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Skholar July 2019 PDF
Skholar July 2019 PDF
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3. The validity of extraordinary circumstances that justify going beyond the judicially
created 50% reservation rule.
3. Limits of judicial review in examining affirmative action policies of the state and
the effect of powers given to the National Commission for Backward Classes in 2018 after
its conversion from a statutory authority to a constitutional body.
4. The legality of the creation of a new socially and educationally backward class and
inclusion of just one caste in this class.
2. As per the Indira Sawhney (1992) and other judgments the Supreme Court permitted
going beyond 50% in extraordinary circumstances, and this limit is not exhaustive of all
categories of reservation.
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a. The population is inhabiting in the far-flung and remote areas and being out of the
mainstream of national life.
4. But Maharashtra is neither remote or far-flung, nor are Marathas seen as being out of
the national mainstream.
5. The Gaikwad Commission report found that Marathas are socially, educationally and
economically backward, entitling them to affirmative action.
6. Based on this, the HC observed that if the 50% rule is followed, the minuscule forward
classes will benefit, and their domination will continue.
7. So, with the inclusion of 30% Marathas, 85% of the people of the state have now
become backward.
1. Since 346 castes are already in the OBC list and entitled to 19% reservation, the court
held that adding Marathas with 30% of the population will not be appropriate.
2. Marathas will then take away the major chunk of seats, and it will adversely affect the
interests of existing OBCs.
3. Relying on Indira Sawhney where the Supreme Court had permitted classification
between ‘backward’ and ‘most backward’, the High Court approved the creation of a new
class for Marathas.
4. The court also observed that the 102nd Constitutional Amendment has not taken over
the powers of the state to set up its own Backward Classes Commissions and states may
validly make reservations without the concurrence of the National Commission for
Backward Classes or Presidential order for the inclusion of any caste.
1. If there was a legitimate reason to go beyond 50% reservation, as in the case of Tamil
Nadu, it could have been inserted in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
2. But this judgment will result in demand for reservation in favor of dominant castes in
other states.
2. The Bill partially amends a Presidential Order of 1954 in order to amend the state’s
Reservation Act.
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1. The amendment extends the benefits of reservation to residents living along the
International Border (IB) which is currently available to the residents along the Line of
Actual Control (LAC).
3. Through the Presidential Order, the Cabinet applied the 77th Constitutional
Amendment of 1995 to J&K, giving benefits of reservation in promotion to Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in government service.
4. The Cabinet also applied the 103rd Constitutional Amendment of 2019 to J&K, which
gave 10% reservation to Economically Weaker Sections among people in the general
category.
1. The 1954 order is an executive order issued by the President under Article 370 to
extend provisions of an Act of Parliament to J&K State, which can be done only with the
concurrence of the state government.
2. The Constitution of India applies to Jammu & Kashmir by virtue of Article 370, which
provides a mechanism for the way it applies.
3. Article 370 defines the state government as ‘the Maharaja’ and/or the ‘Sadar-i-Riyasat’
(Chief Minister) aided by a council of ministers.
Why is it controversial?
2. The decision to provide benefits to SCs, STs and EWS is not opposed by anybody in
J&K but there has been opposition to the route taken by the Centre and the J&K
Governor.
3. Amendment to the 1954 Presidential Order is regarded as the breach of Article 370.
How did the Supreme Court respond to the status of the governor?
1. The issue of the Governor’s powers was defined by the Supreme Court in Mohammad
Maqbool Damnoo versus State of J&K (1972).
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1. The amendment has been challenged in J&K High Court. A petition of similar nature
has been pending since 1986.
2. The regional parties contend that “concurrence” means the concurrence of an elected
government and not that of a nominated government.
Nagaland’s NRC
Mains -GS3- Security
3. After a list of indigenous inhabitants is in place, it will be published and time will be
given to filing claims and objections, before finalization.
Assam Experiment
1. As many as 40 lakh people were left out of the NRC listing in Assam, which aimed to
filter out ‘illegal immigrants’ and it has witnessed divisive political posturing.
2. The Assam experiment has no clear endpoint. Bangladesh has repeatedly suggested
that the process going on in Assam is “an internal matter” of India, implying that there is
no possibility of deportation.
Attempts in Nagaland
1. In Nagaland, various local attempts have been made to determine non-locals, non-
tribals and non-Nagas, and identify the ‘Illegal Bangladeshi Immigrant’ (IBI).
2. For instance - Two years ago, a town near Dimapur in Nagaland, passed a resolution
to place curbs on IBIs and devised ways to prevent them from integrating, living or
trading in the town.
3. The objective of this exercise in a volatile region, where the Armed Forces (Special
Powers) Act is routinely extended, is unclear.
4. Mechanism to deal with people left out in the list is not put in place.
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Way Forward
1. Nagaland must proceed with caution in this exercise. The RIIN should not ultimately
become a vehicle to make outsiders of insiders.
2. The right to appeal and a humane hearing should be in-built in this exercise.
3. Emotive political issues must not be allowed to drive the compiling of a registry of
citizens.
b) RIIN exercise was launched with teams surveying people living in every village and
urban ward to prepare a list of indigenous inhabitants who would be provided a
certificate.
c) The exercise is being undertaken to prevent outsiders from acquiring fake indigenous
inhabitant certificates for seeking jobs and be the beneficiaries of government schemes.
e) December 1, 1963, the date on which Nagaland attained statehood, is the base year
for determining an indigenous inhabitant of the State.
About NRC
b) It is being updated to weed out illegal immigration from Bangladesh and neighboring
regions.
c) It was prepared in 1951, following the census of 1951. On the Supreme Court order, it
is being updated.
d) For a person’s name to be included in the updated NRC list, following criteria should
be fulfilled,
i) His name should be in the collective list of the NRC data of 1951 and the electoral rolls
up to midnight on 24 March 1971.
ii) Descendants of such persons need to provide linkage with the person whose name
appears in the legacy data.
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Suicide of Policemen
1. Over 940 police personnel committed suicide in the five years till December 2018,
including in the Central Armed Police Force.
1. Police personnel have no fixed hours of duty. They are considered to be on duty all the
time.
2. This deprives them of the luxury of spending time with their families which leads to
familial conflicts.
3. Festivals are given a go-by as they have to be on duty to ensure peace in their areas.
Denial of Leaves
1. Denial of leave is another issue that affects the efficiency of the police and leads to
frustration.
2. Operational requirements often warrant a full-strength force to deal with varied law
and order problems.
3. Most of the time superior officers are blamed for suicide or fratricide, but it is the
system that is to be blamed.
4. Due to large vacancies in the police forces, a huge responsibility rests on the available
personnel to maintain law and order.
Health Issues
1. The health of police personnel has taken a toll because of erratic working hours and
lack of physical exercise.
2. Many of them are known to suffer from stress-related diseases such as depression and
obesity.
To arrest the growing incidence of suicides, the government needs to take multi-pronged
steps with urgency.
Filling up Vacancies
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2. In 2014, there was a shortage of over 5.6 lakh personnel against the sanctioned
strength of 22.8 lakh.
3. An in-depth study of the requirement of police personnel over the next decade would
be conducive to plan recruitment and training in a phased manner.
2. The Delhi Police has taken a step forward in this direction to identify personnel with
psychological disorders to put them through counseling sessions.
3. Frequent interactions between officers and subordinates will help subordinates air their
grievances freely.
4. Solutions can be jointly worked out. Even if the grievances are not immediately
redressed, it will be soothing for an officer to share his or her problems with a senior
officer. It might even forestall a suicide attempt.
Professionals in Governance
1. Governance in India is changing with the increasing number of professionals, apart
from career bureaucrats, working with the central or state governments.
2. This openness of governments to leverage external talent has coincided with a greater
interest among professionals who did not take the civil services route to engage with
public policy and governance.
3. The motivation among them to create an impact has resulted in recent graduates and
working professionals looking at the public policy as a career choice.
How professionals are engaging with Public policy and Governance in India?
1. A small fraction of professionals are joining the bureaucracy as lateral entrants mostly
in senior roles.
3. Several others are engaged as fellows with central or state governments. States such
as Haryana, Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh have experimented with recruiting chief
minister’s fellows to work closely with the main administration, help deliver tangible
outcomes and act as catalysts for change.
4. At the Centre, similar examples include the recruitment of Swachh Bharat preraks
(inspirers) by the ministry of drinking water and sanitation and young professionals by
the NITI Aayog.
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5. The success of these fellowship programmes vary, based on how well they are
structured, empowered, managed and embedded in the system.
2. Their willingness to think out of the box and bring in a fresh perspective helps in
solution design, especially as governance becomes more and more complex.
3. The low capacity of the system, especially at the junior and middle levels, further
makes professionals attractive and they are largely free of vested interests.
4. Over the coming years, the acceptance and need for professionals in governance are
expected to increase.
3. Currently, most professionals learn on the job. They don’t have any prior experience
or training in public policy.
4. Many of them have worked in other sectors or are graduates from other disciplines
and have decided to change their career path, often driven by a desire to help the
country.
5. If they do have degrees in public policy, they are usually from foreign universities. The
education and training they have acquired are not contextualized in the complexities of
Indian politics, administration or development challenges.
6. Some Indian colleges do offer public policy courses; their rigor and depth are not par
with their counterparts abroad.
1. Given these challenges, there is a need for a premier Indian public policy training
institution to emerge that can attract the best talents and equip people with the
necessary skills and knowledge that can be applied in the Indian context.
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2. As the public policy landscape in the country opens itself to external talent, the time is
ripe to take stock, evaluate and channelize the nascent interest in policy and governance
among professionals into viable career tracks.
Legal Logjam
1. As per the Economic Survey, contract enforcement remains the single biggest
constraint to improve India’s Ease of Doing Business (EODB) ranking.
2. India currently stands at 163 in the world ranking on Contract Enforcement segment
of EODB.
Economic Governance
1. The relationship between economic governance and the rule of law is the key to
prosperity.
2. Two key issues need to be dealt with in order to make the judiciary more efficient and
to clear the ‘legal logjam.’
a. The courts must achieve a 100% case clearance rate (CCR) so that there is zero
accumulation to the existing pendency.
3. CCR is the ratio of the number of cases disposed of in a given year to the number of
cases instituted in that year.
1. District and Subordinate (D&S) courts, which account for the bulk of pendency,
received 1.5 crore additional cases in 2018 and had a backlog of 2.87 crores (as on
January 1, 2018).
2. But it managed to dispose of 1.33 crore cases in the year, thus, closing 2018 at 3.04
crore.
3. There are currently 17,891 judges compared to the sanctioned strength of 22,750. On
average, a judge disposes of 746 cases.
4. In order to reach 100% CCR in 2018, the D&S courts needed 2,279 additional judges.
This is within the sanctioned strength! However, in order to clear all the backlog in the
next five years, further 8,152 judges are needed.
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Way Forward
1. The efficiency of the courts needs to be improved by increasing the number of working
days of courts, the establishment of Indian Courts and Tribunal Services, and
deployment of technology in the legal system.
2. Given the potential economic and social multipliers of a well-functioning legal system,
this is the best investment India can make.
2. This was expressed by the Delhi High Court while pronouncing the judgment in State
v. Sajjan Kumar (2018).
3. The case concerned the mass killing of Sikhs during the anti-Sikh riots in 1984 in Delhi
and throughout the country.
4. The court stated that these types of mass crimes “engineered by political actors with
the assistance of the law enforcement agencies” fit into the category of crimes against
humanity (CAH).
5. Internationally, CAHs are dealt under the Rome Statute of the International Criminal
Court (ICC).
7. India is not a party to the Rome Statute, which means that it is under no obligation at
present to enact separate legislation dealing with CAH.
8. However, India had ratified the Genocide Convention (1948), but not enacted it in
domestic legislation.
1. The most probable reason for India’s reluctance to actively participate in the
negotiation process on a separate Convention on CAH, which started in 2014, could be
the adoption of the same definition of CAH as provided in the Rome Statute.
2. Indian representatives at the International Law Commission (ILC) have stated that the
draft articles should not conflict with or duplicate the existing treaty regimes.
3. India had objected to the definition of CAH during negotiations of the Rome Statute on
three grounds.
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a. India was not in favour of using ‘widespread or systematic’ as one of the conditions,
which would require a higher threshold of proof.
c. The objection related to the inclusion of the enforced disappearance of persons under
CAH. It is pertinent here that India has signed but not yet ratified the UN International
Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearances as it would
put the country under an obligation to criminalise it through domestic legislation.
1. The Delhi High Court also said that “a familiar pattern of mass killings” was seen “in
Mumbai in 1993, in Gujarat in 2002, in Kandhamal, Odisha in 2008, and Muzaffarnagar in
Uttar Pradesh in 2013”, where the criminals “have enjoyed political patronage and
managed to evade prosecution”.
2. India’s missing voice at the ILC does not go well with its claim of respect for an
international rules-based order.
3. Turning a blind eye to the mass crimes taking place in its territory and shielding the
perpetrators reflect the poor status of India’s democracy.
4. India needs to show political will and constructively engage with the ILC, which would
address the shortcomings in the domestic criminal justice system.
b) In many States, the fast-track courts designated to handle rape cases are also
handling other criminal cases leading to delay in verdicts.
c) Crime data used for analysis is based on ‘Investigation Tracking System for Sexual
Offences (ITSSO)’ tool.
d) Union Home Ministry launched ITSSO tool in February 2019 to monitor and track time-
bound investigation.
e) It is part of the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and System (CCTNS) that
connects over 15,000 police stations across the country.
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f) It is available for Law Enforcement Agencies in the country at all levels- National,
State, District and Police Station.
g) ITSSO tool allows State to undertake real-time monitoring and management for
completion of investigation in rape cases in 2 months.
h) It is one of the measures developed by the Ministry of Home Affairs towards Smart
Policing.
a) The Act lays down the obligations of tenants and landlords and provides for an
adjudication mechanism for disputes.
c) It aims to establish Rent Court and Rent Tribunal to hear appeals and for matters
connected to rental housing.
d) It seeks to promote the creation of a rental housing stock for various income
segments including migrants, formal and informal sector workers, students, and working
professionals.
e) The Act mandates that no person will let or take any rental premises without an
agreement in writing in both urban and rural areas.
a) As per the census 2011, there are around 1.1 crore houses lying vacant.
b) These houses can be brought into the rental market system which would promote the
growth of the rental housing segment.
c) Existing rent control laws are restricting the growth of rental housing and discourage
owners from renting out their vacant houses due to fear of repossession.
e) So, for these reasons the act is needed to balance the interests of both the property
owner and tenant in a judicious manner.
a) The Model Act states that the security deposit to be paid by the tenant should not
exceed two months’ rent for residential property.
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c) It lists the kinds of repairs each party would be responsible for, with the provision that
money for repairs can be deducted from the security deposit or rent, as applicable.
d) The Rent Court can allow repossession of the property by the landlord if the tenant
misuses the premises, after being served a notice by the landowner.
e) Misuse of the premises includes public nuisance, damage, or its use for immoral or
illegal purposes.
f) If the tenant refuses to vacate, the landlord can claim double the monthly rent for two
months, and four times the monthly rent thereafter.
a) Before the Housing for All by 2022 Mission (PMAY-Urban) was launched, it was
decided that 20% of the two crore houses that were to be created should be exclusively
for rent.
b) However, when it was rolled out in late 2015, the mission promoted only ownership
housing with no mention of rental stock.
c) Draft National Urban Rental Housing Policy provided for social rental housing for the
urban poor, need-based rental housing for migrant labour, single women and men, etc.
1. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has released a National Digital Health
Blueprint (NDHB) to manage and analyse the big data generated by the Ayushman
Bharat programme.
2. The document recommends the setting up of a National Digital Health Mission for this
purpose.
1. Doctors in both the public and private sectors regularly complain about the lack of
comprehensive records of their patients and the digital registry is a longstanding
requirement of the health sector.
2. The proposed database is in line with global trends in healthcare where digital
technology is used to make treatment options more personalised and precise.
3. Big data can also be used to prevent epidemics and improve the efficiency of drugs.
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Privacy Concerns
1. The large-scale creation, collection and sharing of health data are concerns because of
privacy and data breach.
2. Section 43(a) and 72 of the Information Technology Act provide the broad framework
for the protection of personal information in India, including medical data.
3. However, data breaches in the digital domain are common. For example, the
electronic medical records of over 35,000 patients held by a Maharashtra-based
pathology lab were leaked in 2016.
4. NDHB states that the architecture of the digital systems will have in-built safeguards
to ensure privacy where the user could have control of their data.
5. The Ayushman Bharat targets the poorest section of the population with low levels of
digital literacy. In such a context, a system that places the onus of control on the user,
with an assumption that they can control the flow of information, can end up doing more
harm than good.
Way Forward
1. In 2018, the government framed a draft Digital Information Security in Healthcare Act
(DISHA).
2. The proposed legislation recognised that existing laws were inadequate to protect the
privacy of patients in the digital domain.
3. In contrast with the NDHB, DISHA placed the onus of data protection on the service
provider.
4. The draft was criticised by industry bodies, which feared the stifling of medical
research. DISHA never made it to Parliament.
5. The government could seek a balance between the concerns of industry and the rights
of patients by adopting the provisions of DISHA in the NDHB.
a) Recently the Government of India has proposed to transfer surplus money with the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).
b) Government has proposed amendments to the Securities and Exchange Board of India
Act, 1992 that are seen as affecting SEBI’s financial autonomy.
c) Amendments required that after 25% of its surplus cash in any year is transferred to
its reserve fund which would be used by the organization.
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e) The proposed amendments aren’t going well with the board members and employees
of the organization.
f) Government has rejected the plea from SEBI’s officials asking the government to
reconsider its decision. So, it can lead to future conflicts.
a) It is very unlikely that the quantum of funds that the government is likely to receive
from SEBI will make much of a difference to the government’s overall fiscal situation.
b) Desire to increase control over the SEBI rather than by financial considerations is
perceived as the real motive behind the amendments.
c) Lack of financial autonomy can affect SEBI’s plans to improve the quality of its
operations by investing in new technologies.
d) So, this can affect the health of India’s financial markets in the long run.
The Reserve Bank of India and the National Sample Survey Office came under pressure
in recent months.
b) However, such centralization of powers can be risky and can affect the credibility of
financial regulators.
c) So, Regulatory agencies such as SEBI need to be given full powers over their assets
and be made accountable to Parliament.
The Bill amends Sections 13, 16 and 27 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
I. Section 13
a) Section 13 of the original Act sets the term of the central Chief Information
Commissioner and Information Commissioners at five years (or until the age of 65,
whichever is earlier).
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b) The amendment proposes that the appointment will be for such term as may be
prescribed by the Central Government.
c) Section 13 also deals with the salaries, allowances and other terms of service of the
Chief Information Commissioner and the information commissioners.
d) The amendment proposes that the salaries, allowances and other terms of service of
CIC and ICs to be prescribed by the Central Government.
II. Section 16
a) Section 16 of the original Act deals with state-level Chief Information Commissioner
and the Information Commissioners.
b) It sets the term for state-level CICs and ICs at five years (or 65 years of age,
whichever is earlier).
c) The amendment proposes that these appointments should be for such term as may be
prescribed by the Central Government’.
d) Original Act prescribes salaries, allowances and other terms of service of the state
Chief Information Commissioner as the same as that of an Election Commissioner.
e) The amendment bill proposes that the above matters shall be prescribed by the
Central Government.
