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ww Preetima Bajpai, Dr. Ashrita Tripathi, Sanjeev Kumar Jha, Asim Khan, Prashant Kr. Mishra
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CONTENTS
Section A : HISTORY A-1–A-166
1. Indus Valley Civilization 1-9
ww
2. Vedic Period and Religious Movements
3. Maurya Period and Post Mauryan Period
10-26
27-39
w.E
4. Gupta Period and Post Gupta Period
5. Ancient History (Miscellaneous)
40-66
67-72
6. Delhi Sultanate
7. Mughal Period asy 73-91
92-109
8. Initial Modern History
En 110-130
gin
9. Indian Freedom Struggle - I (1857-1917)
10. Indian Freedom Struggle - II (1917-1947)
131-145
146-166
ee
Section B : GEOGRAPHY
rin B-1–B-42
1. Astronomy 1-7
2. Physical Geography
g.n 8-15
3. Economic Geography
4. World Geography
5. Geography of India
et 16-23
24-31
32-42
Section C : INDIAN POLITY & GOVERNANCE C-1–C-54
1. Indian Constitution 1-15

2. Political System 16-28
3. Local Government and Public Policy 29-39
4. Judiciary 40-54

Section D : ECONOMICS D-1–D-46
1. Indian Economy 1-12

2. Planning and Economic Development 13-19
3. Agriculture in Indian Economy 20-29
4. Indian Industry 30-37
5. World Economy 38-46
ww Section E : GENERAL SCIENCE E-1–E-80
w.E
1. Physics
2. Chemistry
1-15
16-25
3. Biology asy 26-58
5. Science and Technology En

4. Environment and Ecology 59-70
71-80
gin
Section F : GENERAL AWARENESS F-1–F-40
1. Art and Culture ee

2. National and International Awards rin 1-7
8-17
3. Books and Authors
4. Sports and Games g.n 18-24
25-31
5. Miscellaneous
Section G : CURRENT AFFAIRS

et 32-40
G-1–G-60
1. National 1-11
2. International 12-19
3. Economical 20-27
4. Awards and Honours 28-35
5. Sports and Games 36-45
6. Science and Technology 46-52
7. Miscellaneous 53-60

Section A : History
ww
1 Indus Valley Civilization

w.E
1. Indus Valley Civilization was discovered in:
(a) 1911
(c) 1931
(b) 1921
(d) 1941
11. Which of the following animals was unknown in
Indus Valley Civilization?
(a) Lion (b) Bull
2.
asy
The people of Indus Valley Civilization were
almost :
(c) Elephant (d) Horse
12. Which one of the following Indus Valley
(a) Nigroid
(c) Mediterranean (d) Nordic
En
(b) Proto-Austroloid
3. Which metal was unknown to Indus Valley

Civilization sites gives evidence of a dockyard?
(a) Harappa
(c) Lothal
(b) Mohenjodaro
(d) Dholavira
Civilization?
(a) Gold gin
(b) Silver
13. Which one of the following Indus Valley
Civilization sites gives evidence of a stadium?
(c) Copper
(a) Urban
(c) Agricultural
(d) Iron
(b) Rural ee
4. The nature of Indus Valley Civilization was:
(d) None of these

(a) Harappa
rin
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Dholavira
14. The people of Indus Valley Civilization usually
built their houses of:
5. Indus Valley Civilization belongs to:
(a) Pre-historical (b) Historical period
(c) Proto-historical (d) Post-historical

(a) Pucca bricks
(c) Stone
g.n (b) Wood
(d) None of these
15. A seal depicting Mother Goddess with plant
6. A statue of bearded man was found at
(a) Harappa
(c) Chanhudaro
(b) Mohenjodaro
(d) Dholavira
7. In Indus Valley Civilization, the script was:
(a) Harappa
(c) Kalibangan
et
growing from the womb, has been found from:
(b) Mohenjodaro
(d) Dholavira
16. Indus Valley Civilization was discovered by:
(a) Dayaram Sahni (b) R.D. Banerji
(a) Kharosthi (b) Brahmi
(c) Cunningham (d) Wheeler
(c) Boustrophedus (d) None of these
17. A lot of beads were discovered from:
8. Which of the following is the latest site found?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(a) Dholavira (b) Amri
(c) Lothal (d) Dholavira
(c) Lothal (d) Kalibangan
18. Mostly, beads were made of:
9. Harappa is located on the bank of river:
(a) Terracotta (b) Jasper
(a) Indus (b) Ravi
(c) Lapis (d) Steatite
(c) Beas (d) Sutlej
19. Which of the following cannot be considered
10. The local name of Mohenjodaro is:
Proto-Harappan culture?
(a) Mound of Living (b) Mound of Survivor
(a) Sothi culture (b) Jornie culture
(c) Mound of Dead (d) Mound of Great (c) Kot-Diji culture (d) Amri culture

A-2 || Indus Valley Civilization

20. Which of the following showed the greatest 30. Which of the following is the most common motif
uniformity in Indus Civilization settlement? of the Indus seals?
(a) Town planning (a) Elephant (b) Bull
(b) Bricks (c) Rhinoceros (d) Unicorn
31. The dockyard at Lothal was well connected with
(c) Religious practices
the river:
(d) Building (a) Ghaggar (b) Bhogavo
21. The site of Mohenjodaro is located on the bank of (c) Narmada (d) Tapti
river: 32. The Indus Valley Civilization people traded with
ww
(a) Ravi
(c) Indus
(b) Beas
(d) Sutlej
the:
(a) Romans (b) Parthians
(c) Mesopotamians (d) Chinese

w.E
22. The site of Mohenjodaro was discovered by:
(a) Dayaram Sahni (b) R.D. Banerji
(c) N.G. Majumdar (d) S.R. Rao
33. Which of the following was unknown in Indus
Valley Civilization?
(a) Wheat (b) Pulses
India in:
(a) Rajasthan
asy
23. The largest of sites found in post-independence
(b) Gujarat
(c) Barley (d) Cotton
34. Which type of seals was the most popular in
Harappan culture?
(c) Punjab (d) Haryana
En
24. The best drainage system (water management) in
(a) Oval
(c) Rounded
(b) Cylindrical
(d) Quadrate
Indus Valley Civilization was:
(a) Harappa (b) Lothal gin 35. Remains of horse bares have been found from:
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Lothal
(c) Surkotada (d) Sutkagendor
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan

was made up of:
(a) Bronze (b) Red limestone
ee
25. The famous dancing girl found in the Mohenjodaro
36. In which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
rin
sites, the cotton piece was found ?
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Lothal
(c) Harappa (d) Chanhudaro
(c) Steatite (d) Terracotta
26. The unique structure in Mohenjodaro was: Valley Civilization? g.n
37. Which of the following was unknown in Indus
(a) Bathing pool

(c) Granary
(b) Assembly hall
(d) Dockyard
27. In which of the following Indus Valley sites the
famous Bull-seal was found?

et
(a) Construction of wells
(b) Construction of arches
(c) Construction of pillars
(d) Construction of drains
38. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro sites provides the evidence of fire-altars?
(c) Lothal (d) Chanhudaro (a) Alamgirpur (b) Kalibangan
28. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization (c) Banavali (d) Kunal
site was located on the Iranian border? 39. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian
subcontinent has been obtained from:
(a) Surkotada (b) Sutkagen Dor
(a) Brahmagiri (b) Chirand
(c) Kot Diji (d) Balakot (c) Mehargarh (d) Burzahom
29. In which of the following Indus Valley sites, the 40. Which of the following was not worshipped by
cemetry R-37 was found? Indus Valley people?
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro (a) Shiva (b) Peepal
(c) Harappa (d) Dholavira (c) Mother Goddess (d) Vishnu

History || A-3
41. The excavation at Chanhudaro was directed by 51. A glaring evidence of the art of dance in Harappan
(a) John Marshall (b) J.H. Mackay culture comes from:
(c) M. Wheeler (d) Aurel Stein (a) Lothal (b) Harappa
42. A granary outside to citadel was found at: (c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro 52. Which among the following was the most extensive
(c) Lothal (d) Dholavira Harappan city?
43. Which of the following sites of Harappan culture (a) Banavali (b) Ropar
gives evidence of ‘Sindoor’? (c) Lothal (d) Rakhigarhi
ww

44.
(a) Harappa
(c) Naushero
(b) Mohenjodaro
(d) Balakote
Indus Valley Civilization site Manda is situated
53. From which of the Harappan sites has the evidence
of bead making been found?
(a) Dholavira (b) Ropar

w.E near the bank of:
(a) Sutlej
(c) Chinab
(b) Jhelum
(d) Indus
(c) Chanhudaro
evidence of settled life?

(d) Kalibangan
54. Name the site which has revealed the earliest
45.
asy
The archaeological findings from Alamgirpur in
Meerut district reflect the:
(a) Harappa
(c) Kalibangan
(b) Mohenjodaro
(d) Mehargarh
55. The most common form of Harappan seal is:

46.
(c) Budha period
En
(a) Harappa period (b) Vedic period
(d) Mauryan period
In which of the following sites has a pre-Harappan
(a) Cylindrical
(c) Square
(b) Rectangular
(d) Rounded

settlement not been found?
(a) Harappa gin
(b) Mohenjodaro
56. Which of the following ethnic races was not found
from skeleton of Harappan sites?
(a) Alpine (b) Mediteranean

47.
(c) Kalibangan
ee
(d) Dholavira
The Director General of Archaeological Survey
of India at the time of the excavation of Harappan
site was:
(c) Mongoloid
rin
(d) Negrito
57. Bronze statue of dancing girl has been excavated
at:
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Harappa

(a) Dayaram Sahni
(b) R.D. Banerji
(c) Chanhudaro
g.n(d) Kalibangan
58. Which one among the following sites is located in

48.
(c) John Marshall
(d) Mortimer Wheeler
The most suitable name of Indus Valley Civilization
is:
(c) Kalibangan
et
the valley of Ghaggar and its associated rivers?
(a) Alamgirpur (b) Lothal
(d) Banavali
59. Which of the Harappan sites has yielded evidence
(a) Harappan Civilization of two cemeteries?
(b) Indus Civilization (a) Mohenjodaro (b) Harappa
(c) Saraswati Civilization (c) Kalibangan (d) Ropar
(d) Bronze Time Civilization 60. In which of the following sites was found the
49. A clay model of plough has been found from: evidence of ‘Swastik’?
(a) Banawali (b) Kalibangan (a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Rakhigarhi (d) Mitathal (c) Chanhudaro (d) Kalibangan
50. In the excavations of Harappan sites, bones of 61. Which of the following Harappan sites was found
camels have been found at: the earliest evidence of surgery?
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal (a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Harappa (d) Mohenjodaro (c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira


62. Which of the following Harappan sites shows the 70. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
earliest evidence of Earthquake sites gives evidence of a Lipstick?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro (a) Chanhudaro (b) Banawali
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira (c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
63. Three-paired cemetry was found in: 71. The site of Alamgirpur is located on the bank of
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal river:
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Mohenjodaro (a) Maskra (b) Hindon
64. Which amongst the following is not a site of Indus (c) Chinab (d) Bhader
Valley Civilization? 72. Which one of the following sites has yielded
ww
(a) Banawali
(c) Hastinapur
(b) Rakhigarhi
(d) Ropar
65. On which object, do we mainly find the inscriptions
the cultural remains from Neolithic to Harappan
period?
(a) Amri (b) Mehargarh

w.Eof Harappan civilization?
(a) On pillars
(c) On caves
(b) On rocks
(d) On seals
(c) Kotdiji (d) Kalibangan
73. In the Indus Valley Civilization period, Lapis-
Lazuli was imported from:
asy
66. Which site of Harappan civilization has yielded a
beautiful bronze image of a chariot?
(a) Daimabad (b) Mohenjodaro
(a) Badakhshah
(c) Mesopotamia (d) Gujrat
(b) Iran
(c) Kalibangan
En
(d) Rakhigarhi
67. Which amongst the following civilizations was not
74. The Indus Valley Civilization was:

(a) Father base
(b) Mother base
(a) Greek civilization gin

contemporary with the Harappan civilization?

(c) Same rights of mother and father
(d) None of these

(b) Egyptian civilization
(c) Mesopotamian civilization
(d) Chinese civilization ee
68. In which Indus Valley Civilization sites, was
75. Which of the following was one of the causes of

Harappan decline?
rin
(a) Ecological change
(b) Earthquakes
drainage system absent?
(a) Banawali
(c) Lothal
(b) Dholavira
(d) Rakhigarhi

(c) Aryan attack
(d) All of these
g.n
76. A ploughed field was discovered at:
69. In which Indus Valley Civilization sites, the people
were known to water reservoir technique?
(a) Banawali
(c) Dholavira
(b) Kalibangan
(d) Chanhudaro
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan
(d) Lothal
et

History || A-5
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (b) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (b)
2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (d) 62. (c) 72. (b)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (c) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (a)
4. (a) 14. (a) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (b)
5. (c) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (d) 75. (d)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (a) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (a) 76. (c)
ww 7.
8.
(c)
(a)
17.
18.
(b)
(d)
27.
28.
(a)
(b)
37.
38.
(c)
(b)
47.
48.
(c)
(a)
57.
58.
(a)
(b)
67.
68.
(d)
(a)
w.E
10.
9. (b)
(c)
19.
20.
(b)
(a)
29.
30.
(c)
(d)
39.
40.
(c)
(d)
49.
50.
(a)
(a)
59.
60.
(b)
(b)
69.
70.
(c)
(a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
1. En
(b) The Indus Valley was discovered by Dayaram discovered at Mohenjodaro. His eyes are half closed
gin
Sahni in 1921. It is one of the world’s earliest
urban civilizations alongside its contemporaries,
Mesopotamia and Ancient Egypt. The Indus Valley
indicating a posture of meditation. Across the left
shoulder is an embroidered cloak. In the opinion of
some scholars, it could be a bust of a priest.
2.
India. ee
covers modern day Pakistan and the northwest of
(c) Indus Valley Civilization had been a combination

of diverse racial elements. Certain anthropological
7.
8.
(c) Indus Scripts are popularly known as
Boustrophedon scripts which are still not deciphered
rin
by the historians, researchers and scholars.
(a) Dholavira is the latest Indus Valley Civilization
investigations and examinations of the human
remains show that four racial types existed in this
civilization namely Proto-Australiod, Mediterranean, 9.
g.n
site. This site was discovered by J.P. Joshi in 1967-68.
Dholavira is located at Kutch district in Gujarat.
(b) Harappa was situated on the banks of river
3.
Alpinoid and the Mongoloid. Most of the people
belonged to Mediterranean race.
(d) Iron was not known to Indus Valley Civilization
people. The first evidence of Iron is found about l000
10.
et
Ravi in Montgomery district of western Punjab (in
Pakistan).
(c) Mohenjodaro is not the original name, of
course, but one given by local villagers referring
B.C. from Ataranjikhera in Etah district. to the ‘mound of the dead’: the tower and hillocks
4. (a) Indus Valley Civilization was urbanized, highly of abandoned debris of bricks that they had their
developed and sophisticated. The ruins exhibit high forefathers had noticed in the surroundings.
level of planning in the cities. Excavations have 11. (d) Animals like buffaloes, sheeps and pigs and
indicated that the buildings were built with baked the humped bull were bred. Animals like elephant,
bricks. The streets were well constructed at right camels and dogs were also domesticated. There is
angles with an elaborate and covered drainage no evidence found about horses in the excavation of
system. The civilization also had public buildings Indus Valley Civilization.
including the vast granaries and the Great Bath at 12. (c) The Indus Valley Civilization site Lothal gives
Mohenjodaro. evidence of a dockyard. Lothal was discovered by
6. (b) A well-known piece of art of the Harappan S.R. Rao in 1954 A.D. The dockyard is located in
period is a stone sculpture of a bearded man eastern side of Lothal.


13. (d) Recent excavations at the small township of 21. (c) Mohenjodaro is situated along the west bank
Dholavira, in Kutch, Gujarat (India) have presented of the Indus River while Harappa is located 640 km
to the world some of the oldest stadiums and sign northeast of Mohenjodaro.
board, built by the Harappan civilization. One of 22. (b) The site of Mohenjodaro was discovered in 1922
the stadiums, with terraced seats for spectators, by R. D. Banerji, an officer of the Archaeological
Survey of India, two years after major excavations
around 800 feet in length (around 283 metres) can
had begun at Harappa, some 590 km to the north.
accommodate as many as 10,000 persons. The other Large-scale excavations were carried out at the site
stadium is much smaller in size. under the direction of John Marshall, K. N. Dikshit,
14. (a) Houses of Indus Valley Civilization were one Ernest Mackay, and other directors through the
ww or two stories high, made of baked (Pucca) bricks,

with flat roofs. Each was built around a courtyard,
with windows overlooking the courtyard. The outside
1930s.
23. (b) The state which has accounted for highest number
of Harappan sites after independence is Gujarat.
w.E walls had no windows. Each home had its own private
drinking well and its own private bathroom. Clay
pipes led from the bathrooms to sewers located under
Gujarat has been one of the main centre of the
Indus Valley Civilization. It contains major ancient
metropolitan cities from the Indus Valley such as
Lothal, Dholavira, and Gola Dhoro.
the streets.
asy
15. (a) Plant growing from the womb of women has
been found from Harappa on a seal. That represents
25. (a) The famous ‘Dancing girl’ found in Mohenjodaro
is an artifact that is some 4,500 years old. The 10.8
cm long statue of the dancing girl was found in 1926
Earth Goddess.
En
16. (a) Harappan civilization was discovered in
from a house in Mohenjodaro is made of bronze.
26. (a) The bathing pool was the unique structure of
gin
1921–22 when two of its most important sites were
excavated. The first was excavated by Dayaram Sahni
and the second by R.D. Banerji.
Mohenjodaro. It measures 11.88 × 1.01 × 2.43 mt.
The floor of the bath pool was made of burnt
bricks.
ee
17. (b) Many beautiful beads of blue Lapis Lazuli, Red
Carnelian, and Agate stones of all colours have been
found throughout Mohenjodaro and were probably
worn by the women. Archaeologists have found
27. (a) On the site of Indus Valley Civilization, the
famous Bull-seal was found in Harappa. The Bull-
rin
seal shows a humped bull displaying a strong and
energetic bull. The figure has been made well, a proof
of the fine artistic skills acquired by the people of that
beads in such locations as the Great Bath, where
bathers probably lost them, and in the lower city,
where bead makers may have dropped them in and g.n
time. Seals are mainly in square or rectangular shape.
This Bull-seal dates to around 2450-2200 BC.
28. (b) Sutkagen Dor is the westernmost known
around the kilns they used to make the beads.
18. (d) The vast majority of the beads are made of
fired steatite, which was a widely used raw material,
beginning with the Ravi period and continuing
et
archaeological site of Indus Valley Civilization. It
is located about 480 km west of Makran coast near
the Iran border in Balochistan province of Pakistan.
Sutkagen Dor would have been on the trade route
through the Late Harappan period. Beads that are from Lothal in Gujarat to Mesopotamia and was
probably heavily involved in the fishing trade
made of hard stone, such as Agate, Carnelian, are
similar to that which exists today in the coast along
relatively less common, with a significant drop in Balochistan.
numbers for stones, such as Lapis Lazuli, Grossular 29. (c) There are over fifty-five burial sites in the Indus
Garnet, Serpentine and Amazonite. Valley which were found in Harappa. The burials
20. (a) The greatest uniformity is noticed in the layouts are interpreted primarily as reflections of social
of the towns, streets, structures, brick size, drains, etc. structure and hierarchy. The strongest evidence for
Almost all the major sites (Harappa, Mohenjodaro, this interpretation would be burial sites in Harappa,
Kalibangan and others) are divided into two parts–a cemetery R-37 and Cemetery H. R-37 is the smaller
citadel on higher mound on the western side and a site compared to Cemetery H, and has about 200
lower town on the eastern side of the Indus Valley burials. Archeologists believe it was a restricted
cemetery that was used by a particular group or family
Civilization settlement.
that lived in Harappa.

History || A-7
30. (d) The unicorn is the most common motif on Indus 40. (d) The numerous seals and figurines discovered in
seals and appears to represent a mythical animal that the excavations carried out at various sites connected
Greek and Roman sources trace back to the Indian with the Harappan culture point out to the religious
subcontinent. beliefs of the Indus Valley people.
Worship of Mother Goddess: A large number of
32. (c) The people of Indus Valley Civilization mainly
excavated terracotta figurines are those of a semi-
traded with the Mesopotamians. Dilmun and Makan
nude figure which is identified with some female
were intermediate trading stations between Meluha energy or Shakti or Mother Goddess, who is the
and Mesopotamia. Meluha is the earliest name of source of all creation.
ww Indus area.
33. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, pulses were
unknown. The chief food crops included wheat,
Worship of Pashupati or Lord Shiva: The Pashupati
seal in which the three-faced male god is shown
seated in a yogic posture, surrounded by a rhino and
w.E barley, sesasum, mustard, peas, etc. The evidence

for rice has come from Lothal and Rangpur in the
form of husks embedded in pottery. Cotton was
a buffalo on the right, and an elephant and a tiger on
the left, make the historians conclude that the people
of those days worshipped Lord Shiva. Discovery of a
large number of conical or cylindrical stones shows
asy
another important crop. A piece of woven cloth has
been found at Mohenjodaro. Apart from cereals, fish
and animal meat also formed a part of the Harappan
that the people worshipped lingam, the symbol of
Lord Shiva.
Worship of Trees: The worship of trees was
diet.
En
34. (d) Quadrate type of seals was the most popular in
widespread. The Pipal tree was considered most
sacred.
Harappan culture.
gin
35. (c) Surkotada site contains horse remains dated
to 2000 BC, which is considered a significant
Other Objects of Worship: People also worshipped
animals, such as the bull, buffalo and tiger. Besides
animals, these people also worshipped the Sun, the
ee
observation with respect to Indus Valley Civilisation.
During 1974, Archaeological Survey of India
undertook excavation in this site and J.P. Joshi and

Fire and the Water.
There was no evidence of the God Vishnu worshipped
rin
by the people of Indus Valley Civilization.
41. (b) Chanhudaro was investigated in 1931 by the
A.K. Sharma reported findings of horse bones at all
levels.
36. (a) The cotton piece was found in Mohenjodaro. g.n
Indian archaeologist N. G. Majumdar and was
excavated in 1935-36 by the British archaeologist
Ernest John Henry Mackay.
Traces of cotton fibres and textile fragments provide
evidences of production of cotton textiles from early
Harappan period. Cotton was a commodity the
people of Mohenjodaro probably exported, perhaps
et
42. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, a granary outside to
citadel was found at Mohenjodaro. Because farmers
outside the walls of Mohenjodaro usually had their
own granaries, some archaeologists think that grain
stored within the citadel granary may have been
in exchange for minerals, tools or other goods. collected as taxes.
38. (b) Kalibangan – is an archaeological site where 43. (c) Naushero gives the evidence of Sindoor in
ploughed field, bones of camel, circular and Harappan culture. The site of Naushero, located
rectangular graves, distinctive fire (Vedic ) altars with 6 km away from Mehargarh had developed Kotdijian
provision of ritual bathing have been found. settlement. It was a smaller settlement but sharing
39. (c) The site of Mehrgarh provides evidence for fully the developmental process towards maturity
the earliest agricultural and pastoral communities in of urbanization.
44. (c) Indus Valley Civilization site Manda is situated
South Asia. The first inhabitants of Mehrgarh, dating
on the right bank of Chenab river in the foothills of Pir
to around 6500 BC, were farmers who cultivated
Panjal range, 28 km northwest of Jammu. Manda is
wheat and barley as their main grain crops and had the north site of Indus civilization. It was discovered
herds of cattle, sheep and goats. by J.P. Joshi in 1982.


45. (a) The archaeological evidences found from 59. (b) The evidence of two cemeteries has been found
Alamgirpur in Meerut district reflect the Harappan from Harappa. The strongest evidence for the burial
period. sites in Harappa are Cemetery R-37 and Cemetery
47. (c) At the time of excavation of Harappan site, H.
the Director General of Archaeological Survey of 60. (b) The Swastika is said to have originated in both
India was John Marshall from 1902-28. In 1921, the Indus River Valley Civilization and in some
he focused on the Indus Valley, which led to the ancient Mediterranean Civilizations. A tablet with
discovery of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, Swastika has been excavated at Mohenjodaro.
the ancient cities Harappa and Mohenjodaro. 61. (c) The earliest evidence of surgery was found from
ww
48. (a) Harappan Civilization is the most suitable name
for Indus Valley Civilization because Harappa lies in
the centre of Indus Civilization. It was also an urban
Kalibangan. Archaeologists made the discovery that
the people of Indus Valley Civilization, even from the
early Harappan periods, had knowledge of medicine
w.E trade centre.

49. (a) A clay model of plough has been found from
Banawali. It is an archaeological site belonging to
Indus Valley Civilization period in Fatehabad district
and surgery.
62. (c) The earliest evidence of earthquake was found
from Kalibangan. B. B. Lal, former DG of ASI, said:
“Kalibangan in Rajasthan has shown that there
asy
of Haryana. Banawali is earlier called Vanavali,
is situated on the left banks of dried up Saraswati
river.
occurred an earthquake around 2600 BC, which
brought to an end the Early Indus settlement at the
En
50. (a) In the excavation of Indus Valley Civilization
sites, the camel bones have been found at
site.
63. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, the three paired-
cemetery was found from excavation of Lothal.
Kalibangan.
gin
52. (d) Rakhigarhi was a large Harappan town
known in 1963, when the area was first surveyed.
64. (c) Hastinapur is not a site of Indus Valley
Civilization. Hastinapur was the capital of the Kuru
dynasty of kings. All incidents in the epic Mahabharata
larger and more extensive.

ee
Archaeologists found it the biggest Harappan city,
53. (c) The evidence of beadmakers’ shops has

been found at Chanhudaro and Lothal. Gold and
have taken place in the city of Hastinapur.
65. (d) Most of the inscriptions are found on seals
rin
mostly made out of stone. Some inscriptions are also
found on copper tablets, bronze implements and small
silver beads have also been found. Ivory carving
and inlaying used in beads, bracelets and other
decorations were also in practice. g.n
objects made of terracotta, stone and faience.
66. (a) A sculpture of a bronze chariot, 45 cm long,
16 cm wide, yoked to two oxen, driven by a man
55. (c) The square shape of the seal is the most common
form of Harappan seals, although there is great
variety in their size and shapes.
56. (d) The skeleton of Negrito was not found in any
et
16 cm high standing in it and three other bronze
sculptures a rhinoceros, an elephant and a buffalo
were found at Daimabad in the Ahmednagar district
of Maharashtra.
Harappan site. Negrito refers to several ethnic groups 67. (d) Archaeologist Sir John Marshall thought that
who inhabit isolated parts of Southeast Asia. the Indus Valley Civilization belonged to the period
57. (a) The most famous bronze ‘dancing girl’ figurine between 3250 BC and 2750 BC. It is the period
discovered at Mohenjodaro. It is a female figure, with when the Egyptians, Babylonian and Mesopotamian
right arm on the hip and left arm hanging in a dancing Civilizations flourished. From the objects discovered
pose. She is wearing a large number of bangles. It is at the cities of the Indus Valley Civilizations,
the first sculpture in dancing gesture discovered in historians have made a comparative study of the
the Indian subcontinent. contemporary civilizations of Mesopotamia, Egypt
58. (b) Lothal is one of the most prominent cities of and Babylonia. They came to the conclusion that the
the ancient Indus Valley Civilization located in the Indus Valley Civilization was at its height of glory
valley of Ghaggar-Harka river. Many Indus Valley during the period of the contemporary civilizations
(or Harappan) sites have been discovered along the of Mesopotamia, Egypt and Babylonia.
Ghaggar-Hakra beds.

History || A-9
69. (c) Dholavira had a series of water storing tanks people. So the people of Indus Valley Civilization
and step wells, and its water management system period imported Lapis-Lazuli from Badakhshah
has been called ‘unique’. The unique feature is the (Afghanistan).
sophisticated water conservation system of channels 74. (b) The nature of Indus Valley Civilization was
and reservoirs, the earliest found anywhere in the mother base because condition of women was pretty
world and completely built of stone. good at that time. They were entitled equal honour
70. (a) The Indus Valley Civilization site Chanhudaro along with men in the society. The worship of mother
finds indicate the use of lipstick. goddess demonstrates that they were respected in the
71. (b) An Indus site has been discovered at Alamgirpur, form of mother.
ww 27 km west of Meerut. Alamgirpur is located on

the left bank of the Hindon river, a tributary of the
Yamuna.
75. (d) Definite reason to the decline of the Indus Valley
Civilization is not known, as no reliable resource of
that period is available at present. Every conclusion
w.E
72. (b) The best-known site of the cultural remains
is Mehrgarh. Mehrgarh is a neolithic site seen as a
precursor to the Indus Valley Civilization.
73. (a) The Sar-i Sang mines in the region of
regarding the decline is based upon speculations of
historians. It is commonly believed that ecological
change, earthquake, Aryan attack, etc. were the
causes of Harappan decline.
asy
Badakhshah in north east Afghanistan were probably
the source for all Lapis-Lazuli used by the ancient
76. (c) Kalibangan is distinguished by the world’s
earliest attested ploughed field.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

2 Vedic Period and

Religious Movements
ww Vedic Period (a) Indra (b) Agni

w.E
1. Vedic literature is also known as :
(a) Shruti
(c) Sanhita
(b) Smriti
(d) Vedanga
(c) Mitra (d) Varun
10. Who of the following was the God of morality
during the Rigvedic times?
2.

(a) Dravid
(c) Harappan
asy
Who was the founder of Vedic culture?
(b) Arya
(d) None of these
(a) Indra
(c) Agni
(b) Rudra
(d) Varuna
11. The river Chenab was known during the Vedic
3.

The word ‘Aryan’ denotes :
(a) Ethnic group En
(b) Nomadic people
period by the name :
(a) Askini (b) Parushni

4.

(c) Speech group
gin
(d) Superior race
The staple food of the Vedic Aryan was :
(a) Barley and rice
(c) Shutudri (d) Vitasta
12. Which one of the following assemblies was also
called Narishta meaning a resolution that cannot

5.
(b) Rice and pulse
(c) Vegetables and fruits
(d) Milk and its products
ee
Who is the most important God in Rigaveda?
be broken?
(a) Gana
(c) Sabha
rin
(b) Vidhata
(d) Samiti
13. Which of the following does not come under

(a) Agni
(c) Varun
(b) Indra
(d) Vishnu
Shruti literature?
(a) Brahmana
(c) Aranyaka g.n(b) Vedanga
(d) Upanishad
6.

Who wrote a book ‘Return of the Aryans’ ?
(a) Bhagvan Das Gidvani
(b) L.D. Kalla
(c) Avinash Chandra Das
(c) Chenab et
14. The Vedic river Vitasta has been identified with :
(a) Ravi (b) Jhelum
(d) Beas
15. Which of the following Brahmana texts belongs
(d) D.S. Trivedi to Atharvaveda?
7. Which river has not been mentioned in Rigveda? (a) Shatpatha (b) Aitareya
(a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati (c) Gopatha (d) Panchavinsh
(c) Narmada (d) Tapti 16. Who of the following led the confederacy of ten
8. Which of the following is the major impact of kings against Sudasa?
Vedic culture on Indian history? (a) Vishwamitra (b) Bharadwaja
(a) Progress of philosophy (c) Vashistha (d) Atri
(b) Development of culture 17. Dasarajana was :
(c) Rigidification of caste system (a) Ten incarnations of Vishnu
(d) Perception of a new world (b) A sacrifice to be performed by the king
9. Which of the following Vedic deities is not (c) Battle of ten kings
mentioned in the Boghazkoi inscription ? (d) None of these

History || A-11
18. Which part of Rigveda gives an account of the 29. The word Gotra occurs for the first time in :
origin of the Universe? (a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
(a) Second Mandala (b) Fourth Mandala (c) Yajurveda (d) Atharveda
(c) Ninth Mandala (d) Tenth Mandala 30. The word Visamatta was used in the latter Vedic
19. The famous ‘Battle of Kings’ between Bharat and
Age for :
the host of ten kings was fought near the river :
(a) The king (b) The priest
(a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati
(c) Parushni (d) Vitasta (c) The trader (d) The tax collector
20. Which one of the following Vedic Gods depicts 31. In the Vedic Period, which animal was known as
ww an association with the Sun?

(a) Ashvin
(c) Indra
(b) Pushan
(d) Brihaspati
‘Aghanya’?
(a) Bull (b) Sheep
w.E
21. Which of the following is concerned with origin
of Indian medicine?
(a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
(c) Cow (d) Elephant
32. Which of the following Samhitas of Yajurveda
contains only hymns and no prose?
(c) Yajurveda
asy
(d) Atharveda
22. Which one of the following is described in
Upanishad?
(a) Katha
(c) Taittriya
(b) Maitrayaviya
(d) Vajasaneyi
(a) Dharma
(c) Philosophy (d) LawEn
(b) Yoga
33. The game of ‘dice’ was part of the ritual of :
(a) Agnistoma
(c) Rajasuya
(b) Aswamegha
(d) Vajapeya
of Trivarga? gin
23. Which of the following Purusarthas is not a part 34. The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are mentioned for
the first time in :
(a) Artha
(c) Moksha
(b) Dharma
(d) Kama
ee
24. Who of the following has opened that the original
homeland of the Aryan was Arctic region?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda

rin
(c) Satapath Brahmana
(d) Chhandogya Upanishad
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(b) Max Muller
(c) Dayanand Saraswati (a) Indra g.n
35. The Gayatri Mantra is dedicated to :
(b) Aditi
(d) A.C. Das
25. In Rigveda, maximum number of shlokas are
written in the memory of :
(a) Indra (b) Brahma
(c) Gayatri
et
(d) Savitri
36. Who among the following was a Brahmavadini
that composed some hymns of the Vedas?
(a) Lopamudra (b) Gargi
(c) Vishnu (d) Shiva
26. How many times does the word ‘Jana’ occur in (c) Leelavati (d) Savitri
the Rigveda? 37. The river most mentioned in Rigveda is :
(a) 75 times (b) 175 times (a) Sindhu (b) Sutudri
(c) 275 times (d) 375 times (c) Saraswati (d) Gandaki
27. Which of the following assemblies was normally 38. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and
involved in the election of king? Yama is mentioned in the :
(a) Sabha (b) Samiti (a) Chhandogyopanishad
(c) Gana (d) Vidatha
(b) Mundakopnishad
28. The expounder of Yoga philosophy was :
(c) Kathopanishad
(a) Patanjali (b) Shankaracharya
(c) Jaimini (d) Gautam (d) Kenopanishad

A-12 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements

39. The flood Legend in which a divine fish has been 49. Which of the following Mandalas is completely
described as rescuing Manu occurs in detail in : devoted to the Vedic God Soma ?
(a) Rigveda samhita (a) 1 (b) 5
(b) Vajasaneyi samhita (c) 9 (d) 10
(c) Satapatha Brahmana 50. With whom is the Yadu tribe mostly paired in the
(d) Aitareya Brahmana Rigveda?
(a) Anu (b) Druhyu
40. Which of the following is the Samhita of the
(c) Turvasu (d) Puru
Shukla Yajurveda?
51. The earliest reference to Devakiputra Krishna
ww

(a) Kathaka Samhita
(b) Maitrayaniya Samhita
(c) Taittiriya Samhita
occurs in :
(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda

w.E(d) Vajasaneyi Samhita
41. Who was the priest of the Bharatas in the battle of
ten kings?

(c) Satapatha Brahmana
(d) Chhandogya Upnishad
52. Which one of the following primarily deals with
(a) Visvamitra
(c) Atri
asy
(b) Vasishtha
(d) Bhrigu
42. To which Sakha does the published Rigveda
the construction of sacrificial altars?
(a) Brahmasutra (b) Dharmasutra
(c) Grihyasutra (d) Sulvasutra
Samhita belong?
(a) Sawnaka En
(b) Asvalayan
53. In the Rigveda, the first hymn of a Mandala is
often addressed to :
(c) Sakala
43. Satpatha Brahmana is related to : gin
(d) Sankhayana (a) Agni
(c) Mitra
(b) Indra
(d) None of these
54. Who is the propounder of the theory that the
(a) Rigveda
(c) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
ee
44. King Asvapati of the Upanishadic Age was the
ruler of :

Rigvedic Aryans and the Harappans might have
(a) R.S. Sharma

(c) B.B. Lal rin
been the same people?
(b) Romila Thapar
(d) H.D. Sankalia
(a) Kekaya
(c) Panchala
(b) Matsya
(d) Sursena
45. Which of the following Upnishads is written in
Vedic Age? g.n
55. Who was the most celebrated craftsman in the
prose?
(a) Isa (b) Katha
(c) Brihadaranyaka (d) Svetasvatara
46. Who among the following Vedic deities bears
(a) Carpenter
(c) Goldsmith
et
(b) Coppersmith
(d) Weaver
56. A story of Sunahsesha, in which his father Ajigarta
is stated to have sold him to Harishchandra,
occurs in :
resemblance with Avestan God ‘Ahurmazda’ ? (a) Aitareya Brahmana
(a) Indra (b) Varuna (b) Gopatha Brahmana
(c) Rudra (d) Vishnu (c) Svetasvatara Upnishad
47. Who among the following was a commentator of (d) Brihadaranyaka Upnishad
the Manusmriti ? 57. Which of the following Upnisads includes
(a) Asahaya (b) Visvarupa Itihasa-Purana in the list of subjects to be taught
(c) Bhattasvami (d) Medhatithi to disciples?
48. Which of the following is also called (a) Mundaka Upnishad
Adharvayuveda ? (b) Chhandogya Upnishad
(a) Rigveda (b) Yajurveda (c) Prasna Upnishad
(c) Samveda (d) Atharveda (d) Katha Upnishad

History || A-13
58. Which of the following Mandalas of Rigveda is 68. Which of the following inscriptions tells about
described the battle of ten kings? the Aryan’s movement from Iran to India?
(a) Second Mandala (b) Fifth Mandala (a) Mansehra (b) Shahbajgarhi
(c) Seventh Mandala (d) Ninth Mandala (c) Boghazkoi (d) Junagarh
59. Who among the following wrote Sanskrit 69. Name the tribe which does not belong to the
grammar? Panchajana of Rigvedic Aryans?
(a) Panini (b) Manu (a) Yadu (b) Puru
(c) Kalidasa (d) Charak (c) Turvasa (d) Kikat
ww
60. Who wrote the first textbook on Jyotis?
(a) Panini
(c) Katyayan
(b) Patanjali
(d) Bhrigu
70. In which of the Vedas, Sabha and Samiti are
called as two daughters of Prajapati?
(a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
w.E
61. Ashtadhyayi was written by :
(a) Panini
(c) Vedvyas
(b) Katyayan
(d) Shukadeva
(c) Yajurveda (d) Atharvaveda
71. The largest number of the Mantras in Rigveda
belong to :
asy
62. The words “Satyameva Jayate” in the state
emblem of India have been adopted from which
one of the following?
(a) Agni
(c) Vishnu
(b) Varuna
(d) Rudra

(a) Mundaka Upnishad
(b) Katha Upnishad En 72. Which of the following Upanishad is the smallest?
(a) Mundaka
(c) Katha
(b) Mandukya
(d) Taitariya

(c) Mandukya Upnishad
(d) Chhandogya Upnishad
gin
63. The great law given of ancient time was :
73. Which of the following Puranaa is the earliest?
(a) Matsya (b) Vishnu
(a) Vatsyayana
(c) Manu
(b) Ashoka
(d) Panini ee
64. Which of the following Upnishad is the earliest?
(c) Bhagvat
(a) Urban
(c) Mixed
(d) Markandey
74. The economy of Rigvedic time was :
rin (b) Rural

(d) None of these
(a) Chhandogya Upanishad
(b) Mundakopnishad
(c) Brihdaranyak Upanishad
God in Rigveda? g.n
75. Who among the following is regarded as War
(d) Taitariya Upanishad

65. The largest number of Rigvedic hymns are
devoted to :
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(a) Agni
(c) Surya
et
(b) Indra
(d) Varuna
76. Sayana the famous commentator of the Vedic
texts, was patronised by :
(c) Rudra (d) Vishnu (a) Parmara rulers (b) Satvahana rulers
66. During the Rigvedic period, ‘Niska’ was an (c) Vijaynagar rulers (d) Vakataka rulers
ornament of : 77. Which of the following rivers is referred to
(a) Ear (b) Neck as Matetama, Devitama and Naditama in the
(c) Arm (d) Wrist Rigveda?
67. Which of the following were regarded as the hub (a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati
of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period? (c) Ganga (d) Yamuna
(a) Anga and Magadh 78. The word Yava mentioned in Rigveda is used for
(b) Kosal and Videha which agricultural product?
(c) Kuru and Panchal (a) Barley (b) Gram
(d) Matsya and Surasena (c) Rice (d) Wheat


Religious Movement 90. In which language, did Mahavir Swami deliver
79. Buddha means : his sermons?
(a) The enlightened one (a) Sanskrit (b) Ardha-Magadhi
(b) The religious preacher (c) Vaidarbhi (d) Suraseni
(c) The genius 91. The twenty-third Jain Tirthankara was associated
(d) The powerful with
80. Gautam Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at (a) Vaishali (b) Kausambi
(c) Varanasi (d) Sravasti
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Kushinagar
92. Which one among the following Tirthankaras
ww
(c) Bodhgaya
region of
(d) Rajgriha
81. The second Buddhist council was held during the
was according to the Svetamber tradition, a lady?
(a) Sumatinatha
(c) Mallinatha
(b) Shantinatha
(d) Arishtanemi
w.E
(a) Ajatashatru
(c) Kalashoka
(b) Kanishka
(d) Ashoka
82. Who is supposed to be the future Buddha in
93. The teaching of Parsvanatha is collectively

known as
(a) Triratna (b) Pancha Mahavrata
Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) Krakuchanda (b) Amitabha
(c) Maitreya
asy
(d) Kanak Muni
(c) Panchsila (d) Chaturyama
94. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been
mentioned in the early Buddhist literature as
(a) Bodhagaya En
83. Where did the Mahasamghika school arise ?
(b) Rajagriha
(a) Nigantha Nataputta
(b) Vardhamana
(c) Sravasti
gin
(d) Vaishali
84. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism?
(a) Jatakas (b) Acharanga Sutra
(c) Vesaliya
(d) Videhaputta
95. The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavir Swami
(c) Digh Nikaya
ee
(d) Sumangalavilasini
85. Where was the order of nuns established by
Gautama Buddha ?
was held at
(a) Champa
(c) Takshshila
rin (b) Vaishali
(d) Nalanda
96. The Tripitaka was written in
(a) Kapilvastu
(c) Rajgriha
(b) Vaishali
(d) Sravasti
86. The earliest epigraphic evidence mentioning the
(a) Brahmi
(c) Pali g.n(b) Kharosthi
(d) Sanskrit
birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha is obtained
from
(a) Sarnath
(c) Kausambi
(b) Sravasti
(d) Rummindei

of Asia?
(a) Jesus Christ
(b) Lord Buddha
et
97. Who amongst the following is known as the Light
(c) Prophet Mohammad

87. What is Kalyan Mitra in Buddhist philosophy? (d) Zarathustra
(a) Prabandhan (b) Dharmachakra 98. Who was the author of Buddha Charita?
(c) Astangika Marg (d) Triratna (a) Asvaghosha (b) Nagarjuna
88. To whom of his following disciples did Buddha (c) Nagasen (d) Vasumitra
preach his last sermon? 99. Which one of the following is not included in the
(a) Anand (b) Sariputra eight-fold path of Buddhism?
(c) Subhadra (d) Upali (a) Right speech (b) Right contemplation
89. Main element (features) of Buddhist philosophy (c) Right desire (d) Right conduct
is 100. Yapaniya was a school of
(a) Pratitya Samutpad (b) Jiva and Ajiva (a) Buddhism (b) Janism
(c) Syadvada (d) Triratna (c) Shaivism (d) Vaisnavism

History || A-15
101. Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana in the republic 113. Lumbini was the birth place of Gautam Buddha is
of attested by an inscription of
(a) Mallas (b) Lichhavis (a) Ashoka
(c) Shakyas (d) Palas (b) Pushyamitra Shunga
102. Where was the third Buddhist council held? (c) Kanishka
(a) Vaishali (b) Pataliputra (d) Harsha
(c) Kashmir (d) Rajgriha 114. At which place, did Gautam Buddha give his first
103. Which one of the following is not a part of early
sermon ?
Jains literature?
ww
(a) Therigatha (b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga (d) Brihatkalpasutra
104. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
(a) Vaishali
(c) Rajgriha
(b) Vallabhi
(d) Sarnath
115. Sarnath is in the state of

w.E (a) Mahayana Buddhism
(b) Himayana Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(a) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
116. Svetambara Agama was finally edited at the Jain
(d) The Lokayata School
asy
105. In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisatya
Avalokitesvar was also known as
council of
(a) Vaishali
(c) Pawa
(b) Vallabhi
(d) Vidarbha
(a) Vajrapani
(c) Padmapani
En
(b) Manjusri
(d) Maitreya
117. Which one of the following is considered the best
Stupa?

of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara gin
106. Who among the following was not a contemporary
(b) Gautama Buddha

(a) Amravati
(c) Sanchi
(b) Bharhut
(d) Bodhgaya
118. The first Buddhist council was held during the
(c) Milinda
the region of king

(a) Ashoka
(d) Prasenjit
(b) Kaniska
ee
107. The fourth Buddhist council was convened during
region of
(a) Aniruddha
(c) Bimbisara
rin (b) Ajatsatru
(d) Udayabhadra
119. The originator of the Jain religion is
(c) Kalashok
108. Buddha was born at
(a) Lumbini
(d) Ajatasatru
(b) Kapilvastu

(a) Rishabhdeo
g.n (b) Arya Sudharma
(c) Mahavir Swami (d) Parshvanath
(c) Pataliputra
(c) Shakya
(d) Vaishali
109. Name the clan Buddha belonged to
(a) Gnathrika (b) Maurya
(d) Koliya
Buddha’s life is
(a) Sarnath
(c) Kushinagar
et
120. The Stupa site not connected with any incident of
(b) Sanchi
(d) Bodhgaya
110. Who presided over the fourth Buddhist council in 121. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of
Kashmir? which one of the following?
(a) Asvagosha (b) Upagupta (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(c) Vasumitra (d) Mahakasyapa (c) Sikhism (d) Vaishnavism
111. Who of the following was a contemporary of 122. Milinda Panho is in the form of a dialogue
Gautama Buddha?
between the king Menander and Buddhist Monk
(a) Bhadrabahu (b) Kalashok
(a) Nagasena (b) Nagarjuna
(c) Parsvanath (d) Vardhaman Mahavir
112. Buddhist, Hindu and Jain Rock-cut caves coexist (c) Nagabhatta (d) Kumarilbhatta
at 123. According to Boddhist, the main aim of life is
(a) Ajanta (b) Elephanta (a) Nirvana (b) Moksha
(c) Ellora (d) Karle (c) Kaivalya (d) Nirjara


124. Which of the following principles was added to 137. Syadvad is a doctrine of
Jainism by Mahavira? (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(a) Satya (b) Ahinsa (c) Shaivism (d) Vaishnavism
(c) Brahmacharya (d) Aparigraha 138. Who became the chief of Jain Sangh after the
125. Which of the following places is associated with death of Mahavira?
Jainism? (a) Indrabhuti (b) Jambu
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Pava (c) Sthulbhadra (d) Sudharma
(c) Sarnath (d) Sravasti 139. Who among the following is given the credit of
126. Who is believed by the Jainas to be the first
ww Tirthankar?
(a) Rishabhadeva (b) Mahavira
(c) Neminath (d) Parshvanath
carrying Jainism in South India?
(a) Indrabhuti
(c) Bhadrabahu
(b) Sthulbhadra
(d) Sudharma
w.E
127. Who was the teacher of Gautam Buddha?
(a) Gautam
(c) Asanga
(b) Alara Kalam
(d) Sudharman
140. Vikramshila Mahavihar was founded by
(a) Harsha
(c) Kumarpal
(b) Gopal
(d) Dharmapal
(a) Vedic
(c) Jainism
asy
128. Tripitaka texts are related with which religion?
(b) Buddhism
(d) Shaivism
141. Mahavir was born at
(a) Kapilvastu
(c) Kundgram
(b) Lumbini
(d) Champa
Buddhist art? En
129. Which of the following is not representation of 142. Who was the last Tirthankara ?
(a) Mahavir Swami (b) Aristnemi
(a) Stupa
(c) Chaitya
gin
(b) Vihar
(d) Relic tower
130. Who was the founder of Mahayan sect of
(c) Parshvanath (d) None of these
143. The first Jain council was convened during the
reign of
Buddhism?
(a) Buddhadeva
(c) Dharmtrat
(b) Ghoshak
(d) Asang
131. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
ee (a) Bimbisara
(b) Shisunaga
(c) Mahapadamnand
rin
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
(a) Basava (b) Lakulisha
(c) Matsyendranath (d) Kulshekhar
132. Who was the founder of Pashupat Sampradaya?
g.n
144. In which of the following places, Mahavir Swami
gave his first sermon?
(a) Kulshekhar
(c) Bhavbhuti
(b) Lakulisha
(d) Shambhunath
133. Who was the founder of Sunyavada?
(a) Asang (b) Basubandhu
(a) Vaishali
(c) Nalanda
et
(b) Rajgriha
(d) Champa
145. In which Jain council, Jain dharm was divided in
Svetamber and Digamber?
(c) Vasumitra (d) Nagarjuna (a) First council (b) Second council
134. Who was the founder of Vigyanvada or (c) Third council (d) Fourth council
Yogachar? 146. Who was the president of first Jain council?
(a) Ashvaghosh (b) Nagasen (a) Bhadrabahu (b) Sthalabahu
(c) Maitreyanath (d) Aryadeva (c) Devardhigan (d) Nagarjuna Suri
135. Who was the founder of Aajivak Sampradaya? 147. Who was the author of Kalpsutra?
(a) Puran Kasyapa (b) Makkali Gosala (a) Vasumitra (b) Hemchandra
(c) Aryadeva (d) Ajit Keskamblin (c) Bhadrabahu (d) Sthulbhadra
136. Who was the founder of Lokayat sect? 148. Mahavir Swami breathed his last at
(a) Brihaspati (b) Manu (a) Rajgriha (b) Pawapuri
(c) Vigyaneswer (d) Pakudh Kachayan (c) Vaishali (d) Champa

History || A-17
149. The custom Santhara is related to which of the 153. Mother of Gautam Buddha belonged to which
following sects? dynasty?
(a) Jain (b) Buddha (a) Shakya dynasty (b) Maya dynasty
(c) Shaiva (d) Vaishnava
(c) Lichchavi dynasty (d) Koliyan dynasty
150. The first sermon of Buddha made at Saranath is
called 154. Who became the first follower of Mahavira?
(a) Dharmachakra Parivartan (a) Jamali (b) Yashoda
(b) Dharma Sansthapan (c) Aanojja (d) Trishala
(c) Dharma Sabha
ww
(d) Maha Parinirvan
151. In the Bhagawat religion, the number of forms of
Bhakti
155. Who installed the grand image of Gomateshwar

at Shravanbelgola?
(a) Chamundaraya (b) Krishna I
w.E
(a) 10
(c) 4
(b) 9
(d) 5
152. Amaravati Stupa is situated in
(c) Kumar Pal (d) Tejpal
156. Buddha is depicted on the coins of
(a) Wima Kadphises (b) Kanishka

(a) Uttar Pradesh
asy
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
(c) Nahapana (d) Budhgupta
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 21. (d) 41. (b) 61. (a) 81. (c) 101. (a) 121. (b) 141. (c)
2. (b) 22. (c) 42. (c) 62. (a) 82. (c) 102. (b) 122. (a) 142. (a)
3. (d) 23. (c) 43. (b) 63. (c) 83. (d) 103. (a) 123. (a) 143. (d)
4. (d) 24. (a) 44. (a) 64. (a) 84. (b) 104. (c) 124. (c) 144. (b)
5. (b) 25. (a) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (b) 105. (c) 125. (b) 145. (a)
6. (a) 26. (c) 46. (a) 66. (b) 86. (d) 106. (c) 126. (a) 146. (b)
ww 7.
8.
(d)
(c)
27.
28.
(b)
(a)
47.
48.
(d)
(b)
67.
68.
(c)
(c)
87.
88.
(c)
(c)
107.
108.
(b)
(a)
127.
128.
(b)
(b)
147.
148.
(c)
(b)
w.E
9.
10.
11.
(b)
(d)
(a)
29.
30.
31.
(a)
(a)
(c)
49.
50.
51.
(c)
(c)
(d)
69.
70.
71.
(d)
(d)
(a)
89.
90.
91.
(a)
(b)
(c)
109.
110.
111.
(c)
(c)
(d)
129.
130.
131.
(d)
(d)
(a)
149.
150.
151.
(a)
(a)
(b)
12.
13.
(c)
(b)
32.
33.
(d)
(c)
52.
53.asy (d)
(a)
72.
73.
(b)
(a)
92.
93.
(c)
(d)
112.
113.
(c)
(a)
132.
133.
(b)
(d)
152.
153.
(c)
(d)
14.
15.
(b)
(c)
34.
35.
(a)
(d)
54.
55. En
(c)
(a)
74.
75.
(b)
(b)
94.
95.
(a)
(d)
114.
115.
(d)
(d)
134.
135.
(c)
(b)
154.
155.
(a)
(a)
16.
17.
(a)
(c)
36.
37.
(a)
(a)
56.
57.
(a)
(b)gin 76.
77.
(c)
(b)
96.
97.
(c)
(b)
116.
117.
(b)
(c)
136.
137.
(a)
(b)
156. (b)
18.
19.
20.
(d)
(c)
(a)
38.
39.
40.
(c)
(c)
(d)
58.
59.
60.
(c)
(a)
(d)
ee
78.
79.
80.
(a)
rin
(a)
(b)
98.
99.
100.
(a)
(c)
(b)
118.
119.
120.
(b)
(a)
(b)
138.
139.
140.
(d)
(c)
(d)
Hints & Solutions

g .ne
1.
Vedic Period
(a) Vedic literature is also known as Shruti. The
t
4. (d) The staple diet of the people was milk, ghee
(clarified butter), vegetables, fruit and barley. On
literature which has been handed down from time special occasions like a religious feast or the arrival
immemorial by verbal transmission. of a guest, a more elaborate meal was organized.
2. (b) The Aryans were the founder of Vedic culture. Meats from the ox, goat and sheep were served
The Aryans entered India through the Khyber along with intoxicating drinks, like Sura and
pass, around 1500 BC. They adopted the settled Madhu.
agricultural lifestyle of their predecessors and 5. (b) Indra was the most important divinity and
established small agrarian communities across was lord of war. 250 hymns have been devoted
the state of Punjab. The Aryans are believed to
to only Indra in Rigveda, which is highest for any
have brought with them the horse, developed the
of the Gods. His other names are: Car-warrior
Sanskrit language and made significant inroads
into the religion and culture of that time. (Rathestha); A winner ( Jitendra) and Soma

History || A-19
Drinker (Somapa). Indra is mentioned as son of 13. (b) Vedanga does not come under Shruti
Dyaus. He killed a demon Vritra, so he is known as literature. It comes from post-Vedic literature.
The Vedanga (limbs of the Veda) are six auxiliary
Vritrahan. He destroyed the forests so also known
disciplines traditionally associated with the study
as Purandhar. He held the thunderbolt (Vajra) with and understanding of the Vedas. They are Shiksha,
which he destroyed the enemies. Kalpa, Vyakarana, Nirukta, Chandas and Jyotisha.
6. (a) The book ‘Return of the Aryans’ was written 14. (b) The river Jhelum is called Vitasta in the
by Bhagvan S. Gidvani. This book tells the epic Rigveda. The Vitasta is mentioned as one of the
major rivers by the holy scriptures of the Indo-
ww story of the Aryans – a gripping tale of kings and

poets, seers and gods, battles and romance and the
rise and fall of civilizations.
Aryans — the Rigveda. It has been speculated
that the Vitasta must have been one of the seven
rivers (Sapta Sindhu) mentioned so many times in
w.E
7. (d) The Sapta Sindhu (seven rivers) plays a
prominent part in the hymns of the Rigveda. The
the Rigveda.
15. (c) The Gopatha Brahmana is the only
Brahmana, a genre of the prose texts describing
asy
Rigveda mentions rivers Kabul, Swat, Kurram,
Gumal, Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej,
etc. which proves that the settlements were in
the Vedic rituals, associated with the Atharvaveda.
16. (a) Battle of ten kings is the story of the
campaign and the decisive battle connected with

Afghanistan and Punjab as well.
En
The river Tapti is not mentioned in Rigveda.
sages Vishwamitra and Vashistha. Vishwamitra
organized a confederacy against Sudas of all those
8.
gin
(c) The earliest expressions of caste can be found
in one of India’s religious scripture known as the
who had enmity with Sudas.
17. (c) Dasarajana was the battle of ten kings. The
name of confederate kings involved in this war
ee
Vedas. In the beginning, the caste system was not
rigid. But in the later Vedic period, it became rigid
when the Brahmins and the Kshatriyas became
powerful. So, the rigidification of caste system is
is actually slightly over ten, but was referred to
roughly as ‘dasha’ in the Rigveda. They were
rin
Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina, Paktha,
Bhalanas, Shiva, Vishanin, Simyu, Vaikrna and
9.
the major impact of Vedic culture on India.
(b) The Vedic deities Agni is not mentioned in
others.
g.n
18. (d) In the tenth book (Tenth Mandala) of Rig-
10.
the Boghazkoi inscription. Four Vedic deities, i.e.
Indra, Mitra, Varuna and Nasatya were mentioned
in Boghazkoi inscription.
(d) Varuna, the Vedic god was the custodian of
et
veda, 129th hymn (Suktam) deals with the origin
of the universe and creation.
19. (c) The famous Battle of ten kings between
Bharat and the host of ten kings was fought near
the river of Parushi. In the most important tribal
the moral and cosmic order. He was also concerned
war, the king of Bharata, Sudas was victorious.
with societal affairs other than being a deification
21. (d) Atharvaveda concerned with the origin of
of nature. Indian medicine. It also consists mainly of magical
11. (a) The river Chenab was known in the Vedic spells and charms.
period as Chandrabhaga also Ashkini or Iskmati 22. (c) The Upanishads form the core of Indian
and as Acesines to the Ancient Greeks. philosophy. They give us both spiritual vision
12. (c) The Sabha is called Narishta which meant and philosophical argument and it is by a strictly
a ‘resolution of many’ that cannot be broken. It personal effort that one can reach the truth.
performed the executive functions. In the later 23. (c) Artha, Dharma and Kama are a part of
Vedic period it lost its importance due to the rise Trivarga. But Moksh is not a part of Trivarga, it is
of royal power. a part of Chaturvarga.


24. (a) The Arctic Home in the Vedas is a book involves uncertainty, chance, the vagaries of
written at the end of 1898 on the origin of Aryans fortune. The dice game is representative of the
by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It propounded challenges that a king must endure during his
the theory that the North Pole was the original reign. The game of dice is a part of the rituals of
home of Aryans during pre-glacial period which Rajasuya Yagya.
they had to leave due to the ice deluge around 34. (a) The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are first time
8000 BC and had to migrate to the Northern parts mentioned in the Rigveda. Vedic literature hymn
of Europe and Asia. In support to his theory, Tilak that starts with the rivers as Ganga, Yamuna,
ww has presented certain Vedic hymns, and Vedic

calendars with interpretations of the contents in
detail.
35.
Saraswati and then other rivers to the West.
(d) The Gayatri Mantra is a highly revered
mantra, based on a Vedic Sanskrit verse from
w.E
25. (a) Maximum number of Shlokas in Rigveda are
written in the memory of Indra. Indra was the most
popular God in Vedic period.
26. (c) The term ‘Jana’ occurs 275 times in the
a hymn of the Rigveda. The Gayatri mantra is
dedicated to Savitr, is hence called Savitri. It is
considered to be among the holiest mantras of
Rajya occurs only once. asy

Rigveda. But Janapada is not mentioned. The term
36.
Hinduism.
(a) Lopamudra was a Brahmavadini who
En
27. (b) Sabha and Samiti were the two popular
assemblies existed in Vedic period. The most
important work of the Samiti was to elect the king.
composed some hymns of the Vedas. Many hymns
of Rigveda were composed by women and they
gin
28. (a) The ancient Sage Patanjali was an expounder
of the Yoga Sutras one of the most important text
were called Brahmavadini. The prominents in them
were Lopamudra, Vishwawara, Sikta, Nivavari,
Ghosa, etc.
emotions.
ee
of yoga covering all aspects of life. Patanjali’s
Yoga Sutras describe the working of the mind and
29. (a) The Gotra classification came into existence

37. (a) Rigvedic hymns mention several rivers. In
rin
the text Sindhu (or Indus), Saraswati (now lost),
the Gomati (modern Gomal), the Krumu (modern
probably during the Rigvedic period. The concept
of Gotra was first attempted among Brahmins to
classify themselves among different groups. In g.n
Kurram) and the Kubha (modern Kabul) are
mentioned. The most important river seems to be
the Sindhu and its tributaries–Shutudri (Sutluj),
present days, marriage is not allowed within the
same Gotra in order to avoid impure matrimony.
This thinking is in tune with the modern day
genetic paradigms of hybrid vigour.
38.
and Vitasta (Jhelum). et
Vipas (Beas), Parushni (Ravi), Asikni (Chenab)
(c) The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and

Yama about transmigration of soul is mentioned
30. (a) The word Visamatta was used in the in the Kathopanishad.
latter Vedic age for the king. In the Shatapatha 39. (c) Hindu flood myth from the Satapatha
Brahmana, the king is described as devourer of Brahmana, the Matsya Avatar saves the pious and
the people.
the first man, Manu, and advises him to build a
31. (c) The word Aghanya is referred to as the cow in
giant boat.
many mantras of Vedas. The meaning of this word
means, “not to be killed under any circumstances”. 40. (d) Yajurveda has two main branches called
32. (d) The Samhita of Yajurveda that contains only Shukla Yajurveda and Krishna Yajurveda.
hymns and no prose is Vayasaneyi. Shukla Yajurveda is also called as “Vajasameyi
33. (c) Dicing seems to have a special significance Samhita” and it was brought to this world by Sage
when connected with myths and rituals. Dicing Yaajnavalkya after learning from the God Sun.

History || A-21
41. (b) In the battle of ten kings, Vashistha was the 52. (d) The Sulvasutra are sutra texts belonging to
priest of Bharata tribes. Vashistha and his family the Srauta ritual and deal with complex fire altars
are glorified in their role in the Battle of the Ten of various shapes constructed with bricks of
Kings, making him the only mortal besides Bhava specific shapes and area. This proves that despite
to have a Rigvedic hymn dedicated to him. no existence of algebra, there was an awareness
43. (b) The Satapatha Brahmana is a Hindu of precise purely geometrical calculations.
sacred text which describes details of Vedic 53. (a) The first hymn of each Mandala has
rituals, including philosophical and mythological addressed to Agni and his name is the first word
ww background, is related to Yajurveda.

44. (a) The Kekaya kingdom was situated on the
bank of river Beas, east of Gandhar kingdom. King
of the Rigveda. The remaining hymns are mainly
addressed to Indra, Varuna, Mitra, the Ashvins,
the Maruts, Usas, Surya, Rbhus, Rudra, Vayu,
w.E Aswapati ruled Kekaya when Janak was the king

of Videha.
45. (c) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad is written in
Brhaspati, Visnu, Heaven and Earth, and all the
Gods.
54. (c) “Rigvedic Aryans and the Harappans might
asy
the prose. It is contained within the Shatapatha
Brahmana, and its status as an independent
Upanishad may be considered a secondary
have been same people”. The theory was given by
B.B. Lal.
55. (a) Rigveda mentions artisans as the carpenter,
En
extraction of a portion of the Brahmana text. It
consists of three sections or Khandas: the Madhu
the chariot-maker, the weaver, the leather worker,
the potter, etc. This indicates that they practised
the Khila Khanda.

gin
Khanda, the Yajnavalkya or the Muni Khanda and
46. (a) Indra was the Vedic deities bears resemblance

all these crafts. Carpenter was the most celebrated
craftsman in the Vedic age.
56. (a) The story of Sunahsesha in which his
ee
with Avestan god Ahurmazda. In Zoroastrianism as
reflected in the Avesta, Ahura Mazda is identified
with the beneficent spirit and directly opposed
to the destructive one. He is all-wise, liberal,
father Ajigarta is stated to have sold him to
rin
Harishchandra, occurs in Aitareya Brahmana.
57. (b) Chhandogya Upanishad belongs Puranas,
together with Itihas, had acquired the high status
undeceiving and the creator of everything good.
47. (d) Medhatithi was first Sanskrit scholar who did g.n
of a fifth or Panchama Veda.
58. (c) Battle of the Ten Kings is a battle alluded to
commentary on Manusmriti a Dhramashastra. The
exact date of Medhatithi’s writing is unclear, and
he has been placed anywhere between about 820
and 1050 AD.
et
in Mandala 7 of the Rigveda. It is a battle between
Aryans allied with other tribes of the north-west
India and guided by the royal sage Vishvamitra,
oppose the Trtsu (Bharata) king Sudas in battle,
49. (c) Soma was one of the more important gods in but are defeated.
the Rigveda. The ninth Mandala of the Rigveda, 59. (a) Panini was a Sanskrit grammarian who gave a
also called the Soma Mandala, has 114 hymns, comprehensive and scientific theory of phonetics,
entirely devoted to Soma Pavamana, ‘Purifying phonology and morphology of Sanskrit language.
Soma’, the sacred potion of the Vedic religion. 60. (d) Maharishi Bhrigu was the first compiler of
50. (c) Yadu tribe is one of the Indo-Aryan tribes predictive astrology, Jyotisha. He is credited as the
mentioned in the Rigveda. They are mostly paired father of Hindu astrology and the first astrological
with Turvasu in Rigveda. treatise Bhrigu Samhita is attributed to his
51. (d) The first reference to Krishna occurs in the authorship.The Bhrigu Samhita is an astrological
Chhandogya Upanishad of perhaps the sixth (Jyotish) classic attributed to Maharishi Bhrigu
century B.C. during the Vedic period.


61. (a) Ashtadhyayi is a Sanskrit treatise on grammar 72. (b) Mandukya Upanishad is the smallest among
written in the 6th to 5th century BC by the Indian the ten principal Upanishads. Though being
grammarian Panini. This is one of the earliest smallest in size, it is highest in philosophy and
known grammars of Sanskrit language. deals with the subject of Pure Consciousness
62. (a) ‘Satyameva Jayate’ is a mantra from the directly.
ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. 73. (a) Matsya Purana is one of the oldest of the 18
Upon independence of India, it was adopted as post-Vedic Hindu scriptures called the Puranas. It
the national motto of India. narrates the story of Matsya, the first of ten major
63. (c) Manu-smriti (Laws of Manu), traditionally, Avatars of the Hindu god Vishnu.
ww the most authoritative of the books of the Hindu

code (Dharmashastra) in India. It is attributed to
the legendary first man and lawgiver, Manu. In its
77. (b) The river Sarswati is referred to as Matetama,
Devitama and Naditama in Rigveda. The Saraswati
is praised lavishly in the Rigveda as the best of all
w.E present form, it dates from the 1st century BCE.

65. (b) The Rigvedic hymns are dedicated to various
deities, chief of whom are Indra, a heroic god
the rivers, especially in the Nadistuti Sukta.
78. (a) It is accepted that the word ‘yava’ in the oldest
texts, including the Rigveda, applied to any type
asy
praised for having slain his enemy Vrtra; Agni,
the sacrificial fire; and Soma, the sacred potion or
the plant it is made from.
of grain that was grounded into flour. Yet, many
Indologists treat the word as meaning specifically
barley.
En
66. (b) In Rigvedic period, Niska was a gold necklace
in the beginning but later it was also used as a coin
for giving as a reward to a poet.
Religious Movement
79. (a) The word Buddha actually means enlightened
gin
67. (c) The Aryans further moved towards east in the
later Vedic period. The Satapatha Brahmana refers
one and is the name given to Gautama Siddhartha
after his enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
80. (b) Kushinagar is an important Buddhist pilgrimage
ee
to the expansion of Aryans to the eastern Gangetic
plains. Several tribal groups and kingdoms are
mentioned in the later Vedic literature. One
important development during this period is the
site, where Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana
after his death.
rin
81. (c) The Second Buddhist council took place
approximately one hundred years after the Buddha’s
growth of large kingdoms Kuru and Panchala
kingdoms and they were regarded as the hub of
Aryan culture. g.n
parinirvana. King Kalashoka was the Second
Council’s patron and the meeting took place at
Vaishali.
68. (c) One of the Boghazkoi inscriptions proves
that the Aryans are from Central Asia and their
movements from Iran to India.
69. (d) Panchjanya is the common name given to
et
82. (c) Mahayana Buddhism emerged in the first century
CE as a more liberal, accessible interpretation of
Buddhism. Maitreya is a transcendent Bodhisattva
named as the universal Buddha of a future time in
Mahayana Buddhism.
five most ancient vedic tribes. It is supposed that
they are all descendants of the Five Folks and are 83. (d) Mahasanghika is the name of an early Buddhist
known by that name, e.g. Yadav for descendants school in India, during the Second Buddhist council
of Yadu, Paurav for descendants of Puru and so on. held at Vaishali. The Mahasanghika school represents
Kikat tribe does not belong to the Panchajahya of the first major schism ever recorded in Buddhism.
Rigvedic aryans. 84. (b) Acharanga Sutra is not a text of Buddhism. It
is a canonical sacred text of Jainism based on Lord
70. (d) During the Vedic period Sabha was a body of
Mahavira’s teachings.
village elders and Samiti was a general assembly
85. (b) The order of Buddhist monks and nuns was
in which all the members of the community
founded by Gautama Buddha during his lifetime
participated. Sabha and Samiti are depicted
over 2500 years ago. Buddha instituted a community
as the two daughters of Prajapati mentioned in of nuns in Vaishali at the request of his aunt
Atharvaveda. Mahaprajapati.

History || A-23
86. (d) Rummindei Pillar Inscription says that The preserved in the Pali language. It is the most complete
Beloved of the Gods, the king Piyadassi, when he extant early Buddhist canon. It was composed
had been consecrated twenty years, came in person in North India, and preserved orally until it was
find referenced the place where Buddha Sakyamuni committed to writing during the Fourth Buddhist
was born. He caused a stone enclosure to be made Council in Sri Lanka in 29 BCE, approximately
and a stone pillar to be erected. As the Lord was born four hundred and fifty four years after the death of
here in the village of Lumbini, he has exempted it Gautama Buddha.
from tax, and fixed its contribution [i.e. of grain] at 97. (b) Gautam Buddha, who was prince Siddhartha of
ww one-eighth.
87. (c) Astangika Marg is Kalyan Mitra in Buddhist
philosophy. Buddha’s Astangika Marga are :
Kapilavastu in India/Asia before his enlightenment,
is called “The Light of Asia”.
98. (a) Buddha Charita (Acts of the Buddha) is an epic

w.E Right belief, Right thought, Right speech, Right

action, Right living, Right effort, Right recollection
and Right meditation.
88. (c) Buddha’s last ordained disciple was a very old
poem in the Sanskrit Mahakavya style on the life of
Gautama Buddha by Asvaghosa, composed in the
early second century CE.
asy
Brahmin in the name of Subhadra who came to pay
his last respects to him and asked for ordination.
99. (c) The eightfold Path in Buddhism, is an early
formulation of the path to enlightenment. The idea
of the Eightfold Path appears from the first sermon of
enlightenment and passed away.

En
Immediately after ordination, Subhadra attained
89. (a) Pratitya Samutpad is the main element of

the Buddha, which delivered after his enlightenment.
Right desire is not included in the Eight fold path of
gin
Buddhist philosophy. It refers to one of the central
concepts in the Buddhist tradition that all things arise
Buddhism.
100. (b) Yapaniya was a school of Jainism. The saints
of the Yapaniya school practised nudity like the
ee
in dependence upon multiple causes and conditions.
90. (b) Mahavir Swami delivered his first sermon in
the language of the common people called Ardha
Magadhi and Prakrit.
Digambaras and believed in the liberation of women
rin
in conformity with the Svetambaras.
101. (a) Lord Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at
Kushinagar, the mortal remains of Tathagat were kept
91. (c) Tirthankar Parshvanath was the son of king
Ashvasena and queen Vama of Varanasi. He achieved
Nirvana on the Sammet Sikhar. He lived in Varanasi g.n
in the ‘parliament house’, of the Republic of Mallas.
102. (b) According to the Theravada commentaries
around 800 BC. Parsvanatha is the 23rd Jain
Tirthankar.
92. (c) Svetambaras maintain that the 19th Tirthankara,
Mallinath, was a woman. They also believe that
et
and chronicles, the Third Buddhist Council was
convened by the Mauryan king Ashoka at Pataliputra
(today’s Patna), under the leadership of the monk
Moggaliputta Tissa. Its objective was to purify the
women are able to obtain Moksha. Buddhist movement, particularly from opportunistic
93. (d) Parsvanatha was the twenty-third Tirthankara of factions which had been attracted by the royal
Jainism. Chaturyama Dharma the ‘fourfold teaching’ patronage.
of the Parshvanath. Chaturyama Dharma, abstention 103. (a) Therigatha is not a part of early Jains literature.
from violence, theft, untruth and acquisitiveness. The Therigatha is a Buddhist scripture, a collection
94. (a) In the Buddhist Pali Canon, Mahavira is referred of short poems supposedly recited by early members
to as Nigantha Nataputta. Nigantha Nataputta refers of the Buddhist Sangha in India around 600 BC.
to. A Nirgrantha refers to Jains. A person who has 104. (c) In Jainism, Ahinsa is the standard by which all
attained Kevalya can be a Nirgrantha. actions are judged. For a householder observing the
96. (c) The Tripitaka is the standard collection of small vows (anuvrata), the practice of ahinsa requires
scriptures in the Theravada Buddhist tradition, as that one should not kill any animal life.


105. (c) Avalokitesvara is one of the most widely revered Jains produced in writing the religious canon under
Bodhisattvas in mainstream Mahayana Buddhism, the head of the shraman Devardhigani. Svetambara
as well as unofficially in Theravada Buddhism. Agama was finally edited at the Jain council of
In Sanskrit, Avalokitesvara is also referred to as Vallabhi.
Padmapani (Holder of the Lotus) or Lokesvara (Lord 117. (c) Sanchi is considered as the best Stupa. The
of the World). ‘Great Stupa’ at Sanchi is the oldest stone structure
106. (c) King Milinda was not a contemporary of the in India and was originally commissioned by the
other three given in the option. Milinda in Indian Pali emperor Ashoka the Great in the 3rd century BC.
sources was a Greek of the Indo-Greek kingdom (165 118. (b) According to the scriptures of all Buddhist
ww BC–130 BC) who established a large empire in the

South Asia and became a patron of Buddhism.
107. (b) Fourth Buddhist Council is the name of two
schools, the first Buddhist Council was held soon
after the Mahaparinirvana of the Buddha, dated by
the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE,
w.E separate Buddhist council meetings. The first one

was held in the 1st century BC, in Sri Lanka. The
2nd Fourth Buddhist Council is said to have been
under the patronage of king Ajatasatru with the monk
Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapanni caves Rajgriha.
Its objective was to preserve the Buddha’s sayings
asy
convened by the Kushan emperor Kanishka, perhaps
in 78 CE in Jalandhar or in Kashmir.
108. (a) The Lord Buddha was born in 623 BC in the
and the monastic discipline or rules (Vinaya).
119. (a) Jain belief goes to accept unanimously Rishabh
Dev as the founder of Jain religion. Evidences of
En
sacred area of Lumbini located in the Terai plains of
southern Nepal, testified by the inscription on the
pillar erected by the Mauryan Emperor Asoka in 249
this fact are available to the worship of Tirthankar
Rishabh Dev was in vogue before 1st Century BC
BC.
gin
109. (c) Siddhartha’s caste was the Kshatriya. He
There is no doubt that Jain religion has been practised
before Vardhman as well as before Parsvanath.
Names of Rishabh Dev, Ajitnath and Aristhnemi were
ee
belonged to the Shakya clan and was born in the
royal family. His father was Suddhodana and his
mother was Maya. Because of this, he was known as
Shakyamuni “sage of the Shakya clan”, which is the
indicated in Yajurveda. Bhagwat Puran also confirms
rin
that Rishabh Dev was the founder of Jain religion.
120. (b) Sanchi is the oldest extant Buddhist sanctuary.
Although Buddha never visited the site during any
most common name used in the Mahayana literature
to refer to the Buddha.
110. (c) The Fourth Buddhist Council was presided over g.n
of his former lives or during his earthly existence.
121. (b) Anekantavada is one of the most important and
by Vasumitra in Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka
and had to deal with a serious conflict between the
Sarvasthivada teachers of Kashmir and Gandhara.
112. (c) The Ellora caves are an impressive complex of
et
fundamental doctrines of Jainism. It refers to the
notion that truth and reality are perceived differently
from diverse points of view, and that no single point
of view is the complete truth.
Buddhist, Hindu and Jain cave temples carved out 122. (a) Milinda Panha is in the form of a dialogue
of the vertical face of the Charanandri hills between between the Greek King Milinda (Minander I) and
the 6th and 10th centuries AD near the ancient Indian the Buddhist monk Nagasena.
village of Ellora. 124. (c) Mahavira added Brahmacharya (Celibacy) to the
114. (d) Sarnath, is the place where Gautam Buddha first Chaturyama system established by the twenty-third
gave his sermon after his enlightenment. It is one of Tirthankara Parshvanath. Thus, he based it on five
the most sacred places for Buddhist after Bodhgaya principles–Ahinsa, Satya, Asteya, Brahmacharya and
where he got enlightenment. Aparigraha.
115. (d) Sarnath is located 13 kilometres north-east of 125. (b) Pawapuri or Pava is a holy site for Jains located
Varanasi, in Uttar Pradesh. in Nalanda district in Bihar. Around 5th Century
116. (b) Vallabhi has been a famous Jain centre. It was BCE, Mahavira, the last Tirthankara of Jainism
here in 453 or 466 AD, the Vallabhi council of the achieved Moksha or Nirvana here.

History || A-25
127. (b) Alara Kalama was a hermit saint and a teacher but some still hold that Brihaspati was its original
of yogic meditation who lived near Rajgriha. He founder. Brihaspati authored the classic work on
was one of the teachers of Gautama Buddha. Under Indian Materialism, the Brihaspati Sutra.
Alara Kalama Gautama, Buddha practised austerities. 137. (b) Syadvad is a doctrine of Jainism. Syadvad is the
Alara taught Gautama Buddha many things including philosophy of seeing an individual or an object from
meditation. various points of view; trying to understand them and
129. (d) Relic tower is not a representation of Buddhist acquiring the right knowledge of those things.
art. Buddhist architecture consist mainly of Chaityas, 138. (d) After the death of Mahavira, one of his disciple
Viharas, Stupas and Stambhas. Sudharma Swami is said to have taken over the
ww
130. (d) Asanga was born as the son of a Kshatriya father
and Brahmin mother in Purusapura. Current scholars
place him in the fourth century CE. He was perhaps
leadership. He was the head of Jain community till
515 BCE.
140. (d) In 8th century, King Dharampal of Pal dynasty
w.E originally a member of the Mahisasaka school or

the Mulasarvastivada school but later converted to
Mahayana.
formed the world famous Vikramshila Mahavihar in
Antichak village, Kahalgaon.
141. (c) Lord Mahavira was the twenty-fourth and
asy
131. (a) The Lingayat Community was founded by
Basava in the 12th century AD. The Lingayats
are Virashaivites Saivite. The philosophy of the
last Tirthankara of Jain religion. He was born in
Kundagrama, i.e. Basukund of today in 599 BC.
143. (d) First Jain council was held at Pataliputra by
En
Lingayatas was influenced by the teachings of
both Shankarachary and Ramanuja. This sect was
Sthalabahu in the beginning of the third century BC
during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya.
gin
characterised by an anti-Brahmanical spirit.
132. (b) According to scholars, Lakulisha is the
founder of the Pashupata Shaivism sect. According
144. (b) Bhagwan Mahavir’s first sermon (called ‘Divya-
Dhwani’) was delivered on ‘Vipulachala Hill’ near
‘Rajgrahi’. In his preaches, he gave emphasis on
ee
to a tradition stated in the Linga Purana, Lakulisha
is considered as the 28th and the last Avatar
manifestation of Shiva and the propounder of Yoga
system.
non-violence, non-attachment and on Anekant and
Syadvada.
rin
145. (a) The first Jain council (conference) of monks
was held in Pataliputra about 160 years after Lord
133. (d) Sunyavada was founded by an Indian Buddhist
philosopher Nagarjuna (150 – 250 CE) and based
on the Prajnaparamita Sutras, expounding the g.n
Mahavira’s nirvana. Monk Bhadrabahu, who had the
knowledge of all 12 Angas, could not be present at
philosophy of emptiness, voidness (Sunyata), which
later also influenced Ch’an in China and Zen in Japan.
134. (c) Maitreyanatha ( 270–350 CE) is one of the three
founders of the Vigyanvada or Yogachar school
et
that meeting. The rest of the monks could compile
only the first eleven Angas by recollection and thus,
the twelfth Anga was lost. The monks from the South
did not agree with this compilation, and the first split
of Buddhist philosophy, along with Asanga and in Jainism started. Jains divided into two main groups,
Vasubandhu. Svetambaras and Digambaras. Svetambara monks
135. (b) Ajivika, an ascetic sect that emerged in India wore white clothes. Digambara monks did not wore
about the same time as Buddhism and Jainism and any clothes at all.
that lasted until the 14th century. It was founded 147. (c) The Kalpa Sutra is a Jain text containing the
by Goshala Maskariputra (also called Gosala biographies of the Jain Tirthankaras. Bhadrabahu is
Makkhaliputta). considered the author of the text and it is traditionally
136. (a) The terms Lokayata and Carvaka have said to have been composed about one hundred and
historically been used to denote the philosophical fifty years after Nirvana of Mahavira.
school of Indian Materialism. Carvaka and Ajita 149. (a) The custom Santhara is related to Jain sects.
Kesakambalin are said to have established Indian Santhara, a Jain spiritual practice which entails a
Materialism as a formal philosophical system, voluntary giving up of one’s life through fasting.


150. (a) The Dharmachakra Parivartan is said to be the 154. (a) Mahavira was married to Yashoda and produced
first teaching given by the Buddha after he attained a daughter whose husband, Jamali, became the first
enlightenment. It is taught that the Buddha attained disciple of Mahavira.
enlightenment while sitting under the Bodhi tree by 155. (a) The grand image of Gomoteshwara was installed
the river Neranjara, in Bodhgaya. by Chavundaraya in 988 AD at Sharavanbelgola.
152. (c) The Amravati Stupa is a famous specimen of Chamundaraya was a military commander, poet and
the Buddhist art and architecture of ancient India. It a minister in the court of the Western Ganga Dynasty
is located at Amravati in Andhra Pradesh. Amravati of Talakad in present day Karnataka.
was the capital of the ancient Satavahana dynasty,
ww came under influence of the Buddhist faith through

the Kushanas.
153. (d) Maya was the mother of the Buddha and was
156. (b) Kanishka’s coins portray images of Indian,
Greek, Iranian and even Sumero-Elamite divinities,
demonstrating the religious syncretism in his beliefs.
w.E from the Koliyan clan. Maya was born in Devadaha in

ancient Nepal. She was married to King Suddhodana,
who ruled in the kingdom of Kapilavastu.
The Buddhist coins of Kanishka are comparatively
rare. Several coins show Kanishka on the obverse and
the Buddha standing on the reverse, in Hellenistic
asy style.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

3 Maurya and
Post-Mauryan Period
ww MAURYA PERIOD 9. Who was Ashoka’s contemporary king of Ceylon?

w.E
1. Who identified the name Sandrocottus as
Chandragupta Maurya?
(a) Megasthenes (b) Justin

(a) Abhaya
(b) Pakanduka
(c) Devanampiya Tissa

2.
(c) V.A. Smith
asy
(d) William Jones
Which dynasty ruled over Magadha after Nanda
dynasty?

10.
(d) Mutasiva
The Mauryan administrative centre Samapa can
be identified with

(a) Maurya
(c) Kushana En
(b) Gupta
(d) Sunga

(a) Girnar
(c) Brahmagiri
(b) Dhauli
(d) Jaugada
3.

gin
Who was the founder of Maurya dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Vishnugupta (d) Ashoka
11. Which among the following was the first empire
to stretch from sea to sea from the Bay of Bengal
to the Arabian sea?
4.

Mauryan history is
(a) Mudrarakshasa
(b) Natural Historica
ee
The most important source for the study of

12.
(a) Nanda
(c) Satvahana
rin
(b) Maurya
(d) Gupta
In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka
declared some concessions in taxes?

5.
(c) Devichandraguptam
(d) Arthashastra
Who was the author of Arthashastra?

g.n
(a) Minor rock Edict, Sasaram
(b) Bhabru-Bairat Edict

6.
(a) Vasudeva
(c) Kautilya
(b) Megasthenes
(d) Vishakhadutta
Who of the following was a contemporary of
Alexander the great?

13.
(d) Rock Edict XII
et
(c) Lumbini pillar Edict
Who among the following said that Chandragupta

Maurya overran and subdued the whole of India
(a) Chandragupta Maurya with an army of six lakhs?
(b) Pushyamitra Sunga (a) Justin (b) Strabo
(c) Bimbisara (c) Plutarch (d) Deimachus
(d) Ashoka 14. Who among the following was the Governor of
7. Who was the mentor of Chandragupta Maurya? Saurashtra during the reign of Ashoka?
(a) Vishakhadutta (b) Chanakya (a) Tusashpha (b) Suvishakha
(c) Megasthenes (d) Patanjali (c) Pushyagupta (d) Radhagupta
8. During the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, 15. Rulers of which of the following dynasties
Pataliputra was administered by a board consisting maintained diplomatic relations with distant
of the members numbered. countries like Syria in the west?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (a) Maurya (b) Gupta
(c) 40 (d) 50 (c) Pallava (d) Chola

A-28 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period

16. In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka 25. Who replaced Megasthanese as the ambassador
made his famous declaration “All men are my of the Syrian king Antiochus I in the court of
children” ? Bindusara?
(a) Minor Rock Edict of Ahrawra (a) Diodorus (b) Arrian
(b) Pillar Edict VII (c) Dionysius (d) Deimachos
(c) Lumbini Pillar Edict 26. Turamaya mentioned in the inscriptions of Ashoka
(d) Separate Kalinga Rock Edict I was his contemporary king of
17. Who were the beneficiaries of Ashoka’s donations (a) Afghanisthan (b) Egypt
in the region of Barabar Hill? (c) Macedonia (d) Syria
ww
(a) Buddhists
(c) Svetambar
(b) Ajivikas
(d) Digambar
18. The earliest example of rock cut architecture is
27. The Gujarra minor rock edict, on which the name

of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
w.Eevident for the time of

(a) Pre-Mauryan (b) Mauryan
(c) Post-Mauryan (d) Gupta
(c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
28. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is
devoted to the principle of religious tolerance
completely?
Kharosthi script?
(a) Lumbini asy
19. Which of the following Ashoka inscriptions is in
(b) Girnar
(a) Rock Edict XIII
(b) Rock Edict XII
(c) Khalsi
En
(d) Shahvajgarhi
20. Who was the son of Ashoka mentioned in an
(c) Pillar inscription VII
(d) Bhabru Minor Rock Edict
29. Which of the following mentions about the meeting
inscription?
(a) Mahendra
(c) Tivara
(b) Kunala
(d) Jalaukagin of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with
Alexander the Great?
(a) Pliny (b) Justin
21. Sarnath Stambh was built by
(a) Harshwardhan (b) Ashoka
(c) Bindusar (d) Kanishka
ee
22. The officers related to survey and settlement work
(c) Strabo
rin
from Greece to his court?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Megasthenese
30. Which of the Mauryan kings wanted a Sophist
under Ashoka were called

(a) Rajukas
(b) Prativedaka
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ashoka
(d) Kunal
g.n
(c) Dharma Mahamatra
(d) Sannidhata
23. Which one of the following inscriptions refers to
construction of two granaries to be used in the time
et
31. Which of the following was an administrative
centre of the Southern province of Ashoka’s
empire?
(a) Isila (b) Samapa
of distress? (c) Satiyaputra (d) Keralputra
(a) Madhuban copper plate 32. In which of the following pillars, inscription of
(b) Poona copper plate Ashoka the name of his queen “Karuvaki” is
(c) Damodarpur copper plate mentioned?
(d) Sohagaura copper plate (a) Sarnath Pillar
24. Ashoka’s deep devotion to Buddha, Dhamma (b) Allahabad Pillar
and Sangha is mentioned in which of following (c) Rampurava Pillar
inscriptions? (d) Lauria Nandan Garh Pillar
(a) Rock Edict III 33. Who of the Jain saints is associated with
(b) Pillar Edict VII Chandragupta Maurya?
(c) Rock Edict XIII (a) Umaswami (b) Sthulbhadra
(d) Bhabru Minor Rock Edict (c) Haribhadra (d) Bhadrabahu

History || A-29
34. The book Indica was written by 44. Which one of the following edicts mentions the
(a) Seleucas (b) Megasthenes personal name of Ashoka?
(c) Kalidas (d) Pliny (a) Kalsi
35. Which was the currency in circulation during the (b) Rummindei
Maurya period? (c) Special Kalinga Edict
(a) Pana (b) Tola (d) Maski
(c) Kakini (d) Dinar 45. The Ashoka major rock edicts which tell us about
36. The earliest epigraphic reference to Chandragupta the Chola, Pandya, Satyaputta and Kerelaputta?
Maurya is found in the
ww

(a) Barabar cave inscription of Ashoka
(b) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvela
(c) Junagarh Rock Edict of Ashoka

(a) I and VII
(c) II and XII
(b) II and III
(d) II and XIII
46. Realizing the need of water, the first ruler who got

w.E
37.

(d) Junagarh Rock inscription of Rudradaman
Rupadarsaka in the Mauryan administration was
(a) Manager of stage

a lake constructed in the Girnar area was
(b) Ashoka

(c) Examiner of coins asy
(b) Examiner of gold, silver and copper
(d) Superintendent of courtesans

(c) Rudradaman
(d) Skandagupta
47. The Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama
38.
En
The superintendent of weights and measures in the
Mauryan administration was
Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of
(a) Ashoka (b) Kanishka

gin
(a) Samsthadhyaksha (b) Lavanadhyaksha
(c) Shulkadhyaksha (d) Pautuvadhyaksha
(c) Harsha (d) Dharmapal
48. Which of the following were called Sarthavaha?
(a) Brokers (b) Carvan of traders
39.

adopted Jain Dharm in his last days.
(b) Ashoka
(c) Samudragupta
ee
Name the famous ruler of ancient India, who
(c) Money lenders (d) Pilgrims
rin
49. Which of the following sources gives a detailed
account of city administration of the Mauryas?

40.
(d) Bindusara
The Arthashastra of Kautilya is a

g.n
(a) Kautilya’s Arthashastra
(b) Megasthanese’s Indica
(c) Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadutta

(a) Play about Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Biography
(c) History of Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Book on principles of Government
(d) Inscription of Ashoka
et
50. Who was the first to have successfully read the

Ashoka’s inscriptions?
(a) Charles Wilkins
41. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred
(b) Dayaram Sahni
to in his inscription is
(c) Rakhaldas Banerji
(a) Chakravarti (b) Devraja
(c) Dharmakirti (d) Priyadarsi (d) James Prinsep
42. Which one of the following texts of ancient India 51. Who was the Prime Minister of Chandragupta
allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband? Maurya?
(a) Kamasutra (b) Arthashastra (a) Kautilya (b) Megasthenese
(c) Sukra Nitisara (d) Mudrarakshasa (c) Khallataka (d) Radhagupta
43. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India 52. The main officer of town in Mauryan empire was
was written from right to left? called by Megasthenes as
(a) Kharoshti (b) Brahmi (a) Astyonmoi (b) Agronomoi
(c) Pali (d) Prakrit (c) Nagarka (d) Overseers


53. Who of the following also had the name Devanama 63. Which of the following Indian kings defeated
Priyadasi? Seleucus, the administrator of Sindha and
(a) Chandragupta Maurya Afghanistan?
(b) Ashoka (a) Chandragupta (b) Ashoka
(c) Bindusar (d) Kanishka
(c) Bindusara
64. Who was the writer of Mudrarakshasa?
(d) Harsha (a) Kautilya (b) Pushyagupta
54. The division of Mauryan society into seven classes (c) Vishnugupta (d) Vishakhdatta
was particularly mentioned in 65. Which of the following languages is used in the
ww
(a) Mudrarakshasa (b) Purans
(c) Arthashastra (d) Indica
55. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with the aspects of
inscriptions of Ashoka?
(a) Pali
(c) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(d) Apabhramsa

w.E(a) Economic life (b) Religious life
(c) Social life (d) Political policies
56. Who of the following was known as Amitrochates?
66. The most famous educational centre during the
period of Mauryan age was
(a) Nalanda
(c) Ujjain
(b) Vaishali
(d) Takshila
(b) Bindusar
(c) Ashoka
asy 67. Who constructed the 84 thousands Stupa?
(a) Ashoka (b) Pushyamitra
(d) Kautilya
En
57. Who built the city of Shrinagar in Kashmir?
(c) Menander (d) Kanishka
68. The third Buddhist council during the reign of
Ashoka was held at
(a) Porus
(b) Chandragupta Maurya gin (a) Rajgriha
(c) Pataliputra
(b) Vaishali
(d) Nalanda
69. Chanakya, the famous teacher of Chandragupta
(c) Ashoka
(d) Kanishka
ee
58. Where did Ashoka send his son Mahendra as a
Buddhist missionary to ?
Maurya, was associated with
(a) Nalanda
(c) Takshashila
rin (b) Vaishali
(d) Vikramshila
70. The last Mauryan emperor was
(a) Ceylon
(c) Tibet
(b) Nepal
(d) Khotan
(a) Kunal
(c) Samprati
g.n
(b) Jalok
(d) Brihadratha
71. Who of the following has mentioned on the
59. How many Tirthas were mentioned in Arthashastra?
(a) 16
(c) 26
(b) 18
(d) 30
60. In Arthashastra, the superintendent of commerce is
et
absence of slavery in Maurya period?
(a) Megasthenes (b) Kautilya
(c) Vishakhadatta (d) Justin
72. During the reign of Ashoka the huge Maurya
known as empire divided into
(a) Panyadhyaksha (b) Samsthadhyaksha (a) Four Provinces (b) Five Provinces
(c) Sulkadhyaksha (d) Mudradhyaksha (c) Six Provinces (d) None of these
61. Who of the following historical personalities of 73. In Maurya empire, province was known as
India is also known as Vishnugupta? (a) Chakra (b) Mandal
(a) Bindusara (b) Kunala (c) Ahar (d) Vishaya
74. Which of the following taxes was paid in cash?
(c) Chanakya (d) Shreegupta
(a) Bhaga (b) Hiranya
62. Which rock edict of Ashoka provides a description (c) Pranaya (d) Bali
of the horrors of Kalinga war? 75. Visti signifies
(a) Kalinga Edict (b) 11th Rock Edict (a) Religious tax (b) Irrigation tax
(c) 12 Rock Edict (d) 13th Rock Edict
th (c) Forced labour (d) Trade tax

History || A-31
POST-MAURYA PERIOD 88. A Kushan Devakula was found in the vicinity of

76. Who was the founder of Sunga dynasty? (a) Jalandhar (b) Sialkot
(a) Pushyagupta (b) Pushyamitra (c) Mathura (d) Multan
89. Who of the following had issued gold coins for
(c) Pushparaja (d) Pravarsena
the first time?
77. Which of the following dynasties was characterised
(a) Kujula Kadphises (b) Vima Kadphises
by its metronymics?
(c) Kanishka (d) Huvishka
(a) Kushana (b) Kanva 90. Who said, “Rome is being drained of its treasure
(c) Sunga (d) Satavahana by trading with India” ?
ww
78. Which was the capital of Kanishka?
(a) Mathura
(c) Purushapura
(b) Pataliputra
(d) Gandhar

91.
(a) Pliny
(c) Plutarch
(b) Arrian
(d) Tiberins
In which royal family, the men usually followed
w.E
79. Charaka was the famous court physician of
(a) Kanishka (b) Pushyamitra

the Brahmanical religion and women were
Buddhists?
(a) Ikshvakus (b) Lichchhavis
(c) Chandragupta (d) Ashoka
(a) Pan Chao asy

80. Which Chinese general defeated Kanishka?
(b) Pan Yang

92.
(c) Pallavas (d) Yaudheyas
In which inscription, is it mentioned that
Pushyamitra had performed two horses
(c) Ho Ti
En
(d) Chi Huang Ti
81. Who was called by Vindhya Adhipati?
sacrifices?
(a) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvela
(a) Simuka
(c) Ashoka
gin
(b) Gautamiputra
(d) Pushyamitra
82. A Buddhist council during the reign of Kanishka

(b) Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva
(c) Nasika inscription of Gautamiputra
was held at
(a) Mathura
(c) Pataliputra
(b) Rajgriha
(d) Kashmir
ee
93.

