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Item 0 20180512025103582 PDF
Item 0 20180512025103582 PDF
Item 0 20180512025103582 PDF
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
2. Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilesed are called:
(a) developed resouces (b) stock (c) international resources (d) potential resources
3. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilization are known as
(a) Potential resources (b) Stock (c) developed resources (d) reserves
4. Which one of the following relief features of India has 30 per cent of the total surface area of country?
(a) Mountain (b) Plateau (c) Plains (d) Islands
5. Which one among the following soil types is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rainfall?
(a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Laterite Soil (d) Red soil
7. Which of the following options does not fall in the categories of land-use pattern?
(a) Forests (b) Waste lands (c) Current fallow (d) Gross sown area.
10. What is the removal of top fertile soil cover known as?
(a) Soil degradation (b) Soil conservation (c) Soil formation (d) Soil erosion
14. In which one of the following states, over irrigation is not responsible for land degradation?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
17. There is a third kind of government apart from the central and the state government in Belgium. This
government is known as____
(a) Regional government (b) Provincial government (c) community government (d) local government
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
20. Besides Hindi, there are ____ Scheduled language in India
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24
25. Which of the following did not travel along the silk routes in pre-modern world?
(a) Traders (b) Tourists
(c) Muslim preachers (d) Christian missionaries.
26. Which in the following is the first European country that conquered America?
(a) The French (b) The English (c) The Spanish (d) The German
29. Whom did the British government appoint to supervive, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth?
(a) Jobbers (b) Gomasthas (c) Sepoy (d) Policeman
31. Who among the following set up the first Jute Mill in Calcutta(1917)?
(a) Dinshaw Petit (b) J.N.Tata (c) Seth Hukumchand (d) Dwarkanath Tagore
33. The First Iron and Steel works in India were set in which year?
(a) 1904 (b) 1912 (c) 1911 (d) 1921
37. The carved of Africa by big powers was done in which country?
(a) Brussels (b) Somalia (c) Mali (d) Berlin
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS
1. A number is increased by 10% and then it is decreased by 10 %. The net increase or decrease percent is
(A) 3 % (B) 4 %
(C) 2 % (D) 1 %
2. A says to B, “I was four times as old as you were when I was as old as you are.” If the sum of their present
ages is 33, then the present ages of A and B respectively are
(A) 18 years, 15 years (B) 21 years, 12 years
(C) 24 years, 9 years (D) 27 years, 6 years
2317
759
3. The unit’s digit in the expansion is
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 3 (D) 1
1 1 1
4. The sum of the series .... upto n terms is
log 2 a log 4 a log8 a
n n 1 n
(A) log a 2 (B) log a 2
2 2
(C)
n 1 log 2 (D)
n n 1 2n 1
log a 2
a
2 6
6. ₹1 and ₹ 5 coins are available (as many required). Find the smallest payment which cannot be made by these
coins, if not more than 5 coins are allowed.
(A) 3 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 18
7. Suppose you walk from home to the bus stand at 4km/h and immediately return at x km/h. If the average
speed is 6km/h then x is
(A) 8 km/h (B)10 km/h
(C) 12 km/h (D) cannot be determined unless the distance from home to bus stand is known.
The condition for one zero of the quadratic polynomial ax bx c to be twice the other is
2
8.
(A) b 4ac (B) 2b 9ac
2 2
(C) c 4a b (D) c 9a b
2 2 2 2
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
If the zeroes of the polynomial x 3x x 1 are a d , a, a d , then a d is
3 2
9.
(A) a natural number (B) an integer
(C) a rational number (D) an irrational number
13. If , , are the roots of the equation ax2 bx c 0, then ?
a b a b
(A) 2/a (B) 2/b
(C) 2/c (D) 2 / a
14. Find the value of c for which the polynomial 2 x 7 x x c is exactly divisible by
3 2
2 x 3
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 19 (D) 21
If the LCM of two numbers 2 3 17 and 2 3 r is 44676, then the magnitude of the difference of the
p 2 2
17.
number is
(A) 700 (B) 704
(C) 708 (D) 702
2 3 9 4 9 21
20. Let x, y form the solution of the system of equations and .
x y xy x y xy
Find the value of x y
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION – III
PHYSICS
1. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current through 3 2 2
(A) 3 Resistor is 0.50 A (B) 3 Resistor is 0.25 A os os
(C) 4 Resistor is 0.50 A (D) 4 Resistor is 0.25 A 9 V
8 8 4
os os os
2 2 2
os
2. In the circuit shown here, P R and the reading of the P Q
galvanometer is same whether the switch S is open or closed.
