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Test Information
Test Name SWTS-PHARMACOLOGY TEST 2017 Total Questions 200
(1). A 19-year-old male being treated for leukemia develops fever. You give agents that will cover bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Two
days later, he develops acute renal failure. Which drug was most likely responsible?
a. Vancomycin
b. Ceftazidime
c. Amphotericin B
d. Acyclovir
Correct Answer. c
(2). A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Before prescribing a drug regimen, you take a careful medication history
because one of the drugs commonly used to treat TB induces microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver. Which drug is this?
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
Correct Answer. b
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(3). Weight neutral antipsychotic drugs are all except
a. Olanzapine
b. Chlopromazine
c. Ziprasidome
d. Thioridazine
Correct Answer. a
a. Amiodarone
b. Sotalol
c. Ibutilide
d. Quinidine
Correct Answer. a
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Primidone
d. Valproic acid
Correct Answer. c
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(6). A drug acts on gametocytes of P.falciparum is
a. Chloroquine
b. Quinine
c. Primaquine
d. Mefloquinine
Correct Answer. c
a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Erythromycin
d. Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer. d
(8). A 30-year-old male with a two-year history of chronic renal failure requiring dialysis consents to transplantation. A donor kidney becomes
available. He is given cyclosporine to prevent transplant rejection just before surgery. What is the most likely adverse effect of this drug?
b. Nephrotoxicity
d. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer. b
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(9). Amount of drug left after four plasma half-lives is
a. 6.25%
b. 12.5%
c. 25%
d. 50%
Correct Answer. a
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(10)
Medications contraindicated during breast feeding include all except.
.
a. Bromocriptine
b. Cyclosporine
c. Methotrexate
d. Prednisolone
Correct Answer. c
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(11). Which one of the following drugs has narrow therapeutic range?
a. Propanolol
b. Digoxin
c. Piroxicam
d. Prazosin
Correct Answer. b
a. It is easier to observe inverse agonism if there is sufficient constitutive activity of receptor in the absence of agonist.
b. An inverse agonist has a higher affinity for the active form of receptor as compared to the inactive form.
c. If the equilibrium of receptor states lies in the direction of inactive conformation in the absence of a ligand, it may be impossible to
demonstrate inverse agonism.
Solution. (a) It is easier to observe inverse agonism if there is sufficient constitutive activity of receptor in the absence of agonist.
Reference – Read the text below
Sol:
- In pharmacology, an inverse agonist is an agent which binds to the same receptorbinding-site as an agonist for that receptor and
reverses constitutive activity of receptors.Inverse agonists exert the opposite pharmacological effect of a receptor agonist.
- Inverse agonists are effective against certain types of receptors (e.g. certainhistamine receptors and GABA receptors) which have
intrinsic activity without the action of a ligand upon them (also referred to as 'constitutive activity'.)
- Receptor agonists, antagonists and inverse agonists bind to the same receptor types. The pharmacological effect of an inverse agonist is
measured as the negative value of the agonist primarily due to the historical findings of the already known agonist.
- Therefore, if the agonist has a positive value and the inverse agonist has a negative value, the antagonist for the receptor takes both the
agonist and inverse agonist back to a neutral state
- One particular example is Ro15-4513 which is the inverse agonist of thebenzodiazepine class of drugs (such as alprazolam and
diazepam). Ro15-4513 and the benzodiazepines both utilize the same GABA binding site on neurons, yet Ro15-4513 has the opposite
effect, producing anxiety rather than the sedative effect of the benzodiazepines.
- Similarly beta-carbolines can cause anxiety and seizures, whilst blocking the effects of benzodiazepines.
Correct Answer. a
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(13). The phenomenon of antibiosis was first demonstrated by –
a. Gerhard Domagk
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Alexander Fleming
d. Selman Waksman
Correct Answer. b
(14). A 63-year old male with a h/o smoking for the past 20 years presents with an acute onset of left-sided chest pain radiating down the left
arm with profuse sweating. An immediate ECG was performed in the emergency room which revealed a ST-segment elevation in leads
V4-V6. A decision was taken to immediately thrombolyze the patient. For the purpose of pharmacological thrombolysis, 30 mg of
streptokinase was infused intravenously. The immediate plasma concentration of streptokinase was measured to be 0.6 mg/dL. What is
the volume of distribution of streptokinase in this patient?
a. 50 L
b. 5 L
c. 18 L
d. 180 L
Solution. (b) 5 L
Ref.: Read the text below
Sol :
Correct Answer. b
(15). All of the following have been shown to be beneficial in patients with congestive heart failure except –
a. Enoximone
b. Ivabradine
c. Thalidomide
d. Vernakalant
Correct Answer. d
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(16). Which of the following is most commonly responsible for causing superinfections?
a. Clindamycin
b. Tetracyclines
c. Cefoperazone
d. Piperacillin
Correct Answer. c
(17). A patient on clopidogrel therapy, the operative intervention should be done. Best practice would be
Solution. (d) Stop clopidogrel and postpone the surgery for a week.