Satakarni
(d) Reh inscription of Fatehpur
rin
Rulers of which of the following dynasties bore
the title Devaputra?
(a) Maurya (b) Sunga
83. Who was the founder of Kushan dynasty?
(a) Vim Kadphises (b) Kujul Kadaphises
(c) Huvishka (d) Kanishka

94.
(c) Kushana
g.n(d) Saka
Who among the following was the first Satavahana
84. Vijayapuri the capital of Ikshvakus is represented
by
(a) Madurai (b) Kanheri

(a) Satakarni I
et
king to introduce the ruler’s head on coins?
(b) Gautamiputra Satakarni

(c) Vasishthiputra Pulumavi
(c) Nagarjunakonda (d) Paithan (d) Yojna Satakarni
85. The official language of the Satvahanas was 95. Who among the following is credited to have
(a) Prakrit (b) Sanskrit performed four Asvamedha sacrifices?
(c) Apabhramsa (d) Telugu (a) Pushyamitra Sunga
86. The Greek envoy Heliodorus of the Besnagar (b) Pravarasen I
inscription was sent by the Indo-Greek ruler (c) Nandivarman
(a) Demetrius (b) Menander (d) Samudragupta
(c) Antialcidas (d) Agathocles 96. Which one of the following items has been called
87. Which God is depicted on the Yaudheya coins? Yavanapriya?
(a) Indra (b) Shiva (a) Pearl (b) Ivory
(c) Vasudeva (d) Kartikeya (c) Silk (d) Indian pepper


97. Who among the following rulers has been 106. The Sunga ruler, Agnimitra was the hero of a book
mentioned as protector of Varna system? written by
(a) Pushyamitra (b) Kharvela (a) Patanjali (b) Asvagosha
(c) Gautamiputra (d) Vasudeva (c) Banabhatta (d) Kalidasa
98. The ratio between gold and silver coins during 107. Who was the author of Setu-bandh?
Saka - Satavahan period was (a) Patanjali (b) Pushyamitra
(a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 14 (c) Praversena (d) Rudrasena
(c) 1 : 20 (d) 1 : 35 108. Which of the following dynasties introduced the
ww
99. During the Satavahanas rule, Kataka’ means

(a) Military clothes and settlements
(b) Military armaments and camps
combined ruling system?
(a) Saka
(c) Kushana
(b) Sunga
(d) Maurya

w.E (c) Military committees and camps
(d) Military camps and settlements
100. From which of the following places archaeological
109. Who was the founder of Satavahana dynasty?
(a) Hall
(c) Satkarni
(b) Simuka
(d) Shivasri
(a) Sopara asy

remains of a Roman colony have been discovered?
(b) Arikamedu
110. Who was the greatest ruler of Satavahana

dynasty?
(a) Satkarni I
(c) Bhrigukachchha (d) Tamralipti
En
101. Who was the founder of Vakatak dynasty?
(b) Hall
(c) Gautamiputra Satkarni

(c) Pravarsena
gin
(a) Vindhya Shakti (b) Ishwarsena
(d) Rudrasena
102. Who was the founder of Chedi dynasty?
(d) Yajanasri Satkarni
111. Who was the last ruler of Sunga dynasty?
(a) Vindhya Shakti

(b) Kharvela
(c) Mahameghavahana
ee (a) Agnimitra
(c) Brajamitra
rin
(b) Vasumitra
(d) Devabhuti
112. Which of the following dynasties related to
maximum pure gold coins?
(d) Mahapadam
103. The writer of Mahabhasya ‘Patanjali’ was a
contemporary of
(a) Sunga
(c) Satavahana
g.n(b) Kushana
(d) Gupta
113. The practice of land grants to brahmins and

(b) Ashoka
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Pushyamitra Sunga
(c) Vakatakas
et
Buddhist was initiated by
(a) Sungas (b) Satavahanas
(d) Guptas
114. Which of the following dynasties circulated the
104. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of lead coins?
Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended (a) Nand (b) Maurya
up to Champa in the east? (c) Satavahana (d) Kushana
(a) Sarnath inscription 115. Who was Rudradaman I?
(a) Saka ruler of Ujjain
(b) Saheth-maheth inscription
(b) Saka ruler of Takshashila
(c) Rabatak inscription
(c) Saka ruler of Nasika
(d) None of the above
(d) Saka ruler of Mathura
105. The figure of Buddha is engraved on the coins of 116. Who was the writer of Nanaghata inscription?
(a) Ashoka (b) Menander (a) Naganika (b) Nagakumari
(c) Kanishka (d) Harsha (c) Nagamati (d) Kubernaga

History || A-33
117. Nanaghata inscription belonged to 121. The only ruler of India who ruled over territories
(a) Gautamiputra Satakarni in central Asia beyond the Pamirs was
(b) Vashistiputra Pulumavi (a) Kanishka
(c) Yajansri Satakarni (b) Harsha
(d) Satakarni I (c) Ashoka
118. Who was the founder of Kanva dynasty? (d) Chandragupta Maurya
(a) Vasumitra (b) Bhumimitra 122. Gondophernes belonged to
(c) Vasudeva (d) Devabhuti (a) The Saka dynasty
119. After the Mauryas, the most important kingdom (b) The Satavahan dynasty
ww in deccan and central India was

(a) Vakataka
(c) Pallava
(b) Satavahana
(d) Cholas

(c) The Kushana dynasty
(d) The Parthian dynasty
123. Gathasaptasati was written by
w.E
120. Which of the following Saka rulers was responsible
for important irrigation works in Saurashtra?
(a) Nahapana (b) Menander
(a) Hall
(c) Bhas
(b) Bharatmuni
(d) Satakarni I
(c) Rudradaman
asy
(d) None of these
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 17. (b) 33. (d) 49. (b) 65. (b) 81. (b) 97. (a) 113. (b)
2. (a) 18. (b) 34. (b) 50. (d) 66. (d) 82. (d) 98. (d) 114. (c)
3. (b) 19. (d) 35. (a) 51. (a) 67. (a) 83. (b) 99. (d) 115. (a)
4. (d) 20. (c) 36. (d) 52. (a) 68. (c) 84. (c) 100. (b) 116. (a)
5. (c) 21. (b) 37. (c) 53. (b) 69. (c) 85. (a) 101. (a) 117. (d)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(a)
(a)
(b)
22.
23.
24.
(a)
(d)
(d)
38.
39.
40.
(d)
(a)
(d)
54.
55.
56.
(d)
(d)
(b)
70.
71.
72.
(d)
(a)
(b)
86.
87.
88.
(c)
(d)
(c)
102.
103.
104.
(c)
(d)
(c)
118.
119.
120.
(c)
(b)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(c)
(d)
25.
26.
(d)
(b)
41.
42.
(d)
(b)
57.
58.
(c)
(a)
73.
74.
(a)
(b)
89.
90.
(b)
(a)
105.
106.
(c)
(d)
121.
122.
(a)
(d)
11.
12.
(b)
(c)
27.
28.
(b)
(b)
43.
44.asy (a)
(d)
59.
60.
(b)
(a)
75.
76.
(d)
(b)
91.
92.
(a)
(b)
107.
108.
(d)
(a)
123. (a)
13.
14.
(c)
(a)
29.
30.
(b)
(b)
45.
46. En
(d)
(a)
61.
62.
(c)
(d)
77.
78.
(d)
(c)
93.
94.
(c)
(b)
109.
110.
(b)
(c)
15.
16.
(a)
(d)
31.
32.
(a)
(b)
47.
48.
(a)
(b)
gin63.
64.
(a)
(d)
79.
80.
(c)
(a)
95.
96.
(b)
(d)
111.
112.
(d)
(b)
e
Hints & Solutionse rin
MAURYA PERIOD
g.n
is evidence to show that Chandragupta was a
contemporary of Alexander.
1.
2.
(b) The Roman historian Justin described
Sandrocottus (Greek version of Chandragupta’s
name) conquered the northwest India.
(a) Maurya dynasty ruled over Magadha after
Nanda dynasty. Chandragupta destroyed the Nanda
7.
et
(a) Chanakya was the mentor of Chandragupta
Maurya. He was a great scholar, teacher of economics
and political science in ancient India. Different lessons
of politics and war were taught to Chandragupta by
dynasty around 321 BC, and became the first king of
the great Mauryan empire. Chanakya. Chandragupta Maurya established Maurya
4. (d) Kautilya’s Arthasastra is a very important source Empire by defeating Dhana Nanda of Nanda dynasty.
for the knowledge of Mauryan dynasty. Chanakya or 8. (b) Chandragupta, the founder of the Mauryan
Kautilya, the minister of Chandra Gupta throws a Empire was not only a great warrior but also an able
flood of light upon the contemporary social, political
administrator. He set up a sound and efficient system
and economic conditions of the country at that time.
It also gave a wealth of information regarding duties of administration in his vast empire. There was a
of the king, his foreign policy and organization of municipal committee of 30 members to look after the
spies. affairs of the city. They looked after public buildings,
6. (a) Chandragupta Maurya set up the Mauryan water supply, sanitation, roads, gardens, hospitals,
Empire following Alexander’s retreat. There schools, temples and other works of public utility.

History || A-35
9. (c) Ashoka maintained close relations with Tissa, Devi or Vedisa. His two other wives were Karuvaki
the ruler of Ceylon. Devaanampiya Tissa was the and Asandhimitra. Asoka’s only son mentioned in
second son of Mutasiva. He was a friend of Asoka inscriptions is Tivara, who was born to Karuvaki.
even before he became king. The name of Karuvaki and Tivara are mentioned in
10. (d) Samapa, modern-day Jaugada was administrative Queen’s edict.
centre of the Mauryan empire after the Kalinga 21. (b) Ashoka built the Sarnath pillar to commemorate
conquered by Ashoka. the site of the first preaching of Lord Buddha, where
11. (b) The Mauryan empire became the first to he taught the Dharma to five monks. The Ashoka
stretch from sea to sea – from the Bay of Bengal Pillar at Sarnath is about 15.24 m in height and weighs
ww to the Arabian Sea. More probably it was intended

to engross the lucrative maritime trade in timbers,
textiles, spices, gems and precious metals between
50 tons. The four-lion sculpture placed on top of this
pillar is now treasured in the Archaeological Museum
of Sarnath.
w.E
12.
the ports of India and the Persian Gulf.
(c) Lumbini pillar inscriptions, King Ashoka visited
Lumbini and worshipped the Buddha, the sage of
23. (d) The earliest known copper-plate, known as
the Sohgaura copper-plate, is a Maurya record that
mentions famine relief efforts. The Sohgaura copper
asy
the Sakyans was born there. He set up a pillar and
the village of Lumbini was exempted from tax and
required to pay only one-eighth of the produce 24.
plate refers to a pair of Kosthagara (granaries) to be
used in the time of distress.
(d) Bhabru minar rock edict was placed near Viratt
14.
because the Lord was born there.
En
(a) Yavana Tushaspha was the Governor of
in Jaipur state dated from 258 to 257 BC. In this
inscription, Ashoka expressed or rather confessed his
gin
Saurashtra in Ashoka’s reign, evidently because
Pushyagupta’s son had become a Jain monk and
left no descendants behind. Pushyagupta was
faith in the Buddha, Dharma and the Sangha. He also
refers to seven examples of Buddhism which were
dear to him and he wished that his subjects should
15.
Chandragupta Maurya.
ee
the Governor of Saurashtra appointed by the
(a) Mauryan Emperor Bindusara had friendly

relations with the Greek King Antiochos-I of Syria.
25.
also follow them.
(d) Deimachos succeeded Megasthenes as
rin
ambassador to the court of Bindusara sent by the
Syrian king Antiochus I.
Deimachos was a Syrian Ambassador who came in
the court of Bindusara. Mauryan Emperor Ashoka
the Great also mentions the names of Hellenic
26.
g.n
(b) In his thirteenth inscription, Ashoka mentions
five Greek contemporary kings. Turamaya has been
identified with the contemporary ruler of Egypt up
king– Antiochus II of Syria in his 13th rock edict.
This shows that Mauryan dynasty maintained the
diplomatic relations with distant countries like Syria
in the West.
27.
to 247 BC.
et
(b) Gujarra edict is located north of the village
Gujarra at the foot of a low hill locally known as
Siddham ki Todiya. It was discovered in 1953 CE.
17. (b) The edicts of Ashoka are a collection of 33 Gujarra is located near the town of Datia in Madhya
inscriptions on the Pillars of Ashoka. One of the Pradesh. The edict here refers Ashoka with his
edicts of Asoka’s Barbara cave inscription mentions personal name.
the donation of Barbara hills region to Ajivika sect. 28. (b) The Rock edict XII of Ashoka inscriptions
19. (d) The inscriptions of Ashoka are written in two is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance
scripts known as Brahmi and Kharosthi. Kharosthi completely. Ashoka pleaded for tolerance of different
script has been used in the inscriptions found religious sects in an attempt to create a sense of
at Shahbazgarhi in Mardan District of Khyber- harmony.
Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan and Manshera 30. (b) Bindusara conquered some of the parts of
also in Pakistan. southern peninsula. He also maintained contact with
20. (c) The Buddhist texts mention about the family of his Greek counterparts. He asked the Greek kings to
Ashoka. His first wife was a princess of Ujjaini called send a Sophist to his court.


31. (a) During 4th and 3rd century BCE, Karnataka was 43. (a) The Kharosthi script is an ancient script used by
part of Nanda and Maurya Empire. The Brahmagiri the ancient Gandhara culture of South Asia primarily
edicts in Chitradurga dated around 230 BCE belong in modern-day Afghanistan and Pakistan. Kharosthi
to emperor Ashoka and says of the nearby region as is mostly written right to left (type A), but some
‘Isila’ which means ‘fortified region’. These rock inscriptions (type B) already show the left to right
edicts indicated that the Isila was the southernmost direction that was to become universal for the later
extent of the Mauryan empire. South Asian scripts.
33. (d) It is believed that Chandragupta Maurya adopted 45. (d) Major Rock Edict II mentions Chola, Pandya,
Jainism and became an ascetic under the Jain saint Satyaputra and Keralpautra kingdoms in South India.
ww Bhadrabahu and migrated south with him. He ended

his life at Sravanabelgola in present day Karnataka
by Jainism custom Santhara (death by fasting).
Major Rock Edict XIII speaks of Asoka’s annexation
of Kalinga. It mentions Asoka’s victory by dhamma
over Greek kings and the Chola, Pandya, and Andhra
w.E
34. (b) The Greek author Megasthenes wrote ‘Indica’.
During Alexander’s invasion in the western part of
India around 300 Christian era, Megasthenes came to
India. Indica is the most authentic book to know about
kingdoms in South India.
46. (a) It is evident from the note of Megasthenes,
importance of land and water management was
Maurya. asy
the Mauryan period and the regime of Chandragupta
realised even during 300 B.C for social welfare.
During this period, famous Sudarshan lake on Girnar
hill in Gujarat was built by Chandragupta Maurya.
En
35. (a) Mauryas’ India had evolved its own monetary
system based on indigenous standards. In the
Arthasashtra, the silver pana with its sub-divisions is
48. (b) Proper rules of conduct of trade were laid by
the head of trade guilds, known as Sarthavaha or
gin
evidently recognized as the standard coin, while the
copper mashaka with its divisions ranks as a token
currency.
Srenipramukha. The rules were called Samay and
Srenidharma. Taxila, Pushkalavati, Kapisa and
Vidisha prospered as trade centres, under the Indo-
ee
40. (d) The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise
on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy
which identifies its author by the names ‘Kautilya’
and ‘Vishnugupta’, both names that are traditionally
Greek rulers.
49. (b) Megasthenes stayed at Pataliputra for about
rin
five years. He wrote a book called ‘Indica’ in which
he gave a detailed account of his observations of
identified with Chanakya. The book, written in
Sanskrit, discusses theories and principles of
governing a state.
g.n
Mauryan government and social life.
50. (d) James Princep was an English scholar, orientalist
and antiquary. Remained unread until James Princep
41. (d) The rock inscriptions of Devanampriya
Priyadarshi were being discovered all over India
for centuries. But for a long time, the identity of
this ‘Devanampriya Priyadarshi’ remained a puzzle.
et
successfully deciphered Ashoka’s edicts inscription
in 1837. Stories of Ashoka flourished from the time
of his death and grew more fanciful with the passing
centuries.
In the year 1915 near a village called Maski in 54. (d) The division of Mauryan society into seven
Raichur District of Karnataka, a rock inscription was classes was particularly mentioned in the ‘Indica’ of
discovered on a hill. In this inscription, for the first Megasthenes.
time, the name of Ashoka was found with titles like 55. (d) Kautilya’s Arthashastra is the most important
Devanampriya and Priyadarshi. It was then certain work on Public Administration in ancient India. It
that Devanampriya Priyadarshi was no other than deals with different aspects of management which
Ashoka. include strategic management, financial management,
42. (b) According to social law of ancient India, a accounting, human resource management, corporate
woman was always considered a minor. Divorce governance, social responsibility, etc.
was prohibited, although it sometimes took place. 56. (b) Bindusara was the son of the first Mauryan
According to the Arthashastra, a wife who had been Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. The Greeks called
deserted by her husband could seek a divorce. him Amitrochates or Allitrochades.

History || A-37
57. (c) Srinagar was founded more than 2000 years ago, 74. (b) Hiranya appears as an item of revenue in the
around the 3rd century BC, by King Pravarasena. It land-grants of the period. Hiranya is taken to be the
soon became part of the Mauryan Empire, one of usual taxes paid in cash or in metallic money.
the largest empires in India at the time. The ruling
Mauryan emperor Ashoka built the city of Srinagari
POST-MAURYA PERIOD
(Srinagar). 76. (b) Pushyamitra Sunga was the founder and first
58. (a) Ashoka sent missionaries to neighbouring states King of the Sunga Dynasty in Northern India.
and even to foreign lands. According to tradition, 77. (d) Metronymics is a name derived from the name
the Ceylonese mission was sent under Ashoka’s son of a mother or female ancestor. The metronymics are
ww Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra.

60. (a) Kautiyla talked of the various heads of
the different branches of the civil service. The
borne by the later Satavahanas and not by the early
Satavahanas. It was mainly because Satavahanas had
to establish matrimonial alliance with maharathis.
w.E superintendent of trade (Panyadhyaksha) was to

head the commercial service, including internal and
external trade.
The metronymics of the Satavahanas was the result
of such alliances.
78. (c) Kanishka was the king of the Kushan dynasty
asy
63. (a) Chandragupta Maurya stretched his empire
from Karnataka to Afghanistan and from the river
Indus to Bengal. He attacked the Greek Governor
that ruled over the northern part of the Indian
subcontinent, Afghanistan, and possibly regions
north of Kashmir in Central Asia. His territory was
En
of Punjab, Seleucus Nikator and defeated him.
There was subsequently a treaty between the two
administered from two capitals Purushapura (now
Peshawar in northwestern Pakistan) and Mathura,
in northern India.
gin
whereby, Seleucus ceded Punjab and Sindh to
Chandragupta and also gave his daughter in marriage
to Chandragupta.
79. (c) Charaka was an Ayurvedic physician lived in
the period between the third and second Centuries
BC. He was the court physician of the Buddhist king
ee
64. (d) The Mudrarakshasa is a historical play in
Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of
the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India.
67. (a) In 3rd century BCE, the great emperor of
Kanishka.
rin
80. (a) Chinese annals tell the story of a Kushana king
who was defeated by the General Pan Chao, towards
the end of the first century AD.
Magadha Ashoka started to build thousands of Stupas
all over the Indian subcontinent and South Asia. It is g.n
81. (b) Gautamiputra Satkarni was called by Vindhya
Adhipati because his kingdom included the territories
of Asika, Assaka, Mulaka, Saurashtra, Kukura,
said that 84 thousand Stupas were built by Ashoka
edicts and guidance.
68. (c) According to the Theravada commentaries and
chronicles, the Third Buddhist Council was convened
et
Aparanta, Anupa, Vidarbha, Akara and Avanti and
the mountainous regions of Vindhya.
82. (d) The Kushana period saw a great resurgence of
Buddhism in Kashmir, especially during the reign of
by the Mauryan king Ashoka at Pataliputra, under the
Kanishka. The fourth Buddhist Council was held in
leadership of the monk Moggaliputta Tissa.
Kashmir, under the presidency of Katyayaniputra,
69. (c) Chanakya was a famous Indian teacher, who
in Kanishka’s time. The south Indian Buddhist
taught in Takshashila, an ancient Indian university.
philosopher Nagarjuna lived in Kashmir during the
Later, he became royal advisor to the Maurya empire Kushana period.
and helped the mighty ruler Chandragupta Maurya to 83. (b) Kujula Kadphises (30–80 AD) established the
establish the Maurya empire by defeating the Nanda Kushan dynasty in 78 AD by taking advantage of
empire. disunion in existing dynasty of Pahalava (Parthian)
70. (d) Brihadratha Maurya was the last ruler of the and Scytho-Parthians, and gradually wrested control
Mauryan dynasty. He ruled from 187–180 BC. He of southern prosperous region, which is the northwest
was killed by his senapati (commander-in-chief), part of ancient India, traditionally known as Gandhar
Pushyamitra Sunga. (now in Pakistan).


84. (c) Ikshvakus were one of the earliest recorded 94. (b) Satavahana dynasty ruled from Pune in
ruling dynasties of the Krishna-Guntur regions Maharastra to Coastal Andhra Pradesh in the 2nd
of Andhra Pradesh. Their capital Vijayapuri is century BC onwards. Satakarni I was the first
represented by Nagarjunakonda. Satavahana King to introduce the ruler’s head on the
85. (a) Prakrit is a language of ancient and medieval coins. The coins issued by Satavahanas had bilingual
India which is the ancestor of Marathi, Konkani, legends. The name of the Kings was mentioned in
Sinhala and Maldivian. It was used in numerous Prakrit as well as some south Indian language.
works of literature and its literary use was made 95. (b) The Vakataka emperor Pravarasena I performed
famous by the Sanskrit playwright Kalidasa. Prakrit four Asvamedha Yajnas. Vakataka dynasty was the
ww was commonly spoken until AD 875 and was the

official language of the Satavahana dynasty.
86. (c) An important Prakrit inscription at Besnagar of
most important after the fall of Satavahanas and
before the rise of Chalukyas they ruled in modern
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. They were
w.E the late 2nd century BCE, inscribed at the instance

of Heliodorus, a Greek envoy of Indo-Greek
ruler Antialcidas to the court of the Sunga king
Bhagabhadra.
contemporary of Guptas. The dynasty was founded by
Vindhyashakti but Pravarasena I was the real founder
of Vakataka empire.
asy
87. (d) The coins of the Yaudheyas were influenced
in design and motif by the coins of the Kushanas.
96. (d) Spices exported from India to the Roman
empire. Pepper was most important item of export
to Greece and Rome. Its export was in such abundant
Yaudheya coins.
En
Kumara Kartikeya was depicted on the most of the
88. (c) The family temple (Devakula in Sanskrit) of

quantity that it was called Yavanapriya in the Indian
literature.
gin
the Kushan royal family was where patron deity or
deities of the Kushanas should be worshipped. Two
Devakulas so far discovered, one at Surkh Kotal
97. (a) Pushyamitra was a supporter of the orthodox
brahmanical faith, and revived the ancient Vedic
sacrifice including the horse-sacrifice.
ee
in South Bactria (Afghanistan) and another one at
Mat near Mathura in north India. The Devakulas
contained sculptures of Kushan rulers Kanishka and
others.
99. (d) The military character of the Satavahana rule
is evident from the common use of such terms as
rin
Kataka and Skandhavaras in their inscriptions. These
were military camps and settlements which served
89. (b) Vima Kadphises was the Kushan emperor to first
introduce gold coinage, in addition to the existing
there.
g.n
as administrative centres so long as the king was
100. (b) Arikamedu was an ancient industrial port city

copper and silver coinage. The gold weight standard
of approximately eight grams.
90. (a) Pliny the Elder, in 77 CE, called “Rome is being
drained of its treasure by trading with India” because
Roman senators complained that their women used
et
located in the South Eastern coast of India near
Pondicherry. A large hoard of Roman coins found
at Arikamedu along with the archaeological remains
of a Roman colony have been discovered.
too many Indian spices and luxuries, which drained 102. (c) The Chedis were the original inhabitants
the Roman Empire of precious metal like gold. of Maddhyadesa. Chedis are known from the
92. (b) According to the Ayodhya inscription of Hatigumpha Pillar inscription. According to this
Dhanadeva, Pushyamitra performed two horse inscription, Mahameghavahana, a member of the
sacrifices. The first one was probably during the time Chedi clan founded the Chedi dynasty. Kharvela was
when Pushyamitra ascended the throne of Pataliputra, the famed king of Chedi dynasty.
ousting the Mauryas and the second sacrifice was 103. (d) The writer of Mahabhasya, Patanjali was a
due to his victory over the Bactrian Greeks and to contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga. The Sunga
proclaim his dominion. Empire played an imperative role in patronizing
93. (c) Kushan dynasty achieved remarkable milestones Indian culture at a time when some of the most
in the state of Jammu & Kashmir. His decendants important developments in Hindu thought were
called him as Devaputra which means son of gods. taking place.

History || A-39
104. (c) The Rabatak inscription is an inscription written 113. (b) The beginning of the practice of land grants with
on a rock in the Bactrian language and the Greek fiscal and administrative immunities to Brahmins and
script, which was found in 1993 at the site of Rabatak, Buddhist monks was made by the Satavahanas.
near Surkh Kotal in Afghanistan. The inscription 114. (c) The Satavahana kings mostly used lead as the
relates to the rule of the Kushan emperor Kanishka.
material for their coins. Next to lead they used an
He expanded the Kushan empire into the northwest
alloy of silver and copper, called ‘potin’. Most of the
of the Indian subcontinent.
106. (d) When Agnimitra was the crown prince, he Satavahana coins have on one side the figure of an
showed his administrative capability as the governor elephant, horse, lion or Chaitya. The other side shows
ww of the Vidisha region. By virtue of his courage and

heroism, he won many battles for Sunga empire.
His heroic deeds seem to have made him a legendary
the so-called Ujjain symbol – a cross with four circles
at the end of the two crossing lines.
w.E figure. So that Kalidasa, wrote his famous historical

drama ‘Malavikagnimitram’, depicting Prince
Agnimitra as the hero of the drama.
115. (a) Rudradaman I was a Saka ruler from the Western
Kshatrapas dynasty. He was the grandson of the
celebrated Sah king Chastana. Rudradaman I was
asy
109. (b) The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was
Simuka. He conquered Maharashtra, Malwa and part
of Madhya Pradesh. He was succeeded by his brother
instrumental in the decline of the Satavahana empire.
117. (d) The Nanaghat inscriptions appear to suggest that
King Satakarni was the son of Simuka Satavahana
En
Kanha who further extended his kingdom to the west
and the south.
and the husband of queen Naganika.
122. (d) Gondophares was representative of the House
gin
110. (c) The great rulers of the Satavahana dynasty
Gautamiputra Satakarni and Sri Yajna Satakarni were
able to defeat the foreign invaders like the Western
of Suren in Balochistan as well as founder and first
king of the Indo-Parthian Kingdom and dynasty.
Kshatrapas and stop their expansion.

ee
111. (d) Devabhuti was the last Sunga ruler who was
killed by his own minister Vasudeva Kanva in around
73 BC and founded the Kanva dynasty.
123. (a) Gathasaptasati was written by the Satavahana
ruler Hall in Prakrit language. The book contains the
rin
description of love stories of the king Hall. This book
is an example of ancient Muktak-kavya.
g.n
et

4
Gupta and
Post Gupta Period
ww
1. Who among the following Gupta kings had 9. Who among the following was the ruler of Kanchi

w.E
another name Devagupta?
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta

during the time of Samudragupta?
(a) Hastivarman (b) Mantaraya
(c) Nilaraja (d) Vishnugopa

asy
2. Who among the following Gupta kings ascended
the throne in the year 56 of Gupta era?
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta II
10.

The guild which migrated from Lata to Daspura
during the time of Kumargupta, traded in
(a) Jewels (b) Horses
(c) Kumargupta
En
(d) Skandgupta
3. Which one of the following was the biggest hoard

11.
(c) Silken textile (d) Ivory
The Gupta ruler who defeated the Hunas was

of Gupta coins?
(a) Basti hoard
(c) Hajipur hoard
gin
(b) Bayana hoard
(d) Kotawa hoard

12.
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumargupta (d) Skandgupta
Which inscription of the Gupta period gives
Lokarka?
(a) Sun
(c) Kumara
(b) Ganesha
(d) Shiva
ee
4. During Gupta period, which deity was called

details regarding the sale of land?
(a) Junagarh inscription
rin
(b) Bhitari pillar inscription
(c) Begram copper plane
5. The guild organization described in the Mandsore
inscription of Kumaragupta was known as

13.
g.n
(d) Damodarpur copper plate
Who was the first ruler of Gupta dynasty to
assume the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja?
(a) Tantuvaya
(c) Kulika
in Gupta period?
(b) Dantakara
(d) Tailika
6. Which one of the following was a land measure

14.
(a) Srigupta
et
(b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II
In the Gupta inscription who has been called
“Lichchhavi Dauhitra” ?
(a) Dharaka (b) Karsha
(c) Nivartana (d) Vimsopaka (c) Chandragupta II (d) Skandgupta
7. The word Dinara used for the gold coins in the 15. Who of the following Gupta kings was first to
Gupta inscription is derived from issue silver coins?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Greek (a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chinese (d) Latin (c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta
8. What was the main objective of Sultan Mahmud’s 16. The Gupta gold coins were known as
Indian conquests? (a) Dramma (b) Karsapana
(a) Propagation of Religion (c) Dinar (d) Niska
(b) Extension of Empire 17. Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of
(c) Acquisition of Wealth (a) Chandragupta I (b) Chandragupta II
(d) None of these (c) Kumargupta (d) Skandgupta

History || A-41
18. Who of the following kings is depicted as playing 28. The travel account of Fa hien is known as
on a flute on his coins? (a) Si-yu-ki (b) Yen-tu
(a) Menander (b) Skandgupta (c) Fo-kwo-ki (d) Fa-chien
(c) Samudragupta (d) Kumargupta 29. Who has complimented Samudragupta as the
19. The concept of Trimurti was promulgated during ‘Indian Napoleon’ ?
the (a) Radhakumud Mukherji
(a) Mauryan period (b) Post-Mauryan period (b) V.A. Smith
(c) Gupta period (d) Post-Gupta period
(c) R.N. Dandekar
20. Which of the following rulers started Gupta
ww

currency system?
(a) Srigupta (b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II

30.

(d) R.C. Majumdar
The Hunes invaded India during the reign of
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Kumargupta- I

w.E
21. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of ‘Param
Bhagawata’ was

31.

(c) Skandgupta (d) Budhagupta
The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called
(a) Rupaka (b) Karshapana

asy
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta
22. The officer responsible for the safe custody of
land records during the Gupta period was known

32.
(c) Dinara (d) Pana
Out of eighteen rulers of the family at least one
-third were women. This statement is applicable

as
En
(a) Dhruvadhikarana (b) Karanika
to
(a) Bhaumakaras (b) Chalukyas
(c) Samaharta
gin
(d) Shaulkika
23. Who among the following is known as the

33.
(c) Rastrakutas (d) Kakatiyas
Which ruler suffered defeat at the hands of

‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Harshvardhan
ee

34.
Samudragupta?
(a) Rudradev
(c) Pravarasena
rin
The word Vishti means
(b) Prithvisena
(d) Damodarsena
24. The first inscriptional evidence of Satipratha has

been found from

(a) Forced labour
(b) Irrigation tax g.n
(a) Eran
(c) Mandsaur
(b) Junagarh
(d) Sanchi
25. Which of the following was a strong centre of the
Pasupatas during the time of Chandragupta II?

35.

(c) Rights of slaves
(d) Property of women
et
The royal emblem used by the Gupta period was
(a) Lakshmi (b) Varaha
(a) Mathura (b) Kaushambi (c) Garuda (d) Bull
(c) Tripuri (d) Udaigiri 36. Who among the following issued the largest
26. Which one of the following epithets does not number of gold coins?
belong to Samudragupta? (a) Satavahanas (b) Kushanas
(a) Lichhavi Dauhitrah (c) Chalukyas (d) Guptas
(b) Sarvarajochhetta 37. Expansion of agricultural land took place on the
(c) Aswamedha Parakramah
largest scale in which period ?
(d) Vikramaditya
(a) Pre-Mauryan age
27. Who among the following was the mother of
(b) Mauryan age
Prabhavati Gupta?
(a) Kumardevi (b) Kuberanaga (c) Post-Mauryan age
(c) Dhruvadevi (d) None of these (d) Gupta age

A-42 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period

38. Who among the following credited with authoring 48. Which of the following was the official language
Brihatsamhita? of Gupta period ?
(a) Brahmagupta (b) Varahamihira (a) Pali (b) Prakrit
(c) Bhaskara (d) Aryabhatta (c) Magadhi (d) Sanskrit
39. Which of the following contains the description 49. Who of the following organised Ashwamedha
of the king Dushyant of Hastinapur? Yajana?
(a) Mrichhkatikam (a) Bindusar (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta I (d) Skandgupta
(b) Mundrarakshas
50. Which one of the following periods marks the
ww
(c) Abhigyanashakuntalam
(d) Hitopadesh
40. Which among the following is known for his
beginning of the Indian temple architecture?
(a) Nand
(c) Sunga
(b) Maurya
(d) Gupta
w.Ework on medicine during the Gupta period?

(a) Sudraka
(c) Sushruta
(b) Shaunaka
(d) Saumilla
51. Aryabhatta and Varahamihira belong to which
age?
(a) Maurya (b) Kushana
asy
41. During which Gupta king’s reign did the Chinese
traveller Fa hien visit India?
(a) Chandragupta I
(c) Gupta
(a) Veersena
(d) Cholas
52. Who was the author of Mandasore inscription?
(b) Harisena
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Samudragupta En (c) Vatsabhatta (d) Banabhatta
53. Kumarsambhavam describes the story of the birth
(d) Skandgupta
gin
42. Who was the first known Gupta ruler?
(a) Srigupta (b) Ghatotakacha
of
(a) Kartikeya
(c) Abhimanyu
(b) Pradyamna
(d) Sanatkumara
(c) Chandragupta I (d) Budhagupta
ee
43. Which of the following literary works did not
belong to the Gupta period?
(a) Amarakosa
54. Who of the following Gupta kings granted

permission to Meghverma, the ruler of Sri Lanka
rin
to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Abhigyanashakuntalam
(c) Charaka Samhita
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Skandgupta g.n
(d) Mrichhakatikam
44. The Prayaga Prasasti inscription is associated

with which one of the following?
(a) Mahapadmanand (b) Kanishka
et
55. Who was the author of legal treatise ‘Nitisara’?
(a) Veersena (b) Harisena
(c) Vishakhadutta (d) Kamandaka
56. In the Gupta administration, who was Purpala?
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta (a) Administrator of village
45. Balaiyankutai in the pallava age was the name of (b) Administrator of town
(a) A scholar (b) A Goddess (c) Administrator of capital
(c) A pond or tank (d) A temple (d) Administrator of conquered territories
46. During the reign of which dynasties, did Kalidasa 57. The Nagars style of architecture development
mostly in
flourish?
(a) North India (b) South India
(a) Mauryas (b) Sungas
(c) East India (d) West India
(c) Guptas (d) Post Guptas 58. Who was the last ruler of the imperial Gupta
47. Kumar sambhavam an epic was composed by family?
(a) Chandbardai (b) Harisen (a) Ramagupta (b) Buddhagupta
(c) Banabhatta (d) Kalidasa (c) Kumargupta (d) Vishnugupta

History || A-43
59. In which century, did the famous Chinese pilgrim 70. Who was the author of Kamasutra?
Fa hien visit India? (a) Kalidasa (b) Vatsyayan
(a) 4th century AD (b) 5th century AD (c) Kamandak (d) Chandragomin
(c) 6th century AD (d) 7th century AD 71. Who was the founder of Nyaya Darshan?
60. The decimal numeral system, including the (a) Patanjali (b) Gautam
concept of zero was invented in India during (c) Kapil (d) Jaimini
which one of the following dynasties? 72. Who was the court poet of Kumargupta?
(a) Nanda (b) Maurya (a) Kalidasa (b) Veersena
(c) Gupta (d) Pala (c) Vatsabhatti (d) Vishnusharma
ww
61. In the courtyard of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque
of Delhi, stands the famous iron pillar in the
memory of
73.

Who explained that the earth rotates on its axis
but revolves round the sun?
(a) Bhashkar (b) Brahmagupta

w.E
(a) Ashoka
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Chandragupta I
(d) Chandragupta II

74.

(c) Varahamihir (d) Aryabhatta
Which was the second capital of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya ?
(a) Novel
(c) Poem
asy
62. Sudraka’s Mrichhakatikam is a
(b) Drama
(d) Short story

75.
(a) Rajagriha
(c) Ujjain
(b) Mathura
(d) Vidisha
Who established Nalanda University?
En
63. The six distinct schools of Indian philosophy
Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaishasika, Mimansa,

(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Chandragupta II

(a) Vedic period
(b) Maurya period gin
Vedanta became fully articulated during the

76.
(c) Kumargupta
(d) Skandgupta
During which period, the great epics of Ramayan

(c) Buddha period
(d) Gupta period
ee
64. Who was the author of a famous Ayurvedic text
Ashtanghriday?

and Mahabharat were given the final form?
(a) Nanda period
(b) Maurya period
rin
(c) Post Maurya period
(a) Vagbhatta
(c) Dhanvantari
(b) Charaka
(d) Nagarjuna
65. Ujjain is a birth place of

77.

(d) Gupta period
g.n
What was the land revenue during Gupta period?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Bhaskar
(c) Bramhagupta (d) Varahamihira
66. Who was the author of Amarkosha?
(a) Chandragomina (b) Amarsingh
(c) Amar Kanta (d) Kalidasa

78.

(c) 2/3
et
(d) 1/6 to 1/4
Where was the centre of higher education during
Gupta period?
(a) Nalanda (b) Vidisha
(c) Pataliputra (d) Takshashila
67. In Gupta period, which of the languages used by
79. Which period is known as golden age of Indian
the people of low society level and women?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Magadhi history?
(c) Pali (d) Prakrit (a) Vedic period (b) Nanda period
68. Who among the following was called Shakespeare (c) Maurya period (d) Gupta period
of India? 80. Who was Dhanavantri?
(a) Kalidas (b) Patanjali (a) A Chemist (b) A Physician
(c) Chanakya (d) Gautam (c) A Philosopher (d) A Surgeon
69. Who of the following was the author of 81. Who declared the ‘Law of Gravity’ long before
Meghadoota? the Newton’s law ?
(a) Vishakhdatta (b) Vishnusharma (a) Aryabhatta (b) Prithuyasas
(c) Kalidas (d) Bhashkar (c) Brahmagupta (d) Varahamihira


82. Gold coins attributed to Harsha depict on the 93. Who among the following foreign invaders
reverse sacked the Temple of Somnath?
(a) Avalokitesvara (b) Tara (a) Changez Khan
(c) Surya (d) Shiva-Parvati (b) Amir Timur
83. Who is credited with the establishment of the (c) Mahmud of Ghazni
Vikramashila Mahavihara? (d) Muhammad Ghori
(a) Harsha (b) Bhaskaravarman 94. Rajashekhara, the author of ‘Karpurmanjari’, was
(c) Dharmapala (d) Vijayasena the teacher of
(a) Mahendrapala I (b) Narsimhavarma II
ww
84. The famous commentator of Vedic literature,
associated with the Paramaras was
(a) Apararka (b) Kshirasvamin
(c) Bhoja parmara (d) Yuvarajadeva II
95. Who among the following established the
Somapura Mahavihara, a good educational centre
w.E
(c) Soyana
in administration under
(a) Chalukyas
(d) Uvata
85. Ladies had comparatively a greater participation
(b) Cholas
of the time?
(a) Dharmapal
(c) Nayapala
(b) Mahipala
(d) Rajyapala
(c) Kalachuris
asy
(d) Pratiharas
86. Who among the following exposed evils of the
96. Who was the Chola king under whose
reign Brihadishwar Temple of Tanjore was
constructed?
(a) Vishakhadatta (b) Banabhatta
(c) Kalhana En
contemporary society by his satirical writings?
(d) Kshemendra

(a) Rajendra I
(c) Rajaraja I
(b) Kulottevnga I
(d) Rajadhiraj I
‘Brahma-Kshatriya’? gin
87. Who among the following considered themselves
97. How many students were studying in the Nalanda
University as mentioned by Hiuen Tsang?
(a) 8,000 (b) 10,000
(a) Chalukyas
(c) Palas
(b) Cholas
(d) Senas
ee
88. The term ‘Mandapika’ occurring in early medieval
inscriptions denotes
(c) 12,000
rin
(d) 15,000
98. Who among the following rulers had granted
one lakh balotras from his own treasury for the
restoration of a mosque at Khambhat?

(a) Hermitage
(c) Rest house
(b) Custom house
(d) Assembly hall
89. Who among the following assumed the title
(a) Bhima I
(b) Chamundaraya g.n
‘Nihsanka - ‘Sankara’ ?
(a) Basava (b) Sankaracharya
(c) Rajendra Chola (d) Ballalasen
90. Who is the last king described in the Rajatarangini
(c) Jayasimha Siddharaja
(d) Kumarapala
et
99. Who among the following had the title
‘Amoghavarsha’ ?
(a) Munja Paramara
of Kalhna? (b) Rajendra Chola
(a) Anantavarman (b) Chandrapida (c) Govinda Chandra Gahadavala
(c) Jayasimha (d) Muktapida (d) None of these
91. Who among the following is considered to be the 100. The evidence of water-tax is provided by the
author of the Sangitaraja? inscriptions of
(a) Bhoja (b) Hemadri (a) Pratiharas (b) Gahadavala
(c) Krishnadevaraya (d) Rana Kumbha (c) Chalukyas (d) Rashtrakutas
92. Who among the following was the patron of the 101. Which among the following is not found inscribed
Kota school of painting? on Chola coins?
(a) Balawant Singh (b) Govardhan Singh (a) Fish (b) Bow
(c) Savant Singh (d) Umed Singh (c) Tiger (d) Elephant

History || A-45
102. A Chaitya Hall at which of the following 112. Who was ruling the Chola kingdom at the time of
places was built largely by the donation of the Mahmud Ghazni’s expedition of Somnath?
Yavanas? (a) Uttama Chola (b) Rajaraja I
(a) Ajanta (b) Bhaja (c) Rajendra I (d) Kulotenga
(c) Junnar (d) Karle 113. Gangai Kondacholapuram became the adminis-
103. Who among the following rulers of the Chola trative centre of the Cholas from the time of
dynasty carried out the first naval expedition (a) Parantaka (b) Rajendra I
against South-East Asia? (c) Rajaraja I (d) Vikrama Chola
(a) Rajadhiraja (b) Rajaraja I
ww
(c) Rajendra I (d) Vira Rajendra
104. Who destroyed the Nalanda University in 1202
AD ?
114. The Chola rulers were generally the worshippers
of
(a) Shiva (b) Vishnu

w.E (a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Bakhtiyar Khalji
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni
(c) Sakti (d) Kartikeya
115. Rajasekhara’s marriage to Avantisundari is an
example of
(d) Qutbuddin Aibak
asy
105. Who among the following has been criticized by
Kalhana for confiscating the temple treasure?

(a) Sagotra marriage
(b) Savarna marriage
(c) Anuloma marriage
(a) Avantivarman (b) Didda
(c) Harsha En
(d) Lalitaditya
(d) Pratiloma marriage
116. Who shifted the Chahamana capital from Sambhar
(a) Devapala gin

106. The Kaivarta rebellion occurred in Bengal during
the reign of
(b) Vigrahapala
to Ajmer?
(a) Ajayaraja
(c) Vighraharaja
(b) Arnoraja
(d) Prithviraja III
(c) Mahipala II (d) Ramapala
ee
107. Who among the following Rashtrakuta rulers is
known to have made the ‘Hiranya-garbha-dana’
at Ujjaini?
117. Kumardevi, the Queen of Govindachandra
Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakra-jina-
vihar at
(a) Bodhgaya rin (b) Kushinagar
(a) Dantidurga
(c) Govinda III
(b) Dhruva
(d) Amoghavarsha
108. Which among the following coin names occur in
(c) Kannauj
g.n (d) Sarnath
118. Who among the following issued coins with
the Pratihara inscriptions?
(a) Satamana
(c) Dramma
(b) Nishka
(d) Dinara
109. Who among the following levied Turushka-

Devanagri on the other?
et
seated Lakshmi on one side and ruler’s name in
(a) Mohammad Ghori (b) Mahmud Ghazni

(c) Jainul Abidin (d) Akbar
danda? 119. The Huna princess Avalladevi was the Queen of
(a) Gahadavalas (b) Chandellas (a) Gangeyadeva (b) Karna
(c) Chahamanas (d) Shahis (c) Dharmapala (d) Kumarapala
110. Which of the following sources provides a vivid 120. The Kirti-Stambha at Chittor was built by
description of Sindh? (a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Kumbha
(a) Khazainul Futuh (b) Tarikh-i-Firoz-Shahi (c) Rana Pratap (d) Rana Udaisingh
(c) Insha-i-mehru (d) Chachnamah 121. Harsha had assumed the title
111. The ethnic composition of the armies of (a) Parama-Bhagavata
Ghaznavids did not include the (b) Parama-Mahesvara
(a) Arabs (b) Indians (c) Parama-Saugata
(c) Tajiks (d) Greeks (d) Parama-Adityabhah


122. The Chola rulers were generally 131. ‘Niralamba Saraswati’ thus lamented a poet at the
(a) Saivites demise of
(b) Vaisnavites (a) Chahmana Visaladeva
(c) Worshippers of Mother goddess (b) Chandela Kirtivarma
(d) Worshippers of Kartikeya (c) Mihira Bhoja
123. Who among the following took strong steps to (d) Bhoja Paramara
stop gambling in his state? 132. The Vikramshila Mahavihara, the renowed
(a) Bhoja Paramara educational centre of Pala period at
(b) Kalchuri Karna (a) Antichak (b) Aphasad
ww
(c) Kumarapala
(d) Jayasimha Siddharaja
124. The Turkish brought with them musical
(c) Basarh (d) Chandimau
133. Which of the following temples does not belong
to the Cholas?

w.E instruments
(a) Rabab and Sarangi
(b) Sitar and Flute
(a) Brihadishwara (b) Koranganatha
(c) Kalilashnatha (d) Airavateshwar
134. Who of the following Rajput rulers gave donation

(c) Veena and Tabla
(d) Tanpura and Mridang
asy
125. Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini, continued the historical

for the reconstruction of a mosque?
(a) Mihir Bhoja
(c) Prithviraj III
(b) Bhoja Parmar
(d) Jaisingh Siddharaj
narration of Kalhana upto
(a) Jayasimha En 135. Which dynasty do the Arab writers refer to when
they say that the women did not cover their faces
with veil?

(b) Sultan Sikandar
(c) Sultan Zainul Abidin
(d) Muhammad Shah gin (a) Pala
(c) Rashtrakutas (d) Cholas
(b) Pratihara
126. Who among the following is famous for his

commentary on Manusmriti?
(a) Visvarupa
(c) Medhatithi
(b) Vijnanesvara
(d) Apararka
ee 136. Which one of the following Chola rulers had

persecuted Ramanuja and Ousted him from his
Kingdom?
(a) Kulotunga I
rin (b) Kulotunga II
127. Harsha’s military expansion in the Deccan was

checked by
(a) Mahendravarman (b) Dantidurga
(c) Adhirajendra
g.n(d) Rajaraja I
137. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as
the founder of the Vardhana dynasty?
(c) Rajendra (d) Pulkesin II
128. The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavira Swami
was held at
(a) Champa (b) Vaishali
(a) Kadambari
(b) Harshacharita
et
(c) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha
(d) Yuan-Chwang
138. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden
(c) Takshashila (d) Nalanda leaves from the Burmese king Kyansittha?
129. Who of the following adopted Garuda’s dynasty (a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra I
emblem after the imperial Guptas? (c) Kulottunga I (d) Rajadhiraja I
(a) Rashtrakutas (b) Western Chalukyas 139. Which one of the following was the primary
(c) Shilaharas (d) Chedis assembly in the Chola village administration?
130. The north Indian dynasties that confronted the (a) Nadu (b) Sabha
Rashtrakutas were (c) Ur (d) Mahasabha
(a) The Pratiharas and the Paramaras 140. A Chalukya inscription is dated in the year 556 of
(b) The Palas and the Chandelas the Saka era. It is equivalent to
(c) The Pratiharas and the Palas (a) 478 AD (b) 499 AD
(d) The Chalukyas and the Chahamans (c) 613 AD (d) 634 AD

History || A-47
141. Vikramshila Mahavihar was established by the 151. Who sent Heiun-Tsang as an envoy to Harsha’s
ruler of court?
(a) Pushyabhuti dynasty (a) Tai Tsung (b) Tung-Kuan
(b) Barman dynasty (c) Ku Yen-wa (d) None of these
(c) Sen dynasty 152. Where was the capital of Sasanka?
(d) Pala dynasty (a) Samatata (b) Tamralipta
142. Which dynasty constructed the Ellora Kailash (c) Karna-swarna (d) Lakhmawati
Temple? 153. Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped
(a) Rashtrakuta (b) Satvahan
ww
(c) Maurya (d) Pulkasya
143. The Lakshman Era was started by which of the
following dynasty?

on the Narmada river by
(a) Pulkesin I (b) Pulkesin II
(c) Vikramaditya I (d) Vikramaditya II
w.E
(a) Pratiharas
(c) Chauhans
(b) Palas
(d) Senas
144. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra
154. Who built the Khajuraho temples?
(a) Holkars
(c) Bundela
(b) Scindias
(d) Chandela
Vihara at
(a) Bodhgaya
asy
Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-chakra-Jina
(b) Rajgrih
155. Arabs were defeated in 738 AD by
(a) Pratiharas
(c) Palas
(b) Rashtrakutas
(d) Chalukyas
(c) Kushinagar
En
(d) Sarnath
145. Which of the following dynasties frequently
156. The Dilwara temple is located at
(a) Bhubaneswar (b) Aurangabad
administration?
(a) Chola gin
assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in
(b) Chalukya
(c) Khajuraho (d) Mount Abu
157. Who founded the four Mathas in the four corners
of India?
(c) Pala
Harshavardhana?
(d) Sena
(a) Harshacharita (b) Ratnavali

ee
146. Which of the following was not composed by
(a) Shankaracharya (b) Ramanujacharya
(c) Bhaskaracharya (d) Madhvacharya
rin
158. The Lingaraja Temple built during the medieval
period is at
(c) Priyadarshika (d) Nagananda
147. In which court was a Chinese embassy sent by
T’ang emperor?
(c) Madurai g.n
(a) Bhubaneswar (b) Khajuraho
(d) Mount Abu
(a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra I
(c) Harshavardhana (d) Prantaka I
148. The Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram were
built under the patronage of the

(a) Goddess Durga
(b) Goddess Laxmi
(c) Goddess Saraswati
et
159. The presiding deity of Bhojsala Temple is
(a) Chola kings (b) Pandya kings (d) Goddess Parvati

(c) Pallava kings (d) Satavahan kings 160. Which one of the following is not a feature of
149. Who wrote the ‘Harshacharita’? North Indian temple architecture?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Banabhatta (a) Shikhara (b) Garbha Griha
(c) Vishnugupta (d) Parimalgupta (c) Gopuram (d) Pradakshina-path
150. The religious conferences were held by king 161. Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built in the
Harshavardhana at reign of which Pallava ruler?
(a) Kannauj and Prayag (a) Mahendravarman
(b) Prayag and Thaneshwar (b) Narasinghvarman I
(c) Thaneshwar and Vallabhi (c) Parameshwarvarman
(d) Vallabhi and Prayag (d) Nandivarman I


162. Which one of the following Chola kings (a) Kautilya (b) Sudraka
conquered Ceylon (Sinhal) first ? (c) Rajasekhara (d) Dandin
(a) Aditya I (b) Rajaraja I 170. Sugandhadevi who issued coins with the figure of
(c) Rajendra (d) Vijayalaya seated Lakshmi was a Queen of
163. The Seven Pagodas of Mahabalipuram are a (a) Karnataka (b) Kashmir
witness to the art patronised by the (c) Orissa (d) Saurashtra
(a) Pallavas (b) Pandyas 171. Who among the following believed in the theory
(c) Cholas (d) Cheras of Bheda-bhed?
164. At which of the following places is the famous
ww Kailasha Temple located?

(a) Ajanta (b) Badami
(a) Vallabhacharya (b) Nimbarakacharya
(c) Madhvacharya (d) Ramanujacharya
172. Which one of the following is the smallest
w.E
(c) Chittor
temple is situated at
(a) Hampi
(d) Ellora
165. The famous Idol of Gomteshwar and famous Jain
(b) Srirangapattam
measure?
(a) Adhaka
(c) Khari
(b) Kumbha
(d) Drona
(c) Sravanbelgola (d) Mysore
asy
166. ‘Ramayan’ the Tamil version of the great epic
173. Astanga Samgraha is a text on
(a) Astronomy
(c) Polity
(b) Philosophy
(d) Medicine

Ramayana was made by
(a) Kamban
(c) Ilango Adigal En
(b) Avvaiyar
(d) None of these
174. Which of the following places was known as
Mahodaya?
gin
167. Which one of the following is not a work on
architecture?
(a) Allahabad
(c) Ujjain
(b) Kannauj
(d) Pataliputra
(a) Manasare
(b) Samarangana Sutradhara
(c) Mahavastu
(d) Mayamata
ee 175. Which of the following Orissan temples has a
Sikhar of Dravidian style?
(a) Jagannath
(c) Rajarani
rin (b) Lingaraj
(d) Vaital Devl
168. Which one of the following was a land measure?
(a) Dharaka
(c) Nivartana
(b) Karsha
(d) Vimsopaka g.n
176. Which of the following temples was a well
known centre of higher education?
(a) Dasavatar Temple at Devogarh
169. Which of the following writers has mentioned
the river Narmada as the dividing line between
Aryavartta and Daksinapatha?

et
(b) Sasbahu Temple at Gwalior
(c) Shore Temple at Mamallapuram
(d) Trayipurusha Temple at Salotgi

History || A-49
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 24. (a) 47. (d) 70. (b) 93. (c) 116. (a) 139. (c) 162. (b)
2. (b) 25. (a) 48. (d) 71. (b) 94. (a) 117. (d) 140. (a) 163. (a)
3. (b) 26. (d) 49. (b) 72. (c) 95. (a) 118. (a) 141. (d) 164. (d)
4. (a) 27. (b) 50. (d) 73. (d) 96. (a) 119. (a) 142. (a) 165. (c)
5. (a) 28. (c) 51. (c) 74. (c) 97. (b) 120. (b) 143. (d) 166. (a)
ww 6.
7.
(c)
(d)
29.
30.
(b)
(c)
52.
53.
(a)
(a)
75.
76.
(c)
(d)
98.
99.
(c)
(d)
121.
122.
(b)
(a)
144.
145.
(d)
(b)
167.
168.
(c)
(c)
w.E
10.
8.
9.
(c)
(d)
(c)
31.
32.
33.
(a)
(a)
(a)
54.
55.
56.
(c)
(d)
(d)
77.
78.
79.
(d)
(a)
(d)
100.
101.
102.
(b)
(d)
(d)
123.
124.
125.
(c)
(a)
(c)
146.
147.
148.
(a)
(c)
(c)
169.
170.
171.
(c)
(b)
(b)
11.
12.
(d)
(d)
34.
35.
(a)
(c)
asy
57.
58.
(a)
(d)
80.
81.
(b)
(c)
103.
104.
(c)
(b)
126.
127.
(c)
(d)
149.
150.
(b)
(a)
172.
173.
(a)
(d)
13. (b) 36. (d) 59.
En
(b) 82. (d) 105. (c) 128. (d) 151. (a) 174. (b)
14.
15.
(b)
(c)
37.
38.
(d)
(b)
60.
61.
gin
(c)
(d)
83.
84.
(c)
(d)
106.
107.
(c)
(a)
129.
130.
(a)
(c)
152.
153.
(c)
(b)
175.
176.
(d)
(d)
16.
17.
18.
(c)
(b)
(c)
39.
40.
41.
(c)
(c)
(b)
62.
63.
64.
(b)
(d)
(a)
ee
85.
86.
87.
(a)
(a)
(d)
108.
109.
110.
(c)
(a)
(d)
131.
132.
133.
(d)
(a)
(c)
154.
155.
rin
156.
(d)
(a)
(d)
19.
20.
(c)
(b
42.
43.
(a)
(d)
65.
66.
(c)
(b)
88.
89.
(c)
(d)
111.
112.
(d)
(c)
134.
135.
(d)
(d) g.n
157.
158.
(a)
(a)
21.
22.
23.
(c)
(b)
(b)
44.
45.
46.
(d)
(c)
(c)
67.
68.
69.
(d)
(a)
(c)
90.
91.
92.
(c)
(a)
(d)
113.
114.
115.
(b)
(a)
(c)
136.
137.
138.
(a)
(b)
(d)
159.
160.
161.
et (c)
(c)
(b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The Gupta king, Chandragupta II had and Malwa (central India). To strengthen his
another name Devagupta. Chandragupta II was southern flank, he made marriage arrangements for
the third, and most significant of the Gupta kings his daughters with southern dynasties. In different
(C.375–C.415). Inheriting a large empire, he inscriptions, Chandragupta II also named as Devasri
extended his control to Gujarat (north of Bombay) and Devaraja in various inscriptions.


2. (b) Chandragupta II ascended the throne in the year 7. (d) The word Dinara used for the gold coins in the
56 of Gupta era. In 319, Chandragupta created for gupta inscription is derived from Latin. The main
himself the title King of Kings (Maharajadhiraja), purpose behind the choice of Gupta coin designs
and he extended his rule westward to Prayaga, seems to have been one of political propaganda.
in north-central India. Ten years into his rule, The king is always shown in ways that emphasize
Chandragupta lay dying, and he told his son, his status as a great ruler and heroic warrior. The
Samudragupta, to rule the whole world. His son representations are idealized images that adhere
tried. Samudragupta’s forty-five years of rule would to the strict contemporary artistic concepts of the
be described as one vast military campaign. He perfect human form.
ww waged war along the Ganges plain, overwhelming

nine kings and incorporating their subjects and
lands into the Gupta empire.
8. (c) Acquisition of wealth was the main objective
of Sultan Mahmud’s Indian conquests. In 1001,
Mahmud of Ghazni had first invaded India. Mahmud
w.E
3. (b) Bayana was the biggest hoard of Gupta era’s
coins. The collection and study of coins is known
as Numismatics. The bayana hoard of coins was
defeated, captured and later released Shahi ruler
Jaya Pala who had moved his capital to Peshawar.
Jaya Pala killed himself and was succeeded by
asy
discovered by A.S. Altekar. Mr. Altekar, the person
who had hoarded the coins might be a collector
himself since most of the Gupta dynasty coins
his son Ananda Pala. In 1005, Mahmud of Ghazni
invaded Bhatia (probably Bhera) and in 1006 he
En
spanning 200+ years were found together in a single
vessel. The Bayan is the place in Rajasthan.
invaded Multan at which time Ananda Pala’s army
attacked him.
9. (d) Vishnugopa was the ruler of Kanchi during
gin
4. (a) During Gupta period, sun was called Lokarka.
The Gupta period developed a form of sculpture
that was wholly Indian, the foreign influences that
the time of Samudragupta. In the southern Pallava
kingdom of Kanchipuram, he defeated king
ee
had crept in the Gandhara and Mathura schools
of arts disappeared. Most sculptures focused on
religious and spiritual themes, like the Buddha or
Hindu gods like Vishnu and Shiv. The art had been
Vishnugopa, then restored him and other defeated
southern kings to their thrones on payment of
rin
tribute. Several northern kings were uprooted,
however, and their territories added to the Gupta
highly developed and the sculptures were exquisite.
5. (a) The guild organization described in the
Mandsore inscription of Kumargupta was known as g.n
empire. At the height of Samudragupta’s power,
he controlled nearly all of the valley of the Ganges
(Ganga) river and received homage from rulers of
Tantuvaya. This inscription informs us that he was
a feudatory of the Gupta emperor Kumargupta I. It
was during his reign, a temple dedicated to Surya
was constructed by the guild of silk-weavers at
et
parts of east Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part
of the Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.
10. (c) The guild which migrated from Lata to
Daspura during the time of Kumargupta traded in
Dashapura in the Malava Samvat 493 (436 CE). silken textile.
This temple was renovated in 473 CE by the same 11. (d) Skandgupta was the Gupta ruler who defeated
guild. the Hunas.Soon after his accession, Skandagupta
6. (c) Nivartana was a land measure in Gupta had to face the Hunas who had already proved
period. Different land measures were known in themselves to be terror to both Europe and Asia.
different regions, such as Nivartana, Kulyavapa and About the middle of the fifth century AD, one branch
Dronavapa. The importance of irrigation to help of the Hunas known as White Hunas occupied the
agriculture was recognized in India from the earliest Oxus valley and threatened both Persia and India.
times. According to Narada, there are two kinds of They conquered Gandhara and threatened the very
dykes the bardhya which protected the field from existence of the Gupta empire. Skandgupta inflicted
floods and the Khaya which served the purpose of such a terrible defeat upon the Hunas that they dared
irrigation. not disturb the empire for nearly half a century.

History || A-51
12. (d) Damodarpur copper plate inscription of the and it was not until about 100 AD that the Kushan
Gupta period gives details regarding the sale of emperor Vima Kadaphises introduced the first
land. Damodarpur (in Dinajpur District) Copper Indian gold coin, which was a gold dinar bearing the
Plate No.1 of Kumargupta I (443–444AD) is image of Shiva. So India’s history of issuing gold
probably the most important for a knowledge coins dates back almost 2,000 years.
of local administrative pattern and is the most 17. (b) Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of
popular source for historians. It refers to Visayapati Chandragupta II. Prabhavatigupta was married to
Kumaramatya Vetravarman, who was appointed the powerful Vakataka dynasty ruler Rudrasena II
by (Tanniyukta) the Uparika Ciratadatta, Governor (r.380–385 CE). Rudrasena II, died fortuitously
ww of Pundravardhana Bhukti. Vetravarman being in-

charge of Kotivarsa Visaya (dist.) administered the
government of the locality in the Administrative
after a very short reign in 385 CE, following which
Queen Prabhavati Gupta (r. 385–405) ruled the
Vakataka kingdom as a regent on behalf of her two
w.EBoard in company of Dhrtipala, the Nagaraśresthi,

Bandhumitra, the Sarthavaha, Dhrtimitra – the
Prathamakulika and Śambapala – the Prathama
Kayastha. They were seen to come together and
sons. During this twenty-year period, the Vakataka
realm was practically a part of the Gupta empire.
18. (c) Samudragupta is depicted as playing on a flute
on his coins. It was played with the strings being kept
consult on the sales of land.
asy
13. (b) Chandragupta I was the first ruler of Gupta
dynasty to assume the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja’
parallel to the body of the player, with both hands
plucking the strings, as shown on Samudragupta’s
gold coins. Early literary sources of an ancient
En
Chandragupta I assumed the high-sounding title of
Maharajadhiraja (Great king of Kings). Conceding
instrument called the Saptatantree Veenaa (7-string
Veenaa) seem to coincide generally with the type of
gin
the importance of his wife, Chandragupta issued
gold coins in the joint names of himself, his
queent Kumaradevi and the Lichchhavi nation.
instrument represented on the coin.
19. (c) The concept of Trimurti was propgated during
the Gupta period. Trimurti is a Hinduism concept
era.
ee
Emboldened by his success, he established a new
14. (b) In the Gupta inscription, Samudragupta has

been called ‘Lichchhavi Dauhitra”. There is also
in which the functions of creation, preservation and
destruction are personified. They are embodied by
rin
the forms of the creator, Brahma, preserver, Vishnu
and the destroyer known as Shiva.
evidence of relationship between the early Guptas
and the Lichchhavis. Chandragupta I married the
Lichchhavi princess Kumaradevi, for which reason g.n
20. (b) It is usually held that Chandragupta I was the
first imperial ruler who introduced currency system
and that the Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type of gold
their son Samudragupta has been called Lichchhavi
– duhitra. It is further indicated by some gold coins
which, on the obverse, bear their figures and names
and, on the reverse, the name of the Lichchhavis.
15. (c) Chandragupta II, the Gupta king was first to
et
coins were the earliest gold coins of the dynasty.
But according to the scholars, it was Samudragupta
who first issued Gupta coins that his first gold coins
were of standard type and that later on he issued
the Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type of coins to
issue silver coins. The large number of beautiful commemorate his father’s marriage to Lichchhavi
gold coins issued by the Gupta dynasty are a princess which had proved to be great benefit to
testament to the imperial grandeur of that age. the Gupta dynasty. The minting of silver coins was
Chandragupta II also started producing silver coins first started in the reign of Chandragupta II and was
in the Saka tradition. The conquest is indicated by continued by Kumargupta I and Skandgupta.
the issue of the new Gupta silver coinage modelled 21. (c) The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of
on the previous Saka coinage showing on observe ‘Param Bhagawata’ was Chandragupta II. The
the King’s head, Greek script, and dates as on Saka Bhagavata Purana entails the fully developed tenets
coins. and philosophy of the Bhagavata tradition wherein
16. (c) The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinar. Krishna gets fused with Vasudeva and transcends
The world’s first coins were Greek, made in Lydia Vedic Vishnu and cosmic Hari to be turned into the
about 640 BC. The earliest Indian coins were silver, ultimate object of Bhakti.


22. (b) The officer responsible for the safe custody of in marriage to Vakataka king, Rudra Sena II. The
land records during the Gupta period was known Vakataka alliance was master stroke of diplomacy
as Karanika. This is the Dhruvadhi-Karanika as it secured the subordinate alliance of the Vakataka
(otherwise called Dhruvasthanadhikaranika) the king who occupied a strategic geographical position.
officer in-charge of the Dhruvas,’ the last term being It is noteworthy that Rudra Sena died young and his
applied till recent times in Kathiawar and Cutch to widow reigned until her sons came of age.
denote persons who superintended the collection of 28. (c) The travel account of Fa-hien is known as Fo-
land-revenue by the farmers on the king’s behalf. kwo-ki. Fa-hien was the first Chinese monk to travel
23. (b) Samudragupta (335-375 AD) of the Gupta to India in search of great Buddhist scriptures. At the
ww dynasty is known as the Napoleon of India.

Historian AV Smith called him so because of his
great military conquests known from the ‘Prayag
age of sixty-five, he travelled, mostly on foot, from
Central China taking the southern route through
Shenshen, Dunhuang, Khotan, and then over the
w.EPrashati’ written by his courtier and poet Harisena,

who also describes him as the hero of a hundred
battles. But some leading Indian historians criticise
Smith and feel that Samudragupta was a far greater
29.
Himalayas, to Gandhara and Peshawar.
(b) AV Smith complimented Samudragupta as
the Indian Napoleon. Samudragupta embarked
battle.
asy
warrior than Napoleon, as the former never lost any
24. (a) The first inscriptional evidence of satipratha

upon a policy of conquest. In fact,Digvijay became
the ultimate call of his life. For his military
achievements, he has been aptly complemented by
En
has been found from Eran.Some reliable records
indicate the practice before the time of the Gupta
the historian AV Smith as the Indian Napoleon. He
has described Samudragupta as the Hero of Hundred
Battles.
gin
empire, approximately 400 CE. After about this
time, instances of Sati began to be marked by
inscribed memorial stones. According to Axel
30. (c) The Hunas invaded India during the reign of
Skandgupta. Hunas were Iranian-speaking Xionite
ee
Michaels, the first clear proofs of the practice is
from Nepal in 464 CE, and in India from 510 CE.
In India, the earliest of these memorial stones are
found in Sagar, Madhya Pradesh, though the largest
tribes who, via Khyber Pass, entered India at the end
of the 5th or early 6th century and were defeated by
rin
the Hindu Gupta Empire. In its farthest geographical
extent in India, the Huna empire covered the region
up to Malwa in central India.
collections date from several centuries later, and are
found in Rajasthan.
25. (a) Mathura was a strong centre of the pasupates
31.
g.n
(a) The silver coins issued by the Guptas were
called Rupaka. The silver coin was called Rupaka
during the time of Chandragupta II. A large number
of coins were found at places like Mathura and
Kannauj and in Panchala region which are supposed
to be associated with the Mitra rulers. The basis of
the coins are generally believed to have flourished
et
based on Sakas of Ujjaini weighing 32–36 grains.
According to Fa hien, cowries were very common
means of exchange. In Delhi Sultanate, gold coins
were called Tanka which were equivalent to the
Greek Drachm standard of 67 grains. The silver
between C.100 BC and C.200 AD. coins were called Drama.
26. (d) Vikramaditya epithet does not belong to 32. (a) Out of eighteen rulers of the family, at least
Samudragupta. Samudragupta was the greatest of one-third were women. This statement is applicable
the Gupta rulers, the founder of the Guptas empire, to Bhaunakaras. In the course of the 16th and
the “Indian Napoleon” by virtue of his military 17th centuries during the Sultanate of Women,
exploits, a diplomat and statesman of the first order, women of the imperial Harem had extraordinary
an able and efficient administrator, “the prince of influence on politics of Ottoman empire. Many of
poets”, (Kaviraj) the protector and defender of the the Sultans during this time were minors and it was
poor and the weak. their mothers, sometimes daughters of the sultan
27. (b) Kuberanaga was the mother of prabhavati as Mihrimah Sultan, leaders of the Harem, who
gupta. Chandragupta II married the Naga Princess effectively ruled the empire. Most of these women
Kuberanaga and gave his own daughter, Prabhabati, were of slave origin.

History || A-53
33. (a) Rudradev suffered defeat at the hands of or simply Varaha, was one of the most celebrated
Samudragupta. After the death of Hameer Dev, scientists in South Asian history, having made
Rudra Dev became the king. He was a brave substantial contributions to virtually all branches
person. He established the peace in his state. He of the arts and sciences. He wrote three important
was married to the daughter of neighbouring state books: Panchasiddhantika, Brihat Samhita, and
and got that state in dowry. He declared Rudri as his Brihat Jataka. Brihat Samhita is a compilation of an
capital of the state. He got the temple of lord Shiva assortment of topics that provides interesting details
constructed on the bank of Mahanadi. This temple is of prevailing beliefs. Brihat Jataka is a book on
famous by the name of Rudreshwar. astrology.
ww
34. (a) The word Vishti means Forced labour.While
the Kshatriyas acquired their share of the social
surplus through the force of arms in the form
39. (c) Abhigyanashakuntalam contains
description of the king Dushyant of Hastinapur.
Abhigynanasakuntalam is a beautiful tale of love and
the
w.Eof taxes (Kar, Shulka, Bali, etc.), forced labour

(Vishti, Balutam, etc.), tithes and other privileges.
The Brahmin clergy enforced its claim to the social
surplus through a moral deterrent which was based
romance, the name literally meaning ‘Of Sakuntala
who is recognized by a token’. Written by one of the
greatest poets of India, Sakuntalam is synonymous
with its author, Kalidasa. Abhigynanasakuntalam
asy
on strength of the tribal morality of distribution.
35. (c) The royal emblem used by the Gupta period
was Garuda. Most people now realize that Rapson
is the first Indian play ever to be translated into
western languages. It is for the very first time
translated in English language by Sir William Jones
En
was mistaken in identifying the central bird as a
peacock; rather, it is the mythic eagle Garuda, the
in the year 1789. Later to this, there were at least 46
translations of this play by Kalidasa in 12 different
gin
dynastic symbol of the Guptas. For example, A.S.
Altekar says that the three-arched hill in the centre
is replaced by Garuda, which was the imperial
European languages.
40. (c) Sushruta is known for his work on medicine
during the Gupta period. Sushruta was the first
ee
insignia of the Guptas. The view of earlier writers
that the bird is a peacock is clearly untenable.
36. (d) Much is known about Samudragupta through
coins issued by him and inscriptions. These were
Indian surgeon of 600 century BC. The only bust
of Sushruta is placed in Sushrutanagar, near Siliguri
rin
of India. The Sushruta Samhita is a Sanskrit text
on surgery. The work is attributed to Sushruta, a
of eight different types and all made of pure gold.
His conquests brought him the gold and also the
coin-making expertise from his acquaintance with g.n
historical physician of 6th century BCE, although
the text as preserved dates to the 3rd or 4th century
CE. It is one of three foundational texts of Ayurveda
the Kushana. Most certainly, Samudragupta is
the father of Gupta monetary system. He started
minting different types of coins. They are known as
the Standard Type, the Archer Type, the Battle Axe
Type, the Ashvamedha Type, the Tiger Slayer Type,
et
(Indian traditional medicine).
41. (b) Chinese traveller Fa-hien visited India during
the reign of Chandragupta II. Fa-hien was the first
Chinese Buddhist pilgrim to leave an account of his
travels to Central Asia, India, and Sri Lanka. The
the King and Queen Type and the Lute Player Type. name of this monk may correctly be pronounced as
37. (d) Expansion of agricultural land took place on Faxian but is also written as Fa-hien. A native of
the largest scale in Gupta age. The degeneration Shanxi (Shansi), he left home at the tender age of
of the Vaisya’s (the third, or trader caste), which three to join the Buddhist Sangha.
had begun earlier, intensiﬁed during this period. 42. (a) Srigupta was the first known Gupta ruler.
Because of advanced agricultural techniques and The Gupta empire was an ancient Indian empire,
developments in handicrafts, the condition of the founded by Maharaja Sri Gupta, which existed from
Sudra’ s (the fourth, or menial caste) improved and approximately 320 to 550 CE and covered much of
there was no great difference between a poor Vaisya the Indian Subcontinent. The peace and prosperity
and a prosperous Sudra. created under the leadership of the Guptas enabled
38. (b) Varahamihira credited with authoring Brihat the pursuit of scientific and artistic endeavours. This
Samhita. Varahamihira, also called Varahamira period is called the Golden Age of India.


43. (d) Mrichhakatikam literary works did not belong theory that the Earth moves round the Sun, and
to the Gupta period. Of all the Sanskrit dramas, studied solar and lunar eclipses. Kalidasa, who
Mrichhakatica remains one of the most widely was a great playwright, who wrote plays such as
celebrated and oft-performed in the West, in part Shakuntala, which is said to have inspired Goethe,
because its plot structure more closely resembles and marked the highest point of Sanskrit literature is
that of Western classics than other Hindu plays. The also said to have belonged to this period.
work played a significant role in generating interest 49. (b) Samudragupta organised Ashwamedha Yajana.
in Indian theatre among European audiences When a king thought that he had conquered the
following several successful nineteenth century whole land, he used to let loose a white horse. The
ww translations and stage productions.

44. (d) The Prayaga Prasasti inscription is associated
with Samudragupta. The western scholars equate
him with Napoleon and call him Indian Napoleon
horse would roam wherever it liked. If anybody tried
to capture it, he would have to fight the king’s army.
If the horse returned home without being captured,
w.Edue to the extensive military conquests. His court

poet and minister Harisena composed the Allahabad
pillar inscription or Prayaga Prasasti. The Pillar
it meant that everyone in the land recognized the
power of the king. The horse was then offered as
sacrifice and killed. The ceremony was called the
Ashvamedha Yajana.
before him.
asy
was an Asokan pillar erected by Asoka six century
45. (c) Balaiyankutai in the pallava age was the

50. (d) Gupta period marks the begining of the Indian
temple architecture. The Gupta temple was a
“shikara” type of temple, built in a straight edged
En
name of a pond or tank. Majority of the irrigation
tanks were built from the 6th to the 10th centuries
of our era during the dynasty of the Pallavas. One
pyramid shape, but this cannot be fully established
by existing evidence. However, the supporting
gin
will understand the importance of these systems
of irrigation by noting that about one-third of
features of copings and amalakas (a bulbous stone
finial), support the theory that a shikara existed as
part of the main shrine.
ee
the surface area of the state is actually irrigated
by these omnipresent tanks (about 40,000 such
tanks), the two-thirds of water needs come from the
exploitation of ground water.
46. (c) Kalidasa flourished in the time of Chandragupta
51. (c) Aryabhatta and Varahamihira belonged
to Gupta age. During Gupta period education
rin
flourished and many great discoveries were made
in these fields. Aryabhatta and Varahamihira, the
II (reigned 380–413). A traditional Indian view
would have it that he adorned Vikramaditya’s court
in the 1st century BC. Although he was especially g.n
two great mathematicians contributed in the field
of Vedic Mathematics. Aryabhatta found and
estimated the value of “Pi” to the fourth decimal
fond of the Gupta capital city, Ujjain (about 30
miles north of Indore in west-central India), there
is no proof that he was born there. Kalidasa was a
devotee of shiva, but there is no trace.
et
place. Algebra was developed to a great extent and
the concepts of zero and infinity were also found
and symbols of numbers 1 to 9 were devised which
was a great contribution in mathematics. Advances
in astronomy were also on heights in Gupta Age.
47. (d) Kumarsambhavam an epic was composed
by Kalidasa.The Kumarsambhavam is widely 52. (a) Veersena was the author of Mandasore
regarded as one of Kalidasa’s finest works, a inscription. There is an inscription about
paradigmatic example of poetry. The style of Bandhuverma at Mandasore. The silk workers
description of spring set the standard for nature had constructed a Sun temple here which was
metaphors pervading many centuries of Indian repaired by Bandhuverma in Samvat 493. This
literary tradition.The period of composition is indicates that he was present there till 436 CE.
uncertain, although Kalidasa is thought of as having The Risthal stone slab inscription discovered in
lived in the 5th century AD. 1983 has brought to light another Aulikara dynasty,
48. (d) Sanskrit was the official language of Gupta which comprised the following kings in the order
period. Scholars of this period includeVarahamihira of succession: Drumavardhana, Jayavardhana
and Aryabhatta, who is believed to be the first to Ajitavardhana, Vibhishanavardhana, Rajyavardhana
come up with the concept of zero, postulated the and Prakashadharma.

History || A-55
53. (a) Kumarsambhavam describes the story of the considered to be the last recognized king of the
birth of Kartikeya. Kumarsambhavam is a legendary Gupta empire. His reign lasted 10 years, from 540
Sanskrit poem written by Mahakavi Kalidasa. It is to 550 CE. From the fragment of his clay sealing
one of the most substantial examples of `Kavya` discovered at Nalanda during the excavations of
poetry. Kumarsambhavam literally stands for 1927–28, we came to know that he was the son of
“Birth of the War-god”, i.e. Kartikeya, Shiva`s first Kumargupta III and the grandson of Narsimhagupta
son. Kumarsambhavam essentially talks about the Baladitya.
courtship of Lord Shiva and Parvati. The bulk of 59. (b) In 5th century AD, the famous Chinese
chapters have enormous details about the love and pilgrim Fa-hein visited India. Travelling through
ww romance between Shiva and Parvati.

54. (c) Samudragupta granted permission
Meghverma the ruler of Sri Lanka to build a Buddhist
to
central Asia and northwest India, Fa-hien reached
northern India and then visited the holy Buddhist
sites located in the Ganges valley: Kapilavastu,
w.Etemple in Gaya. Kittisirimegha of Sri Lanka, a

contemporary of Samudragupta, erected with the
permission of Samudragupta, a Sangharama near
the Mahabodhi Vihara, chiefly for the use of the
the birthplace of Buddha; Bodhgaya, the site of
Buddha’s enlightenment; Sarnath, where Buddha
preached his first sermon, and Kushinagara, the
tree.
asy
Singhalese monks who went to worship the Bodhi
55. (d) Kamandaka was the author of legal treatise

60.
place of Buddha’s nirvana.
(c) The decimal numeral system, including the
concept of zero was invented in India during the
En
‘Nitisara’. The Nitisara of Kamandaki a post-
Maurya treatise narrating the elements of polity
Gupta dynasty. The mathematical concept of zero
emerged in India about one and a half thousand
years ago.
gin
divided in twenty Sargas and thirty-six Prakarans is
dependent on the Arthashastra of Kautilya dealing
inter-alia with theories of social order authority
61. (d) In the courtyard of the Quwat-ul-Islam mosque
of Delhi stands the famous Iron pillar in the memory
ee
and obligation of the temporal ruler theories
of states, structure and organs of government
principles and policies of government, interstate
relations, functions of envoys ambassadors and
of Chandragupta II. The height of the pillar, from
the top of its capital to the bottom of its base, is 7.21
rin
m (23.7 ft), 1.12 m (3 ft 8 in) of which is below
ground. Its bell pattern capital is 1.07 m (3 ft 6 in) in
height, and its bulb-shaped base is 0.71 m (2 ft 4 in)
spies, application of different political expedients,
varieties of battle arrays, attitude towards morality,
etc. g.n
high. The base rests on a grid of iron bars soldered
with lead into the upper layer of the dressed stone
56. (d) In the Gupta administration, purpala was the
administrator of conquered territories. The person
was mostly from the authority who reigned in that
region itself but sometimes the faithful of king also
took the control of these territories.
62.
et
pavement. The pillar’s lower diameter is 420 mm
(17 in), and its upper diameter 306 mm (12.0 in). It
is estimated to weigh more than six tons.
(b) Sudraka’Mrichhakotikam is a ten-act Sanskrit
drama attributed to Sudraka an ancient playwright
57. (a) The Nagas style of architecture developed generally thought to have lived sometime between
mostly in North India. Chandra Gupta II also the second century BC and the fifth century AD
married to a Kadamba princess of Kuntala region whom the prologue identifies as a Kshatriya king
and a princess of Naga lineage (Nagakulotpannna), and a devotee of Shiva who lived for 100 years.
Kuberanaga. His daughter Prabhabatigupta from The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayani during
this Naga queen was married to Rudrasea II, the the reign of the King Palaka, near the end of the
Vakataka ruler of Deccan. His son Kumargupta I Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of
was married to Kadamba princess of Karnataka the fifth century BC.
region. 63. (d) The six district school of Indian philosophy
58. (d) Vishnugupta was the last ruler of the imperial Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaishasika, Mimansa,
Gupta family. Vishnugupta was one of the lesser Vedanta became fully articulated during the Gupta
known kings of the Gupta dynasty. He is generally period.


64. (a) Vegbhatta was the author of a famous to be associated with Kalidasa’s name, their own
Ayurvedic text Ashtanghriday. The science of names having long before ceased to be remembered.
chemistry, due to its Vedic antiquity might have been Only seven are generally considered genuine.
first recognized in India, as a separate discipline. 69. (c) Kalidas was the author of Meghadoota.
Alchemy and the science of medicine gave rise to Meghadoota, as perhaps nowhere else so plentifully
the study of chemistry in India. The ancient masters in Kalidasa’s works, are an unvarying freshness of
as mentioned in connection with chemistry are: inspiration and charm, delight imagery and fancy,
Patanjali, Bhavya Dattadeva, Vyadi, Svacchanda, profound insight into the emotions, and a oneness
Damodara, Vasudeva, Charaka, Sushruta, Harita with the phenomena of nature. Moreover, the
ww and Vagbhata. Ancient Sanskrit documents about

the advanced chemical science find the expression
in activities like distillation of perfumes and
fluidity and beauty of the language are probably
unmatched in Sanskrit literature, a feature all the
more remarkable for its inevitable loss in translation.
w.Efragrant ointments. It is also found in activities like

manufacturing of dyes and chemical preparation of
pigments and colours and polishing of mirrors.
70. (b) Vatsyayan was the author of Kamasutra.
Vatsyayana’s Kamasutra has 1250 verses, distributed
in 36 chapters, which are further organized into
asy
65. (c) Ujjain is a birth place of Brahmagupta. By the
6th century BC, Avanti with its capital at Ujjaini, is
mentioned in Buddhist literature as one of the four
seven parts.Historians attribute Kamasutra to be
composed between 400 BCE and 200 CE. Keay
says that the Kamasutra is a compendium that was
En
great powers along with Vatsa, Kosala and Magadha.
Ujjain lay on the main trade route between North
India and Deccan going from Mathura via Ujjain to
collected into its present form in the 2nd century
CE.
gin
Mahismati (Maheshwar) on the Narmada, and on to
Paithan on the Godavari, western Asia and the West.
71. (b) Gautam was the founder of Nyaya Darshan.
The system is based on Nyaya Sutras of Gautam
who is supposed to have lived around 3rd BC.
ee
66. (b) Amarsingh was the author of Amarkosha.
Amara seems to have been a Buddhist, and most of
his work was destroyed, with the exception of what
is the celebrated Amara-Kosha (Treasury of Amara),
a vocabulary of Sanskrit roots, in three books, and
This system investigates into both physical and
metaphysical subjects by the syllogistic method.
of logic.
rin
Thus, it includes metaphysics as well as the science
hence sometimes called Trikanda or the “Tripartite”.

It is also known as “Namalinganushasana”. It
72.
g.n
(c) Vatsabhatti was the court poet of Kumargupta.
Samudragupta by Harisena and the Mandasor
Inscription of Kumargupta by Vatsabhatti. Besides,
contains 10,000 words, and is arranged, like other
works of its class. The first chapter of the Kosha was
printed in Rome in Tamil character in 1798.
67. (d) In the Gupta period, the language used by the
people of low society level and women was prakrit.
et
information on Indian educational system have been
culled out from Buddhist and Jain literature along
with corroboratory account recorded by foreign
travellers like Fa-hien, Hiuen Tsang and I-tsing of
China and Hwui Lun of Korea.
The word, derived from its Indian root “Parikrit”,
73. (d) Aryabhatta explained that the earth rotates on
itself has a flexible definition, being defined
sometimes as, “original, natural, artless, normal, its axis but revolves round the sun. Aryabhatta was
ordinary, usual”, or “vernacular”, in contrast to the first to explain how the Lunar eclipse and the
the literary and religious orthodoxy of sanskrita. Solar eclipse happened. Aryabhatta also gave close
Alternatively, Prakrit can be taken to mean “derived approximation for Pi. In the Aryabhatiya, he wrote
from an original,” means evolved in natural way. : “Add 4 to 100, multiply by 8, then add 62000 and
68. (a) Kalidasa was called Shakespeare of India. then divided by 20000. The result is approximately
Numerous works have been attributed to his the circumference of a circle of diameter twenty
authorship. Most of them, however, are either by thousand.
lesser poets bearing the same name or by others of 74. (c) Ujjain was the second capital of Chandragupta
some intrinsic worth, whose works simply chanced Vikramaditya.

History || A-57
75. (c) Kumargupta established Nalanda University. 81. (c) Brahmagupta declared the ‘Law of Gravity’
Nalanda flourished between the reign of the long before the Newton’s Law. The great 7th century
Sakraditya (whose identity is uncertain and who Indian mathematician and astronomer Brahmagupta
might have been either Kumargupta I or Kumargupta wrote some important works on both mathematics
II) and 1197 AD, supported by patronage from the and astronomy. He was from the state of Rajasthan
Hindugupta rulers as well as Buddhist emperors like of northwest India (he is often referred to as
Harsha and later emperors from the Pala empire. Bhillamalacharya, the teacher from Bhillamala),
76. (d) During the Gupta period, the great epics of and later became the head of the astronomical
Ramayan and Mahabharat were given the final form. observatory at Ujjain in central India.
ww Traditionally, the authorship of the Mahabharata is

attributed to Vyasa. There have been many attempts
to unravel its historical growth and compositional
82. (d) Gold coins attributed to Harsha depict on
the reverse Shiva-Parvati. The Gupta period is
considered the “Golden Age” of classical India.
w.Elayers. The oldest preserved parts of the text are

thought to be not much older than around 400 BCE,
though the origins of the epic probably fall between
This was a time when great universities flourished
in Nalanda and Takshashila, and great writers, such
as the playwright Kalidasa, and great scientists, such
the 8th and 9th centuries BCE.
asy
77. (d) The land revenue during Gupta period was 1/6
to 1/4. The government revenue essentially came
as the mathematician and astronomer Aryabhatta,
who is credited with the concept of zero among his
many achievements, helped create an atmosphere of
En
from land as commercial activity was no longer as
big a contributor as it once was. Land revenue came
tremendous creative impulse.
83. (c) Dharampala credited with the establishment
gin
from a variety of sources, like direct tax on the land
as well as a tax on the produce of the land.
78. (a) Nalanda was the centre of higher education
of the Vikramashila Mahavihara. Vikramshila
Mahavihara was one of the two most important
centres of Buddhist learning in India during the Pala
ee
during Gupta period. Nalanda, situated near
Rajgriha in Bihar, was probably the highest seat of
Buddhist learning. It was established as a Buddhist
monastery probably during the reign of Kumargupta
dynasty. Established by king Dharmapala (783 to
820 CE), it is located about 50 km east of Bhagalpur
rin
and about 13 km north-east of Kahalgaon railway
station on Bhagalpur-Sahebganj section of eastern
I (414–445 A.D). A Buddhist tradition says that
Sakraditya established this centre of learning. It was
spread over an area of 1.6 km × 0.8 km. It had about g.n
railway. The area is under the protected jurisdiction
of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
84. (d) The famous commentator of Vedic literature,
1500 professors and 10,000 students. Such eminent
people as Panini, Jivaka and Chanakya are said to
have studied there.
79. (d) Gupta period is known as golden age of Indian
et
associated with the Parmaras was Uvata. The
Parmar dynasty was an early medieval Indian royal
house that ruled over the Malwa region in central
India. This dynasty was founded by Upendra in c.
history, as they issued large number of gold coins. 800; the most significant ruler was Bhoja I. The seat
80. (b) Dhanavantri was a physician. Dhanvantari is of the Parmar kingdom was Dhangraja, the present
depicted as Vishnu with four hands, holding medical day Dhar city in Madhya Pradesh.
herbs in one hand and a pot containing rejuvenating 85. (a) Women had comparatively a greater participation
nectar called amrita in another. He is often shown in administration under Chalukyas.Some women
with a leech in his hand rather than the scriptures. from the royal family enjoyed political power
The Puranas state that Dhanavantari emerged from in administration. Queen Vijayanka was a noted
the ‘Ocean of Milk’ and appeared with the pot of Sanskrit poetess, Kumkumadevi, the younger
nectar during the story of the Samudra or Sagar sister of Vijayaditya (and queen of Alupa king
Manthan whilst the ocean was being churned by the Chitravahana) made several grants and had a
Devas and Asuras, using the Mandara mountain and Jain Basadi called Anesajjebasadi constructed at
the serpent Vasuki. Puligere.


86. (a) Vishakhadatta exposed evils of the arts and culture during Kumbha’s reign is exceeded
contemporary society by his satirical writings. only by Bhoja Parmara (Bhoja I). Maharana
There is no unanimity among the authorities on the Kumbha is credited with writing the Sangitaraja,
date of Mudrarakshasa. However, majority of them the Rasika-priya commentary on the Gitagovinda,
are in favour of assigning the composition of this the Sudaprabandha, and the Kamaraja-ratisara.
Sanskrit work to 4th–5th centuries AD. The Minister 92. (d) Umed singh was the patron of the Kota School
Signet’s Ring centres around the schemes of the of Painting. The Kota school of painting is one of
wily Chankya to frustrate the plots of Raksasa, the the finest examples of this technique. Kota paintings
minister of Dhanananda, the last ruler of the Nanda are known for their depiction of nature and hunting
ww dynasty.
87. (d) Senas considered themselves ‘Brahma-
Kshatriya’. Brahmakshatriya or Murdhabhishikta
scenes. Painting comprises a very integral part of
Rajasthani culture. Woven into these splendid
visuals are images of everyday life of the olden
w.Eis (a) a term applied in Hindu Varna division to

people who have a Brahmin father and a Kshatriya
mother; or (b) a term that applies, in the Hindu
Varna division, to a Brahmin who pursues royalty,
times. The development of miniature paintings has
been one of the most important contributions of
Rajasthan to Indian art.
93. (c) Mahmud of Ghazni was the foreign invaders
asy
and hence concurrently adopts the Kshatriya Varna.
According to Manusmriti, such people are treated
equal to Brahmins. Parasurama is a classical
sacked the temple of Somnath. Mahmud began a
series of seventeen raids into northwestern India
at the end of the 10th century. Nonetheless, he did
example of a Brahmakshatriya.
En
88. (c) The term ‘Mandapika’ occurring in early
not attempt to rule Indian territory except for the
Punjab, which was his gateway to India, as Ghazni
gin
medieval inscriptions denotes rest house. When
there are several Mandapas in the temple, it is the
biggest and the tallest. It is used for conducting
lay in present day Afghanistan.
94. (a) Rajashekhara, the author of ‘Karpurmanjri’
was the teacher of Mahendrapala I. Rajashekhara
ee
religious discourses. Sometimes, the Mahamandapa
is also built along a transversal axis with a transept
(bumped-out portions along this transversal axis).
At the exterior, the transept ends by a large window
was an eminent Sanskrit poet, dramatist and critic.
He was court poet of the Gurjara Pratiharas. He
rin
wrote Kavyamimamsa between 880 and 920 CE.
The work is essentially a practical guide for poets
which brings light and freshness into the temple.
89. (d) Ballalasena assumed the title ‘Nihsanka-
sankara’. According to Sena epigraph, Ballal was an g.n
that explains the elements and composition of a
good poem. The fame of Rajashekhara rests firmly
on his play Karpuramanjari, written in Sauraseni
author. He wrote Danasagara in 1168. And in 1169,
he started but did not finish writing Adbhutasagara.
In Adbhutasagara, it was mentioned that Ballalsen
conquered Mithila while Vijaysen was still alive.
Besides he introduced the practice of Kulinism.
Prakrit.
et
95. (a) Dharampala established the Somapura
Mahavihara, a good educational centre of the time.
Somapura Mahavihra, or the Great Monastery,
was a renowned intellectual centre until the 12th
90. (c) Jayasimha is the last king described in the century. Its layout perfectly adapted to its religious
Rajatarangini of Kalhana. From this, comes Stein’s function, this monasterys city represents a unique
deduction that Kalhana was not a part of the circle artistic achievement.
surrounding Jayasimha, the ruling monarch at the 96. (a) Rajendra I was the Chola king and under
time when he was writing the Rajatarangini. Kalhana his reign Brihadishwar temple of Tanjore was
was born to a Kashmiri minister, Canpaka, who constructed. The world’s first complete granite
probably served king Harsa of the Lohara dynasty. temple, the Brihadeshwara temple is a distinctive
It is possible that his birthplace was Parihasapura example of temple architecture during the Tamil
and his birth would have been very early in the 12th Chola dynasty (ca. 3rd cen. BCE-1279 CE). This
century. temple was originally built during the early 9th
91. (a) Bhoja is considered to be the author of the century CE by Rajaraja Chola I and dedicated to
Sangitaraja. Amongst Rajput rulers, the flowering of Shiva.

