Test 7 Q PDF

Online Prelims TEST - 7 (SUBJECT WISE)
( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 ) Total Marks : 200
1 Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833

1. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
2. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
3. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. None
2 Consider the following statements

1. Government of India Act of 1858 known as the Act for the Good Government of India.
2. British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in
India through Pitt’s India Act of 1784.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
3 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861

1. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies.
2. It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier
Province (NWFP) and Mysore.
3. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council
during an emergency.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

1. Fundamental rights are negative as they prohibit the state from doing certain things whereas
directive principles are positive as they require the State to do certain things
2. Fundamental rights do not require any legislation for their implementation whereas directive
principles require legislation for their implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
1
5 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1919

1. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
2. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and
provincial subjects.
3. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the
provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
6 Which of the following was/were the recommendations of Simon Commission?

1. Abolition of communal electorate
2. Continuation of dyarchy
3. Establishment of a federation of British India

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
7 The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

1. Absence of external constraints
2. All decisions are made collectively
3. Conditions in which people can develop their abilities
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8 Which of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the
states?
1. President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in
public jobs to such minorities.
2. President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
2
1. Communal award restricted separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo
Indians and Europeans only
2. White Paper on Consitutional Reforms was prepared by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935.

1. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
2. It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1919.
3. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely
states as units.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only

1. Constitution contains permanent and elaborate provisions regarding citizenship.
2. Constitution does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship.
3. A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India for
resettlement could become an Indian citizen.

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
12 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act of 1947.

1. It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any constitution
for their respective nations.
2. It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of
Pakistan or to remain independent.
3. It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and
Pakistan.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3
1. Liaquat Ali Khan was the minister of Finance in Interim government (1946).
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the minister of External affairs and Commonwealth Relations in Interim
government (1946).

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by Jawaharlal Nehru
2. British principally accepted the idea of constituent assembly for the first time through Cripps
Proposal.
3. Muslim league accepted the idea of Cripps Proposals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None
15 Consider the following statements regarding the composition of Constituent assembly.

1. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
August offer.
2. Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
3. Seats were allotted on the basis of population at that time.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
16 Which of the following functions was/were performed by constituent assembly other than making
Indian Constitution?
1. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947
2. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950
3. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4
17 Consider the following pairs

Committee Headed by
1.
Provincial Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
2.
Committee for Negotiating with States Sardar Patel
3.
Steering Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above are matched correctly in the context of committees constituted in
Constituent assembly?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only

1. Article 1 deals about formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
2. Article 123 deals about the power of president to promulgate ordinances during recess of
Parliament.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Mysore province had sent highest number of members to constituent assembly amongst Princely
states.
2. The Provisional Parliament ceased to exist on April 17, 1952

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. All the provisions of constitution were enforced on January, 26, 1950.
2. Indian Independence Act of 1947 was repealed after the commencement of constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
5
21 Which of the following is/are some of the criticisms regarding Constituent assembly?
1. Dominated by Congress
2. Lawyer–Politician Domination
3. Dominated by Hindus

A. 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
22 Which of the following were the major points of the Objectives Resolution introduced in the
Constituent Assembly?
1. Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of
the Government except those assigned to the Union
2. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India shall flow from its Constitution
3. All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured equality of status and opportunities along with
equality before law

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
23 Which one of the following Fundamental rights was described by Dr. B. R.

Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’?
A. Right to freedom of Religion

B. Right to free speech and expression
C. Right to equality
D. Right to Constitutional remedies
24 Which of the following actions of the government form(s) the part of

implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
1. Abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars, Jagirdars, inamdars etc
2. Nationalisation of Commercial Banks
3. Bonded Labour System Abolition Act
4. Maternity Benefit Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
25 Which one of the following pairs of Schedules in the Constitution of India

and its content is not correctly matched?
Schedule Content
6
A. Second Schedule : Emoluments of important Constitutional posts

B. Eleventh Schedule : Subjects devolved to Panchayat Raj Institutions
C. Fifth Schedule : Federal Structure
D. Eighth Schedule : Languages

1. 42nd Amendment Act restricted the powers of Judicial Review
2. 52nd Amendment Act introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
27 Which of the following factors contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution?
1. Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states
2. Population of India
3. Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
4. Dominance of legal luminaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
28 Which of the following are the salient features of Indian Constitution?