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a) Statement of objectives say that the mandate of Election Commission of India and
Central and State Information Commissions are different. Hence, their status and service
conditions need to be rationalized accordingly.
b) Bill seeks to remove another anomaly e.g. Central Information Commissioner has
been given the status of a Supreme Court judge but his judgments can be challenged in
the High Courts.
c) The amendments seek to rectify a lot of things which were overlooked in the hastily
passed ‘Right to Information Act 2005’.
d) RTI Act does not give the government rule-making powers also.
How far has the RTI Act 2005 served the purposes?
a) The RTI Act is regarded as one of the most successful laws of independent India.
b) It has given ordinary citizens the confidence and the right to ask questions of
government authorities.
c) According to estimates, nearly 60 lakh applications are being filed every year. It is
used by citizens as well as the media.
d) The law is seen as having acted as a deterrent for government servants against taking
arbitrary decisions.
a) The original Act had quantified the tenures and defined the salaries in terms of
existing benchmarks.
b) The amendments would give powers to the Central Government to decide the terms of
appointment, salaries, and tenures of the CICs and ICs.
c) The bill threatened the independence of the Central Information Commissioner and
ICs.
2. The changes give the centre the authority to fix the tenure and salaries of information
commissioners—currently ranked at par with election commissioners, with a fixed tenure
of five years.
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3. Without a fixed tenure and salary, which will now be decided by the government,
information commissioners will lack the teeth to force public bodies to part with
information.
4. In 2005, the parliamentary standing committee reviewing the RTI Bill had said the
terms of appointment of information commissioners was the “essence of the Bill".
5. The law met with tremendous success —an estimated five to six million information
requests are filed every year—implementation of the Act has been far from perfect.
6. However it faces hassles ranging from long delays in getting a response to threats and
intimidation.
7. Here are five ways to strengthen the RTI regime, instead of downgrading the stature
of the information commissioner’s office:
Reduce pendency
1. The government could take steps to reduce pending appeals. Under the RTI Act, when
an applicant is denied information by a government department, the first appeal is made
to the appellate authority in the department.
2. If unresolved, the RTI applicant can move the office of the Central Information
Commission (CIC)—for queries related to central government—or State Information
Commission.
3. In June 2019, about 31,000 appeals were pending, over 9,000 of those pending for
over a year. Currently, four out of the ten positions of information commissioners are
vacant.
4. Since 2014, not a single appointment has been made in the CIC till the courts
intervened.
1. According to an RTI ratings report by the Canada-based Centre for Law and
Democracy, India’s rank slipped from second position in 2011 to eighth in 2018.
2. India remains one of the top-ranked nations but there are several problems with its
access regime, the report said.
3. In its current form, Section 8 of the RTI Act lists ten exemptions, ranging from any
information that include national security, impede the process of ongoing investigations
to cabinet papers and deliberations of the council of ministers.
4. Section 24 of the RTI Act allows the government to increase the list of exemptions by
an executive order.
5. To strengthen the RTI Act, this should be only allowed through the legislature. Since
2005, the list of exempted government organizations has grown from 18 to 26.
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Protect whistle-blowers
2. Around seven activists have committed suicide, more than 350 have either faced
assault or harassment.
3. The central government has not yet enforced the Whistle Blowers Protection Act
enacted by Parliament in 2014, it should be enforced in earliest possible time.
1. While introducing the amendments to the RTI Act, the government had argued that
the office of the information commissioner is a statutory body and not a constitutional
authority like the election commission.
2. Since the information commissioners’ orders can be challenged in a high court or the
Supreme Court, the rank and pay of the chief information commissioner cannot be the
same as that of a chief election commissioner (a position equivalent to a Supreme Court
judge).
3. The RTI is safeguarding a fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution and so
the government should look into the possibility of elevating the information commission
to the status of a constitutional authority.
5. In a slew of judicial pronouncements, the Supreme Court has also interpreted RTI as a
fundamental right.
1. All political parties claim to serve the public but are unanimous in their reluctance to
share information with citizens.
2. In 2013, the CIC had declared six national political parties as public authorities under
the RTI Act and ordered them to make voluntary disclosures and respond to information
requests.
3. The CIC classified political parties as a public authority since they benefit from land
allotted by the government at cheap rates, free airtime with state broadcasters during
elections, and are allowed to claim income tax exemptions.
4. However, all parties refused to comply with the decision, prompting the petitioners in
the case to approach the Supreme Court in 2015, which is still hearing the case.
Source: Live Mint
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1. It is expected to boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive
signal to foreign investors about India's commitment to adhere to international practice
on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR).
2. The Commercial Courts Act, 2015, has been amended and legislative exercise to
further amend the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, is currently underway.
3. These initiatives are being taken with a view to encourage the settlement of
commercial disputes, domestic and international, in India through ADR Mechanism of
Arbitration, Conciliation and Mediation.
4. The provisions of the 'Convention' are in line with the domestic laws and the efforts
made to strengthen Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanisms.
1. The United Nations General Assembly adopted the United Nations Convention on
International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation in December 2018, and it
is open for signatories.
3. The Convention provides a uniform and efficient framework for the enforcement of
international settlement agreements resulting from mediation and for allowing parties to
invoke such agreements.
4. It is similar to the framework that the Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement
of Foreign Arbitral Awards (New York, 1958) (the "New York Convention") provides for
arbitral awards.
5. The Convention defines two additional grounds upon which a court may refuse to
grant relief.
6. Those grounds relate to the dispute that would not be capable of settlement by
mediation or would be contrary to public policy.
Source: PIB
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d. Filing from a place of residence, E-filing of cases and Videoconferencing for hearing.
3. Mediation
b. Reference to Mediation by Consumer Forum wherever scope for early settlement exists
and parties agree for it.
4. Product Liability
b. The Basis for product liability action includes manufacturing/design defects, Deviation
from manufacturing specifications, Not conforming to express warranty etc.
c. Provision for rules for new-age consumer issues as it includes e-commerce & direct
selling.
Source: PIB
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2. The NITI Aayog has laid out a vision for making available anonymised data across
sectors.
3. The Economic Survey 2018-19 dedicated an entire chapter to the topic of data — “of
the people, by the people, for the people” — making a call to harness data as a public
good in the service of the people.
Which are the new idea mooted by Economic Survey 2018-19 on harnessing data?
1. It tells that governments should harness data and digital platforms to enable more
efficient service delivery, product innovation and evidence-based policymaking.
2. But with big data comes big responsibility. As demonstrated by Cambridge Analytica
and numerous other data breaches, poorly designed systems create risks for individuals,
businesses and governments.
1. One big idea the Survey discusses is the creation of a centralised welfare database of
citizens that links different government-held data repositories about citizens.
2. The sharing of information, facilitated by this database, can improve welfare delivery,
empower citizens with information and “democratise” data.
3. Many states have already taken steps in this direction through the creation of massive
databases of information on every resident.
4. There is much to be cautious on the collection and use of data at scale as it can lead
to loss of personal data, both intentional and unintentional.
5. For example, recently, the Andhra Pradesh government websites publicly displayed
the Aadhaar number of women, their reproductive history, whether they had an abortion
and so on.
6. Another website exposed the name and number of every person who purchased
medicines from government-run stores, including those buying pills for erectile
dysfunction.
7. It is believed that Indians doesn’t care much about privacy in general, but studies
found that across India, public overwhelmingly concerned about the security of the data
they share with banks, hospitals and other institutions.
8. The government must design the proposed databases in ways that allow anonymised
personal data to serve its highest purpose, while protecting an individual’s right over
data.
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2. However, the evidence shows that consent is noble in theory but deeply flawed in
practice.
3. A recent survey by the National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP) shows
that English-speaking postgraduate law students struggle to understand the privacy
policies before clicking “I Agree”.
5. Consent must be supplemented with a full range of individual data rights, including the
right to delete one’s data.
6. Any data should be subject to “collection limitation”, which means that a service
provider should only collect minimal personal data that is proportionate to the stated
purpose.
7. The databases should be designed in a manner that a department is not able to see
the data that it does not need, irrespective of whether citizens give their consent or not.
8. For example, the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers does not need to have access to
an individual’s medical records. Access to each additional data field should be carefully
evaluated.
1. Survey also emphasis on data security and encryption which is encouraging one.
2. However, the government should implement bolder technical safeguards. One such
feature is decentralised storage of data — for example in the individual’s personal device
— rather than in a central database.
4. These will prevent the creation of data honeypots that can be attacked by hackers or
breached accidentally.
5. Research shows that changing the default option — asking people if they want to “opt-
in” to (as against “opt-out” of) data sharing requests can make a big difference to how
much data gets shared.
6. Citizens must have a time-bound and easily accessible recourse to any data breaches
or harms.
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7. They must be able to reach out to an adjudicatory body through multiple offline and
online modes. This body must be empowered to penalise both public and private bodies
that use the databases, and redress must be speedy.
1. India has a major opportunity, where data and digital platforms can become an
enabler of a meaningful life for every Indian.
2. This is also the opportunity for India to become a global leader and present a new
approach that other countries can emulate.
3. To achieve this, maximising public good but also safeguarding against harm must be
the mantra for the new digital India.
3. The governments can create data as a public good within the legal framework of data
privacy, but it must not impose the elite’s preference of privacy on the poor, who care for
a better quality of living the most.
Stringent safeguards
1. It recommended granting access to select the database to the private sector for a fee,
and stringent technological mechanisms must exist to safeguard data privacy.
2. There had been discussions around the linking of datasets, primarily through the
seeding of an Aadhaar number across databases such as PAN database, bank accounts
and mobile numbers.
3. The linking is one-way. For example, banks can use the tokenised Aadhaar number to
combine duplicate records and weed out benami accounts, but this does not mean that
the UIDAI or government can read the bank account information or other data related to
the individual.
Other Recommendations
3. The principle is that most data are generated by the people, of the people and should
be used for the people.
4. The data to be used to enable the evidence-based policy, improve targeting in welfare
schemes, uncover unmet needs, integrate fragmented markets, bring greater
accountability in public services and generate greater citizen participation in governance,
etc.
5. The datasets can also include the administrative data such as birth and death records,
pensions, tax records, marriage records; survey data such as census data, national
sample survey data; transactions data such as e-national agriculture market data, UPI
data, institutional data and public hospital data on patients.
b) PIC aims to reduce and in the long term eliminate integrity issues and bottlenecks to
trade during operations in Indian ports.
d) The pilot of the campaign will take place in Mumbai ports i.e. MPT and JNPT.
e) Main activities of the campaign include implementation of integrity training for port
officials and the establishment of clear escalation and reporting processes.
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About MACN
c) MACN and its members work towards the elimination of all forms of maritime
corruption.
Economy
1. At present, minimum wages are fixed on the basis of categories such as skilled,
unskilled, semi-skilled, high skilled, geographical regions, and nature of work such as
mining and are applicable for 45 scheduled employments in the central sphere and 1709
scheduled employments in states.
2. As per the new bill, the minimum wages across the country would be only linked to
factors of skills and geographical regions, while the rest of the factors have been
removed,
3. It is expected to reduce the number of minimum wages across the country to 300
from about 2,500 minimum wage rates at present.
4. It will amalgamate the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Minimum Wages Act, 1948,
the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
5. A National Floor Level Minimum Wage will be set by the Centre to be revised every five
years, while states will fix minimum wages for their regions, which cannot be lower than
the floor wage.
6. The current floor wage, which was fixed in 2017, is at Rs 176 a day, but some states
have minimum wages lower than it such as Andhra Pradesh (Rs 69) and Telangana (Rs
69).
7. The Bill proposes to levy penalty ranging from Rs 10,000 to Rs 1 lakh and
imprisonment for repeat offences.
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1. The Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions is also expected to
be released shortly.
2. The government had proposed codification of labour laws into four codes.
3. The labour and employment ministry had drafted four labour codes: industrial
relations, wages, social security and welfare, and occupational safety, health and working
conditions by amalgamating, simplifying and rationalising the relevant provisions of the
existing central labour laws.
PM – KISAN Yojana
1. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan), a cash transfer programme has
a long way to go in terms of both its implementation and scope of coverage.
2. Even as the cropping season is underway, the scheme’s support has not reached
farmers in most of the country’s regions.
3. It was launched by the Centre as the state response to assuage agrarian unrest.
4. The scheme’s original objective, to supplement the financial needs of the country’s
Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) and to augment farm incomes.
5. It has now been broadened to include all categories of agricultural landowners. This
expansion would benefit an additional 10% of rural landed households.
6. PM-Kisan offers ₹6,000 a year per household in three instalments. But this amounts to
only about a tenth of the production cost per hectare or consumption expenditure for a
poor household.
7. It offers meagre amount, but it promises some relief to poor farmers by partially
supplementing their input costs or consumption needs.
Poor Implementation
1. There are 125 million farming households owning small and marginal holdings of land
in the country, who constitute the scheme’s original intended beneficiaries.
2. At present, the list of beneficiaries includes only 32% (40.27 million) of these
households.
3. Further, a majority of the intended beneficiary households are yet to receive even
their first instalment of ₹2,000 and only 17% of the estimated ₹75,000 crore expenditure
has been spent.
4. Implementation in certain States has been prioritised. U.P., for instance, accounts for
one-third of the total beneficiary. A total of 17 States have received a negligible share of
the first instalment, accounting for less than 9%.
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Structural issues
1. The cash transfer is not linked to the size of the farmer’s land and also landless
tenants have been left from the scheme.
3. The government is also planning to withdraw other schemes and increase amount in
cash transfer scheme.
4. Cash transfers will cease to be effective if the state withdraws from its other long-term
budgetary commitments in agricultural markets and areas of infrastructure such as
irrigation.
5. Subsidies for inputs, extension services, and procurement assurances are also meant
fort the stability of agricultural production.
6. Food security through the National Food Security Act is also closely linked to
government interventions in grain markets. If the budgetary allocations shift decisively in
favour of cash transfers, they will be a cause for great concern.
2. But the Government has chosen to bring down the deficit to 3.3 percent of GDP in
2019-20 (BE), from 3.4 per cent in 2018-19 (RE).
Which are the Centre’s plan to meet its fiscal deficit target?
1. At the aggregate level, the Centre expects its gross tax revenues to grow at 18.3 per
cent in FY20. Achieving this is a challenging task.
2. Direct tax collections are expected to grow at roughly 18.6 percent in FY20, up from
12.3 per cent the year before.
3. Income tax collections are expected to grow by a staggering 23.2 per cent in FY20. In
comparison, they grew by a mere 7.2 per cent the year before.
4. Indirect tax collections have been budgeted to grow around 18 per cent in FY20, up
from roughly 4 per cent the previous year.
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5. The surge in collections is expected from higher taxes on petrol and diesel and higher
customs duties.
6. This budget also relies on dividends from the RBI and other public financial
institutions, disinvestment proceeds and revenues from the telecom sector to shore up
revenues.
1. Over the years, the Centre has begun to rely more on revenue collected through
cesses and surcharges to meet its expenditure obligations.
2. According to the 14th Finance Commission, states should receive 42 per cent of the
divisible tax pool. The revenue collected through this route is not part of the divisible tax
pool and is thus not shared with the states.
3. In this Budget the finance minister has raised the special additional excise duty and
road and infrastructure cess each by one rupee on a litre of petrol and diesel.
4. The amount the Centre hopes to collect through ceases and surcharges are now
greater than its entire allocation to centrally sponsored schemes or its total capital
expenditure.
1. Tax collections grew by a mere 8.4 per cent in FY19 due to sluggish economic activity.
2. The RBI has lowered its GDP growth projection for FY20 to 7 per cent from 7.4 percent
earlier.
3. Collections from central GST have been lowered to Rs 5.26 lakh crore in FY20, from
the interim Budget target of Rs 6.1 lakh crore.
4. Telecom sector is already under stress, and spectrum auctions may not result in
expected revenue.
5. Failure to meet these stiff targets will not only risk the task of meeting the fiscal deficit
target for this year but also cast doubts on the medium-term fiscal roadmap that
envisages bringing down the deficit to 3 per cent in 2020-21.
1. In the recent past, there has been concern over the rise in borrowings of the public
sector (Centre, states and public sector enterprises) as this left little space for the private
sector to borrow.
2. The current Budget reveals that borrowings by central PSUs are expected to decline
from Rs 4.1 lakh crore in FY19 to 3.1 lakh crore in FY20. Much of this decline is due to
fall in FCI’s borrowings.
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3. The Centre’s gross market borrowings are pegged at Rs 7.1 lakh crore in FY20, up
from Rs 5.71 lakh crore last year. But part of the borrowings will be met by raising funds
from abroad.
4. This will bring down the level of public sector borrowings in the domestic market,
creating space for the private sector.
5. The combined borrowing of the Centre and PSUs have risen as a percentage of GDP,
but they are expected to decline to 4.9 per cent of GDP in FY20 from 5.2 per cent in
FY19.
b) Utkarsh 2022 is medium-term strategy which is in line with the global central banks’
plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
c) An internal committee was formed to identify issues that needed to be addressed over
the next three years.
a) Idea behind the project is that Reserve Bank of India plays a proactive role and takes
pre-emptive action to avoid any crisis.
b) It also wants to avoid events such as IL&FS debt default issue which can erode the
confidence of consumers.
3. The immediate priority is to better target central aid for the poor through existing
programmes.
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1. Government seeks to shift agricultural demand to solar energy. It helps the farmers
with day-time supply, reduces seasonal peak for discoms, and reduces subsidy burden on
the discoms and states.
2. The ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan’ (KUSUM), a central scheme
which seeks to harness 25.75 GW solar capacity for agricultural use.
3. KUSUM offers 30 per cent of benchmark cost as central aid and requires the states to
match with 30 per cent subsidy which also includes solar pumps.
4. The farmers can finance another 30 per cent of the cost, which will be paid through
monthly instalments, and they have to make a one-time payment for the remaining 10
per cent.
1. Despite sustained central aid for solar pumps, only about two lakh units are deployed.
Slow uptake is caused by farmers’ inability to pay their share, states’ reluctance to
contribute their share and delay in subsidy payment inflating the costs.
2. Given the state of agrarian distress, farmers who have already invested in pumps have
neither the incentive nor the ability to pay their share. The monthly instalments are an
additional burden.
3. Phase II of the Grid-Connected Rooftop Solar Programme enhanced the central aid to
40 per cent of benchmark cost.
4. But prioritising 1-3 KW systems misses out the poorest. Around half of Indian
households consume below 50 kWh per month and have a load below 0.5 KW, which can
be met through 1 KW solar systems.
1. For KUSUM scheme the way forward must build on a partnership of the beneficiaries,
including the Centre, the states, discoms and farmer communities.
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4. The Centre must put the focus on scaling this scheme, with state-specific approaches
and targets. Central aid for micro-irrigation may be clubbed with solar pump schemes for
better water-energy efficiency.
5. The Centre must redesign the Phase II of the Grid-Connected Rooftop Solar
Programme, targeting consumers below 1KW consumption.
6. This group has the highest subsidy demand (per kWh), which is partly borne by the
states. But they have little incentive or capability to pay the capital costs.
7. By prioritising systems up to 1 KW the scheme can reach more beneficiaries with the
allocated amount. The Centre should offer a higher aid for these systems and require the
states and discoms to share the remaining costs.
