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Objective Questions MECH
Objective Questions MECH
100. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automobile engines are
a) flat, Radial, V
b) In a row, in-line, opposed
c) Inline, V, opposed
d) V, double line, opposed
101. An engine with the camshaft in the block operates the valves through
a) valve lifters
b) push rods
c) rocker arms
d) all of the above
106. In an even firing six cylinder engine, a firing impulse occurs every
o
a) 60 of crankshaft rotation.
o
b) 720 of crankshaft rotation.
o
c) 30 of crankshaft rotation.
o
d) 120 of crankshaft rotation.
108. The cylinder head from the upper end of the combustion chamber. The lower end is
formed by the.
a) piston and rings
b) connecting rod and crankshaft
c) valves
d) cams and camshaft
109. Technician A says turbulence causes the air-fuel mixture to burn rapidly. Technician B
says turbulence slows the spread of the flame so the mixture has more time to burn. Who
is right?
a) A only
b) B only
c) both A and B
d) neither A nor B
110. Technician A says that the precombustion chamber improves turbulence. Technician B
says it produces stratified charge? Who is right?
a) A only
b) B only
c) both A and B
d) neither A nor B
112. Piston pins are usually either a press fit in the rod or
a) locked to the rod with a bolt.
b) free floating in the rod and piston.
c) locked to the piston with a bolt.
d) a press fit in the piston.
113. Technician A says worn cylinder walls cause the engine to loose power. Technician B
says engine wear increases oil consumption. Who is right?
a) A only b) B only
c) both A and B d) neither A nor B
115. When the camshaft is in the cylinder block, the parts in the valve train include the cam and
the
a) lifter, pushrod, rocker arm and valve spring.
b) bucket tappet, adjustment screw, push rod and rocker arm.
c) roller tappet, adjustment screw, pivot and roller rocker.
d) lifter, push rod, lash adjuster and valve spring.
117. Technician A says in an engine with one intake and one exhaust valve, the larger valve is
the exhaust valve. Technician B says the larger valve is the inlet valve. Who is right?
a) A only.
b) B only
c) both A and B
d) neither A nor B.
119. The bearings on which the crankshaft is supported in the crankcase is called
a) main bearing
b) thrust bearing
c) sleeve bearing
d) low friction bearing
120. The component attached at the top of the cylinder block is called
a) timing gear
b) ignition distributor
c) flywheel
d) cylinder head
123. The advantage associated with Cast Iron as cylinder block material is
a) good foundry material
b) high machinability
c) better retention of lubricating oil
d) all of the above
124. Considering different properties, the material suitable for engines with higher
compression ratio is;
a) Cast Iron
b) Pig Iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
125. To obtain a cylinder block with light weight and less wearing surface;
a) Cast iron block is used
b) aluminum block is used
c) aluminum alloy with chromium plated cylinder bore is used
d) none of the above
127. The cylinder heads cast integral with cylinder block is employed in
a) racing engines
b) truck engines
c) airplane engines
d) heavy equipment
128. The advantage of detachable cylinder head construction over the integral construction is
a) more simplified production
b) simplified decarbonizing and valve grinding
c) possibility of changing compression ratio
d) all of the above
129. For heavy duty engines, the cylinder head material used is
a) cast iron b) aluminum
c) aluminum alloys d) copper alloys
131. Baffle plates are provided in the oil pan for the purpose of
a) reducing oil surging
b) to decrease the temperature
c) to reduce the oil pressure
d) to remove the impurities from the lubrication oil
133. The part of the piston which remain adjacent to the combustion chamber is
a) piston pin boss
b) lands
c) skirt
d) crown
134. A small groove cut near the top of the piston to prevent heat travel from the piston crown
to the skirt is called;
a) heat dam
b) horizontal slot
c) vertical slot
d) wire winding
137. Differential expansion of the piston ring with respect to the cylinder is likely to occur
though they are made of same material because
(a) cylinder wall is operating at higher temperature
(b) heat flows from cylinder wall to the piston rings
(c) piston ring is operating at higher temperature
(d) the blowby gases pass over the piston rings
138. The prominent effect of the excessive piston ring end gap is
