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2nd Year Biology MCQs Whole Book by Ali Raza PDF
2nd Year Biology MCQs Whole Book by Ali Raza PDF
15
HOMEOSTASIS
1. A check and balance mechanism requires maintaining homeostasis in the body is:
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(a) Guard system (b) Move back system (c) Operation system
(d) Feedback system (e) Homeostasis
2. Series of similar effect, which leads to the enhancement of the change under consideration is:
(a) Positive feedback (b) Longitudinal feedback (c) Negative feedback
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(d) Transverse feedback (e) Vertical feedback
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(d) Transverse feedback (e) Vertical feedback
5.
(a) Osmotic Pressure
(d) Solute Pressure gm
(b) Water Pressure
(e) Oxygen Pressure
In case of plant cells, the water potential of cell san is termed as:
(c) Partial Pressure
8. The plants, which are formed in fresh water habitat either partly or completely submerged, are termed as:
(a) Halophytes (b) Heterophytes (c) Hydrophytes
(d) Mesophytes (e) Xerophytes
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9. The plants growing in salt marshes close to sea are termed as:
(a) Halophytes (b) Hydrophytes (c) Heterophytes
(d) Mesophytes (e) Xerophytes
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11. Plants living in, dry places such as deserts, steep hills, etc. and face scarcity of water is:
(a) Halophytes (b) Xerophytes (c) Hydrophytes
(d) Mesophytes (e) Hydrophytes
12. Some plants store water in large parenchymatous cells present in stem or leaves, called:
(a) Respirants (b) Translucent (c) Succulents
(d) Adjuvants (e) Hydatids
13. In Fresh water protoctists, osmoregulation takes place by:
(a) Food vacuole (b) Pseudopodia (c) Producing dilute urine
(d) Contractile vacuole (e) Mitochondria
14. In Fresh water animals like fishes, osmoregulation takes place by:
(a) Food vacuole (b) Guttation (c) Producing dilute urine
(d) Contractile vacuole (e) Producing concentrated urine
15. Animals having isotonic body fluid with no osmoregulatory mechanisms are:
(a) Osmoconformers (b) Contract conformers (c) Osmoretractors
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(d) Osmodilutors (e) Osmocongeners
16. In Plants, diffusion of surplus water in vapour form through stomata is:
(a) Respiration (b) Transpiration (c) Ascent of sap (d) Transduction (e) Osmosis
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17. In Plants, the loss of water in liquid form is:
(a) Succulence (b) Transpiration (c) Transduction
(d) Guttation (e) Ascent of sap
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18. Concerning Ammonia (NH3) as excretory product in animals, which statement is not correct?
(a) It is highly soluble in water
23. In Planaria, excretory fluid (Urine) is passed out in the form of sol.:
(a) Hypertonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Paratonic
(d) Isotonic (e) All are incorrect
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30. Plasma proteins like prothrombin, fibrin and globulin synthesizes in:
(a) Liver (b) Lungs (c) Pancreas (d) Duodenum (e) Kidneys
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(a) Lungs (b) Duodenum (c) Pancreas (d) Kidneys (e) Liver
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(d) Bluish white, alkaline fluid (e) Greenish Brown, acidic fluid
33.
34.
Storage of Vitamins takes place in:
(a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Kidneys
(a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid (c) Lacrimals (d) Pituitary (e) Endometrial
(b) Distal Convoluted Tubule → Bowman's Capsule → Proximal Convoluted Tubule → Loop of Henle →
Collecting Duct.
(c) Bowman's Capsule → Proximal Convoluted Tubule → Collecting Duct → Loop of Henle → Distal
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Convoluted Thule
(d) Bowman's Capsule → Collecting Duct → Proximal Convoluted Tubule → Loop of Henle → Distal
Convoluted Tubule
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(e) Bowman's Capsule → Proximal Convoluted Tubule → Loop of Henle → Distal Convoluted Tubule →
Collecting Duct
41. The concentration of sodium ions in the body fluids is controlled by hormone called:
(a) Diuretic hormone (b) Atrial Natnuretic factor (c) Antidiuretic hormone
(d) Parathormone (e) Aldosterone
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(d) Sodium Bicarbonate (e) Mercuric Chloride
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44. In kidney or ureteral stone removing procedure, the waves used to breakup calculi is:
(a) X-rays (b) Gamma-rays (c) Alpha-rays
(d) Beta-rays (e) Ultrasonic rays
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45. In patients with renal failure, a technique used to remove water products from the blood and excess
fluids from the body is:
(a) Hysterectomy
(d) Angioplasty
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(b) Dialysis
(e) Fluid Aspiration
(c) Endoscopy
(c) At the level of freezing point causes ice crystal formation in the cell.
(d) In some plants ice crystals are formed in the cell wall rather than the cytosol
(e) The cytosol is super cooled below the freezing point without the formation of ice.
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(a)Ureotelic (b)Uricotelic (c)Ammonotelic (d)Excretotelic
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58. Excretory product that requires minimum loss of water for its removal is ___________.
(a)Urea (b)Uric Acid (c)Creatinin (d)Ammonia
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(a) Cacti (b) Hydrilla (c) Brassica (d) Kikar
60.
61.
(b) Cholesterol gm
Major homeostatic function of liver is storage of:
(a) Bile (c) Urea
65. The structural and functional relationship between excretory and nutritive system is present in:
(a) Planaria (b) Earthworm (c) Cnidaria (d) Insects
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CHAPTER NO. 16
SUPPORT AND MOVEMENT
1. Cytoplasmic streaming is called:
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(a) Cytosis (b) Cyclosis (c) Cyto-flow (d) Cytomycosis (e) Cycling
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3. The outer most layers of thin walled cells of young stem is:
(a) Endodermis (b) Cortex (c) Epidermis (d) Exodermis (e) Medulla
4. Uniformly thick, heavily lignified secondary walls, which give strength to the plant body, are tissues:
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(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchymas (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Fibers (e) All
6.