8. The consumers’ contribution will include the space and unskilled maintenance, but no
upfront costs. Both states and discoms gain from reduced recurring subsidy demand,
discoms recover their investment through a regular tariff.
1. The evolving demand scenario will be as critical as supply sources to India’s electricity
future. Electricity demand in the residential sector will be largely driven by cooling needs,
mainly due to increasing temperatures.
2. For instance - Fan as a basic cooling option has mass usage, including low-income
homes and it accounts for about one-fifth of residential electricity consumption.
3. Commercially available efficient fans consume 30 per cent less electricity. Only 10 per
cent of ceiling fans sold are energy-efficient rated and only half of them are five-star
rated.
4. The Centre should extend financial aid to expand and expedite the National Energy
Efficient Fan Programme, with some cost-sharing for low-income households.
5. It will reduce subsidised consumption and thus help the discoms reduce their subsidy
burden while helping the poor to access basic cooling facilities.
6. With the rising incidence of heatwaves, making efficient fans affordable for the poor
has welfare benefits and contributes to the sustainability agenda.
b) This follows the Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI) agreement signed between
the two countries and which came into force January 2018.
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About AEOI
a) It enables the discovery of formerly undetected tax evasion and reduces the possibility
for tax evasion.
b) It provides for the exchange of non-resident financial account information with the tax
authorities in the account holders’ country of residence.
About e-NAM
a) It is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. The market
facilitate farmers, traders and buyers with online trading in commodities.
b) It aims to bring reforms in the Agri- marketing sector and promote online marketing
of Agri commodities across the country and to provide maximum benefit to the farmers.
c) This market is helping in better price discovery and provide facilities for smooth
marketing of their produce.
c) There are 29 earmarked elephant corridors with the operating zone of NFR spread
across the north-eastern states and parts of Bihar and West Bengal.
d) This system generates the amplified sound of honeybees audible from 700-800
meters.
e) First instrument was installed at a level crossing west of Guwahati a track adjoining
the Rani Reserve Forest, an elephant habitat.
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b) It reports that just 10% of workers receive nearly half of global pay.
c) This assessment gives the first global estimates of the distribution of labour income.
d) It contains data from 189 countries and is drawn from the world’s largest collection of
harmonized labour force survey data.
Situation in India
a) Top 10% earners in India made over 69% of the country’s labour income in 2017. It is
in contrast to 0.25% made by the bottom 10% earners.
c) While the pay inequality has remained consistent in India, it has reduced at the global
workplace in the last 13 years.
b) Under the framework, a Resolvency Plan has to be agreed to by 75% of the lenders by
value of debt and 60% by number of lenders.
c) With the ICA, the Reliance company has achieved a 180-day standstill period.
d) Purpose of the standstill period is to give the senior creditor an exclusive period of
time during which it may assess its rights.
e) ICA is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size of ₹50 crore and above that
are under the control of a group of lenders.
f) It is part of the ‘Project Sashakt’ approved by the government to address the problem
of resolving bad loans.
National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation has released ‘Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)’.
Some findings of the survey are a cause for concern. Two biggest issues are,
i) Labour force participation rate in the earlier survey of 2012 was 55.5%. This has
shrunk to 49.7% in 2018.
ii) LFPR is the percentage of people working or seeking work in the above-15 years age
category.
b) Rising unemployment.
i) There is an absolute decline in the number of workers from 467.7 million in 2012 to
461.5 million in 2018.
ii) Figure for the overall unemployment rate at 6.1% is 2.77 times the same figure for
2012.
a) The rise in overall unemployment has both locational and gender dimensions.
b) Highest unemployment rate of a severe nature was among the urban women at
10.8%, followed by urban men at 7.1%, rural men at 5.8%, and rural women at 3.8%.
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d) Women are the worst sufferers. Women’s labour force participation rate has been
sharply declining.
a) The survey suggest that due to women are losing out because
b) India have become the countries with the lowest participation of women in the labour
force.
c) Women’s labour force participation have declined from 31% to 24% in these five
years.
d) Youth Unemployment Rate, unemployment among those in the 15-29 years age
category, has reached a high 17.8%.
e) Even here, the women stand more disadvantaged than men, especially urban women.
a) The survey findings suggest that the unemployment rates go up as levels of education
go up.
b) Unemployment Rate is 5.7% among those with secondary school education but
increases to 10.3% among those with higher secondary-level education.
c) Highest rate is among the diploma and certificate holders (19.8%); followed by
graduates (17.2); and postgraduates (14.6%).
d) Educated persons have aspirations for specific jobs and hence they are likely to go
through a long waiting period than their less-educated counterparts.
Where to focus?
b) Earlier it was limited to the organised sector, however, it has now spread to other
sectors of the economy.
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c) This calls for a thorough re-examination of the missing linkages between growth and
employment.
1. WhatsApp Pay relies on the Indian government’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
system to facilitate inter-bank transactions.
2. There are huge hidden costs of this current deal and broader issues on big tech’s
(Google, Amazon and Facebook) entry into financial services, especially payments.
1. India’s digital vision emphasizes on data sovereignty and promotion of local payment
enterprises.
2. With 800 million mobile users in the country and 430 million having Internet access,
digital payments are estimated to grow to over $1 trillion by 2025.
3. India should leverage this immense opportunity with the right policy incentives to
enable local firms to capture large shares of the digital payments market to become e-
commerce players on a global scale.
1. Monopolistic chances
a. Granting companies like WhatsApp, Google, and Amazon a greater role in the digital
payments market will provide large advantage over all other firms, as it has large social
media and messaging base.
b. This creates a monopolistic situation which is against the free market principle.
c. Thus severely limiting the capacity of local firms to benefit from the potential of India’s
own digital payments market.
2. Privacy
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c. This kind of data pooling is not allowed in countries like the US, as financial privacy
laws protect against such an outcome.
1. A clear roadmap on how digital technologies will transform different sectors, especially
finance and payments, to promote competition, enabling local firms, protecting consumer
welfare and data sovereignty is required.
2. Clear guidelines that enable the development of a digital payments market, beyond
requirements for just storing and processing payments.
4. Enforcement of Data Rights of the people such as the right to know, erase, consent,
etc.
5. Support to local firms to create new jobs, new prospects, and digital dividends.
1. Establishment of Fund of funds for startups (FFS) with 10,000 crore corpus.
3. It plans to improve skilling in artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT) and
virtual reality (VR).
4. India needs to do more to keep pace with the changing economic demands of the
startup sector.
Taxation
1. Startups in the social impact space address more complex issues which can have a
large social impact.
Ecosystem
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a. Exemption of Taxation for accredited Investors subject to complying with certain net
worth criteria which will increase investment flow in startups.
b. Corporate social responsibility (CSR) for incubators is needed for innovation ecosystem
building which can be used to increase innovation education, training and hackathons, to
raise the innovation quotient of the society.
d. Monitoring of incubators
3. Government must help spur the demand for startup products from corporations by
allowing corporations to use their CSR budgets to fund their innovation projects.
5. A lower tax rate for revenue generated from corporate innovation programs.
6. The government should also implement effective procurement policies for purchasing
through startups in lines of MSME model.
Source: Livemint
Overseas Borrowing
The government plans to raise a part of its gross borrowing in external markets.
1. A government bond is a debt instrument that the government undertakes with the
promise to pay periodic interest payments and repay the entire face value of the bond on
the maturity date.
2. So far, the government has only issued bonds in the domestic market.
1. The government borrowing is at such a level that there are not enough funds available
for the private sector to adequately meet its credit and investment needs.
2. If the private sector cannot borrow adequately, then it cannot invest and that affects
the economic growth.
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3. Therefore, borrowing overseas allows the government to raise funds in such a way
that there is enough domestic credit available for the private sector.
1. When national currencies depreciate sharply, it makes it more expensive for India to
repay its external debt.
2. This would also lead to a quicker increase to its foreign exchange reserves, which
would lead to a stronger rupee against the dollar.
KUSUM Scheme
1. Recently, the Cabinet approved the Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan
(KUSUM).
2. Centre allocated Budget of Rs. 34,000 crores, and a similar contribution expected from
the States.
What is KUSUM?
KUSUM proposes a 60% subsidy for the solar pumps, borne equally by the Centre and
the States, and the remaining 40% by the farmer’s contribution — 10% as down
payment and 30% through loans.
3. KUSUM could radically transform the irrigation economy if the government chooses an
approach of equity and prudence by design.
Disparity in implementation
1. Chhattisgarh which has low irrigation demand and Rajasthan with low groundwater,
together account for about half of the two lakh solar pumps currently deployed in the
country.
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2. States such as Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal, where penetration of diesel
pumps is among the highest, have not managed to deploy any significant number of
solar pumps.
3. It also increases the inter-farmer disparity given the inequity in access to credit and
repayment capacity between small and large farmers.
1. The disparity among states highlights poor State budget allocation towards solar
pumps and the lack of initiative by State nodal agencies.
1. The scheme also proposed solarising the existing grid-connected pumps and procuring
of surplus electricity from the farmers by the DISCOMs.
2. Existing grid-connected farmers, who have received power subsidies for decades,
would receive the same financial support as that received by an off-grid farmer and earn
a regular income from the DISCOMs.
3. This would require the entire agriculture electricity line (feeder) to be energized
including for those not having solarised pumps. This would aggravate DISCOMs’ losses
on such feeders.
4. Instead, the scheme should only provide Central government subsidy of up to 30% for
solarisation for existing grid-connected farmers and use the proposed State support to
incentivise DISCOMs to procure energy from the farmers.
6. The feeding surplus energy to the grid could also be used to power post-harvesting
processes, which complement the seasonal irrigation load and can enhance farm incomes
through local value addition.
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Agri reforms
A panel of Chief Ministers discussed ways to bring State Governments on board to usher
reforms in the agriculture sector.
1. Agriculture is a State subject and all the States must be brought on board for
simultaneous and time-bound reforms across States and bring effective transformation
countrywide.
2. Farm sector growth had lagged behind other sectors as it had not been part of the
economic reforms of 1991.
3. Almost three decades later, the Chief Ministers are attempting to build consensus
around structural changes in the agriculture sector.
1. Central government grants and the Finance Commission allocations should be linked
with the agriculture reforms implemented by States.
2. The scrapping of the Essential Commodities Act for the food sector and a review of
agricultural subsidies.
3. Ensuring fair prices and ending manipulative monopolies in the local agriculture
produce mandis and removing obstacles to the implementation of the digital e-NAM
system in all States.
4. Approaches to spur growth in the food processing sector, which must grow at a faster
pace than the overall agriculture sector in order to increase farmers’ income.
5. The need for better coordination between the Agriculture and Commerce Ministries to
ensure a dynamic pricing policy based on global market trends for major agricultural
commodities.
6. Ensure better targeting of subsidy schemes in order to maximize benefits for farmers.
7. Ways to reduce credit costs along with improving linkages with financial institutions
and increasing private investment in the sector.
8. The need for States to adopt the Centre’s Model Contract Farming Act.
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2. Proponents argue that income transfers efficiently allow the poor to spend on their
welfare, but critics point to the high cost of implementation and the challenges of
identifying the poor.
1. India Policy Forum proposed an alternative solution that addresses both these
challenges: An inclusive growth dividend (IGD).
2. Every month, the IGD would transfer the equivalent of 1% of India’s gross domestic
product (GDP) per capita, around ₹500, to every household in India (roughly₹110 per
citizen).
3. While this amount would have a negligible effect on the rich, it can significantly boost
consumption among the rural poor.
1. IGD can generate a 10% boost in consumption for the bottom 30% of India’s rural
population. The monthly transfers to bank accounts can also increase financial inclusion
and build a pool of savings for the poor.
2. Since it includes all citizens in the IGD, the government can also save costs on
targeting.
3. The total cost of the IGD would be around 1% of India’s GDP, this is double the cost of
the ongoing PM-KISAN scheme, which transfers ₹6,000 annually to small landholding
farmer families.
4. It is significantly lower than other proposed income transfers schemes (such as the
NYAY, which would’ve cost 2.5% of GDP).
5. Unlike other proposed income transfer schemes, the IGD can be implemented without
disrupting existing anti-poverty programmes.
MGNREGA
What is the issue?
1. The economy has been slowing over the last three years. Indicators such as sales of
consumer durables and automobiles show that it is largely a result of declining demand,
particularly in rural areas.
2. The recent Union budget was expected to address some of these concerns. But no
effort is made to increase spending in rural areas, except the electoral promise of cash
transfer to farmers.
3. For most of the rural programmes, the budget expenditure was kept constant or
lowered.
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4. Budget allocation for all-India scheme, including Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) has fallen and is insufficient, given the wage-
payment arrears.
1. The government kept the budget allocation low, created administrative bottlenecks
and altered the basic character of the scheme that stifled the programme.
3. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) has been tracking wages received by
casual workers employed under MGNREGA and private markets since 2007-08.
4. The Survey shows the MGNREGA wages were declining compared to market wages,
since 2007-08.
6. Due to the increase in market wages, the male worker had low demand to MGNRGA,
but women continue to work under the scheme, because of non-availability of work,
discrimination and exclusion from the private labour market.
7. MGNREGA wages are less than half of the national minimum wage of ₹375 per day (as
of July 2018). The recent Economic Survey also in favour of keeping minimum wages at
a high level to reduce poverty and inequality.
8. The government is pushing for a minimum wage code and the largest government-run
programme has been violating state minimum wages for almost a decade.
9. MGNREGA could have been the lifeline to revive the rural economy, which is in
distress.
10. The political competition and flawed policies of the government have led to the failure
of the scheme, despite its better performance in rural development.
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Bank Nationalisation
1. 50 years back, the Indian government nationalized banks, an important economic
decision, for political reasons rather than economic logic.
2. The objective was to force banks, many of which were controlled by business groups,
to lend to the farm and other sectors, to small firms, offer services in the hinterland and
expand credit, especially in rural areas.
c. Support for industry and the government to finance its plan investments
1. Many metrics show that Indian banks are in a growth path. But the loan disbursed in
the 1980s, to support government programmes, dealt the first deep blow, which took the
state-owned banks years to recover.
2. Later, infrastructure financing affected PSUs. It was an area with little expertise, banks
faced the asset-liability mismatch risk.
3. The budget recapitalized the banks to clear their balance sheets and bolster lending
without generating enough returns. The government is also slow on governance reforms
in the banks.
Way Forward
1. More political indulging on the separation of ownership from the management of banks
will impose huge fiscal costs which will have to be borne by taxpayers.
2. It will also drain resources which should ideally be for the delivery of public goods.
3. The government must disinvest many of its banks progressively, with a possible
shareholding of 26 per cent or 33 per cent.
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Important stats
a) The report has cut India’s growth forecast for 2019-20 to 7% from its forecast in April
of 7.3% on poor demand conditions.
b) This edition also cut India’s growth forecast in 2020-21 to 7.2% from the previous
estimate of 7.5%.
c) IMF has also cut its forecast for world GDP growth by 0.1 percentage point each in
2019 and 2020 to 3.2% and 3.5%.
a) It is a survey by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) staff usually published twice a
year.
b) It presents IMF staff economists' analyses of global economic developments during the
near and medium-term.
a) This organization aims to ensure the stability of the international monetary system i.e.
the system of exchange rates and international payments that enables countries to
transact with each other.
b) It works towards,
c) IMF is governed by and accountable to the 189 countries that make up its near-global
membership.
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Sovereign Bonds
What is the recent controversy with ‘Sovereign bonds’?
Sovereign bond
b) A bond could be thought of as an I.O.U. (I Owe You) between the lender and borrower
that includes the details of the loan and its payments.
Controversy
a) In the recent Budget speech, the Finance Minister announced that the Government
would start raising a part of its gross borrowing programme in external markets in
external currencies.
b) According to most reports, this type of borrowing is likely to start by October with the
initial amount of $10 billion.
c) The current controversy relates to India’s sovereign bonds that will be floated in
foreign countries and will be denominated in foreign currencies.
d) It means both the initial loan amount and the final payment will be in either US dollars
or some other comparable currency.
e) It can possibly create unstable conditions in India’s foreign exchange depends on the
exchange rate risk.
g) If the loan is in terms of dollars, and the rupee weakens against the dollar during the
bond’s tenure, the government would have to return more rupees to pay back the same
amount of dollars.
h) If, however, the initial loan is denominated in rupee terms, then the negative fallout
would be on the foreign investor.
a) Generally, the more financially strong a country, the more well respected is its
sovereign bond.
b) Some of the best-known sovereign bonds are the Treasuries (of the United States),
the Gilts (of Britain), OATS (of France), the Bunds (of Germany) and the JGBs (of Japan).
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b) Domestic borrowing is also preventing the interest rates from falling even when
inflation is constant and the RBI is cutting policy rates.
c) If the government borrows from outside, there will be investable money left for private
companies to borrow. So, interest rates can start coming down.
d) India’s sovereign external debt to GDP (approximately 5%) is among the lowest
globally. So, there is scope for the Indian government to raise funds this way.
e) Sovereign bond issue will provide a yield curve for Indian corporates who wish to raise
loans in foreign markets.
f) Currently, timing is also great. Especially in the advanced economies where the
government is likely to go to borrow, the interest rates are low.
a) There is an element of risk, e.g. exchange rate risk, that comes into the picture when
a government borrows in foreign markets and in foreign currency.
b) Studies have shown that volatility in India’s exchange rate is far more than the
volatility in the yields of India’s G-secs.
c) This means that although the government would be borrowing at cheaper rates than
domestically, the final rates might make the deal costlier.
d) There is possibility of excess money supply that can create inflation and push up the
interest rates. Thus it can disincentivize private investments.
Key Findings
b) The report identifies regional leaders India (in the Central and Southern Asia), South
Africa, Chile, Israel, and Singapore, with China, Viet Nam, and Rwanda topping their
income groups.
c) India climbed five notches on the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2019 to the 52nd
position among 129 countries from 57th last year.
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d) The report shows that public R&D expenditures, particularly in some high-income
economies, are growing slowly or not at all.
e) Most top science and technology clusters are in the U.S., China, and Germany, while
Brazil, India, Iran, the Russian Federation, and Turkey also feature in the top 100 list.
b) The GII 2019 theme is ‘Creating Healthy Lives – The Future of Medical Innovation.’
1. Virtual currency is a digital representation of value that can be digitally traded and
functions as
a. A medium of exchange,
b. A unit of account,
c. A store of value.
2. Unlike fiat currency like the rupee, it is not legal tender and does not have the backing
of a government.
1. DLT refers to technologies that involve the use of independent computers (also
referred to as nodes) to record, share, and synchronise transactions in their respective
electronic ledgers.
2. Keeping such distributed ledgers requires the need for keeping the data centralized, as
is done in a traditional ledger. All virtual currencies use DLT.
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3. A transaction under DLT refers to the transfer of “value” from one to another. This
“value” could be any record of ownership of assets — money, security, land titles — or
the record of specific information such as information about one’s identity or health
information, etc. So DLT has applications in several fields.
5. Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin use codes to encrypt transactions and stack them up
in blocks, creating Blockchains. It is the use of codes that differentiates cryptocurrencies
from other virtual currencies.
1. The IMC accepts that internationally, the application of DLT is being explored in the
areas of trade finance, mortgage loan applications, digital identity management or KYC
requirements, cross-border fund transfers and clearing and settlement systems.
3. The IMC also recommends that regulators — RBI, SEBI, IRDA, PFRDA, and IBBI —
explore evolving appropriate regulations for development of DLT in their respective
areas.
4. However, the IMC has recommended a ban on private cryptocurrencies, but it is open
to a cryptocurrency that the RBI may unveil.
5. It noted that the RBI Act has the enabling provisions to permit the central government
to approve a “Central Bank Digital Currency” (CBDC) as legal tender in India.
1. Non-official currencies
b. The IMC gives the example of the Rs 2,000 crore scam involving Gain Bitcoin in India
where investors were duped by a Ponzi scheme.
d. In a country where lakhs of traders get involved in such currencies, this could have
huge implications.
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2. Environmental Concerns
a. Scaling up such a currency system over a large population would require high levels of
energy resources. Currencies such as Bitcoin require humongous processing power.
3. Financial Instability
a. If private cryptocurrencies are allowed to function as legal tender, the RBI would lose
control over the monetary policy.
b. This would result in financial instability, as it would not be able to keep a tab on the
money supply in the economy.
a. The anonymity of private digital currencies make them vulnerable to money laundering
and use in terrorist financing activities while making law enforcement difficult.
b) The committee was chaired by Subhash Garg. The committee was formed in 2017.
Recommendations
b) The committee has proposed a draft bill ‘Banning of Cryptocurrency & Regulation of
Official Digital Currency Bill, 2019’.
c) However, the committee has taken a lenient view on the government launching an
official digital currency with the assistance by the Reserve Bank of India.
d) Fine has been set at either three times the loss or harm caused by a person, or three
times the gain made by the person, whichever is higher.
e) It recommends the RBI to examine the utility of using ‘Distributed Ledger Technology
(DLT)’ based systems for enabling faster and more secure payment.
a) The committee highlights the fact that cryptocurrencies do not have any intrinsic value
of their own and lack any of the attributes of a currency.
b) It means cryptocurrencies neither act as a store of value nor are they a medium of
exchange in themselves.
c) So the committee states that the private cryptocurrencies should not be allowed.
Benefits of DLT
a) The committee has asked to explore the benefits of the ‘Distributed Ledger Technology
(DLT)’ and blockchain.
b) DLT-based systems can be used by banks and other financial firms for loan tracking,
collateral management, fraud detection, claims management in insurance, etc.
c) DLT can be beneficial for removing errors and frauds in the land markets if the
technology is implemented for maintaining land records.
Budget’s dilemma
Economic Activity has been losing momentum for the last three quarters.
Why is it happening?
Issue of NBFCs
1. The Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are facing liquidity crunch and
providing special liquidity window from the government could turn into a moral hazard.
2. Instead, the government must focus on the root problem of asymmetric information
about asset quality, which has resulted in trust deficit, due to which NBFCs are facing a
liquidity crunch.
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Agrarian Distress
1. Due to continuously declining terms of trade, it has reduced rural purchasing power
and consumption.
2. Poor monsoon start could further raise rural anxiety and induce precautionary savings.
Global environment
1. Trade war between US and China, which requires a sustainable deal than a temporary
agreement.
3. The declined demand is observed around the world, and in India also core inflation
slowing to 2.5 percent in 2019 from almost 6 percent in 2018.
Counter-cyclical Policy
Monetary Policy
1. The counter-cyclical policy would suggest policy must ease to increase demand, and
monetary policy has started with 75 bps of rate cuts.
2. Markets are expecting more easing, but in the current environment, the monetary
policy is not effective.
3. Banks are reluctant to cut deposit and lending rates because of high-interest rates
provided by the government on small saving schemes and other issues such as NBFC
crises.
Fiscal Policy
1. As per Counter Cyclical policy when the monetary policy is ineffective, fiscal policy
must step in by increasing government spending.
3. The increasing fiscal deficit would be financed by banks and household savings.
1. Last year, the government achieved about 0.5 per cent of GDP in asset sales.
2. Sticking to deficit target of 3.4 percent of GDP, targeted asset sales of 1 percent of
GDP should be pursued, both through a combination of strategic disinvestment and re-
cycling existing infrastructure assets.
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3. This would ensure that even as the deficit is the same as last year, fiscal policy
effective becomes expansionary.
4. This is because revenues raised through asset sales are not contractionary likes taxes
and duties. Instead, they are an exchange of assets between the public and private
sector.
5. However, it’s important that these asset sales are used for higher public investment,
but not to finance current expenditure or make up for shortfalls in tax revenues.
6. Aggressive asset sales will allow a growth stimulus without widening the deficit and
allow better transmission of monetary policy to further help growth. Both fiscal and
monetary policy will be working in tandem.
2. This year proposals and suggestions received from the stakeholders of agriculture and
rural development group covered a wide range of issues including:
a. Need to incentivize ‘Solar’ as a crop that farmers can grow. Provide capital subsidy as
DBT to farmers for ‘solar rooftop’ panels which can generate incomes for farmers by
linking to grids.
b. ‘Rural start ups’- Gram start-ups can be set up with mentorship given by companies,
for which initial support for pilot projects can be provided by the State.
d. Triple the quantum of investment for micro-irrigation and solar pumps. Solar pumps
can be given to scale up irrigation in deprived regions.
Source: PIB
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3. Meager allocation of funds for human resources at both the national and state levels
has cost the nation.
4. Development of human resources must become the foremost priority of Budget 2019
and the defining goal of the next decade.
1. The food-processing units are struggling which are unable to utilise their capacities
and service their loans.
2. Despite multiple subsidy packages, the potential for food processing remains
unfulfilled.
3. The focus should have been to generate demand, but India is investing in creating
supply by incentivizing more food processing units through a food park scheme with a
subsidy of Rs 50 crore per park.
4. Of the 42 food parks approved, most of the 17 which were actually commissioned are
struggling or shut. The rest is yet to start, and many may have walked off with a
substantial subsidy component.
5. The few success stories in food processing like dairy, potatoes, tomatoes, gherkins are
predominantly of the farmers who are directly linked to processors offering a higher
price, which creates a virtuous cycle of prosperity.
6. This is because processors desiring specifics in quality, traceability and volumes invest
in developing the cultivation and post-harvest handling capabilities of farmers.
7. But industry lacks linkages with research institutions for processable crop varieties and
their availability in sufficient quantities.
9. Agriculture research has been the most neglected segment, which has resulted in 52
per cent and 45 per cent vacancies in sanctioned posts in national and state agriculture
research institutions respectively.
10. There is a vast shortage of veterinary doctors for animal healthcare and farm
extension for animal husbandry is almost missing. This leads to the unnecessary use of
chemicals, steroids and antibiotics in our food value chain.
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Financial mismanagement
1. One section of the government is taxing the agriculture sector through GST, while
another is subsidizing it.
2. The center is funding to improve the efficiency of paddy sowing, while the state
government targets crop diversification away from paddy.
4. Due to such conflicting issues, the goal of diversification from non-perishable crops
and a secure MSP to a market-linked system of growing fruits and vegetables, dairy,
poultry, etc is left on farmers risk.
1. Until the share of the women farmers increases, where they do more paid work and
less unpaid work, we cannot replicate the success of the Asian economies.
2. Less than 5 percent of landholdings is women-owned revealing the fact that, although
the women farmers are increasing in India the majority of them are engaged in unpaid
work.
Way Forward
2. The first estimate will be made in 2019 and subsequently every year until 2022.
3. BRI is in line with the recommendation of the National Digital Communication Policy
(NDCP) 2018.
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1. The index will appraise the condition of the underlying digital infrastructure and
related factors at the State/UT level.
2. It will provide useful insights into strategic choices made by the States for investment
allocations in ICT programmes.
3. In the spirit of competitive federalism, the index will encourage states to cross learn
and jointly participate in achieving the overall objective of digital inclusion and
development in India.
4. It will also allow for a better understanding of a state’s strengths and weaknesses that
can feed into evidence-based policymaking.
Source: PIB
Environment
a) The bill aims to enhance the coverage of the safety, health and working conditions
provisions manifold as compared to the present scenario.
b) The bill aims to merge 13 labour laws into one code on occupational safety, health and
working conditions that would apply to all establishments with 10 or more workers.
c) The bill will be applicable to all trades, including IT establishments and service sector.
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d) The code makes it mandatory for employers to provide free annual medical check-ups
and issue appointment letters to all employees.
e) The multiple committees under five labour Acts would be replaced by the National
Occupational Safety and Health Advisory Board.
f) The code framed rules for women workers working night shifts.
Acts to be amalgamated
g) Working Journalist and other Newspaper Employees (Conditions of Service and Misc.
Provision) Act, 1955
Benefits
a) It will provide Safety, Health, welfare and improved Working Conditions which are
prerequisite for well-being of the worker and for economic growth of the country.
b) Workforce of the country would be more healthy and productive. There will be less
occurrence of accidents.
Source: PIB
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Water Conservation
What are facts about water availability and use in India?
a) India has only 4% of the global freshwater resources. However, it has to quench the
thirst of about 18% of the world population.
b) As per the Central Water Commission, Water use for Irrigation purposes is likely to be
reduced to 68% by 2050 from 78% in 2010.
c) For domestic use, it was just 6% in 2010 but it is likely to go up to 9.5% by 2050.
a) Various reports suggest that agriculture will remain the biggest user of water to
produce enough food, feed, and fiber for the foreseeable future.
b) Major source of the irrigation is groundwater (63%), canals accounting for (24%),
tanks (2%) and all other sources accounting for about (11%).
c) It shows that real burden of irrigating Indian agriculture lies with groundwater driven
by private investments from farmers.
d) Policy of cheap or free power supply for irrigation has led to a situation of near
anarchy in the use of groundwater.
a) Two water-guzzling crops, Paddy and sugarcane, take away almost 60% of India’s
irrigation water.
b) One kilogram of rice produced in Punjab requires almost 5,000 liters of water.
c) One kg of sugar, say in Maharashtra, requires about 2,300 liters of water for irrigation.
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a) Monetary rewards should be given to farmers for saving water and power for
irrigation.
b) There can be an income support for crops that require less water. E.g. for maize or
soybean in Punjab during the Kharif season.
c) This would provide savings on the power subsidy as well as precious groundwater.
e) With new Co 0238 varieties that give recovery rates of more than 10.5%, there is a
good case that sugarcane can be developed for ethanol.
g) Policies should be put on the right track to reap the benefits of technological solutions
like drip irrigation, sprinklers, etc.
h) Israel has perhaps the best water technologies and management systems, ranging
from drips to desalinization to recycling of urban wastewater for agriculture. India can
adopt such systems.
c) India has a Locust Control and Research scheme that is being implemented through
the Locust Warning Organisation (LWO).
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About Locust
a) Locusts are certain species of short-horned grasshoppers in the family Acrididae that
have a swarming phase.
b) These insects are usually solitary. However, under certain circumstances, they become
more abundant and change their behavior and habits.
a) As per the Ministry of Earth Sciences, four ports, Diamond Harbour, Kandla, Haldia
and Port Blair, in India recorded a higher sea-level rise than the global average
b) The data says that Diamond Harbour in West Bengal located at the mouth of the river
Hooghly has recorded the maximum sea level increase.
c) Mean sea level rise for Diamond Harbour was based on recordings over the period
from 1948 to 2005.
d) Chennai and Mumbai recorded a sea level rise far below the global and the national
averages.
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b) As per the fifth assessment report of the International Panel on Climate Change, the
global sea level was rising at an average rate of 1.8 mm per year over the last century.
c) Rising sea levels can worsen the impacts of coastal hazards such as storm surge,
tsunami, coastal floods, high waves and coastal erosion in the low-lying coastal areas.
d) Global Warming leads to internal expansion of water in oceans and thus a rise in the
sea level.
a) As there are just 130 great Indian bustards left in the country, Government has
initiated a project to protect the Great Indian Bustard.
b) Funds are being provided to states and Union Territories for conservation and
protection of 21 critically endangered species. The list also includes the Great Indian
Bustard.
c) Funds are provided under the centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Integrated Development of
Wildlife Habitats (CSS-IDWH)’ under the component ‘Species Recovery Programme’.
d) Along with it, Project titled ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding of Great
Indian Bustard-An Integrated Approach’ has been launched for five years.
e) Funds for the project are being provided through ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) for conservation.
g) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra are the important range states involved in this
programme.
h) Currently, there are two centres for breeding and hatching- one in Jaisalmer and the
other in Kota, both in Rajasthan.
About GIB
d) The population of the species is declining because of activities such as Mining &
quarrying, agriculture, invasive species, anthropogenic threats etc.
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d) Financial assistance is also provided to States for the relocation of communities from
within protected areas to other areas.
Mediterranean sharks
Recently published report of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) states that Sharks are at risk
of disappearing from the Mediterranean sea region.
a) The report is titled as the ‘Sharks in Crisis: A call to action for the Mediterranean’.
b) The report comes on the occasion of Shark Awareness Day observed annually on July
14.
c) As per the report, Overfishing and plastic pollution pose threat to their populations.
d) The report states that more than half of shark and ray species in the Mediterranean
were under threat and that almost a third of them have been fished to the brink of
extinction.
e) Tunisia has become the second largest fishing country for sharks in the Mediterranean
after Libya.
f) The IUCN Red List of endangered species counts 79 endangered shark and 120
endangered ray species. Rays are the largest group of cartilaginous fish.
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a) It aims to conserve nature and reduce the most pressing threats to the diversity of life
on Earth.
c) Morges Manifesto (1961) highlighted the need of financial support to continue the
work. So accordingly the WWF was established as an international fundraising
organization.
d) Focused Areas
i) Food
ii) Climate
iv) Wildlife
v) Forest
vi) Ocean
a) It states that India is home to 1,256 species of orchid. Out of which, species endemic
to India at 388.
1) Epiphytic-
i) These are plants growing on other plants including those growing on rock boulders and
often termed lithophyte.
ii) The report states that about 60% of all orchids found in the country i.e. 757 species
are epiphytic.
iii) These are abundant up to 1800 m above the sea level and their occurrence decreases
with the increase in altitude.
2) Terrestrial-
iii) These are found in large numbers in temperate and alpine region.
3) Mycoheterotrophy-
i) These are plants which derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi that are attached to the
roots of a vascular plant.
iii) These are mostly associated with ectomycorrhizal fungi, are found in temperate
regions, or are found growing with parasites in tropical regions.
c) A State-wise distribution of orchid species point out that the Himalayas, North-East
parts of the country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots of the beautiful plant species.
e) One-third endemic species are found in Western Ghats. Kerala and Karnataka is
dominant state.
a) It is the apex taxonomic research organization of India, which is under the Ministry of
Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
c) The organization’s mandate is to explore, collect, identify and document the rich plant
resources of India.
d) It is headquartered in Kolkata.
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Why to participate?
To achieve the internationally recognized highest standard for the purpose of,
a. Beach management
There are nearly 33 criteria, voluntary and some compulsory that must be met to qualify
for a Blue Flag certification. These include.
c. Being disabled-friendly
a. India is set to apply for certification for two beaches, at Shivrajpur and Ghogla, by the
end of July.
c. Beaches are given the qualification for a year and must apply annually to continue
meriting the right to fly the flag at their locations.
d. The improvements are to be made at a minimum of 10 meters from the high tide line.
India has shown improvements by setting up the following-
2. Change rooms
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3. Shower panels
Gharial Conservation
About the conservation plan
a) Gharials are first bred in Nandankanan Zoological Park and then released into their
natural habitat i.e. Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi.
c) Gharials are individually marked and fitted with radio transmitters for future
identification and tracking of their migration route.
d) The technical assistance for biotelemetry is being provided by the gharial Telemetry
Project, The Madras Crocodile Bank Trust.
e) Odisha is the only state in India having all three species — gharial, mugger and
saltwater crocodile.
b) Gharials have bred for the first time in captivity in the world at Nandankanan
Zoological Park in 1980.
c) It is the first zoo in the World to breed White tiger and Melanistic tiger.
f) It is the first zoo in India where endangered Ratel was born in captivity.
About Gharial
b) It is native to sandy freshwater riverbanks in the plains of the northern part of the
Indian subcontinent.
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a) Managing the electricity needs of a country that’s already dealing with water scarcity
will be a challenge before Energy sector.
b) Water is essential for human survival, agriculture and industry. India has only 4% of
the world’s renewable water resources but about 18% of the world’s population.
c) India has announced the goal of 100% electrification. To achieve this, the country’s
installed power capacity will need to be doubled.
d) Even with the growth of renewable energy, coal has been projected to be the
backbone of the electricity sector till 2030 and beyond.
e) As the thermal power plants are water-intensive and operate on coal, there is need of
managing the electricity needs of India as well as deal water scarcity.
a) Thermal power plants (TPPs) consume significant amounts of water during the
electricity generation process.
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a) In December 2015, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued a
notification setting limits for water consumption by TPPs.
b) However, the amended Environment Protection (EP) Rules codified in June 2018 ended
up permitting TPPs to use more water than what was initially specified.
a) Central Electricity Authority (CEA) recently released the format for TPPs to report on
their annual water consumption.
i) TPPs should disclose the amount of water consumed by them in previous years so that
a baseline for water consumption per TPP can be established.
ii) Reporting requirements must be added to the EP Rules to accord the disclosure
process greater transparency and enforceability.
iii) TPPs should also be required to submit verifiable evidence e.g. water bills to support
and substantiate the disclosures.
iv) Data supplied by TPPs should be placed in the public domain so that the parameters
disclosed can be studied in the context of region-specific water shortages, outages in the
plants, etc.
c) Section 15 of the EP Act provides for a blanket penalty for contravention of any
provision of the Act. However, it doesn’t stipulate specific penalties for specific offenses.
d) Relevant officials in charge of enforcement, across the Ministry and the CEA, should be
identified, and their roles clearly defined.
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a) It is launched by the United Nations, the World Health Organization (WHO), the United
Nations Environment Programme, and Climate and Clean Air Coalition.
b) The initiative ask the governments at all levels to join the Initiative.
c) It asks for the commitment of the government to achieve air quality that is safe for
citizens
i) Implementing air quality and climate change policies that will achieve the WHO
Ambient Air Quality Guideline values.
ii) Implementing e-mobility and sustainable mobility policies and actions with the aim of
making a decisive impact on road transport emissions.
iii) Assessing the number of lives that are saved, the health gains, and avoided financial
costs to health systems that result from implementing their policies.
iv) Tracking progress, sharing experiences and best practices through an international
network supported by the Breathe life Action Platform’.
a) According to the WHO, air pollution causes 7 million premature deaths each year, of
which 600,000 are children.
b) According to the World Bank, air pollution costs the global economy an estimated
US$5.11 trillion in welfare losses.
c) In the 15 countries with the highest greenhouse gas emissions, health impacts of air
pollution are estimated to cost more than 4% of GDP.
About UN
c) It provides a forum for its members to express their views in the General Assembly,
the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, and other bodies and committees.
d) It is headquartered at New York, United States.
Source: The Hindu and UN website
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c) It yields dragon’s blood i.e. a bright red resin used since ancient times as medicine,
body oil, varnish, incense, and dye.
d) This is the first time that a dragon tree species has been reported from India.
f) However, recently discovered Dracaena Cambodian is the only true dragon tree
species.
h) But recent overexploitation to meet the increasing demand for dragon’s blood has
resulted in rapid depletion of the plant.