Then:
(A) I R I G (B) I P I G S
R
(C) I Q I G (D) I Q I R
G
R
Q
4. The resistance of a wire is 1 ohm. The wire is stretched to double its length. Now, the resistance of the wire is
1
(A) ohm (B) 4 ohm
4
(C) 2 ohm (D) 8 ohm
5. An equilateral triangle is formed with resistrance of each side being 10 ohm. Then the resistance across each
side is
20 10
(A) (B)
3 3
(C) 30 (D) 15
6. A piece of wire of resistance 4 ohm is bent through 180 at its mid-point and the two halves are twisted
together. Then the resistance is
(A) 8 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 5
7. Two wires of same dimensions but resistivity 1 and 2 are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of
the combination is
1
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 2
2
(C) 1 2 (D) 2 1 2
8. Arrange in order of power dissipated in the given circuits, if the same current is passing through all circuits and
each resistor is ' r '
(I) (II)
A B
A B
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(III) (IV)
A B A B
(A) P2 P3 P4 P1 (B) P3 P2 P4 P1
(C) P4 P3 P2 P1 (D) P1 P2 P3 P4
9. One ampere is the amount of current that exists when_______ flows by certain point in a conductor in____
(A) One watt, one sec (B) One coulomb, one sec
(C) One coulomb, one hour (D) One volt, one sec
10. A wire of resistance R is stretched till its radius is half of the original value. Then the resistance of the stretched
wire is
(A) 2R (B) 4R
(C) 8R (D) 16R
11. If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, then the percentage change in resistance is approximately.
(A) 0.1 % (B) 0.2 %
(C) 0.4 % (D) 0.8 %
12. A certain piece of copper is to be shaped into a wire of minimum resistance. Its length and diameter should be
(A) L, D (B) 2 L , D
L D
(C) , 2D (D) 2 L,
2 2
13. A technician has only two resistors. By using them singly, in series or in parallel, he is able to obtain resistance
of values 3, 4, 12 and 16. What are the resistance of the two coils?
(A) 3 and 12 (B) 4 and 12
(C) 3 and 16 (D) 4 and 16
14. Find the resistance of the circuit between the points A and B
R 2R C
(A)
3
(B)
3 B
A R R D R
3R
(C) (D) 3R
2
SECTION – IV
CHEMISTRY
1. Ionization of water is an example of
(A) Displacement reaction (B) Combination reaction
(C) Oxidation reaction (D) Decomposition reaction
2. What will happen when we introduce silver to a solution containing copper nitrate?
(A) Copper displaces Silver (B) Copper precipitates
(C) Silver nitrate is formed (D) No reaction
2
14. Conjugate base of HPO 4 is
3
(A) PO 4 (B) H 2 PO4 (C) H3PO4 (D) H 4 PO3
SECTION-V BIOLOGY
1. Which of the process is responsible for loss of sugars and salts from plants
(A) Transpiration (B) Guttation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
2. During dark reaction for fixation of carbon, the three carbon atoms of each molecule of 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(PGA) are derived from
(A) RuBP only (B) CO2 only
(C) RuBP CO2 (D) RuBP CO2 PEP
3. Glycolysis occurs in
(a) Anaerobic organisms (B) Muscle cells
(C) Prokaryotic cells (D) Almost all cells
4. Which one is the correct route through which pulse making impulse travels in the heart
(A) SA node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His AV node Heart muscles
(B) AV node SA node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His Heart muscles
(C) AV node Bundle of His SA node Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
(D) SA node AV node Bundle of His Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
5. When both parents are of blood type AB, they can have children with
(A) A, B, AB and O blood types (B) A, B and AB blood types
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(C) A and B blood types (D) A, B and O blood types
6. Which one is not correct
(A) Humans – Uriotelic (B) Birds – Uricotelic
(C) Lizards – Uricotelic (D) Whale – Ammonotelic
7. Reabsorption of useful substances back into the blood from the filtrate in a nephron occurs in
(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Loop of Henle
(C) Distal convoluted tubule (D) Collecting duct
8. Rate of respiration is directly affected by
(A) Concentration of carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen in trachea
(C) Concentration of oxygen (D) Diaphragm expansion
9. In human beings, rib cage and sternum move upwardly and outwardly during
(A) Exercise (B) Sudden back injury
(C) Expiration (D) Inspiration
10. If pancreas is removed, the compound which remain undigested is
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats
(C) Proteins (D) All of these
11. Which is mismatched
(A) Vitamin K–Beri beri (B) Vitamin C–Scurvy
(C) Vitamin A–Xerophthalmia (D) Vitamin D–Rickets
12. Adam’s Apple represents
