union new states and Article 3: Parl i ame nt may
by law alter the boundaries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 4 - No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Consti tution
for the purposes of Article 368
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is passed by simple majority in the parliament.
22. A
Statement 1 is incorrect: Apart from collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, all ministers are individually responsible
to the President. Article 75(2) declares that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Presiden t.
Statement 2 is correct: In accordance with the 91st Amendment of the Constitution, the total number
of Ministers including the Prime Minister in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the number of
members of the House of the People.
Statement 3 is correct.
23. A
Statement 1 is correct: Economic capital framework refers to the risk capital required by the central bank whi l e taki ng
into account different risks. The economic capital framework reflects the capital that an institution requires or ne e ds to
hold as a counter against unforeseen risks or events or losses i n the future.
Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI had constituted a panel on economic capital framework. It was headed by Ex -RBI
governor Bimal Jalan. The expert panel on RBI’s economic capital framework was formed to address the issue of RBI
reserves—one of the sticking points between the central bank and the government.

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24. D
Parliamentary democracies are usually characterized by a permanent civil service which assists the political executive. All
levels of government are part of this system.
25. D
 ARTICLE 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
 ARTICLE 43: Living wage and State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co -operative
basis in rural areas.
 ARTICLE 39: children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of
freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material
abandonment.
 ARTICLE 45: The State shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of
this Constitution, for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
26. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Vice President can be removed by a resolution by the members of the Rajya Sabha. To move
such resolution, a 14 days’ notice is to be given. Such a resolution, though passed by the Rajya Sabha only, but must be
agreeable to the Lok Sabha. There is no need of impeachment of Vice President for removal.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A Constitution Amendment Bill which seeks to amend federal features will be fi rst passe d i n
the two houses separately by absolute and special majority and then also need to be ratified by legislatures of at l e ast
half of the states by resolutions.
27. D
A joint team of German-Russian scientists launched a space telescope- Spectrum-Roentgen-Gamma (SRG). It will
create a three-dimensional (3D) X-ray map of the universe and unveil unknown super massive black holes, dark e ne rgy
and stars. The telescope is the first to be sensitive to high-energy ‘hard’ X-rays and map the entire sky.
28. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Kimberley Process is an international certification scheme that regulates trade in rough
diamonds. It aims to prevent the flow of conflict diamonds, while helping to protect legitimate trade in rough diamonds.
The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) outlines the rules that govern the trade in rough diamonds.
Statement 2 is correct: India is founding member of KPCS.
29. C
All of them fall under the ambit of Right to Equality.
30. B
Statement 1 is correct: The judges do not hold office during the pleasure of the President. They have been grante d the
security of tenure. Once appointed, a Judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed from office by the Presi dent on
the basis of a resolution passed by both the Houses of Parliament with a majority of the total membership and a
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House, on ground of proven
misbehaviour or incapacity of the Judges in question.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the administrative
expenses of the Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India and are not subject to the vote of the Parl i ame nt.
The Salaries and Allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court cannot be varied to their disadvantage except duri ng a
financial emergency.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court
including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
31. D
All the statements are correct.
32. C
 ARTICLE 38: The State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to e l i mi nate
inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst i ndividuals but also amongst groups of pe opl e
residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.
 ARTICLE 39: children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of
freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material
abandonment.
 ARTICLE 38: he State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as i t
may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life
33. D
Global Peace Index is released by Australian think tank Institute for Economics & Peace. It ranks countries accordi ng to
their level of peacefulness based on three thematic domains:
1. The level of societal safety and security.
2. The extent of ongoing domestic and international conflict.
3. The degree of militarisation
34. C
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court through its original jurisdiction review federal disputes.
35. C
Bicameralism - Rajya Sabha promotes the interests of the states hence it is a federal features.
36. A
Statement 1 is correct: ARTICLE 155: The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his
hand and seal.
Statement 2 is correct: Governor has the power under Art. 356 to submit a report to the President whenever he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance wi th the
accordance with the provisions of Constitution. By making such a report the Governor invites the Pre si de nt to make a
proclamation under Art. 356 and to assume the functions of the Government of the State. In other words, the Governor
in his report prepares the ground for imposition of President’s rule.

