POWER PLANT ELEMENTS.

Choose the correct

answer. 27. What type of boiler in which hot gases from a fire pass
through tubes running through a sealed pressure vessel
containing water? The heat of the gases is transferred through
01. The __________________ gives the general composition of the walls of the tubes by thermal conduction, heating the water
the coal. It gives the percentages by weight of the carbon (C), and ultimately producing steam.
hydrogen (H), sulfur (S), oxygen (O), nitrogen (N) and ash in the a) Fire-tube boiler
coal and their sum should equal 100%. This type of analysis not b) Water-tube boiler
c) Waste heat boiler
only gives data used in boiler test calculations and the calculation
d) Biomass boiler
on the heating value of the fuel, but it also gives general
information of special significance to the experienced engineer. 28. What type of boiler in which water circulates in tubes heated
a) Ultimate analysis externally by fire. Fuel is burned inside the furnace, creating hot
b) Proximate analysis gases which heat water in the steam-generating tubes?
c) Analysis by wet methods a) Water-tube boiler
d) X-ray analysis b) Fire-tube boiler
c) Waste heat boiler
02. A Geothermal Power Plant site should have: d) Biomass boiler
a) All of the options
b) Heat Source 29. According to ISO 10816-2, for steam turbines and
c) An aquifer permeable reservoir rocks generators greater than 50 MW and 1500 RPM, what is
d) Adequate water supply vibration range (mm/second) is considered acceptable for
unrestricted long-term operation?
a) 2.8 to 5.3
03. Major mechanical component of geothermal Power
b) 12 to 14
plants: c) 5.3 to 8.5
a) All of the choices d) 8.5 to 12
b) Reinjection wells
c) Production wells with separators & silencer 30. According to ISO 10816-2, what is his vibration range is
d) Power station with cooling towers considered unsatisfactory for long-term continuous
operation of steam turbines and generator greater than 50
MW and 1500 RPM? Generally the machine may be
26. In the combustion of coal, What are the following elements operated for a limited period in this condition until suitable
are considered as inert part of the fuel? opportunity arises for remedial action?
a) Ash, Nitrogen a) 5.3 – 8.5 mm/sec
b) Carbon, Sulfur b) 2.8 or less mm/sec
c) Hydrogen, Nitrogen c) 2.8 – 5.3 mm/sec
d) Sulfur, Ash d) greater than 8.5 mm/sec
31. According to ISO 10816-3, for steam turbines and 35. In the design and selection of materials for air surface
generators greater than 50 MW and 1500 - 3600 RPM, what coolers of Cooling Water Systems (CWS), which of the following
is this vibration range (mm/second) is considered are considered?
acceptable for unrestricted long-term operation? a) ALL OF THE CHOICES
a) 3.5 to 7.1 b) Microbial growth
b) 3.5 or less c) Corrosion
c) 7.1 to 11 d) Scaling and fouling
d) greater than 11
36. What is an electrochemical process by which a metal
32. According to ISO 10816-3, this vibration range returns to its natural oxide state?
(mm/second) is considered unsatisfactory for long-term a) CORROSION
continuous operation of steam turbines and generator b) Erosion
greater than 50 MW and 1500-3600 RPM. Generally the c) Abrasion
machine may be operated for a limited period in this d) Scaling
condition until suitable opportunity arises for remedial
action? 37. What is/are the common scale-forming minerals in plant
a) 7.1 – 11 cooling water systems (CWS)?
b) 3.5 or less a) ALL OF THE CHOICES
c) 3.5 to 7.1 b) Calcium carbonates
d) greater than 11 c) Calcium phospates
d) Magnesium silicate and silica
33. According to ISO 10816-3, steam turbines and
generator greater than 50 MW and 1500 - 3600 RPM, What 38. What is a dense coating of predominantly inorganic
operating within this vibration range (mm/second) will materials formed from the precipitates of water-soluble
cause damage to the machine.? constituents in cooling water systems (CWS) ?
a) greater than 11 a) SCALE
b) 2.8 or less mm/sec b) Fouling
c) 2.8 to 3.5 c) Corrosion
d) 3.6 to 5.5 d) Erosion

34. In Power Generation terms, which of the following IS NOT 39. In a plant cooling water system, minerals such as calcium
part of Ancillary Services ? carbonate, calcium phosphate and magnesium silicate which
are relatively insoluble in water, can precipitate out of the water
a) Base Load (BL) and form _______deposits?
b) Dispatchable Reserve (DR) a) SCALE
c) Regulating Reserve (RR) b) Fouling
d) Contingency Reserve (CR) c) Corrosion
d) Erosion
 44. What is a boiler producing steam at pressures in excess of
40. In cooling water systems (CWS), ________ is the deposition fifteen (15) pounds per square inch (103.4 kPa) or hot water at
of suspended materials in heat exchange equipment. temperatures in excess of 250F (121C) or a pressures in excess
a) FOULING of one hundred and sixty (160) pounds per square inch (1,103.2
b) Scaling kPa)?
c) Erosion a) High Pressure boiler
d) Corrosion b) Biomass boiler
c) Water tube boiler
41. What is the uncontrolled growth of micro-organisms that can d) Fire tube boiler
lead to deposit formation that contributes to fouling, corrosion
and scale formation in cooling water systems? 45. What is a device that relieve pressure by operation of a
a) MICROBIAL CONTAMINATION fusible member at a predetermined temperature?
b) Suspended solids a) Fusible Plug
c) Oxygen scavengers b) Relief valve
d) Sludge c) Safety valve
d) Rupture disc

