NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [1]

CODE
AA
BY - ABHISHEK KUMAR
Do not open this Test Booklet untill you are asked to do so.
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1. The answer sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you ar directed to open the Test Booklet,
take out the Answersheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted fromteh total score. The maximum marks are 720.
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 NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [2]
1. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
What is the position of the ball is T/3 seconds?
(A) h/9 meters from the ground (B) 7h/9 meters from the ground
(C) 8h/9 meters from the ground (D) 17h/18 meters from the ground
2. A stone is thrown upwards with a velocity 50 ms–1. Another stone is simultaneously thrown
downwards from the same location with a velocity 50 ms-1. When the first stone is at the highest
point, the velocity of the second stone is (Take g = 10 ms–2):
(A) Zero (B) 50 ms–1 (C) 100 ms–1 (D) 150 ms–1
3. An object is dropped from a height h, then the distance travelled in times t, 2t, 3t are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 4: 9 (C) 1 : 3: 5 (D) 1 : 9 : 5

4. A body is projected vertically upwards with some velocity u. It is the same point at t = 6 s as was at
t = 4 s. Find the value of u.
(A) 30 m/s (B) 40 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 50 m/s
5. A particle is dropped under gravity from rest from a height h(g = 9.8 m/sec2) and it travels a
distance 9h/25 in the last second, the height h is
(A) 100 m (B) 122.5 m (C) 145 m (D) 167.5 m
6. The acceleration of a particle travelling along
a straight line is shown in the figure.
The maximum speed of the particle is
(A) 20 ms–1 (B) 30 ms–1
(C) 40 ms–1 (D) 60 ms–1
7. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of the particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The velocity after 2 seconds will be

(A) 6 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 2 m/s (D) 8 m/s

8. Figure shows the position time graph for a particle in one dimensional motion. Which of the
graphs in figure represent the variation in the velocity of the particle with time?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [3]

9. The velocity–time graph of a body is given below. Find the average velocity from t = 0 to t = 40
s.

(A) 20 m/s (B) 40 m/s (C) 50 m/s (D) 60 m/s

10. Figure shows a velocity–time graph. This shows that

(A) the body is at rest

(B) the body is starts from rest and moves with uniform velocity
(C) the body has some initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration
(D) the motion is retarded

11. A particle starts from rest and undergoes an acceleration as shown in figure. Teh velocity–time
graph from figure will have a shape

(A) (B) (C) (D)

12. The relation between time and distance is t = ax 2 + bx, where a and b are constants. The
retardation is
(A) 2av3 (B) 2b v 3 (C) 2abv3 (D) 2b2 v3
13. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half
of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s
respectively. The average speed of the particle during this motion is :
(A) 4.0 m/s (B) 5.0 m/s (C) 5.5 m/s (D) 4.8 m/s
1 1
14. A car covers part of total distance with a speed of 20 km hr–1 and second part with a speed
3 3
1
of 30 km hr–1 and the last part with a speed of 60 km hr–1. The average speed of the car is
3
(A) 55 kmhr–1 (B) 30 kmhr–1 (C) 45 kmhr–1 (D) 37.3 kmhr–1
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15. If v = x 2 - 5x + 4, find the acceleration of the particle when velocity of the particle is zero.
(A) zero (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these
16. A particle moves along x axis in such a way that its coordinate x varies with time t according to the
equation x = A 0 - A1t + A 2 t 2 . The initial velocity of the particle is
(A) A0 (B) A1 (C) A2 (D) –A1
17. A car acceleration from rest at a constant rate a for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate b and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is
æ a 2 + b2 ö æ a 2 - b2 ö (a + b)t ab t
(A) ç ab ÷ t (B) ç ab ÷ t (C) (D)
è ø è ø ab a +b
–1 –1 –1
18. A moving car possesses average velocities of 5 ms , 10 ms and 15 ms in the first, second and
third seconds respectively. What is the total distance covered by the car in these three seconds?
(A) 15 m (B) 30 m (C) 55 m (D) None of these
19. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After 2 seconds, another body B starts from rest
with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal distance in the 5th second, after the start of A, then the
ratio a1:a2 is equal to:
(A) 5 : 9 (B) 5 : 7 (C) 9 : 5 (D) 9 : 7
20. The point from where a ball is projected is taken as the origin of the coordinate axes. The x and y
components of its displacement are given by x = 6t and y = 7t – 5t2. What is the velocity of projection?
(A) 6 ms–1 (B) 8 ms–1 (C) 10 ms–1 (D) 14 ms–1
21. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ˆi + 2ˆj. The Cartesian equation of its path is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) y = 2x - 5x 2 (B) y = x - 5x 2 (C) 4y = 2x - 5x 2 (D) y = 2x - 25x 2
22. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are : (2m, 3m) at t = 0 and (6m, 7m) at
t =2 s. The displacement vector of the particle in the interval from t = 0 to t = 2 s is
(A) 4(iˆ + ˆj) (B) 4(iˆ - ˆj) (C) 4iˆ + 10ˆj (D) 8iˆ - 10ˆj
23. A projectile thrown with a speed u at an angle q has a range R on the surface of the earth. For same
u and q , its range on the surface of the moon will be
R
(A) R (B) (C) 6 R (D) 36 R
6 –1
24. A ball is projected horizontally with a speed of 20 ms . What will be its speed after nearly 5
seconds ? g = 10 ms–2. What will be its speed after nearly 5 seconds ? g = 10 ms–2.
(A) 54 ms -1 (B) 50 ms -1 (C) 44 ms -1 (D) None of these
25. A trajectory of a particle in a vertical plane is y = ax - bx 2 , where a and b are constants and x and
y are respectively the horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of projection.
The maximum height attained is
b2 b2 a2 4a
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
a 4a 4b b
26. The height y and the distance x(in m) along the horizontal for a body projected into the vertical
plane are given by x = 6t and y = 8t - 5t 2
Taking g = 10 ms–2, the initial velocity of the projected body is
10 -1
(A) 8 ms–1 (B) 4 ms -1 (C) 10 ms -1 (D) ms
3
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 NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [5]
27. A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 ms–1 making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit
the ground after a time of
(A) 1 s (B) 1.2 s (C) 2.0 s (D) 2.4 s
28. In case of projectile motion of two projectiles, P and Q are projected with the same speed at angles
30° and 60° respectively to the horizontal, then
(A) H P > H Q , TP = TQ (B) H P = H Q , TP = TQ (C) H P < H Q , TP > TQ (D) H P < H Q , TP < TQ

29. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = At 4 and y = Bt 4 . The speed of
the particle at time t is
(B) 4t A + B (C) 4t 2 A 2 + B2
2 2
(A) 4 A 2 + B2 (D) 4t 3 A 2 + B2
30. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t is given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t, where x and y
are in metre and t in seconds. The acceleration of particle at t = 5 s is
(A) zero (B) 8 m s -2 (C) 20 m s -2 (D) 40 m s -2
31. For a body projected at t = 0 horizontally with velocity u0 from a height h, match the physical
quantities given in column-I with the formulae given in column-II.
Column-I Column-II

(a) Time of flight (p) u02 + g 2 t 2

2h
(b) Range of projectile (q)
g

2hu02
(c) Velocity attained by body when it hits the ground (r)
g

(d) Resultant velocity of the projectile at time t. (s) u20 + 2gh

(A) a ® q, b ® r, c ® s, d ® p (B) a ® r, b ® q, c ® s, d ® p
(C) a ® q, b ® r, c ® p, d ® s (D) a ® p, b ® s, c ® r,, d ® q
32 A body is projectile from a ground with velocity u0 so that its range is maximum. Match the
quantities given in Column-I with the formulae given in Column-II
Column-I Column-II

2 u0
(a) Maximum height attained (p)
g

u02
(b) Time of flight (q)
2g

u02
(c) Range of body (r)
4g

u02
(d) Time to reach maximum height (s)
g
(A) a ® r, b ® p, c ® s, d ® q (B) a ® p, b ® r, c ® s, d ® q
(C) a ® r, b ® p, c ® q, d ® s (D) a ® q, b ® s, c ® p, d ® r
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 NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [6]
r
33. A body is projected from the ground with a velocity u = (3iˆ + 10ˆj)m s -1 . The maximum height
attained and the range of the body respectively are
(give g = 10 m s –2)
(A) 5 m and 6 m (B) 3 m and 10 m (C) 6 m and 5 m (D) 3 m and 5 m
( ) ( )
34. A particle has initial velocity 2iˆ + 3jˆ and acceleration 0.3iˆ + 0.2jˆ . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be
(A) 9 units (B) 9 2 units (C) 5 2 units (D) 5 units
35. A boat sails across a river with a velocity of 10 km/hr. If resultant boat velocity is 14 km/hr, then
what is the velocity of river water ?
(A) 17.20 km/hr (B) 10 km/hr (C) 9.79 km/hr (D) 4.88 km/hr
36. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity of 10 m/s. If it hits the
ground at an angle of 45°, then the vertical component of velocity when it hits ground (in m/s) is
(A) 10 2 (B) 5 2 (C) 5 (D) 10
37. The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomal telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of the
telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is :
275 325
(A) 45 cm (B) 55 cm (C) cm (D) cm
6 6
38. A slab of refractive index m is placed in air and light is incident at maximum angle q0 from
vertical. Find minimum value of m for which total internal reflection takes place at the vertical
surface.

(A) m = 1 + sin 2 q (B) m = 1 - sin q

2

1
(C) m = 2 - sin 2 q (D) m =
3

39. If the refractive index of a material of equilateral prism is 3 , then angle of minimum deviation of
the prism is :
(A) 30o (B) 45o (C) 60o (D) 75o
40. A medium shows relation between i and r as shown. If speed of light in the medium is nc then
value of n is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2

(C) 2 -1 (D) 3-1/ 2

41. The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of water while its mass density is lower. Figure
shows a layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. For which one of the four rays
incident on turpentine in figure the path shown is correct ?