(a) blowby
(b) excessive cylinder wear
(c) piston rings butting at higher temperatures
(d) uniform pressure on the cylinder wall
141. All these materials are used for piston ring construction except
(a) Molybdenum filling
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Thermochrome
(d) Copper
142. The number of rings used in automobile engine is
(a) one oil control ring only
(b) one oil control ring and two compression rings
(c) two oil control rings and one compression ring
(d) one compression ring only
143. The number of compression rings required in an I.C. engine is decided by the
(a) size of the piston
(b) temperature difference between crankcase and combustion chamber
(c) pressure difference between crankcase and combustion chamber
(d) size of the combustion chamber
144. The pressure difference between combustion chamber and crankcase is usually
(a) 50 atmospheres
(b) 60 atmospheres
(c) 70 atmospheres
(d) 80 atmospheres
146. The oil control ring is used to prevent excessive amount of oil from passing through
(a) between the ring face and the cylinder wall
(b) through the ring end gap
(c) around behind the rings
(d) all of the above
150. The end of the connecting rod which holds the piston pin is called
(a) small end
(b) big end
(c) none of the above
(d) both of the above
152. The pin which attaches the connecting rod to the piston is called
(a) piston pin
(b) wrist pin
(c) gudgeon pin
(d) all of the above
156. The major part of the crankshaft which is attached to the big end of the connecting rod is
(a) crank webs
(b) counter weights
(c) bearing journals
(d) crank pins
158. The device which is attached to the crankshaft and serves as energy reservoir is
(a) flywheel
(b) starting motor
(c) fan
(d) clutch
163. The parameter which indicates the change of viscosity of a lubricating oil with respect to
temperature is called
(a) viscosity
(b) dynamic viscosity
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) viscosity index
164. Petroleum based lubricating oils have viscosity index in the range of
(a) 70-80
(b) 80-90
(c) 90-100
(d) 100-110
166. When the lubricating oil does not separate into solids at lower temperature and does not
vaporize at higher temperature, then it is said to be
(a) chemically stable (b) physically stable
(c) having good pour point (d) having good viscosity index
167. If the lubrication oil doesnot tend to form oxides at higher temperature, then it is said to be
(a) chemically stable (b) physically stable
(c) having good pour point (d) having good viscosity index
170. Oiliness refers to the property of the lubricating oils in which the lubricating oils
(a) adhere to a metal surface
(b) detaches from the metal surface (c) evaporates from the metal surface (d) none of the above
171. The most commonly used lubricating oils are derived from
(a) animal oils
(b) vegetable oils
(c) mineral oils
(d) synthetics
172. The most common material which is used as solid lubricant is
(a) copper
(b) aluminum (c) graphite (d) brass
173. SAE 10W/30 oil has same viscosity as
o o o o
(a) SAE 10W oil at –18 C and SAE 30 oil at 99 C (b) SAE 10W oil at 99 C and SAE 30 oil at –18 C (c)
o o
SAE 10W oil at 10 C and SAE 30 oil at 30 C
o o
(d) SAE 10 oil at 99 C and SAE 30W oil at –18 C
174. The multigrade oil refers to the type of lubricants in which
(a) the viscosity is different at different temperatures
(b) the viscosity changes are appreciable with respect to temperature
(c) the viscosity changes are minimum
(d) none of the above
175. A measure used to prevent the leakage of products of combustion into the crankcase is called
(a) crankcase ventilation
(b) crankcase safety
(c) Exhaust gas recirculation
(d) none of the above
176. In case of the positive crankcase ventilations system;
(a) air stream due to the motion of the vehicle is circulated in the crankcase
(b) air stream due to the cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase
(c) air stream due to the vehicle motion and cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase
(d) filtered air from the engine air intake is circulated in the crankcase
177. The main advantage of the manifold suction type crankcase ventilation is
(a) it does not cause pollution of the atmosphere
(b) it decreases fuel consumption
(c) it improves vehicle speed
(d) it prevents blowby
178. The lubricating system in which the lubricating oil is mixed with petrol is called
(a) petrol system
(b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) petroil system