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchymas
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(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Fibers
Tissues, which are formed by the activity of vascular cambium and cork cambium are called:
(e) All
(a) Simple (b) Compound (c) Primary (d) Secondary (e) Tertiary
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7. Elongated cells with tapered ends, tough and strong but flexible, are all characteristics of:
(a) Secondary tissues (b) Parenchyma (c) Collenchymas (d) Sclerenchyma (e) Fibers
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8. The growth in the apex of young stem takes place in zigzag manner due to an alternate change in
growth rate on opposite site of the apex. This movement is called:
(a) Nutation (b) Mutation (c) Vibration (d) Nastic (e) Turgor
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9. When movement occurs due to faster growth on the upper side of the organ is known as:
(a) Nutation (b) Epinastic (c) Hyponastic (d) Paranastic (e) Paratonic
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10. When movement occurs due to faster growth on lower surface of the growing organ, it is known as:
(a) Nutation (b) Epinastic (c) Hyponastic (d) Paranastic (e) Paratonic
11. Movements which occur due to external stimuli are known as:
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(a) Nutation (b) Nastic (c) Turgor (d) Paratonic (e) Tropic
12. Movement occurs due to change in turgidity and size of cells as a result of loss or gain of water called:
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(a) Nutation (b) Nastic (c) Turgor (d) Induced (e) Tropic
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14. Growth responses that result in curvatures of whole plant organs towards or away from stimuli is:
(a) Nutation (b) Tropism (c) Turgic movement (d) Paratonicity
(e) Epinastic movement
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(a) Molluscs (b) Octopus (c) Earth Worms (d) Humans (e) Crabs
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21. The most complex types of exoskeleton is found in:
(a) Molluscs (b) Mammals (c) Arthropods (d) Jelly Fish (e) Octopus
22. The process of shedding of exoskeleton and make up of new and Larger one is:
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(a) Ecdysis (b) Acanthosis (c) Ecthosis (d) Necrosis (e) Moulding
(c) Sternum, Bones of arms and legs, Vertebrae (d) Ribs, Vertebrae, Pelvic and Pectoral Girdle
(e) Pelvic Girdle, Ribs, Sternum, Bones of Arms and Legs
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33. Bone which forms a ball and socket joint with scapula is:
(a) Femur (b) Humerus (c) Radioulna (d) Fibula (e) Tibia
35. From the palm extend fingers containing 14 small bones called:
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(a) Phalanges (b) Carpals (c) Metacarpals (d) Patella (e) Tarsals
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37. The longest and strongest bone in the body is:
(a) Humerus (b) Femur (c) Sternum (d) Scapula (e) Patella
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38. Cells of the bone are called:
(a) Hepatocytes (b) Melanocytes (c) Osteocytes (d) Chondrocytes (e) Chart
42. Deformity of the joint of two vertebrae particularly of the neck where the space between the two adjacent
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43. Condition in which a joint becomes swollen, painful and immovable is:
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(a) Microcephaly (b) Disc Slip (c) Spondylosis (d) Arthritis (e) Sciatica
45. Some skeletal muscles terminate into a tough, non-elastic tissue called:
(a) Cartilages (b) Ligaments (c) Tendons (d) Blood vessels (e) All
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47. Sudden involuntary contraction of striated muscles which is caused by low level of calcium in the blood:
(a) Tetany (b) Fatigue (c) Stroke (d) Thrombosis (e) Ecdysis
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53. The protein filament which binds calcium:
(a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) Troponin (d) Tropomyosin
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55. Twisting around the actin chain there are two strands of another protein:
(a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin (c) Troponin (d) Creatinine
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56. The heartwood accumulates the chemicals:
(a) Cellulose (b) Abscisins (c) Chitin (d) Resins
57.
(a) Autonomic (b) Paratonic
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Spontaneous movements due to internal causes are called:
(c) Tactic (d) Tropic
64. Which of these are long, Cylindrical and exist as bundle caps?
(a) Sclereids (b) Vessels (c) Trachea (d) Tracheids
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65. Leaves go to sleep position when turgor pressure decreases in the lower side of:
(a) Pelvis (b) Pulvinus (c) Callus (d) Pubis
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localized effects, involves in electrical and chemical transmission is:
(a) Chemical control (b) Physical control (c) Nervous control
(d) Respiratory control (e) Psychological control
2. Plants response to light due to the presence of a hormone in its growing tip, the hormone was named:
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(a) Auxin (b) Gibberallin (c) Neuroxin (d) Phytoxin (e) Cytoxin
3. The movements in plants occur in response to certain stimuli and the direction of responses related to
the direction of stimulus. Such responses are called:
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(a) Photoperiodism (b) Biorhythm (c) Reflex Action (d) Autonomy (e) None
4. Living organisms when repeat their biological or behavioral activities at regular intervals, this behavior is:
5.
(a) Biorythms (b) Photoperiodism
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(c) Reflex Action (d) Autonomy
The phenomenon in which the influence of day length on plants is studied is called:
(a) Geotropism (b) Phytoperiodism (c) Thigmotropism
(e) Tropism
8. Gibberellins inject rice seedlings and produce a disease called __________ seedling.
(a) Foolish (b) Apical (c) Lateral (d) Silent (e) Rubbish
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(a) Creatin (b) Zeatin (c) Cytokin (d) Reatin (e) Kinetin
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13. Special kind of animal cell which can generate and conduct electric current is:
(a) Nephon (b) Neuroglial cells (c) Myocytes (d) Histiocytes (e) Neurons
17. Neurons takes commands of the control centre to the effectors are:
(a) Sensory Neurons (b) Neuroglial Cells (c) Motor Neurons
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(d) Inter Neurons (e) Sub-sensory Neurons
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19. Neuron depolarizes at
(a) – 65 mV (b) - 30 mV (c) -40 mV (d) + 40 mV (e) +65 mV
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20. The region where the impulse moves from one neurons to another is:
(a) Axon-Halloick (b) Synapse (c) Node of Ranvier (d) Myelin Sheath (e) Soma
21.
23. The largest and most complex part of human brain is:
(a) Thalamus (b) Hypothalamus (c) Medulla Oblongata (d) Cerebellum (e) Cerebrum
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28. Breathing, heartbeat, blood pressure, coughing, swallowing are all under the control of:
(a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla Oblongata (c) Mid Brain (d) Thalamus (e) Pons
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33. Aortic body and carotid body, both are chemoreceptor's which are sensitive to in the blood
(a) O2 and CO2 (b) CO2 and H+ (c) O2 and H+
(d) NH3 and H+ (e) O2, CO2 and NH3
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34. Brain disorder caused either by degeneration or damage to nerve tissue within the basal ganglia of the
brain is:
(a) Parkinson's disease (b) Alzheimer's disease (c) Schizophrenia
(d) Psychosis (e) Dementia
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35. Most effective drug in Parkinson's disease is:
36.
(a) Carbidopa
(d) Levodopa gm
(b) Amamidine
(e) Benztropine
38. Tendency of recurrent seizures or temporary alteration in one or more functions is:
(a) Psychosis (b) Alzheimer's disease (c) Epilepsy
(d) Diphtheria (e) Schizophrenia
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42. Important part of the brain which serves as connecting link between nervous and endocrine system is:
(a) Thalamus (b) Cerebellum (c) Hypothalamus
(d) Hippocampus (e) Medulla Oblongata
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47. The over-production of STH (Somatotrophin) after adult-hood results in:
(a) Acromegaly (b) Gigantism (c) Dwarfism
(d) Myxedema (e) Cretinism
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48. Hypothyroidism results in adults.
(a) Acromegaly (b) Gigantism (c) Dwarfism
(d) Myxedema (e) Cretinism
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49. Excessive secretion of STH during childhood results in:
(a) Acromegaly (b) Gigantism (c) Dwarfism
50.
(d) Myxedema
53. Deficient production of cortisol due to the destruction of adrenal gland is:
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54. Hormone sometimes given by injection as an emergency treatment in cardiac arrest, anaphylactic shock
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55. The scientific study of the nature of behaviour and its ecological and evolutionary significance its natural
setting is called:
(a) Ethology (b) Etiology (c) Ecthyology (d) Entomology (e) Ecology
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57. Type of learned behaviour in which animal stops responding to repeated stimulus, which is neither
beneficial nor harmful is:
(a) Imprinting (b) Fixed action pattern (c) Operant Conditioning
(d) Habituation (e) Insight Learning
58. Solving a problem without trial and error learning is called:
(a) Imprinting (b) Latent Learning (c) Operant Learning
(d) Habituation (e) Insight Learning
59. Learning which is not associated with a particular stimulus and is not normally rewarded or punished but
utilized at a later Lime is called:
(a) Habituation (b) Imprinting (c) Classic Conditioning
(d) Operant Conditioning (e) Latent Learning
60. Orientation behaviour in which animal exhibits random movement to 3 particular stimulus is:
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(a) Taxes (b) Reflexes (c) Kinases
(d) Fixed Action Pattern (FAP) (e) Learned behavior
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62. Kohler used Chimpanzee to prove:
(a) Habituation (b) Imprinting (c) Latent Learning (d) Insight Learning
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63. The corpuscles situated quiet deep inside the body is:
(a) Meissner’s (b) Pacinian’s (c) Nissle’s (d) White Blood Cells
65. The hormone secreted by mucosa of the pyloric region of the stomach is:
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(a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone
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66. The type of learning involves diminution of response with repeated stimuli:
(a) Imprinting (b) Habituation (c) Latent Learning (d) Insight Learning
69. Which one of the following produce in excess then leads abnormal development called acromegaly?
(a) TSH (b) ACTH (c) MSH (d) STH
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70. Rodents respond to alarm calls by others in their group is an example of behavior:
(a) Imprinting (b) Habituation (c) Conditioning (d) Latent learning
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(a) Sporulation (b) Vegetative Propagation (c) Apomixis
(d) Molding (e) Parthenogenesis
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3. If the two fusing gametes are different in size or shape and their fusion lead to formation of new, individual,
then this is called:
(a) Isogamy (b) Homogamy (c) Monogamy (d) Heterogamy (e) Oogamy
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4. Production of two different types of gametes, one is male and monk, other is female non-motile having
stored food material is called:
5.
(a) Isogamy (b) Homogamy
(c) Bipinnate
(d) Heterogamy
(d) Isogametous
(e) All
(e) Pinnate
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6. The embryo and its food supply are enclosed by a .
(a) Cell Wall (b) Seed-coat (c) Rot-sheath (d) Embryo-wall (e) Stigma
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(a) Monochasial (b) Spadix (c) Corymb (d) Peduncle flattened (e) Catkin
16. Type of reproduction which is neither strictly asexual nor sexual is:
(a) Budding (b) Regeneration (c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Cloning (e) Fission
17. Type of asexual reproduction common in some insects like honey-bees, ants and wasps is called:
(a) Fission (b) Budding (c) Fragmentation
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(d) Regeneration (e) Parthenogenesis
18. Animals which have only one type of gonads are said to be:
(a) Dioecious (b) Bisexual (c) Monoecious (d) Hermaphrodites (e) All
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19. Process of cell division by which eggs are formed from germ cells present in the ovaries, is called:
(a) Gametogenesis (b) Soniatogenesis (c) Spermatogenesis
(d) Oogenesis (e) Mating
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20. The animals who don't lay eggs but retain them inside their body, where they are fertilized and develop,
are called:
21.
(a) Heterophrodite
(d) Oviparous gm
(b) Hermaphrodite
(e) Ovo-viviparous
(c) Viviparous
The animals in which female gametes called eggs/ova are produced in the ovaries located inside the
body of a female are:
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(a) Heterophrodite (b) Hermaphrodite (c) Viviparous
(d) Oviparous (e) Ovo-viviparous
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22. Regarding reproductive organs of a human male, which one is the correct order?
(a) Seminiferous tubules → Epididymis → Vas Deferens → Urethra
(b) Epididymis → Vas Deferens → Seminiferous Tubules → Urethra
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31. Fertilization in human being is more commonly called:
(a) Conception (b) Misconception (c) Menstruation (d) Ovulation (e) Labour
32. The period starting from conception up to the birth of a baby is called:
(a) Conception (b) Gestation (c) Gastrulation (d) Implantation (e) Labour
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33. Parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction which requires:
(a) One gamete (b) Two gametes (c) Two eggs (d) Two-parent (e) No parent
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34. A clone exactly resembles with:
(a) Mother (b) Egg donor (c) Diploid nucleus donor
35.
(d) Haploid nucleus recipient
(a) Umbilical cord (b) Amnion (c) Chorion (d) Mammary glands (e) Cervix
37. During a female's fertile years, only about _____________ of oocytes develop into mature eggs.
(a) 250 (b) 350(c) 450 (d) 660(e) 850
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38. An animal which possess both functional testes and ovaries are called:
(a) Monoecious (b) Unisexual (c) Dioecious
(d) Heterophrodite (e) Ovoviviparous
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43. When the sperms are in the tubules then protection and nourishment is provided by:
(a) Sterol Cells (b) Interstitial Cells (c) Epididymis (d) Seminiferous Tubules
44. The ovary under the influence of FSH also produces a hormone i.e.:
(a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen (c) Oxytocin (d) Corticosteroids
45. Which hormone in male stimulates interstitial cells of testis to secrete testosterone?
(a) TSH (b) FSH (c) ICSH (d) LH
47. In human female, the discharge of blood and cell debris called:
(a) Ovulation (b) Abortion (c) Menstruation (d) Secretion
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(a) 250 days (b) 260 days (c) 270 days (d) 280 days
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50. Ovaviviparityis shown by:
(a) Reptile (b) Bird (c) Duck bill platypus (d) Humans
51. Which one secretes liquid to protect and nourish sperm cells?
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(a) Corpus leuteum (b) Sertoli cells (c) Placenta (d) Epididymis
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an adult form is:
(a) Histology (b) Embryology (c) Entomology
(d) Ecology (e) Ecdysis
2. Process in which plants develop, results in the formation of a seed which become a new plant is:
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(a) Plasmolysis (b) Deplasmolysis (c) Fertilization
(d) Germination (e) Cytoplasmic localization
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(a) Meristems (b) Cyclostems (c) Peristems
(d) Mesostems (e) Epistems
4.
5. Secondary growth is the increase in diameter of stems and roots due to activity of secondary meristem:
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(a) Epidermis (b) Phloem (c) Cambium
(d) Cortex (e) Xylem
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6. The phase restricted to the tips of roots and shoots, where the cells constantly divided & increase, in
number is:
(a) Formative Phase (b) Elongation Phase (c) Maturation Phase
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(a) Acetic Acid (b) Ethyl Acetic Acid (c) Methyl acetic Acid
(d) Indole Acetic Acid (e) Mendelic Acetic Acid
10. The removal of apex releases the lateral buds from apical dominance is called:
(a) Inhibitory Effects (b) Compensatory Effects (c) Compression Effects
(d) Comprehension Effect (e) Conversion Effects
11. In higher plants, the phase lies behind the region of elongation is:
(a) The Formative Phase (b) Elongation Phase (c) Maturation Phase
(d) Ovulation Phase (e) Degeneration Phase
12. Concerning affect of intensity of light on Growth of plants, which statement is not correct?
(a) High intensity of light destroys the chlorophyll.
(b) Quality of light has no influence on growth rate.
(c) Duration of light affects the growth of vegetative and reproductive structures.
(d) Without light, photosynthesis cannot take place.
(e) Blue light enhances the cell division but retard cell enlargement.
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14. Promotion of flowering by a cold treatment given to the imbibed seeds or young plants is:
(a) Vernalization (b) Imbibition (c) Photoperiodism
(d) Apoptosis (e) Germination
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15. Animals begin their lives as single, diploid cells called:
(a) Embryo (b) Fetus (c) Zygote
(d) Gastrula (e) Larva
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16. Stages of an animal's embryonic life: [In order]
(a) Cleavage → Zygote → Blastula → Gastrula → Morula → Organogenesis
(b) Blastula → Gastrula → Cleavage → Morula → Zygote → Organogenesis
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(c) Cleavage → Zygote → Gastrula → Morula → Blastula → Organogenesis
(d) Zygote → Cleavage → Gastrula → Blastula → Morula → Organogenesis
(e) Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula → Organogenesis
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17. Series of mitotic cell division, different daughter cells receive different regions of ovum's cytoplasm is:
(a) Fertilization (b) Cleavage (c) Gastrulation (d) Organogenesis (e) Growth
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18. Cell divisions, migrations and re-arrangements produce two or three primary tissues or germ layer is:
(a) Fertilization (b) Cleavage (c) Gastrulation (d) Organogenesis (e) Growth
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20. Sub-populations of cells which are sculpted into specialized organs and tissues is:
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21. The part of apical meristem which become separated from by permanent tissue called:
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25. The embryonic stage which contains a fluid-filled "segmentation cavity" is:
(a) Cleavage (b) Morula (c) Blastula (d) Gastrula (e) Zygote
26. The marginal cells of blastoderm lie unseparated from yolk and form zone of junction with central region:
(a) Area - opaca (b) Area pellucid (c) Area - epiblastula
(d) Area- germinate (e) Area- phellogen
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27. Rearrangement of cells of the "area pellucida" of blastoderm gives rise to:
(a) Endoderm (b) Mesoderm (c) Sub-Endodam
(d) Ectoderm (e) Sub-Ectoderm
28. Number of cells of epiblast pass through the primitive streak, move laterally into the blastocoel to form a
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new layer of cells, called:
(a) Endoderm (b) Mesoderm (c) Sub-Endodam
(d) Ectoderm (e) Sub-Ectoderm
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29. Ectoderm is formed by the cells of:
(a) Mesoblast (b) Periblast (c) Epiblast (d) Monoblast (e) Uniblast
30.
(d) Epimeres
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Muscles, axial skeleton and connective tissue arises from:
(a) Mesomeres (b) Metameres
(e) Blastomeres
(c) Hypomeres
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31. The process of formation of neural tube is known as:
(a) Blastrulation (b) Blastulation (c) Neurulation
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32. The process of selection of activation of some genes by a cell, which are not activated by other cells of
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(d) Just adjacent to the point of entrance of sperm nucleus in the ovum
(e) All statements are incorrect
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35. The process of progressive deterioration in the normal structure and function of tissues is called:
(a) Necrosis (b) Dysgenesis (c) Disfigurement
(d) Apoptosis (e) Aging
39. The study of abnormalities present during the embryological development is:
(a) Embryology (b) Teratology (c) Tetralogy
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(d) Entomology (e) Immunology
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41. Cytoplasmic localization is a consequence of:
(a) Fertilization (b) Cleavage (c) Morula
(d) Gastrula (e) Blastula
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42. The blastoderm splits into:
43.
(a) Epiblast and Hypoblast
(d) Epiblast and Epimere gm
(b) Epimere and Hypomere
(e) Hypomere and Mesomere
(c) Mesomere and Epimere
The phenomenon in which one embryonic tissue influences upon the other is:
(a) Morulation (b) Embryonic Induction (c) Neurulation
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(d) Cleavage (e) Gastrulation
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44. The disorder in which there is excessive number of fingers or toes are present, is called:
(a) Dextrocardia (b) Klinefelter's Syndrome (c) Polydactyly
(d) Tetralogy (e) Down's Syndrome
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47. In birds and mammals, regeneration is mostly liniited to the small wounds by the formation of a new
tissue, called:
(a) Papules (b) Pustules (c) Scar (d) Scab (e) Nodule
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52. Cleavage results in the formation of rounded closely packed mass of blastomeres called:
(a) Blastula (b) Morulla (c) Gastrula (d) Neurula
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CHAPTER NO. 20
CHROMOSOMES AND DNA
1. Darkest colour organelle present in a human cell is:
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(a) Mitochondria (b) Chromosomes (c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes (e) Nucleolus
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3. Cells used which component to make protein:
(a) DNA (b) Nucleus (c) Lysosomes (d) Chromosomes (e) RNA
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4. Number of Chromosomes present in a frog:
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 14 (d) 26 (e) 28
14. In moths, birds and some fishes, sex chromosomal pattern in males is:
(a) WZ (b) YW (c) XZ (d) ZZ (e) ZW
15. The particular array of chromosomes that an Individual possess is called its:
(a) Karyotype (b) Cytotype (c) Pneumotype
(d) Chromotype (e) Centrotype
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(d) 50% proteins & 50% DNA (e) 60% proteins & 40% DNA
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(d) Oval (e) Vertical
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(d) Monochromatin (e) Euchromatin
20.
(d) Euchromatin
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Portion of chromatin, which is not condensed except during cell division is:
(a) Hypochromatin (b) Homochromatin
(e) Epichromatin
(c) Heterochromatin
21. "DNA is the genetic material in phage, transmitted from one generation to the next" is observed by:
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(a) Schielden and shwann (b) Hershey and Chase (c) F. Griffith
(d) Avery, Macleod and McCarty (e) Karis Correns and Walter Sutton
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23. If the sequence of one chain is 'ATTGCAT", the sequence of its partner in the duplex must be:
(a) TAATGCA (b) TACAGCA (c) TAACGTA
(d) TAAGCAT (e) TAATGTA
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29. Each nucleotide occupies distance along the length of a polynucleotide strand.
(a) 10 A° (b) 20 A° (c) 24 A° (d) 30 A° (e) 15 A°
30. Genetic disorder in which urine containing homogentisic acid and turned black on exposure to air is:
(a) Hemoglobinuria (b) Alkaptonuria (c) Homocystinuria
(d) Proteinuna (e) Phenylketonuria
32. The second stage of gene expression in which mRNA-directed polypeptide synthesis by ribosomes takes
place is:
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(a) Transcription (b) Transformation (c) Translation
(d) Transduction (e) Translocation
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34. If a small segment of chromosome may be missing, a situation called:
(a) Deletion (b) Duplication (c) Diversion
(d) Translocation (e) Inversion
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35. If a part of chromosome be present in excess to the normal chromosome, a condition called:
36.
(a) Deletion
(d) Translocation gm
(b) Duplication
(e) Inversion
(c) Diversion
39. Heritable blood disorder due to presence of defective Hemoglobin molecule is:
(a) Hemophilia (b) Thalassemia (c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Sickle Cell Anaemia (e) Polycythemia
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40. Hereditary condition in which the affected individuals are unable to break down the amino acid
phenylanaline is:
(a) Homocystinuria (b) Alkaptonuria (c) Phenylketonuria
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43. Sequence of two bases per amino acid gives possible combinations of bases.
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 36 (e) 48
44. Sequence of three bases per amino acid gives possible combinations of bases.
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 36 (d) 58 (e) 64
45. “The t-RNA possesses anticodon series for particular amino acid site and binds to mRNA". This
phenomenon is known as:
(a) Coding (b) Decoding (c) Recoding
(d) Transcription (e) Translocation
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(d) RNA polymerase (e) Deoxyribonuclease
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48. The total genomic constitution of an individual is known as:
(a) Genetics (b) Genome (c) Geriatrics (d) Codons (e) Mutagens
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49. Which one of the following is stop signal during transcription?
(a) CA (b) GA (c) GC (d) TA
52. A gene starts with initiation codon, which encodes the amino acid methionine:
(a) UAA (b) UAG (c) AUG (d) UGG
54. Every 200 nucleotides the DNA duplex is coiled around the core of 8 histone proteins and forms a
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complex called:
(a) Polysome (b) Heterochromtin (c) Nucleosome (d) Euchromatin
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CHAPTER NO. 21
CELL CYCLE
1. "All cells come from the Pre-existing cell", this statement was proposed by:
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(a) Michael Schwann (b) F. Griffith (c) Watson & Crick
(d) Hershey & Chase (e) Rudolf Virchow
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(d) Maturation Phase (e) One Gene - One Enzyme Hypothesis
3. The non dividing initial phase of the cycle as the interval between two divisions is called:
(a) Interphase (b) Prophase (c) G0 Phase
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(d) G1 Phase (e) Mitotic Phase
5.
(a) G0 (b) G1 (c) S
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Cells remain visible and metabolically active but do not divide in sub-stage.
(e) None
11. In the amitotic cell division, when the nuclear portions divide more than two in number, the phenomenon
is referred to as:
(a) Karyokinesis (b) Karyotyping (c) Nuclear Budding
(d) Nuclear Fragmentation (e) Nuclear Localization
12. In amitotic cell division, when the nuclear portions are unequal in size, the process is generally called:
(a) Karyokinesis (b) Karyolysis (c) Nuclear Budding
(d) Nuclear Localization (e) Nuclear Fragmentation
13. Programmed cell death in which the cell responds to certain signals by initiating a normal response that
leads to cell death is:
(a) Cell Induction (b) Necrosis (c) Inflammation
(d) Apoptosis (e) Cellular Dysgenesis
14. Death of living cells that result from ischemic tissue injury is called:
(a) Autophagy (b) Necrosis (c) Inflammation
(d) Apoptosis (e) Amitosis
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(a) Prophase → Anaphase → Metaphase → Telophase
(b) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
(c) Metaphase → Anaphase → Prophase → Telophase
(d) Telophase → Prophase → Anaphase → Metaphase
(e) Anaphase → Prophase → Telophase → Metaphase
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16. Cell carry out self destruction in the absence of survival signals is:
(a) Autophagy (b) Heterophagy (c) Inflammation
(d) Necrosis (e) Apoptosis
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17. The nuclear envelop breakdown and a network of microtubules forms between opposite poles of the cell:
(a) Interphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase
18.
(d) Anaphase (e) Telophase
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Short fibers of mitotic apparatus radiating from the centrioles only at poles are called:
(a) Continuous spindle fibres (b) Long spindle fibres (c) Half spindle fibres
(d) Astral fibres (e) Discontinuous spindle fibres
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19. Spindle fibres running from pole to pole are called:
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(a) Continuous spindle fibres (b) Half spindle fibres (c) Astral fibres
(d) Discontinuous spindle fibres (e) All are incorrect
20. Chromosomes arrange themselves at the equatorial plane of the spindle during:
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22.
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Stage of mitosis during which the mitosis apparatus assembled and the nuclear envelope is re-
established is:
(a) Interphase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase
(d) Anaphase (e) Telophase
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25. Mutations of cellular genes that control cell growth and cell mitosis leads to:
(a) Syphilis (b) Leprosy (c) Cancers
(d) Small pox (e) Erythema nodosum
26. The sub-stage initiates meiosis:
(a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene (c) Pachytene
(d) Leptotene (e) Diakinesis
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(d) Diplotene (e) Diakinesis
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30. Sub-stage characterized by the disappearance of the nuclear membrane, nucleolus and completion of
spindle apparatus and separation of bivalents is:
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (c) Pachytene
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(d) Diplotene (e) Diakinesis
31. The two sets of chromosomes reach the opposite pole of the cell in:
(a) Leptotene
(d) Anaphase I
(b) Diplotene
(e) Diakinesis
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33. The attachment site on the chromosome for pulling chromosome apart during mitosis is:
(a) Cell Plate (b) Aster (c) Centriole (d) Kinetochore (e) None
34. The failure in the separation of the homologous chromosomes due to meiotic errorknown as:
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43. The spindle fibers are composed of RNA and protein called:
(a) Insulin (b) Tubulin (c) Actin (d) Myosin
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45. Synapsis starts during:
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene
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46. The condensation of chromosomes reaches to its maximum at:
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (c) Pachytene (d) Diakinesis
47.
gamete with 24 Chromosome is called:
(a) Down’s syndrome
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The autosomal non-disjunction in man in which 21st pair of chromosome fails to segregate, resulting in
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(a) Mitochondria (b) Nuclear membrane (c) Chromosomes
(d) Lysosomes (e) Cytoplasmic membrane
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3. The total aggregate of genes in a population at any one time is called the populations
(a) Gene pool (b) Gene target (c) Gene cycle
(d) Gene square (e) Gene aggregation
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4. Genes that occupies a specific position called:
(a) Alleles (b) Locus (c) Gene pool (d) Linkage (e) Synapsis
6. The phenotypic ratio of plants with dominant character to those with recessive character always close to:
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(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 3:1 (e) 1:3
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9. "Each gamete contains only one allele of a particular character and is said to be pure", this
(a) Pleiotropy (b) Epistasis (c) Law of Segregation
(d) Law of Dominance (e) Law of Independent Assortment
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10. "The members of one pair of genes segregate independently of the other pairs", this is:
(a) Law of independent Assortment (b) Pleiotropy (c) Law of Segregation
(d) Law of Dominance (e) Epistasis
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(a) Bean plants (b) Castor plant (c) Garden pea (d) Mirabilis plant (e) Maize
12. Cross fertilization of a phenotypically dominant individual with a homozygous recessive individual is:
(a) Incomplete dominance (b) Test cross (c) Co-dominance
(d) Epistasis (e) None
15. Both alleles of a contrasting character are dominant and express themselves in heterozygous individuals
neither masking the effect of one another, this is:
(a) Test Cross (b) Phenomenon of Inheritance (c) Co dominance
(d) Law of Segregation (e) Law of Independent Assortment
16. A gene for a trait having three or more allelic forms is called _________ alleles.
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(a) Recessive (b) Unilocular (c) Multiple alleles (d) Double (e) Single
17. A well known example of multiple alleles in human beings is that of the:
(a) Skin colour (b) Height (c) Flair texture
(d) Blood groups (e) Rhesus factor
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18. Cross appearance of intermediate character is known as:
(a) Co dominance (b) Incomplete dominance (c) Epistasis
(d) Test cross (e) Pleiotropy
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19. Blood group, also known as '"Universal Donor" is
(a) Blood group A+ (b) Blood group O+ (c) Blood group B+
20.
(d) Blood group AB +
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(e) Blood group B-
(a) All the sons, will be normal & daughter colour blind
(b) All sons are colour blind & daughters normal but carriers
(c) All the daughters will be colour blinds & sons normal but carriers
(d) All the sons and daughters will be colour blind
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h h
(c) Father is R positive and mother R negative (d) Mother and father both are Rh positive
(e) Mother and father are both Rh positive but grandparents are Rh negative
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25. Suppressive influence of any genetic factor on another that is not its allele is:
(a) Epistasis (b) Co dominance (c) Incomplete Dominance
(d) Test Cross (e) Pleiotropy
26. Traits that are controlled by two or more than two separate pairs of genes, which manifest themselves in
an additive fashion to yield continuously varying traits, this is:
(a) Epistasis (b) Pleiotropy (c) Polygenic Inheritance
(d) Intermediate Inheritance (e) Co-dominance
27. The multiple effects of a single gene or allele are termed:
(a) Epistasis (b) Pleiotropy (c) Co dominance
(d) Test Cross (e) Polygenic Inheritance
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30. During meiosis, the homologous chromosomes come together and form pairs, a process called:
(a) Linkage (b) Synapsis (c) Pleiotropy
(d) Crossing over (e) Epistasis
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31. Mutual exchange of segments of chromosomes is called:
(a) Linkage (b) Synapsis (c) Pleiotropy
(d) Crossing over (e) Epistasis
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32. Number of chromosomes present in Male Grasshopper:
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 24 (e) 26
36. Any genetic trait which is transmitted through sex chromosomes is called:
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(a) Single Trait Inheritance (b) Sex Linked Inheritance (c) Intermediate Inheritance
(d) Inheritance of Two Traits (e) Autosomal Inheritance
38. Acquiring of information about the phenotypes of family members to infer the genetic nature of a trait
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40. Regarding colour blindness, “when a normal male marries carrier female", which is the correct
statement?
(a) All daughter will be colour blind
(b) All sons will be colour blind
(c) All daughters are normal but carriers
(d) Half of the sons will be colour blind
(e) Half of the daughter will be colour blind
41. Diabetes Mellitus is caused by a deficiency of:
(a) Cortisone (b) Glucagon (c) Thyroid (d) Aldosterone (e) Insulin
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44. When red-eyed female (XRXR) is cross with white eyed male (X'Y) the F2 generation showsred-eyed &
white-eyed, this is ratio of:
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 2:1 (e) 3:1
45. Locus is a:
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(a) Part of DNA (b) Position of gene (c) Partner of gene (d) Complement of gene
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47. Full set of genes of an individual is called ______.
48.
(a) gene pool (b) Genome
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(c) Phenotype
50. ABO blood group system was first discovered in 1901 by:
(a) Punnet (b) Wiener (c) Bernstein (d) Landsteiner
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(a) T. H. Morgan (b) G. J. Mendel (c) Rudolf Virchow (d) Bateson (e) Lamarck
2. Genetic research was activated and a revolution in modern biology occurred in the year:
(a) 1951-53 (b) 1961-63 (c) 1971-73 (d) 1975-71 (e) 1981-83
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3. Genetic engineering usually utilizes cells and plasmids of:
(a) Bacteria (b) Viruses (c) Algae (d) Fungi (e) Parasites
4. "rDNA" is:
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(a) Ribosomal DNA (b) Riorazion DNA (c) Resolution DNA
(d) Regenerate DNA (e) Recombinant DNA
5. D
(b) Initiator gm
NA molecule into which a gene is inserted to construct a recombinant DNA molecule is:
(a) Activator (c) Accelerator (d) Starter (e) Vector
(d) Plasmids do not carry any genes which are responsible for useful characteristics.
(e) We cannot insert foreign (required) gene into plasmids to prepare recombinant DNA molecules.
7. Enzymes which are required to cut a source DNA molecule into small pieces and to cut plasmid to make
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9. The enzymes that act like scissors in recombinant DNA technology are:
(a) Restriction Enzymes (b) Ligase (c) Polymerase
(d) Reductase (e) Regenerator Enzymes
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(a) 1940s (b) 1950s (c) 1960s (d) 1970s (e) 1980s
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16. To increase the CO2 fixation property, molecular scientists are working to enhance the efficiency of:
(a) Ribulose biphosphate (b) Ribulose bicarbonate (c) Ribulose bicitrate
(d) Ribulose bisulphate (e) Ribulose reductase
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17. Human lactoferrin is a protein that is involved in _______ transport and has antibacterial activity.
(a) Potassium (b) Iron (c) Sulphur (d) Copper (e) Calcium
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(a) Reverse translation (b) Dihybridization (c) Reverse transcription
(d) DNA ligation (e) DNA polymerization
19.
21. A method of determining nucleotide sequence of a gene developed in late 1970s by:
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(a) T. H. Morgan (b) G. J. Mendel (c) Rudolf Virchow (d) F. Singer (e) Lamarck
22. DNA fragments differing as much as one nucleotide than each other can separate by:
(a) Get diffusion method (b) Polymerase chain reaction (c) Gel electrophoresis
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23. The differences in DNA electrophoresis patterns among individuals are called:
(a) Promoters Fragments Length Isomorphism (IFLI)
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(c) Appearance of symptoms is usually earlier in the age of 2O2
(d) Involuntary muscle movement is present along with progressive mental deterioration
(e) There is no any treatment of the disease
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(a) Heart (b) Liver (c) Kidneys (d) Lung (e) Brain
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(c) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (d) Static Immunodeficiency Disease
(e) Combined Immunodeficiency disease
32.