46. What is the term for the minimum concentration of a

combustible substance that is capable of propagating flame
through homogeneous mixture of the combustible and a
gaseous oxidizer under the specified condition of test? It is also
42. What kind of fouling results in the attachment of complex referred to as LEL (Lower Explosive Limit)?
organisms such as clams and mussels to pipings and other
surfaces of a cooling water system? This is common in once- a) Lower Flammable Limit
through cooling systems such as water intakes using surface b) Lower exposure limit
water like lakes, rivers and sea.? c) Lower temperature limit
a) MACROFOULING d) Lower flashpoint limit
b) Micro fouling
c) Mini fouling
d) Scaling 47. What is the term for a boiler producing steam at pressures
NOTexceeding 15 Psi (103.4 kPa)?
43. What is the organization, office or individual responsible for a) Low Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
enforcing the requirements of a code of standard, or for b) Low Pressure Hotwater heating boiler
approving equipment, materials, installations or procedures? c) Fire tube boiler
a) AUTHORITY HAVING JURISDICTION d) Waste heat boiler
b) DOLE
c) PRC
d) DENR-EMB 48. What defined as the maximum permitted eight hour time
weighted average of an airborne contaminant?
 a) Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) b) Superheater
b) Tolerable concentration limit c) Steam ejector
c) Maximum exposure limit d) Sootblower
d) Minimum allowable limit
54. What part of high pressure boilers generating power, is used
49. What pressure relief device operates by the rupture of a to increase steam temperature above saturation?
diaphragm or disc within the device on a rise to a predetermined a) Superheater
pressure? b) Economizer
a) RUPTURE MEMBER c) Waterwall tubes
b) Fusible Plug d) Air heater
c) Relief valve
d) Safety valve 55. What material is not used as condenser tubes using
seawater?
50. What is a pressure actuated valve held closed by a spring a) Stainless
or other means and designed to automatically relieve pressure b) Aluminum-brass
in excess of its setting? c) Titanium
a) Pressure relief valve d) Cupro-nickel
b) Fusible plug
c) Rupture disc 56. What is the heating value of a fuel that considers the
d) Control valve negative effect of water vapour produced during combustion?
a) Lower heating value
51. What device is used to remove non-condensable gases to b) Higher heating value
maintain the vacuum condition in a steam condenser? c) Gross heating value
a) Air ejector d) As received heating value
b) Gland condenser
c) Desuperheater 57. How many mechanical engineers are required for a
d) Condenser inlet filter mechanical plant with a total installed load of 1,750 kw
operating 24 hours a day in order to comply with RA8495 (The
52. What is not a motive fluid for condenser Non-Condensable Mechanical Engineering Act of 1998)?
Gas (NCG) ejectors? a) 3 RMEs
a) Lubrication oil b) 3 PMEs
b) Compressed air c) 1 PME or RME
c) Steam d) 3 CPMs
d) Compressed nitrogen
58. What fuel gas is obtained as a by-product in the making of
53. In steam systems, what device is used to convert coke from coal?
superheated steam into saturated steam usually at a lower
pressure by the injection of high pressure water into the steam? a) Coke-oven gas
a) Desuperheater b) Blast furnace gas
 c) Producer gas d) Check valve
d) Sewage gas
64. What is an automatic pressure-relieving device actuated by
59. What fuel gas is a product resulting from the decomposition the static pressure upstream of such device, characterized by
of human, animal and industrial wastes? the full opening pop action? It is mainly used for gas or vapor
a) Sewage gas service.
b) Natural gas a) Safety valve
c) Producer gas b) Control valve
d) coke-oven gas c) Relief valve
d) Check valve
60. What is the main fuel used for internal combustion engines
(ICE) operating under the OTTO cycle? 65. Which of the following boilers are NOT subject to annual
a) Gasoline inspection?
b) Diesel a) All of the choices
c) Bunker fuel b) Low-pressure boilers
d) Biomass c) Miniature boilers
d) High-temperature water boilers
61. What is the term for a fired or unfired pressure vessel used
to generate steam by the application of heat? 66. A high-pressure boiler (greater than 15 psi) room must be
a) Boiler provided with at least ___ means of egress when the area is
b) Economizer more than 500 sq.ft. or the largest single piece of fuel-fired
c) Air receiver equipment exceeds 1,000,000 btu/hr input capacity.
d) Air heater a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
62. A boiler constructed, inspected and stamped, as required by d) 4
the PMEC 2012 is called_________?
a) Code boiler 67. How many means of egress is required for a 20 psig high-
b) Water-tube boiler pressure boiler room with an area of 490 ft2 and heat input
c) Power boiler capacity of 1,200,000 btu/hr?
d) Fire-tube boiler a) 2
b) 5
63. What is an automatic pressure-relieving device actuated by c) 1
the static pressure upstream of such device which opens further d) 7
with the increase in pressure over the opening pressure? Used
primarily for liquid service. 68. What is/are the disadvantages of Circulating Fluidized Bed
a) Relief valve Coal-fired boiler (CFB) over Pulverized Coal boiler?
b) Control valve a) All of the choices
c) Safety valve b) Low operating temperature
 c) Insensitive to changes in fuel quality
d) No furnace slagging

69. What is the combustion temperature range in a CFB coal-

fired boiler? 74. In an ideal Rankine cycle in a power plant, the boiler
a) 850 – 900degC provides ____________.?
b) 1100- 1200degC a) Isobaric heat input
c) 1200- 1300degC b) Isobaric heat rejection
d) 1300- 1400degC c) Isentropic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
70. What is the combustion temperature range in a Pulverized
coal-fired boiler? 75. In an ideal Rankine cycle in a power plant, the condenser
a) 1300 – 1400degC provides _________..
b) 1100- 1200deg a) Isobaric heat rejection
c) 1200- 1300degC b) Isentropic expansion
d) 850- 900degC c) Isentropic compression
d) Isobaric heat rejection

71. The heating value of a fuel that considers that the hydrogen
in fuel burns to form water and is lost. This is the value often
used in internal combustion engines (ICE)?. 76. What are the main coal classification according to moisture
a) LHV content?
b) HHV a) All of the choices
c) As-fired HV b) As received
d) Air-dried HV c) Air dried
d) Bone dry
72. What is the biggest user of process steam in a coal-fired
power plant? 77. What power plant equipment is used to remove dissolved
a) Feedwater heating non-condensable gases as well as heat the feedwater?
b) Auxiliary fuel oil heating a) De-aerator
c) Desuperheater b) Condenser
d) Atomizing oil c) Superheater
d) DesuperheateR
73. In a coal-fired power plant, the biggest operating cost
component is ______.? 78. What equipment in a power plant takes the mechanical
a) Coal energy which is produced in the steam turbine, and convert this
b) Labor into electrical energy at a specified terminal voltage?
c) Maintenance a) Generator
d) Quicklime
b) Condenser c) Over-load switch
c) De-aerator d) Reverse polarity relay
d) Boiler
194. Per Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National
Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005 the maximum
154. Per API 650,What is the material for the fabrication of angle of inclination of an Escalator is
bunker fuel tanks? a) 30 deg
b) 35 deg
a) A-283 Grade C c) 40 deg
b) Stainless steel 304 d) 45 deg
c) Stainless steel 316
d) Boiler steel 195. Per Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National
Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005 the rated speed
ICS/SAFETY/PMEC of an Escalator measured along the angle of inclination, shall
not be more than _____meters/minute.
190. The Mechanical Code of the Philippines is known as: a) 38
a) Philppine Mechanical Engineering Code b) 28
b) Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers c) 30
c) Philippine Mechanical Electrical Code d) 25
d) National Building Code of the Philippines
196. Per Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National
191. The Mechanical Engineering Act of 1998. Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005, BOILERS may
a) RA 8495 be located inside buildings but the minimum distance from any
b) RA 8920 wall shall be at least ___ meters.
c) RA 1080 a) 1.0
d) RA 8594 b) 1.5
c) 2.0
192. Safety Factor must be at least ____inches in height. d) 2.5
a) 42
b) 27 197. Per Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National
c) 48 Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005, BOILER
d) 16 SMOKESTACKS shall be able to withstand a wind load of
_____kph (kilometres per hour).
193. Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National a) 175
Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005 requires that b) 150
elevators be provided with: c) 125
a) ALL of the choices d) 100
b) Fall-free safety device
198. Per Section 1302 Mechanical Regulations of the National c) 0.30
Building Code of the Philippines PD1096 2005, BOILER d) 0.40
SMOKESTACKS shall rise at least ____ meters above the
eaves of any building within a radius of 50 meters. 202. What is the specified NFPA 13 sprinkler density in gpm/ft2
a) 5 for Extra Hazard Group 1 application?
b) 10 a) 0.30
c) 15 b) 0.10
d) 20 c) 0.20
d) 0.40
199. What type of sprinkler system employs open sprinklers
attached to a piping system connected to a water supply 203. What is the specified NFPA 13 sprinkler density in gpm/ft2
through a valve that is opened by the operation of a detection for Extra Hazard Group 2 application?
system in the same area as the sprinkler system. When a) 0.40
activated, water flows and discharges to all the sprinklers at b) 0.30
same time. c) 0.20
a) Deluge System d) 0.10
b) Automatic sprinkler system
c) Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing System 204. In Fire Protection parlance, AFFF means:
d) Foam-extinguishing system a) Aqueous Film Forming Foam
b) Air Film Forming Foam
200. What type of a special fire extinguishing system that c) Anti-Fire Forming Foam
discharges a foam made from concentrates, either mechanically d) Air-to-Fire Forming Foam
or chemically, over the area to provide protection.
a) Foam-extinguishing system 205. The purpose of ___ is to promote a safe design of the
b) Carbon dioxide extinguishing system installations and to define the safety systems needed to protect
c) Deluge system personnel, assets, environment and community from threats to
d) Automatic sprinkler system safety caused by the production process.
a) SED
b) LTA
c) NLTA
d) CFR