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b) They used data compiled from nearly 700 temperature indicators such as tree rings,
sediment cores, coral reefs, and modern thermometer readings.
c) The study stated that at no point in modern human history did temperatures rise so
quickly and consistently as in the late 20th century.
d) The study found that pre-industrial temperature fluctuations were largely driven by
volcanic activity.
a) It was declared in the year 1983 as the Tiger Project of the country. It is located in
Arunachal Pradesh.
b) Namdapha is, in fact, the name of a river which originates from Daphabum hills.
c) Biogeographically, the reserve falls within the Eastern Himalayan biogeographic zone
in the Indian Biogeographic Region which covers the Palearctic Realm and the Indo-
Malayan Realm.
d) The reserve area falls within the geographical sub-tropical zone and enjoys the sub-
tropical climate.
e) Flora and fauna of Namdapha protected areas is exceptionally rich, dense and diverse
in species composition.
b) The project aims to foster an exclusive tiger agenda in the core areas of tiger
reserves, with an inclusive people-oriented agenda in the buffer.
About NTCA
b) It has been fulfilling its mandate within the ambit of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
for strengthening tiger conservation in the country.
1. The count of tigers in India has risen to 2967, in 2018, according to this census. India
is today among the biggest and most secure habitats.
2. The 33% rise in tiger numbers is the highest ever recorded between cycles which
stood at 21% between 2006 to 2010 and 30% between 2010 and 2014.
3. The rise in tiger numbers was in conformity with the average annual growth rate of
tigers since, 2006.
4. Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers at 526, followed by Karnataka and
Uttarakhand with 524 and 442 tigers respectively.
5. India achieved its commitment to the St. Petersburg Declaration, of doubling Tiger
population, much in advance to the 2022 deadline.
6. Chhattisgarh and Mizoram saw a decline in their tiger numbers while tiger’s numbers
in Odisha remained constant. All other States witnessed a positive trend.
7. At the landscape level, all 5 landscapes showed an increase with the Central Indian
landscape recording the highest increment.
Method of Sampling
1. India has been estimating its tigers using a double sampling approach involving a
mark-recapture framework to ascertain tiger numbers, which is being improved over
time.
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2. During the 4th cycle, data was collected using an Android-based application- M-
STrIPES (Monitoring system for Tigers’ Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) and
analysed on the applications’ desktop module.
3. Besides cameras were also used to get the images of wildlife including tigers.
4. Segregation of these images was possible in a short time because of the use of
artificial intelligence software.
MEETR
2. Pench Tiger Reserve, Madhya Pradesh scored the highest and Sathyamangalam Tiger
Reserve, Tamil Nadu showed the highest increment in management since the last cycle
for which the latter was awarded.
3. 42% of the tiger reserves fell in the Very Good management category, 34% in the
Good category, 24% in the Fair category while no tiger reserve was rated Poor.
Source: PIB
b) ASRAAM of European missile-maker MBDA has been approved for fitting on Jaguar
jets.
c) IAF was looking to integrate it on the Su-30MKIs and the indigenous Light Combat
Aircraft (LCA) as well.
d) ASRAAM is widely used as a Within Visual Range (WVR) air dominance missile with a
range of over 25km.
a) It includes technology for high genome sequencing and also diagnostic sequencing of
clinical samples.
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c) The facility would help prenatal genetic screening and counseling. So, it can generate
large scale genomic data critical for diagnosis and therapy.
About CCMB
b) Objectives of the Centre are to conduct high-quality basic research and training in
frontier areas of modern biology.
c) It promotes the centralized national facilities for new and modern techniques in the
interdisciplinary areas of biology.
d) It is located at Hyderabad.
Source: PIB
Ebola Vaccine
Recently the preliminary data from Ebola vaccination trials in Congo suggest the ‘Merck’s
vaccine (VSV-EBOV)’ has 97.5% efficacy in preventing Ebola.
a) The vaccine is aimed to protect vaccinated individuals from getting infected with Ebola
virus.
b) The duration of protection offered by the vaccine is not known, though a few studies
suggest protection up to one year.
c) The vaccine was developed by the Public Health Agency of Canada and licensed to
New-Link Genetics.
a) Ebola Viral Disease (EVD) is a rare but severe, often fatal illness in humans.
b) Virus is transmitted to people from wild animals and spreads in the human population
through human-to-human transmission.
c) EVD first appeared in 1976 in two simultaneous outbreaks, one in South Sudan, and
the other Democratic Republic of Congo.
d) Latter occurred in a village near the Ebola River from which the disease takes its
name.
e) Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood,
secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected animals such as fruit bats,
chimpanzees, gorillas, etc.
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Bhabha Kavach
a) Recently India’s lightest bullet-proof jacket ‘Bhabha Kavach’ launched at the
International Police Expo 2019 in New Delhi.
b) It is developed jointly by the Ordnance Factories Board and the public sector metals
and metal alloys manufacturer Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI).
c) It can withstand bullets from rifles such as the AK-47 assault rifle, INSAS rifle, etc.
d) The jacket is powered with nanotechnology from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre and
has a five-year warranty.
e) Trials have validated that the Bhabha Kavach meets US National Institute of Justice
(NIJ) Level III standards, which guarantees protection against 7.62 mm NATO-standard
bullets.
Construction
b) This means the layers are fused together at high temperature. This forms a thick, hard
armour plate, which is then sprayed with BARC’s carbon nanomaterial.
c) Soaking into the layers of the plate, the nanomaterial instils the toughness and
tenacity needed to slow down and trap a bullet as it passes through the plate.
About BARC
a) Chandrayaan 2 is an Indian lunar mission that will visit the part where no country has
ever gone before i.e. the Moon's south polar region.
b) The aim of the mission is to improve humanity’s understanding of the Moon through
discoveries that will benefit India and humanity as a whole.
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c) Moon provides the best linkage to Earth’s early history. It offers an undisturbed
historical record of the inner Solar system environment.
d) So, it is necessary to study the moon to understand the mysteries of the solar system
and ultimately the universe.
e) This mission will attempt to soft-land the lander -Vikram and rover- Pragyan in a high
plain between two craters, Manzinus C and Simpelius N on the moon to serve this
purpose.
a) Lunar South Pole is especially interesting because of the lunar surface area here that
remains in shadow is much larger than that at the North Pole.
d) In addition, South Pole region has craters that are cold traps and contain a fossil
record of the early Solar System.
e) Lunar south pole also has places where the sun never sets. These places are called
‘Peaks of Eternal Light’.
a) These are the points on any celestial body that receive sunlight through the year. The
moon has these peaks on its polar regions.
b) The peaks in the south polar region are considered more attractive than those in the
north.
c) Near permanent sunlight facilitates the establishment of lunar stations with assured
supply of solar energy.
d) Some of these peaks are located next to areas that are in permanent darkness and
hold significant reserves of lunar ice which can provide water also.
e) Water can also be broken down into hydrogen and oxygen, which in turn can be
turned into rocket fuel.
f) With moon’s low gravity, space vehicles need a lot less fuel than on earth for take-off.
g) So, it can make the moon a convenient way-station from which human explorers could
travel to other celestial bodies.
That’s why many countries, private corporations are giving importance to exploration of
‘Lunar South Pole.’
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a) In January 2019, China’s Chang’e 4 soft-landed in the Von Karman crater on the dark
side of the south polar region.
b) China hopes to build a lunar robotic station near the south pole in little more than a
decade.
c) United States lunar program, revived by the Trump Administration, aims to put
humans back on the moon in the next decade.
d) NASA’s focus is on the south pole and if it succeeds, it will be the first manned crew to
arrive at the south pole.
e) Amazon’s subsidiary ‘Blue Origin’ has planned ‘Blue Moon project’ that seeks to land
men and women on the moon in the next few years.
a) As a lunar race unfolds, the world can possibly run into difficult problems about such
mundane issues as property rights.
b) Currently, the international law of outer space is defined by the 1967 Outer Space
Treaty (OST)
c) OST explicitly affirms that outer space and celestial bodies like the moon can’t be
appropriated by any nation through claims.
d) However, It calls the exploration and use of outer space shall be the province of all
mankind.
e) Currently the “peaks of eternal light” constitute the most valuable real estate on the
moon. There are chances of fierce competition among countries, corporations over such
regions.
f) There is also contention on ownership of the resources of the moon. In 2015, the US
has already authorized its citizens to own, transport and sell resources exploited on the
moon.
g) Even small country such as Luxembourg has passed a similar law to attract companies
interested in space mining.
a) India needs to match the extraordinary success of its scientists with sustained
diplomatic effort at the highest level.
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c) It needs to develop a stronger political voice for India in shaping new rules for the
moon and outer space.
Tiangong-2 Mission
a) Tiangong-2 was a manned Chinese space station that was destroyed upon its
controlled re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere over the Pacific Ocean.
b) Recently it was retired from service after it had completed its experiments in space.
c) Tiangong-2 space station was launched in 2016 and housed two Chinese astronauts
also.
d) It’s precursor ‘Tiangong-1’, China’s first space station, was crashed into the southern
Pacific Ocean.
f) China expects to complete its space station, Tianhe, which will be able to host three
astronauts for long durations, around 2022.
v) CSA (Canada)
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2. It is a new commercial arm of the Department of Space to tap the benefits of the
Research & Development carried out by ISRO.
4. India has emerged as a major space power with the technology and ability to launch
satellites and other space products at globally low cost. Now it is time to harness this
ability commercially.
Source: PIB
Desalination of Water
1. India’s top policymakers are warning about water crises and reports show that major
cities in India are already struggling to stave off a water crisis.
2. To address the water crisis, ideas of exploring technologies to harness fresh water are
mooted.
3. The one idea is desalination or obtaining freshwater from saltwater. It is being already
used in Chennai, but it has limited application due to operating cost.
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1. To convert saltwater into freshwater, the most prevalent technology in the world is
reverse osmosis (RO).
RO Technology
1. A plant pumps in salty or brackish water filters separate the salt from the water, and
the salty water is returned to the sea. Freshwater is sent to households.
2. Osmosis involves a solvent (such as water) naturally moving from an area of low
solute concentration, through a membrane, to an area of high solute concentration.
3. A reverse osmosis system applies an external pressure to reverse the natural flow of
solvent and so seawater or brackish water is pressurised against one surface of the
membrane, causing salt-depleted water to move across the membrane, releasing clean
water from the low-pressure side’.
4. Seawater has Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) (a measure of salinity) close 35,000 parts
per million (ppm) of water. An effective network of RO plants reduces this down to about
200-500 ppm.
5. Engineering such plants have various constraints, such as, salt levels in the source
water, energy requirement and disposing of the salt back into the sea.
6. There are about 18,000 desalination plants in the world across 150 countries and
nearly half of Israel’s water is sourced through desalination.
1. Government has set up two desalination plants in Chennai, together they meet around
a fourth of the city’s water requirement.
2. Due to the success of these plants, the city’s water authorities are planning to install
two more plants funded by the German agency, KfW and the Japan International
Cooperation Agency.
4. There are other desalination plants that cater to industrial purposes. But portable
water RO plants are only in Chennai.
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2. Fishermen near Chennai have complained that the brine being deposited along the
seashore is triggering changes along the coastline and reducing the availability of prawn,
sardine and mackerel.
3. According to environmentalists, the hyper salinity along the shore affects plankton,
which is the main food for several of these fish species.
4. The high-pressure motors needed to draw in the seawater end up sucking in small fish
and life forms, thereby crushing and killing them which is loss of marine resources.
5. The construction of the RO plants requires huge groundwater. This was freshwater
that was sucked out and has been replaced by saltwater, rendering it unfit for the
residents around the desalination plants.
6. On average, it costs about ₹900 crore to build a 100 MLD-plant and about five years
for a plant to be set up. It is estimated that it cost ₹3 to produce 100 litres of potable
water.
1. There were concerns that desalinated water was shorn of vital minerals such as
calcium, magnesium, zinc, sodium, potassium and carbonates. They are collectively
referred to as TDS.
2. Higher quantities of these salts in desalination plants tend to corrode the membranes
and filtration system in these plants. So, a treatment plant would try to keep the TDS as
low as possible.
3. Highly desalinated water has a TDS of fewer than 50 milligrams per litre and it is pure
but does not taste like water. Anything from 100 mg/l to 600 mg/l is considered as good
quality potable water.
4. Most RO plants, including in Chennai, put the water through a post-treatment process
whereby salts are added to make TDS around 300 mg/l.
5. Several of the home-RO systems too employ post-treatment and add salt to the water.
1. Thermal energy sourced from the ocean can be used. For instance - Low-temperature
thermal desalination (LTTD) technique.
2. It works on the principle that water in the ocean 1,000 or 2,000 feet below is about 4º
C to 8º C colder than surface water.
3. Here the salty surface water is collected in a tank and subject to high pressure (via an
external power source). This pressured water vaporises, and this is trapped in tubes or a
chamber.
4. Cold water plumbed from the ocean depths is passed over these tubes and the vapour
condenses into fresh water and the resulting salt diverted away.
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1. A 10 million litre a day plant is proposed to be built in the deep ocean, 50 kilometres
away from the Chennai coast.
2. It is similar to LTTD but here the plant will draw power from the vapour generated as
a part of the desalination process.
3. This vapour will run a turbine and thereby will be independent of an external power
source. It seems great in theory but there is no guarantee it will work commercially.
4. This ocean-based plant requires a pipe that needs to travel 50 kilometres underground
in the sea before it reaches the mainland. The NIOT has in the past had significant
problems in managing such a pipe.
5. RO is commercially proven and the dominant technology and therefore it could be hard
to convince private players to invest in such a technology.
Observations
a) Milky Way’ s current shape was influenced as a result of collision with another smaller
galaxy 10 billion years ago.
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b) Milky Way was collided with dwarf galaxy Gaia-Enceladus which increased our galaxy’s
mass by about a quarter.
d) Galaxies of all types, including the Milky Way, began to form relatively soon after the
Big Bang explosion but were generally smaller than those seen now.
b) It provide positional and radial velocity measurements with the accuracies needed to
produce a stereoscopic and kinematic census of about one billion stars in our Galaxy.
c) It was launched by the European Space Agency (ESA) in 2013 and expected to
operate until 2022.
Overview
a) The report states that the growth in research and development (R&D) expenditure
should be commensurate with the economy’s growth.
c) The report says that the ministries at the Centre could be mandated to allocate some
percentage of their budget for developing and deploying technologies as per the
respective priorities.
d) It pointed out that India’s public investment in R&D as a fraction of GDP has remained
stagnant (0.6% to 0.7% of GDP) over the last two decades.
e) However, it is well below the major countries such as the United States (2.8%), China
(2.1%), Israel (4.3%) and Korea (4.2%).
f) It recommends that states partner with the Centre to jointly fund research and
innovation programmes through socially designed Central Sponsored Schemes(CSS).
g) The report pitches for creating 30 dedicated R&D Exports Hub and a corpus of Rs
5,000 crore for funding megaprojects.
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About EAC-PM
a) This body analyse any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime
Minister and advising him thereon.
b) The vehicle has two solid strap-on, a core liquid booster, and a cryogenic upper stage.
d) Use of GSLV Mark III- M1 in the recent Chandrayaan- 2 have helped to save the fuel
and number of manoeuvres or stages in the mission.
a) It is a temporary orbit used during the launch of a satellite or other space probe.
b) A launch vehicle boosts into the parking orbit, then rests for a while, then fires again
to enter the final desired trajectory.
c) Use of a parking orbit requires a rocket upper stage to perform the injection burn
while under zero-gravity conditions.
2. The newfound planets range in size and temperature but are all bigger than Earth and
with a higher temp on average.
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3. Size and temperature are calculated only based on their distance from the star they
orbit, and its energy output, without factoring in any atmospheric effects since it’s not
yet known whether they have atmospheres.
New Planets
1. At the low end, there’s TOI 270 d, which has an average temp of 150 F — almost
three times Earth’s own.
2. Both TOI 270 d, the farthest from its own system’s central star, and TOI 270 c, its
nearest neighbour, are thought to be primarily gaseous and most closely resemble
Neptune in our own Solar System.
3. They’re new types of planets not seen anywhere in our own solar system.
4. The planets are all between 1.5 to 2 times the size of Earth, which is an unusual size
for planets to be when considered overall.
5. The TOI 270 system is also perfectly positioned for study by the forthcoming James
Webb Space Telescope; therefore it presents a great opportunity for future research once
that space-based observatory gets running in 2021.
b) SIH provides a platform where students’ innovators can develop a smart solution to
day to day problems.
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Focussed areas
v) Renewable Energy
x) Smart Communication
d) Depending upon the nature of problem, cash prizes for selected ideas and solutions
will be given to participating teams.
d) It aims to harness the expertise of students from IISc, IITs, NITs and AICTE/UGC
approved institutions.
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International Relations
2. Militarily no country could challenge either of them and the superpowers were wary of
each other.
3. Both the countries competed in space and their nuclear might was unassailable.
4. Economically, the US’s strength was on display but till the early Eighties, the economic
power of the Soviet Union was largely assumed, till it imploded.
5. The US had much greater soft power with Hollywood movies, sports dominance and
best universities that accepted the best from other countries; the Soviet Union lagged in
soft power other than in the Olympic medals tally.
6. In such a world, countries aligned with one or the other superpower to different
degrees. Post-World War II, Japan, Germany and the UK were closely aligned to the US
and other western European nations were also in the US camp through NATO.
8. India leaned towards Soviet because of its strong backing to India after the 1971 war
which allowed the liberation of Bangladesh.
1. The collapse of the Soviet Union left India weak internationally and the economic
policies had taken India into a major balance of payments crisis in 1991.
2. It forced India to review both the economic policies and global alignments. With an
IMF assisted structural adjustment programme, many parts of the economy were
liberalised.
3. India slowly moved away from the import-substituting industry model and became a
more market-friendly economy.
4. The complete collapse of Afghanistan post the Russian retreat destabilised the country
because of the actions of Pakistan, Saudi Arabia and the US to install a friendly regime.
5. Due to the mess, the Taliban emerged. This meddling in Afghanistan converted an
anti-Soviet sentiment into the anti-US (or more broadly anti-foreign sentiment) and led
to the emergence of Osama Bin Laden.
6. The 9/11 attacks followed and with it the reassessment of Pakistan as an ally by the
US.
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7. The ISI’s activities with al Qaeda and Taliban isolated Pakistan substantially at a time
when India was looking for new friends and its economy was emerging.
1. Two forces dominated the geopolitical context in the first decade of the 21st century—
China and technology.
2. China became the second-largest economy in the world with its GDP going from $1
trillion to $10 trillion dollars in 15 years.
3. At the same time, the progress in technology was transformative on the back of
massive computing power, high-speed connectivity, cheap and unlimited storage and the
creation and capture of enough data to make machine learning intelligent and powerful.
5. These two developments have led to a change in the basis of power and geopolitical
alignment in today’s world.
6. Now power needs to be evaluated on four levels — military, economic, cyber and soft
power.
1. Now different countries lead in different areas, making alignment and geopolitics more
complicated.
2. The US and Russia are in the lead in Military power followed by China.
3. In terms of economic power, the US leads followed by China, and Russia does not
figure.
4. In the cyber domain, five countries have established positions – the US, China, Russia,
Israel and Iran and others are lagging.
