COMMON TEST

Class - IX
Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

➢ The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
➢ Each question carries +1 marks.
➢ There is No negative marking.
➢ Attempt All questions.
➢ Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
➢ All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
➢ The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
➢ This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

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Section - I
SST
1. Who advocated government based on social contract?
(A) Montesquieu (B) Spencer (C) Darwin (D) Rousseau
2. Who founded the Oriental Cricket club in Bombay in 1848?
(A) The Hindus (B) The Muslims (C) The Parsis (D) Christians
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) The pro-tsarists were called the “Whites”
(B) Stalin had started new economic policy in Soviet Union
(C) The Bolsheviks Created USSR in 1922
(D) The Russian Parliament was known as Duma
4. The first one- day international in 1971 was played between:
(A) England and Australia (B) Australia and New Zealand
(C) England and India (D) Australia and India
5. What was ‘Dawes Plane’?
(A) A plan which imposed more fine on Germany
(B) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(C) A plane which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans.
(D) None of these
6. Which one of the following had become the guardian of cricket regulation?
(A) Hembledon cricket club (B) Marylebone cricket club
(C)Calcutta Cricket Club (D) None of these
7. Who among the following introduced the world to one-day International?
(A) Kerry Packer (B) Thomas Hughes (C) Len Hutton (D) Frank Worrell
8. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Birsa Munda belonged to Andhra Pradesh
(B) Imperial Forest Reserve Institute set up in 1806
(C) The First Inspector General of Forests in India was Dietrich Brandis.
(D) The First Indian Forest Act enacted in 1927
9. Which of the following movement stated as a protest against partition of Bengal
(A)Non-cooperation movement (B) Quit India movement
(C) Swadeshi and boycott movement (D) Civil Disobedience movement
10. Who called Gandhi a “naked Fakir”?
(A) Winston Churchill (B) Lord Curzon (C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Dalhousie
11. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) The poor who played cricket for a living were called professionals
(II) Imperial Cricket Conference was renamed International Cricket Conference in 1989
(III) London is the Headquarter of International Cricket Council
(IV) The first white Indian cricket club was the Calcutta club
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, II, III and IV (D) II, III, and IV
12. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) Sumptuary laws were related to dress codes in France
(II) In Durban in 1913, Gandhi, first appeared in Lungi and Kurta.
(III) In India dress code were regulated by economic states.
(IV) The National Women’s Suffrage Association was headed by Amelia Bloomer.
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I, II and III
13. Chapkan or a long buttoned coat was recommended as the most suitable dress for men by
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Abanindranath Tagore
(C) Lord Canning (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
14. Under which of the following Act. Tribal’s were prevented from entering forest?
(A) Forest Acts (B) Grazing Land Act (C) Criminal Tribes Act (D) Waste Lad Act
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15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given.
List I List II
(a) Captain Swing (I) Firs Mechanical Reaper
(b) Cyrus Mc Cormick (II)Threshing Machine
(c) Thomas Jefferson (III) Terrifying dust storms
(d) Black Blizzard (IV) America President
(A) a – II b–I c – IV d – III
(B) a – II b–I c – III d – IV
(C) a – I b – II c – III d – IV
(D) a – I b – II c – IV d – III
16. Which of the following rules was made stricter for Indian by Lord Dalhousie?
(A) Follow India dress code at every place
(B) Follow western dress code at government institution
(C) Take off the shoes when entering any Govt. Institution
(D) Put off the turban before social superiors
17. The number of people in different age group is referred as:
(A) Sex ratio (B) Adolescent (C) age composition (D) Human Resources
18. The variation in duration of sunlight at different place is due to :
(A) Difference in altitude (B) Difference in latitude
(C) Difference in height (D) Difference in Season
19. Two countries having population density more than India are
(A) China and USA (B) Japan & Bangladesh
(C) Indonesia & France (D) China & S. Korea
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) Adolescent is a youth in the age group of 13 to 19 year
(II) Working population includes those person who fall in the age group of 15-59 years
(III) Arunachal Pradesh has lowest density of population according to 2011 census
(IV) Rajasthan is the biggest state in terms of area.
(A) I, II, and III (B) II, III, and IV (C) I, II, III and IV (D) I, III and IV
21. What is the population density of India according to census 2011?
(A) 382 person per sq. km. (B) 424 person per sq, km
(C) 328 person per sq. km. (D) 320 person per sq. km.
22. Which of the following is the most significant feature of the India population?
(A) Improvement in the literacy level
(B) The size of its adolescent population
(C) Improvement in health condition
(D) None of these
23. Which of the following factors controls the climate in India?
(I) Latitudes (II) Altitude (III) Ocean Current (IV) Wind system
(A) I and II (B) I and II (C) II, III and IV (D) All of the given
24. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) Majuli is the world’s largest riverine island
(II) Kangra and Kullu valleys are situated in the Himachal Range
(III)The Mahanadi river flows through a rift valley
(IV) Alkananda and Bhagirathi are the two head streams of the Ganga
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) II and III
25. Which of the following fundamental right was called the heart and soul of our constitution?
(A) right to freedom (B) Right to Equality
(C) right to constitutional Remedies (D) Right to Freedom of Religion
26. Which of the following states has the largest legislative assembly in India?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra
27. The national human right commission is headed by the
(A) Prime Minister (B) Chief justice (C) President (D) Home Minister
28. Which right bans untouchability?
(A) education and cultural right (B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to equality (D) right to freedom
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29. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) 33 percent job reservation was given to SEBC by Mandal Commission
(B) Final authority for law making in our country vested with President
(C) The Prime Minister appoints the Chief Justice of India.
(D) The President of India gets Rs. 1.50 lakh per month
30. The constitution of India is
(A) Flexible (B) rigid
(C) Partly flexible and partly rigid (D) None of these.
31. The Govt. is responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of
(A) 12 years (B) 14 years (C) 16 Years (D) 18 Years
32. The India constitution prescribed fundamental right in
(A) Part II (B) Part III (C) Part IV (D) Part V
33. When was “ National food for work programme” launched ?
(A)November 14, 2004 (B) November 14, 2005
(C)December 14, 2004 (D) December 14, 2005
34. Antyodaya ration cards are meant for which of the following groups?
(A) The poorest of the poor (B) Those living below the poverty line
(C) Backward caste (D) None of these
35. The stock of the food grains namely wheat and rice procured by the government through food corporation of
India is called
(A)Public Distribution system (B) Buffer Stock
(C) Food stock (D) food grain stock
36. Which one is a social group from amongst the following groups most venerable to poverty?
(A) The family daily wagers
(B) Rural Agricultural labour household
(C) Urban Casual labour household
(D) Schedule caste and Scheduled Tribe household
37. Mid day meal scheme has been implemented to encourage.
(A) Attendance (B) Retention
(C) To improve nutritional status (D) All of these
38. In which of the following state has maximum number of cooperative rations shop?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar
39. How many people are living below poverty line according to 2011-12
(A) 18.9 (B) 19.9 (C) 20.9 (D) 21.9
40. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) Food control of India buy the surplus food grains from the farmers.
(II) “Seasonal Hunger” is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate
(III) Women and children under the age of five are food insecure population due to Malnutrition.
(IV) Grain Banks have been set up in Maharashtra.
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) III and IV
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Section - II
Mathematics
1. In the given figure, chords AB=AC=6cm. The length of BC if radius is 5cm, is

(A) 9.6cm (B) 4.8 cm

(C) 19.2 cm (D) 8.0 cm

22
2. The volume of the largest circular cone that can be cut from a cube whose edge is 8cm is ( use = )
7
(A) 131.09cm3 (B) 132.09cm3 (C) 133.09cm3 (D) 134.09cm3.

(x )
n
3. If x is the mean of x1,x 2 ,x3 ...,xn then 1 −x =
i=1

23 28 4
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
25 25 5

4. How many metres of cloth 5m wide, will be required to make a conical tent, if the radius of whose base is 7m
and height is 24m
(A) 120m (B) 110m (C) 100m (D) 105m

5. In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 16 times out of 30 balls he plays. Find the probability that he does
not hit a boundary
(A) 7/15 (B) 8/15 (C) 2/15 (C) 12/15

6. The edge of a cube is 20cm. How many small cubes of edge 5cm can be formed from this cube
(A) 4 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 100

7. In the given figure, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral in which PS=RS and PQS=60°. The value of SQR is

(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 75° (D) 80°

8. A cylindrical vessel 60cm in diameter is partially filled with water. A sphere of 60 cm in diameter is gently
dropped into the vessel. To what further height will water rise in the cylinder
(A) 15cm (B) 30cm (C) 40cm (D) 25cm

9. The range of the data 15,20,6,5,30,35,92,35,90,18,82 is

(A) 87 (B) 85 (C) 86 (D) 26

10. A number from 1 to 11 is chosen at random. What is the probability of choosing an odd number?
(A) 1/11 (B) 5/11 (C) 6/11 (D) None of these

11. If the mean of five observations x,x+4, x+8, x+12 and x+16 is 15, then the value of x is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