History || A-59
97. (b) As mentioned by Hiuen Tsang, 10,000 (ko) da Chola. The other side of this coin is similar
students were studying in the Nalanda University. to the first side.
Founded in the 5th Century AD, Nalanda is known 102. (d) A Chaitya Hall at Karle was built largely by the
as the ancient seat of learning. 2,000 teachers and donation of the Yavanas. The Chaitya at Karle is, by
10,000 students from all over the Buddhist world far, the largest of the cave temples. It is situated at
lived and studied at Nalanda, the first Residential Karle in Pune district of Maharashtra. It is said to
International University of the World. A walk in the have been sculptured between 100–125 AD. It is cut
ruins of the university, takes you to an era, that saw off of a solid rock to a depth of about 124 feet. It is
India leading in imparting knowledge, to the world 40 metres long, 15 metres high and 15 metres broad.
ww – the era when India was a coveted place for studies.

The University flourished during the 5th and 12th
century.
Inside, there are 37 octagonal pillars of remarkable
beauty.
103. (c) Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty carried out
w.E
98. (c) Jayasimha Siddharaja had granted one lakh
balotras from his own treasury for the restoration of
a mosque of Khambhat. Jayasimha Siddharaja was
the greatest Chalukya king who, in commemoration
the first naval expedition against south-east Asia.
He conquered up to the banks of Ganges and
assumed the title of “Gangaikonda” (the victor
of the Ganges). He established a new capital and
asy
of his victory against the Paramaras, adopted the title
of Avantinatha. During the reign of Bhima II (1178-
1241), Muhammad Ghori made an unsuccessful
named it Gangaikondacholapuram. The conquest of
the Andaman and Nicober islands was his greatest
achievement.
En
attempt to subjugate Gujarat in 1178 AD.
99. (d) None of the above had the title ‘Amoghavarsha’.
104. (b) Bakhtiyar Khalji destroyed the Nalanda
University in 1202 AD. The prince of perverts
The Arab traveller
gin
Sulaiman described
Amoghavarsha as one of the four great kings of
the world. Sulaiman also wrote that Amoghavarsha
– Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khalji – is a blot on the
human race. And yet the town of Bakhtiyarpur in
Bihar, close to the site of his cruel depredations,
ee
respected Muslims and that he allowed the
construction of mosques in his cities. Because of
his religious temperament, his interest in the arts
and literature and his peace-loving nature, historian
bears his name. Bakhtiyar Khalji holds a pride of
place because, unlike the other Muslim marauders,
rin
he was not content with destroying the areas he
traversed.
Panchamukhi has compared him to the emperor
Ashoka and given him the honorific “Ashoka of the
South” g.n
105. (c) Harsha has been criticised by Kalhana for
confiscating the temple. Harsha (r.1089-1111)
started out as a capable and noble king. Then ran
100. (b) The evidence of water tax is provided by the
inscriptions of Gahadavalas The Gahadavalas
occupy a very important place in Indian history.
They ruled for over a century (AD 1089-1097),
over a vast region of North India, which extended
et
into financial trouble because of his spending habits,
and became an evil person. For the gold, he started
raiding temples and started destroying statues.
Harsha never felt himself as a “Hindu” king per se
as there was no people who felt themselves to be
from the western bank of Yamuna in the west to “Hindus” in those days.
Patna, Monghyr and Bodhgaya in Bihar in the east. 106. (c) The Kaibarta rebellion occurred in Bengal
It extended from the foothills of the Himalayas in during the reign of Mahipala II. Varendra rebellion
the north to Baghelkhanda in Madhya Pradesh in occurred during the reign of the Pala emperor
the south. Mahipala II (c 1075-1080 AD) and resulted in his
101. (d) Elephant is not found inscribed on the cholas death and the loss of Varendra (north Bengal) to
coins. Rajendra Chola, the son of Rajaraja, is also the Kaivarta chief Divya. Mahipala II is said to
known as Gangaikonda Chola for his conquest of have imprisoned his two brothers, Xurapala and
many principalities in the Gangetic valley. On either Ramapala, out of suspicion that Ramapala would
side of this coin is found a seated tiger along with capture royal power. The possibility of a dynastic
lamp-stand, a pair of fish and a bow. Below the trouble arising out of the ambition of a capable
lamp-stand, is a two line Sanskrit legend Gangai younger brother cannot be altogether ruled out.


107. (a) Dantidurga, the Rashtrakuta rulers, is known India. He succeeded his father in 1014 CE as the
to have made the Hiranyagarbha-dana’ at Ujjaini. Chola emperor. During his reign, he extended the
Rashtrakutas were subordinate to the Chalukyas. influences of the already vast Chola empire up to the
Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief, threw his banks of the river Ganges in the north and across the
Chalukyan overlord and performed Hiranya-garbha, ocean.
a ritual that is thought to lead to the rebirth of the 113. (b) ‘Gangai Kondacholapuram’ became the
sacrificer as a Kshatriya. Dantidurga, thus, founded administrative centre of the Cholas from the time of
the Rashtrakuta empire. Rajendra I. His empire extended the whole of southern
108. (c) Dramma coin name occurs in the Pratihara India to river Thungabathra in the north India, for
ww inscriptions. Mihira Bhoja I’s epithet was Srimad-

Adivaraha (the fortunate primeval boar incarnation
of Vishnu) and therefore there is a broad agreement
administrative and strategic purpose he built another
capital and named Gangaikondacholapuram. The
Gangaikondacholapuram temple, he constructed,
w.E amongst the scholars on the attribution of Adivaraha

dramma billon coins to him. These coins have a
depiction of Adivaraha on the obverse.
109. (a) Gahadavalas levied Turushka-danda.
consists of 3 stories and surrounded by a huge fort
like wall, the outer wall was greatly destructed
during the English rule (1896 AD).
114. (a) The Chola rulers were generally the
asy
Gahadavala dynasty rule of the district is proved by
the discovery at Kudarkot of a copper plate grant
dated in the reign of Chandradeva. Chandradeva
worshippers of Shiva. A number of mythical heroes
and demi-gods found their place in the ancestry
claimed by the later Cholas in the long mythical
En
founded the Gahadavala dynasty at Kanyakubja
after defeating a chief named Gopala of Tuar clan.
genealogies incorporated into the copper-plate
charters and stone inscription of the tenth and
gin
His jurisdiction extended over nearly all of what is
modern Uttar Pradesh including this district.
110. (d) Chachnamah provides a vivid description
eleventh centuries. The earliest version of this is
found in the Anbil Plates which gives fifteen names
before Vijayalaya Chola including the genuinely
ee
of Sindh. The Chachnamah was written by Kazi
Ismail. Kazi Ismail was appointed the first Kazi of
Alor by Muhammad Kasim after the conquest of the
Sindh. It was translated into Persian by Muhammad
historical ones of Karikala, Perunarikalli and
Kocengannan.
rin
115. (c) Rajasekhara’s marriage to Avantisundari is an
example of ‘Anuloma-marriage’. During the Vedic
Ali bin Hamid bin Abu Bakr Kufi in 1216 CE from
an earlier Arabic text. At one time, it was considered
to be a romance until Mountstuart Elphinstone’s g.n
Age, inter-class marriages used to take place in the
form of Anuloma marriage. Anuloma marriage is a
social practice according to which a boy from upper
observations of its historical veracity. The original
work in Arabic is believed to have been composed
by the Sakifí family, the kinsmen of Muhammad bin
Qasim.
111. (d) The ethnic composition of the armies of
et
Varna/caste/class can marry a girl from lower varna/
caste/class.
116. (a) Ajayaraja shifted the Chahamana capital
from Sambhar to Ajmer. Arnoraja’s fight against
Turushka, i.e. the Yaminis of Lahore and Ghazna
Ghaznavids did not invalue the Greeks. The eastern was inheritance from his father Ajayaraja who
part of the later Roman empire, dating from AD perhaps never succeeded in recovering Nagaur
330 when Constantine I rebuilt Byzantium and from Muslims. Very early in Arnoraja’s reign, the
made it his capital. Its extent varied greatly over Muslims had reached as far as Ajmer. In the battle
the centuries, but its core remained the Balkan that followed on the plain outside the city, the
Peninsula and Asia Minor. The empire collapsed Yamini commander was decisively beaten and fled
when Constantinople fell to the Ottoman Turks in before the pursuing Chauhana.
1453. 117. (d) Kumardevi, the queen of Govindachandra
112. (c) Rajendra I was ruling the Chola kingdom at the Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakrajinavihar
time of Mahmud Ghazni’s expedition of Somnath. at Sarnath. Kumaradevi, the Buddhist queen of the
Rajendra Chola I was the son of Rajaraja Chola great Gahadavala king Govindrachandra of Kashi
I, the great Chola king of present day southern (CE 1114-1154). All the halls and apartments of the

History || A-61
monks have disappeared. This monastery had two the iconographic conventions established by long
gateways towards the east, there being a distance tradition, the sculptors worked with great freedom
of 88.45 m between the two. At the western most in the 11th and the 12th centuries to achieve a classic
edge of the site, a distinct covered passage leads to grace and grandeur. The best example of this can be
a small medieval shrine. seen in the form of Nataraja the Divine Dancer.
118. (a) Mohammad Ghori issued the coins with seated 123. (c) Kumargupta took strong steps to stop
Lakshmi on one side and ruler’s name in Devanagri gambling in his state. As because of gambling, there
on the other. These were revived by Gangeyadeva were various crimes spread in society. For that he
the Kalachuri ruler who issued the ‘Seated Lakshmi appointed some persons in different regions to give
ww Coins’ which were copied by later rulers both

in gold as well as in debase form. The Bull &
Horseman types of coins were the most common
report of illegal acts.
124. (a) The Turkish brought with them musical
instruments Rabab and Sarangi. During this time,
w.E motif appearing on coins struck by the Rajput clans.

In western India, imported coins like the Byzantine
Solidi were often used reflecting trade with the
Eastern Roman Empire.
the music of North India began to acquire and
adapt to the presence of Persian language, music,
and musical instruments, such as the Setar, from
which the Sitar got its name; the Kemancheh and
asy
119. (a) The Huna princess Avalladevi was the queen
of Gangeyadeva. Their son Allata married a Huna
princess named Hariyadevi. The Jabbalpore
Santur, which became popular in Kashmir; and the
Rabab [alternately known as Rebab and Rubab],
which preceded the Sarod. New instruments were
En
copper-plate inscription of Yasahkarnadeva,
of the Kalachuri dynasty of Chedi 17 describes
introduced, including the Tabla and Sitar.
125. (c) Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini continued
Avalladevi, a Huna princess.

gin
Yasahkarnadeva as the son of king Karnadeva and
120. (b) The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by

the historical narration of Kalhana up to Sultan
Zainul Abidin. Rajatarangini, which consists of
7,826 verses, is divided into eight books. Book
ee
Rana Kumbha.The Kirtistambha (tower of fame)
dedicated to Lord Adinath was constructed by
Baghervala merchant Sah Jija by using “Nija-
bhujoparjita”, i.e. self-earned money, according
I attempts to weave imaginary tales of Kashmir
kings into epic legends. Gonanda was the first king
rin
and a contemporary and enemy of the Hindu deity
Krishna.
to an inscription by his great-grandson who had
the monument repaired in 1489. The exact date of
building of the Kirti-stambha is not known. Some g.n
126. (c) Medhatithi is famous for his commentary on
Manusmriti. Medhātithi is one of the oldest and
most famous commentators on the Manusmriti,
believe that Sah Jija had an older tower rebuilt,
perhaps from 12th cent.
121. (b) Harsha had assumed the title Parama-
Maheswara. An early copper plate grant of king
Dantidurga (753) shows an image of god Shiva and
et
more commonly known as the Laws of Manu. The
Manusmriti text is a part of the Hindu Dharmasas
tradition, which attempts to record the laws of
Dharma.
127. (d) Harsha’s military expansion in the Deccan was
the coins of his successor, king Krishna I (768), checked by Pulkesin II.When Pulikeshi II pushed
bear the legend Parama-Maheshwara (another name forth up to the Narmada, he came face to face with
for Shiva). The kings’ titles such as Veeranarayana Harshavardhana of Kanauj who already had the title
showed their Vaishnava leanings. Their flag had Uttarapatheshvara (Lord of the north). In a decisive
the sign of the Ganges and Yamuna rivers, perhaps battle fought on the banks of the river Narmada,
copied from the Badami Chalukyas. Harsha lost a major part of his elephant force and
122. (a) The Chola rulers were generally Saivites. had to retreat. The Aihole inscription describes how
Among the existing specimens in museums around the mighty Harsha lost his harsha (joy) when he
the world and in the temples of South India may be suffered the ignominy of defeat.
seen many fine figures of Shiva in various forms, 128. (d) The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavir
such as Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi, and the Swami was held at Nalanda. Parsva, the traditional
Saivaite saints. Though conforming generally to predecessor of Mahavira is the first Jain figure for


whom there is reasonable historical evidence. He built this Shiva temple in the early 8th century. It
might have lived somewhere in the 9th–7th century is an early structural temple, built of sandstone, and
BCE. Followers of Parsva are mentioned in the partly renovated in recent times. The modest scale
canonical books; and a legend in the Uttarādhyayana of the temple, and the closeness of its enclosing
sūtra relates a meeting between a disciple of Parsva wall, lend a feeling of intimacy to the surroundings.
and a disciple of Mahavira which brought about the Kailasanatha contains in embryo many of the
union of the old branch of the Jain church and the features of the rapidly emerging South Indian style:
new one. gopuras, pilastered walls, a pyramidal Shikhara, and
129. (a) Rashtrakutas adopted Garuda as dynastic a perimeter wall enclosing the complex.
ww emblem after the imperial Gupta. Silver coins

of the Gupta kings Chandragupta II and his son
Kumargupta I adopted the Western Satrap design
134. (d) Rajput rulers Jaisingh Siddharaj gave donation
for the reconstruction of a mosque. Siddhraj is said
to have ascended the throne of Patan after the death
w.E (itself derived from the Indo-Greeks) with bust

of the ruler and pseudo-Greek inscription on the
obverse, and a royal eagle (Garuda, the dynastic
symbol of the Guptas) replacing the Chaitya hill
of his Father Karandev. Patan’s condition was worse
in the last days of Karandev. The successors from
his grandfather Bhimdev’s first wife Bauladevi tried
asy
with star and crescent on the reverse.
130. (c) The North Indian dynasties that confronted the
Rashtrakutas were the Pratiharas and the Palas.The
their best to acquire the throne from child Jaysingh.
His mother Minaldevi, Maha mantri Santu and
Munjal Mehta initially played a great part to deter
En
Pratiharas are believed to be the clan of Rajputs.
The greatest ruler of the Pratihara dynasty was
the internal revolt and in establishing his rule and
stability to Patan in Gujarat.
135. (d) Chola dynasty is meant by Arab writers when
gin
Mihir Bhoja. He recovered Kanauj (Kanyakubja)
by 836, and it remained the capital of the Pratiharas
for almost a century. The Pratihara dynasty started
they say that the women did not cover their faces with
veil. This clan came to be known as the Rashtrakutas
ee
well under the ruler Nagabhatta-I. Though initially
he had hiccups with the Rashtrakutas, he was able to
leave behind a strong State comprising Malwa, parts
of Rajputana and Gujarat
of Manyakheta, rising to power in South India in
753. At the same time, the Pala dynasty of Bengal
rin
and the Pratihara dynasty of Malwa were gaining
force in eastern and northwestern India respectively.
An Arabic writing Silsilatuttavarikh (851) called the
131. (d) ‘Niralamba Saraswati’ thus lamented a poet at
the demise of Bhoj Paramara. Raja Bhoja of Dhar
was a philosopher king and polymath of medieval the world. g.n
Rashtrakutas one of the four principal empires of
India. He was from the Paramara dynasty of Arya,

who ruled the kingdom of Malwa in Central India
from about 1010 to 1060. On his demise, a poet
lamented “Adya Dhara Niradhara, Niralamba
Saraswati Panditah Khanditah Sarve Bhojraje
et
136. (a) Kulotinga I Chola ruler had persecuted
Ramanuja and ousted him from his kingdom.
Ramanuja was the contemporary of Kulothunga II.
It is Kulothunga II who banished Ramanuja from
Tamil country and the latter had to seek refuge
Divam Gate”. in Melkote, Karnataka. Hence even bringing
132. (a) Vikramshila Mahavihara was one of the two Ramunaja into Athirajendra’s death would cause
most important centres of Buddhist learning in more confusion. Till Kulothunga II, all the Chola
India during the Pala dynasty. Established by King kings and emperors supported all the religions
Dharmapala (783 to 820 CE), it is located about 50 equally although they were staunch Saivaites.
km east of Bhagalpur and about 13 km north-east of 137. (b) Harshacharita refers to pushyabhuti as the
Kahalgaon railway station on Bhagalpur-Sahebganj founder of the Vardhana dynasty. Prabhakara
section of eastern railway. The area is under the Vardhana, the ruler of Sthanvisvara, who belonged
protected jurisdiction of Archaeological Survey of to the Pushyabhuti family, extended his control over
India (ASI). neighbouring states. Prabhakara Vardhana was the
133. (c) Kailashnatha temples do not belong to the first king of the Vardhana dynasty with his capital at
Cholas. King Rajasimha, of the Pallava dynasty, Thaneswar.

History || A-63
138. (d) Rajadhiraja I received a letter on golden leaves 143. (d) The Lakshman Era was started by Senas
from the Burmese king Kyansittha. Kyansittha dynasty. Vijaysen the second ruler of this dynasty
strengthened the foundations of Pagan empire defeated the last Pala emperor Madanapala and
which Anawrahta had built. Although he suppressed established his reign. Ballal Sena introduced caste
the Mon rebellion, he pursued a conciliatory policy system in Bengal and made Nabadwip the capital.
towards the Mon. Having spent seven years in the The fourth king of this dynasty Lakshman Sena
Mon country in exile, the king had great respect for expanded the empire beyond Bengal to Bihar,
the Mon culture, and kept Mon scholars at his court. Assam, Orissa and probably to Varanasi.
139. (c) Ur was the primary village assembly in the 144. (d) Kumaradevi, a queen of Govindachandra
ww Chola village administration. Every village was

a self-governing unit. A number of such villages
constituted a Korram in different parts of the
country. Taniyur was a large village big enough
Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakra-Jina
Vihara at Sarnath. Monastery lying 232 m from
east to west and occupied by a central block of
w.E to be a Kurram by itself. A number of Kurrams

constituted a Valanadu. Several Valanadus made
up one Mandalam, a province. At the height of the
buildings, Dharmachakra Jina Vihara was the gift
of Kumaradevi, the Buddhist queen of the great
Gahadavala king Govindrachandra of Kashi (CE
asy
Chola empire, there were eight or nine of these
provinces including Sri Lanka. These divisions and
names underwent constant changes throughout the
1114-1154). All the halls and apartments of the
monks have disappeared.
145. (b) Chalukya dynasties were frequently assigned
Chola period.
En
140. (a) A Chalukya inscription is dated in the year
556 of the Saka era. It’s equivalent to 478 AD.
to the ladies high ranking positions in administration.
During this period, the society became increasingly
sophisticated. The status of women was varied.
gin
This undated inscription belongs to the reign of the
Chalukaya king Vijayaditya Satyasraya. It registers
Some royal women were involved in administrative
matters as shown in contemporary records describing
ee
the grant of 20 mattars of red soil, amattar of wet
land and 2 mattars of garden land to Talereyar
by Vikramaditya, the uncle of Banarja, when the
latter was ruling Turamara-vishaya as the king’s
feudatory. It also states that Vikramaditya had the
146.
Queen Umadevi’s administration of Halebidu in the
absence of Veera Ballala II during his long military
rin
campaigns in northern territories.
(a) Harshacharita was not composed by
Harshavardhana. The Harshacharita ranks as the
birudas Taruna-Vasantan and Samanta-kesari and
that he was ruling Ayiradi. The inscription was
written by Singutti. g.n
first historical biography in Sanskrit although it is
written in a florid and fanciful style. Bana’s detailed
141. (d) Vikramshila Mahavihar was established by the

ruler of pala dynasty. Pala Dynasty was the ruling
dynasty in Bihar and Bengal, from the 8th to the
12th century. Called the Palas because all their
et
and vivid descriptions of rural India’s natural
environment as well as the extraordinary industry
of the Indian people exudes the vitality of life at
that time. Since he received the patronage of the
emperor Harsha, his descriptions of his patron are
names ended in Pala, “protector”, the Palas rescued
not an unbiased appraisal and present the emperor’s
Bengal from the chaos into which it had fallen after
the death of Shashanka, a rival of Harsha of Kanauj. actions in an overly favourable light.
The founder of the dynasty was Gopala. 147. (c) In Harshavardhana court, a Chinese embassy
142. (a) Rashtrakuta constructed the Ellora Kailash was sent by T’ang emperor. The T’ang dynasty was
Temple. Kailash Temple is situated near the village formed in 618 due to the failed exhibitions to Korea
of Ellora, 30 km from Aurangabad. The temple is by the Sui, which had led to conflicts in the north
considered as one of the most astonishing buildings of China. The T’ang’s founder, Li Yuan was a rebel
in the history of architecture. This is one of the from an aristocratic family (traced from the Han)
largest 34 excavations at Ellora, which took almost that was influential under the Northern Zhou. The
a century. Kailash Temple is dedicated to Lord T’ang took some time to establish, in part due to a
Shiva. The idol measures 109 feet wide by 164 feet rebellion in 617 that took several years to succeed
long. with the help of the Turks.


148. (c) The Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram 153. (b) Emperor Harsha’s southward march was
were built under the patronage of the Pallava kings. stopped on the Narmada river by Pulkesin
Mahabalipuram lies on the Coromandel coast which II.When Pulakesin II (c. ad 610-643), eldest son of
faces the Bay of Bengal. This is an elegant place to Kirtivarman, came of age, he claimed the throne at
watch which was a well-established sea port during Vatapi but was resisted by his uncle, Mangalesa.
the 7th and 10th centuries of the Pallava dynasty. With the assistance of his brothers Vishnuvardhana
This was the second capital of the Pallavas who and Jayasimha, Pulakesin defeated and killed
ruled Kanchipuram. Mangalesa and ascended the throne in c. ad 610.
149. (b) Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. 154. (d) Chandela built the Khajuraho temples.
ww Banabhatta was born around the 7th century in a

village in India. He was born in Pritikuta village,
which was situated on the banks of Hiranyavahu.
This village used to exist in the district, which is
Chandela, also spelled Candella, Rajput clan of Gond
origin that for some centuries ruled Bundelkhand
in north-central India and fought against the early
w.E now called, Chhapra. He was born to Chitrabhanu

and Rajadevi and his was a family of Vatsyayana
Gotra. Born in a Brahman family, he was a poor
Muslim invaders. The first Chandela is thought to
have ruled early in the 9th century CE. Chandela
dominion extended from the Yamuna (Jumna) river
in the north to the region of Saguar (now Sagar) and
asy
but a clever child. Even during his childhood, he
showed signs of great potential and finished his
education with much dedication and hard work.
from the Dhasan river in the west to the Vindhya
hills.
155. (a) Arabs were defeated by Pratiharas in 738 AD.
En
150. (a) The religious conference was held by
king Harshavardhana at Kannauj and Prayag. A
courier brought the distressing intelligence that
Indian inscriptions confirm this invasion but record
the Arab success only against the smaller states in
gin
Grahavarman, king of Kanauj, and husband of
Rajyasri, sister of the princes, had been slain by the
Gujarat. They also record the defeat of the Arabs at
two places. The southern army moving south into
Gujarat was repulsed at Navsari by the south Indian
ee
King of Malwa, who cruelly misused the princess,
“confining her like a brigand’s wife, with a pair
of iron fetters kissing her feet.” The young king,
resolute to avenge his sister’s wrongs, started at
once with a mobile force of ten thousand cavalry,
emperor Vikramaditya II of the Chalukya dynasty
and Rashtrakutas.
rin
156. (d) The Dilwara temple is located at Mount Abu.
It seems fairly basic temple from outside but the
leaving the elephants and heavy troops behind in his
brother’s charge.
151. (a) Tai Tsung sent Hiuen-Tsang as envoy to g.n
interior showcases the extraordinary work of human
craftsmanship at its best. These temples were built
between 11th to 13th century AD. The beautiful
Harsha’s court. According to the Chinese pilgrim
Xuanzang, who visited his kingdom in 636, Harsha
built numerous Stupas in the name of Buddha.
Xuanzang entered a grand competition organized
pleasant feeling.
et
lush green hills surrounding the temple gives a very
157. (a) Sankaracharya founded the four Mathas

in the four corners of India. Shankara was born
at Kaladi in Kerala as a result of austerities and
by Harsha and won the theological debate. Harsha
also became a patron of art and literature. He made earnest prayers of his childless parents to Lord
numerous endowments to the University at Nalanda. Shiva. Shankara’s father Shivaguru and mother
152. (c) Karnaswarna was the capital of Sasanka.Hiuen- Aryambal were Namboodiri Brahmin couples who
Tsang gives a graphic description of Karnasarna, led a holy life performing Vedic rituals ordained for
which acquaints us with the locality and its people. a householder. However, they were childless.
According to him, “the country was well inhabited 158. (a) The Lingaraja temple built during the medieval
and the people were very rich. The land was low period is at Bhubaneshwar. The Lingaraj temple –
and moist, farming operations were regular, flowers the largest of these is an outstanding specimen of
and fruits were abundant, the climate was temperate the Orissa style of temple building. It is about a
and the people were of good character and were thousand years old. Bhubaneshwar, Konarak and
patrons of learning.” This description indicates the Puri constitute the Golden triangle of Orissa, visited
prosperous state of the country. in large numbers by pilgrims and tourists.

History || A-65
159. (c) The presiding diety of Bhojsala temple is 165. (c) The famous idol of Gomateshwar and famous
goddess Saraswati. Bhojshala is one of the most Jain temple is situated at Sravanbelgola. From
significant monuments of Madhya Pradesh as a Mangalore to Karkala is the Jain temple and the
whole as it spots the land of Dhar. It is an ancient giant statue of lord Gomateshwara. This nude statue
monument that had been dedicated to goddess of Bhagban Bahubali attracts thousands of foreign
Saraswati. This was the only temple that was visitors because of its beautiful carvings. The statue
dedicated to this deity of the Hindu cult. is situated on top of a rock in the centre of the town,
160. (c) Gopuram is not a feature of north Indian temple so one needs to take up the flight of rocky steps to
architecture. In the north, the Shikhara remains reach the statue.
ww the most prominent element of the temple and the

gateway is usually modest. In the south, enclosure
walls were built around the whole complex and
166. (a) ‘Ramayanam’ the Tamil version of the
great epic Ramayana was made by Kamban.
Ramavataram, popularly referred to as Kamba
w.E along these walls, ideally set along the east-west and
north-south axes, elaborate and often magnificent
gateways called Gopurams led the devotees into the
Ramayanam, is a Tamil epic that was written by
Kamban during the 12th century. Based onValmiki’s
Ramayana in Sanskrit, the story describes the life of
sacred courtyard.
asy
161. (b) Rath temples of Mahabalipuram were built in
the reign of Narasinghvarman I. There are about
king Rama of Ayodhya. However, Ramavataram is
different from the Sanskrit original in many aspects
– both in spiritual concepts and in the specifics of
En
nine monolithic temples at Mahabalipuram. They
are the unique contribution of the Pallavas to Indian
art. The monolithic temples are called locally as 167.
the story line.
(c) Mahavastu is not a work on architecture.
gin
Ratha (chariot) as they resemble the processional
chariots of a temple. The five Rathas, the best of all
Mahavastu is more refined version of Vastu Shastra.
Vastu Shastra being a very old subject didn’t have a
ee
monolithic temples, are hewn out of a huge boulder.
162. (b) Rajaraja I the Chola Kings conquered Ceylon
(Sinhal) first. Rajaraja began his career by the
conquest of the Chera country. He defeated
Chera king Bhaskara Ravivarman, whose fleet he
proper procedure to apply the beneficial wisdom in
modern lifestyle. Due to lack of proper research and
rin
documentation of results, it has never been possible
to give it a scientific working procedure.
168. (c) Nivartana was a land measure containing 400
destroyed in the port of Kandalur. He also seized
Pandya Amara Bhujanga and captured the port of g.n
square poles of ten cubits each, according to the
Lilavati.
Vilinam. By his campaign against the Singhalees
he annexed northern Ceylon, building a number of
stone temples in the Ceylonese capital Polonnaruva.
163. (a) The seven Pagodas of Mahabalipuram are
a witness to the art patronised by the Pallavas.
et
169. (c) Rajashekhara has mentioned the river Narmada
as the dividing line between Aryavarta and
Dakshinapatha. Sanskrit literature names as the
dividing-line between Aryavarta or the Uttarapatha
and the Dakshinapatha, i.e. between northern and
Interestingly, it is documented in “Carta Cartalana”,
southern India, sometimes the Vindhya mountains,
a 14th century Spanish world map as “Setemelti”
sometimes the river Nerbudda (Narmada, Narbada)
referring to “Sette Templi”, the obvious reference to
which, flowing close along the south of the Vindhya
the Seven Shore temples, of which only one exists
range, empties itself into the gulf of Cambay near
today.
164. (d) The famous Kailash temple is located at Broach, in Gujarat.
Ellora. The Kailash temple is notable for its vertical 170. (b) Sugandhadevi who issued coins with the
excavation—carvers started at the top of the original figure of seated Lakshmi was a queen of Kashmir.
rock, and excavated downward. The traditional The auspicious markings on Srimati Radharani’s
methods were rigidly followed by the master lotus feet include the signs of the conchshell, moon,
architect which could not have been achieved by elephant, barleycorn, rod for controlling elephants,
excavating from the front. chariot flag, small drum, svastika and fish.


171. (b) Nimbarakacharya believed in the theory 174. (b) Kanauj was known as Mahodaya. Kannuaj
of Bheda-abheda. Sri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu remained a focal point for the three powerful
amalgamated the views of all the previous Acaryas dynasties, namely the Gurjara Pratiharas, Palas and
in his thesis of Acintya-bhedabheda Tattva explicitly Rashtrakutas, between the 8th and 10th centuries.
explained by Sri Baladeva Vidyabhusana in his The conflict between the three dynasties has been
Govinda Bhasya of the Vedanta-sutra. referred to as the Tripartite struggle by many
historians.
172. (a) Adhaka is the smallest measure. Equal
175. (d) Vaital Deul, the Odishan temples, has a
attention is given to the measurement of time, based
ww on the device named the Nalika, being the time

taken for one Adhaka of water to flow out of a pot
through a hole of the same diameter as that of a wire
Shikhar of Dravidian style.Vaital Deul temple is a
eight century temple situated near Bindu Sarovar
where main deity is Chamunda, the Tantric form of
w.E 4 angulas long, made from 4 masas of gold.

173. (d) Astangasangraha is a text on medicine. This
book ‘Astanga Sangraha’ of Acarya Vagbhata is an
goddess Durga.
176. (d) Trayipurusha temple at Salotgi was a well
known centre of higher education. Shri Narayan,
minister to the Rastrakulta king of South India,
asy
ancient authoritative text on Ayurveda studies many
centuries by students, scholars and practitioners
constructed a temple in Salotgi ( Bijapur ) which
in the twelfth century became a centre for Vedic
En
of Indian medicine. Because of its archaic style of
composition and terse language certain amount of
education. Many buildings were built there for
students to stay in. A description of this says that
five hundred acres of land were donated ( Epigraphia
difficulty is being experienced.
gin India ) for classrooms, lodging and boarding.
ee rin
g.n
et

5
Ancient History
(Miscellaneous)
ww
1. The credit of the discovery of the first Palaeolith in (a) Asmaka (b) Avanti

w.E India which opened the field of prehistoric studies
in the country goes to
(a) Burkitt

9.

(c) Matsya (d) Vatsa
The Sangam text Tolkappiyam is a work on
(a) Astronomy (b) Grammar

(b) De Terra and Paterson
(c) Robert Bruce Foote
(d) H D Sankalia
asy
10.
(c) Music (d) Medicine
Which among the following dynasties is not
mentioned in the Sangam literature?
2.
En
The temple of Angkorwat in Combodia was
dedicated to

(a) Chola
(c) Pandya
(b) Chera
(d) Pallava

3.
(a) Buddha
(c) Shiva
(b) Tara
(d) Vishnu
gin
Who among the following is known to have
11. Which one of the following texts describes the
difficult sea voyage of Indian merchants to Kataha
island?

engineering operations?
(a) Vajraditya
(c) Sura
ee
regulated the course of Vitasta in Kashmir by his
(b) Damodargupta
(d) Suyya

(a) Periplus of the Erythriyan Sea
(b) Samaraichchakaha
(c) Baveru Jataka
(d) Milindapanho rin
4. From which of the following regions, the remains
of Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic cultures
12.

following sites
g.n
A Homo erectus skull was found at one of the
(a) Hathnora in Narmada valley

5.
have been found in a sequence?
(a) Kashmir valley (b) Krishna valley
(c) Belan valley (d) Godavary valley
How many of the sixteen Mahajanapadas were

13.
(c) Baghor in Son valleyet
(b) Hoshangabad in Narmada valley
(d) Bansghat in Belan valley

The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian
situated in the Ganga valley?
(a) 8 (b) 9 subcontinent has been obtained from
(c) 10 (d) 11 (a) Brahmagiri (b) Chirand
6. By which ruler Pataliputra was chosen for the first (c) Mehargarh (d) Burzahom
time as a capital? 14. Robert Bruce Foote, who discovered first
(a) Bimbisara (b) Ajatsatru Palaeolithic tool in India, was originally a
(c) Udayin (d) Sisunaga (a) Palaeobotanist (b) Geologist
7. In which Indian state, Inamgam is located? (c) Archaeologist (d) Historian
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat 15. Who among the following had introduced
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh Vaishnavism in Kamrupa?
8. In which Mahajanapada was situated the city of (a) Chaitanya (b) Purandra Dasa
Mahishmati? (c) Ramanuja (d) Shankaradeva

A-68 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)

16. In which type of marriage, payment of bride price 26. Who among the following was the Tamil poet in
was a condition? Sangam age from Sri Lanka?
(a) Aasura (b) Brahma (a) Gajabahu
(c) Davia (d) Gandharva (b) Eelattu Poothanthevnar
17. Who among the following was considered to be (c) Ilambodhiyar
first successor for Stridhana? (d) Tetradaran
(a) Husband (b) Son 27. In the early period of Indian history, Tondi was a
(c) Daughter (d) Daughter in law flourishing seaport of
ww
18. Who among the following scholars established

Vajrayana sect of Buddhism in Tibet?
(a) Shanta Rakshita (b) Padma Sambhava

(a) Cheras
(c) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(d) Andhras
28. Which of the following texts supplies evidence for

w.E(c) Dharm Raksha (d) Kumarajiva
19. Tiruvachakam, which occupies a place in Tamil
sacred literature analogous to the Upanishads,

polyandry?
(a) Manimekalai
(c) Mahabharat
(b) Silppadikaram
(d) Ramayana

(a) Sambandar
(c) Sundar
asy
contains the compositions of
(b) Appar
(d) Manikkavachakar
29. Ancient Pushkalavati has been identified with
(a) Balkh (b) Charsadda
En
20. Jeevak the royal physician of Rajgrih was the son
of the Ganika named as
(c) Hadda (d) Sirkap
30. The mention of Ayodhya occurs for the first time

(a) Shalwati
(c) Basantsena gin
(b) Ramaniya
(d) Amrapali
in
(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda

(a) Bagh
(c) Bhimbetka
(b) Ajanta
(d) Amrawati
ee
21. Which one of the following sites is famous for
prehistoric paintings?

(c) Ramayana (d) Mahabharata
31. Which of the following is not a Buddhist writing?

rin
(a) Baveru Jataka (b) Dasarath Jataka
(c) Sibi Jataka (d) Yavana Jataka
22. The earliest evidence of Silk in India comes from
the archaeological site of
(a) Aryavarta
g.n
32. The area between rivers Saraswati and Drisadvati
has been defined by the Manusmriti as
(b) Brahmavarta

(a) Bhagwanpura
(c) Rangpur
(b) Nevasa
(d) Ropar
23. Which one of the following Janapadas was
republican state in sixth century BC?

et
(c) Brahmarshidesa (d) Saptasaindhava
33. An upper Palaeolithic Mother Goddess made of
bone has been obtained from
(a) Kosala (b) Anga (a) Godavari valley (b) Narmada valley
(c) Mayadha (d) Vajji (c) Son valley (d) Belan valley
24. Dogs were buried in human burials at 34. The Indian king who opposed Alexander was
(a) Gufkral (b) Burzahom (a) Ambhi
(c) Martand (d) Mehargarh (b) Porus
25. Ash mounds are related to the Neolithic culture (c) Dhanananda
of (d) Chandragupta Maurya
(a) Eastern India 35. In ancient India, the earliest capital of Magadha
(b) South India kingdom was at
(c) Northern Vindhyas (a) Pataliputra (b) Rajgir
(d) Kashmir valley (c) Vaishali (d) Nalanda

History || A-69
36. By whom, the first republic of the world was 47. Which of the following were the patrons of
established in Vaishali? Sangam, an assembly of Tamil poets?
(a) Maurya (b) Nand (a) Cheras (b) Cholas
(c) Lichhavi (d) Gupta (c) Pandyas (d) Kadambas
37. Mahajanapada situated on the bank of river 48. Who was the president of third Tamil Sangam?
Godawari was (a) Nakkirara (b) Agustya
(a) Avanti (b) Vatsa (c) Tolkappiyara (d) Kapilara
(c) Asmaka (d) Kamboja 49. In sixth century BC, Suktimati was the capital
ww
38. The list of sixteen Mahajanapadas is available in

(a) Mahabharata
(b) Chhandogya Upanishad

of
(a) Panchala
(c) Chedi
(b) Kuru
(d) Avanti

w.E(c) Samyukta Nikaya
(d) Anguttar Nikaya
39. Who was the founder of Nanda dynasty?
50. The southern most Mahajanapada was

(a) Avanti
(c) Chedi
(b) Asmaka
(d) Matsya

(a) Bimbisar
(c) Ramananda
asy
(b) Dhanananda
(d) Mahapadamananda
40. When Alexander invaded India, who were the
51. Name of the Mahajanapada, which was a
confederacy of eight republican clans?

rulers of Magadha?
(a) Haryankas En
(b) Shishunagas

(a) Vatsa
(c) Vajji
(b) Magadha
(d) Malla
(c) Nandas
gin
(d) Mauryas
41. Who among the following discovered the
Monsoon?
52. The earliest inscriptions were written in which

language?
(a) Pali (b) Prakrit

(a) Herodotus
(c) Homer
(b) Hippalus
(d) Ptotemy ee
42. Who of the following has been compared to
(c) Sanskrit
rin
(d) Tamil
53. Which of these epics is also known as Satasahsri
Samhita?

Parashuram in the Puranas?
(a) Kharavela
(b) Gautamiputra Satakarni

(a) Ramayana
(c) Rigveda
g.n
(b) Mahabharata
(d) Manusmriti
54. Where did the game of Chess originated?

(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Mahapadma Nanda
43. Which of the following was not an ancient seaport?
(a) Tamralipti (b) Bhrigukachchha

(a) India
(c) Arabia et
(b) Persia
(d) Europe
55. The subject matter of Ajanta paintings pertains to
(a) Jainism (b) Buddhism
(c) Vidisha (d) Shurparaka
(c) Vaishnavism (d) Shaivism
44. The Third Tamil Sangam was held at
56. Periya Puranam is a work on
(a) Tanjore (b) Madurai
(a) Bengal Vaishnavism
(c) Kanjeevaram (d) Mahabalipuram
(b) Tamil Saivism
45. Who was the founder of Kaveripattanam?
(a) Karikal (b) Rajraja (c) Kashmir Saivism
(c) Senguttuvan (d) None of these (d) Ujjain Saktism
46. Which of the following is called The Bible of 57. The story of the transformation of a dancing girl
Tamil? into a Buddhist nun is narrated in
(a) Tolkappiyam (b) Silappadikaram (a) Silappadikaram (b) Tolkappiyam
(c) Manimekalai (d) Kural (c) Paripadal (d) Manimekhalai

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 9. (b) 17. (c) 25. (b) 33. (d) 41. (b) 49. (c) 57. (d)
2. (d) 10. (d) 18. (b) 26. (c) 34. (b) 42. (d) 50. (b)
3. (d) 11. (b) 19. (d) 27. (a) 35. (b) 43. (c) 51. (c)
4. (c) 12. (a) 20. (a) 28. (c) 36. (c) 44. (b) 52. (a)
5. (c) 13. (c) 21. (c) 29. (b) 37. (c) 45. (a) 53. (b)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(c)
(a)
(b)
14.
15.
16.
(b)
(d)
(a)
22.
23.
24.
(b)
(d)
(b)
30.
31.
32.
(a)
(d)
(b)
38.
39.
40.
(d)
(d)
(c)
46.
47.
48.
(d)
(c)
(a)
54.
55.
56.
(a)
(b)
(b)
w.EHints & Solutions

asy
1.
En
(c) Robert Bruce Foote was a British geologist and
archaeologist who conducted geological surveys
of prehistoric locations in India for the Geological
situated along the right bank of the Ghod river, it is
considered to be the regional centre of the Bhima
valley.
2. gin
Survey of India.
(d) The temple of Angkorwat in Combodia was
8. (b) Mahishamati and Ujjaini were the capital
of Southern and Northern Avanti Mahajanapada,
eer
dedicated to Vishnu, the supreme god of Hinduism.
The temple was built by the Khmer king Suryavarman II
in the early 12th century.
9.
respectively.
(b) The Tolkappiyam is a work on the grammar of
the Tamil language and the earliest extant work of
3.
i
(d) Suyya is known by his engineering operations,
regulated the course of the Vitasta in Kashmir,
thereby arresting the devastating periodical floods ng.
Tamil literature written by Tholkappiyar.
13. (c) Mehargarh is one of the most important
Neolithic (7000 to 2500 BCE) sites in archaeology.
4.
and consequent famine and promoted irrigation and
agricultural operations over an extensive area.
(c) In the Belan valley (Uttar Pradesh), all the three
phases, the Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic,
and herding in South Asia.
net
It lies on the Kacchi plain of Balochistan, Pakistan.
It is one of the earliest sites with evidence of farming
15. (d) Shankaradeva was a 15th–16th century

have been found in sequence.
Assamese polymath, a saint-scholar, poet, playwright,
5. (c) In ancient India, a number of kingdoms emerged social-religious reformer and a figure of importance
during the Vedic age that were spread across the in the cultural and religious history of Assam.
Indo-Gangetic plain. These kingdoms were also Shankaradeva introduced the ‘Eka Saran Naba
called as republics and 16 of them were regarded as Vaishnava Dharma’ in Assam and for its propagation,
the Mahajanapadas. 10 out of the 16 Mahajanapadas wrote and translated a huge number of songs and
were situated in the Ganga valley. couplets, dramas, epic poetry, theoretical essays,
6. (c) Udayin choose Pataliputra as a capital because ‘nat’, ‘bhaona’ and the like.
Pataliputra was located in the centre of Magadhan
16. (a) In Asura marriage, bridegroom gave as much
empire. The earliest capital of Magadha was at Rajgir,
wealth as he could afford to the bride’s relatives, not
which was called Girivraja at that time.
in accordance with the injunctions of the scriptures
7. (a) Inamgaon is a post-Harappan agrarian village because it was like buying the bride, which was
and archaeological site located in Maharashtra prohibited.

History || A-71
18. (b) In 747, the Indian master Padma Sambhava lotus city has been identified with the region we now
travelled from Afghanistan to bring Vajrayana know as Charsadda and its neighbourhood.
Buddhism to Tibet and Bhutan at the request of the 31. (d) Yavana Jataka is not a Buddhist writing. Sage
king of Tibet. Yavana, who belonged to the Alexander period, wrote
19. (d) Tiruvachakam, which occupies a place in Tamil Yavana Jataka. He was an astrologer in the Greek
sacred literature analogous to the Upanishadas, court in India.
32. (b) The land between the Saraswati and Drishadvati
contains the compositions of Manikkavachakar.
was called the Brahmavarta. The place which first
20. (a) Jeevak was the royal physician during the reign
witnessed the creation of mankind came to be known
ww of Ajatashatru and Bimbisara of Magadha empire. He

was the son of the Ganika named Shalwati.
21. (c) The rock shelters of Bhimbetka are a repository
33.
as Brahmavarta or the seat of Brahma.
(d) Mother goddess of bone has been obtained from
the upper Palaeolithic level of the Belan valley.
w.E of rock paintings within natural rock shelters with

archaeological evidences from the Palaeolithic and
Mesolithic periods through the Chalcolithic to the
Medieval period.
34. (b) Porus was an Indian king who fought Alexander
the Great in the Battle of the Hydaspes river in 326
BC and was defeated. He then served Alexander as
a client king.
asy
23. (d) Vajji Janapada was republican state in sixth
century BC. Its capital was Vaishali. The Vajji
36. (c) Lichhavis established the first republic of the
world in Vajji Mahajanapada of ancient India.
They were the most famous clan amongst the ruling
En
republic was ruled by a confederation of eight clans
(Atthakula) of whom the Vrijis, the Lichchavis, the
confederate clans of the Vajji. Vaishali was the capital
of the Lichhavis,
gin
Jnatrikass and the Videhas were the most important.
24. (b) Burzahom was the first Neolithic site to be
discovered in Kashmir. After the excavation, many
37. (c) Asmaka was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas
in the 6th century BCE, mentioned in the Buddhist
text Anguttara Nikaya. The region was located on
ee
burials of this phase were discovered, usually under
house floors or in the compounds. Apart from human
burials, animals were sometimes buried along with
humans or in separate graves. The buried animals are
38.
the banks of the Godavari river, between the rivers
Godavari and Manjira.
rin
(d) The ancient Buddhist text Anguttara Nikaya
gives the list of sixteen Mahajanapadas includes
domesticated animals like dogs, sheep and goats.
25. (b) In South India, in the central part of Deccan
plateau, archaeologists have discovered ash mounds
g.n
the Gandhara and the Kamboja as the only two
salient Mahajanapadas in the Uttarapatha. Another
Buddhist text Digha Nikaya mentions only twelve
of varying sizes and shapes with uneven surface either
covered with soil or grass.
26. (b) According to legends, the origin of ‘Sri Lankan
Tamil literature dates back to the Sangam age
41.
Mahajanapadas.
et
(b) Hippalus was a Greek navigator and merchant
who probably lived in the 1st century BCE. He
discovered the monsoon winds and the route across
the Arabian Sea to India around 45 AD.
dated variously from 200 BCE to 600 CE. Eelattu 42. (d) Parashurama is most known for ridding the world
Poothanthevanar was one of the earliest known of Kshatriyas over twenty-one times. Mahapadma
classical Tamil poets. His poems were included in Nanda, who has been described as “the destroyer of
the Tamil Sangam or Cankam poetry anthologies all the Kshatriyas”, defeated the Panchalas, Kasis,
compiled in Tamilakam before 250 AD. Haihayas, Kalingas, Asmakas, Kurus, Maithilas,
27. (a) Chera dynasty was one of the most ancient Tamil Surasenas and the Vitihotras. So, Mahapadma Nanda
dynasties in India, ruling over modern-day Tamil has been compared to Parashurama in the Puranas.
Nadu and Kerala. During the Sangam age, Tondi was 43. (c) Vidisha was not an ancient seaport. Vidisha was
one of the most flourishing seaports of Kerala. an important trade centre in the 6th and 5th centuries
29. (b) Pushkalavati, meaning the Lotus City in BCE, under the Sungas, Nagas, Satavahanas, and
Sanskrit, was the earliest capital of Gandhara. The Guptas, and was mentioned in the Pali scriptures.


46. (d) The classical work Tamil literature Tiru Kural was called Chaturanga, which appears to have been
called the Bible of Tamil land. It consists of series invented in the 6th century AD.
of metrical proverbs and many aspects of life and 55. (b) The subject matter of most of the paintings
religion. Kural by Thiruvalluvar has been translated at Ajanta is the life and teachings of Buddha. This
into many languages both Indian and foreign. covers various lives and incarnations of Buddha as
told in Jataka stories. The rocks here in Ajanta are
47. (c) Pandyas were the patrons of Sangam, an
cut in the shapes of Chaitya, Stupa and Vihara – all
assembly of Tamil poets. Pandya kings find mention
are important religious places of Buddhists.
in a number of poems in the Sangam literature.
ww
49. (c) Chedi kingdom was one among the many
kingdoms ruled during early periods by Paurava kings
56. (b) The Periya Puranam is a classical Tamil
scripture that describes the lives of 63 Saivite saints.
It has immense influence over the devotional tradition
w.E in the central and western India. Suktimati was the

capital of Chedi.
50. (b) Asmaka was the only Mahajanapada situated
of Saivism in south India. It was compiled during the
12th century by Sekkizhar.
57. (d) Manimekhalai is a second-century Tamil verse
asy
to the south of the Vindhya range and was in
Dakshinapatha or southern India.
epic reflects the ancient culture of India in the story of
a beautiful young dancer who abandons her future as a
courtesan in order to dedicate her life to the pursuit of
En
54. (a) Many countries claim to have invented the chess
game in some incipient form. The most commonly
held belief is that chess originated in India, where it
Buddhism. She became a Buddhist nun or Bhikshuni
and practiced to rid herself from the bondage of birth
gin and death and attain Nirvana.
ee rin
g.n
et

6 Delhi Sultanate
ww
1. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty? 8. Which sultan of Delhi made a rule that, in any

w.E (a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Sultan Mahmud
given year, the land revenue can be increased
only nominally, viz. one-tenth or one-eleventh of
the fixed revenue?

2.
(d) Balban
Who abolished Iqta system?asy

(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji

(c) Balban
En
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
(d) Alauddin Khilji

9.
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Firozshah Tughlaq
Tarikh-e-Ferozshahi was written by
3.

Aibak was
gin
The ruler of Bundelkhand defeated by Qutubuddin
(a) Parmardi Deva (b) Lakshman Sen

(a) Al-Utbi
(c) Roomi
(b) Barni & Afif
(d) Amir Khusro

4.
(c) Uday Singh
ee
(d) Malayvarma Deva
Which Sultan of Delhi founded and built the Fort
of Siri?
10.

The Turkish brought with them musical instruments.
(a) Rabab and Sarangi
rin
(b) Sitar and Flute
(c) Veena and Tabla

(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji

11. g.n
(d) Tanpura and Mridanga
Who of the following was responsible for the

5.
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Who among the following Amirs was the one
publicly flogged by the orders of Sultan Balban?

murder of his father?
(a) Balban
(b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji
et
(a) Haibat Khan (b) Imaduddin Raihan (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Sher Khan (d) Malik Baqbaq 12. Which of the following works of Amir Khusro
6. Who was the Governor of Kara-Manikpur to have deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin
revolted against Sultan Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji? Khilji?
(a) Arkali Khan (b) Almas Beg (a) Qairanus Sadain (b) Miftah-Ul-Futuh
(c) Jawna Khan (d) Malik Chajju (c) Nuh Siphar (d) Khazain-Ul-Futuh
7. Who among the following were called ‘Neo- 13. Who among the following foreign historians
Muslims’ during the reign of Jalaluddin Firoz is considered an authority on the history of the
Khilji? Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Mongols (b) Indian Muslims (a) Richard Fox (b) Peter Jackson
(c) Tazikh (d) Abyssinians (c) Aden Southall (d) Chris Bayly

A-74 || Delhi Sultanate

14. Which Sultan of Delhi categorized the Ulema 22. Balban failed to expand his territories because of
into ‘Ulma-i-Akhiral’ and ‘Ulma-i-Duniya’ and (a) Non-co-operation of nobles
praised the former? (b) Resistance of the Rajputs
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish (c) Fear of Mongol invaders
(c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji (d) Revolt of his son
15. About which Sultan of Delhi did Barani write 23. Which one of the following was not constructed
that he had his Amirs murdered silently? by Qutubuddin Aibak ?
(a) Balban (a) Kubbat-ul-Islam mosque
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Qutub Minar
ww

(c) Qutbuddin Mubarak Khilji
(d) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
16. Who was the author of Futuhat-i-Firozshahi?

24.
(c) Adhai Din Ka Jhopada
(d) Alai Darwaja
During the time of Alauddin’s invasion, Warangal

w.E(a) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
(b) Isami
(c) Ziauddin Barani

was ruled by
(a) Chalukya dynasty (b) Chola dynasty
(c) Kakatiya dynasty (d) Yadava dynasty
(d) Sultan Firoz Shah
asy
17. The city of Jaunpur was founded by
(a) Mohmmad Bin Tughlaq
25.

Which new department was started by Muhammad
Bin Tughlaq for the development of agriculture?
(a) Diwan-i-Risalat (b) Diwan-i-Ashraf

(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Ibrahim Lodi En
26.
(c) Diwan-i-Kohi (d) Diwan-i-Mustkharaz
Who among the following constituted Turkan-i-
(d) Sikandar Lodi
gin
18. The first Silver Tanka of Delhi Sultanate was
issued by

Chihalgani?
(c) Balban (d) None of these

(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Razia Sultan
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban
ee 27.

Which one of the following Sultans was an off
his dynasty?
(a) Ruknuddin Firozrin
spring of Iltutmish, and was the last successor of
19. Which one of the following represented the royal

secretariat during the Sultanate period?

(b) Razia Sultana
g.n
(c) Muizuddin Bahram Shah

(a) Diwan-i-Arz (b) Diwan-i-Insha
(c) Diwan-i-Wizarat (d) Diwan-i-Barid
20. During the reign of which Delhi Sultan, the state
department of translation was established for

28.
(d) Nasiruddin Mahmud
et
Which one of the following sons of Alauddin
Khilji was born of his wife Jhatyapali, the daughter
of Raja Ramchandra Dev of Devagiri?
translating Sanskrit texts into Arabic-Persian and (a) Shihabuddin Umar
vice-versa? (b) Khizra Khan
(a) Sikandar Lodi (c) Qutbuddin Mubarak
(b) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khilji (d) Sadi Khan
(c) Mohammad Tughlaq 29. The ethnic composition of the armies of
(d) Razia Sultana Ghaznavids did not include the
21. Which one of the following names was not (a) Arabs (b) Indians
included in the Khutba of Firoz Shah Tughlaq? (c) Tajiks (d) Greeks
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak 30. The ‘Tibb-i-Sikandari’, which was compiled
(b) Balban from Sanskrit sources dealt with
(c) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khilji (a) Astronomy (b) Medicine
(d) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq (c) Music (d) Philosophy

History || A-75
31. The term ‘Sondhar’ as loans to peasants was used 40. Which one of the following Sultans’ currency
during the time of continued as the medium of exchange till the
(a) Balban time of Akbar?
(b) Alauddin Khilji (a) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Muhammad Tughlaq (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Tughlaq (c) Bahlol Lodhi
32. Who among the following Sultans invoked (d) Ibrahim Lodhi
Persian monarchical traditions and adjusted them 41. Most authoritative account of Malik Kafur’s
deccan campaign is given by
ww

to Indian milieu?
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Ruknuddin Firoz

(a) Amir Khusro
(c) Minhaj
(b) Hasan Nizami
(d) Ziauddin Barani
42. Which one of the following Sultans had close

w.E(c) Alauddin Khilji
33. Which of the following represented the Royal
secretariat during the Sultanate period?

contact with the Jain scholars?
(b) Balban

(a) Diwan-i-Arz
asy
(b) Diwan-i-Insha
(c) Diwan-i-Wizarat (d) Diwan-i-Barid

(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
43. ‘Important aspect of the Turkish conquest of
(a) 4 Jitals
En
34. Shashgani was a small silver coin equal to
(b) 6 Jitals
North India was the Urban revolution.’ Who said
this statement?
(c) 8 Jitals
gin
(d) 10 Jitals
35. The bone of contention between Bahmani and
Vijayanagar kingdom was

(a) K.A. Nizami
(c) R.P. Tripathi
(b) M. Habib
(d) Yusuf Hussain
44. Nizamuddin Junaidi was the Wazir of

(a) Kavery delta
(b) Malabar parts
(c) Krishna delta
(d) Krishna-Tungabhadra doab
ee

(a) Muizzuddin Ghori (b) Qutubuddin Aibak
(c) Iltutmish
rin
(d) Balban
45. Who among the following historians had accom-
panied Alauddin Khilji in his Deccan campaign?
36. The difference between Gaz-i-Sikandari and Gaz-

i-Ilahi was
(a) 39 : 41 (b) 40 : 43

(c) Amir Khusro
g.n
(a) Hasan Nizami (b) Minhaj
(d) Ziauddin Barani
46. Amir Khusro wrote his famous masanavi ‘Ashiqa’
(c) 42 : 45 (d) 43 : 47
37. Who among the following Sultans received the

title of ‘Syed-us-Salatin’ from the Caliph?
(a) Iltutmish

on the order of
(c) Rai Karan

et
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Khizra Khan
(d) Rani Kamla Devi
47. Which one of the following was not a slave of
(b) Balban Muhammad Ghori?
(c) Alauddin Khilji (a) Ikhtiyaruddin Bakhtiyar Khilji
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (b) Tajuddin Yaldauz
38. Who founded Agra? (c) Qutbuddin Aibak
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
(a) Iltutmish (b) Firoz Tughlaq
48. The statement. “India is not Arabia, it is not
(c) Sikander Lodhi (d) Ibrahim Lodhi
practically feasible to convert it into Qarul
39. Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of Islam.” is associated with
(a) Jalaluddin Firoz Shah (a) Iltutmish
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Balban
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq


49. With which Sultan of Delhi do you associate the 57. Which one of the following Sultans is credited
compilation of Kingship theory and principles of with the appointment of ‘Amir-Sadah’ in the
administration called ‘Vassayya” ? provinces?
(a) Iltutmish (a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Balban (b) Muhammad Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji (c) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (d) Bahlol Lodi
50. Which one of the following works of Amir 58. The state language of India during the Turkish
Khusro deals with the military expeditions of period was
ww

Alauddin Khilji?
(a) Nuh Siphar (b) Khajain-ul-Futuh
(c) Miftah-ul-Futuh (d) Quairanus Sadain

(a) Arabic
(c) Turkish
(b) Persian
(d) Urdu
59. According to historian Ziauddin Barani, the ideal

w.E
51. Who among the following scholars has been
given the title of Hujjat-ul-Islam?
(a) Shah Wali Ullah

Sultan of Delhi was
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji

(b) Abu Yazid Al Bistami
(c) Shaikh Junaid
asy
(d) Abu Hamid Mohammad Al-Ghazali

(c) Firoj Shah Tughlaq
(d) Bahlol Lodi
60. Which one of the following Sultans had close
En
52. Which one of the following was not a currency in
circulation under the Sultans of Delhi?
contact with the Jain scholars?
(a) Qutbuddin Aibak

(a) Dam
(c) Jital
gin
(b) Tanka
(d) Dogani
53. What was the name of Jain saint with whom

(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

Muhammad Tughlaq held discussions?
(a) Rishabadeva
(c) Jinasena Suri
ee
(b) Hemchandra
(d) Jinaprabha Suri
54. Which one of the following Sultans of Delhi for
61. Which one of the following is an octagonal

tomb?
rin
(a) Tomb of Sikandar Lodi
(b) Tomb of Balban

the first time banned the visit of Muslim women
to the tombs situated outside Delhi?
(a) Balban

g.n
(c) Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Tomb of Firoz Shah Tughlaq
62. Which Sultan of the Sultanate period introduced

(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khilji
55. Which Muslim ruler played Holi for the first time

(a) Allauddin Khilji
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Muhammad Tughlaq
et
irrigation tax for the first time?
in Medieval India? (d) Firoz Tughlaq

(a) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 63. With which Sufi saint of Delhi is associated the
(b) Humayun famous saying ‘Hanooz Dilli Door Ast’ ?
(c) Akbar (a) Nizamuddin Aulia
(d) Jahangir (b) Sheikh Salim Chisti
56. Who destroyed the Nalanda University in 1193 (c) Bhakhtiyaruddin Kaki
AD and burnt it down? (d) Mohammad Ghaus
(a) Muizuddin Muhammad Ghori 64. Who established Diwan-i-Mustakharaj?
(b) Ikhtiyaruddin Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar (a) Qutubuddin Aibak
Khilji (b) Razia Sultana
(c) Mahmud Ghazni (c) Balban
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) Alauddin Khilji

History || A-77
65. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi 74. Who of the following Sultans of Delhi had
founded the city of Agra? abolished the tax on grain (also called Zakat on
(a) Balban grain)?
(b) Alauddin Khilji (a) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
66. Who among the following historians was made (d) Sikandar Lodi
prisoner by the Mongols?
75. What was Arghatta?
(a) Hasan Nizami (b) Minhaj-us-Siraj
ww
(c) Amir Khusrow (d) Ziauddin Barani
67. Who among the following Sultans introduced
professional courses in education?

(a) A machine to break forts
(b) An irrigation canal
(c) A device to lift water

w.E(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(d) A type of cloth
76. At the time of Qutubuddin Aibak’s death,
Iltutmish was the Subedar of
(a) Delhi (b) Gwalior
asy
68. Who among the following has given a detailed
account of the postal system during the Sultanate
(c) Badayun (d) Lahore
77. Which of the following places was named as

period?
(a) Amir Khusro
En
(b) Ibn Battuta
(c) Sultan Firoz Shah (d) Ziauddin Barani

Khizrabad during the Sultanate period?
(a) Agra (b) Chittor
gin
69. Which type of work was looked after by the
department of Diwan-i-Kohi under Muhammad
Tughlaq?
(c) Jaunpur (d) Devagiri
78. Who of the following was the Sultan of Delhi at
the time of Timur’s invasion?

(a) Agriculture
(b) Army
(c) Justice
(d) Royal correspondence
ee

(a) Daulat Khan Lodi
rin
(d) Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah Tughlaq
70. The land which directly yielded revenue to the

Sultan was known as
(a) Khalisa (b) Inam
g.n
79. On whose coins, the name of the last Calipha of
Baghdad appeared for the first time?

(c) Waqf
(a) Khalisa lands

(d) Iqta
71. Ijaradari system was first introduced in
(b) Jagir lands
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

(b) Iltutmish
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Alauddin Masud Shah
et
80. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the
72. Which one of the following Sultans brought the Brahmins also?
Ashokan pillar to Delhi? (a) Balban
(a) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Allauddin Khilji
(d) Alauddin Khilji (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
73. Who among the following died while playing 81. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of
Chaugan? Alexander the Great?
(a) Iltutmish (a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Mohammad Tughlaq (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) Sikandar Lodi


82. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate 90. Who among the following Sultanate rulers
agriculture department and had planned the himself encouraged bribery in administration?
rotation of crops? (a) Balban
(a) Iltutmish (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(b) Balban (c) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 91. Which of the following works describes the
83. Who amongst the following Sultans built the fifth qualities of an ideal Muslim ruler?
storey of Qutub Minar? (a) Taj-ul-Masir (b) Tabqat-e-Nasiri
ww

(a) Qutbuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Khazain-ul-Futuh (d) Fatwa-e-Jahandari
92. Which one of the following Sultans assumed the
title ‘Umdat-ul-Niswan’ on the coins?

w.E(d) Sikandar Lodi
84. Which medieval king of India indroduced the
Iqkta system?

(a) Razia Sultana (b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq
93. Who was the ruler of Devagiri at the time of

(a) Iltutmish
asy
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) None of these
85. What was ‘Dar-ul-Shafa’ established by Firoz

Alauddin Khilji’s invasion?
(a) Pratap Rudra Dev (b) Ramchandra Dev
(c) Malik Kafoor (d) Rana Ratan Singh

Tughlaq?
(a) An alms house En 94. The transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad
was ordered by Sultan

(b) A free hospital
(c) A library
(d) A guest house for pilgrims
gin

(a) Mubarak Shah Khilji

Begum?
(a) Afghans
(c) Turkish
(b) Mongols
(d) Arabs
ee
86. Who were instrumental in deposing Raziya

Ghari or House tax?

(a) Balban rin
95. Which Sultan of Delhi was the first to charge
87. For the first time, the token currency in India was
introduced by

(b) Alauddin Khilji
g.n

(a) Iltutmish
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Sher Shah Suri

(a) Ghayasuddin Tughlaq

et
96. Ibn Batutta visited India during the reign of
88. Which Muslim ruler enforced price control (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
system for the first time? (d) Bahlol Lodi
(a) Iltutmish 97. Which one of the following kings of the medieval
(b) Balban India began the ‘Public Distribution System’?
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (a) Balban
(d) Alauddin Khilji (b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
89. Which of the following was not established by (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Firoz Tughlaq? (d) Alauddin Khilji
(a) Diwan-i-Mustakharaj 98. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed
(b) Diwan-i-Khairat the Policy of “Blood and Iron”?
(c) Diwan-i-Bandagan (a) Jalaluddin Khilji (b) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Darul Shafa (c) Balban (d) Iltutmish

History || A-79
99. For whom did historian Badayuni commented on 107. Who was the last ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty of
his death “Sultan got freedom from his masses the Delhi Sultanate?
and the masses from the Sultan”? (a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(a) Iltutmish (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq II
(b) Balban (c) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Nusrat Shah
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 108. Who was the founder of Sayyid dynasty?
100. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the (a) Khizr Khan (b) Mubarak Shah
ww

Mongol leader Chengiz Khan?
(a) Iltutmish
(c) Balban
(b) Razia
(d) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Shah (d) Alauddin Alam Shah
109. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built
the biggest network of canals in India was

w.E
101. Who among the following established Delhi as
the capital of Sultanate?

(a) Iltutmish
(c) Razia
asy
(d) Muizzuddin Ghori
102. Who of the following was the first woman ruler
(d) Sikandar Lodi
110. The term used for the measurement of land in the
Delhi Sultanate period was

of medieval India?
(a) Razia Sultan
En
(b) Chand Bibi

(a) Kismat-i-Ghalla (b) Masahat
(c) Ghalla Bakshi (d) Ghori
(c) Durgavati
gin
(d) Noorjahan
103. The city of Jaunpur was founded in the memory
of
111. Which of the dynasties ruled for the shortest period

of time during to course of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Slave dynasty (b) Khilji dynasty

(a) Jalaluddin Khilji
ee (c) Sayyid dynasty (d) Lodi dynasty
rin
112. The Sultan who desecrated the Puri Jagannath

temple and Jwalamukhi temple at Kangra was
(a) Balban
104. Which of the following was not built by Firoz

Shah Tughlaq?
(a) Palace Fort of Firozabad

(b) Alauddin Khilji
g.n

(b) Kotla Firoz Shah
(c) City of Jahanpanah
(d) Hauz-i-Khas
105. Which of the following Sultans had greatest

(d) Sikandar Lodi
(a) Bahlol Lodi

et
113. The Lodi dynasty was founded by
(b) Mubarak Shah
(c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Ibrahim Lodi
number of slaves in his court? 114. Who was the first real king of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Balban (a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
(b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 115. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted his capital from
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq Delhi to
106. Who among the following appointed Ibn Battuta (a) Lahore (b) Kalinjan
as the Chief Qazi of Delhi? (c) Kannauj (d) Daulatabad
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban 116. The famous poet Amir Khusro was associated
(b) Alauddin Khilji with the court of
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Akbar


117. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi was 126. Who was the last ruler of Jaunpur State?
known as Lakh Bakhsh? (a) Muhammad Shah (b) Hussain Shah
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Balban (c) Mubarak Shah (d) Ibrahim Shah
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Jalaluddin Khilji 127. Who was the founder of Gajapati dynasty of
118. Who has been described by Elliot as the Akbar of Orissa?
Sultanate? (a) Purushottama (b) Vidhyadhara
(a) Iltutmish (b) Balban (c) Kapilendra (d) Prataprudra
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq 128. Zain-ul-Abdin, who prohibited cow slaughter, was
a ruler of
ww
119. In the Delhi Sultanate, an administrative unit called

paragana was headed by an official known as
(a) Amil (b) Ariz

(a) Bengal
(c) Malwa
(b) Gujarat
(d) Kashmir
129. The foreign traveller who visited and described

w.E (c) Shiqdar (d) Barid

120. Who among the following Sultans was advised by
Qazi Mughisuddin to act according to the laws of
Shariat but the Sultan rejected his advice?
Vijayanagar soon after its fall in the battle of
Talikota, was
(a) Abdur Razzak (b) Ceasar Frederick

(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Jalaluddin Khilji asy (c) Nicolo Conti (d) Nuniz
130. Who of the following Vijayanagar kings had
assumed the tittle ‘Andhra Bhoja’?

121. Malik Kafur was the General of En

(a) Devaraya I (b) Devaraya II
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Virupaksha II

(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji gin 131. The first capital of Vijayanagar empire was Hampi.
Where was its second capital?

ee
122. In the Sultanate period, the highest rural authority
for land revenue was

(a) Vijayanagar
(c) Bellore
rin
(b) Kanchi
(d) Penukonda
132. Who among the following was the first Vijayanagar
ruler to have the title of Maharajadhiraj?
(a) Harihar II (b) Harihar I

(a) Rawat
(c) Chaudhary
(b) Malik
(d) Patwari
123. Coins of which Muslim ruler have been image of
(c) Bukka I
g.n (d) Bukka II
133. Who among the following kings of Vijayanagar

Devi Lakshmi?
(a) Muhammad Ghori (b) Iltutmish
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) None of these
124. Who was the Muslim General to have conquered

(a) Bukka I
(c) Harihar II et
sent an ambassador to China?
(b) Harihar I
(d) Devaraya II
134. What were the districts called in the Vijayanagar
empire?
Bengal in 13th century AD?
(a) Nadu (b) Khurram
(a) Malik Kafur
(c) Kottam (d) Janpad
(b) Nusrat Khan 135. Who among the following Vijayanagar kings
(c) Muhammad Ghori started to recruit Muslim fighters in the army?
(d) Ikhtiaruddin Bakhtiar Khilji (a) Harihara I (b) Harihara II
125. Who among the following witnessed the reign of (c) Bukka (d) Devaraya II
Seven Sultans of Delhi? 136. Which among the following commodities was
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti exported on a large scale from Vijayanagar
(b) Shams Siraj Afif empire?
(c) Amir Khusro (a) Tea (b) Coffee
(d) None of these (c) Pepper (d) Perfume

History || A-81
137. Which one of the following places has been referred 146. What was Khanqah?
to by Arab travellers as the “House of Gold”? (a) Works of poet Amir Khusro
(a) Mysore (b) Multan (b) The place where Sufi mystics lived
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat (c) Court of Sikandar Lodi
138. What was the nationality of Marcopolo who visited (d) Birth place of Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti
India in the last decade of 13th century? 147. Sugandhadevi, who issued coins with the figure of
seated Lakshmi, was a Queen of
(a) Dutch (b) Spanish
(a) Karnataka (b) Kashmir
(c) Italian (d) Portuguese
(c) Orissa (d) Saurashtra
ww
139. Who among the following Sufis has called India

a paradise on earth?
(a) Baba Farid
148. The capital of the Sharqi dynasty was

(a) Jaunpur (b) Banaras
(c) Kara Manikpur (d) Zafarabad

w.E (b) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Amir Khurd
(d) Amir Khusro
149. Which one of the following Sufi Saints of the

Chistiya order was called the Chirag-i-Dehalvi?
(a) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
asy
140. Which one of the following was the first ruler of
Vijayanagar to have employed Turkish bowmen?

(b) Sheikh Fariduddin
(c) Sheikh Nasiruddin
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti

(a) Harihara I
(c) Bukka I
En
(b) Harihara II
(d) Devaraya I
141. The term ‘Amaram’ in the Vijayanagar empire
150. The kingdom of Vijayanagar was established
during the reign of

stood for
gin
(a) Grants given to the Brahamanas

(a) Alauddin Khilji

(b) Military grants
ee
(c) Grants given to scholars and poets
(d) Grants given to the widows and the poor
142. Which sects of Sufis adopted Yoga?
rin
151. The old capital of Vijayanagar is now represented

by the extensive ruins of
(a) Hampi (b) Badami

(a) Qadiri
(c) Chishtiya
(b) Shattari
(d) None of these
(c) Bijapur
g.n
(d) Vijayanagaram
152. Vidyaranya was associated with
143. Who of the following Rajput rulers gave donation

for the reconstruction of a mosque?
(a) Mihir Bhoja
(c) Prithviraj III
(b) Bhoj Parmar
(d) Jaisingh Siddharaj

(a) Harihar II
(c) Devaraya II
et
(b) Ramraj
(d) Sayan
153. Who among the following rulers allowed the
Portuguese to build Churches in Vellore?
144. The historian Sewell has written a book entitled (a) Devaraya II (b) Venkat II
“A Forgotten Empire”. What was the name of (c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Achyutadeva Raya
empire? 154. Who among the following was a disciple of
Nizamuddin Aulia?
(a) Mauryan Empire (b) Mughal Empire
(a) Amir Khusro (b) Alauddin Sabir
(c) Maratha Empire (d) Vijayanagar Empire
(c) Nasiruddin (d) Ibrahim Lodi
145. Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini continued the 155. The Sufi saint who was supposed to be the greatest
narration of Kalhana up to musician of the age was
(a) Jayasingh (a) Mansur Din Hallaj
(b) Sultan Sikandar (b) Al-Gajjali
(c) Sultan Zainul Abidin (c) Pir Bodhan
(d) Muhammad Shah (d) Rabia


156. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusro 165. The famous Hazara Ram temple was built by
deals with the military expedition of Alauddin whom?
Khilji? (a) Harihara I (b) Devaraya I
(a) Qairanus Sadain (b) Miftah-ul-Futuh (c) Narshimha Salva (d) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Nuh Siphar (d) Khazain-ul-Futuh 166. Who among the following Telugu authors had
157. Who was the founder of Pushtimarg? the honour of Kanakabhiseka at the hands of
(a) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Vijayanagar ruler Devaraya II?
(b) Vallabhacharya (a) Bhairava Kavi (b) Nandi Mallaya
(c) Potana (d) Srinatha
ww

(c) Madhavacharya
(d) Yamunacharya
158. In which capacity, thousands of women were
167. Which one of the following dance traditions
developed during the age of the Vijayanagar
empire?

w.E employed in the empire of Vijayanagar?
(a) Accountants
(c) Palace guards
(b) Royal bodyguards
(d) All of these

(a) Yakshagan (b) Mohiniattam
(c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathakali
168. Who among the following Sufis used to wear ladies

(a) Bukka I
asy
159. Who built the city of Nagalapura?
(b) Devaraya I
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Virupaksha

dress?
(a) Sheikh Moosa
(b) Sheikh Hamiduddin Nagauri
En
160. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India, the
image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has

(c) Shah Daula Dariyai
(d) Shah Muhammad Ghaus

been depicted on its gold coins?
(a) The Vijayanagar empire
gin
(b) The kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra
169. Who among the following is the author of Siyarul

Aulia?
(a) Dara Shikoh (b) Amir Hasan

ee
(c) The kingdom of Kakathiyas of Warrangal
(d) The kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri
161. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva
(c) Amir Khusro
rin
(d) Indus
170. ‘Amuktamalyada’ written by Krishnadeva Raya,

the ruler of Vijayanagar, was in
(a) Sanskrit (b) Kannada
Raya ?

(a) Vaishnavism
(c) Jainism
(b) Shaivism
(d) Buddhism
(c) Telugu
g.n(d) Tamil
171. Who was the founder of the Sufi order in India?
162. To whom did Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow

the title of ‘Ain-i-Hind’ (Mirror of India)?
(a) Sheikh Bahauddin Zakaria
(b) Sheikh Sirajuddin Usmani

et
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(d) Sheikh Nasiruddin Mahmud
172. Who was called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(c) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi (a) Shihabuddin (b) Sultan Sikandar
(d) Khwaja Syed Muhammad Gesudaraj (c) Hussain Shah (d) Zainul Abidin
163. Who among the following Sufi saints witnessed 173. The founder of the Bahmani Kingdom was
the rule of Seven Sultans of Delhi? (a) Alauddin Mujahid Shah
(a) Shekh Ahmad Sirhindi (b) Ahmed Shah
(b) Shekh Nizamuddin Auliya (c) Alauddin Bahaman Shah
(c) Baba Fareed (d) Tajuddin Firoz Shah
(d) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti 174. The first dynasty of the Vijayanagar Kingdom
164. Who is known as the Parrot of India? was
(a) Abul Fazl (b) Raskhan (a) Hoyasala (b) Sangama
(c) Amir Khusro (d) Mirabai (c) Saluva (d) Tuluva

History || A-83
175. Who were the Ashta-diggaja in the court of 183. Taraf in the Bahmani kingdom signified
Krishnadeva Raya? (a) Province (b) Lord grant
(a) Eight great Generals (c) Transit tax (d) Gold coin
(b) Eight Telugu poets 184. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
(c) Eight ministers (a) Bhadrachalam (b) Hampi
(d) Eight advisors (c) Chidambaram (d) Srikalahasti
176. Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint 185. Amir Khusrow played a pioneer role in the
to use Hindi for the propagation of his message? development of
(a) Dadu (b) Kabir (a) Khari Boli (b) Awadhi
ww
(c) Ramananda (d) Tulsidas
177. Which philosophy is known as Advaitvad?
(a) Shankaracharya (b) Ramanujacharya
(c) Bhojpuri
empire during the times of

(d) Maithili
186. Nicolo Conti the Italian traveller visited Vijayanagar

w.E (c) Nagarajuna
(a) Jayant
(d) Vallabhacharya
178. Gita Govinda was written by
(b) Jayadeva

(a) Devaraya I
(b) Devaraya II
(c) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Jayasimha
asy
(d) Jayachandra
179. The Nayakas in the Vijayanagar empire were
(d) Achyuta Raya
187. When Babur invaded India who was the ruler of
Vijayanagar empire in south India?

(a) Central ministers
(b) Cavalry soldiers
En
(c) Priests of large and powerful temples

(a) Devaraya I
(b) Devaraya II

gin
(d) Military chiefs controlling particular territories
180. The kingdom of Vijayanagar was founded by

(c) Krishnadev Raya
(d) Sadashiva Raya

(a) Vijayraj
(c) Devaraya
ee
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
(d) Harihar and Bukka
181. When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of
Mysore, who was the ruler of the Vijayanagar
188. Which of the following was not one of the foreign

travellers to visit India during the period of
Krishnadeva Raya?
(a) Fernando Nuniz
rin
(b) Domingo Paes

empire?
(a) Sadasiva
(c) Venkata II
(b) Tirumala
(d) Ranga II

(c) Duarte Barbosa
(d) Nicolo Conti g.n
182. Who among the following Bahmani rulers built

the famous “Gol Gumbaz” at Bijapur?
(a) Mahmud Gawan
(b) Ismail Adil Shah

‘Adigranth’ of the Sikhas?
(a) Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Bakhtiyar Kaki
et
189. Which Chisti Saint’s verses are quoted in the
(c) Muhammad Adil Shah (c) Fariduddin

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah (d) Nizamuddin Auliya

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 25. (c) 49. (b) 73. (d) 97. (d) 121. (b) 145. (c) 169. (c)
2. (b) 26. (b) 50. (b) 74. (d) 98. (c) 122. (c) 146. (b) 170. (c)
3. (a) 27. (d) 51. (a) 75. (c) 99. (d) 123. (a) 147. (b) 171. (a)
4. (c) 28. (a) 52. (a) 76. (c) 100. (a) 124. (d) 148. (a) 172. (d)
5. (d) 29. (d) 53. (d) 77. (b) 101. (b) 125. (c) 149. (c) 173. (c)
6. (d) 30. (b) 54. (c) 78. (d) 102. (a) 126. (b) 150. (b) 174. (b)
ww 7.
8.
(a)
(c)
31.
32.
(c)
(a)
55.
56.
(a)
(b)
79.
80.
(d)
(b)
103.
104.
(c)
(c)
127.
128.
(c)
(d)
151.
152.
(a)
(d)
175.
176.
(b)
(c)
w.E
10.
9. (b)
(a)
33.
34.
(b)
(b)
57.
58.
(b)
(b)
81.
82.
(b)
(d)
105.
106.
(d)
(d)
129.
130.
(b)
(c)
153.
154.
(b)
(a)
177.
178.
(a)
(b)
11.
12.
13.
(b)
(d)
(d)
35.
36.
37.
(d)
(a)
(b)
59.
60.
61.
asy (c)
(d)
(a)
83.
84.
85.
(c)
(a)
(b)
107.
108.
109.
(c)
(a)
(c)
131.
132.
133.
(d)
(d)
(a)
155.
156.
157.
(c)
(d)
(b)
179.
180.
181.
(d)
(d)
(c)
14. (c) 38. (c) 62.
En
(d) 86. (c) 110. (b) 134. (a) 158. (d) 182. (c)
15.
16.
(a)
(d)
39.
40.
(d)
(d)
63.
64.
gin
(a)
(d)
87.
88.
(c)
(d)
111.
112.
(c)
(c)
135.
136.
(d)
(c)
159.
160.
(c)
(a)
183.
184.
(a)
(b)
17.
18.
19.
20.
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
41.
42.
43.
44.
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
65.
66.
67.
68.
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
ee
89.
90.
91.
92.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(a)
113.
114.
115.
116.
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
137.
138.
139.
140.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(d)
161.
162.
rin
163.
164.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
185.
186.
187.
188.
(a)
(a)
(c)
(d)
21.
22.
(a)
(c)
45.
46.
(c)
(a)
69.
70.
(a)
(a)
93.
94.
(b)
(c)
117.
118.
(a)
(d)
141.
142.
(b)
(c) g.n
165.
166.
(d)
(d)
189. (c)
23.
24.
(d)
(c)
47.
48.
(a)
(a)
71.
72.
(b)
(c)
95.
96.
(b)
(b)
119.
120.
(a)
(a)
143.
144.
(d)
(d)
167.
168. et (a)
(a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Qutubuddin Aibak was bought by Muhammad 4. (c) Alauddin Khilji, Sultan of Delhi, built the fort
Ghori who later made him his Governor. After the of Siri during 1297–1307. The main objective of the
death of Ghori, Aibak took up sovereign powers on construction of this fort to protect Delhi from invasion
of Mongol.
24th June 1206 founding the Slave Dynasty in India.
5. (d) Malik Baqbaq, the governor of Baduan, who
2. (b) Alauddin Khilji abolished Iqta system. He was had one of his servants beaten to death in druken
son-in-law and nephew of Jalaluddin Khilji. He condition, was publicly flogged.
succeeded the throne in 1296 after killing Jalaluddin 6. (d) Chajju rebelled at Kara in 1290. He assumed the
Khilji. title Sultan Mughisuddin, issued coins in his name

History || A-85
and had the Khutba read in his honour. Jalaluddin led 22. (c) Balban preferred consolidation over expansion
his forces to meet the rebel. Chajju was captured and of empire. Because firstly, the Hindu chiefs within
punished mildly by sending to Multan in honourable the empire were on the lookout for an opportunity to
confinement. overthrow the yoke of the Delhi Sultan and secondly,
7. (a) After battle, the leader of Mongol, Abdullah the Mongol presence was a source of grave concern.
exchanged friendly greetings with the Sultan 23. (d) Alai Darwaza was constructed by Alauddin
Jalaluddin Another Mongol leader, Ulghu embraced Khilji in 1311 AD situated at Qutub Minar complex in
Islam and decided to stay back. The Sultan acceded Delhi. It is an entrance door to the Quwatul mosque.
to their request, arranged for their settlement in Delhi. It has a dome and a true arch, decorated with merlons.
ww
8.
These were called ‘Neo-Muslims’.
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq came to power in AD
1320 after killing the last Khilji, Khusrau Khan. He
made a rule that, in any given year, the land revenue
The trellis work is of white marble and there are
marble decorative bands setting off the red sand stone.
24. (c) During the time of Alauddin’s invasion Warangal
was ruled by Kakatiya Dynasty. The king was Rudra
w.E
9.
can be increased only nominally viz-1/10 th or 1/11th
of the fixed revenue.
(b) Tarikh-e-Firozshahi was written by Jiyauddin
Deva who surrendered before Kafur offering him a
golden image of himself, 2000 horses, 100 elephants
and the diamond Kohinoor.
11. asy
Barni and Afif. This book gives details from throaning
of Balban to the decline of Tughlaq dynasty.
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was responsible for
26. (b) Iltutmish constituted Turkan-i-Chihalgani
(Chargan). It was a group of forty Turkish slaves.
With the help of this group, he ran his administration.
En
the murder of his father, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq. To
welcome the Sultan, a temporary wooden pavilion
had been hastily constructed at Afganpur, a village
27. (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud (1246–1265) was
seventeen when he took the throne. He was very
poius and noble so he was called Darvesi King. He
gin
some distance away from Tughlaqabad. All of a
sudden, the pavillion came crashing down and killing
was son of Iltutmish.
32. (a) Iltutmish invoked Persian monarchial traditions
12.
the sultan, Ghiyasuddin.
(d) Khazain-ul-Futuh, work of Amir Khusro
ee
describes the military expeditions of Alauddin Khilji
containing Gujarat (1299), Ranthambhor (1301),
Mewar (1303), Malva (1305), Devagiri (1307-08)
and adjusted them to Indian milien. He consolidated
the empire by organising the nobility into a select
rin
group of forty known as Chahalgani. He divided
the Sultanate into small and large tracts called iqtas,
these were given to nobles and officers instead of
16.
Warangal (1309-10) and Dwarsamudra (1310-11).
(d) Futuhat-i-Firozshashi was written by Sultan
Firoz Shah illustrating the rule and regulations passed
cash salaries.
g.n
33. (b) Diwani-i-Insha represented the department
of correspondence, its head was Dabir-i-Mumalik
17.
by him.
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq founded Jaunpur, Fatehabad,
Hissar, Salura, Firozpur, etc. Two hundred towns
apparently include those villages abandoned by the
et
during the Sultanate period.
35. (d) The bone of contention between Bahmani and
Vijayanagar kingdoms was Krishna-Tungabhadra
doab. The conflict started on a large scale in 1367
people which were repopulated during Firoz’s reign during the reign of Bukka I.
due to the increased facilities provided by the state. 38. (c) In 1504, Sikandar Shah Lodi founded Agra. He
18. (b) Iltutmish was the first to introduce a purely transferred the capital from Delhi to Agra. He was the
Arabic coinage. The credit of introducing the silver most capable monarch of the Lodi dynasty. He sacked
Tanka weighing 175 grains and the copper Jital, the the temples of Mathura and converted the buildings
two basic coinage of the Sultanate. to muslim uses. He charged Jaziya and pilgrim’s tax
20. (a) During the reign of Sikandar Lodi, the state from the Hindus with severity. He was against taking
department of translation was established for out tazias in procession during Muharram.
translating Sanskrit texts into Arabic-Persian and 39. (d) Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of
vice-versa. He was patron of learning. He used to Muhammad Bin Tughlaq in 1333. He was born
compose poems in the name of ‘Gulrukhi’. He got in 1304 in Morocco’s northern port of Targier. He
translated the Sanskrit book of ‘Ayurveda’ into Arabic traversed North Africa, Egypt and the Swahili coast,
language in the name of Farhang-i-Sikandari. reached Mecca on the Arabian Peninsula.


41. (a) Amir Khusro gave the most anthoritative 63. (a) Nizamuddin Aulia, Sufi saint of Delhi is
account of Malik Ke fur’s deccan campaign Devagiri associated with the famous saying ‘Hanooz Dilli
(1307–08), Warangal (1309–10) & Dwar Samudra Door Ast’. Sultan Ghiasuddin was annoyed with a
(1310–11). Sufi saint, Nizamuddin Auliya. During one of his
47. (a) Ikhtiyaruddin Bakhtiyar Khilji was a Turkish expeditions he vowed that he would behead the saint
military general of Qutubuddin Aibak. He was not a in Delhi. The saint responded, “Hunooz Dilli Door
slave of Muhammad Ghori. Ast”, which means ‘it’s a long way to Delhi’.
52. (a) ‘Dam’ was not a currency in circulation under 64. (d) Alauddin Khilji established Diwan-i-
the Sultans of Delhi. It was circulated during Sher Mustakhraj. To know about the revenue arrears and
ww Shah, made up of copper, equal to 1/40th of one rupee

coin.
56. (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji destroyed the Nalanda
collect them, he introduced a new department of
Diwan-i-Mustakhraj.
65. (d) Sikandar Lodi, Sultan of Delhi, founded the
w.EUniversity in 1193 AD and burnt it down. In 1193,

the Nalanda University was sacked by Bakhtiyar
Khilji, a Turk. This event is seen by scholars as a late
milestone in the decline of Buddhism in India. The
city of Agra. Sikandar Lodi (r.1489–1517) (born
Nizam Khan), the second son of Bahlol, succeeded
him after his death on July 17, 1489 and took up the
title Sikandar Shah. He was nominated by his father
asy
Persian historian Minhaj-i-Siraj reported this event
in his chronicle the Tabaquat-i-Nasiri.
57. (b) Muhammad Tughlaq is credited with the
to succeed him and was crowned Sultan on July 15,
1489. He founded Agra in 1504 and constructed
En
appointment of ‘Amir-i-Sadah’ in the provinces.
58. (b) The state language of India during the Turkish
mosques. He abolished corn duties and patronized
trade and commerce. He was a poet of repute. He
composed under the pen-name of Gulruk. He was
period was Persian.
gin
59. (c) According to historian Ziauddin Barani, the
ideal Sultan of Delhi was Firoz Shah Tughlaq. The
also patron of learning and ordered Sanskrit work in
medicine to be translated into Persian.
66. (c) Amir Khusro was made prisoner by the
ee
Tarikh-i-Firozshahi (Firoz Shah’s History) (1357)
was an interpretation of the history of the Delhi
Sultanate up to the then-present Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
60. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq had close contact
Mongols. Khusro was a great poet and he created
much divan poetry like “Tuhfatus-Sighr”. He was
rin
a loyal servant of Sultan Muhammad who was the
second son of Balban. Khusro also fought against the
with the jain scholars. The Jain saint Prabhu Suri
was called and honoured in the court by Muhammad
Tughlaq. g.n
Mongols and he was imprisoned during the war.
67. (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq introduced professional
courses in education.
61. (a) The tomb of Sikandar Lodi is an octagonal tomb.
The tombs of Muhammad Shah and Sikandar Lodi
are the good examples of octagonal tombs. Shish and
Bara Gumbad are square tombs with imposing dome,
turrets on corners and facades giving false impression
et
68. (b) Ibn Battuta has given a detailed account of the
postal system during the Sultanate period.
69. (a) Agriculture was looked after by the department
of Diwan-i-Kohi under Muhammad Tughlaq.
of being double storeyed. 70. (a) The land which directly yielded revenue to the
62. (d) Firoz Tughlaq introduced irrigation tax for the Sultan was known as Khalisa.
first time. Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the cousin brother 71. (b) Ijaradari system was first introduced in Jagir
of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, and became the ruler of lands.
Delhi on 23rd march 1351 AD. He imposed only four 72. (c) Firoz shah Tughlaq brought the Ashokan pillar
taxes sanctioned by Islamic, viz., Kharaj (land tax), to Delhi. Feroz Shah Tughlaq (r. 1351–88), the Sultan
Khams (1/5 of the looted property during wars), Jizya of Delhi, established the fortified city of Ferozabad
(religious tax on the Hindus), and Zakat (2½per cent in 1354, as the new capital of the Delhi Sultanate
of the income of the Muslims which was spent for on the banks of Yamuna river, the site of the present
the welfare of Muslim subjects and their religion). Feroz Shah Kotla, literally Kotla (fortress or citadel)
He imposed irrigation tax after getting it sanctioned of Feroz Shah. Here he erected the Lat or Ashoka
from the Ulema. Column, attributed to Mauryan ruler Ashoka.

History || A-87
73. (d) Qutubuddin Aibak died while playing Chaugan. 84. (a) Iltutmish, the medieval king of India, introduced
Qutubuddin Aibak died in 1210 by falling from his the Iqta system. Iqta (Ikta) means the land or revenue
horse while playing Cahugan (the precursor of the assigned by a ruler to an individual. Since the early
game of Polo). days of Islam, Iqta existed as a form of reward for
74. (d) Sikandar Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi between service to the state and Iltutmish used it to get rid of
1489 to 1517 AD. He was a laborious, generous and the existing feudal order and to bring the distant parts
just ruler. Owing to a transient shortage of maize, he of the empire together.
abolished the Zakat on grain and it was not renewed 87. (c) For the first time, the token currency in India was
by any subsequent Sultan. The prices of all necessary introduced by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. Muhammad
ww articles remained low during his period.

75. (c) Arghatta was a device to lift water.
76. (c) At the time of Qutubuddin Aibak’s death,
Iltutmish was the Subedar of Badayun.
Tughlaq decided to introduce bronze coins, which
were to have the same value as the silver coins.
Muhammad Tughlaq might have been successful, if
w.E
77. (b) Chittor was named as Khizrabad during the
Sultanate period. Alauddin Khilji, after the conquest
of Gujarat captured Ranthambhor. In 1303, he
he could prevent people from forging the new coins.
He was not able to to do so and soon the new coins
begain to be greatly devalued in markets.
88. (d) Alauddin Khilji, the muslim ruler, enforced
asy
attacked Chittor, the capital of Mewar which was
ruled by the Ghuilot king Ratna Singh. Alauddin
captured Chittor which was named Khizrabad, after
price control system for the first time. The primary
reason of controlling the market by Alauddin was not
to reduce the salary of his soldiers but to check the
Alauddin’s son Khizr Khan.
En
78. (d) In 1398, Timur invaded northern India, attacking
the Delhi Sultanate ruled by Sultan Nasir-ud-Din
rising prices of different articles in terms of inflation.
Alauddin did not fix the prices of different articles
gin
Mahmud Shah Tughlaq of the Tughlaq dynasty. He
was opposed by Ahirs and Jats but the Sultanate at
lower than the prevalent prices of those articles in
places around Delhi. Besides, the prices fixed by
Alauddin were not very different from what we
ee
Delhi did nothing to stop him. After crossing the
Indus river on 30 September 1398, he sackedTulamba
and massacred its inhabitants. Then he advanced and
captured Multan.
79. (d) Alauddin Masud Shah the last Calipha of
find then afterwards during the reign of Firoz Shah
Tughlaq
rin
90. (c) Firoz Tughlaq, Sultanate ruler himself
encouraged bribery in administration. Sultan Feroze
Baghdad appeared for the first time.
81. (b) Alauddin Khilji, Sultan of Delhi, assumed
the title of ‘Alexander the Great’. He was a very g.n
Shah Tughlaq’s reign has been described as the
greatest age of corruption in medieval India. It can
be imagined from the fact that Sultan Feroze Shah
ambitious person and a warmonger. He liked to call
himself ‘The Second Alexander’. He took the title
‘Sikander-i-Sani’.
82. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq had established a
et
Tughlaq once gave a golden Tanka to a distraught
soldier so that he could bribe the clerk to pass his
substandard horse. The case of Imadulmulk Bashir,
the minister of war who began his career as an
inherited slave of Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq, in
separate agriculture department and had planned the
rotation of crops. course of his service is said to have accumulated
83. (c) The Minar has been damaged by earthquakes wealth to the tune of thirteen crores, when the state’s
and lightning strikes on several occasions but has yearly income was six crores and seventy-five lakh
been repaired and renovated by various rulers. During Tankas.
the rule of Firoz Shah, the Minar’s two top floors 91. (d) Fatwa-e-Jahandari’ describes the qualities of an
were damaged due to lightning but were repaired by ideal Muslim ruler. The Fatwa-i-Jahandari is a work
Firoz Shah. In 1505, an earthquake struck and it was containing the political ideals to be pursued by a
repaired by Sikandar Lodi. Later in 1794, the Minar Muslim ruler in order to earn religious merit and the
suffered another earthquake and it was Major Smith, gratitude of his subjects.
an engineer, who repaired the affected parts of the 92. (a) Razia Sultan assumed the title ‘Umdat-ul-
Minar. He replaced Firoz Shah’s pavilion at the top Niswan’ on the coins. Razia was awarded with the
of the tower with his own pavilion. title Raziyat-ul-Din. On the coins she was inscribed


as Umdat-ul-Niswan and she assumed the title of Sultanate. She was much more able and qualified than
Sultan-ul-Duniyal wa’l Din bint-alsultan and Sultan any of her brothers. Thus she became the first woman
Jaaltudunya-wad-Din. ruler of medieval India.
93. (b) Ramchandra Dev was the ruler of Devagiri at the 103. (c) The city of Jaunpur was founded in the memory
time of Alauddin Khilji’s invasion. In 1294, Alauddin of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. Jaunpur historically
Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate captured Devagiri. Khilji known as Sheeraz-e-Hind having its historical dates
restored it to Ramachandra in return for his promise from 1359, when the city was founded by the Sultan
of payment of a high ransom and an annual tribute. of Delhi Feroz Shah Tughlaq and named in memory
However, this was not paid and the Seuna kingdom’s of his cousin, Muhammad bin Tughluq, whose given
ww arrears to Khilji kept mounting. In 1307, Khilji sent

an army commanded by Malik Kafur, accompanied
by Khwaja Haji to Devagiri. The Muslim governors
104.
name was Jauna Khan. In 1388, Feroz Shah Tughlaq
appointed Malik Sarwar, a eunuch, as the governor
of the region.
(c) Jahanpanah was the fourth medieval city of
w.E of Malwa and Gujarat were ordered to help Malik

Kafur. Their huge army conquered the weakened and
defeated forces of Devagiri almost without a battle.
Ramachandra was taken to Delhi. Khilji reinstated 106.
Delhi established in 1326–1327 by Muhammad Bin
Tughlaq (1321–51) of the Delhi Sultanate.
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq appointed Ibn Battuta
asy
Ramachandra as governor in return for a promise
to help him subdue the Hindu kingdoms in south
India. In 1310, Malik Kafur mounted an assault on
as the Chief Qazi of Delhi. Ibn Battuta has discussed
his travels and incursions in contemporary Islamic
world and documented them in Rihla. He was
94.
En
the Kakatiya kingdom from Devagiri.
(c) The transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad
107.
appointed as Qazi by Muhammad Tughlaq and was
also appointed ambassador to China.
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud was the last ruler of the
gin
was ordered by Mahammad Bin Tughlaq. It appears
that the Sultan wanted to make Deogir second capital
so that he might be able to control south India better.
Tughlaq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He was the
son of Mahmud Nasiruddin and used to control the
ee
Deogir was named Daulatabad. However, after a
couple of years, Muhammad Tughlaq decided to
abandon Daulatabad largely because he soon found
that just as he could not control south India from
108.
east from Delhi.
(a) Khizr Khan ibn Malik Sulaiman (reigned
rin
1414–21) was the founder of the Sayyid dynasty,
the ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, in northern
India soon after the invasion of Timur and the fall
96.
Delhi, he could not control North from Daulatabad.
(b) Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. Ibn Battuta (1333 – 1347)
109.
administrator.
g.n
of the Tughlaq dynasty. He was known to be an able
(c) The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built
99.
was a Moroccan Scholar and traveller who visited
India during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
His book titled ‘Rehala’ throws a lot of light on
Muhammad Tughlaq’s reign.
(d) Historian Badayuni commented on the death of

et
the biggest network of canals in India was Firoz Shah
Tughlaq. Canal system of Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
• To support the newly founded city of Hissar-i-
Firoza, in 1355, he constructed a double system of
canals from Yamuna to Sutlej.
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, “Sultan got freedom from • They are referred to as rajwahas in the Indo-
his masses and the masses from the Sultan”. Persian historical texts.
101. (b) Iltutmish established Delhi as the capital of • This Yamuna canal was repaired for irrigation
Sultanate. After the death of Aibak, the governor purposes during the time of Akbar.
of Bengal revolted. He was defeated by Iltutmish. 112. (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq desecrated the Puri Jaganath
Iltutmish conquered Ujjain, Ranthambh or, Gwalior temple and Jwalamukhi temple at Kangra. In 1360,
and Malwa and gained control over the whole of north he invaded Jajnagar to destroy the Jagannath Puri
India. Iltutmish suppressed the revolts of the Amires temple. In 1326 AD, he met with success in his
in the areas around Delhi. He made Delhi his capital. expedition to Sindh, before this he had led an invasion
102. (a) Razia Sultan was the first woman ruler of to Nagarkot with an idea to destroy the Jwalamukhi
medieval India. Sultan Iltutmish had nominated his temples. The Sultan was not tolerant towards people
daughter Razia Sultan as the next Sultan of the Delhi with different religions.

History || A-89
113. (a) The Lodi dynasty was an Afghan dynasty that 126. (b) Hussain Shah was the last ruler of Jaunpur
ruled parts of northern India and Punjab and Khyber State. During the reign of Husain Shah (1456–76),
Pakhtunkhwa province of modern-day Pakistan, from the Jaunpur army was perhaps the biggest in India,
1451 to 1526. It was founded by Bahlol Khan Lodi and Husain decided to attempt a conquest of Delhi.
when he replaced the Sayyid dynasty. However, he was defeated on three successive
114. (b) Iltutmish (1210 – 1236) was the real founder of attempts by Bahlol Khan Lodi. Finally, under
the Delhi Sultanate. He was born in a noble family of Sikandar Lodi, the Delhi Sultanate was able to
the Ilbari tribe of Turkistan. Iltutmish was the son-in- reconquer Jaunpur in 1493, bringing that sultanate
law of Aibak. He rendered great service to the Islamic to an end.
ww empire in India. He secured a letter of investiture from

the Caliph of Baghdad in 1229 which bestowed him
the title of Sultan of Hindustan.
127. (c) The Gajapatis were a medieval Hindu dynasty
that ruled over Orissa, large parts of Andhra Pradesh
and West Bengal, and the eastern and central parts
w.E
115. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted his capital
from Delhi to Daulatabad. It appears that the Sultan
wanted to make Deogir second capital so that he
of Madhya Pradesh and the southern parts of Bihar
from 1434–1541. Gajapati dynasty was established
by Kapilendra Deva (1434–66) in 1434.
asy
might be able to control south India better. Deogir
was named Daulatabad. However, after a couple
of years, Muhammad Tughlaq decided to abandon
128. (d) Zain-ul-Abidin, who prohibited cow-slaughter,
was a ruler of Kashmir. Zain-ul-Abidin was very
tolerant towards the Hindus and took into his service
En
Daulatabad largely because he soon found that just
as he could not control south India from Delhi, he
such men that deserved his patronage and recognition
of merit. The Sultan remitted the Jazial Poll Tax,
banned the killing of cows and granted Jagirs to
gin
could not control North from Daulatabad.
116. (b) The famous poet Amir Khusrow was associated
Hindus. He celebrated Hindu festivals and visited
their Tirthas with great reverence.
ee
with the court of Alauddin Khilji. Amir Khusrow
wrote a short auto-biographical Masnavi called “Shah
Name mun”—of Alauddin’s life. Khusrow in his
book “Khazinatul-Futuh” (the treasures of victory)
recorded Alauddin’s construction works, wars, peace
129. (b) The foreign traveller who visited and described
Vijayanagar soon after its fall in the battle of Talikota,
was Ceaser Frederick.
130. (c) Emperor Krishnadeva Raya, the king of
Vijayanagar had assumed the title ‘Andhra Bhoja’, rin
and security, administrative services.
117. (a) Qutubuddin Aibak, Sultan of Delhi, was known
Mooru Rayara Ganda and Kannada Rajya Rama
Ramana. He became the dominant ruler of the g.n
as Lakh Baksh. He was called Lakh Baksh because
he was generous and donated large sums of money
as donations.
120. (a) Alauddin Khilji was advised by Qazi
peninsula of India by defeating the Sultans of Bijapur,
Golconda and the Raja of Odisha.
134. (a) The Vijayanagar empire was divided into six
provinces (Mandalam or Rajya). These provinces
were placed under a governor, who was responsible
et
Mughisuddin to act according to the laws of Shariat,
for its overall administration. The provinces were
but the Sultan rejected his advice.
further divided into ‘Nadu’ and ‘Grawa’. Villages
121. (b) Malik Kafur was the General of Alauddin Khilji.
were governed by hereditary officials.
Behind the success of his war strategies was a slave
135. (d) Devaraya II, the king of Vijayanagar, started to
called Malik Kafur. He discovered Malik Kafur
recruit Muslim fighters in the army. Since Vijayanagar
during the conquest of Gujarat. Malik Kafur was a was a multi-cultural country, Muslims also joined the
powerful Army Chief. He helped Alauddin to conquer army. Their strength increased from Devaraya II time
many states. and peaked in the time of Aliyaramaraya.
125. (c) Amir Khusrow witnessed the reign of Seven 136. (c) Pepper was exported on a large scale from
Sultans of Delhi. Khusro was a prolific classical poet Vijayanagar empire. Spices such as turmeric, pepper,
associated with the royal courts of more than seven cardamom and ginger grew in the remote Malnad hill
rulers of the Delhi Sultanate. region and were transported to the city for trade.


137. (b) Multan has been referred by Arab travellers 154. (a) Amir Khusro was a disciple of Nizamuddin
as the ‘House of Gold’. During the early period, Auliya. Amir Khusro (or Khusrau) Dehlawi was
Multan was known as the city of gold for its large and an Indian musician, scholar and poet. He was an
wealthy temples. The Sun temple, Suraj Mandir, was iconic figure in the cultural history of the Indian
considered one of the largest and wealthiest temples subcontinent. He was a disciple of Nizamuddin
in the entire sub-continent. Numerous historians have Auliya of Delhi, a Sufi mystic and a spiritual leader.
written about this extremely large Hindu temple that 155. (c) The Sufi saint who was supposed to be the
housed over 6,000 people within it. greatest musician of the age was Pir Bodhan. The
143. (d) Jaya Singh Siddharaja, Chalukya king of Gujarat Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into
ww was the son of Kama and ascended the throne in 1094

A.D. He gave shelter to many scholars of different
religion and castes. He was a Rajput ruler who gave
donation of one lac Baltoras (coins) for rebuilding a
persian during the reign of Firoz Tughlaq. Musical
gatherings spread from the abodes of the Sufis to the
places of the nobles. The Sufi saint, Pir Bodhan, is
w.E mosque in Cambay.

146. (b) Khanqah was the place where Sufi mystics
lived. The Sufi masters held their assemblies in their
supposed to have been one of the great musicians of
the age.
157. (b) Vallabhacharya was the founder of Pushtimarg.
asy
Khanqahs. Devotees of all descriptions including
members of the royalty and nobility and ordinary
people flocked to these Khanqahs.
He wanted to preach his message of devotion to God
and God’s grace called Pushtimarg. Vallabhacharya
represented the culmination of philosophical
En
148. (a) The capital of the Sharqi dynasty was Jaunpur.
The Jaunpur sultanate was ruled by the Sharqi
dynasty. The Khwajah-i-Jahan Malik Sarwar, the
thought during the Bhakti Movement in the middle
ages. The sect established by him is unique in its
facets of devotion to Krishna, especially his child
gin
first ruler of the dynasty was a wazir (minister) under
Sultan Nasiruddin Muhammad Shah IV Tughlaq
manifestation, and is enriched with the use of
traditions, music and festivals. Today, most of the
ee
(1390–1394). In 1394, he established himself as
an independent ruler of Jaunpur and extended his
authority over Awadh and a large part of Ganges-
Yamuna doab.
149. (c) Sheikh Nasiruddin Sufi saint of the Chistiya
followers of this sect reside in western and northern
India.
rin
158. (d) Thousands of women were employed in
the empire of Vijayanagar. As accountants, royal
bodyguard and palace guards.
order was called the Chirag-i-Dehli. Nasiruddin
Mahmud Chirag-e-Delhi (or Chiragh-e-Delhi) was a
prominent saint of the Chishti order. He was a mureed g.n
160. (a) In Vijayanagar empire, the Hindu kingdom of
medieval India, the image of deity Tirupati or lord
(disciple) of the great saint, Hazrat Nizamuddin

Auliya and later his Khalifa (successor).
150. (b) The kingdom of Vijayanagar was established
during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. During
et
Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins.
163. (b) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya (1236-1325) gained
the popular title Mehboob-i-Ilahi and Sultan-ul-
Auliya, he built his Khanqah in Delhi. He was a
famous sufi saints of the chisti order. He witnessed
his last days, the whole of India became independent
the raign of seven sultan in Delhi. Amir Khusarow
and three major independent states – The empire of
Vijayanagar, The Bahmani kingdom and Sultanate was his follower.
of Madura were founded. 164. (c) Amir Khusrow is known as the parrot of India.
151. (a) The old capital of Vijayanagar is now It was he, who himself called Tuti-e-Hind’ (parrot of
represented by the extensive ruins of Hampi. It is India). ‘To speak the truth, I am an Indian Parrot. If
located within the ruins of Vijayanagar, the former you want to listen from me some subtle verses, ask me
capital of the Vijayanagar empire. Predating the then to recite some of my Hindwi poems.” He himself
city of Vijayanagar, it continues to be an important did not collect and preserve his Hindwi poems but
religious centre, housing the Virupaksha Temple, as made a gift of them to his friends. His poem, Kaliq
well as several other monuments belonging to the old Bari is a lexicon composed of synonymous words,
city. The ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, from four languages, Arabic, Persian, Turkish and
listed as the Group of Monuments at Hampi. Hindwi.

History || A-91
171. (a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti was the founder of 177. (a) The philosophy of Sankaracharya is known as
the Sufi order in India. The Chistī order was founded Advaitvada. Shankaracharya was one of the most
by Abu Ishaq Shami (“the Syrian”) in Chisht, influencial philosophers of India. He was born in
some 95 miles east of Herat in present-day western Kerala in the eighth century. He was an advocate
Afghanistan. Moinuddin Chisti established the order of Advaita or the doctrine of the oneness of the
in India, in the city of Ajmer in North India. individual soul and the supreme God which is the
172. (d) Zainul Abidin may be regarded as the Akbar ultimate reality.
of Kashmir. He lacked the Mughul’s natural genius, 178. (b) Jayadeva is most known for his composition,
spirit of enterprise, and physical vigour, and his the epic poem Gita Govinda, which depicts the divine
ww outlook was restricted to the comparatively narrow

limits of his kingdom, but he possessed a stock of
learning and accomplishments from which Akbar’s
love of Krishna, and his consort, Radha. This poem,
which presents the view that Radha is greater than
Hari, is considered an important text in the Bhakti
w.E youthful indolence had, to a great extent, excluded

him, his views were more enlightened than the
emperor’s, and he practised a tolerance which Akbar
only preached, and found it possible to restrain,
movement of Hinduism.
182. (c) Muhammad Adil Shah the Bahmani rulers
built the famous ‘Gol Gumbaj’ at Bijapur. The most
amazing part of this monument is its huge dome,
asy
without persecution, the bigotry of Muslim zealots.
173. (c) Alauddin Bahaman Shah was the founder of
the Bahmani kingdom. The Bahmani kingdom was
constructed in the year 1656, the dome is 44 metres
in diameter, which made it the second largest dome
in the world when it was constructed.
En
founded in 1347 by Hasan Gangu who revolted and
proclaimed his independence from the Sultanate. He
183. (a) Taraf in the Bahmani kingdom signified the
province. In Bahmani kingdom, ‘Taraf’ signified as
his capital.
gin
assumed the title of Alauddin Bahmani. Gulbarga was
174. (b) Sangama was the first dynasty of the Vijayanagar

the province. Alauddin Bahmani divided his kingdom
into four Tarafs or provinces and placed each one
under a Trarafdar or governor.
ee
kingdom. Harihara and Bukka were the sons of one
Sangama of Warrangal. Drenched in poverty due to
the Muslim attack in 1323, they had run away from
Warrangal and subsequently laid foundations of their
184. (b) Virupaksha temple is located in Hampi, 350 km
from Bangalore, in the state of Karnataka in southern
rin
India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi.
Virupaksha is a form of Shiva.
own principality Vijayanagar.
176. (c) Ramananda was the first Bhakti saint to use
Hindi for the propagation of his message. He was g.n
186. (a) Nicolo Conti, an Italian, was at Vijayanagar in
about 1420, just after the accession of Devaraya I.
The first known foreign traveller, he mentions that
known for communicating in vernacular Hindi, and
accepting disciples of all castes.
et
the fortifications of the city and the thousands of men
employed in the army of the rulers.

7 Mughal Period
ww
1. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty? 8. Who like Dara Shikoh considered Vedas as the

w.E
2.
(a) Babur
(c) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(d) Shahjahan
Before which of his important battles in India did

revealed book?
(a) Sheikh Abdul Haqq (Qadiriya)
(b) Mirza Mazhar Jan-i-Jahan (Naqshbandiya)

(a) Panipat
(c) Chanderi asy
Babur declare the abolition of Tamgha tax ?
(b) Khanwa
(d) None of these

(c) Sheikh Kalimuddin (Chistiya)
(d) None of these
9. Who among the following was the first Mughal
3.
En
Who was favoured by Prime Minister Mir Khalifa
as Babur’s successor instead of Humayun?
ruler to adopt the custom of Tuladan?
(a) Humayun
(c) Jahangir
(b) Akbar
(d) Shahjahan

4.
(c) Mirza Askari
gin
(a) Mirza Suleiman (b) Mirza Kamran
(d) Mehdi Khwaja
Who was the infamous Qazi Fazihat or Qazi Fazilat
10. Who among the following was a noted Jehangiri
painter?

during the reign of Sher Shah?
(a) Governor of Bengal
(b) Qazi-i-Lashkar
(c) Qazi-ul-Qazzat
ee

(a) Mir Sayyad Ali (b) Abdus Samad
(c) Daswant
rin
(d) Abul Hasan
11. Who among the following invitees of Akbar to
the Ibadat Khana was not a Jain Monk?
(a) Hari Vijay Suri (b) Meher Ji Rana

5.
(d) Qazi of Bengal
Which of the following works shows Humayun’s
interest in astronomy and astrology?

g.n
(c) Jin Chandra Suri (d) Shanti Chandra
12. Month scale in the Mansabdari system was

(a) Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghana
(b) Tarikh-i-Rashidi
(c) Qanun-i-Humayuni
(d) Tazkirat-ul-Waqiat

introduced by
(a) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb et
(b) Shahjahan
(d) None of these
13. Who among the following Englishmen was
well versed in the Turkish language, received a
6. Who was proclaimed as Mughal emperor by Asaf Mansab of 400 and the title of ‘English Khan’ or
Khan on Jahangir’s death to ensure Khurram’s Firangi Khan?
(Shahjahan’s) enthronement? (a) Fitch (b) Mildenhall
(a) Shahryar (b) Dawar Baksh (c) Hawkins (d) Sir Thomas Roe
(c) Tahmurs (d) Hoshang 14. In which language did Babar wrote his
7. Which two sons did Khurram send to Jahangir’s Autobiography?
court in compliance with the terms of surrender (a) Farsee (b) Arabi
after his revolt? (c) Turki (d) None of these
(a) Murad and Aurangzeb 15. When was the famous Treaty of Chittor signed
(b) Murad and Shah Shuja during the reign of Jahangir?
(c) Shah Shuja and Aurangzeb (a) 1605 AD (b) 1610 AD
(d) Dara and Aurangzeb (c) 1615 AD (d) 1620 AD

History || A-93
16. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and 25. Who among the foreign travellers describes how
instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan the Ganga water was carried in copper vessels for
as the Vazir? Mughal emperors to drink?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (a) Thomas Coryat (b) Edward Terry
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (c) Ralph Fitch (d) Sir Thomas Roe
17. What was Jihat in the Mughal land revenue 26. Which year of Akbar’s reign has been regarded by
administrative terminology? the historian Vicent A. Smith as the most critical
(a) Access over fixed rates
time?
(b) A religious tax
ww
(c) A toll tax
(d) None of these

(a) 1556 AD
(c) 1571 AD
(b) 1561 AD
(d) 1581 AD
27. Which one of the following had bestowed the
w.E
18. What was the percentage (of the total revenue
charged) of the extra tax charged by Sher Shah
for the use of general welfare in calamities and
emergencies?

title of Jagat Seth to Fatehchand?
(a) Alivardi Khan (b) Sirajuddaula
(c) Mir Zafar (d) Muhammad Shah
(a) 7.5%
(c) 2.5% asy
(b) 5.0%
(d) 1.5%
28. During the Mughal period, what was Narnal or
light artillery?
(a) Birbal En
19. Who among the following had joined Akbar’s
Din-i-Ilahi?
(b) Bhagwan Das

(a) One carried on elephant back
(b) One carried on camel back
(c) One carried by man
(c) Man Singh
gin
(d) Surjan Rai
20. Which one of the following officers was the
(d) None of these
29. Who was the author of Humayun-nama?
(a) Mir-i-Bahar
(c) Mushrif
(b) Tahvildar
(d) Mutsaddi ee
superintendent of port under the Mughals?
21. Who was the member of Ulema, who issued the

(a) Humayun
(c) Badauni
rin
(b) Gulbadan Begam
(d) Ahmad Yadgar
30. Mansabdari system of the Mughals had its origin
in

Fatwa against Akbar from Jaunpur?
(a) Mirza Hakim
(c) Abdun Nabi
(b) Mullayazdi
(d) Abdullah Sultanpuri
(a) Persia
(c) Central Asia g.n(b) Arabia
(d) India
22. On whom emperor, Akbar conferred the title of
‘Jagat Guru’ ?
(a) Purushottam
(b) Dastur Meherji Rana

(c) Abul Fazal
et
31. Mahzar of 1579 was drafted by
(a) Sheikh Mubarak (b) Abdun Nabi
(d) Faizi
32. Who among the following painters was appointed
(c) Hari Vijay Suri Diwan of Multan by Akbar?
(d) Devi (a) Abdul Samad (b) Abul Hasan
23. Which Queen of Jahangir had committed suicide (c) Mir Syed Ali (d) Daswant
by consuming poison? 33. Among the following, which Mughal emperor
(a) Harkhabai (b) Manmati introduced the policy of Sulah-i-Kul?
(c) Jodhpuri Begam (d) Zebunnisa (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
24. What does the term ‘Elchi’ or ‘Safir’ denote in (c) Humayun (d) Aurangzeb
the sixteenth century Mughal administrative 34. How many total Subas did Akbar have in his
vocabulary? Empire?
(a) Ambassadors (b) Rebels (a) Ten (b) Eighteen
(c) Spies (d) Governors (c) Sixteen (d) Fifteen

A-94 || Mughal Period

35. Which among the following became an integral 45. Which of the following commodities constituted
part of Shahjahan’s empire ? the main item of exports in Mughal India?
(a) Golkunda (b) Ahmednagar (a) Opium and Indigo
(c) Bijapur (d) None of these (b) Cotton and silk fabrics
36. Who among the following rulers gave court (c) Bullion and horses
protection to Urdu? (d) Sugar and Saltpetre
(a) Shahjahan (b) Jahangir 46. Which of the following tombs is placed in the
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Muhammad Shah centre of a large garden and resembles as a
37. Which company was authorized by Jahangir to prototype of the Taj Mahal?
ww

set up a factory in Surat?
(a) The English East India Company
(b) The French East India Company

(a) Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara
(b) Itmaduddaula’s tomb at Agra
(c) Shershah’s tomb at Sasaram

w.E(c) The United East India Company
(d) The Portuguese East India Company
38. Peasants who were brought from other villages
(d) Humayun’s tomb at Delhi
47. The largest number of Hindu Mansabdars were in
the period of

for tilling were called
(a) Khud Kasht
(c) Girast asy
(b) Pai or Pahi
(d) Gharuhala
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
48. Where is Babur’s tomb situated?
En
39. The land which was kept reserved for the
assignment of land revenue was known as
(a) Kabul
(c) Delhi
(b) Lahore
(d) Ayodhya

gin
(a) Mahal-i-Jagir (b) Mahal-i-Khalsa
(c) Mahal-i-Paibaqi (d) None of these
40. Which one of the following Mughal Generals
49. Which one of the following contemporary sources
depicts Humayun’s passion for astronomy and
astrology?

(a) Aurangzeb
ee
was not sent by Shahjahan against the Bundelas?
(b) Dara Shikoh
(c) Mahabat Khan (d) Abdullah Khan
41. As a Subedar of Deccan, for his second term,
(a) Tarikh-i-Rashidi (b) Tuzuk-i-Babri
(c) Humayun Namah (d) Qanun-i-Humayuni
(a) Akbar
rin
50. On whose silver coins, Zodiac was depicted?
(b) Jahangir
whose assistance did Aurangzeb take in
implementing Todarmal’s revenue reforms in this
region?
(c) Humayun
g.n
(d) Shahjahan
51. In the Mughal land revenue administration, we
come across a term ‘Mahsul’. What do you mean

(a) Murshid Quli Khan
(b) Shahnawaz Khan
(c) Malik Amber
(d) Asad Khan

by it?
(a) Expected revenue
(b) Actual revenue
(c) Revenue arrears
et
42. Who among the following has written that Babur (d) Revenue from Khalsa lands
died of poisoning? 52. Which Mughal emperor abolished the old custom
(a) Abul Fazal (b) Nizamuddin Ahmad of Sizda?
(c) Gulbadan Begum (d) Abbas Khan Sarwani (a) Akbar (b) Shahjahan
43. Who among the following emperors had the (c) Aurangzeb (d) Bahadurshah
highest number of Deccani in his army? 53. The officer called ‘Diwan-i-Bayutat’ under Akbar
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir was concerned with
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (a) Examination of expenditure of the Royal
44. Which of the following was the court language Karkhanas
during the reign of Akbar? (b) Maintenance of revenue records
(a) Hindi (b) Urdu (c) Administration of Justice
(c) Persian (d) Arabic (d) Supervision of Royal mints

History || A-95
54. Which one of the following tombs of the Mughal 64. “Din-i-Ilahi’ was a movement of Akbar’s folly,
emperors does not have a middle dome? not of his wisdom.” Who made this statement?
(a) Akbar’s tomb (b) Jahangir’s tomb (a) A.L. Srivastava (b) R.P. Tripathi
(c) Shahjahan tomb (d) Aurangzeb’s tomb (c) V.A. Smith (d) S.R. Sharma
55. The Delhi Madarasa known as ‘Khairul Manazil’ 65. Who among the following Sufis is known as
was built by Mujaddid or reformer?
(a) Hamida Bano Begum (a) Dara Shikoh (b) Khwaja Baqi Billah
(b) Gulbadan Begum (c) Shah Waliullah (d) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi
(c) Maham Angah 66. Who among the following painters committed
ww
(d) Shah Begum
56. What was the name of the rectangular silver coin
during Akbar’s reign?
suicide?
(a) Basawan
(c) Daswant
(b) Lal
(d) Mahesh
w.E
(a) Rupiyah
(c) Dinar
(b) Mohur
(d) Jalali
57. “Both Agra and Fatehpur Sikri are bigger than
67. The offsprings of which Mughal emperor were
born in a Sufi’s Khanqah instead of the Mughal
haram?
(a) Bernier
(c) Ralph Fitch
asy
London.” This statement was made by
(b) Manueci
(d) Hawkins
(a) Humayun
(c) Shahjahan
(b) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
68. Historian Abul Fazal was killed by
En
58. The greatest painter of birds at Jahangir’s court
was

(a) Hemu
(c) Udai Singh
(b) Bairam Khan
(d) Vir Singh Deo Bundela
(a) Basawan

(b) Mansur
gin
(c) Syed Ali Tabrizi (d) Khwaja Abdus Samad
59. Who among the following prohibited the use of
69. Which among the following Hindu Painters was

sent by Jahangir to portrait Shah Abbas-I of Persia?
(a) Basawan (b) Bishan Das
Tobacco?
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
ee
60. The noble who introduced important reforms in
(c) Dasrath
rin
(d) Manohar
70. Which one of the following Mughal emperors
is described in a Sanskrit text entitled.
“Sarvadeshavrittanta Sangraha”?

the land revenue administration of Mughals in
Deccan during the reign of Shahjahan, was
(a) Murshid Quli Khan
(a) Humayun
(c) Jahangir
g.n (b) Akbar
(d) Shahjahan
71. During whose reign did Khan-Jahan Lodi revolt?

(b) Asaf Khan
(c) Mahabat Khan
(d) Khan-i-Zama
61. Who among the following led a deputation of
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
et
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
72. Who among the following poets was given the
title of ‘Malik-ush-Shoara’ by Akbar?
Banaras Pandits to the Mughal emperor to seek (a) Ashki (b) Qudsi
abolition of the Banaras and Allahabad? (c) Faizi (d) Farebi
(a) Harnath (b) Jagannath 73. Jahandar Shah ascended the throne after the death
(c) Kavi Hariram (d) Kavindracharya of
62. Who among the following was the first English (a) Azam Shah (b) Bahadur Shah I
man to visit western India ? (c) Farrukh Siyar (d) Muhammad Shah
(a) Captain Hawkins (b) John Mildenhall 74. Which one of the following was not among the
(c) Ralph Fitch (d) Thomas Stephens 12 Ordinances of Jahangir?
63. Who among the following was the official (a) Prohibition of Wine
historian of Aurangzeb’s reign? (b) Amnesty to Prisoners
(a) Ishwardas Nagar (b) Bhimsen Kayastha (c) Abolition of Tamgha and Mir Bahri
(c) Khafi Khan (d) Mohammad Kazim (d) Confiscation of Madad-i-Mash lands


75. Kalanaur is known as a place of 86. Who of the following built the Agra Fort?
(a) Akbar’s birth place (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(b) Proclaimation of Akbar as the emperor (c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Shah Jahan
(c) Marriage ceremony of Humayun 87. Which one of the following states of Rajputana
(d) None of the above did not willingly accept Akbar’s sovereignty?
76. What term was used for the advance money given (a) Amer (b) Mewar
by the merchants to artisans for the required (c) Marwar (d) Bikaner
goods? 88. The Upanishads were translated into Persian by
(a) Taqavi (b) Dasturi Dara Sikoh under the title
ww

77.
(c) Dadni (d) None of these
Who among the following Mughal kings had sent
Raja Ram Mohan Roy as his envoy to London?
(a) Al-Fihrist

(b) Kitab-ul-Bayan
(c) Majm-ul-Bahrain (d) Sirr-i-Akbar
89. The building known as Purana Qila at Delhi were

w.E
78.
(a) Alamgir II
(c) Akbar II
(b) Shah Alam II
(d) Bahadur Shah II
Who among the following ladies was a poetess?

built by
(a) Babur
(c) Sher Shah
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Shahjahan

79.
(c) Roshanara
asy
(a) Gulbadan Begum (b) Jahanara
(d) Asmat Begum
One of the greatest painters of Akbar’s court
90. What was the district called during the Mughal
period?
(a) Iqta (b) Sarkar
(a) Basawan En
whom he employed as mint officer was
(b) Keshav
(c) Tarf (d) Subah
91. ‘Mal’ is Mughal administrative terminology

80.
(c) Mukund
gin
(d) Daswant
Which one of the following scholars was given
the title of Amir-i-Akhbar by Humayun?

represents
(a) Land revenue (b) Salary

(a) Jauhar
(b) Mirza Haidar Daughalat
(c) Abdul Wahid
(d) Khwandmir
ee (c) Allowances
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan rin
(d) None of these
92. In whose reign was the Treaty of Chittor signed
between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar?
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
81.

The famous ‘Jama-Masjid’ of Delhi was built by
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar g.n
93. Who translated Ramayana into Persian in
accordance with the wishes of Akbar?

82.

(c) Shahjahan
Bandobast system?
(a) Zabti
(d) Aurangzeb
Which among the following was also known as
(b) Dahsala

(a) Abul Fazl
et
(b) Abdul Rahim Khan-Khana
(c) Faizi
(d) Thomas Roe
(c) Nasaq (d) Kankut 94. The famous historical book ‘Travels of the
83. Who among the following Mughal ministers was Mughal Empire’ was written by
the paymaster general as well? (a) Ibn-e-Battuta (b) Francois Bernier
(a) Diwan (b) Mir Bakshi (c) Al Baruni (d) Thomas Roe
(c) Khan-i-Saman (d) Vakil 95. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by
84. A Mansabdar who was paid in cash was called Akbar to commemorate his victory over which
(a) Naqdi (b) Jagirdar province?
(c) Amir (d) Mirza (a) Sindh (b) Punjab
85. Who among the following was the Diwan of (c) Gujarat (d) Mewar
Akbar? 96. Which of the following are the hereditary Jagirs?
(a) Asad Khan (b) Sadulla Khan (a) Watan Jagirs (b) Tankhwah Jagirs
(c) Muzaffar Khan (d) Mahabat Khan (c) Tamgha Jagirs (d) None of the above

History || A-97
97. Who among the following was illiterate? 107. Who among the following was defeated by Babur
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir in the First Battle of Panipat?
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (a) Bahlol Lodi (b) Ibrahim Lodi
98. The Battle of Khanwa in 1527 was fought (c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Dawlat Khan Lodi
between 108. Who among the following Indian rulers was a
(a) Ibrahim Lodi and Rana Sanga contemporary of Akbar?
(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi (a) Rani Durgawati (b) Ahilya Bai
(c) Babur and Rana Sanga (c) Martand Verma (d) Swai Jai Singh
ww
(d) Humayun and Sher Shah
99. At the time, when Nadir Shah attacked Delhi, the
Mughal emperor was
109. Where did Babur die?
(a) Delhi
(c) Lahore
(b) Agra
(d) Kabul

w.E (a) Ahmad Shah
(c) Shah Alam II
(b) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
100. With whose permission, did the English set up
110. Who was the author of Ain-i-Akbari?

(a) Abdul Qadir Badauni
(b) Gulbadan Begum
(c) Faizi
(a) Akbar
(c) Jahangir asy
their first factory at Surat?
(b) Humayun
(d) Shahjahan
(d) Abul Fazl
111. Who was defeated at Kannauj in the hands of
during the reign of En

101. Painting reached its highest level of development
Sher Shah in 1540?
(a) Humayun
(c) Babar
(b) Akbar
(d) Jahangir
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
gin
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
102. The original name of Mumtaj Mahal was
112. Who among the following built the tomb of her
husband?
(a) Arjumand Banu Begum
(b) Mehrunnisa

(c) Roshan Ara
(d) Ladli Begum
ee

(a) Shah Begum
(c) Ladli Begum
rin
(b) Haji Begum
(d) Noorjahan Begum
113. Who among the following deserves the credit for
construction of Lal Quila?
103. What were the Ahdis of Akbar’s time?

(a) Village level money lenders
(a) Humayun
(c) Akbar
g.n (b) Sher Shah
(d) Shahjahan
114. Kabuliyat and Patta was introduced by

(b) Village guards
(c) Cashiers working in Diwani
(d) Foot soldiers in the army
104. Which one of the following emperors was known
(a) Sher Shah
(c) Jahangir
115. Who wrote Akbarnama?
(a) Abdul Qadir Badauni
et
(b) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
as Alamgir? (b) Abdur Rahim Khanekhana

(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Abul Fazl
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (d) Faizi
105. Who built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri? 116. Which historical monument in Delhi is a synthesis
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir of Persian and Indian styles of architectures?
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (a) Qutub Minar (b) Lodi’s tomb
106. In the Mughal administration, Muhatsib was (c) Humayun’s tomb (d) Red Fort
(a) Military officer 117. Aurangzeb was an expert musician of which
(b) Officer of foreign affair instrument?
(c) An officer in charge of public morals (a) Flute (b) Tabla
(d) Office of correspondence department (c) Veena (d) Sitar


118. A Mughal Begum whose name was written to all 129. Which Mughal emperor abolished the Persian
the mughal Firmans and inscribed on the coins, court custom of Sijda?
was (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(a) Maham Anaga (b) Nur Jahan (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
(c) Mumtaz Mahal (d) Mariam Makani 130. Todar Mal was associated to
119. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to (a) Law
Aurangzeb in the battle of (b) Land revenue reforms
(a) Dharmat (b) Samugarh (c) Literature
(c) Deorai (d) Khanua (d) Music
ww
120. In the Mughal administration, Madad-i-Mash

indicates
(a) Toll tax
131. Court language during Mughal period was
(a) Arabic
(c) Persian
(b) Turki
(d) Urdu

w.E (b) Revenue free land given to learned person
(c) Pension to army persons
(d) Cultivation tax
132. Mausoleum (Dargah) of which Chisti saint was

most visited by Akbar?
(a) Moinuddin Chisti
reign of
(a) Babur asy
121. Tulsidas composed his Ramcharitamanasa in the
(b) Akbar

(b) Sheikh Nasimuddin Chirag Dehalvi
(c) Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki
(d) Sheikh Farid Ganja-i-Shakar
(c) Aurangzeb
En
(d) Bahadur Shah
122. Itimad-ud-Daula’s tomb at Agra was built by
133. Mughal style of painting was started by
(a) Jahangir (b) Akbar
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
gin
(b) Jahangir
(d) Nur Jahan
123. Who was called Zinda Pir in Mughal time?
(c) Shahjahan (d) Humayun
134. The educational centre at Delhi called Madrasah-
i-Begam was established by
(a) Akbar
(c) Aurangzeb
(b) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
ee
124. Who was the Sikh Guru to be slaughtered by
Aurangzeb?
(a) Gulbadan Begam (b) Maham Anaga
(c) Zia-un-Nisa
rin
(d) Zinat-un-Nisa
135. During which one of the following battles, did
Babur declare Jehad?
(a) Ramdas
(c) Teg Bahadur
(b) Arjundev
(d) Govind Singh
125. Who of the following Mughal emperors was

g.n
(a) Battle of Panipat (b) Battle of Khanwa
(c) Battle of Chanderi (d) None of these
136. Who among the following emperors may be
coronated twice?
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb
126. Upanishads were translated into Persian during
(a) Babur
(c) Akbar
et
called an enlightened despot?
(b) Humayun
(d) Aurangzeb
137. Who among the following was appointed as a
the reign of physician in the Mughal service?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (a) Bernier (b) Coreri
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (c) Manuchi (d) Tavernier
127. Who of the following was the emperor of India 138. Who among the following shifted the capital of
when British East India company was formed in the empire from Agra to Delhi?
London? (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
(c) Shahjahan (d) Humayun 139. With which medieval ruler, would you associate
128. The Mughal rulers of medieval India were in the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just
fact for a handful of Millet’?
(a) Persians (Iranians) (b) Afghans (a) Babur (b) Akbar
(c) Chagtai Turks (d) None of these (c) Sher Shah (d) Aurangzeb

History || A-99
140. Thomas Roe was received in audience by 151. Who was the founder of Maratha dynasty?
Jahangir at (a) Shahu (b) Shivaji
(a) Agra (b) Ajmer (c) Rajaram (d) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Delhi (d) Fatehpur Sikri 152. Who among the following Maratha Chieftains
141. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his helped the Syed brothers in dethroning the
father, weakening the latter’s position against the emperor Farrukhsiyer?
Rajputs? (a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
(a) Azam (b) Muazzam (c) Raghunath Rao (d) Raja Ram
(c) Akbar II (d) Kam Baksh
ww
142. Revenue system during Akbar’s reign was in the

hands of
(a) Bairam Khan (b) Asad Khan
153. Who was the Maratha Chieftain who captured
Lahore and brought Punjab under Maratha
Supremacy for a short period?

w.E (c) Man Singh (d) Todar Mal
143. During the Mughal period, the copper coin was
known as

(a) Vishwas Rao
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau
(d) Raghunath Rao
(a) Rupee
(c) Tanka asy
(b) Dam
(d) Shamsi
144. Jaziya was reimposed during the reign of
154. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji
became Sati?
(a) Akbar
(c) Aurangzeb En
(b) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
(a) Soyrabai
(c) Puttabai
(b) Sakawarbai
(d) None of these
155. What was Paga in the Maratha administration?
conquered in Deccan, were gin

145. Two of the following states which Aurangzeb had

(a) Independent soldiers
(b) State dependent soldiers

(a) Ahmednagar and Bijapur
(b) Bidar and Bijapur
(c) Bijapur and Golconda
(d) Golconda and Ahmednagar
146. Where is the mausoleum of Sher Shah?
ee

(c) Professional soldiers
(d) Soldiers of other country
rin
156. Which of the following Rajput states was taken
under direct control by Aurangzeb?
(a) Sasaram
(c) Kalinjar
(b) Delhi
(d) Sonargaon
(a) Amber
(c) Marwar
g.n
(b) Jaisalmer
(d) Mewar
157. Which of the following was the last battle of Sher
147. Who did illustrate Datan-i-Amir Hamza?

(a) Abdus Samad (b) Mansor
(c) Mir Sayyed Ali (d) Abul Hasan
148. Who among the following was the daughter of
(a) Gaur
(c) Kalinjar
et
Shah which proved most fatal to him?
(b) Kannauj
(d) Raisen
158. The English ambassador who had attended the
Emperor Aurangzeb?
coronation of Shivaji with presents from East
(a) Jahan Ara (b) Roshan Ara
India Company at Raigarh, was
(c) Gauhar Ara (d) Zebunnisa
(a) Captain Gray (b) Oxenden
149. The Mughal emperor who prohibited the use of
(c) Humphery Cooke (d) Sir Gervase Lucas
Tobacco was
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir 159. Who among the following was the first Peshwa of
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb Shahu?
150. Which one is not situated at Fatepur Sikri? (a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao
(a) The Panch Mahal (c) Balaji Baji Rao (d) Madhava Rao
(b) Moti Masjid 160. In the Cavalry of Shivaji, a Jumla commanded
(c) Tomb of Salim Chisti (a) 9 Havaldars (b) 10 Havaldars
(d) The Mariam Palace (c) 15 Havaldars (d) 5 Havaldars


161. Which Fort ceded by Shivaji to the Mughals by 172. What was the stake in the agricultural production
the terms of the Treaty of Purandar (1665 AD) in the land revenue system of Shivaji?
could not be won back by Shivaji? (a) 16% (b) 25%
(a) Purandhar (b) Mahuli (c) 35% (d) 40%
(c) Lohagadh (d) Shivneri 173. The Maratha artillery was mainly organised by
162. Raushaniya movement in India during the 16th (a) Mir Habib
century was started by (b) Kanhoji
(a) Akhund Darwiza (c) Ibrahim Khan Gardi
(b) Miyan Bayazid Ansari
ww

(c) Miyan-Mustafa Gujarati
(d) None of these
163. Mahdawi movement in India was started by
(d) Khande Rao Dabhade
174. The Maratha power reached its zenith during the
Peshwaship of

w.E (a) Saiyid Muhammad Jaunpuri
(b) Abdullah Sultanpuri
(c) Shaikh Alai

(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Balaji II
(c) Baji Rao I (d) Madhav Rao
175. The largest number of Hindu mansabdars were in
(d) Abdullah Niyazi

asy
164. Guru Granth Sahib in its present form was
compiled by
the period of
(a) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(b) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb

En
(a) Guru Nanak Dev (b) Guru Ramdas
(c) Guru Arjun Dev (d) Guru Gobind Singh
176. This chief pays his spies liberally which has
greatly helped his conquests by the correct
165. What was Bargir in Maratha army?
(a) Infantry gin
(b) Front liner

information they give. Who gave this account of
Shivaji?
(a) Kafi Khan (b) Peter Mundi
(c) Cavalry
in the Maratha infantry?

(a) Nayak
(c) Zumaldar
(b) Hawaldar
(d) Hazari
ee
(d) Water carrier
166. Who among the following was the lowest in rank
(c) Abbe Carre (d) Massieur Germain
177. Name the Hindu ruler of the 18th century who
sacrifice twice rin

distinguished himself by performing Asvamedha
167. In the third battle of Panipat, Marathas were

defeated by
(a) Shivaji

g.n
(b) Abhaya Singh of Marwar
(a) Mughals
(c) Britishers
(a) Ahmed Shah

(b) Rohillas
(d) Afghans
168. Roshan Akhtar was another name of
(b) Muhammad Shah

et
(c) Rana Jagat Singh of Mewar
(d) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber
178. On which aspect of medieval Indian history have
Havell, Furgusson and Percy Brown written?
(c) Jahandar Shah (d) Shah Alam (a) Literature
169. What was the original name of Afzal Khan? (b) Art and architecture
(a) Abdullah Bhatari (b) Samsuddin (c) Administration
(c) Sabar (d) Muhammad Khan (d) Socio-economic history
170. Who among the following Maratha officers 179. Who led the Marathas at the third battle of
looked after the revenue department? Panipat?
(a) Peshwa (b) Amatya (a) Baji Rao II (b) Jaswant Rao Holkar
(c) Sachiva (d) Sumant (c) Mahadji Sindhia (d) Sadashiva Rao Bhau
171. One of the observatories established by Sawai Jai 180. The treaty of Purandra between Shivaji and Raja
Singh was at Jai Singh took place in
(a) Agra (b) Indore (a) 1665 (b) 1664
(c) Ujjain (d) Jodhpur (c) 1666 (d) 1669

History || A-101
181. Khan-i-Jahan Lodi rebelled during the reign of 192. Who is considered the father of Sitar?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (a) Mian Tansen
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb (b) Baiju Bawara
182. The first Mughal emperor who incorporated the (c) Khushro Khan
Marathas in the class of Umara was (d) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir 193. The medieval Indian writer, who refers to the
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb discovery of America was
183. Who among the following was given the title of (a) Malik Mohammad Jayasi
Shekh-ul-Hind?
ww

(a) Baba Fariduddin
(b) Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
(c) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

(b) Amir Khusrow
(c) Abul Fazal
(d) Raskhan

w.E (d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
184. Who among the following Maratha Peshwas
followed the ideal of Hindu Pada Padshahi?
194. The Kirti-Stambha at Chittor was built by

(a) Rana Kumbha
(b) Rana Sanga

(c) Madhav Rao
asy
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
(d) Narayana Rao
185. Who among the following Maratha women led

(c) Rana Pratap
(d) Rana Uday Singh
195. Who among the following rulers issued some
En
struggles against of Mughal empire from 1700
AD onwards?
coins with figures of Rama and Sita and
Devanagari legend ‘Rama-Siya’?

(a) Ahalya Bai
(c) Tara Bai
gin
(b) Mukta Bai
(d) Rukmini Bai
186. In Shivaji’s Council of Ministers, the Prime
(a) Bhoja

(b) Akbar
(c) Zain-ul-Abidin (d) Jai Singh
196. Which of the following was the birth place of
Minister was called
(a) Peshwa
(c) Sachiv
187. Shivaji died in the year
(b) Mantri
ee
(d) Sumanta
Guru Nanak?
(a) Amritsar
(c) Nankana
rin
(b) Nabha
(d) Nander
197. Who among the following was killed by Shivaji?
(a) 1676
(c) 1678
(b) 1677
(d) 1680
188. Who was called Chankya of Maratha politics?

(a) Shaista Khan
(c) Jai Singh
g.n(b) Afzal Khan
(d) Najib Khan

(a) Mahadji Sindhia (b) Nana Pharnabis
(c) Balaji Viswanath (d) Baji Rao II
189. During the reign of which of the following
Mughal emperors, was the Sikh leader Banda

court of Jahangir?
(a) William Finch
(b) Pietra Della Vella
et
198. Who was the envoy of British king James I at the
Bahadur captured and executed? (c) Edward Terry

(a) Aurangzeb (b) Bahadur Shah (d) William Hawkins
(c) Jahandar Shah (d) Farrukhsiyar 199. The famous Kohinour diamond was produced
190. The Sikh Khalsa was founded by from one of the mines in
(a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Hargobind (a) Orissa (b) Chhotanagpur
(c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) Guru Govind Singh (c) Bijapur (d) Golconda
191. The Maratha kingdom was founded by Shivaji 200. Who of the following Sikh Guru was started
during the reign of Gurumukhi script?
(a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (a) Guru Nanak
(b) Akbar (b) Guru Angad
(c) Shahjahan (c) Guru Arjundev
(d) Aurangzeb (d) Guru Govind Singh

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 26. (d) 51. (a) 76. (c) 101. (b) 126. (c) 151. (b) 176. (c)
2. (b) 27. (d) 52. (b) 77. (c) 102. (a) 127. (a) 152. (a) 177. (d)
3. (d) 28. (c) 53. (a) 78. (b) 103. (d) 128. (c) 153. (d) 178. (b)
4. (a) 29. (b) 54. (a) 79. (d) 104. (d) 129. (c) 154. (c) 179. (d)
5. (c) 30. (c) 55. (c) 80. (d) 105. (a) 130. (b) 155. (b) 180. (a)
6. (b) 31. (a) 56. (d) 81. (c) 106. (c) 131. (c) 156. (c) 181. (c)
ww 7.
8.
(d)
(b)
32.
33.
(a)
(a)
57.
58.
(c)
(b)
82.
83.
(b)
(a)
107.
108.
(b)
(a)
132.
133.
(a)
(d)
157.
158.
(c)
(b)
182.
183.
(b)
(d)
w.E
10.
9.
11.
(a)
(d)
(b)
34.
35.
36.
(d)
(b)
(d)
59.
60.
61.
(b)
(a)
(d)
84.
85.
86.
(a)
(c)
(a)
109.
110.
111.
(b)
(d)
(a)
134.
135.
136.
(b)
(b)
(c)
159.
160.
161.
(a)
(d)
(d)
184.
185.
186.
(b)
(c)
(a)
12.
13.
(b)
(c)
37.
38.
(a)
(b)
62.
63.asy (d)
(d)
87.
88.
(b)
(d)
112.
113.
(b)
(d)
137.
138.
(c)
(c)
162.
163.
(b)
(a)
187.
188.
(d)
(b)
14.
15.
(c)
(c)
39.
40.
(c)
(b)
64.
65. En
(c)
(d)
89.
90.
(c)
(b)
114.
115.
(a)
(c)
139.
140.
(c)
(b)
164.
165.
(c)
(c)
189.
190.
(d)
(d)
16.
17.
(d)
(a)
41.
42.
(a)
(c)
66.
67. gin
(c)
(b)
91.
92.
(a)
(b)
116.
117.
(c)
(c)
141.
142.
(c)
(d)
166.
167.
(a)
(d)
191.
192.
(d)
(c)
18.
19.
20.
(c)
(a)
(d)
43.
44.
45.
(d)
(c)
(b)
68.
69.
70.
(d)
(b)
(b)
ee
93.
94.
95.
(d)
(b)
(c)
118.
119.
120.
(b)
(b)
(b)
143.
144.
145.
(b)
(c)
(c)
168.
169.
rin
170.
(b)
(a)
(b)
193.
194.
195.
(c)
(a)
(b)
21.
22.
23.
(b)
(c)
(b)
46.
47.
48.
(d)
(d)
(a)
71.
72.
73.
(c)
(b)
(b)
96.
97.
98.
(a)
(a)
(c)
121.
122.
123.
(b)
(d)
(c)
146.
147.
148.
(a)
(a)
(d)
g.n
171.
172.
173.
(c)
(d)
(c)
196.
197.
198.
(c)
(b)
(d)
24.
25.
(a)
(b)
49.
50.
(d)
(b)
74.
75.
(d)
(b)
99.
100.
(d)
(c)
124.
125.
(c)
(d)
149.
150.
(b)
(b)
174.
175. et (b)
(d)
199.
200.
(d)
(b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Babur was the founder of Mughal dynasty. Humayun’s abilities and tried to raise Mehdi Khwaja,
Born on February 14, 1483 at Andizhan Babur was Babur’s brother-in-law to the throne.
the eldest of the three sons of Umar Sheikh Mirza. 4. (a) Governor of Bengal was the infamous Qazi
The Mughal emperor Babur is described as a military Fazihat or Qazi Fazilat during the reign of Shar
genius and a skillful warrior. Shah.
3. (d) Mehndi Khwaja favoured by prime minister Mir 6. (b) Dawar Baksh was proclaimed as Mughal
Khalifa as Babur’s successor instead of Humayun. emperor by Asaf Khan on Jahangir’s death to ensure
Babur’s prime minister Mir Khalifa had doubts about Khurram’s (Shahjahan’s) enthronement. Upon the

History || A-103
death of Jahangir, in order to secure the accession acknowledges Akbar as God’s representative on earth
of Shahjahan, Asaf Khan, the brother of Nur Jahan, and had a combination of Hindu and Muslim beliefs.
brought Dawar Baksh out of confinement, declared In the Ain-i-Akbari (The Institutes of Akbar), it is
him king and sent him to Lahore. mentioned that Birbal was one of the few people other
7. (d) Khurram sent Dara and Aurangzeb to Jahangir’s than Akbar who were its followers, besides being the
only Hindu.
court in compliance with the terms of surrender after
his revolt. 22. (c) Emperor Akbar conferred the title of ‘Jagat Guru’
on Harivijay Suri. 1526–1595 C.E: Muni Hiravijayji
8. (b) Mirra Marhar Jan-i-Jahan (Naqshbandiya) like
Suri was the supreme pontiff of Tapa Gachcha order
ww Dara Shikoh considered Vedas as the revealed book.

10. (d) Abul Hasan was a noted Jahangiri painter. Abu
al-Hasan was the son of Aqa Reza of Herat in western
of Jain Svetambara tradition. He is famous for
propounding the Jain philosophy to emperor Akbar
and turning him towards vegetarianism. Akbar was so
w.EAfghanistan, a city with an artistic tradition. Aqa Reza

had taken up employment with Jahangir before the
latter’s accession to the throne of the Mughal empire.
impressed with Hiravijaya Suri that he bestowed on
him the title of Jagat Guru. Akbar almost denounced
meat eating and almost turned to vegetarianism due
asy
11. (b) Mehar Ji Rana was the invitees of Akbar to the
Ibadat Khana was not a Jain monk. The first Dastur
Meher Ji Rana was the undisputed spiritual leader
to inspiration from him.
25. (b) Edward Terry, the foreign traveller, describes
how the Ganga water was carried in copper vessels
century.
En
of the Parsi community in India during the sixteenth
for Mughal emperors to drink.
26. (d) The year 1581 AD of Akbar’s reign has been
gin
12. (b) Month scale in the Mansabdari system was
introduced by Shahjahan. Under Shah Jahan we
have new scales of pay, monthly rations and new
regarded by the historian Vicent A. Smith as the most
critical time.
ee
regulations prescribing the sizes of contingents under
various Sawar ranks.
13. (c) Hawkins was well versed in the Turkish
language, received a Mansab of 400 and the title of
27. (d) Muhammad Shah had bestowed the title of Jagat
Seth to Fatehchand. Fatehchand was adopted son of
rin
Manik Chand. He obtained the title of “Seth” from the
Emperor Farrakhsiyar. Muhammad Shah bestowed
‘English Khan’ or ‘Firangi Khan’.
14. (c) Babur wrote his autobiography in Turki
language. It is an autobiographical work, written g.n
him with the title of “Jagat Seth”.
28. (c) There were several types of Mughal light
artillery. If carried on the back of a man, they were
in the Chagatai language, known to Babur as
“Turki” (meaning Turkic), the spoken language
of the Andijan-Timurids. Babur’s prose is highly
Persianized in its sentence structure, morphology,
et
called Narnal; if carried on backs of elephants Gajal,
if on backs of camels Shutrnal.
29. (b) Gulbadan Begam was the author of Humayun-
nama. The Imperial Princess Gulbadan Begum (1523
and vocabulary, and also contains many phrases and – 1603) was a Perso-Turkic Princess, the daughter
smaller poems in Persian. of emperor Babur of India, she is most known as the
15. (c) In 1615 AD, the famous treaty of Chittor signed author of Humayunnama, the account of the life of
during the reign of Jahangir. In pursuance of his her half-brother, Humayun.
father’s policy of imperialism, Jahangir aimed at the 30. (c) The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar
conquest of the entire country. In 1605, he sent his was a unique feature of the administrative system
second son to reduce Rana Amar Singh, a Hindu ruler, of the Mughal empire. The term Mansab (i.e. office,
to submission. It was not easy to conquer the great fort position or rank) in the Mughal administration
of Chittor. In 1608, the emperor sent another force. indicated the rank of its holder (Mansabdar) in the
Eventually, a treaty of peace was signed in 1615. official hierarchy. The Mansabdari system was of
19. (a) Birbal had joined Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi. Akbar central Asian origin. According to one view, Babur
had started a religion called Din-i-Ilahi, which brought it to north India.


33. (a) Akbar introduced the policy ‘Sulah-i-Kul.’ By 58. (b) The greatest painter of birds at Jahangir’s
Akbar’s time, many of the traditional difficulties had court was Mansur. Mansur was the leading nature
been removed, and he was able to take full advantage painter at the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.
of the changes in outlook on both sides. One example Mansur was extraordinarily talented for scientific
of this was his enunciation of the principle of Sulah-i documentation. His detailed careful depictions of
Kul, or universal tolerance, by which he accepted plants and animals avoided all personal expression
responsibility for all sections of the population, and are extremely valuable for their scientific
irrespective of their religion.
accuracy as well as their artistic perfection. Some of
46. (d) Humayun’s tomb at Delhi is placed in the centre his studies are unsurpassed today.
ww of a large garden and resembles as a prototype of the

Taj Mahal. Fourteen years after Humayun’s death,
Hamida Banu Begam also known as Haji Begam
commenced the construction of his tomb. It is the
63. (d) Mohammad Kazim was the official historian of
Aurangzeb’s reign. During the reign of Aurangzeb,
the man picked to write the AlamgirNamah was
w.Efirst proper example of the Mughal style influenced

by Persian architecture. Mirak Mirza Ghiyath, a
Persian architect was employed for this job. It is
Mirza Muhammad Kazim Shirazi. He successfully
compiled facts about the first 10 years of Aurangzeb’s
rule. After this, Aurangzeb forbade Kazim Shirazi
asy
now a UNESCO World heritage site. The tomb’s
centre piece is the tomb. This is believed to be the
predecessor or prototype of Agra’s Taj Mahal.
to continue any further probably because of the
extravagant expenditure involved in this work.
65. (d) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi is known as Mujaddid
En
48. (a) The Bagh-e-Babur garden is the final resting
place of the first Mughal emperor, Babur. Although
present-day Afghanistan was not Babur’s original
or reformer. He is described as Mujaddid Alf Thani
meaning the “reviver of the second millennium”,
gin
homeland (he was born in Ferghana in present-day
Uzbekistan), he felt sufficiently enamoured of Kabul
for his work in rejuvenating Islam and opposing the
heterodoxies prevalent in the time of Mughal emperor
Akbar.
ee
that he desired to be buried here. When Babur died
in 1530, he was initially buried in Agra against his
wishes. Between 1539 and 1544, Sher Shah Suri, a
rival of Babur’s son Humayun, fulfilled his wishes
and interred him at Babur’s Garden. The headstone
68. (d) Historian Abul Fazal was killed by Vir Singh
Deo Bundela. Vir Singh Deo was an ally of Jahangir
rin
in the latter’s struggles against his father, Akbar.
Vir Singh killed Abul-Fazal Mubarak, an adviser of
placed on his grave read “If there is a paradise on
earth, it is this, it is this, it is this.”
50. (b) Zodiac was depicted on the silver coins of
Akbar in 1602.
g.n
69. (b) Bishandas was a 17th century portrait painter at
the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. Jahangir
Jahangir. Mughal coins depicted images and zodiac
signs against Islam’s belief. The reading of the
Mughal coins opens up a whole new world. Each
Mughal coin has the full name of the respective
et
praised him as “unrivalled in the art of portraiture”.
Though little is known of Bishandas’ life, his name
can indicate that he was a Hindu. In 1613, he was
sent on a diplomatic mission to Persia, to paint the
emperor and the years of his rule. Jahangir’s coins Shah’s portrait. Here he was so successful that he
depicted him holding a glass of wine, with a halo. remained until 1620, when he returned with the gift
He believed in zodiac signs. However, Shahjahan of an elephant.
melted the zodiac coins under pressure from religious
leaders. 71. (c) Khan-Jahan Lodi’s revolt during the reign of
Shahjahan. In 1628, Shahjahan faced a major revolt
56. (d) The mints during Akbar’s time issued gold,
silver and copper coins. The silver coin during the by Khan Jahan Lodi. He had united with the ruler of
Mughal rule of Akbar, known as rupee was round in Ahmednagar and came out in open rebellion against
shape. The weight of the silver coins of Akbar was the emperor. The aggression by Khan Jahan came to
172 grains. Akbar also issued a square-shaped rupee an end by the year 1660, when he surrendered and
coins, called Jalali. The rupee had its one-half, one- died near the fort of Kalinjar.
fourth, one-eighth, one-sixteenth and one-twentieth 73. (b) Jahandar Shah ascended the throne after the
pieces. death of Bahadur Shah I. The death of Bahadur

History || A-105
Shah was followed by the usual struggle among his pay in cash were known as Naqdi and those paid
four sons for the throne. Jahandar Shah, the eldest through assignment of Jagirs were called Jagirdars.
son of Bahadur Shah, killed his two brothers in the 86. (a) Akbar built the Agra Fort. The fort is built
battle which was fought on March 27 to 28, 1712 AD alongside the Yamuna river and stretches almost 2.5
ultimately, Jahandar Shah ascended the throne on km. It consists of a wall built in red sandstone and
March 29, 1712 AD. several buildings inside. The wall has 2 gates, the
75. (b) Kalanaur is known as a place of proclamation Delhi Gate and the Amar Singh Gate. You can only
of Akbar as the emperor. In Kalanaur, Punjab, the enter the fort via the Amar Singh Gate.
13-year-old Akbar was enthroned by Bairam Khan 88. (d) Dara Shikoh’s spiritual quest for monotheistic
ww on a newly constructed platform, which still stands.

He was proclaimed Shahanshah (Persian for “King
of Kings”). Bairam Khan ruled on his behalf until he
strands in Hindu philosophy was a continuous
process. This led him to study the Upanishads
and with the help of some scholars of Banaras, he
w.E
76.
came of age.
(c) Dadni was used for the advance money given
by the merchants to artisans for the required goods.
translated 50 Upanishads from Sanskrit to Persian.
The text he prepared, the Sirr-i-Akbar, ‘the Great
Secret’ was completed in 1657. He was of the firm
asy
Dadni system was the chief mode of business
activities of the European merchants. In this system,
long before the advent of season for a particular
opinion that the ‘Great Secret’ of the Upanishads is
the monotheistic message, which is identical to that
on which the Quran is based.
En
commodity, the merchants used to reach the actual
cultivator or manufacturer through the local small
agents or Paikars and advanced money to them so
89. (c) The building known as Purana Qila at Delhi was
built by Sher Shah. Three main gates on the north,
south and west are part of the fortifications of the
commodity.
gin
as to obtain right for the purchase of a particular Purana Qila, the sixth city of Delhi, built by Sher Shah
Suri (1538–45). Sher Shah Suri raised his citadel after
77.
ee
(c) Akbar II had sent Raja Ram Mohan Roy as his
envoy to London. Akbar had little de-facto power
due to the increasing British control of India through
the East India Company. Shortly before his death, he
sent Ram Mohan Roy as an ambassador to Britain.
90.
demolishing Dinpanah, the city built byHumayun.
The fortifications of the Qila extended to a boundary
rin
of 2 km (1.2 mi) on an irregularly oblong plan.
(b) During the Mughal period, district was called
Sarkar. In the 16th century, the Mughal emperor
78. (b) Among the given ladies, Jahanara was a poetess.
She was highly educated and well versed in Persian g.n
Akbar organised the empire into Subahs, which
were further subdivided into Sarkars, roughly the
81.
and Arabic, as well as a writer, painter and poet.
(c) The largest mosque in India, Jama Masjid in
Delhi, was built by Mughal emperor, Shahjahan in
1656 AD. The mosque in Old Delhi, displaying both
Hindu and Islamic styles of architecture, was built to 96.
et
equivalent of districts, which were themselves
organised into Parganas. In the Mughal system,
Parganas served as the local administrative units of
a Sarkar
(a) Watan Jagirs are the hereditary Jagirs. Watan
replicate Moti Masjid at Red Fort in Agra. jagirs were assigned to local Zamindars or Rajas and
82. (b) Dahsala was also known as Bandobast system. were hereditary and non-transferable in nature. Many
In 1580, Akbar instituted a new system called the Rajput princes were also the recipients of such Jagirs
Dahsala or the Bandobast Arazi or the Zabti system. from the Mughals.
Under this, the average produce of different crops 97. (a) Akbar spent his childhood in the rough terrain of
as well as the average prices prevailing over the last Afghanistan. His early years were spent learning how
ten years was calculated. One-third of the average to hunt, fight and mature into a skilful warrior. He did
produce was the state share, which was, however, not find time to read and write and was illiterate. But
stated in cash. his illiteracy did not hamper his quest for knowledge
84. (a) A Mansabdar who was paid in cash was called and desire to know about new things. Akbar had
Naqdi. All those holding ranks below 1,000 began to a huge library and a vast collection of books and
be called Mansabdars. The Mansabdars who received scriptures.


98. (c) The battle of Khanwa in 1527 was fought 108. (a) Rani Durgavati was a contemporary of Akbar.
between Babur and Rana Sanga. The Rajput forces The riches of Rani Durgavati’s state drew Abdul
of Rana Sanga, supplemented by the contingents Mazid Khan’s attention. He sought and gained
of Hasan Khan Mewati and the Afghan, Mehmud permission from Akbar to attack the Rani. Akbar’s
Lodi and Raja Medini Rai of Alwar, met Babur’s interest in the invasion was his wish to expand his
army at Khanwa near Fatehpur Sikri in 1527. The rule over central India.
battle, which lasted for not more than 10 hours, was 109. (b) Babur died on 26 December 1530, of fever, aged
bitterly contested and became an exceedingly brutal 47, in Agra, India. Buried 9 years later, as per his
affair. At a critical moment of battle, the defection of wishes, in a garden in Kabul. His sister Khanzada and
ww Silhadi and his contingent caused a split in the Rajput

forces. Rana Sanga while trying to rebuild his front
was wounded and fell unconscious from his horse.
son Hindal also buried on the same garden terrace.
110. (d) Abul Fazal was the author of ‘Ain-i-Akbari’.
The Akbarnama is a document of history of Akbar’s
w.E The Rajput army thought their leader was dead and
fled in disorder, thus allowing the Mughals to win
the day.
99. (d) At the time of Muhammad Shah, Nadir Shah
reign and his ancestors spread over three volumes. It
contains the history of Akbar’s ancestors from Timur
to Humayun, Akbar’s reign up to the 46th regnal
year (1602), and an administrative report of Akbar’s
asy
attacked Delhi. In the year 1739, Nadir Shah invaded
the Mughal empire and defeated the Mughal emperor
Muhammad Shah during the battle of Karnal, then
empire, the Ain-i-Akbari, which itself is in three
volumes. The third volume of Ain-i-Akbari gives an
account of the ancestry and life of the author. The
regions of the Mughal empire. En

occupied and looted Delhi and much of the northern Ain-i-Akbari was completed in the 42nd regnal year,
but a slight addition was made to it in the 43rd regnal
gin
101. (b) Painting reached its highest level of development
during the reign of Jahangir. He showed a leaning
towards painting and had an atelier of his own. His
year on the account of the conquest of Berar.
111. (a) Humayun was defeated at Kannauj in the hands
of Sher Shah in 1540. In 1540, Humayun led an army
ee
interest in portraiture led to much development in this
artform. The art of Mughal painting reached great
heights under Jahangir’s reign, combining technical
mastery with spiritual understanding of personalities
against Sher Shah, but was defeated at Bilgram Veer
Kannauj and fled from the country. Sher Shah became
rin
the king and once again the Afghans became the ruler
of northern India.
depicted in its portraits. Jahangir’s expertise in the
arts is documented in his diary.
102. (a) Arjumand Banu Begum (also called Mumtaz g.n
112. (b) Haji Begum built the tomb of her husband. Her
important architectural legacy, is the mausoleum
of her husband, Humayun’s tomb at Delhi, which
Mahal) was the third wife of Shahjahan, the Mughal
emperor. Mumtaz Mahal (meaning ‘Jewel of the
palace’) was the nickname her husband gave to her.
105. (a) Akbar built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri.
et
she commissioned in the late 16th century. The
mausoleum was the first one to have been built for
a Mughal emperor and was the first garden-tomb on
the Indian subcontinent. Begum was also known as
Ibadatkhana (House of Worship) was a meeting house Haji Begum after she undertook the pilgrimage to
built in 1575 CE by the Mughal emperor Akbar, Hajj.
where the foundations of a new Syncretistic faith, 114. (a) Kabuliyat and Patta was introduced by Sher
Din-e-Ilahi were laid by Akbar. Shah. Pathan Sultan Sher Shah Suri (1540 – 1545)
107. (b) Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in the first measured and classified the land in terms of the
battle of Panipat. The first battle of Panipat was fought produce and introduced Kabuliyat and Patta as
on 21 April 1526 between Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of instruments of settlement. During Akbar’s time,
Delhi, and the Timurid warlord Zaheeruddin Babur. Todar Mal made some reforms to that system and the
Babur’s force defeated Ibrahim’s much larger force whole empire was divided into Suba, Sarkar, Pargana
of over one lakh (one hundred thousand) soldiers. and Mahal.
This first battle of Panipat thus ended the ‘Lodi Rule’ 115. (c) Abul Fazl wrote Akbarnama. Abul Fazal wrote
established by Bahlol Lodi in India. the work between 1590 and 1596 and is thought

History || A-107
to have been illustrated between c. 1592 and 1594 the blessing of Sheikh Salim Chishti that Akbar’s
by at least forty-nine different artists from Akbar’s first surviving child, the future Jahangir, was born.
studio. The child was named Salim after the Sheikh and was
117. (c) Aurangzeb banned music in the court and affectionately addressed by Akbar as Sheikhu Baba.
relieved the musicians. Though instrumental music 133. (d) Mughal style of painting was started by
was continued in the court. He was himself expert in Humayun. Mughal paintings dawned during the
playing Veena. time of Humayun. Praiseworthy Persian artists
119. (b) Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Abd-us-Samad and Mir-Sayyid Ali accompanied him
Aurangzeb in the battle of Samugarh. Although Dara on his return to India from exile. These artists hold
ww Shikoh was the most powerful man in the Mughal

empire after his father Shahjahan, he knew little about
the art of war and military command. His loosely knit
the credit for the growth of Mughal painting. )
135. (b) In 1527, Babur ordered a Jihad against Rajputs
at the battle of Khanwa. Publicly addressing his
w.E army eventually crumbled and even refused to aid

each other.
122. (d) Itimad-ud-Daulah’s tomb at Agra was built by
Nur Jahan. After her father’s death, Nur Jahan built
men, he declared the forthcoming battle a Jihad. His
soldiers were facing a non-Muslim army for the first
time ever. This, he said, was their chance to become
either a Ghazi (soldier of Islam) or a Shaheed (Martyr
asy
this mausoleum in memory of Mirza Ghiyas Beg,
from 1622 – 1625 AD. The first example of a tomb
built on a riverbank in India. Itmad-ud-Daulah’s tomb
of Islam).
138. (c) In 1638, Shahjahan moved his capital from Agra
En
situated on the banks of the Yamuna, has many design
features that were later used in the Taj Mahal.
to a city in Delhi, known as Shahjahanabad, the new
capital city was laid out under the emperor’s auspices
from 1639 – 1648.
gin
123. (c) Aurangzeb was called Zinda Pir in Mughal time.
Aurangzeb, was an orthodox, God-fearing Muslim.
Unlike the earlier Mughal emperors, he had a very
140. (b) Sir Thomas Roe was sent by James I in 1615.
He was both a scholar and a courtier and was well
qualified for the job given to him. He reached Surat
ee
simple lifestyle. He never wore costly robes or used
gold and silver vessels. He even sewed caps and
copied the Quran to sell, so that he could earn money
for his use, rather than take it from the treasury. Due
in September 1615 and proceeded to Ajmer where
rin
Jahangir was. He remained at the court of Jahangir
from 1615 to 1618. He succeeded in obtaining a
Firman from Jahangir allowing the English to trade
to his smplicity, he was popularly called ‘Zinda Pir’
or a living saint.
126. (c) Upnishads were translated into persian
at Surat. .
g.n
142. (d) Raja Todar Mal was the minister for revenue
in the court of Akbar. Building upon the foundations
during the reign of Shahjahan. During the reign of
Shahjahan, his son Dara Shikoh, well versed in Indian
religion and philosophy, translated the Upanishads
into Persian.
et
laid by Sher Shah, Todar Mal introduced a system of
land reforms, the essence of which was an assessment
of the land revenue according to the extent of
cultivation, the nature of the soil and the quality of
129. (c) Shahjahan abolished the Persian court custom
the crops.
of Sijda. Shahjahan also abolished the discipleship
ritual and other practices of his father and grandfather. 143. (b) During the Mughal period, the copper coin
This pleased the orthodox Muslims immensely. The was known as Dam. Silver Shahrukhis of 72 grains
tradition of Khanazadgi, born to the house, was weight and silver Rupiyahs 198 grains in weight had
maintained, in which high-ranking nobles (Amirs) a great circulation. Akbar’s copper coins of 330 grains
were identified as the emperor’s extended household. weight were known as “Dam”. 40 Dams were equal
Khanazadgi and the hereditary service associated to 1 silver Rupiyah and 9 Rupiyahs were equal to 1
with it applied to officers in high position and in Muhar in value.
financial administration (Diwans, etc.) 144. (c) Jaziya was reimposed during the reign of
132. (a) The Mausoleum (Dargah) of Moinuddin Chisti Aurangzeb. Aurangzeb reimposed the Jaziya the
was most visited by Akbar. The emperor Akbar was hated poll-tax on non-Muslims, which the wise and
perhaps the most fervent of them. It is said to be by compassionate Akbar abolished early in his region.


145. (c) The two states which Aurangzeb had conquered Auranzeb refused to make the young Rathore prince
in Deccan were Bijapur and Golconda. In 1685, the king and took direct command of Jodhpur. This
Aurangzeb dispatched his son, Muhammad Azam caused great unrest amongst the Hindu Rajput rulers
Shah, with a force of nearly 50,000 men to capture under Aurangzeb and lead to many rebellions in
Bijapur Fort and defeated Sikandar Adil Shah (the Rajputana.
ruler of Bijapur) who refused to be a vassal. The 157. (c) Kalinjar was the last battle of Sher Shah which
Mughals could not make any advancement upon proved most fatal to him. In May 1545, when he
Bijapur Fort mainly due to the superior usage of was campaigning against the Chandel Rajputs in
cannon batteries on both sides. Outraged by the Bundelkhand (Kalinjar), a gunpowder explosion
ww stalemate, Aurangzeb himself arrived on 4 September

1686 and commanded the Siege of Bijapur; after eight
days of fighting, the Mughals were victorious. In
fatally wounded him and thus this Afghan Tiger lost
his life in Bundelkhand, laying wounded in his tent
and worrying about the future of his wise schemes.
w.E 1687, Aurangzeb led his grand Mughal army against

the Deccan Qutbshahi fortress during the Siege of
Golconda.
146. (a) Sasaram is the mausoleum of Sher Shah.
158. (b) The English ambassador who had attended the
coronation of Shivaji with presents from East India
Company at Raigarh was Oxendon.
159. (a) Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa of
asy
Sasaram is the birthplace of the Afghan king Sher
Shah Suri, who ruled over Delhi, much of northern
India, now in Pakistan, and eastern Afghanistan
Shahu. Balaji Vishwanath assisted a young Maratha
emperor Shahu to consolidate his grip on a kingdom
that had been racked by civil war and persistent
En
for five years, after defeating the Mughal Emperor
Humayun. The tomb of Sher Shah Suri at Sasaram is
attack by the Mughals under Aurangzeb.
160. (d) In the cavalry of Shivaji, a Jumla commanded
gin
an imposing structure of stone standing in the middle
of a fine tank and rising from a large stone terrace.
147. (a) Abdus Samad illustrates ‘Dastan-i-Amir
5 Havaldars. The most significant part of his army
was the Paga on state cavalry. There were two
classes in the cavalry, the Bargirs and the Shiladars.
ee
Hamza.’ Mir Sayyed Ali, Khawaja Abdul Samad,
Mir Musavir and Dost Mir Hammad were the most
renowned Persian painters. They gave lessons to
Humayun and Akbar in painting. Humayun instructed
There were regular grades in the cavalry, the unit
formed by 25 troopers over 25 troopers, there was
rin
a Havaldar. Five Havaldars were placed under one
Jumladar and over 10 Jumladars, there was one
Mir Sayyed Ali and Khawaja Abdul Samad to
illustrate the Dastan-i-Amir Hamzah, the renowned
Persian book. g.n
Hazari, five one Hazaris were under a Panj Hazari.
161. (d) Shivneri Fort ceded by Shivaji to the Mughals
by the terms of the Treaty of Purandar (1665 AD)
148. (d) Zebunnisa was the daughter of Aurangzeb.
Princess Zebunnisa is remembered as a poet, and her
writings were collected posthumously as Diwan-i-
Makhfi
et
could not be won back by Shivaji.
162. (b) Raushanuja movement in India during the 16th
century was started by Miyan-Bayazid Ansari. He
was born in 1525 or 1515, in the city of Jalandhar,
Punjab. He was the leader of the antifeudal and anti-
150. (b) The Moti Masjid is a white marble mosque built
Mughal movement of the Roshani in Afghanistan.
by the Mughal emperor Aurangazeb at the Red Fort
165. (c) Bargir was the Royal cavalry of the Maratha
complex in Delhi.
army system. There were two kinds of cavalry, viz.
151. (b) Shivaji was the founder of Maratha dynasty. Bargirs and the Shiledars. Bargirs were provided
The Maratha empire (also spelled Mahratta and horses from the state and thus, the horses were
also called the Maratha Confederacy) of India, was property of the royal household and were looked
founded by Chhatrapati Shivaji in 1674 when he after by state officers. Shiledars used to keep their
carved out an independent Maratha zone around own horses.
Pune from the Bijapur Sultanate. 167. (d) In the third battle of Panipat, Marathas were
156. (c) Marwar was taken under direct control by defeated by Afghans. Battle of Panipat fought
Aurangzeb. In 1679, the Rathore clan under the on January 14th 1761 between the forces of the
command of Durgadas Rathore rebelled when Maratha Confederacy and the coalition of the kings

History || A-109
of Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Durrani (also known Minister or the Mukhya Pradhan was called the
as Ahmed Shah Abdali) and his two Indian Muslim Peshwa.
allies; The Rohilla Afghans of Doab and the Nawab 187. (d) Shivaji died on April 3, 1680. He was 50 years
of Oudh, Shuja-ud-aula. The battle was fought of age during his time of death. He died at Raigad
at Panipat in present day Haryana, 95.5 km from due to high fever for three weeks. His son Sambhaji
Delhi. took over the title of the emperor of the Maratha
169. (a) The original name of Afzal Khan was Abdullah empire.
Bhatari. Afzal Khan was a medieval Indian 192. (c) The origin of the Sitar is lost in antiquity.
commander who served the Adil Shahi dynasty of Though its origin is generally attributed to Amir
ww Bijapur, and fought against Shivaji. He was killed at

a meeting with Shivaji and his army was defeated in
the Battle of Pratapgad 1656.
Khusrow, and is one of the most ancient Indian
instruments. He is credited with making the Sitar
by fixing three strings to it and calling it the Sehtar
w.E
171. (c) One of the observatories established by Sawai
Jai Singh was of Ujjain. The idea behind building a
number of observatories at different locations in the
(seh – three; tar – strings). The word Sitar is said to
be a corruption of the word Sehtar.
194. (a) The Vijay Stambh (tower of victory) is located
asy
northern India was to make the same observations
from different places and thus reduce the errors
introduced due to the limits of resolution of human
in Chittorgarh, which was built by Rana Kumbha
in 1440 AD to celebrate his victory over Mahmud
Khilji of Malwa.
En
vision. Sawai Jai Singh built the three small ones
at Ujjain, Mathura, and Banaras with the help of
196. (c) Guru Nanak’s birth place is now called Nankana
Sahib, near Lahore, Pakistan. His birthplace is
gin
Hindu astronomers who themselves had limitations
in civil engineering (architectural engineering).
174. (b) The Maratha power reached its zenith during
marked by Gurdwara Janam Asthan.
198. (d) In 1608, Captain William Hawkins came to
the court of Jahangir with a letter from James I,
ee
the Peshwaship of Balaji II. The Maratha state under
him reached its territorial zenith extending from
Cuttack to Attack and in July 1760 the Marathas
occupied Delhi.
king of England, requesting permission for the
rin
English merchants to establish in India. But due
to vehement opposition of the Portuguese and the
Surat merchants, emperor Jahangir had to change
179. (d) Nanasaheb Peshwa was then at the zenith of
his power having defeated the Nizam at Udgir. He
chose Sadashiv Rao Bhau to lead the Maratha army g.n
his mind and Hawkin’s mission failed.
199. (d) The Golconda fort used to have a vault where
to Delhi. Both Malhar Rao Holkar and Raghunath
Rao had deep knowledge of north India having lived
there and fought many battles there but Sadashiv
Rao Bhau was totally new to north India.
et
once the famous Kohinoor and Hopediamonds were
stored along with other diamonds. Golconda was
once renowned for the diamonds found on the south-
east at Kollur Mine near Kollur (modern day Guntur
district), Paritala (modern day Krishna district) and
181. (c) Khan-i-Jahan Lodi rebelled during the reign of
cut in the city during the Kakatiya reign. At that
Shahjahan. In 1628, Shahjahan faced a major revolt
time, India had the only known diamond mines in
by Khan Jahan Lodi. He had united with the ruler of
the world.
Ahmednagar and came out in open rebellion against
200. (b) Guru Angad Sahib introduced a new alphabet
the emperor. The aggression by Khan Jahan came to
known as Gurmukhi Script, modifying the old
an end by the year 1660, when he surrendered and
Punjabi script’s characters. It became the script of
died near the fort of Kalinjar.
the masses very soon. He took great interest in the
186. (a) In Shivaji’s time, the king was the supreme
education of the children by opening many schools
head of the state. He was assisted by a Council of
for their instruction and thus increased the number
Ministers known as the Ashta Pradhan. The Prime
of literates.

8
Initial Modern
History
ww
1. In 1600, the charter to the English East India 9. The battle of Wandiwas was fought between

w.E Company for monopoly of eastern trade for 15
years was given by
(a) Queen Victoria (b) Queen Elizabeth I
(c) James Princep (d) Oliver Crownwell

(a) British and French companies
(b) British and Dutch companies
(c) Dutch and Portuguese companies
2.

ship that came to India?
(a) Elizabeth
asy
Which one of the following was the first English
(b) Titanic

10.
(d) French and Dutch companies
In the beginning, the motive of British East India
Company was

3.
(c) Red Dragon
En
(d) Mayflower
Who were the first European to set up sea trade

(a) Trade and territory
(b) Trade, not territory

centres in India?
gin
(a) The Portuguese (b) The French
(c) The English (d) The Dutch

11.
(c) Only territory
Which of the following European wars flared up
4.

(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Diaz
(c) Francisco de Almeida
ee
Who was the first Portuguese Viceroy in India?

the first Karnatic Wars in India?
(a) War of Spanish succession
rin
(b) War of Austrian succession
(c) War of devolution

5.
(d) Albuquerque
Which one of the following factories in Bengal
was established by Portuguese?

12. g.n
(d) Franco-Prussian war
Where in India, did the Portuguese build their first

6.
(a) Kasim Bazar
(c) Hoogly
(b) Chinsura
(d) Srirampur
Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India
in which one of the following years?

13.
fortress?
(a) Cochin
(c) Anjidiv et
(b) Goa
(d) Cannanore
Which European power did assist Balaji Baji Rao
(a) 1453 (b) 1492 against the Angres?
(c) 1494 (d) 1498 (a) The Portuguese (b) The Dutch
7. Which one of the following was the first fort (c) The English (d) The French
constructed by the British in India? 14. The British East India Company was formed
(a) Fort St. Angelo (b) Fort St. George during the reign of
(c) Fort St. David (d) Fort William (a) Henry VIII (b) James I
8. Which one of the following European trading
(c) Charles I (d) Elizabeth I
companies adopted the “Blue Water Policy” in
India? 15. What was the name of the first ship of East India
(a) Dutch company Company of England which reached here on
(b) French company August 24, 1600 AD?
(c) Portuguese company (a) Edward (b) Hector
(d) British East India company (c) Henary (d) William

History || A-111
16. How many times did Vascoda Gama come to 26. Which one of the following Mughal emperors
India? gave an important Firman to the English of
(a) One only (b) Two times facilitating their trade in India?
(c) Three times (d) Four times (a) Bahadur Shah I (b) Bahadur Shah II
17. Where did the British East India Company open (c) Shah Alam II (d) Farrukhsiyar
its first factory in India? 27. The Peshwa who engineered the capture of
(a) Masulipatanam (b) Surat Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese in 1739
(c) Bharuch (d) Mumbai was
18. Which Governor of Madras presidency made (a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
ww treaty of Mangalore with Tipu?

(a) Eyercoote

(b) Stephenson
(c) Lord Macartany (d) Wellesely
(c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhava Rao
28. Who was the first Indian native ruler to accept the
system of subsidiary alliance?

w.E
19. Who granted the permission to establish the first
British factory of Hoogly in Bengal?
(a) Shah Shuja
(c) Shujauddin
(b) Murshid Quli Khan
(d) Alivardi Khan

(a) Sindhia of Gwalior
(b) Nawab of Awadh
(c) Dilip Singh of Punjab
asy
20. Who founded independent state of Bengal?
(a) Ilias
(d) Nizam of Hyderabad
29. The book “Zij Muhammad Shahi” related to
knowledge of astrology produced in 1733 is

(b) Hussain Shah
(c) Murshid Quli Khan
(d) Alivardi Khan En
written by
(a) Jaswant Singh of Jodhpur
gin
21. Who among the following Europeans were the last
to come to pre-independence India as traders?
(a) French (b) English

(b) Raja Bharmall of Amber
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur
(d) Maharana Amar Singh of Udaipur
(c) Dutch
ee
(d) Portuguese
22. Who among the following introduced
Cashewnut, Pineapple and Tobacco in India?
(a) Dutch (b) English
30. The South Indian ruler who introduced sericulture

as an agro-industry in his kingdom was
(a) Tipu Sultan
rin (b) Hyder Ali
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Rajaraja II
(c) French (d) Portuguese
23. The greatest Portuguese governor who laid the
real foundation of Portuguese power in India
g.n
31. What was the bone of contention between Nizam
Ali, the ruler of Hydrabad and the English?
(a) Masulipatanum

was
(a) Francisco de Almedia
(b) Francis Drake
(c) Albuquerque
(b) Karnataka

(c) The Sarkar of Guntur
(d) The Northern Sarkars
et
32. The statement, “We have crippled over enemy
(d) Vascoda Gama without making our friends too formidable”, is
24. Who was Sir George Oxenden? associated with
(a) First president of Council of Surat (a) Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
(b) First governor of Bombay (b) Third Anglo-Mysore War
(c) First president of Council of Madras (c) Second Angle-Mysore War
(d) None of the above (d) First Anglo-Mysore War
25. Which English governor of East India Company 33. Who among the following Mughal emperors
in India was expelled by Aurangzeb? granted permission to trade free of tax in the
(a) Aungier territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to
(b) Sir John Child the British?
(c) Sir John William (a) Muhammad Shah (b) Aurangzeb
(d) Sir Nicholas Waite (c) Bahadur Shah (d) Farrukhsiyar

A-112 || Initial Modern History

34. The Whitley Commission was concerned with 43. In which year, did the Nawab of Awadh virtually
(a) Labour become independent of the Mughal rule?
(b) Education (a) 1740 (b) 1753
(c) Public Health (c) 1756 (d) 1665
(d) Reorganisation of civil services 44. The permanent settlement of Lord Cornwallis
35. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British gave the ownership of land to
resident of Sindh?
(a) Zamindars (b) Peasants
(a) Alexander Burnier
(c) State (d) Nobles
(b) James Outram
ww

(c) Sir John Karne
(d) Sir Eyre Coote
36. When was the East India Company brought under
45. The first English translation of Kalidasa’s
‘Shakuntala’ was published in 1781. Who
translated it?
w.Ethe parliamentary control?

(a) 1773
(c) 1793
(b) 1784
(d) None of these

(a) Charles Wilkins
(b) Johann Wolfgang Von Goethe
(c) James Princep

Control’?
(a) Regulating Act 1773
asy
37. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of (d) William Jones
46. From which year, did the British start striking
Indian coins with the portrait of the British king?

(b) Pitt’s India Act 1784
(c) Act of 1813 En (a) 1835
(c) 1860
(b) 1858
(d) 1758
(d) Act of 1833
gin
38. Which one of the following, journals had
conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition
47. Which building constructed in India by the British
was known as White Town?

of the practice of Sati?
(a) Sambad Kaumadi
(b) Bangadoot
(c) Samachar Darpan
ee

(a) Fort William (Calcutta)
(b) Residency (Lucknow)
rin
(c) St. George (Madras)
(d) Victoria Memorial (Calcutta)
(d) Samachar Chandrika
39. “The emergence of British power in India is from g.n
48. The British resident in Awadh at the time of its
annexation into British dominion was

the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement?
(a) Sir Stephen (b) Ramsay Muir
(c) Dr. K.K. Datta (d) Dr. R.C. Majumdar
40. In 1757, Sirajuddaulah attacked British factory

et
(a) Bishop R. Heber (b) Colonel Napier
(c) James Outram (d) W.H. Sleeman
49. Who was the founder of the renowned Presidency
College (Former Hindu College) of Calcutta?
at (a) Nathaniel Wallich
(a) Dhaka (b) Calcutta (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Kasimbazar (d) Murshidabad
(c) Devendra Nath Tagore
41. Which one of the following states was a
(d) William Carey
Milk-cow for the British?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Punjab 50. The first all-Hindi newspaper ‘Udanta Martanda’
(c) Mysore (d) Awadh was published from Calcutta in the year 1826.
42. Who among the following Europeans was first to Who was its editor?
come India to establish trade relation with their (a) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla
country? (b) Pandit Sadal Mishra
(a) Dutch (b) Portuguese (c) Bhartendu Harishchandra
(c) British (d) French (d) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi

History || A-113
51. Who influenced Mahadev Govind Ranade to (a) Samachar Sandhaya

establish Prarthana Samaj in Bombay? (b) Samachar Bhumi
(a) Keshav Chandra Sen (c) Samachar Darpan
(b) Devendra Nath Tagore (d) Pratham Samachar
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 59. Who among the following was the author of a
(d) Tek Chand Drama “ Nila Darpana” ?
52. Dharma Sabha was founded in Calcutta in (a) Sharat Chandra
opposition to the Brahma Samaj of Raja Ram (b) Harishchandra Mukherji
(c) Bankimchandra Chatterji
ww

Mohan Roy. Who was its founder?
(a) Madhusudan Dutt
(b) Ram Narayan Tarkaratana
(d) Dinabandhu Mitra
60. Who was the Governor General who changed
the official language of the courts of Justice from

w.E(c) Radha Kant Dev
(d) Man Mohan Ghosh
53. What was the main aim of the Deoband
Movement?

Persian to English?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord William Bentick

(a) To reform Islam
asy
(b) To oppose English education

(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Dalhousie
61. In which year, did the British introduce Gregorian

(d) To modernise the Muslims
En
(c) To co-operate the British regime
54. Who was the Nawab of Bengal when Diwani of

calender in their dominion in India?
(a) 1740 (b) 1752
gin
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was granted to East
India Company?
(c) 1765 (d) 1772
62. Who was the Scholar who deciphered the ancient
(c) Mir Kasim

ee
(a) Siraj-ud-Daulah (b) Nazam-ud-Daulah
(d) Mir Jafar
55. Eden Gardens of Calcutta was built in 1840.
It was named ‘Eden’ after the name of a sister

Brahmi script for the first time?
(a) William Carey (b) William Jones
rin
(c) James Princep (d) Nathanial Wallich
63. What was the real number of prisoners who died
in the ‘Black Hole Tragedy’ according to the

of a Governor General of India. Who was the
Governor General?
(a) Lord William Bentinck
available reports?
(a) 146 g.n (b) 169

(b) Charles Metacalfe
(c) Lord Auckland
(d) Lord Ellenbourough
56. Who was the first President of Fort William?
(c) 210
et
(d) 300
64. Who said, “We have effectively crippled
our enemy without making our friends too
formidable”?
(a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Welleseley
(a) Job Charnoka (b) Sir John Clive
(c) Sir John Shore (d) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Sir Lord Clive (d) Sir Charls Ayar
65. To overthrow the British rule, Kuka Movement
57. Who was the chairman of the committee which
was organised in
was to study the development in education after (a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh
1854 AD? (c) Bihar (d) Maharashtra
(a) H.T. Princep (b) W.W. Hunter 66. The first financial bank under European guidelines
(c) H.H. Wilson (d) W. Jones was established in India in 1770 in Calcutta by
58. The first Vernacular newspaper of India was Alexander and Co. What was the name of that
published on May 31, 1818 by Carey and bank?
Marshman from Serampore. It was in Bengali (a) People Bank (b) Indian Bank
language. What was its name? (c) European Bank (d) Bank of Hindustan


67. After his defeat in the battle of Plassey, Siraj-ud- 76. Which one of the following Governors General
Daulah fled from the battlefield, which one of the was conversant with Arabic, Persian and Bengali
following carriers he used? (a) Sir John Shore
(a) Camel (b) Elephant (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Horse (d) Palanquin (c) Lord William Bentinck
68. Which one of the following poets had said that (d) Warren Hastings
the Battle of Plassey was ‘A Night of Eternal 77. Which one of the following founded the ‘Atmiya
Gloom’? Sabha’?
(a) Navin Chandra Sen (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
ww

(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Ravindranath Tagore
(d) Subramania Bharti

(b) Devendra Nath Tagore
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Akshay Kumar Dutt
w.E
69. Who of the following was not amongst the
members of Governor General’s Council named
in the Regulating Act 1773?
78. “Tuhafat-ul-Muwahidin” a tract written by Ram

Mohan Roy is
(a) First tract against idolatry
(a) Clavering
(c) Barwell
asy
(b) Monson
(d) Hyde
70. Who signed the Treaty of Pune on the 13th June

(b) First tract against Kulinism
(c) First tract against system of Sati
(d) First tract against widow remarriage

1817?
(a) Daulat Rao Schindhia
En 79. By which treaty, did the English East India
Company gain the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar
and Orissa?

(b) Baji Rao II
(c) Appa Saheb
(d) Malhar Rao Holkar gin

(a) Treaty of Murshidabad
(b) Treaty of Hoogly

capital was invested in India?
(a) Tea, coffee and indigo
ee
71. State the sectors where highest amount of British
(b) Railways, banking, insurance and shipping

(c) Treaty of Allahabad
(d) Treaty of Hariharpur
rin
80. By which of the following Acts, was the ‘Board

of Control’ created?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(c) Taxtiles
(d) Jute Mills
72. Kamiauti system prevalent in Bihar and Orissa

g.n
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Charter Act, 1813

meant
(a) A social custom
(b) A religious rite
(c) A form of bonded labour

(d) Charter Act, 1833
et
81. The first newspaper published in India was
(a) The Calcutta Chronicle
(b) The Calcutta Gazette
(c) The Indian Gazette
(d) A traditional village institution (d) The Bengal Gazette
73. The ‘Filtration Theory’ in educational policy of 82. The treaty of Manglore was signed at the end of
India was propagated by (a) First Anglo-Mysore war
(a) W.C. Wood (b) Lord Macaulay (b) Second Anglo-Mysore war
(c) J. Mill (d) Lord Cornwallis (c) Third Anglo-Mysore war
74. The journal ‘Bengal Gazette’ was (d) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war
(a) daily (b) weekly 83. First decisive military success of English East
(c) fortnightly (d) monthly India Company in india is marked by
75. Who said, “Bantinck infused into oriented (a) Battle of Buxar
despotism the spirit of British freedom”? (b) Battle of Plassey
(a) Jeremy Bentham (b) J.S. Mill (c) Battle of Wandiwash
(c) Lord Macaulay (d) Grenville (d) Battle of Chilianwala

History || A-115
84. Which one of the following wars was ended by 93. The Treaty of Bassein was signed with the British
the treaty of madras ? by Peshwa
(a) First Carnatic war (a) Balaji Baji Rao (b) Baji Rao I
(b) Second Carnatic war (c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhav Rao
(c) First Mysore war 94. Which Maratha state was the last to accept the
(d) Second Mysore war subsidiary alliance of the British?
85. Who was appointed Deputy Diwan of Bengal by (a) Gaikwad (b) Sindhia
Robert Clive after Allahabad treaty? (c) Holkar (d) Bhonsle
(a) Rai Durlabh 95. During whose tenure, did the incident of Black
ww

(b) Raja Shitab Rai
(c) Syed Ghulam Hussain
(d) Mohammed Raz Khan

Hole take place?
(a) Mir Zafar (b) Mir Qasim
(c) Alivardi Khan (d) Siraj-ud-Daulah

w.E
86. Who among the following Governors General
formed the triple alliance against Tipu Sultan?
(a) Warren Hastings
96. Which one of the following had for the first time
accepted that British victory at Plasy was the
victory of breach of faith?

(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord William Bentick asy

(a) Lord Clive (b) Vansittort
(c) Hector Munro (d) None of these
97. When was the treaty of Alinagar signed?
En
87. Who among the following joined Mir Qasim and
Shuja-ud-Daula in declaring war upon the English
East India Company and was later defeated by

(a) February 1756 (b) September 1756
(c) February 1757 (d) April 1757
98. Which one of the following had drafted the Hindu
(a) Farrukhsiyar gin

the British at the Battle of Buxar?
(b) Jahandar Shah
Widows Remarriage Act ?
(a) Lord Canning

(c) Muhammad Shah (d) Shah Alam II
as Deputy Diwan of Bihar?

(a) Manik Chand
ee
88. Which one of the following Indians was appointed
(b) Omi Chand

(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
rin
99. Who among the following had started the Public
(c) Rai Durlabh (d) Raja Shitab Rai
89. The treaty of Amritsar was concluded between
Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the

g.n
Works Department in India in 1848?
(b) Lord Dalhousie

following?
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto
90. The ruler of which one of the following states was

(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Cornwallis
et
100. Between which stations was the first railway line
opened in India?
removed from power by the British on the pretext (a) Calcutta to Raniganj
of misgovernance? (b) Bombay to Pune
(a) Awadh (b) Jhansi (c) Calcutta to Jamshedpur
(c) Nagpur (d) Satara (d) Bombay to Thane
91. Who founded the independent state of Awadh? 101. Marathas signed the treaty of Salbai in 1782 with
(a) Shujauddaula (b) Aasfuddaula the English at the instance of
(c) Safdarjung (d) Saadat Khan (a) Peshwa (b) Gaekwar
92. The Treaty of Alinagar was concluded between (c) Sindhia (d) Holkar
(a) Murshid Quili Khan and Lord Welleseley 102. In the permanent settlement, the share of
(b) Shuja-ud-Daulah and Warren Hastings Zamindar stood at
(c) Siraj-ud-Daulah and Lord Clive (a) 1/4 (b) 1/6
(d) Mir Jafar and Lord Clive (c) 1/11 (d) 1/2


103. The Ryotwari settlement of Madras was 111. The name of the Act enabling the Hindus converted
introduced by into Christianity to inherit their ancestral property
(a) Cornwallis (b) Wingate was
(c) Clive (d) Munro (a) Act XXI, 1850 (b) Act XXII, 1850
104. The drain of wealth from India to England began (c) Act XXIII, 1850 (d) Act XXIV, 1850
after the 112. Which one of the following settlements did
(a) Permanent settlement comprise Zamindar as middleman to collect the
(b) Grant of Diwani land revenue?
(c) Removal of Mir Qasim
ww
(d) Conquest of Mysore
105. “A single shelf of a good European library was
worth the whole native literature of India and

(a) Mahalwari settlement
(b) Ryotwari settlement
(c) Permanent settlement

w.E Arabia.” Who made this statement?
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord William Bentinck
113. Who was the Governor General of India at the
time of Sindh-annexation?

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Sir Charles Wood asy
106. The first definite step to provide parliamentary

(a) Lord Auckland
(b) Lord Mayo
(c) Lord Dalhousie
En
control over East East India Company was taken
by
(d) Lord Ellenborough
114. Identify the districts of Bengal whose revenue

(b) Pitt’s India Act 1784 gin administration was transferred to the East India
Company for the acquisition of the Nawabship of

(c) Charter Act 1793
(d) Charter Act 1833
ee
107. Who started the practice of granting the rights of

collecting land revenue to the highest bidder?
(a) Lord Clive (b) Lord Cornwallis

Bengal by Mir Qasim in 1760
(a) Burdwan, Midnapur and Hoogly
rin
(b) Decca, Chattagaon and Hoogly
(c) Howrah, Midnapur and Hoogly
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Warren Hastings

108. The first tribal group which rose against the

g.n
(d) Murshidabad, Balasore and Chandranagar
115. Who among the following was the advisor of
Lord Cornwallis in his judicial reforms?
British was
(a) Kolarian
(c) Khasis
(b) Mundas
(d) Santhals
109. Who among the following historians has remarked

(c) James Grant et
(a) Jonathan Duncan (b) Charles Grant
(d) Sir William Jones
116. Which one of the following regulations declared
the custom of Sati as illegal?
that the government of Bengal during the period
(a) Regulation XIV of 1829
1765 AD to 1772 AD was a Robber State?
(a) K. M. Panikkar (b) Regulation XV of 1829
(b) G.W. Forest (c) Regulation XVI of 1829
(c) Lord Macaulay (d) Regulation XVII of 1829
(d) Nand Lal Chatterjee 117. Who started the socio-religious organization
110. The Rahnumai Mazadayasan Sabha was started “Tattvabodhini Sabha” and its appended journal
in 1851 to bring about socio-religious reforms ‘Tattvabodhini’?
amongst the Parsees. Whose name does not occur (a) Ram Mohan Roy
in its founder’s list? (b) Radhakant Dev
(a) Naoroji Furdonji (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Devendranath Tagore
(c) S.S. Bengali (d) Shibli Nomani (d) Dwarkanath Tagore

History || A-117
118. Who among the following authored the book 127. The first Englishman to acquire the knowledge of
entitled “The Precepts of Jesus, the Guide to Sanskrit was
Peace and Happiness”? (a) James Princep (b) Sir William Jones
(a) Ram Mohan Roy (c) Charles Wilkins (d) Max Muller
(b) Michael Madhusudan Dutt 128. Which one of the following had received the title
(c) Thomas Babington Macaulay of ‘Jagat Seth’ from Muhammad Shah?
(d) William Carey (a) Hiranand Shah (b) Omichand
119. Who was the leader of the Farazi rebellion? (c) Fatehchand (d) None of the above
129. Who was the Marathee Sardar when Alivardi
ww

(a) Aga Muhammad Raza
(b) Dudu Miyan
(c) Shamsher Gazi

Khan ceded the revenues of a part of Orissa?
(a) Raghuji Bhonsle
(b) Trimbak Rao Dhabade

w.E (d) Wazir Ali

120. What did the India Act V of 1843 made illegal?
(a) Child marriage (b) Infanticide
(c) Slavery (d) Sati

(c) Ranoji Sindhia
(d) Malhar Rao Holkar
130. Who of the following laid the first rail line in
asy
121. Who of the following introduced the revenue
system called Permanent Settlement?

India?
(a) Lord Ellenborough
(b) Lord Canning

(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley En

(c) Lord Dufferin
(d) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Dalhousie
gin
122. In which year, Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the
131. Which one among the following states was first
annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine
Brahmo Samaj?
(a) 1822
(c) 1830
(b) 1828
(d) 1833
ee
123. In India, among the following locations, the
of Lapse?
(a) Hydarabad
(c) Sambalpur
rin
(b) Jhansi
(d) Satara
132. Who among the following was the first European
to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels
Dutch established their earliest factory at
(a) Surat
(c) Cochin
(b) Pulicat
(d) Cassimbazar
(a) Lord Clive g.n
of Indian Princes with a view to acquire territories?
(b) Dupleix
124. Who of the following led the army of the East

India Company in the battle of Buxar in 1764?
(a) Hector Munro (b) Watson
(c) Warren Hastings (d) Lord Clive
(c) Albuquerque
et
(d) Warren Hastings
133. At the time when empires in Europe were
crumbling before the might of Napoleon, which
one of the following Governors General kept the
British flag flying high in India?
125. Who was the father of Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis
(a) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Wellesley
134. Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
(c) Lord William Bentinck (a) Lord Clive (b) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Hastings
126. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as the 135. Who among the following was the first Governor
British resident of Sindh? General of India?
(a) Alexander Burner (a) Robert Clive
(b) Major James Outram (b) Lord Canning
(c) Sir John Karne (c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Sir Eyer Coote (d) Lord Wellesley


136. Kol revolt of 1831 – 32 was led by 144. Who among the following was the British
(a) Buddhu Bhagat (b) Surga residence in Awadh at the time of its annexation
(c) Siddhu (d) Ram Singh into British dominion?
137. Which British Commander was defeated by the (a) James Outram (b) W.H. Sleeman
Santhals in 1855?
(c) General Low (d) Bishop R. Hebar
(a) Captain Nek Feville
145. Subsidiary alliance was implemented during the
(b) Lt. Bastain
(c) Major Burrough reign of
(d) Colonel White (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Wellesley
ww
138. By virtue of whose efforts, Hindu Widow

Remarriage Act was passed in 1856?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Sir John Shore (d) Lord Auckland
146. In which of the following Acts, the provision was
made for the establishment of Supreme Court at

w.E (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) H.V. Derozio
(d) Vishnu Shastri Pandit

Calcutta?
asy
139. Which one of the following revolts was made
famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his


novel Anand Math?
(a) Bhil Uprising
(b) Pagal Panthis Revolt En 147. The last King of Sikh Kingdom was
(a) Ranjeet Singh (b) Navnihal Singh

(c) Munda Revolt
(d) Sanyasi Rebellion gin (c) Daleep Singh (d) Sher Singh
148. Who among the following has been called as a
“Heaven Born General”?
140.

Who among the following immediately
Brahma Samaj?
(a) Keshav Chandra Sen
ee
succeeded Ram Mohan Roy as the head of the

(a) Francis Dupleix (b) Robert Clive
(c) Albuquerque
rin (d) Lord Cornwallis
149. Who among the following had said, “God

(c) Akshay Kumar Datta
(d) Shinath Shastri other”?
g.n
intended me to look upon all religions with one
eye, that is why he took away the light from the
141. Who among the following started the newspaper

Shome Prakash?
(a) Dayanand Saraswati

(b) Maharaja Sher Singhet
(a) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(c) Maharaja Ranjeet Singh

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) None of the above
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 150. Who of the following was impeached in the
(d) Akshay Kumar Datta British Parliament?
142. The tomb of Lord Cornwallis is situated at
(a) Warren Hastings
(a) Ghazipur (b) Gorakhpur
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Varanasi (d) Ballia
(c) Lord Clive
143. Which Governor General had abolished slavery
in India?
(a) Lord Cornwallis 151. Who among the following was founded the
(b) Lord Wellesley Asiatic Society of Bengal?
(c) Lord William Bentinck (a) J.A. Hickey (b) Max. Muller
(d) Lord Ellenborough (c) Willkins (d) William Jones

History || A-119
152. The leading light of the Renaissance Movement 158. Sharada Act fixed the minimum age of marriage
in India was of girls and boys respectively as
(a) Devendra Nath Tagore (a) 12 and 16 (b) 14 and 18
(b) Keshav Chandra Sen (c) 15 and 21 (d) 16 and 22
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 159. Who is considered as the prophet of Indian
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Nationalism?
153. The kingdom of Ranjeet Singh included (a) M.K. Gandhi
(a) Delhi (b) Kabul (b) Ravindra Nath Tagore
ww
(c) Makran (d) Srinagar
154. Who among the following was the founder of
Calcutta?

(d) Dayanand Saraswati
160. The Brahmo Samaj is based on the principle of

w.E (a) Charles Ayar (b) Job Charnock
(c) Garold Angiyar (d) William Novris
155. Brahmo Samaj of Raja Ram Mohan Roy was
(a) Monotheism (b) Polytheism
(c) Atheism (d) Monism
161. Who among the following formulated and
implemented the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
asy
against child marriage. Inspite of this, one of
his followers himself married his daughter in
childhood and paved the way for disintegration

(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Dalhousie
(a) Devendra Nath Tagore En

of this institution. Who was that follower?
162. Through which one of the following were
commercial activities of the East India Company
finally put to an end ?

(b) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Ramchandra Vidyavageesh
(d) Dwarka Nath Tagore gin

(a) The Charter Act of 1793
(b) The Charter Act of 1813

(a) Radhakant Dev
(b) Nemisadhan Bose
ee
156. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious
reforms and supported orthodoxy was

(c) The Charter Act of 1833
(d) The Charter Act of 1853
rin
163. Cornwallis code of 1793 separated
(a) Revenue collection for administration of

(c) Hemchandra Biswas
(d) Hemchandra De
157. Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja by
(b)
civil justice
Civil
administration g.n
administration from judicial

(b) Akbar II
(c) Followers of Brahma Samaj
(d) Intellectuals opposing the custom of Sati

administration et
(c) The Bengal administration from central
(d) The civil administration from military

administration

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 22. (d) 43. (b) 64. (d) 85. (d) 106. (a) 127. (c) 148. (b)
2. (c) 23. (c) 44. (a) 65. (a) 86. (b) 107. (d) 128. (c) 149. (c)
3. (a) 24. (b) 45. (d) 66. (d) 87. (d) 108. (c) 129. (a) 150. (a)
4. (c) 25. (b) 46. (a) 67. (a) 88. (d) 109. (a) 130. (d) 151. (d)
5. (c) 26. (d) 47. (c) 68. (a) 89. (d) 110. (d) 131. (d) 152. (d)
6. (d) 27. (b) 48. (c) 69. (d) 90. (a) 111. (a) 132. (b) 153. (d)
ww 7.
8.
(b)
(c)
28.
29.
(d)
(c)
49.
50.
(b)
(a)
70.
71.
(b)
(b)
91.
92.
(d)
(c)
112.
113.
(c)
(d)
133.
134.
(d)
(b)
154.
155.
(b)
(b)
w.E
10.
11.
9. (a)
(b)
(b)
30.
31.
32.
(a)
(c)
(b)
51.
52.
53.
(a)
(c)
(b)
72.
73.
74.
(c)
(b)
(b)
93.
94.
95.
(c)
(c)
(d)
114.
115.
116.
(a)
(d)
(d)
135.
136.
137.
(c)
(a)
(c)
156.
157.
158.
(a)
(b)
(b)
12.
13.
(a)
(c)
33.
34.
(d)
(a)
54.
55.asy (b)
(c)
75.
76.
(c)
(d)
96.
97.
(a)
(c)
117.
118.
(c)
(a)
138.
139.
(a)
(d)
159.
160.
(c)
(a)
14.
15.
(d)
(b)
35.
36.
(b)
(a)
56.
57.
En
(d)
(b)
77.
78.
(a)
(a)
98.
99.
(b)
(b)
119.
120.
(b)
(c)
140.
141.
(b)
(b)
161.
162.
(d)
(c)
16.
17.
(c)
(b)
37.
38.
(b)
(d)
58.
59.
gin
(c)
(d)
79.
80.
(c)
(b)
100.
101.
(d)
(c)
121.
122.
(b)
(b)
142.
143.
(a)
(d)
163. (b)
18.
19.
20.
21.
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
39.
40.
41.
42.
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
60.
61.
62.
63.
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
ee
81.
82.
83.
84.
(d)
(b)
rin
(a)
(c)
102.
103.
104.
105.
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
123.
124.
125.
126.
(c)
(a)
(d)
(b)
144.
145.
146.
147.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(c)
g.n
Hints & Solutions et
1. (b) The charter to the English East India Company 2. (c) Red Dragon was the first English ship that came
for monopoly of eastern trade for 15 years was to India. The Red Dragon fought the Portuguese
given by Queen Elizabeth I in 1600. Initially, the at the Battle of Swally in 1612, and made several
Company struggled in the spice trade due to the
voyages to the East Indies.
competition from the already well-established
Dutch East India Company. The company opened 3. (a) The Portuguese were the first Europeans to set
a factory in Bantam on the first voyage and imports up Sea trade centres in India. The first successful
of pepper from Java were an important part of the voyage to India was by Vasco da Gama in 1498,
company’s trade for twenty years. The factory in when he arrived in Calicut, now in Kerala. The
Bantam was closed in 1683. During this time, ships
colonial era in India began in 1502, when the
belonging to the company arriving in India docked
at Surat, which was established as a trade transit Portuguese empire established the first European
point in 1608. trading centre at Kollam, Kerala.

History || A-121
4. (c) Francisco de Almeida was the first Portuguese 11. (b) War of Austrian succession flared up the first
viceroy in India. In 1505, the King of Portugal Carnatic War in India. The First Carnatic War
appointed Dom Francisco de Almeida as the first (1746 – 1748) was the first of a series of Carnatic
Portuguese viceroy in India, followed in 1509 by Wars that established early British dominance
Dom Afonso de Albuquerque. In 1510, Albuquerque on the east coast of the Indian subcontinent. The
conquered the city of Goa, which had been controlled war demonstrated to French, British, and Indian
by Muslims. observers the extraordinary advantage of European-
5. (c) The factory of Hoogly in Bengal was trained military forces over those of the local Indian
ww
6.
established by Portuguese.
(d) Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to
powers, and set the stage for the rapid growth of
French hegemony in southern India under the
w.E India in 1498. The first Portuguese encounter with

India was on 20 May 1498 when Vasco da Gama
reached Calicut on Malabar Coast. Vasco da Gama
command of French Governor-General Joseph
François Dupleix in the Second Carnatic War.
14. (d) The British East India Company was formed
asy
sailed to India for a second time with 15 ships and
800 men, arriving at Calicut on 30 October 1502,
during the reign of Elizabeth I. Commonly
associated with trade in basic commodities, which
included cotton, silk, indigo dye, salt, saltpetre, tea
7.
En
where the ruler was willing to sign a treaty.
(b) Fort St. George was the first fort constructed by
and opium, the Company received a Royal Charter
from Queen Elizabeth in 1600, making it the oldest
gin
the British in India. Fort St George was founded in
1644 at the coastal city of Madras, the modern city
of Chennai. The construction of the fort provided the
among several similarly formed European East
India Companies.
ee
impetus for further settlements and trading activity,
in what was originally an uninhabited land. The fort
is one of the 163 notified areas (megalithic sites) in
16. (c) Vasco Da Gama came to India for three times.
He arrived in India in September 1524 and died in
rin
the city of Cochin on Christmas Eve in 1524, three
months after his arrival. As per royal instructions,
8.
the state of Tamil Nadu.
(c) Portuguese trading company adopted the ‘Blue
Water Policy’ in India. Francisco de Almeida became
g.n
Gama was succeeded as governor of India by one of
the captains who had come with him, Henrique de
the 1st Portuguese viceroy in India initiated the

Blue Water Policy, which aimed at the Portuguese
Mastery of the Sea and confined Portuguese
Menezes.
et
17. (b) The British East India Company opened its
first factory in India at Surat. The first English
relationship with India only for the purpose of trade factory was set up on the banks of the river
and commerce. Hugly in 1651.
9. (a) The battle of Wandiwas was fought between 18. (c) Lord Macartany the Governor of Madras
the British and French companies. This was the Presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu. The
Third Carnatic War fought between the French second Anglo-Mysore war was ended on 11 March
and the British. After making substantial gains in 1784 with the signing of the treaty of Mangalore.
Bengal and Hyderabad, the British, after collecting The treaty is an important document in the history
huge amount of revenue, were fully equipped to of India, because it was the last occasion when an
face the French in Wandiwash. Thus, they defeated Indian power dictated terms to the British, who were
the French comprehensively in this battle. under orders from London to negotiate a peace.


20. (c) Murshid Quli Khan founded independent state emperor Aurangzeb, whose troops captured Surat
of Bengal. Murshid Quli Khan united his force and and forced Child to make peace. One of the peace
position and in the year 1719 he renamed his capital terms required Child to leave India, but he died
city from Makhsusabad to Murshidabad after his while the matter was still pending.
name. This change of name was approved by the 26. (d) Farrukhsiyar gave an important Firman to the
then Mughal emperor and thus Murshid Quli Khan English of facilitating their trade in India. It was
became the independent Nawab of Bengal. during Farrukhsiyar’s reign, in 1717, that the British
21. (a) The French were last to come to pre- East India Company purchased duty-free trading
ww independence India as traders. France was the last

of the major European maritime powers of the 17th
century to enter the East India trade in a significant
rights in all of Bengal for a mere three thousand
rupees a year.
w.Eway. Six decades after the foundation of the English

and Dutch East India companies (in 1600 and 1602
respectively), and at a time when both companies
27. (b) The Peshwa who engineered the capture of
Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese in 1739
was Baji Rao I. In 1720, one of the ports of Bassein,
asy
were multiplying factories on the shores of India,
the French still didn’t have a viable trading company
Kalyan, was conquered by the Marathas and in
1737, they took possession of Thane including all
the forts in Salsette island and the forts of Parsica,
En
and a single permanent establishment in the East.
22. (d) The portuguese introduced cashewnut,
Trangipara, Saibana, Ilha das Vaccas - (Island of
Arnala), Manora, Sabajo, the hills of Santa Cruz and
gin
pineapple and tobacco in India. The Portuguese
introduced into India the following agricultural
products: cashew-nut, tobacco, the custard apple,
Santa Maria.
28. (d) Nizam of Hyderabad was the first Indian native
improved variety of coconut seeds. ee

guava, the pineapple, and the papaya, and also an
23. (c) The greatest Portuguese Governor who laid the

ruler to accept the system of subsidiary alliance.
Tipu Sultan of Mysore refused to accept it but after
rin
the British victory in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War,
Mysore was forced to become a subsidiary ally.
real foundation of Portuguese power in India was
Albuquerque. On 4 November 1509, Albuquerque
became the second Governor of the State of India, a g.n
Later the Maratha ruler Baji Rao II also accepted
subsidiary alliance in the treaty of Bassein.
29. (c) The book ‘Zij Muhammad Shahi’ related to
position he would hold until his death. Albuquerque
speedily showed the energy and determination of
his character. He intended to dominate the Muslim
world and control the spice trade.
et
knowledge of Astrology produced in 1733 is written
by Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur. Zij is the generic name
applied to Islamic astronomical books that tabulate
parameters used for astronomical calculations of the
24. (b) Sir George Oxenden was the first Governor of positions of the Sun, moon, stars, and planets. The
Bombay. In March 1667, Charles II ceded Bombay Zij-i Muhammad Shahi, was one of the most famous
to the East India Company, and they commissioned Zij compiled at Jai Singh II of Amber’s Jantar
Oxenden to take possession of the island of Bombay. Mantar observatories. It is notable for employing
In August of that year, the court of directors the use of telescopic observations.
appointed him governor and commander-in-chief of 30. (a) The South Indian ruler who introduced
Bombay. sericulture as an agro-industry in his kingdom was
25. (b) Sir John Child, the English Governor of East Tipu Sultan. Sericulture was started during 1875,
India Company in India, was expelled by Aurangzeb. during the regime of Tipu Sultan ruler of Mysore
Child became involved in a war with the Mughal kingdom, who brought mulberry from Bengal to

History || A-123
the south and planted it in Kollegal and adjoining a master of satire and between 1825 and 1831
areas, while the silkworm Bombyx mori races were castigated the men and women who were inclining
brought by him from China. to new ways of life and abandoning the traditional
31. (c) The Sarkar of Guntur was the bone of contention simple habits.
between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the 40. (c) In 1757, Sirajuddaulah attacked British factory
English. at Kasimbazar. Sirajuddaulah asked the Company
32. (b) The statement, “We have crippled our enemy to stop meddling in the political affairs of his
without making our friends too formidable”, is dominion, stop fortification, and pay the revenues.
ww associated with the Third Anglo-Mysore War.

33. (d) Farruksiyar granted permission to trade free
After negotiations failed, the Nawab marched
with 30,000 soldiers to the English factory at
w.Eof tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and

Gujarat to the British.
34. (a) The Whitley Commission was concerned with
Kasimbazar, captured the Company officials, locked
the warehouse, disarmed all Englishmen, and
blockaded English ships. Then he marched to
asy
Labour. An Irish scholar and lawyer Whitley Stokes
(1830 – 1909), worked in India for about 20 years.
After a period during which he drafted procedural
Calcutta to establish control over the Company’s
fort there.
42. (b) Portuguese were first to come India to establish
En
codes for both civil and criminal law, he was
appointed president of a commission charged with
trade relation wish their country. The colonial era in
India began in 1502, when the Portuguese empire
gin
drawing up a comprehensive code of law for India.
36. (a) The East India Company was brought under
established the first European trading centre at
Kollam, Kerala. In 1505, the King of Portugal
ee
the parliamentary control in 1773. The Parliament
of Great Britain imposed a series of administrative
and economic reforms by the Regulating Act of 1773
and by doing so clearly established its sovereignty
appointed Dom Francisco de Almeida as the first
Portuguese viceroy in India.
rin
44. (a) The permanent settlement of Lord Cornwallis
gave the ownership of land to Zamindars. The
and ultimate control over the Company.
37. (b) Pitt’s India Act (1784) created the Board of g.n
Zamindars were made the owners of the whole land
in their Zamindaris as long as they paid their dues to
Control. Relationship to the British government: the
bill differentiated the East India Company’s political
functions from its commercial activities. In political
matters, the East India Company was subordinated
et
the state and they worked as agents of government
in collecting the land revenue.
46. (a) In 1835, the Bitish started striking Indian coins
with the portrait of the British king. British India
to the British government directly. To accomplish
Coins (1862 – 1947) were stuck under the authority
this, the Act created a Board of Commissioners for
of the crown. The new coins minted under the
the affairs of India, usually referred to as the Board
of Control. Coinage Act, 1835 had the effigy of William IV on
the obverse and the value on the reverse in English
38. (d) Samachar Chandrika had conducted a bitter
and Persian. The coins issued after 1840 bore the
compaign against the abolition of the practice of
portrait of Queen Victoria. The first coinage under
Sati. In Calcutta, the gifted Bhabani Charan Banerji
the crown was issued in 1862 and in 1877 Queen
left Ram Mohan’s Bengali paper and conducted
Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India.
in opposition to him a rival journal the Sambad
Chandrika. Bhabani Charan (1814 – 1833) was We have tried to cover the Uniform coinage of this
period.


49. (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the 55. (c) Lord Auckland was the Governor General
renowned Presidency College of Calcutta. Initially when the Eden Gardens of Calcutta was built in
established as the Mahapathshala wing of Hindu 1840. The Gardens came into being when the
College, it was renamed Presidency College, i.e. the Governor General Lord Auckland desired to create
college of the Bengal Presidency, in 1855. He is also
a circus and a garden. A pleasure ground with an
regarded as the “Father of the Bengal Renaissance.
oblong tank in centre was laid out on this site. The
The “superstitious practices” to which Rammohan
Roy objected included Sati, caste rigidity, polygamy site was initially named ‘Auckland Circus Gardens’.
ww and child marriages.

50. (a) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla was the editor of
the first all Hindu newspaper “ Udanta-Martanda”
57. (b) W.W. Hunter was the Chairman of the
committee which was to study the development in
education after 1854 AD. Lord Ripon appointed the
w.Epublished from Kanpur in the year 1826. The

newspaper was started on May 20, 1826; with it for
the first time a newspaper was published completely
first Indian Education Commission on 3rd February
1882. Sir Willium Hunter (a member of viceroy’s
Executive Council) was appointed as the chairman
asy
in Hindi, using Devanagari script. Udant Martand
employed a mix of Khari Boli and Braj Bhasha
dialects of Hindi. The first issue printed 500 copies,
of the commission. The commission was popularly
known as Hunter Commission after the name of its
En
and the newspaper was published every Tuesday.
51. (a) Keshav Chandra Sen influenced Mahadev
chairman. Besides the chairman, the commission
consisted of 20 other members. There was a good
gin
Govind Ranade to establish Prarthana Samaj in
Bombay. M.G. Ranade worked for the emancipation
representation of missionaries and Indians in the
commission. Among the Indian members were
ee
of women. In 1861, he founded the Widow Marriage
Association. In 1870, Ranade rendered help in the
establishment of Sarvajanik Sabha at Poona.
52. (c) Dharma Sabha was founded in Calcutta in
Sayed Mahmud, Bhudev Mukherjee, Anand Mohan
Bose and K.T. Telang.
rin
58. (c) Samachar Darpan, the first vernacular
newspaper of India, was published on May 31, 1818
1830, in opposition to the Brahma Samaj of Raja
Ram Mohan Roy by Radha Kant Dev. An orthodox
g.n
by Carey and Marshman from Serampore. It started
during the period of Lord Hastings. The first Indian
society, it stood for the preservation of the status
quo in socio-religious matters opposing even the
abolition of Sati. However, it favoured the promotion
of western education, even for girls.
by James Augustus Hickey. et
newspaper was the ‘Bengal Gazette’ started in 1780
59. (d) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of a Drama

53. (b) The main aim of the Deoband Movement “Nila Darpana”. Mitra stormed the social and the
was to oppose English education. The Deoband literary circle of Bengal by his most notable play
Movement was established in Saharnpur district in Nildarpan in the year 1860. It was published from
1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1832 – 80) Dhaka and soon after its publication it ignited a
and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi (1828 – 1905) to train
major argument in the newspapers.
religious leaders for the Muslim community.
60. (b) Lord William Bentinck was the Governor
54. (b) Nazam-ud-daulah was the Nawab of Bengal
General who changed the official language of the
when Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was
granted to East India Company. In 1765, the courts of justice from Persian to English. Printing
Company was granted the Diwani, or the right to of English books were made free and these were
collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar. available at a relatively low price.

History || A-125
63. (a) The real number of prisoners who died in the to them. Peshwa handed over his Minister to the
‘Black Hole Tragedy’, according to the available British, who lodged him in Thana jail from where
reports, was 146. The Black Hole of Calcutta was a he escaped. Consequently, on 13 June 1817, the
dungeon in colonial India in which a large number British Resident Elphinstone forced the Peshwa to
of British prisoners of war allegedly died on the sign the treaty of Poona. Baji Rao gave up his desire
night of 20 June 1756. to become the supreme head of the Marathas.
65. (a) To overthrew the British rule, Kuka movement 73. (b) The ‘Filtration Theory’, in educational policy
was organised in Punjab. Its principal objective was of India, was propagated by Lord Macaulay. The
ww to spread the true spirit of Sikhism shorn of tawdry

customs and mannerism, which had been growing
British planned to educate a small section of upper
and middle classes, thus creating a class who would
w.Eon it since the beginning of Sikh monarchy. In

the midst of national pride born of military glory
and political power, this movement extolled the
act as interpreters between the government and
masses and would enrich the vernaculars by which
knowledge of western sciences and literature would
asy
religious obligation for a pious and simple living.
They were called “Kukas” because of their peculiar
style to recite the Gurbani.
reach the masses. This was called the ‘Downward
Filtration Theory’.
En
66. (d) Bank of Hindustan, the first financial bank
under European guidelines, was established in India
76. (d) Warren Hastings was conversant with Arabic,
Persian and Bengali languages besides English.
He was a gifted personality endowed with ‘strong
gin
in 1770 in Calcutta by Alexander and company. The
origin of western type commercial banking in India
will, great energy and resourcefulness’. His long
stay in Bengal ‘in the shadow of the Mughal
ee
dates back to the 18th century. The story of banking
starts from Bank of Hindusthan established in 1770
and it was first bank at Calcutta under European
management. In 1786, General Bank of India was
cultural tradition’ gave him enough opportunity
to learn oriental languages, such as Bengali
rin
(the local language) and Persian (the diplomatic
language) and to develop ‘oriental tastes’. Since
set up. Since Calcutta was the most active trading
port in India, mainly due to the trade of the British g.n
he considered Indian culture as a basis for sound
Indian administration, he patronised the learning of
empire, it became a banking centre.
70. (b) Baji Rao II signed the treaty of Pune on the 13th
June 1817. Peshwa Baji Rao II wanted to become
Indian languages and arts.
et
77. (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the ‘Atmiya
Sabha.’ In 1814, he set up a Amitya Sabha in
the head of the Maratha Confederacy and at the Calcutta to campaign against idolatry, caste
same time wanted freedom from the British control. rigidities, meaningless rituals and other social ills.
His Chief Minister Tirimbakji encouraged him. On 78. (a) ‘Tuhafat-ul-Muwahidin’, a tract written by
the advice of the Company, the Gaekwar sent his Ram Mohan Roy, is the first tract against idolatry.
Prime Minister Gangadhar Shastri to negotiate with He believed that prayers, meditation and reading
the Peshwa. On his way back, Gangadhar Shastri of the Upanishads were to be forms of worship
was murdered at Nasik in July 1815, at the instance and no graven image. Statue or sculpture, craving,
of Triambakji. This caused a lot of anger not only painting, picture, portrait, etc. were to be allowed in
among the Marathas but also among the British. the society building thus proclaiming opposition to
The latter asked the Peshwa to hand overTriambakji idolatry and meaningless rituals.


80. (b) The Board of Control created by the Pitt’s 86. (b) Lord Cornwallis formed the triple alliance
India Act, 1784. The implication of the Act was against Tipu Sultan, The English, the Nizam and the
the establishment of dual control; the company’s Marathas entered into a “Triple Alliance” against
directors were political executants with charge of Mysore. The war against Mysore was carried on in
commerce, but they were politically superintended three campaigns. The first under Medows proved
indecisive. The other two campaigns were led by
by a new Board of Control.
Cornwallis himself.
81. (d) The first newspaper published in India was the
87. (d) Shah Alam II joined Mir Qasim and Shuja-ud-
ww Bengal Gazette. James Augustus Hickey published

the first newspaper in India on January 29, 1780.
It was the liberal policy of the Press Act of 1835,
Daula in declaring war upon the English East India
Company and was later defeated by the British at
the battle of Buxar.
w.Ewhich continued till 1856, that encouraged the

growth of newspapers in the country.
82. (b) The second Anglo-Mysore War ended with the
88. (d) Raja Shitab Rai was appointed as Deputy
Diwan of Bihar. For the exercise of Diwani
functions, the company appointed two deputy
asy
signing of the treaty of Mangalore in 1784. Lack of
resources, uncertainty of the attitude of the Marathas,
Diwans, Mohammad Raza Khan for Bengal and
Raja Sitab Roy for Bihar.
En
the presence of the French fleet on the Coromandel
coast and some other considerations forced the
91. (d) Saadat Khan founded the independent state
of Awadh. Saadat Khan was popularly known as
Burhan-ul-Mulk. He had joined in a conspiracy
gin
English to seek peace. The treaty was fallout of a
peace between the French and the English.
against the Sayyid brothers, later, driven out of the
court; he was promoted to found a new independent
ee
83. (a) First decisive military success of English East
India Company in India is marked by the battle
of Buxar. The victory at the Buxar was solely
due to superior military power. The defeat of the
state.
93. (c) The treaty of Bassein was signed with the
rin
British by Peshwa Baji Rao II. The treaty brought the
company into definite relation with the formal head
confederacy was inherent in the defects of the Indian
army and state organization. g.n
of the Maratha confederacy. The treaty of Bassein,
described as “a treaty with a cipher” wounded the
feelings of the other Maratha leaders.
84. (c) First Mysore War was ended by the treaty
of Madras. The first Anglo-Mysore war proved
indecisive and ended with a peace treaty in 1769.
Haidar Ali dictated the treaty which provided for
et
95. (d) During the tenure of Sirajuddaula, the incident
of Black Hole take place. The Black Hole of Calcutta
was a dungeon in colonial India in which a large
number of British prisoners of war allegedly died on
the exchange of prisoners and mutual restitution of the night of 20 June 1756.
conquests. 97. (c) In February 1757, the treaty of Alinagar was
85. (d) Mohammad Raza Khan was appointed signed. The treaty of Alinagar was concluded
Deputy Diwan of Bengal by Robert Clive after between Sirajuddaula and Lord Clive. The Nawab
the Allahabad treaty. For the exercise of Diwani was forced to sign the Treaty of Alinagar on 9th
functions, the Company appointed two deputy February 1757, wherein all the demands of the
Diwans, Mohammad Raza Khan for Bengal and English were conceded. The Nawab was asked to
restore the rights and immunities of the Company
Raja Sitab Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Raza Khan
and to compensate them for the losses they had
also acted as deputy Nazim or deputy Subahdar.
suffered in the war.

History || A-127
98. (b) Lord Dalhousie had drafted the Hindu Widows 114. (a) Burdwan, Midnapur and Hoogly were the
Remarriage Act. It was mainly due to the efforts districts of Bengal whose revenue administration
of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820 – 91), was transferred to the East India Company for the
the principal of Sanskrit college, Calcutta that the acquisition of the Nawabship of Bengal by Mir
Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856, which Qasim in 1760.
legalized marriage of widows and declared issues
115. (d) Sir William Jones was the advisor of Lord
from such marriages as legitimate, was passed by
Cornwallis in his judicial reforms. In the work of
the government.
judicial reorganization, Cornwallis secured the
ww
99. (b) Lord Dalhousie had started the Public Works
Department in India in 1848. Before the period of
Dalhousie, the job of the Public Works Department
services of Sir William Jones, who was a judge
and a great scholar. Civil and criminal courts were
completely reorganized.
w.Ewas done by the Military Board. Dalhousie created

a separate Public Works Department and allotted
more funds for cutting canals and roads. The Upper
116. (d) Regulation XVII of 1829 declared the custom
of Sati as illegal. Bentinck became a crusader
asy
Ganges Canal was completed in 1854. Many bridges
were constructed. By modernizing the Public
Works Department, he laid the foundations of the
against it and promulgated his Regulation XVII
on 4 December 1829 prohibiting the practice of
Sati. Those who practiced Sati were made liable
engineering service in India.
En
101. (c) Marathas signed the treaty of Salbai in 1782
for punishment by law courts as accessories to the
crime. The Regulation was extended to the Madras
gin
with the English at the instance of Sindhia. The
treaty established the status quo in Anglo-Maratha
relations. Though the material gains of the English
and Bombay Presidencies in 1830.
117. (c) Devendranath Tagore started the socio-
ee
from the treaty were not very impressive, it gave
them peace with the Marathas for twenty years, the
time which was needed by the British to concentrate
on other fronts, especially Mysore.
religious organization ‘Tattvabodhini Sabha’
and its appended jounral ‘Tattvabodhini.’ Before
rin
Debendranath joined the Brahmo Samaj, he had
organized a Tattvaranjini Sabha at Calcutta. The
102. (c) In the Permanent settlement, the share of

Zamindar stood at 1/11. The Zamindar was required g.n
same Sabha was later known as Tattvabodhini
Sabha. The objectives of Tattvabodhini Sabha were
to encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the
to pay about 89 per cent (10/11) of what he received
as land revenue to the government and retain 11 per
cent (1/11) with himself for his service.
103. (d) The Ryotwari settlement of Madras was
essence of Upanishads.
et
118. (a) Ram Mohan Roy authored the book entitled
‘The Precepts of Jesus, the Guide to Peace and
introduced by Munro. In this system, revenue Happiness.’ In this book, he tried to separate the
settlement was done directly with the ryots. Ryots moral and philosophical message of the New
would be periodically revised generally after 20 to Testament, which he praised from its miracle
30 years. But the government retained the right to stories.
enhance the land revenue at will. 119. (b) Dadu Miyan was the leader of the Farazi
112. (c) Permanent settlement comprises Zamindar rebellion. Farazis were the followers of a Muslim
as middleman to collect the land revenue. The sect founded by Haji Shariatallah of Faridpur in
Zamindars were made the owners of the whole land eastern Bengal. They advocated radical religious,
in their Zamindari as long as they paid their dues to social and political changes. Shariatullah’s son
the state and they worked as agents of government Dadu Miyan organized his followers with an aim to
in collecting the land revenue. expel the English intruders from Bengal.


120. (c) Slavery was made illegal by the India Act V 127. (c) The first Englishman to acquire the knowledge
of 1843. The Indian Slavery Act, 1843, also Act V of Sanskrit was Charles Wilkins. He was encouraged
of 1843, was an act passed in British India under by Warren Hastings to study with the Pundits at
East India Company rule, which outlawed many Banaras.
economic transactions associated with slavery.
128. (c) Fatehchand had received the title of ‘Jagat Seth’
121. (b) Lord Cornwallis introduced the revenue system from Muhammad Shah. Fatehchand was adopted
called permanent settlement. Lord Cornwallis’ son of Manik Chand. He obtained the title of “Seth”
most conspicuous administrative measure was the from the Emperor Farrakhsiyar. Muhammad Shah
ww Permanent Land Revenue Settlement of Bengal,

which was extended to the provinces of Bihar and
Orissa. The Zamindars of Bengal were recognised
bestowed him with the title of “Jagat Seth”.
130. (d) Lord Dalhousie laid the frist rail line in India.
w.E as the owners of land as long as they paid the

revenue to the East India Company regularly. The
amount of revenue that the Zamindars had to pay
Railways were first introduced to India in 1853
from Bombay to Thane.
131. (d) Satara was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie
asy
to the Company was firmly fixed and would not be
raised under any circumstances. In other words, the
under the Doctrine of Lapse. The Doctrine of Lapse
was applied by Dalhousie to Satara and it was
leaving the rest to the Zamindars.

En
government of the East India Company got 89% annexed in 1848. Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed
in 1854. As a result of these annexations, a large
gin
122. (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo
Samaj in 1828. He founded Brahmo Samaj in order
to institutionalise his ideas and mission which
part of the central provinces came under the British
rule. The new province was governed by a Chief
Commissioner from 1861.
ee
aimed at political uplift of the masses through social
reform and to that extent can be said to have had
nationalist undertones.
132. (b) Dupleix was the first European to initiate
rin
the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian
princes with a view to acquire territories.
123. (c) The Battle of Wandiwash was fought between
British and the French. Merchants of the Dutch
East India Company first established themselves in g.n
133. (d) When empires in Europe were crumbling
before the might of Napoleon. On the other hand,
Dutch Coromandel, notably Pulicat, as they were
looking for textiles to exchange with the spices they
traded in the East Indies.
et
Lord Hastings the Governor General kept the
British flag flying high in India.
134. (b) Warren Hastings was the first Governor
General of Bengal. When Warren Hastings assumed
124. (a) Hector Munro led the army of the East India
Company in the battle of Buxar in 1764. The the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in
combined armies of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Awadh utter chaos. The financial position of the Company
and Shah Alam II were defeated by the English became worse and the difficulties were intensified
forces under Major Hector Munro at Buxar. by famine. Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the
125. (d) Lord Cornwallis was the father of Civil immediate need for introducing reforms and was
Services. The term ‘civil service’ was used for the responsible for lot of reforms in Bengal.
first time by the East India Company to distinguish its 136. (a) Kol revolt of 1831–32 was led by Buddhu
civilian employee from their military counterparts. Bhagat. Kol Mutiny covered Ranchi, Singhbhum,
Lord Cornwallis started the Civil Service in Indian Hazaribagh, Palamau and the western parts of
to effectively administer British territories in India. Manbhum.

History || A-129
137. (c) Major Burrough the British Commander 144. (a) James Outram was the British residence in
was defeated by the Santhals in 1855. The British Awadh at the time of its annexation into British
weren’t ready for such a revolt from Santhals, a Dominion. In 1854, he was appointed resident
small contingent of force under Major Burrough at Lucknow, in which capacity two years later he
was called to suppress the rebels but he meet carried out the annexation of Oudh and became the
tremendous resistance and was defeated at first chief commissioner of that province.
Pirpainati. The victory of the Santhals over the all 145. (b) Subsidiary alliance was implemented during
mighty British further fuelled the rebellion and it the reign of Lord Wellesley. Wellesley’s Subsidiary
ww spread like wildfire.

138. (a) The Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act of 1856,
System is regarded as one of the masterstrokes
of British imperialism. It increased the military
strength of the Company in India at the expense
w.E enacted in response to the campaign of Pandit Ishwar

Chandra Vidyasagar, provided legal safeguards
against loss of certain forms of inheritance for a
of the protected states. The territories of the
Company were free from the ravages of war thereby
establishing the stability of the British power in
remarrying Hindu widow.
asy
139. (d) Sanyasi Rebellion was made famous by
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand
India.
147. (c) The last king of Sikh kingdom was Daleep
En
Math. The restrictions imposed on visits to holy
places estranged the Sanyasis. The Sanyasis
Singh. In 1849, the British Government deposed the
Maharaja Duleep Singh and annexed the Punjab;
since which time it has been under British rule, and
factories and state treasuries. gin

retaliated by organizing raids on the company’s the Maharaja has been a pensioner of the British
Government.
ee
141. (b) Newspapers were an important medium for the
dissemination of information on various problems.
It is great help in the campaigns for social reform
and to influence activities of the state. The first
148. (b) Robert Clive has been called as a ‘Heaven
born General.’ Clive’s brilliant leadership at Arcot
rin
gave him an immense reputation in Europe. When
he went home in 1753, William Pitt the Elder
newspaper in India was the Bengal-Gazette started
in 1780. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar started Shome g.n
called him a “heaven-born general.” After running
unsuccessfully for Parliament, Clive returned to
Prakash in 1890.
142. (a) The tomb of Lord Cornwallis is located at
Ghazipur, a small town in the eastern part of Uttar
Pradesh approximately seventy kilometres east of
et
India in 1755 as governor of Fort St. David and as
lieutenant colonel in the royal army.
149. (c) Maharaja Ranjeet Singh had said “God
intended me to look upon all religions with one eye,
Varanasi. It is well connected by road and railways that is why he took away the light from the other.”
with different parts of the country. Lord Cornwallis 150. (a) In 1787, Warren Hastings was impeached in
is known as a great administrator and a successful the Parliament by Edmund Burke and the Whigs for
commander-in-chief in the history of India during his administrative excess. Burke brought forward
British period. 22 charges against him. The most important of them
were related to the Rohilla War, the Case of Nanda
143. (d) Lord Ellenborough had abolished slavery in
Kumar, the treatment of Raja Chait Singh of Banaras
India. The Indian Slavery Act, 1843, also Act V and the pressures on the Begums of Oudh. After a
of 1843, was an act passed in British India under long trail which lasted till 1795, Warren Hastings
East India Company rule, which outlawed many was completely acquitted. He received pension
economic transactions associated with slavery. from the Company and lived till 1818.


151. (d) William Jones was founded the Asiatic Society India was passed on 28 September 1929 fixed the
of Bengal on 15 January 1784. It was started to age of marriage for girls at 14 years. It was a result
enhance the cause of Oriental research. It was of social reform movement in India. The legislation
presided over by Sir Robert Chambers, the Chief was passed by the British Indian Government.
Justice of the Supreme Court at the Fort William in 159. (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered as the
Calcutta. prophet of Indian Nationalism. His influence
154. (b) Job Charnock was the founder of Calcutta. was apparent in the fields of politics, public
In March 1690, the Company received permission administration, and education, as well as religion.
ww from Aurangzeb in Delhi to re-establish a factory in

Bengal, and on 24 August 1690 Charnock returned
to set up his headquarters in the place he called
He was described by Rabindranath Tagore as the
“Father of Indian Renaissance” and the “Prophet of
Indian Nationalism”.
w.E Calcutta; the appointment of a new Nawab ensured

this agreement was honoured, and on 10 February
1691, an imperial grant was issued for the English
161. (d) Lord Dalhousie formulated and implemented
the ‘Doctrine of Lapse.’ It was customary for a ruler
asy
to “contentedly continue their trade”.
155. (b) Brahmo Samaj of Raja Ram Mohan Roy was
without a natural heir to ask the British Government
whether he could adopt a son to succeed him.
According to Dalhousie, if such permission was
En
against child marriage. Inspite of this, Kehsav
Chandra Sen his followers himself married his
refused by the British, the state would “lapse” and
thereby become part of the British India. Dalhousie
disintegration of this institution.

gin
daughter in childhood and paved the way for maintained that there was a difference in principle
between the right to inherit private property and
the right to govern. This principle was called the
ee
156. (a) Radhakant Dev opposed the socio-religious
reforms and supported orthodoxy. Despite his
contribution to the cause of educational improvement,
Radhakanta Dev was a strong upholder of social
Doctrine of Lapse.
rin
162. (c) Through the Charter Act of 1833, the
commercial activities of the East India Company
conservatism. He became the leader of a party of
orthodox Hindus who were bitterly opposed to the
liberal-minded Hindus like Ram Mohan Roy who g.n
were finally put to an end. The Industrial Revolution
in Britain, the consequent search for markets, and
the rise of laissez-faire economic ideology form the
advocated social and religious reforms.
157. (b) Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja
by Akbar II. He was the first educated Indian to sail
et
background to the Government of India Act 1833.
The Act removed the Company’s remaining trade
monopolies and divested it of all its commercial
functions and renewed for another twenty years the
to England. At the time, Roy was an ambassador
of the Mughal emperor Akbar II, who conferred on Company’s political and administrative authority.
him the title of Raja to lobby the British government 163. (b) Cornwallis code of 1793 separated civil
for the welfare of India and to ensure that the Lord administration from judicial administration. The
Bentick’s regulation banning the practice of Sati greatest work of Cornwallis was the purification
was not overturned. of the civil service by the employment of capable
158. (b) Sharada Act fixed the minimum age of and honest public servants. He aimed at economy,
marriage of girls and boys respectively as 14 and simplification and purity. Another major reform
18. Child Marriage Restraint Act 1929 popularly that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of
kwown as the Sharda Act after its sponsor Rai Sahib the three branches of service, namely commercial,
Harbilas Sarda to the British India Legislature in judicial and revenue.

9
Indian Freedom
Struggle-I (1857–1917)
ww
1. Who was the first Viceroy of India? 8. Who propagated ‘Jehad’ against the Britishers

w.E (a) Lord Canning
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Curzon

during the Rebellion of 1857?
(a) Maulvi Ahsanullah
(b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
2.
asy
Who produced for the first time statistical
estimate of average per capita income of India?

9.
(c) Maulvi Barkal Ali
(d) Maulvi Kudrat Ali
The Scientific Society was founded by

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Ramesh Chandra Dutta
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale En

(a) Wilton Oldham
(b) Lord Cornwallis

3.
(d) Pherozshah Mehta
gin
Who was the first Indian to have written in an

10.
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Raja Shiv Prasad
Who was the propounder of the Drain Theory in

1857?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) V.D. Savarkar
ee
Indian language on the causes of the Revolt of

11.
India?
(a) R.C. Dutta
rin
(c) S.N. Banerjee
(b) Henry Cotton
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
In whose viceroyalty, the white mutiny took

4.
(c) Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) None of these
Which one of the following books is the official
place?
(a) Lord Curzon g.n
(b) Lord Minto

History of Revolt of 1857?
(a) Theories of Indian Mutiny
(b) Eighteen Fifty Seven
(c) The Sepoy Muting and the Revolt of 1857

12.

et
(c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Ripon
Which of the Acts wrote an epitaph on the grave
of the East India Company?
(a) Act of 1858 (b) Act of 1861
(d) None of these (c) Act of 1892 (d) None of these
5. Who said, “Like summer gale revolt of Meerut 13. J.E.D. Bethune was closely associated with
was unprecedented and short-lived”? (a) Abolition of Pardah system
(a) S.N. Sen (b) R.C. Majumdar
(b) Female education
(c) S.B. Chaudhari (d) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Widow remarraige
6. Who wrote the book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’?
(d) Abolition of slavery
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) M.P. Pillai 14. Who was not associated with the Gaddar Party?
7. Which one of the following is known as Mother (a) Lala Hardayal
of Indian Revolutionaries? (b) Kartar Singh
(a) Annie Besant (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Ganesh Vishnu Pingle
(c) Madam Cama (d) Usha Mehta (d) Shyamji Krishna Verma

A-132 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (1857–1917)

15. Who among the following was not associated 24. Which one of the following places did Kunwar
with Prarthana Samaj? Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857,
(a) Atmaram Pandurang belong to?
(b) R.G. Bhandarkar (a) U.P. (b) M.P.
(c) M.G. Ranade (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
(d) Devendra Nath Tagore 25. Who was the leader of Kanpur spear heading Revolt
16. Who influenced Mahadev Govind Ranade to of 1857?
establish Prathana Samaj in Bombay? (a) Birjis Quadir (b) Khan Bahadur
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (c) Nana Saheb (d) Kunwar Singh
ww

(c) Keshav Chandra Sen
(d) Tek Chand Mitra
26. The first Indian Factory Act was passed by

(a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Curzon

w.E
17. The first official history of Indian National
Congress was written by
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramaya
27. Siddhu was associated with

(a) Santhal Rebellion (b) Sanyasi Rebellion
(c) Munda Rebellion (d) Kol Rebellion
28. Babu Kunwar Singh who took part in great leader

(b) B.N. Pande
(c) Dr. R.C. Magumdar
(d) Dr. Tarachand
asy
of Revolt of 1857 was Zamindar of
(a) Gorakhpur (b) Jagdishpur
En
18. The official historian of the movement of 1857
was
(c) Rohilkhand (d) Raipur
29. Who was the founder of Ram Krishna Mission?
(a) Ram Krishna Paramahansa

(a) S.N. Sen
gin
(b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) Dr. Tarachand (d) V.D. Savarkar
19. Which one of the following historians has written

(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Independence”?
(a) T.R. Holmes
ee
about the nature of the movement of 1857 that
“It was neither first nor national nor a war of
(b) R.C. Majumdar

30. Who among the following is known as ‘Martin

Luther’ of India?
rin
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Shraddhanand
(c) S.B. Chudhari (d) G.B. Mallison
20. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay?

g.n
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
31. Who among the following had founded the

(a) Shiva Narayan Agnihotri
(b) Baharamji Malabari
(c) R.G. Bhandarkar
(d) B.K. Jayakar

et
Theosophical Society in the United States of
America?
(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Lala Hardayal
21. The Revolt of 1857 at Lucknow was led by
(c) Madam Blavatsky
(a) Begum Hazarat Mahal
(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama
(b) Tantiya Tope
32. Vande Mataram the national song was a part of
(c) Rani Laxmi Bai
(a) Durgesh Nandini (b) Anand Math
(d) Nana Saheb (c) Grihadaha (d) Bhagvad-Gita
22. The Revolt of 1857 was witnessed by the poet 33. Which one among the following was not a
(a) Taqi Mir (b) Zauq demand of the Prarthana Samaj?
(c) Ghalib (d) Iqbal (a) Women education
23. Who was the Governor General of India during (b) Widow remarriage
the Sepoy mutiny? (c) Raising the age of marriage for boys and
(a) Lord Dalhousei (b) Lord Canning girls
(c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Lytton (d) Abolition of untouchability

History || A-133
34. The call of “Back to the Vedas” was given by 43. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the
(a) Swami Vivekanand formation of the Indian National Congress?
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Curzon
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Dalhausie
(d) Vishnu Shastri Pandit 44. Who was called “ Grand Old Man of India”?
35. Young Bengal Movement was started by (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) Alexander Duft (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(b) H.V. Derozio (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
ww

(c) Jonathan Duncan
(d) Swami Vivekanand
36. Who among the following British persons
(d) Feroz Shah Mehta
45. Who among the following was not present in the
founding session of Indian National Congress?

w.Eadmitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Ellenborough

(a) Dadabai Naoroji
(b) G. Subramaniyam Iyer
(c) Justice Ranade
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Disraelli
asy
37. Which part of India was silent when Revolt of
46. “ Poverty and the Un-British Rule in India” was
written by

1857 was spreading in India?
(a) South India
En
(b) North India

(b) Ramesh Chandra Dutta
(c) Central India
38. Satyartha Prakash was written by
(a) Swami Shraddhanand gin
(d) Western India

(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
47. Who among the following had repealed the

(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Swami Dayanand Sarswati
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
ee
39. Who of the following organized the East India

Vernacular Press Act ?
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Dufferin rin

association in London to mobilize public
(a) Ananda Mohan Bose
(b) Bhikaji Cama
(d) Lord Lansdowne
following?
g.n
48. Lord Curzon is best known for which of the

(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
40. In which one of the following cities, was the East
India Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji

(a) Universities Act 1904
et
(b) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(c) Indian Council Act 1892
(d) Government of India Act 1909
in 1866? 49. King George V visited India during the viceroyship
(a) Paris (b) London of
(c) New York (d) Tokyo (a) Lord Hardinge (b) Lord Mayo
41. The word ‘Adivasi’ was used for the first time to (c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Curzon
refer to the tribal people by 50. “My own belief is that congress is tottering and
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Thakkar Bappa one of my great ambitions is to assist it to peaceful
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) B.R. Ambedkar death.” Who said it?
42. Who was the first Indian to become member of (a) Winston Churchill
the British Parliament? (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(a) Badruddin Tyabji (b) W.C. Banerjee (c) Lord Curzon
(c) D.N. Wacha (d) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Lord Dufferin


51. Who is rightly called the ‘Father of Local Self 60. The number of delegates who attended the first
Government’ in India? session of the Indian National Congress, held in
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Hardinge Bombay in 1885, was
(c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Ripon (a) 72 (b) 304
52. Who was the Viceroy of India when the British (c) 556 (d) 1500
India’s capital was shifted from Calcutta to 61. Who said, “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall
Delhi? have it”?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Hardinge (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Dufferin (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
ww
53. The 1909 Indian Council Act is also known as

(a) The Chelmsford Reforms
(b) The Pitts India Act

(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
62. Who was the biographer of A.O. Hume?

w.E(c) The August offer
(d) The Minto-Marley Reforms
54. Who among the followinig never became
President of Indian National Congress?

(a) V. Chirol
(c) George Yule
(b) W. Wedderburn
(d) None of these
63. Among the following viceroys of India in whose

(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhaleasy
time, Indian Penal Code, Civil Procedure Code,
and Criminal Code were passed?
(a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Mayo

(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
En
55. Indian National Congress was founded by
(c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Dufferin
64. Who established the first Women’s University of

(a) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Allan Octavian Hume
gin

India?
(a) D.K. Karve (b) Annie Besant
(c) Ramabai Ranade (d) Hirabai Tata

Calcutta?
ee
56. Who was the founder of Indian Association of
65. Who among the following gave call to ‘one

(a) Jyotiba Phule
rin
religion, one creed and one God’ for mankind?
(b) Vivekanand
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sri Narain Guru

(b) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Feroz Shah Mehta
g.n
66. Who was the president of the provisional
government formed in Kabul in 1915 by Indians?
57. In which of the following movements, Vande

Mataram was adopted slogan for agitation?
(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Partition of Bengal in 1905

(a) Anand Mohan Sahay
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
et
(c) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(d) Mahendra Pratap
67. Devi Chaudharani patronised a historic movement
(c) Non-cooperation Movement in 1920 of Bengal. Find out the correct answer among the
(d) Quit India Movement in 1942 options given below:
58. Who was the founder of All India Muslim League?
(a) Weavers Movement
(a) Syed Ahmed Khan
(b) Sanyasi Movement
(b) Mohammad Iqbal
(c) Indigo Growers Movement
(c) Agha Khan
(d) Swadeshi Movement
(d) Nawab Salimullah Khan
59. Who founded Anushilan Samiti at Dhaka? 68. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded
(a) Pulin Bihari Das (a) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(b) Pramath Nath Mitra (b) Bombay Presidency Association
(c) Swami Shraddhanand (c) Servants of India Society
(d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh (d) Land Holders Society

History || A-135
69. The system of separate electorates was introduced 79. Who characterised the policies of moderate
by the Act of leaders as the political mendicancy?
(a) 1813 (b) 1835 (a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) 1895 (d) 1909 (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
70. In which of the following years, the Vernacular (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Press Act was Passed? (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) 1875 (b) 1878
80. In which of the following places, Hindu
(c) 1882 (d) 1884
Mahasabha was for the first time organised in
71. Rahnumai Mazdyasan Sabha is associated with
ww

(a) Sikhs
(c) Sindhis
(b) Parsis
(d) Muslims
72. In which of the following years, Enfield Rifle was

1915?
(a) Haridwar
(c) Allahabad
(b) Varanasi
(d) None of these

w.Eintroduced in India?
(a) 1852
(c) 1854
(b) 1853
(d) 1856
81. The first President of Muslim league was

(a) Nawab Vakar-ul-Mulk
(b) Miyan Abdul Aziz
asy
73. Where did Mangal Pandey for the first time learn
from a Lashkar that cartridges to be used in
Enfield Rifle were greased from the fat of cow

(c) Hidayat Hussain Khan
(d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
82. Who is known as the father of Muslim Renaissance

and pork?
(a) Calcutta
En
(b) Barrackpur
in Bengal?
(a) Abdul Latif
(c) Dum Dum
gin
(d) Ambala
74. Which one of the following had presided over
the Surat Session of Indian National Congress

(b) Mirza Ghulam Ahmed
(c) Muhammad Qasim
(d) Rashid Ahmed Gangohi

1907?
(a) Rash Bihari Bose
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta
ee 83. Who was the President of Lucknow Session of

rin
Indian National Congress (1916)?
(a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
75. Who had chaired the Indian Education Commision
in 1882?

g.n
(b) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Annie Besant

(a) Macaulay
(c) W.W. Hunter
Indian Unrest”?
(b) Sadler
(d) None of these
76. Who called Bal Gangadhar Tilak “The Father of

with et
84. The policy of ‘Masterly Inactivity’ was associated
(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Dalhousie

(c) John Lawrence (d) Lord Curzon
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Vincent Smith 85. Who was the first Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) Valentine Chirol (d) Henry Cotton of Calcutta?
77. Who was the first Muslim President of Indian (a) Hyde (b) Elijah Impey
National Congress?
(c) Lemaistre (d) Monson
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
86. In which of the following sessions of Indian
(b) Shaukat Ali
National Congress, the resolution of Swadeshi
(c) Badruddin Tyabji
was adopted?
(d) Muhammad Ali
78. Which viceroy is regarded as the catalyst of (a) Madras Session 1903
Indian nationalism? (b) Bombay Session 1904
(a) Lord Minto (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Banaras Session 1905
(c) Lord Canning (d) Lord Curzon (d) Calcutta Session 1906


87. The first Secretary of Indian National Congress was 96. Who of the following termed the revolt of 1857 as
(a) Allan Octavian Hume Indian War of Independence for the first time?
(b) George Yule (a) Ramesh Chandra Majumdar
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta (b) V.D. Sawarkar
(d) William Wedderburn (c) Ishwari Prasad
88. ‘Abhinav Bharat’a secret society of revolutionaries (d) Tara Chand
was organised in 1904 by 97. Maulavi Liaqat Ali who played a significant role
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Bipin Chandra Pal during the freedom struggle of 1857 belonged to
(c) Rash Bihari Bose (d) V.D.Savarkar which of the following cities?
ww
89.

Who was the first President of Indian National
Congress?

(a) Bareilly
(c) Allahabad
(b) Faizabad
(d) Lucknow
98. In which session of the Indian National Congress,

w.E (b) William Wedderburn
(c) Allan Octavian Hume
(d) W.C. Banerjee
Vande Mataram was first sung?
(a) 1886
(c) 1896
(b) 1890
(d) 1905
99. The capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to
90.
asy
During the tenure of which Governor General
was the ‘Ancient Monuments Preservation Act’
passed?
Delhi in
(a) 1910 (b) 1911

(a) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Curzon
En
(b) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Linlithgo
(c) 1912 (d) 1913
100. Where did the Indian National Congress get
divided into two wings moderates and extremists?
91.

the theory of Drain of Wealths?
(a) In 1896 gin
When did the Indian National Congress accept
(b) In 1902

(a) Surat Session 1907
(b) Lahor Session 1909
(c) Calcutta Session 1911

92.
(c) In 1906 (d) In 1935
ee
Who among the following said, “India has to
unite and conquer the whole world once again
with its might”?

(d) Karachi Session 1913
rin
101. Who compared Curzon’s administration in India
to that of Aurangzeb?

(a) Swami Dayanand
(b) Ram Krishna Param Hansha

(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
g.n

93.
(d) Annie Besant
Which one of the following freedom fighters of
first war of independence of 1857 was conferred
the title of Mahak Pari?

goods in Bengal?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Krishna Kumar Mitra
et
102. Who was the first to suggest the boycott of British
(a) Zeenat Mahal (b) Hazarat Mahal (c) Motilal Ghosh

(c) Lakshmi Bai (d) None of these (d) Satish Chandra Mukherji
94. Who had hoisted the national flag of India at the 103. The famous Lucknow Pact was signed between
International Socialist Congress held at Stuttgart? the Indian National Congress and the Muslim
(a) M.N. Roy League in
(b) V.D. Savarkar (a) 1912 (b) 1914
(c) S.C. Bose (c) 1916 (d) 1918
(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama 104. Annie Besant is mostly associated with
95. Who among the following is remembered for the (a) Civil Disobedience Movement
annulment of the Partition of Bengal? (b) Home Rule Movement
(a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Hardings (c) Khilafat Movement
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Curzon (d) Non-cooperation Movement

History || A-137
105. Queen Victoria’s proclamation was read out by 114. Who brought about a compromise between
Lord Canning on 1st November 1858 at Muslim League and Congress in 1916?
(a) Allahabad (b) Calcutta (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bombay (d) Madras (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
106. In which one of the following languages was the (c) Annie Besant
first issue of journal Ghadar published? (d) Surendranath Banerjee
(a) Urdu (b) Hindi 115. Who among the following was not associated
(c) English (d) Marathi with the Home Rule Movement?
107. Shyamji Krishna Verma established Indian Home (a) C.R. Das
ww

rule society in
(a) London
(c) Berlin
(b) Paris
(d) San Francisco

(b) S. Subramaniyam Iyer
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

w.E
108. During which of the following movements, Vande
Mataram became the theme song of the Indian
National Movement?
(a) Champaran Sataygrah
116. The real name of which one of the following

leaders of 1857 was Ram Chandra Pandurang?
(a) Kunwar Singh (b) Tantiya Tope
(c) Nana Saheb (d) Mangal Panday

(b) Swadeshi Movement
asy
(c) Anti-Rowlatt Act Agitation
117. The President of the Surat Session of Indian

National Congress (1907) was
(d) Non-cooperation Movement
En
109. The system of indirect election was introduced in
India in the year

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(a) 1861
(c) 1909
(b) 1892
gin
(d) 1919
110. Who among the following led the agitation

(d) Ras Bihari Bose
118. Ganpati Festival in Maharashtra was started by

(a) C.R. Das
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
ee
against the partition of Bengal (1905)?

(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
rin
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
119. The conspiracy to divide Bengal was aimed at
(a) To weaken the National Freedom Movement
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
111. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi
Movement in Delhi?

g.n
(b) To break the Hindu-Muslim Unity
(c) To bring Hindu in minority in the new state

(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Ajeet Singh
(d) Syed Haider Raza

(d) All of the above
(a) Lala Hansraj

(b) Lala Hardayal
et
120. Who was the founder of Gadar Party?

(c) Shamji Krishna Verma

112. Who among the following had started ‘Mitra (d) Ajeet Singh
Mela’ Association? 121. Under whose suggestion was ‘Bhartiya Rashtriya
(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma Sangh’ changed to ‘Bhartiya Rashtriya Congress’
(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1885 AD?
(c) Lala Hardayal (a) Feroz Shah Mehta
(d) Sohan Singh Bakna (b) Kashinath Telang
113. Aurobindo Ghosh was defended in the Alipore (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Bomb case by (d) W.C. Banerjee
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal 122. Who had ridiculed congress as representing only
(b) Moti Lal Nehru a microscopic minority of the people?
(c) Bhula Bhai Desai (a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Curzon
(d) C.R. Das (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Dufferin

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 17. (a) 33. (d) 49. (a) 65. (d) 81. (a) 97. (c) 113. (d)
2. (a) 18. (a) 34. (b) 50. (c) 66. (d) 82. (d) 98. (c) 114. (a)
3. (c) 19. (b) 35. (b) 51. (d) 67. (b) 83. (b) 99. (c) 115. (a)
4. (b) 20. (b) 36. (d) 52. (b) 68. (c) 84. (c) 100. (a) 116. (b)
5. (a) 21. (a) 37. (a) 53. (d) 69. (d) 85. (b) 101. (b) 117. (d)
6. (c) 22. (c) 38. (a) 54. (a) 70. (b) 86. (d) 102. (b) 118. (a)
ww 7.
8.
(c)
(b)
23.
24.
(b)
(d)
39.
40.
(c)
(b)
55.
56.
(c)
(c)
71.
72.
(b)
(d)
87.
88.
(a)
(d)
103.
104.
(c)
(b)
119.
120.
(d)
(b)
w.E
10.
11.
9. (c)
(d)
(d)
25.
26.
27.
(c)
(a)
(a)
41.
42.
43.
(b)
(d)
(c)
57.
58.
59.
(b)
(d)
(d)
73.
74.
75.
(c)
(a)
(c)
89.
90.
91.
(d)
(c)
(a)
105.
106.
107.
(a)
(a)
(a)
121.
122.
(c)
(d)
12.
13.
(a)
(b)
28.
29.
(b)
(c)
44.
45.asy (a)
(d)
60.
61.
(a)
(b)
76.
77.
(c)
(c)
92.
93.
(c)
(a)
108.
109.
(b)
(b)
14.
15.
(d)
(d)
30.
31.
(d)
(c)
46.
47. En
(a)
(b)
62.
63.
(b)
(a)
78.
79.
(d)
(d)
94.
95.
(d)
(b)
110.
111.
(d)
(d)
16. (c) 32. (a) 48. (b)
gin64. (a) 80. (a) 96. (b) 112. (b)
ee
Hints & Solutions
rin
1. (a) Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The
title of viceroy was created in 1858 after the muting g.n
Surendra Nath Sen, with a foreword by Abdul Kalam
Azad. Published on May 1957 by the publication
2.
of 1857. The office was created in 1773.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji produced the statistical
estimate of average per capita income of India for
the first time. Drain Theory is attributed to Naoroji
5.
Government of India.
et
division, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting,
(a) The Revolt of 1857 began as a mutiny of sepoys

of the East India Company’s army on 10 May 1857,
because of his decision to estimate the net national in the town of Meerut. The Merrut 1857 uprising was
profit of India and the effect that colonization has on
described by Dr. Surendra Nath Sen “Like summer
the country.
gale revolt of Meerut was unprecedented and short-
3. (c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was the first Indian to
lived”. In 1956, the Indian government commissioned
have written in an Indian language on the causes of
him to write a history of the Indian popular uprising
the Revolt of 1857. In 1859, Sir Syed published the
booklet Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (The Causes of of 1857–59; the work, entitled Eighteen Fifty-seven,
the Indian Revolt) in which he studied the causes of was published in 1957.
the Indian revolt. 6. (c) Jyotiba Phule’s works Sarvajanik Satyadharma
4. (b) The book Eighteen Fifty Seven is the official and Gulamgiri became sources of inspiration for the
history of revolt of 1857. Eighteen Fifty Seven common masses. Phule aimed at complete abolition
was written by well known Indian historian Dr. of caste system and the socio-economic inequalities.

History || A-139
7. (c) Madam Cama is known as Mother of Indian widow remarriage and uplifting of women and
revolutionaries. Bhikaji Cama is also known as depressed classes. Justice M.G. Ranade and R.G.
Madam Cama and is considered as the mother of Bhandarkar joined it in 1870.
Indian revolution because of her contributions to 16. (c) Keshav Chandra Sen influenced Mahadev
Indian freedom struggle. Madam Cama holds an Govind Ranade to establish Prarthana Samaj.
important place in the annals of Indian freedom 17. (a) The first official history of Indian National
movement. Her name symbolised courage, integrity Congress was written by Pattabhi Sitarammaya.
and perseverance. 18. (a) The official historian of the movement of 1857
8. (b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah of Faizabad was an was S.N. Sen.
ww outstanding leader of the revolt. He was a native of

Madras and had moved to Faizabad in the north where
he fought a stiff battle against the British troops.
19. (b) R.C. Majumdar has written about the nature of
the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor
national nor a war of independence.”
w.E
9. (c) The Scientific Society was founded by Sir Syed
Ahmed Khan. He founded the Scientific Society of
Aligarh, the first scientific association of its kind in
20. (b) A Parsi social reformer Behramji M. Malabari,
founded the Seva Sadan in 1885. The organisation
specialised in taking care of those women who were
asy
India. Sir Syed assembled Muslim scholars from
different parts of the country. The Society held
annual conferences, disbursed funds for educational
21.
exploited and then discarded by society.
(a) Begum Hazarat Mahal took over the regiment
Lucknow where the rebellion broke out on June 4,
En
causes and regularly published a journal on scientific
subjects in English and Urdu.
1857 and popular sympathy was overwhelmingly in
favour of the deposed Nawab. Her son, Birjis Qadir,
10.
gin
(d) The early nationalists, led by Dadabhai Naoroji,
R.C. Dutt, Dinshaw Wacha and others, carefully,
analysed the political economy of British rule in
22.
was proclaimed the Nawab.
(c) Ghalib was in Delhi when the uprising of
1857 was at its peak. He observed the revolutionary
11.
British exploitation of India. ee
India, and put forward the “Drain Theory” to explain
(d) In Lord Ripon viceroyalty, the white muting

took place.
23.
changes taking place during his lifetime.
(b) Lord Canning was the Governor General of
rin
India during the Sepoy mutiny. Lord Canning had the
unique opportunity to become the Governor-General
12. (a) The Government of India Act 1858 was an
Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It
24.
1858.
g.n
as well as the first Viceroy according to the Act of
(d) Kunwar Singh, a ruined and discontented

brought about fundamental changes in the character
of Indian administration which was transferred from
the East India Company to the crown by the queen’s
proclamation of 1 Novemeber, 1858. 25.
in Bihar.
et
Zamindar of Jagdishpur near Awadh, was the chief
organiser of the revolt in Bihar. He fought the British
(c) At Kanpur, the revolt was led by Nana Saheb,

13. (b) The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta was the adopted son of Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa.
the first fruit of the powerful movement of women’s Nana Saheb expelled the English from Kanpur with
education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s. the help of the Sepoys and proclaimed himself the
14. (d) The Gaddar Party was an organisation founded Peshwa.
by Punjabi Indians in the United States and Canada. 26. (a) Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of
Lala Hardayal set up the ‘Gaddar Party in USA 1881 to improve the service condition of the factory
to organise revolutionary activities from outside workers in India. The Act banned the appointment
India. of children below the age of seven in factories. It
15. (d) The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 in reduced the working hours for children. It made
Bombay by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang. It was a reform compulsory for all dangerous machines in the
movement within Hinduism and concentrated on factories to be properly fenced to ensure security to
social reforms like inter-dining, inter-marriage, the workers.


27. (a) The Santhals under Siddhu and Kanhu rose 38. (a) Dayanand’s views were published in his famous
up against their oppressors, declared the end of the work, Satyarth Prakash. Dayanand’s vision of India
company’s rule and asserted themselves independent included a classless and casteless society.
in 1854. 39. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji organised the East India
28. (b) Babu Kunwar Singh who took part in great association in London to mobilize public opinion for
leader of Revolt of 1857 was Zamindar of Jagdishpur. Indian welfare.
Kunwar Singh, a ruined and discontented Zamindar 40. (b) London was the city where the East India
of Jagdishpur near Awadh, was the chief organiser of Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866.
the revolt in Bihar. He fought the British in Bihar. 41. (b) Thakkar Bappa was an Indian social worker
ww
29. (c) Swami Vivekananda, spread Ramakrishna’s
message and tried to reconcile it to the needs of
who worked for upliftment of tribal people in Gujarat
state in India. He became a member of the servants
of India Society founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale
w.Econtemporary Indian society. He founded Ramkrishna

Mission for humanitarian relief and social work.
30. (d) Dayanand Saraswati was called the ‘Martin
Luther of Hinduism’. Dayanand’s vision of India
in 1914.
42. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji was known as the ‘Grand
old Man of India’. He is regarded as India’s
asy
included a classless and casteless society, a united
India and an India free from foreign rule, with Aryan
unofficial Ambassador in England. He was the first
Indian to become a member of the British House of
Commons.
En
religion being the common religion of all.
31. (c) A group of westerners led by Madam H.P.
Blavatsky (1831–1891) and colonel M.S. Olcott, who
43. (c) Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India at
the time of the formation of the Indian National
gin
were inspired by Indian thought and culture founded
the Theosophical Society in the United States in
Congress.
44. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old
Man, was a Parsi intellectual, educator, cotton trader,
1875.
Durgesh Nandini. ee
32. (a) Vande Mataram the national song was a part of
33. (d) There was a four-point social agenda propagated

and an early Indian political and social leader.
45. (d) Surendra Nath Banerjee was not present in
rin
the founding session of Indian National Congress.
He founded the Indian National Association. After

by Prarthana Samaj.

1. Disapproval of caste system
2. Women’s education g.n
the founding of the Indian National Congress in
1885 in Bombay, Banerjee merged his organization
with it owing to their common objectives and

3. Widow remarriage
4. Raising the age of marriage for both males
and females
34. (b) Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan “Back to
memberships.
et
46. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji did the analysis of the colonial
economy and put forward the theory of economic
drain in his book ‘Poverty and unbritish Rule in
the Vedas”. He took inspiration from the Vedas and India’.
considered them to be “India’s Rock of Ages”, the 47. (b) Lord Ripon was a staunch liberal democrat
infallible and the true original seed of Hinduism. with faith in self-government. He repealed the
35. (b) Henry Vivan Derorio was the founder of the Vernacular Press Act and earned much popularity
Young Bengal Movement. His followers were known among Indians.
as the Derozians. They attacked old traditions and 48. (b) Lord Curzon is best known for partition of
decadent customs. Bengal in 1905. The partition of Bengal into two
36. (d) Disraelli admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a provinces was effected on 4 July 1905. The new
national revolt. province of Eastern Bengal and Assam included
37. (a) South India was silent when revolt of 1857 was the whole of Assam and the Dacca, Rajshahi and
spreading in India. Chittagong divisions of Bengal with headquarters

History || A-141
at Dacca. Though Curzon justified his action on Dacca proposed the setting up of an organisation
administrative lines, partition divided the Hindus and to look after the Muslim interests. The proposal
Muslims in Bengal. was accepted. The All-India Muslim League was
49. (a) King George V visited India during the finally set up on December 30, 1906. Like the Indian
viceroyship of Lord Hardinge. National Congress, they conducted annual sessions
50. (c) Lord Curzen said, “ My own belief is that and put their demands to the British government.
congress is tottering and one of my great ambitions 59. (d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh founded Anushilam
is to assist it to peaceful death.” Samiti at Dhaka.
51. (d) Lord Ripon is rightly called the “ Father of Local 60. (a) The Indian National Congress was founded and
ww Self-Government” in India. Ripon believed that self-

government is the highest and noblest principles of
politics. Therefore, Ripon helped the growth of local
its first session was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C.
Banerjee was its first president. It was attended by 72
delegates from all over India. Persons attending the
w.E
52.
bodies like the Municipal Committees in towns and
the local boards in Talukas and villages.
(b) Lord Hardinge was the Vicroy of India when
session belonged to different religious faiths. They
discussed the problems of all the Indians irrespective
of their religion, caste, language and regions.
53.
to Delhi.
asy
the British India’s capital was shifted from Calcutta
(d) With this reform, the number of elected members

61. (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak attacked the British
through his weeklies, the Mahratta and the Kesari.
He was jailed twice by the British for his nationalist
En
in the Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial
Legisla Time Councils was increased.
activities and in 1908 deported to Mandalay for six
years. He set up the Home Rule League in 1916 at
54.
gin
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak never became President
of Indian National Congress. Tilak joined the
Indian National Congress in 1890. He opposed its 62.
Poona and declared “Swaraj is my birth right and I
shall have it.”
(b) W. Wedderburn was the biographer of A.O.
ee
moderate attitude, especially towards the fight for
self-government. He was supported by fellow Indian
nationalists Bipin Chandra Pal in Bengal and Lala
Lajpat Rai in Punjab. They were referred to as the
63.
Hume.
(a) In the period of Lord Canning, Indian Penal
rin
Code, Civil Procedure Code and Criminal Code were
passed. The First Law Commission was established
55.
Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
(c) Indian National Congress was founded by Allan
Octavian Hume. Allan Octavian Hume, a retired civil
g.n
in 1834 by the British Government under the
Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. It suggested various
enactments to the British Government, most of which
servant in the British Government took the initiative
to form an all-India organization. Thus, the Indian
National Congress was founded and its first session
was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C. Banerjee was its
et
were passed and enacted and are still in force in India.
Few of the most important recommendations made
by this First Law Commission were those on, Indian
Penal Code (first submitted in 1837 but enacted in
first president. 1860 and still in force), Criminal Procedure Code
56. (c) Surendra Nath Banerjee was the founder of (enacted in 1898, repealed and succeeded by the
Indian Association of Calcutta. Criminal Procedure Code of 1973), etc.
57. (b) October 16, 1905, the day the partition formally 64. (a) D.K. Karve established the first women’s
came into force, was observed as a day of mourning university in India. After reading about the Japan
throughout Bengal. People fasted, bathed in the Women’s University, Karve was inspired to set up
Ganga and walked barefoot in processions singing the first women university in India in Pune in the
Bande Mataram which became the theme song of the year 1916. The University started with just five
movement. students. The University expanded rapidly when in
58. (d) Nawab Salimullah Khan was the founder of 1920 an industrialist and philanthropist, Sir Vithaldas
All India Muslim League. Nawab Salimullah of Thackersey, donated 1.5 million rupees.


65. (d) Sri Narayan Guru in Kerala led a lifelong 73. (c) In Dum Dum, for the first time, Mangal Pandey
struggle against upper caste domination. He coined learned from a Lashkar that cartridges to be used in
the slogan “One religion, one caste, one God for Enfield Rifle were greased from the fat of cow and
mankind”. pork.
66. (d) The provisional Government of India was 74. (a) Rash Bihari Ghosh had presided over Surat
a provisional government-in-exile established in Session of Indian National Congress 1907. The 23rd
session of the Congress was held at Surat. It was very
Kabul, Afghanistan on December 1, 1915 by Muslim
important from historical point of view. There was an
Indian nationalists during World War I with support
open clash between the moderates and the extremists
ww from the Central Powers. The provisional government

was composed of Mahendra Pratap as President and
Maulana Barkatullah as Prime Minister.
and ultimately it led to a split in the Congress.
75. (c) In 1882, the Government appointed a
commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter
w.E
67. (b) Devi Chaudharani patronised the historic
Sanyasi Movement of Bengal.
68. (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded Servants of
to review the progress of education in the country
since the Despatch of 1854. The Hunter Commission
mostly confined its recommendations to primary and
secondary education.
asy
India Society in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12,
who left the Deccan Education Society to form this
association. Along with him were a small group of
76. (c) The man who really blazed the trial of extremism
in India was Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who has been
En
educated Indians, as Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal
Krishna Deodhar and Anant Patwardhan who wanted
called the “Father of Indian Unrest” by Valentine
Chirol.
77. (c) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim president
overthrow the British rule in India.
gin
to promote social and human development and
69. (d) The system of separate electorates was

of Indian National Congress. He was an Indian
lawyer who served as the third president of the Indian
National Congress. He was considered among the
ee
introduced by the Act of 1909. Indian Council Act of
1909, popularly known as Morley-Minto reforms was
the first true attempt at introducing a representative
and popular element in India. The seats of the
moderate Muslims during the freedom movement
of India. He along with Pherozshah Mehta, K.T.
rin
Telang and others formed the Bombay Presidency
Association in 1885.
Councils were to be filled in by elections. The Act
provided for separate or special electorates for due
g.n
78. (d) The Viceroy, Lord Curzon is regarded as the
catalyst of Indian Nationalism.
79. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak characterised the policies
representation of the different communities, classes
and interests.
70. (b) In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
This Act empowered a magistrate to secure an
et
of moderate leaders as the political mendicancy.
Tilak joined the Indian National Congress in 1890.
He opposed its moderate attitude, especially towards
the fight for self-government. He was one of the
undertaking from the editor, publisher and printer
most-eminent radicals at the time.
of a vernacular newspaper that nothing would be
80. (a) In Haridwar, the Hindu Mahasabha was for
published against the English Government. the first time, organised in 1915. Hindu Mahasabha
71. (b) The Rahnumai Mardyasan Sabha was founded was founded in 1915 by Madan Mohan Malviya. It
in 1851 by a group of English educated Parsis for the worked with Arya Samaj and other Hindu communal
“regeneration of the social conditions of the Parsis organizations. It was directly linked with Rashtriya
and the restoration of the Zoroastrian religion to its Swam Sevak Sangh founded in 1925 at Nagpur by
pristine purity”. K.B. Hegewar. The first All India Hindu Mahasabha
72. (d) In 1856, Enfield Rifle was introduced in India. Conference was organized at Hardwar in 1915.
The 1857 revolt was sparked off by the episode of the The Sabha became more aggressive after 1929 and
greased cartridges. The new Enfield Rifle had been started propagating Hindu Rashtra which was totally
introduced for the first time in the Indian army. different from Gandhiji’s Ram Rajya.

History || A-143
81. (a) The first president of Muslim league was A.O. Hume. It has been suggested that the idea was
Nawab Vakar-ul-Mulk. Muslim League, a political originally conceived in a private meeting of seventeen
organization of India and Pakistan, founded in 1906 men after a Theosophical Convention held at Madras
as the All-India Muslim League by Aga Khan III. in December 1884. Hume took the initiative, and it
Its original purpose was to safeguard the political was in March 1885 that the first notice was issued
rights of Muslims in India. Nawab Mushtaq Husain convening the first Indian National Union to meet at
Vakar-ul-Mulk, also known as Mushtaq Hussain, Poona the following December.
was a Muslim politician and one of the founders of 88. (d) ‘Abhinav Bharat’ a secret society of revolutionaries
All India Muslim League. He is also known for his
ww involvement in the Aligarh Movement.

82. (d) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan: (1828–1893) a
prominent personality of mid-19th century Bengal,
was organised in 1904 by V.D. Savarkar. Abhinav
Bharat Society (Young India Society) was a secret
society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in
w.Ethe pioneer of Muslim modernization and the

architect of the Muslim Renaissance, was one of
those great men who appeared as saviours of their 89.
1904. Initially founded at Nasik while still a student
of Fergusson College at Pune, the society developed
from an organisation called Mitra Mela.
(d) W. C. Banerjee in his presidential address
asy
frustrated, humiliated, demoralized and disorganised
fellow countrymen under colonial rule. His chief
contribution was in the field of education. He was
outlined the following objectives: promotion of
friendship among all those working for the cause
En
among the first to understand that young Bengali
Muslims should receive modern education. He
of the country; development and consolidation of
the feeling of national unity irrespective of race
or creed; formulation and presentation of the
gin
understood that the Muslims of Bengal had fallen
behind in everything because of their prejudices
people’s grievances before the government and the
mobilisation of public opinion.
minds. ee
against modern education. He devoted his whole life
to removing this self-destructive prejudice from their
83. (b) Ambika Charan Majumdar was the President

of Lucknow Session of Indian National Congress
90. (c) The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act was
passed during the tenure of Lord Curzon on 18, March
rin
1904. It is expedient to provide for the preservation
of ancient monuments, for the exercise of control
(1916).
84. (c) The policy of Masterly Inactivity was associated g.n
over traffic in antiquities and over excavation in
certain places, and for the protection and acquisition
in certain cases of ancient monuments and of objects
with John Lawrance.
85. (b) Elijah Impey was the first chief justice of
Supreme Court of Calcutta.
86. (d) The resolution of Swadeshi was adopted in the
91.
et
of archaeological, historical or artistic interest. Act
preserves and restores ancient Indian monuments by
Archaeological Survey of India.
(a) In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the
Calcutta Session, 1906 of Indian National Congress.
famous ‘Drain Theory’. In 1896, in its annual session
The Swadeshi Movement involved programmes like
held at Calcutta, the Indian National Congress
the boycott of government service, courts, schools
adopted the Drain Theory by proclaiming that the
and colleges and of foreign goods, promotion of
famines in the country and poverty of the people
Swadeshi goods, promotion of national education
through the establishment of national schools had been brought on by the drain of wealth from the
and colleges. It was both a political and economic country.
movement. 92. (c) Swami Vivekanand said, “ India has to unite and
87. (a) The first secretary of Indian National Congress conquer the whole world once again with its might.”
was Allan Octavian Hume. The Congress was 93. (a) Zeenat Mahal the freedom fighter of first war
founded by Indian and British members of the of independence of 1857 was conferred the title of
Theosophical Society movement, most notably ‘Mahak Pari.’


94. (d) On 22 August 1907, Cama attended the the August 7 meeting, the famous Boycott resolution
International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, was passed. Boycott was first suggested by Krishan
Germany, where she described the devastating effects Kumar Mitra in Sanjivani in 1905.
of a famine that had struck the Indian subcontinent. 103. (c) During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow,
In her appeal for human rights, equality and for two major events occurred. The divided Congress
autonomy from Great Britain, she unfurled what she became united. An understanding for joint action
called the “Flag of Indian Independence”. against the British was reached between the Congress
95. (b) Lord Harding is remembered for the annulment and the Muslim League and it was called the
of the partition of Bengal. Lord Harding, who Lucknow Pact. The signing of the Lucknow Pact by
ww succeeded Lord Minto, finally announced the

annulment of the partition of Bengal in December
1911. Formal reunification of the Bengal was effected 104.
the Congress and the Muslim League in 1916 marked
an important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
(b) Annie Besant the Irish theosophist based in
w.E on April 1912 and Lord Carmichael was appointed

as the first Governor of the reunited Bengal.
96. (b) It was at the beginning of the twentieth
India since 1896, had decided to enlarge the sphere of
her activities to include the building of a movement
for Home Rule on the lines of the Irish Home Rule
asy
century that the 1857 revolt came to be interpreted
as a “planned war of national independence”, by
V.D. Savarkar in his book, First War of Indian
105.
Leagues.
(a) Queen Victoria’s proclamation was read out by
Lord Canning on 1st November 1858 at Allahabad.
Independence.
En
97. (c) Maulvi Liaquat Ali was a Muslim religious
106. (a) The first issue of Journal Ghadar was published
in Urdu language.
gin
leader from Allahabad. He was one of the leaders in
the revolt of 1857 against the British, what is now
107. (a) Shyamji Krishna Verma established Indian
Home rule society in London. The Indian Home Rule
Society (IHRS) was an Indian organisation founded
ee
known as the Indian Mutiny, or the Sepoy Mutiny.
98. (c) In 1896 in the Calcutta Session of the Indian
National Congress, Vande Mataram was first sung.
99. (c) In 1911, when King George V was crowned in
England, a Durbar was held in Delhi to celebrate
in London in 1905 that sought to promote the cause
of self-rule in British India. The organisation was
rin
founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma, with support
from a number of prominent Indian nationalists in
the occasion. The decision to shift the capital of

India from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at this 108.
Naoroji and S.R. Rana.
g.n
Britain at the time, including Bhikaji Cama, Dadabhai
(b) During Swadeshi Movement Vande Mataram

Durbar.
100. (a) The extrimists wanted a strong resolution
supporting their programme at the Benaras session.
The moderates, on the other hand were not in favour
et
became the theme song of the Indian National
Movement. “Vande Mataram” was the national
cry for freedom during the Indian independence
movement. Large rallies, fermenting initially in
of extending the movement beyond Bengal and were Bengal, in the major metropolis of Calcutta, would
totally opposed to boycott of councils and similar work themselves up into a patriotic fervour by
associations. shouting the slogan “Vande Mataram”, or “Hail to
101. (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale compared Curzon’s the Mother(land)!”
administratin in India to that of Aurangzeb. 109. (b) The system of indirect election was introduced
102. (b) Krishna Kumar Mitra was the first to suggest in India in the year 1892. The Indian Councils Act
the boycott of British goods in Bengal. The Swadeshi 1892 was an Act of the Parliament of the United
Movement had its genesis in the antipartition Kingdom that authorized an increase in the size of
movement which was started to oppose the British the various legislative councils in British India.
decision to partition Bengal. The formal proclamation 110. (d) Surendranath was one of the most important
of the Swadeshi movement was made on August 7, public leaders who protested the partition of the
1905 at a meeting held at the Calcutta Town hall. At Bengal province in 1905.

