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PHYSIOLOGY BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS C.

Faster in myelinated nerve fibers than in non-myelinated


ones

NAME: D. A and C

E. A, B, C

B___1. In clinical practice, the urinary clearance of which


substance is most frequently estimated as a surrogate of
A___6. “Motor unit” refers to:
GFR:
A. Single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates
A. Inulin C. Urea
B. Single muscle fiber plus all of the motor neurons that
B. Creatinine D. Mannitol
innervate it

C. All of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle


D___2. The concept of homeostasis:
D. Pair of antagonistic muscles
A. Includes the concept of an error signal
E. All of the muscles that affect the movement of any given
B. Refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable joint
condition

C. Refers to regulation of body temperature


C___7. During an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle:
D. A and B
A. The I bands shorten and the A bands stay the same length
E. B and C
B. The thick and thin filament slide past each other

C. Sarcomere length does not change


C___3. Which of the following describes ATP:
D. A and B
A. Formed during the hydrolysis of ADP
E. None of the above
B. Used by cells for the storage of energy

C. Represents the energy “currency” of all cells


C___8. Fast-glycolytic muscle fibers differ from
D. A and C slow-oxidative fibers in that:

E. B and C A. The former rely on creatine phosphate as an ATP source


for the first few seconds of contraction whereas the latter do
not
D___4. For an action potential to occur,
B. The former have a smaller diameter than the latter
A. The stimulus must reach or exceed threshold
C. The former can generate greater maximal tension than the
B. Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux latter

C. Membrane must be out of the relative refractory period D. The former generate less lactic acid than the latter

D. A and B E. All of the above are TRUE

E. A, B, C
A___9. John is a sprinter who specializes in quick and
powerful bursts of speed followed by periods of rest. Jim is a
D___5. Which of the following statements concerning the marathon runner who specializes in long, steady runs.
rate of action potential propagation is TRUE: Compared to Jim, John is likely to have:
A. It is faster in large-diameter axons than in small-diameter A. Legs witha larger diameter
ones
B. Legs with a smaller diameter
B. Faster for a strong stimulus than for a weak one
C. Hypertrophy of type I muscle fibers

D. A and C C___14. Which of the following does NOT contribute to


increased stroke volume during exercise:
E. B and C
A. Increased contractility of cardiac muscle

B. Increased venous return


D___10. Golgi tendon organs:
C. Increased length of filling time during diastole
A. Located in the tendons joining muscle and bone
D. Increased sympathetic stimulation of ventricular muscle
B. Monitor the strength of muscle contractions
E. Increased end-diastolic volume
C. Associated with monosynaptic reflexes

D. A and B
C___15. Inhalation/ inspiration occurs as a result of:
E. A, B, C
A. Upward movement of the diaphragm

B. Movement of ribs closer together due to contraction of


C___11. In an SCG, the WRS compex represents the:
the inspiratory/inhalatory intercostal muscles
A. Depolarization of the atria
C. Downward movement of the diaphragm
B. Repolarization of the atria
D. A and B
C. Depolarization of the ventricles
E. B and C
D. Repolarization of the ventricles

E. Delay at the AV node


E___16. Oxygen is carried in blood

A. Bound to hemoglobin
B___12. The aortic valve:
B. Dissolved in the plasma
A. Prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during
C. Dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes
ventricular diastole
D. A and C
B. Prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle
during ventricular diastole E. A, B, C

C. Prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle


during ventricular ejection
D___17. Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood:
D. Prevents backflow of blood into the aorta during
A. Dissolved in the plasma
ventricular ejection
B. Bound to hemoglobin
E. Closes when the first heart sound is heard
C. Is in carbonic acid

D. Is in bicarbonate ion
D___13. According to Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
E. Is in carbonic anhydrase
A. The left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each
systole than the right ventricle

B. The intrinsic rate of the heart’s pacemaker ia 100bpm B___18. The following are TRUE regarding Endoplasmic
reticulum, EXCEPT:
C. Cardiac output increases with increased heart rate
A. It is a complex system of intracellular tubules
D. Stroke volume increases with increased venous return
B. Is a component of Golgi apparatus
E. Both ventricles contract simultaneously
C. Has a membrane structure similar to the cell membrane
D. Associated with ribonucleoprotein B. Giantism

E. It is well-developed in secretory cells C. Reduced levels of somatomedins in blood

D. Enlargement of liver

D___19. The following describes a high blood potassium level


(Hyperkalemia), EXCEPT:
B___24. Hypoglycemic coma differs from hyperglycemic
A. Occurs in acute renal failure coma in that there is more likelihood of the following,
EXCEPT:
B. Follows severe crush injuries to the limbs
A. Rapid loos of consciousness
C. May diminish cardiac performance and cause death
B. Weak pulse
D. Increases skeletal muscle strength
C. Normal blood pH
E. May be reduced by intravenous infusion of insulin and
glucose D. Glucose-free urine

E___20. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a raised E___25. Gastric motility is increased by:
level of calcium in the blood (Hypercalcemia)
A. Secretin
A. Occurs when parathyroid activity decreases
B. Gastric inhibitory peptide
B. May occur when the plasma protein level falls
C. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
C. May occur in chronic renal failure
D. Cholecystokinin
D. Causes increased excitability of nerve and muscle
E. Gastrin
E. Increases the risk of stone formation in the urinary tract

D___26. Defecation is accomplished mainly by:


D___21. A person has been on hunger strike for a week. The
A. Myenteric reflex C. Mass reflex
following statements applies to this person, EXCEPT:
B. Gastrocolic reflex D. Parasympathetic reflex
A. Increased release of fatty acids from adipose tissue

B. Ketosis and ketonuria


C___27. As fluid passes down the proximal convoluted tubule,
C. Increased plasma catecholamine levels
there is a fall of >50% in the:
D. Increased activity of hepatic glycogen synthetase
A. Concentration of sulphate ions

B. Concentration of sodium ions


C___22. Excessive glucocorticoid production (Cushing’s
C. Concentration of amino acids
syndrome) causes an increase in:
D. Contcentration of potassium ions
A. Skin thickness

B. Bone strength
D___28. In normal healthy people, Urinary:
C. Arterial pressure
A. Specific gravity ranges from 1.010-1.020
D. Rate of wound healing
B. Osmolality rnages from 200-400 mOsmol/L

C. Color is due to small quantities of bile pigments


D___23. A pituitary tumor secreting excess growth hormone
in an adult may lead to: D. pH falls as dietary protein rises
A. Homonymous hemianopia
B___29. Kidneys do NOT synthesize or secrete: C___35. Principal cells (P cells) in the cortical collecting duct
of the nephron are mainly involved in:
A. Calcitriol C. Erythropoietin
A. Secretion of protons
B. Renin D. PGE2
B. Potassium reabsorption

C. Reabsorption of sodium and chloride


B___30. Which of the following substances is cleared the
most by the kidneys: D. A and C

A. Inulin C. Creatinine

B. PAH D. Urea B___36. The principal regulator of plasma osmolality is:

A. Plasma (Na) D. Angiotension II

A___31. Which is the “concentrating segment” of the B. Antidiuretic hormone E. Renin


nephron:
C. Aldosterone
A. Descending limb of loop of Henle

B. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle


D___37. In a healthy adult, the urge to void urine is first felt
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle at a bladder volume of about:

D. Collecting ducts A. 50mL C. 250mL

B. 150mL D. 350mL

C___32. Which porion of the tubule is LEAST permeable to D___38. In a healthy adult, the volume of urine in the bladder
water: that initiates reflex contraction of the bladder is about:

A. Proximal tubule A. 50-100mL C. 200-300mL

B. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle B. 100-200mL D. 300-400mL

C. Thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop

D. Cortical collecting duct B___39. In ABG analysis, which of the following is calculated:

A. Arterial pH C. PaCO2

D___33. Chronic licorice ingestion is characterized by: B. Plasma bicarbonate D. PaO2

A. Low blood pressure

B. Hyperkalemia C___40. The severity of acidosis is related to:

C. Metabolic acidosis A. Anion gap C. pH of ICF and plasma

D. Decrease in plasma renin activity B. pH of arterial plasma D. plasma HCO3

C___34. The “diluting segment” of the nephron is: C___41. The largest volume of gas that can be moved into
and out of the lungs in 1 minute by voluntary effort is called:
A. Proximal tubule
A. Respiratory minute volume
B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
B. Minute ventilation
C. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Maxiaml voluntary ventilation
D. Cortical collecting duct
D. Vital capacity
B. Hering-Breuer deflation reflex

C___42. Anatomic dead space is determined using: C. Head’s paradoxical reflex

A. Whole body plethysmography D. J-reflex

B. Spirometry

C. Single-breath nitrogen curve A___49. Administration of O2 rich gas mixtures improves


tissue oxygenation most in:
D. Single-breath carbon monoxide method
A. Hypoxic hypoxia C. Hypokinetic hypoxia

B. Anemic hypoxia D. Histotoxic hypoxia


C___43. Intrapleural pressure is positive during:

A. Deep inspiration C. Forced expiration


A___50. Which of the following occurs as a consequence of
B. Tidal expiration D. Tidal inspiration
increased barometric pressure:

A. “Rapture of the deep”


D___44. Breathing in individuals with restrictive lung disease
B. Black out
is typically:
C. Bends
A. Slow and deep C. Rapid and deep
D. Air embolism
B. Slow and shallow D. Rapid and shallow

A___51. Life is impossible without pressurization at an


B___45. Which of the following produces
altitude greater than:
bronchoconstriction :
A. 12000 m C. 17000 m
A. VIP C. Epinephrine
B. 14000 m D. 19000 m
B. Platelet activating factor D. All of the above

D___52. Hypocapnia is usually due to:


A___46. Which of the following shifts the oxyhemoglobin
dissociation curve to the left: A. Hypoxemia C. Decreased CO2 production

A. CO B. Alkalosis D. Alveolar hyperventilation

B. Increase in 2,3 BPG in RBC

C. Increase in tissue temperature C___53. What is the treatment of choice for air embolism

D. Decrease in tissue pH A. Continuous positive airway pressure

B. Gradual decompression

A___47. The decrease in oxygen affinity of Hb when the pH C. Hyperbaric oxygenation


of blood in tissues falls is:
D. Positive pressure ventilation
A. Bohr effect C. Hawthorne effect

B. Haldane effect D. Hamburger effect


B___54. The most abundant protein in blood is:

A. Albumin C. Fibrinogen
C___48. If inflation of the lungs induces further inflation, it is
B. Hemoglobin D. Beta-1 globulin
called:

A. Hering-Breuer inflation reflex


A___55. Osmotic fragility of RBC is DECREASED in:
A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Hereditary spherocytosis B___62. That capillaries can withstand high internal


pressures without bursting is explained using:
C. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
A. Bernoulli’s principle C. Poiseuille Hagen law
D. All of the above
B. Laplace’s law D. Fahraeus-Lindquist effect

A___56. Conduction speed is SLOWEST in the:


C___63. Turbulence is almost always present when Reynolds
A. SA node D. Purkinje system
number is more than:
B. Atrial pathways E. Ventricular myocardium
A. 2000 C. 3000
C. Bundle of His
B. 2500 D. 3500

C___57. The propagation of repolarization from the


D___64. Patients with acute cardiac failure may not have
ventricular epicardium to endocardium is represented by the:
edema if:
A. QRS complex C. T wave
A. Oncotic pressure of plasma proteins is high
B. QT interval D. TP period
B. Renal compensation occurs