Ref– Read the text below
Sol:
- The drug specifically and irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 subtype of ADP receptor inhibits platelet aggregation of platelets and cross-
linking by the protein fibrin,The blockade of this
- Receptor inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking activation of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa pathway.
- The IIb/IIIa complex functions as a receptor mainly for fibrinogen and vitronectin but also for fibronectin and von Willebrand factor.
- Activation of this receptor complex is the “final common pathway” for platelet aggregation and is important in the cross linking of
platelets by fibrin.
Correct Answer. d
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Cephalosporins
c. Bacitracin
d. Meropenem
Correct Answer. a
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(19). Sequence of clinical trials is
b. FDA-NDA-FDA
c. FDA-Marketing –NDA
Correct Answer. d
d. Enkephalinase inhibitors
Correct Answer. d
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(21). “Chondrodysplasiapuncta” is due to
a. Sodium valproate
b. Ciproflaxacin
c. Warfarin
d. Tetracycline
Correct Answer. c
a. Nitroglycerine
b. Clevidipine
c. Enalaprilat
d. Nitroprusside
Correct Answer. b
(23). Which of the following recent drugs for Hepatitis C has been on hold due to reports of severe pancreatitis?
a. Alisporivir
b. Daclatasvir
c. Ladipasvir
d. Danoprevir
Correct Answer. a
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(24). Which of the following is recently approved by U.S. F.D.A. for the treatment of psoriatic arthritis?
a. Tasimelteon
b. Apremilast
c. Ibrutinib
d. Droxidopa
Correct Answer. b
(25). The anti-TB capsule ‘RISORINE’ contains all of the following except –
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Piperine
Correct Answer. c
(26). Low dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) + Long-acting inhaled β2 agonist therapy is the preferred treatment for which type of bronchial asthma?
Correct Answer. c
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(27). Which of the following drugs is a dual PPAR agonist recently approved for diabetic dyslipidemia?
a. Muraglitazar
b. Tesaglitazar
c. Aleglitazar
d. Saroglitazar
Correct Answer. d
(28). A 27-year-old male with a three-year history of AIDS complains of progressive blurring of vision for two days. Eye examination reveals
evidence of retinitis consistent with cytomegalic virus inclusion disease. Intravenous treatment is started, and within five days the
patient complains of muscular weakness and cramping. Blood chemistries show a creatinine of 5.2 mEq/L and a Ca of 6.9 mEq/L.For
each patient, select the drug that most likely caused the adverse effect:
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Dideoxycytidine
d. Foscarnet
Correct Answer. d
a. Adalimumab
b. Etanercept
c. Infliximab
d. Anakinra
Correct Answer. c
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(30). All of the following decrease iron absorption except –
a. Tetracyclines
b. Phosphates
c. Phytates
d. Ascorbic acid
Correct Answer. d
(31). Which of the following antimalarials can be combined with arterolane in ACT regimen for uncomplicated falciparum malaria?
a. Lumefantrine
b. Piperaquine
c. Amodiaquine
d. Pyronaridine
Correct Answer. b
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(32). Rosiglitazone has been withdrawn due to an increased risk of –
a. Carcinoma of gallbladder
d. Hepatotoxicity
Correct Answer. c
(33)
Thehighly sedative antihistaminic drug is –
.
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Cinnarizine
c. Pheniramine
d. Chlorpheniramine
Correct Answer. a
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(34). A 50-year-old male diabetic develops an external otitis from which Pseudomonas organisms are cultured. Topical therapy with polymyxin
is effective. What is the mechanism of action of polymyxin?
Correct Answer. c
(35). A 60-year-old male with a temperature of 104°F and a productive cough is diagnosed as having staphylococcal pneumonia. After several
days on nafcillin, he develops truncalurticaria and pruritis. Which of the following agents is best avoided in this patient?
a. Cefazolin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. Clindamycin
Correct Answer. a
(36). The therapeutic action of β-adrenergic receptor blockers such as propranolol in angina pectoris is believed to be primarily the result of
Correct Answer. c
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(37). A 59-year-old male with a history of rheumatic heart disease is found to have atrial fibrillation (AF), for which he is treated with digoxin.
Treatment with digoxin converts his AF to a normal sinus rhythm and most likely results in a decrease in which of the following?
Correct Answer. c
(38). The EKG of a patient who is receiving digitalis in the therapeutic dose range would be likely to show
Correct Answer. b
(39). In a hypertensive patient who is taking insulin to treat diabetes,which of the following drugs is to be used with extra caution and advice
to the patient?
a. Hydralazine
b. Prazosin
c. Guanethidine
d. Propranolol
Correct Answer. d
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(40). Which one of the following is true regarding aminoglycosides?
c. The risk of ototoxicity increases when they are given with ACE inhibitors.