179. In case of petrol system of lubrication, the ratio of lubricating oil to petrol is
(a) ½ (b) ¼
(c) 1/5
(d) 1/6
180. A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod is used to
spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called
191. Amount of energy converted into the useful work at the crankshaft is
(a) 20% of the total energy released in combustion
(b) 25% of the total energy released in combustion (c) 30% of the total energy released in combustion
(d) 35% of the total energy released in combustion
193. the burning of the charge even before the flame front has reached it is called
(a) preignition of the charge
(b) autoignition
(c) detonation
(d) none of the above
209. In case of the pump circulation system, the radiator can be located anywhere because
(a) there is a water pump to circulate cooling water
(b) there is a fan employed to assist air flow
(c) road draft of the vehicle is more
(d) the system is complicated
218. In case of the Bellows type thermostat, the valve is fully open at about
o
(a) 75-80 C
o
(b) 80-85 C
o
(c) 85-89 C
o
(d) 90-95 C
219. In case of the Wax thermostat, the plunger is usually made of
(a) plastic
(b) rubber
(c) aluminum
(d) copper
220. In case of car overheating, all the windows are opened and the heater is run with the fan going
at full blast because
(a) heater mirrors the cooling system
(b) heater derives heat from the hot engine coolant
(c) heater is not operated electrically
(d) all of the above
a) to supply current for the starting of the vehicle b) to supply current to the electrical system
c) to supply current to the ignition system d) all of the above
224. The percentage of antimony in the supporting frame of the battery plate varies between
a) 1-4 % b) 5-10% c) 11-16%
d) 17-22%
225. The function of the gird in the battery is to a) to support the container
b) to carry current in the plates c) to carry the active materials
d) none of the above
226. The active material in the positive plate gird is a) red lead
b) sulphuric acid c) litharge
d) lead peroxide
227. The active material in the negative plate gird is a) red lead
b) sulphuric acid c) litharge
d) lead peroxide
229. Thin sheets of non-conducting negative plates inserted between positive and negative
plates is called
a) active material b) separator
c) container d) cell covers
231. The usual electrolyte used in the Lead-acid battery is a) hydrochloric acid
b) nitric acid c) acetic acid
d) sulphuric acid
233. In the fully charged condition, the specific gravity of the electrolyte is a) 1.920 at 15oC
o
b) 1.290 at 15 C
o
c) 1.110 at 15 C
o
d) 2.290 at 15 C
235. The capacity of an automotive battery depends on a) number of plates in the cell
b) area of the plates in the cell c) quality of the electrolyte
d) all of the above
236. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 hours after which the cell voltage
does not fall below 1.75, then the battery rating is
237. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 minutes with the cell not dropping
below 1.5, the battery rating is
a) twenty hour rating
b) twenty minute rating c) cold rate
d) none of the above
238. The number of minutes a battery can continuously deliver 300 amperes current till the cell
voltage drops to 1.0 volts is called
a) twenty hour rating
b) twenty minute rating c) cold rate
d) none of the above
241. In a 6-cylinder 4 stroke engine running at 5000 rpm, the number of sparks required per minute
will be
a)10,000
b)15,000
c)20,000
d)25,000
242. The main requirement of an ignition system is
a) Spark at the plug electrode must be regular and synchronously timed with respect to the
cylinder piston position.
b) The spark should be sufficiently strong so as to start ignition of the charge
c) The system should function efficiently at the maximum and minimum speeds of the engine.
d) All of the above
243. The voltage surge required for ignition system is equal to a) 15,000 Volts
b) 20,000 Volts c) 25,000 Volts
d) 30,000 Volts
244. The period when the energy grows exponentially in the primary circuit is called;
a) break period
b) storage period c) make period
d) discharge period
245. The break period is characterized by,
a) exponential growth of current in the primary circuit
b) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the primary circuit.
c) Continuation of the growth of the current in primary till 25,000 volts is
reached.
d) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the secondary circuit.
246. The main factor determining the actual voltage required is a) speed
b) compression ratio
c) spark plug gap width d) all of the above
247. The primary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 300 turns of 20 S.W.G. wire
b) 400 turns of 20 S.W.G. wire c) 300 turns of 30 S.W.G. wire
d) 400 turns of 30 S.W.G. wire
248. The secondary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 5,000 turns of thin wire
b) 10,000 turns of thin wire c) 15,000 turns of thin wire
d) 20,000 turns of thick wire
249. When the contact breaker points are closed
a) a magnetic field is built up in the ignition coil b) a magnetic field is collapsed in the ignition coil
c) current is absorbed by the condenser
d) high voltage surge is induced in the secondary coil
250. In case of the core type ignition coil, a) primary is wound on the core
b) secondary is wound on the core
c) H.T. wire is directly connected to the core d) None of the above
251. Ballast resistance is required in the case of the core type ignition coil because, a) the primary
winding has relatively long mean turn
b) the secondary winding has relatively short mean turn c) battery current has to be limited in the
coil
d) none of the above
252. At lower speeds, overheating of the induction coil takes place because a) contact breaker
points are closed for short time
b) contact breaker points are closed for long time. c) secondary winding has high voltage surge
d) none of the above
253. The value of ballast resistance generally varies between a) 1-4 ohms
b) 5-9 ohms
c) 10-14 ohms d) 15-19 ohms
254. For a four cylinder engine operating at 4,000 rpm, the number of contacts to be made and
broken is equal to
a) 4,000 times per minute b) 6,000 times per minute
c) 8,000 times per minute d) 10,000 times per minute
255. )The essential requirement of a good contact breaker is
a) opening and closing of the contacts at proper time b) closure of the contacts without bounce
c) minimum corrosion of the contact points d) all of the above
256. The main function of the condenser in an ignition system is a) minimizing pitting of the
contact breaker points
b) to intensify the spark
c) to absorb the energy stored in the primary winding d) all of the above
257. The usual capacity of the condensers used in automobiles is a) 0.1 microfarad
b) 0.2 microfarad c) 0.3 microfarad
d) 0.4 microfarad
258. The main function of the distributor is to
a) distribute energy between the primary and secondary windings b) distribute battery current for
various electrical systems
c) distribute high voltage pulses to each of the spark plugs d) none of the above
259. The most common firing order for a four cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4
b) 1-2-4-3 c) 2-3-4-1 d) 4-3-1-2
260. The most common firing order for a six cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4-5-6
b) 1-3-5-6-4-2 c) 1-5-3-6-4-2
d) 1-5-3-6-2-4
261. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder inline engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2
b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3
d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6
262. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder V-engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2
b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3 d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6
263. The main requirement of a spark plug is a) high resistance to current leakage b) gas
tightness
c) resistance to corrosion d) all of the above
264. The optimum temperature for the spark plug electrodes is a) 100oC
o
b) 300 C
o
c) 500 C
o
d) 700 C
265. Sintered alumina is preferred over porcelain for the spark plug assembly because a) they are
much stronger
b) they can be attacked by leaded fuel c) they are brittle
d) they have low thermal conductivity
266. If the length of the threaded portion of the spark plug is less, then it is called a) short reach spark
plug
b) long reach spark plug c) slow reach spark plug
d) quick reach spark plug
267. Hot plugs runs hotter than cold plugs because a) they are located near radiator
b) they are not insulated
c) they have longer path of heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket d) they have shorter path of
heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket
268. The usual spark plug air gap is equal to a) 0.6 mm
b) 1.2 mm c) 0.6 cm
d) 1.2 cm
269. In the Magneto Ignition system, the current is supplied to the primary winding by a) battery
b) alternator c) magneto
d) none of the above
270. The advantage of the rotating magnet type ignition system is a) larger armature
b) no centrifugal stress
c) stationary contact breaker and condenser d) all of the above
271. In the semi transistorized electronic ignition system, the contact breaker adjustments are required
after
a) 20,000 km b) 30,000 km
c) 40,000 km
d) 50,000 km
272. The advantage of the semi transistorized electronic ignition system is a) less pitting of the
contact points
b) better performance at low speeds c) ease of maintenance
d) all of the above
273. The advantage of the fully transistorized electronic ignition system is a) stable secondary voltage
at high speeds
b) quick cold starting c) self cleaning
d) all of the above
274. A mechanism which enables the rotary motion of one shaft to another shaft at the same axis is
called
a) gear box
b) differential c) clutch
d) flywheel
275. The main advantage of a good clutch is a) good torque transmission
b) rapid engagement c) large size
d) high inertia
276. Hard shifting of gears would result when
a) there is rapid engagement of gears b) there is less heat dissipation
c) the clutch inertia is very high
d) there is no clutch free pedal play
277. The torque transmitted by a clutch is given by
a) T = µWR
b) T = µ/WR
c) T = µW/R
d) T = 1/µWR
278. The coefficient of friction for the Asbestos-based materials used for clutch facing is a) 0.07
b) 0.17 c) 0.27
d) 0.37
279. The maximum amount of axial load to be applied on a clutch plate is a) 100 kN
b) 200 kN
c) 300 kN
d) 400 kN
280. Mean effective radius of contact surfaces of a clutch plate is decided by a) coefficient of friction
b) axial pressure
c) space available in the vehicle
d) amount of torque to be transmitted
281. Axial force to keep the clutch in engaged position is provided by a) springs arranged
circumferentially
b) pressure plate c) flywheel
d) clutch pedal
282. The friction plate is always mounted on a) flywheel
b) pressure plate
c) internally splined hub d) clutch spring
283. The main advantage of single plate clutch over cone clutch is a) easier gear changing
b) less binding of contact surfaces c) less pedal movement
d) all of the above
284. The main function of transmission is
a) to provide means to vary the torque ratio between the engine and the road wheels
b) to provide neutral position
c) to provide means to back the car d) all of the above
285. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude remain constant with respect to the
vehicle speed is
a) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to the road
c) resistance due to the tyre friction d) all of the above
286. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude various with the square of the vehicle
speed is
a) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to road
c) resistance due to the tyre friction
d) resistance due to wind
287. If the tractive effort is the highest for a given velocity, then the vehicle must be in a) top gear
b) third gear
c) second gear d) first gear
288. The point of interaction of the tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve is called
a) stabilizing speed point b) low speed point
c) high speed point
d) normal speed point
289. If the given tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve does not intersect, then
a) the vehicle will accelerate b) the vehicle will decelerate
c) the vehicle will not be able to go at this gradient for the given gear d) none of the above
290. The main disadvantage of sliding mesh type of gear box is a) high noise level
b) low mechanical efficiency
c) high skill required by the driver d) all of the above
291. Double declutching is used for the engagement of gears in
a) sliding mesh type of gear box
b) constant mesh type of gear box
c) synchromesh type of gear box
d) none of the above
292. High speed gear is obtained in the case of sliding mesh gear box when
a) motion is transferred through the clutch gear to lay shaft gear
b) main shaft is coupled to the clutch shaft
c) smallest gear on the lay shaft is engaged
d) largest gear on the lay shaft is engaged
Figure 1
294. In case of a constant mesh gear box, when the left dog clutch is slid to the left by means of the
selector mechanism,
a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtained
c) second gear is obtained d) reverse gear is obtained
295. In a constant mesh gear box, when the right dog clutch is engaged with the gear on the right side
of the main shaft,
a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtained
c) second gear is obtained
d) reverse gear is obtained
296. Double declutching is required in constant mesh gear box
a) to equalize the speed of mainshaft gear and the sliding dog b) to provide direct gear
c) to equalize the speed of countershaft gear and the sliding dog d) none of the above
297. The number of spring loaded balls provided circumferentially in a synchromesh gear box
is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
298. In a synchromesh device, when members G1 and F1 are slid to left and cones M1 and
M2 are in contact,
a) direct gear is obtained b) second gear is obtained
c) third gear is obtained
d) reverse gear is obtained
299. For the second gear in a synchromesh system, the drive transfer will be through a)
U1,U2, C, F2, and splines
b) U1,U2, C, F1, and splines c) U1,U3, D, F3, and splines
d) U1,U4, U5,E, F2, and splines
300. Interlocking mechanism is provided in the gear box cover a) to prevent engagement of
two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse gear
c) to facilitate the gear selection
d) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear
301. Stiff spring is used in the selector mechanism
a) to prevent engagement of two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse
gear
c) to facilitate the gear selection
d) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear
302. Propeller shaft is used for the purpose of
a) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the bevel pinion of the final drive
b) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the road wheels
c) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the road wheels
d) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the bevel pinion of the final drive
303. Slip joints are provided in the propeller shaft
a) to adjust the inclination of the propeller shaft b) to adjust the length of the propeller shaft
c) to prevent the whirling of the propeller shaft
d) to adjust the up and down movement of the rear axle
304. If two shafts used for transfer of drive are inclined to each other, then a) slip joint is used
b) flange coupling is used c) universal joint is used
d) none of the above
305. The Hook’s joint works efficiently when the propeller shaft inclination is
o
a) 18
o
b) 28
o
c) 38
o
d) 48
306. The number of arms provided to the Cross of the Hook’s joint is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
307. The function of the final drive is to
o
a) provide a permanent speed reduction b) to turn the drive round through 90
c) to provide drive to the rear wheels d) all of the above
308. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in car is
a) 4:1
b) 6:1
c) 8:1
d) 10:1
309. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in heavy vehicle is
a) 4:1
b) 6:1
c) 8:1
d) 10:1
310. Single reduction is used in final drive when it is about
a) 6:1
b) 8:1
c) 10:1
D) 12:1
311. The function of Differential is
a) to prevent wheel skidding
b) to reduce the speed of the inner wheels during turning
c) to keep the speed of all the wheels same when going straight ahead d) all of the above
312. The crown wheel of the final drive is connected to a) cage
b) spider
c) cross pin
d) axle half shaft
313. In a vehicle, which is going straight ahead at N rpm, if the left wheel rotates forward at n
rpm, then the resultant speed of the right wheel will be
a) N+n
b) N-n
c) N/n
d) Nn
337. The main advantage of pressed steel disc wheel is a) robust construction
b) simplicity and low cost of manufacturing c) ease in cleaning
d) all of the above
338. The main disadvantage of wire wheel is a) more weight
b) less heat dissipation
c) difficulty in fitting and removing d) tubeless tyres can not be used
339. Aluminum and magnesium alloys are used in the construction of a) pressed steel disc
wheel
b) wire wheel
c) light alloy cast wheel d) all of the above
340. Better road adhesion is obtained in light alloy cast steel wheel because of a) use of light
alloys of aluminum and magnesium
b) good heat conduction c) less corrosion
d) using wider rims and low aspect ratio
341. Modern pressed disc wheels are usually swaged for a) providing better tyre mounting
b) accommodating tube valve
c) preventing splashing of mud
d) compensating for the loss of strength due to holes
342. In a pressed disc wheel, the seat of the rim is provided with 5o taper for the purpose of
a) accommodating tube valve b) making room for disc holes
c) giving wedge fit to the inflated tyre
d) all of the above
343. If the centre line of the rim is located inboard of the attachment face of the disc, then
a) it is zeroset wheel b) it is inset wheel
c) it is outset wheel
d) all of the above
344. If the centre line of the rim coincides with the attachment face of the disc, then it is called
a) inset wheel b) outset wheel
c) zeroset wheel
d) none of the above
345. A wheel whose disc can be mounted on either face to provide inset or outset is called
a) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheel
c) reversible wheel d) divided wheel
346. A wheel constructed in two parts, which when securely fastened together combine to form
a rim having two fixed flanges is called
a) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheel
c) reversible wheel d) divided wheel
347. In heavier vehicles, the wheel rims used are a) well rims
b) v-rims c) w-rims
d) flat rims
348. In heavier vehicles, tubeless tyre cannot be used because a) rims are well shaped and
airtightness is present
b) rims are well shaped but no airtightness present c) rims are flat based and they are airtight
d) rims are flat based and they are not airtight
349. In a wire wheel, wheel rim is attached to
a) disc through a number of wire spokes b) hub through a number of wire spokes c) axle
d) none of the above
350. The spokes of a wire wheel sustains a) vehicle weight
b) driving torque c) braking force
d) all of the above
351. The hub of the wire wheel is fastened to the axle shaft by means of
a) lock nut b) circlip
c) wing nut d) splines
352. The advantage of wire wheel is a) light weight
b) high strength
c) better cooling and easier changing d) all of the above
353. Light alloy cast wheels are generally made of a) aluminum alloys
b) copper alloys c) zinc alloys
d) none of the above
354. The main advantage of forged wheel is a) reduced weight
b) reduced unsprung weight c) better heat dissipation
d) all of the above
355. For the wheel specification of 5.50B-13, B stands for a) width of the wheel
b) rim type
c) diameter of the wheel d) offset
356. In a wheel specification 4½ J-14, 14 represents a) width of the wheel
b) rim type
c) diameter of the wheel d) offset
357. The main function of a tyre is
a) to support the vehicle load
b) to provide cushion against shocks
c) to transmit driving and braking forces to the road d) all of the above
358. The main desirable property of a tyre is a) non-skidding
b) uniform wear c) cushioning
d) all of the above
359. Ply rating of a tyre usually refers to