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37. D
Union List includes subjects’ like- Defense, Atomic Energy, Foreign Affairs, War and Peace, Banking, Railways, Post and
Telegraph, Airways, Ports, Foreign Trade, Currency & Coinage.
State List includes subjects’ like- Agriculture, Police, Prison, Local Government, Public Heath, Land, Liquor, Trade and
Commerce, Livestock and Animal Husbandry, State Public Services.
Concurrent List includes subjects’ like- Education, Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land, Forests, Trade
Unions, Adulteration, Adoption and Succession.
Residuary Powers include all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. On Cyber Laws Union Legislature alone has
the power to legislate.
38. D
The distinguishing features of a secular democracy as contemplated by the constitution are:
 That the state will not identify itself with or be controlled by any religion;
 While the state guarantees to everyone the right to profess whatever religion one chooses to follow(which incl ude s
also the right to be an agnostic or an atheist), it will not accord any preferential treatment to any of them;
 That no discrimination will be shown by the state against any person on account of his rel igion and faith;
 That the right of every citizen, subject to any general condition to enter any office under the state wi l l be e qual to
that of his fellow citizens.
 Secularism also ensures there is no intra religious discrimination.
 Anti-religious states like communist state are antagonistic against religion still they can be labelled as secular states.
39. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was established in 1977 under
the auspices of UNESCO.
Statement 2 is correct: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP), and the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) are founding organi sations
of the Institute and they are non-voting members of the General Conference.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union (ABU) is a founding organisation of the Institute and is a
non-voting member of the General Conference.
40. D
National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 5 December 1995 under the authority of the Legal
Services Authorities Act 1987. Its purpose is to provide free legal services to eligible candidates (defined in Sec. 12 of th e
Act), to settle disputes amicably and to organize Lok Adalats for speedy resolution of cases. NALSA i de nti fie s spe cifi c
categories of the marginalised and excluded groups and formulates various schemes for the implementation of
preventive and strategic legal service programmes. Services provided by the agency include free legal aid in civil and
criminal matters for the poor and marginalised people who cannot afford the services of a lawyer in any court or
tribunal. Free legal services include provision of aid and advice to beneficiaries to access the benefits under the we l fare
statutes and schemes and to ensure access to justice in any other manner.
NALSA is headed by the Chief Justice of India. There is a provision for similar mechanism at state and district l e ve l al so
headed by Chief Justice of High Courts and Chief Judges of District courts respectively. The prime objective of NALSA i s
speedy disposal of cases and reducing the burden of judiciary.

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41. C
Legislative Council or Vidhan Parishad is the upper house in bicameral legislatures in some states of Indi a. Whi l e most
states have unicameral legislature with only legislative assembly, currently, seven states viz. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh have legislative council.
After the bifurcation of J&K, now only six states (not J&K) have bicameral legislative councils.
42. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court) discusses the advisory jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Such an opinion is NOT binding on the president.
43. D
Libra is a virtual currency, which users buy and store in a digital wallet. It can be used for transactions on a decentralized
network that is not controlled by one bank or a government. It is powered by a technology called ‘Blockchain’, which
functions like an open ledger that gets updated in real time. For Libra, Facebook announced a dedicated wallet app
called “Calibra.” “Calibra” will be built into WhatsApp and Messenger as well, to let users store and use “Libra” coins.
44. A
Right to Freedom of Religion
 Article 25 of Indian Constitution grants freedom to every citizen of India to profess, practice and propagate hi s own
religion.
 Establish and maintain institutions for religions and charitable purposes;
 To manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
 To own and acquire movable and immovable property, and
 To administer such property in accordance with law. (Article 26 of Constitution of India).
 The net position thus is, every individual citizen in India has full freedom of religion.
 No one is subjected to any social, economic or political discrimination simply on grounds of religion .
45. A
According to Article 324(1) of Indian Constitution, the Election Commission of India has superintendence, direction, and
control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Parliament and Legislature (state legislative asse mbl y & state
legislative council) of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
46. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) established in 1966 is an
independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament.
Based in Stockholm the Institute provides data, analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers,
researchers, media and the interested public.
Statement 2 is incorrect: SIPRI was established on the basis of a decision by the Swedish Parliament and receives a
substantial part of its funding in the form of an annual grant from the Swedish Government. The Institute also seeks
financial support from other organizations in order to carry out its research.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is located in Stockholm, Sweden.
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47. D
Option D is the correct answer.
48. B
Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
Article 20(2) says that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. This is
called Doctrine of Double Jeopardy. The objective of this article is to avoid harassment, which must be caused for
successive criminal proceedings, where the person has committed only one crime. This means that no man shall be put
twice in peril for the same offence. There are two aspects of Doctrine of Jeopardy viz. autrefois convict and autrefois
acquit. Autrefois convict means that the person has been previously convicted in respect of the same offence. The
autrefois acquit means that the person has been acquitted on a same charge on which he is being prosecuted.
Please note that Constitution bars double punishment for the same offence. The conviction for such offe nce does not
bar for subsequent trial and conviction for another offence and it does not matter the some ingredients of these two
offences are common.
49. D
The Executive power of the State is vested in the Governor. It is exercised by him directly or through officers
subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. The executive power of the State extends to all matters on
which the State Legislature has the power to make laws. Executive also includes chief minister and council of ministers.
50. C
Structure of the Human Rights Commission
 NHRC is a multi-member body which consists of a Chairman and seven other members. Out of the seven me mbers,
three are ex-officio member.
 President appoints the Chairman and members of NHRC on recommendation of high-powered committee he ade d
by Prime Minister.
 The Chairperson and the members of the NHRC are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is
earlier.
 They can be removed only on the charges of proved misbehavior or incapacity, if proved by an inquiry conducted
by a Supreme Court Judge.
 The chairman and the members of State Commission are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chi e f
Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of Legislative Assembly and Leader of the Opposition in the State Legislative
Assembly.