Correct Answer. b
a. Citrulline
b. Arginine
c. Heme
d. Methionine
Correct Answer. b
a. Hypercalciurea
b. Hyponatremia
c. hypokalemia
d. Hyperuricemia
Correct Answer. a
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(43). Antiarrhythmic drug having longest half life and tendency to accumulate in the body for a long time is
a. Adenosine
b. Quinidine
c. Lignocaine
d. Amiodarone
Correct Answer. d
a. Verapamil
b. Adenosine
c. Propranolol
d. Digoxin
Correct Answer. b
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(45). Drug of choice for the treatment of peptic ulcer caused due to chronic use of NSAIDs is
a. Pirenzepine
b. Loxatidine
c. Misorprostol
d. Esomeprazole
Correct Answer. d
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Erythromycin
Correct Answer. b
(47). The dose of which one of the following should be reduced in renal failure?
a. Erythromycin
b. Metronidazole
c. Furosemide (frusemide)
d. Meropenem
Correct Answer. d
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(48). A 54-year-old woman presents following a collapse. She is mildly confused. On examination, she has marked postural hypotension. Her
serum sodium is 161 mmol/l. She claims to have been passing larger volumes of urine over the last week. Which one of the following
drugs is the likely cause?
a. Desmopressin
b. Sodium valproate.
c. Carbamazepine
d. Lithium
Correct Answer. d
a. Esmolol
b. Carveoilol
c. Celiprolol
d. Bisorprolol
Correct Answer. a
(50)
Maximum anti-cholinergic action is seen with which H1 blocker?
.
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Cinnarizine
c. Loratidine
d. CPM
Correct Answer. a
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(51). All the drugs are used in treatment of enteric fever except:
a. Vancomycin
b. Cefoperazone
c. Refampicin
d. Azithromycin
Correct Answer. a
(52). Which one of the following statements about biguanides is not true?
Correct Answer. c
(53). Which among the following is an orally acting anti thrombin drug?
a. Hirudin
b. Lepirudin
c. Bevalirudin
d. Dabigatran
Correct Answer. d
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(54). A 70-year-old man has type 2 diabetes that is normally well controlled on an oral sulphonylurea. He presents with an episode of
hypoglycaemia. On history he tells that his general practitioner recently started him on a new tablet. Which one of the following drugs
would account for his symptoms?
a. Lithium
b. Co-trimoxazole
c. Rifampicin
d. Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer. a
(55). Drugs that may cause plasma sodium electrolyte disturbances include:
a. Prednisolone
b. Salbutamol
c. Propranolol
d. Gentamycin.
Correct Answer. a
a. Nalidixic acid
b. Norfloxacin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Ofloxacin
Correct Answer. c
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(57). Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause gynaecomastia?
a. Diazepam
b. Methysergide
c. Metoclopramide
d. Climetidine
Correct Answer. d
a. Cannabis
b. Phenothiazine
c. Alcohol
d. Digoxin
Correct Answer. b
b. It is a powerful vasodilator
c. It is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocker
Correct Answer. a
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(60). Of the following agents, which is best avoided in a patient with a history of chronic congestive heart failure (CHF)?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Amiloride
c. Mannitol
d. Ethacrynic acid
Solution. -NA-
Correct Answer. c
(61). Acute uric acid nephropathy, which is characterized by the acute overproduction of uric acid and by extreme hyperuricemia, can best be
prevented with which of the following?
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Allopurinol
d. Amiloride
Correct Answer. c
(62). The release of ADH is suppressed by which of the following drugs to promote a diuresis?
a. Guanethidine
b. Acetazolamide
c. Chlorothiazide
d. Ethanol
Correct Answer. d
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(63). Spironolactone can be characterized by which one of the following statements?
Correct Answer. b
(64). Which of the following products is not indicated for the management of peptic ulceration?
a. Zantac
b. Gaviscon
c. Nexium
d. Buscopan
Correct Answer. d
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(65). Which one of the following agents can be used without caution in renal failure?
a. Magenesiumtrisilicate mixture
b. amphotericin
c. Diazepam
d. Vancomycin
Correct Answer. c
(66). All the following products used in the treatment of glaucoma are applied topically except:
a. Xalatan
b. Diamox
c. Trusopt
d. Timoptol
Correct Answer. b
(67). A 69-year-old male with angina develops severe constipation following treatment with
a. Propranolol
b. Captopril
c. Verapamil
d. Dobutamine
Correct Answer. c
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(68). Significant relaxation of smooth muscle of both venules and arterioles is produced by which of the following drugs?