C. Cardiac output is decreased


A___58. The most reliable index of AV nodal delay is:
D. There is a fall in systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
A. AH interval C. PR interval
D___65. Which of the ff does NOT have vasodilator actions:
B. PA interval D. PR segment
A. NO C. Potassium

B. CO D. Angiotensin III
D___59. During the cardiac cycle, the aortic valve closes at
the end of:
A___66. The most potent vasoconstrictor is:
A. Isovolumetric systole C. Diastasis
A. Endothelin I C. Norepinephrine
B. Rapid ejection D. Protodiastole
B. Angiotensin II D. Vasopressin

E___60. The most appropriate index of left ventricular


afterload is: D___67. Loss of 500mL of blood over 30 minutes will lead to:

A. Systolic arterial pressure A. Increase in HR, fall in BP

B. Mean arterial pressure B. Fall in BP and HR

C. Systemic vascular resistance C. Prominent increase in HR and BP

D. Aortic valve resistance D. Slight increase in HR

E. Left ventricular systolic pressure

B___68. Vasomotor ischemia triggers an increase in


sympathetic outflow increasing BP and thereby facilitating
A___61. Across which site in the circulation is the pressure
restoration of cerebral blood flow. This is called:
drop maximum:
A. Bainbridge reflex
A. Arterioles C. Capillaries
B. CNS ischemic pressor response
B. Venules D. Aortic valve
C. Head’s paradoxical reflex A. Axon reflex C. Flare response

D. Marey’s reflex B. White reaction D. Red reaction

A___69. Which of the ff is LEAST likely following prolonged


space missions:
E___76. Which of the ff inhibits gastric acid secretion by an
A. Cardiac hypertrophy C. Weight loss action on the parietal cell:

B. Postural hypotension D. Motion sickness A. Acetylcholin D. Histamine

B. Epinephrine E. Prostaglandin E

C___70. In a healthy normotensive individual at rest, heart C. Gastrin


rate is typically increased by:

A. Deep expiration C. Anger


A___77. Gastric emptying is SLOWEST after a meal
B. Fear D. IV infusion of phenylephrine containing:

A. Fat C. Protein

D___71. Which of the following is LEAST likely to aggravate B. Carbohydrate D. Indigestible fiber
insult in an injured brain:

A. Hypercapnia C. Hypotension
A___78. The most abundant bile acid is:
B. Hypoxia D. Hypothermia
A. Cholic acid C. Deoxycholic acid

B. Chenodeoxycholic acid D. Lithocholic acid


A___72. The blood-brain barrier is formed by:

A. Tight junctions between vascular endothelial cells in the


A___79. Micelles in bile are formed by:
cerebral capillaries
A. Bile salts and phospholipids
B. Choroidal epithelial cells
B. Bile acids and bile salts
C. Ependymal cells
C. Cholesterol and bile salts
D. Foot processes of oligodendroglia
D. Cholesterol and phospholipids

A___73. In which of the foloowing organs is the flow LEAST


under sympathetic control: B___80. Which of the following is a bile acid synthesized by
the hepatocyte:
A. Brain C. Viscera
A. Sodium taurocholate
B. Heart D. Skin
B. Chenodeoxycholic acid

C. Deoxycholic acid
A___74. Orthopnea in heart failure occurs when the reservoir
function of which of the following is overwhelmed: D. Lithocholic acid
A. Pulmonary veins C. Right atrium

B. Pulmonary arteries D. Systemic veins C___81. Removal of liver is fatal because:

A. Blood urea rises


B___75. Capillaries empty when mechanically stimulated. B. Jaundice develops
This is called the:
C. Clotting time is prolonged
D. Progressively hypoglycemia occurs A. Basic electrical rhythm C. Peristalsis

B. Migrating motor complex D. Segmentation

A___82. Which of the following enzymes is located in the


brush border of enterocytes in the small intestine:
D___90. The defecation reflex is integrated in the:
A. Lactase C. Cholesterol ester hydrolase
A. Brain stem C. Medulla
B. Colipase D. Lingual Lipase
B. Pons D. Spinal cord

A___83. The term “hormone” was coined by Ernest Starling


A___91. Growth hormone secretion is increase by all of the ff,
to describe the actions of:
EXCEPT:
A. Secretin C. Growth hormone
A. Pharmacologic doses of hydrocortison
B. Insulin D. Glucagon
B. Hypoglycemia

C. Exercise
B___84. Which is the most important cholagogue:
D. Protein meal
A. Secretin C. Gastrin

B. CCK D. GIP
B___92. Which of the ff hormones lowers plasma level of
ionized calcium:

C___85. Which of the ff proteins is a regulator of iron A. Calciceurin C. Parathyroid hormone


absorption by enterocytes:
B. Calcitonin D. PTH related peptide
A. Ferritin C. Hepcidin

B. Hemosiderin D. Transferrin
B___93. Iodine is concentrated in thyroid follicular epithelial
cells by:

D___86. The most frquent type of movement in the small A. Primary active transport
intestine in the digestive state is:
B. Secondary active transport
A. Peristalsis C. Slow wave
C. Simple diffusion
B. Antiperistalsis D. Segmentation contraction
D. Facilitated diffusion

A___87. Vitamin B12 is mainly absorbed in the:


B___94. The most abundant cell type in the islets of
A. Terminal ileum C. Duodenum Langerhans is:

B. Upper jejnum D. Stomach A. A cells C. D cells

B. B cells D. F cells

A___88. Normally, the main function of the colon is


absorption of:
C___95. In postnatal life, thyroid hormones do NOT increase
A. Na, Cl, and H2O C. Secondary bile acids oxygen consumption in the:

B. Triacyglycerols D. Iron A. Heart C. Adult brain

B. Skeletal muscle D. Liver

B___89. The pattern of electrical and motor activity in the


GIT during periods of fasting is called:
C___96. Which of the ff is a potent stimulator of insulin B. Corticosterone D. DHEA sulfate
secretion:

A. Somatostatin C. Glucagon like polypeptide (GLP-1)


B___104. Calcitonin inhibits the activity of:
B. VIP D. Leptin
A. Osteoblasts C. Parafollicular cells

B. Osteoclasts D. Thyroid
A___97. Which of the ff is the MOST sensitive test of
pancreative B-cell insulin secretory reserve:
B___105. The hormone that is essential for intrauterine
A. OGTT C. Fasting plasma glucose
development of male external genitalia is:
B. Urine glucose excretion D. Random blood glucose
A. Testosterone C. Mullerian regression factor

B. Dihydrotestosterone D. SOX factor


D___98. Hypoglycemia does NOT stimulate the secretion of:

A. Epinephrine D. Insulin
B___106. The blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions
B. Cortisol E. Glucagon between:

C. Growth hormone A. Leydig cells C. Spermatid

B. Sertoli cells D. Primary spermatogonia

C___99. Which of the ff organelle is a major site of


steroidogenesis:
D___107. The biologically most active androgen is:
A. Peroxisomes C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A. Testosterone C. Androstenedione
B. Ribosomes D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone D. Dihydrotestosterone

D___ 100. The satiety-producing hormone is:


B___108. Which of the ff cells undergo meiotic division:
A. Orexin C. Adiponectin
A. Primordial germ cells C. Secondary spermatocytes
B. Resistin D. Leptin
B. Primary spermatocytesD. Spermatids

A___101. Glucocorticoids DECREASE the number of


B___109. Epiphyseal closure in humans is mediated by:
circulating:
A. Androgens D. T3
A. Eosinophils C. Platelets
B. Estrogens E. Insulin
B. Leukocytes D. RBCs
C. Somatomedins