5. The Russian attack on the US elections, the purported cyber-attack by the US on Iran,
the banning of Huawei, Iranian cyber-attacks on the Saudis and China’s great strength in
digital and artificial intelligence proves the cyber power.
6. In soft power, the US leads but China and Russia don’t feature. Here, India has a play.
Position of India
2. India continues to ally with Russia on arm’s purchases with purchase of the S-400 Air
Missile System, despite the threat of American sanctions.
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3. Economically, India is trying to get closer to the US and not fighting the unilateral
sanctions of the US against Iran on oil, despite the substantial impact on India’s balance
of payments.
4. Despite great capability in technology and a big presence in Silicon Valley, India lag in
cyber preparedness is a great risk to itself.
5. India’s movement on data localisation is needed. Even Europe has imposed the GDPR.
Overall, India needs to act fast.
6. With soft power, India is doing better. It is advancing with music, food and Bollywood
and going beyond West Asia into the affluent Indian diaspora in the US and UK.
7. Getting the UN to recognise a World Yoga Day has been a great first step but the
inbound tourism still lags behind.
8. Faster arms purchases, developing cyber capability and using technology to address
major gaps in education and healthcare are needed.
9. India has the opportunity to become a third major power, but it has to work in getting
that position.
a) Recently 12th Summit of the African Union (AU) concluded at Niamey, the capital of
the Niger Republic.
b) The summit saw 54 of 55 of its member states signing the African Continental Free
Trade Agreement (AFCFTA) for goods and services. Half of the countries have already
ratified it.
c) Actual cross-border free trade is going to be started by July 2020 with the elimination
of customs duties on 90% of the tariff-lines among African countries.
d) This project has the potential to create an African Common Market of 1.2 billion
people and a GDP of over $3.4 billion.
e) AFCFTA would become the world’s largest Free Trade Agreement and it would have a
global impact.
a) African Union has been largely ineffective in dealing with the continent’s problems
such as decolonization, underdevelopment, Islamic terrorism, and the Arab Spring.
i) Earlier projects of African Union such as Africa Unity project etc. have been spectacular
flops.
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b) National economies in Africa are generally weak with a low manufacturing base.
ii) Only a sixth of Africa’s current total trade is within the continent.
ii) Commodity prices are stagnant and globalization is often being reversed.
b) AFCFTA can build upon the experience of the continent’s five regional economic
blocks.
c) AU Commission has prepared an extensive road map towards the AFCFTA with
preliminary work on steps such as elimination of non-tariff barriers, supply chains,
dispute settlement, etc. So, this is a deviation from its earlier plans.
d) Political will is strong enough to overcome the different challenges such as inadequate
infrastructure, poor connectivity, etc.
a) Africa is an important economic partner for India with total annual merchandise trade
estimated at $70 billion or nearly a tenth of India’s global trade.
b) India is Africa’s third-largest trading partner. While India’s global exports have been
largely stagnant, those to Africa have surged.
d) So, India needs to anticipate the AFCFTA’s likely impact on its interests and try to
influence and leverage it to enhance India-African economic ties.
e) Indian firms can co-produce the goods and services in partnership with local
manufacturers in Africa.
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g) India can help the African Union Commission prepare the requisite architecture, such
as common external tariffs, competition policy, intellectual property rights, and natural
persons’ movement.
h) It can identify various African transnational corporations which are destined to play a
greater role in a future continental common market and engage with them strategically.
i) The cross-linkage of a three million Indian diasporas spread across Africa can also be
very valuable.
Challenges
1. To the West
a. Nearly $500 billion worth of trade passes through the Straits of Hormuz.
b. At least 17 countries have been affected by the recent attacks on oil tankers due to
escalating tensions between Iran and the United States of America in the Gulf region.
2. To the East
a. The value of commerce flowing through the Malacca Straits annually is estimated at
more than $3 trillion and China’s economic lifeline.
3. Shifting Dynamics
a. The US has long been the guarantor of maritime security in the Indian and Pacific
Oceans.
b. The US is no longer dependent on oil imports from the Middle East and has become a
major hydrocarbon exporter.
c. This has created a new economic context for traditional American commitments to the
Gulf, as it now weighs the costs and benefits of its role in the region.
d. The US is determined to ramp up the pressure against its partners in Europe and Asia
to change the relative security burdens.
e. Like the US pressure on its European allies to increase the contribution for the
maintenance of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), it insists that Asia pay for
its energy security in the Gulf.
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f. The US has unveiled plans to build an international coalition to secure the Gulf with the
possible participation of Japan and South Korea.
Opportunity
1. Two main factors that provide China and India an opportunity to play a larger role in
the Gulf are,
b. Intention of Gulf countries to diversify their security partnerships against the potential
reduction of American security commitments.
2. India is closer to the Gulf than China and is in a better position to raise its maritime
profile in the region.
3. It also has huge stakes and a longer tradition of providing security to the gulf region.
4. However, China has already bettered its capabilities with the permanent military
presence in the region through its Djibouti base.
Way forward
1. India’s focus is only on the implications of the Gulf crisis for its planned investments in
Iran’s Chabahar port and on finding ways to appear neutral.
2. India must improve its maritime security capabilities and coalitions with like-minded
countries.
2. India is also expected to deliver two fast patrol naval craft to the country as part of
India’s expanding security cooperation with Mozambique.
3. However, the defence minister could also have visited two nearby island nations,
Comoros and Madagascar.
4. A visit to these two islands might have given the minister a better strategic
appreciation of Mozambique and its maritime neighbourhood.
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2. The Vasco da Gama, in his search for a sea route to India, sailed through the
Mozambique Channel in 1498 after coming round the southern tip of Africa.
3. Since then, the Mozambique Channel had been a major point in the sea lines of
communication from Europe to India and further east.
4. The control of the Mozambique Channel and the Western Indian Ocean islands became
a major element of the extended rivalry between the major powers in the past.
5. European rivalries after the Napoleonic Wars moved to the Indian Ocean, later it was
controlled by the British.
6. After the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869 — which provided a shorter route from
Europe to India — the sailing of the South Western Indian Ocean began to diminish.
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c. Both the factors have deepened economic interdependence between Asia, the Middle
East and Africa.
2. The sea lines of communication between the east coast of Africa and the Far East have
once again acquired some weight and importance.
3. The competition with established Indian Ocean powers like the US, UK, France and
India with rising China is inevitable, therefore every little island is becoming strategically
important.
1. The Andaman Island chain that bisects the Bay of Bengal. The Great Nicobar Island at
the southern tip of the chain is well placed to dominate the western gates of the Malacca
Straits that link the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
2. A second chain runs from Gwadar in the northern Arabian sea along the Laccadives-
Chagos ridge to Diego Garcia island that hosts a large American base.
3. A third island chain flows down from Djibouti in the Horn of Africa, down along the
East African coast to the Mozambique channel through the island of Zanzibar. The islands
in the South Western Indian Ocean, including Madagascar, Comoros, Seychelles and
Mauritius, can be seen as part of this chain.
4. Along all the three island chains, India is trying to cope with the rising Chinese naval
profile.
5. India is taking initial steps to modernise the governance in the Andaman and Nicobar
and augment Indian naval presence there but China’s deepening security ties with the
littoral countries of the Bay of Bengal could begin to undermine India’s geographic
advantages arising from the ownership of the islands.
6. On the second island chain, India is closely watching China’s expanding naval presence
on Pakistan’s Arabian seacoast and is battling to retain India’s primacy in Sri Lanka and
the Maldives.
7. The US naval presence in Chagos is coming under stress as sovereignty over the
archipelago has become the subject of an international dispute.
8. The third island chain has seen a dramatic expansion of Chinese economic and
strategic influence over the last decade. Here China has established its first military base
and has an ambitious agenda of port construction, infrastructure development, and
defence diplomacy.
Way Forward
1. India has enhanced the diplomatic presence in Africa and initiate sustained high-level
political contact and beefed up security partnerships in the littoral of the South Western
Indian Ocean.
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2. However, the scale of the challenge confronting India in the three island chains
continues to expand, amidst China’s rapid strategic advance in the Indian Ocean.
3. Defence Minister’s visit to Mozambique offers an opportunity for India to review the
progress made in implementing the Indian Ocean Strategy that India announced in 2015.
4. Such a review should also help reveal some of the big obstacles — especially the
internal ones — that continue to limit India’s possibilities with the three Indian Ocean
island chains.
G20 Meeting
1. The G-20 summit was held in Osaka, Japan.
2. The G-20 countries (19 nations and the European Union) account for 85% of the
world’s nominal GDP.
2. India-the USA- China also met on the sidelines despite growing trade tensions.
Outcomes
1. The Indian and U.S. Commerce Ministers will meet again to try to resolve the impasse
over trade issues.
2. The U.S. and China have called a halt to raising tariffs until they resolve issues.
3. These moves can have a positive impact on the national and global economies.
4. Indian concerns were raised at the G-20 deliberations, including the need for
cooperation on dealing with serious economic offenders and fugitives and climate change
funding.
5. Osaka Declaration was announced on “data free flow with trust”. India refused to
attend the digital economy summit as it runs counter to the Reserve Bank of India’s
proposed data localization guidelines.
6. On issues such as ocean pollution management, gender equality and concerted efforts
to fight corruption, the G-20 reached consensus.
Way Forward
1. Saudi Arabia will be hosting the next G-20 in 2020, followed by Italy in 2021, and
India in 2022.
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2. Many global challenges, such as climate change and its impact, the balance between
the needs for speed and national security with 5G networks, the technology-driven
terrorism, will become more critical for the grouping.
3. India should lead the exercise in making the G-20 more effective in dealing with some
of the inequities in its system.
4. The G-20 while discussing on pressing issues, should also promote the purpose of
sustainable growth and financial stability.
1. ASEAN acknowledging that this is a very important part of the globe from both a geo-
political and geo-economic perspective, the group wants developments here to be
ASEAN-centric and ASEAN-led.
2. This approach of ASEAN heaves closely to the Indian position of Southeast Asia as the
center of Indo-Pacific region and, ASEAN as central to its future which was specified by
India in Shangrila dialogue.
3. This similarity of approach works well for both sides since India already has sizeable
areas of cooperation within the “ASEAN Plus India” and the East Asia Summit
frameworks.
Rules-based Architecture
2. India, too, seeks such an order which must equally apply to all individually as well as
to the global commons.
3. It also refers to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) for peaceful
resolution of disputes at a time of aggressive actions of China in the South China Sea.
2. India has also stated that the Indo-Pacific region is not an exclusive to specific
countries but must be inclusive, aiming at security and prosperity for all in the region,
which is also specified in India’s idea of SAGAR.
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1. The Outlook draws a clear objective of security and stability for continued growth and
development of all countries in the region through greater connectivity, more trade and
higher investment.
2. Free, fair and balanced trade based on rules will be very important to cut out extreme
imbalances and ensure prosperity shared for all.
3. The ASEAN and others in the region can ensure such fair behaviour is something which
needs have to work towards.
4. It is in line with India’s demand for favorable trade opportunities in joining the
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).
1. ASEAN outlook is not a new strategy of ASEAN, but a continuation of ASEAN goals and
objectives.
2. It mentioned that no new structures will be created, but that existing ones will be
optimally utilized for achieving some of the goals stated in the Outlook.
3. There are great similarity and parallel in both thought and approach between the
Indian and ASEAN positions on the Indo-Pacific Region.
5. It is difficult for both ASEAN as well as India to side with individual countries or groups
in the current global situation.
Way Forward
1. Current global order requires harmony between the balancing powers. India should
institute a new dialogue with the ASEAN grouping.
2. The dialogue would further calibrate approaches in important matters. Both India and
ASEAN can have more say on the issues than individually, which would benefit both.
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3. It is speculated that the strikes targeted Iran’s military command and systems such as
those that control Iran’s missile and rocket launchers.
1. After every terror attack, India has few retaliation options. They comprise air strikes,
ground-based surgical strikes, stand-off strikes from inside the border and covert
operations.
1. It is necessary to meet or foresee the meeting of, these criteria before any operation
is incorporated into India’s arsenal of retaliatory options.
2. These criteria are not in the context of the operational requirements of the Indian
armed forces. The criteria are pre-emption, non-military nature, and deterrence.
a. Pre-emption would allow India to argue and justify the operation on international
forums. It feasibly falls under the exception of Article 2(4) of the UN Charter through the
passage of self-defence.
b. The non-military operational aim has never been to target the Pakistani people or
even the Pakistani military.
c. Deterrence - The operation should be of such an impact that it creates deterrence, that
is, it fulfils the purpose of imposing substantial damage on the enemy, which invariably
leads to deterrence.
3. The non-military nature and pre-emption of the operation will be viewed through the
perspective of attacking Pakistani military and Pakistan in essence, rendering them as
futile, for example in terms of diplomatic parleys.
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4. A cyberstrike against Pakistan will call for counter-cyberstrike. Instead of the intended
deterrence, it will likely lead to an escalation.
5. In such a situation most of the criteria will not be met. Hence, a cyberattack is not a
feasible retaliatory option for India at present.
1. The dependency of terrorist groups on computers, networks and the Internet has
increased. Terrorist groups use the Internet mainly for propaganda.
3. A cyberattack can be an option when the situation changes, and India decides to act
against providers of safe haven to terrorists. In such instances, the Pakistani
establishment might be targeted beyond diplomatic pressures.
4. The ability of the Indian armed forces to conduct such cyberstrikes is not completely
known, given that disclosure of such details would take away the element of surprise.
About AFRS
a) It works by maintaining a large database with photos and videos of peoples’ faces.
b) A new image of an unidentified person, often taken from CCTV footage, is compared
to the existing database to find a match and identify the person.
c) Artificial intelligence technology used for pattern-finding and matching is called ‘Neural
Networks’.
e) The project is aimed at being compatible with other biometrics such as iris and
fingerprints.
f) It will be a mobile and web application hosted in NCRB’s Data Centre in Delhi but used
by all police stations in the country.
g) It can play a vital role in improving outcomes in the area of Criminal identification and
verification by facilitating easy recording, analysis, retrieval and sharing of Information
between different organisations.
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Similar Projects
a) Ministry of Civil Aviation’s ‘Digi Yatra’ using facial recognition for airport entry was
trialled in the Hyderabad airport.
a) CCTNS stands for Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems.
b) NCRB has proposed integrating the AFRS with multiple existing databases. Most
prominent is the NCRB-managed CCTNS.
c) Facial recognition has been proposed in the CCTNS program since its origin. However,
it has not been implemented yet.
a) According to Cyber experts, Facial recognition can be used as a tool of control and
risks inaccurate results.
b) Indian citizens are more vulnerable in the absence of a Data Protection Law.
About NCRB
b) Its foundation was based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission
(1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task force (1985).
1. The NIA Act, 2008, governs the functioning of India’s premier counter-terror agency.
It was introduced in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks.
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2. The Act makes NIA the only truly federal agency in the country, along the lines of the
FBI in the United States, and more powerful than the CBI.
a. The CBI has to seek the permission of a state government before investigating a case
against a central government employee in that state.
b. If a crime is committed in a state, it has to wait for that state government or a court
to call it in to investigate.
3. The NIA has powers to take suo motu cognisance of terrorist activity in any part of
India and to register a case, to enter any state without needing permission from its
government, and to investigate and arrest people.
4. The NIA can only investigate cases which are listed in the Act’s schedule, which largely
deal with the security and integrity of the country.
5. NIA cannot probe murder and rape cases, which come under the Indian Penal Code
(IPC).
1. The new Bill makes three broad additions to the NIA Act viz.
b. Adds four more scheduled offences to the list of eight offences in the original Act.
c. Gives powers to the government to designate sessions courts as special courts for trial
of NIA cases.
Extra-territorial Jurisdiction
1. The Bill allows the agency to register a case when Indians living abroad, or India’s
assets based in a foreign country come under attack from terrorists.
2. This lacuna was a reason for the case against the Italian Marines who had shot dead
an Indian fisherman off the coast of Kerala in 2012 had issues in prosecution.
3. The accused argued that the offence had taken place in international waters, and thus
NIA had no jurisdiction. It was after India proved that the offence had taken place in
Indian waters that the case could proceed.
4. The new provision will allow the NIA to register cases if an Indian embassy comes
under attack abroad, or if Indian underwater cables of communication in international
waters are sabotaged.
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5. The outcome of such cases will continue to depend on how much diplomatic leverage
India has with that country, but the Bill empowers it to begin the process.
6. The IPC does have provisions of extra-territorial jurisdiction, but it is limited to Indians
committing crime abroad.
Special courts
1. Earlier, setting up special courts in any state would take six to nine months since a
proposal had to be made, High Courts’ concurrence had to be obtained, the judge had to
be nominated.
2. Now the government can designate existing sessions courts to function as special
courts, so that trial can start immediately.
New Offences
1. Few of NIA’s suggestions have not been accepted. One of them is including Ranbir
Penal Code applicable in J&K.
2. NIA while prosecuting people from Kashmir (it is probing alleged terror funding and
organised stone-pelting), it faces challenges of jurisdiction.
2. The Ranbir CrPC varies slightly from the CrPC. A statement recorded under Section
161 of the CrPC is not signed. Under RCrPC, it is. Such procedural differences can impact
a prosecution case in court.
a) It is one of the four measures being undertaken as part of the transformation of the
force.
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iii) Review of the terms and conditions of Junior Commissioned Officers and Other Ranks.
c) Aim of the project is a holistic integration to enhance the operational and functional
efficiency, optimize budget expenditure, facilitate force modernization and address
aspirations.
d) Government has already given in-principle approval for the AHQ restructuring. One of
the main ideas behind it is to get procurements aligned.
e) Under the plan, the Master-General Ordnance will report to the Deputy Chief to bring
all ammunition under one head.
f) Functions of two Deputy Chiefs, one for information systems and the other for planning
and systems, are being brought under one authority to avoid overlapping.
Shekatkar Committee
a) One of the important committees associated with the military reforms is Shekatkar
committee.
ii) Restructuring of repair echelons in the Army to include Base Workshops, Advance Base
Workshops and Station Workshops in the field Army.
iii) Redeployment of Ordnance echelons to include Vehicle Depots, Ordnance Depots, and
Central Ordnance Depots apart from streamlining inventory control mechanisms.
iv) Better utilization of Supply and Transportation echelons and Animal Transport Units.
vi) Enhancement in standards for recruitment of clerical staff and drivers in the Army.
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1. IBGs are brigade-sized, agile, self-sufficient combat formations, which can swiftly
launch strikes against an adversary in case of hostilities.
2. Each IBG would be tailor-made based on Threat, Terrain and Task and resources will
be allotted based on the three Ts. An IBG operating in a desert needs to be constituted
differently from an IBG operating in the mountains.
3. They need to be light as they will be able to mobilize within 12-48 hours based on the
location.
2. The offensive IBGs would quickly mobilise and make a thrust into enemy territory for
strikes.
3. The defensive IBGs would hold ground at vulnerable points or where enemy action is
expected. The composition of the IBGs would also depend on this.
1. The command is the largest static formation of the Army spread across defined
geography, and a corps is the largest mobile formation.
2. Typically each corps has three divisions and each division has three brigades. Each
brigade has 3-4 troops.
3. The idea is to reorganize divisions into IBGs which are brigade-sized units but have all
the essential elements like infantry, armored, artillery and air defence embedded
together based on the three Ts.