a. Hydralazine
b. Minoxidil
c. Diazoxide
d. Sodium nitroprusside
Correct Answer. d
(69). A 66-year-old female with CHF and hearing loss is given a diuretic as part of a regimen that includes digoxin and an ACE inhibitor. In the
course of treatment, she develops an AV conduction defect and is found to be hypomagnesemic. She also has worsening hearing loss,
which is reversed when the drug is stopped.Drug to be involved in such clinical condition is;
a. Acetazolamide
b. Amiloride
c. Furosemide
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer. c
a. Somatostatin
b. Growth hormone
c. Insulin
d. Adenosine
Correct Answer. b
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(71). All of the following drug toxic to vestibular system except
a. Amikacin
b. Gentamicin
c. Tobramycin
d. Minocycline
Correct Answer. a
a. Zileuton
b. Zafirlukast
c. Montelukast
d. Omalizumab
Correct Answer. a
a. Diliyiazen
b. Metoprolol
c. Nitroglycerine
d. Amrinone
Correct Answer. d
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(74). Osteoporosis is a major adverse effect caused by the glucocorticoids. It is due to their ability to
Correct Answer. b
a. Nifedipine
b. Amlodipine
c. Verapamil
d. Diltiazem
Correct Answer. c
a. Albendazole
b. Mebenzole
c. Niclosamide
d. Praziquantel
Correct Answer. d
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(77). A 39-year-old pregnant female requires heparin for thromboembolic phenomena. What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
Correct Answer. b
(78). A 42-year-old male with an acute MI is treated with alteplase. What is the mechanism of action of alteplase?
Correct Answer. d
(79). A 30-year-old type I diabetic with renal complications develops acute pyelonephritis.P.aeruginosais found in urine cultures and blood
cultures.Combined therapy is instituted with an aminoglycoside and which of the following?
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Vancomycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Piperacillin
Correct Answer. d
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(80). Nesiritideis a recombinant form of:-
a. ANP
b. BNP
c. TNF-a
d. IL-1
Correct Answer. b
(81). To achieve pleurodesmosisin malignant pleural effusion, the drug used is:
a. Polymyxin B
b. Chloromycetin
c. 1% Betadine
d. Doxycycline
Correct Answer. d
d. Inhibitits synthesis of mycolic acid, that form part of mycobacterial cell wall.
Correct Answer. b
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(83). A diabetic female on INH and rifampin for TB suffers DVT: She is started on warfarin: PT is not raised; next step should be:
Correct Answer. c
(84). All of the following drugs are recommended for treatment of beta blocker induced excessive bradycardia and/or decrease in cardiac
output except :-
a. Dopamine
b. Dobutamine
c. Glucagon
d. Phentolamine
Correct Answer. d
(85). Which of the following antibiotics should typically be administered to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with cardiac valve
disease who are undergoing dental surgery ?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Doxycycline
Correct Answer. b
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(86). Which drug should be used cautiously in a pregnant female, as it causes foetal abnormalities and potential risk clearly outweighs possible benefits:
a. Ergometrine
b. Valproate
c. Thyroxine
d. Aspirin
Correct Answer. a
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Cyclosporine
c. Quinine
d. Colchicine
Correct Answer. d
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(88). A 36-year-old female with a chronic UTI treated with ciprofloxacin is not responsive to the antibiotic. Which of the following agents that
she might have been taking for other reasons would decrease the effectiveness of ciprofloxacin?
a. An antacid
b. An antihistamine
c. A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
d. An anxiolytic
Correct Answer. a
(89). A nucleophilic attack on deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that causes the disruption of base pairing occurs as a result of the administration of
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. 5-FU
c. Methotrexate
d. Prednisone
Correct Answer. a
(90). A nine-year-old boy is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.He is maintained on methotrexate. A recent platelet count is below
normal,and a stool guaiac is 4+. Which of the following agents should be administered to counteract methotrexate toxicity?
a. N-acetyl-L-cysteine
b. Vitamin K
c. Penicillamine
d. Leucovorin
Correct Answer. d
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(91). Which of the following is considered to be the effective mechanism of action of the vinca alkaloids?
Correct Answer. a
(92). The tumor that is least susceptible to cell-cycle-specific (CCS) anticancer agents is
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
Correct Answer. d
(93). A 32-year-old cancer patient, who has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 10 years, presents a decreased pulmonary function
test.Physical examination and chest x-rays suggest preexisting pulmonary disease.Of the following drugs, which is best not prescribed?
a. Vinblastine
b. Doxorubicin
c. Mithramycin
d. Bleomycin
Correct Answer. d
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(94). A 34-year-old male with Hodgkin’s disease is treated with the adriamycin,bleomycin, vinblastine, and decarbazine (ABVD) regimen. What
is the mechanism of action of vinblastine?
b. Inhibition of dihydrofolatereductase
Correct Answer. d
a. Side effects typically include visual field defects with long-term use
Correct Answer. d
(96). Which of the following anti-microbials is associated with prolongation of the QT interval?
a. Co-amoxiclav
b. Gentamicin
c. Cefuroxime
d. Erythromycin
Correct Answer. d
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(97). The following are the causes of drug induced hepatitis except:
a. Isoniazid
b. Amiodarone
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
Correct Answer. d
(98). Useful therapy for improving fertility in Polycystic ovarian syndrome include
a. Cyproterone acetate
b. Ethinyl oestradiol
c. Metformin
d. Glibenclamide
Correct Answer. c
(99). In the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describe the drug Raloxifene?
a. A Bisphosphonate
Correct Answer. d
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(100). Dantrolene is useful in all except:
b. Malignant hypertension
c. Malignant hyperthermia
d. UMN disorders
Correct Answer. b
(101). The receptors for noradrenalin, adrenaline, dopamine all belong to which category –
a. Seven-pass receptors
b. Ligand-gated receptors
c. Four-pass receptors
d. Single-pass receptors
Correct Answer. a
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(102). In erectile dysfunction, which of the following drug is not used?