206. In Safety parlance, “ALARP” means:

a) As Low as Reasonably Practicable
b) As Low Assessment of Risk Practice
201. What is the specified NFPA 13 sprinkler density in c) As Low as Practically Achievable
gpm/ft2for Ordinary 2 Hazard application? d) As Low as Reasonably Achievable
a) 0.20
b) 0.10
207. In Safety parlance, HAZOP means: 211. These are included in the major types of Sprinkler systems:
a) Hazard and Operability study a) Both of the choices
b) Hazards in Operations testing b) Wet Pipe system
c) Hazardous operation permitting c) Dry Pipe system
d) Hazardous operation d) None of the choices

208. In safety practice, the level of risk is tolerable and cannot 212. What is the most common type of Fire Sprinkler System?
be be reduced further without expenditure of cost a) Wet Pipe system
disproportionate to the benefit gained or where the solution is b) Dry-pipe system
impractical to implement. c) Deluge system
d) Pre-action system
: a) As Low as Reasonably Practicable
b) Ideal levels of risk 213. What type of Fire Sprinkler System is used for high hazard
c) Intolerable levels of risk applications?
d) None of the choices a) Deluge system
b) Dry-pipe system
209. Safety in Engineering Design (SED) covers the following c) Wet pipe system
aspects: d) Pre-action system
a) All of the choices
b) Codes of Practice, Standards, Statutory 214. What type of Fire Sprinkler System is used where freezing
Requirement and is possible?
Regulations, accident prevention and a) Dry-pipe system
mitigation b) Deluge system
c) Identification of hazards, assessment of c) Wet pipe system
risks d) Pre-action system
d) Layout philosophy and safe distances
215. An aviation fuel tank farm in Zamboanga City has three
210. The 3rd floor of a commercial building in Baguio City has a above ground fuel tanks with 25,000 liter capacity each (2m dia
floor space of 6100 ft2 is to be provided with a fire protection x 8m L). The Tank Farm is enclosed in a dike 20m x 25m (500
system. Space usage is categorized as Ordinary Hazard Group m2 area). The AFFF fire protection system is designed to cover
1 (Density – 0.15 gpm/ft2) for sprinklers and to be provided a the tank farm area for a minimum of 30 minutes at a density of
hose stream rated at 250 gpm. What is the initial water 6.5 lpm/m2. What is the minimum water storage tank capacity in
requirement in gpm for the system? cu.m.

a) 1,165 a) 97.5
b) 1,065 b) 87.5
c) 965 c) 77.5
d) 865 d) 67.5
216. An aviation fuel tank farm in Zamboanga City has three a) <700
above ground fuel tanks with 25,000 liter capacity each (2m dia b) >700
x 8m L). The Tank Farm is enclosed in a dike 20m x 25m (500 c) <1000
m2 area). The AFFF fire protection system is designed to cover d) < 500
the 500 m2 tank farm area. Compute the number of sprinklers
based on NFPA standard of 100 ft2 coverage area per sprinkler 221. A fire pump for a 200,000 MB capacity diesel fuel tank fire
head. protection system is rated at 6100 gpm at TDH of 200 ft. If
Options: a) 54 overall pump efficiency is 62%, What is the nearest motor
b) 44 rating for the pump? HP
c) 34
d) 64 a) 500
b) 550
217. What is the appropriate type of fire sprinkler system to c) 600
protect LPG bullet and spherical tanks? d) 450
a) Deluge system
b) Wet-pipe system 222. A jockey pump for a 200,000 MB capacity diesel fuel tank
c) Dry-pipe system fire protection system is rated at 50 gpm at TDH of 200 ft. If
d) AFFF overall pump efficiency is 65%, What is the nearest motor rating
for the pump? HP
218. What class of flammable liquids have flashpoints below
37.8degC (100degF)? a) 4
a) Class I b) 5
b) Class II c) 6
c) Class III d) 3
d) None of the choices
223. The EURO 2 Emission Standard for automotive gasoline
engines per Table 3 DAO 2007-07 is___% for CO and ____
ppm for hydrocarbon rate.
a) 0.5% and 250
219. What class of combustible liquids have flashpoints of b) 1.0% and 300
93degC (200degF) or above? c) 1.5% and 350
a) Class IIIB d) 2.0% and 500
b) Class IIIA
c) Class II 224. The EURO 2 Emission Standard for turbo-diesel
d) Class I automotive engines per Table 4 of DAO 2007-07 is ___
220. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 (RA 8749) specifies opacimeter.
the limit of SOx (as SO2) that can be discharge to the a) 2.0
environment, in mg/Nm3, as ____________. b) 1.0
c) 3.0
 d) 4.0 b) Snub pulley
c) Drive pulley
d) Tail pulley
5. INDUSTRIAL PLANT ELEMENTS (96)
z
243. What type of corrosion occurs when dissimilar metals
225. A pneumatic conveying system used to convey high
corrodes preferentially to another when both metals are in
volume of dry materials over long distances using relatively low
volume of high-pressure air. electrical contact, in the presence of an electrolyte
A. Positive displacement pneumatic .
system A. Galvanic
B. Vacuum exhaust system . B .Localized
C. Air slides
C.Stress cracking
D. Low pressure blowers
D.Pitting
226. In industrial plant practice, what is the type of conveyor
commonly used for conveying bulk materials over long distances
because they are least expensive and most versatile? 244. Production of sulfuric acid would require the presence
a. Belt conveyor
of the following:
b. Screw conveyor
c. Bucket elevator A. Sulfur, Oxygen and Water
d. Drag chain conveyor B. Sulfur
C. Sulfur and Oxygen
227. In transmission belting, this type of belt is used with flat D. Sulfur and water
pulleys and allows long distances between shafts.
245. A 2nd hand blower, 3500 Nm3/min x 450mm Aq
A. Flat belt
pressure driven by a 400 kw, 6 pole, 50 Hz motor with a full load
B. Toothed belt
current of 87 Amp, is to be brought to the Philippines for
C. V-belt
reinstallation. If operated in the Philippines:
D. Conveyor belt
A. Motor load will increase
228. What support the belt in a belt conveyor set-up? B. Motor load will reduce
a) Rollers C. Motor load will be the same
b) Steel plates D. Motor will not operate
c) Pulleys
d) Chains 246. A 2nd hand blower, 3500 Nm3/min x 450mm Aq
pressure driven by a 400 kw, 6 pole, 50 Hz motor with a full load
229. What pulley is used to provide proper tension on an current of 87 Amp, is to be brought to the Philippines for
operating belt conveyor?
a) Gravity take-up
reinstallation. If motor is replaced with a 400 kw, 6 pole, 60 Hz
motor, the blower will: 251. In industrial plant practice, what are mechanical engineers
A. Give same capacity and pressure concerned about?
B. Give a lower capacity and pressure a) All of the choices
b) Production quantity and quality
C. Give a higher capacity and pressure
c) Downtimes
D. Fan will not function
d) Safety

247. In cement manufacture, this step of the process is the

application of heat to the raw meal of up to 1500degC to liberate 252. In industrial plant practice, what is the main focus of
the oxide components from the carbonate compounds mechanical engineers in maintenance?
(calcination process) and to combine the oxide components into a) Downtime & Availability
the product clinker. a) Slow cycle time
a) Clinkering c) Change-over times
b) Crushing d) Reworks
c) Raw Milling
d) Finish milling
253. In industrial plant practice, what is the term for the
248. What is the main raw material for cement manufacture? operation that limits the throughput of the entire production
a) Limestone process?
b) Silica a) Bottleneck
c) Clay b) Downtimes
d) Pyrite c) Operator performance
d) Accidents
249. What are the main raw materials for cement manufacture?
a) All of the choices 254. In industrial plant practice, what is the term for the
b) Limestone maintenance strategy where plant operators also do day-to-day
c) Silica maintenance?
d) Clay a) Total Productive maintenance
b) Reliability Centered maintenance
250. What determines the location of Cement plants? c) Condition-based maintenance
a) Close to limestone source d) Corrective maintenance
b) Close to pyrite source
c) Close to clay sources 255. In the design of a cooling tower, the following will
d) Close to silica sources determine make-up water volume: a. All of the
choices
b.Drift loss
 c. Evaporation loss 260. What in a refrigeration and air-conditioning system is a coil
d. Blowdown loss of tubes where heat is absorbed by the evaporator is discharged
to the atmosphere? It is found in the high-pressure side of the
256. According to ISO 10816-2, the vibration of newly system.
commissioned machines should be within ________mm/sec a) Condenser
. b) Expansion valve
a) 2.8 c) Evaporator
b) 5.3 to 8.5 d) Compressor
c) 2.9 to 5.3
d) greater than 8.5 261. What in a refrigeration and air-conditioning system is a
metering device that controls the flow of refrigerant to the
257. According to ISO 10816-3 for steam turbines greater evaporator? It reduces the high-pressure liquid refrigerant to a
than 50 MW and operating between 1500 – 3600 RPM, the low-pressure liquid refrigerant in the correct quantities to
vibration of newly commissioned machines should be____ operate the system at maximum efficiency without overloading
mm/sec. the compressor.
a) less than 3.5 a) Expansion valve
b) 7.1 to 11 b) Condenser
c) 3.5 to 7.1 c) Evaporator
d) greater than 11 d) Compressor

262. In a refrigeration and air-conditioning system, what is the

258. What in a refrigeration and air-conditioning system is often
fluid that easily boils at a low temperature that absorbs heat in
called the “heart” of the system because it compresses the
the evaporator and discharges it into the condenser?
refrigerant and keeps the refrigerant moving in the system?
a) Refrigerant
a) Compressor
b) Condensate
b) Expansion valve
c) Water vapor
c) Condenser
d) Compressed air
d) Evaporator
263. In a refrigeration and air-conditioning system, what is the
259. What in a refrigeration and air-conditioning system is a coil
term for the ratio of the refrigerating capacity of cooling coil
of tubes where heat is absorbed so that it will be transferred to
(Btu/hr) and motor power input (Watts).
the condenser? It is also known as freezer or cooling coil found
a) Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)
on the low-pressure side of the system.
b) Coefficient of Performance (COP)
a) Evaporator
c) Coefficient of Expansion
cb) Expansion valve
d) Coefficient of Heat Transfer
c) Condenser
d) Compressor
264. What is any alteration of the physical, chemical and
biological properties of any water; or any discharge of any liquid,
gas or solid wastes that will render such water harmful, generate power. What equipment is used to recover the heat
detrimental or injurious to public health, safety or welfare; or from the flue gases?
which will affect the water resources utilization for use? a) Waste heat boiler
a) Water pollution b) BFO-fired boiler
b) Liquefaction c) Biomass boiler
c) Dredging d) Coal-fired boiler
d) Aeration
270. What element is required in the oxidation forming
265. What are the kinds of water pollution? Quicklime?
a) All of the choices a) Calcium
b) Chemical b) Sulfur
c) Physical c) Sodium
d) Microbiological d) Carbon

266. What type of water pollution introduce or increases the 271. What is the by-product is formed in the complete oxidation
number of harmful microorganisms (pathogens)? of carbon?
a) Microbiological a) Carbon dioxide
b) Physical b) Carbon trioxide
c) Chemical c) Carbon monoxide
d) Aeration d) Carbonates

267. What are the waste water quality indicators?

a) All of the choices
b) Physico-Chemical (ex. BOD/COD, DO, pH,
etc)
c) Toxic Substances and Heavy metals (As, Cd, 272. What is the by-product formed in the incomplete oxidation
Pb, etc) of carbon?
d) Microbiological (bacteria, coliform) a) Carbon monoxide
b) Carbon trioxide
268. What Republic Act is known as the Clean Water Act of c) Carbon dioxide
2004? d) Carbonates
a) RA 9275
b) RA 8244 273. The combustion of organic materials like wood or paper
c) RA 8495 (C6H10O5) in the presence of oxygen produces heat
d) RA 7975 and_________
a) Carbon dioxide and water
269. At an iron ore sintering plant in Mindanao, 34% of the heat b) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
used for sintering can be recovered in a heat recovery system to c) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide and Oxygen
 b) Adsorption
274. What by-product is produced in the combustion of c) Combustion
hydrogen in the presence of oxygen? d) Absorption
a) Water
b) Peroxide 280. Mixing acid and base produces water and ______?
c) Hydroxide a) Salt
d) Sulfates b) Sulfuric acid
c) Sulfurous acid
275. Nitric oxide is produced in the oxidation of _____in the d) Laughing gas
presence of oxygen.
a) nitrogen MAINTENANCE
b) hydrogen
c) sulfur 281. In what type of Maintenance is Vibration analysis, infrared
d) carbon thermography, ultrasonic testing, acoustic studies and oil
analysis practiced?
276. Sugar is ______. a) Condition-based maintenance
a) combustible b) Reactive maintenance
b) inert material c) Preventive maintenance
c) non-combustible d) Corrective maintenance
d) inorganic
282. What is the process or technique employed to reduce
277. What product is produced when limestone is burned in a friction between mating parts (e.g. gears, rolling elements) and
rotary kiln (>900C)? wear of one or both surfaces in contact and moving relative to
a) Quicklime each other by interposing a substance called lubricant between
b) Hot limestone them. a) Lubrication
c) Hydrated lime b) Preventive maintenance
d) Gypsum c) Alignment
d) Hydraulics
278. Lime slaking (addition of water into quicklime)
_____________. 283. What substance is capable of reducing friction, heat, and
a) produces heat wear when introduced as a film between solid surfaces.
b) no heat produced or absorbed Thickness of this film usually ranges from less than 1 micron up
c) absorbs heat to about 10 microns.
d) produces limestone a) Lubricant
b) Gasket
279. What is the term for the opposite of “oxidation”? It is a c) Engineering plastic
chemical change wherein the oxidation state of an element or d) Friction reducers
compound is decreased.
a) Reduction 284. What are the major functions of a lubricant?
a) All of the choices d) suction pipe – bag filter – blower – cyclone
b) Temperature control
c) Friction control 290. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 specifies the limit of
d) Wear control particulates that can be discharge to the environment, in
mg/Nm3, as ____________.
285. What are the purposes of additives in lubricants? a) <150
a) All of the choices b) <1000
b) Enhance existing base oil properties c) >700
c) Suppress the undesirable properties of base d) < 500
oils.
d) Impart new properties to base oils. 291. Most of de-aerators are designed to remove dissolved
oxygen down to ___ ppm.
286. What are the most common Maintenance strategy used in a) 7 ppm
the Philippines? c) 30 ppm
a) Combination of the choices b) 20 ppm
b) Reactive maintenance d) 0.7 ppm
c) Preventive maintenance
d) Condition-based maintenance 292. The Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 is also known
as____________.
287. What is the term for the maximum rate in gallons per a) RA 9275
minute (GPM) that can be pumped from a well without lowering b) RA 6541
the water level in the borehole below the pump intake? c) RA 8495
: a) Well yield d) RA 8749
b) Maximum well capacity
c) Aquifer capacity 293. The National Building Code of the Philippines is also
d) Allowed well capacity known as _______.
a) RA 6541
288. What type of pump is used for deepwell applications? b) RA 8495
a) Turbine submersible pump c) RA 9275
b) Jockey pump d) RA 8749
c) Slurry pump
d) Rotary pump

289. In industrial plant practice, the flow of pneumatic unloading

system would have this flow sequence.
a) suction pipe – cyclone – bag filter – 294. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 is also known
blower as____________.
b) suction pipe – bag filter – cyclone – blower a) RA 8749
c) suction pipe – blower – bag filter – cyclone b) RA 6541
 c) RA 8495
d) RA 9275 300. What is the lowest category of petrochemical output in
Petroleum Refineries?
295. What is the most abundant agricultural waste (biomass a) Bitumen
fuel) found in the Philippines? b) Waxes and lubes
a) Rice straw & hull c) Heavy Fuel
b) Coconut shell d) Diesel fuel
c) Bagasse
d) Wood barks

296. The DARCY-WEISBACH equation is used to

determine__________. 301. What unloading system is the most important material
a) friction loss in pipes unloading technique in wheat unloading? Materials ranging from
c) thermal expansion fine powder through ¼” pellets and bulk densities of 1 to more
b) Reynold’s number than 200 lbs/cu.ft. can be handled.
d) heat loss a) Pneumatic unloaders
b) Belt conveyors
297. What are the lightest commercial products in the c) Unloading by payloaders
distillation process of fuel refining? d) Grab bucket unloading
a) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
b) Diesel 302. Ammonia (NH3) refrigerant has ____ Ozone Depletion
c) Gasoline Potential (ODP) and Halocarbon Global Warming Potential.
d) Bunker fuel a) Zero
b) High
298. What powerful odorant is added to LPG so that leaks can c) Medium
be easily detected? This is used in the Philippines. d) Very high
a) Ethanethiol
b) Thiophane 303. Chemical or industrial liquid wastes that are detrimental to
c) Amyl mercaptan the environment shall be ___________ to render them safe to
d) Ethanol discharge to a common drainage system. a)
pretreated
299. LPG is a mixture of 2 gases. In the Philippines, more b) disposed
_______ is used because of the hot weather due to its lower c) filtered
vapour pressure (32 psi at 20oC). d) preheated

a) Butane 304. What liquefied fuel is composed predominantly of

b) Ethanol methane?
cPropane a) Liquefied natural gas (LNG)
d) Heptane b) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
 c) Ethane d) Sublimation
d) Butane
310. As a gas is heated in an isothermal process, its volume
305. What liquefied fuel is composed predominantly of butane _______.
and propane? a) increases
a) Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) b) remains the same
b) Liquefied natural gas (LNG) c) decreases
c) Ethane d) contracts
d) Butane
311. As a gas is heated in an isometric process, its volume
306. The electric meter measures the amount of ________ used _______.
during a period. a) remains the same
a) Energy b) decreases
c) Power c) increases
b) Work d) expands exponentially
d) Horsepower
312. Boyle’s Law states that pressure and volume changes in a
gas process are _______ related a) inversely
307. When liquid turns into vapor, its enthalpy _________ . b) ideally
a) increases significantly c) directly
b) decreases rapidly d) not
c) remains the same
d) increase a little 313. What is the term for the quantity of energy absorbed by a
unit mass of refrigerant in the evaporator?
a) Refrigerant effect
b) Compression energy
c) Conductance
308. Which of the following vapor-compression cycle processes d) heat load
is adiabatic?
a) Throtlling 314. Which of the following type of elevator is not allowed for
b) Superheating new installation? (PMEC 2504.1.5)
c) Condensation a) All of the choices
d) Vaporization b) Hatchway type elevator
c) Carriage type elevator
309. What vaporization process occurs when the vapor d) Gravity elevator
pressure of a substance is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
a) Boiling
b) Condensation
c) Evaporation
 b) Belt conveyor
315. Which devices in an elevator serve to regulate the d) Drag chain conveyor
operation of an elevator in a predetermined manner during or
after an earthquake? 320. To maximize steam turbine efficiency, the steam is
a) All of the choices __________ in a number of stages, generating work.
b) Collision switch a) expanded
c) Derailment switch b) condensed
d) Seismic switch c) compressed
d) superheated
316. What equipment has a hoisting and lowering mechanism
which moves a platform in fixed guides in a vertical direction,
designed to carry passengers or freight or both, between two or
more fixed landings?
a) Elevators
b) Escalators 321. What thermodynamic cycle is the ideal steam power cycle
c) Dumbwaiters operated by 4 major component: Steam Turbine, Condenser,
d) Manlifts Feedwater pump and Boiler?
a) Rankine cycle
317. What conveyor consists of a spiral or flights fastened b) Diesel cycle
around a pipe or shaft that is rotated in a box-line casing. For c) Otto cycle
each revolution of the screw, the material advances the distance d) Refrigeration cycle
equal to the spiral pitch.
a) Screw conveyor 322. What thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient of any real
b) Pneumatic conveyor cycle?
c) Bucket elevator a) Carnot
d) Belt conveyor b) Otto
c) Rankine
318. What equipment is used to feed bulk, loose and relatively d) Diesel
fine and dry materials into a pneumatic conveying system?
a) Rotary air lock
b) Damper NEW EXAMINATION QUESTIONS FOR SPLBE (PIPE)
c) Butterfly valve
d) Slide gate 506. What is the heat gain through a building roof with an area
319. What conveyor is an endless belt or chain with equally
of 1200 m2,
spaced cups or buckets attached, which elevates material and a CLTD of 74 F and an overall coefficient of heat transfer of
discharges this material at the top into a chute or spout? 0.063 BTU/hr-ft2-oF? Btu/hr
a) Bucket elevator
c) Screw conveyor
 a) 60,223
b) 55,223
c) 50,223
d) 65,223