History || A-145
111. (d) Syed Haider Raza had led the Swadeshi Movement 115. (a) The Indian Home Rule leagues were organised
in Delhi. on the lines of the Irish Home Rule leagues and
112. (b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar had founded the they represented the emergence of a new trend of
society called Mitra Mela (Friends’ Group) which aggressive politics. Annie Basant and Tilak proved
later became Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society)
to be the pioneers of this new trend.
on the model of the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe
116. (b) The real name of Tantiya Tope the leader of
Mazzini’s ‘Young Italy’.
113. (d) When Bengal was partitioned, it sparked an 1857 was Ram Chandra Pandurang Tope. He was
outburst of public anger against the British. The an Indian Maratha leader in the Indian Rebellion of
ww anger led to civil unrest and a nationalist campaign

was carried out by groups of revolutionaries, led by
Aurobindo Ghosh, Rasbihari Bose and Bagha Jatin
1857 and one of its more renowned generals. He was
a personal adherent of Nana Saheb of Bithur.
117. (d) The President of the Surat session of Indian
w.E and organized into groups like Yugantar. The British

cracked down hard on the activists and the conflict
came to a head on April 30, 1908 when Khudiram
National Congress (1907) was Ras Bihari Ghose.
118. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak used religious or Hiodoxy
as a method of mass contact through his alignment
asy
Bose and Prafulla Chaki attempted to kill Magistrate
Kingsford. Aurobindo Ghosh was also arrested on
charges of planning and overseeing the attack and
against reformers on the age of Consent Bill in 1891
followed by the organisation of the Ganapati festival
En
imprisoned in solitary confinement in Alipore Jail.
The trial continued for a year (1908–1909), and
from 1894 and the development of a patriotic-cum-
historical culture as a central symbol of nationalism,
gin
Bose was found guilty and later hanged. Aurobindo
Ghosh, however, was defended by the young lawyer
Chittaranjan Das, who concluded his defence.
through the Shivaji festivals form 1896 onwards.
119. (d) All the above given aspects were aimed at the
conspiracy to divide Bengal.
ee
114. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak brought about a compromise
between Muslim league and Congress in 1916. Two
Home Rule Leagues were established, one by B.G.
Tilak at Poona in April 1916 and the other by Mrs.
120. (b) Lala Hardayal was the founder of Gaddar Party.
rin
121. (c) Bhartiya Rashtriya Sangh, was changed to
‘Bhartiya Rashtriya Congress’ in 1885 under the
Annie Besant at Madras in September 1916. The two
leagues cooperated with each other as well with the
Congress and the Muslim League in putting their
g.n
suggestion of Dadabhai Naoroji.
122. (d) Lord Dufferin had ridiculed congress as
representing only a microscopic minority of the
demand for home rule. people.
et

A-146 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
10 Indian Freedom
Struggle-II (1917–1947)
ww
1. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji 7. Where did Subhash Chandra Bose set up the

w.E
launched his first successful Satyagraha in
(a) Champaran
(c) Bardoli
(b) Chauri Chaura
(d) Dandi
‘Azad Hind Fauz’ and Azad Hind Government?
(a) Burma
(c) Malaya
(b) Japan
(d) Singapore
was asy
2. The only session of the Indian National Congress
which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi 8. Direct Action Day was observed by Muslim

League on
(a) 15th August 1946 (b) 16th August 1946
(a) Amravati
(c) Karachi
En
(b) Belgaum
(d) Nagpur
3. The first mass movement started by Mahatma
(c) 17th August 1946 (d) 18th August 1946
9. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when the Cabinet

Gandhi was
(a) Non-cooperation Movement gin Mission arrived in India?
(a) Urulikanchan (b) Poona

(b) Salt Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Indigo Movement ee
4. In which of the following sessions of the Indian
(c) Hyderabad (d) Bardoli
10. The title of the autobiography of Subhas Chandra

Bose is
rin
(a) Autobiography of an unknown Indian

National Congress, did Mohan Das Karamchand
Gandhi participate for the first time?
(a) Calcutta Session 1901

g.n
(b) Autobiography of a Revolutionary
(c) Autobiography of an Indian Pilgrim

(b) Banaras Session 1905
(c) Surat Session 1907
(d) Lucknow Session 1916
5. In which of the following movements, did

et
(d) Autobiography of an Indian Soldier
11. Who was the architect of Communal Award?
(a) Lord Linlithgow (b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Ramsay Macdonald
Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger 12. Where was the ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ formed during the
strike as a weapon? Quit India Movement?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement (a) Ballia (b) Nagpur
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha (c) Satara (d) Tamluk
(c) Ahmedabad Strike
13. Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi
(d) Bardoli Satyagraha
of the individual Satyagraha. Who was the
6. Who among the following ladies was the first
President of Indian National Congress? second?
(a) Aruna Asaf Ali (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Annie Besant (b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Sarojini Naidu (c) C. Rajgopalachari
(d) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

History || A-147
14. Which one of the following had supported the 21. Who of the following had called Subhash
Non-cooperation Resolution of Mahatama Chandra Bose as ‘Desh Nayak’?
Gandhi in the special session of the Indian (a) Mahatma Gandhi
National Congress at Calcutta in 1920? (b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(a) C.R. Das (c) Ravindranath Tagore
(b) B.C. Pal (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya 22. The national leader who was elected President
(d) Moti Lal Nehru (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in
ww
15. In which of the following sessions of Indian
National Congress, Mahatma Gandhi had said,
“Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain

1925 was
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) C.R. Das
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Vitthalbhai Patel

w.Eforever”?
(a) Calcutta Session 1928
(b) Lahore Session 1929
23. A Provisional Government of India with Raja
Mahendra Pratap as its president was established
during the First World War in

(d) Ramgarh Session 1940
asy
(c) Karachi Session 1931
16. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican

(a) Afghanistan
(c) Singapore
(b) Germany
(d) Turkey
24. Who out of the following had told “ Destruction
Association founded in 1928?
(a) Kanpur En
(b) Delhi
is the best method of dealing with the foreign
clothes”?
(c) Allahabad
gin
(d) Lahore
17. Who addressed Gandhiji as the “Father of the
Nation” for the first time?

(a) Ravindranath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
ee

(c) Chittaranjan Das
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
rin
25. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was
made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
18. Jiatrang Movement started in
(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura

Depot?
(a) In Yervada Jail g.n
(c) Manipur (d) Mijoram
19. Who of the following presided over the session
of Indian National Congress when resolution of
Poorna Swaraj was passed?

(b) In Sabarmati Jail
et
(c) In Agha Khan Palace Poona
(d) In Ahmadanagar Fort Jail
26. Which one of the following had seconded the
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji ‘Quit India Resolution’ of 1942?
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) A. K. Azad
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Surendranath Banerjee (c) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel
20. Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with which one of (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
the following movements as a woman organiser 27. Who is the author of the book entitled ‘A Nation
of underground activity? in the Making’?
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Non-cooperation Movement (b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) Quit India Movement (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Swadeshi Movement (d) Subhas Chandra Bose


28. Who was the leader of the ‘Red Shirt Party’? 35. Who among the following female revolutionary
(a) Mahatma Gandhi fired at the English Governor (Chancellor) while
(b) Maulana Azad receiving her degree at the convocation?
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) Shanti Ghosh (b) Suniti Chaudhary
(d) Abdul Gaffar Khan (c) Bina Das (d) Kalpana Dutta
29. Who was the founder of the Swaraj Party? 36. 1929 Lahore Session of the Indian National
(a) Mahatama Gandhi Congress was presided over by
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) Moti Lal Nehru
ww

30.
(c) Chittaranjan Das
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Who among the following was the one to have

(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) C.R. Das
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel

w.E escaped being hanged in the Kakori conspiracy
case?
(a) Ashfaqullah Khan
(b) Rajendra Lahiri
37. In which of the following sessions of the Indian
National Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose had
defeated Pattabhi Sitaramayya in the election of
the Congress President?

(c) Ram Prasad Bismil
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad asy

(a) Haripura Session 1938
(b) Tripura Session 1939
31.
En
Who among the following attended all the three
Round Table Conferences?

(c) Madras Session 1927
(d) Lahore Session 1929
38. The freedom fighter who died in jail due to

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel gin
hunger strike was
(a) Ram Prasad Bismil

32.
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
ee
Who among the following leaders escaped from
the prison and organised underground activities
during the Quit India Movement?

(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Jatin Das
(d) C.R. Das
rin
39. Who of the following was not amongst the

(a) J.B. Kriplani
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Achyut Patwardhan (a) Bhulabhai Desai
g.n
lawyers to fight the case of Indian National Army
in 1946 in the Delhi Red Fort trial?

33.
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
The Statement, “ I am a socialist and a republican
and do not believe in Kings and Princes”, is
associated with

et
(b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Dr. Kailash Nath Katju
40. Name the first recorded Muslim revolutionary
(a) Narendra Dev who was hanged for India’s independence?
(b) Achyut Patwardhan (a) Mohammad Ali
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Shaukat Ali
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru (c) Ashfaque-ullah-Khan
34. Who among the following had moved the Non- (d) Azizuddin
cooperation resolution in the Nagpur session of 41. Which one of the following revolutionaries is not
the Indian National Congress in 1920? associated with Kakori Conspiracy Case?
(a) C.R. Das (a) Ram Prasad Bismil
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Ashfaque-ullah-Khan
(c) Moti Lal Nehru (c) Roshan Singh
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Bhagat Singh

History || A-149
42. The province where Indian National Congress 49. Which portfolio was held by Rajendra Prasad in
did not form Ministry after the general election the interim government formed in 1946?
of 1937 was (a) External Affairs
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar (b) Defence
(c) Madras (d) Bengal (c) Food and Agriculture
43. In which of the following jails, the book (d) None of these
“Discovery of India” was written by Jawahar Lal 50. Who among the following presided over the
Nehru? Karachi session of the Indian National Congress?
ww

(a) Ahmadnagar Fort Jail
(b) Alipur Central Jail
(c) Yervada Jail

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) J.M. Sengupta

w.E(d) Deoli Camp Jail
44. The person who on April 4, 1919 delivered a
speech on Hindu-Muslim Unity from the pulpit
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
51. Who amongst the following made regular
broadcast on Congress radio operated during

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mohammad Ali
asy
of Jama Masjid in Delhi was

Quit India Movement?
(a) Jay Prakash Narayan
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose

En
(c) Mahamana Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) Swami Shradhanand

(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Sucheta Kriplani
gin
45. The person who returned his token of honour to
Government of India on May 30, 1919 was
52. Who said, ‘Imperialism is dead as dodo’ ?

(a) Ramje Macdonald (b) Winston Churchill
(c) Clement Attlee (d) Lord Wavell

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) Ravindranath Tagore
(d) Jamna Lal Bajaj
ee 53. Kakori conspiracy case took place in the year
(a) 1920
(c) 1930
rin (b) 1925
(d) 1935
46. The title given by the British Government to
Mahatma Gandhi and which was surrendered
g.n
54. Which one of the following was directly related
to the Poona Pact of 1932?
(a) Indian women

during the Non-cooperation Movement was
(a) Hind Kesari
(c) Rai Bahadur
(b) Kaiser-e-Hind
(d) Rt. Honourable
47. Which of the following came to India after the

(b) Indian labour class
(c) Indian farmers et
(d) Indian depressed class
55. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded ‘Forward
Second World War in 1946? Block’ in the year
(a) Cripps Mission (a) 1936 AD (b) 1937 AD
(b) Cabinet Mission (c) 1938 AD (d) 1939 AD
(c) Wavell Plan 56. Tinkathia system in Champaran meant
(d) Simon Commission (a) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/20 area of
48. Which of the following parties did not support land.
Quit India Movement? (b) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/19 area of
(a) The Hindu Mahasabha land.
(b) The Communist Party of India (c) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/18 area of
(c) The Unionist Party of Punjab land.
(d) All the above (d) None of these


57. Lahore Session of Muslim League (1940) was 64. The statement, “On bended knees I asked for
presided over by bread and received stone instead”, is associated
(a) Liaqat Ali Khan with
(b) Chaudhary Khaliquzzaman (a) Khilafat Movement
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (b) Non-cooperation Movement
(d) Fatima Jinnah (c) Dandi March
58. Which one of the following had led the defense (d) Quit India Movement
pleaders in the famous Indian National Army 65. Which one of the following had drafted the Quit
trial in the Red Fort of Delhi
ww

(b) Asaf Ali
(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Saprau

India Resolution
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

w.E(d) Bhulabhai Desai
59. Who was the Chairman of the National Planning
Committee set up by the Indian National

(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Acharya Narendra Deo
66. The party which observed the ‘Black Day’ on 3
July, 1947 against partition of India was

Congress in 1938?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru asy
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Forward Bloc

(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose En

(c) Hindu Mahasabha
(d) Communist Party of India
gin
60. Who among the following was the Railway
Minister during the Interim Government (1946)?
67. In which of the following session of Muslim

League “Two-Nation Theory” was propounded?
(a) Lahore Session, 1940

(a) Baldev Singh
(c) Asaf Ali
ee
(b) T.T. Chundrigar
(d) Abdul Rab Nistar
61. Which one of the following had drafted the
fundamental rights resolution at the Karachi
Session, 1931?

(b) Bombay Session, 1915
(c) Delhi Session, 1918
rin
(d) Calcutta Session, 1917
68. Who among the following had read the English

(b) Acharya Narendra Deo

g.n
version of Presidential address in Tripura session
of Indian National Congress, 1939?
(a) Acharya Narendra Deo

(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
62. Which operation was started by the British
Government to arrest the leaders of Quit India

(b) Sarat Chandra Bose
(c) Subhash Chandra Boseet
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
69. Which one of the following leaders was not a part
Movement?
of Non-cooperation Movement?
(a) Operation Reander Paste
(b) Operation Zero Hour (a) M.A. Ansari
(c) Operation Thunderbolt (b) M.A. Jinnah
(d) Operation Blue Star (c) Abul Kalam Azad
63. Which one of the following Bengali writers (d) Hakim Ajamal Khan
was the first to suggest the adoption of Hindi as 70. Who hailed Gandhi’s call for ‘Quit India’ as an
India’s national language ? ‘Epic Movement’?
(a) Dinbandhu Mitra (a) Ram Manohar Lohia
(b) Madhusudan Datta (b) Jai Prakash Narayan
(c) Kali Prasanna Sinha (c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bhudeva Mukherjee (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

History || A-151
71. Who was the President of the Flag Committee? 79. Which one of the following was elected as the
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J.B. Kripalani President of Indian National Congress after the
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) D.P. Khetan resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose?
72. Which one of the following books is associated (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
with rise of National Movement in India? (b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(a) Gitanjali (c) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Anand Math (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Satyagrah Prakash
80. Who was the founder president of ‘Harijan Sevak
(d) Gita Rahasya
ww
73. Who was the man to propose a separate state for

the Muslims of India for the first time?
(a) Rahmat Ali

Sangh’?
(a) Mahadev Desai
(b) Ghanshyam Das Birla

w.E(b) Fazlul Haque
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Mohammad Iqbal

(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Amritlal Thakkar
81. Who among the following was not member of
asy
74. Which movement inspired Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel to become a follower of Gandhiji?
(a) Kheda (b) Champaran

Moti Lal Nehru Committee?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) G.R. Pradhan
(c) Salt
En
(d) Khadi
75. On which of the following fleet, the naval revolt

(c) Sir Ali Imam
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh

of 1946 was started?
(a) I.N.S. Virat
(b) I.N.S. Crown gin 82. Who said “Cripps proposals were a post-dated

cheque of a crashing bank”?

(c) I.N.S. Talwar
(d) None of these
ee
76. On 23 January 1948, who said about Subhas
Chandra Bose, “ We should emulate him. Subhash

(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) M.A. Jinnah

rin
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
was a great patriot. He laid down his life for the

country. He has no use for parochialism or caste
distinction. He treated all alike”? g.n
83. Who among the following was not a member of
the Cabinet Mission Plan?
(a) Lord Pathic Lawrence

(b) Jay Prakash Narayan
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Bhulabhai Desai

(b) A.V. Alexander
(d) Lord Emery

et
(c) Sir Stafford Cripps
84. Who was the Commander-in-Chief of INA before

77. An article ‘Why I am an Atheist’ was written by Subhash Chandra Bose?
(a) Bhagat Singh (a) Gyani Pritam Singh
(b) B.K. Dutt (b) Captain Mohan Singh
(c) Bhagavati Charan Vohra (c) Major Fuzihara
(d) Yashpal
(d) Captin Suraj Mal
78. Who was the President of Congress when
85. The Constituent Assembly of India started
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India
functioning from
Movement in 1942?
(a) 9th December 1946
(b) 1st January 1947
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) 26th January 1947
(c) Acharya Kripalani
(d) Rajendra Prasad (d) 15th August 1947


86. Name the foreign journalist who reported 93. “There is going to be a revolution here (in India)
Satyagrah at Dharsana salt work was and we must get out quick.” Who said it?
(a) Mark Tully (b) Web Miller (a) Sir Stafford Cripps
(c) Philip Sprat (d) Francis Louis (b) Lord Pethwick Lawrence
87. Who among the following said about Mahatma (c) Lord Wavell
Gandhi, “Generations to come, it may be, will (d) A.V. Alexander
scarce believe that such one as this, ever in flesh 94. Baba Ramchandra organised peasants in
and blood, walked upon this earth”? (a) Andhra (b) Bengal
ww

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Bihar (d) Awadh
95. Who of the following gave the slogan “Do or
Die” during Quit India Movement?

w.E(d) Albert Einstein
88. Who among the following hailed Subhash
Chandra Bose as “the flaming sword of Indian

(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lokmanya Tilak

Patriotism”?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru asy
(b) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel
96. Who of the following established Rani Jhansi
Regiment?

(c) Govind Vallabh Pant
(d) Sarojini Naidu En

(a) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
gin
89. The first session of All India Trade Union
Congress held in Bombay was presided over by

(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
97. The provision for the establishment of All India

(a) S.A. Dange
(b) N.M. Joshi
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
ee

Federation was included in the
(a) Government of India Act 1919
rin
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) August offer 1940
90. In which session, did the Muslim League give the
slogan ‘Divide and Quit’?

g.n
(d) Cabinet Mission Proposal 1946
98. When Gandhiji was arrested in Salt Satyagrah
who took his place as leader of the movement?

(a) Lucknow 1931 (b) Karachi 1933
(c) Lahore 1940 (d) Karachi 1943
91. Who authored the famous book ‘The Indian
Struggle’?

(a) Abbas Tyabji
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
et
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
99. Gandhiji’s Champaran Movement was for
(a) The security of the rights of Harijans
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Civil disobedience Movement
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Maintaining of Unity of Hindu Society
92. Who declared “ Every blow that is hurled on my
(d) Solving the problems of Indigo worker
back will be a nail in the coffin of the British 100. Which one of the following parties was in power
empire”? in UK when India got Independence?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (a) Conservative Party
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Labour Party
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal (c) Liberal Party
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Socialist Party

History || A-153
101. The Muslim League demanded separate Pakistan 109. Who among the following took the burning of the
for the first time in the year foreign clothes as the ‘insensate waste’ during
(a) 1939 (b) 1940 the Non-cooperation Movement?
(c) 1941 (d) 1942 (a) C.R. Das
102. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet ‘Lok- (b) Moti Lal Nehru
Manya’ during (c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(a) Swadeshi Movement (d) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(b) Revolutionary Movement 110. Which one of the following is not true about the
(c) Home Rule Movement
ww
(d) Quit India Movement
103. When did Gandhiji give the slogan of ‘Swaraj in
one year’?

First Round Table Conference?
(a) It was held in 1930
(b) It was to discuss the Report of the Simon

w.E (a) During Non-cooperation Movement
(b) During Round Table Conference
(c) During Dandi March

Commission
(c) It was held in London
(d) It was attended by the Congress delegation

asy
(d) During Civil Disobedience Movement
104. Who amongst the following advised that the
Indian National Congress should be disbanded
111. The book “Mountbatten and the Partition of

India” was written by
(a) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
(a) C. Rajagopalachari En
as a political party after the independence of India?

(b) M.N. Das
(c) Louis Fischer

(b) Jai Prakash Narayana
(c) Acharya Kripalani gin (d) None of these
112. Two independent states of India and Pakistan
were created by
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
ee
105. In which one of the following sessions of the
Indian National Congress, ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was
declared the goal of Congress?

(a) The Shimala Conference
(b) The Crips Proposal
rin
(c) The Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) The Indian Independence Act
(a) Lahore 1929 (b) Karachi
(c) Delhi (d) Bombay
106. Where was Mahatama Gandhi when Chauri- farmers? g.n
113. Where did Baba Ramchandra organise the

Chaura episode took place?
(a) At Delhi
(c) At Calcutta
(b) At Chauri-Chaura
(d) At Bardoli
107. Who among the following had denounced the
(a) Awadh
(c) Bengal
et
(b) Bihar
(d) Andra
114. Who of the following founded Ahmedabad
Textile Labour Association?
participation of Mahatma Gandhi in the Khilafat (a) Mahatma Gandhi
Movement? (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Abul Kalam Azad (c) N.M. Joshi
(b) Muhammad Ali (d) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Shaukat Ali 115. The leader of Bardoli Satyagrah was
(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vitthalbhai Patel
108. Who of the following called Gandhiji Mahatma (c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Mahadev Desai
for the first time? 116. Where was the first All Indian Kisan Sabha
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru formed?
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(a) Patna (b) Lucknow
(c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Calcutta (d) Madras


117. Who presided over the first session of All India 125. The Sarabandi (no tax) Campaign of 1922 was
Kisan Sabha? led by
(a) Swami Sahajanand (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Swami Shradhanand (b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Indulal Yajnik (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) N.N. Ranga (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
118. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was 126. Who of the following was associated with the
founded in 1920 by August offer?
(a) V.V. Giri (b) S.A. Dange
ww
(c) P.C. Joshi (d) N.M. Joshi
119. Who was the general secretary of the All Indian
Trade Union Congress?

(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Linlithgow (d) Lord Mountbatten
127. Which one of the following was the first Indian

w.E (a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) S.A. Dange

effort to draft constitutional scheme?
(a) Simon report
(c) Irwin report
(b) Nehru report
(d) None of these
128. Due to leadership and success in which one of the
(d) Diwan Chaman Lal
asy
120. Who among the following was not associated
with the formation of UP Kisan Sabha in
following, did Vallabhbhai Patel get the title of
Sardar?

February 1918?
(a) Indra Narayan Dwivedi En

(a) Kheda Satyagrah
(b) Non-cooperation Movement
(c) Bardoli Satyagrah

(b) Gauri Shankar Mishra
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
gin (d) Civil Disobedience Movement
129. Who among the following was nominated by

(a) Aurobindo Ghose
(b) Chittranjan Das
ee
121. Who of the following was known as Deshbandhu?

Mahatma Gandhi for the presidentship of the
Congress in 1939 against Subhash Chandra
Bose?
rin
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
122. Who of the following was a founder of Naujawan

g.n
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Bharat Sabha in 1926?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Lala Hardayal
et
130. While delivering the presidential address,
the Congress President who advocated the
introduction of Roman script for Hindi language
was
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna
123. The editor of Young India and Harijan was (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose 131. Which one of the following commissions was
124. Which of the following movements came to appointed by British Government to investigation
abrupt end because of Chauri Chaura incident? into the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement (a) Hunter Commission
(b) Home Rule Movement (b) Simon Commission
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Welby Commission
(d) Quit India Movement (d) Butler Committee

History || A-155
132. Who among the following was regarded by (c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Mahatma Gandhi as his Political Guru? (d) Abul Kalam Azad
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji 138. Who was called the Iron man of India?
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
133. Who played an important role in signing of (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Gandhi-Irwin Pact? 139. The main reason for the boycott of Simon
(a) Moti Lal Nahru Commission in India was
ww

(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(c) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(d) Chintamani

(a) Appointment before time
(b) All the members were Englishmen
(c) Chairman was a member of British Liberal
w.E
134. During whose tenure as the Viceroy of India,
were the great martyrs Bhagat Singh, Rajguru
and Sukhdev hanged?

Party
(d) None of these
140. Who was the President of Constituent Assembly?

(a) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Minto asy
(b) Lord Irwin
(d) Lord Cheimsford
135. The massacre of the crowd at Jallianwala Bagh at


Amritsar took place on
(a) 1st June 1918 En
(b) 13th March 1919

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
141. Which one of the following Indian freedom

gin
(c) 12th April 1919 (d) 13th April 1919
136. Which of the following Acts was described by
fighters coined the slogan ‘Jai Hind’?

(b) Government of India Act 1909
(c) Government of India Act 1919
ee
Jawahar Lal Nehru as ‘New Charter of Slavery’?

rin
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
142. Who was invited by Lord Wavell to form the
(d) Government of India Act 1935
137. Who was known as the Frontier Gandhi (Simanta
Gandhi)?

g.n
Interim Government in India in 1946?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(a) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(b) Mahatma Gandhi

et
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 19. (b) 37. (b) 55. (d) 73. (d) 91. (d) 109. (c) 127. (b)
2. (b) 20. (c) 38. (c) 56. (a) 74. (a) 92. (a) 110. (d) 128. (c)
3. (a) 21. (c) 39. (c) 57. (c) 75. (c) 93. (a) 111. (a) 129. (a)
4. (a) 22. (d) 40. (c) 58. (d) 76. (c) 94. (d) 112. (d) 130. (c)
5. (c) 23. (a) 41. (d) 59. (d) 77. (a) 95. (b) 113. (a) 131. (a)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(b)
(d)
(b)
24.
25.
26.
(b)
(a)
(d)
42.
43.
44.
(d)
(a)
(d)
60.
61.
62.
(c)
(a)
(b)
78.
79.
80.
(b)
(a)
(b)
96.
97.
98.
(c)
(b)
(a)
114.
115.
116.
(a)
(c)
(b)
132.
133.
134.
(d)
(c)
(b)
w.E
10.
9. (a)
(c)
27.
28.
(b)
(d)
45.
46.
(c)
(b)
63.
64.
(d)
(c)
81.
82.
(d)
(c)
99.
100.
(d)
(b)
117.
118.
(a)
(d)
135.
136.
(d)
(d)
11.
12.
(d)
(d)
29.
30.
(c)
(d)
47.
48.asy (b)
(d)
65.
66
(b)
(c)
83.
84.
(c)
(b)
101.
102.
(b)
(c)
119.
120.
(d)
(d)
137.
138.
(a)
(a)
13.
14.
(b)
(d)
31.
32.
(b)
(d)
49.
50. En
(c)
(d)
67.
68.
(a)
(b)
85.
86.
(a)
(b)
103.
104.
(a)
(d)
121.
122.
(b)
(b)
139.
140.
(b)
(c)
15.
16.
(c)
(b)
33.
34.
(d)
(a)
51.
52. gin
(c)
(c)
69.
70.
(b)
(c)
87.
88.
(d)
(a)
105.
106.
(a)
(d)
123.
124.
(a)
(a)
141.
142.
(d)
(b)
17.
18.
(a)
(c)
35.
36.
(c)
(b)
53.
54.
(b)
(d)
ee
71.
72.
r
(b)
(b)
89.
90.
(c)
(d)
107.
108.
(d)
(c)
125.
126.
(d)
(c)
Hints & Solutions

ing
.ne
1. (a) Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha
in Champaran after returning from South Africa.
Mahatma Gandhi began his experiments with
Satyagraha against the oppressive European indigo
t Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat
Movement. It was approved by the Indian National
Congress at the Nagpur session in December,
1920. The movement began with Mahatma Gandhi
planters at Champaran in Bihar in 1917. renouncing the titles, which were given by the
2. (b) The only session of the Indian National Congress British. Other leaders and influential persons also
presidised by Mahatma Gandhi was in Belgaum. The followed him by surrendering their honorary posts
town had the honour of hosting the All India 39th and titles. Students came out of the government
Congress session in 1924, that was the only session educational institutions. National schools such as
which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi, and the Kashi Vidyapeeth, the Bihar Vidyapeeth and the
the only session held in Karnataka. ‘Veersoudha’ is
Jamia Millia Islamia were set up. All the prominent
a monument built in memory of this session.
leaders of the country gave up their lucrative legal
3. (a) The first mass movement started by Mahatma
practice. Legislatures were boycotted. No leader of
Gandhi was Non-cooperation Movement. Mahatma
the Congress came forward to contest the elections
Gandhi announced his plan to begin Non-Cooperation
for the Legislatures.
with the government as a sequel to the Rowlatt

History || A-157
4. (a) In the Calcutta Session 1901 of the Indian Buddhists, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians,
National Congress, Mohan Das Karmachand Gandhi Europeans and Untouchables (then known as the
participated for the first time. In 1901, Gandhi Dalits), etc. The ‘award’ attracted severe criticism
reached India to attend the Calcutta session of the from Mahatma Gandhi, the Akali Dal, etc.
Indian National Congress and had the satisfaction 12. (d) Satish Chandra Samanta became the president of
of seeing his resolution on South Africa pass with Tamluk Congress Committee and remained an active
acclamation. congress member for decades. He was known for his
5. (c) In the Ahmedabad strike, Mahatma Gandhi leadership qualities and other constructive work. His
made his first use of hunger strike as a weapon. leadership qualities could be observed during the
ww In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute

between the workers and mill-owners of Ahmedabad.
He advised the workers to go on strike and to demand
formation of a parallel government namedTamralipta
Jatiya Sarkar (Tamrlipta National Government) in
Tamluk during the Quit India Movement.
w.Ea 35 per cent increase in wages. But he insisted that

the workers should not use violence against the
employers during the strike.
6. (b) Annie Besant was the first woman President of
13. (b) Vinoba was chosen by Mahatma Gandhi as the
first Satyagrahi in the individual Satyagraha initiated
in 1940. The first Satyagraha of the individual
Satyagrahi was initiated on 17th October, 1940.
asy
Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917
Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress.
Annie Besant was of Irish origin and was one of the
It is important to recall that Pandit Jawahar Lal
Nehru was the second Satyagrahi. Gandhiji declared
Vinayak as the first Satyagrahi and also gave him the
Indian freedom movement.

En
few foreigners who played a significant role in the name ‘Vinoba’. This is the first instance that drew
everybody’s attention to Vinoba. Vinobaji continued
gin
7. (d) In Singapore, Subhash Chandra Bose set up
the ‘Azad Hind Fauj’ and Azad Hind Government.
During the course of the Second World War, armed
14.
to work in Gandhiji’s constructive programmes.
(d) Moti Lal Nehru had supported the Non-
cooperation Resolution of Mahatma Gandhi in the
ee
revolutionary activities continued to take place. The
role of Subhas Chandra Bose towards such activities
is incomparable. On 2 July 1943, Subhas Chandra
Bose reached Singapore and gave the rousing war
15.
special session of the Indian National Congress at
Calcutta in 1920.
rin
(c) In the Kranchi Session 1931 of India National
Congress, Mahatma Gandhi had said “Gandhi may
cry of ‘Dilli Chalo’. He was made the President of
Indian Independence League and soon became the
supreme commander of the Indian National Army.
16.
g.n
die but Gandhism will remain forever.”
(b) Hindustan socialist Republican Association
before 1928 was known as the Hindustan Republican
8. (b) Direct Action Day was observed by Mulsim
league on 16th August, 1946. Direct Action Day also
known as the Great Calcutta Killings, was a day of
widespread riot and manslaughter between Hindus
and Muslims in the city of Calcutta (now known as
et
Association. It is reckoned as one amongst the
Indian independence associations during the time of
freedom struggle. Bhagat Singh, Yogendra Shukla
and Chandrasekar Azad were the key functionaries
of Hindustan Socialist Republic Association.
Kolkata) in the Bengal province of British India. The 17. (a) Subhash Chandra Bose addressed Gandhiji as
day also marked the start of what is known as The the “ Father of the Nation” for the first time. Mahatma
Week of the Long Knives. Gandhiji is revered in India as the Father of the
9. (a) When the cabinet mission arrived in India, Nation. Much before the Constitution of Free India
Mahatma Gandhi was in Urulikanchan. conferred the title of the Father of the Nation upon the
10. (c) The title of the autobiography of Subhash Mahatma, it was Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose who
Chandra Bose is the “Autobiography of an Indian first addressed him as such in his condolence message
Pilgrim.” to the Mahatma on the demise of Kasturba.
11. (d) The Communal Award was made by the British 18. (c) Jiatrang Movement started in Manipur.
Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald on 16 August 19. (b) In December 1929, the Congress held its
1932 granting separate electorates in British India annual session at Lahore. Jawaharlal Nehru was the
for the Forward Caste, Lower Caste, Muslims, president at this session. In this session, the Congress


declared ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence 29. (c) The suspension of the Non-cooperation
as its ultimate goal. It asked all Congressmen and Movement led to a split within Congress in the Gaya
nationalists not to participate in elections to the session of the Congress in December 1922. Leaders
legislatures and to resign from the legislatures. It like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das formed a
was decided that 26 January would be henceforth separate group within the Congress known as the
observed as the Independence Day every year. To Swaraj Party on 1 January 1923. The Swarajists
achieve the aim of complete independence, the wanted to contest the council elections and wreck
Congress decided to launch another mass movement the government from within.
– the Civil Disobedience Movement. 30. (d) Chandrashekhar was the one to have escaped
ww
20. (c) Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with Quit India
Movement. The members of the Socialist Party
including Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan
being hanged in the Kakori Conspiracy case.
31. (b) Dr. Ambedkar attended all the three Round Table
Conferences in London and forcefully argued for the
w.E and Aruna Asaf Ali started consolidating underground

networks. The role of the underground movement was
seen as one keeping up popular morale by providing
a line of command and guidance to activists across
welfare of the “untouchables”. Meanwhile, British
Government decided to hold provincial elections in
1937. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar set up the “Independent
Labor Party” in August 1936 to contest the elections
21.
the country.
asy
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore had called Subhash
Chandra Bose as ‘Desh Nayak.’
in the Bombay province. He and many candidates
of his party were elected to the Bombay Legislative
Assembly.
22.
En
(d) Vitthal Bhai Patel was elected President
(Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in
32. (d) Jai Prakash Narayan escaped from the prison
and organised underground activities during the Quit
23.
1925.
gin
(a) A Provisional Government of India with Raja
Mahendra Pratap as its President was established
India Movement.
33. (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru is associated with the
statement “I am a socialist and a republican and am
24.
25.
ee
during the first world war in Afghanistan.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi had told, “Destruction is the
best method of dealing with the foreign clothes.”
(a) When a raid was made by Congress Volunteers
no believer in Kings and Princes.”
34. (a) C.R. Das had moved the Non-cooperation
rin
resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian
National Congress in 1920. In December 1920,
on Dharsana salt depot Mahatma Gandhi was in
Yervada Jail. On May 21, 1930, Sarojini Naidu, Imam
Sahib and Manilal took up the task of leading a raid g.n
Congress met once again in the Nagpur. This time
the differences of C.R. Das had melted away. He
moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation.
26.
27.
on Dharsana salt works.
(d) J.L. Nehru had seconded the “ Quit India
Resolution” of 1942.
(b) Surendra Nath Banerjee is remembered and
et
A programme of surrender of titles, the boycott of
schools, courts and councils, the boycott of foreign
goods, the promotion of a Hindu-Muslim unity and
strict non-violence was adopted.
35. (c) Bina Das was the female revolutionary who fired
widely respected today as a pioneer leader of Indian
at the English Governor (Chancellor) while receiving
politics – first treading the path of Indian political
her degree at the convocation. With a fierce resolution
empowerment. He published an important work. ‘A
to gain freedom, Bina Das plunged into action by
Nation in Making; which was widely acclaimed.
joining “Chhatri Sangha”, a revolutionary group in
28. (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and
Calcutta. The first action of this revolutionary party
social reform work among the Pathans had politicised
was to kill a ruthless and tyrant British Governor
them. Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and
during the convocation ceremony. Since Bina Das was
Frontier Gandhi had started the first Pushto political also going to get her graduation degree on that event,
monthly, Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer she decided to take the initiative of assassinating the
brigade ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’, popularly known as ruthless Governor. The convocation ceremony was
the ‘Red Shirts’ who were pledged to the freedom filled with several young graduates and Bina Das
struggle and non-violence. was one of them. When Stanley Jackson was about

History || A-159
to arrive at her side, Bina Das immediately fired five scope and scholarship, one of the greatest figures of
bullets from her revolver. But the governor managed Indian history unfolds the panorama of the country’s
to escape unscratched from the attack. Since Bina Das rich and complex past, from prehistory to the last
had just started practising shooting, her grip on the years of British colonial rule.
weapon was not strong. Bina Das was arrested and 44. (d) The person who on April 4, 1919 delivered a
was sentenced to 9 years of painful imprisonment. speech on Hindu-Muslim unity from the pulpit of
Even though the mission was a failure, Bina Das Jama Masjid in Delhi was Swami Shradhanand.
was glad that she had succeeded in striking a terror 45. (c) The person who returned his token of honour to
in mind of British supremacy. Government of India on May 30, 1919 was Rabindra
ww
36. (b) The Lahore session of the Indian National
Congress was held in 1929 under the presidentship
of Jawaharlal Nehru. The Lahore session of the
Nath Tagore. In 1915, the British Crown granted
Tagore a knighthood. He renounced it after the 1919
Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
w.E Indian National Congress witnessed significant

developments in the Indian national movement. It
was in this session that the Congress for the first time
raised the demand for complete independence. Such
46. (b) By Non-cooperation Movement, Gandhi meant
a peaceful rebellion. He appealed everybody to
adopt the policy of ‘progressive, non-violent, non-
cooperation’ movement. The programme of Non-
37.
earlier.
asy
demand was not raised from the Congress platform
(b) In Tripura, session 1939 of the Indian National

cooperation Movement was multidimensional. It
included surrender of all titles and government posts.
En
Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose had defeated
Pattabhi Sitaramayya in the election of the Congress
The boycott programme had its tremendous impact
upon the people of India. Gandhi himself surrendered
the title of Kaiser-i-Hind. Chita Raman Das, Motilal
38.
President.
gin
(c) Many revolutionaries were tried in a series of
cases. In jail, these revolutionaries protested against
Nehru, Rajendra Prasad; Jawaharlal Nehru, etc. left
their legal practices. Students started to boycott the
government or government aided institutions.
ee
the horrible conditions through a fast, and demanded
honourable and decent treatment as political
prisoners. Jatin Das became the first martyr on the
64th day of his fast.
47. (b) Cabinet Mission came to India after the Second
World War in 1946. After the end of the Second
rin
World War, the British authorities in India released
all political prisoners who had participated in the Quit
39. (c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was not amongst the
laywers to fight the case of Indian National Army in
1946 in the Delhi Red Fort trial. g.n
India Movement. The Indian National Congress, the
largest Indian political party, which had long fought
for national independence, agreed to participate
40.
41.
(c) Ashfaque-ullah Khan the first recorded
Muslim revolutionary who was hanged for India’s
independence.
(d) Bhagat Singh was not associated with Kakori
conspiracy case. He was a part of Hindustan Socialist
et
in elections for a constituent assembly, as did the
Muslim League. The newly elected government of
Clement Attlee dispatched the 1946 Cabinet Mission
to India to formulate proposals for the formation of
a government that would lead to an independent
Republican Association. Bhagat Singh, Azad and
India.
Rajguru shot dead Saunders, the police official
responsible for the lathicarge in Lahore. 48. (d) All the above given parties did not support Quite
42. (d) The province where Indian National Congress India Movement.
did not form ministry after the general election of 49. (c) The Food and Agriculture Portfolio was held by
1937 was Bengal. Rajendra Prasad in the interim government formed
43. (a) In Ahmadnagar Fort Jail, the book “Discovery in 1946.
of India” was written by Jawahar Lal Nahru. Written 50. (d) The Karachi session was presided over by
over five months when Jawaharlal Nehru was Sardar Patel. The Congress adopted a resolution
imprisoned in the Ahmadnagar Fort. The Discovery on Fundamental rights and economic policy which
of India has acquired the status of a classic since it represented the Party’s social, economic and political
was first published in 1946. In this work of prodigious programmes.


51. (c) Ram Manohar Lohia made regular broadcast 57. (c) Lahore session of Muslim League (1940) was
on Congress radio operated during Quit India presided over by Mohammad Ali Jinnah.
Movement. During the Quit India Movement of 1942, 58. (d) When three captured Indian National Army
Congress radio operated for about three months. It (INA) officers, Shahnawaz Khan, Prem Kumar
was organized by Usha Mehta, a veteran freedom Sahgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were put on
fighter of India with the help of Ham radio operators. trial for treason, the Congress formed a defence
Eminent personalities like Ram Manohar Lohia, committee composed of 17 advocates including
Achyutrao Patwardhan, and Purushottam Trikamdas Bhulabhai Desai. The court-martial hearing began
ww were also associated with the Congress Radio.

52. (c) Clement Attlee said “ Imperialism is dead as
dodo.”
in October 1945 at the Red Fort. Bhulabhai was the
leading counsel for the defence. Undeterred by poor
health, Bhulabhai made an emphatic and passionate
w.E
53. (b) The most important “action” of the HRA
(Hindustan Republican Association) was the
Kakori robbery in the year 1925. The men held
argument in defence of the charged soldiers.
59. (d) The Indian National Congress met at Haripura
during February 19 to 22, 1938, under the presidency
asy
up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure village
near Lucknow and looted its official railway cash.
Government crackdown after the kakori robbery
of Subhas Chandra Bose. During this tenure (1938),
he was elected as the President of the Haripura
Congress Session in 1938, i.e. Subhas Chandra Bose
En
led to arrests of many of whom 17 were jailed, four
transported for life and four – Bismil, Ashfaqullah,
remained the President of INC till next year (1939,
Tripura session).
gin
Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lihiri – were hanged.
Kakori proved to be a setback.
60. (c) Asaf Ali was the in charge of the railways
and transport in the interim Government of India
ee
55. (d) Shortly afterwards he was elected President of
the Haripura Congress Session in 1938. During his
term as Congress President, he talked of planning
in concrete terms, and set up a National Planning
from September 2, 1946 before serving as the first
ambassador from India to the USA from February
rin
1947 to mid-April, 1948. He was appointed the
governor of Odisha, but he resigned from the post
Committee in October that year. At the end of his first
term, the presidential election to the Tripura Congress
g.n
in May 1952 on health grounds. His last assignment
was as India’s minister to Switzerland, Austria and
the Vatican; he died in office in Bern.
session took place early 1939. Subhas Chandra Bose
was re-elected, defeating Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
who had been backed by Mahatma Gandhi and the
Congress Working Committee. Clouds of World War
et
61. (a) The Congress met at Karachi in March 1931 to
endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact. It was
presided over by Sardar Patel. This session became
memorable for its resolution on the Fundamental
II were on the horizon and he brought a resolution
Rights and the National Economic Programmes.
to give the British six months to hand India over to
In short, it set the parameters of the Swaraj was
the Indians, failing which there would be a revolt.
reflecting the then dominant leftwing ting of the
There was much opposition to his rigid stand, and
national movements. It was drafted by the Pandit
he resigned from the post of president and formed a
Jawaharlal Nehru.
progressive group known as the Forward Block.
62. (b) ‘Operation Zero Hour’ was started by the
56. (a) Gandhi was requested by Raj Kumar Shukla
British Government to arrest the leaders of Quit India
to look into the problems of the indigo planters
Movement.
of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters
63. (d) Bhudeva Mukherjee was the Bengali writer
had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on
to suggest the adoption of Hindi as India’s national
3/20 of the total land called Tinkathia system.
language.

History || A-161
64. (c) The statement, “On bended knees I asked for 74. (a) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel to become a follower
bread and received stone instead”, is associated with of Gandhiji inspired by the Kheda Movement.
Dandi March. 75. (c) The naval revolt of 1946 was started on the fleet
65. (b) J.L. Nehru had drafted the Quit India Resolution. I.N.S. Talwar.
The All India Congress Committee met at Bombay 76. (c) Mahatma Gandhi said about Subhash Chandra
on 8 August 1942 and passed the famous Quit India Bose on 23 Jan, 1948, “we should emulate him ...
Resolution. On the same day, Gandhi gave his call Subhash was a great patriot. He laid down his life
of ‘do or die’. for the country. He has no use for parochialism or
ww
66 (c) The party which observed the ‘Black Day’ on
3 July, 1947 against partition of India was Hindu
Mahasabha. 3 June Plan or Mountbatten Plan
caste distinction.”
77. (a) Bhagat Singh had written the article ‘Why I am
an Atheist’.
w.E was the partition of British India on the basis of

religious demographics. This led to the creation of
the sovereign states of the Dominion of Pakistan.
78. (b) Abul Kalam Azad was the President of Congress
when Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India
Movement in 1942.
asy
67. (a) In the Lahore Session, 1915 of Muslim League,
“Two-Nation Theory” was propounded. Fazlul Haq,
79. (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President
of India National Congress after the resignation of
En
the premier of Bengal, who along with Muslim
League had formed the government of Bengal
Subhas Chandra Bose.
80. (b) Ghanshyam Das Birla was the founder of
gin
Province, moved a resolution, which was passed
by Muslim League. In this session, Jinnah in his
presidential address gave the famous Two-Nation
‘Harijan Sevak Sangh.’
81. (d) Aurobindo Ghosh was not the member of
Motilal Nehru Committee.
ee
Theory as fellows: “India cannot be assumed today
to be Unitarian and homogeneous nation, but on
the contrary, there are two nations in the main – the
82. (c) Mahatma Gandhi said, “Cripp’s proposals were
rin
a post-dated cheque of a crashing bank”. The major
political parties of the country rejected the Cripp’s
Hindus and Muslims”. The term Pakistan was not
used in this session. Gandhiji rejected the Two-Nation
Theory. g.n
proposals. Gandhi called Cripp’s proposals as a “Post-
dated Cheque”. They did not like the rights of the
Princely States either to send their representatives to
68. (b) Sarat Chandra Bose had read the English version
of presidential address in Tripura session of Indian
National Congress, 1939.
69. (b) M.A. Jinnah was not a part of Non-cooperation
et
the Constituent Assembly or to stay out of the Indian
Union. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied as
its demand for Pakistan had not been conceded in the
proposal.
Movement. 83. (c) Lord Emery was not a member of the Cabinet
70. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose hailed Gandhi’s call for Mission Plan. After the Second World War, Lord Atlee
‘Quit India’ as an Epic Movement. became the Prime Minister of England. On 15 March,
71. (b) J.B. Kriplani was the President of the Flag 1946 Lord Atlee made a historic announcement
Committee. in which the right to self-determination and the
72. (b) Anand Math is associated with rise of National framing of a Constitution for India were conceded.
Movement in India. Consequently, three members of the British Cabinet
73. (d) Mohammad Iqbal was the man to propose a – Pathick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A. V.
separate state for the Muslims of India for the first Alexander – were sent to India. This is known as the
time. Cabinet Mission.


84. (b) The idea of the Indian National Army (INA) 90. (d) In Karachi 1943 session, the Mulsim League
was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh an gave the slogan “ Divide and Quit.”
Indian officer of the British Indian Army. When he 91. (d) Subhash Chandra Bose authored the famous
decided not to join the retreating British Army and book ‘The Indian Struggle.’
instead turned to the Japanese for help. 92. (a) Lala Lajpat Rai declared “ Every blow that is
85. (a) The Constituent Assembly met for the first hurled on my back will be a nail in the coffin of the
time in New Delhi on 9 December, 1946 in the British Empire.
Constitution Hall which is now known as the Central 93. (a) Sir Stafford Cripps said “ There is going to be
ww Hall of Parliament House. The Constituent Assembly

took almost three years (two years, eleven months
and seventeen days to be precise) to complete
a revolution here and we must get out quick.”
94. (d) Baba Ram Chandra was an Indian trade unionist
who organised the farmers of Awadh to protest against
w.Eits historic task of drafting the Constitution for

Independent India. During this period, it held eleven
sessions covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114
the landlords in 1920s and 1930s. Other prominent
leaders included Jhinguri Singh and Durgapal
Singh.
Constitution.
asy
days were spent on the consideration of the Draft
86. (b) Web Miller was the foreign journalist who

95. (b) Mahatma Gandhi gave the slogan “Do or
Die” during Quit India Movement. The failure of
the Cripp’s Mission and the fear of an impending
En
reported Satyagrah at Dharsana salt works. American
journalist Web Miller was an eye-witness to the
Japanese invasion of India led Mahatma Gandhi
to begin his campaign for the British to quit
gin
beating of Satyagrahis with steel-tipped Lathis.
Miller’s first attempts at telegraphing the story to his
India. Mahatma Gandhi believed that an interim
government could be formed only after the British
ee
publisher in England were censored by the British
telegraph operators in India. Only after threatening
to expose British censorship was his story allowed
to pass. The story appeared in 1,350 newspapers
left India and the Hindu-Muslim problem sorted out.
The All India Congress Committee met at Bombay
rin
on 8 August 1942 and passed the famous Quit India
Resolution. On the same day, Gandhi gave his call
throughout the world and was read into the official
record of the United States Senate by Senator John
J. Blaine.
of ‘do or die’.
g.n
96. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose established ‘Rani Jhansi
87. (d) Albert Einstein said about Mahatma Gandhi,

“Generations to come, it may be, will scarce believe
that such one as this ever in flesh and blood, walked
upon this earth.”
et
Regiment.’ The Rani of Jhansi Regiment was the
Women’s Regiment of the Indian National Army.
This armed force was formed by Indian nationalists in
1942 in Southeast Asia whose aim was to overthrow
the British Raj in colonial India with the help of
88. (a) J.L. Nehru hailed S.C. Bose as “ the flaming
Japan.
sword of Indian patriotism.”
97. (b) The provision for the establishment of All India
89. (c) The first session of All India Trade Union
Federation was included in the Government of India
Congress held in Bombay was presided over by Lala
Act 1935.
Lajpat Rai. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
98. (a) Abas Tyabji took the place of Gandhi when he
was founded on 31 October 1920 in Bombay by N.
was arrested in salt Satyagrah. Gandhiji’s successor,
M. Joshi, Lala Lajpat Rai and a few others and, until
Mr. Abbas Tyabji, ex-Justice of Baroda, was getting
1945 when unions became organised on party lines,
ready at Karadi for the march to the salt works at
it was the primary trade union organisation in India.
Dharasana. On May 12, 1930, the volunteers fell into
Since then it has been associated with the Communist
line ready for the march, but Tyabji was arrested. Mrs.
Party of India.

History || A-163
Sarojini Naidu succeeded Abbas Tyabji. On May 21 him “Father of the Indian unrest.” He was also
over 2,000 volunteers led by her and Imam Saheb conferred with the honorary title of “Lokmanya”,
raided Dharasana salt depot, about 150 miles north which literally means “Accepted by the people” (as
of Bombay. their leader).
99. (d) Gandhi was requested by Raj Kumar Shukla 103. (a) During the Non-cooperation Movement,
to look into the problems of the indigo planters Gandhiji gave the slogan of Swaraj in one year.
of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters 104. (d) Mahatma Gandhi advised that the Indian
had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on National Congress should be disbanded as a political
ww 3/20 of the total land called Tinkathia system.

100. (b) Labour Party was in power in UK when India
got Independence. The post-war Labour government
105.
party after the Independence of India.
(a) In Lahore 1929 session of the Indian National
Congress, ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was declared the goal
w.E in Britain was committed to independence for India.

A second mission was sent to India by Prime Minister
Attlee in 1946 for the preparation of independence.
of Congress. In the prevailing atmosphere of
restlessness, the annual session of the Congress was
held at Lahore in December 1929. During this session
asy
On 16 May, this Cabinet Mission published a plan
for transferring power to a united India, but over
presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, the Congress
passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution. Moreover, as
En
subsequent months it became clear that this plan
would fail. The British Government, therefore,
the government failed to accept the Nehru Report, the
Congress gave a call to launch the Civil Disobedience
gin
began to draw up alternative plans. It also appointed
a new Viceroy Lord Mountbatten to take over from 106.
Movement.
(d) Mahatma Gandhi was at Bardoli when Chauri
Chaura eposide took place.
announced that Independence would come at

Midnight on 14 August 1947.
ee
Lord Wavell who had failed to get the Indian parties
to agree on any plan. In June 1947, Mountbatten 107. (d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah had denounced the
Movement.
rin
participation of Mahatma Gandhi in the Khilafat
101. (b) The Muslim League demanded separate Pakistan

for the first time in the year 1940. In 1937, elections
were held under the provisions of the Government
108.
g.n
(c) Tagore had very close relationship with
Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called him ‘Gurudev’
while it was Tagore who referred Gandhi as Mahatma
of India Act of 1935. Congress Ministries were
formed in seven states of India. On 1 September
1939, the Second World War broke out. The British
et
as early as February 1915, when Gandhi had just
arrived from South Africa. They had an intellectual
debate over certain issues, but their friendship lasted
Government without consulting the people of India till Tagore’s death in 1941.
involved the country in the war. The Congress 109. (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore took the burning of the
vehemently opposed it and as a mark of protest the foreign clothes as the “ insensate waste” during the
Congress ministries in the provinces resigned on Non-cooperation Movement.
12 December 1939. The Muslim League celebrated 110. (d) The first Round Table conference was not attended
that day as the Deliverance Day. In March 1940, the by the Congress delegation. The British Government
Muslim League demanded the creation of Pakistan. summoned Indian leaders and spokesmen in the First
102. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet ‘Lok- Round Table conference (1930) to discuss the Simon
Manya’ during the Home Rule Movement. He was Commission report. But the Indian National Congress
one of the popular leaders of the Indian Independence boycotted the conference and this conference of
Movement. The British colonial authorities called Indian affairs was held without the Congress.


111. (a) The book “Mountbatten and the Partition of 118. (d) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was
India” was written by Larry Colling and Dominique founded on 31 October 1920 in Bombay by N. M.
Lapierre. Joshi, Lala Lajpat Rai and a few others and, until
112. (d) On July 18, 1947, the British Parliament ratified 1945 when unions became organised on party lines,
the Moutbatten Plan as the “Independence of India it was the primary trade union organisation in India.
Act - 1947”. The act was implemented on August
Since then it has been associated with the Communist
15, 1947. The Act provided for the creation of two
Party of India.
independent dominions of India and Pakistan with
119. (d) The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
ww effect from August 15, 1947.

113. (a) Baba Ramchandra organised the farmers of
Awadh.
was founded on October 31, 1920. The Indian
National Congress president for the year, Lala Lajpat
w.E
114. (a) Mahatma Gandhi founded Ahmedabad Textile
Labour Association.
115. (c) The Bardoli Taluqa in Surat district had
Rai, was elected as the first president of AITUC and
Dewan Chaman Lal as the first general secretary.
120. (d) Due to the efforts of the Home Rule activists,
asy
witnessed in tense politicisation after the coming of
Gandhi on the national political scene. In February
1926, Vallabh Bhai Patel was called to lead the
Kisan Sabhas were organised in UP. The UP Kisan
Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar
En
movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the
title of “Sardar”. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants
Mishra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Madan Mohan
Malaviya supported their efforts. By June 1919, the
gin
resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment
until the Government appointed an independent
UP Kisan Sabha had 450 branches. Other prominent
leaders included Jhinguri Singh, Durgapal Singh and
Baba Ramchandra.
payment.
ee
tribunal or accepted the current amount as full
116. (b) The first All India Kisan Sabha was formed
in Lucknow. The Kisan Sabha movement started in
121. (b) Chittaranjan Das realized that Hindu-Muslim
rin
unity was essential for the attainment of Swaraj. In
1924, he formulated his famous Communal Pact to
Bihar under the leadership of Swami Sahajanand
Saraswati who had formed in 1929 the Bihar
g.n
promote permanent peace between India’s two major
communities. He also wanted an assimilation of
Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in order to mobilise
peasant grievances against the Zamindari attacks
on their occupancy rights. Gradually, the peasant
movement intensified and spread across the rest of
et
Eastern spirit and Western technique. He envisioned
a pan-Asiatic federation of the oppressed nations
and advocated India’s participation in it. For his
devotion to the cause of self-rule, he gained the title
India. All these radical developments on the peasant Deshabandhu (friend of the country).
front culminated in the formation of the All India 122. (b) Bhagat Singh founded the Indian nationalist
Kisan Sabha (AIKS) at the Lucknow session of the
youth organisation Naujawan Bharat Sabha (“Youth
Indian National Congress in April 1936 with Swami
Society of India”) in March 1926. He also joined
Sahajanand Saraswati elected as its first President.
the Hindustan Republican Association, which had
The other prominent members of this Sabha were
prominent leaders, such as Ram Prasad Bismil,
N.G. Ranga, Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayaprakash
Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Bankim Chandrashekhar Azad and Ashfaqulla Khan.
Mukherji. The name of the organisation was changed to
117. (a) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati presided over the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association at
first session of All India Kisan Sabha. Singh’s insistence.

History || A-165
123. (a) Mahatma Gandhi was the editor of ‘Young India’ tribunal or accepted the current amount as full
and ‘Harijan.’ Young India was a weekly newspaper payment.
in English published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 129. (a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya was nominated by
to 1932. Gandhi wrote various quotations in this Mahatma Gandhi for the Presidentship of the
journal that inspired many. Harijan was a newspaper Congress in1939 against Subhash Chandra Bose. He
first published on 11 February 1933, brought out by ran for the presidency of the Indian National Congress
Gandhi from Yerwada Jail during the British rule in as the candidate closest to Mohandas Gandhi, against
India. the more radical Netaji Subash Chandra Bose in
ww
124. (a) Non-cooperation Movement was abruptly called
off on 11 February 1922 by Gandhi following the
Chauri Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of
Tripura session of 1939.
130. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose, while delivering the
presidential address was advocated the introduction
w.E UP. Earlier on 5th February, an angry mob set fire to

the police station at Chauri Chaura and twenty two
policemen were burnt to death. Many top leaders of
of Roman script for Hindi language.
131. (a) Hunter Commission was appointed by British
Government to investigate into the massacre in
asy
the country were stunned at this sudden suspension of
the Non-Cooperation Movement. Mahatma Gandhi
was arrested on 10 March 1922.
Jallianwala Bagh. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre
was followed by establishment of a non-official
enquiry committee by Congress. The British
led by Vallabhbhai Patel. En

125. (d) The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was Government did not initiate such inquiry till Congress
had set up such committee. Later, the Government
gin
126. (c) Lord Linlithgrow was associated with the
August offer. ‘August Offer’ was a fresh proposal
established a committee headed by Lord Hunter
a Senator of the “College of Justice of Scotland”.
ee
promising the expansion of the Executive Council
to include more Indians, the establishment of an
advisory war council, giving full weight to minority
opinion, and the recognition of Indians’ right to frame
This committee had 7 members, viz. 4 British and 3
Indians.
rin
132. (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale was regarded as the
political guru of Gandhi. In 1905, he founded the
their own constitution. In return, it was hoped that all
parties and communities in India would cooperate in
g.n
Servants of India Society to train Indians to dedicate
their lives to the cause of the country.
Britain’s war effort.
127. (b) Nehru report was the first major attempt by the
Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the
country. The committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru,
et
133. (c) Tej Bahadur Sapru played an important role
in Signing of Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Sapru mediated
between Gandhi and the Viceroy Lord Irwin, helping
to forge the Gandhi-Irwin Pact that ended the Salt
Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Iman, Satyagraha.
Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The 134. (b) During the tenure of Lord Irwin as the Viceroy
report was finalised by August 1928. of India, the great martyrs Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and
128. (c) The Bardoli Taluqa in Surat district had Sukhdev were hanged.
witnessed in tense politicisation after the coming of 135. (d) The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place
Gandhi on the national political scene. In February on 13 April 1919 and it remained a turning point
1926, Vallabh Bhai Patel was called to lead the in the history of India’s freedom movement. In
movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the Punjab, there was an unprecedented support to the
title of “Sardar”. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants Rowlatt Satyagraha. Facing a violent situation, the
resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment Government of Punjab handed over the administration
until the Government appointed an independent to the military authorities under General Dyer. He


banned all public meetings and detained the political with his core philosophy of ‘nation first’. Basically,
leaders. On 13th April, the Baisakhi day (harvest it was his success in integrating around 565 princely
festival), a public meeting was organized at the states after independence that got him the sobriquet
Jallianwala Bagh (garden). Dyer marched in and of ‘Iron Man’.
without any warning opened fire on the crowd. The 139. (b) The Indian response against the commission was
firing continued for about 10 to 15 minutes and it immediate and nearly unanimous. What angered the
stopped only after the ammunition exhausted. Indians most was the exclusion of Indians from the
136. (d) Government of India Act 1935 was described commission and the basic notion behind the exclusion
ww by J.L. Nehru as new charter of slavery. The Dyarchy

had been total failure in the provinces, but now
there was an experiment coming up at the centre.
that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India’s
fitness for self-government. This notion was seen as
a violation of the principle of self-determination and
w.E The safeguards and the special powers vested in the

Governor General was something like a “Charter
of Slavery” as mentioned by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
140.
a deliberate insult to the self-respect of Indians.
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the
Constituent Assembly, and later became the first
engine”. asy
He compared it with a “machine with all brakes, no
137. (a) Abdul Gaffar Khan was known as the Frontier

141.
President of India.
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose coined the slogan ‘Jai
Hind.’ It has been immortalized by Subhas Chandra
En
Gandhi (Simanta Gandhi). Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
was a Pashtun political and spiritual leader known for
Bose as the battle cry of the Indian National Army.
This slogan and battle cry most commonly used in
gin
his non-violent opposition to the British Raj in British
India, and a lifelong pacifist and devout Muslim. He
India in speeches and communications pertaining to
or referring to patriotism towards India (also known
ee
was a close friend of Mahatma Gandhi and has been
referred to as the “Frontier Gandhi” by the Indians.
In 1910, he opened a mosque school at his hometown
Utmanzai, and in 1911 joined the freedom movement
142.
as Hind).
(b) J.L. Nehru was invited by Lord Wavell to form
rin
the interim Government in India in 1946. The interim
government of India, formed on 2 September 1946
of Haji Sahib of Turangzai, however, in 1915, the
British authorities banned his mosque school.
g.n
from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of
India, had the task of assisting the transition of India
138. (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was called the Iron
man of India. Sardar Patel was a man of principles. A
fierce nationalist, he never believed in compromising et
and Pakistan from British rule to independence. It
remained in place until 15 August 1947, the date of
the independence of the two new nations of India and
Pakistan.

Section B : Geography
ww
1 Astronomy

w.E
1. The colour of the star is an indication of its
(a) Distance from the earth
(b) Distance from the sun
(a) Mercury
(c) Mars
(b) Venus
(d) Uranus
10. The distance of Moon from the Earth is

2.
(c) Temperature
(d) Luminosity asy
The planet nearest to the sun is

(a) 364 thousand kms.
(b) 300 thousand kms.

(a) Mercury
(c) Venus En
(b) Earth
(d) Pluto

(c) 350 thousand kms.
(d) 446 thousand kms.
11. Who discovered the solar system?
3.

called
(a) Milky way gin
The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern is
(b) Constellation
(a) Aryabhatta
(c) Copernicus
(b) Newton
(d) Kepler

(c) Andromeda
following?
ee
(d) Solar system
4. The Asteroid belt is found between which of the
(a) Earth and Mars (b) Jupiter and Saturn

12. Which planet was named after the Roman God
Zeus?
(a) Earth
(c) Venus
rin (b) Mars
(d) Jupiter
(c) Mars and Jupiter (d) Saturn and Uranus
5. Which one of the following is the largest satellite
in solar system?
than the Earth?
(a) Venus g.n
13. Which of the following planets is smaller in size
(b) Uranus
(a) Ganymede
(c) Europa
(b) Titan
(d) Triton
6. Methane is present in the atmosphere of
(a) Moon (b) Sun
(c) Saturn
et
(d) Neptune
14. The largest planet in our solar system is
(a) Earth
(c) Jupiter
(b) Uranus
(d) Saturn
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars 15. Which of the following planets has largest number
7. Which planet takes the longest time to go around of satellites or moons?
the sun? (a) Jupiter (b) Neptune
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter (c) Earth (d) Saturn
(c) Uranus (d) Neptune
16. Which of the following planets is called “Blue
8. The principle of Black hole was enunciated by
planet”?
(a) C.V. Raman
(a) Venus (b) Earth
(b) H.J. Bhabha
(c) S. Chandrashekhar (c) Uranus (d) Mercury
(d) H. Khurana 17. The approximate diameter of Earth is
9. The planet which is called twin sister of the (a) 4200 km (b) 6400 km
Earth is (c) 3400 km (d) 12800 km

B-2 || Astronomy
18. The Earth becomes maximum distance from the 30. Which of the following planets is known as “Red
sun on Planet”?
(a) January 30th (b) December 22nd (a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) September 22 (d) July 4th
nd
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn
19. The Earth rotates around its axis from 31. The planet whose period of rotation is longer
(a) North to South (b) South to North than the period of revolution around the sun is
(c) East to West (d) West to East (a) Mercury (b) Mars
20. Which one of the following is called terrestrial (c) Venus (d) Neptune
planet? 32. The last stage in the life cycle of a star is
ww
(a) Mercury
(c) Mars
(b) Earth
(d) Saturn
21. What is the time taken by the Earth to complete

(a) Black Hole
(c) Red Giant
(b) Supernova
(d) White Dwarf
33. Time taken by Sun’s light to reach Earth is

w.Eone rotation on its axis?
(a) 23 hr 52 min 4 sec
(b) 23 hr 56 min 4 sec

(a) 8 min 18 sec
(c) 9 min 18 sec
(b) 9 min
(d) 6 min 18 sec
34. Time taken by Moon’s light to reach Earth is

(c) 24 hr
(d) 24 hr 12 min 6 sec
asy
22. Which of the following is the nearest star of

(a) 58 sec
(c) 1.58 sec
(b) 1.34 sec
(d) 2.32 sec
35. Space between Earth and Moon is known as

Earth?
(a) Sirius
(c) Rigel En
(b) Sun
(d) Vega
(a) Cislunar
(c) Nebula
(b) Fulalunar
(d) None of these
brightest? gin
23. Which one of the following planets is the 36. Our solar system is located in which Galaxy?
(a) Peroxima Centauri
(a) Mars
(c) Venus
(b) Mercury
(d) Jupiter
24. The mean radius of the Earth is

(a) 3200 km
(c) 8400 km
(b) 6400 km
(d) 12800 km
ee

(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) Milky Way
(d) Andromeda
rin
37. Which of the following stars is also known as
25. Which one of the following planets rotates

clockwise?

Pulsar?
(a) Red Giant
(c) Neutron Star g.n (b) White Dwarf
(d) Massive Star
(a) Earth
(c) Venus
(a) Helium
(c) Oxygen
(b) Mars
(d) Mercury
26. The nuclear fuel in the Sun is
(b) Hydrogen
(d) Uranium

star?
(a) Protostar
(c) Red Giant
et
38. Which of the following stars is known as Fossil
(b) Dog Star

(d) White Dwarf
27. The outermost layer of the sun is called 39. The energy of sun is produced by
(a) Chromosphere (b) Photosphere (a) Nuclear fission (b) Ionisation
(c) Lithosphere (d) Corona (c) Nuclear fusion (d) Oxidation
28. The surface temperature of sun is nearly 40. Which of the following does not belong to solar
(a) 2000 K (b) 4000 K system?
(c) 6000 K (d) 8000 K (a) Asteroids (b) Comets
29. What is meant by the term “Midnight Sun”? (c) Planets (d) Nebulae
(a) Twilight 41. Which one of the following planets is nearest to
(b) Rising sun the earth?
(c) Very bright moon (a) Mercury (b) Venus
(d) Sun shining in the polar circle for long time (c) Mars (d) Uranus

Geography || B-3
42. Cycle of sun spots is 52. Which of the following elements occurs the most
(a) 9 years (b) 10 years abundantly in our universe?
(c) 11 years (d) 12 years (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
43. The group of small pieces of rocks revolving (c) Nitrogen (d) Helium
round the sun between the orbits of Mars and 53. Two planets which have no satellites
Jupiter are called (a) Earth and Uranus
(b) Mercury and Venus
(a) Meteors (b) Comets
(c) Mercury and Mars
(c) Meteorites (d) Asteroids
(d) Venus and Mars
ww
44. Which one of the following conditions is most

relevant for the presence of life on mars?
(a) Atmospheric composition
54. The Astronaut looks the sky in the space
(a) Blue
(c) Red
(b) Black
(d) White

w.E(b) Thermal conditions
(c) Occurrence of ice cap and frozen water
(d) Occurrence of ozone
55. The black part of the moon is always calm and

dark which is called
(a) Sea of tranquility (b) Ocean of storms
asy
45. Among the following which planet takes
maximum time for one revolution around the
sun?
(c) Area of storms (d) None of these
56. What is the most accurate description of the
(a) Earth
(c) Mars En
(b) Jupiter
(d) Venus

shape of the earth ?
(a) A circle
(c) A geoid
(b) A sphere
(d) An oblate sphere
(a) Mars
(c) Venus
gin
46. Which planet is called “Evening star”?
(b) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
57. When the earth is at its maximum distance from
the sun it is said to be in

sun?
(a) 3rd January
(c) 22nd March
(b) 4th July
ee
47. The Earth becomes minimum distance from the
(d) 21st September

(a) aphelion
(c) apogee
rin
(b) perihelion
(d) perigee
58. What is the primary cause of the day and night ?
(a) Earth’s annual motion
48. Which planet is surrounded by ring?

(a) Saturn (b) Mars

(c)
g.n
(b) Earth’s daily motion
Inclination of the earth’s axis and its rotation
(d) Inclination of the earth’s axis and its revolution

(c) Venus
49. Lunar eclipse occurs
(d) Earth
(a) When moon lies between earth and sun

(b) When earth lies between sun and moon
et
59. What causes the change of seasons ?
(a) Earth’s rotation and revolution
(b) Earth’s revolution
(c) Earth’s revolution and inclination of its axis
(c) When sun lies between earth and moon (d) Earth’s rotation and inclination of its axis
(d) None of these 60. How much time does earth take in completing
50. By how much degree the earth is inclined on its one rotation on its axis in relation to sun ?
own Axis (a) 24 hours
(a) 231/2 (b) 661/2 (b) 23 hours 56 minutes
(c) 24 1/2 (d) 691/2 (c) 24 hours 4 minutes
51. The planet Pluto has been abandoned from the (d) 24 hours and 6 minutes
group of conventional planet and kept in the 61. On which planet would one witness sunrise in the
group of dwarf planet by a summit held in west ?
(a) Paris (b) London (a) Jupiter (b) Venus
(c) Geneva (d) Prague (c) Saturn (d) Mercury

B-4 || Astronomy
62. The latitude is the angular distance of a point on 72. The average distance between the sun and earth
the earth’s surface with respect to the is
(a) equator (b) prime meridian (a) 145 million km (b) 150 million km
(c) pole star (d) Tropic of Cancer (c) 155 million km (d) 160 million km
63. The longitude of a place is its 73. What happens when one crosses 180° longitude
(a) angular distance east or west of the prime from east to west ?
meridian (a) One gains a day
(b) angular distance north or south of the (b) One looses a day
equator (c) One neither gains nor looses a day but the
ww

(c) angular distance east or west of International
Date Line
(d) angular distance with respect to the pole star

time changes
(d) There is no change in time or day
74. The chronometer is used for

w.E
64. On which date is the earth in perihelion ?
(a) June 21
(c) January 3
(b) Dec 22
(d) July 4

(a) Measuring distance
(b) Measuring rock-density
(c) Keeping correct time
65. The earth is in aphelion on

(a) June 21
(c) Sept. 23 asy
(b) Dec. 22
(d) July 4
(d) Measuring earthquakes
75. Greenwich mean time is ––––––––––– IST.

(a) March 21
(c) Sept. 23 En
66. The sun is veritical over the Tropic of Cancer on
(b) June 21
(d) Dec. 22

(a) 5.5 hours ahead (b) 12 hours ahead
(c) 4.5 hours behind (d) 5.5 hours behind
76. What is the unit of measurement of distance
Antarctic circles ? gin

67. What is most important about the Arctic and the

between celestial bodies ?
(a) Nautical mile (b) Statute mile

nights be longer than 24 hours
ee
(a) Within these circle only can the days and
(b) The days and nights are never more than 24

hours long here

(c) Light year
rin
(d) Kilometre
77. On the surface of the moon
(a) the mass of an object is more but it weighs
lesser
(c) Both areas frozen continents
(d) Both regions are uninhabited
68. What is true about the equinox ?

g.n
(b) the mass and weight both remain unchanged
(c) the mass is the same but the weight is lesser
(d) the mass is more but the weight is lesser

(a) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Cancer
(b) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Vertical sun over the equator
(d) Continuous day in the polar regions

(a) 12 minutes
(c) 4.3 hours
et
78. How much time does the light from the nearest
star take in reaching the earth ?
(b) 4.3 minutes
(d) 4.3 years
69. How much is the mass of the moon when
79. How much is the approximate time gap between
compared with that of the earth ?
two successive high tides ?
(a) 1/49 (b) 1/81
(a) 6 hours (b) 9 hours
(c) 1/51 (d) 1/8
(c) 11.5 hours (d) 12.5 hours
70. How much of the total surface area of the moon
80. The shortest route between two places is along
is never visible from the earth
the
(a) 41 per cent (b) 47 per cent
(a) latitudes (b) longitudes
(c) 53 per cent (d) 59 per cent
(c) rivers (d) direction of winds
71. The average distance between the moon and the
81. To a space traveller on moon, the sky in day
earth’s
appears
(a) 384,000 km (b) 267,000 km
(a) white (b) black
(c) 540,000 km (d) 576,000 km
(c) blue (d) red

Geography || B-5
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (d) 61 (b) 71 (a) 81 (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (d) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62 (a) 72 (b)
3. (b) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (a) 43. (d) 53. (b) 63 (a) 73 (a)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (b) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (b) 64 (c) 74 (c)
5. (a) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (a) 45. (b) 55. (a) 65 (d) 75 (d)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56 (d) 66 (b) 76 (c)
ww7.
8.
(d)
(c)
17.
18.
(d)
(b)
27.
28.
(d)
(c)
37.
38.
(c)
(d)
47.
48.
(a)
(a)
57
58
(a)
(b)
67
68
(a)
(c)
77
78
(c)
(d)
w.E
9.
10.
(b)
(a)
19.
20.
(d)
(a)
29.
30.
(d)
(b)
39.
40.
(c)
(d)
49.
50.
(b)
(a)
59
60
(c)
(a)
69
70
(b)
(a)
79
80
(d)
(b)
aHints
syE& Solutions
1.
ngi
(c) The colour of the star is an indication of its
temperature. The glowing is caused by something
called Black-Body radiation, which has to do with
Jupiter. Completing an orbit in roughly seven days,
Ganymede participates in a 1:2:4 orbital resonance
with the moons Europa and Io, respectively. It has
nee
the heat energy trying to radiate away in more and
more energetic wavelengths. Red stars are relatively
a diameter of 5,268 km (3,273 mi), 8% larger than
that of the planet Mercury, but has only 45% of the
latter’s mass.
cool at only a few thousand degrees Celsius, white
stars are hot at about ten thousand degrees, and blue
stars are the hottest. rin
6. (c) Methane is present in the atmosphere of
Jupiter. The atmosphere of Jupiter is the largest
2. (a) The planet nearest to the sun is mercury.
Mercury is the smallest and closest to the Sun of the
g.n
planetary atmosphere in the Solar System. It is
mostly made of molecular hydrogen and helium
in roughly solar proportions; other chemical
3.
eight planets in the Solar System, with an orbital
period of about 88 Earth days.
(b) The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern
is called constellation. In modern astronomy, a
constellation is an internationally defined area of
water.
et
compounds are present only in small amounts and
include methane, ammonia, hydrogen sulphide and
7. (d) Neptune takes the longest time to go around

the sun. Neptune orbits the Sun at an average
the celestial sphere. These areas are grouped around
distance of 4.5 billion km. Like all the planets in
asterisms, which are patterns formed by prominent the Solar System, Neptune follows an elliptical path
stars within apparent proximity to one another on around the Sun, varying its distance to the Sun at
Earth’s night sky. different points along its orbit.
4. (c) The Asteroid belt is found between Mars and 8. (c) The principle of Black hole was enunciated
Jupiter. The large majority of known asteroids orbit by S. Chandrashekhar. A Black Hole is a region of
in the asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and space-time from which gravity prevents anything,
Jupiter, or are co-orbital with Jupiter. including light, from escaping. The theory of
5. (a) Ganymede is the largest satellite in solar general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact
system. Ganymede is a satellite of Jupiter and the mass will deform spacetime to form a black hole.
largest moon in the Solar System. It is the seventh Around a black hole, there is a mathematically
moon and third Galilean satellite outward from defined surface called an event horizon that marks

B-6 || Astronomy
the point of no return. The hole is called “black” 17. (d) The approximately diameter of Earth is 12800
because it absorbs all the light that hits the horizon, km. The rotation of the planet has slightly flattened
reflecting nothing, just like a perfect black body in it out, so it has a larger diameter at the equator than
thermodynamics. at the poles. The equatorial diameter of Earth is
9. (b) The planet which is called twin sister of 12,756 km, its polar diameter is 12,713 km, and its
earth is Venus. Venus is known as the Earth’s twin average diameter, which is referred to in common
because of its similar size, chemical composition usage, is 12,742 km or 7,926 miles.
and density. However, due to its toxic atmosphere, 18. (b) The Earth becomes maximum distance from
Venus is not habitable.
the sun on 22nd December. The aphelion is the point
ww
10. (a) The distance of moon from the Earth is 364
thousands kms. The Moon is the only natural
satellite of the Earth and the fifth largest moon in
in the orbit of a planet or comet where it is farthest
from the Sun. The Earth reaches its aphelion when
the Northern Hemisphere is experiencing summer.
w.Ethe Solar System. It is the largest natural satellite of

a planet in the Solar System relative to the size of
its primary, having 27% the diameter and 60% the
density of Earth, resulting in 1⁄81 its mass.
19. (d) The Earth rotates around its axis from west to
east. Earth’s rotation is the rotation of the solid Earth
around its own axis. The Earth rotates from the west
asy
11. (c) Copernicus discovered the solar system.
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance
mathematician and astronomer who formulated a
towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or
polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.
20. (a) Mercury is called terrestrial planet. There are
En
heliocentric model of the universe which placed the
Sun, rather than the Earth, at the center.
12. (d) Jupiter was named on the Roman God Zeus.
four terrestrial planets in our Solar System: Mercury,
Venus, Earth, and Mars.
gin
Zeus is the “Father of Gods and men” who rules the
Olympians of Mount Olympus as a father rules the
21. (b) The time taken by the Earth to complete one
rotation on its axis is 23 hr-56 min 4 sec.
25. (c) The planet Venus rotates clock wise. On Venus,
ee
family according to the ancient Greek religion. He
is the God of sky and thunder in Greek mythology.
Zeus is etymologically cognate with and, under
Hellenic influence, became particularly closely
identified with Roman Jupiter.
the rotation is backwards, or clockwise, which is
called retrograde. Standing on the surface of Venus,
west. rin
one would be able to see the sun rising from the
13. (a) Venus is smaller in size than the Earth.

Diameter of earth is12,742 km while that of Venus
is12,100 km
g.n
26. (b) The nuclear fuel in the sun is Hydrogen.
Actually the sun isn’t “burning,” but instead its heat
and light comes from its core where the element
14. (c) The largest planet in our solar system is
Jupiter. Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and
the largest planet in the Solar System. It is a gas
giant with mass one-thousandth of that of the Sun
et
hydrogen is continuously being converted into the
element helium. This known as nuclear fusion and
is basically the same thing a hydrogen bomb does.
27. (d) The outermost layer of the sun is called
but is two and a half times the mass of all the other corona. A corona is a type of plasma that surrounds
planets in the Solar System combined. the Sun and other celestial bodies. The Sun’s corona
15. (a) Jupiter has largest number of satellites or extends millions of kilometers into space and is
moons. The planet Jupiter has 67 confirmed moons. most easily seen during a total solar eclipse, but it is
This gives it the largest retinue of moons with also observable with a coronagraph.
“reasonably secure” orbits of any planet in the Solar 30. (b) Mars is known as Red planet. Mars is the
System. fourth planet from the Sun and the second smallest
16. (b) Earth is called the ‘Blue Planet’ due to the planet in the Solar System. Named after the Roman
abundant water on its surface. This is because liquid God of war, it is often described as the “Red Planet”
water covers most of the surface of the planet. The because the iron oxide prevalent on its surface gives
Earth has the right mass, chemical composition, and it a reddish appearance. Mars is a terrestrial planet
location can support liquid water. with a thin atmosphere, having surface features

Geography || B-7
reminiscent both of the impact craters of the Moon 48. (a) Saturn is surrounded by ring. Saturn has a ring
and the volcanoes, valleys, deserts, and polar ice around it because it is believed to be very big and
caps of Earth. has lots of moons, meaning it has a strong pull of
31. (c) Venus is the planet whose period of rotation gravity. Another major reason is that the asteroids
is longer than the period of revolution around the fling into its orbit and the rings are not solid.
sun. The period of rotation for Venus is 243 days. In
51. (d) The planet Pluto has been declared as a dwarf
other words, Venus takes 243 days to turn once on
its axis so that the stars are in the same position in planet in the summit held in Prague. In August
the sky. 2006 the International Astronomical Union (IAU)
ww
32. (d) The last stage in the life circle of a star is
white dwarf. Small stars, like the Sun, will undergo
a relatively peaceful and beautiful death that sees
downgraded the status of Pluto to that of “dwarf
planet.” This means that from now on only the
rocky worlds of the inner Solar System and the
w.Ethem pass through a planetary nebula phase to

become a white dwarf.
35. (a) Space between Earth and Moon is known as
Cislunar. Pertaining to the space between the earth
gas giants of the outer system will be designated as
planets.
54. (b) The sky looks black from the space. In space,
sunlight or any kind of star light does not have
and the orbit of the moon.
asy
36. (c) Our solar system is located in Milky Way
Galaxy. The Milky Way is the galaxy that contains
anything from which to bounce off.
55. (a) The black part of the moon is called sea of
En
our Solar System. Its name “milky” is derived
from its appearance as a dim glowing band arching
tranquility. Sea of tranquility is not an actual sea but
rather the point at which Apollo 11 first landed on
when it reached the moon. It is a lunar mare which
distinguish individual stars.
gin
across the night sky in which the naked eye cannot
37. (c) Neutron star is also known as Pulsar. A neutron

mainly consists of basalt rock and is located on the
Tranquillitatis basin which is on the Moon. The
ee
star is a type of stellar remnant that can result from
the gravitational collapse of a massive star.
38. (d) White Dwarf is known as Fossil star. They
are supported by electron degeneracy pressure. It
mare has a tint which is slightly blue in colour and
stands out from the rest of the moon.
rin
59. (c) The revolution of the earth around the sun
alone is not enough for change of seasons. Had
amplifies the contrast with red giants. They are
both very hot and very small. They are the opposite
of black holes. They are the end-products of small, g.n
the axis of the earth been vertical, the sun would
have been vertical at the same latitude throughout
the year. Therefore the revolution of the earth and
low-mass stars.
43. (d) The group of small pieces of rocks revolving
round the sun between the orbits of mars and Jupiter
are called Asteroids.
seasons. et
its inclination, both are necessary for the change of
61. (b) The direction of the sunrise depends upon

the direction of the rotation of the earth on its axis.
45. (b) Jupiter takes maximum time for one revolution
Any planet rotation on its axis from west to east
around the sun. Jupiter revolves or orbits around the
will experience sunrise in the east and viceversa.
Sun once every 11.86 Earth years, or once every
4,330.6 Earth days. Jupiter travels at an average Venus rotates on its axis from east to west and thus
speed of 29,236 miles. experiences sunrise in the west.
46. (c) Venus is called the Evening star. Because it 80. (b) The shortest ditance between two places on
trails the Sun in the sky and brightens into view the earth surface is along the Great Circles. The
immediately after the Sun sets and when the sky property of a great circle is that a plane passed along
is dark enough. When Venus is at its brightest, it it passes through the centre of the earth and divides
appears visible merely minutes after the Sun has set. it into two equal parts or hemispheres. Among the
47. (a) The Earth shows minimum distance from the latitudes only the equator is a great circle while
Sun on 3rd January. among longitudes all of them are great circles.

ww
2 Physical Geography
w.E
1. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a
huge mass called

(a) Aravalli
(c) Black Forest
(b) Andes
(d) Caucasus
(a) Indian
(c) Angaraland
asy
(b) Aryavarta
(d) Gondwana land
2. Which one of the following is not a metamorphic
11.

The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is
(a) Maldives (b) Madagascar
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra
rock?
(a) Geneiss
(c) Quartzite En
(b) Conglomerate
(d) Schist
12. Which one of the following ocean currents is
different from others?
element of the earth crust? gin

3. Which one of the following is the dominant

(a) Gulf stream
(b) Kuroshivo
(c) North Atlantic Drift
(a) Aluminium
(c) Oxygen
(b) Iron
(d) Silicon
4. The mouth of a volcano is known as
(a) Glacier
(c) Crater
(b) Cone
(d) Pipe
ee
13.

(d) Labrador
Gutenberg discontinuity separates
rin
(a) Crust from the upper mantle
(b) Upper mantle from lower mantle
5. The highest salinity is found in which of the

following lakes?
(a) Van Lake (b) Dead sea

g.n
(c) Lower mantle from outer core
(d) Outer core from the inner core
(c) Balkash lake (d) Baikal lake

6. Which one of the following is a temperate desert?

(a) Arabian desert (b) Atacama desert
(c) Kalahari desert (d) Patagonian desert
14.

15.
(a) Increases
(c) Decreases et
The height of tropopause towards poles
(b) Remains constant
(d) Varies at a point
In which of the following eras the earth was
7. The deepest lake of the world is nearly covered with snow and ice?
(a) Baikal (b) Crater (a) Cretaceous Era (b) Pliocene Era
(c) Nyasa (d) Tanganyika (c) Pleistocene Era (d) Tertiary Era
8. The terms longitude and latitude were first used by 16. Earth’s Albedo is largely affected by
(a) Herodotus (b) Eratosthenese (a) Cloudiness
(c) Posidonius (d) Ptolemy (b) Dust particles in atmosphere
9. Which one of the following sea is the largest in (c) Atmospheric layer
area? (d) Nature of the earth’s surface
(a) Sea of Okhotsk (b) Sea of Japan 17. The largest volume and mass of the earth is found
(c) Sea of China (d) Bering Sea in
10. Which one of the following is an example of a (a) Crust (b) Mantle
block mountain? (c) Outer core (d) Inner core

Geography || B-9
18. Which of the following is not chemical 29. A hot local wind blowing in Sahara desert is
weathering? known as
(a) Oxidation (b) Hydrolysis (a) Haboob (b) Karaburan
(c) Freezing (d) Carbonization (c) Jooran (d) Harmattan
19. Ox-bow lake is a feature formed by 30. Break up of Gondwana land mass started during
(a) River erosion in youthful stage the period of
(b) Transportation action of the river (a) Permian (b) Jurassic
(c) River erosion in mature stage (c) Cretaceous (d) Triassic
(d) Deposition in old stage of a river 31. Tsunamis are mainly produced by
ww
20. Fog is a phenomenon indicating

(a) Low average temperature
(b) Normal lapse of temperature

(a) Subaerial earthquakes
(b) Submarine earthquakes
(c) Cyclones

w.E(c) Inversion of temperature
(d) High average temperature
21. The clockwise movement of winds in the cyclones
(d) Tides
32. Bhabar is an example of
(a) Panplane (b) Piedmont plain

asy
of southern hemisphere is mainly caused by
(a) Centrifugal force (b) Deflective force
(c) Frictional force (d) Pressure force
(c) Till plain (d) Deltaic plain
33. Which one of the following is not related to plate
Tectonic Theory?
En
22. Which one of the following currents has a
warming influence on the neighbouring coast?
(a) Benguela (b) Agulhas

(a) Continental drift
(b) Pole wandering
(c) Canaries
gin
(d) Oyasio
23. Which one of the following local winds is

(c) Transform fault
(d) Sea floor spreading
34. Telegraph plateau is a part of
different from the other three?
(a) Khamsin
(c) Sirocco
(b) Foehn
(d) Mistral ee
24. The hail is generally associated with which of the

(a) North Atlantic Ridge
(b) South Atlantic Ridge
rin
(c) Indian Ocean Ridge
(d) South Pacific Ridge
following clouds?
(a) Cirrus (b) Cumulus
(c) Cumulo-nimbus (d) Stratus
others?
(a) Canary current g.n
35. Which one of the following is different from
25. Which one is not a depositional land form

developed by the running water?
(a) River terraces (b) Alluvial
(c) Natural levees (d) Delta

(b) Mozambique current
(c) Oyashio current
(d) Falkland current
et
36. Which one of the following geological periods
26. Which one of the following is not a tropical
was frequented by increased volcanic activities?
desert?
(a) Cretaceous period (b) Ordovician period
(a) Atacama (b) Arabia
(c) Jurassic period (d) Miocene period
(c) Gobi (d) Kalahari
37. Which of the following pairs is most suitable for
27. Thunderstorms are associated with
ascertaining the origin of the rocks?
(a) Cumulus clouds
(a) Colour and shape
(b) Cumulonimbus clouds
(b) Size and weight
(c) Cirrus clouds
(c) Density and hardness
(d) Stratus clouds
(d) Structure and composition
28. Which one of the following seas is the shallowest?
38. The ratio between meridian and equator on globe is
(a) Baltic (b) Black
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(c) Yellow (d) North
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1

B-10 || Physical Geography

39. The continent through which both the tropic of 49. Which one of the following is a warm ocean
cancer and the Tropic of capricorn pass is current?
(a) North America (b) Asia (a) East Australian current
(c) Africa (d) Europe (b) West Australian current
40. Where is the Blind valley found? (c) Benguela current
(a) River valley region (d) Peru current
(b) Arid region 50. Radioactive dating is a technique which can be
(c) Karst region used to measure
(d) Glacier region (a) The age of rocks
ww
41. During volcanic eruption deposition of lava in
anticlines and synclines of folded mountains
accounts for formation of

(b) Composition of rocks
(c) Colour of rocks
(d) Weight of rocks
w.E
(a) Phacolith
(c) Batholith
(b) Lopolith
(d) Lacolith
42. When following fissures in the rocks, its both
parts slide in front and one part slides over the
51. Rift valley is formed by
(a) Earthquake
(c) Faulting
(b) Folding
(d) All of these

(a) Lateral fault
(c) Reverse fault
asy
other, the resulting feature is
(b) Step fault
(d) Normal fault
52. Which one among the following is a primary

rock?
(a) Sedimentary rock
En
43. Atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves is
called

(b) Igneous rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(a) Exosphere
(c) Stratosphere
gin
(b) Ionosphere
(d) Troposphere
44. Which one of the following is related to the origin
(d) None of these
53. Granite and Basalt are the examples of which of
the following?

of folded mountains?
(a) Accreting plate margin
(b) Consuming plate margin
(c) Conserving plate margin
ee

(a) Sedimentary rock
(b) Metamorphic rock
(c) Igneous rock
rin
(d) Calcareous rock
(d) Intra plate zone
45. The layer of the atmosphere which contains dust
particles and water vapour is called
(a) Earthquake
(c) Cyclone g.n
54. Epicentre is concerned with
(b) Volcano
(d) Land sliding
(a) Stratosphere
(c) Ionosphere
(b) Troposphere
(d) Mesosphere
46. Which of the following does not affect the
distribution of insolution?
55. Gulf stream is

(a) A river in the Gulf
(b) An ocean current
et
(c) A second name of jet stream
(a) Altitude
(b) Angle of sun’s rays (d) A local wind
(c) Length of the day 56. Who divided the interior of the earth in
(d) Ocean currents Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Mesosphere and
47. Tropopause separates Centrosphere?
(a) Troposphere and ozonosphere (a) Suess (b) Kelvin
(b) Stratosphere and Troposphere (c) Daily (d) None of these
(c) Stratosphere and Ionosphere 57. U-shaped valley develops in
(d) Troposphere and Ionosphere (a) Karst region (b) Glacial region
48. Which one of the following ocean tides is caused (c) Desert region (d) All of these
by biological factors? 58. Which of the following is not igneous rock?
(a) Neap tide (b) Red tide (a) Granite (b) Conglomerate
(c) Apogean tide (d) Perigean tide (c) Basalt (d) Rhyolite

Geography || B-11
59. Landscapes, developed due to Rejuvenation 70. Tropical cyclones in Australia are called
activity are called (a) Willy willy (b) Hurricanes
(a) Polycyclic landscapes (c) Easterly waves (d) Typhoons
(b) Monocyclic landscape 71. Which of the following rocks is not likely to
(c) Mixed landscape contain fossils?
(d) Compound landscape (a) Conglomerate (b) Granite
60. The concept of sea floor spreading was first (c) Shale (d) Sandstone
propounded by 72 What does the term ‘sial’ refer to ?
(a) F.B. Taylor (b) Harry Hess (a) Earth’s surface layer
ww
(c) Lowthian Green (d) A. Holmes
61. Which of the following land forms is not formed
by wind action?

(b) The core part of the earth
(c) Ocean bottom rocks
(d) A rock which is rich in calcium

w.E(a) Stone Latice
(b) Mushroom or Gara
(c) Sand Bars
(d) Inselberg
73. ‘Nife’ refers to

(a) innermost layer of the earth
(b) outermost layer of the earth
(c) intermediate layer of the earth

Australia is
(a) Fringing reef
asy
62. Coral reef extending along with eastern coast of
(b) Barrier reef

(d) none of the above
74. Limestome is an example of
(c) Atoll
En
(d) Coral island
63. Volcanic eruptions do not occurs in the
(a)

sedimentary rocks (b) metamorphic rocks
(c) igneous rocks (d) volcanic rocks
75. Isoseismal lines join places

(a) Baltic sea
gin
(b) Black sea
(c) Caribbean sea (d) Caspian sea
64. Quartzite is metamorphosed from

(a) experiencing no earthquake
(b) experiencing the same intensity of the
earthquake
(a) Limestone
(c) Sandstone
(b) Obsidian
(d) Shale
ee
65. Among oceanic trenches the deepest trench is
(a) Kurile trench (b) Japan trench

(c) experiencing the earthquake for the same
duration
rin
(d) experiencing an earthquake at the same time
76. The groovings are formed
(c) Mariana trench (d) Tonga trench
66. In which form is atmospheric humidity
expressed?

g.n
(a) through stream deposition
(b) through wind deposition

(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Specific humidity
(c) Relative humidity
(d) All of these

et
(c) through glacial erosion
(d) through river erosion
77. Karst landforms are made by

(a) waves in coastal areas
(b) wind in the semi-arid regions
67. The process of water vapour changing to the
liquid state (water) is called (c) water in limestone regions
(a) Sublimation (b) Transpiration (d) glaciers in the coasal regions
(c) Condensation (d) Dew 78. Hanging valleys are associated with
68. Black Forest mountain is an example of (a) winds action (b) glacial action
(a) Folded mountain (c) wave action (d) river action
(b) Block mountain 79. Bays and gulfs are usually made by the erosional
(c) Volcanic mountain work of
(d) Residual mountain (a) waves (b) large streams
69. Jet stream is (c) coastal glaciers (d) underground water
(a) Fast blowing westerlies in upper part of 80. The drip stones are found in
Troposphere. (b) Ocean current (a) glaciated regions (b) limestone caverns
(c) Monsoon winds (d) None of these (c) desert regions (d) wave eroded areas


81. A large body of air having fairly uniform 91. In a cyclone in northern hemisphere winds blow
temperature and humidity etc. is called (a) anticlockwise
(a) a cyclone (b) an anticyclone (b) clockwise
(c) an air mass (d) an air parcel (c) straight centreward
82. What is the most important element of climate ? (d) radially outward
(a) Rainfall (b) Temperature 92. When air temperature rises ralative humidity
(c) Pressure (d) Humidity (a) increases
83. Ozone content is maximum in areas (b) decreases
(a) near equator (c) does not change
ww

(b) polewards of 50 degree latitude
(c) near the tropics
(d) equatorward of 25 degree latitude

93.