(A) Arytenoid cartilage of larynx (B) Cricoid cartilage of larynx
(C) Thyroid cartilage of larynx (D) All of the above
*****************
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
FIITJEE
Applicable for Class - X
ANSWERS KEY
SECTION – I
SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D
8. B 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. D
15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A
22. A 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. C 28. A
29. B 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. B
36. D 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. A
SECTION-II
MATHEMATICS
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. D 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. D 10. A 11. C 12. B
13. D 14. D 15. A 16. B
17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A
SECTION-III
PHYSICS
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A
9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. A
SECTION – IV
CHEMISTRY
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. D
5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. B 12. D
13. B 14. A
SECTION – V
BIOLOGY
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D
5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A
9. D 10. D 11. A 12. C
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
FIITJEE
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
1) The average of 50 numbers is 30. If two numbers, 35 and 40 are discarded, then the
average of the remaining numbers is nearly.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(A) 28.32 (B) 28.78 (C) 29.27 (D) 29.68
2) The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 38.9 runs. If the average for the first six
matches is 42, then find the average for the last four matches.
(A) 33.25 (B) 33.5 (C) 34.25 (D) 35
3) How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs.9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar
costing Rs.7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at
Rs.9.24 per kg?
(A) 36 kg (B) 42 kg (C) 54 kg (D) 63 kg
4) Tea worth Rs.126 per kg and Rs.135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1
: 2. If the mixture is worth Rs.153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
(A) Rs.169.50 (B) Rs.170 (C) Rs.175.50 (D) Rs.180
5) The ratio of water and alcohol in two different containers is 2 : 3 and 4 : 5. In what ratio we
are required to mix the mixtures of two containers in order to get the new mixture in
which the ratio of alcohol and water be 7 : 5?
(A) 7 : 3 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 8 : 5 (D) 2 : 7
6) A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture
are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How
many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A) 10 B) 20 C) 21 D) 25
7) In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg
respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?
A) 3:7 B) 5:7 C) 7:3 D) 7:5
8) A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out
and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is
now contained by the container?
A) 26.34 litres B) 27.36 litres C) 28 litres D) 29.16 litres
9) In three vessels, the ratio of water and milk is 6 : 7, 5 : 9 and 8 : 7, respectively. If the
mixture of the three vessels is mixed, then what will be the ratio of water and milk?
A) 2431 : 3781 B) 3691 : 4499 C) 4381 : 5469 d) 5469 : 3691
10) At what time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock does the minute-hand of a clock coincide
with its hour-hand ?
7 9 7 9
(A) 43 mins (B) 43 mins (C) 45 mins (D) 45 mins
11 11 11 11
11) Determine the angle between the two hands of a clock at 15 minutes past 4 pm.
(A) 38.5º (B) 37.5º (C) 39.5º (D) 36.5º
12) The angle between the two hands of a clock is 70º, when the hour-hand is between 7
and 8. What time does the watch show ?
10 10
(A) 7 hour 50 mins (B) 7 hour 49 mins
11 11
9 10
(C) 7 hour 50 mins (D) 7 hour 45 mins
11 11
13). A boy observes the reflection of a wall clock in a mirror. The time observed by the boy
in the mirror is 4 hours 20 minutes. What is the actual time shown on the clock ?
(A) 7 hour 30 mins (B) 7 hour 25 mins
(C) 7 hour 35 mins (D) 7 hour 40 mins
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
14). A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on monday and is 4 min.48
sec fast at 2 p.m on the following Monday. When was it correct ?
(A) 2 p.m on Tuesday (B) 2 p.m on Wednesday
(C) 3 p.m on Thursday (D) 1 p.m on Friday
15) How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
(A) 22 (B)24 (C) 44 (D) 48
16) How much does the watch hand gain per day if its hand coincide after every 64 minutes?