1. Federal System with Unitary Bias
2. Drawn From Various Sources
3. Integrated and Independent Judiciary
4. Two-tier Government

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
2. Indian Federation is the result of an agreement by the states.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
7
30 Consider the following statements regarding Regulating Act, 1773

1. It prohibited the servants of the company from engaging in any private trade.
2. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the company.
3. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
31 Which of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary Form of government?

1. Collective responsibility of the executive to the President.
2. Dissolution of the lower House
3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature

A. 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
32 Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court

1. It is the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens.
2. It is the guardian of the Indian constitution
3. It is the highest court of appeal in India

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
33 A Democratic constitution would lose its credibility if
A. It is heavily based on the Constitution of another nation.

B. The people behind framing the Constitution were unelected.
C. It centralizes power from the federal units into the Union government.
D. It is not based on secular ideas.
34 A Constitution usually does NOT serve this function:
A. Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation

B. Specifies allocation of power in the nation in a skeletal form
C. Brings in Rule of Law in a society
D. Distributes economic resources within the population
8
1. In the Kesavananda Bharati case Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the
bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles
2. Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be
the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens.
2. Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable
3. The 96th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
37 Which of the provisions of the constitution provide for the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship
2. No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion
3. The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
38 Consider the following pairs

Features Borrowed Sources
1.
Federation with a strong Centre Soviet Constitution
2.
Method of election of President. US Constitution
3.
Federal Scheme Canadian Constitution
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None
39 Eighth Schedule recognizes which of the following languages?
9
1. English
2. Sanskrit
3. Magadi
4. Hindi

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
40 The idea of residuary powers in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of
A. France
B. Australia
C. UK
D. Canada
41 Which of these South Asian nations is/are constitutional monarchy?

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Maldives

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

1. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from President of India.
2. Preamble declares that India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican
polity

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
43 Which of the following rights and privileges constitution confers on the citizens of India and denies
the same to aliens?
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
3. Cultural and educational rights

A. 2 only
10
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that
Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. The Preamble has been amended only twice till date.
2. It is justiciable and its provisions are enforceable in courts of law

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
46 Consider the following statements regarding Morley-Minto Reforms

1. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative
councils to have non-official majority.
2. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of
‘separate electorate’.
3. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
47 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act reduced the voting

age from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act

B. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 64th Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 68th Constitutional Amendment Act
48 The Indian model of Secularism would stand violated if

1. The state participates in religious reforms
11
2. The state supports or facilitates religious activities.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None

1. Territory of India includes Territories of the states and Union territories only.
2. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first
schedule of the Constitution.
3. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. Parliament can alter the boundaries of any state without their consent
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas of states are not to be considered as amendments of
the Constitution under Article 368

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
51 Consider the following events with respect to the Union of India.

1. Formation of the State of Nagaland
2. States Reorganization Act
3. Formation of the State of Haryana
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
A. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
B. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
C. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
D. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
52 Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Mandamus, Prohibition and Certiorari

B. Mandamus and Certiorari
C. Mandamus and Prohibition
12
D. Prohibition and Certiorari

1. No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily
acquired the citizenship of any foreign state
2. A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by
birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
3. If he is a citizen of any country, he undertakes to renounce the citizenship of that country in the
event of his application for Indian citizenship being accepted
Under which of the above criteria mentioned above, a person can acquire Indian Citizenship?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 only

1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth and not on the ground of residence.
2. The Parliament can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain
employments or appointments in that state.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
55 The term “Socialist” in the Preamble of the Constitution implies

1. The government strives to maintain a more equitable distribution of wealth in society.
2. Government should regulate and facilitate the equitable ownership of factors of production to
achieve desired socio-economic objectives.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
56 The boundary commission headed by Radcliff demarcated
A. Provincial areas of Bihar and Assam post Bengal Partition 1905

B. Boundaries between the two Dominions of India and Pakistan
C. Burmese Enclaves in the north-eastern frontier of India
D. North-west frontier of India post-Soviet invasion

1. The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all citizens without any
discrimination.
13
2. The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
58 Which of the following is/are the features of Fundamental Rights?

1. They are not absolute but qualified
2. They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement
3. They are permanent in nature

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and
educationally backward classes
2. The term ‘untouchability’ has been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
60 The term ‘State’ under Article 12 includes:

1. Government and Parliament of India
2. Municipalities and Panchayats
3. Any private agency working as an instrument of the State

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. The Muslim League boycotted the meeting of constituent assembly
2. Working of constitution assembly was started after India’s Independence.
3. Constituent assembly was a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased.