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51. C
Option C is correct.
52. C
Statement 1 is correct: The AU is made up of 55 Member States which represent all the countries on the African
continent.
Statement 2 is correct: The bloc was founded on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia and launched on 9 July 2002 in
South Africa. The AU’s secretariat, the African Union Commission, is based in Addis Ababa.
53. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Supreme Court has not clearly identified what are the components of Basic structure.
However the list keeps evolving as per the opinion of the apex court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Parliament has power to amend any part of the constitution as upheld by Kesavananda
Bharti Vs. State of Kerala 1971.
54. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution Amendment Bills passed by Parliament by the prescribed special majority is
presented to the President under article 368 of the Constitution under which the President is bound to give his assent to
such Bills.
Statement 2 is correct: If there is a disagreement between the two houses on a constitution amendment bi ll , the re i s
NO provision of joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
55. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a
judge is being carried out. This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticised.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As far as the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is concerned, o ver the years, a
convention had developed whereby the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court was appointed as the Chie f Justice of
India. This convention was however broken many times. In 1973 A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI superseding three
senior Judges. Again, Justice M.H. Beg was appointed superseding Justice H.R. Khanna (1975).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court’s is also extremely difficult. A
judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or i ncapaci ty. A
motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority in both Houses of the Parliament.
56. C
Statement 1 is correct: The chairman or the Presiding Officer of Lok Sabha is called Speaker. The speaker of the Lok
Sabha is elected from all other members by simple majority. Any member of Parliament is eligible to be nominate d as a
speaker but most commonly the candidate of ruling party or the party with majority wins this post.
Statement 2 is correct: Lok Sabha represents people, Raj Sabha represents states.
Thus, Option C is correct
57. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has decided to set up a three-member
dispute resolution committee (DRC) to look into disputes beyond contractual agreements between solar or wind powe r
developers and Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) or state -run power giant NTPC.