A) 32 8/11 min B) 36 5/11 min C) 96 min D) None of the above
17) The time on the watch is 4:30. If the minute-hand points towards the south, the hour-
hand will point towards ………… .
(A) North (B) South (C) South east (D) None of these
18) A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
true time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?
(A) 11 pm (B) 12 pm (C) 1pm (D) 2pm
19) By how many degrees does an hour hand move in one quarter of an hour?
(A) 5° (B) 7.5° (C) 10° (D) 12.5°
20) David sets has watch at 6:10 am on Sunday which gains 12 minutes in a day. On
Wednesday if this watch is showing 2:50 pm. What is the correct time?
(A) 1:50pm (B) 2:10pm (C) 2:30pm (D) 3:30pm
23). If Mar 18th, 1994 falls on Friday then Feb 25th, 1995 falls on which day?
(A) Wednesday (B) Monday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday
27). How many times does the 29th day of the month occur in 400 consecutive years ?
(A) 4497 (B) 4450 (C) 4500 (D) 4479
28). If 9th of months falls on the day preceding Sunday, on what day will 1 st of the month
fall?
(A) Friday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Monday
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
30) How many days will there be from 26th January, 1996 to 15th May, 1996 (both days
included)?
(A) 110 (B) 111 (C) 112 (D) 113
A) 32 B) 30 C) 29 D) 28
34) What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint such that no two
adjacent regions have same colour?
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
A) 28 T, 3 S B) 24 T, 5 S C) 28 T, 5 S D) 24 T, 3 S
A) 18 B) 20 C) 12 D) 16
A) 36 T, 7 S B) 38 T, 9 S C) 40 T, 7 S D) 42 T, 9 S
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
A) 18 B) 20 C) 12 D) 16
A) 16 B) 17 C) 18 D) 19
43) 6 12 23 44 85 ____
(A) 166 (B) 174 (C) 165 (D) 168
44) 80 62 46 ____ 20
(A) 36 (B) 40 (C) 38 (D) 32
45) 92 23 27 9 12 6 _____
(A) 20 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 10
49) 7 21 11 33 17 ___
(A) 55 (B) 32 (C) 51 (D) 54
50) 3 6 11 19 32 53 ___
(A) 68 (B) 87 (C) 81 (D) 77
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
FIITJEE
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
1 D 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 C
2 C 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 C
3 D 13 D 23 C 33 B 43 A
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 A 44 D
5 B 15 C 25 D 35 C 45 C
6 C 16 A 26 B 36 A 46 D
7 C 17 C 27 A 37 C 47 D
8 D 18 A 28 A 38 B 48 C
9 B 19 B 29 D 39 B 49 C
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 B 50 B
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
IITJEE
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 294
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1.Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2.This question paper contains Three Parts.
3.SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4.Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5.Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6.Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (09 - 14) 2 comprehension (3 questions each with single option correct Each question carries +3 marks for
correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (15 – 18) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries
+8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than
one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iv) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION – I
PHYSICS
PART – A
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1. Two wires of same dimensions but resistivity 1 and 2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent
resistivity of the combination is
1
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 2
2
1 2 2 1 2
(C) (D)
1 2 1 2
2 The ratios of the length, mass, density and resistivity of two wires are 1: 2, 1: 1, 1: 2 and 4: 1 respectively. The
ratio of their resistances is
(A) 1: 1 (B) 2: 1
(C) 4: 1 (D) 1: 2
3. A 2V cell is connected to a 1 resistance. How many electrons come out of the negative terminal of the cell in 2
minutes?
(A) 1.4 10 electrons (B) 1.5 10 electrons
21 21
4. What is the maximum number of 100W, 200 V lamps which can be connected in a circuit having a fuse
wire of safe current 5A?
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 40
5. Two heater wires of same length & material but of different thickness are connected in series across a power
supply. The power dissipated
(A) Will be same in both (B) will be more in thinner wire
(C) Will be more in thicker wire. (D) cannot be predicted
6. You are given a wire 1 m long. In which one of the following cases, the energy drawn from the battery will be
greatest? Assume that the internal resistance of the battery is zero.
(A) Full length of the wire connected across the battery
(B) Half of the wire is connected across the battery
(C) Wire is cut into four equal parts and they are connected in parallel to each other across the battery
(D) Wire is cut into two equal parts and they are connected in parallel to each other across the battery
7. Four wire AB, BC, CD and DA, each of resistance 4 ohm and a fifth wire BD of resistance 8 ohm are joined to
form a rectangle of which BD is a diagonal. The effective resistance between the points A and B is
(A) 24 (B) 16
4 8
(C) (D)
3 3
8. The two electric bulb, rated for the same voltage, have power of 200W & 100W respectively. If the their resistance r 1,
r2 respectively
(A) r1=2r2 (B) r2=2r1
(C) r2=4r1 (D) r1=4r2
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
PART – B
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
15. Which of the following statements are true about an electric resistance?
(A) The resistance of an electric circuit is a measure of the overall amount of hindrance to the flow of change
through the circuit.
(B) A large resistance value indicates that the charge is encountering a relatively large amount of difficulty in
moving through the circuit.
(C) The resistance of a conducting wire will increase as the length of the wire increases.
(D) The resistance of a conducting wire will increase as the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
16. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in parallel, then the lowest wattage bulb will glow with maximum
brightness.
(B) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in parallel, then the highest wattage bulb will glow with maximum
brightness
(C) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in series, then the lowest wattage bulb will glow with maximum
brightness
(D) If bulbs of different wattages are joined in series, then the highest wattage bulb will glow with maximum
brightness
17. If a current of I ampere flows in a circuit with power P watt and resistance R ohm, for t hours under a potential
difference of V volts, then number of units consumed in the circuit is given by
I Rt
2
Pt
(A) (B)
3.6 106 3.6 106
V I t
(C) (D) None of the above
3.6 106
18. Two bulbs consume same power when operated at 200 V and 300 V, respectively. When these bulbs are connected
in series across a DC source of 500 V, then
(A) Ratio of potential difference across them is 3 / 2.
(B) Ratio of potential difference across them is 4 / 9.
(C) Ratio of power consumed across them is 4 / 9.
(C) Ratio of power consumed across them 2 / 3.
Matching
This part contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, p q r s t
B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
p q r s t
given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE A
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers B p q r s t
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example:
C p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s and t;
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following: D p q r s t
R3 = 10 R4 = 5
30 V
Column-I Column-II
(A) Power Dissipated is 40 W (p) R1
(B) Voltage across resistance is 20 V (q) R2
(C) Current through resistance is 5 Amp (r) R3
(D) Power dissipated is 20 W (s) R4
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. In the circuit show below, match the following:
2 3
4 5
+
Column-I Column-II
(A) Minimum current will flow through. (p) 2
(B) Maximum current will flow through. (q) 4
(C) Maximum power will be generated across (r) 3
(D) Minimum power will be generated across (s) 5
PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. A wire of 9 is to form an equilateral triangle. Find the equilateral resistance across one of its sides.
1
2. The current ‘t’ in the figure below is . The value of n is
5n
2V 30
30
30
3. Two identical heating wires are first connected in series then in parallel. The ratio of heat produced in two cases is 1 :
k. Find the value of k.
4. You are given three equal resistors. How many different combinations of these three resistances can be made using all
three at once?
5. Three 9 W-3 V bulb is to be lighted in series by a supply of 12 volt. For this a wire is to be connected in series with
the battery. The minimum resistance of the wire that can be used is ___________.
6. A piece of wire is cut into four equal parts and the pieces are bundled together side by side to form a thicker wire. If
R
the original resistance of the wire was R , for what value n , will the resistance of the bundle be ?
2n
SECTION – II
CHEMISTRY
PART – A
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. The oxidation state of the most electronegative element in BaO2 and H2SO4 are
(A) 0 & 1 (B) 1 & 2
(C) 2 & 0 (D) 2 & + 1
8. Which one of the following solution will have the highest pH value?
(A) 0.01 M NaOH (B) 0.02 M CH3COONa
(C) 0.10 M NaHCO3 (D) 0.10 M H2SO4
Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 9 to 11
substance which can donate electron pairs.’ This theory is called electronic theory because it deals only with the electron pairs
and says nothing pairs and says nothing about the hydronium and hydroxide ions. Generally, cations or molecules having no
lone pair of electrons acts as Lewis acids and anions or molecules with lone pair of electrons act as Lewis bases.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(B) CaC2O4 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(C) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
(D) Zn + 2AgCN 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
13. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 not acts as reducing agent?
(A) Cl2 H2O2 2HCl +O2 (B) H2O2 O3 H2O + 2O2
(C) HCHO H2O2 HCOOH + H2O (D) PbO2 H2O2 PbO + H2O +O2
PART – B
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
15. Which of the following is true in a balanced chemical reaction?
(A) Atoms are conserved (B) Mass is conserved
(C) Molecules are conserved (D) Physical state of elements is conserved
18. What happens to a solution when the concentration of H+ ions in it decreases by 100 times its original?
(A) Solution becomes more basic (B) Solution becomes more acidic
(C) pH of the solution will increase by 2 (D) pH of the solution will decrease by 2
Matching
This part contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, p q r s t
B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
p q r s t
given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE A
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers B p q r s t
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example:
C p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s and t;
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following: D p q r s t
2. Match the compound in Column –I with their oxidation state in Column -II
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Column-I Column-II
(A) N2O5 (p) N = 2
(t) N=3
PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. The sum of oxidation number of Nitrogen in NH4 NO3 is
3. When methane is burnt in oxygen to produce CO2 and H 2 O the oxidation number of carbon change by
4. How many of the following species can act as Bronsted base as well was a Lewis base?
NO3 , CN , NH3 , BF3
x
5. A solution of pH = 4. The concentration of H ions in the solution is 1 10 M . Calculate the value of x
x
6. The hydrogen ion concentration for a solution which has pOH = 9 is 10 . Calculate the value of x.
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS
PART – A
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
2. Which of the following will leave the largest remainder upon division by 7?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(A) 22 (B) 21
(C) 20 (D) 25
5. Let x, y be the solution of the system of equations 0.4 x 1.5 y 6.5, 0.3 x 0.2 y 0.9. Then the value of
x y is
(A) 8 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 5
6. 8 men and 12boys can finish a task in 5 days while 6 men and 8 boys can finish it in 7 days. The number of
days taken by 1 boy alone to finish the work is
(A) 70 (B) 90
(C) 100 (D) 140
5 15 25
7. The LCM of the fraction , , is
16 24 8
5 5
(A) (B)
48 8
75 75
(C) (D)
48 8
1 1 1
8. The sum of the series log 2 1 log 2 1 ..... log 2 1 is
2 3 127
(A) 7 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 2
Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 3
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1 17 23 29
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 19 34 37
(A) 0 (B) 3
5
(C) (D) Not Defined
3
PART – B
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE are correct.
15. The product of any four consecutive integers will always be a multiple of which of the following
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 24
3a 3b 2b 2a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4b 4a 3a 3b
18. 524–424 is divisible by which of the following
(A) 41 (B) 9
(C) 37 (D) 47
PART – B
Matching Type
This part contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns,
which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while p q r s t
the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I
A p q r s t
can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The
appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as B p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
C p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s and t; then the
correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following: D p q r s t
Column-I Column-II
x in log2 x log2 x 2 0 (p) 13
2 3
(A) Value of
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
(A) H.C.F of the smallest composite number and the smallest prime number (p) x 1
Factors of x 7 x 14 x 8 (q) 1
3 2
(B)
(C) Sum of zeroes of f x 4 x3 8 x 2 2 x 1 (r) x 4
Factors of HCF of 2 x 8 x 10 and 6 x 24 x 18 are (s) 2
2 2
(D)
PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
2. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the HCF of these numbers is 37, then the sum of the digits of greater
number is
4. If and are the zeroes of the polynomial f x x 2 p x 1 C such that 1 1 0, then
the value of C is
log log x 2 log log x
6. The value of 10 is
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
FIITJEE
Applicable for class-X
IIT–JEE
ANSWERS KEY
SECTION – I
PHYSICS
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. C 7. D 8. B
9. B 10. A 11. C 12. C
13. D 14. C 15. A, B, C 16. B, C
17. A, B, C 18. B, C
1. A p, r B p, r C p, q, r, s D q, s
2. A q B p C r D q
1. 2 2. 2 3. 4 4. 4
5. 1 6. 4
SECTION – II
CHEMISTRY
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. C 6. D 7. C 8. C
9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D
13. C 14. A 15. A, B 16. A, B
17. B, D 18. B, D
1. A r, s B p C q, s D q, s
2. As B r, t C r, q D r, p
1. 2 2. 8 3. 8 4. 3
5. 4 6. 5
MATHEMATICS
PART – A
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. A 6. D 7. D 8. C
9. B 10. A 11. A 12. D
13. A 14. D 15. A, B, C, D 16. A, B
17. A, C 18. A,B
1. A r, s B p, q, r C r D p
2. A s B p, r C s D p, s, q
1. 6 2. 3 3. 8 4. 1
5. 5 6. 2
FIITJEE
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Applicable for class X
SCIENCE- SUBJECTIVE
Time: 1:30 hours. Maximum Marks: 48
Instruction:
This question paper contains three sections: Section A, B and C indicates Physics, Chemistry and
Biology.