507. What is the heat gain through a building roof with an area 510. What is the solar heat gain in Btu/hr though glass with an
of 3,000 ft2, area of 500 ft2, a
a CLTD of 75 F and an overall coefficient of heat transfer of shading coefficient of 0.22, a SHGF (Max. solar heat gain factor)
0.063 BTU/hr-ft2-oF? Btu/hr. for
sunlit glass of 129 Btu/hr-ft2-oF and a CLF (cooling load factor) of
a) 14,175 0.53?
b) 12,175
c) 10,175 a) 7,520
d) 16,175 b) 8,520
c) 6,520
508. What is the sensible heat gain for a 2000 ft2 exposed wall d) 5,520
with an
average U factor of 0.1 and a CLTD of 43oF? Btu/hr 511. What is the solar heat gain though glass of a commercial
building with
a) 8,600 a glass area of 13,500 ft2, a shading coefficient of 0.20, a SHGF
b) 8,100 (Max.
c) 7,600 solar heat gain factor) for the glass of 126 Btu/hr-ft2-oF and a
d) 9,100 CLF (cooling
load factor) of 0.51? Btu/hr
509. What is the sensible heat gain for a 15,000 ft2 exposed wall
with an a) 173,500
average U factor of 0.286 and a CLTD of 50oF? Btu/hr b) 178,500
c) 168,500
a) 214,500 d) 163,500 BTU/hr
b) 219,500
c) 209,500 512. What is the heat gain in Btu/hr due to internal lighting for
d) 204,500 a call center office with an area of 5,350 ft2, a wattage of 2
watts/ft2, a use factor of 1.0 and an allowance factor of 1.2 (for
ballast, etc) and a CLF (cooling load factor) of 1.0?
 515. What is the sensible heat gain due to the 5 employees of
a) 43,784 an office
b) 41,784 an area of 101 m2. Assume CLF =1.0 and SHG is 345 btu/hr-
c) 39,784 person? Btu/hr
d) 45,784
a) 1,725
513. What is the heat gain in Btu/hr due to internal lighting for b) 1,925
an office with c) 1,525
an area of 1,100 ft2, a wattage of 1.5 watts/ft2, a use factor of d) 1,325
0.8 and
an allowance factor of 1.1 (for ballast, etc) and a CLF (cooling 516. A room 5mW x 6mL big is occupied by 4 encoders (IT
load factor) personnel).
of 1.0? What is the latent heat gain due to people assuming cooling
load
a) 4,951 factor (CLF) of 1.0 and latent heat gain of 695 btu/hr-person?
b) 5,951 Btu/hr
c) 3,951
d) 2,951 : a) 2,780
b) 2,980
c) 2,580
d) 2,380

517. An industrial plant Admin building used by 76 employees

with a
514. What is the sensible heat gain due to the 100 employees of latent heat gain of 695 BTU/hr-person and cooling load factor
an office (CLF)
an area of 1200 m2. Assume CLF =1.0 and SHG is 345 btu/hr- of 1.0. What is the latent heat gain due to people in Btu/hr?
person? Btu/hr
a) 52,820
a) 34,500 b) 54,820
b) 29,500 c) 50,820
c) 24,500 d) 48,820
d) 39,500
518. What is the friction loss, Inch wg/100 ft, of a circular air What is the water flow, GPM, for the sprinkler system?
duct with
an air flow of 61,500 CFM at 2000 FPM velocity and a diameter a. 350
of b. 400
75 inches in inch? c. 300
d. 250
a) 0.05
b) 0.07 522. The deluge-type sprinkler system for a 10-MVA transformer
c) 0.09 with
d) 0.03 a total sprinkler area coverage of 130 m2 has 14 sprinklers
under
Extra Hazard Group classification (0.25 gpm/ft2 design density).
519. A branch duct for an HVAC system has a flow of 5,260 CFM What is the water flow, GPM, for the sprinkler system?
and a design velocity of 1,000 ft/min. What is the diameter
of the circular duct in FEET? a. 350
b. 400
a) 2.6 c. 300
b) 2.4 d. 250
c) 2.2
d) 2.8

520. Which of the following are classification of Occupancy

Hazards?
a. All of the choices
b. Light Hazard 523. The deluge-type sprinkler system for a 5-MVA transformer
c. Ordinary Hazard has sprinkler area of 17 m2 on top, 31 m2 on front and 34 m2
d. Extra Hazard on the ends. Sprinkler was designed under Extra Hazard Group
classification (0.25 gpm/ft2 design density). What is the
521. The deluge-type sprinkler system for a 10-MVA transformer approximate water flow, GPM, for the sprinkler system?
with
a total sprinkler area coverage of 130 m2 has 14 sprinklers a. 220
under b. 260
Extra Hazard Group classification (0.25 gpm/ft2 design density). c. 180
 d. 140 a) 1,440
524. A 1-inch branch line (ID=1.05 inch) to a sprinkler has a flow b) 1,540
of c) 1,340
of 20 gpm. What is the velocity pressure in PSI? d) 1,240

a) 0.37
b) 0.47 528. What is the motor horsepower of a chilled water pump
c) 0.27 with a
d) 0.57 Flow rate of 1,440 gpm, overall TDH of 123.5 ft and overall
pump/
525. What is the velocity pressure of a 2 inch pipe (Di =2.07 motor efficiency of 60%? hp
inches)
and a flow of 98 gpm? psi a) 75
b) 60
a) 0.59 c) 40
b) 0.49 d) 100
c) 0.39 529. A cross-flow type cooling tower is used to cool the chilled
d) 0.69 water
for a 600 TR chiller. Total flow is 1,800 gpm and delta T of
526. What is the velocity pressure of a 3 inch pipe (Di =3.07 10 deg F. What is the amount of heat (in TR) to be removed
inches) by the cooling tower in TR?
and a flow of 220 gpm in psi?
a) 750
a) 0.61 b) 800
b) 0.51 c) 700
c) 0.41 d) 650
d) 0.71
530. A cross-flow type cooling tower is used to cool the cooling
527. A chilled water pump for a 600 TR chiller with a delta T of water for
10 degF a process equipment. Total flow is 1,800 gpm, water entering at
(44 deg F entering and 54deg F water leaving). What is the 95oF
water and leaving at 85oF. If dry bulb temperature is 81oF, what is the
flow rate in GPM? theoretical cooling range? Deg F
 a) 14 533. A cross-flow type cooling tower is used to cool the cooling
b) 12 water for
c) 10 a 600 TR Chiller. Enthalpy, h1, of air entering the cooling tower is
d) 16 47 Btu/lb and air leaving the CT, h2, is 54 BTU/lb. Density of
air leaving
531. A cross-flow type cooling tower is used to cool the cooling the cooling tower is 0.069 lbs/ft3. What is the volume of air
water for leaving
a process equipment. Total flow is 1,800 gpm, water entering at the cooling tower in CFM (ft3/min)?
95oF
and leaving at 85oF. If dry bulb temperature is 81oF, what is the Solution: Ma = Qc___ = (600 TR x 12,000 BTU/TR) =
Cooling tower efficiency? % 1,028,571 lbs/hr
h2 – h1 54 BTU/lb- 47 BTU/lb
a) 71.4
b) 81.4 Val =1,028,571 lbs/hr = 14,906,826 ft3/hr = 248,450 CFM
c) 61.4 0.069 lbs/ft3
d) 51.4
a) 248,450
b) 298,450
c) 198,450
d) 148,450

