Questions no 1 – 7 are based on the passage below

Diamond value is based on four characteristics: carat, color, clarity, and cut. The size of a diamond is
measured by carat weight. There are 100 points in a carat and 142 carats in an ounce. Each point above 1 carat
is more valuable than each one below 1 carat. In other words, a stone that weighs more than 1 carat is more
valuable per point than a stone that is smaller than 1 carat.
The scale used for rating color begins with D, which means the germ is absolutely colorless and,
therefore, the most valuable. E and F are almost colorless. All three are good for investment purposes. A stone
rated between G and J is good for jewelry. Beyond J the stones take a slightly yellowish color, which gets
deeper as the grade declines.
The clarity of a stone is determined by its lack of carbon spots, inner flaws, and surface blemishes.
While most of these are invisible to the unaided eye, they do affect the diamond’s brilliance. For jewelry, a
diamond rated VVS1 (very, very slight imperfections) is as close to flawless as one will find. After that the scale
goes to VVS2, VS1, VS2, SI1, SI2, I1, I2, and so on.
The final characteristic is cut. When shaped – whether round, oval, emerald, marquise, pear, or heart –
the diamond should be faceted so that light is directed into the depths of the prism and then reflected outward
again. A well-cut diamond will separate the light into different colors when the light is reflected. Only stones of
similar shape should have their reflective qualities compared, as some shapes are more reflective than others.
The round shape is the most reflective.

1. The passage is mainly about….

a. the cost of diamond c. qualities affecting diamond value
b. how to judge an expensive diamond d. buying diamonds for jewelry

2. The word “one” in line 5 refers to…

a. Point c. Diamonds
b. Carat d. Valuable

3. With which of the following statements about a one-carat diamond would the author agree?
a. It has 100 points c. It weighs an ounce
b. It has the same quality as a half carat diamond d. It cost twice as much as a smaller one

4. The word “absolutely” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

a. Positively c. Completely
b. Actually d. Greatly

5. In Paragraph 2, the word “stone” is closest in meaning to

a. Gem c. Jewelry
b. Investment d. Grade

6. Choose the picture below that represents the shape of the most sparkling diamond cut.

a. b. c. d.

Questions no 7– 11 are based on the passage below.

The life cycle of a plant includes several stages. From seed germination to photosynthesis to flower to
seed dispersal, the life cycle is designed to maximize the plant's potential for continued survival from season
to season.
Plant life begins with seed germination. Most seeds need warm, moist soil for proper germination.
During germination, seeds begin to sprout roots and what are called cotyledon leaves. Cotyledon leaves start
the process of photosynthesis, allowing the plant to process light into food.
Many gardeners grow plants to enjoy the beauty of their flowers. However, flowering is an essential
part of the plant's life cycle. It is inside the flower that a seed is pollinated, either by human hand or by
various insects such as bees, butterflies and moths. Flowers have both male parts, called stamens, and female
parts, called pistils. Pollination occurs when pollen moves from the stamen to the pistil. Proper pollination
allows the plant to produce fruit, then seeds.
The fruit of a plant is also the seed pods. People pick and eat the fruit on vegetable plants such as
beans, squash, pumpkins and peas before they have a chance to disperse the seeds inside the pod. However,
if left undisturbed, the fruit will eventually turn into a seed pod.

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 At the end of a plant's life cycle, it again produces seeds for the next season. Seeds are dispersed in
numerous ways. Some plants produce pods that burst open, dropping seeds to the ground. Other seeds are
dispersed by the wind. Dandelions are particularly known for their white tufts of seeds carried by the wind.
Animals also aid in seed dispersal by eating, digesting and excreting the seed, or by carrying the seeds on
their fur until they drop to the ground.
After a plant disperses its seed, it dies. Some plants complete their life cycle in one year. These plants
are called annuals. Other plants germinate and grow in one year, but will not produce flowers and seeds until
the second year. These plants are called biennials. Perennials are plants that live for three years or more.
These plants complete the processes of germination, growth, flowering and seed each year, but do not die
after they disperse their seeds. Instead, they go dormant, typically through the winter, then begin the next
season by growing and flowering again. (adapted from www.gardenguides.com)

7. a. growth c. germination
b. dispersal d. pollination

8. a. growth c. germination
7 9
b. dispersal d. pollination

9. a. growth c. germination
b. dispersal d. pollination
8

10. It in the last paragraph (bold printed) refers to…..

a. plant c. seed
b. plant life cycle d. other plants

11. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to….

a. flowers’ c. animal
b. seeds’ d. animals’

12. Chelsea had to paddle past a school of jellyfish, kicked a small sand shark in the nose, and
A B
untangle seaweed from her surfboard before she reached her favorite point break
C D

13. Spiders that bite, hissing snakes, and squealing rodents fill the aquariums in Desmond’s
A B C
basement
D

14. Him should be careful with that vase because it is very old and extremely fragile
A B C D

15. The bears has become angrier, more active, and aggressive than before
A B C D

16. In 1908 Olive Campbell started writing down folk songs by rural people in the southern
A B C
Appalachian Mountains near hers home
D

17. A gene is a biological unit of information who directs the activity of a cell or organism during its
A B C D
lifetime

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18. It was obvious from his response in the press conference that the candidate prepare his answers
A B C
well
D

19. The rapid grow of Boston during the mid-nineteenth century coincided with a large influx of
A B C
European immigrants
D

20. The Appalachian Mountains formation a natural barrier between the eastern seaboard and the
A B
vast lowland of the continental interior of North America.
C D

21. Since the official school colors are red and white, all of us has worn red and white to the
A B C D
championship game

22. Natural predators, disturbing from tourists and pollution have all contributed to the decline of
A B C D
the California condor

23. John Le Carre ________ for his novels concerning espionage.

A. famous C. is famous
B. has fame D. famed

24. A construction kit consists of parts that can be _________

A. together they are fitted C. fitted together
B. together are fitted D. that when fitted together

25. The apartment is furnished and __________ with a Jacuzzi in the main bath room.
A. complete C. completion
B. completed D. comply

26. ________ he worked with the deaf for many years and patented many devices to help them, Alexander
Graham Bell will forever be best remembered for inventing the telephone.
A. Even though C. In spite of
B. Despite D. Nevertheless

27. The Eiffel Tower _______Paris, France

A. landmarks C. in landmarked in
B. is a landmark in D. is in a landmark

28. Knowing _________ the alarm for an impending earthquake is a crucial problem confronting seismologist.
A. when to sound C. to have sounded
B. that to sound D. to sound that

29. _________ continue to pollute the ocean with all forms of contamination from sewage to solid wastes such
as plastic containers remain a mystery to environmentalists.
A. Although people C. People that
B. Why people D. Those people that

30. The observation deck at the Sears Tower _______________in Chicago

A. is highest than any other one C. is highest that any other one
B. is higher than any other one D. is higher than any others one

31. They usually travel to Bali _____ car

A. with C. at
B. by D. on

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32. The skirt is awesome; ___________ it’s too expensive for me
A. and C. instead of
B. in addition D. however

33. Iwan is _____________ diligent ___________ Bella

A. more, then C. more, than
B. much, then D. much, than

34. The data will be at your desk ___ Thursday ______ 13:00
A. on, in C. at, on
B. on, at D. in, on
35. The North Pole _____________ a latitude of ninety degrees north
A. it has C. is having
B. which is having D. has

36. Marmots spend their time foraging among meadow plants and flowers or _____ on rocky cliffs.
A. gets sun C. sunning
B. the sun D. sunny

37. The city of Beverly Hills ________ on all sides by the city of Los Angeles
A. surrounds C. is surrounding
B. has surrounded D. is surrounded

Questions no 38 – 40 are according to the passage below

Williamsburg is a historic city in Virginia, situated on a peninsula between two rivers, the York and the
James. It was settled by English colonists in 1633, twenty-six years after the first permanent English colony
in America was settled at Jamestown. In the beginning, the colony at Williamsburg was named Middle
Plantation because of its location in the middle of the peninsula. The site for Williamsburg had been
selected by the colonists because the soil drainage was better there than at the Jamestown location, and
there were fewer mosquitoes.

38. According to the text, Williamsburg is located…………

A. on an island C. where the York and the James meet
B. in the middle of a river D. on a piece of land with rivers on two sides

39. The text states that the name Middle Plantation …..
A. is a more recent name than Williamsburg
B. derived from the location of the colony on the peninsula
C. refers to the middle part of England that was home to the colonists
D. was given to the new colony because it was located in the middle of several plantation

40. Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?

A. Jamestown was settled before Williamsburg
B. Williamsburg was settled by English colonists
C. Soil drainage was not as good at Jamestown as at Williamsburg
D. There were more mosquitoes at Williamsburg than at Jamestown

41. The waves on the beach on the west coast of Florida are not as high __________ those on the east coast.
A. as C. than
B. that D. So

42. __________, that runner is likely to be the first one chosen.

A. Due to her agility and speed
B. Because of she is agile and fast
C. Because agile and rapid
D. Because her agility and speed
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43. ______, George, is attending the lecture
A. Right now C. Happily
B. Because of the time D. My friend

44. Henry Adams, born in Boston, _______ famous as a historian and novelist
A. he was C. and he became
B. became D. and became

Questions no 45 – 50 are based on the passage bellow

Child Abuse is intentional acts that result in physical or emotional harm to children. The term child abuse
covers a wide range of behavior, from actual physical assault by parents or other adult caretakers to neglect of
a child’s basic needs.
Physical abuse includes deliberate acts of violence that injure or even kill a child. Unexplained bruises,
broken bones, or burn marks on a child may be signs of physical abuse.
Sexual abuse occurs when adults use children for sexual gratification or expose them to sexual activities.
Sexual abuse may begin with kissing or fondling and progress to more intrusive sexual acts, such as oral sex and
vaginal or anal penetration.
Emotional abuse destroys a child’s self-esteem. Such abuse commonly includes repeated verbal abuse of
a child in the form of shouting, threats, and degrading or humiliating criticism. Other types of emotional abuse
are confinement, such as shutting a child in a dark closet, and social isolation, such as denying a child friends.
The most common form of child abuse is neglect. Physical neglect involves a parent’s failure to provide
adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care to a child. It may also include inadequate supervision and a
consistent failure to protect a child from hazards or danger. Emotional neglect occurs when a parent or
caretaker fails to meet a child’s basic needs for affection and comfort. Examples of emotional neglect include
behaving in a cold, distant, and unaffectionate way toward a child, allowing a child to witness chronic or severe
spousal abuse, allowing a child to use alcohol or drugs, and encouraging a child to engage in delinquent
behavior. Another form of neglect involves failing to meet a child’s basic education needs, either by failing to
enroll a child in school or by permitting a child to skip school frequently.
(adapted from Microsoft® Student 2009)

45. The text tells us about…..

A. how to avoid child abuse C. types of child abuse
B. emotional and physical abuse D. classification of neglect
46. The word adequate in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by………
A. sufficient C. expensive
B. a lot of D. excessive
47. The word it in paragraph 5 refers to………
A. emotional neglect C. neglect
B. physical neglect D. medical care
48. Physical abuse includes….
A. failure in providing food
B. repeated shouting and humiliating criticism
C. beating and spanking
D. permitting a child to skip school frequently

49_____
50._________________
_
51______
children used for sexual gratification
___
repeated verbal abuse
Child Emotional
Abuse Abuse
52______________

emotional 55_____________
53_____ 54_____
failure in providing food, cloth, shelter, medical care
_ ___
educational failure in meeting children's basic education need

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Choose the correct answer to fill the diagram above!

A. Physical neglect F. confinement and social isolation

B. Physical abuse G. acts of violence toward children
C. Neglect H. failure in protecting a child from hazards or danger
D. Emotional abuse I. failure in meeting a child’s basic needs for affection and comfort
E. Emotional Neglect J. Sexual abuse

EUTHANASIA

Active euthanasia involves painlessly putting individuals to death for merciful reasons, as when a doctor administers
a lethal dose of medication to a patient. The controversy over active euthanasia remains intense, in part because of
opposition from religious groups and many members of the legal and medical professions.

Opponents of voluntary active euthanasia emphasize the health care providers have professional obligations that
prohibit killing. These opponents maintain that active euthanasia is inconsistent with the roles of nursing, care-giving and
healing. Opponents also argue that permitting physicians to engage in active euthanasia creates intolerable risks of abuse
and misuse of the power over life and death.

On the other hand, supporters of voluntary active euthanasia maintain that, in certain cases, relief from suffering should
be the primary objective of health care providers. They argue that society is obligated to acknowledge the rights of
patients and to respect the decisions of those who elect euthanasia. Supporters of active euthanasia contend that since
society has acknowledged a patient’s sight to passive euthanasia (for example, by legally recognizing refusal of life-
sustaining treatment), active euthanasia should similarly be permitted. They also emphasize a condition that has become
overwhelmingly burdensome for a patient, pain management for the patient is inadequate, and only a physician seems
capable of bringing relief.

Questions 56 – 58: Show whether the statements below are True, False, or Not Given by giving a tick in the
correct column.

Statements True False Not Given

56. Refraining from using an artificial respirator to keep alive a terminally ill is
categorized as active euthanasia.
57. Opponents of active euthanasia agree with the prohibition of killing.
58. Proponents of active euthanasia are people who once got a serious disease.
Referring to the text, complete the diagram with the points expressing the pros and cons of active
euthanasia from the available alternatives.

A. Active euthanasia is against the roles of nursing, care-giving and healing.

B. Physicians get burdensome of the active euthanasia cases.
C. Active euthanasia should be permitted as the passive euthanasia is.
D. Active euthanasia creates intolerable risks of abuse of the power over life and death.
E. Relief from suffering is the primary objective.
Active
Euthanasia

Pros Cons

(59) (60) (61) (62)

Patients have rights to elect euthanasia. Health-care providers have obligations to

prohibit killing.

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63. An action ______ as a suicide when a patient intentionally endangers or ends his or her own life.
A. classifies B. is classifying C. is classified D. has been classified

64. The act of intentional self-inflicted death is a suicide _____ the patients actually causes his or her own
death.
A. therefore B. because C. in order to D. in spite of

65. _____ examined medical records, a physician lets the patients go home.
A. have B. has C. having D. have been

66. All salamanders have a larval stage in which it has external, feathery gills for breathing in water.
A B C D
67. Axolotls are of interest to scientists therefore not axolotls metamorphose into adult salamanders.
A B C D
68. The legless tadpoles that hatch from a floated mass of frog eggs are the animal’s fishlike larval stage.
A B C D
69. The tadpole loses its much tiny teeth, and its mouth grows larger while its intestines grow smaller.
A B C D
70. Many commuters began to choose ride-sharing over independent travel because the friendship they
A B C D
can make.
71. The Bunsen burner is so named because it thought to have been invented by Robert Bunsen.
A B C D
72. As the population of Africa continues to grow, so that animals will continue to lose their native habitat.
A B C D
73. The expansion of the strip causing the thermostat to switch the heater on.
A B C D
74. Contrary to popular belief, bananas grown on the soft stalk of a leafy plant and not on trees with woody
A B C D
trunks.

Arrange the sentences below in the proper order.

1. Two different techniques are in use: a wet process and a dry process.
2. The fruit is hand gathered when it is fully ripe and a reddish purple in color.
3. The coffee plant is an evergreen shrub or small tree of African origin.
4. The ripened fruits of the coffee shrubs are processed where they are produced to separate the coffee
seeds from their covering and from the pulp.
5. It begins to produce fruit 3 or 4 years after being planted.

75. A. 4-3-5-2-1
B. 1-3-5-2-4
C. 3-5-2-4-1
D. 3-4-1-5-2

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