a) exact number of plies in the tyre b) tread pattern of the tyre
c) number of beads in the tyre
d) index of tyre strength and load carrying capacity
360. The part of the tyre which contacts the road surface is called a) carcass
b) bead c) tread
d) ply
361. The desirable properties of side walls are a) good flexibility
b) bending without deflection c) high fatigue strength
d) all of the above
362. Beads usually provide
a) support for tread
b) support for carcass
c) bearings against the rim d) all of the above
363. All plies are tied to the bead so that
a) tread does not wear off quickly
b) change of shape of the plies is prevented c) breaking torques are effectively carried
d) driving forces are effectively carried
364. As compared to tubed tyre, the advantage of tubeless tyre is a) less unsprung weight
b) better cooling
c) slower leakage of air d) all of the above
365. The fuel supply system in which the fuel drops into the carburetor float chamber by
gravity is called
a. pressure system b. gravity system
c. vaccum system d. pump system
366. If the engine suction is used for the movement of fuel from the main tank, then it is
a. pressure system b. gravity system
c. vaccum system d. pump system
367. In case of Pump type of fuel system, the most suitable location for placing an electrical
pump will be
a. near the engine
b. on the rear side of the vehicle c. on the front side of the vehicle
d. none of the above
368. Use of engine exhaust to create pressure is done in a. pressure system
b. gravity system c. vaccum system d. pump system
369. For front engine vehicles, the suitable location for the fuel tank is a. Next to the radiator
b. around the gear box c. above the rear axle
d. above the front axle
370. Dead fuel storage is always provided in a fuel tank because
a. it helps in supplying fuel when the fuel tank is about to empty b. it helps in preventing
vapour lock
c. it helps in depositing the sediment d. it helps in priming the fuel tank
371. The fuel tank cap is vented to atmosphere for
a. maintaining fuel tank pressure at the atmospheric level b. maintaining normal fuel delivery
c. preventing the collapse of the fuel tank d. all of the above
372. The main disadvantage of mechanical pump is a. they need to be located near the
engine b. they are prone to vapour lock
c. they operate only after the engine has started d. all of the above
373. A fuel pump used in automobile which is operated by the camshaft through an eccentric,
rocker arm assembly is
a. mechanical pump b. gear pump
c. electrical pump
d. none of the above
374. The main advantage of providing vapour return line in a fuel system is a. to prevent
vapour lock
b. to keep the pump cool in operation
c. to prevent the flow of vapour to carburetor d. all of the above
375. The main function of an air cleaner is a. to act as a silencer
b. to act as flame arrestor c. to filter the air
d. all of the above
376. The main function of a carburetor is
a. to keep a small reserve of fuel at a constant head b. to prepare a homogeneous air fuel
mixture
c. to supply correct amount of air fuel mixture at the correct strength d. all of the above
377. The fuel mixture required at the time of engine start is a. rich mixture
b. stoichiometric mixture c. lean mixture
d. none of the above
378. For cruising speeds, the air fuel ratio used is around a. 5:1
b. 10:1 c. 15:1
d. 20:1
379. The main function of the float chamber of a carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head
fuel
b. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocity
d. to inject the fuel into the air stream
380. The main function of the venture in the carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head fuel
b. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocity
d. to inject the fuel into the air stream
381. Fuel level maintained in the float chamber is usually a. 1 mm below the nozzle outlet
b. 3 mm below the nozzle outlet c. 5 mm below the nozzle outlet d. 7 mm below the nozzle outlet
382. The most commonly used carburetor is a. up draught
b. horizontal
c. down draught
d. none of the above
383. The main advantage of the down draught carburetor is a. gravity assisted flow of mixture
b. higher volumetric efficiency
c. more accessible carburetor position d. all of the above
384. The main disadvantage associated with using carburetor for metering fuel supply of a
multicylinder engine is
a. difficulty in ensuring uniformity of mixture quality by a single carburettor
b. restriction posed by the venturi throat in the flow of air c. acute problem of suitable mixture supply
at low speeds
d. all of the above
385. The main advantage of petrol injection system is a. high quality fuel distribution
b. less fuel consumption
c. rapid response of the engine to throttle control d. all of the above
386. The main disadvantage of petrol injection system is a. high initial cost
b. much complicated mechanism
c. increased maintenance required d. all of the above
387. The process of supercharging air fuel mixture to the engine is characterized by
a. higher pressure
b. higher charge density
c. increased weight of the charge per stroke d. all of the above
388. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "A dispersion of solid or liquid
particles of microscopic size in gaseous media, such as fog, smoke or mist" is called
a. dust
b. fly ash c. smoke d. soot
389. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " Agglomeration of particles of
carbon impregnated with 'tar' formed in the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials " is
called
a. dust
b. fly ash c. soot
d. smoke
390. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " A term loosely applied to solid
particles predominantly larger than colloidal, and capable of temporary suspension in air or other
gases " is called
a. dust
b. fly ash c. soot
d. smoke
391. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " The finely divided particles of
ash entrained in flue gases arising from the combustion of fuel " is called
a. dust
b. fly ash c. soot
d. smoke
392. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "Finely divided aerosol particles
resulting from incomplete combustion. Consists mainly of carbon and other combustible materials "
is called
a. dust
b. fly ash c. soot
d. smoke
415. Complete elimination of CO from vehicles is not possible and hence the reasonable goal of
carbon monoxide emission is
a. 5%
b. 1%
c.0.5%
d. 0.05%
416. Carbon monoxide emissions are high usually when a. vehicle is cruising
b. vehicle is accelerating c. vehicle is decelerating
d. vehicle is idling
417. Closure of the throttle valve during the vehicle operation results in a. more CO emission
b. less CO emission c. no CO emission
d. more CO2 emission
418. Carbon Monoxide measurement is usually carried out by means of a. chemiluminescence
method
b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer
c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method
419. The method of selective absorption of the infrared energy of a particular wavelength peculiar to a
certain gas, which will be absorbed by that gas is employed in
a. chemiluminescence method
b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer
c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method
420. Main operating variable affecting the emission of unburnt hydrocarbon emission is
a. speed & load
b. air-fuel ratio
c. mode of operation and maintenance
d. all of the above
421. . Fuel quenching refers to
a. termination of combustion of fuel at the cylinder walls b. continuation of fuel combustion
c. initial stage of preignition d. final stage of detonation
422. Unburnt hydrocarbon emission can be lowered by a. lower compression ratio
b. higher stroke to bore ratio
c. larger displacement per cylinder and fewer cylinders d. all of the above
423. Hydrocarbon emissions are higher, when the air/fuel ratio is a. too lean
b. too reach
c. stoichiometric
d. near stoichiometric
424. . Hydrocarbon emissions are usually measured by a. chemiluminescence method
b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer
c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method
425. Measurement of current flow due to electrically charged particles is usually made in a.
chemiluminescence method
b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer
c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method
426. Aldehydes emission usually results from the combustion of a. leaded hydrocarbon fuel
b. sulphur added hydrocarbon fuel c. oxygenated hydrocarbon fuel
d. coal
427. Measurement of aldehydes are carried out by a. iodine titration technique
b. chromotropic acid method
c. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. all of the above
428. Formaldehyde is usually measured by a. iodine titration technique
b. chromotropic acid method
c. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine method
429. Total aldehydes measurement is carried out by a. chromotropic acid method
b. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method c. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine method
d. none of the above
430. Compared to invisible pollutants, visible pollutants are a. more toxic
b. more irritant c. less toxic
d. less irritant
431. In comparison method of smoke measurement, if the result is Ringelmann no. 5, then
a. there is less smoke present in the exhaust
b. there is medium amount of smoke present in the exhaust c. there is great deal of smoke present in
the exhaust
d. none of the above
432. Ratio of electric output from photocell when smoke sample is passed through the column to
the electric output when clean air is passed through it is called
a. air density
b. smoke density c. smoke mass
d. smoke level
433. The reduction of light beam by the smoke to measure the smoke level is used in a. Ringelmann
chart method
b. light extinction method
c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method
434. Hartridge smoke meter is based on a. Ringelmann chart method
b. light extinction method
c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method
435. Van Brand Smokemeter is based on a. Ringelmann chart method
b. light extinction method
c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method
436. If the measurement of smoke intensity is achieved by continuously passing exhaust gas
through a moving strip of filter paper and collecting particles, then this method is
a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method
c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method
437. Bosch Smokemeter is based on
a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method
c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method