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a. Apomorphine
b. Phenylephrine
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c. Sildenafil
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d. Papaverine
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Solution. (b) Phenylephrine
Ref:Read the text below
Sol:
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Correct Answer. b
(103). A73-year-old patient has heart failure that has worsened over the past 12 months. Which of the following drugs is likely to slow
progression even though it has no direct positive or negative effects on cardiac contractility?
a. Digoxin
b. Dobutamine
c. Losartan
d. Nesiritide
Correct Answer. c
(104). Which of the following drugs is associated with discoloration of the skin, photosensitivity, thyroid dysfunction, and pulmonary
complications?
a. Amiodarone
b. Diltiazem
c. Ibutilide
d. Lidocaine
Correct Answer. a
(105). Which of the following drugs causes hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis and may cause hyperammonemia in a patient with cirrhosis?
a. Acetazolamide
b. Amiloride
c. Furosemide
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer. a
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(106). Nevirapineis :
Correct Answer. a
a. Cefoxitin
b. Cefixime
c. Cefepime
d. Cefdinir
Correct Answer. c
Solution. (a) Produce simultaneous inhibition of two key enzymes-neutral endopeptidase and ACE Ref.: Read the text below
Sol :
- Omapatrilat (INN) is a novel antihypertensive agent that inhibits both neutral endopeptidase (NEP) and angiotensin converting enzyme
(ACE).
- NEP inhibition results in elevated natriuretic peptide levels, promoting natriuresis,diuresis, vasodilation, and reductions in preload and
ventricular remodeling.
- This drug from Bristol-Myers Squibb was not approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration due to angioedema safety concerns
Correct Answer. a
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(109). A 25 year old man with ankylosing spondylitis develops a DVT after a long flight. He is established on warfarin and his indomethacin is
discontinued. He has severe spinal inflammation and is unable to cope without a NSAID. Which of the following NSAIDs would be the
safest in this case?
a. Rofecoxib
b. Ibuprofen
c. Diclofenac
d. Naproxen
Correct Answer. a
(110). Oral therapy with which of the following may cause galactorrhoea?
a. Bromocriptine
b. Cabergoline
c. Spironolactone
d. Domperidone
Correct Answer. d
c. A Sulphonylurea
d. An alpha-Glucosidase inhibitor
Correct Answer. b
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(112). Lead poisoning:
Correct Answer. c
(113). A 19-year-old girl presents with an overdose of Paracetamol. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Acetylcystine should routinely be given if the presentation is within the first 12 hours of overdose.
b. Because she is over the age of 6, she is unlikely to develop significant toxicity.
Correct Answer. c
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(114). Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause loss of equilibrium and auditory damage ?
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Rifabutin
Correct Answer. a
a. Benzathine penicillin
b. Sodium penicillin
c. Potassium penicillin
d. Procaine penicillin
Correct Answer. a
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(116). Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobacterium leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens
a. Norfloxacin
b. Ofloxacin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Lomefloxacin
Correct Answer. b
(117). Which of the following drugs is useful in treatment of gout with recurrent renal urate stones because it decreases the excretion of uric
acid?
a. Allopurinol
b. Aspirin
c. Colchicine
d. Indomethacin
Correct Answer. a
(118). Which of the following drugs can be used in rheumatoid arthritis with the lowest probable incidence of GI complications?
a. Aspirin
b. Celecoxib
c. Ibuprofen
d. Misoprostol
Correct Answer. b
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(119). A monoclonal antibody, also called antiangiogenesis agent used in metastatic colorectal carcinoma is-
a. Trastuzumab
b. Rituximab
c. Bevacizumab
d. Cetuximab
Correct Answer. c
(120). A drug t1/2 = 6hour is administered by continuous IV infusion. How long will it take the drug to reach 90% plasma concentration achieved
of its final steady state.
a. 10 hour
b. 20 hour
c. 30 hour
d. 40 hour
Correct Answer. b
(121). Which of the following calcium channel blockers causes Torsodes de points
a. Nifedipine
b. Amlodipine
c. Bepridil
d. Nicardipine
Correct Answer. c
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(122). Drug of choice for Hepatitis C infection
a. Lamivudine
b. Adefovir-dipivoxil
c. Ribavirin
d. Entecavir
Correct Answer. c
(123). Which of the following antitubercular drug is prefer in severe liver disorder
a. Streptomycin + Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin + Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid + Rifampicin
d. Rifampicin + Ethambutol
Correct Answer. b
Correct Answer. b
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(125). Which of the following agents would cause the greatest increase in heart rate in a functioning transplanted heart?
a. Amphetamine
b. Cocaine
c. Ephedrine
d. Isoproterenol
Correct Answer. d
(126). Which of the following agents produces vasodilation by increasing nitric oxide synthesis in endothelial cells?
a. Diazoxide
b. Histamine
c. Minoxidil
d. Nitroprusside
Correct Answer. b
(127). Which of the following statements correctly associates a CNS drug with its mechanism of action?
Correct Answer. b
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(128). The fastest acting schizontocidal drug among the following is
a. Artemether
b. Mefloquine
c. Chloroquine
d. Proguanil
Correct Answer. a
(129). A 60-year-old male with hematuria is found to have a small localized tumor of the bladder that is diagnosed as a carcinoma. Which of the
following agents should be given intravesicularly?
a. Allopurinol
b. Asparaginase
c. Methotrexate
d. BCG vaccine
Correct Answer. d
(130). A 45-year-old male has an insulinoma. Which of the following agents is the treatment of choice?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Carboplatin
c. Vincristine
d. Streptozocin
Correct Answer. d
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(131). A 50-year-old female is treated with paclitaxel. Of the following, how is paclitaxel classified?
a. An alkylating agent
b. An antimetabolite
c. A plant alkaloid
d. An antibiotic
Correct Answer. c
(132). In patients with hepatic coma, decreases in the production and absorption of ammonia from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be
beneficial. The antibiotic of choice in this situation would be
a. Neomycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin G
d. Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer. a
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(133). Which of the following is a stimulant laxative?
a. Lactulose
b. Calcium polycarbophil
c. Bisacodyl
d. Milk of Magnesia
Correct Answer. c
(134). All of the following drugs administered to breastfeeding mothers are safe in therapeutic doses to infants except –
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Warfarin
d. Methyldopa
Correct Answer. b
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(135). The most serious side effect of thalidomide is –
a. Sedation
b. Constipation
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Teratogenecity
Correct Answer. c
a. Ondansetron
b. Palonosetron
c. Granisetron
d. Ramosteron
Correct Answer. b
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(137
All of the following are CNS stimulants except –
).
a. Lithium
b. Modafinil
c. Doxapram
d. Methylphenidate
Correct Answer. a
(138). Ethambutol is administered concurrently with other antitubercular drugs in the treatment of TB in order to
Correct Answer. c
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(139). The atropine poisoning includes all of the following symptoms except:
a. Mydriasis
b. Hyperthermia
c. Delirium
d. Bradicardia
Correct Answer. d
a. Homatropine
b. Trimethaphane
c. Hexamethonium
d. Pancuronium
Correct Answer. b
(141). Indicate the ganglion-blocking drug, which can be taken orally for the treatment of hypertension?
a. Mecamylamine
b. Scopolamine
c. Trimethaphane
d. Vecocuronium
Correct Answer. a
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(142). Short to intermediate acting 3-hydroxy benzodiazepine derivative prescribed for the treatment of severe insomnia is?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Flurozepam
c. Temazepam
d. Secobarbital
Correct Answer. c
a. 2–3 mins
b. 2–3 hours
c. 2–3 days
d. 12–18 hours
Correct Answer. b
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intranasal
c. Intravenous
d. Oral
Correct Answer. d
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(145). The unwanted effect of dihydrotachysterol is:
a. Tetany
b. Anorexia
c. Bone pain
d. Lymphocytopenia
Correct Answer. c
(146). A 60-year-old diabetic male is treated with pioglitazone. What is the mechanism of action of pioglitazone?
Correct Answer. d
(147). Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of torsades de pointes?
a. Isoproterenol
b. Propanolol
c. Magnesium
d. Amiodarone
Correct Answer. d
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(148). Antibiotic of choice in campylobacter gastroenteritis is:
a. Erythromycin
b. Ampicillin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxicillin
Correct Answer. a
a. Anakinra
b. Adalimumab
c. Etanercept
d. Infliximab
Correct Answer. a
(150). Which among the following is the fastest acting antithyroid drug?
a. Sodium Iodide
b. Propylthiouracil
c. Methimazole
d. Carbimazole
Correct Answer. a
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(151). The major adverse effect of Ethacrynic acidis :
a. Nephrotoxic
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Ototoxicity
d. Myocarditis
Correct Answer. c
(152). Which of the following adverse reactions is not associated with the administration of chlorpropamide?
a. Water retention
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer. b
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(153). A 25-year-old male with hypogonadism is treated with a synthetic androgen. Which of the following is activated by a synthetic androgen?
b. G protein–coupled receptors
d. Muscarinic receptors
Correct Answer. c
(154). Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause hyperglycemia and hypokalemia?