Section A carries 15 marks, Section B carries 15 marks and Section C carries 18marks.
All the questions are compulsory.
Use of calculator and log table is not permitted.
Useful data:
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al=13, Si=14, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Sc=21, Ti = 22,V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29,
Zn=30, As=33, Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31,
S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75,
Br=80, Ag=108, Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
Registration Number :
SECTION – A
PHYSICS
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark Question)
220
MCQs 2 1 2
6. A conductor of resistance 8 is bent in the form of a circle. What will be the resistance between two
points on any diameter of the circle?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 16
7. ‘ n ’ equal resistors are first connected in series & then connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the
maximum to the minimum resistance?
1
(A) n (B)
n2
2 1
(C) n (D)
n
SECTION – B
CHEMISTRY
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark Question)
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1. What is the difference between the following two types of reactions?
AgNO3 + HCl
AgCl + HNO3
Mg + 2 HCl
MgCl2 + H2
2. Why does blue colour of copper sulphate solution start fading when a zinc rod is dipped in it?
3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
4. In the following reaction, name the substance oxidized and the substance reduced
PbS (s) + 4 H2O2 (aq) PbSO4 + 4 H2O (I)
Which substance acts as oxidizing agent and which one as reducing agent?
(b) What happens when NaOH solution is heated with (a) zinc (b) aluminium
MCQs 2 1 2
6. pH of two solutions A and B are 8 and 12 respectively. This means that
(A) Solution A is 1.5 times more basic than B.
(B) Solution B is 1.5 times more basic than A.
(C) Solution A is 10,000 times more basic than B.
(D) Solution B is 10,000 times more basic than A.
SECTION – C
BIOLOGY
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark Question)
1. In which form the water plants absorb carbon through their general body surface?
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Short Answer Type Questions – I (2 Mark Question)
2. (a) What is the maximum number of O2 molecules which one haemoglobin molecule can carry?
(b) Name the respiratory organs of butterfly (ii) Frog larva
MCQs 2 1 2
7. Which of the following are required for blood clotting in mammals
2
(a) Ca and Vitamin E (b) Ca2 and Vitamin K
(c) Ca2 and Vitamin A (d) Ca2 and vitamin E
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
FIITJEE
Applicable for class X
MATHEMATICS-SUBJECTIVE
Time: 1:30 Hours Max Marks: 41
Instructions:
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SECTION – A (MATHEMATICS)
MCQs 4 1 4
1. HCF of x 3
3x 2 and x2 4 x 3 is
(A) x 1 (B) x 2
2
2. If a 3a b 3ab b is divided by
3 2 2 3
a b , then the remainder is
(A) a ab b (B) a ab b
2 2 2 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
4. a1 x b1 y c1 0 and a2 x b2 y c2 0 is given as
The solution of pair of linear equation
b c b2 c1 a c ac b c b1c2 a c a1c2
(A) x 1 2 , y 2 1 1 2 (B) x 2 1 , y 2 1
a1b2 a2b1 a1b2 a2b1 a1b2 a2b1 a1b2 a2b1
b c b2c1 a c a c
(C) x 1 2 , y 2 1 1 2 (D) None of these
a1b2 a2b1 a1b2 a2b1
MCQs 2 2 4
5. A fraction becomes 4 when 1 is added to both the numerator and denominator and it becomes 7 when 1
is subtracted from both the numerator and denominator. The numerator of the given fraction is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 15 (D) 7
7. A certain number when divided by 899 leaves the remainder 63. Find the remainder when the same
number is divided by 29.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Short Answer Type Questions – II (3 Mark Question)
11. Find the H.C.F of 65 and 117 and express it in the form of 65m 117n.
15. Find the ratio of areas of triangles formed by each of 3 x y 12 0 and x 3 y 6 0 with
coordinate axes
17. Find the largest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542 leaving remainder 7, 11, 15 respectively.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________