12. In the given figure, AEDF is a cyclic quadrilateral. The value of x and y respectively are

(A) 79°, 47° (B) 89°, 37° (C) 89°, 47° (D) 79°, 37°
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13. A die is thrown 260 times. Prime numbers appeared on the upper face 39 times. If a die is thrown at random,
what is the probability of getting a prime numbers?
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/20 (D) 1/20

x1 x2 x
14. If x is the mean of x1,x 2 ,...,xn then for a0, the mean of ax1,ax2 ,....,axn , , ,..., n is
a a a
 1
 1 x  1 x a + a  x
 1
(A)  a +  x (B)  a +  (C)  a +  (D)  
 a   a 2  a n 2n

15. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral with centre O in the given figure. Chord AB is produced to E where CBE=130°,
the value of x is equal to

(A) 130° (B) 260° (C) 140° (D) 280°

16. The volume of two sphere are in the ratio of 64:27 the ratio of their surface areas is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 9 : 16 (D) 16 : 9

17. A coin is tossed 100 times and head appears 46 times. Now, if we toss a coin at random, what is the probability
of getting a tail
(A) 23/50 (B) 27/50 (C) 28/50 (D) 26/50

18. The mid-value of a class interval is 25 and the class size is 8. The class interval is
(A) 20 - 30 (B) 21–29 (C) 22 - 28 (D) 20.5 - 29.5

19. At middle school, 3 out of 5 students make honor roll. What is the probability (in %) that a student does not
make honor roll?
(A) 65% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) None of these

20. In the given figure, E is any point in the interior of the circle with centre O. Chord AB=AC. If OBE=20°, the
value of x is

(A) 40° (B) 45° (C) 50° (D) 70°

Section - III
Physics
1. The speed of sound in air and sea water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s respectively. A ship sends a
strong signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 second. What will be the depth of sea at that point?
(A) 2.16 km (B) 1.08 km (C) 0.51 km (D) 0.255 km

2. A man stands between two parallel cliffs (not in middle). When he claps his hands, he hears two echoes one
after 1 second and other after 2 seconds. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/sec, the width of valley is
(A) 330 m (B) 495 m (C) 660 m (D) 990 m

3. What is a transverse wave?

(A)Wave in which medium particles vibrate in the direction of wave propagation
(B) Wave in which medium particles vibrate in direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
(C) Sound waves in air is transverse wave
(D) Both (A) and (C)
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4. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) Changes in air temperature have no effect on the speed of sound
(B) Changes in air temperature have effect on the speed of sound.
(C) The speed of sound in water is lower than in air
(D) Both (A) and (C).

5. The product of the time period of a pendulum and its frequency

(A) Infinite (B) zero
(C) More than unity but less than infinity (D) unity

6. According to which of the following scientist, “an increase in pressure at any point inside a
liquid at rest is transmitted equally and without any change in all directions to every other point in the liquid”.
(A) Boyle (B) Pascal (C) Archimedes (D) Newton

7. A stone is dropped in a well of depth 500 m and a sound is heard after 45/4 seconds. Then speed of sound is (if
g = 10 m/s2):
(A) 340 m/s (B) 350 m/s (C)380 m/s (D) 400 m/s

8. If the kinematic energy of a body is increased by 100%, then the change in momentum of the body is
(A)4.17% (B) 41.7% (C) 141.7% (D) None of these

9. When we pluck the wire of a sitar, the waves produced in the wire are
(A) longitudinal (B) transverse
(C) some time transverse and sometime longitudinal. (D) electromagnetic

10. Which of the following types of waves is different from others?

(A) Light waves (B) X-rays (C) Radio waves (D) Sound waves

11. The relation between period of pendulum T and g is

(A) T  g (B) T  g2 (C) T2 g (D) T  1
g

12. The maximum displacement of a particle from mean position in wave motion is called
(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) phase (D) period

13. The velocity versus time curve of a moving particle is given in figure. The maximum acceleration is

(A) 1cm/s2 (B) 2cm/s2 (C) 3cm/s2 (D) 4cm/s2

Section - IV
Chemistry
1. Which of the following statements is wrong about cathode rays?
(A) They travel in straight lines towards cathode
(B) They produce heating effect
(C) They carry negative charge
(D) They Produce X-rays when strike with metal having high atomic masses.

2. According to Bohr’s atomic theory the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
(A) 25 h/ (B) 15 h/ (C) 5 h/ (D) 2.5 h/

3. The total number of orbitals possible for principal quantum number (n) is
(A) n (B) n2 (C) 2n (D) 2n2.
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In the nuclear reaction 13 Al +2 He →15 X +0 n , the element ‘X’ is

27 4 30 1
4.
(A)Sulphur (B) Carbon (C) Phosphorus (D) Silicon

5. Alpha particle is
(A) Helium atom (B) dipositive Helium atom (C) monopositive Helium atom (D) None of these

6. After successive elimination of one & two  particles from 88Ra226, what will be the atomic no. of Ra222.
(A) 86 (B) 88 (C) 90 (C) 92

7. The ratio of no. of electrons in N shell of element A & M shell of element B with atomic no. 40 & 32 respectively
is
(A) 5:3 (B) 3:2 (C) 2:3 (D) 5:4

8. A subshell with n=4, =2 can accommodated a maximum of

(A) 12 electrons (B) 36 electrons (C) 10 electrons (D) 32 electrons

9. The ion that is iso-electronic with CO is

− + − +
(A) O2 (B) N 2 (C) CN (D) O2

10. According to Aufbau principle the 19th electron in an atom of chromium goes into the
(A) 4s-orbital (B) 3d-orbital (C) 4p-orbital (D) 3p-orbital

11. The wavelength of the photon with frequency 100 sec –1 is

(A) 3×108m (B) 108m (C) 3×106m (D) 107m

12. When pressure is applied on ice cubes the freezing point of ice
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) Remain constant (D) None of these

13. Which of the following are compounds

(i) CO (ii) N (iii) NO (iv) Co
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii (C) i, iii (D) ii, iv

Section - V
Biology
1. What are the criteria used by Whittaker’s for classification?
(i) Cell structure (ii) Thallus organization (iii) Mode of nutrition (iv) Reproduction
(v) Phylogenetic relationship (vi) Biochemical difference (vii) Physiological character
(A) All except v and vi (B) All except v and vii (C) All except vi and vii (D) All except iii and iv

2. Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in which kingdom of Whittaker’s
classification?
(A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Fungi (D) Protista

3. Which of the following is incorrect about Protista?

(A) All are single cell eukaryotes
(B) Some have flagella or cilia
(C) Sexual reproduction by cell fusion and zygote formation
(D) Members of Protista are primarily terrestrial

4. Character belongs to slime moulds

(i) Saprophytes (ii) Forms plasmodium under favorable condition
(iii) Spores possess true walls (iv) Spores are dispersed by water
(v) Body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic matter
(A) All except v (B) All except iv (C) All except iii and v (D) all except ii

5. Artificial systems gave equal weightage to

(A) Morphological and anatomical characters (B) vegetative and sexual characters
(C) vegetative and anatomical characters (D) morphological sexual characters.

6. The classification based on evolutionary history was

(A) Phylogenetic classification (B) artificial classification
(C) numerical classification (D) None of these
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7. Closed type of circulatory system present in

(A) Annelida and Arthropoda (B) Arthropoda and Mollusca
(C) Annelida and Cephalopods (D) Mollusca and Echinodermates

8. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(A) Sycon (i) Bath sponge
(B) Spongilla (ii) Scypha
(C) Euspongia (iii) Fresh water sponge
(A) A-2, B-3, C-1 (B) A-1, B-2, C-3 (C) A-3, B-2,C-1 (D) A-3, B-1, C-2

9. Canal system and choanocytes are characterstic of

(A) Ctenophora (B) Coelenterates (C) Platyheminths (D) Porifera

10. A prepared slide to be viewed under a compound microscope is focused under

(A) 25X (B) 10x (C) 40X (D) 100X

11. Which one of the following species of honey bee is an Italian species
(A) Apis dorsata (B) Apis florae (C) Apis cerana indica (D) Apis mellifera

12. Vaccine is not available against which of the following diseases

(A) Polio (B) Tuberculosis (C) Diptheria (D) Malaria

13. In snake the poison glands are modification of

(A) Lingual glands (B) Parotid glands (C) Sublingual glands (D) Moalr glands

14. Largest living animal belong to

(A) mammalia (B) Pisces (C) Echinodermata (D) Reptilia

ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I SECTION – II SECTION – III SECTION –IV SECTION –V
(SST) (MATHEMATICS) (PHYSICS) (CHEMISTRY) (BIOLOGY)