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Furosemide
Correct Answer. b
(155). Of the following, which will not be blocked by atropine and scopolamine?
a. Bradycardia
b. Salivary secretion
c. Bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer. d
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(156). In which of the following are thiazide diuretics ineffective?
d. Glaucoma
Correct Answer. d
Correct Answer. d
b. As an antihypertensive agent
c. As an antihistaminic
Correct Answer. a
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(159). Cocaine, produced from the leaves of Erythroxylonspecies,
Correct Answer. d
(160). Which of the following agents is a selective dopamine receptor (D2) agonist?
a. Fluphenazine
b. Bromocriptine
c. Promethazine
d. Haloperidol
Correct Answer. b
(161). All of the following medications used for bronchial asthma act as bronchodilators except –
a. Albuterol
b. Fluticasone propionate
c. Theophylline
d. Toflimilast
Correct Answer. b
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(162). According to a recent FDA recommendation, the dosage of paracetamolin a single tablet should not exceed –
a. 325 mg
b. 450 mg
c. 500 mg
d. 650 mg
Correct Answer. a
a. 7 – 10%
b. ~ 20%
c. ~ 60%
d. 15 – 70%
Correct Answer. a
(164). All of the following diuretics act from the luminal side of the nephron except –
a. Bumetanide
b. Eplerenone
c. Amiloride
d. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer. b
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(165). The father of pharmacology is –
a. Rudolph Buchheim
b. Oswald Schmiedeberg
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Gerhard Domagk
Correct Answer. b
Correct Answer. d
(167). In comparing the following neuroleptics, which is most likely associated with constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and dry
mouth?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Clozapine
c. Olanzapine
d. Sertindole
Correct Answer. a
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(168). A patient exhibiting multiple facial tics, aggressive outbursts of behavior, and spontaneous repetitive foul language is best treated with
which of the following agents?
a. Levodopa
b. Clozapine
c. Thioridazine
d. Haloperidol
Correct Answer. d
(169). Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor.When released from this neoplasm, most of
the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which
of the following effects?
a. Bronchospasm
b. Constipation
d. Tachycardia
Correct Answer. a
(170). Which of the following drugs is useful in asthma because it stabilizes mast cells?
a. Albuterol
b. Cromolyn
c. Ipratropium
d. Salmeterol
Correct Answer. b
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(171). Which of the following statements describes the major difference between zolpidem and older hypnotics such as barbiturates and
benzodiazepines?
Correct Answer. d
(172). Which of the following drugs is used in cerebral palsy to reduce skeletal muscle spasticity by an action on cholinergic nerve endings?
a. Baclofen
b. Botulinum toxin
c. Dantrolene
d. Diazepam
Correct Answer. b
(173). Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause parkinsonian adverse effects?
a. Clozapine
b. Fluphenazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Olanzapine
Correct Answer. c
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(174). Apatient has been treated for bipolar disorder for several months. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of lithium
carbonate?
a. Dry mouth
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Leukopenia
Correct Answer. d
(175). The mechanism of action by which pyrantelpamoateis effective for the treatment of Necatoramericanus(hookworm) disease is
Correct Answer. c
(176). Vertigo, inability to perceive termination of movement, and difficulty in sitting or standing without visual clues are some of the toxic
reactions that are likely to occur in about 75% of patients treated with
a. Penicillin G
b. Doxycycline
c. Amphotericin B
d. Streptomycin
Correct Answer. d
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(177). Which of the following drugs is an insulin secretogogue?
a. Metformin
b. Pioglitazone
c. Tolbutamide
d. Pramlintide
Correct Answer. c
b. Contraindicated in pregnancy
c. Useful in neurocysticercosis
Correct Answer. a
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(179). Which among the following is an active moiety of sulfasalazine?
a. 5-ASA
b. Acrolein
c. Semustine
d. Althesin
Correct Answer. a
(180). All of the following drugs are contraindicated in patients with G-6-PD deficiency, except:
a. Phenacetin
b. Vitamin K
c. Nalidixic acid
d. Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer. d
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(181). 50 to 80% patients of glucagonomaspresent with metastasis,so curative surgical resection is not possible, so drug like long acting
somatostatin analogues such as octreotidearebeneficial. Sign and symptoms not responding toocterotideis:
a. Skin rash
b. Weight loss
c. Diarrhoea
d. Glucose intolerance
Correct Answer. d
(182). Medical treatment of hypercalcemiavaries with its severity. Drugs like diuretics, etidronate,glucocorticoids,calcitoninetc are
beneficil:drug associated with rapid tachyphylaxisis:
a. Diuretics
b. Etidronate
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Calcitonin
Correct Answer. d
(183). Only bisphosphonate currently approved for intravenous use in ‘paget disease’.
a. Etidronate
b. Pamidronate
c. Alendronate
d. Risedronate
Correct Answer. b
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(184). The goal in treating type II diabetes is to maintain blood glucose concentrations within normal limits : drug producing hypoglycemic
reaction is:
a. Glyburide
b. Metformin
c. Glucagon
d. Acarbose
Correct Answer. a
Solution. (d) Both can be used to prevent stroke and myocardial Infarction Ref:Read the text below
Sol:
- Both aspirin and ticlopidine can be used to prevent vascular events that result from the formation of arterial thrombi in patients at risk.
- Ticlopidine may cause leukopenia, so the white blood cell count must be monitored periodically.
- Ticlopidine acts by inhibiting ADP-induced platelet aggregation, whereas aspirin inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane, another potent
platelet derived aggregation factor.
- Neither aspirin nor ticlopidine is particularly effective in preventing venous thrombosis, and heparin or warfarin should be used for that
purpose.
Correct Answer. d
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(186). BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except:
a. Lead
b. Organic mercury
c. Cadmium
d. Arsenic
Correct Answer. c
a. Depression
b. Insomnia
c. Schizophrenia
d. Epilepsy
Correct Answer. a
a. Angina pectoris
c. Renovascular hypertension
d. Post-stroke dementia
Correct Answer. b
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(189
All of the following decrease bone resorptionexcept –
).
a. Prostaglandin E2
b. Growth hormone
c. Mithramycin
d. Thiazides
Correct Answer. a
a. D2 antagonist
b. 5-HT4 agonist
c. 5-HT3 antagonist
Correct Answer. d
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(191). Theophylline over doses causes
a. Brady cardia
b. Seizures
c. Downiness to coma
d. Bronchspasm
Correct Answer. b
a. Econazole
b. Miconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Clotrimazole
Correct Answer. c
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Methohexitone
d. Thiopentone sodium
Correct Answer. b
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(194). Which of the following drug is not given in renal failure
a. Carbenicillin
b. Rifampicin
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Pefloxacin
Correct Answer. b
a. Severe anemia
b. Severe trauma
c. Pulmonary Edema
d. Cardiac failure
Correct Answer. a
a. Atropine
b. Homatropine
c. Cyclopentolate
d. Tropicamide
Correct Answer. d
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(197). True statement regarding Halothane is
Correct Answer. d
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(198). Which of the following antidepressants is a norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake enhancer?
a. Tianeptine
b. Duloxetine
c. Bupropion
d. Mirtazapine
Correct Answer. a
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(199). Which of the following beta lactamase inhibitors exhibits direct activity against Acinetobacter?
a. Sulbactam
b. Tazobactam
c. Avibactam
d. Clavulanic acid
Correct Answer. a
(200). A 25-year-old male with difficulty sleeping and poor appetite associated with weight loss is placed on amitriptyline. How is amitriptyline
classified?
a. As an MAOI
Correct Answer. b
Test Answer
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(c)
11.(b) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(b) 23.(a) 24.(b) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(d) 29.(c) 30.(d)
31.(b) 32.(c) 33.(a) 34.(c) 35.(a) 36.(c) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(d) 40.(b)
41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(d) 44.(b) 45.(d) 46.(b) 47.(d) 48.(d) 49.(a) 50.(a)
51.(a) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(a) 56.(c) 57.(d) 58.(b) 59.(a) 60.(c)
61.(c) 62.(d) 63.(b) 64.(d) 65.(c) 66.(b) 67.(c) 68.(d) 69.(c) 70.(b)
71.(a) 72.(a) 73.(d) 74.(b) 75.(c) 76.(d) 77.(b) 78.(d) 79.(d) 80.(b)
81.(d) 82.(b) 83.(c) 84.(d) 85.(b) 86.(a) 87.(d) 88.(a) 89.(a) 90.(d)
91.(a) 92.(d) 93.(d) 94.(d) 95.(d) 96.(d) 97.(d) 98.(c) 99.(d) 100.(b)
101.(a) 102.(b) 103.(c) 104.(a) 105.(a) 106.(a) 107.(c) 108.(a) 109.(a) 110.(d)
111.(b) 112.(c) 113.(c) 114.(a) 115.(a) 116.(b) 117.(a) 118.(b) 119.(c) 120.(b)
121.(c) 122.(c) 123.(b) 124.(b) 125.(d) 126.(b) 127.(b) 128.(a) 129.(d) 130.(d)
131.(c) 132.(a) 133.(c) 134.(b) 135.(c) 136.(b) 137.(a) 138.(c) 139.(d) 140.(b)
141.(a) 142.(c) 143.(b) 144.(d) 145.(c) 146.(d) 147.(d) 148.(a) 149.(a) 150.(a)
151.(c) 152.(b) 153.(c) 154.(b) 155.(d) 156.(d) 157.(d) 158.(a) 159.(d) 160.(b)
161.(b) 162.(a) 163.(a) 164.(b) 165.(b) 166.(d) 167.(a) 168.(d) 169.(a) 170.(b)
171.(d) 172.(b) 173.(c) 174.(d) 175.(c) 176.(d) 177.(c) 178.(a) 179.(a) 180.(d)
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181.(d) 182.(d) 183.(b) 184.(a) 185.(d) 186.(c) 187.(a) 188.(b) 189.(a) 190.(d)
191.(b) 192.(c) 193.(b) 194.(b) 195.(a) 196.(d) 197.(d) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(b)
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