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

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42. A glass sphere of radius R = 10 cm is kept inside water. A point object O is placed at 20 cm from A
as shown in figure. Find the position and nature of the image when seen from other side of the
sphere. Given m g = 3 / 2 and m w = 4 / 3 .
(A) 200 cm, virtual (B) 100 cm, real
(C) 100 cm, virtual (D) 300 cm, virtual
43. Shown in the figure here is a convergent lens placed inside a cell filled with a liquid. The lens has
focal length + 20 cm when in air and its material has refractive index 1.50. If the liquid has refrac-
tive index 1.60, the focal length of the system is :
(A) +80 cm (B) -80 cm

(C) -24 cm (D) -100 cm

44. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX ' and (ii) YOY ' as shown in the figure.
Let f.f '.f " be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case
(i) and of each half in case (ii) respectively.
Choose the correct statement from the following :

(A) f ' = 2f.f " = f (B) f ' = f.f " = f

(C) f ' = 2f.f " = 2f (D) f ' = f.f " = 2f

45. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options
describes best the image formed an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?
(A) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm (B) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(C) Real, inverted, height = 1cm (D) Virtual, upright, height = 1cm
46. Flagellate isogametes and anisogametes are found in
(A) Spirogyra (B) Fucus (C) Volvox (D) Chlamydomonas
47. Algin, carrageen and proteins are obtained from
(A) red algae, brown algae, green algae respectively.
(B) brown algae, red algae, green algae respectively.
(C) red algae, green algae, brown algae respectively.
(D) green algae, brown algae, red algae respectively.
48. In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a A and has a
stalk, the B and leaf like photosysnthetic organ-the C .
(A) A–holdfast, B–stipe, C–frond (B) A–Stipe, B–holdfast, C–frond
(C) A–frond, B–stipe, C–holdfast (D) A–stipe, B–frond, C–holdfast
49. Which of the following groups of plants play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks/
soil ?
(A) Algae (B) Bryophytes (C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms
50. Which of the following statements with respect to algae are correct.
(i) Fusion between one large, non-motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is
termed as oogamous.
(ii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is temed as oogamous.
(iii) Fusion of two gametes similar in size is called anisogamous.
(iv) In chlorophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b, and the food is stored as starch.
(v) In rhodophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b, and the food is stored as mannitol.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (v) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iv)
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51. The given figures (A, B, C, D) represent the members algae, Identify the correct option for the
given diagrams.

S. No. A B C D
(A) Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia
(B) Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus
(C) Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia
(D) Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota
52. Which of the follwing statements about algae is/are correct?
(i) Algae are chlorophyll – bearing simple, thalloid, heterotrophic and aquatic (both fresh water
and marine) organisms.
(ii) Alage reproduce by vegetative means only.
(iii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as oogamous.
(iv) A few of the massive forms of algae such as kelps, form massive plant bodies.
(A) Only (i) (B) Both (i) and (iii) (C) Only (iv) (D) All of these
53. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Chlorophyceae – Major pigments are chl a and b.
(B) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose and algin.
(C) Rhodophyceae – Stored food is mannitol.
(D) Chlorophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
54. Which of the following example belong to the same class of algae?
(A) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia (B) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
(C) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix (D) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria
55. A research student collected certain alga and found that its cells contained both chlorophyll a and
chlorophyll d as well as phycoerythrin. On the basis of his observation, the students conclude that
the alga belongs to
(A) rhodophyceae (B) bacillariophyceae (C) chlorophyceae (D) phaeophyceae
56. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups then which of the following
characters you should choose for the classification?
(A) Nature of habitat (B) Structural organization of thallus
(C) Chemical composition of the cell wall (D) Types of pigments present in the cell.
57. A student was given a sample to observe under the microscope. He observed and found that the
sample is the most common type of spore involved in asexual reproduction in algae. Identify the
spore.
(A) Zoospore (B) Endospore (C) Hypnospore (D) None of these
58. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called _______ and _______ respectively.
(A) microsporangia; macrosporangia (B) male strobili; female strobili
(C) antheridia; archegonia (D) androecium; gynoecium