4. The key corps of the Army is likely to be reorganised into 1-3 IBGs.
5. The concept of IBGs has already been test-bedded by 9 Corps. They are reorganising,
based on the feedback. The Army will approach the Government for sanction.
1. Army Chief Gen Bipin Rawat has initiated four major studies to undertake an overall
transformation of the force. These include:
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b. Force restructuring which includes the creation of Integrated Battle Groups (IBG).
d. The review of the terms and conditions of Junior Commissioned Officers and Other
Ranks.
When did the Indian army make such changes in the past?
1. After the terrorist attack on the Parliament, the Indian military undertook massive
mobilisation but the Army’s formations in the deep inside territories took weeks to
mobilise thus losing the element of surprise.
2. Following this, the Army formulated a proactive doctrine known as ‘Cold Start’ to
launch swift offensive but its existence was consistently denied in the past.
3. Its existence was acknowledged for the first time by Army chief in January 2017.
a) The bill seeks to facilitate speedy investigation and prosecution of terror-offenses and
designating an individual as terrorist in line with the international practices.
c) The original law gives powers the Government to designate an organization that
commits or participates in acts of terrorism as ‘Terrorist organizations.’
e) Under the Act, an investigating officer is required to obtain the prior approval of the
Director-General of Police to seize properties that may be connected with terrorism.
f) The Bill adds that if the investigation is conducted by an officer of the NIA, the
approval of the Director-General of NIA would be required for seizure of such property.
g) Under the Act, investigation of cases may be conducted by officers of the rank of
Deputy Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner of Police or above.
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h) The Bill additionally empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or
above, to investigate cases.
i) The Act defines terrorist acts to include acts committed within the scope of any of the
treaties listed in a schedule to the Act.
j) The Schedule lists nine treaties, including the Convention for the Suppression of
Terrorist Bombings (1997), and the Convention against Taking of Hostages (1979).
k) The Bill adds another treaty to the list. This is the International Convention for
Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism (2005).
The bill puts the burden of proving that one is not a terrorist on the individual who is
designated a ‘Terrorist’ by the central government.
1. UAPA Act currently allows the government to designate any organisation as “terrorist”
if it believes that it is involved in terrorism.
2. The amendments passed by the Lok Sabha seeking to empower the Centre to
designate individuals as terrorists.
3. Banned outfits often change their names. So, there’s a need for a provision to declare
an individual as a terrorist.
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1. The proposed amendments to the UAPA do not spell out who is a terrorist.
2. It merely says that the Centre may designate a person or an outfit “as terrorist if it
(he/she) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, prepares for terrorism, promote
terrorism, or is otherwise involved in terrorism”.
3. The vagueness means that the Centre and investigative agencies have wide
discretionary powers to decide what constitutes a terrorist offence.
4. The proposed amendments are also troubling due to changes made to the National
Investigation Agency law.
5. The amended NIA law gives the agency the power to investigate terror crimes relating
to Indians and interests of India. But the amendments do not define “interests of India”.
6. The references of the Home Minister regarding “Urban Maoists” during the debate
have raised fears that the government could use its power to tag a person as a “terrorist”
to stifle dissent or to target people from specific communities.
1. The new NIA law gives the agency powers to investigate crimes related to human
trafficking, offences related to counterfeit currency, manufacture or sale of prohibited
arms, cyber-terrorism and offences under the Explosive Substances Act.
2. These functions were performed by the police of the state concerned. The policing
powers of states will be further curtailed if the amendments to the UAPA act are
approved.
3. For example, the provision to empower the head of the NIA to approve the forfeiture
of properties of “those involved in terrorist activities” undermines the role of the
Director-General of Police in the states.
2. The government must also rethink regarding the issues pertaining to the rights of life
and liberty, and to federalism when the amendments to the UAPA come up for debate in
the Rajya Sabha.
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Society
4. The ordinance redresses the anomaly found in the recruitment of Other Backward
Class (OBC) candidates at higher levels of teaching positions.
1. OBCs account for about 50% of the country’s population, their representation in all
faculty positions in all central educational institutions is only 9.8%.
2. The representation became almost negligible at higher levels, i.e. those of Associate
Professor and Professor, accounting for just 1.22% and 1.14%, respectively.
3. Even after a clarification issued by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, the
many central universities are violating the law by not providing the reservations.
4. The ordinance shall provide reservation to OBCs at all levels of teaching, leaving no
space of misinterpretation by some universities that had arbitrarily restricted reservation
for OBCs to the level of ‘Assistant Professor’.
1. Generally, the decision-making power at universities rests upon the Professors and
Associate Professors. Professors, who play a significant role in the recruitment process,
at times misinterpret the constitutional provisions.
2. Even if a violation is found, the maximum a court does is to order correction to the
institution’s advertisement, without awarding any compensation to the petitioner or
punishment to the violator.
3. Implementation of reservation for SCs, STs and OBCs in higher educational institutions
funded by the Centre was delayed for more than 15 years after the announcement, while
the same for EWS was done within a month of the announcement.
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2. It was launched in response to an estimate that by 2035 the world will face a shortage
of nearly 13 million healthcare workers and currently at least 400 million people
worldwide lack access to the most essential health services.
3. In its first volume, the guidelines focus on sexual and reproductive health and rights.
a. Some of the interventions include self-sampling for human papillomavirus (HPV) and
sexually transmitted infections, self-injectable contraceptives.
4. These guidelines look at the scientific evidence for health benefits of certain
interventions that can be done outside the conventional sector and sometimes with the
support of a health-care provider.
5. They do not replace high-quality health services, nor they are a shortcut to achieving
universal health coverage.
6. The world is witnessing growth in new diagnostics, devices, drugs and digital
innovations which are transforming people’s interaction with the health sector.
7. The WHO defines self-care as “the ability of individuals, families and communities to
promote health, prevent disease, maintain health, and cope with illness and disability
with or without the support of a health-care provider”.
1. Self-care interventions represent a significant push towards new and greater self-
efficacy, autonomy and engagement in health for self-carers and caregivers.
3. People are increasingly active participants in their own health care and have a right to
a greater choice of interventions that meets their needs across their lifetime, but also
should be able to access, control, and have affordable options to manage their health and
well-being.
4. People who are negatively affected by gender, political, cultural and power dynamics,
including those who are forcibly displaced, will have access to sexual and reproductive
health services, as many people are unable to make decisions around sexuality and
reproduction.
5. The guidelines will be expanded to include other self-care interventions, including for
prevention and treatment of non-communicable diseases.
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6. WHO is also establishing a community of practice for self-care and will be promoting
research and dialogue in this area during the self-care month between June 24 and July
24.
3. A report released by UNESCO states that in India, 75 per cent of five-year-olds with
disabilities and a quarter of children with disabilities in the age group of five to 19 years
do not attend any educational institution.
4. In order to address these concerns, the report recommends amendments to the Right
of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, so that it can be aligned with the 2016
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act.
5. As per the report, the two laws provide a comprehensive legal framework but remain
some ambiguities in terms of
a. Where children with disabilities should study and who should teach them.
6. It also attributes the low numbers of such children in schools due to the lack of
accessible physical infrastructure, school processes, assistive technologies, information
and communication technology and devices.
1. India will experience a rapid increase in the size of the elderly population over the next
two decades due to the slowing down of the population growth rate.
2. It is forecast that the population rate will grow less than 1% from 2021 to 2031 and
under 0.5% from 2031 to 2041.
3. The slow growth is primarily due to the fall in the total fertility rate (TFR), which is
projected to decline between 2021-2041 and fall below replacement level fertility at 1.8
as early as 2021.
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1. The total fertility rate of 2.1 is called the replacement level fertility below which
populations begin to decline.
2. For India, the effective replacement level fertility is slightly higher than the normal
benchmark due to the skewed gender ratio and is at 2.15-2.2.
3. The current TFR in 14 out of the 22 major States is already below the effective
replacement level fertility.
4. At the State level, Southern states along with West Bengal, Punjab, Maharashtra and
Himachal Pradesh have below replacement level fertility and will see TFR decline to 1.5-
1.6 by 2021.
5. All States are likely to see below replacement level fertility by 2031.
1. The size of the elderly population, 60 years and above, is expected to nearly double
from 8.6% in 2011 to 16% by 2041.
2. The population size of those between 0-19 years, which is on the decline, is likely to
drop from as high as 41% in 2011 to 25% by 2041, thus dependency ratio would
increase.
3. It would result in new policy challenges such as provision for health and old-age care,
access to retirement-related financial services, public pension funding, and retirement
age.
1. Increasing the retirement age for both men and women could be considered in line
with the experience of other countries.
2. This will be key to the viability of pension systems and would also help increase female
labour force participation in the older age groups
3. Many countries such as the U.S., Germany and France have already raised the
retirement age to reduce the burden on pension funding.
2. This means additional jobs will have to be created to keep pace with the annual
increase in the working-age population of 9.7 million during 2021-31 and 4.2 million
during 2031-41.
Source: The Hindu
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2. Fertility Rate - The average number of children that a woman will have in her lifetime.
Rural Areas
a. Fertility in the higher age groups (mothers aged 35 and above) has fallen substantially
in rural areas, as couples choose to limit their family size, and stop having children after
they have had the desired number (between two and three children per woman on
average).
b. This is also reflected in the fact that the mean age at childbirth is still falling rather
than growing in India.
c. This trend is also expected to reverse within the next five years, according to
estimates from the United Nations Population Division’s World Population Prospects
(2017 revision).
Urban Areas
a. In urban areas, fertility among older women has grown, as better educated women
are able to delay marriage and childbirth, and improved healthcare allows women to
have children later in life.
b. Fertility, in general, is lower among more educated women, but there is an exception:
In urban areas, fertility rates among women in their 30s are higher among better
educated rather than less educated women.
c. Fertility fell across all age groups in both rural and urban India. But between 2004-06
and 2015-17, fertility in the older age groups in urban India has risen.
d. However, given that the vast majority of female fertility in India remains concentrated
among women in their twenties, this increase did not have any impact on the overall
trend, which is of steadily falling female fertility.
1. The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in urban India as a whole has now fallen to levels that in
some countries are taken as a cause for concern in terms of being too low.
2. It means that these urban areas will only grow as long as mortality improves and
there is some in-migration.
3. TFR in urban India fell to 1.7 as of 2017, comparable to that of Belgium, Iceland and
Norway, and lower than that of the United States or the United Kingdom (1.8).
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4. Japan, which is regarded as being in the grip of a demographic crisis with too low
fertility rates.
5. The fertility in the urban parts of the southern states is now lower than European
levels. Some other less affluent states are also now at Japan-like “crisis" levels.
6. Urban Odisha, West Bengal (1.3), Jammu & Kashmir (1.2), Himachal Pradesh (1.1)
have TFR even lower than in the south, and lower than that of Japan.
1. Among the major states, fertility in the southern states has fallen well below
replacement levels.
2. The focus on above-replacement fertility in the northern states has dominated the
national dialogue around fertility to the detriment of the southern states and urban areas
where fertility is falling far faster than expected.
3. In addition to the natural demographic transition (by which populations get richer,
women get better health and education, child survival rates improve, and families choose
to have fewer children) the south is also seeing the impact of aggressive family planning
target-setting by southern state governments and health officials.
4. India is not yet having the discussions around low fertility and ageing that it needs to,
let alone setting supportive policy.
b) All schools in three Union Territories, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and
Lakshadweep, have a connection.
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c) These are followed by the states and UTs of Delhi, Gujarat, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu,
Punjab, Goa, and Daman & Diu.
d) This data also shows that in five North-eastern states, less than half the schools have
electricity.
About U-DISE
b) It provides the necessary data for planning and managing school education.
a) It is an overarching program for the school education sector extending from pre-
school to class 12.
d) This sector-wide development program would also help harmonize the implementation
mechanisms and transaction costs at all levels.
‘Food and Nutrition Security Analysis India 2019 report’ was published by the Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation and the World Food Programme.
What does ‘Food and Nutrition Security Analysis, India, 2019’ say?
a) The report paints a picture of hunger and malnutrition amongst children in large
pockets of India.
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c) The report states that the highest levels of stunting and underweight are found in
Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
d) The report states that stunting is highest amongst children from the Scheduled Tribes
(43.6%), followed by Scheduled Castes (42.5%) and Other Backwards Castes (38.6%).
d) It also states that over the last 20 years, total food grain production in India increased
from 198 million tonnes to 269 million tonnes.
e) However, despite increase in food production, the rate of malnutrition in India remains
very high.
a) The report shows the poorest sections of society caught in a trap of poverty and
malnutrition. This trap is being passed on from generation to generation.
b) Malnourished mothers produce children who are stunted, underweight and unlikely to
develop to achieve their full human potential.
c) The effects of malnourishment are not just limited to physical conditions. Malnutrition
is a reflection of age-old patterns of social and economic exclusion.
e) These disadvantaged children are likely to do poorly in school and subsequently have
low incomes, high fertility, and provide poor care for their children.
b) But this modest target also will require doubling the current annual rate of reduction
in stunting.
c) Latest developments related with Poshan Abhiyaan don’t give confidence about
whether this can be achieved.
d) Anganwadis are key to the distribution of services to mothers and children. But many
States are struggling to set up functioning Anganwadis, and recruit staff.
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a) Key to ending the tragedy of child nutrition lies with few state governments. Highest
levels of stunted and underweight children are found in Jharkhand, Bihar, Madhya
Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
b) Stunting and malnourishment starts with the mother. So, more focus should be given
on the improvement of mother’s health.
c) As Amartya Sen noted, famines are caused not by shortages of food, but by
inadequate access to food. So, the food distribution system should be strengthened to
provide access to food.
2. This includes the commitment to end the AIDS epidemic. In many countries, continued
access to HIV treatment and prevention options are reducing AIDS-related deaths and
new HIV infections.
3. But there are still many countries where AIDS-related deaths and new infections are
not decreasing fast. In fact, they are rising in some cases.
Role of Community
1. Success is being achieved where policies and programmes focus on people, not
diseases, and where communities are fully engaged from the outset in designing, shaping
and implementing health policies.
2. It results in real and lasting change which will also reduce the impact of AIDS.
3. Adopting the latest scientific research and medical knowledge, strong political
leadership, and proactively fighting and reducing stigma and discrimination are all
crucial.
4. But without sustained investment in community responses led by people living with
HIV, countries cannot gain the traction necessary to reach the most vulnerable.
5. Community services support fragile public health systems and fill gaps by connecting
with key populations such as gay men, sex workers, drug addicts & transgenders.
6. They provide services that bolster clinic-based care and extend the reach of health
services to the community at large. They also hold decision-makers accountable.
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1. The 2016 UN Political Declaration on Ending AIDS also recognises the critical role of
communities in ending AIDS and advocates that community responses to HIV must be
scaled up.
3. Countries with a lack of investment in communities, often have weak progress against
HIV and other health threats.
Communities in India
1. Since the beginning of the epidemic and until now, communities have been the most
trusted and reliable partners for the National AIDS Control Organization and the Joint UN
Programme on HIV/AIDS.
2. They are engaged in prevention, care, support and treatment programmes. There are
over 1,500 community-based organisations reaching out to key populations with 300
district-level networks of people living with HIV.
Way Forward
2. Unleashing this is the key to gaining the momentum for faster progress towards
reaching UNAIDS Fast-Track targets.
a) These ‘Minimum Standards’ are proposed in the amendments for the Clinical
Establishment (Central Government) Rules, 2019.
b) Standards will be applicable to clinics offering both AYUSH and allopathy services.
Proposed amendments are aimed at bringing uniformity in standard of healthcare
services provided by several establishments.
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g) It should be situated in a place having clean surroundings and shall comply with local
by-laws in force from time to time.
h) There has to be a minimum space requirement for carrying out basic functions of the
facility as prescribed in the rules.
i) Names of the doctor with registration number, fee structure of doctors, should be
provided within the facility should be well displayed in language understood by the local
public in the area.
i) Uttar Pradesh
ii) Haryana
iii) Delhi
iv) Punjab
v) Gujarat
vi) Maharashtra
vii) Karnataka
c) The data says that Railways is the largest employer of Safai Karamcharis and the
problem of manual scavenging is nowhere as acute as it is in the Railways.
d) The data feels that Swachh Bharat Abhiyan should not focus just on toilet building but
also on eradication of manual scavenging or workers’ rehabilitation.
e) Tamil Nadu has recorded the highest numbers of such casualties, followed by Gujarat,
Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.
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b) States and municipalities should invest heavily in mechanized cleaning of sewers and
septic tanks
About NCSK
b) Initially, it was appointed for a period of three years i.e. up to 1997. However, later
the period was extended consecutively.
d) It makes the reports to the Central or State Governments on any matter concerning
Safai Karamcharis.
e) It comprises,
i) One Chairman (in the rank and status of the Union Minister for States)
ii) Four members, including a lady member (in the rank and status of the Secretary to
the Government of India)
iii) Secretary (in the rank of Joint Secretary to Govt. of India) along with other
supporting staff.
a) The data shows that Gujarat has the highest penetration (78.46%) under the National
Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP).
b) Among smaller states, Sikkim has the highest coverage at (99.34%) for its 88,013
rural households.
c) West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh are at the bottom of the table with and rural
households covered respectively.
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d) The data was given by the Integrated Management Information System (IMIS) of the
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
b) It aims to provide safe and adequate water for drinking, cooking and other domestic
needs to every rural person on a sustainable basis.
c) It aimed to provide all rural habitations, government schools, and Anganwadis access
to safe drinking water.
a) The data shows that Marriage and employment are the major reasons for migration.
Bulk of the migration takes place within individual states.
b) Over 45.58 crore Indians were found to be ‘Migrants’ for various reasons during the
enumeration exercises of Census 2011.
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d) Data shows the migration patterns associated with big states. Maharashtra had more
migrants from Madhya Pradesh than from Bihar.
e) Gujarat had double the number of migrants from Rajasthan than from Bihar.
2. These services, or essential health packages (EHPs), form the backbone of public
health systems.
3. In India with several different public health interventions, there is no clarity on what
services should be covered under India’s EHPs and how these should be delivered.
1. India’s EHP should be determined by the disease burden and existing health coverage
according to a study.
2. The study found that the overall illness rate was 11.2% with an unmet need for
medical treatment of 6-7%.
3. The largest unmet need for treatment came from those suffering from cardiovascular
conditions and non-communicable diseases.
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4. Treatment-related to maternal and child healthcare had the lowest unmet need
because of government initiatives dedicated to those conditions.
5. It also finds that cardiovascular diseases, respiratory infections, injuries, and neoplasia
hurt the poor the most.
Way Forward
1. The study suggests that treatment for these conditions should be included in a basic
health package.
2. As many as 17 present labour laws are more than 50 years old and some of them
belong to the pre-independence era.
3. The four Acts being subsumed in The Code on Wages Bill are
1. Wage Universalization
a. The Code on Wage universalizes which has the provisions of minimum wages and
timely payment of wages is now applicable all employees irrespective of the sector and
wage ceiling.
b. At present, the provisions of both the Minimum Wages Act and Payment of Wages Act
apply on workers below a particular wage ceiling working in Scheduled Employments
only.