1. D 21. A 1. A M090906 1. B P091502 1. A C091001 1. C

2. C 22. B 2. D M091202 2. B P091502 2. D C091004 2. D
3. B 23. D 3. B M091309 3. B P090502 3. B C090807 3. D
4. A 24. B 4. B M091203 4. B P091801 4. C C091006 4. B
5. C 25. C 5. A M091705 D P091408 B 5. B
5. 5. C090409
6. B 26. C 6. C M091202 B P091404 B 6. A
6. 6. C090806
7. A 27. B 7. B M090906 A P091502 C
7. C
7. 7. C090802
8. C 28. B 8. C M091204 8. A
8. A P091404 8. C C090807
9. C 29. D 9. A M091303 9. D
9. C P090502 9. C C090804
10. A 30. C 10. C M091705 10. B
10. D P090502 10. A C090802
11. B 31. B 11. C M091309 11. D
11. D P091408 11. C C090410
12. A 32. B 12. B M090908 12. D
12. B P091406 12. B C090104
13. A 33. A 13. C M091703 13. B
13. D P090110 13. C C090202
14. A 34. A 14. B M091309 14. A
15. A 35. B 15. A M090908
16. C 36. D 16. D M091205
17. C 37. D 17. B M091702
18. B 38. B 18. B M091303
19. B 39. D 19. B M091705
20. B 40. D 20. D M090906
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COMMON TEST
Class - IX
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
Time: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any
form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 100 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and
zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch :

Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

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1. There is a certain amount of which A takes 30% then B takes 60% of the remaining amount, then C
takes 80% of the remaining amount. Now if the amount left is 2,536.8 then what is the actual sum?
A) Rs. 45,300 B) Rs. 45,500 C) Rs. 42,600 D) Rs. 48,400

2. If 146! is divided by 5n, then find the maximum value of n.

A) 34 B) 35 C) 36 D) 37

3. What is the difference between a discount of 39% on Rs. 15400 and two successive discounts of
24% and 15% on the same amount?
A) Rs.542.8 B) Rs. 548.6 C) Rs. 552.2 D) Rs. 554.4

4. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A and B worked for 16 days and B finished the
remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days will B finish the whole work alone?
A) 24 days B) 10 days C) 32 days D) 60 days

5. Rs 600 becomes Rs 1032 in 6 years at a certain simple rate of interest. If the value of rate percent is
increased and difference between the value of new rate and old rate of interest is 3%, what amount
will Rs 600 become in 5 years?
A) Rs 1020 B) Rs 1250 C) Rs 1050 D) Data inadequate

6. In a college, the ratio of boys to girls is 29 : 33 respectively. When 142 more boys join the college,
this ratio becomes 21 : 19. How many more girls should join the college to make the number of boys
and girls equal?
A) 75 B) 90 C) 60 D) 66

7. What is the average weight of girls in the class?

I. Average weight of all the 60 students is 42 kg.
II. Average weight of boys is 43 kg
III. Total weight of all girls together is 1144 kg
A) Any two of three is requied to answer. B) All I, II & III is required.
C) I & II only is required to answer D) II & III only is required to answer.

8. If a sum on compound interest becomes three times in 4 years, then with the same interest rate, the
sum will become 27 times in:
A) 8 yrs B) 24 yrs C) 12 yrs D) 36 yrs

9. The ratio between a two-digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4 : 1. If the digits in
the unit’s place is 3 more than the digit in the ten’s place, find the number.
A) 36 B) 63 C) 48 D) 84

10. Of 128 boxes of oranges, each box contain atleast 120 & atmost 144 oranges. The least number of
boxes containing the same number of oranges is
A) 5 B) 103 C) 6 D) Data Insufficient

11. What is the remainder when 2100+3100+4100+5100 is divided by 7?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 5 D) 4
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12. The length of a rectangle is decreased by 15% and its width is increased by 40%. Does the area of
the rectangle decrease or increase and by what percent?
A) Decrease by 19% B) Decrease by 25%
C) Increases by 6% D) Increases by 19%
13. A student took five papers in an examination, where the full marks were the same for each paper. His
marks in these papers were in the proportion of 6: 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. In all papers together, the candidate
obtained 60% of the total marks. Then, the number of papers in which he got more than 50% marks
is
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
14. Paw : Cat : : Hoof : ?
A) Horse B) Lion C) Lamb D) Elephant
15. 352 : 30, 296 : 108, 628 : ?
A) 306 B) 96 C) 314 D) 36
2 10
16. Find the remainder obtained when the number 1010+10(10) +…………+10(10) is divided by 7.
A) 4 B) 5 C) 3 D) None of these
17. Simple interest on a certain sum at 7 p.c.p.a for 4 years is Rs. 3584. What will be the compound
interest on the same principal at 4 p.c.p.a. in two years?
A) Rs. 1054.48 B) Rs. 1044.48 C) Rs. 938 D) Rs. 1064.84
18. What is the speed of the train?
I. Length of the platform is 150% of the length of the train.
II. The train crosses the platform in 25 seconds.
III. The train crosses the signal pole in 19 seconds.
A) All I, II & III is required to answer B) I and Either II or III is required to answer
C) Only II & III is required to answer D) Can’t be determined
19. What is the volume of the cylindrical tank?
I. Area of the base is X square metres.
II. Height of the tank is Y metres.
III. Diameter of the base is equal to height of the tank.
A) Only I & II is required to answer B) Any two of the three is required to answer
C) Only I & III is required to answer D) All I, II & III is required to answer
20. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest
of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
A) Rs. 2160 B) Rs. 3120 C) Rs. 3972 D) Rs. 6240
21. What is the selling price of the T.V. set if no discount is offered?
I. Profit earned was 20%.
II. Cost price is Rs. 15000.
III. Had 10% discount been offered on selling price the profit would have been Rs. 1200.
A) Any two of the three is required to answer B) Only I & III is required to answer

C) Only II & III is required to answer D) Only I & II is required to answer

22. I bought 5 pens, 7 pencils and 4 erasers. Rajan bought 6 pens, 8 erasers and 14 pencils for an
amount which was half more what I had paid. What per cent of the total amount paid by me was paid
for the pens?
A) 37.5% B) 62.5% C) 50% D) None of these

23. A man earns x% on the first Rs. 2,000 and y% on the rest of his income. If he earns Rs. 700 from Rs.
4,000 and Rs. 900 from Rs. 5,000 of income, find x%
A) 20% B) 15% C) 25% D) None of these
24. If N >= K , M <= N , K > L, O < M is true then which of the following will be true ?
A) O > N B) N > L C) M > K D) M > L
 13

25. Which of the following shows A > B ?

A) B >= D > E > A B) A <= C = D <= B
C) C >= B < D <= F = A D) None of these

26. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.
18000 in two years is Rs. 405. What was the rate of interest?
A) 14% B) 16% C) 12.5% D) 15%

27. On a certain sum of money, compound interest earned at the end of three years is equal to Rs. 1456.
Compound Interest at the end of two years is Rs. 880. Compute the principal invested.
A) Rs. 2400 B) Rs. 2800 C) Rs. 2000 D) Rs. 1600

28. In School, 60% of the students are boys. In an aptitude test, 80% of the girls scored more than 40
marks (out of a maximum possible 150 marks). If 60% of the total students scored more than 40
marks in the same test, find the fraction of the boys who scored 40 marks or less.?
3 6 5
A) 5 B) 7 C) 7 D) None of these

29. TTT : 777 :: RRR : ?

A) 555 B) 666 C) 777 D) 999

30. A borrowed a total amount of Rs. 30,000 part of it on simple interest, rate of 12 p.c.p.a. and remaining
on simple interest rate of 10 p.c.p.a. If at the end of 2 years he paid in all Rs. 36,480 to settle the loan
amount, what was the amount borrowed at 12 p.c.p.a.?
A) Rs. 16000 B) Rs. 18000 C) Rs. 17500 D) Rs. 12000

31. In an examination, the number of those who passed and the number of those who failed were in the
ratio 25 : 4. If five more had appeared and the number of failed students was 2 less than earlier, the
ratio of passed students to failed students would have been 22 : 3.Total number of students who
appeared at examination
A) 145 B) 150 C) 155 D) 180

32. If the expression R > Z = A ≥ C < M is definitely true, which of the following will be definitely true?
A) A < M B) R > C C) R ≥ A D) None of these

33. In which of the following expression the expression P < S ≤ G would be definitely false?
A) N > P ≤ I < S = N ≤ G B) V < G ≥ K ≥ S = R < P
C) K > G = I ≥ S > A = P D) None of these

34. Two trains A and B are running on parallel tracks in the same direction. Train A which is coming from
behind takes 50 seconds to cross B completely. One person in train A observes that he crosses train
B in 30 seconds. If the speed of the train A and train B is in the ratio of 2 : 1, what is the ratio of their
lengths?
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 3 C) 4 : 3 D) 5 : 3
 14

35. A man lends a certain sum of money at simple interest. Rate of interest for first one and half years is
6%, for next 9 months is 5% and after that 4%. If he received Rs. 11496 at the end of 4 years, his
capital was
A) Rs. 10000 B) Rs. 9000 C) Rs. 9600 D) Rs. 9200

Directions( 36-40):- In each of the following questions, four words/ numbers are given out of
which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Choose the odd one out.