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NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [9]
59. Refer to the statement and answer the question.
“They usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation and asexually by non-motile spores and
sexually by non-motile gametes.”
Identify the group of plants and its example.
(A) Mosses, Funaria (B) Red algae, Polysiphonia
(C) Brown algae, Laminaria (D) Pteridophytes, Selaginella
60. Protonema and leafy stage are the predominat stage of the life cycle of
(A) moss (B) dicots (C) liverwort (D) gymnosperm
61. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about mosses?
(A) The predominant stage of its life cycle is the gametophyte which consists of two stages –
protonema and leafy stages.
(B) Leafy stage are attached to the soil through multi-cellular and branched rhizoids.
(C) Sex organs-antheridia and archegonia are produced at the apex of the leafy shoots.
(D) All of the above.
62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about gemmae?
(i) These are specialised structures by which asexual reproduction take place in liverworts.
(ii) They are green, multicellular and asexual buds.
(iii) They develop in small receptacles called gemma cups.
(iv) They detach from parent body and germinate to form new individuals.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) All of these
63. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about pteridophytes?
(i) The main plant body is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true roots and leaves.
(ii) The leaves are small (microphylls) as in ferns or large (macrophylls) as in Selaginella.
(iii) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores–macro (large) and
micro (small) spores, are known as heterospores.
(iv) Common example are Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) (B) Both (ii) and (iii) (C) Both (i) and (iii) (D) All of these
64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Agar, one of commercial products obtained from Laminaria and Sargassum are used to grow
microbes and in preparation of ice-creams and jellies.
(ii) In phaeophyceae, major pigments are chl a, d and phycoerythrin.
(iii) Pteridophytes classified into four classes: Psilopsida, Lycopsida, Sphenopsida and Pteropsida.
(iv) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which develop in small receptacles called
gemma cups located on the thalli.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) (B) Both (ii) and (iv) (C) Both (iii) and (iv) (D) All of these
65. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Phaeophyceae I. Have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal
B. Rhodophyceae II. First terrestrial plant with vascular tissue-phloem and xylem
C. Mosses III. Asexual reproduction by biflagellate zoosposes
D. Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria
(A) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II (B) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(C) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (D) A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II
66. A bryophyte differs from pteridophytes in having
(A) archegonia (B) lack of vascular tissue
(C) swimming antherozoids (D) independent gametophytes.
67. Fern plant is a
(A) haploid gametophyte (B) diploid gametophyte
(C) diploid sporophyte (D) haploid sporophyte
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68. The spreading of living pteridophytes is limited and restriced to narrow geographical region because
(A) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places.
(B) it requires water for fertilization.
(C) due to absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue.
(D) both (a) and (b)
69. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
(ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent.
(iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum.
(iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) One
70. Choose the correct statements given below regarding contraception.
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(iv) Contraction pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
71. Reproductive health in society can be improved by
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools (ii) Increased medical assistance
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs (iv) Ban on aminocentesis
(v) Encouraging myths and misconceptions
(A) All of these (B) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) (D) (ii) and (v)
72. Identify the correct function(s) of pills
(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms
(iii) Prevent the ejaculated semens from entering the female vagina
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
73. Given below are four methods (A-D) of contraceptive in column-I and their modes of action in
achieving contraception in column-II. Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Method) (Mode of Action)
A. contraceptive pill I. Prevents sperms
B. Condom II. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T IV. Semen contains no sperms
(A) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv (B) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(D) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii (D) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
74. Select the correct match from the given option.
(A) Non Medicated IUDs - Multiload 375
(B) Saheli - Contains a non -steroidal preparation
(C) Lactational amenorrhea - Presence of menstruation
(D) Diaphragms, cervical caps, vaults - Cover the cervix after the coitus is done
75. The process done in the given figure
(A) Prevents egg from reaching the uterus for implantation
(B) Avoid insemination
(C) Inhibits ovulation
(D) Increases contraceptive efficiency
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76. Given below are some examples of sexually transmitted diseases. Identify the one or more which
specifically affect the sex organs.
(i) AIDS (ii) Syphilis (iii) Gonorrhea (iv) Genital warts
(A) (i) only (B) (i), (ii) only (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) only (D) All of these
77. Refer the given figure below and answer the question. Which feature is correctly associated with
the given figure ?
(A) It is a male condom which is used to cover the penis just before
the coitus to prevent the entry of ejaculated semen into the
female reproductive tract
(B) It is a female condom which is used to cover the cervix and
vagina just before the coitus
(C) It is a condom which is used to cover penis in male and vagina and cervix in female
(D) It is one type of IUDs which makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to
the sperms.
78. The given figure shows one of the elements releasing intrauterine device.
Select the option which shows the correct identification of the device
and its feature.
(A) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its fertilizing capcity
(B) Cu7; make uterus unsuitable for the attachement of blastocysts
(C) Lippes loop; protect the users from contracting AIDS and STDs
(D) LNG-20; acts as spermicidal means and decreases the contraceptive
efficiency.
79. An individual undergoes sterilization process in which a small incision was done on “X” and a part
of vas deferens is removed or tied up
Identify ‘X’ and the intervention of this surgical process.
(A) ‘X’- Fallopian tube; Prevent ovulation and implantation
(B) ‘X’- Testes; Prevent conception by blocking sperm entry
(C) ‘X’- Epididymis; Inhibit maturation of sperms and its transport
(D) ‘X’- Scrotum Gamete transport is blocked and thereby prevents conception
80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) ?
(A) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little.
(B) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with the one who is already suffering from the
same disease
(C) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(D) Genital herps and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD.
81. It is a disease which mainly affects mucous membrane of urinogenital tract, In males burning
feeling on passing urine after a yellow discharge occurs that is accompanied by fever headache and
feeling of illness its name is
(A) Phenylketonuria (B) Gonorrhoea (C) AIDS (D) None of these
82. Study the given reasons on the basis of which pregnancy can be terminated. Identify the correct
reasons.
(i) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies
(ii) To prevent the fatality or harmfulness to the mother or to foetus or both due to continuation of
pregnancy.
(iii) Termination of pregnancy is safe in each and every case
(iv) If the foetus is male
(v) It plays an important role in decreasing the population
(A) (i), (ii) only (B) (ii), (iii) only (C) (iii), (iv), (v) only (D) All of these