(d) may increase or decrease
Jet stream is a
(a) high velocity warm current in Atlantic
w.E
84. Which layer of atmosphere is vital for tele-
commnications?
(a) Troposphere
(c) Stratosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(d) Ionosphere

Ocean
(b) high velocity local surface wind
(c) high velocity upper tropospheric wind
(d) high velocity current of water in a stream

(a) pressure gradient
(b) earth’s revolution
asy
85. The coriollis effect is produced by 94. Tropopause acts as a separator between
(a) earth and the troposphere

(c) earth’s rotation
En
(d) earth’s rotation and revolution

(b) troposphere and stratosphere
(c) mesosphere and exosphere
(d) stratosphere and ionosphere

(a) pressure gradient
gin
86. The velocity of the winds is determined by
(b) pressure gradient and humidity

95. The Great Barrier Reef is located at the

(a) East Australian coast
(b) Andaman and Nicobar coast

(c) coriollis effect
(d) pressure and earth’s rotation
87. Roaring forties are the
(a) High velocity trade winds
ee

(c) West Australian coast
(d) Mouth of Gulf and Cambay
rin
96. Humboldt Current flows
(a) southwards in western Pacific Ocean

(b) High velocity westerly winds
(c) High velocity polar winds
(d) High mangitude tidal waves due to high

g.n
(b) northwards in eastern Pacific Ocean
(c) southwards in eastern Pacific Ocean
(d) northwards in western Pacific Ocean
wind velocity
88. The mistral is experienced in
(a) Southern France (b) Iran and Iraq
(c) California
(d) Northern Adriatic coast

et
97. Canaries Current flows along
(a) Brazilian coast (b) Peruvian coast
(c) East African coast (d) West African coast
98. The Agulhas Current flows in
89. The sky looks blue because of (a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean
(a) Selective absorption of radiation by (c) Atlantic Ocean (d) Southern Ocean
atmosphere 99. The colour of Yellow Sea is the result of
(b) Selective scattering of radiation by (a) industrial pollution.
atmosphere (b) peculiar types of phytoplankton growing
(c) Reflection of blue colour of the oceans there.
(d) Absorption of blue light in the atmosphere (c) loess brought by Hwang-he river.
90. A cyclone is an area of (d) high sulphur content in the bottom rocks.
(a) low pressure surrounded by high pressure 100. What is the most abundant component of salts in
(b) high pressure surrounded by low pressure sea ?
(c) air divergence (a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(d) air subsidence (c) Chlorine (d) Potassium

Geography || B-13
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (b) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (b) 81. (c) 91. (a)
2. (b) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (c) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (b) 92. (b)
3. (c) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (a) 73. (a) 83. (b) 93. (c)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (a)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (d) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (b)
ww7.
8.
(a)
(b)
17.
18.
(b)
(c)
27.
28.
(b)
(c)
37.
38.
(d)
(d)
47.
48.
(b)
(b)
57.
58.
(b)
(b)
67.
68.
(c)
(b)
77.
78.
(c)
(b)
87.
88.
(b)
(a)
97.
98.
(d)
(a)
w.E
9.
10.
(a)
(c)
19.
20.
(c)
(c)
29.
30.
(d)
(c)
39.
40.
(c)
(c)
49.
50.
(a)
(a)
59.
60.
(a)
(b)
69.
70.
(a)
(a)
79.
80.
(a)
(b)
89.
90.
(b)
(a)
99.
100.
(c)
(c)
aHints
syE& Solutions
part of a huge mass called Gondwana land.
In paleogeography, Gondwana, ngi
1. (d) The Indian sub-continent was originally
originally
region of Siberia, between the Irkutsk Oblast to the
northwest and the Buryat Republic to the southeast.
8. (b) The terms longitude and latitude were first
Gondwanaland, is the name given to the more
nee
southerly of two supercontinents which were part
of the Pangaea supercontinent that existed from
used by Eratosthenese. Eratosthenes of Cyrene
was a Greek mathematician, geographer, poet,
astronomer, and music theorist. He was a man of
approximately 510 to 180 million years ago.
2. (b) Conglomerate is not a metamorphic rock. of Alexandria.
rin
learning, becoming the chief librarian at the Library
9. (a) Bering sea is the largest in area. The Bering Sea

Conglomerate is a rock consisting of individual
clasts within a finer-grained matrix that have
become cemented together. Conglomerates are g.n
is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean. It comprises a
deep water basin, which then rises through a narrow
sedimentary rocks consisting of rounded fragments
and are thus differentiated from breccias, which
consist of angular clasts.
5. (a) The highest salinity is found in Lake Van. Lake
shelves.
et
slope into the shallower water above the continental
10. (c) Black Forest is an example of a block mountain.

The Black Forest is a wooded mountain range in
Baden-Wurttemberg, southwestern Germany. It is
Van is the largest lake in Turkey, located in the far
bordered by the Rhine valley to the west and south.
east of the country in Van district. It is a saline soda
The highest peak is the Feldberg with an elevation
lake, receiving water from numerous small streams of 1,493 metres (4,898 ft). The region is almost
that descend from the surrounding mountains. rectangular with a length of 160 km (99 mi) and
6. (d) Patagonian desert is a temperature desert. The breadth of up to 60 km (37 mi).
Patagonian Desert, also known as the Patagonia 11. (b) The biggest Island of the Indian ocean is
Desert or the Patagonian Steppe, is the largest Madagascar. Madagascar, officially the Republic of
desert in Argentina and is the 7th largest desert Madagascar and previously known as the Malagasy
in the world by area, occupying 673,000 square Republic, is an island country in the Indian Ocean,
kilometers. off the coast of Southeast Africa.
7. (a) The deepest lake of the world is Baikal. Lake 12. (d) Labrador is different from other ocean
Baikal is a rift lake in the south of the Russian currents. It is cold in nature. The Labrador Current


is a cold current in the North Atlantic Ocean which 32. (b) Bhabar is an example of piedmont plain.
flows from the Arctic Ocean south along the coast 33. (b) Pole wandering is not related to plate tectonic
of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland, theory.
continuing south along the east coast of Nova 34. (a) Telegraph plateau is a part of North Atlantic
Scotia. Ridge.
15. (c) The earth was nearly covered with snow and ice 35. (b) Mozambique current is different from the
in pleistocene Era. The Pleistocene is the geological others. The Mozambique Current is an ocean current
epoch which lasted from about 2,588,000 to 11,700 in the Indian Ocean, usually defined as warm surface
years ago, spanning the world’s recent period of waters flowing south along the African east coast in
ww
19.
repeated glaciations.
(c) Ox-bow lake is a feature formed by River
erosion in mature stage. An ox-bow is a crescent-
shaped lake lying alongside a winding river. The
the Mozambique Channel, between Mozambique
and the island of Madagascar.
40. (c) The Blind valley is found in the karst region.
w.E
22.
ox-bow lake is created over time as erosion and
deposits of soil change the river’s course.
(b) Agulhas currents has a warming influence on
Karst topography is a geological formation shaped
by the dissolution of a layer or layers of soluble
bedrock, usually carbonate rock such as limestone
or dolomite, but also in gypsum.
asy
the neighbouring coast. The Agulhas Current is the
western boundary current of the southwest Indian
Ocean. It flows down the east coast of Africa from
41. (a) During volcanic eruption deposition of lava
in anticlines and synclines of folded mountains
accounts for formation of phacolith. A phacolith is
23.
En
27°S to 40°S. It is narrow, swift and strong.
(d) Mistral the local wind is different from the
others. The mistral is a strong, cold and usually dry
a pluton parallel to the bedding plane or foliation
of folded country rock. More specifically, it is a
gin
regional wind in France, coming from the north
or northwest, which accelerates when it passes
through the valleys of the Rhone and the Durance
typically lens-shaped pluton that occupies either the
crest of an anticline or the trough of a syncline.
42. (c) When the following fissures in the rocks it’s
24.
ee
Rivers to the coast of the Mediterranean around the
Camargue region.
(c) The hail is generally associated with the
cumulo-nimbus clouds. Cumulonimbus, from the
both parts slide in front and one part slides over the
other, the resulting feature is Reverse fault. Reverse
rin
faults are exactly the opposite of normal faults. If
the hanging wall rises relative to the footwall, you
Latin cumulus (“heap”) and nimbus (“rainstorm”,
“storm cloud”), is a dense towering vertical cloud
associated with thunderstorms and atmospheric
have a reverse fault.
g.n
43. (b) Atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves
is called Ionosphere. The ionosphere is a region
26.
instability, forming from water vapour carried by
powerful upward air currents.
(c) Gobi is not a tropical desert. It is a temperate
desert partly located in northern China and partly in
Mongolia.
et
of the upper atmosphere, from about 85 km (53
mi) to 600 km (370 mi) altitude, and includes the
thermosphere and parts of the mesosphere and
exosphere. It is distinguished because it is ionized
by solar radiation. It plays an important part in
28. (c) Yellow sea is the shallowest about 44 meter. atmospheric electricity and forms the inner edge
29. (d) A hot local wind blowing in sahara desert is of the magnetosphere. It has practical importance
known as Harmattan. The Harmattan is a dry and because, among other functions, it influences radio
dusty West African trade wind. This northeasterly propagation to distant places on the Earth.
wind blows from the Sahara into the Gulf of Guinea 49. (a) East Australian current is a warm ocean current
between the end of November and the middle of that moves warm water from the tropical Coral Sea,
March. The temperatures can be as low as 3 degrees where it splits from the South Equatorial Current,
Celsius down the east coast of Australia.
30. (c) During the period of cretaceous era break up 51. (c) Rift valley is formed by faulting. A rift
of Gondwana land mass started. valley is a linear-shaped lowland between several
31. (b) Tsunamis are mainly produced by submarine highlands or mountain ranges created by the action
earthquakes. of a geologic rift or fault.

Geography || B-15
55. (b) Gulf stream is a warm ocean current originated 65. (c) Mariana trench is the deepest trench located in
from the eastern coast of North America. The the pacific ocean near Japan. The Mariana Trench or
Gulf Stream, together with its northern extension Marianas Trench is the deepest part (11 km) of the
towards Europe, the North Atlantic Drift, is a world’s oceans. It is located in the western Pacific
powerful, warm, and swift Atlantic ocean current Ocean, to the east of the Mariana Islands.
that originates at the tip of Florida, and follows 69. (a) Jet stream is fast blowing westerlies in upper
part of troposphere. Jet streams are fast flowing,
the eastern coastlines of the United States and
narrow air currents found in the atmospheres of
Newfoundland before crossing the Atlantic Ocean.
some planets, including Earth. The main jet streams
57. (b) U-shaped valley develops in the Glacial
ww region. Ice causes friction on the sides of the valley.

60. (b) The concept of sea floor spreading was first
propounded by Harry Hess. Harry Hammond Hess
are located near the tropopause, the transition
between the troposphere (where temperature
decreases with altitude) and the stratosphere (where
w.Ewas a geologist and United States Navy officer in

World War II. Considered one of the “founding
fathers” of the unifying theory of plate tectonics,
temperature increases with altitude).
70. (a) Tropical cyclones in Australia are called Willy-
willy. Willy willy is a small windstorm that mostly
occurs in dry, outback areas. The term Willy Willy
May 24, 1906 in New York City.asy

Rear Admiral Harry Hammond Hess was born on
61. (c) Sand Bars is not formed by wind action.

is of Aboriginal origin. Willy willies are normally
tropical cyclones.
71. (b) Fossils are found only in the sedimentary
En
A long mass or low ridge of submerged or partially
exposed sand built up in the water along a shore or
rocks or the metamorphic rocks made from the
sedimentaries. Granite is an igneous rock and hence
gin
beach by the action of waves or currents.
62. (b) Coral reef, the Great Barrier Reef extending
contains no fossils.
82. (b) Although temperature, pressure and humidity,
all are important elements of weather and climate,
ee
along with eastern coast of Australia. The Great
Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system
composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 900
islands stretching for over 2,600 kilometres over an
area of approximately 344,400 square kilometres.
84.
the temperature is the basis of all these as all other
elements directily or indirectly depend upon it.
(d) The
rin
ionosphere makes the radio
communications possible by virtue to the fact this
g.n
layer reflects the radio singnals back to the earth.
et

ww
3 Economic Geography

w.E
1. More than one-third of the crude steel production
of the world comes from
(a) China (b) Japan
10. The leading producer of both rice and wheat in
the world is
(a) China (b) India

2.
(c) Russia
asy
(d) U.S.A.
The largest proven oil reserve of the world lies in
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
11. Which one of the following countries is credited

3.
(a) Venezuela
(c) Iran (d) Iraq
Peanuts are the main crop of En
(b) Saudi Arabia with the establishment of uranium city?
(a) Australia (b) Russia

(a) Georgia
(c) Ghana
(b) Gambia
gin
(d) Guatemala
(c) Canada
12. Kimberley is famous for
(a) Gold Mining
(d) U.S.A
(b) Diamond mining

4.

producer of diamond?
(a) Australia
(c) Russia
(b) Venezuela
(d) Botswana
ee
Which of the following countries is the largest

(c) Steel industry
(a) Iron ore

(c) Copper ore
(d) Automobile industry
13. Donbas region is famous for
rin (b) Coal

(d) Gold
5. The Ruhr basin is the famous industrial region of

(a) China
(c) Germany
(b) Japan
(d) United Kingdom g.n
14. The country at the top in terms of percentage of
total coffee production in the world is
(a) Colombia (b) Brazil
6.

In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200
cm and sloping hills which crop will be ideal?
(a) Jute
(c) Maize
(b) Cotton
(d) Tea
(c) India
et
(d) Ethiopia
15. Geothermal energy is basically
(a) Non-renewable (b) Renewable
(c) Biotic (d) Non-cyclic
7. Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil
moisture? 16. Which one of the following is a fossil source of
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil energy?
(c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil (a) Wood (b) Solar radiation
8. Monoculture is a distinct characteristic of (c) Tidal waves (d) Petroleum
(a) Commercial grain farming 17. Which one of the following is the second leading
(b) Shifting cultivation exporter of petroleum after Saudi Arabia?
(c) Subsistence farming (a) Norway (b) U.A.E.
(d) Organic farming (c) Russia (d) Venezuela
9. The largest producer of wine in the world is 18. The largest producer of copper in the world is
(a) France (b) Italy (a) Australia (b) Chile
(c) Spain (d) U.S.A. (c) Peru (d) U.S.A.

Geography || B-17
19. Chena cultivation is found in (c) Local market facility

(a) Combodia (b) Indonesia (d) Local supply of cheap labour
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Philippines 32. Which of the following countries is the highest
20. Which of the following industries should be producer of Uranium in Asia?
mainly located near the raw material areas? (a) China (b) India
(a) Iron steel (b) Cotton textile (c) Uzbekistan (d) Indonesia
(c) Ship building (d) Engineering 33. The greatest producer of wheat in Europe is
21. The largest producer of tungsten in the world is (a) Ukraine (b) U.K.
(a) Australia (b) China (c) France (d) Germany
ww

22.

(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
The largest importer of petroleum in the world is
(a) China (b) India
34. Which of the following countries is the greatest
producer of bauxite in the world?
(a) Argentina (b) Australia

w.E
23.

(c) Japan (d) U.S.A.
The ‘Wheat Crescent’ lies in
(a) Australia (b) Argentina
(c) South Africa (d) Brazil
35. Which of the following is important for ship
building?

24.

(c) Canada
asy
(d) U.S.A.
The largest exporter of steel in the world is
(a) China (b) Japan
(a) Liverpool
(c) Berlin
(b) Detroit
(d) Beijing
36. Which country is the most important producer of

25.
(c) Russia
En
(d) Ukraine
The leading producer of gold in the world is
iron and steel in the southern hemisphere?
(a) Chili (b) Peru

(a) Australia
(c) South Africa
(b) China
gin
(d) U.S.A.
(c) Brazil (d) Venezuela
37. The lines of equal transport cost in the industrial
location model of Alfred Weber are known as
26.

27.
world is
(a) India
(c) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(d) Thailand
ee
The leading producer of natural rubber in the
Which one of the following deserts is famous for

(a) Isoline
(c) Isodapen
rin
(b) Isobar
(d) Isotim
38. Great Lakes region of North America is famous
for the mining of

its nitrate deposits?
(a) Atacama (b) Gobi
(a) Coal
(c) Iron-ore
g.n(b) Petroleum
(d) Bauxite
39. Which of the following countries is the largest

28.

(c) Kalahari (d) Sahara
In which of the following crops the international
trade is low in comparison to total produce?
(a) Coffee (b) Rice
producer of Argon oil?
(a) Greece
(c) Iran
40. Krivoirog is known for
et
(b) Mosocco
(d) Iraq
(c) Rubber (d) Wheat (a) Textile industry (b) Chemical industry
29. In the U.S.A. the cotton textile industry shifted (c) Iron-ore mining (d) Bauxite mining
from North Eastern states to the south because of 41. The largest iron-ore producing region in the
(a) High labour cost (b) Low demand U.S.A. is
(c) Hilly terrain (d) Lack of coal (a) North East Appalachian region
30. The per capita CO2 emission is the highest in (b) Albama region
(a) China (b) India (c) Lake superior region
(c) Japan (d) U.S.A. (d) Sierra Nevada region
31. The iron and steel industry is largely concentrated 42. The leading wool producing country in the world
in the Kuzbas region because of the is
(a) Availability of iron ore (a) New Zealand (b) Canada
(b) Availability of coal (c) Australia (d) Argentina

B-18 || Economic Geography

43. The major agricultural regions of the world were 54. The Broken Hill of Australia is famous for the
first delineated by mining of
(a) L.D. Stamp (b) H. Bobek (a) Zinc (b) Silver
(c) D. Whittlesey (d) J.E. Spencer (c) Lead (d) All of these
44. Kanat system of irrigation is developed in 55. Which one of the following countries is the
largest producer of Geo-thermal energy in the
(a) Egypt (b) Iran
world?
(c) Kazakhstan (d) New Zealand (a) Australia (b) New Zealand
45. Which one of the following countries has the (c) U.S.A. (d) U.K.
ww largest arable land?

(a) Australia
(c) China
(b) Brazil
(d) India
56. The largest exporter of fish in the world is
(a) Norway
(c) Canada
(b) U.K.
(d) Japan

w.E
46. Plantation agriculture is practical mainly in the
(a) Arid region
(b) Mediterranean region
57. Largest industrial gas reserves are found in
(a) Iran
(c) Qatar
(b) Iraq
(d) Russia
58. The largest reserves of coal in the world are found

(c) Temperate region
(d) Tropical region
asy
47. Which one of the following industries is a foot-
in
(a) Russia (b) U.S.A.
loose industry?
(a) Cement En
(b) Sugar
(c) China (d) Australia
59. Which among the following has the world’s
largest reserves of Uranium?
(c) Iron and steel
gin
(d) Hosiery
48. Which region is called the bread basket of the
(a) Australia
(c) Russia
(b) Canada
(d) U.S.A.
60. The largest producer of Milk in the world is

world?
(a) Temperate grassland
(b) Savanna grassland
(c) Mediterranean region
ee (a) China
(c) India
(a) Copper rin

(b) U.S.A.
(d) Brazil
61. Katanga province of Zaire is famous for
(b) Coal
(d) Mid latitude forest
49. The largest producer and supplier of sugar in the
world is
(c) Gold
g.n
(d) Diamond
62. Saar basin is an important industrial region in
(a) France (b) Germany
(a) Brazil
(c) Indonesia
(a) China
(b) Cuba
(d) Thailand
50. The largest exporter of rice in the world is
(b) India
(c) Japan
(a) Brazil
(c) India
et
(d) U.K.
63. World’s largest producer of sugarcane
(b) China
(d) Indonesia
(c) Thailand (d) Vietnam 64. The largest producer of coconut in the world is
51. Which one of the following is not a type of (a) Brazil (b) India
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
shifting cultivation?
65. The leading producer of Titanium in the world is
(a) Chena (b) Fazenda (a) India (b) Japan
(c) Fang (d) Milpa (c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
52. World’s largest reserve of Uranium is found in 66. Which of the following crops are grown mostly
(a) Australia (b) Brazil under subsistence farming?
(c) Canada (d) South Africa (a) Millets and Rice
53. The largest producer of silver in the world is (b) Cotton and Tobacco
(a) Canada (b) U.S.A. (c) Tea and Coffee
(c) Mexico (d) Australia (d) Vegetables and Fruits

Geography || B-19
67. Teak and Sal are products of 79. The natural rubber is obtained from the
(a) Tropical dry deciduous Forest (a) bark of trees (b) fruit of trees
(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests (c) roots to trees (d) latex of trees
(c) Tropical Thorn Forests 80. Which country is the most important exporter of
(d) Alpine Forests wood pulp and newsprint ?
68. The place of origin of red gram is (a) US (b) Canada
(a) America (b) India (c) Russia (d) Sweden
(c) South Africa (d) Egypt 81. Sericulture means
(a) rearing of silkworms
ww
69.

Two largest producers of sugarbeet in the world
are
(a) Belgium and China

(b) growing of small plants
(c) cultivation of spices
(d) cultivation of grapes

w.E(b) France and Russia
(c) Germany and U.S.A.
(d) Turkey and Ukrain
70. Dapog method of rice nursery was developed in
82.

What is viticulture ?
(a) Cultivation of grapes
(b) Growing small plants
(a) China
(c) Japan asy
(b) Indonesia
(d) Philippines

83.
(c) Growing tobacco
(d) Cultivation of spices
Silviculture is concerned with
(a) capital
(c) durable En
71. Textiles are a –––––– type of good.
(b) consumer
(d) subsistence

(a) Making vines
(b) Growing plants saplings
population. gin
72. Name the country with the largest cattle

84.
(c) Growing spices
(d) Market gardening
Which crop is afflicted by the disease called red
(a) USA
(c) India
(b) Argentina
(d) Australia
ee
73. The leading producer of quality merino wool is
(a) Australia (b) Turkey

85.
rot ?
(a) Rice
(c) Bajra
rin
(b) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane
Horticulture is concerned with the
(c) New Zealand (d) South Africa
74. Which factor influences the plant growth most
profoundly?

g.n
(a) growing of flowers and fruits
(b) rearing animals for meet and skins
(c) farming without crop rotaion
(a) Temperature
(c) Soil fertility
(b) Moisture
(d) Soil depth
75. From which plant part is camphor (a distillate)
obtained?

86.

etc.
et
(d) cultivation of crops without any machinery
Blue revolution relates to

(a) Crop farming
(b) Industrial production
(a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Fishing
(c) Flowers (d) Leaves
(d) Mining and metallurgy.
76. Which country is the leading producer of oranges? 87. Uranium is the –––––– among the known metals.
(a) France (b) Spain (a) lightest (b) heaviest
(c) Italy (d) US (c) most porous (d) most crystalline
77. Sugarcane cultivation dominates the farming in 88. The most abundant source of energy is
(a) India (b) Cuba (a) Oil (b) Biomass
(c) Indonesia (d) Australia (c) Coal (d) Sun
78. Which country is the largest producer of raw jute ? 89. Which mineral is considered to be the hardest ?
(a) India (b) Bangladesh (a) Tungsten (b) Diamond
(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar (c) Platinum (d) Uranium


90. What is white coal ? 96. The famous Kimberley mines are situated in
(a) Petroleum (a) US (b) Australia
(b) Producing fuel from Thermal power (c) India (d) South Africa
(c) Producing fuel from Chopped wood 97. Name one of the important tribal groups of Japan.
(d) Producing fuel from Nuclear power (a) Hottentot (b) Eskimo
91. The Detroit region in US is famous for (c) Fula (d) Ainu
(a) Iron and steel (b) Ship building 98. The winter snow house of Eskimos are called
(c) Automobile (d) Petro chemicals (a) Yurt (b) Igloo
ww
92. Which country produces maximum steel in the
world ?
(a) Japan (b) UK

99.
(c) Kayak (d) Toupic
What is the most commonly used building
material in deserts ?
w.E
(c) USA (d) Australia
93. The first cotton mill of india was established at
(a) Mumbai (b) Ahmedabad

(a) Mud and clay
(c) Bricks
(a) Steel making

(b) Wood
(d) Thatch and reeds
100. Coking coal is a vital input in
(b) Thermal power
(c) Baroda
asy
(d) Kolkata
94. Nagoya is an important ship building centre of
(a) Norway (b) US
(c) Copper smelting (d) Sponge iron making
101. The region having the world’s largest reserves of
(c) Japan
En
(d) Russia
95. India is one of the leading exporters of
petroleum is
(a) US
(b) Venezuela
(a) copper
(c) tin gin
(b) manganese
(d) silver

(c) Southeast Asia
(d) Southwest Asia
ee rin
g.n
et

Geography || B-21
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 13. (b) 25. (c) 37. (c) 49. (a) 61. (a) 73. (a) 85. (a) 97. (d)
2. (b) 14. (b) 26. (d) 38. (c) 50. (c) 62. (a) 74. (a) 86. (c) 98. (b)
3. (b) 15. (b) 27. (a) 39. (b) 51. (b) 63. (a) 75. (d) 87. (b) 99. (a)
4. (c) 16. (d) 28. (b) 40. (c) 52. (a) 64. (c) 76. (d) 88. (d) 100. (a)
5. (c) 17. (c) 29. (a) 41. (c) 53. (c) 65. (c) 77. (b) 89. (b) 101. (d)
6. (d) 18. (b) 30. (a) 42. (c) 54. (d) 66. (a) 78. (b) 90. (c)
ww7.
8.
(b)
(a)
19.
20.
(c)
(a)
31.
32.
(b)
(c)
43.
44.
(c)
(b)
55.
56.
(c)
(a)
67.
68.
(a)
(b)
79.
80.
(d)
(b)
91.
92.
(c)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
11.
(b)
(a)
(c)
21.
22.
23.
(b)
(d)
(b)
33.
34.
35.
(a)
(d)
(a)
45.
46.
47.
(d)
(d)
(d)
57.
58.
59.
(d)
(b)
(b)
69.
70.
71.
(b)
(d)
(b)
81.
82.
83.
(a)
(a)
(b)
93.
94.
95.
(d)
(c)
(b)
12. (b) 24. (a) 36.
aHints
(c) 48. (a)
syE& Solutions
60. (c) 72. (c) 84. (d) 96. (d)
ngi
1. (a) More than one-third of the crude steel 5. (c) The Ruhr basin is the famous Industrial region
nee
production of the world comes from China. China’s
crude steel production rose by 4.2% from a year
ago.
of Germany. Formerly Germany’s coal-mining
region, the Ruhrgebiet forms one of the largest
2. (b) The largest proven oil reserve of the world

lies in Saudi Arabia. Proven oil reserves in Saudi
rin
conurbations in Europe with 5 million residents and
is now known for its diverse and vibrant cultural
scene.
Arabia are the second largest claimed in the world,
estimated to be 267 billion barrels (42 × 109 m3)
(Gbbl hereafter) including 2.5 Gbbl in the Saudi-
6.
g.n
(d) In an area with annual rainfall of more than
200 cm and sloping hills will be the ideal for tea
Kuwaiti neutral zone. These reserves were the
largest in the world until Venezuela announced they
had increased their proven reserves to 297 Gbbl in
January 2011.
8.
plantation.
et
(a) Monoculture is a distinct characteristic of
commercial grain farming. Monoculture is the
agricultural practice of producing or growing a
3. (b) Peanuts are the main crop of Gambia. The
Gambia has no important mineral or other natural single crop or plant species over a wide area and for
resources and has a limited agricultural base. About a large number of consecutive years.
75% of the population depends on crops and livestock 9. (b) The largest producer of wine in the world is
for its livelihood. Small-scale manufacturing activity Italy. Italy is home of the oldest wine producing
features the processing of peanuts, fish, and hides. regions in the world and Italian wines are known
4. (c) Russia is the largest producer of diamond. worldwide for their broad variety. Italy shares with
In September 2012, Russia officially stated there France the title of largest wine producer in the
are massive diamond reserves under the mines
world, its contribution (about 45-50 million hl per
containing “trillions of carats” (hundreds of
thousands of tons) and claimed there are enough year) representing about 1/3 of world production.
diamonds in the field to supply global requirements Italian wine is exported around the world and is also
for 3,000 years. extremely popular in Italy.


11. (c) Canada is credited with the establishment after the invention of synthetic nitrate in Germany
of Uranium city. Uranium City is a settlement in at the turn of the 20th century. The towns include
northern Saskatchewan, Canada. Located on the Chacabuco, Humberstone, Santa Laura, Pedro de
northern shores of Lake Athabasca near the border Valdivia, Puelma, María Elena, and Oficina Anita.
of the Northwest Territories it is 230 m (750 ft) 31. (b) The iron and steel industry is largely
above sea level. The settlement is 760 km (470 concentrated in the Kuzbas region because of the
mi) northwest of Prince Albert, 760 km (470 mi) availability of coal. The Kuznetsk Basin (often
northeast of Edmonton and 48 km (30 mi) south of abbreviated as Kuzbass or Kuzbas,) in southwestern
the Northwest Territories-Saskatchewan boundary. Siberia, Russia, is one of the largest coal mining
ww
12. (b) Kimberley is famous for diamond mining.
The Big Hole, Open Mine or Kimberley Mine is an
open-pit and underground mine in Kimberley, South
areas in the world, covering an area of around
27,000 square miles (70,000 km2). It lies in
the Kuznetsk Depression between Tomsk and
w.EAfrica, and claimed to be the largest hole excavated

by hand.
14. (b) The country at the top in terms of percentage
of total coffee production in the world is Brazil.
Novokuznetsk in the basin of the Tom River.
32. (c) Uzbekistan is the highest producer of Uranium
in Asia. Uzbekistan has considerable mineral
deposits, including uranium. It is the world’s
asy
Coffee production in Brazil is responsible for about
a third of all coffee produced in world making
seventh-ranking uranium supplier, and is expanding
production.
En
Brazil the world’s largest producer, a position the
country has held for the last 150 years. Coffee
plantations, covering some 27,000 km2 (10,000 sq
34. (d) Brazil is the greatest producer of bauxite in the
world. Para state dominates bauxite production in
Brazil accounting for 85% of overall output, while
gin
mi), are mainly located in the southeastern states
of Minas Gerais, São Paulo and Paraná where the
environment and climate provide ideal growing
Minas Gerais produces the country’s remainder.
35. (a) Liverpool is important for ship building.
Liverpool has been a shipbuilding centre for more
conditions.
ee
18. (b) The largest producer of copper in the world
is Chile. In 1991, copper exports represented 30
percent of the total value of exports, a substantial
than 200 years, developing alongside its growth
rin
from a small port to a major centre of commerce.
38. (c) Great Lakes region of North America is
famous for the mining of Iron ore. The Great
decline with respect to the 1960s, when it represented
almost 80 percent of total exports. Mining exports
in general accounted for about 48 percent of total
g.n
Lakes is a collection of freshwater lakes located in
northeastern North America, on the Canada–United
States border, which connect to the Atlantic Ocean
exports in 1991.
19. (c) Chena cultivation is found in Sri Lanka. Chena
Cultivation seconds only to paddy cultivation in the
area. It provides the fresh vegetables for the people
Lakes Waterway. et
through the Saint Lawrence Seaway and the Great
39. (b) Argon oil is native to mosocco and is used in

high-end, personal care products and as a heart-
in the area and transport the production to other healthy gourmet product.
parts of the country too. 43. (c) The major agricultural region of the world
26. (d) The leading producer of natural rubber in the were first delineated by D. Whittlesey. One of
world is Thailand. Thailand could produce only the most satisfactory classifications of agricul
167,000 tonnes of natural rubber in October 2010 tural regions in the world was proposed by D.
as against 215,000 tonnes expected earlier and Whittlesey in 1936. Whittlesey employed five
288,000 tonnes produced during the same month in criteria to classify agricultural regions in the world:
2009. (a) crop and livestock combination; (b) intensity
27. (a) Atacama deserts is famous for its nitrate of land use; (c) processing and marketing of farm
deposits. The desert is littered with approximately produce; (d) degree of mechanisation; and (e) types
170 abandoned nitrate (or “saltpetre”) mining and associations of buildings and other structures
towns, almost all of which were shut down decades associated with agriculture.

Geography || B-23
48. (a) Temperate grassland is called the ‘bread basket’ According to figures published in December 2009
of the world. The roots of perennial grasses usually by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
penetrate far into the soil, and grassland soil tends United Nations, it is the world’s largest producer
to be deep and fertile. In North America, the prairies of coconuts, producing 19,500,000 tonnes in
were once inhabited by huge herds of bison and 2009. Production in the Philippines is generally
pronghorns, which were hunted by wolves, bears, concentrated in medium-sized farms.
and other predators. These herds are almost gone 66. (a) Millets and Rice are grown mostly under
now, and most of the prairies have been converted subsistence farming. Subsistence agriculture is self-
into the richest agricultural region on earth. sufficiency farming in which the farmers focus on
ww
49. (a) The largest producer and supplier of sugar in
the world is Brazil. Brazil led the world in sugarcane
production in 2011 with a 734 000 TMT harvest.
growing enough food to feed themselves and their
families. The typical subsistence farm has a range of
crops and animals needed by the family to feed and
w.E
53. (c) The largest producer of Silver in the world
is Mexico. Mexico was the world’s largest silver
producing country in 2012, followed by China,
Peru, Australia and Russia.
clothe themselves during the year.
67. (a) Teak and Sal are products of tropical dry
deciduous forests. The tropical and subtropical dry
broad leaf forest biome, also known as tropical
asy
54. (d) The Broken Hill of Australia is famous for the
mining of zinc, lead and silver. Broken Hill is an
isolated mining city in the far west of outback New
dry forest, is located at tropical and subtropical
latitudes. Though these forests occur in climates
En
South Wales, Australia. The world’s largest mining
company, BHP Billiton, has roots in the town.
that are warm year-round, and may receive several
hundred centimeters of rain per year, they have long
dry seasons which last several months and vary with
energy in the world.
gin
55. (c) USA is the largest producer of Geo-thermal
56. (a) The largest exporter of fish in the world is

geographic location. These seasonal droughts have
great impact on all living things in the forest.
70. (d) Dapog method of rice nursery was developed
ee
Norway. The fishing industry is the second largest
export sector in Norway after oil and gas. The
industry includes the traditional fishing, as well as
fish farming and processing of all kinds of seafood
in Philippines. The dapog method of raising
rin
seedling originated in the Philippines and is now,
fairly common in South and Southeast. The dapog
nursery is constructed for the raising of seedlings
at onshore facilities.
58. (b) The largest reserve of coal in the world are
found in USA. The United States holds the world’s g.n
without any soil whatsoever. Rice seeds contain
sufficient food in the endosperm to permit the
young seedling to grow for up to 14 days without
largest estimated recoverable reserves of coal and is
a net exporter of coal.
60. (c) The largest producer of Milk in the world is
India. With total milk production in India in 2011-
12 reaching 127.9 million tonnes, India is the largest
et
receiving any outside nutrients except air, water,
and sunlight. Consequently, it is possible to nurse
seedlings without actually sowing them in soil.
74. (a) Temperature is the most critical factor
milk producing country in the world. determining plant growth. The plants can not grow
61. (a) Katanga province of Zaire is famous for in areas of very low temperature even though
copper. Copper mining is an important part of the moisture may be available aplenty. However, if
economy of Katanga province. temperature is favourable, xerophytic plants may
64. (c) The largest producer of coconut in the world is grow even under conditions moisture deficiency.
Philippines. Coconut production plays an important 93. (d) The first cotton textile mill of India was
role in the national economy of the Philippines. established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata.

ww
4 World Geography

w.E
1. The world’s most active volcano is
(a) Cotapaxi (b) Fujiyama
10. Which of the following seas has the highest
salinity?

2.

(c) Kilauea
asy
(d) Vesuvius
Drakensberg is a mountain of
(a) Botswana (b) Namibia

(a) Caspian sea
(c) Red sea
(b) Mediterranean sea
(d) Dead sea
11. Which one of the following islands of the East

3.
(c) South Africa
En
(d) Zambia
The equator passes through
Indies is divided into three countries?
(a) Borneo (b) Celebes

(a) Cameroon
(c) Kenya gin
(b) Costa Rica
(d) Venezuela
(c) New Guinea
12. 90° E Ridge lies in
(d) Timor
4.

5.
The deepest lake of the world is
(a) Pushkar lake
(c) Victoria lake
ee
(b) Superior lake
(d) Baikal lake
The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in

(a) Atlantic ocean
(b) Indian ocean
(c) Pacific ocean
rin
(d) Mediterranean ocean

(a) Indian ocean
(c) Arctic ocean
(b) Pacific ocean
(d) Atlantic ocean

the Equator lies in
g.n
13. The inter section point of the Prime Meridian and
(a) Atlantic ocean (b) Ghana

6.

7.
Mauna Loa is an active volcano of
(a) Alaska
(c) Italy
(b) Hawaii
(d) Japan
The international Acid Rain information centre
(c) Morocco
et
(d) Pacific ocean
14. The clouds of the highest altitude are
(a) Altocumulus (b) Altostratus
(c) Cumulus (d) Cirrostratus
has been set up in 15. The Black Mountains are located in
(a) Berlin (b) Oslo (a) Canada (b) Norway
(c) Osaka (d) Manchester (c) Switzerland (d) U.S.A.
8. The most urbanized country of the world is 16. The driest area of the Earth is
(a) Germany (b) Japan (a) Arabian desert (b) Atacama desert
(c) Singapore (d) U.S.A. (c) Gobi desert (d) Thar desert
9. The Death Valley in South California, USA is an 17. Which river of Africa crosses the Tropic of
example of Capricorn twice?
(a) Anticlinal valley (b) Synclinal valley (a) Congo (b) Limpopo
(c) Antecedent valley (d) Rift valley (c) Niger (d) Zambezi

Geography || B-25
18. Which one of the following is the most populous 28. Who among the following is famous as father of
Islamic country of the world? Modern Political Geography
(a) Bangladesh (b) Egypt (a) H. Mackinder (b) G. Taylor
(c) Indonesia (d) Pakistan (c) F. Ratzel (d) R. Hartshorne
19. What are the date/dates on which day and night 29. The Sargasso sea is a part of the
are equal in both the hemispheres? (a) North Atlantic ocean
(a) June 21 (b) South Atlantic ocean
(b) December 22 (c) Indian ocean
ww

(c) March 21 and September 23
(d) June 21 and December 22
20. The Groups of people inhabiting Asiatic Tundra
(d) Arctic ocean
30. The demographic transition model was
propounded by
w.Eis known as
(a) Vedda
(c) Samoyed
(b) Kirghiz
(d) Guacho

(a) J. Clarke (b) F.W. Notestien
(c) G.T. Trewartha (d) J.J. Spengler
31. In which of the following the west European type
Kuroshivo current in
asy
21. The temperature increase is more marked
in northern Pacific Ocean as an influence of

of climate is found?
(a) British Columbia (b) California
(c) North Chile (d) Algeria
(a) Summer
(c) Autumn En
(b) Winter
(d) Spring
32. The Yellow stone National Park is located in
(a) Canada (b) Brazil
primate city? gin

22. Who of the following propounded the concept of (c) U.S.A. (d) France
33. Which one of the following countries does not

(a) D.M. Smith
ee
(b) A.E. Smailes
(c) Griffith Taylor (d) Mark Jefferson
23. Which of the following countries meets its largest
electricity supply from atomic energy?
share the island of Borneo
(a) Brunei
(c) Malaysia
rin
(b) Indonesia
(d) Philippines
34. Which one of the following countries does not
(a) Slovenia
(c) France
(b) Japan
(d) Sweden
24. Which of the following parts of Australia is
(a) Azerbaijan
(c) Iraq g.n
border the Caspian Sea?
(b) Iran
(d) Kazakhstan

characterised by high rainfall?
(a) New south Wales (b) Tasmania
(c) South Australia (d) Western Australia
25. Which one of the following is located in South
forests?
(a) Chestnut
(c) Chernozem
et
35. Which type of soil is found in the coniferous
(b) Podsol
(d) Regur
Africa? 36. Singapore Island is separated from the Malay
(a) Veld (b) Pampas Peninsula by
(c) Downs (d) Steppes (a) Malacca strait (b) Johore strait
26. Which one of the following is not related to (c) Sunda strait (d) Molucca strait
production of precipitation?
37. Which one of the following is the busiest ocean
(a) Diabatic process (b) Adiabatic process
route in the world?
(c) Ascent of Air (d) Convergence of air
(a) Mediterranean Suez Route
27. The relatively moderate climate of the British
Isles is caused by (b) South Atlantic Route
(a) Labrador current (b) Canary current (c) North Atlantic Route
(c) Gulf stream (d) North Atlantic Drift (d) Pacific Ocean Route

B-26 || World Geography

38. Which one of the following cities of the USA is 46. Which of the following countries is occupied
not located along the shores of the Great Lakes? entirely by migrant population?
(a) Duluth (b) Pittsburg (a) Malaysia (b) Australia
(c) Chicago (d) Detroit (c) Sri Lanka (d) Indonesia
39. The continental shelf is marked by an isobath line 47. Which of the following two gulfs are connected
of by Hormuz Strait?
(a) Persian Gulf—Gulf of Oman
(a) 100 metres (b) 200 metres
(b) Persian Gulf—Gulf of Aden
ww
(c) 300 metres (d) 350 metres
40. The continents with the highest and the lowest
density of population are respectively
(c) Gulf of Aden—Gulf of Oman
(d) Persian Gulf—Gulf of Aquaba
48. Alexandria is a port city of which of the following

w.E(a) Europe and Africa
(b) Africa and Asia
(c) Asia and Oceania
countries?
(a) Greece
(c) Italy
(b) Egypt
(d) Turkey
(d) Europe and Oceania
asy
41. Ebony and Mahogany trees are associated with
49. Which one of the following is a Manchester town
of Brazil?

(a) Coniferrous forests
(b) Deciduous forests En (a) Recife
(c) Sao paulo
(b) Salvador
(d) Rio Grande
50. Which is the longest river of Europe?

(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Evergreen forests gin (a) Danube
(c) Dnieper
(b) Volga
(d) Rhine
similar amounts of salinity is known as

(a) Isotherm (b) Isohyet
ee
42. The line drawn over a map joining points having 51. In which sea the river ‘Don’ flows in?

(a) Caspian sea
(c) Sea of Azov
rin
(b) Black sea
(d) Baltic sea
52. Gaza strip lies along the coast of
(c) Isohaline (d) Isogone
43. Isopleth depicting the same mean value of sun

(a) Dead sea
(c) Persian sea g.n
(b) Mediterranean sea
(d) Red sea
shine is termed
(a) Isonephs
(c) Isohels
(b) Isorums
(d) Isohyets
44. The sea of Okhotsk is enclosed by the Kurille
53. The Kiel canal connects

et
(a) Caribbean sea and Pacific Ocean
(b) Bering sea and Chukchi sea
(c) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
(d) Baltic sea and North sea
Islands, Northern Japan and a long peninsula.
54. The warm and dry wind Berg blows in
What is the name of this peninsula? (a) Asian Deserts (b) South Africa
(a) Kamachatka (b) Sakhalin (c) Western Australia (d) Patagonia Deserts
(c) Hokaido (d) Korea 55. Foehn is a local wind of
45. Which one of the following mountains is not built (a) China (b) Japan
during the Tertiary period? (c) Korea (d) Switzerland
(a) Rocky Mountain 56. The most highly developed inland waterways are
(b) Atlas Mountain found in
(c) Andes Mountain (a) Asia (b) Europe
(d) Aravalli Mountain (c) North America (d) South America

Geography || B-27
57. The percentage of forest cover is the highest in (a) Lativia (b) Slovakia
(a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Lithuania (d) Estonia
(c) North America (d) South America 67. Doldrum is characterized by
58. Which of the following is the highest mountain (a) Uniform high pressure
(b) Uniform low pressure
peak of the U.S.A.?
(c) High wind velocity
(a) Albert (b) Kilauea
(d) High humidity
(c) Mauna Lao (d) Mc Kinley
68. Mount Fujiyama, the highest point in Japan is in
59. What is meant by the term Midnight Sun?
ww
(a) Twilight

(b) Rising sun
(c) Very bright moon

69.
(a) Hokkaido
(c) Shikoku
(b) Kyushu
(d) Honshu
Strait of hormuz lies between

w.E(d) Sun shining in the polar circle for long time.
60. The water fall ‘Victoria’ is associated with the
river.

(a) Black Sea and Marmara sea
(b) Persian sea and Gulf of Oman
(c) Arabian sea and Red sea
(a) Amazon
(c) St. Lawrence asy
(b) Missouri
(d) Zambezi

70.
(d) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
Africa’s highest mountain peak Mt. Kilimanjaro
lies in
(a) Central Australia

En
61. The Great Barrier Reef is located on the coast of (a) Kenya
(c) Tanzania
(b) Malawi
(d) Zambia

(b) West Australia
(c) East Australia
(d) South Australia gin 71. The coldest place on the earth is
(a) Halifax
(c) Siachin
(b) Chicago
(d) Verkhoyansk

separated by the 49th parallel?
(a) France and Germany
(b) USA and Canada
ee
62. Which of the following two countries are 72. The strait which separates Asia from North

America is
rin
(a) Berring strait (b) Palk strait
(c) Strait of Gibralter (d) Strait of Malacca

(c) North Korea and South Korea
(d) Mexico and USA g.n
73. The wide treeless grassy plains in South America
are called
63. Which one of the following volcanoes is called
the Light House of the Mediterranean?
(a) Etna
(c) Kilimanjaro
(b) Vesuvius
(d) Stromboli
(a) Selvas
(c) Prairies
et
(b) Pampas
(d) Steppes
74. Which country has the highest percentage of its
geographical area under forests?
64. International Date line is (a) China (b) India
(a) equator (c) Indonesia (d) Japan
(b) 0° longitude 75. Bushmen tribes are found in
(c) 90° east longitude (a) Atacama desert (b) Gobi desert
(d) 180° east-west longitude (c) Patagonian desert (d) Kalahari desert
65. What is the name of the strait where Adams 76. The general climate of the equatorial regions is
Bridge is situated? (a) hot and humid (b) warm and humid
(a) Bering strait (b) Cook strait (c) hot and dry (d) highly seasonal
(c) Palk strait (d) Taiwan strait 77. To which racial group do the Pygmies belong ?
66. Which one among the following is not a Baltic (a) Negro (b) Negrito
nation? (c) Australoid (d) Bantoo


78. Tropical cyclones are known as hurricanes in (c) It is the deepest lake of the world
(a) Philippines (b) Australia (d) This lake has been created through fluvial
(c) Bay of Bengal (d) West Indies erosion
79. Which among the following is leading commercial 90. Chicago is situated on the banks of
crop of the tropical monsoon regions ? (a) Lake Superior (b) Lake Michigan
(a) tea (b) rice (c) Lake Ontario (d) Great Slave Lake
(c) wheat (d) root crops 91. The Lake Baikal is situated in the region of
80. The Santa Anna is local (a) European Russia
ww

(a) hot wind in southern California
(b) cold wind in southern California
(c) hot wind in northern California

(b) Western Siberia
(c) North eastern part of Russia
(d) Eastern Russia to the north of Mongolia

w.E
81.
(d) cold wind in northern California
The Burans are the
(a) Cold local winds in mediterranean region
92. The Sakhalin region is known for its

(a) Fertile land
(c) Oil drilling
(b) Industrialization
(d) Gold mining

asy
(b) Local hot winds in California
(c) Local cold winds of Siberia
(d) Local hot winds of western Australia
93. In which of the following regions is tea grown ?
(a) Georgia
(c) Kazakhstan
(b) Turkmenia
(d) Kirgizia
82.

The downs are the
En
(a) River basins in North America 94. What is referred to as the Sorrow of China ?
(a) Taklamakan Desert

gin
(b) Lowlands in equatorial regions
(c) Temperate grasslands in Australia
(d) Tropical grasslands in Australia

(b) Tibetan region
(c) Hwang he rever (d) Nei Mongol
83.

84.
Gobi Desert is situated in
(a) Pakistan
(c) China
The alfalfa is a
(b) Arabiaee
(d) South Africa
95. Which country is called the Great Britain of the
East ?
(a) India
(c) Korea rin (b) Japan
(d) Russia

(a) food grain
(c) fodder crop
(b) fibre crop
(d) beverage
g.n
96. Which of the following used to be considered a
buffer state?
85.

86.
Sierra Navada Mountains are situated in
(a) Alaska
(c) Texas
(b) California
(d) Manitoba
Name the product in which Canada is a world

97. The Gibralter is a/an

(a) peninsula
et
(a) West Germany (b) Belgium
(c) Switzerland (d) France
(b) strait
leader ? (c) isthmus (d) river
(a) Beef (b) Paper 98. Which country has a highly developed dairy
(c) Dairy products (d) Wool and furs industry ?
87. Disco Island of Greenland has deposits of (a) France (b) Germany
(a) Cryolite (b) Silver
(c) Denmark (d) Netherlands
(c) Coal (d) Iron ore
99. Which is called the Emerald Island ?
88. The Yellowstone National Park is situated in
(a) Britain (b) Ireland
(a) US (b) Canada
(c) Gibralter (d) Sicily
(c) Mexico (d) Panama
100. Which region is called the roof of the world ?
89. What is true about Lake Superior ?
(a) Tibet (b) Arctic region
(a) It is a lake wholly within US
(c) Siberia (d) Mount Everest
(b) It is a the largest lake of the world

Geography || B-29
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 13. (a) 25. (a) 37. (c) 49. (c) 61. (c) 73. (b) 85. (b) 97. (b)
2. (c) 14. (d) 26. (a) 38. (b) 50. (b) 62. (b) 74. (d) 86. (b) 98. (c)
3. (c) 15. (d) 27. (d) 39. (b) 51. (c) 63. (d) 75. (d) 87. (c) 99. (b)
4. (d) 16. (b) 28. (c) 40. (c) 52. (b) 64. (d) 76. (a) 88. (a) 100. (a)
5. (b) 17. (b) 29. (a) 41. (d) 53. (d) 65. (c) 77. (b) 89. (b)
6. (b) 18. (c) 30. (b) 42. (c) 54. (b) 66. (b) 78. (d) 90. (b)
ww7.
8.
(b)
(c)
19.
20.
(c)
(c)
31.
32.
(a)
(c)
43.
44.
(c)
(a)
55.
56.
(d)
(b)
67.
68.
(b)
(d)
79.
80.
(a)
(a)
91.
92.
(d)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(d)
(d)
21.
22.
(b)
(d)
33.
34.
(d)
(c)
45.
46.
(d)
(b)
57.
58.
(d)
(d)
69.
70.
(b)
(c)
81.
82.
(c)
(c)
93.
94.
(a)
(c)
11.
12.
(a)
(b)
23.
24.
(c)
(b)
35.
36.
asy
(b)
(b)
47.
48.
(a)
(b)
59.
60.
(d)
(d)
71.
72.
(d)
(a)
83.
84.
(c)
(c)
95.
96.
(b)
(c)
Hints E
& Solutions
ngi
1.
nee
(c) The world’s most active volcano is Kilauea.
Increasing volcanic activity has been observed at
one of the world’s most active volcanoes, Kilauea
8. (c) The most urbanized country of the world
is Singapore. Singapore, officially the Republic
of Singapore, is a sovereign city-state and island
Volcano in Hawaii Island, after a new vent sent lava
shooting 65 feet in the air. rin
country in Southeast Asia. It lies off the southern
tip of the Malay Peninsula and is 137 kilometres
2. (c) Drakensberg is a mountain range of South
Africa. The Drakensberg is the highest mountain
range in Southern Africa, rising to 3,482 metres
north of the equator.
g.n
9. (d) The Death Valley in South California, USA is
3.
(11,424 ft) in height. Its geological history lends it
a distinctive character amongst the mountain ranges
of the world.
(c) The Equator passes through Kenya.
et
an example of Rift valley. Death Valley is a desert
valley located in Eastern California. Situated within
the Mojave Desert, it is the lowest and driest area
in North America, and currently the hottest in the
world.
4. (d) The deepest lake of the world is Baikal lake. 10. (d) Dead sea has the highest salinity. The Dead
Lake Baikal is the most voluminous freshwater lake Sea is 306 m (1,004 ft) deep, the deepest hypersaline
in the world, containing roughly 20% of the world’s
lake in the world. With 34.2% salinity (in 2011), it
unfrozen surface fresh water and at 1,642 m (5,387
is also one of the world’s saltiest bodies of water.
ft), the deepest. It is also among the clearest of all
lakes, and thought to be the world’s oldest lake in 25 11. (a) Borneo island of the East Indies is divided
million years. It is the 7th largest lake in the world into three countries. Borneo is the third largest
by surface area. island in the world and the largest island of Asia.
6. (b) Mauna Loa is an active volcano of Hawaii. At the geographic centre of Maritime Southeast
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Asia, in relation to major Indonesian islands, it is
Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the located north of Java, west of Sulawesi, and east of
Pacific Ocean. Sumatra.


12. (b) 90°E Ridge lies in Indian Ocean. The Ninety cartographer of the American Delegation to the
East Ridge (also rendered as Ninetyeast Ridge, 90E Paris Peace Conference in 1919. He was also the
Ridge or 90°E Ridge) is a linear, age-progressive head of the geography department at Michigan State
seamount chain in the Indian Ocean and is named Normal College, now Eastern Michigan University,
for its near-parallel strike along the 90th meridian. from 1901-1939.
It is approximately 5,000 kilometres (3,100 mi) in 25. (a) Veld is located in South Africa. Afrikaans
length and can be traced topographically from the “field” name given to various types of open country
Bay of Bengal southward towards the Southeast in Southern Africa that is used for pasturage and
ww Indian Ridge (SEIR), though the feature continues

to the north where it is hidden beneath the sediments
of the Bengal Fan. The ridge extends between
farmland.
30. (b) The demographic transition model was
propounded by F.W. Notestion. Frank Wallace
w.Elatitudes 33°S and 17°N and has an average width

of 200 km.
14. (d) The clouds of the highest altitude are
Notestein (August 16, 1902 – February 19, 1983)
was an American demographer who contributed
significantly to the development of the science.
asy
Cirrostratus. Cirrostratus cloud is a high, thin,
generally uniform stratiform genus-type, composed
of ice-crystals. It is difficult to detect and is capable
He was the founding director of the Office of
Population Research at Princeton University, and
En
of forming halos when the cloud takes the form of
thin cirrostratus nebulosus. The cloud has a fibrous
later president of the Population Council. He was
also the first director of the Population Division of
the United Nations, 1946–1948.
fibratus. gin
texture with no halos if it is thicker cirrostratus 32. (c) The yellow stone National Park is located in
USA. Yellow Stone National Park is a national park
ee
15. (d) The Black Mountains are located in USA. The
Black Mountains are a mountain range in western
North Carolina, in the southeastern United States.
16. (b) The driest area of the earth is Atacama-desert.
located primarily in the U.S. state of Wyoming,
although it also extends into Montana and Idaho.
rin
It was established by the U.S. Congress and signed
into law by President Ulysses S. Grant on March 1,
The Atacama Desert is a plateau in South America,
covering a 1,000-kilometre strip of land on the
Pacific coast, west of the Andes mountains. It is the
1872.
g.n
35. (b) Podzol type of soil is found in the coniferous
driest hot desert in the world.

17. (b) Limpopo, River of Africa crosses the tropic of
Capricorn twice. The Limpopo River rises in central
southern Africa, and flows generally eastwards to
et
forests. In soil science, podzols are the typical soils
of coniferous, or boreal forests. They are also the
typical soils of eucalypt forests and heathlands in
southern Australia, while in Western Europe podzols
the Indian Ocean. develop on heathland, which is often a construct of
20. (c) The group of people inhabiting Asiatic Tundra human interference through grazing and burning.
is known as Samoyed. The Samoyedic people are 41. (d) Ebony and Mahogany trees are associated
those groups that speak Samoyedic languages, with Tropical evergreen forests. Tropical evergreen
which are part of the Uralic family. They are a forests are usually found in areas receiving more
linguistic grouping, not an ethnic or cultural one. than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of
21. (b) The temperature increase is more marked in 15 °C to 30 °C. They occupy about seven per cent
northern pacific ocean as an influence of Kuroshivo of the Earth’s land surface and harbour more than
current in winter. half of the planet’s terrestrial plants and animals.
22. (d) Mark Jefferson propounded the concept Tropical evergreen forests are dense, multi-layered,
of primate city. Mark Jefferson was the chief and harbour many types of plants and animals.

Geography || B-31
45. (d) Aravalli Mountain is not built during the tertiary 61. (c) The Great Barrier Reef is located on the coast
period. The Aravalli Range literally meaning ‘line of East Australia. The Great Barrier Reef is the
of peaks’, is a range of mountains in western India world’s largest coral reef system composed of over
running approximately 800 km in a northeastern 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for
direction across Indian states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, over 2,600 kilometres over an area of approximately
Haryana and Delhi. 344,400 square kilometres.
48. (b) Alexandria is a port city of Egypt. Alexandria 63. (d) Stromboli is called the lighthouse of the
is the second largest city and the second largest Mediterranean. Stromboli is a small island in
ww metropolitan area in Egypt after Greater Cairo

by size and number of population of 4.1 million,
extending about 32 km (20 mi) along the coast of
the Tyrrhenian Sea, off the north coast of Sicily,
containing one of the three active volcanoes in Italy.
70. (c) Africa’s highest mountain peak mt. Kilimanjaro
w.E
52.
the Mediterranean Sea in the north central part of
the country.
(b) Gaza strip lies along the coast of mediterranean
lies in Tanzania. Kilimanjaro, with its three volcanic
cones, Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira, is a dormant
volcanic mountain in Kilimanjaro National Park,
asy
sea. The Gaza Strip is a self-governing entity on the
eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea that borders
Egypt on the southwest and Israel on the east and
Kilimanjaro Region, Tanzania.
71. (d) The coldest place on the earth is Verkhoyansk.
53.
north.
En
(d) The Kiel canal connects Baltic sea and North
Verkhoyansk is a town in Verkhoyansky District of
the Sakha Republic, Russia, located on the Yana
gin
sea. The Kiel Canal, known as the Kaiser-Wilhelm-
Kanal until 1948, is a 98-kilometre long canal in
River near the Arctic Circle, 675 kilometers from
Yakutsk.
73. (b) The wide treeless grassy plains in South
55.
at Kiel-Holtenau ee
the German state of Schleswig-Holstein. The canal
links the North Sea at Brunsbüttel to the Baltic Sea
(d) Foehn is a local wind of Switzerland. A foehn

America are called Pampas. The Pampas are fertile
rin
South American lowlands, covering more than
750,000 km2 (289,577 sq mi), that include the
Argentine provinces of Buenos Aires, La Pampa,
is a type of dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs
in the lee (downwind side) of a mountain range. It is
a rain shadow wind that results from the subsequent
g.n
Santa Fe, Entre Ríos and Córdoba, most of Uruguay,
and the southernmost Brazilian State, Rio Grande
58.
adiabatic warming of air that has dropped most of its
moisture on windward slopes (see orographic lift).
(d) Mc Kinley is the highest mountain peak of the
do Sul.
et
75. (d) Bushmen tribes are found in Kalahari desert.
The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy
savannah in southern Africa extending 900,000
USA. Mount Mc Kinley or Denali is the highest
mountain peak in North America, with a summit square kilometres, covering much of Botswana and
elevation of 20,237 feet above sea level. At some parts of Namibia and South Africa.
18,000 feet, the base to peak rise is considered the 95. (b) Japan is called the Great Britain of East due
largest of any mountain situated entirely above sea to a high level of industrial development in this
level. country.

ww
5 Geography of India
w.E
1. The neighbouring country of India which has the
largest area is
9.

Ten degree channel is between
(a) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar

2.
(a) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
asy
(b) China
(d) Nepal
Which one of the following countries has the

(b) Middle Andaman and little Andaman
(c) Alaska and Russia
(d) North Korea and South Korea
(a) China
En
longest international boundary with India?
(b) Pakistan
10. Which of the following latitudes passes through
India?

3.
(c) Bangladesh
gin
(d) Myanmar
Among the following Union Territories of India,
which one has the largest size?

11.
(a) Arctic circle (b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Equator
Nathula Pass is in

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Puducherry
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Chandigarh
ee

(a) Arunanchal Pradesh
(b) Nagaland
(c) Sikkim
rin
(d) Manipur
4. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman
Island?
12.
g.n
‘Red cliff line’ demarcates the boundary between
(a) India and China

5.

(a) Indonesia
(c) Thailand
(b) Myanmar
(d) Srilanka
Doddabetta Peak is located in the
(a) Anaimalai (b) Mahendragiri

13.
(b) India and Pakistan
et
(c) India and Afghanistan
(d) India and Bangladesh
Which of the following rivers flows from south to
(c) Nilgiris (d) Shevaroys north?
6. The Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet at (a) Son (b) Krishna
the (c) Mahanadi (d) Ganga
(a) Cardamom Hills (b) Anaimalai Hills 14. Which one of the following rivers in India has
(c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Palani Hills been declared as the National River?
7. The Himalyas are approximately kilometer long (a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
(a) 2000 (b) 2500 (c) Krishna (d) Son
(c) 3000 (d) 1500 15. Which of the following rivers is not the tributary
8. The coast that belongs to Tamilnadu is known as of Yamuna?
(a) Konkan coast (b) Malabar coast (a) Chambal (b) Betwa
(c) Coromandel coast (d) Canara coast (c) Ken (d) Gandak

Geography || B-33
16. The largest delta of the world is 28. Project Tiger was launched in
(a) Amazon basin (b) Congo basin (a) 1973 (b) 1980
(c) Sundervan delta (d) Godavari basin (c) 1982 (d) 1984
17. Which one of the following rivers of India does 29. ‘Kal Baisakhi’ gives rainfall to
not make a delta? (a) Rajasthan (b) West Bengal
(a) Ganga (b) Narmada (c) Punjab (d) Goa
(c) Mahanadi (d) Kaveri 30. The retreating Monsoon gives rainfall to
18. The river also known as Tsangpo in Tibet is (a) Gujarat (b) Goa
ww

19.
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Indus
(c) Sutlej (d) Teesta
An important river of the Indian desert is?

31.
(c) Tamilnadu (d) Maharashtra
Which one of the following is the wettest place in
India?

w.E
20.
(a) Luni
(c) Tapi
(b) Narmada
(d) Jhelum
The term ‘Regur’ is used for
(a) Udhagamandalam (b) Mahabaleshwar
(c) Cherrapunji (d) Mawsynram
32. South-West monsoon reaches Kerala in
(a) End of May (b) Mid-June

21.
(a) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil asy
(b) Black soil
(d) Yellow soil
In the soil pH 10, the soil is
(c) Last June (d) First weak of July
33. South-West monsoon contributes to India’s total

(a) Alkali
(c) Acidic En
(b) Saline
(d) Neutral
rainfall up to the extent of
(a) 80-90%
(c) 100%
(b) 50-55%
(d) 75%
22.
cotton production? gin
Which one of the following soils is suitable for 34. India is the largest world producer of
(a) Cotton (b) Milk

23.
(a) Regur
(c) Bhangar
(b) Red
(d) Khadar
ee
Where in India is the Jim Corbet National Park
located?
(c) Wheat
35. The ore of Aluminium is
(a) Bauxite
(c) Mica rin
(d) Rice
(b) Chromium
(d) Manganese

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Jammu & Kashmir (a) Naharkotiya
(c) Ankleshwar g.n
36. The mineral oil was first discovered in India in
(b) Mumbai
(d) Digboi

24.

(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of
(a) Assam (b) Tamilnadu
manganese?
(a) Gondwana
(c) Vindhya
et
37. Which type of rocks in India produces
(b) Dharwar
(d) Tertiary
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Kerala
38. Which one of the following is known as the ‘Pearl
25. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found
city’?
is
(a) Kandla (b) Tuticorin
(a) Kanha (b) Dachigam
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kochi
(c) Manas (d) Nanda devi 39. What is Khetri in Rajasthan famous for?
26. Kaziranga national park is famous for (a) Copper (b) Mica
(a) Rhinoceros (b) Tiger (c) Bauxite (d) Limestone
(c) Lion (d) Crocodile 40. The alluvial soil found along the banks of the
27. Tree cover is maximum in rivers in the Ganga plain is called
(a) East Deccan (b) Northern Plains (a) Khadar (b) Bhangar
(c) West Coast (d) East Coast (c) Bhur (d) Loess

B-34 || Geography of India

41. The state of India having almost monopoly in the 52. Which of the following is a biodiesel plant?
production of chromite is (a) Jatropha (b) Maize
(a) Bihar (b) Orissa (c) Pongamia (d) Sunflower
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra 53. With which crop has green revolution been
42. Kalpsar project for the supply of sweet water is associated?
located in (a) Rice (b) Wheat
(a) Haryana (b) Karnataka (c) Pulses (d) Sugarcane
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat 54. Which one of the Indians state/union Territories
is having lowest sex ratio in 2011?
ww
43. The Ganga action plan was initiated in
(a) 1984
(c) 1986
(b) 1985
(d) 1990
(a) Haryana
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Punjab
w.E
44. In India more than half of the production of
soyabean comes from
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
(d) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
55. Which one of the following National Highway is
the longest in India?
(a) Dharwar Vulcanicity asy

45. The Deccan trap was formed by the

(a) NH 2
(c) NH 7
(b) NH 6
(d) NH 8
56. Which one of the following is not an ancient city

(b) Mesozoic Vulcanicity
(c) Cretaceous Vulcanicity
(d) Paleozoic Vulcanicity En of India?
(a) Varanasi (b) Ujjain
(a) Maldives gin

46. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is
(b) Madagascar
(c) Kanchipuram (d) Hyderabad
57. The highest coconut producing state in India is
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra
in
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat
ee
47. The largest reserve of crude oil in India is found
(c) Karnataka
rin
(d) Tamil Nadu
58. Which one of the following states has higher

potentials for solar energy?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Eastern offshore (d) Western offshore
48. The leading coffee producing state in India is
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala
(c) Rajasthan
g.n(d) Odisha
59. Which one of the major source of irrigation in

(c) Karnataka
(a) Flood control

(b) Milk production
(d) Andhra Pradesh
49. The term ‘operation flood’ refers to
India?
(a) Canals
(b) Tanks
(c) Wells and Tubewells
et
(d) Other sources
(c) Population control 60. Bhakhara dam is situated on which river?
(d) Foodgrain production (a) Ravi (b) Chenab
50. ‘Jhum’ is (c) Jhelum (d) Sutlej
(a) A tribe in the North-East of India 61. Which state has per hectare highest consumption
(b) The type of cultivation of fertilizers in India?
(c) A Folk dance (a) Punjab (b) Gujarat
(d) The name of a river (c) Uttarakhand (d) Goa
51. ‘Yellow Revolution’ is associated with the 62. The cotton textile industry is located in western
production of India, what is the main reason for it?
(a) Poultry (b) Oil seeds (a) Cotton belt (b) Skilled labour
(c) Sunflower (d) Gold (c) Power (d) All of these

Geography || B-35
63. In which state Kandla Port is situated? 73. The Konkan-Railways connects
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (a) Goa-Mangalore
(c) Orissa (d) Gujarat (b) Roha-Mangalore
64. The dormant volcano of India is (c) Kanyakumari-Mangalore
(a) Sandwich (b) Keating point (d) Kanyakumari-Mumbai
(c) Barrendwip (d) Ellice 74. Which one of the following states of India is
65. The second highest peak of the world located in surrounded by Bangladesh in three sides?
Himalayas is (a) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya
ww

66.
(a) Nandadevi
(c) Karnet
(b) Dhoulagiri
(d) K2
Which state of India shares its boundaries with
(c) Tripura (d) West Bengal
75. Which is not food crop from the following?

w.E six other states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Karnataka
(a) Rice
(c) Maize
(b) Tea
(d) Barley
76. Indian Forest Research Institute is situated in
67.
(a) Orissa asy
The Kishenganj Power project is in
(a) Shimla
(c) Jammu
(b) Nainital
(d) Dehradun
77. Tehri Dam Project is situated on the confluence

(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
En
of which of the two following rivers?
(a) Alaknanda – Mandakini

68.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
gin
As per 2011 census data, the child sex ratio has
come down from 927 to

(b) Bhagirathi – Bhilangha
(c) Yamuna – Tons
(d) None of these

69.
(a) 904
(c) 922
(b) 919
(d) 925 ee
As per 2011 census data, the sex ratio is
78. Which river is not in existence at present?
(a) Tons
(c) Ganga
rin (b) Saraswati
(d) Yamuna
(a) 943 (b) 940

70.
(c) 925 (d) 920
Which state of India tops in literacy?
(a) Iron-ore
(c) Gold
g.n
79. Jadugoda is famous for which of the following?
(b) Manganese
(d) Uranium

(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh

(a) Coromandel coast
(b) Konkan coast
et
80. Which of the following is a part of Eastern coast?

(c) Malabar coast

71. Name the state where density of population is the (d) None of these
lowest 81. Which state of India has the largest area ?
(a) Meghalaya (a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Mizoram (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Sikkim (d) Rajasthan
72. What is the percentage of literacy in India, as per 82. Which of the following cities has an astronomical
2011 census data: observatory ?
(a) 73% (b) 78% (a) Simla (b) Jaipur
(c) 70% (d) 68% (c) Amritsar (d) Hyderabad


83. What is the other name of the highest range in the 92. Which of the major rivers of India does not form
Western Ghats ? a delta?
(a) Pir Panjal (b) Siwalik range (a) Cauvery (b) Godavari
(c) Sahyadris (d) Namcha Barwa (c) Krishna (d) Narmada
84. The longest beach of India is situated at 93. The term khadar means
(a) Mumbai (b) Chennai (a) New alluvial soils (b) Dry sandy soils
(c) Mangalore (d) Tuticorin (c) Old alluvial soils (d) Semi black soils
85. What is the name given to the foothills zone of 94. The Raman Peak is situated in
ww

Himalayas?
(a) Inner Himalayas
(b) Central Himalayas

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Siwaliks

w.E(c) Middle Himalayas
(d) Siwalik
86. In which part of India is Dandakaranaya situated ?
(d) Zaskar Range
95. The famous Sambhar Lake is situated in
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(a) Northern
(c) Central
asy
(b) Eastern
(d) Western
87. With which country does MacMahon Line form
(c) West Bengal (d) Orissa
96. The highest peak of south India is
India’s boundary ?
(a) Pakistan En
(b) Afganistan
(a) Dodabeta
(c) Mahendragiri (d) Yercaud
(b) Annaimudi
(c) China
gin
(d) Bangladesh
88. In which state does most part of Vidarbha region
97. In which range is the Nathu La Pass situated ?
(a) Himalayas
(c) Vindhyas
(b) Sahyadris
(d) Karakoram

lie ?
(c) Uttar Pradesh ee

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
89. The highest range of the Himalayan system is the
98. Lakhimpur is famous for

(a) Heavy rainfall (b) Petroleum reserves
rin
(c) Monazite reserves (d) Project Tiger
99. The Badrinath’s situated on the banks of river

(a) Central Himalayas (b) Outer Himalayas
(c) Middle Himalayas (d) Trans Himalayas
90. The Mt. Everest is situated in the region of
(a) Ganga
(c) Alakananda g.n(b) Bhagirathi
(d) Gandak

(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas
91. The southernmost point in Indian territory is
(a) Indira point (b) Gandhi Point

et
100. Ganga is a result of the confluence of rivers ––– .
(a) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Dev Prayag
(b) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Karan Prayag
(c) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Gangotri
(c) Nehru Point (d) Mountbatom Point (d) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Rudra Prayag

Geography || B-37
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (d) 41. (b) 51. (b) 61. (a) 71. (c) 81. (d) 91. (a)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (d) 52. (a) 62. (d) 72. (a) 82. (b) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (a) 33. (a) 43. (c) 53. (b) 63. (d) 73. (a) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (a) 14. (a) 24. (a) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (c) 74. (c) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (c) 15. (d) 25. (b) 35. (a) 45. (c) 55. (c) 65. (d) 75. (b) 85. (d) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (a) 36. (d) 46. (b) 56. (d) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (b) 96. (b)
ww7.
8.
(b)
(c)
17. (b)
18. (a)
27. (c)
28. (a)
37. (b)
38. (b)
47. (d)
48. (c)
57. (d)
58. (c)
67. (d)
68. (b)
77. (b)
78. (b)
87. (c)
88. (d)
97.
98.
(a)
(b)
w.E
9. (a)
10. (c)
19. (a)
20. (b)
29. (b)
30. (c)
39. (a)
40. (a)
49. (b)
50. (b)
59. (c)
60. (d)
69. (a)
70. (a)
79. (d)
80. (a)
89. (a)
90. (c)
99. (c)
100. (a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
1.
En
(b) Area: 9,706,961 km². With an area of about 9.6 the Anaimalai Hills and Palni Hills to the south
gin
million km², the People’s Republic of China is the
3rd largest country in total area behind Russia and
Canada, and very similar to the United States.
by the Palghat Gap. The Nilgiris District of Tamil
Nadu lies within these mountains. Its latitudinal
and longitudinal dimensions are 130 km (Latitude:
ee
2. (c) Bangladesh and India share a border of
2,429 miles. The Bangladeshi Divisions of Dhaka,
Khulna, Rajshahi, Rangpur, Sylhet and Chittagong,
along with the Indian states of West Bengal, Assam,
11° 08’ to 11° 37’ N) by 185 km (Longitude: 76°
27’ E to 77° 4’ E). Central location is: 11°22′30″N
(957 sq mi).
rin
76°45′30″E. It has an area of 2,479 square kilometres
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are situated along

the border. A number of pillars mark the border g.n
7. (b) The Himalayas are approximately 2400 km in
length with an average width of about 320 to 400
km. The Himalayas are the enormous mountain
between the two states.
3. (a) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group
of islands at the juncture of the Bay of Bengal and
Andaman Sea, and are a Union Territory of India. It
found in the world. et
system of Asia. They are the highest mountain range
8. (c) The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern

coast of the Indian Subcontinent between
has a total area of 8,073 km².
Kanyakumari and False Divi Point. It may also
4. (a) Distance from Andaman and Nicobar Islands include the southeastern coast of the island of Sri
to Indonesia is 1,696 miles. Lanka.
5. (c) Nilgiri Hills are a range of mountains with 9. (a) The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that
at least 24 peaks above 2,000 metres (6,600 ft), in separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar
the Westernmost part of Tamil Nadu state at the Islands in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of
junction of Karnataka and Kerala states in Southern islands together form the Indian Union Territory of
India. They are part of the larger Western Ghats Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
mountain chain making up the southwestern edge 10. (c) The Tropic of Cancer, also referred to as the
of the Deccan Plateau. Northern tropic, is the circle of latitude on the Earth
6. (c) The hills are separated from the Karnataka that marks the most northerly position at which the
plateau to the north by the Moyar River and from Sun may appear directly overhead at its zenith.


11. (c) Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. transportation. The average depth of the river is 124
It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s feet (38 m) and maximum depth is 380 feet (120 m).
Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m The river is prone to catastrophic flooding in spring
above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of when the Himalayan snows melt.
the ancient Silk Road. 19. (a) The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state,
12. (b) The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August India. It originates in the Pushkar valley of the
1947 as a boundary demarcation line between India Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and ends in the marshy
and Pakistan upon the partition of India. lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling a
ww
13. (a) The Son originates near Amarkantak in
Madhya Pradesh, just east of the headwater of the
Narmada River, and flows north-northwest through
distance of 495 km.
20. (b) Black soil is a rich soil that is good for crops
like cotton. It is found in various places around
w.EMadhya Pradesh state before turning sharply

eastward where it encounters the southwest-
northeast-running Kaimur Range. The Son river at
the world. It is most abundantly found in western
central India.
21. (a) Alkali, or alkaline, soils are clay soils with high
asy
784 kilometres (487 mi) long, is one of the largest
rivers of India. Its chief tributaries are the Rihand
and the North Koel.
pH (> 8.5), a poor soil structure and a low infiltration
capacity. Often they have a hard calcareous layer
at 0.5 to 1 metre depth. Alkali soils owe their
En
14. (a) The Ganges is a trans-boundary river of India
and Bangladesh. The 2,525 km (1,569 mi) river
unfavorable physico-chemical properties mainly to
the dominating presence of sodium carbonate which
gin
rises in the western Himalayas in the Indian state
of Uttarakhand, and flows south and east through
the Gangetic Plain of North India into Bangladesh,
causes the soil to swell and difficult to clarify/settle.
22. (a) Among the in situ soils are the red-to-yellow
(including laterite) and black soils known locally as
ee
where it empties into the Bay of Bengal. It is the
third largest river in the World by discharge.
15. (d) The Kali Gandaki or Gandaki River is one of
the major rivers of Nepal and a left bank tributary
regur. After these the alluvial soil is the third most
common type.
rin
23. (a) Uttarakhand or formerly Uttaranchal, is a state
in the northern part of India. It is often referred to as
of the Ganges in India. It is also called Krishna
Gandaki in Nepal. g.n
the “Land of the Gods” due to the many holy Hindu
temples and pilgrimage centres found throughout
16. (c) The Sunderban forest lies in the vast delta on
the Bay of Bengal formed by the super confluence
of the Padma, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers
across southern Bangladesh. The seasonally flooded
the state.
et
24. (a) Assam is a northeastern state of India. Its
capital is Dispur, located within the municipal area
of Guwahati city. It has an area of 78550 km2.
Sundarbans freshwater swamp forests lie inland 25. (b) Dachigam National Park is located 22
from the mangrove forests on the coastal fringe. The kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It
forest covers 10,000 km2. of which about 6,000 are covers an area of 141 square kilometers.
in Bangladesh. It became inscribed as a UNESCO 26. (a) Rhinoceros often abbreviated as rhino, is a
world heritage site in 1997. group of five extant species of odd-toed ungulates
17. (b) The Narmada, also called the Rewa, is a river in the family Rhinocerotidae. Two of these species
in central India and the fifth longest river in the are native to Africa and three to Southern Asia.
Indian subcontinent. It is the third longest river that 27. (c) The Western Ghats or the Sahyadri constitute
flows entirely within India, after the Godavari and a mountain range along the western side of India. It
the Krishna. is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the
18. (a) About 1,800 miles (2,900 km) long, the eight “hottest hotspots” of biological diversity in the
Brahmaputra is an important river for irrigation and world.

Geography || B-39
28. (a) Project Tiger was launched by Kailash precipitation occurs. Some areas of the subcontinent
Sankhala in India in 1973. The project aims at receive up to 10,000 mm (390 in) of rain annually.
ensuring a viable population of Bengal Tigers in 34. (b) With total milk production in India in 2011-12
their natural habitats and also to protect them from reaching 127.9 million tonnes, India is the largest
extinction. milk producing country in the world.
29. (b) During the hot weather period i.e from March 35. (a) Bauxite, an aluminium ore, is the world’s
to May the eastern and North-eastern states of main source of aluminium. It consists mostly of the
the subcontinent like West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, minerals gibbsite Al(OH)3, boehmite γ-AlO(OH)
Odisha (parts) and Bangladesh experience dramatic and diaspore.
ww appearance of a special type of violent thunderstorm

known as Nor’wester. In Bengal it is known as ‘Kal
Baisakhi’ or calamity of the month of Baisakh
36. (d) Digboi is a town and a town area committee in
Tinsukia district in the north-eastern part of the state
of Assam, India. Crude oil was discovered here in
w.E(April,15-May,15). Apart from its destructive effects

like sudden rise in wind speed, lightning, thunder
and hail the rainfall associated with the storm
37.
late 19th century.
(b) The rocks of the Dharwar system are mainly
sedimentary in origin, and occur in narrow elongated
asy
although small in amount, is extremely helpful for
the pre-Kharif crops like jute, Aus paddy, summer
till and a large number of vegetables and fruits and
synclines resting on the gneisses found in Bellary
district, Mysore and the Aravalis of Rajputana.
These rocks are enriched in manganese and iron
unbearable mid-day heat. En

the sudden drop in temperature gives relief after ore which represents a significant resource of these
metals.
gin
30. (c) Around September, with the sun fast retreating
south, the northern land mass of the Indian
38. (b) Tuticorin is known as “Pearl City” due to
the pearl fishing carried out in the town. It is a
ee
subcontinent begins to cool off rapidly. With this
air pressure begins to build over northern India,
the Indian Ocean and its surrounding atmosphere
still holds its heat. This causes cold wind to sweep
down from the Himalayas and Indo-Gangetic Plain
39.
commercial seaport which serves the inland cities
of Southern India and is one of the sea gateways of
Tamil Nadu.
rin
(a) Khetri Nagar is a town in Jhunjhunu district of
Rajasthan in India. It is part of Shekhawati region.
towards the vast spans of the Indian Ocean south
of the Deccan peninsula. This is known as the g.n
Khetri is actually two towns, the first “Khetri Town”
was founded by Raja Khet Singhji Nirwan.
Northeast Monsoon or Retreating Monsoon.
31. (d) Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi Hills
district of Meghalaya state in north-eastern India, 65
kilometers from Shillong.
40.
et
(a) Khadir or Khadar plains are those that are
low-lying next to a river. Khadir areas are prone to
flooding and sometimes include portions of former
river beds that became available for agriculture
32. (a) The southwestern summer monsoons occur when a river changed course. Khadir soil consists of
from June through September. The Thar Desert and new alluvial deposits and is often very fertile.
adjoining areas of the northern and central Indian 41. (b) The production of chrome ore and chrome
subcontinent heats up considerably during the hot concentrate has been fairly consistent in the last
summers. This causes a low pressure area over the 5 years. South Kaliapani is the main Chrome ore,
northern and central Indian subcontinent. To fill Bangur Chrome ore Mine is the first and only
this void, the moisture-laden winds from the Indian underground mine of Odisha.
Ocean rush in to the subcontinent. These winds, rich 42. (d) The Kalpasar Project envisages building a
in moisture, are drawn towards the Himalayas. The dam across the Gulf of Khambat for generating
Himalayas act like a high wall, blocking the winds tidal power and for establishing a huge reservoir for
from passing into Central Asia, and forcing them to fresh water for irrigation, drinking and industrial
rise. As the clouds rise their temperature drops and purposes.


43. (c) The Ganga action plan was, launched by Shri 48. (c) Coffee production in India is dominated in the
Rajeev Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India on hill tracts of South Indian states, with the state of
14 Jan. 1986 with the main objective of pollution Karnataka accounting 53% followed by Kerala 28%
abatement, to improve the water quality by and Tamil Nadu 11% of production of 8,200 tonnes.
Interception, Diversion and treatment of domestic 49. (b) Operation Flood in India, a project of the
sewage and present toxic and industrial chemical National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was
wastes from identified grossly polluting units the world’s biggest dairy development program
entering in to the river. which made India, a milk-deficient nation, the
ww
44. (b) Madhya Pradesh contributes more than 70%
of the total soyabean production in the country.
During the last two years soyabean has been grown
largest milk producer in the world, surpassing the
USA in 1998, with about 17 percent of global output
in 2010–11, which in 30 years doubled the milk
w.Ein Madhya Pradesh in an area of about 4.4 million

hectare producing around 3.9 million tones.
45. (c) Deccan traps are formed by vast outpouring
available per person, and which made dairy farming
India’s largest self-sustainable rural employment
generator.
asy
of basic lava from many linear fissures developed
in the earth’s crust. This outpouring was of quiet
type and hence did not create any volcanic domes.
50. (b) Jhum or Jhoom cultivation is a local name
for slash and burn agriculture practised by the
tribal groups in the northeastern states of India
En
It just spread across the surface. This outpouring
was in many active stages followed by periods of
like Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
Nagaland and also in the districts of Bangladesh
gin
quiescence. This outpouring took place around 65
million years ago when India was near present placed
Madagascar and during its movement towards
like Khagrachari and Sylhet. This system involves
clearing a piece of land by setting fire or clear felling
and using the area for growing crops of agricultural
ee
north, it passed over Reunion Hotspot. Presently
this hotspot is dormant in nature. This outpouring
lasted for 5million years approx according to latest
study.
importance such as upland rice, vegetables or fruits.
rin
51. (b) The growth, development and adoption of
new varieties of oil seeds and complementary
technologies nearly doubled oil seeds production
46. (b) Madagascar, officially the Republic of
Madagascar and previously known as the Malagasy g.n
from 12.6 mt in 1987-88 to 24.4 mt in 1996-97,
catalyzed by the Technology Mission on Oil seeds,
Republic, is an island country in the Indian Ocean,
off the coast of Southeast Africa. The nation
comprises the island of Madagascar (the fourth-
largest island in the world), as well as numerous
et
brought about the Yellow Revolution.
52. (a) Jatropha is a genus of flowering plants in the
spurge family, Euphorbiaceae. The name is derived
from the Greek words meaning “physician,” and
smaller peripheral islands. “nutrition,” hence the common name physic nut.
47. (d) India had about 125 Million metric tonne of 53. (b) Green Revolution refers to a series of research,
proven oil reserves as April 2010 or 5.62 billion development, and technology transfer initiatives,
barrels as per EIA estimate for 2009, which is the occurring between the 1940s and the late 1960s,
second-largest amount in the Asia-Pacific region which increased agriculture production worldwide,
behind China. Most of India’s crude oil reserves particularly in the developing world, beginning
are located in the western coast (Mumbai High) and most markedly in the late 1960s.
in the northeastern parts of the country, although 54. (b) Total Population of Daman and Diu is 2.43
considerable undeveloped reserves are also located Lakhs as per census 2011. Literacy rate in Daman
in the offshore Bay of Bengal and in the state of and Diu is 87.10 percent while sex ratio is 618
Rajasthan. females per 1000.

Geography || B-41
55. (c) National Highway 44 or NH 44 (Old NH of the total net area irrigated by the wells in the state
7), is major North-South National Highway in followed by 7.7% in Thiruvannamalai district and
India that runs through the states of Uttar Pradesh, 6.4% in Salem district.
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, 60. (d) The Sutlej River is the longest of the five rivers
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. NH-44 was laid and that flow through the historic crossroad region of
is maintained by Central Public Works Department Punjab in northern India and Pakistan
(CPWD). This highway starts from the area 61. (a) Punjab, also spelt Panjab, is a state in the
Hyderabad Gate in Varanasi. The highway connects northwest of forming part of the larger Punjab
ww several important Indian cities such as Varanasi,

Rewa, Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Kurnool,
Anantapur, Chikkaballapur, Bangalore, Krishnagiri,
63.
region.
(d) Kandla, also Kandla Port or New Kandla is a
seaport in Kutch District of Gujarat state in western
w.EDharmapuri, Salem, Namakkal, Velur, Karur,

Dindigul, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.
A major part of NH 44 covers the North-South
India, near the city of Gandhidham. Located on the
Gulf of Kutch, it is one of major ports on west coast.
Kandla was constructed in the 1950s as the chief
asy
Corridor of NHDP and it is officially listed as
running over 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi to
Kanyakumari. It is the longest national highway in
seaport serving western India, after the partition
of India from Pakistan left the port of Karachi in
Pakistan.
numbers this is renamed as NH 44.

En
India. As per the recent rationalization of Highway
64. (c) Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea,
one of the most easterly of the Andaman Islands. It
gin
56. (d) Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli
Qutab Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of
the Qutab Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before
65.
is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
(d) Mount Everest is the highest peak of the
ee
the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal
viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and
created his own dynasty, also known as the Nizams
of Hyderabad. The Hyderabad State ultimately
Himalaya and is the world’s highest peak with an
elevation of 29,035 feet (8,850 meters). K2 is the
rin
second highest peak of the Himalayan mountain
range and also the second highest peak on earth with
became a princely state during British rule, and
remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as
g.n
an elevation of 28,251 feet (8,611 meters). Other
famous peaks include Kailash, Kanchenjunga,
Nanga Parbat, Annapurna, and Manasklu. The
its capital.
58. (c) Rajasthan is blessed with two critical resources
that are essential to solar power production: high
level of solar radiation per square inch and large
66.
above sea level.
et
Himalayas includes more than 110 peaks rising to
elevations of 24,000 feet (7,300 meters) or more
(c) Chhattisgarh is the 10th largest state in India,

amounts of contiguous, relatively flat, undeveloped
land. with an area of 135,190 km². With a population
59. (c) Wells are the principal source of irrigation of 25.5 million, Chhattisgarh is the 16th most-
in Tamilnadu. During the year under review, open populated state of the nation.
wells and tube-wells/bore-wells continued to be the 73. (a) The Konkan Railway (Railway Symbol:KR) is
principal source of irrigation. The net area irrigated a railway line which runs along the Konkan coast
by open wells and tube-wells / bore-wells together of India. It was constructed and is operated by the
accounted for 1593968 ha (about 55.7 % of the total Konkan Railway Corporation. It runs from Thokur,
net area irrigated) in 09-10 as against 1614082 ha near Mangalore in Karnataka to Roha railway station
in 08-09 showing a decrease of 20114 ha i.e. 1.2%. in Maharashtra through Goa for a total distance of
The net area irrigated by wells during the year 09-10 741 km, along the west coast of India and Western
was the highest in Villupuram district with 11.3% Ghats.


77. (b) The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India the Purbi Singhbhum district of the Indian state of
and one of the tallest in the world. It is a multi- Jharkhand.
purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the 80. (a) The Coromandel Coast, is the southeastern
Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. coast of the Indian Subcontinent between
78. (b) Saraswati River refers to a river, that was a Kanyakumari and False Divi Point. It may also
distributary of the Bhagirathi and is now no more include the southeastern coast of the island of Sri
there but was active till around the 16th century Lanka.
AD. The course and condition of the Saraswati has 86. (b) Dandakarnya is the region where a
ww played an important role in the development and

decline of river port towns in Bengal. Initially, the
major port town was Tamralipta, after the decline
rehabilitation plan for the people displaced from
Bangladesh (then East Pakistan) was drawn up after
the independence. The project, however, did not
w.Eof which Saptagram rose and declined, and finally

Kolkata came up.
79. (d) The Jaduguda Mine (also spelt as Jadugoda or
attract many of the displaced persons. The region
lies in the tribal belt of Orissa and Chattisgarh.
94. (b) Raman Peak is the name given to a submarine
asy
Jadugora) is a uranium mine in Jaduguda village in mountain peak situated in the Arabian Sea.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

Section C : Indian polity & governance
ww
1 Indian Constitution

w.E
1. Which one of the following is not an essential
element of a federal form of government?
(a) Written Constitution

(a) J.L. Nehru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Division of power asy

(b) Independent judiciary
8.
(d) K.M.Munshi
In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’

2.
(d) Separation of powers
En
42nd amendment of the Constitution of India
was made during the period of which one of the

appears in
(a) The Preamble

following prime ministers?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri gin

(b) Part III of the Constitution
(c) Article 368

3.
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Ch. Charan Singh ee
Which article of the Indian Constitution
9.

Which article of the Indian Constitution
provides for the financial provisions?
(a) Article 352
(c) Article 360 rin (b) Article 356
(d) Article 361
provides for uniform civil code for the citizens?

(a) Article 42
(c) Article 46
(b) Article 44
(d) Article 48
10.

g.n
According to the Constitution of India, the right to
equality does not include
(a) equality before law
4 Which one of the following amendments of the
constitution clearly laid down that the residents
of India are bound to accept the advice given by
the council of ministers?

(b) absolute equality
et
(c) equality of opportunity
(d) abolition of untouchability
(a) 25th (b) 38th 11. The form of oath of office for a minister for the
(c) 42 th
(d) 43rd union of India is enshrined in the
5. Which article of the Constitution of India deals (a) first schedule (b) second schedule
with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’? (c) third schedule (d) fourth schedule
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 14 12. By which Constitution amendment article 31-C
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 32 was added to the Indian Constitution?
6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with (a) 17th amendment (b) 20th amendment
centre-state financial relations? (c) 25th amendment (d) 26th amendment
(a) Part XV (b) Part XIV 13. In which schedule of the Indian Constitution
(c) Part XII (d) Part X powers of panchayats are stated?
7. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee (a) 8th schedule (b) 9th schedule
of the Constituent Assembly? (c) 10th schedule (d) 11th schedule

C-2 || Indian Constitution

14. The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the Preamble (a) USA (b) Canada
to the Constitution of India expresses (c) Switzerland (d) Russia
(a) social, political and religious justice 24. Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is
(b) social, economic and cultural justice included in
(c) social, economic and political justice (a) Fundamental Rights
(d) economic and political justice (b) Directive principles of state policy
15. How many members of the constituent assembly (c) Citizenship
signed the Constitution of India? (d) Provision of Election Commission
(a) 284 (b) 294 25. In which year fundamental duties were included
ww
(c) 274 (d) 244
16. In which year the 73rd constitutional amendment
act (1992) was assented by the president?
in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1974
(c) 1976
(b) 1975
(d) 1977
w.E
(a) 1990
(c) 1993
(b) 1991
(d) 1994
17. Which of the following articles of the Indian
26. In which case the supreme court evolved the

concept of ‘Basic Structure of Constitution’?
(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Shankari Prasad case

(a) Article 333 to 337
(b) Article 17 to 20 asy
constitution deals with citizenship in India?

(c) Kishana Nanda Bharti case
(d) Minerva Mills case

(c) Article 05 to 11
(d) Article 01 to 04
En 27. Under which article the president of India can be

removed by the process of impeachment
(a) Article 79 (b) Article 76
gin
18. According to the Constitution of India, which one
of the following rights cannot be taken away during
emergency?
(c) Article 57 (d) Article 61
28. Under which of the constitutional provision, the
supreme court of India extends advice to the

(a) Right to speak
(b) Right to freedom of movement
(c) Right to life
(d) Right to organize
ee

president of India ?
(a) Article 141
(c) Article 143
rin(b) Article 142
(d) Article 144
29. Under which article the parliament of India can
19. Under which article the parliament provides

financial assistance to states?
(a) Article 273 (b) Article 274 (a) Article 229
g.n
legislate on any subject in the state list in national
interest?
(b) Article 230
20. Which of the following amendments had reduced
the age of the voters from 21years to 18 years?
(a) 52nd amendment (b) 60th amendment
(c) Article 247
et
(d) Article 249
30. What is the main difference between Fundamental

Rights and the Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) Constitutional Protection
(c) 61st amendment (d) 62nd amendment (b) Political Protection
21. Which constitutional amendment provides (c) Judicial Protection
constitutional status to panchayti raj system in (d) Moral Protection
India? 31. Under which article the Parliament of India may
(a) 42nd amendment (b) 73rd amendment constitute Administrative Tribunal ?
(c) 72nd amendment (d) 61st amendment (a) 323 A (b) 323B
22. Which of the following schedules deals with the (c) 324 (d) 325
division of powers between union and states? 32. Which of the following articles deals with the
(a) fourth schedule (b) sixth schedule impeachment process against the president of
(c) seventh schedule (d) ninth schedule India?
23. Indian federal structure is inspired by which model (a) Article 58 (b) Article 59
of the countries below? (c) Article 60 (d) Article 61

Indian Polity & Governance || C-3
33. India has borrowed the concept of Fundamental 42. Which term is not used in the Preamble of the
Rights from the Constitution of Indian Constitution ?
(a) UK (b) USA (a) Republic (b) Integrity
(c) Russia (d) Ireland (c) Federal (d) Socialist
34. By which amendment of the constitution, the Word 43 Which of the following schedules of Indian
‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the Preamble of the Constitution is related with the allotment of seats
Constitution? in Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule
(c) 25th Amendment (d) 24th Amendment (c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule
ww
35. The permanent president of Constituent Assembly

was
(a) Dr. Ambedkar
44. The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in
states is enshrined in which article of the Indian
Constitution ?

w.E(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) K.M. munshi
(d) J.L. Nehru

(a) Article 168
(c) Article 197
(b) Article 174
(d) Article 153
45. Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian
Constitution do not have any
asy
36. Which one of the following rights has been
described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul
of the Constitution’?