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c. The Code would ensure "Right to Sustenance" for every worker and intends to increase
the legislative protection of minimum wage from existing about 40% to 100% workforce.
d. This would ensure that every worker gets a minimum wage which will also be
accompanied by an increase in the purchasing power of the worker thereby giving a fillip
to growth in the economy.
f. It also envisaged that the states to notify payment of wages to the workers through
digital mode.
a. There are 12 definitions of wages in the different Labour Laws leading to litigation
besides difficulty in its implementation.
b. The definition has been simplified and is expected to reduce litigation and will entail at
a lesser cost of compliance for an employer.
a. At present, many of the states have multiple minimum wages. Through Code on
Wages, the methodology to fix the minimum wages has been simplified and rationalised
by doing away with the type of employment as one of the criteria for fixation of the
minimum wage.
b. The minimum wage fixation would primarily be based on geography and skills.
c. It will substantially reduce the number of minimum wages in the country from the
existing more than 2000 rates of minimum wages.
4. Other changes
2. All these changes will be conducive for the enforcement of labour laws with
transparency and accountability.
3. There were instances that due to the smaller limitation period, the claims of the
workers could not be raised.
4. To protect the interest of the workers, the limitation period has been raised to 3 years
and made a uniform for filing claims for minimum wages, bonus, equal remuneration
etc., as against existing varying period between 6 months to 2 years.
Source: PIB
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b) The bill increases the fine on those who store or possess pornographic material in any
form involving a child. Upper limit for the fine is not set.
c) The amendments also include death penalty for aggravated sexual assault on children,
besides providing stringent punishments for other crimes against minors.
d) Neither Section 67 of the Information Technology Act nor Section 293 of the Indian
Penal Code defines child pornography.
e) Sections 2, 4, 5, 6, 9, 14, 15, 34,42 and 45 of the POCSO Act, 2012 will be amended
to address the aspects of child sexual abuse in an appropriate manner.
New definition
Child pornography is ‘Any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child
which includes photograph, video, digital or computer-generated image indistinguishable
from an actual child and an image created, adapted or modified but appear to depict a
child’.
c) They will be established under a Central scheme and fully funded by the Centre.
d) It means centre would fund everything from the payment of the presiding officers,
staff and support persons to the court’s child-friendly infrastructure.
a) Ministry of Women and Child Development introduced the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
c) The Act ensures the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of
the child.
e) The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for trial of offences under the
Act.
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a) It makes punishment more stringent for committing sexual crimes against children
including the death penalty.
b) Proposed changes in the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act also
provide for fines and imprisonment to curb child pornography.
d) The Bill provides that those who use a child for pornographic purposes should be
punished with imprisonment for up to five years and a fine.
1. It prohibits the commercial surrogacy in India and permits only related women to act
as a surrogate to infertile couples.
3. Intending couples should not abandon the child under any condition.
4. Only Indian couples legally married for at least 5 years allowed to opt for surrogacy.
5. It prohibits commercial surrogacy and allows only ethical altruistic surrogacy which
means the surrogate mother cannot take any money. while the intended parents can
voluntarily pay money but there cannot be any commercial agreement or contract.
6. Age Criteria: Between 23 to 50 years for female and 26 to 55 years for male for
intended couples.
4. She should not have been a surrogate earlier and must be certifiable mentally and
physically fit.
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2. The new-born child shall be entitled to all rights and privileges available to a natural
child.
Other Provisions
2. Compulsory insurance coverage for the surrogate mother and no sex selection are
mandatory provisions.
1. It imposes a certain morality on others as the bill excludes gay couples, single men
and women, and unmarried couples who want a child.
3. The Health Ministry did not conduct or rely on studies on commercial surrogacy but
concluded that all forms of commercial surrogacy are suspicious.
4. The legislation allows surrogacy only through a close relative. But the Bill doesn’t
define ‘close relative’ and other conditions such as age restrictions and marital status
further bring down the number of eligible surrogate mothers.
5. It has been argued that commercial surrogacy is used for trafficking, and foreigners
abandon children born through surrogacy. But there are also cases where families have
benefited from surrogacy.
6. Other practices are misused too, but they are all not banned.
Way Forward
1. Imposing a ban where better regulation may have sufficed will take the entire process
underground.
2. Tightening regulations would respect the interests of infertile couples. It would also
respect the woman’s choice about how she wants to bear a child.
4. The focus should be on the well-being of the surrogate. The intending couple should
ensure financial enumeration, a sound insurance cover and regular health check-ups for
the surrogate.
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a) Recently published ‘World Population Prospects and forecast’ states that India will
overtake China as the most populous country by 2027.
b) It was released by the United Nations. UN revises its population projections every two
years.
c) However, in 2015, it was predicted that India would overtake China in 2022.
d) In 1979, China instituted a ‘One-child policy’. Even if India could institute a policy that
reduces its fertility rate to the Chinese level, India will overtake China as the most
populous country.
a) Birth rates and few incentives or disincentives are powerful enough to overcome the
desire for children.
i) Measures such as restriction on maternity benefits for first two children only,
disqualification from panchayat elections for people with more than two children, etc. are
inadequate.
iii) Many women are preferring more than two children over the post of sarpanch.
b) If punitive actions won’t work, people must be encouraged to have smaller families
voluntarily.
i) Total Fertility Rate (TFR) for the poorest women was 3.2 compared to only 1.5 for the
richest quintile in 2015-16.
ii) To get to TFR of 1.5, a substantial proportion of the population among the top 40%
must stop at one child.
i) Population growth in the north and central parts of India is far greater than that in
south India.
ii) However, southern states are ahead than northern states in development levels.
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a) 15th Finance Commission is expected to use the 2011 Census for making its
recommendations regarding source allocation among the states.
b) Before it, 1971 population is used to allocate seats for the Lok Sabha and for Centre-
State allocation under various Finance Commissions.
c) This proposed revision has led to protests from the southern States as the feeling is
that they are being penalized for better performance in reducing fertility.
e.g. Between the 1971 and 2011 Censuses, the population of Kerala grew by 56%
compared to about 140% growth for Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
d) A move to use the 2011 Census for funds allocation will favor the north-central States
compared to Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
a) Government must invest in the education and health of the workforce, particularly in
States whose demographic window of opportunity is still more than a decade away.
b) Enhancing the productivity of backward states will benefit everyone in the future.
c) India should accept the fact that being the most populous nation is its destiny. It must
work towards enhancing the lives of its current and future citizens.
STRIDE Scheme
1. The University Grants Commission (UGC) has approved a new scheme - ‘Scheme for
Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy’ (STRIDE).
2. STRIDE will provide support to research projects that are socially relevant, locally
need-based, nationally important and globally significant.
3. STRIDE shall support research capacity building as well as basic, applied and
transformational action research that can contribute to national priorities with a focus on
inclusive human development.
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STRIDE Objectives:
STRIDE components:
iii. Component-3
a. It will fund high impact research projects in the identified thrust areas in humanities
and human sciences through a national network of eminent scientists from leading
institutions.
b. Disciplines eligible for funding under this component include Philosophy, History,
Archaeology, Anthropology, Psychology, Liberal Arts, Linguistics, Indian Languages and
Culture, Indian Knowledge Systems, Law, Education, Journalism, Mass Communication,
Commerce, Management, Environment and Sustainable Development.
c. Grant available for this component is up to Rs. 1 crore for one HEI and up to Rs. 5
crores for the multi-institutional network. UGC is also proposing to provide a grant of Rs
2 lakh for developing proposals.
Source: PIB
Geography
Assam Floods
1. Assam is in facing another flood, with 57 lakh people displaced, all 33 districts
affected, and 36 people killed besides hundreds of animals.
2. This is the first wave of floods this monsoon, and flood control experts expect at least
two more.
1. The incessant monsoon rainfall and other natural and man-made factors are the main
reasons.
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2. The nature of the river Brahmaputra is a major factor. It is dynamic and unstable.
3. Its basin spreads over four countries: China, India, Bangladesh and Bhutan, with
diverse environments.
4. The Brahmaputra features among the world’s top five rivers in terms of discharge and
the sediment it brings.
1. The vast amount of sediment comes from Tibet, where the river originates. Tibet
region is cold, arid and lacks plantation. Glaciers melt, soil erodes and all of it results in a
highly sedimented river.
2. By the time the river enters Assam — a state comprising primarily floodplains
surrounded by hills on all sides — it deposits vast amounts of this silt, leading to erosion
and floods.
3. The river comes from a high slope to a flat plain, its velocity decreases suddenly, and
this results in the river unloading the sediment. The river’s channels are inadequate to
handle sediments, leading to floods.
4. The region is also an earthquake-prone zone, so the river has not been able to acquire
a stable character.
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6. It is common for people to settle in such places, which restricts the space the river has
to flow. When rainfall is heavy, it combines with all these factors and leads to destructive
floods. This happens very frequently.
1. The Brahmaputra Board had suggested that dams and reservoirs be built to mitigate
floods.
4. A proposed multipurpose dam in the region was scrapped because of objections by the
Arunachal government due to submergence concerns, which included a few small towns.
5. Therefore the government has been building embankments on the river as the only
measure.
7. The government also considered dredging and making the river deeper, but the
experts have advised against this because the Brahmaputra sediment yield is among the
highest in the world.
2. It needs to bring in all the basin-sharing countries on board and take measures in
catchment areas. For that, interstate relationships, political cooperation and the role of
the government are important.
2. “Flood-plain” zoning can be adopted as done in the US. Depending on the vulnerability
of the area, it is divided into categories, and accordingly, certain activities, such as
farming, building a house etc, are banned in those regions.
1. India’s 6,780 MW of nuclear power plants contributed to less than 3% of the country’s
electricity generation, which will come down as other sources will generate more.
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2. India refused to sign the Non-Proliferation Treaty, which was a setback for producing
nuclear energy.
3. In the 1950s, Dr Homi Bhabha proposed the Three Staged Programme for the
development of nuclear energy.
2. The first stage is based on ‘pressurised heavy water reactors (PHWR), which use
scarce Uranium to produce Plutonium.
3. The second stage aims to set up several ‘fast breeder reactors (FBRs).
4. These FBRs would use a mixture of Plutonium and the reprocessed ‘spent Uranium
from the first stage, to produce energy and more Plutonium, because the Uranium would
transmute into Plutonium.
5. The reactor would also convert some of the Thorium into Uranium-233, which can also
be used to produce energy.
6. After 3-4 decades of operation, the FBRs would have produced enough Plutonium for
use in the ‘third stage’.
Current Scenario
1. Even after 70 years, India is still stuck in the first stage. For the second stage, fast
breeder reactors are required.
3. The problem is about handling liquid Sodium, used as a coolant. If Sodium comes in
contact with water, it will explode; and the PFBR is being built on the humid coast of
Tamil Nadu.
4. So it will take another 30-40 years from now for the ‘Thorium cycle’ to become
functional.
5. The government has sanctioned another 9,000 MW of PHWR, but the work has not yet
begun.
6. These are the home-grown plants. The 2005 ‘Indo-U.S. nuclear deal’ set out plans for
more projects with imported reactors, but a 2010 Indian ‘nuclear liability’ legislation has
halted the plans.
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7. With all these issues, it is difficult to see India’s nuclear capacity going beyond 20,000
MW over the next two decades.
1. While Nuclear energy is clean, and can provide electricity 24x7 (base load), it is no
longer cheap as the production cost is rising.
2. Nuclear plants can provide the ‘base load’ which means they give a steady stream of
electricity, like coal or gas plants. Wind and solar power plants produce energy much
cheaper, but their power supply is irregular.
3. Gas is not available in India and coal has global warming concerns, nuclear is
sometimes regarded as the saviour, but there are other better options.
Ocean energy
a. Surface Attenuator: On the motion of the waters, or ocean swells, a flat surface is
placed, with a mechanical arm attached to it, and it becomes a pump that can be used to
drive water or compressed air through a turbine to produce electricity.
b. Tidal Energy: Here tides are tapped, which flow during one part of the day and ebb in
another. Electricity can be generated by channelling the tide and place a series of
turbines in its path.
c. Ocean Current energy: Here turbines are kept on the seabed at places where there is
a current — a river within the sea.
d. Wave Energy: Here waves dash against pistons in a pipe, so as to compress air at the
other end. Seawater is dense and heavy when it moves it can punch hard and, it never
stops moving.
2. All these methods have been tried in pilot plants in several parts of the world such as
Brazil, Denmark, U.K., Korea.
3. There are only two commercial plants in the world - in France and Korea.
Way Forward
1. India’s Gujarat State Power Corporation had a tie-up with U.K.’s Atlantic Resources for
a 50 MW tidal project in the Gulf of Kutch, but the project was given up after it was
discovered that it could sell the electricity only at ₹13 a kWhr.
2. But when technology improves and installations are scaled the cost would come down.
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Heat Waves
1. Recently, Europe went through a heatwave with highest temperature records, which
resulted in the death of people and fire outbreak.
2. Same patterns were also observed in India, Pakistan, parts of the Middle East and
Australia.
What is a heatwave?
Classification in India
2. Where the normal maximum is 40°C or less, the heatwave departure from normal is
5°C to 6°C and the severe heatwave departure is 7°C or more.
3. Where the normal maximum is more than 40°C, the heatwave departure from normal
is 4°C to 5°C while the severe heatwave departure is 6°C or more.
4. In places where the maximum temperature reaches 45°C or more, the IMD declares a
heatwave irrespective of the normal.
Why it is happening?
2. More events are expected to follow during this northern hemisphere summer.
4. As per WMO, the heatwave is consistent with climate scenarios. It predicts more
frequent, drawn out and intense heat events as greenhouse gas concentrations lead to a
rise in global temperatures.
5. Apart from heat waves, various climate models have predicted alternating periods of
prolonged droughts and heavy flooding in some areas.
1. The heat poses a risk to people’s health, agriculture and the environment.
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2. It is a departure from normal (what people are used to) makes heat waves dangerous.
A reading of 35°C, which many people in India would be able to cope with, can make
people severely ill in Germany.
3. Babies and older people are particularly vulnerable because their bodies are not as
well able to regulate their own temperatures as those of young adults.
4. High temperatures can cause exhaustion, heat stroke, organ failure, and breathing
problems.
5. Population living in urban areas are more vulnerable because heatwave traps them in
heat islands as steel, concrete, and asphalt structures absorb heat.
History
1. The decision was taken by the World Heritage Committee at the UNESCO’s 43rd
session at Baku, Azerbaijan.
3. The International Council on Monuments and Sites had inspected the city in 2018.
4. It considered the architecture of streets with colonnades, which intersect the centre,
creating large public squares called Chaupar.
4. The uniform facades of markets, residences and temples in the main streets had also
impressed the council.
About Jaipur
1. The fortified city was founded in 1727 by the Kachwaha Rajput ruler of Amber, Sawai
Jai Singh II.
2. The city was established on the plains and built according to a grid plan interpreted in
the light of Vedic architecture.
3. The city’s urban planning shows an intermingling of ideas from ancient Hindu, modern
Mughal and western cultures.
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Other Sites
1. The six other cultural sites added to the list are the
f. The Plains of Jars containing the megalithic jar sites in Xiengkhouang (Lao People’s
Democratic Republic).
1. Iran’s Hyrcanian forests and Migratory Bird Sanctuaries along the Coast of the Yellow
Sea Bohai, Gulf of China, was added to the World Heritage List, praising the regions for
their remarkable biodiversity.
2. The German city of Augsburg was also granted World Heritage status for its over 800-
year-old water management system boasting an aqueduct, water towers, ornate
fountains, canals and hundreds of bridges.
3. Iceland’s Vatnajokull National Park, Europe’s largest with a landscape of “fire and ice,”
also found a place in the list.
Pothamala Menhirs
a) Recently new Menhirs were sighted in the Pothamala Hills, Kerala. Menhirs are tall
upright stone of a kind erected in prehistoric times.
c) This discovery has thrown light on the possible existence of a major prehistoric
necropolis. Necropolis is a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments.
JATAN software
a) It is a virtual Museum software developed by Human Centres Design and Computing
Group, C-DAC, Pune as per the agreement with the Ministry of Culture.
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b) Software is used for creating the digital collections in various museums and archival
tools that are used for managing the National Portal and Digital Repository for Indian
Museums.
About C-DAC
c) It was set up in 1988 to build supercomputers and develop other advanced systems.
Source: PIB
b) The sole objective of the Scheme is to document and archive the country’s languages
that have become endangered or likely to be endangered in the near future.
d) The CIIL has collaborated with various universities and institutes across India for this
mission.
e) Under this Scheme, CIIL works on protection, preservation, and documentation of all
the mother languages of India spoken by less than 10,000 speakers.
f) These languages are identified as ‘Endangered languages’ because they are on the
verge of extinction.
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h) According to the criteria adopted by the UNESCO, a language becomes extinct when
nobody speaks or remembers the language. It has categorized languages on basis of
endangerment as follows:-
(i) Vulnerable
4. Colva in Goa
9. Hampi in Karnataka
1. To develop these sites into world-class tourist destinations and to serve as a model for
other tourism sites.
2. The overall development from the tourism point of view in and around these sites —
which includes roads and infrastructure, hotels and lodges, connectivity and access.
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3. Therefore several ministries, from Railways to Civil Aviation, will be involved, while the
Tourism Ministry will be the nodal agency.
4. The sites will be in line with international standards with interventions in and around
the monuments such as elements of universal accessibility, green technology, and
enhanced security for tourists.
1. The Tourism Ministry has been allocated Rs 1,378 crore for the development of
tourism infrastructure.
2. This is only marginally more than the allocations in 2017-18 (Rs 1,151 crore) and
2018-19 (Rs 1,330 crore).
1. Many of these monuments were opened up for adoption in 2017 under the Ministry of
Tourism’s Adopt a Heritage Scheme.
2. The Red Fort was adopted by the Dalmia Group, while the Qutub Minar and the Ajanta
Caves were adopted by Yatra Online.
3. The momentum of the scheme has slowed down since, and only 11 MoUs have been
signed so far.
Ethics
Individual Honesty
1. Honesty is essential for personal, social, economic and national development. Yet, we
see how people, companies and national governments cheat for self-interest.
3. The field experiments were conducted to examine whether people act more
dishonestly when they have a greater economic incentive to do so and found the
opposite to be true.
The Experiment
1. Volunteers would drop a wallet in public places, some wallets have money and some
without money along with and without keys and other things such as the address of the
owner.
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2. The volunteers watched the passers who found the wallet and what they did. The
results showed that in all of the 40 counties overwhelmingly people turned in wallets
more often wallet with money than without.
1. Citizens were more likely to return wallets that contained relatively larger amounts of
money. This finding is robust across countries and institutions and holds even when
economic incentives for dishonesty are substantial.
2. Results are consistent with theoretical models that incorporate altruism and self-image
concerns and also suggest that non-pecuniary motivations directly interact with the
material benefits gained from dishonest behaviour.
3. When people stand to heavily profit from engaging in dishonest behaviour, the desire
to cheat increases but so do the psychological costs of viewing oneself as a thief- and
sometimes the latter will dominate the former.
Indian cities
2. The results in these cities matched those found elsewhere; notably similar results were
found in Thailand, Malaysia and China in Asia, and in Kenyan and South African cities.
3. It would be valuable to conduct wallet experiments in many parts across India ranging
from big cities to small towns, villages (poor and the not so poor) and tribal areas.
4. We may see how our results fit in with the general conclusion above with comparable
economic and social norms, ethical and belief systems.
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