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83. Given below are four methods (A-D) of contraceptive in column-I and their modes of action in
achieving contraception in column-II. Match the columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Method) (Mode of Action)
A. contraceptive pill I. Prevents sperms
B. Condom II. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T IV. Semen contains no sperms
(A) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv (B) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(D) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii (D) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
84. In a seed of maize, scutellum is considered as cotyledon because it
(A) protects the embryo
(B) contains food for the embryo
(C) absorbs food materials and supplies them to the embryo
(D) converts intself into a monocot leaf
85. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and choose the correct option
given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Parthenocarpy I. Inactive state
B. Polyembryony II. Meiosis and syngamy are absent
C. Apomixis III. Occurrenece of more than one embryo
D. Dormancy IV. Seedless fruit
(A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-IV (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
86. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(A) antipodal , egg and endosperm (B) egg, nucellus and endosperm
(C) endosperm, nucellus and egg (D) antipodals, synergids and integuments
87. The given figures P (plant Chara) and Q (earthworm) have label
A, B, C and D as their reproductive organs. Select the option which
correctly identifies male reproductive organs of the two organisms.
(A) A and B (B) B and C
(C) A and C (D) B and D
88. Match the column I contain structures of male reproductive system and column II contains its
feature. Select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Gamete I. Result of fusion of male and female gametes
B. Budding II. Division of body into two equal halves
C. Fission III. Germ cells
D. Fertilization IV. The fusion of male and female gametes
E. Zygote V. An unequal division of organisms in which
individual arises as an outgrowth from the parent
(A) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV, E–V (B) A–III, B–V, C–II, D–IV, E–I
(C) A–III, B–I, C–V, D–II, E–IV (D) A–V, B–IV, C–III, D–I, E–II