C___102. Which of the ff hormones has the HIGHEST


mineralocorticoid activity: B___110. Chronic androgen abuse by healthy male athletes is
LEAST likely to result in increased:
A. Cortisol C. Deoxycorticosterone
A. Erythropoiesis C. Respiratory endurance
B. Corticosterone D. Cortisone
B. Sperm count D. Muscle mass

D___103. In humans, the most abundant adrenocortical


hormone is:

A. Cortisol C. Deoxycorticosterone
C___111. The enhancement of penile erectile function
produced by Sildenafil Citrate is primarily because of
C___118. Which sensory modality is transduced by free nerve
inhibition of:
endings:
A. cGMP-PDE3 C. cGMP-PDE 5
A. Vision C. Smell
B. cGMP-PDE4 D. cGMP-PDE6
B. Taste D. Sound

C___112. Which of the ff is NOT detectable in the blood of a


A___119. Which of the ff neural pathways is predominantly
nonpregnant female:
an uncrossed pathway:
A. Oxytocin C. hCS
A. Gustatory pathway C. Visual pathway
B. Relaxin D. Inhibin B
B. Somatosensory pathway D. Auditory pathway

C___113. Which of the ff inhibits lactation:


A___120. The light reflex is integrated in the:
A. Prolactin
A. Midbrain C. Medulla
B. Chorionic somatomammotropin
B. Frontal eye field D. Primary visual area
C. Estrogen and progesterone

D. Growth hormone
A___121. Which eye movements bring new objects of
interest onto the fovea:

A___114. The hypertensice form of Congenital adrenal A. Saccade


hyperplasia is due to a deficiency of:
B. Convergence movements
A. 11B hydroxylase
C. Smooth pursuit movements
B. 21 hydroxylase
D. Vestibular movements
C. 3B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

D. DHEA sulfokinase
C___122. Which of the ff functions as a frequency analyzer in
hearing:

C___115. Which of the ff has an inhibitory influence on A. Reissner’s membrane C. Basilar membrane
erythropoiesis:
B. Tectorial membrane D. Middle ear ossicles
A. Cortisol C. Estradiol

B. Growth hormone D. Thyroxine

C___123. Impedance matching is a function of:


D___116. Which of the ff is a rapidly adapting sensory
A. Scala media
receptor:
B. Endolymph
A. Muscle spindle C. Pain receptor
C. Ear ossicles and tympanic membrane
B. Carotid sinus D. Pacinian corpuscle
D. Cochlear nucleus

B___117. Which of the ff fibers has the greatest threshold:


A___124. A typical example of a monosynaptic reflex is:
A. Touch C. Pressure
A. Stretch reflex C. Withdrawal reflex
B. Pain D. Cold
B. Superficial abdominal reflex D. Light reflex A___132. Which of the ff is NOT a characteristic of REM
sleep:

A. Slow waves in the EEG C. Dreaming


A___125. The principal receptor mediating proprioception is:
B. Hypotonia D. PGO spikes
A. Muscle spindle C. C mechanoreceptor

B. Golgi tendon organ D. Joint capsule receptor


C___133. Which of the ff phenomena is closely associated
with slow wave sleep:
D___126. Which of the ff is the best example of a
A. Dreaming C. Sleep walking
polysynaptic reflex
B. Atonia D. Irregular heart rate
A. Stretch reflex C. Inverse stretch reflex

B. Axon reflex D. Withdrawal reflex


A___134. In normal healthy adults on a daytime work shift, at
what time does pineal hormone peak in blood:
D___127. In humans, spinal shock is characterized by:
A. 2am C. 2pm
A. Hypertonia C. Spastic paralysis
B. 8am D. 8pm
B. Hyperreflexia D. Loss of autonomic function

A___135. When ambient temperature is about 20C, body


A___128. Which of the ff is pathognomonic of decerebration: heat is lost chiefly by:

A. Exaggerated standing A. Radiation and conduction C. Respiration

B. Babinski sign B. Vaporization of sweat D. Urination and defecation

C. Absence of saccades

D. Relief of spasticity by cerebellectomy C___136. Which of the ff is a heat conserving mechanism:

A. Panting C. Curling up in a ball

A___129. Which type of rigidity is clinically more common: B. Sweating D. Insensible water loss

A. Decorticate rigidity C. Extensor rigidity

B. Decerebrate rigidity D. Cog-wheel rigidity E___137. A “reward center” is located in:

A. Prefrontal cortex D. A and C

E___130. Which of the ff is NOT a feature of lower motor B. Nucleus accumbens E. A, B, C


neuron lesions:
C. Medial forebrain bundle
A. Muscle atrophy D. Denervation hypersensitivity

B. Fasciculations E. Spasticity
A___138. Floculonodular lobe of cerebellum is concerned
C. Fibrillations with:

A. Equilibrium C. Baroreceptors

B___131. Delta waves (0.5-4Hz) are seen in: B. Coordination D. Chemoreception

A. Stage 1 sleep C. Awake with eyes open

B. Stage 4 sleep D. Awake with eyes closed A___139. Function of GABA on CNS is:

A. Neuronal inhibition C. Glial cell inhibition


B. Neuronal activation D. Glial cell activation D. Are rich in mitochondria

E. Possess microvilli on their luminal border

C___140. The EEG rhythm having lowest frequency is:

A. Alpha C. Delta A___146. During intrauterine life, formation of RBCs begins


in:
B. Beta D. Theta
A. Mesoderm of yolk sac D. Liver

B. Bone marrow E. Lymph nodes


D___141. In cerebellar disease, all the statements are correct,
EXCEPT: C. Spleen

A. The Romberg’s sign is positive

B. There is Adiodokokinesia C___147. The WBCs having receptors for IgE on their
membranes are:
C. There is pendular knee jerk
A. Neutrophils D. Lymphocytes
D. There is involuntary tremor
B. Eosinophils E. Monocytes

C. Basophils
C___142. Swallowing center is situated in:

A. Midbrain C. Medulla
A___148. Aldosterone secretion tends to raise the volume of:
B. Pons D. Cerebellum
A. Interstitial fluid C. Urine

B. Intracellular fluid D. Cerebrospinal fluid


A___143. The following is true about brain metabolism,
EXCEPT:

A. Uses fatty acid in starvation C___149. Stimulation of vagus nerve causes:

B. In resting state 60% of total energy is utilized A. Reduction in the strength of ventricular contraction

C. Ketone bodies are used in starvation B. Secretion and vasodilatation in the salivary glands

D. Has no energy store C. Mucous secretion from bronchial mucosal cells

D. Causes spleen to contract

C___144. The process through which cells develop different


characteristics in structure and function is called:
B___150. The severity of an obstructive airway disease is
A. Specialization D. Hybridization indicated by the degree of change in the:

B. Maturation E. Clonal expansion A. Total ventilation/perfusion ratio

C. Differentiation B. Peak expiratory flow rate

C. Respiratory quotient

B___145. Jejunal mucosal cells are similar to proximal D. Tidal volume


convoluted tubular cells, EXCEPT:

A. Absorb glucose by a process linked with sodium


A___151. The following statements are true regarding
absorption
fertilization of the human ovum, EXCEPT:
B. Absorb chloride ions actively
A. Occurs in the uterus
C. Absorb amino acids actively
B. The zona pellucida becomes impermeable
C. Fertilized ovum travels along the uterine tube and spends
days free in the uterus

D. Necessary to maintain ovarian hormone production whose


withdrawal causes endometrial necrosis

A___152. In someone with short-sightedness (myopia):

A. Eye tends to be longer than average from lens to retina

B. Convex lens is required to correct the refractive error

C. Close vision is affected more than distance vision

D. The near-point is farther than normal from the eye

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