36. A) Scale B) Temperature C) Balance D) Odometer

37. A) Laptop B) Computer C) Television D) Washing Machine
38. A) Baht B) Dollar C) Mark D) Ringgit
39. A) BAT, 40 B) MAT, 280 C) CAT, 60 D) PAT, 320
40. A) (2, 3, 5) B) (5, 7, 11) C) (13, 17, 19) D) (7, 11, 17)
41. cub : bear :: joey : ______
A) Cave B) Doll C) Kangaroo D) Truck
42. LIGHT:BLIND
A) Speech : Dumb B) Language : Deaf
C) Tongue : Sound D) Voice : Vibration
43. South : North-West :: West : ?
A) North B) South-west C) North-East D) East
44. Scribble : Write : : Stammer : ?
A) Walk B) Play C) Speak D) Dance
45. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were
invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, what was the number of valid votes that the other
candidate got?
A) 3690 B) 2700 C) 5720 D) 4745
46. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the north. When the post office
was 100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at
Institute. He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100
metres. How many metres was he away from the post office?
A) 90 B) 20 C) 150 D) 100
2 3 1
47. A man spends 5 of his income on house rent, 10 on food and 8 on conveyance. If he has Rs 2800 left
with him, Find his expenditure on food and conveyance together.
A) 6800 B) 7000 C) 5500 D) 6700
48. A and B can complete a piece of work in 80 days and 120 days respectively. They started working
together but A left after 20 days. After another 12 days C joined B and they completed the work in 28
more days. In how many days can C alone complete the work?
A) 110 days B) 112 days C) 114 days D) 120 days
49. Walking at 5 km/hr a student reaches his school from his house 15 minutes early and walking at 3
km/hr he is late by 9 minutes. What is the distance between his school and his house?
A) 5km B) 8 km C) 3 km D) 2 km
50. Town D is to the West of town M. Town R is to the south of town D. Town K is to the East of town R.
Town K is towards which direction of town M?
A) South B) East C) North-East D) Cannot determined
 15

Directions (51-55):A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers and all are arranged as per some
logic based on the value of the number.)

Input: warm 56 32 93 box find 46 home 28 11 gate clear

Step I: 93 56 32 box find 46 home 28 11 gate clear warm

Step II: 11 93 56 32 box find 46 28 gate clear warm home
Step III: 56 11 93 32 box find 46 28 clear warm home gate
Step IV: 28 56 11 93 32 box 46 clear warm home gate find
Step V: 46 28 56 11 93 32 box warm home gate find clear
Step VI: 32 46 28 56 11 93 warm home gate find clear box
Step VI is the last step of the arrangement the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: fox 89 and tiger 28 16 battle camp 36 53 held 68

51. Which of the following would be step II?
A) 89 fox and 28 16 battle camp 36 53 held 68 tiger
B) 36 53 28 68 16 89 tiger held fox camp battle and
C) 16 89 and fox 28 camp battle 36 53 68 tiger held
D) None of these
52. Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left end in step IV?
A) battle B) and C) 36 D) tiger
53. Which step number would be the following output?
‘53 28 68 16 89 and 36 tiger held fox camp battle’
A) There will be no such step. B) III
C) II D) V
54. In which step the elements ‘36 tiger held’ found in the same order?
a) Step V B) Step IV C) Step I D) Step II
55. Which element is exactly between ‘89’ and ‘battle’ in Step IV?
a) and B) 28 C) held D) fox

Directions (56-62): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

56. A) January B) May C) June D) July

57. A) Cathedral B) Mosque C) Temple D) Monastery

58. A) Calf B) Cub C) Hireling D) Duckling

59. A) Cumin B) Groundnut C) Cinnamon D) Pepper

60. A) Blood B) Bones C) Cartilage D) Muscles

61. A) BDW B) DFU C) FHS D) GIQ

62. A) ADGJM B) PSVYB C) HKNQT D) SVXAD

 16

63. Nest : Bird :: ? : ?

A) Cave : Bear B) Flower : Petal C) Window : House D) Dog : Basket
64. Rubber is related to Tree in the same way as Silk is related to _________
A) Cloth B) Insects C) Fabric D) Weave
65. Skirmish is related to War in the same way as Disease is related to __________
A) Infection B) Medicine C) Patient D) Epidemic

Direction (66-70): Following questions are based on given information below and you’ve to tell
which conclusion(s) follow:

66. Statements: P < Q ≤ S = T, R = Q < U, V > U

Conclusions: I. P > U II. V > T
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

67. Statements : U ≥ X = Y, Y ≤ Z ≤ S, T = W > Z

Conclusions: I. T ≤ U II. S > U
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows .
D if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

68. Statements : A ≥ P = S > T, V < B = T ≥ X

Conclusions: I. A > X II. P < B
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

69. Statements : S > U > V, Y < U < Z, Z < X > W

Conclusions: I. S < Z II. X > Y
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows .
D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

70. Statements : P < X ≤ Y < Q, S > Y < T, P = V > R

Conclusions: I. V < S II. T > R
A) if only conclusion I follows.
B) if only conclusion II follows.
C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D) if both conclusions I and II follow.

71. In a town, the population of the males decreased by 25% from 2001 to 2002. The population of
𝟒
females increased by 20% in this period. If females formed 𝟒𝟒 𝟗% of the population in 2002, what
percentage of the population in 2001 were males?
𝟐
A) 50% B) 80% C) 75% D) 66𝟑%
72. The number of prime factors of (𝟑 × 𝟓)𝟏𝟐 (𝟐 × 𝟕)𝟏𝟎 (𝟏𝟎)𝟐𝟓 is
A) 47 B) 60 C) 72 D) None of these
73. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will
be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?
A) 18 B) 19 C) 20 D) 21
 17

74. Mohan can do a certain work in 12 days. Sohan is 60% more efficient than Mohan. How many days
does Sohan alone take to do the same job?
A) 4 B) 15/2 C) 12 D) 14/3
75. Serena and Venus start a business with Rs. 50000 each. At the end of 3 months Venus withdraws
Rs. 10000 from his investment. What percent of the total profit should Venus receive at the end of the
year?
5 35
A) 33.3% B) 50% C) 45 6% D) 45 37%
76. The remainder when 40+41+42+……….+440 is divided by 17 is _____.
A) 0 B) 16 C) 4 D) None of these
77. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 35 days while A can complete the same work in 60
days. B alone will be able to do the same work in _______
A) 42 days B) 72 days C) 84 days D) 96 days
78. On dividing a number by 585, a student employed a method of short division. He divided the number
successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) and got the remainders of 4, 8 and 12. If he divided the
number by 585, the remainder would have been –
A) 24 B) 144 C) 292 D) 584
79. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What
percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A) 57% B) 60% C) 65% D) 90%
80. Rajeev buys goods worth Rs. 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the rebate, he pays
sales tax @ 10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods.
A) Rs. 6876.10 B) Rs. 6999.20 C) Rs. 6654 D) Rs. 7000
81. Raman is facing North-West. He turns 90 in the clockwise direction, then 1800 in the anticlockwise
0

direction and then another 900 in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
A) South B) South-West C) West D) South-East
82. R starts from a point towards South and travels 12 m, then he turns towards right and travels 3 m.
From here he again turns to right and travels 8 m. At last, he turns to right and travels 6 m. How far
he is finally from his starting point?
A) 7 m B) 29 m C) 15 m D) 5 m

83. A,B & C started a work together for Rs. 816. A & B did 8/17 of the total work, while B & C together did
12/17 of the whole work. What is the amount of the least efficient person?
A) Rs. 256 B) Rs. 144 C) Rs. 85 D) None of these

84. How many meaningful English word can be formed by using two letters of the word NOT?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
85. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 girls
ahead of Kamal, how many boys after him in the rank?
A) 3 B) 7 C) 12 D) 23
th th
86. Pankaj is 5 from the left and Sandeep is 12 from the right end in a row of children. If Sandeep shifts
three places towards Pankaj he becomes 13th from the left end. How many children are there in the
row?
A) 21 B) 22 C) 27 D) 24

Select the correct mirror image from the given four choices:-
87. WHITE
 18

88. Select the correct water image from the given four choices:-
ab45CD67
A) B) C) D)
89. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

90. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

91. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how pattern would appear when the transparent
sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

92. If TOPER = 15 – 10 – 11 – 0 – 13, then HORNS = ?

A) 3 – 10 – 13 – 8 – 14 B) 3 – 10 – 13 – 9 – 13
C) 3 – 10 – 13 – 9 – 14 D) 3 – 9 – 13 – 9 – 14
93. If LOAD is coded as MPBE and DRIVE is coded as ESJWF, then how you code LADDER?
A) NCFFGT B) MBEEFS C) MDEEFS D) MBEESP
94. A train of length 180 m travelling at 72 km/hr overtook a motorcyclist travelling at 36 km/hr at 4 pm.
At 5 pm it overtook another cyclist travelling in the opposite direction at a speed of 18 km/hr. When
will the cyclist meet the motorcyclist?
A) 1 hr 20 min B) 1 hr 30 min C) 1 hr 45 min D) None of these
95. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip
was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The duration of the flight is
–
A) 1 hour B) 2 hour C) 3 hour D) 4 hour
96. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she
paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
A) 3.6 B) 6 C) 18 D) Can’t be determined
97. A person borrows Rs. 5000 for two years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends it to
𝟏
another person at 𝟔 𝟒% p.a. for 2 years. Find his gain in transaction per year.
A) Rs. 112.50 B) Rs. 125 C) Rs. 150 D) Rs. 167.50
98. The difference between the amount of compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount
of Rs. 26000 at the end of 3 years is Rs. 2999.134. What is the rate of interest per annum?
A) 22% B) 17% C) 19% D) None of these
 19