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89. Match the items given in column-I with those given in column-II and chose the correct option
given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tapetum I. Irregular in shape with abundant food service
B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protective layer
D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the formation of microscopes
E. Sporogenous V. Oily and sticky layer, help in pollination
(A) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV, E-I (B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV, E-V
(C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V (D) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-III
90. The given diagram refers to a T.S. of anther. Identify A to E respectively
(A) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, middle layer, endothecium
(B) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, tapetum, middle layer, endothecium
(C) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum, endothecium
(D) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, middle layer, epidermis, endothecium
91. The given figure represent the L.S. of a flower showing growth of
pollen tube. Few structures are marked as A, B, C, D & E. Identify
A, B, C, D & E respectively.
(A) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style, Chalaza
(B) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma, Chalaza
(C) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza, Style
(D) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma, Style
92. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
(A) geitonogamy but no xenogamy (B) autogamy and geitonogamy
(C) autogamy but not geitonogamy (D) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
93. The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify
the type of pollination indicated as P1 , P2 and P3
P1 P2 P3
(a) Allogamy Chasmogamy Cleistogamy
(B) Autogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy
(d) Geitonogamy Allogamy Autogamy
94. What is the main function of filiform appratus present at the micropylar part of the ovule ?
(A) It prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
(B) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into an antipodal cell
(C) It helps the pollen tube to enter the ovule through chalzal end
(D) It guides the entry of pollen tube into a synergid and discharge the male gametes
95. Diagram of given below shows the stages in embryogenesis
in a typical dicot plant (Capsella). Identify the structures
A to D respectively.
(A) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(B) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(C) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
(D) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Hypocotyls
96. Milky water of green coconut is
(A) liquid chalaza (B) liquid nucellus
(C) liquid endosperm (D) liquid female gametophyte
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97. Match the items given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and choose the correct
option given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Items) (Examples)
A. Ovary I. Groundnut, mustard
B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp
D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed
E. Dry fruits V. Fruit
(A) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV, E-V (D) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
98. Match the items given in the column-I with their examples given in column-II and identify the
correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Coleorhiza I. Graps
B. Food storing tissue II. Mango
C. Parthenocarpic gruit III. Maize
D. Single seeded fruit developing from IV. Radicle
monocarpellary superior ovary
E. Membranous seed coat V. Endosperm
(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-V (B) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III
(C) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-II (D) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
99. Match the definition (given in column I) with their correct term (given in column II) and choose the
correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
A. The pollen transferred from one I. Germination
flower to another
B. The process in which embryo develops II. Pollination
into seedling
C. Fertilized egg in humans gets implanted in III. Menstruation
D. When egg in humans is not fertilized IV. Uterus
process occur
(A) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III (B) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
(C) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV (D) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
100. .In the given figure of water hyacinth, a structure is marked as “X”.
This structure is involved in vegetative propagation as a unit of
vegetative propagules. Identify the type of unit.
(A) Tuber (B) Offsets
(C) Sucker (D) Rhizome
101. Flower with a feathery and sticky stigma, numerous light pollen, reduced petals is characteristically
(A) moth-pollinated flower (B) bird-pollinated flower
(C) bee-pollinated flower (D) wind-pollinated flower
102. The phenomenon of maturation of anthers earlier than the stigma of the same flower is
(A) dicliny (B) protandry (C) herkogamy (D) heterostyly
103. When the ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, chalaza and micropyle lie in a straight line,
it is called
(A) orthotropous (B) anatropous (C) campylotropus (D) amphitropous
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104. Endothecium is responsible for
(A) the nourishment of anther (B) the dehiscence of anther
(C) the formation of pollen grains (D) None of the above
105. Which among the following is applicable to tapetum?
(A) Protective layer (B) Nourishing layer (C) Vestigial part (D) None of these
106. 250 microsporocytes will rise to microspores
(A) 250 (B) 500 (C) 1000 (D) 2500
107. Wrongly matched set is
(A) microspore – pollen (B) megasporangium – ovule
(C) microsporangium – anther lobes (D) None of the above – anther lobes
108. Wall of a pollen sac consists of
(A) endothecium and tapetum (B)tapetum and middle layers
(C) endothecium, middle layers and tapetum (D) epidermis, endothecium, middle layers &
tapetum
109. The largest cell of the embryo sac is
(A) egg (B) central cell (C) antipodal (D) synergid
110. Filiform apparatus is formed by
(A) synergid (B) antipodal (C) egg cell (D) tapetum
111. Intine of pollen grain is made of
(A) callose (B) pectocellulose (C) cellulose (D) fat-like sporopollenin
112. Level of which hormones are at their highest during the luteal phase (second half of the cycle) of
the menstrual cycle ?
(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Follicular stimulating hormone
113. At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called ______.
(A) zygote (B) blastocyst (C) embryo (D) foetus
114. Blastomeres are daughter cells formed in the process of
(A) Cleavage, when zygote undergoes mitotic division
(B) fertilization, when sperm enters in the cytoplasm of ovum
(C) implantation, when blastocysts attached to the uterine endometrium
(D) gametogenesis, when male and female gametes are produced by testis and ovary respectively
115.The sperm and the egg make different contributions to zygote. Which of the following statements
about their contributions are true ?
(i) Sperm contributes most of the mitochondria
(ii) Egg contributes most of the cytoplasm
(iii) Both sperm and egg contribute haploid nucleus
(iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicles grows in size and completes its second meiotic
divison
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv) (D) all the four statements
116.Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Fertilization I. Mitotic division
B. Implantation II. Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres
C. Cleavage III. Ampullary-isthmic junction
D. Morula IV. Structure formed by the continuous divison of 8 to 16 blastomeres
E. Blastocysts V. Embedding of blastocysts in the endometerium
(A) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - v, E - iii (B) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii, E - v
(C) A - iii, B - v, C - i, D - iv, E - ii (D) A - iii, B - v, C - i, D - ii, E - iv
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117.The figure given below shows the sectional
view of seminiferous tubule :
Which marked structure (A to D) undergoes
second meiotic division to produce four equal
haploid cells (called spermatids) ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
118.In the given figure the structure of ovum is surrounded by few sperms and some art are labelled as
A, B, C and D.
Which of the following options shows the correct labelling ?
(A) A ® Zona pellucida, B ® Ovum, C ® Cells of corona radiata,
D ® Perivitelline space
(B) A ® Perivitelline space, B ® Antrum, C ® Zona pellucida,
D ® Ovum
(C) A ® Zona pellucida, B ® Ootid, C ® Cells of corona radiata,
D ® Perivitelline space
(D) A ® Cells of corona radiata, B ® Morula, C ® Perivitelline space,
D ® Zona pellucida
119.Which of the following hormones attains a peak level in the middle of menstrual cycle
(A) LH and estrogen (B) FSH & progesterone
(C) FSH and LH (D) Estrogen & progesterone
120.Each spermatogonium which is diploid contains how many chromosmes ?
(A) 23 (B) 26 (C) 46 (D) 48
121.“A” cells start division and enter in “B” stage of meiotic division and get temporarily “C” at this
stage, called “D”. Identify A, B, C and D
(A) A–Oogonia, B–Metaphase I, C–Arrested, D–Primary oocyte
(B) A–Oogonia, B–Anphase I, C–Released, D–Secondary oocyte
(C) A–Oogonia, B–Prophase I, C–Arrested, D–Primary oocyte
(D) A–Oogonia, B–Telophase I, C–Released, D–Secondary oocyte
122.The placenta is formed from the ______ of the embryo and the _____ of the mother.
(A) uterus, trophoblast (B) chorion, endometrium
(C) endometrium, chorion (D) inner cell mass, endometrium
123.Colostrum
(A) is a hormone essential for milk secretion
(B) can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not by a foetus
(C) stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine contraction
(D) is a source of antibodies essential to develop resistance against decrease in new born babies
124.Which of the following is required for the increased production of estrogen, progestogens, cortisol,
prolactin and thyroxine etc. in the maternal blood.
(i) Metabolic changes in the mother (ii) Maintenance of pregnancy
(iii) Supporting the foetal growth (iv) Destruction of Graafian follicle
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iv) and (v) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) All are correct
125.Match the hormones given in column I with their functions given in column II and select the
correct options :
Column I Column II
A. Luteinizing hormone I. Develop corpus luteum
B. Progesterone II. Essential for maintenance of uterine layer (called en
dometrium)
C. Estrogen III. Develops female secondary sexual characters
D. Follicle Stimulating IV. Maturation of Graafian follicle
E. Oxytocin V. Causes uterine contraction
(A) A - i, B - v, C - iii, D - ii, E - iv (A) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv, E - v
(C) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v (D) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - v, E - iv
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126.Study the statement given below and answer the question. “Vigorous contraction of the ‘X’ at the
end of the ‘Y’ causes expulsion of the foetus. “Identify X and Y.
(A) X-Vagina; Y-Fertilization (B) X-Uterus; Y-Pregnancy
(C) X-Placenta; Y-Implantation (D) X-Embryo; Y-Ovulation
127.What will happen to pregnancy if placenta fails to function during the gestation ?
(A) The preganancy would not continue
(B) The foetus would be born prematurely
(C) There would be no effect on the pregnancy
(D) The corpus luteum would continue produce hormone as an alternative source until birth
128.Identify the incorrect statement regarding ZIFT.
(A) ZIFT is zygote intra fallopian transfer
(B) It is one of the techniques known as assisted reproductive technologies
(C) Through this process embryo is formed by injecting ovum into the sperm
(D) Zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is collected and transferred into the fallopian tube
129. Which of the following choices does not suit Spirogyra?
(A) Green Alage (B) Non-flagelleted gamete (C) Anisogamous (D) Isogamous
130. Which of the following is green, unicellular, flagellated, and anisogamous algae?
(A) Volvox (B) Ulothrix (C) Spirogyra (D) Chalamydomonas
131. A 30 year woman feels that she is not having menstrual flow in a month. Which of the following
can be a possible reason of this?
(A) Mental stress (B) Ill health (C) Pregnancy (D) All of these
132. The name of first test tube baby of india is-
(A) Harsha Shah (B) Kanupuriya Agarwal (C) Dolly (D) None of these
133. Which of the following is not a contraseptive pills?
(A) Aspirin (B) Saheli (C) I-Pill (D) Ovaril
134. Which of the following country has highest family planning rate?
(A) China (B) Japan (C) Iran (D) Zimbawe
135. The Glans Penis in men is analogous to -
(A) Clitoris (B) Vagina (C) Hymen (D) Uterus

SYLLABUS OF UNIT TEST-3

DATE - 8 December, 2019

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 NEET-2020 [UNIT TEST : 2] [18]
136.The maximum number of molecules are present in
(A) 5L of N2 gas at STP (B) 0.5 g of H2 gas (C) 10 g of O2 gas (D) 15 L of H2 gas at
STP
137.How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3 ( PO4 )2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

(A) 2.5 ´10-2 (B) 0.02 (C) 3.125 ´10-2 (D) 1.25 ´ 10-2
138.The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon-dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of
aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall’s process is :
2Al2 O3 + 3C ® 4Al + 3CO 2
(A) 180 kg (B) 270 kg (C) 240 kg (D) 90 kg
139.22.4 litre of water vapour at NTP, when condensed to water occupies an approximate volume of -
(A) 18 litre (B) 1 litre (C) 1 mL (D) 18 mL
140.0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is
2CHI3 + 6Ag ® C2 H 2 + 6Ag I(s)
(A) 224 mL (B) 112 mL (C) 336 mL (D) None of these
141.2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing -
Ag 2CO3 ® 2Ag + CO 2 + 1 2 O 2
(A) 2.16 g (B) 2.48 g (C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g
142.The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 g of CaC2 with water : -
CaC2 + 2H 2 O ® Ca(OH)2 + C 2 H 2
(A) 70 litre (B) 35 litre (C) 17.5 litre (D) 22.4 litre
143.90 mL of pure dry O2 is subjected to silent electric discharge. If only 10% of it is converted to O3,
volume of the mixture of gases (O2 and O3) after the reaction will be ....... and after passing through
turpentine oil will be .....
(A) 84 mL and 78 mL (B) 81 mL and 87 mL (C) 78 mL and 84 mL (D) 87 mL and 81 mL
144.Element ‘A’ reacts with oxygen to form a compound A2O3. If 0.359 gram of ‘A’ react to give 0.559
gram of the compound, atomic weight of ‘A’ will be :-
(A) 51 (B) 43.08 (C) 49.7 (D) 47.9
145.1.12 mL of a gas is produced at STP by the action of 4.12 mg of alcohol ROH with methyl magnesium
iodide. The molecular mass of alcohol is -
R - OH + CH 3Mgl ® CH 4 + Mg ( OR ) I
(A) 16 (B) 41.2 (C) 82.4 (D) 156.0
146.CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed, is -
(A) 2.016 litres (B) 1.008 litres (C) 10.08 litres (D) 20.16 litres
147.50 g CaCO3 will react with ..... g of 20% HCl by weight.
(A) 36.5 g (B) 73 g (C) 109.5 g (D) 182.5 g
148.Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40% of the metal respectively. The formula of the first
oxide is MO. Then the formula of the second oxide is
(A) MO2 (B) M2O3 (C) M2O (D) M2O5
149.A gas mixture of 3 litres of propane and butane on complete combustion at 25oC produced 10 litres
of CO2 Initial composition of the propane & butane in the gas mixture is -
(A) 66.67%, 33.33% (B) 33.33%, 66.67% (C) 50%, 50% (D) 60%, 40%
150.The atomic mass of an element is 27. If valency is 3, the vapour density of the volatile chloride will
be
(A) 66.75 (B) 6.675 (C) 667.5 (D) 81

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151.Hybrid orbital with least s - character is
(A) sp3d (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp
152.The type of overlapping in Br - F bond in BrF3 molecule is
(A) sp3 - p (B) sp2 - p (C) sp3d - p (D) sp3d2 - p
153.The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+ , NO2- and NH 4+ are
(A) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp 2 respectively (B) sp, sp 2 and sp 3 respectively
(C) sp 2 , sp and sp 3 respectively (D) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp respectively
154.Which of the following does not have sp2 hybridisation
(A) C6H6 (B) C2H4 (C) BCl3 (D) C2H2
155.Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 105°, Hybrid character in orbital is :
(A) Between 20 - 21% (B) Between 19 - 20% (C) Between 21 - 22% (D) Between
22-23 %
156.For compounds,
(A) Tetracyanoethene (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Benzene (D) 1,3-Butadiene
Ratio of s and p -bonds is in order
(A) A=B<C<D (B) A=B<D<C (C) A=B=C=D (D) C<D<A<B
157.Strongest hydrogen bond is present in
(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) H2S (D) C2H5OH
158.Bond energy of covalent O - H bond in water is
(A) Greater than bond energy of hydrogen bond (B) Equal to bond energy of hydrogen bond
(C) Less than bond energy of hydrogen bond (D) Half of the bond energy of hydrogen bond
159.The high boiling point of ethanol [78.2 c] compared to dimethyl ether [-23.6oc], though they have
o

ther same molecular formula [C2H6O], is due to

(A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Ionic bonding
(C) Co-ordinate covalent bonding (D) Resonance
160.Strength of hydrogen bond is intermediate between
(A) Vander Waal forces and covalent bond (B) Ionic bond and covalent bond
(C) Ionic bond and metallic bonding (D) Resonance
161.Which of the following cannot be formed?
(A) He 2 + (B) He + (C) He (D) He2
162.In O2- , O2 and O2-2 molecular species, the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are
(A) 7, 6, 8 (B) 1, 0, 2 (C) 6, 6, 6 (D) 8, 6, 8
163.Oxygen molecule is
(A) diamagnetic with no unpaired electrons (B) diamagnetic with two unpaired electrons
(C) paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons (D) paramagnetic with no unpaired electrons
164.Which of the following should be most stable?
(A) He2 (B) H 2 (C) He2+ (D) H 2+
165.Which of the following species is paramagnetic?
(A) CO (B) NO (C) O22- (D) CN -
166.Isomers have essentially identical.
(A) Structural formula (B) Chemical properties
(C*) Molecular formula (D) Physical properties
167. Compound with same molecular formula but different structural formula are called.
(A*) Isomers (B) Isotopes (C) Isobars (D) Isoelectric
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168.Which compound is not the isomer of 3-Ethyl-2-methylpentane ?

(A) (B*)

(C) (D)
169.Which one of the compound is not isomer of others ?

(A) (B) (C) (D*)

170.An organic compound has molecular formula C9H18. Its all carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised
and its all hydrogen atoms are identical. Its structural formula can be :

(A) (B*)

(C) (D)

171.What is the correct relationship between the following compounds ?

CH3 - CH2 - CH - CH2 - CH3 , CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2
| |
CH3 CH3
(A*) Chain isomers (B) Position isomersn (C) Functional isomers (D) Identical

172.Which of the following pair is the chain isomer ?

(A) , (B*) , (C) , (D) ,

173. What is the relation between 3-Ethylpentane and 3-Methylhexane ?

(A*) Chain isomers (B) Position isomers(C) Functional isomers (D) Relation

174.

Relation between above compounds is :

(A*) Position isomers (B) Chain isomers (C) Identical (D) Functional isomers

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175. ,

Relation between above compounds is :

(A) Position isomers(B) Chain isomers (C*) Identical (D) Functional isomers

176. Total number of position isomers of dimethyl cyclohexane.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C*) 4 (D) 5

177. Mention the correct relationship between (I) and (II)

(A) Chain isomers (B*) Position isomers (C) Identical (D) Stereoisomers
178. CH3 – CH2 – NH – CHO ; CH3 - CH - CHO
|
NH2
I II
Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II.
(A) Chain isomers (B) Position isomers (C*) Functional isomers (D) Metamers

179. Which of the following shows functional isomerism ?

(A) CH3CH2Cl and CH3CH2Br (B) CH3CH2Br and CH2 BrCH2Br
(C) C2H5OC2H5 and CH3OC3H7 (D*) CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3

180. Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II ?

CH3 – CH2 – C – OCH3 , CH3 – C – OC 2H5
|| ||
O O
(I) (II)

(A) Functional isomerism (B*) Metamerism

(C) Position isomerism (D) Stereoisomerism

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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