35. If the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA template is "AUCGUA", then the sequence of newly
synthesized DNA strand would:
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(a) UAGCAU (b) AUCGAU (c) UCGUA (d) TAGCAT (e) None
36. Production of duplicate copies of genetic material, cells or entire multi-cellular living organisms occurs
naturally in environment is:
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(a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (b) Western Blot Analysis (c) DNA Hybridization
(d) Immunochromatography (e) Cloning
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37. A technique to separate molecules on the basis of their size, shape and rate of movement is:
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Eastern Blot Analysis (c) Genomic Library
(d) Human Genome Project (e) Gene therapy
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38. Some human DNA does not code for proteins and repeated frequently, it is called:
(a) DNA hybridization (b) Human Genome Project (c) Gene therapy
(d) DNA Finger printing (e) Genomic library
39. Culture of preferred genes carrying vectors of a species in a preferred environmental is called:
(a) DNA hybridization (b) Human Genome Project (c) Gene therapy
(d) DNA Finger Printing (e) Genomic library
40. The recombinant DNA technology leads us into the major growing industry, the:
(a) Bio-physics (b) Biotechnology (c) Biochemistry
(d) Biomechanics (e) Biostatics
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43. Polyhydroxy butyrate is called:
(a) Antithrombin III (b) Neutra sweet (c) Luciferin (d) Biodegradable plastic
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45. Commonly used restriction enzyme is:
(a) Plasmid (b) p SC 101 (c) p BR 322 (d) ECO R1
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CHAPTER NO. 24
EVOLUTION
1. Gradual development of something is:
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(a) Existence (b) Ecosystem (c) Evolution
(d) Natural Selection (e) Revolution
2. It is believed that life may have begun deep in the water especially in hot spring called:
(a) Hydrothermal vent (b) Epidermal vent (c) Hypothermal vent
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(d) Hydropressure vent (e) All are correct
3. Theory of organic evolution based on the principle of "Use and disuse of organ" is now considered as:
(a) Survival of the fittest (b) Theory of Natural Selection (c) Inheritance of two traits
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(d) Theory of origin of species (e) Inheritance of acquired characters
4. "Small changes through successive generations promote the origin of new organs or characters, which
7. Cells which differentiate into various tissues and form different organs of the body are:
(a) Epithelial cells (b) Germ cells (c) Ectodermal cells
(d) Somatic cells (e) All are incorrect
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8. Cells remain undifferentiated, which later on give rise to egg cells or sperm cells are:
(a) Epithelial cells (b) Germ cells (c) Ectodermal cells
(d) Somatic cells (e) Endodermal cells
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11. "A logical result of over production is the severe competition for food and space and other necessities of
life", what Darwin called the:
(a) Over production (b) Struggle for existence (c) Variations and Heredity
(d) Survival of the fittest (e) Inheritance of Acquired Characters
12. Struggle between the individuals of same species having similar needs is:
(a) Inter specific struggle (b) Sub-specific struggle (c) Intra specific struggle
(d) Environmental struggle (e) Occupational struggle
13. Struggle among the members of different species is:
(a) Inter specific struggle (b) Sub-specific struggle (c) Intra specific struggle
(d) Environmental struggle (e) Occupational struggle
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(d) Use and disuse of organs (e) Survival of the fittest
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17. De Varies is known for his:
(a) Evolution Theory (b) Mutation Theory (c) Revolution Theory
(d) Selection Theory (e) Theory of Variation
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18. "Germinal Continuity Theory" was proposed by:
(a) Hutton (b) Lamarck (c) Weismann (d) T. H. Morgan (e) Darwin
19.
(b) Entomology
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A branch of biology in which various organisms showing resemblances have been classified is called:
(a) Histology (c) Toxicology (d) Taxonomy (e) Anatomy
22. Study of different species show close resemblance in their anatomy is:
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(a) Homology (b) Heterology (c) Enzymology (d) Ichthyology (e) Cytology
23. Tail bone which is vestigial in man but well-developed in other vertebrates is:
(a) Femur (b) Radius (c) Ischium (d) Sacrum (e) Coccyx
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25. Membrane well-developed in birth to clean their eye-ball but highly reduced, folded & non-functional in
man is:
(a) Conjunctival membrane (b) Nictitating membrane (c) Corneal membrane
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27. Kind of selection maintains the constancy of species over generation is:
(a) Solitary selection (b) Artificial selection (c) Stabilizing selection
(d) Domestication (e) Genetic selection
30. A branch of genetics that deals with the frequency, distribution and inheritance of alleles in population is:
(a) Allelic genetics (b) Inherited genetics (c) Population genetics
(d) Evolutionary genetics (e) Distributory genetics
31. "Under stable conditions allelic frequencies and their genotype ratios remain constant generation after
generation", this is:
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(a) Lamarck's Inheritance of Acquired Characters (b) Weismann's Germinal Continuity Theory
(c) Hardy Weinberg Law of Equilibrium (d) Darwin's Theory of Organic Evolution
(e) De Varies Mutation Theory
32. Tests of blood sera have shown the relationship between Man and:
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(a) Goat (b) Sheep (c) Cats (d) Bears (e) Apes
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(d) Ear muscles (e) Scalp muscles
34.
(a) Population (b) Over production (c) Parasitism (d) Habitat Destruction
36. In a population that is in Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium, 16% individuals show the recessive trait. What is
the frequency of the dominant allele in the population?
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37. Wallace developed the theory of natural selection essentially identical to:
(a) Lamarck (b) Linnaeus (c) Darwin (d) Hutton
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(a) Homology (b) Entomology (c) Ecology (d) Ichthyology (e) Cytology
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3. The group of similar individuals that live together in the same area at the same time from a:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Population (c) Community (d) Environment (e) Habitat
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4. All populations living in a particular area form:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Community (c) Environment (d) Biosphere (e) Habitat
5.
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Regarding ecological levels of organization, which statement is correct?
(a) Population → Ecosystem → Community → Biosphere
(b) Ecosystem → Population → Community → Biosphere
(c) Population → Ecosystem → Biosphere → Community
(d) Ecosystem → Biosphere → Community → Population
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(e) Population → Community -→ Ecosystem → Biosphere
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(a) Ecosystem (b) Community (c) Population (d) Biosphere (e) Habitat
8. The biogeographical regions are further differentiated on the basis of complex interaction of climate and
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(a) Autocoids (b) Entomology (c) Ichthyology (d) Autecology (e) Ecology
10. The study of different communities, their relation between them and their environment is called:
(a) Entomology (b) Synecology (c) Autecology
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13. Structural and functional unit of a community, which shows relationship between flow of energy and
cycling of matter, is:
(a) Ecosphere (b) Ecosystem (c) Biosphere (d) Environment (e) Habitat
14. The chlorophyll absorbs only __________ colours to utilize in photosynthesis.
(a) Yellow and orange (b) Red and green (c) Violet and blue
(d) Orange and red (e) Red and blue
16. The visible light is a small part of Electromagnetic spectrum, which ranges from _________ millimicrons.
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(a) 400 - 780 (b) 450 - 600 (c) 500 - 850 (d) 300 - 690 (e) 400 - 760
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18. Plants require light to grow are:
(a) Dermophytes (b) Heliophytes (c) Sciophytes
(d) Thallophytes (e) Xerophytes
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19. The concentration of oxygen in atmosphere is abow:
20.
(a) 21% (b) 50%
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(c) 30%
23. Factors pertaining to conditions and composition of soil are termed as:
(a) Climatic Factors (b) Edaphic Factors (c) Topographic Factors
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(a) Entomology (b) Pediatrics (c) Pedology (d) Demology (e) Topology
(a) Light (b) Autotrophs (c) Temperature (d) Water (e) Wind
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31. An association in which one organism lives temporarily or permanently within or another organism called
host is:
(a) Parasitism (b) Mutualism (c) Predation (d) Commensalism (e) Grazing
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32. The relationship in which organism gets benefit from host, but host does not get benefit nor it harmed is:
(a) Parasitism (b) Mutualism (c) Predation (d) Commensalism (e) Grazing
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(a) Actinomycetes (b) Histoplasma capsutatum (c) Coccidiodes immitis
(d) Yersinia pestis (e) Taenia saginata
34.
(b) Commensalism
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The relationship of Hydrictinia and Hermit Crab is called:
(a) Mutualism (c) Parasitism (d) Predation (e) All
(a) Hydrosere (b) Thermosere (c) Phytosere (d) Mesosere (e) Xerosere
(a) Crustose lichen stage (b) Moss stage (c) Herbs stage
(d) Shrub stage (e) Climax stage
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(a) Producers (b) Primary Consumers
(c) Secondary Consumers (d) Tertiary Consumers
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CHAPTER NO. 26
SOME MAJOR ECOSYSTEMS
1. The producers of a pond ecosystem are:
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(a) Bacteria (b) Zooplankton (c) Phytoplankton (d) Viruses (e) Fungi
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3. Secondary consumer of a pond ecosystem is:
(a) Diving beetles (b) Phytoplankton (c) Turtle (d) Aspergillus flavus (e) Molluscs
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(a) Diving beetles (b) Carnivore fish (c) Aspergillus flavus (d) Zooplankton (e) Turtle
6.
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplanktons
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(c) Carnivore fishes
(a) Euphotic (b) Pelagic (c) Bathyal (d) Benthic (e) Abyssal
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7. The salt concentration of sea is generally:
(a) 3.5% (b) 5.0% (c) 4.6% (d) 4.0% (e) 6.5%
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(a) Gobi (b) Sahara (c) Thar (d) Cholistan (e) Thal
17. The term "deciduous" is applied to those plants, which shed off their leaves during season:
(a) Winter (b) Autumn (c) Summer (d) Spring (e) Rainfall
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19. The term "savannah" is applied to:
(a) Temperate Deciduous Forest (b) Coniferous Forest (c) Tropical Grass Lands
(d) Tropical Rain Forest (e) Desert Ecosystem
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(a) Temperate Deciduous Forest (b) Tropical Grass Lands (c) Tundra
(d) Tropical Rain Forest (e) Desert
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(a) 15 °C (b) 12 °C (c) 18 °C (d) 30 °C (e) 45 °C
22.
23.
Coldest desert of the world found in:
(a) North Africa (b) Magnolia
(a) Ecosystem (b) Ecosphere (c) Biosphere (d) Biome (e) Savannah
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24. "Perma forest" is a characteristic feature of:
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26. Grass land become are known as _________ basket of the world.
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(a) Grass (b) Flower (c) Green (d) Beautiful (e) Bread
29. All are micronutrients present as abiotic component in point ecosystem except:
(a) Carbon (b) Sulphur (c) Potassium (d) Magnesium (e) Iron
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30. The plants of intertidal zone possess a jelly like substance called:
(a) Chitin (b) Cellulose (c) Agar (d) Yolk (e) Gel
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36. Limnetic phytoplankton includes the:
(a) Bacteria (b) Algae (c) Mosses (d) Cyanobacteria
37. Crustaceans with a spiny projection on these plank tonic creatures help to keep them from sinking:
(a) Porpoise (b) Whale (c) Copepod (d) Bobcat
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38. A succulent plant has water stored in tissues:
(a) Cacti (b) Moss (c) Yarrow (d) Spruce
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39. Chillas has major terrestrial ecosystem called:
(a) Deciduous forests (b) Alpine forests (c) Tundra (d) Grassland
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(a) 78% (b) 50% (c) 0.03% (d) 0.001% (e) 0.1%
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3. Renewable Resource includes:
(a) Air (b) Natural Gas (c) Coal (d) Metals (e) Oil
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(a) 10% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% (e) 93%
(a) Nuclear fuels (b) Petroleum (c) Oil shales (d) Wind (e) Coal
(a) Renal Cell Carcinoma (b) Stomach Cancer (c) Pancreatic Cancer
(d) Thyroid Cancer (e) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
12. Stationary combustion plants and transport vehicles burn fuel at very high temperature and produces:
(a) CO2 (b) NO (c) SO2 (d) O2 (e) CO
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18. "Typhoid fever" is caused by __________ virus.
(a) Varicella-zoster (b) Salmonella typhi (c) Shigella Soneli (d) Rabies virus (e) None
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20. Athelete's foot is:
(a) Taenia versicolor (b) Taenia soluim (c) Taenia saginata
(d) Taenia corporis (e) Taenia pedis
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21. Ring worm of body is caused by:
22.
(a) Plasmodium spp.
(d) Varicella-zoster virus gm
(b) Trypanosoma spp.
(e) Dermatophytes
(a) Bacterial (b) Parasitic (c) Fungal (d) Protozoal (e) Viral
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23. "Cholera" is _______ disease.
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(a) Bacterial (b) Nutritional (c) Parasitic (d) Protozoal (e) Viral
28.
(a) Mangoe fly (b) Culiesta mosquito (c) Culex mosquito (d) Tsetse fly (e) Sand fly
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35. Abnormal haemoglobin causes:
(a) Megaloblastic Anemia (b) Sickle Cell Anemia (c) Haemophilia
(d) Albinism (e) Asthma
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(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
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(d) Water contamination (e) Sharing hypodermic needles
38.
39.
Goitre is due to deficiency of:
(a) Sodium (b) Iodine
46. Stone monuments like TAJ MEHAL are being eroded due to “stone cancer” by _____________.
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(a) Acid Rain (b) Radiation (c) Eutrophication (d) Green House Effect