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ADMIN1: ADMIN2:
This mechanism will cover all those projects that would be implemented through or by SECI and NTPC.
According to the order, a three-member DRC will be set up with the approval of the new and renewable energy minister,
consisting of eminent persons of impeccable integrity. The upper age for the DRC members shall be 70 years, and its
members shall be chosen from the eminent persons located in Delhi -NCR to avoid expenditure on air travel and
accommodation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The DRC will consider cases including appeal against decisions given by SECI on extension of
time requests based on terms of contract and all requests of extension of time not covered under the terms of contract.
It will examine all such cases referred to it, including the cases where the developer is not satisfied with the de ci si on of
SECI or NTPC and it decides to appeal after paying the required fee. The order said the recommendations of the DRC,
along with the MNRE’s observations, will be placed before the new and renewable energy minister for final decision.
58. D
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in ei the r House of
Parliament and not in the state legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private me mbe r and
does not require prior permission of the president.
59. B
Option B is correct.
60. A
One third of the positions in all Panchayat institutions are reserved for women. Reservations for Scheduled Caste s and
Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their population. If the States find it
necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the backward castes (OBCs) which means reservation for O BCs was
only mentioned by 73rd CAA and State was given responsibility to provide such reservation, if needed.
61. C
Statement 1 is correct: The High Court, under Article 227, has the power of superintendence over all the Courts and
Tribunals except those which deal with Armed Forces located in the state. The High Court has the power to : (a) cal l for
return from such courts; (b) make and issue general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceeding
of such courts and (c) prescribe forms in which books, entries and accounts are to be kept by the officers of such courts.
The power of superintendence, vested in the High Court, is judicial as well as administrative in nature. The High Court i s
thus in charge of the administration of justice in the state. It is important to note that the Supreme Court has no si mi l ar
power vis-a-vis the High Courts.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 226, the High Court shall have the power issue any person or authority, directions,
orders or writs in nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari or any of them for the
enforcement of any of the fundamental rights and for any other purpose. The phrase, ‘for any other purpose’ was take n
away by the 42nd Amendment Act. Further, this Amendment said that the High Court could not issue any order or
injunction unless the matter was such that the loss or damage to the petitioner could not be compensated in money.
The 42nd Amendment also deprived the High Court of the power to decide the constitutional validity of any Central Law.
However, the High Court was restored these powers through the Forty Third and Forty Fourth Ame ndme nts. Now the
High Court is empowered to entertain any petition for the redressal of any injury even if, by or under any l aw, re me dy
for such redressal has been provided for. Election cases are entertained by the High Court through this power.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The High Court is a Court of Record. Its decisions are binding for all Subordinate Courts. The
decisions and proceedings of the High Court have evidentiary value and no Subordinate Court can challenge them.
62. B
Article 16 : Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

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1. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointme nt to any
office under the State.
2. No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be
ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
3. Nothing in this article shall prevent Parliament from making any law prescri bing, in regard to a class or classes of
employment or appointment to an office
4. Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or
posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately
represented in the services under the State.
Thus Option B is correct.
63. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: An apex-level Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is not a statutory body.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Statement 3 is correct: Its members are Governor, Reserve Bank of India; Finance Secretary and/or Secretary,
Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial Services; Chie f Economic Adviser, Ministry of
Finance; Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India; Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
and Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. It also includes the chairman of the Insolv ency and
Bankruptcy Board (IBBI).Recently, the government through a gazette notification, had included ministry of e l e ctroni cs
and information technology (MeitY) secretary in the FSDC in view of the increased focus of the gove rnment on di gi tal
economy.
64. D
Few items are mentioned in the ‘Eleventh Schedule’ of the Indian Constitution are - Agriculture, Minor irrigati on, water
management and watershed development, Small scale industries, including food processing industries, Rural housi ng,
Drinking water, Roads, culverts, Rural electrification, Poverty alleviation programme, Education, including pri mary and
secondary schools, Technical training and vocational education, Adult and non-formal education, , Cultural activities,
Markets and fairs, Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries, Family welfare ,
Women and child development, Social welfare, Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, Public distribution system.
65. D
 Anti-Defection: There was an agreement among the parties that a legislator who is elected on one party’s ticket
must be restricted from ‘defecting’ to another party. An amendment to the Constitution was made (52 nd
amendment act) in 1985. It has also been subsequently modified by the 91st amendment.
 Urban Local Bodies: The 74thamendment dealt with urban local bodies or Nagarpalikas.
 Voting age: 61st Constitutional Amendment
66. B
Original Jurisdiction of the SC in India
Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first. In the case of the
Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It involves the follo wing cases:
1. Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.

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2. Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States on one side and one or more States on the
other side.
3. Any dispute between two or more States.
4. Article 32 of the Constitution provides original jurisdiction to the SC for matters regarding the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.
5. The SC can issue writs, directions, or orders including writs in the nature of mandamus, habeas corpus, quo
warranto, prohibition and certiorari.
6. The SC also has the power to direct the transfer of a criminal or civil case from the High Court in one State to the
High Court in another State.
7. It can also transfer cases from one subordinate court to another State High Court
8. If the SC deems that cases involving the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more Hi gh Courts,
and that these are significant questions of law, it can withdraw the cases before the High Court or Courts and
dispose off all these cases itself.
9. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 gives the SC the authority to initiate international commercial arbitration.
67. C
Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Monarchy is not accountable to the people.
68. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat
area.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Its role and functions are decided by State legislation.
69. C
Statement 1 is correct: Indian Coast Guard (ICG) will be co-hosting 12th Capacity Building workshop with Regional
Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (ReCAAP) Information Shari ng
Centre (ISC). The ReCAAP is the first regional Government-to-Government agreement to deal with piracy and armed
robbery at sea in Asia.
Statement 2 is correct: Presently 20 countries are members of ReCAAP. India played an active role in the setting up and
functioning of ReCAAP. Union Government has designated ICG as the focal point within India for ReCAAP . Information
sharing, capacity building and mutual legal assistance are the three pillars of co-operation under the ReCAAP agreement.
An ISC has been established at Singapore to collate and disseminate the information among the contracting parti e s and
the maritime community. Capacity building workshop is organised annually by the ISC and is co -hosted by one of the
contracting parties.
70. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Members of all the three levels Gram Panchayat, Mandal or Taluka Panchayats and Gram
Sabha of Panchayati Raj institutions are elected directly by the people.
Statement 2 is correct: One third of the positions in all Panchayat institutions are reserved for women. Reservations for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to their popul ation. If
the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the backward castes (OBCs).
Statement 3 is correct: The term of each Panchayat body is five years.

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71. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of deforested and de grade d
land into restoration by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030.
Statement 2 is correct: Underlying the Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to
restore ecological integrity at the same time as improving human well-being through multifunctional landscapes.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2020 target was launched at a high level event in Bonn in 2011 organised by the
Government of Germany and IUCN, and was later endorsed and extended to 2030 by the New York Declaration on
Forests of the 2014UN Climate Summit.
72. A
During the law making process, members of the legislature get an opportunity to deliberate on the pol i cy di re cti on of
the executive and the ways in which policies are implemented. Apart from deliberating on bills, control may als o be
exercised during the general discussions in the House.
Statement 1 is correct: Zero Hour where members are free to raise any matter that they think is important (though the
ministers are not bound to reply), half-an – hour discussion on matters of public importance, adjournment motion e tc.
are some instruments of exercising control.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Question Hour is held every day at the start of every sitting of Parliament. The Government i s,
as it were, put on its trial during the Question Hour and every Minister whose turn it is to answer questions has to stand
up and answer for his or his administration’s acts of omission and commission.
73. B
Representation: Parliament represents the divergent views of members from different regional, social, economic,
religious groups of different parts of the country.
Debating Function: Parliament is the highest forum of debate in the country. There is no limitation on its power of
discussion. Members are free to speak on any matter without fear. This makes it possible for the Parliament to anal yse
any or every issue that faces the nation. These discussions constitute the heart of democratic decision making .
Constituent Function: The Parliament has the power of discussing and enacting changes to the Constitution. The
constituent powers of both the houses are similar. All constitutional amendments have to be approved by a special
majority of both Houses.
Electoral functions: The Parliament also performs some electoral functions. It elects the President and Vice President of
India.
Judicial functions: The judicial functions of the Parliament include considering the proposals for removal of Pre sident,
Vice-President and Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court.
74. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. They can get re-elected. All
members of the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time. Every two years, one third membe rs of the
Rajya Sabha complete their term and elections are held for those one third seats only. Thu s, the Rajya Sabha is never
fully dissolved. Therefore, it is called the permanent House of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: Apart from the elected members, Rajya Sabha also has twelve nominated members. The
President nominates these members. These nominations are made from among those persons who have made their
mark in the fields of literature, arts, social service, science etc.

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Thus, Option is C correct.
75. D
Option D is correct.
76. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Scientists unravel fungus responsible for Sheath Blight disease in rice. A strain of Rhi zoctoni a
solani is the fungal pathogen that causes the dreaded Sheath Blight disease in rice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sheath Blight disease is a major issue in rice cultivation. It can cause up to 60 per cent
reduction in rice yield. It is difficult to breed disease resistant rice varieties, as there is lack of natural source of di s e ase
resistance. It is not associated to Arsenic contamination.
77. B ‘Question must be read as First Past the post and Proportional Representation System’
First past the post (FPTP) system of Election
 The country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies or districts.
 Every constituency elects one representative.
 Voter votes for a candidate.
 A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature.
 Candidate who wins the election may not get majority (50%+1) votes.
 Examples: U.K., India
Proportional Representation system
 Large geographical areas are demarcated as Constituencies. The entire country may be a single constituency.
 More than one representative may be elected from one constituency.
 Voter votes for the party.
 Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it get.
 Candidate who wins the elections gets majority of votes.
 Examples: Israel, Netherlands
78. D
The Election Commission of India has a wide range of functions.
 It supervises the preparation of up-to-date voters’ list. It makes every effort to ensure that the voters’ list is fre e
of errors like nonexistence of names of registered voters or existence of names of those non -eligible or non-
existent.
 It also determines the timing of elections and prepares the election schedule. The election schedule includes the
notification of elections, date from which nominations can be filed, last date for filing nominations, last date of
scrutiny, last date of withdrawal, date of polling and date of counting and declaration of results.
 During this entire process, the Election Commission has the power to take decisions to ensure a free and fair
poll. It can postpone or cancel the election in the entire country or a specific State or constituency on the
grounds that the atmosphere is vitiated and therefore, a free and fair election may not be possible. The
Commission also implements a model code of conduct for parties and candidates. It can order a re -poll in a
specific constituency. It can also order a recount of votes when it feels that the counting process has not be e n
fully fair and just.
 The Election Commission accords recognition to political parties and allots symbols to each of them.

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79. C
Otion C is correct.
80. D
Statement 1 is correct: The commission does not have the power of prosecution.
Statement 2 is correct: The commission’s functions include inquiry at its own initiative or on a petition presented to it by
a victim into complaint of violation of human rights; visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates; undertaking and
promoting research in the field of human rights etc.
Statement 3 is correct: The commission receives complaints in thousands every year. These relate to custodial death,
custodial rape, disappearances, police excesses, failure in taking action, indignity to women etc. Its most significant
intervention has been on disappeared youth in Punjab and investigation and trial of Gujarat riot cases where its
intervention proved effective. It can merely make recommendations to the government or recommend to the courts to
initiate proceedings based on the inquiry that it conducts.
81. C
Statement 1 is incorrect: The age for contesting election is 25 years of age.
Statement 2 is incorrect
82. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic golden cat is listed as near threatened on the International Union for Conservation of
Nature’s Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct: The coat of Asiatic golden cat comes in five other shades besides the golden colour in Arunachal
Pradesh, scientists have discovered. It is found across eastern Nepal through north-eastern India to Indonesia.Thus,
83. A
Statement 1 is correct: Article 29. Protection of interests of minorities.: Any section of the citizens residing in the
territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to
conserve the same.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both linguistic and religious enjoy rights.
84. D
All the statements are correct.
85. A
The SCO comprises eight member states, namely the Republic of India, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic
of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Taji ki stan, and
the Republic of Uzbekistan.
86. B
Since the prime minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot functi on when the
prime minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent prime ministe r automati cal ly

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dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any othe r mi ni ste r, on
the other hand, merely creates a vacancy.
87. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Economic equality mandates giving people and equal chance to compete for goods.
Statement 2 is correct: Social equality mandates granting citizenship to all members.
Statement 3 is correct: Economic equality deals with distribution of wealth.
88. D
Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
Supreme Court of India
 Its decisions are binding on all courts.
 Can transfer Judges of High Courts.
 Can move cases from any court to itself.
 Can transfer cases from one High Court to another.
Statement 2 is correct: Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Art 226 are empowered to issue writs
issue writs for restoring the fundamental rights.
89. A
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of col l e cti ve
responsibility. Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This
means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission.
They work as a team and swim or sink together.
When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign
including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
90. D
Option D is correct.
91. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: A government panel report points out that with 5G, the peak network data speeds are
expected to be in the range of 2-20 Gigabit per second (Gbps).This is in contrast to 4G link speeds in averaging 6-7
Megabit per second (Mbps) in India as compared to 25 Mbps in advanced countries.
Statement 2 is correct: 5G is the next generation cellular technology that will provide faster and more reliable
communication with ultra-low latency. Latency is the amount of time data takes to travel between its source and
destination.
92. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The socialism does not denote about the citizens having equal right to vote.
Statement 2 is correct: The word 'sovereign' implies that' there is no authority above it and it is free to conduct i ts own
affairs (both internal and external).
93. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Governor is the head of the state while the Chief Minister is the head of the government.

Ph: 011 - 45090051, 9818333201, 9871216382
Statement 2 is correct: Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. Howe ver, thi s
does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister. In accordance with the convections of
the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state
legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.
94. B
Statement 1 is correct: One important function of the police is to investigate any complaint about the commi ssi on of a
crime. An investigation includes recording statements of witnesses and collecting different kinds of evidence.
Statement 2 is correct: On the basis of the investigation, the police are required to form an opinion. If the pol i ce think
that the evidence points to the guilt of the accused person, then they file a chargesheet in the court.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not the job of the police to decide whether a person is guilty or innocent, that is for the
judge to decide.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Supreme Court has laid down guidelines that the police must follow at the time of arre st,
detention and interrogation. The police are not allowed to torture or beat or shoot anyone during i nve stigation. The y
cannot inflict any form of punishment on a person even for petty offences.
95. C
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Right to Convert’ has recently been held by SC in Hadiya Case as part of fundamental right of
choice. The Constitution guarantees to each individual the right freely to practice, profess and propagate religion.
Choices of faith and belief as indeed choices in matters of marriage lie within an area where individual autonomy is
supreme.
Statement 2 is correct: A secular state is one that does not confer any privilege or favour on any particular religion. Nor
does it punish or discriminate against people on the basis of religion they follow. Thus the government cannot compe l
any person to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institution. The re
shall be no religious instruction in the government educational institutions. In educational institutions managed by
private bodies no person shall be compelled to take part in any religious instruction or to attend any religious worship.
96. D
According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the term 'State' denotes the union and state governments, the
Parliament and state legislatures and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of th e
Indian government.
97. C
The right to vote and universal adult franchise extends to all citizens above the age of 18 in India. Article 326 of the
Constitution permits the exclusion of persons who are otherwise qualified to vote from electoral rolls only by a law
passed by the appropriate legislature on specific grounds. These grounds can only be that of non -residence, crime,
corrupt or illegal practice, or for ‘unsoundness of mind’.
98. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Viruses are the main causative agents in AES cases, although other sources such as bacteria,
fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and non-infectious agents have also been reported over the past fe w
decades. Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV) is the major cause of AES in India (ranging from 5%-35%). Nipah virus, Zika
virus are also found as causative agents for AES.

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ADMIN1: ADMIN2:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Acute encephalitis syndrome (AES) is a serious public health problem in India. It is
characterized as acute-onset of fever and a change in mental status (mental confusion, disorientation, delirium, or
coma) and/or new-onset of seizures in a person of any age at any time of the year. The disease most commonl y affe cts
children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.
99. D
The Indian Constitution adopted many institutional details and procedures from colonial laws like the Gove rnme nt of
India Act, 1935.Years of thinking and deliberation on the framework of the constitution had another benefit. Our leaders
gained confidence to learn from other countries, but on our own terms.
Many of our leaders were inspired by the ideals of French Revolution, the practice of parliamentary democracy in Britain
and the Bill of Rights in the US. The socialist revolution in Russia had inspired many Indians to think of shaping a syste m
based on social and economic equality.
100. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights can be amended but not the basic structure of the constitution. After the
Minerva Mills Case, harmony of FRs and DPSPs comes under the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
FRs can be amended to implement Art. 39(b) and (c) of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: FRs are justiciable in the nature which means a citizen can approach to the court if their rights
are being violated by the state.

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INSIGHT PRELIMS TEST SERIES

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

EBOOKS & UPSC PRELIMS USPC MAINS VIDEO FOR DAILY

SECUREIAS UPSC PRELIMS UPSC MAINS DELHI CIVILSERVICES

OPTIONAL SUBJECTS BOOKS, STATE PCS, SSC, BANKING

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

EBOOKS & UPSC PRELIMS USPC MAINS VIDEO FOR DAILY

SECUREIAS UPSC PRELIMS UPSC MAINS DELHI CIVILSERVICES

OPTIONAL SUBJECTS BOOKS, STATE PCS, SSC, BANKING

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

EBOOKS & UPSC PRELIMS USPC MAINS VIDEO FOR DAILY

SECUREIAS UPSC PRELIMS UPSC MAINS DELHI CIVILSERVICES

OPTIONAL SUBJECTS BOOKS, STATE PCS, SSC, BANKING

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

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