534. A chilled water system for a chiller has a flow rate of 1,300
532. A cross-flow type cooling tower is used to cool the cooling GPM.
water for What is the required chilled water pipe diameter if Schedule
a 600 TR Chiller. Enthalpy, h1, of air entering the cooling tower is 40
47 Btu/lb and air leaving the CT, h2, is 54 BTU/lb. What is the BI pipe is used and water velocity is limited to maximum of 8
mass ft/sec? inch
Flow rate of air through cooling tower in lbs/min?
a) 8
a) 1,028,570 lbs/hr b) 10
b) 1,128,570 lbs/hr c) 6
c) 928,570 lbs/hr d) 4
d) 828,570 lbs/hr
535. In ISO 14644-1 for HVAC Clean Room application, which c) 0.59
one is NOT d) 0.49
Classified as a Clean Room?
a) ISO Class 9 (Class 100,000) 539. What is the Sensible Heat Ratio (SHR) for a conditioned
b) ISO Class 7 (Class 10,000) space with
c) ISO Class 5 (Class 1,000) an effective room Sensible heat of 218,429 btu/hr and a Latent
d) ISO Class 4 (ICUs & ORs) heat
of 76,250 btu/hr?
536. A concrete wall has a total thermal resistance RT of 2.49 hr-
ft2-oF/BTU a) 0.74
What is the coefficient of heat transfer U? b) 0.84
c) 0.64
a) 0.402 d) 0.54
b) 0.502
c) 0.302 540. A conditioned space has an effective room Sensible heat of
d) 0.602 218,429
btu/hr and a Sensible Heat Ratio (SHR) of 0.74. What is the
537. A glass wall has a total thermal resistance of RT of 1.85 hr- Latent
ft2-oF/BTU heat in BTU/HR?
What is the coefficient of heat transfer U?
a) 76,745
a) 0.54 b) 86,745
b) 0.64 c) 66,745
c) 0.44 d) 56,745
d) 0.34
541. A conditioned space has an effective room Sensible heat of
538. What is the Sensible Heat Ratio (SHR) for a conditioned 167,812
space with btu/hr and a Sensible Heat Ratio (SHR) of 0.69. What is the
an effective room Sensible heat of 167,812 btu/hr and a Latent Latent
heat heat in BTU/HR?
of 75,714 btu/hr? a) 75,394
b) 85,394
a) 0.69 c) 65,394
b) 0.79 d) 55,394
542. The total external static pressure of a fan is 173.72 Pa
(0.69739 in WG)
with a capacity of 1,354 CFM. What is the fan motor load if
combine
efficiency is 60%? hp

a) 0.25 545. Waste materials are feed as fuel in a pulp and paper mill in
b) 0.50 Calumpit,
c) 0.75 Bulacan. The ultimate analysis of the paper is 19.46% C, 9.67%
d) 1.00 H,
64.27% O and 0.05%S.
543. The total external static pressure of a centrigugal fan is 3.0
in WG Using Dulong’s Formula, [HHV= 14600C + 62100(H-O/8) +
with a capacity of 20,000 CFM. What is the fan motor load if 4050S],
combine efficiency is 62.5%? hp What is the HHV of the paper rejects in BTU/lb?

a) 15.13 a) 3,859
b) 10.13 b) 4,859
c) 7.13 c) 5,859
d) 20.13 d) 2,859

544. A centrifugal fan with a capacity of 20,000 CFM operates at
3.6 in
WG pressure and a combine fan & motor efficiency of 60%.
What is the fan motor required (use standard motor size)?
hp
546. A CFB boiler uses Semirara coal with an ultimate analysis of
50.52% C,
6.55% H, 35.86% O, 1.01% N, 0.43%S and 5.63% Ash. Using
Dulong’s
Formula. What is the HHV of the coal in BTU/lb?

a) 20 a) 8,677
b) 15 b) 7,677
c) 10 c) 9,677
d) 30 d) 6,677
547. What is the standard limit for particulate matters as sterile air to a soft drinks bottling plant. The weight of the
stipulated by the compressor
Clean Air Act of 1999? Mg/m3 is 1120 kgs. Compute the minimum weight of the foundation
a) 150 required
b) 500 as per PSME Code 2003.
c) 700
d) 1,000 a) 3,360 kgs
b) 3,060 kgs
548. What is the standard limit for SO2 (Sulfur dioxide) as c) 2,760 kgs
stipulated by the d) 2,460 kgs
Clean Air Act of 1999? Mg/m3
a) 700 552. An Atlas-Copco oil-free air compressor Model ZT-22 is
b) 500 providing
c) 150 sterile air to a soft drinks bottling plant. The weight of the
d) 1,000 compressor
is 1120 kgs. What is the minimum volume of the foundation
549. What is the standard limit for NO2 as stipulated by the required
Clean Air Act of 1999? Mg/m3 as per PSME Code 2003. (Assume concrete density at 2.4
a) 1,000 MT/m3) in m3?
b) 500
c) 150 a) 1.4
d) 700 b) 2.8
c) 3.3
d) 4.7
550. What is the standard limit for CO (carbon monoxide) as
stipulated 553. Which of the following do not belong to the group?
by the Clean Air Act of 1999? Mg/m3 a) Condenser
a) 700 b) Air compressor
b) 500 c) Centrifugal fan
c) 150 d) Roots blower
d) 1,000
554. An air compressor draws 600 CFM of air against a volume
551. An Atlas-Copco oil-free air compressor Model ZT-22 is displacement
providing of 625 CFM. What is its volumetric efficiency in %?
 D/G specification are as follows:
a) 96 Weight - 10,000 kgs
b) 94 RPM - 1800
c) 92 Engine base - 1.0mW x 3.5mL
d) 98 Foundation - 1.6mW x 4.1mL base dimension

Particular location is on hard clay (Safe bearing load of 56 psi

or 39.4 MT/m2).
555. What device in Air Compressors, is made of finned tubes What is the foundation weight required based on an e=0.11
inside a value in MT?
shell, located at the discharge side of air compressors. It is used
mainly for preliminary drying of compressed air? a) 46.7
a) Aftercooler b) 56.7
b) Intercooler c) 36.7
c) Air dryer d) 26.7
d) Cooling tower

