Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Test 05
Test 05
Info:
Maintainer: TechFAQ360
Home page: http://www.techfaq360.com
Version: 2
Questions
Question - 1
A. Identify Stakeholders
D. Reports performance
A is the correct answer. Finding out all people or organizations impacted by the project is called
Identify Stakeholders. PMBOK page no 392.
Question - 2
A. Stakeholder Register
D. Communication plan
A is the correct answer. Stakeholder Register is the output of Identify Stakeholders. Initial list of
stakeholders can be found in project charter. PMBOK page no 391.
Question - 3
A. Sponsor
B. Project Lead
C. Project Manager
D. Senior Management
Question - 4
A. Issue Log
B. Change Log
D. Scope statement
B is the correct answer. The Change Log is used to document changes that occur during a
project. PMBOK page no 406.
Question - 5
A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and
taken off the project team is called _______.
A is the correct answer. Staffing Management Plan:A document or tool which describes when
and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team
Question - 6
A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities and team members is
called _______.
B is the correct answer. A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or
activities and team members is called Responsibility Assignment Matrix
Question - 7
A. Plan Communications
B. Manage Communications
C. Control Communications
D. Conflict Management
D is the correct answer. Conflict Management is a tool and technique for Manage Project Team
Question - 8
A. Project Records
C. Performance Reports
D. Formal Acceptance
B is the correct answer. Communications Management Plan and Project document updates are
output of the Plan Communications process.
Question - 9
How much time does a typical project manager spend communicating both formally and
informally?
A. 40-60%
B. 50-70%
C. 60-80%
D. 75-90%
D is the correct answer. project manager spend 75-90% time to communicate both formally and
informally
Question - 10
A. Team building
B. Analysis of alternatives
C. Convergent thinking
D. Uninhibited verbalization
C is the correct answer. Group brainstorming does not encourages Convergent thinking
Question - 11
A is the correct answer. Written, verbal, and non-verbal are three major types of communications
Question - 12
B. Avoiding conflict
C. Seeking facts
Question - 13
A. Memos
C. Video conferencing
D is the correct answer. Inputting data into a spreadsheet is not communication tool. Memos
belongs to push communication. Video conferencing belongs to interactive communication.
Question - 14
C. Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own
departments and to the project manager
D. Power reset with Functional Manager
Question - 15
A is the correct answer. The sender is responsible for Confirming that the message is understood
Question - 16
B is the correct answer. four parts of the communications model are Sender, Message, Medium,
and Receiver
Question - 17
A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and
formulates solutions as a group is called _________.
A. Autocratic
B. Consultation in a group
C. Consensus
D. One-to-one consultation
Question - 18
Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed
during which of the following process?
A. Distribute Information
B. Administrative Closure
C. Organizational Planning
D. Report Performance
B is the correct answer. Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be
prepared and distributed during Administrative Closure process
Question - 19
B. Projectized organization
A is the correct answer. project manager's role is likely to be cordinator in weak or functional
matrix organization
Question - 20
Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT ________.
B. Identify Risks
C. Risk Analysis
C is the correct answer. Perform qualitative risk analysis and Perform quantitative risk analysis is
the process of Project Risk Management NOT Risk Analysis
Question - 21
Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about
contingency reserves is false?
A. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations
which may be planned for only in part.
D. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.
C is the correct answer. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns
Question - 22
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk
analysis Process?
B. Risk Categorization
C. Interviewing
D. Sensitivity Analysis
B is the correct answer. Risk Categorization is done in Perform qualitative risk analysis
Question - 23
A. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk event should occur
B. A workaround
C. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
A is the correct answer. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken, if an identified risk
event should occur is called contingency plan
Question - 24
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Exploit
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
Question - 25
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Exploit
D is the correct answer. Exploit is considered as strategy for positive risk.Strategies for negative
risks are Avoid,Transfer,Mitigate and Accept.
Question - 26
B. Deflection
C. Avoidance
D. Transfer
C is the correct answer. Avoidance is eliminating threat entirely. PMPBOK Page no 303.
Question - 27
Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response
categories?
A. Transfer
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigate
A is the correct answer. transfer of a risk to another party (third party) is part of Transfer strategy
(Strategies for negative risks).
Question - 28
D is the correct answer. Identify Risks should be performed On a regular basis throughout the
project
Question - 29
A. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.
B. The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.
C. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
risk event value.
Question - 30
A. A risk is identified
B is the correct answer. A contingency plan is executed when An identified risk occurs
Question - 31
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. Business risks
D. Pure risks
A is the correct answer. Management reserves are used to handle Unknown unknowns. Specific
unknown risks cannot be managed proactively; project team should create a contingency plan.
Question - 32
Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project
durations more accurately?
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. Schedule Simulation
C is the correct answer. Schedule Simulation generally estimates project durations more
accurately.
Question - 33
Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
A. Delphi
B. PERT
C. CPM
D is the correct answer. Most schedule simulations are based Monte Carlo Analysis
Question - 34
A. The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.
B. The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and
high impact.
B is the correct answer. Most radical avoidance strategy is shutdown the project entirely.
Question - 35
If a project has an 80% chance of activity will take 2 weeks or less. what is the probability of the
event?
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 50%
D. 20%
D is the correct answer. 20% probability of exceeding 2 weeks - 80% chance of activity will take
2 weeks or less
Question - 36
The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence
of the other is called _______.
A. Event phenomenon
B. Independent probability
C. Statistical independence
D. Statistical probability
C is the correct answer. The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not
related to the occurrence of the other is called Statistical independence
Question - 37
The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is _______.
B. WBS
C. Scope Statement
D. Project Charter
A. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
D. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.
A is the correct answer. Risks are accepted when You develop a contingency plan to execute in
case the risk event occurs and You accept the consequences of the risk.
Question - 39
A. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.
B. Purchasing insurance
D. You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.
A is the correct answer. Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage
after risk has occurred is mitigation.
Question - 40
A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called
__________.
C is the correct answer. A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per
unit of service is called time and material contract.
Question - 41
A. Whether to procure
Question - 42
Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the
effect of personal prejudice on source selection?
A. Weighting System
B. Screening System
C. Selecting System
Question - 43
Question - 44
C. Overhead costs
D. Both a and c
D is the correct answer. Salaries of full-time project staff included in direct cost.
Question - 45
Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract
D. Firm-fixed-price contract
D is the correct answer. Firm-fixed-price contract is good for buyer because product cost not
change unless scope of work not changes.
Question - 46
A. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract
Question - 47
As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the
conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for
which of the following:
C is the correct answer. quality audit can confirm the implementation of approved change
requests,Defining future project tasks.
Question - 48
The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project
participants plays the most important role in the quality function?
A. Customer
B. Project Manager
C. Project Team
Question - 49
B. The process of defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives
Question - 50
Completion of the _____________ scope is measured against the project management plan.
A. Project
B. Technical
C. Product
D. Baseline
A is the correct answer. Completion of the Project scope is measured against the project
management plan.
Question - 51
B. A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase
D. Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions
Question - 52
A work breakdown structure is a ______.
B. Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total scope of
the project
C. Structure that can be used to track the project's time, cost, and quality performance against a
defined baseline
D. Valuable communications tool, but cannot be used to establish the number of required
networks for Control Costs
B is the correct answer. WBS :Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes
and defines the total scope of the project
Question - 53
The items at the lowest level of the WBS are called __________.
A. Code of accounts
B. Subtasks
C. Work packages
D. Nodes
C is the correct answer. items at the lowest level of the WBS are called Work packages
Question - 54
All of the following statements about the project charter are correct except:
D is the correct answer. project charter includes budget summary and summary milestone
schedule also.
Question - 55
A. Be considered part of the project life cycle because it is part of the total life cycle costing
needed to do benefit/cost analysis in Collect Requirements
B. Be part of the work breakdown structure to give the total scope of the required activities and
effort
C is the correct answer. Maintenance should not be considered as a part of the project life cycle
Question - 56
A. Market demand
C. Regulatory requirement
D. Technological advance
Question - 57
B. Initiation
C. Program evaluation
D. Scope validation
Question - 58
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions is called __________.
A. Product scope
B. Staffing scope
C. The project
D. Project scope
Question - 59
The ___________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to create.
A. Project charter
B. Scope statement
C. Product description
D. Technical article
Question - 60
A. Work results
C. Customer requirements
D. Product defects
Question - 61
The project manager should be assigned ___________ as an output from the Initiation process.
Question - 62
Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is called
_________________.
A. Product Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Project Development
D. Collect Requirements
Question - 63
B. Value engineering
C. Expert judgment
D. Alternatives identification
A. Lateral thinking
B. Value engineering
C. Cost/benefit analysis
D. Constraints analysis
Question - 65
C. How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the
project
D. The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they
will be addressed
Question - 66
Decomposition is ___________.
A. What happens when changes to the project scope are ignore
B. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components
D. Subdividing the project into logical divisions of effort aligned within the performing
organization's functional areas
Question - 67
A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the
following project management tools EXCEPT:
Question - 68
You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him
with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if
the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the
usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?
Question - 69
The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on
completion is the ___________.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. Client
Question - 70
D. Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality Management, and Plan
Risk Responses
C is the correct answer. No Expl 36
Question - 71
A. Making the information clear, unambiguous, and complete so that the receiver can receive it
correctly
B. Ensuring information conveyed is accurate, clear, and timely so that it is useful to the receiver
C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly
D. Identifying the proper choice of media, eliminating communications barriers, and utilizing the
appropriate style and tone
Question - 72
The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the
contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and
a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) is
_________.
A. $93,000
B. $96,000
C. $97,000
Question - 74
Question - 75
_____________ involve coordinating people and other resources to carry out the plan.
C. Planning processes
D. Executing processes
Question - 76
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule progress
Question - 77
The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on
completion is the _______.
A. Owner
B. Sponsor
C. Customer
D. Client
A is the correct answer. No Expl 43
Question - 78
During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on
the project?
Question - 79
To shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan
should then be reviewed for the __________.
Question - 80
The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called
resource _______.
A. Tracking
B. Loading
C. Crashing
D. Levelling
Question - 81
B. Work charter
C. Statement of work
Question - 82
Question - 83
A. Exceeding requirements
Question - 84
Question - 85
Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting?
B. Obtaining commitment
Question - 86
Question - 87
Which of the following approaches to quality improvement is LEAST likely to produce positive
results?
A. Continuous improvement
B. Increased inspection
Question - 88
Team motivation, problem resolution, and space verification occur during which process?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Close
Question - 89
You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several
years but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place.
The project has not exceeded many baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with
the status of the project. Which of the following is the BEST initial action?
D. None
Question - 91
Question - 92
The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow
the ________.
A. Communications plan
B. Control Scope plan
Question - 93
A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by which of
the following:
A. Function
B. Design
C. Cost
D. Fabrication
Question - 94
You are the project manager of a project .The senior executive of your company wants monthly
schedule update of your project. Which of the following would you send to the executive?
A. Milestone chart
D. PERT chart
A is the correct answer. No Expl 17
Question - 95
When closing a project that involved significant procurement, attention must be given to
archiving ________.
A. Financial records
B. Inspection specifications
C. Project charter
D. Project reports
Question - 96
The principle states that "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective
performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive
stay productive." This principle illustrates which of the following theory?
A. Expectancy theory
B. Maslow theory
C. Herzberg theory
D. None
A. Administration
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Planning
D. Solicitation
Question - 98
A. WBS
B. Critical path
D. Responsible organization
Question - 99
In a large, complex project, the authority to accept or reject a requested change should rest with
the ________.
A. Lead
B. Client
C. Project manager
Question - 100
A. Outputs
B. Tools
C. Functions
D. Inputs
Question - 101
A. Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards
During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project
without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change
BEST be documented?
A. Project charter
Question - 103
You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end
date has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the
project, but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. What should the project team
do immediately?
D. Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work
Question - 104
An individual's willingness to take a risk can be determined by which of the following:
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Utility theory
Question - 105
You are the project manager of a project. You have to determine the staffing requirements of the
project. Which of the following you need:
D. Organization chart
Question - 106
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance measurement
C. Parametric modelling
D. Statistical sampling
Question - 107
D. Project deliverables
Question - 108
A. Referent power
B. Formal power
C. Functional power
D. Expert power
A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control
Question - 110
Who is the person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project's conceptual study?
A. Project manager
B. President
D. Project sponsor
Question - 111
A. The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work
items
Question - 112
A. ACWP/BAC
B. BCWP-ACWP
C. BCWP/BAC
D. EAC/BAC
Question - 113
A. Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives
C. Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the
resulting product
D. Both B and C
D. Both B and C
Question - 115
A. ETC + ACWP
B. BAC - ETC
C. BAC/CPI
D. Both A and C
Question - 116
C. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs
D. Both A and B
Question - 117
D. Both A and C
Question - 118
Estimate Costs_____________.
A. Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project
activities
Question - 119
A. Activity List
B. Resource Calendar
C. Activity attributes
D is the correct answer. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources.
Question - 120
The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called __________.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
D. Quality Review
A is the correct answer. The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis
to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called Quality
Assurance
Question - 121
The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards is called ______________.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
D. Quality Review
B is the correct answer. The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they
comply with relevant quality standards is called Quality Control
Question - 122
A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by
each identified cause is __________.
A. Statistical Histogram
B. Juran Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Pareto Diagram
D is the correct answer. Pareto diagram (Pareto chart) shows how many defects were generated
by types or category of identified cause.
Question - 123
Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality Management process include which of the
following:
A. Benefit/cost analysis
B. Control charts
C. Cost of Quality
D is the correct answer. All are tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality Management
process.
Question - 124
The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally
expressed by top management is a __________.
A. Quality Plan
B. Quality Statement
C. Quality Policy
D. TQM
Question - 125
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
D is the correct answer. Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is
done in Close Procurements.
Question - 126
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management
Question - 127
What is CI?
A. Continuous improvement
The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to which
of the following:
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
Question - 129
The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity is called
_________.
A. Innovation
B. Continuous improvement
C. Just in time
D. Paradigm
A is the correct answer. The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of
maturity is called Innovation
Question - 130
The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under
different conditions determines its __________.
A. Usability
B. Flexibility
C. Operability
D. Availability
Question - 131
A. Scrap
B. Rework
C. Liabilities
D. Training
Question - 132
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
D is the correct answer. Cost of quality includes both cost of conformance and cost of non-
conformance to quality
Question - 133
A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called ____________.
A. Run Chart
B. Trend Analysis
C. Outliers
D. Cycle
A is the correct answer. A Run chart is a line graph that shows data points in the order in which
they occur.A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average.
Question - 134
80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.
Question - 135
A relatively small number of causes typically produce a majority of the problems and defects is a
concept of ___________.
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
D is the correct answer. Pareto law : A relatively small number of causes typically produce a
majority of the problems and defects. This is called 80/20 principle , 80% of the problems due to
20% of the causes.
Question - 136
A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps
has been performed is called __________.
A. Quality Policy
B. Check List
C. Trend Analysis
D. Pareto Diagram
B is the correct answer. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that
a set of required steps has been performed is called Check List
Question - 137
A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called
______________________.
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Ishikawa diagram
D is the correct answer. Cause and effect diagram is also called Ishikawa diagram or fishbone
diagram.
Question - 138
The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental
level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:
Question - 139
C. Executive Manager
D. Project Manager
Question - 140
Question - 141
B. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. When team members are accountable to both functional and project managers
A. No impact at all
Question - 143
A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the
dispute and make a decision is called __________.
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
Question - 144
A. Recruitment practices
B. Project interfaces
C. Staffing requirements
D. Constraints
Question - 145
Question - 146
The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads
to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation
theory?
A. Theory Y
B. Theory Z
C. Theory X
D. Contingency Theory
B is the correct answer. No Expl 42
Question - 147
B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills
and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a
sense of competence
C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to
successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards
Question - 148
A. Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction
B. Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives
Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?
A. Executing processes
B. Planning processes
C. Controlling Processes
D. Closing processes
A is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and
taking corrective action. Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
Question - 150
A. Executing processes
B. Planning processes
C. Controlling Processes
D. Closing processes
C is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and
taking corrective action. Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
Question - 151
B. Planning processes
C. Controlling Processes
D. Closing processes
D is the correct answer. Planning Processes: Approach to executing project. Executing processes:
Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes: Monitoring, measuring, and
taking corrective action. Closing processes: Formal product acceptance and end of project.
Question - 152
A. Project performance
B. Stakeholder requirements
C. Schedule progress
A is the correct answer. Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to assess
the magnitude of variation.
Question - 153
The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on
completion is the _________.
A. Owner
B. Client
C. Sponsor
D. Customer
Question - 154
You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them
determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model,
which one of the following is the most important factor?
A. Business needs
B. Type of constraints
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Question - 155
A. Customers
B. Project team
C. Project Sponsor
D. Stakeholders
B is the correct answer. The project team contributes to the Lessons Learned document.
Question - 156
A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management
processes?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Control Scope
B is the correct answer. A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope
system.
Question - 157
Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality
testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is
an example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Change control
C. Quality Assurance
D is the correct answer. Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for
the project. This is an example of Integrated Change Control.
Question - 158
Which of the following is not true about change requests?
A is the correct answer. Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes
may require more funds, but not always.
Question - 159
During the project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing
which one of the following?
D. None
A is the correct answer. The project sponsor can help the project manager and the stakeholders
resolve issues during project integration management.
Question - 160
A is the correct answer. A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and
expectations are met or exceeded.
Question - 161
A. Buyer
B. Contractor
C. Project sponsor
D. Project manager
A is the correct answer. Buyer provides SOW when projects are performed under contract.
Question - 162
A. Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets
D. Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets
A is the correct answer. Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are Project statement of
work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets.
Question - 163
B. One manager
D. None
A is the correct answer. Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers.
Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.
Question - 164
According to the PMBOK Guide, the project statement of work (SOW) should contain or
reference all the following elements except?
C. Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business needs
D. Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, and product scope description
A is the correct answer. The project SOW should contain the business needs for the project and
the product scope description and should support the organization's strategic plan.
Question - 165
A. Prototypes
C. Observations
D is the correct answer. Tools and techniques used in Collect Requirements are Prototypes,
Group Decision Making Techniques, Observations and Collect Requirements Process.
Question - 166
C. Collector
D. Engineer
A is the correct answer. There are two approaches to observation: Passive (invisible) and Active
(visible). In Passive observation, the observer does not interfere by asking questions or
participating in the work they simply observe and take notes (afterwards they may ask
questions). In Active observation, the observer is free to ask questions and may even perform
some of the work.
Question - 167
D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.
A is the correct answer. Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of
capital.
Question - 168
You are the project manager for an organization. You are considering recommending a project
that costs $280,000; expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then
$25,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?
A. 48 months
B. 40 months
C. 36 months
D. 50 months
A is the correct answer. Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $40,000 for a total of $80,000. Year 3
inflows are an additional $100,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $280,000 is
reached in 4 years, or 48 months.
Question - 169
D is the correct answer. IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when
NPV is equal to zero.
Question - 170
Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered as
______________.
A is the correct answer. Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project
selection methods tool and technique of the Develop Project Charter process.
Question - 171
Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20
months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year
and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?
B is the correct answer. Project B has a payback period of 24 months; $50,000 is received in the
first 12 months, with another $100,000 coming in over next 12 months.
Question - 172
A. The project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.
B. The project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name.
C. The project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.
D. The project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.
A is the correct answer. According to the PMBOK Guide, the project charter should be published
by a manager external to the project but with sufficient power and authority to carry it off.
Question - 173
An activity has an Early Finish(EF) of 5 days and Late Finish(LF) of 16 days.What is activity's
float ?
A. 11 days
B. 21 days
C. 5 days
D. 16 days
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Activity float = Late Finish - Early Finish = 16-
5 = 11 days
Question - 174
As a project manager of a project , you have just completed Schedule network diagram. What
should you do NEXT time management activity?
B. Sequence Activities
D. Develop Schedule
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Schedule network diagram is an output of
Sequence Activities, NEXT process is Estimate Activity Resources.
Question - 175
As a project manager of a project , you have just completed Schedule network diagram. Which
of the following time management activity you have completed?
B. Sequence Activities
D. Develop Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Schedule network diagram is an output of
Sequence Activities.
Question - 176
You are project manager of a project and you have decided to CRASH the project. Which of the
following is the most likely outcome of this ?
A. increased cost
B. added risk
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. CRASHING is reducing project time by
expending additional resources. Therefore option A is true.
Question - 177
Risk probability and impact Assessment, Risk Categorization are done during:
D. Risk identification
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Risk probability and impact Assessment, Risk
Categorization are done during qualitative risk analysis.
Question - 178
A. thumb rule.
B. activity diagram.
C. workaround.
D. control tool.
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Heuristics is thumb rule. Examples are cost per
square feet etc.
Question - 179
Comparing target dates with the actual or forecast start and finish dates is called :
A. Variance Analysis
B. Earned Value
C. Progress Reporting
D. Crashing
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Variance Analysis : Comparing target dates with
the actual or forecast start and finish dates.
Question - 180
Question - 181
You are project manager of a software project. Your team member want to technical change to a
activity which will add more time to that activity. What should you do ?
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Check the activity is in critical path is the best
option.
Question - 182
You are project manager of a software project. You have just analyzed activity sequences,
durations, resource requirements , schedule constraints and created project schedule. The above
task belongs to which process?
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource
requirements , schedule constraints and created project schedule is belongs to Develop Schedule
process.
Question - 183
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. GERT
D. pareto chart
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
(PERT): Uses a weighted average duration estimate to calculate duration. Uses the probability of
an estimate's accuracy. Expected Time = (Low + 4*Medium + High) / 6
Question - 184
Identify and documenting the activities that must be performed to produce the project
deliverables is called :
B. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
D is the correct answer. D is the correct answer. Identify and documenting the activities that
must be performed to produce the project deliverables is called Define Activities .
Question - 185
If you are the project manager of a project and you break down the WBS into smaller _______ to
get detail so that you can construct a schedule.
A. Work packages
B. Section
C. Issues
D. None
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. The work packages give you the detail you need
to construct a schedule.
Question - 186
You are the project manager for the Project. You are decomposing the Define Activities, the
final output is ______?
A. Deliverables
B. Work packages
C. Activity list
D. Milestone List
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. Activity list - A list of all the activities that will
be performed on the project and a description of each.
Question - 187
You are the project manager for the large Project. You are identifying and documenting
relationship among the project activities. This process is called ______?
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Sequence Activities - identifying and
documenting relationship among the project activities.
Question - 188
You are the project manager for the large Project. You are identifying external dependencies for
the activities with management team. Identifying external dependencies are done in ______?
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
B is the correct answer. B is the correct answer. Identifying external dependencies are done in
Sequence Activities.
Question - 189
You are the project manager for the large Project. You have identified and documented
relationship among the project activities and created project schedule network diagram. What is
your NEXT step ?
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
C is the correct answer. C is the correct answer. project schedule network diagram is input of
Develop Schedule.
Question - 190
You are the project manager for the Project. You are updating the WBS during Define Activities,
are often called ________?
A. Refinements
B. Updates
C. Activities
D. Supporting detail
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. updating the WBS during Define Activities, are
often called Refinements. It occurs with riskier projects.
Question - 191
Three estimates are : Pessimistic (P) : 30 Most Likely (M) : 25 Optimistic (O) : 14 What is
Standard deviation ?
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 14%
D. 26.6%
D is the correct answer. D is the correct answer. Standard deviation formula = (P - O) / 6 then
(30-14)/6 = 70
Question - 192
Which of the following estimating technique is less costly and time consuming?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric analysis
C. Bottom up estimating
D. Regression analysis
A is the correct answer. A is the correct answer. Analogous estimating is less accurate than other
estimating methods. Analogous estimating is used in early phase of the project. Analogous
estimating technique is less costly and time consuming.
Question - 193
A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
B is the correct answer. A requirement document is an input to the Define Scope process.
Question - 194
The high level project and product requirements must be defined in the ____
A. Requirement document
B. Project Charter
C. Project Plan
D. WBS
B is the correct answer. The high level project and product requirements must be defined in the
Project Charter.
Question - 195
A. Collect Requirements
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
A is the correct answer. A Change Request is not a possible output from the Collect
Requirements process.
Question - 196
You are a project manager of a large project and you are identifying some alternative techniques
to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of a project. You are doing it
as a part of:
A. Collect Requirements
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
D is the correct answer. This is call an Alternative Identification in the Define Scope process.
Question - 197
As a project manager you are creating a table that map requirements to their origin and traces
them throughout the project life cycle. You are doing it as a part of:
A. Collect Requirements
B. Control Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Define Scope
A is the correct answer. Creating a table that map requirements to their origin and traces them
throughout the project life cycle is called the Requirement tractability matrix, which is an output
of Collect Requirements process. PMBOK Page no, 105.
Question - 198
A ___________process enables the creation of the WBS from a detailed project scope statement.
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
B is the correct answer. The Plan Scope Management process defines the process of creating the
WBS
Question - 199
B. Requirements Document
C. WBS
D is the correct answer. The product acceptance criteria are included in the project scope
statement. PMBOK Page no 122.
Question - 200
You are project manager and need as many as inputs is possible in the initiation phase. Which of
the following is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical Information
B. WBS
C. Business Plans
A is the correct answer. Historical information is the best input for the initiation phase. WBS is
incorrect as the WBS would not be ready. Business is incorrect as business plans are not a likely
input to the initiation process.