(a) Legal sanction (b) Political sanction
(c) Social Sanction (d) Moral sanction

(a) Right of Equality
(b) Right to freedom
En 46. The Idea of organization of panchayats as a duty
of state is mentioned in which part of Indian
Constitution?

(c) Right to property
gin
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
37. By which Act, Federation was introduced in India?

(a) Chaper I
(c) Chapter III
(b) Chapter II
(d) Chapter IV
47. Under which Constitutional Amendment has

(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Regulation Act, 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Cabinet Mission, 1946
ee education for children aged 6 to 14 years become
Fundamental Right?
rin
(a) 93rd Amendment (b) 86th Amendment
(c) 91st Amendment (d) 92nd Amendment
38. Which of the following is not provided for by the

Constitution of India?
(a) Election Commission (a) Article 3
g.n
48. Which Article of the constitution allows the centre
to form new states ?
(b) Article 4

(b) Finance Commissions
(c) Public Service Commission
(d) Planning Commission
39. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related with
(c) Article 5
et
(d) Article 6
49. The source of the basic structure theory of the

Constitution of India is
(a) the Constitution
the Protection of the interests of the minorities? (b) opinion of jurists
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 29 (c) indicial interpretation
(c) Article 30 (d) Article 31 (d) parliamentary statutes
40. Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related 50. The provision of the sixth schedule shall not apply
to Panchayti Raj ? in which one of the following states?
(a) II Schedule (b) VIII Schedule (a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura
(c) X Schedule (d) XI Schedule (c) Mizoram (d) Goa
41. The phrase equality before law used in Article 14 51. The 73rd amendment was brought into force to
of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the give effect to one of the Directive Principles of
Constitution of State Policy mentioned in
(a) Britain (b) USA (a) Article 45 (b) Article 46
(c) France (d) Canada (c) Article 47 (d) Article 40


52. The first proclamation of Emergency under article 60. Which one of the following fundamental rights
352 was made by the President in was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 soul of the Constitution ?
(c) 1965 (d) 1961 (a) Right to freedom against exploitation
53. 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution (b) Right to freedom of religion
was passed on the recommendation of which (c) Right to equality
committee? (d) Right to constitutional remedies
(a) Balwant Rai (b) Ashok Mehta 61. Which one of the following is a subject of the
ww
(c) Kirit Parikh (d) Deepak Mehta
54. Who among the following was a non-congress
member of the Constituent Assembly?
concurrent list?
(a) Police
(b) Criminal matters

w.E(a) J.B. Kripalani
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) T.T. Krishnamachari

(c) Radio and Television
(d) Foreign Affairs.
62. The 91st amendment of the Indian Constitution
asy
55. How many subjects are kept under the jurisdiction
of panchayats in the eleven schedule of the

deals with the
(a) Disqualification on grounds of defection
(b) Organisation of finance commission
Constitution?
(a) 27
(c) 29
(b) 28
(d) 30 En

(c) Formation of human rights commission
(d) None of these
gin
56. Which one of the following committees
recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties
63. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian

Constitution ?
(a) Written constitution

in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Barua Committee
(b) Ramaswamy Committee
(c) Sikri Committee
ee (b) Federalism

rin
(c) Sovereignty of Parliament
(d) Judicial Review
64. In which part of the Indian Constitution, legislative
(d) Swarn Singh Committee
57. Which one of the following is not related to the
constitutional government ? (a) X g.n
relation between centre and state is given?
(b) XI

(a) Coalition government
(b) Presidential government
(c) Hierarchy government
(d) Federal government
(c) XII

(a) 16 chapters
(c) 24 chapters
et
(d) XIII
65. The Indian Constitution is divided into
(b) 22 chapters
(d) 25 chapters
58. Which one of the following is not related to the 66. According to the Indian Constitution, which one
fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution? is not included in the fundamental right to equality?
(a) Freedom of association (a) Equality before law
(b) Freedom of movement (b) Social equality
(c) Freedom of assembly (c) Equality of opportunity
(d) Freedom to be elected as a member of (d) Economic equality
parliament 67. After which amendment the right to acquire, hold
59. Which article of Indian Constitution deals with and dispose off property is no longer a fundamental
amendment procedure ? right?
(a) Article 268 (b) Article 352 (a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
(c) Article 356 (d) Article 368 (c) 43rd Amendment (d) 40th Amendment

68. According to which amendment no law giving 77. In how many articles of Indian Constitution,
effect to the Directive principle article 36(b) and Directive principles of the state policy are
(c) can be challenged as violative of fundamental mentioned ?
rights? (a) From Article 36-51
(a) 42nd (b) 27th (b) From Article 36-52
(c) 40 th (d) 25th (c) From Article 36-53
69. Indian Constitution is : (d) From Article 36-54
(a) Federal (b) Unitary 78. Which of the following articles of Indian
(c) Quasi-federal (d) Presidential Constitution enunciates fundamental duties?
ww
70. Which article provides that any law passed in
violation of fundamental rights is void to the extent
of such violation
(a) Article 35
(c) Article 32
(b) Article 51(A)
(d) Article 14

w.E(a) Article 12
(c) Article 13
(b) Article 14
(d) Article 18
71. In the Constitution of India the term ‘federal’ :
79. The term ‘state’ has been defined in which of the

following articles of Indian Constitution ?
(a) Article 1
(c) Article 10
(b) Article 8
(d) Article 12

(a) Figures in the preamble
(b) Figures in the part-III
asy
(c) Figures in the Article 368
80. The philosophical foundation of the Indian
constitution is
(d) Does not figure anywhere
En
72. Which one of the following is not a feature of the

(a) Directive principle of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Federal structure

Indian Constitution ?
(a) Federal Government
(b) Independence of Judiciary gin (d) Preamble
81. Under which article of Indian Constitution, a High

(c) Parliamentary Government
(d) Dual Citizenship
ee
73. Which of the states of Indian federation has a
separate constitution ?

Court can issue writs to protect the fundamental
rights?
(a) Article 15
(c) Article 35
rin (b) Article 32
(d) Article 226
(a) Goa

(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir g.n
82. Which of the following articles of Indian
Constitution empowers the Governor to issue
ordinances during recess of the state legislature?

(d) Himachal Pradesh
74. Constitutional government means
(a) Representative government
(b) Government according to the Constitution

(a) Article 210
(c) Article 213 et
(b) Article 211
(d) Article 214
83. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is
mentioned in which of the following articles of
(c) Government by the consent of the people Indian Constitution?
(d) limited government (a) Article 131 (b) Article 132
75. Which one of the following is not a part of the (c) Article 143 (d) Article 148
‘basic structure’ of the Indian Constitution ? 84. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers
(a) Rule of law parliament to legislate on a subject of the state
(b) Secularism list ?
(c) Republican form of government (a) Article 115 (b) Article 116
(d) Parliamentary form of government (c) Article 226 (d) Article 249
76. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated 85. When was the first amendment in the Indian
with the functions of Constitution made?
(a) The concurrent list (b) The state list (a) July 1950 (b) December 1950
(c) The president (d) The union list (c) June 1951 (d) July 1951


86. The Constitution of India vests the executive 94. Which of the following fundamental rights has
powers of the Indian Union in which of the been given to Indian citizen only
following ? (a) Equality before law
(a) The prime minister (b) Freedom of speech
(b) The president (c) Life and personal liberty
(c) The council of ministers (d) Freedom of religion
(d) The parliament 95. Which of the following is not guaranteed by the
87. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution?
Constitution empowers the president to appoint
ww

Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?
(a) Article 147
(c) Article 149
(b) Article 148
(d) Article 151

(a) Freedom of assembly
(b) Freedom of residence
(c) Freedom of strike

w.E
88. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty
under the Indian constitution ?
(a) To protect monuments of national importance

(d) Freedom of association
96. Money bill has been defined in

asy
(b) To develop scientific temper
(c) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation
(d) None of these
(c) Article 112 (d) Artcle 113
97. Which article of the Constitution laid down
that state shall take steps to organize village
peace and security ? En

89. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to
the responsibility of the state towards international
panchayats?

(a) Fundamental Rights
gin
(b) Directive Principles of state policy
98. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India was created

(c) Emergency Provisions
(d) Preamble to the constitution
ee
90. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
(a) Freedom of consciences

(a) Through an act of the parliament
rin
(b) By the Constitution
(c) Through a cabinet resolution

(b) Right to propagate religion
(c) Right of minorities to establish and manage
educational institution authority? g.n
99. Which of the following is not a constitutional
(d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority

community
91. Which article of Indian Constitution declares
Devnagri Hindi as an official language of India?

et
(a) State Election Commission
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Zila Panchayat
(d) State Electoral Officer
(a) Article 343 (b) Article 348 100. MANREGA scheme has been launched as a part of
(c) Article 154 (d) Article 156 implementing which one of the following articles
92. How many members were assigned cabinet
of the Indian Constitution ?
mission in constitution assembly?
(a) 300 (b) 309
(c) 450 (d) 296 (b) Article 47 (d) Article 50
93. What was the duration in the making of Indian 101. Which of the following gave the idea of Constituent
Constitution ? Assembly for India?
(a) 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days (a) Simon Commission
(b) 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days (b) Rajaji Formula
(c) 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days (c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days (d) Wavell Plan

102. Under which article of Indian Constitution, 111 When did the Indian Constitution Assembly meet
President of India enjoys powers to withhold his for the first time?
asset on any Bill? (a) 26 Jan, 1950 (b) 15Aug, 1947
(a) Article 63 (b) Article 108 (c) 9 Dec, 1946 (d) 19 Nov, 1949
(c) Article 109 (d) Article 111 112. Which one of the following terms does not appear
103. Under which article of the Indian Constitution in the Constitution of India?
the adjudication of disputes relativity to water of (a) Annual financial statement
inter-state rivers-valleys is done ? (b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Budget
ww

(a) Article 260
(c) Article 262
(b) Article 261
(d) Article 262
104. Which part of the Constitution envisages a three
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
113. The political parties got the Constitution recognition
for the first time in the year.

w.E tier system of panchayats ?
(a) Part IV
(c) Part XI
(b) Part X
(d) Part XII
105. Who amongst the following was not a member of
(a) 1975
(c) 1985
(b) 1977
(d) 1995
114. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes
(a) Mohammod Sadullah asy

the drafting committee of the Constitution?

special provision for which of the following
state(s)?
(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat

(b) K.M. Munshi
(c) A.K. Ayyar
(d) J.L. Nehru En (b) Assam
(c) Nagaland
106. Indian Constitution is
(a) Rigid gin (d) Manipur
115. Which of the following articles of the Constitution
vests the executive power of the Union in the
(b) Flexible

(c) Neither rigid nor Flexible
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible
ee
107. Which one of the following articles of the Indian

president?
(a) Article 51
(c) Article 53
rin (b) Article 52
(c) Article 54
116. The Constitution of India provides for an Election

Constitution provides for All India Services ?
(a) Article 310
(c) Article 32
(b) Article 311
(d) Article 314
(a) 321 g.n
Commission under Article
(b) 322
108. The idea of concurrent list in the Indian Constitution

has been borrowed from
(a) USA
(c) Australia
(b) Switzerland
(d) U.S.S.R.
(c) 323
(a) Jan 26, 1950

et
(d) 324
117. The Constitution of India was completed by which
of the following dates :
(b) Nov 26, 1949
(c) Feb 11, 1948 (d) None of above
109. Which article of the Indian Constitution 118. The guardian of fundamental rights is
empowers the president to consult the Supreme (a) Judiciary (b) Executive
Court? (c) Parliament (d) None of above
(a) Article 129 (b) Article 132 119. Which of the following articles of the Indian
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 32 Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity
110. The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 to all citizens of India in matters relating to public
November 1949 by the employment?
(a) Constituent Assembly (a) Article 15
(b) Parliament of India (b) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(c) President of India (c) Article 16(3)
(d) British Parliament (d) Article 16(3), (4) and (5)


120. Which article of the Constitution permits the (a) Emergency powers of the President
supreme court to review its own judgment or (b) Powers of the president to extend president’s
order? rule
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 130 (c) Lowering the age of voters.
(c) Article 139 (c) Article 138 (d) Financial emergency.
121. The first amendment to the Constitution carried 129. The President can be impeached on the grounds
out in 1951 related to of violating the Constitution by
(a) Security of the country (a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) Security of the Prime Minister (b) The Vice-President of India
ww

(c) Protection of Agrarian reforms in certain state
(d) Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
122. The Constitution of India does not contain any

(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The two Houses of Parliament
130. Which one of the following liberties is not

w.E provision for the impeachment of
(a) The President
(b) The Governor of state
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
(a) Liberty of thought

asy
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Vice President of India

(b) Liberty of expression
(c) Liberty of belief
(d) Economic liberty
En
123. By which one of the following Constitutional
amendments, Delhi has become National Capital
Region?
131. Who was the chairman of the provincial Constitution
committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) 61st Amendment (b) 69th Amendment
(c) 71st Amendment (d) 79th Amendmentgin

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
124. How many types of emergencies have been
(a) Two
(c) Four
(b) Three
d) One.
ee
envisaged under the Indian Constitution?

(d) Sardar Patel
132. All the executive powers in Indian Constitution
are vested with
rin
(a) Prime Minister
125. The proposal for framing of the Constitution of
India by an elected Constituent Assembly was
made by

(c) President
(d) Parliament g.n
(b) Council of Ministers

(a) Simon Commissions
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) British cabinet Delegation
Constitution?
(a) Article 368
et
133. Procedure for creation of Legislative council in
states has been described in which article of the
(b) Article 69
126. The idea of the directive principles of state policy (c) Article 269 (d) Article 169
in the Indian Constitution has been taken from the 134. Who of the following moved the ‘Objective
Constitution of Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Ireland (b) Canada (a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) South Africa (d) Australia (b) P. J.L Nehru
127. Who of the following has stated that ‘The (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Constitution has not been set in a right mould of (d) Dr. C.D. Deshmukh
Federalism’? 135. Which of the Constitution provisions lays down
(a) D.D. Basu (b) K.M. Munshi that taxes can neither be carried nor collected
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) A.K. Aiyer without the authority of law?
128. Which of the following is concerned with the 61st (a) Article 265 (b) Article 266
amendment of the Indian Constitution? (c) Article 300 (d) Article 368

136. Which one of the following words was not included 144. The number of official languages recognized under
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution is
1975 ? (a) Sixteen
(a) Fraternity (b) Sovereign (b) Seventeen
(c) Equality (d) Integrity (c) Twenty
137. The federal system of India was inspired by the (d) Twenty Two
Constitution of the following? 145. How many articles are there in the Indian
(a) Canada (b) United Kingdom Constitution?
(c) U.S.A. (d) Ireland (a) 395 (b) 396
ww
138. The fundamental duties are mentioned in the
following part of the Constitution of India
(c) 398 (d) 399
146. The article of Indian Constitution related to
abolition of untouchability is

w.E (a) Part III
(c) Part IV A
(b) Part IV
(d) Part VI
139. Which amendment to the Constitution inserted a
new Article 21A providing Right to education in

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17

the Constitution?
asy
(a) 84th Amendment (b) 87th Amendment
(d) Article 18
147. By which name/names is our country mentioned
in the Constitution?

En
(c) 88th Amendment (d) 89th Amenement
140. Which one of the following is not included in the
state list in the Constitution of India?

(a) India and Bharat
(b) India and Hindustan
(a) Criminal procedure code
(b) Police gin

(c) Bharat Only
(d) India, Bharat and Hindustan
148. Which provision relating to the fundamental rights
(c) Law and order
(d) Prison
141. The number of members included in the
Constitution Drafting Committee was:
ee

is directly related to the exploitation of children?
(a) Article 17
(c) Article 23
rin
(b) Article 19
(d) Article 24
149. The first statute for the governance of India, under
(a) Seven
(c) Eleven
(b) Nine
(d) Thirteen
142. The tenth schedule of Indian Constitution deals

g.n
the direct rule of the British Government, was the
(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Government of India Act, 1861

with
(a) Anti-defection legislation
(b) Panchayti Raj
(c) Land reforms

et
(c) Government of India Act, 1892
(d) Government of India Act, 1915
150. Which article is related to Special Address by the
President?
(d) Distribution of powers between the union and (a) Article 84 (b) Article 85
states (c) Article 86 (d) Article 87
143. How many sessions of the Indian Constituent 151. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit
Assembly were conducted for the formulation of prescribed for the number of members in the
Indian Constitution? Legislative Assembly of a State?
(a) 7 (b) 9 (a) 350 members (b) 400 members
(c) 12 (d) 15 (c) 450 members (d) 500 members

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 20. (c) 39. (b) 58. (d) 77. (a) 96. (a) 115. (d) 134. (b)
2. (c) 21. (b) 40. (d) 59. (d) 78. (b) 97. (b) 116. (d) 135. (a)
3. (b) 22. (c) 41. (a) 60. (d) 79. (b) 98. (b) 117. (a) 136. (d)
4. (c) 23. (b) 42. (d) 61. (b) 80. (d) 99. (c) 118. (a) 137. (a)
5. (d) 24. (b) 43. (d) 62. (a) 81. (d) 100. (c) 119. (d) 138. (c)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(c)
(c)
25.
26.
27.
(c)
(c)
44.
45.
46.
(a)
(a)
63.
64.
65.
(c)
(b)
82.
83.
84.
(c)
(a)
101.
102.
103.
(c)
(d)
120.
121.
122.
(a)
(c)
139.
140.
141.
(a)
(a)
w.E
10.
9.
(d)
(c)
(b)
28.
29.
(d)
(c)
(d)
47.
48.
(d)
(b)
(d)
66.
67.
(b)
(c)
(b)
85.
86.
(d)
(b)
(b)
104.
105.
(c)
(a)
(d)
123.
124.
(b)
(b)
(b)
142.
143.
(a)
(a)
(c)
11.
12.
(c)
(c)
30.
31.
(c)
(a)
49.
50.asy (c)
(d)
68.
69.
(a)
(a)
87.
88.
(b)
(a)
106.
107.
(c)
(c)
125.
126.
(d)
(a)
144.
145.
(d)
(a)
13.
14.
(d)
(c)
32.
33.
(d)
(b)
51.
52. En(d)
(d)
70.
71.
(c)
(d)
89.
90.
(b)
(c)
108.
109.
(c)
(c)
127.
128.
(d)
(c)
146.
147.
(d)
(a)
15.
16.
(c)
(c)
34.
35.
(a)
(b)
53.
54. gin
(a)
(b)
72.
73.
(d)
(c)
91.
92.
(a)
(d)
110.
111.
(c)
(c)
129.
130.
(d)
(d)
148.
149.
(d)
(a)
17.
18.
19.
(c)
(c)
(c)
36.
37.
38.
(d)
(d)
(d)
55.
56.
57.
(c)
(d)
(c)
ee 74.
75.
76.rin
(d)
(d)
(b)
93.
94.
95.
(c)
(b)
(c)
112.
113.
114.
(d)
(c)
(d)
131.
132.
133.
(d)
(a)
(d)
150.
151
(d)
(d)
Hints & Solutions

g.n
1. (d) In a federal form of government separation
of powers is not an essential element. A federal
et was enacted during the Emergency (1975-1977)
by the Congress government headed by Indira
state, is a political entity characterized by a union Gandhi. Most provisions of the amendment came
of partially self-governing states or regions under into effect on 3 January 1977, others were enforced
a central (federal) government. In a federation, the from 1 February and Section 27 came into force on
self-governing status of the component states, as 1 April 1977. The 42nd amendment is regarded as
well as the division of power between them and the the most controversial constitutional amendment in
Indian history. It attempted to reduce the power of
central government, are typically constitutionally
the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce
entrenched and may not be altered by a unilateral
upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid
decision of either party, the states or the federal down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens to
political body. the nation. This amendment brought about the most
2. (c) T h e f o r t y - s e c o n d a m e n d m e n t o f t h e widespread changes to the Constitution until then,
Constitution of India, officially known as The and is sometimes called a “mini-Constitution” or
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, the “Constitution of Indira”.

3. (b) Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides 9. (c) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides
for uniform civil code for the citizens. Uniform civil for provision as the financial emergency. If the
code of India is a term referring to the concept of an President is satisfied that a situation has arisen
overarching civil law code in India. A uniform civil whereby the financial stability or credit of India or
code administers the same set of secular civil laws of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he
to govern all people irrespective of their religion, may by a proclamation make a declaration to that
caste and tribe. This supersedes the right of citizens effect.
to be governed under different personal laws based 10. (b) According to the Constitution of India, the
on their religion or caste or tribe. Such codes are right to equality does not include absolute equality.
ww in place in most modern nations. The common

areas covered by a civil code include laws related
to acquisition and administration of property,
marriage, divorce and adoption. The Constitution
11.
12.
(c) The form of oath of office for a minister for the
union of India is enshrined in the third schedule of
the Constitution.
(c) By the 25th Amendment of the Constitution,
w.E
of India attempts to set a uniform civil code for
its citizens as a Directive Principle, or a goal to be
achieved.
Article 31C was added to the Indian Constitution.
The twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution
of India, officially known as the Constitution
asy
4. (c) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution clearly
briefs down that the President of India is bound to
accept the advice given by the Council of Ministers.
(Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed
the right to property, and permitted the acquisition
of private property by the government for public
En
5. (d) Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals
with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’.
Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by
use, on the payment of compensation which
would be determined by the Parliament and not
the courts. The amendment also exempted any law

this Part.
gin
(a) The right to move the Supreme Court by
giving effect to the Directive Principles of State
Policy from judicial review, even if it violated the
Fundamental Rights.
ee
appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of
the rights conferred by this part is guaranteed.
(b) The Supreme Court shall have power to
issue directions or orders or writs, including
writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
13.
14.
(d) The powers of panchayats are stated in the 11th
schedule of the Indian Constitution.
rin
(c) The mention of the world ‘justice’ in the
Preamble to the Constitution of India expresses
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for
the enforcement of any of the rights conferred
15.
g.n
social, economic and political justice.
(c) There were 294 members of the Constituent
Assembly who signed the Constitution of India.

by this Part.
(c) Without prejudice to the powers conferred
on the Supreme Court by clause ( 1 ) and
(2), Parliament may by law empower any
16.
et
The Constitution was drafted by the Constituent
Assembly, which was elected by the elected
members of the provincial assemblies.
(c) In 1993, 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
(1992) was assented by the President of India.
other court to exercise within the local limits 17. (c) Article 05 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deals
of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers with citizenship in India. The legislation related to
exercisable by the Supreme Court under clause this matter is the Citizenship Act 1955, which has
( 2 ). been amended by the Citizenship (Amendment)
(d) The right guaranteed by this article shall Act 1986, the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 1992,
not be suspended except as otherwise provided the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2003, and the
for by this Constitution. Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005. Article 9
6. (c) Part XII of the Indian Constitution deals with of Indian Constitution says that a person who
centre-state financial relations. voluntarily acquires citizenship of any other country
7. (c) B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the is no longer an Indian citizen. Also, according to the
drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly Passports Act, a person has to surrender his Indian
8. (d) In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’ passport, it is a punishable offense under the act if
appears in the part I of the Constitution. he fails to surrender the passport.


18. (c) According to the Constitution of India, right to national interest. Notwithstanding anything in the
life can’t be taken away during emergency. foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council
19. (c) Under the Article 275 the Parliament provides of States has declared by resolution supported by
financial assistance to states. Such sums of grants not less than two thirds of the members present and
as Parliament may by law provide shall be charged voting that it is necessary or expedient in national
on the Consolidated Fund of India in each year interest that Parliament should make laws with
as grants in aid of the revenues of such States respect to any matter enumerated in the State List
as Parliament may determine to be in need of specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for
assistance, and different sums may be fixed for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part
ww different States
20. (c) 61 st Amendment of the Constitution had
reduced the age of the voters from 21 years to 18
of the territory of India with respect to that matter
while the resolution remains in force.
35. (b) The permanent president of Constituent
w.Eyears. The 61st amendment of the Constitution of

India, officially known as the Constitution (Sixty-
first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age
Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr B.R.
ambedkar, Sanjay Phakey, Jawaharlal Nehru,
C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, Sardar
asy
of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative
Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
This was done by amending Article 326 of the
Vallabhbhai Patel, Kanaiyalal Munshi, Purushottam
Mavalankar, Sandip Kumar Patel, Maulana Abul
Kalam Azad, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Nalini
Sabha and the Assemblies.

En
Constitution, which related to elections to the Lok
21. (b) 73rd Amendment provides constitutional status

Ranjan Ghosh, and Balwant Rai Mehta were some
important figures in the Assembly.
to Panchayti Raj System in India.

gin
22. (c) The seventh schedule of the Constitution deals
39. (b) Article 29 of the Indian Constitution is related

to the protection of the interests of the minorities.
(1) Any section of the citizens residing in the
ee
with the division of powers between union and states.
(Article 246)—The union (central government),
state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.
27. (d) Under Article 61, the President of India can
territory of India or any part thereof having a
distinct language, script or culture of its own
rin
shall have the right to conserve the same.
(2) No citizen shall be denied admission into
be removed by the process of impeachment. Under
Article 61 of the Constitution, the President of
India can be impeached for the violation of the g.n
any educational institution maintained by the
State or receiving aid out of State funds on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, language
Constitution, which is solely to be decided by the
Parliament.
28. (c) Under article 143 of the constitutional
provision, the Supreme Court of India extends
or any of them.
et
44. (a) The provision for Constitution of Legislatures
in states is enshrined in Article 168 of the Indian
Constitution. Constitution of Legislatures in States
advice to the President of India. Concerning Power (1) For every State there shall be a Legislature
of President to consult Supreme Court, if at any which shall consist of the Governor, and
time it appears to the President that a question of (a) in the States of Bihar, Madhya
law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and
of such a nature and of such public importance that Uttar Pradesh, two houses:
it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme (b) in other States, one House
Court upon it, he may refer the question to that (2) Where there are two Houses of the
Court for consideration and the Court may, after Legislature of a State, one shall be known as
such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President the Legislative Council and the other as the
its opinion thereon. Legislative Assembly, and where there is only
29. (d) Under the Article 249, the Parliament of one House, it shall be known as the Legislative
India can legislate on any subject in the state list in Assembly.

45. (a) Fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian with respect to any of the matters specified in List I
Constitution do not have any legal sanction. The or List II and excluding the use of naval, military or
Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the air forces or any other armed forces of the Union in
Constitution by the 42 nd Amendment in 1976, aid of the civil power.
upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh 62. (a) The 91st Amendment of the Indian Constitution
Committee that was constituted by the government deals with the disqualification on grounds of
earlier that year. defection. Amend articles 75 and 164 on 1 January
48. (d) Article 3 of the Constitution allows the centre 2004 in order to restrict the size of council of
to form new states. Regarding formation of new ministers to 15% of legislative members and to
ww

States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing States, Parliament may by law
(a) form a new State by separation of territory
70.
strengthen Anti-Defection laws.
(c) Article 13 provides that any law passed in
violation of fundamental rights is void to the extent

w.E from any State or by uniting two or more
States or parts of States or by uniting any
territory to a part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
of such violation. All laws in force in the territory
of India immediately before the commencement of
this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent

asy
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent
of such inconsistency, be void. The State shall not
make any law which takes away or abridges the
En
51. (d) The 73rd Amendment was brought into force
to give effect to one of the Directive Principle of
State Policy is mentioned in Article 40 under the
rights conferred by this part and any law made in
contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of
the contravention, be void.
gin
provision of the amendent .The State shall take
steps to organize village panchayats and endow
them with such powers and authority as may be
73. (c) The state of Jammu & Kashmir of Indian
Federation has a separate constitution. Article 370
56. (d) Swarn Singh Committee redounded the

ee
necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government.
inclusion of fundamental duties in the Indian

of the Indian Constitution, which is of a temporary
nature, grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
rin
Under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which
deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special
provisions”, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has
Constitution. The Fundamental Duties of citizens
were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of
76. g.n
been accorded special status under Article 370.
(b) Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is
the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted

by the government earlier that year.
59. (d) Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals
with amendment procedure. Article 368 of the
et
associated with the functions of the state list.
Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing
provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States
has declared by resolution supported by not less
than two thirds of the members present and voting
Constitution of India grants constituent power to that it is necessary or expedient in national interest
make formal amendments and empowers Parliament that Parliament should make laws with respect to
to amend the Constitution by way of addition, any matter enumerated in the State List specified
variation or repeal of any provision according to the in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament
procedure laid down therein, which is different from to make laws for the whole or any part of the
the procedure for ordinary legislation. Article 368 territory of India with respect to that matter while
has been amended by the 24th and 42nd Amendments the resolution remains in force.
in 1971 and 1976 respectively. 81. (d) Under Article 226 of Indian Constitution
61. (b) Criminal matters is a subject of the concurrent a High Court can issue writes to protect the
list. Criminal law, including all matters included in fundamental rights. Notwithstanding anything in
the Indian Penal Code at the commencement of this Article 32 every High Court shall have powers,
Constitution but excluding offences against laws throughout the territories in relation to which it


exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage
authority, including in appropriate cases, any employment in a financial year to every household
Government, within those territories directions, whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled
orders or writs, including writs in the nature of manual work.
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibitions, quo 101. (c) Cabinet mission plan gave the idea of
warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the Constituent Assembly for India. In 1946, British
enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part Prime Minister Clement Attlee formulated a cabinet
III and for any other purpose. mission to India to discuss and finalize plans
82. (c) Article 213 of Indian Constitution empowers for the transfer of power from the British Raj
ww the governor to issue ordinances during recess

of the state legislature. Concerning power of
Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess
to Indian leadership as well as provide India
with independence under Dominion status in the
Commonwealth of Nations. The Mission discussed
w.E of Legislature, If at any time, except when the

Legislative Assembly of a State is in session, or
where there is a Legislative Council in a State, except
the framework of the constitution and laid down
in some detail the procedure to be followed by the
Constitution drafting body.
asy
when both Houses of the Legislature are in session,
the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist
which render it necessary for him to take immediate
103. (c) Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution
the adjudication of disputes relating to water of
inter-state rivers or river valleys is done. Parliament
circumstances appear to him.

En
action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the
83. (a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is

may by law provide for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with respect to the use,
gin
mentioned in Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any
distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any
inter State river or river valley.
107. (c) Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides

or more States; or ee
other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute
(a) between the Government of India and one
(b) between the Government of India and any

State or States on one side and one or more
for All India Services. The services known at the
commencement of this Constitution as the Indian
rin
Administrative Service and the Indian Police
Service shall be deemed to be services created by

other States on the other; or
(c) between two or more States, g.n
Parliament under this article.
119. (d) Article 16(B), (4) and (5) of the Indian
Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to
92. (d) There were 296 members assigned by cabinet
mission in Constitution Assembly. The mission
consisted of Lord Patrick-Lawrence, the Secretary
of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of
the Board of Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First
et
all citizens of India in matters relating to public
employment.
120. (a) Article 137 of the Constitution permits the
Supreme Court to review its own judgement
or order. Review of judgments or orders by the
Lord of the Admiralty.
Supreme Court subject to the provisions of any law
93. (c) The Indian Constitution is the world’s longest
made by Parliament or any rules made under Article
Constitution. At the time of commencement, the
145, the Supreme Court shall have power to review
Constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8
schedules. It consists of almost 80,000 words and any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to make. 124. (b) There are three types of emergencies
100. (c) MGNREGA Scheme has been launched as which have been envisaged under the Indian
a part of implementing of the Article 47 of the constitution. The President can declare three types
Indian Constitution. The Mahatma Gandhi National of emergencies:
Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) National emergency under Article 352
is an Indian law that aims to guarantee the ‘right to State emergency under Article 356
work’ and ensure livelihood security in rural areas Financial emergency under Article 360

135. (a) Article 265 of the constitutional provisions No child below the age of fourteen years shall be
lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged
collected without the authority of law. Taxes are not in any other hazardous employment provided
to be imposed by authority of law. No tax shall be that nothing in this sub clause shall authorize the
levied or collected except by authority of law. detention of any person beyond the maximum
141. (a) The number of members included in the period prescribed by any law made by Parliament
Constitution Drafting Committee was seven. under sub clause (b) of clause (7); or such person is
On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee detained in accordance with the provisions of any
was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the law made by Parliament under sub clauses (a) and
ww Chairman along with six other members assisted by

a constitutional advisor. These members were Pandit
Govind Ballabh Pant Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
(b) of clause (7 ).
149. (a) The Government of India Act 1858 was an
Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom (21
w.E (K M Munshi, Ex- Home Minister, Bombay),

Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (Ex- Advocate General,
Madras State), N Gopalaswami Ayengar (Ex-Prime
& 22 Vict. c. 106) passed on August 2, 1858. Its
provisions called for the liquidation of the British
East India Company (which had up to this point
asy
Minister, J&K and later member of Nehru Cabinet),
B L Mitter (Ex-Advocate General, India), Md.
Saadullah (Ex- Chief Minister of Assam, Muslim
been ruling British India under the auspices of
Parliament) and the transference of its functions to
the British Crown.
En
League member) and D P Khaitan (Scion of Khaitan
Business family and a renowned lawyer).
150. (d) Article 84 - Qualification for membership of
Parliament.
gin
142. (a) The tenth schedule of Indian Constitution
deals with anti-defection legislation. Tenth Schedule
(Articles 102(2) and 191(2))—”Anti-defection”

Article 85 - Sessions of Parliament, prorogation and
dissolution.
Article 86 - Right of President to address and send
of the State Legislatures.

ee
provisions for Members of Parliament and Members
143. (c) There were twelve sessions of the Indian

Constituent Assembly which were conducted for
messages to Houses.
151. (d) The Legislative Assembly (the Vidhan Sabha)
rin
is the popular House of the State Legislative and its
member are chosen by direct election on the basis of
the formulation of Indian Constitution.
148. (d) Article 24 relating to the fundamental rights
is directly related to the exploitation of children. g.n
adult suffrage from territorial constituencies (Article
170).The number of members ranges between
60 and 500.
et

ww
2 Political System
w.E
1. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance bill sent for its
consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
6. How many times has Financial Emergency been
declared in India so far?

period of
(a) One month
(c) Seven days asy
(b) One Year
(d) Fourteen days
(a) 5 times
(c) once
(b) 4 times
(d) Never
7. Which one of the following is the time limit for the
2.
En
Which one of the following is not a department in
the Ministry of Human Resource Development?

ratification of an emergency period by parliament?
(a) 14 days
(c) 3 months
(b) 1 month
(d) 6 months

Literacy
gin
(a) Department of Elementary Education and
(b) Department of Secondary Education and

8. Which one of the following motions can the
Council of Ministers in India can move?

3.
Higher Education
(c) Department of Technical Education ee
(d) Department of women and child development
Who decides the office of profit?

(a) No confidence motion
(b) Adjournment motion
rin
(c) Confidence motion

(a) President and Governor
(b) Union Parliament g.n
9. Which one of the following expenditure is not
charged on the consolidated fund of India?
(a) Salary and allowances of the President of

4.
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Union Public Service Commission
The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed
by the President. He can be removed

India
et
(b) Salary and allowances of the Vice President
of India
(c) Salary and allowances of the Justice of the
(a) by the President Supreme Court of India
(b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament (d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the
(c) on the recommendation of the President by Lok Sabha
the Supreme Court 10. Who among the following is Constitution empowered
(d) by CJI to declare a geographic area as a scheduled area?
5. To be officially recognized by the speaker of Lok (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
Sabha as an opposition group, a party or coalition (c) Prime Minister (d) President
of parties must have at least 11. The vacancy of the office of the President of India
(a) 50 members must be filled up within
(b) 60 members (a) 90 days (b) 6 months
(c) 80 members (c) One year
(d) 1/3 of total members of the Lok Sabha (d) within the period decided by the Parliament

12. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the 19. By which of the following can the President of
Supreme Court of India, on any question of law? India be impeached?
(a) Prime Minister (a) The Lok Sabha
(b) President (b) The Parliament
(c) Any of the high courts (c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) All of the above (d) The Prime Minister
13. Which one of the following taxes is levied and 20. Which of the following subjects lies in the
collected by the Union but distributed between concurrent list?
union and states? (a) Agriculture (b) Education
ww

(a) Corporation tax
(b) Tax on income other than on agricultural
income
(c) Police (d) Defence
21. The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is
based on the 1971 census. Up to which year does

w.E(c) Tax on railway fares and freights

(d) Customs
14. Which of the following states can nominate two
women members to the legislative assembly?
this remain intact?
(a) 2031
(c) 2021
(b) 2026
(d) 2011
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Kerala asy 22. How many members are nominated by the
president in the Rajya Sabha
(a) 2 (b) 10

(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Uttar Pradesh
En
15. The electoral college for Presidential election
(c) 12 (d) 15
23. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the

consists of:
gin
(a) All members of Union Parliament
(b) All members of Union Parliament and state

(a) State government
(b) Central government
(c) Both the state and Central government

legislative assemblies.
ee
(c) All members of Union Parliament and all
elected members of state legislative councils
(d) All elected members of Union Parliament and

(d) None of them
24. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after
rin
(a) It is passed by both the Houses.
(b) The president has given his assent
state legislative assemblies.
16. Recommendations to the President of India on the
specific Union state fiscal relation are made by the

g.n
(c) The Prime Minister has signed it
(d) The Supreme Court has declared it to
be within the competence of the Union

(a) Finance Minister
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Commission

Parliament
et
25. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha
(a) is dissolved once in two years.
(b) is dissolved every five years.
17. In which of the following houses the chairperson (c) is dissolved every six years.
is not the member of that house? (d) is not subject of dissolution
(a) Lok Sabha 26. As a non-member who can participate in the
(b) Rajya Sabha proceedings of either House of Parliament
(c) Legislative Assembly (a) Vice President
(d) Legislative council (b) Chief Justice
18. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take (c) Attorney General
part in the activities of Lok Sabha? (d) Chief Election Commissioner
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India 27. In which house is the presiding officer not a
(b) The Attorney General of India member of that house?
(c) The Solicitor General (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) The Secretary to President of India (c) Vidhan-Sabha (d) Vidhan parishad

C-18 || Political System

28. If the position of President and Vice-President are 35. Money bill is introduced in
vacant, who officiates as the President of India? (a) Lok Sabha
(a) The Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha
(b) The Chief Justice of India (c) Joint sitting of both the Houses
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) None of the above
(d) None of these 36. Who of the following Presidents of India was
29. Which one of the following statements about the associated with trade union movement?
Parliament of India is not correct? (a) V.V. Giri
ww

(a) The Constitution provides for a parliamentary
form of government
(b) The foremost function of the parliament is to

(b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(c) K.R. Narayanan
(d) Zakir Hussain

w.E provide a cabinet
(c) The membership of the cabinet is restricted
to the lower house
(d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of
37. State Governor is appointed by

(a) Central Cabinet
(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court
asy
the majority in the popular chamber
30. Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President of India
38. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the
of
(a) 1987 En
exercised for the first time in the general election
(b) 1988

state list
(a) by the wish of the president
(c) 1989 (d) 1990

gin
31. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review

(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
(c) under any circumstances
(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned

Prime Minister
ee
(a) the relation between the President and the
(b) the relation between the legislative and the

executive
state
39. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible
rin
to which of the following?
(a) Prime Minister

(c) the relations between the executive and the
judiciary
(d) the relations between the Union and the State.
(b) President
(c) Rajya Sabha
g.n
32. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the state is operated

by
(a) The Governor of the state
(b) The Chief Minister of the state
(d) Lok Sabha
et
40. The Council of Ministers has to resign if
no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of
members of
(a) Lok Sabha
(c) The State Finance Minister (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above (c) Both the Houses separately
33. The first speaker against whom a motion of non- (d) Both the Houses in joint sitting
confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was 41 What is the tenure of the Chief Election
(a) Balram Jakhar (b) G.V. Mavalankar Commissioner of India?
(c) Hukum Singh (d) K.S. Hegde (a) Five years
34. Indian Parliament consists of (b) During the ‘pleasure’ of the President
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (c) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister is earlier
(c) Speaker and Lok Sabha (d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever
(d) President and both the Houses is earlier

42. In which of the following committees there is no (c) election to all party officers
representation of Rajya Sabha? (d) an overhaul of the congress working
(a) Public Account Committee committee
(b) Committee on public undertaking 50. What is the maximum time interval permissible
(c) Estimate Committee between two successive sessions of the parliament?
(d) Committee on Government Assurances (a) 4 months (b) 5 months
43. The function of the pro-tem in the absence of (c) 6 months (d) 3 months
Speaker is to 51. In India partyless democracy was first advocated
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the
ww

absence of speakers.
(b) officiate as speaker when the speaker is
unlikely to be elected

by
(a) Jai Prakash Narayan
(b) M.N. Ray

w.E(c) only check if the election certificates of the
members are in order

52.
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
The system of proportion of Representation as an
electoral mechanism ensures
asy
44. Which of the following statements is not correct
in relation to Dr. Manmohan Singh?
(a) Former Finance Minister

(a) Representation of minorities
(b) Rule of majority

(b) Former Governor of RBI
En
(c) Former Representative of India in International

53.
(c) Stability in government
(d) Common political thinking
Right to vote is a

Monetary Fund
(d) Member of Rajya Sabha
gin
45. In which regime change not happened during Arab

(a) Social right
(b) Personal right
Spring (2010-2012)?
(a) Egypt
(c) Libya
(b) Tunisia
(d) Bahrain
ee
46. The office of the President does not characterize

54.
(c) Political right
(d) Legal right
government?
rin
Which one of the following is the basis of federal

the combination of governmental systems of
(a) Parliamentary and Federal
(b) Republican and Parliamentary

g.n
(a) Supremacy of the parliament
(b) Supremacy of Judiciary
(c) Division of powers between federal and state

(c) Presidential and Republican
(d) Democratic and Republican
47. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool
to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok

55.
government
(d) single citizenship et
Government is classified as parliamentary and
presidential on the basis of which of the following?
Sabha? (a) Relations between legislature and executive
(a) Calling attention motion (b) Relations between politician and civil
(b) Discussion under Rule 377
servants
(c) Censure motion
(c) Written or unwritten Constitutions
(d) Short duration discussion
(d) Rigid or Flexible Constitutions
48. Parliamentary Supremacy is the definite feature of
56. The presidential system operates on the principle
the political system in
(a) UK (b) India of
(c) Canada (d) Australia (a) Division of powers
49. The Kamraj Plan proposed (b) Separation of powers
(a) priority to agriculture over industry (c) Fusion of powers
(b) inducting senior leaders to party work (d) Balance of powers


57. The cabinet in the Parliamentary system is 66. The chairman of the Lok Sabha is designated as
accountable to (a) Chairman (b) Speaker
(a) The President (c) Vice President (d) President
(b) The Prime Minister 67. Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?
(c) The Council of Ministers (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Legislature (b) The President
58. The President of India enjoys emergency powers (c) The Prime Minister
of (d) The Parliamentary Select Committee
(a) Two types (b) Three types 68. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinizes
ww

(c) Four types
(a) The President

(d) Five types
59. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

the report of the CAG of India is
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Select Committee

w.E(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Speaker

69.
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) None of these
How many times can the President of India seek

years time?
(a) B.J.P. asy
60. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two

re-election to his post?
(a) Once
(c) 3 times
(b) 2 times
(d) Any numbers of time

(b) Janata Party
(c) Janata Dal
En 70. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India
for two consecutive terms?

(d) Samajwadi Janata Party
(a) Cabinet Minister gin

61. The Council of Ministers does not include

(a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(b) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(b) Minister of state
(c) Minister without portfolio
(d) Cabinet Secretary ee
62. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union

71.

(d) Mr. V.V. Giri
In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so
rin
long as he enjoys the
(a) Support of armed forces

Government?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Cabinet Secretary

g.n
(b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha
(c) Confidence of Lok Sabha
(d) Support of the people

(c) Home Secretary
(d) Principal Secretary of the P.M.
63. How is legislative excess of Parliament and State
Assemblies checked?
72.

(a) President
(c) Rajya Sabha
et
The Council of Ministers of Indian Union is
collectively responsible to the
(b) Prime Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
(a) Intervention from President/Governor 73. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller
(b) No- confidence motions and Auditor General of India?
(c) Judicial review (a) 6 years
(d) General elections (b) upto 65 years of age
64. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha? (c) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier
(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) upto 64 years of age
(b) The President 74. In order to be recognised as an official opposition
(c) The joint session of Parliament group in the Parliament
(d) None of these (a) 1/3rd of the total strength
65. The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called (b) 1/4th of the total strength
(a) Casting vote (b) Sound vote (c) 1/6th of the total strength
(c) Direct vote (d) Indirect vote (d) 1/10th of the total strength

75. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok 83. Which one of the following motions can the
Sabha in the case of Council of Ministers of India move?
(a) Money bills (a) No confidence motion
(b) Non-money bills (b) Censure motion
(c) Setting up of new All India Services (c) Adjournment motion
(d) Amendment of the Constitution (d) Confidence motion
76. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be 84. Who advises the Government of India on legal
nominated by the president to the Lok Sabha is
matters?
(a) 2 (b) 3
ww
(c) 4 (d) 5
77. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office
by addressing his resignation to

(a) Attorney General
(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court
(c) Chairman, Law Commission

w.E(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of these
85. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament
is that

asy
(d) The Chief Justice of India
78. The bill of which of the following categories can
be initiated only in Lok Sabha?

(a) It is the Union Legislature in India
(b) It also comprises of the President
(c) It is bicameral in nature

(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Private members Bill
En (d) The Upper House of the Parliament is never
dissolved

(c) Money Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
gin
79. Who among the following forms the advisory
86. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha
is based on which one of the following census?
(a) 1971

committee of the parliament?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President of India
(c) Vice-President of India
ee (b) 1981
(c) 1991
(d) 2001
rin
87. Who among the following was not elected for two
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
80. Which of the following appointments is not made
by the President of India? (a) G.M.C. Balayogi g.n
terms as the Speaker of Lok Sabha?

(a) Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of Air Staff
(d) Chief of Army

(b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Balram Jakhar
(d) Baliram Bhagat
et
88. By which bill the Government proposes the
81. The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice- collection of revenues for a year?
President can be presented in (a) Economic Bill
(a) any House of the Parliament (b) Finance Bill
(b) the Rajya Sabha (c) Supplementary Bill
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) None of these
(d) None of these
89. The Committee of Parliament on official language
82. Who among the following is the Chairman of the
comprises the members
National Integration Council?
(a) The President (a) 20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(b) The Vice-President (b) 10 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister (c) 10 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(d) The Chief Justice of India (d) 20 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha


90. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is 98. On what ideologies does the Indian National Congress
he to address his resignation letter? rest?
(a) Chief Justice of India (a) Communalism (b) Socialism
(b) Secretary of Lok Sabha (c) Federalism (d) Secularism
(c) Vice President 99. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party
(d) Prime Minister (BSP)?
91. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers (a) Jyotiba Phule (b) Kanshi Ram
resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sahu Maharaj
100. Which party has advocated the coming together
ww

the Lok Sabha?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) Morarji Desai

of all Left parties?
(a) CPI
(c) NCP
(b) CPI (M)
(d) INC

w.E(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) V.P. Singh
92. Survey of India is under the Ministry of
(a) Defence
101. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Three years
(c) Five years
(b) Four years
(d) Six years

(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs asy 102. The Union Executive of India consists of:
(a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha
Speaker and the Council of Ministers
(d) Science and Technology
En
93. Who is called the Guardian of public purse?
(a) President
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime
Minister

gin
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) Parliament

(c) The President and the Council of Ministers
only
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council

(d) Council of Ministers
before the Parliament for its approval

ee
94. A proclamation of emergency must be placed
(a) Within 1 month (b) Within 2 months

of Ministers only
rin
103. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office

by addressing his resignation to
(a) the President

(c) Within 6 months (d) Within 1 year
95. ‘Zero Hour’ in political jargon refers to
(a) Suspended motion

(b) the Prime Minister
g.n
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Chief Justice of India

(b) Question hour
(c) Adjourned time
(d) Question-answer session
96. Which one of the following is the largest committee
et
104. Freedom of the press in India is
(a) available to the people under the law of the
Parliament
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution
of the Parliament? (c) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(a) The Public Accounts Committee (d) available to the people of India under
(b) The Estimates Committee executive order
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings 105. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be
created or abolished by the
(d) The Committee on Petition
(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a
97. Which of the following types of authorities are
Governor of the state.
attributed to the President of India?
(b) Parliament alone
(a) Real and Popular
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the
(b) Titular and de jure
resolution of that effect.
(c) Constitutional and Nominal
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
of the Council of Ministers.

106. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a (c) highlight the achievement of the government
(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok without criticizing its policies
Sabha (d) criticize the policies of the government
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a 111. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired
Minister by the
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
(a) President of India
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
107. Right to Information in India is a (b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman
(a) Fundamental Right of the Rajya Sabha
ww

(b) Legal Right
(c) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights
(d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right

(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister of India
Directions (Qs. 112-113) : The following items consist

w.E
108. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting
of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to
be passed by a
(a) simple majority of the total number of
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are
to examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the code given below:

voting asy
members of both the Houses present and
(b) two-third majority of the total number of

Code:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement

members of both the Houses
En
(c) simple majority of the total number of
I.
(b) Both the statements ‘are individually true but

members of both the Houses
gin
(d) two-third majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses present and
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

voting
college consisting of
ee
109. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral
(a) members of both Houses of Parliament

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Constitution.
rin
112. Statement I : The Constitution of India is a liberal
Statement II : It provides Fundamental Rights to

(b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
individuals.
g.n
113 . Statement-I : Sarkaria Commission recommended
110. Which one among the following statements is

correct ?
The press in democracy must
(a) be free and impartial
et
that Governor of a state should be a non-political
person appointed after consultation with the Chief
Minister of the state.
Statement-II : This could be achieved through
(b) be committed to the policies of the government amending Article 165 of the Constitution of India.

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 14. (c) 27. (b) 40. (a) 53. (c) 66. (b) 79. (a) 92. (d) 105. (c)
2. (d) 15. (d) 28. (b) 41. (c) 54. (c) 67. (a) 80. (a) 93. (b) 106. (d)
3. (a) 16. (d) 29. (c) 42. (c) 55. (a) 68. (c) 81. (b) 94. (a) 107. (b)
4. (b) 17. (b) 30. (c) 43. (b) 56. (b) 69. (d) 82. (c) 95. (d) 108. (a)
5. (b) 18. (d) 31. (d) 44. (c) 57. (d) 70. (a) 83. (d) 96. (b) 109. (a)
6. (d) 19. (b) 32. (a) 45. (d) 58. (b) 71. (c) 84. (a) 97. (d) 110. (a)
ww 7.
8.
(b)
(d)
20.
21.
(b)
(b)
33.
34.
(b)
(d)
46.
47.
(c)
(a)
59.
60.
(b)
(c)
72.
73.
(d)
(c)
85.
86.
(c)
(a)
98.
99.
(d)
(b)
111.
112.
(d)
(d)
w.E
10.
11.
9. (d)
(d)
(b)
22.
23.
24.
(c)
(b)
(b)
35.
36.
37.
(a)
(a)
(d)
48.
49.
50.
(a)
(b)
(c)
61.
62.
63.
(d)
(b)
(b)
74.
75.
76.
(d)
(c)
(a)
87.
88.
89.
(d)
(b)
(a)
100.
101.
102.
(a)
(d)
(c)
113. (c)
12.
13.
(b)
(b)
25.
26.
(d)
(c)
38.
39. asy
(b)
(d)
51.
52.
(a)
(a)
64.
65.
(d)
(a)
77.
78.
(c)
(c)
90.
91.
(c)
(c)
103.
104.
(c)
(c)
Hints E
&nSolutions
gin
1.
eer
(d) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for
its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
period of fourteen days.
state of emergency in India refers to a period of
governance under an altered constitutional setup
that can be proclaimed by the President of India,
2.
i
(d) Department of women and child development is
not a department under Ministry of Human Resource
Development. Human Resources Development
when he/she perceives grave threats to the nation
ng.
from internal and external sources or from financial
situations of crisis. Under the advice of the cabinet
4.
(HRD) as a theory is a framework for the expansion
of human capital within an organization through
the development of both the organization and the
individual to achieve performance improvement.
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General can
net
of ministers and using the powers vested in him/her
largely by Part XVIII of the Constitution of India,
the President can overrule many provisions of the
Constitution, which guarantee fundamental rights to
the citizens of India and acts governing devolution
be removed on an address from both Houses of of powers to the states which form the federation.
Parliament. The Comptroller and Auditor General 9. (d) Salary and allowances of the speakers of the
(CAG) of India is an authority, established by the Lok Sabha is not charged on the consolidated fund
Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits of India. Consolidated fund or the consolidated
all receipts and expenditure of the Government of revenue fund is the term used for the main bank
India and the state governments, including those account of the government in many of the countries
bodies and authorities substantially financed by the in the Commonwealth of Nations. All tax revenue is
government. The CAG is also the external auditor paid into the fund unless Parliament has specifically
of government-owned companies. provided otherwise by law. Any money received
5. (b) To be officially recognised by the speaker by the government which is not taxation, and is
of Lok Sabha as an opposition Group, a party or not to be retained by the receiving department (for
coalition of parties must have at least 60 members. example, fines), is classed as a Consolidated Fund
7. (b) The time limit for the ratification of an Extra Receipt (CFER). These are to be paid into the
emergency period by Parliament is 1 month. A Consolidated Fund as soon as they are received.

10. (d) The term `Scheduled Areas has been defined art, literature, science, and social services. The
in the Indian Constitution as “such areas as the remainder of the body is elected by the state and
President may by order declare to be Scheduled territorial legislatures. Members are elected for six-
Areas”. year term, with one third of the members retiring
11. (b) The vacancy of the office of the President every two years.
of India must be filled up within 6 months. The 26. (c) As a non-member, Attorney General can
President is indirectly elected by the people through participate in the proceedings of either House of
elected members of the Parliament of India (Lok Parliament. The Attorney General of India is the
Sabha and Rajya Sabha) as well as of the state Indian government’s chief legal advisor, and its
ww legislatures (Vidhan Sabhas and Vidhan Parishads)

and serves for a term of five years.
14. (c) The state of Jammu and Kashmir can nominate
primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
He is appointed by the President of India under
Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office
w.E two women members to the Legislative Assembly.

The two women may be nominated as members by
the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir if he or she
during the pleasure of the President. He must be a
person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the
Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right
represented.
asy
is of the opinion that women are not adequately
15. (d) The electoral college for Presidential elections

of audience in all courts in India as well as the right
to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament,
though not to vote.
En
consists of all elected members of Union Parliament
and State Legislative Assemblies. The election is
held in accordance to the system of Proportional
31. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the
relations between the Union and the States. Sarkaria
Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central
gin
representation by means of Single transferable vote
method. The Voting takes place by secret ballot
government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s
charter was to examine the relationship and
ee
system. The manner of election of President is
provided by Article 55 of the Constitution.
19. (b) By the Parliament the President of India can
be impeached. The President may be removed
before the expiry of the term through impeachment.
balance of power between state and central
governments in the country and suggests changes
rin
within the framework of Constitution of India. The
Commission was so named as it was headed by
Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of
A President can be removed for violation of the
Constitution of India. The process may start in g.n
the Supreme Court of India. The other two members
of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr S R
either of the two Houses of the Parliament. The
house initiates the process by levelling the charges
against the President. The charges are contained in a
notice that has to be signed by at least one quarter of
the total members of that house. The notice is sent
32.
Sen.
et
(a) Contingency Fund of each State Government is
established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution
– this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the
disposal of the Governor to enable him/her to make
up to the President and 14 days later, it is taken up advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure,
for consideration. pending authorization by the State Legislature.
20. (b) Education lies in the concurrent list. Education, 33. (b) The first speaker against whom a motion of
includes technical education, medical education and non-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was
universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63, G.V. Mavalankar. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar (27
64, 65 and 66 of List I. November 1888 – 27 February 1956) popularly
22. (c) There are 12 members nominated by the known as Dadasaheb was an independence
president in the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha activist, the President (from 1946 to 1947) of the
(RS) or Council of States is the upper house of Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the
the Parliament of India. Membership is limited Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first
to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the
the President of India for their contributions to Parliament of India.


35. (a) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok 48. (a) ‘Parliamentary Supremacy’ is the definite
Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are feature of the political system in U.K. Sir Ivor
sent to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may not Jennings illustrates this traditional view by
amend money bills but can recommend amendments. suggesting that Parliament can legislate for all
To make sure that Rajya Sabha doesn’t amend the people and places – there are no limits on the
bill by adding some non-money matters (known as territorial extent of an Act of Parliament. If a British
Financial Bill), the Lok Sabha Speaker certifies the citizen commits an offence under British law he or
bill as a money bill before sending it to the upper she can be prosecuted even if the act is not unlawful
house, and the decision of the Speaker is binding on in the country where the offence was committed.
ww both the Houses.

36. (a) V.V. Giri, the President of India was associated
with trade Union movement. Varahagiri Venkata
49. (b) The Kamraj Plan proposed inducting senior
leaders to party work. Kamaraj remained Chief
Minister for three consecutive terms, winning
w.E Giri, commonly known as V. V. Giri, was the fourth

President of the Republic of India from 24 August
1969 to 23 August 1974. He served as Acting
President of India from 3 May 1969 to 20 July 1969,
elections in 1957 and 1962. Kamaraj noticed that
the Congress party was slowly losing its vigour. He
came up with a plan which was called the “Kamaraj
before getting elected.
asy
37. (d) The Governor of the States of India is
appointed by the President of India for a period of
Plan”. On 2 October 1963, he resigned from the
post of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister. He proposed
that all senior Congress leaders should resign from
En
five years. A Governor is appointed on the advice of
the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the
their posts and devote all their energy to the re-
vitalization of the party.
advice of the Prime Minister.
gin
40. (a) The Council of Ministers has to resign if a
no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of
50. (c) 6 months is the maximum time interval
permissible between the two successive session of
the parliament.
ee
members of Lok Sabha. A motion of no confidence
is primarily a statement or vote which states that
a person in a superior position - be it government,
managerial, etc. - is no longer deemed fit to hold
51. (a) In India partyless democracy was first
advocated by Jai Prakash Narayan. Jayaprakash
rin
Narayan (11 October 1902 – 8 October 1979),
widely known as JP Narayan, Jayaprakash, or
that position. This may be based on said person
falling short in some respect, failing to carry out
obligations, or making choices that other members g.n
Lok Nayak (Hindi for The People’s Hero), was an
Indian independence activist and political leader,
remembered especially for leading the opposition to
feel are detrimental.
41. (c) The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner
of India is six years or till the age of 65 year whichever
is earlier. The Chief Election Commissioner
heads the Election Commission of India, a body
et
Indira Gandhi in the 1970s and for giving a call for
peaceful total revolution.
56. (b) The presidential system operates on the
principle of separation of powers. India follows a
parliamentary system of government, which offers
constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair
a clear separation of powers. The judiciary branch
elections to the national and state legislatures. He
is fairly independent of the other two branches.
is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service and
mostly from the Indian Administrative Service. Executive powers are vested with the President and
42. (c) In Estimate Committee there is no Prime Minister, who are assisted by the Cabinet
representation of Rajya Sabha. The Estimates Secretary and other Secretaries. All three branches
Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, have “checks and balances” over each other to
is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 maintain the balance.
Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha 58. (b) The President can declare three types of
from amongst its Members. The Chairman of emergencies:- national, state, financial under
the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from articles 352, 356 & 360 in addition to promulgating
amongst its members. ordinances under article 123.

59. (b) The Vice President of India is the ex-officio in September–October 1961. The purpose was to
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who presides over its find ways to counter problems that were dividing
sessions. the country including attachment to specific
62. (b) Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant communities, castes, regions and languages.
of the Union Government. The Cabinet Secretary is 85. (c) Bicameralism has been one of the most
the senior-most civil servant in the Government of important features of India’s parliamentary
India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head democracy. Ever since the coming into force of
of the Civil Services Board. The Cabinet Secretary the Constitution, both the Chambers of Indian
is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. Parliament have been complementing each other in
ww Though there is no fixed tenure, the average tenure

of the Cabinet Secretary has been less than 3 years.
His or her tenure however, can be extended.
87.
more ways than one.
(d) Baliram Bhagat was not elected for two terms
as the speaker of Lok Sabha. Baliram Bhagat, an
w.E
65. (a) The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called
casting vote. A casting vote is a vote given to the
presiding officer of a council or legislative body to
resolve a deadlock and which can be exercised only
Indian politician, he was born in Patna, Bihar. He
served as the Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1976
to 1977, during the turbulent final year of Indira
Gandhi’s first reign as Prime Minister.
when such a deadlock exists.
68. (c) The Parliamentary
asy
Committee
scrutinizes the report of the CAG is public
which
90. (c) Article 56 of the Indian Constitution says that
the President shall hold office for a term of five
years from the date he takes up his post. He may
En
accounts committee. The Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) is an authority, established by the
resign from his office by writing his resignation to
the Vice-President of India. But, he will continue to
hold his office, in spite of tendering his resignation,
gin
Constitution of India under Chapter V, which audits
all receipts and expenditure of the Government
and the state governments, including those bodies
until his successor takes up his office. And, before
his office gets vacated, an election should be held
government.
ee
and authorities substantially financed by the
70. (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan held the office of the

Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms.
91.
for the same.
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh was the Prime
rin
Minister who resigned before facing a vote of no-
confidence in the Lok Sabha. Chaudhuri Charan
Singh was the sixth Prime Minister, serving from 28
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Indian philosopher
and statesman who was the first Vice President of
India and the second President of India from 1962
92.
g.n
July 1979 until 14 January 1980.
(d) Survey of India is under the Ministry of Science
and Technology. The Survey of India is India’s
to 1967.
75. (c) Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok
Sabha in the case of setting up of new All India
Services. The All India Services are the three all
India Civil Services of India, namely the Indian
et
central engineering agency in charge of mapping
and surveying. Set up in 1767 to help consolidate
the territories of the British East India Company, it
is one of the oldest Engineering Departments of the
Government of India.
Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Forest 93. (b) The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides
Service (IFS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS). for an independent office of the Comptroller and
79. (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha forms the advisory Auditor General of India (CAG). CAG is the head
committee of the Parliament. The task of the National of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and
Advisory Council (NAC) is to provide inputs in the the guardian of public purse. He controls the entire
formulation of policy by the government and to financial system of the country at the Centre and the
provide support to the government in its legislative State.
business. 95. (d) ‘Zero Hour’ in Political jargon refers to
82. (c) The Prime Minister is the chairman of question answer session. Zero Hour in Parliament
the National Integration Council. The National starts at 12 noon during which members raise
Integration Council originated in a conference matters of importance, especially those that cannot
convened by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru be delayed.


96. (b) The Estimates Committee, constituted for 109. (a) members of both houses of parliament.
the first time in 1950, is the largest Parliamentary 110. (a) A press in democracy must be free and
Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every impartial.
year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. 111. (d) Joint Parliamentary sessions in India are
98. (d) Indian National Congress (INC) or generally chaired by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. In India, if a
known as the Congress Party is prominent political bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament
player in India. INC came into existence in 1885 and more than six months have lapsed, the President
in Bombay. W.C. Bonnarjee was the first President may summon a joint session for passing the bill.
of the Indian National Congress. The congress is The bill is passed by simple majority of a joint
ww ideologically committed to socialism, secularism

and democracy.
99. (b) BSP was founded in 1983 by Kanshi Ram.
sitting. Since the lower house (Lok Sabha) has
more than twice the members in upper house, group
commanding majority in lower house i.e. Govt of
w.E Due to his deteriorating health in the 1990s, former

school teacher Mayawati became the party’s leader.
101. (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not
subject to disolution, one third of its members
India can get such a bill passed although it was
rejected by the upper house. Until now, only three
bills namely the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, the
Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill, 1978 and
enjoys a 6-year tenure.

asy
retiring after every two years. Thus every member
102. (c) The Union Executive of India, as in

the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 have been
passed at joint sessions.
112. (d) A constitution may be rigid or flexible, but
En
parliamentary type of government, consist of
president and the council of ministers.
rigid constitution cann’t be amended easily. Indian
constitution is a mixture of both because laws/ acts
gin
103. (c) The speaker of the Lok sabha can resign from
his office by addressing his resignation to the deputy
speaker of the Lok Sabha.
are made and amended by adopting the legislative
procedures.
113. (c) Article 165 is related to the Advocate General
right of Freedom of Expression.

ee
104. (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the
108. (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of

Lok Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker.
for the state. The Governor of each state shall
appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed
rin
a Judge of a High court to be Advocate General for
the state.
g.n
et

ww
3 Local Government and
Public Policy

w.E
1. A committee appointed in 1977 to review working
of the Panchayti Raj was chaired by
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
8. Which one of the following states started the
Panchayati Raj institution soon after the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act was passed?

(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) K.N. Katju
(d) Jagjivan Ram
asy

9.
(a) Karnataka
(c) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(d) Orissa
The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis
2.
En
Which article of the Indian Constitution provides
for the institution of Panchayti Raj?
on
(a) Gram Sabha

3.
(a) Article 36
(c) Article 40
gin
(b) Article 39
(d) Article 48
Which one of the following is not a Panchayati

(b) Mandal Sabha
(c) Taluka Panchayat Samiti
(d) Zila Parishad

Raj institution?
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Nyaya Panchayat
(d) Gram Co-operative Society
ee 10.

Panchayati Raj in India represents:
(a) Decentralization of powers
rin
(b) Participation of the people
(c) Community development
(d) All of these
4. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced
in India?
11.
g.n
Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under:
(a) Fundamental Rights

5.

(a) 1945
(c) 1959
(b) 1950
(d) 1962
Which of the following is a source of income of
the Gram Panchayats?
(a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax

12.

et
(b) Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Election Commission Act Policy
Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of
(a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block
(c) Professional Tax (d) Duties Samiti
6. The Constitution of India mandates that the (b) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad
elections of the Panchayati Raj should be held (c) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila
regularly after a gap of: Parishad
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (d) Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years 13. Who was the president of the committee on
7. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution whose recommendation was the Panchayati Raj
deals with established in India?
(a) Panchayati Raj (a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Compulsory primary education (b) Ashok Mehta
(c) Nagar Palikas (c) Dr. Iqbal Narayan
(d) Minimum age of marriage (d) Jeevraj Mehta

C-30 || Local Government and Public Policy

14. The Panchayati Raj system was first started in India 23. Which committee had first of all recommended
in the states of Rajasthan and... three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in 1957?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Balwant Rai Committee
(c) Gujrat (d) Haryana (b) Ashok Mehta Committee
15. The decision to conduct Panchayat Elections is (c) Setalwad Committee
taken by which of the following? (d) Hanumantayaa Committee
(a) The Central Government 24. The constitutional status has been given to
(b) The State Government Panchayats under Article.
(c) The District Judge (a) 219 (b) 226
ww
(d) The Election Commission
16. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is
(a) An advisory body
(c) 239 (d) 243
25. Panchayati Raj is organised at the
(a) block level

w.E(b) An administrative authority
(c) A consultant committee
(d) A supervisory authority

(b) village, block, district and state level
(c) village, block and district level
(d) village and block level
26. The Panchayati Raj institution at the block level

(a) To create employment
asy
17. The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is
(b) To increase agricultural production

is known as:
(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti

En
(c) To make people politically conscious
(d) To make people participate in development
(c) Zila Parishad (d) None of these
27. What is the middle unit in the three tier Panchayati
Raj System?
administration
gin
18. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayti Raj system have
no powers of awarding imprisonment except in

(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Union Board
28. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held

the state of
(a) West Bengal
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Maharashtra
ee

within:
(a) One month
(c) Six months
rin (b) Three months
(d) One year
29. Which act provides for the reservation seats for
(d) Bihar
19. Which of the following Indian states has no
Panchayati Raj institution?
the municipality?
g.n
women, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in
(a) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act

(a) Assam
(c) Kerala
(b) Tripura
(d) Nagaland
20. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd
amendment of the Constitution are mentioned in

et
(b) 68th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
30. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by
(a) Tenth schedule (b) Eleventh schedule (a) Member of Legislative Assembly
(c) Twelfth schedule (d) Thirteenth schedule (b) Zila Parishad
21. Provision regarding panchayats and municipalities (c) State Government
was made in the Indian Constitution in which year? (d) District Magistrate
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 31. The Panchayati Raj is included in the
(c) 1995 (d) 2000 (a) Union list (b) State list
22. When and where Panchayati Raj system in India (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary list
was introduced? 32. Which one of the following Articles provides for
(a) July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P) the reservation of seats for the scheduled caste and
(b) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan) scheduled tribes in the Panchayat?
(c) Nov 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujrat) (a) Article 243(A) (b) Article 243(B)
(d) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P) (c) Article 243(C) (d) Article 243(D)

33. Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of 40. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution, the
(a) decentralisation local body for a transitional area is known as
(b) deconcentration (a) Nyaya Panchayat
(c) decmocratic centralization (b) Municipal Panchayat
(d) democratic decentralisation (c) Nagar Panchayat
34. Which of the following committees is not concerned (d) Gram Panchayat
with Panchayati Raj? 41. The idea of organization of Panchayats as a duty
(a) Santhnam Committee of state is mentioned in which part of the Indian
ww

(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee

Constitution?
(a) Chapter I
(c) Chapter III
(b) Chapter II
(d) Chapter IV
w.E
35. Which one of the following models was suggested
by the Ashok Mehta Committee for the Panchayati
Raj in India?
42. In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act (1972) was assented by the President?
(a) 1990
(c) 1993
(b) 1991
(d) 1994

(a) Three-tier model
(b) Mandal Panchayat model
(c) Two-tier model asy 43. In which year, Ashok Mehta Committee was
appointed to review the working of Panchayati

36.
(d) Gram Panchayat model
En
Which one of the following Directive principles
Raj institution?
(a) 1977
(c) 1979
(b) 1978
(d) 1980

is nearer to Gandhi’s philosophy?
(a) Equal pay for equal work
gin
(b) Separation of executive from judiciary
44. Which article of the constitution lays down that
state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats?

37.
(c) Strengthening of Gram Panchayats
(d) Equal justice and free legal aid ee
Which of the following committees recommended
that the elections to Panchayati Raj bodies should

(a) Article 36
(c) Article 24
rin
(b) Article 73
(d) Article 40
45. After elections, vote of no-confidence against the
sarpanch can be proposed only after

be held on party lines?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee

(a) 3 months
(c) 1 year
g.n (b) 6 months
(d) 2 years
46. In India, the community development programme

38.
(b) Ashok committee
(c) Dhar Committee
(d) VKRV Rao committee
Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India

was started on:
et
(a) October 2, 1952 (b) October 2, 1957
(c) October 2, 1959 (d) October 2, 1961
47. Mid-day meal is a scheme to provide nutritious
are conducted by food to
(a) State Election Commissioner (a) those taking treatment in hospital
(b) Election Commission of India (b) school-going children
(c) State Government (c) daily wage employees/labours
(d) Central Government (d) girls who are residing in girls/youth hostels
39. Which one of the following is not the concern of 48. ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’ is aimed at the education
local government? of which of the following?
(a) Public health (a) Engineering and technical education
(b) Sanitation (b) Education of girls upto graduation level
(c) Public utility service (c) College education
(d) Maintenance of public order (d) Education of children between 6-14 years


49. STEP is the abbreviated name of the welfare 59. The programme announced by the Prime Minister
programme to help: for the minorities in India is called.
(a) Children (b) Women (a) Antodaya Programme
(c) Farmers (d) Senior Citizens (b) 20 Point Programme
50. Which one is not the component of the ‘Pradhan (c) 15 Point Programme
Mantri Gramodaya Yojna’? (d) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojna
(a) Elementary education 60. When was the concept of the HDI introduced by
(b) Primary health the United Nations Development Programme?
(c) Rural road (a) 1990 (b) 1991
ww
(d) Nutrition
51. Which is NOT included in social infrastructure?
(a) Education
(c) 1993 (d) 1995
61. On which of the following basis has the Planning
Commission defined ‘poverty line’ in rural areas
w.E
(b) Telecommunication
(c) Housing
(d) Health
52. ‘Swaranajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna’ came

in India?
(a) 1800 k cal
(c) 2500 k cal.
(b) 2400 k cal.
(d) 2600 k cal.

into being in:
(a) April, 1995 asy
(b) April, 1997
62. Indian development report does NOT give which

of the following for each sample village ?
(a) Infrastructure and Amenities Index
(b) April, 1999
En
(d) July, 2001
53. Who amongst the following developed the concept
of Human Development Index ?

(b) Educational Related Index
(c) Health Related Index

(a) Amartya Sen
(c) Alva Myrdal gin
(b) A.S. Kabir
(d) Mehboob-ul-Haq
54. The National Rural Employment Scheme was
(d) Unemployment Related index
63. What is the name of the scheme which provides

launched throughout the country from
(a) 01-04-2007
(c) 14-11-2007
ee
(b) 02-10 -2007
(d) 01-04-2008
55. Mid-day meal scheme was launched in 1995 to

training and skills to women in traditional and
non-traditional trades?
rin
(a) Kishori Shakti Yojna
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(c) Swayamsiddha

promote:
(a) Adult literacy
(b) Secondary education
(d) Swawlamban
g.n
64. Which of the following articles in the shape of the

(c) Universalization of primary education
(d) None of these
56. ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme’
was launched initially in:

the village panchayats?
(a) Article 40
(c) Article 44
et
directive principles mentions the organisation of
(b) Article 43
(d) Article 47
(a) 100 districts (b) 200 districts 65. A 2-tier system is prescribed by the 73rd
(c) 330 districts (d) All the districts Amendment Act, 1992 for states with population
57. National Rural Health Mission(NRHM) was less than
launched in the year (a) 10 lakhs (b) 5 lakhs
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (c) 20 lakhs (d) none of these
(c) 2005 (d) 2006 66. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect
58. Which of the following is not included in Human of Local Government in India?
development index(HDI)? (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local
(a) Life expectancy government is not an independent tier in the
(b) Real per capital income federal system.
(c) Social inequality (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved
(d) Adult literacy for women

(c) Local government finances are to be provided 73. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and
by a Commission 74th amendment implemented?
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined (a) Narasimha Rao
by a Commission (b) Indira Gandhi
67. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set (c) Rajiv Gandhi
up in which one among the following? (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras 74. Which of the following articles states that State
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi shall take necessary steps to organize village
ww
68. In 1986, the Rajiv Gandhi Government appointed
a committee on “Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj
Institutions for Democracy and Development”

panchayat?
(a) Article 40
(c) Article 29
(b) Article 30
(d) Article 101

w.E
69.
under the chairmanship of:
(a) L.M.Singhvi
(c) V.N.Gadgil
(b) G.V.K Rao
(d) Asok Mehta
In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993,
75. Which of the following is not a feature of the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) Scheme?
asy
there are several fresh provisions deviating from
the past. Which one of the following is not one
(a) Provision of 100 days of guaranteed wage
employment for all registered households of
the Village Panchayat.

such provisions?
En
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area
(b) Adult members of rural households may
register themselves with the Village
gin
of agriculture rural development, primary
education and social forestry among other
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts

Panchayat.
(c) No contractors or machineries are allowed.
(d) There is inequality in the wages of men and

at the time they are due
ee
(c) A statutory representation for women in the
panchayats, up to a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat
women.
76. Prime minister Narendra Modi launched twin
rin
programmes of “Beti bachao, beti padhao” and
“Sukanya Samriddhi account” in a bid to
70.
members, so as to ensure their punctuality
and accountability
Swaraj Trophy is associated with which of the

g.n
(a) encourage birth and education of girls
(b) discourage child marriage

71.
following
(a) Best district (b) Best Zila Parishad
(c) Best metropolitan (d) Best Panchayat
Who is responsible to make changes in names and

institutions et
(c) promote social harmony
(d) develop the infrastructure of educational
77. In India, according to the UN report, the current

sex ratio is
boundaries of the states? (a) 918 girls to 1000 boys
(a) Prime Minister (b) 1000 girls to 918 boys
(b) Parliament (c) 988 girls to 1000 boys
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) 845 girls to 1000 boys
(d) Governor 78. To work towards the vision of Gandhiji’s “Clean
72. Which is the first state in South India to introduce India”, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched
Panchayati Raj? the Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan on
(a) Andhra Pradesh (a) October 2, 2014
(b) Kerala (b) January 30, 2015
(c) Tamil Nadu (c) January 1, 2015
(d) Karnatka (d) November 30, 2014


79. Under the Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s (a) 10 per cent (b) 9.1 per cent
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, the responsibility (c) 12 per cent (d) 8 per cent
of developing of how many villages will be taken 84. Which among the following in India have been
by each MP by 2019? referred to as “Glorified Municipalities” by critics?
(a) One (b) Three (a) Nagar Nighams (b) Union Territories
(c) Two (d) Four (c) Panchayats (d) States
80. The Prime Minister launched on August 21, 2014,
85. Which one of the following Amendments of
the “Digital India” campaign whose idea is to
the Constitution of India deals with the issue of
(a) change India into an electronically empowered
ww

economy
(b) connect India digitally with other world’s
economies
strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?
(a) 42nd
(c) 73rd
(b) 44th
(d) 86th

w.E (c) link all railways digitally
(d) display the government data and statistics by
means of displayed digits
86. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution
of India makes a specific mention of village
panchayats?

asy
81. Which of the following is not a component of
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
(a) Interest on deposit and no minimum balance

(a) Article 19
(c) Article 40
(b) Article 21
(d) Article 246
87. The entry “Public health and Sanitation” is

required
En
(b) Accidental insurance cover of Rs.1.00 lakh
included in the Constitution of India in
(a) Union List (b) State List

gin
and life insurance cover of Rs.30,000/-
(c) Easy Transfer of money across India and
access to Pension, insurance products
(c) Concurrent List (d) None of these
88. Point out the difference between the local
(d) No overdraft facility
ee
82. ‘Come, Make in India’- Prime Minister Modi’s
push to revive an ailing manufacturing sector has
aimed at facilitating

government in India before and after the
Constitutional Amendments in 1992:
rin
1. It has become mandatory to hold regular
elections to the local government bodies.

(a) Single-window clearances
(b) minimal procedures
(c) cutting out of any red-tapism

g.n
2. 1/3rd positions are reserved forwomen.
3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in
the government.
(d) all the above
83. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has Launched
Sukanya Samridhi Yojna’ (girl child prosperity
scheme) which would fetch yearly interest rate of

(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
et
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 10. (d) 19. (d) 28. (c) 37. (b) 46. (a) 55. (c) 64. (a) 73. (a) 82. (d)
2. (c) 11. (b) 20. (b) 29. (d) 38. (a) 47. (b) 56. (b) 65. (c) 74. (a) 83. (b)
3. (d) 12. (c) 21. (b) 30. (c) 39. (d) 48. (d) 57. (c) 66. (b) 75. (d) 84. (d)
4. (c) 13. (a) 22. (b) 31. (b) 40. (c) 49. (b) 58. (c) 67. (a) 76. (a) 85. (c)
5. (d) 14. (a) 23. (a) 32. (d) 41. (d) 50. (d) 59. (c) 68. (a) 77. (a) 86. (c)
6. (d) 15. (b) 24. (d) 33. (d) 42. (c) 51. (b) 60. (a) 69. (d) 78. (a) 87. (b)
ww7.
8.
(a)
(a)
16.
17.
(d)
(c)
25.
26.
(c)
(b)
34.
35.
(a)
(c)
43.
44.
(a)
(d)
52.
53.
(c)
(d)
61.
62.
(b)
(d)
70.
71.
(d)
(b)
79.
80.
(b)
(a)
88. (b)

9. (b) 18. (b) 27. (b) 36. (c) 45. (d) 54. (d) 63. (d) 72. (a) 81. (d)
asy
1.
En
(b) The Committee appointed in 1977 to review
working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by
launching of Panchayati Raj Institutions throughout
the country. The committee recommended the
gin
Ashok Mehta. The committee submitted its report
in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj
establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic
decentralisation’ which finally came to be known as
Panchayati Raj.
eer
system in the country. As a result of this report, the
Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and
5. (d) Levy duties is a source of income of the Gram
Panchayats. The panchayats receive funds from
i
West Bengal passed new legislations.
2. (c) Article 40, of the Indian Constitution provides
for the institution of Panchayati Raj. The State shall

three sources:
ng.
Local body grants, as recommended by the Central
Finance Commission.
take steps to organize village panchayats and endow
them with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government.

schemes.
net
Funds for implementation of centrally sponsored
Funds released by the state governments on the

recommendations of the State Finance Commissions.
3. (d) Panchayati Raj Institutions include Gram Sabha, 7. (a) The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution
Gram Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat deals with Panchayati Raj. The Amendment Act of
Samiti and Zila Parishad. Gram Co-operative 1992 contains provision for devolution of powers
society is not a PRI. and responsibilities to the panchayats both for the
4. (c) In 1959 the Panchayati Raj system was preparation of economic development plans and
introduced in India. The Balwant Rai Mehta social justice, as well as for implementation in
Committee was appointed by the Government of relation to 29 subjects listed in the eleventh schedule
India in January 1957 to examine the working of of the Constitution.
the Community Development Programme (1952) 12. (c) Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in
and the National Extension Service (1953) and which are the basic unit of administrations . It has
to suggest measures for their better working. The 3 levels: Gram panchayat (village level), Mandal
recommendations of the committee were approved Parishad or block samiti or panchayat samiti (block
by NDC in January 1958 and this set the stage for the level) and Zila parishad (district level).


13. (a) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, headed 1992 relating to Municipalities (articles 243P to
by MP Balwantrai Mehta, was a committee 243ZG) imparted some basic features of certainty,
appointed by the Government of India in January continuity and strength to Panchayat Raj institutions
1957 to examine the working of the Community all over the country.
Development Programme (1952) and the National 22. (b) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by
Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures the state of Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct
for their better working. The recommendations of 1959.
the committee were approved by NDC in January 23. (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had first of all
1958 and this set the stage for the launching of recommended three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in
ww Panchayati Raj Institutions throughout the country.

The committee recommended the establishment of
the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’ which
1957. The Act aims to provide a 3-tier system of
Panchayati Raj for all States having a population of
over 2 million, to hold Panchayat elections regularly
w.E finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

14. (a) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by
the state of Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct
1959. The second state was Andhra Pradesh, while
every 5 years, to provide seats reservations for
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and women;
to appoint a State Finance Commission to make
recommendations as regards to the financial powers
asy
Maharashtra was the Ninth state.
15. (b) : The State Election Commissions constituted
under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-
of the Panchayats and to constitute a District
Planning Committee to prepare a development plan
draft for the district.
En
fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union
Territory are vested with the powers of conduct of
24. (d) Article 243 gives constitutional status to the
Panchayats.
gin
elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla
Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis,
Gram Panchayats and other local bodies. They are
25. (c) Panchayati Raj is organised at the village, block
and district level. The 3-tier system of Panchayati
Raj consists of Village-level Panchayats, Block-
ee
independent of the Election Commission of India.
16. (d). The principal function of the Panchayat Samiti
is to co¬ordinate the activities of the various
Panchayats within its jurisdiction. The Panchayat
26.
level Panchayats, District-level Panchayats.
(b) Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is
rin
called the Panchayat Samiti. It is the second tier of
the Panchayati Raj system and acts as a link between
Samiti supervises the work of the Panchayats and
scrutinises their budgets. It also reserves the right
to suggest measures for improving the functioning
27.
g.n
village panchayat and district panchayat.
(b) Panchayat Samiti is the middle unit in the
three-tier Panchayati Raj system. A block panchayat
of the Panchayats. The Samiti is charged with the
responsibility of preparing and colon implementing
plans for the development of agriculture, animal to
SU (husbandry, fisheries, small scale and cottage
industries, rural health tropic etc.
et
(panchayat samiti) is a local government body at the
tehsil or taluka level in India. This body works for
the villages of the tehsil or taluka that together are
called a Development Block. The panchayat samiti
is the link between the gram panchayat and the
17. (c) The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle district administration.
the local problems locally and to make the people 28. (c) An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be
politically conscious. completed before the expiration of a period of six
18. (b) Nyaya Panchayat extends to the whole of India months from the date of its dissolution.
except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. 30. (c) A municipal commissioner is appointed by the
19. (d) Nagaland has no Panchayat Raj institution. state government from the Indian Administrative
Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all the Service and mostly from Provincial Civil Service
states except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram, to head the administrative staff of the Municipal
and in all Union Territories except Delhi. Corporation, implement the decisions of the
21. (b) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 Corporation and prepare its annual budget.
relating to Panchayats containing articles 243 to 31. (b) Panchayati Raj is included in the State List of
243-O and the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

32. (d) According to Article 243 (D) seats should be Mehta. The committee submitted its report in
reserved for SC and ST in every Panchayat and the August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to
number of seats of reserved shall bear, as nearly as revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj
may be, the same proportion to the total number of system in the country.
seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat 44. (d) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines
as the population of the Scheduled Castes in that one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays
Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes in that down that the state shall take steps to organise
Panchayat area bears to the total population of village panchayats and endow them with such
that area such seats may be allotted by rotation to powers and authority as may be necessary to enable
ww different constituencies in a Panchayat.

33. (d) The principle of democratic decentralisation is
very important and forms the basis of Panchayati
45.
them to function as units of self-government.
(d) Provided that if the no-confidence motion is
lost another such motion shall not be moved against
w.E Raj.
34. (a) THE SANTHANAM Committee Report 1964
defines corruption as a complex problem having
roots and ramifications in society as a whole.
46.
that Sarpanch before the expiry of two years from
the date of its having been lost.
(a) The community development programme was
launched on a pilot basis in 1952 to provide for a
asy
35. (c) Two-tier model was suggested by the Ashok
Mehta committee for the Panchayati Raj in India.
The 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be
substantial increase in the country’s agricultural
programme, and for improvements in systems of
communication, in rural health and hygiene, and
En
replaced by the 2-tier system: Zilla Parishad at the
district level, and below it, the Mandal Panchayat
in rural education and also to initiate and direct
a process of integrated culture change aimed
at transforming the social and economic life of
population of 15000 to 20000.
gin
consisting of a group of villages covering a
37. (b) According to Ashok Mehta Committee, there 47.

villagers.
(b) The Midday Meal Scheme is a school meal
at all levels of Panchayat elections.

ee
should be an official participation of political parties
38. (a) The superintendence, direction and control of

the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct
48.
programme of the Government of India designed to
improve the nutritional status of school-age children
nationwide.
rin
(d) ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’is aimed at the education
of children between 6-14 years Sarva Shiksha
of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in
a State Election Commission consisting of a State
Election Commissioner to be appointed by the g.n
Abhiyan is a Indian Government programme aimed
at the universalisation of elementary education “in
a time bound manner”, as mandated by the 86th
Governor.
39. (d) The local government of India are vested with
a long list of functions delegated to them by the
state governments under the municipal legislation.
These functions broadly relate topublic health,
et
amendment to the Constitution of India making free
and compulsory education to children of ages 6–14
(estimated to be 205 million in number in 2001) a
fundamental right. The programme was pioneered
by Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
welfare, regulatory functions, public safety, public 49. (b) STEP is Support to Training and Employment
infrastructure works, and development activities. Programme for Women.
40. (c) Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution 50. (d) Nutrition is not the component of the Pradhan
the local body for a transitional area is known as Mantri Gramodaya Yojna. Pradhan Mantri
Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be Gramodaya Yojana’ aims at -
a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area 1. meeting rural needs like primary education,
in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for health care, drinking water, housing, rural
a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for roads
a larger urban area. 2. alleviating employment in rural areas
43. (a) In December 1977, the Janata Government 3. generating employment in rural areas
appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj 4. strengthening Panchayati Raj system in rural
institutions under the chairmanship of Ashoka areas


51. (b) Social Infrastructure is a subset of the charging the UPA government of communal
infrastructure sector and typically includes assets budgeting, minority appeasement, religious
that accommodate social services. It includes health, discrimination and vote bank politics. The Central
education, housing, civic utilities, transportation government had allocated 15% of plan outlays for
and justice. implementation of the 15 points.
52. (c) ‘Swaranajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna’ came 60. (a) HDI was created by Indian economist
into being in April, 1999. Swarnajayanti Gram Amartya Sen and Pakistani economist Mahbub
Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) is an initiative launched ul Haq in 1990, and was published by the United
by the Government of India to provide sustainable Nations Development Programme.
ww

income to poor people living in rural areas of the
country. The scheme was launched on April 1, 1999.
The SGSY aims at providing self-employment to
63. (d) ‘Swavlamban’ is the name of the scheme which
provides training and skills to women in traditional
and non-traditional trades. Swawlamban(NORAD)
w.Evillagers through the establishment of Self-help

groups.
53. (d) Mehbub-ul-Haq developed the concept of
Human Development Index. Mahbub-ul-Haq, 64.
Scheme is being implemented by the Department
of Women and Child Development with partial
assistance from Norway since 1982.
(a) Article 40 states thatthe State shall take steps to
asy
was a game theorist, economist, and professor of
Microeconomics at the University of Karachi. He
was involved in the human development theory, and
organise village panchayats and endow them with
such powers and authority as may be necessary to
enable them to function as units of self-government.
En
the founder of the Human Development Report.
54. (d) The National Rural Employment Scheme was
65. (c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provides for 3-tier
system of Panchayati Raj for all the states having
gin
lauched throughout the country from 01-04-2008.
55. (c) National Programme of Nutritional Support
to Primary Education, popularly known as the
66.
population of over 20 Lakhs.
(b) According to 73rd amendment act 1993, under
article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats
Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDM) was started in
ee
1995 in an attempt to enhance enrolment, retention
and attendance while simultaneously improving
nutritional levels among children in school.
67.
68.
should be reserved for women.
(a) Calcutta Municipal Corporation was set up in
the year 1876.
rin
(a) In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi Government appointed
56. (b) ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee
scheme’ was launched initially in 200 districts.
57. (c) National Rural Health Mission(NRHM) was g.n
a committee on the ‘Revitalisation of the Panchayati
Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’
under the chairmanship of L. M. Singhvi.
launched in the year 2005. National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM) was launched by the Hon’ble
Prime Minister on 13th April 2005, to provide
accessible, affordable and quality healthcare to the
rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
69.
77. et
(d) Provision given in option (d) is not included
under 73rd amendment act 1993.
(a) Sex ratio is a term used to define number of
females per 1000 males. Sex ratio in India varies
from region to region. There was increase in sex
Under the NRHM, the Empowered Action Group ratio unfortunately in some regions there was a
(EAG) states as well as North Eastern States, sudden decline in the ratio. According to the UN
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh have report, the ratio has dipped from 976 girls to 1000
been given special focus. boys in 1961, to 927 girls in 2001; and to 918 girls
58. (c) Human development index includes three in 2011.
dimensions: Life Expectancy Index; education 79. (b) According to Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, each
index and income index. MP will take the responsibility of developing three
59. (c) 15 point Programme for minorities is a villages by 2019. The idea is to make India’s villages
controversial programme approved by Indian to be fully developed with physical and institutional
government in 2006 for welfare of religious infrastructure. There are certain guidelines for
minorities. It ran into controversies with the then this scheme, which have been formulated by the
principal opposition party Bharatiya Janata Party Department of Rural Development.

80. (a) According to ‘digital India’, the Government 84. (d) The critics slammed the Centre for making
of India wants all Government departments and attempts to “weaken the States with too much
the people of India to connect with each other interference, reducing them to the status of glorified
digitally or electronically, so that there is effective municipal corporations.” According to them the
governance. It also aims at reducing paperwork by Union government was continuously proving that
making all the Government services available to “it is completely out of sync with ground realities.”
the people electronically. There is also a plan to 85. (c) The 73rd Amendment (1992) of Indian
connect all villages and rural areas through internet constitution provided for constitution of
networks. municipalities, reservation of seats in every
ww
81. (d) After satisfactory operation of the account for
6 months, an overdraft facility of upto Rs.5000/-
is available in only one account per household,
municipality for the SC and ST women and
backward classes.
87. (b) The entry “public health and sanitation” is
w.E preferably lady of the household.

82. (d) ‘Come, Make in India’- PM Modi’s aggressive
push to revive an ailing manufacturing sector, has
found resonance with India Inc. Single-window
included in the state list of the constitution of India.
88. (b) Not less than one-third (including the number
of seats reserved for women belonging to the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the
asy
clearances, minimal procedures and cutting out of
any red-tapism. PM Modi also sees ‘Make in India’
as a vital impetus for employment and growth.
total number of seats to be filled by direct election in
every Municipality shall be reserved for women
and such seats may be allotted by rotation to
En different constituencies in a Municipality.
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ww
4 Judiciary
w.E
1. What does the ‘Judicial Review’ function of the
Supreme Court mean?

(a) Violation of constitution
(b) Proved misbehaviours

(a) Review its own judgment
asy
(b) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the

8.
(c) Incapacity to act as a judge
(d) (b) & (c) both
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with

constitution
En
(d) Examine the judicial amendments

(a) judicial review
(b) judicial activism
2.
gin
The disputes regarding the election of the President
and Vice-President of India are decided by the-
(a) Parliament

9.
(c) judicial intervention
(d) judicial sanctity
Who held the power to increase the number of

3.
(b) Election Commission
(c) Supreme Court
(d) High Court
ee
How many types of writs can be issued by the

judges in the Supreme Court?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Parliament
rin (d) Ministry of Law
10. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President

Supreme Court?
(a) 2
(c) 5
(b) 3
(d) 6
is held temporarily by
(a) The Prime Minister
g.n
and the Vice-President at the same time, the office
4.

The Supreme Court of India enjoys
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Advisory jurisdiction
(c) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions

(d) None of these
et
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
11. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India

(d) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions. is appointed by the
5. What makes the judiciary the guardian of the (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
constitution? (b) Prime Minister
(a) Independence (b) Service conditions (c) President
(c) Salary (d) Judicial Review (d) Law Minister
6. In the Supreme Court of India the number of judges 12. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the
including the Chief Justice is now Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (a) Prime Minister
(c) 25 (d) 31 (b) President
7. On which of the following grounds can a judge of (c) Any judge of the High Court
the Supreme Court be impeached? (d) All of the above

13. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide 21. Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution?
disputes between the Centre and the State falls (a) President (b) Parliament
under its _________ (c) Council Court (d) Supreme Court
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction 22. Who has the right to transfer any case anywhere
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction in India?
(c) Constitutional Jurisdiction (a) President (b) