DSSSB (TGT-Computer Science)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ’k INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. OMR mÙkj i= bl ijh{kk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk iqfLrdk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When
[kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i= fudky dj i`"B&1 ,oa i`"B&2 ij /;ku you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
ls dsoy uhys ckWy isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2 ?kaVs gS ,oa ijh{kk esa 200 iz’u gSA _.kkRed vadu gS] 2. The test is of 2 hours duration and consists of 200
izR;sd xyr iz’u dk 0.25 vad dVsxkA questions. The paper carries negative markings, for each
wrong answer 0.25 mark will be deducted.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, 3. Use Blue Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
dsoy uhys ckWy ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. ,l iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS A. ;g lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr] 4. The OCDE for this Booklet is A, Make sure that the CODE
mÙkj i= ds i`"B-2 ij Nis ladsr ls feyrk gSA ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh printed on Side-2 of the answer sheet is the same as that
ijh{kk la[;k vkSj mÙkj i= la[;k feyrs gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks ijh{kkFkhZ on this booklet. Also ensure that you test booklet no. and
nwljh iz’u iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i= ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqajr voxr answer sheet no. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the
djk,aA candidate should immediately report the matter to the
invigilator for replacement of both the test booklet and
the answer sheet.
5. bl iqfLrdk esa nks Hkkx ¼Hkkx&1) vkSj ¼Hkkx-2) gSa] ftuesa 200 oLrqfu"B 5. This test booklet has two parts (Section-1 & Section -2),
iz’u gSa] tks izR;sd 1 vad dk gS% consisting of 200 objective type questions, each carrying
1 mark:
Hkkx-1 Part – 1

LkkekU; tkudkjh ¼iz- 1 ls iz- 20½ General Awareness (Q. 1 to Q. 20)

LkkekU; cqföeÙkk rFkk rkfdZd ;ksX;rk ¼iz- 21 ls iz- 40½ General Intelligence & (Q. 21 to Q. 40)
Reasoning Ability
vadxf.krh; ,oa la[;kRed ;ksX;rk ¼iz- 41 ls iz- 60½ Arithmetical & Numerical (Q. 41 to Q. 60)
Ability
Hkk"kk ijh{k.k% fganh ¼iz- 61 ls iz- 80½ Test of Language: HINDI (Q. 61 to Q. 80)

Hkk"kk ijh{k.k% vaxzsth ¼iz- 81 ls iz- 100½ Test of Language: English (Q. 81 to Q. 100)

Hkkx-2 Part – 2

dEI;qVj lkbal ¼iz- 101 ls iz- 200½ Computer science (Q. 101-200)
,Q dk;Z ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij djsaA 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in
the Test booklet for the same.
lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i= ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd 8. The answer are to be recorded on the OMR answer sheet
vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is
allowed for changing answer.

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 Part-1
GENERAL AWARENESS

Q1. Intensive cultivation refers to Q10. World Homeopathy Day is observed globally on
(a) production with the intensive use of labor ___________.
(b) production with the intensive use of fertilizer (a) 15 April (b) 13 April
(c) raising production by intensive use of existing (c) 17 March (d) 10 April
land Q11. Name the Indian-origin woman who was named
(d) None of these 'Asian Businesswoman of the Year' at an event in
Q2. Vikram pandit associated with which of the Birmingham, England.
following banks. (a) Asha Khemka (b) Kiran Khelkar
(a) Yes Bank (b) ICICI Bank (c) Vibha Bedi (d) Aruna Chanda
(c) Citigroup (d) HSBC Q12. President Pranab Mukherjee has inaugurated the
Q3. Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus belongs to "Namami Brahmaputra" festival on the banks of
which one of the following countries. the river Brahmaputra in 21 districts of-
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Pakistan (a) Jharkhand (b) Tripura
(c) Maldives (d) Bangladesh (c) Assam (d) West Bengal
Q4. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Q13. Which among the following countries has become
Bhimsen Joshi associated? the first country in the world to ban metals
(a) Dance (b) Music’s mining nationwide?
(c) Short-story writing (d) None of these (a) Panama (b) El Salvador
Q5. Name the film that is a four minute documentary (c) Guatemala (d) Belize
film on girl child education, has been invited for Q14. Name the Indian-origin British Director who has
special screening at the 42nd Seattle International been honored with the Sikh Jewel Award for 2017.
Film Festival (SIFF), Washington DC. (a) Joe Rajan
(a) Bahu (b) Putri (b) Gurinder Chadha
(c) Beti (d) Ladly (c) Kasinadhuni Viswanath
Q6. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with (d) Jaspal Bhatti
which subject Q15. The Indian Navy has recently inducted
(a) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom surveillance ship INLCU L51 in which of the
of speech, following Indian cities?
(b) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (a) Chennai (b) Port Blair
(c) Protection against arrest and detention in (c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
certain cases Q16. Who started the modern Local Self Government?
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty (a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Ripon
Q7. The Directive Principles of State Policy seek (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Auckland
(a) To establish the supremacy of the Constitution Q17. During the time of Alauddin’s invasion, Warangal
(b) To curb the authoritarian rule was ruled by.
(c) To strengthen judiciary (a) Chalukya dynasty (b) Chola dynasty
(d) To make the Constitution an instrument of (c) Kakatiya dynasty (d) Yadava dynasty
social change. Q18. Ancient Pushkalavati has been identified with.
Q8. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the (a) Balkh (b) Charsadda
Directive Principles of State Policy are like a (c) Hadda (d) Sirkap
‘cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the Q19. Just as the division of cytoplasm is called
bank’? cytokines is, the division of nucleus is called:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) K T Shah (a) Heterocyst (b) Mitosis
(c) B R Ambedkar (d) K M Munshi (c) Meiosis (d) Karyokinesis
Q9. Name the Formula One racer who defeated four- Q20. The two strands of the DNA double helix and held
time Formula One World Champion to lift his fifth together by—
title at the Chinese Grand Prix. (a) Hydrogen bonds (b) C=C double bonds
(a) Nick Roseburg (b) Sebastian Vettel (c) Hydrophobic bonds (d) Peptide bonds
(c) Lewis Hamilton (d) Michael Schumacher
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 GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING ABILITY

Directions (21-25): Read the information and answer end in the same row. How many girls are there
the questions given below: between them in the row?
Eight family members Dhruv, Garima, Avinash, Varsha, (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
Aakash, Deepti, Charu and Moksh are sitting around a Q29.From the given alternative words, select the word
square table in such a way that two persons sit on each which cannot be formed using the letters of the
of the four sides of the table facing the centre. Members given word : ENCYCLOPEDIA
sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite each (a) CYCLE (b) PLEASE
other. Aakash and Garima are exactly opposite each (c) PLEAD (d) CANOPY
other. Deepti is immediately right to Garima. Dhruv and Q30. What will come next in the given alphabetical
Moksh are sitting on the same side. Moksh is exactly series?
opposite Avinash, who is to the immediate left of XVU WUT VTS USR ?
Varsha. Dhruv is towards right of Deepti. (a) TRQ (b) RST
Q21. Which of the following statements is definitely (c) SRQ (d) TUV
true? Q31. Arrange the following words as per order in the
(a) Charu is opposite Varsha. dictionary.
(b) Aakash is to the left of Garima. 1. Exploit
(c) Avinash is towards the right of Aakash 2. Explosive
(d) Moksh is sitting opposite Dhruv. 3. Exponent
Q22. Who is sitting opposite Dhruv? 4. Exposition
(a) Charu (b) Deepti 5. Explore
(c) Varsha (d) Moksh (a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
Q23. Who is sitting opposite Deepti? (b) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(a) Moksh (b) Charu (c) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
(c) Varsha (d) Charu or Varsha (d) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
Q24. Who is next to Varsha in anti-clockwise direction? Q32. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in
(a) Garima (b) Avinash the Question figure?
(c) Dhruv (d) Deepti
Q25. Which of the following pair are sitting on a same
side?
(a) Aakash — Moksh (b) Moksh — Charu
(c) Dhruv — Aakash (d) None of the above
Q26. M, T, B, D and R are five friends each of them
having a different weight. R is heavier than M and
T but lighter than only B. M is heavier than only T.
Who among the following is at the third position
according to their weights?
(a) (b)
(a) R (b) M (c) D (d) T
Directions (27): Letters of the words given below
have been jumbled up. You are required to construct
the words. Each letter has been numbered and each
word is followed by four options. Choose the option
which gives the correct order of the letters as indicated
by the numbers to form words.
Q27. C E L S M U (c) (d)
12345 6
(a) 4, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1
(b) 4, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1
(c) 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4
(d) 5, 6, 4, 1, 3, 2
Q28. Meera is eleventh from the left end in a row of 35
girls and Seema is twenty seventh from the right
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Q33. From the given answer figures, select the one in Q35. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of
which the Question figure is hidden/embedded the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure?

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)

Q34. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in

the question figure?
Q36. If ‘book’ is ‘duster’ , ‘duster’ is ‘pen’, ‘pen’ is ‘board’
‘board’ is ‘chalk’ and ‘chalk’ is ‘eraser’, then with
which object Shailesh will write on a Board?
(a) chalk (b) duster
(c) board (d) eraser
Q37. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter
of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s
(a) Brother (b) Son
(a) (b) (c) Uncle (d) Son-in-law
Q38. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said,
“His brother’s father is the only son of my
grandfather.” How is the woman related to the
man in the photograph?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt
(c) Sister (d) Daughter
Directions (39): In each of the following letters series,
(c) (d) some of the letters are missing which are given in that
order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the
correct alternative.
Q39. aa _ _ aba _ bca _ aab _ a _
(a) bbcc (b) bbabcb
(c) bcabcb (d) cbabac
Q40. If D = 4, DESK = 39 ,then the value of DRAW is
(a) 57 (b) 46 (c) 45 (d) 36

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 ARITHMETICAL & NUMERICAL ABILITY

Q41. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7:8. Q47. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is.
If the second train runs 400 km in 5 hours, the The journey covered by C in 1 (1/2) hours will be
speed of the first train is: covered by A in
(a) 70 km/hr (b) 200 km/hr (a) 15 minutes (b) 2 minutes
(c) 250 km/hr (d) 350 km/hr (c) 30 minutes (d) 1 hour
Q42. The average age of 5 boys is 16 yr and the average Q48. In a regular polygon, the exterior and interior
age of 4 boys is 16 yr 3 months. The age of the 5th angles are in the ratio 1: 4. The number of sides of
boys is the polygon is
(a) 15 yr (b) 15 yr 6 months (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 3 (d) 8
(c) 15 yr 4 months (d) 15 yr 2 months Q49. Among the angles 30°, 36°, 45°, 50° one angles
Direction (43): A question which is given below cannot be an exterior angle of a regular polygon.
followed by three statements. You have to study the The angle is
question and the statements and decide which of the (a) 30° (b) 36° (c) 45° (d) 50°
statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question? Q50. The LCM of two numbers is 3 times their HCF. The
Q43. What is the population of State ‘A’? sum of LCM and HCF is 120. If one of the numbers
I. After increasing the population of State A by is 180, then the other number is:
15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs (a) 50 (b) 15 (c) 150 (d) 120
Q51. Reena spends Rs. 44668 on her clothes, Rs. 56732
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B
on buying gifts for the friends and the remaining
is 7: 8 respectively
22% of the total amount she had as cash with her.
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
What was the total amount?
(a) I only
(a) Rs. 286000 (b) Rs. 130000
(b) II and III only
(c) Rs. 101400 (d) Rs. 338000
(c) I and II only
Q52. One half of the cube-root of which number is 0.3?
(d) Either only I or II and III
(a) 0.192 (b) 0.296
Q44. A prism has the base a right-angled triangle
(c) 0.216 (d) 0.256
whose sides adjacent to the right angle are 12 cm
Q53. Two concentric circle whose radii are 17 cm and 7
and 14 cm long. The height of the prism is 30 cm
cm. Then using 𝜋 = 22/7, find the area of ring -
long. The density of the material of the prism is 7
(a) 374 cm2 (b) 360 cm2
g/cu cm. The weight of the prism is:
(c) 320 cm2 (d) 540 cm2
(a) 13.34 kg (b) 14.80 kg
Q54. Radius of a circle is 13 cm and xy is a chord which
(c) 16.54 kg (d) 17.64 kg
distance from centre is 12 cm. Therefore, length of
Q45. The difference between the simple interest
chord is -
received from two different sources on Rs. 1200
(a) 15 cm (b) 12 cm
for 5 years is Rs. 24. The difference between their
(c) 10 cm (d) 20 cm
rates of interest is:
Q55. Work of 4 male is equal to work of 6 female and 9
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2%
female is equal to 12 Boys. 8 male and 6 female
(c) 0.3% (d) 0.4%
together work 8 hr/day to complete a work in 15
Q46. Two trains, A and B, start from stations X and Y
days. 2 male and 3 female and 4 Boy together
towards each other, they take 4 hours 48 minutes
work 6hr/day to complete that work. So how
and 3 hours 20 minutes to reach Y and X
many days will takebythem?
respectively. After they meet, if train A is moving
(a) 30 days (b) 40 days
at 45 km/hr, then the speed of the train B is
(c) 34 days (d) 43 days
(a) 60 km/hr (b) 64.8 km/hr
(c) 54 km/hr (d) 37.5 km/hr

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Q56. A and B can do a work in 20 and 30 days. Starting (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21
with A, work doing by alternate day. Then in how Q59. 60 cubes of 1 cm side, Priya formed a cuboid.
many days work completed. What is the volume of thecuboid?
(a) 30 (b) 10 (c) 24 (d) 28 (a) 50 cu cm (b) 60 cu cm
Q57. If 90% of A =30% of B and B=x% of A, then the (c) 55 cu cm (d) 84 cu cm
value of x is? Q60. In a school, total rooms are 26. Four plants are
(a) 800 (b) 300 planted in each room. Two cups of water pour in
(c) 700 (d) 400 each plant. What is the total cup required to pour
Q58. The average of three consecutive odd numbers is all plants?
12 more than one-third of the first of these (a) 32 cups (b) 106 cups
numbers. What is the last of the three numbers? (c) 112 cups (d) 208 cups

Test of Language: HINDI

Directions (61 – 63): नीचे ददए गए प्रत्मेक प्रश्न भें एक (b) ऩव

ू ाांचर
रयक्त स्थान छुटा हुआ है औय उसके नीचे चाय शब्द (c) उदमाचर
सझु ाए गए हैं। इनभें से काई एक उस रयक्त स्थान ऩय (d) इनभे से कोई नहीॊ
यख दे ने से वह वाक्म एक अथथऩण
ू थ वाक्म फन जाता है। Q65. एक ऩष्ु ऩ जो अबी ववकलसत नहीॊ हुआ है-
सही शब्द ऻातकय उसको उत्तय के रूऩ भें अॊककत (a) फौय (b) भॊजयी
कीजजए| ददए गए शब्दों भें सवाथधधक उऩमक्
ु त का चमन (c) कोश (d) भक
ु ुर
कयना है । Directions (66-75): नीचे ददए गए गाधाॊश को ध्मानऩव
ू क
थ
Q61. अऩनी गरती तयु ॊ त स्वीकाय कयने वारे व्मजक्त ऩदढए औय उस ऩय आधारयत प्रश्नों के उत्तय दीजजए। कुछ
...........होते हैं। शब्दों को भोटे अऺयों भें भदु दत ककमा गमा है, जजससे
(a) गण
ु ग्राहक (b) रलरतत्मऩण
ू थ आऩको कुछ प्रश्नों के उत्तय दे ने भें सहामता लभरेगी। ददए
(c) सद्गण
ु ी (d) इनभे से कोई नहीॊ गए ववकल्ऩों भें से सफसे उऩमक्
ु त का चमन कीजजए।
Q62. जजसके ऩास .................. है , वह ककसी बी दे श भें कुऩोषण की सभस्मा से न केवर गयीफ
ऩरयजस्थतत का साभना कय सकता है । फजल्क भध्मभ औय उच्च आम वगथ के ऩरयवाय बी प्रबाववत
(a) भन (b) धान्म हैं। सॊसद की कृवष से सॊफधॊ धत स्थाई सलभतत ने हार भें
(c) धनष
ु (d )धैमथ ऩेश एक रयऩोटथ भें बायतीम कृवष अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयषद के एक
Q63. ............... हभें उत्तभ अवसय प्रदान कयती हैं। अध्ममन के हवारे से कहा है कक भध्मभ आम वगथ के 50
(a) भनौततमाॉ (b) असहभततमाॉ प्रततशत से अधधक तथा उच्च आम वगथ के 30 प्रततशत से
(c) नीयवता (d) चन
ु ौततमाॉ अधधक ऩरयवाय कुऩोषण से प्रबाववत हैं। मे ऩरयवाय
Directions (64-65): नीचे कुछ वाक्माॊश मा शब्द सभह
ू ददए अऩेक्षऺत जरूयत से कभ ऩोषक तत्वों का सेवन कय यहे हैं।
गमे हैं औय उसके फाद चाय शब्द ददए गमे हैं जो एक ही ऩरयषद ने धान, गेहूॊ आदद पसरों की कुछ ऐसी ककस्भें
शब्द सभह
ू का अथथ प्रकट कयते हैं| आऩको ऩता रगाना है ववकलसत की हैं, जजनभें सक्ष्
ू भ ऩोषक तत्व अधधक हैं।
की वह शब्द कौन -सा है जो वाक्माॊश का ही सही अथथ सलभतत को फतामा गमा है कक ग्राभीण ऺेत्रों भें रोगों ने
प्रकट कयता है | उस ववकल्ऩ की सॊख्मा ही आऩका उत्तय सक्ष्
ू भ ऩोषक तत्वों की कभी को दयू कयने के लरए नौ
है | याज्मों के 45 चुने हुए गाॊवों भें 510 ऩोषण फागान स्थावऩत
Q64. सम
ू थ के उदम होने का स्थान- ककए गए हैं।
(a) उदम स्थर
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कुऩोषण औय जीवन शैरी सॊफध
ॊ ी योगों से तनऩटने के लरए Q68. उच्च वगथ का ककतना प्रततशत दहस्सा कुऩोषण की
खाद्म उत्ऩादों तथा ऩोषक तत्वों से बयऩयू उत्ऩाद फनाने चऩेट भें है?
के लरए कृवष, ऩशध
ु न एवॊ जर उत्ऩाद से ''स्वस्थ खाद्म (a) 1.50 पीसदी (b) 40 पीसदी
ऩदाथथ'' नाभक अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयमोजना शरू
ु ककए जाने का (c) 30 पीसदी (d) 25 पीसदी
प्रस्ताव है । Q69. ससॊद की कृवष से सम्फॊधधत स्थाई सलभतत की रयऩोटथ
सलभतत ने बायतीम कृवष अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयषद को स्वस्थ ककस सॊस्था/साभग्री ऩय आधारयत थी?
खाद्म ऩदाथथ सॊफध
ॊ ी अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयमोजना को जल्द से (a) कृवष भॊत्रारम (b) सावथजातनक अध्ममन
जल्द शरू
ु कयने के लरए अततरयक्त यालश प्राप्त कयने के (c) ये डडमो रयऩोटथ
लरए ऩमाथप्त प्रमास कयने को कहा है । सयकाय ने ऩोषक (d) बायतीम कृवष अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयषद
तत्वों से सॊफधॊ धत अऩने उत्तय भें कहा है कक अनाजों औय Q70. गद्माॊश भें कुऩोषण से क्मा तात्ऩमथ है?
दरहनों भें रौह, जजॊक औय प्रोटीन को फढाने के उद्देश्म से (a) खाद्म की कभी (b) न्मन
ू ऩोषण
भसयू का जैव प्रफरीकयण आयॊ ब ककमा गमा है । (c) गन्दा बोजन (d) उऩयोक्त सबी
ववटालभनों, कैजल्शमभ, रौह तथा आइसोफ्रेवोंस जैसे ऩोषक Q71. गद्माॊश भें ददमा गमा शब्द भध्मभ का क्मा अथथ है ?
तत्वों के साथ सोमाफीन अच्छी गण
ु वत्ता वारे प्रोटीन का (a) भाध्मभ
सभद्ध
ृ औय सस्ता स्रोत है । सोमाफीन के खाद्म उऩमोग को (b) धीभा
फढावा दे ने के लरए सोमाफीन अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान तनदे शारम इॊदौय (c) न अधधक न कभ आम वगथ
ने उच्च ओरीक अम्र, दग
ु न्
थ ध को कभ कयने की ऺभता (d) उत्तभ
तथा सब्जी प्रकृतत के सोमाफीन के जीन प्ररूऩ ववकलसत Q72. ऩरयषद् ने ककस कभी को दयू कयने के लरए 510
ककए हैं। ऩोषण फागान स्थावऩत ककए हैं?
सयकाय ने कहा है कक स्वस्थ खाद्म ऩदाथथ अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान (a) कुऩोषण (b) बख
ू भयी
ऩरयमोजना के लरए 127 कयोड़ रूऩए का प्रावधान ककमा (c) सक्ष्
ू भऩोषक तत्व (d) खाद्म ऩदाथथ
गमा है तथा 31 केन्रों ऩय अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान कामथ शरू
ु कयने का Q73. प्रफरीकयण का सभानाथी तनम्न भें से क्मा है?
प्रस्ताव है । ववबाग ने असभ, बफहाय, छत्तीसगढ, झायखॊड, (a) सख्त (b) कठोय
ओडडशा, भध्म प्रदे श, याजस्थान, उत्तय प्रदे श औय उत्तयाखॊड (c) भजफत
ू (d) उऩयोक्त सबी
के 100 उच्च कुऩोषण प्रबाववत जजरों भें न्मट्र
ू ी पाभो की Q74. सोमाफीन के खाद्म उऩमोग को फढावा दे ने के लरए
स्थाऩना के लरए प्रामोधगक मोजना को कामाथजन्वत ककमा ककस सॊस्था ने सोमाफीन के जीन प्रारूऩ ववकलसत
गमा है । ककए हैं?
इसका उद्देश्म फाजया, भक्का, भड़ुवा, गेहूॊ औय शकयकॊद के (a) उत्थान कृवष सॊशोधन मोजना
सक्ष्
ू भ ऩोषक तत्व मक् ु त पसरों के उत्ऩादन को फढावा (b) बायतीम कृवष अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान ऩरयषद
दे ना है । (c) स्वस्थ खाद्म ऩदाथथ अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान
Q66. ऩरयमोजना के कामाथन्वमन के लरए ववबाग ने ककसकी (d) सोमाफीन अनस
ु ध
ॊ ान तनदे शारम
स्थाऩना कयने की मोजना फनामी है ? Q75. गद्माॊश भें कामाथजन्वत शब्द का प्रमोग ककमा गमा हैं,
(a) परो के फगान (b) न्मट्र
ू ी पाभाथ तनम्न भें से लबन्न शब्द चन
ु ें?
(c) खाद्म फागान (d) उऩयोक्त सबी (a) सॊचारन (b) किमाशीर
Q67. कुऩोषण से तनऩटने के लरए कौन सी मोजना को शरू
ु (c) कामथन्वमन (d) सभाऩन
ककमा गमा है? Directions (76-80): तनम्नलरखखत प्रश्नों के उत्तय दीजजमे:
(a) स्वस्थ खाद्म मोजना (b) स्वस्थ खाद्म ऩदाथथ Q76. नौका झीर भें डूफ गमी ये खाॊककत ऩद भें कौन सा
(c) सक्ष्
ू भऩोषण मोजना (d) कुऩोषण हटाओ मोजना कायक है?
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 (a) अधधकयण (b) कभथ (c) याजनी (d) याजजनी
(c) अऩादान (d) कयण Q79. िूय शब्द कौन सा है ?
Q77. 'मथािभ' ककस सभास का उदहायण है? (a) सवथनाभ (b) ववशेषण
(a) कभथधायम (b) फहुबिही (c) सॊऻा (d) किमा
(c) तत्ऩरु
ु ष (d) अव्व्मी बाव Q80. तरऩ
ू भें सॊधध का प्रकाय क्मा है?
Q78. याजन का स्त्रीलरॊग क्मा है ? (a) स्वय गण
ु (b) व्मॊजन
(a) यानी (b) याऻी (c) ववसगथ (d) इनभे से कोई नही

Test of Language: English

Directions (81-85): An expression followed by four words Directions (91-93): These types of questions are designed
is given in each of the following questions. The to measure your ability to recognize language that is
expression carries the meaning of one of the words. appropriate for standard written English. You will find
Identify the word and mark its number as your answer. incomplete sentences and beneath each sentence you
Q81. Causing damage to both parties involved will see words or phrases. Choose the one word or
(a) mutual (b) internecine phrase that best completes the sentence.
(c) interdict (d) interstitial Q91. __________ the formation of the sun, the planets,
Q82. A person who is very good at something especially and other stars begin with the condensation of an
music interstellar cloud.
(a) adept (b) popular (a) Except that
(c) talented (d) virtuoso (b) Accepted that
Q83. An anxious and eager concern for someone (c) It is accepted that
(a) solicitude (b) worry (d) That is accepted
(c) elation (d) good will Q92. In many ways, riding a bicycle is similar to
Q84. A cowardly and unfaithful person __________.
(a) miscreant (b) mendicant (a) the driving of a car
(c) pervert (d) recreant (b) when you drive a car
Q85. A fixed plan of food, sleep, etc. in order to improve (c) driving a car
one’s heath (d) when driving a car
(a) regimen (b) alidade Q93. Fast-food restaurants have become popular because
(c) resolution (d) encompassment many working people want __________.
Directions (86-90): Choose the option which is the (a) to eat quickly and cheaply
antonym of the word mentioned in the question. (b) eating quickly and cheaply
Q86. APPALLING (c) eat quickly and cheaply
(a) Shocking (b) Consoling (d) the eat quickly and cheaply
(c) Scaring (d) Horrifying Directions (94-95) : In these questions, a sentence has
Q87. CONVICTED been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four
(a) Charged (b) Relieved alternatives suggested, select the one which best
(c) Dismissed (d) Acquitted expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice:
Q88. MALADROIT Q94. Our hosts treated us very kindly.
(a) Authoritative (b) Skillful (a) We got kind treatment from our hosts.
(c) Maladjusted (d) Malevolent (b) We were treated very kindly by our hosts.
Q89. MONOTONOUS (c) We were kindly treated by hosts.
(a) Disastrous (b) Terrifying (d) Our treatment was kind.
(c) Terrible (d) Interesting Q95. Who painted the wall?
Q90. PREDILECTION (a) By whom had the wall been painted?
(a) Acceptance (b) Attraction (b) By whom was the wall painted?
(c) Dislike (d) Choice (c) By whom is the wall been painted?

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 (d) By whom has the wall been painted?
Directions (96-100): In this section, you have one short
passage. After this passage you will find several
questions based on the passage. First, read Passage, and
answer the questions based on it.
Ordinarily, nothing upsets the equilibrium of the
pandit. But the loss of the necklace, which his wife
had borrowed from a neighbour, and the fact that
he had to replace it worried him. He spent all his
time in devising ways and means to repay the debt.
Six months later, he gave his wife a gold necklace. It
was exactly what she had yearned for. “There is no
need to repay it,” she said. The pandit was
surprised. She explained, “The necklace was not
stolen. That was the only way I could think of
making you get me one.”
Q96. The pandit was almost never upset as he
(a) had the courage to face a problem
(b) had a balanced attitude
(c) was indifferent to ordinary incidents
(d) always succeeded in finding a solution to his
problems.
Part-2
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Q101. Fragmentation is
(a) dividing the secondary memory into equal Q104. Bootstrap loader is always stored in
sized fragments
(b) dividing the main memory into equal-size
fragments
(c) fragments of memory words used in a page
(d) fragments of memory words unused in a Q105. The jobs are assumed to have arrived at time O
page
Q102. Mutual exclusion problem occurs
(a) between two disjoint processes that do not
interact
(b) among processes that share resources
(c) among processes that do not use the same
resource
(d) none of the above
Q103. Match List-I with List-II select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
Codes:
List-I List-II
A. Disk scheduling 1. Round robin
B. Batch processing 2. SCAN Q106. Suppose we have a system in which processes is
C. Time sharing 3. LIFO
D. Interrupt processing 4. FIFO
(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
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Q97. What worried the pandit most was the
(a) his wife had lost the necklace
(b) he had to replace the necklace
(c) his wife was so foolish and careless
(d) the necklace was very expensive
Q98. The pandit struggled for six months so that
(a) he could present the necklace to his wife
(b) he could lend the necklace to others
(c) his wife could replace the lost necklace
(d) his wife could satisfy her desire to own a
necklace
Q99. The reason why the pandit’s wife refused to return
the necklace was that
(a) she had always wanted one like it
(b) the real owner did not expect it back
(c) she had not lost any necklace
(d) she was tempted to keep this one for herself
Q100. The pandit’s wife had told him a lie in order to
(a) trick him into satisfying her yearning
(b) punish him for refusing to get her what she
desired
(c) make him repay a debt
(d) force him to work hard to earn more and mor
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(a) cache
(b) ROM
(c) RAM
(d) disk
and in the order p, q, r, s, t. Calculate the
departure time for job p if scheduling is round-
robin with time slice of 1.
Job ID CPU Burst Time
p 4
q 1
r 8
s 1
t 2
(a) 16
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
in hold and wait condition then which of the
following approach prevent the deadlock.
(a) Request all resources initially
(b) Spool everything
(c) Take resources away
Page 9
 (d) Order resources numerically Q114. What is the average turn around time in
Q107. Disk scheduling involves deciding milliseconds when we use the RR (Round Robin)
(a) which disk should be accessed next scheduling algorithm with time quantum of 4
(b) the order in which disk access requests must milliseconds?
be serviced (a) 5.66
(c) the physical location where files should be (b) 10
accessed in the disk (c) 15.66
(d) none of the above (d) 2
Q108. In Round Robin CPU scheduling, as the time Q115. The boolean expression A + BC equals
quantum is increased, the average turn around (a) ̅ ̅ (b)
time (c) ̅ (d) None of these
(a) increases (b) decreases Q116. The main advantages of CMOS as compared to
(c) remains constant (d) varies irregularly TTL are
Q109. Which of the following algorithms favour CPU (a) lower power consumption and better noise
bound processes? margins
1. round-robin (b) lower power consumption with low fanout
2. first-come-first-served (c) higher speed operation with low power
3. multilevel feedback queues consumption
(a) 1 only (d) higher power consumption with high fanout
(b) 2 only Q117. A positive AND gate is also a negative
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) AND gate (d) Or gate
Q110. Spooling helps because Q118. The 2’s complement representation of in
(a) it is a more secure method of accessing data hexadecimal is
(b) print job go more smoothly with less stop (a) ABE (b) DBC
and go (c) DE5 (d) 9E7
(c) the computer is released to do other things Q119. A device that works in conjunction with a
while still printing computer but not as part of it is called
(d) None of these (a) microprocessor (b) peripheral device
Q111. When a computer is “swapping”, it is (c) hardware (d) memory
(a) moving data from the hard drive to the Q120. Which of the following is termed as minimum
floppy drive error code?
(b) moving data from memory to the swap file (a) Binary code (b) Gray code
on the hard drive (c) Excess 3 code (d) Octal code
(c) moving data between registers in memory Q121. Which of the following 4 bit combination are
(d) None of the above invalid in the BCD code?
Q112. An interrupt handler is a (a) 0010 (b) 0101
(a) location in memory that keeps track of (c) 110 (d) 1100
recently generated interrupts Q122. The number of possible boolean functions that
(b) peripheral device can be defined for n boolean variables over n-
(c) utility program valued boolean algebra is
(d) special numeric code that indicates the (a) (b)
priority of a request (c) (d)
Directions (113-114)Consider the following set of Q123. (1101101.1011)2 = ()10
processes that arrive at time 0, with the length of the (a) 109.6875 (b) 109.7865
CPU-burst time given in milliseconds: (c) 109.6880 (d) 119.08
Process Burst time Q124. The decimal number + 122 is expressed in 2’s
24 complement form as
3 (a) 01111010 (b) 10000101
3 (c) 01001011 (d) 01110010
Q113. What is the average waiting time in milliseconds Q125. Which statement is true from multiplexer?
when we use the RR (Round Robin) scheduling (a) Number of input lines equals to number of
algorithm with time quantum of 4 milliseconds outputs lines
(a) 5.66 (b) 10 (c) 15.66 (d) 2

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 (b) Number of input lines less than number of (c) compiled instruction set source code and
output lines recompiled instruction source code
(c) Number of input lines greater than the (d) none of the above
number of output lines Q136. A 32-bit address bus allows access to a memory
(d) Any number of input and output lines of capacity
Q126. In multiplexer, the number of input lines depend (a) 64 Mb (b) 16 Mb
on (c) 1 Gb (d) 4 Gb
(a) The number of output lines Q137. Pipelining improves CPU performance due to
(b) The number of selector lines (a) reduced memory access time
(c) The number of gates (b) increased clock speed
(d) None of these (c) the introduction of parallelism
Q127. The sequential circuit contains (d) additional functional units
(a) combinational circuit and memory elements Q138. The system bus is made up of
(b) only combinational circuit with clock (a) data bus
(c) gates and clock pulse (b) data bus and address bus
(d) any of these (c) data bus and control bus
Q128. The flip-flop can be constructed using only (d) data bus, control bus and address bus
(a) AND gates (b) OR gates Q139. Cache memory enhances
(c) Not gates (d) Universal gates (a) Memory capacity
Q129. The equivalent binary code of BCD number (b) Memory access time
10011000 is. (c) effective memory access time
(a) 01001100 (b) 1001001 (d) secondary storage access time
(c) 0011101 (d) 1100010 Q140. A hardware interrupt is
Q130. The Gray code of 10110 is equivalent to (a) also called an internal interrupt
(a) 01001 (b) 10111 (b) also called an external interrupt
(c) 11101 (d) 11011 (c) an I/O interrupt
Q131. In clocked RS flip-flop, the output is remain as (d) a clock interrupt
previous output until Q141. A compiler is
(a) R = 0, S = 1 (b) CP = 0 (a) A program that places programs into
(c) R = 1, S = 0 (d) R = 1, S = 1 memory and prepares them for execution
Q132. Karnaugh map is used to (b) a program that automates the translation of
(a) minimize the number of flip-flops in a digital assembly language into machine language
circuit (c) program that accepts a program written in a
(b) minimize the number of gates only in digital high level language and produces an object
circuit program
(c) minimize the number of gates and fan in of a (d) a program that appears to execute a source
digital circuit program as if it were machine language
(d) design gates Q142. A loader is
Q133. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) a program that place programs into memory
answer using the codes given below the lists: and prepares them for execution
List-I List-II (b) a program that automates the translations of
A. Multiplexer 1. Combinational circuit assembly language into machine language
B. ALU 2. Sequential circuit (c) a program that accepts a program written in
C. Register a high level language and produces an object
(a) A-1, B-2, C-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-2 program
(c) A-1, B-1, C-2 (d) A-2,B-2, C-1 (d) a program that appears to execute a source
Q134. Which memory unit has lowest access time? program as if it were machine language
(a) cache (b) registers Q143. An optimizing compiler
(c) magnetic disk (d) main memory (a) is optimized to occupy less space
Q135. What does CISC and RISC means? (b) is optimized to take less time for execution
(a) common instruction set controller and rare (c) optimized the code
instruction set controller (d) none of the above
(b) complex instruction set controller and Q144. A garbage is
reduced instruction set controller (a) unallocated storage

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 (b) allocated storage with all access paths to it (a) bus topology
destroyed (b) star topology
(c) allocated storage (c) ring topology
(d) uninitialized storage (d) mesh topology
Q145. A packet-switching network Q153. Manchester code is a
(a) is free (a) non-return to zero code
(b) can reduce the cost of using an information (b) polar code
utility (c) both (a) and (b) above
(c) allows communications channels to be (d) none of these
shared among more than one user Q154. In the Ethernet network, what method is used to
(d) both (b) and (c) above access the media?
Q146. FDDI is (a) Demand priority (b) CSMA/CD
(a) ring network (b) star network (c) Polling (d) CSMA/CA
(c) mesh network (d) bus based network Q155. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for
Q147. Communication via circuit switching involves compression and decompression of data?
three phases which are: (a) Application (b) Presentation
(a) circuit establishment, data transfer, circuit (c) Session (d) Transport
disconnect Q156. What is flow control?
(b) circuit establishment, data compression, (a) To find the best rout to a destination
circuit disconnect (b) To be able to send a beacon message when
(c) data transfer, data compression, circuit congestion occurs
disconnect (c) To determine which machine transmits
(d) circuit establishment, data compression packets on the wire on a given instance
Q148. End-to-end connectivity is provided form host- (d) To keep the transmitting device from
to-host in transmitting no faster than the receiving device
(a) Network layer (b) Session layer can receive
(c) Data link layer (d) Transport layer Q157. At network layer protocol defined by TCP/IP is
Q149. Baseband is (a) TCP
(a) transmission of signals without modulation (b) UDP
(b) a signal all of whose energy is contained (c) IP
within a finite frequency range (d) None of these
(c) the simultaneous transmission of data to a Q158. Packets of the same session may be routed
number of stations through different paths in
(d) all of the above (a) TCP, but not UDP
Q150. Contentions is (b) TCP and UDP
(a) one or more conductors that serve as a (c) UDP, but not TCP
common connection for a related group of (d) Neither TCP nor UDP
devices Q159. Class ________ has the greatest number of hosts
(b) a continuous frequency capable of being per given network address.
modulate or impressed with a second signal (a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C
(c) the condition when two or more stations Q160. UML stands for
attempt to use the same channel at the same (a) Uniform modeling language
time (b) Unified modeling language
(d) a collection of interconnected functional (c) Unit modeling language
units that provides a data communications (d) Universal modeling language
service among stations attached to the Q161. CASE Tool is
network (a) Computer Aided Software Engineering
Q151. A hub-in network is (b) Constructive Aided Software Engineering
(a) a multi port signal repeater or concentrator (c) Constructive Analysis Software Engineering
(b) a multiplug like device to allow many (d) Computer Analysis Software Engineering
computers to be connected Q162. FAST stands for
(c) the server which serves every node (a) Functional Application Specification
(d) the central power supply Technique
Q152. The topology with highest reliability is (b) Fast Application Specification Technique

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 (c) Facilitated Application Specification Int a = 4, b = 6 ;
Technique Printf (“% d”, a = = b) ;
(d) None of the above (a) outputs an error message
Q163. Risk management activities are divided in (b) prints 0
(a) 3 Categories (b) 2 Categories (c) prints 1
(c) 5 Categories (d) 10 Categories (d) none of the above
Q164. Software reliability is Q175. Pointers are of
(a) the probability of failure free operation of a (a) integer datatype
program for a specified time in a specified (b) character datatype
environment (c) unsigned integer datatype
(b) the probability of failure of a program for a (d) none of these
specified time in a specified environment Q176. Preorder is same as
(c) the probability of success of a program for a (a) depth-first order
specified time in any environment (b) breadth-first order
(d) None of the above (c) topological order
Q165. Software testing is: (d) linear order
(a) the process of demonstrating that errors are Q177. The order of the binary search algorithm is
not present (a) n (b)
(b) the process of establishing confidence that a (c) nlog(n) (d) log(n)
program does what it is supposed to do Q178. Which of the following abstract data types can be
(c) the process of executing a program to show used to represent a many to many relation?
that it is working as per specifications (a) Tree (b) Stack
(d) the process of executing a program with the (c) Graph (d) Queue
intent of finding errors Q179. Merge sort uses
Q166. Software mistakes during coding are known as: (a) divide and conquer strategy
(a) failures (b) defects (b) backtracking approach
(c) bugs (d) errors (c) heuristic search
Q167. Functional testing is known as (d) greedy approach
(a) Structural testing (b) Behaviour testing Q180. Stack is useful for implementing
(c) Regression testing (d) None of the above (a) recursion
Q168. Alpha testing is done by (b) breadth first search
(a) Customer (b) Tester (c) depth first search
(c) Developer (d) All of the above (d) both (a) and (c)
Q169. Site of Beta testing is Q181. Which of the following algorithm design
(a) Software company (b) User’s site technique is used in the quick sort algorithm?
(c) Testers (d) All of the above (a) Dynamic programming
Q170. Site of Beta testing is (b) Backtracking
(a) Software company (b) User’s site (c) Divide and conquer
(c) Testers (d) All of the above (d) Greedy method
Q171. Acceptance testing is done by Q182. Linked lists are not suitable for implementing
(a) Developers (b) Customers (a) insertion sort
(c) Testers (d) All of the above (b) binary search
Q172. In which model, fixes are done without detailed (c) radix sort
analysis of the long-term effects? (d) polynomial manipulation
(a) Reuse oriented model Q183. The post fix form A + (B * C) is
(b) Quick-fix model (a) ABC + * (b) ABC* +
(c) Taute maintenance model (c) AB + C* (d) AB*C +
(d) None of the above Q184. The post fix from of (A + B) *C is
Q173. Printf(“%C”, 100); (a) AB + C* (b) ABC* +
(a) prints 100 (c) ABC* C + (d) ABC + *
(b) prints the ASCII equivalent of 100 Q185. The post fix form of A $ B * C-D + E/F (G + H) is
(c) prints garbage (a) AB $ C * D – EF/GH +/+
(d) none of the above (b) AB $ * C – D + EF/GH/+
Q174. The following program fragment (c) AB $ C + D – EF/GH –/+

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 (d) AB & C – D * EF/GH /++ Q195. If a system can enforce referential integrity, then
Q186. The goals of hashing is to produce a search that this ensures that
takes (a) a record can never contain a null value for a
(a) O (1) time (b) O ( ) time foreign key attribute.
(c) O (log n) time (d) O (n log n) time (b) a non-null foreign key attribute always refers
Q187. f(n) = to another record
Which will be the exact value for f(n) (c) a foreign key attributes in a record always
(a) (b) o ( ) refers to another record which contains
(c) O ( (d) ( nulls
Q188. Which of the following is not good for linked list? (d) a foreign key attribute in a record always
(a) Sorting (b) queues refers to another record which does not
(c) Binary reach (d) None of these contain nulls
Q189. The column of a table is referred to as the Q196. Which of the following is generally a benefit of
(a) tuple (b) attribute normalization?
(c) entity (d) degree (a) Performance is improved
Q190. Choose the incorrect statements. (b) Insertion anomalies are avoided
1. In network model, data is represented by a (c) Selection anomalies are avoided
collection of records, and relationship among (d) Number of tables is reduced
data are represented by links. Q197. A lack of normalization can lead to which one of
2. In hierarchical model, data and relationships the following problems?
among data are represented by records and (a) Insertion problems (b) Deadlock
links respectively. (c) Lost Updates (d) Deferred updates
3. In hierarchical model, the records are Q198. Which of the following is true of the data
organized as a collection of arbitrary graphs. manipulation language (DML)?
4. In network model, the records are organized (a) It refers to data using physical addresses
as a collection of trees. (b) It cannot interface with high-level
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only programming language
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All are correct (c) It is used to define the physical
Q191. E-R modeling technique is a characteristics of each record
(a) top-down approach (d) None of the above
(b) bottom-up approach Q199. Locking was introduced into databases so that
(c) left-right approach (a) Keys can be provided to maintain security.
(d) both top-down and bottom-up (b) All simultaneous transactions are prevented.
Q192. Redundancy is dangerous as it is a potential (c) Passwords can be provided to maintain
threat to data security.
(a) integrity (d) Consistency can be enforced.
(b) consistency Q200. Which level of locking provides the highest
(c) sufficiency degree of concurrency flight in a relational
(d) both (a) and (b) above database?
Q193. An attribute of the table matching the primary (a) Page
key of another table, is called as (b) Table
(a) foreign key (b) secondary key (c) Row
(c) candidate key (d) composite key (d) Page, table and row level locking allow the
Q194. Which is one function of a database management same degree of concurrency
system (DBMS)?
(a) Ensuring usability
(b) Identifying what a user needs
(c) Deciding what to do with legacy systems
(d) Preventing errors arising, while enabling
multiple, simultaneous users

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