99. An amount of Rs. 1,00,000 is invested in two types of shares. The first yields an interest of 9% p.a.
𝟑
and the second, 11% p.a. If the total interest at the end of one year is 𝟗 𝟒% then the amount invested
in each share was-
A) Rs. 52,500; Rs. 47,500 B) Rs. 62,500; Rs. 37,500
C) Rs. 72,500; Rs. 27,500 D) Rs. 82,500; Rs. 17,500

100. If in a certain number of years Rs. 3000 amount to Rs. 4320 at compound interest, in half the
time Rs. 3000 will amount to-
A) Rs. 3400 B) Rs. 3800 C) Rs. 3600 D) Rs. 3520

ANSWER KEY
SET A
1 A 26 D 51 D 76 D
2 B 27 C 52 C 77 C
3 D 28 D 53 D 78 D
4 D 29 D 54 A 79 A
5 C 30 D 55 A 80 A
6 D 31 A 56 C 81 D
7 B 32 B 57 D 82 D
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 B
9 A 34 B 59 B 84 C
10 C 35 C 60 D 85 C
11 C 36 B 61 D 86 C
12 D 37 D 62 D 87 D
13 C 38 C 63 A 88 B
14 A 39 B 64 B 89 B
15 B 40 D 65 D 90 B
16 B 41 C 66 D 91 A
17 B 42 A 67 D 92 C
18 D 43 C 68 A 93 B
19 B 44 C 69 B 94 D
20 C 45 B 70 D 95 A
21 A 46 A 71 D 96 B
22 B 47 A 72 D 97 A
23 B 48 B 73 A 98 C
24 B 49 C 74 B 99 B
25 C 50 A 75 D 100 C
 20

COMMON TEST
Class - IX
NSEJS

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

A. Question Paper Format

1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Biology - Section-III and Mathematics-
Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (−1) mark will be awarded.

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
 21

Section - I
Physics

1. In the given figure if velocity of wave is 320 m/s. Find

the time period of the wave
(A)1.25 x 10-3 second (B)0.0625 second
(C) 0.125 second (D) 6.25 x 10-3 second

2. Which is not true for a wave?

(A) Wave velocity v=n (B) Energy is transferred during wave motion
(C) All waves can pass through vacuum (D) Unit of wave velocity is m/s
3. When wave travels from one medium to another, which quantity does not change?
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength (C) Velocity (D) None of these

4. Mechanical waves
(i) are longitudinal (ii) are transverse only
(iii) can be both longitudinal and transverse (iv) requires a medium for propagation
(A) i,ii (B) i,iv (C) iii,iv (D) ii,iv
5. A transverse wave travels along the z-axis. The particles of the medium must move.
(A) along the z-axis (B) along the x-axis (c0 along the y-axis (D) in the x-y plane
6. A wave going solid
(i) must be longitudinal (ii) may be longitudinal (iii) must be transverse (iv) may be transverse
(A) i,ii (B) ii,iii (C) iii, iv (D) ii,iv
7. If the pressure amplitude of sound is doubled and frequency reduced to one-fourth, the intensity will become
(A) double (B) half (C) one fourth (D) same
8. Energy is not carried by
(A) Transverse progressive waves (B) Longitudinal progressive waves
(C) Stationary waves (D) Electromagnetic waves
9. The force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing there is more than the weight of
the person if the elevator is
(i) going up and slowing down
(ii) going up and speeding up
(iii) going down and slowing down
(iv) going down and speeding up.
(A) I,ii (B) ii,iii (C) iii,iv (D) I,iv
10. The figure shows graphical representation of a sound wave. The quantities on X and Y axis respectively are

(A) time and displacement (B) distance and pressure amplitude

(C) distance and change in density (D) density amplitude and pressure amplitude
11. The moon is at a distance of 4×108m from earth. A radar signal i transmitted from the earth will reach the moon
in about
(A) 2.6 sec (B) 1.3sec (C) 5.2 sec (D) 6.5sec
12. Waves on water surface are
(A) Longitudinal (B) Transverse
(B) Combination of longitudinal and transverse (D) None of these
13. Time period of a sound wave having the wavelength 0.2m and frequency 10HZ will be
(A) 2 sec (B) 0.2sec (C) 0.1sec (D) 0.02sec
14. Which of the following does not require medium to propagate?
(A) Radio waves (B) Water waves (C) Sound waves (D) Wave insuring
 22

15. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500m high into a pond of water at base of tower. When is splash
heard at the top (g=10 m/s2, speed of sound 340m/s2)
(A) 11.5 (B) 10 (C) 1.5 (D) None of these
16. How many times more intense is 90 dB sound than 40 dB sound?
(A) 105 (B) 102 (C) 104 (D) 109
17. The amplitude and frequency of a sound wave are increased. Which of the following is true?

(A) Loudness increases, pitch is higher (B) Loudness increases, pitch unchanged
(C) Loudness increases, pitch is lower (D) Loudness decreases, pitch is lower
18. A body falling under gravity moves with uniform
(A) Speed (B) velocity (C) momentum (D) acceleration
19. A particle moves along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with a velocity of 15 m/s. Its average
velocity is

(A) 15 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 7.5 m/s (D) 5 m/s

20. The initial velocity of a particle moving along a straight line is 12 ms–1 and its retardation is
3 ms–2. The distance moved by the particle in the fourth second of its motion is
(A) 1.5 m (B) 22.5 m (C) 24 m (D) 72 m

Section - II
Chemistry
1. Cathode rays are different from anode ray as
(A) cathode rays travel in straight lines while anode rays do not
(B) Cathode rays are energetic while anode rays are not
(C) Cathode rays consists of protons while anode rays consists of electrons
(D) Cathode rays do not depend on the nature of gas taken in discharge tube while anode rays depend on it

2. Which of the following statements is not true regarding isotopes

(A) They are atoms of the same element having same number of protons and electrons but different number of
neutrons
(B) Isotopes of an element have similar chemical properties but different physical properties
(C) All the isotopes of an element have same number of valence electrons
(D) The three isotopes of hydrogen (Protium, Deuterium and Tritium) contain one, two and three neutrons
respectively.

3. The formula of the compound is A2B5. The number of electron in the outermost orbits of A and B respectively
are
(A) 6 and 3 (B) 5 and 6 (C) 5 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

4. The ratio of S and P electrons present in Mn2+ is: (Atomic number of Mn=25)
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 3/2 (D) None of these

5. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is

13.6 13.6 13.6 13.6
(A) − eV (B) − eV (C) − eV (D) − eV
n4 n3 n2 n
6. The wavelength of photon is 2.2×10–11m, h=6.6×10–34Js. Then momentum of photon is
(A) 3 10 (B) 3.3 10 (C) 6.89 10 (D) 1.452 10
–23
kgms –1 –44
kgms –1 43
kgms –1 –44
kgms –1
 23

− − −
7. In the decay series A ⎯⎯⎯ → B ⎯⎯⎯ → C ⎯⎯⎯ →D
(A) A and B are isobars (B) A and C are isobars (C) A and D are isotopes (D) B and C are isotopes

8. The increasing order of wavelength among the following electromagnetic radiations

(i) x-rays (ii) -rays (iii) visible rays (iv) infrared rays
(A) i<ii<iii<iv (B) iii<iv<i<ii (C) ii<i<iii<iv (D) iiiiiiiv

9. Energy corresponding to the wavelength of 6625 nm electromagnetic radiation is

(A) 3×10–18J (B) 18×10–18J (C) 3×10–20J (D) 3×10–22J

10. Among ,, radioactive rays, the order of penetration power

(A)      (B)      (C)      (D)     

11. Identify Isotones

2
(A) 1 H & 2 He3 (B) 6 C
13
& 7 N 14 (C) 4 Be
9
& 5 B10 (D) All

12. The number electrons in ‘M’ shell of copper (Z=29)

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 8

13. Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a ‘P’ orbital is

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 2 (D) 14

14. 4.4g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 litres of volume at STP. The gas may be
(A) N2O (B) CO (C) CO2 (D) a and c both

15. If 5.85 gms of NaCl are dissolved in 90 gms of water, the mole fraction of NaCl is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.019

16. The normality of 2.3M H2SO4 solution is

(A) 2.3N (B) 4.6N (C) 0.46N (D) 0.23N

17. 171g of cane sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The molarity of the solution is
(A) 2.0M (B) 1.0m (C) 0.5M (D) 0.25M

18. Which list of formulas represents compounds only?

(A) CO2,H2O,NH3 (B) H2,N2,O2 (C) H2,Ne,NaCl (D) MgO,NaCl,O2.

19. Which of the following does not have a fixed boiling point?
(A) Gold (B) Ethanol (C) Air (D) silver

20. Identify a false statement among the following?

(A) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon and causes cooling
(B) Rate of evaporation is directly proportional to temperature
(C) Rate of evaporation is inversely proportional to surface area of liquid
(D) Evaporation causes cooling and depends on humidity
 24

Section - III
Biology
14. Metamerism is found in
(A) Ascaris (B) Leech (c) Loligo (d) Octopus

15. Human disease caused by bacterium

(A) Measles (B) Dengue (c) Tuberculosis (d) Polio

16. Presence of joint appendages is specially of phylum____

(A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (c) Arthopoda (d) Annelidia

17. The commonest antimalarial drug is obtained from

(A) Root of Cinchona (B) bark Cinchona (c) Leaf of Cinchona (d) Any part of the
plant

18. Notochord is extended from head to tail region and persistent throught their life in
(A) Hemichordata (B) Urochordata (c) Cephalochordata (d) All

19. Select the difference which is wrongly written:

Cartilaginous fish Bony fishes
(A) Operculum absent Operculum present
(B) Fertilization internal Fertilization external
(c) Posses 5-7 pair of gills Posses 4 pair of gills
(d) Mostly oviparous Mostly viviparous

20. Select correct matching

Column-I Column-II
A. Bufo 1. Salamander
B. Frog 2. Rana
C. Hyla 3. Limbless amphibian
D. Salamander 4. Tree frog
E. Icthyophis 5. Toad
(A) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-3 (B) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3
(c) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-3 (d) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1, E-3

21. Which of the following is natural insecticide?

(A) Nicotine (B) Neem (c) Pyrethrum (d) All of these

22. Which of the following is incorrect about birds?

(A) Air sacs connected to lungs help in respiration
(B) Hind limb possess scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping
(c) Separate sexes, internal fertilization, oviparous and direct development
(d) Endoskeleton is consist of feathers, scales, beak and claws

23. Basic fundamental features enabled us to broadly classify the animal kingdom are
(A) level of organization, symmetry (B) Cell organization, coelom
(c) Segmentation of notochord (d) All

24. Which one of the following is a gaseous fumigant?

(A) Aluminium phosphide (B) Ethylene dichloride (c) Methyl Bromide (d) DDT

25. Chlorophyll bearing, thalloid, autotropic, and mainly aquatic organisms are
(A) Bryophytes (B) Protista (c) Algae (d) all

26. Volvox is
(A) unicellular algae (B) filamentous algae (c) colonial algae (d) symbiotic algae

27. Agar is commercially obtained from

(A) Gelidium and Gracilaria (B) Laminaria and Sprullina
(c) Chlorella and Spirullina (d) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra

28. Pyrenoids located in

(A) cytoplasm (B) mitochondria (c) chloroplast (d) nucleus

29. Which of the following cells is found in cartilaginous tissue of the body?
 25

(A) Mast cells (B) Basophils (c) Osteocytes (d) Chondrocytes

30. Which of the following statement is incorrect in respect to bryophytes?

(A) The plant body is thallus like, more differentiated than algae and attached to substratum by help of rhizoids
(B) The antherozoids are released in water for fertilization
(c) Zygote formed undergoes meiote division immediately
(d) They have leaf like, stem like and root like structures

31. Gemmae in liverworts are formed during

(A) Sexual reproduction (B) asexual reproduction (c) spore formation (d) adverse condition

32. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi Body (c) Nucleus (d) Mitochondria

33. The leaves bearing sporangia are called

(A) Sporophylls (B) Fronds (c) Tropophylls (d) scally leaves

Section - IV
Mathematics
21. Which of the following statement is true for a regular polygon
(A) All vertices are concyclic (B) All vertices are not concyclic
(C) Only four vertices are concyclic (D) Cannot say anything about regular polygon

22. A metallic right circular cone of height 9cm and base radius 7cm is melted and recast into a cuboid whose two
sides are 11cm and 6cm. Then the third side of the cuboid is
(A) 5cm (B) 6cm (C) 7cm (D) 10cm

23. The mean of 90 items was found to be 45. Later on it was discovered that two items were misread as 26 and 19
instead of 60 and 09 respectively. The correct mean is
(A) 49.0 (B) 45.0 (C) 45.3 (D) 49.3

24. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, O is the centre of the circle and a:b=2:5. The value of x is

(A) 20° (B) 25° (C) 30° (D) 35°

25. In a school, 14% of students take computer classes and 67% take drama classes. What is the probability that a
student neither takes computer class nor takes drama class?
8 29 53 19
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 100 100 100

26. The mean of the marks scored by 40 students was found to be 35. Later on it was discovered that a score of 43
was misread as 34. The correct mean is
(A) 35.2 (B) 39.4 (C) 39.8 (D) 39.2

27. A metal sheet 27cm long 8cm board and 1cm thick s melted and recast into a cube. The difference between the
surface areas of two solids is
(A) 284cm2 (B) 286cm2 (C) 296cm2 (D) 300cm2.

28. The median of the numbers 9,5,7,17,13,18,13,9,5,17,13,12,17

(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 13 (D) 15
 26

29. In the given figure, AB is a diameter with centre O and OPBQ. If ABQ=40°, then the value of x is

(A) 60° (B) 70° (C) 80° (D) None of these

30. The ratio of the volume and surface area of sphere of unit radius without considering units is
(A) 4:3 (B) 3:4 (C) 1:3 (D) 3:1

31. A city survey found that 47% of teenagers have a part time job. The same survey found that 30% plan to attend
college. Find the probability that a teenager has a part time job?
(A) 37/100 (B) 30/100 (C) 40/100 (D) 47/100

32. There are seven equal chords in the circle with centre O in the given figure. The value of x is

   
4 6 1 4
(A) 128 (B) 180 (C) 128 (D) 360
7 7 7 7

33. The length of longest rod that can be placed in a room 20 m long, 16m board and 12m high is
(A) 20m (B) 16.4m (C) 48m (D) 28.2m

34. A large basket of fruits contains 3 oranges, 2 apples and 5 bananas. If a piece of fruit is chosen at random,
what is the probability of getting an orange?
4 1 7 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 10 10

35. Mode of the data 51,14,71,15,91,2,51,19,41,51,18,15,51

(A) 51 (b) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17

36. The class mark of the class 150–170 is

(A) 130 (B) 135 (C) 140 (D) 160

37. At middle school, 3 out of 5 students make honor roll. What is the probability (in %) that a student does not
make honor roll?
(A) 65% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) None of these

38. A tank 3m long, 2m wide and 1.5m deep is dug in a field 22m long and 14m wide. If the earth dug out is evenly
spread out over the field the rise in level of the field will be
(A) 0.299cm (B) 0.29cm (C) 2.98cm (D) 4.15cm

39. What is the remainder when 82361 + 83361 + 84361 + 85361 + 86361 is divided by 7?
(A) 5 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 4

40. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle and AWXB and AYZC are two squares. The value of
ZXA is

(A) 45° (B) 30° (C) 60° (D)90°

 27

ANSWER KEY
SECTION – II SECTION – III SECTION – SECTION –V
(PHYSICS) (CHEMISTRY) IV (MATHEMATICS)
(BIOLOGY)

21. A P096013 1. D C091001 1. B 1. A M090907

22. C P096013 2. D C091007 2. C 2. C M091207
23. A P091408 3. B C091008 3. C 3. C M091309
24. C P090104 4. B C090807 4. B 4. C M090906
25. D P090502 5. C C090404 5. C 5. D M091705
26. D P091404 6. A C090410 6. D 6. A M091309
27. C P090502 7. C C090409 7. B 7. B M091207
28. C P096013 8. C C090805 8. D 8. C M091309
29. B P096013 9. C C090805 9. D 9. B M090905
30. B P096013 10. C C090409 10. D 10. C M091206
31. B P096013 11. D C090803 11. C 11. D M091705
32. B P091404 12. B C091008 12. C 12. A M090907
33. A P091408 13. C C090807 13. A 13. D M091202
34. A P091404 14. D C091404 14. C 14. D M091705
35. A P091502 15. D C090309 15. C 15. A M091305
36. A P09181 16. B C090307 16. D 16. D M091303
37. A P099181 17. C C090307 17. B 17. B M091705
38. D P090203 18. A C090202 18. C 18. C M091205
39. D P091213 19. C C090104 19. B 19. B M090206
40. B P090109 20. C C090502 20. A 20. C M090602
 28

FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Class - IX
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 294
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the te st.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) (09 - 14) 2 comprehension (3 questions each with single option correct). Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) (15 – 18) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(iv) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each
question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded.
There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any
question. There is no negative marking.
(v) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging
from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

 29

Section – I
Physics
Part – A
Single correct choice type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct

1. A tuning fork sends sound waves in air. If the temperature of the air increases, which of the following
parameters will change?
(A) Displacement amplitude (B) Frequency
(C)Wavelength (D) Time period

2. When sound wave is refracted from air to water, which of the following will remain unchanged?
(A)Wave number (B) Wavelength (C) Wave velocity (D) Frequency

3. The speed of sound in a medium depends on

(A) the elastic property but not on the inertia property
(B) the inertia property but not on the elastic property
(C) the elastic property as well as inertia property
(D) neither the elastic property nor the inertia property

4. Which of the following is a mechanical wave?

(A) Radio waves (B) X-rays (C) Light waves (D) Sound waves

5. Both the strings, shown in figure, are made of same material and have same cross section. The pulleys are
light. The wave speed of a transverse wave in the string AB is 1 and in CD it is  2 . Then 1 / 2 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 1/ 2

6. At any instant force of 12N, acting on body moving with 4 m/s. Power is
(A) 50W (B) 40W (C) 30W (D) None of these

7. Momentum of body is increased by 25%. Percentage increase in its kinetic energy is

(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 56% (D) 22.5%

8. A phase (at a time t) of a particle in simple harmonic motion tells

(A) only the position of the particle at time t
(B) only the direction of motion of the particle at time t
(C) Both the position and direction of motion of the particle at time t.
(D) neither the position of the particle nor its direction of motion at time t
 30

Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question Nos. 9 to 11
Block A,B and C of mass m each have acceleration a1,a2 and a3 respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of
magnitude 2mg and mg respectively then

9. Acceleration of block A
(A) g (B) 2g (C) 3g (D) g/3

10. Ratio of acceleration of block B and acceleration C

(A) 3:1 (B) 1:3 (C) 1:1 (D) None of these

11. Tension in the string by which block C is attached.

4 3
(A) mg (B) mg (C) mg (D) 3mg
3 4

Paragraph for question Nos. 12 to 14

A mechanical wave is propagating in a material medium. The graph shown demonstrates the displacement
curve of the wave at any time t.

12. What is the wavelength of the wave?

(A) 10 m (B) 2 m (C) 20 m (D) 5 m

13. If wave propagates with a velocity 340 ms-1, find the frequency?
(A) 15 Hz (B) 20 Hz (C) 17 Hz (D) 10 Hz

14. Amplitude of the mechanical wave is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) None

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct

15. Which of the following statement is/are true in case of waves?

(A) Transverse vibrations are set on string of guitar
(B) As compared to light, a sound wave produced on the moon will take a time about 106 times longer to reach
the earth.
(C) A sound note of wavelength 1cm in air cannot be heard by a man.
(D) Sound travels faster in water than in air
 31

16. Choose the correct statements (s) from the following?

(A) Mechanical wave needs medium for their propagation.
(B) Sound cannot travel through vacuum.
(C) Mechanical waves transport energy from one point to another point
(D) Sound waves are mechanical waves

17. Select the correct statements.

(A) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic.
(B) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily oscillatory.
(C) An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
(D) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory.

18. If the tension in the cable supporting an elevator is equal to the weight of the elevator, elevator may be
(A) Going up with increasing speed (B) going down with increasing speed
(C) going up with uniform speed (D) going down with uniform speed

PART-B: Matrix-Match Type Questions

p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has four statements
(A, B, C and D) given in Column-I and five statements (p, q, r, and s) in Column-II. Any given A p q r s t

statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in B p q r s t
Column-II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given C p q r s t
in q and r, then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
D p q r s t
corresponding to q and r in the OMR.

19. Matrix Match – 1

Column – I Column - II

(A) Maximum displacement of particle from mean position (p) amplitude

(B) Reverberation (q) Multiple reflection

(C) Velocity of sound in air (r) 330 m/sec

(D) Tracking of fish in ocean (s) <20 Hz

20. Matrix Match – 2

Two block each having a mass of 3.2kg are connected by a wire cd and
system is suspended from the ceiling by another wires ab. The linear mass
density of wire ab is 10 g/m and that of cd is 8 g/m. Match following

Column – I Column - II
(A) Tension in wire ab at point B (N) (p) 80
(B) Tension in wire dc at point D (N) (q) 200
(C) Speed of transrerse wave pulse produced in AB (m/sec) (r) 32
(D) Speed of transrerse wave pulse produced in CD (m/sec) (s) 64

PART–C:
Single digit integer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).

1. A boy blows a whistle while standing in front of a cliff. He hears the echo after 0.2 sec. The distance of cliff
from the boy is 8.3 × k . Find k. [if velocity of sound is 332 m/s] :
 32

2. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and it hits the ground at t = 3.5s. If the velocity of sound in air is 300
k
ms −1 , If the time taken to hear the sound by a person on the top of the tower is 74 × , from the instant the
20
body is dropped. Find K (g = 10 ms −2 )

3. m = 2.5 kg, mass per unit length of string is 1 kg/m the velocity of wave in string at x = 0 is _____ (where x =
length of string from block)

4. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between the block
and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is and the surface is 0.6. If the 5 ms–2, the frictional force
acting on the block is ____N.

5. Distance between two adjacent particles which are in the same phase in a progressive wave in 20 cm.
Determine the velocity of the wave if its frequency is 10 Hz.

6. When a unstretched spring is selected by 2 cm, it stores some potential energy. If it is stretched further by 2
cm, what is the change in potential energy? If the spring constant K is 1000N/m 2.

Section – II
Chemistry
Part – A
Single correct choice type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
1. Chromium (Z=24) has an exceptional electronic configuration because
(A) In Cr atom electronic configuration have more stable half filled p-orbital
(B) In Cr atom electronic configuration have more stable fully filled p-orbital
(C) In Cr atom electronic configuration have more stable half filled d-orbital
(D) In Cr atom electronic configuration have more stable fully filled d-orbital

2. The highest value of e/m of anode rays has been observed when the discharge tube is filled with
(A) nitrogen (B) oxygen (C) hydrogen (D) helium

3. The quantum number of electrons of an element are given below:

n=2, I=0, m=0, s=+1/2 for which element this is not possible
(A) Hydrogen (B) Lithium (C) Beryllium (D) Boron

4. Mg has three naturally occurring isotopes with isotopic mass and relative abundance of 23.98 (78.60%), 24.98
(10.11%) and 25.98(11.29%) respectively. The atomic mass of magnesium will be approximately
(A) 24 (B) 24.30 (C) 23.95 (D) 22.20

5. Two elements X and Y have 6 & 2 electrons in their M-shell and L-shell respectively. Find the ratio of atomic
number of X & Y
(A) 3:4 (B) 1:4 (C) 4:1 (D) 6:7

6. Electrons, identified by quantum numbers ‘n’ and ‘I’

(i) n=4, I=1 (ii) n=4, I=0 (iii) n=3, I=2 (iv) n=3, I=1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest as
(A) iv<ii<iii<i (B) ii<iv<i<iii (C) i<iii<ii<iv (D) iii<i<iv<ii

7. Isotopes exhibit same chemical properties because

(A) They contain same number of protons
 33

(B) they have same number of neutrons

(C) they have same number of electrons in outermost orbit
(D) they have different number of electrons

8. An element with atomic number 23, maximum number of electrons are present in
(A) ‘K’ shell (B) ‘L’ Shell (C) “M’ shell (D) ‘N’ shell

Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question Nos. 9 to 11
An electron in an atom can be completely designated with the help of four quantum numbers. Out of these, the
first three i.e. principal (n), azimuthal (I) and magnetic (m) quantum numbers are obtained from the solution of
Schrodinger wave equation while the spin (s) quantum number arises from the spin of the electron around its
axis clockwise or anticlockwise. Out of these principal quantum numbers tells about the size. Azimuthal
quantum numbers about the shape and magnetic quantum signifies the orientation of the electron orbital

9. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell having the same value of spin quantum number is given by
(A) I+2 (B) 2I+1 (C)4l+2 (D) I (I + 1)

10. For magnetic quantum number m=0, 1, 2 the value of the principle shell is
(A) n=2 (B) n=4 (C) n=3 (D) n=5

11. For principle quantum number n=4, the total number of orbitals having value l=3 is
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 1

Paragraph for question Nos. 12 to 14

Solubility of a substance is defined as the amount of the solute which can be dissolved in a particular amount
of solvent at a given temperature
amount of solute
Solubility =  100
amount of solvent

12. 5g of a solute dissolved in 25g of water to form a saturated solution at 25°C. Calculate the solubility of the
solute
(A) 15g (B) 20g (C) 13g (D) 10g

13. A China dish weigsh 25 g when empty. When a saturated solution of potassium chloride is poured into it at
40°C, the weight of the dish is 63g. When the solution is totally evaporated, the china dish along with the
crystals weighs 40g. Find the solubility of potassium chloride at 40°C.
(A) 35 (B) 65.2 (C) 39.5 (D) 7.5

14. The solubility of a substance ‘x’ in water is 27.6% (mass/volume) at 50°C. When 60mL of its saturated solution
at 50°C is cooled to 40°C, 3.7g of solid substance ‘x’ separates out. The solubility of ‘x’ in water at 40°C
(mass/volume) is
(A) 30.7% (B) 16.56% (C) 21.4% (D) 23.8%

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct

15. Which of the following electron configuration(s) follow the Pauli’s exclusion principle?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p7 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (C) 1s2 2s2 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p4 3s3.

16. Which of the following match is/are correct

(A) Maximum number of electrons in a principal shell (n) → 2n2 rule.
(B) Maximum number of orbitals of orbital in a shell → n2 rule
(C) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom → 2 +1 rule
(D) Total number of subshells in a principal shell → 2n2 rule
 34

17. Which of the following is(are) possible set(s) of four quantum numbers?
(A)n=3, =2. m=0, s=+1/2 (B) n=5, =3, m=–2, s=–1/2
(C) n=1, =–1,m=-1 s=–1/2 (D) n=4, =3, m=–3, s=–1/3

18. Choose the correct statement(s)

235 231
(A) 92 Uand 90 Th is a pair of isodiaphers
39 40
(B) 19 K and 20 Ca is a pair of isotones
(C) NH3 and CH4 are iso-electronic species
(D) Isobars have similar chemical properties but different physical properties.

PART-B: Matrix-Match Type Questions

p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has four statements
(A, B, C and D) given in Column-I and five statements (p, q, r, and s) in Column-II. Any given A p q r s t

statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in B p q r s t
Column-II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given C p q r s t
in q and r, then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
D p q r s t
corresponding to q and r in the OMR.

1. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
A Exclusion Principle P Hund
B Multiplicity rule Q Heisenberg
C Uncertainty principle R Pauli
D Quantum theory S Planck

2. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
A Na P Valence electron in 3rd orbit
B P Q Valence electron in 2nd orbit
C Li R Half filled subshell
D Mg S One unpaired electron

PART–C:
Single digit integer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
+1
1. In an atom with 2K, 8L, 11M & 2N electrons, the no. of electron with m=0, s= are
2

2. The total no. of possible values of magnetic Quantum number for the value of l=3 is

3. Calculate the value of Y for a photon when the wave length is 10–8m & frequency is Y×1016sec–1.

4. The number of elements which are diatomic gases at room temperature is(are)

5. For the reaction A+2B→C, 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce how many moles of C

6. Numbers of moles of O3 in its 5.6 L is ‘X’ at STP. The value of 12X is

 35

Section – III
Mathematics
Part – A
Single correct choice type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct
41. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and AOC=130°. Then ABC
is
(A) 50° (B) 65°
(C) 115° (D) 130°

42. In the given figure, AOB is a diametr of a circle and CDllAB. If BAD=30°,
then CAD=
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 50°
43. How many cubes each of surface area 24 cm2 can be made out of a meter cube, without any wastage ?
(A) 75000 (B) 125000 (C) 250000 (D) 100000
2 4
44. A and B appeared for an interview for two posts . Probability of A’s rejection is and that of B’s selection is .
5 7
The probability that one of them is selected, is
17 16 18
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
35 35 35
45. In the given figure, BAD=78°, DCF=x and DEF=y. The value of x and y respectively are

(A) 102°, 78° (B) 60°, 120° (C) 120°, 60° (D) 78°, 102°
46. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and diameter AB bisects the chord CD at a point E such that
CE=ED=8cm and EB=4 cm. The diameter of the circle is

(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 8 cm

47. If the mean of 2x,2x+3,2x+5,2x+7, 2x+10 is 11, the mean of the last three observation is
1 2 1 2
(A) 10 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 11
3 3 3 3

48. If P(X) = x3 − 3x2 + 2x + 5 and P(a)=P(b)=P(c)=0 then the value of (2–a)(2–b)(2–c) is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

 36

Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question Nos. 9 to 11
BC is a chord with centre O. A is the point on an arc BC as shown in the figures

49. The value of z in term of x is

(A) x/2 (B) x (C) 2x (D) 3x
50. If A is a point on the major arc, then BAC+OBC=
(A) 120° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
51. If A is a point on the minor arc , then BAC–OBC=
(A) 90° (B) 60° (C) 120° (D) 45°

Paragraph for question Nos. 12 to 14

The following graph gives the amount of manure (in thousand tonnes) manufactured by a company during some
years

52. In which year the amount of manure manufactured by the company was maximum?
(A) 1993 (B) 1994 (C) 1996 (D) 1997
53. The consecutive years during which there was maximum decrease in manure production are
(A0 1994 and 1995 (B) 1992 and 1993 (C) 1996 and 1997 (D) 1995 and 1996
54. In which year the amount of manure manufactured by the company was minimum?
(A) 1992 (B) 1993 (C) 1995 (D) 1997

Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct

55. ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A, B and C intersects CD produced at E. Which of the following
is/are true?
(A) ABC = AEC (B)  ADE=  AED (C)  BAE=  BCE (D) AE=BC
56. In the given figure, AB is the chord of a circle with centre O, AB is produced to C such that BC=OB. CO is joined
and produced to meet the circle in D if  ACD=y° and  AOD=x°, then which of the following is/are correct?
 37

2
(A)  ABO=2y° (B)  BOC=x° (C) OAB = x (D)  AOD=3y°
3

57. The mean of the following frequency table is 50.

Class 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 Total
Frequency 17 f1 32 f2 19 120

(A) f1–f2=4 (B) f1+f2=52 (C) f1=24 (D) f2=28

58. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is parallelogram. E is the midpoint of DC and through D, a line segment is drawn
parallel to EB to meet CB product at G it cuts AB at F. Then

1
(A) AD = GC (B) DG=2.EB (C) 2AF=DC (D) BE = GF
2

PART-B: Matrix-Match Type Questions

p q r s t
This Section contains 2 Matrix Match Type Questions. Each question has four statements
(A, B, C and D) given in Column-I and five statements (p, q, r, and s) in Column-II. Any given A p q r s t

statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in B p q r s t
Column-II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given C p q r s t
in q and r, then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
D p q r s t
corresponding to q and r in the OMR.

1. match the following column

Column – I Column - II
The radius of circles is 8cm and the length of one of its chords is
(A) (P) 23cm
12cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is
Two parallel chords of length 30cm and 16 cm are drawn on the
(B) opposite sides of the centre of a circle of radius 17cm. The distance (Q) 5.196cm
between the chords is
The length of a chord which is a distance of 4cm from the centre of
(C) (R) 5.291 cm
the circle of radius 6cm is
An equilateral triangle of side 9 cm is inscribed in a circle. The radius
(D) (S) 8.94cm
of the circle is

2. Match the following column

Column – I Column - II
(A) Rectangle rotating about axis (P) Cone
(B) Semicircle rotating about diameter (Q) Cube
(C) Right angled triangle rotating about base (R) Cylinder
(D) Six square sheet (S) Sphere
 38

PART–C:
Single digit integer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).
1. In the given figure, AB is a chord of a circle with centre O and BOC is a diameter. If OD⊥AB such that OD=6cm,
then the value of AC is k×3. Fin the value of k

2. The ratio of radii of two cylinders is 1: 3 and heights are in the ratio 2:3. The ratio of their volumes is 2:k. Find k
3. If the arithmetic mean of 7,5,13,x,9 and 10 is 10, then value of x is the perfect square of natural number k. Find
the value of k.
4. If the mean of the following distribution is 4, find the value of p
X 1 2 3 4 5
f 1 4 2 1 P+5

5. A coin is tossed two times and let E1 be the event of getting exactly two heads, E2 be the event of getting exactly
two tails & E3 be the event of getting exactly 1 head then P (E1 ) + P (E2 ) + P (E3 ) = k . Find k

n
6. A bag contains 6 green and 5 blue balls. If probability of choosing a green ball randomly is , then the number
11
of factors of n is
 39

ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I SECTION – II SECTION – III
(PHYSICS) (CHEMISTRY) (MATHEMATICS)
Part - A Part - A Part - A
1. B P091801 1. C C091008 1. C M090906
2. D P091801 2. C C091005 2. A M090916
3. C P091801 3. A C090807 3. B M091207
4. D P090502/503 4. B C090305 4. A M093302
5. D P090502 5. C C090802 5. D M090907
6. D P091609 6. A C090807 6. B M090905
7. C P090213. 7. C C090803 7. C M091309
8. C P090801 8. C C090802 8. B M090205
9. A P090502/503 9. B C090807 9. C M090906
10. A P091403 10. C C090807 10. D M090906
11. A P091404 11. B C090807 11. A M090906
12. C P090801 12. B C090205 12. B M091306
13. C P090203 13. B C090205 13. C M091306
14. A P090203 14. C C090205 14. A M091306
15. ABCD P090206 15. BC C090807 15. BD M090908
16. ABCD P091409 16. AB C090807 16. ACD M090904
17. ABC P091408 17. AB C090807 17. AB M091309
18. CD P091407 18. ABC C090803 18. ABCD M090706
Part – B Part – B Part – B
A→P; B→Q; A→R; B→P; A→R; B→P;
1. 1. 3.
C→R; D→S. C→Q; D→S. C→S; D→Q.
A→S; B→R; A→PRS; B→PS; A→R; B→S;
2. 2. 4.
C→P; D→Q. C→QRS; D→P. C→P; D→Q.
Part – C Part – C Part – C
1. 4 P091801/ P0906071. 7 C090802 1. 4 M090905
2. 2 P090502 2. 7 C090807 2. 9 M091205
3. 5 P091502 3. 3 C090410 3. 4 M091309
4. 5 P091502 4. 5 C090901 4. 8 M091309
5. 2 P090502 5. 4 C091404 5. 1 M091702
6. 1 P090209 6. 3 C091404 6. 4 M091705