556. What device in compressed air system, do not belong to

the group?
a) Silencer
b) Aftercooler
c) Intercooler
d) Air dryer
559. A 1250 KW Caterpillar Model 3512 Diesel generator
557. What are the common types of compressed air dryers ? weighing 10 MT
a) All of the choices is to be installed in a Metal closure plant in Canlubang, Laguna.
b) Refrigerated air dryers The
c) Dessicant air dryers D/G specification are as follows:
d) Deliquescent air dryers Weight - 10,000 kgs
RPM - 1800
558. A 1250 KW Caterpillar Model 3512 Diesel generator Engine base - 1.0mW x 3.5mL
weighing 10 MT Foundation - 1.6mW x 4.1mL base dimension
is to be installed in a Metal closure plant in Canlubang, Laguna.
The
 Particular location is on hard clay (Safe bearing load of 56 psi with a capacity of 1500 gpm, 245 ft TDH. The pump efficiency is
or 39.4 MT/m2). 70% and
What is the foundation volume required based on an e=0.11 motor efficiency of 90%. What is the pump in BHP?
value.
Assume concrete density of 2.4 MT/m3 in m3? a) 132.6hp
a) 19.44 b) 142.6 hp
b) 21.44 c) 122.6 hp
c) 17.44 d) 112.6 hp
d) 15.44
563. A fire pump for a deluge sprinkler system to protect a LPG
560. A fire pump for a deluge sprinkler system to protect a LPG storage tanks
storage tanks with a capacity of 1500 gpm, 245 ft TDH. The pump efficiency is
with a capacity of 1500 gpm, 245 ft TDH. The pump efficiency is 70% and
70% and motor efficiency of 90%. What is the Motor load in hp?
motor efficiency of 90%. What is the water horsepower in HP?
a) 147.3
a) 92.8 b) 157.3
b) 102.8 c) 137.3
c) 82.8 d) 127.3
d) 72.8 564. A jockey pump for a fire water system has a capacity of 45
gpm and
561. A fire pump for a deluge sprinkler system to protect a LPG 245 ft, TDH. The pump efficiency is 70% and motor efficiency of
storage tanks 90%.
with a capacity of 1500 gpm, 245 ft TDH. The pump efficiency is What is the water horsepower in HP for the jockey pump?
70% and
motor efficiency of 90%. What is the pump BHP in hp? a) 2.8
b) 3.8
a) 132.6 c) 4.8
b) 142.6 d) 1.8
c) 122.6
d) 112.6 565. A jockey pump for a fire water system has a capacity of 45
gpm and
562. A fire pump for a deluge sprinkler system to protect a LPG 245 ft TDH.The pump efficiency is 70% and motor efficiency of
storage tanks 90%.
 What is the motor horsepower in hp, for the jockey pump? d. Final receiver pressure - 80 psig

a) 4.2 What is the air receiver volumetric capacity in ft3?

b) 5.2
c) 3.2 a) 220
d) 2.2 b) 260
c) 180
566. What fuel is made up of propane and butane? d) 140
a) LPG
b) Gasoline
c) Diesel 569. A compressed air receiver is to be designed for a
d) Kerosene compressed air
System that has the following operating conditions:
567. An LPG bullet tank with 40 m3 water capacity, with design a. Compressed air demand – 300 CFM
pressure b. Time between “load” and “unload” – 30
of 830 kpa has an inside diameter of 2580 mm, a shell thickness seconds
of c. Initial receiver pressure - 110 psig
19mm and head thickness of 12.7mm. What is the hoop d. Final receiver pressure - 75 psig
stress on the
pressure vessel in kpa? What is the air receiver volumetric capacity in ft3?

a) 56,768 a) 63
b) 46,768 b) 73
c) 36,768 c) 53
d) 66,768 d) 43

570. What gas is produced by animal wastes in mass-production

568. A compressed air receiver is to be designed for a farms?
compressed air a) Biogas
System that has the following operating conditions: b) Hydrogen sulphide
a. Compressed air demand – 600 CFM c) Sulfur dioxide
b. Time between “load” and “unload” – 30 d) Converter gas
seconds
c. Initial receiver pressure - 100 psig
571. What are the major components of Biogas produced from
animal waste?
a) Methane and carbon dioxide
b) Propane and butane
c) Hydrogen and carbon
d) Carbon and oxygen
572. What are the major composition of biogas?
a) 70% methane + 30% CO2
b) 70% hydrogen + 30% sulphur
c) 70% carbon + 30% CO2
d) 70% Methane + 30% H2S
576. A piggery farm in Bukidnon with 36,000 pig heads
produces 1,200 m3/hr of biogas. Compute the capacity of a
biogas power plant to fully utilize the biogas if the specific fuel
consumption is 0.5 of biogas per kw-hr produced.
a) 2,400
b) 2,000
c) 3,000
d) 1,800
577. A piggery farm in Bukidnon with 36,000 pig heads produces
1,200 m3/hr of biogas. What is the capacity of a biogas power
plant in kw to fully utilize the biogas if the specific fuel
consumption is 17.66 ft3 of biogas per kw-hr produced?

573. What is the Fuel value of methane gas, BTU/ft3? a) 2400

a) 900 – 1,000 b) 2,000
b) 450 – 500 c) 3,000
c) 2200 – 2600 d) 1,800
d) 2900 – 3400
578. A piggery farm in Bukidnon with 36,000 pig heads
574. What is the most important GREENHOUSE gas? produces 1,200 m3/hr of biogas If 800 KW Caterpillar DG is
a) CO2 proposed to be installed, What is the number of DGs in kw
b) Methane required to fully utilize the biogas if the specific fuel
c) SO2 consumption is 0.5 m3 of biogas per kw-hr produced?
d) NH3
a) 3
575. What is the SECOND MOST IMPORTANT GREENHOUSE gas? b) 5
a) Methane c) 1
b) CO2 d) 4
c) Propane 579. A piggery farm in Bukidnon with 36,000 pig heads
d) Natural gas produces 1,200 m3/hr of biogas
If 500 KW Caterpillar DG is proposed to be installed. What is the
number of DGs
required to fully utilize the biogas if the specific fuel
consumption is 0.5 m3 of
biogas per kw-hr produced? 582. The Hazel-Williams formula is used to compute the:
a) Pressure resistance
a) 5 b) Temperature loss
b) 7 c) Viscosity of fluids
c) 3 d) Friction between surfaces
d) 6
583. What is the nearest standard motor in hp to be fitted into
580. A piggery farm in Bukidnon has a biogas-fueled Caterpillar a 1,250 GPM x 360 ft TDH fire pump if pump efficiency is 65%
DG to produce and motor efficiency is 90%?
power. If the biogas has a heat value of 900 BTU/ft3 and the a) 200
specific fuel b) 150
consumption is 0.5 m3 of biogas per kw-hr produced, What is c) 100
the overall d) 250
thermal efficiency of this DG in %? 584. A jockey pump for a Fire protection system has a capacity
of 35 gpm, a TDH of
a) 21.47 345 ft, a pump efficiency of 70% and a motor efficiency of 90%.
b) 25.47 What is the
c) 27.47 nearest standard horsepower of the motor drive In hp?
d) 17.47
a) 5
581. A piggery farm in Bukidnon has a biogas-fueled Caterpillar b) 9
DG to produce power. If the biogas has a heat value of 900 c) 3
BTU/ft3 and the specific fuel consumption is 0.5 m3 of biogas d) 7.5
per kw-hr produced. What is the heat rate of this DG in
BTU/kwhr? 585. A ½ inch thick steel plate stiffener is to be punched a 1”
hole. What is the force required on the plate if
a) 15,900 ultimate shear strength is 39,000 psi in lbs?
b) 16,900
c) 14,900 a) 61,261
d) 13,900 b) 51,261
c) 41,261
d) 71,261