A. 1 and 3 only
14
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. Right to strike is a fundamental right
2. Right to freedom of movement entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the
country without any restrictions
3. All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or
business

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. 44th constitutional amendment added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity to preamble
2. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
64 Consider the following statements.

1. A right is only possible when one can make a claim that is equally possible for others.
2. Rights not only indicate what the state must do, they also suggest what the state must refrain from
doing.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
65 Right to Equality in the Indian constitution does NOT include this right?
A. Equal access to shops, bathing ghats and hotels to citizens

B. Abolition of titles
C. Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
D. Rights of the accused and convicts
66 Article 22 confers which of the following rights for a person who is arrested or detained?
1. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner
2. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time
3. Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
15

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
67 Consider the following statements regarding Martial Law

1. It affects only Fundamental Rights
2. It has no specific provision in the Constitution
3. It is imposed in the whole country.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
68 Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State policy

1. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935.
2. The Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of
a law.
3. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the
Preamble to the Constitution

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
69 Which of the following is/are the socialist principles of Directive Principle of State Policy?
1. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief
2. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health
3. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health
4. To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six
years

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
70 Which of the following directive principles of state policy was/were included by 42nd Amendment Act
of 1976?
1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
16
3. To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of
national importance

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
71 Which of these ideals or values can be found both in Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties?
1. Conservation of environment
2. Promoting harmony and the spirit of fraternity
3. Cherishing and upholding noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
72 Which of the following directives is/are outside the Part IV of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Claims of SC and ST into public services
2. Instruction in mother tongue to linguistic minority children
3. Development of the Hindi Language

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
73 Which of these bests characterizes a “nation-state”?

#00000
A. A nation with a large geographical expanse

B. Any political entity
C. A legal or political entity which is also a cultural and social entity
D. Any body that has a constitution governing it

1. Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by minister only.
2. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the
legislatures of half of the states by a special majority
3. An amendment to Constitution can be initiated in Parliament only

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
17
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
75 Which of the following is/are the components of basic structure of Constitution?

1. Secular character of the Constitution
2. Judicial review
3. Rule of Law
4. Principle of reasonableness

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
76 With reference to Oxytocin drug, consider the following statements:

1. It is included as a lifesaving drug in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM).
2. It is prescribed for induction of labour in women.
3. The health ministry had in April 2018 notified a ban on manufacturing of the drug by Karnataka
Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd, a government company.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
77 Consider the following pairs:

Robot in Space Country
1. FEDOR France
2. Robonaut 2 Canada
3. Kirobo China
Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None
78 With reference to the microplastics, consider the following statements:

1. They are less than 15 millimeters in length.
2. Microplastics can come in the form of microbeads, which are small, manufactured plastic beads
used in health and beauty products.
3. Recently, WHO looked into the specific impact of microplastics in tap and bottled water.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
18
D. 1, 2 and 3
79 With reference to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to expand the jurisdiction of applicability of rules from the municipal area to rural areas.
2. It superseded the earlier Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
80 Which of the following committees was formed by the Reserve Bank Of India (RBI) to review the
Economic Capital Framework of the Central Bank ?
A. Vijay Kelkar Committee

B. Bimal Jalan Committee
C. Aravind Saxena Committee
D. Raghuram Rajan Committee
81 With reference to Global coal consumption, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s largest consumer of Coal, followed by china, Japan and South Korea.
2. Asia is the world’s largest producer and consumer of coal, accounting for 75 % of global demand.
3. South-East Asia was the only region in the world in which coal’s share of power generation grew
last year.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
82 With reference to the M-Sand, consider the following statements:

1. Manufactured sand (M-Sand) is a substitute of river sand for concrete construction.
2. It does not contain organic and soluble compound that affects the setting time and properties of
cement.
3. It is manufactured using technology like High Carbon steel hit rock and then ROCK ON ROCK
process
4. The size of M-Sand is less than 4.75mm.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
83 Recently, NASA’s MMS finds its first Interplanetary Shock. In this context, consider the following
statements
1. NASA launched the Magnetospheric Multiscale (MMS) mission in 2017.
19
2. Interplanetary shocks are a type of collision less shock — ones where particles transfer energy
through electromagnetic fields instead of directly bouncing into one another.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
84 The Geographical Indication (GI) under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
has recently registered 4 new GIs, which of the following pairs are correctly matched.
1. Tawlhlohpuan: Assam.
2. Mizo Puanchei: Mizoram.
3. Tirur Betel leaf: Kerala.
4. Palani Panchamirtham: Tamil Nadu.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
85 Kondapalli toys are one of the most sold handicrafts in India and abroad, these are cultural icons of
A. Karnataka
B. Telangana
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Andhra Pradesh
86 Recently scientists find new NAPRTI1 Gene linked to schizophrenia. In tjis context, consider the
following statements:
1. It is collaborative effort between Indian and USA.
2. It aims to shed more light on the mental illness.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
87 With reference to marine animal Dugong, consider the following statements:

1. It is classified as critically endangered.
2. These are largely dependent on sea grass communities for subsistence and is thus restricted to the
coastal habitats which support sea grass meadows.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
20
D. Neither 1 nor 2
88 Utkarsh 2022 is often seen in the news, which is related to
A. Space technology
B. Military system
C. Governance system
D. Banking system
89 With reference to the Water Stress Index, consider the following statements:
1. The sub-national Water Stress Index is formulated by London-based risk analytics firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
2. The study says Chennai is the tip of the iceberg for India’s water stressed cities.
3. It lists India as the 55th highest risk country in the world.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
90 With reference to the Sanchi Stupa, consider the following statements:

1. Sanchi is regarded as one of the first monastic stupas.
2. The Sanchi Stupa is one of India’s primary Buddhist sites and contains some of the oldest stone
structures in the country.
3. Buddha had visited Sanchi twice.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
91 With reference to the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The NBS Scheme for fertilizer was initiated in the year 2015.
2. Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade
of subsidized Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers
3. In India, urea is the only controlled fertilizer and is sold at a statutory notified uniform sale price.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
92 With reference to SANKALP Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. SANKALP is an outcome-oriented centrally sponsored programme of Ministry of Skill Development
& Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. The project is implemented with the support of International Monetary Fund in line with the
21
objectives of National Skills Development Mission (NSDM).

3. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering both Central & State agencies.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
93 Which of the followings consumer rights is/are introduced under the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019?
1. Right to file a complaint from anywhere
2. Right to seek compensation under product liability
3. Right to protect consumers as a class
4. Right to seek a hearing through video conferencing
5. Right to know why a complaint was rejected
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
94 The e-version of Rozgar Samachar has been launched by
A. NITI Aayog
B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
D. Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
95 The "Shillong Declaration" is recently in news, which is related to
A. Flood management
B. Waste management
C. Vulnerable sections
D. E-governance
96 In which of the following countries does Rooppur Nuclear Project is being constructed?
A. India
B. Myanmar
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
97 With reference to the Defence Planning Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It is chaired by the Ministry of Defence.
2. It is mandated to prepare a draft National Security Strategy.

A. 1 only
22
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
98 Recently, world's largest solar park of 2,000 MW named as 'Shakti Sthala' had been set up at:
A. Karnataka
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Telangana
D. Tamil Nadu
99 With reference to Maharshi Badrayan Vyas Samman, consider the following statements:
1. The award introduced in the year 2002, is given to selected young scholars in the age group of 40 to
50 years.
2. The Presidential award carries a certificate of honour, a memento and a onetime cash prize of Rs.1
lakh.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
100 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Swatantrata Sainik Samman Yojana
(SSSY).
1. The scheme provides for a yearly Samman Pension to freedom fighters, as a token of respect for
their contribution in the national freedom struggle.
2. It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
23

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Online Prelims TEST - 7 (SUBJECT WISE)

1 Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

5 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1919

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

6 Which of the following was/were the recommendations of Simon Commission?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

7 The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

9 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

10 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

12 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act of 1947.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

13 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

14 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

15 Consider the following statements regarding the composition of Constituent assembly.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

17 Consider the following pairs

18 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

19 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

20 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

23 Which one of the following Fundamental rights was described by Dr. B. R.

A. Right to freedom of Religion

24 Which of the following actions of the government form(s) the part of

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

25 Which one of the following pairs of Schedules in the Constitution of India

A. Second Schedule : Emoluments of important Constitutional posts

26 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below

28 Which of the following are the salient features of Indian Constitution?

Select the correct answer using the code given below

29 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

30 Consider the following statements regarding Regulating Act, 1773

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

31 Which of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary Form of government?

Select the correct answer using the code given below

32 Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

33 A Democratic constitution would lose its credibility if

A. It is heavily based on the Constitution of another nation.

34 A Constitution usually does NOT serve this function:

A. Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation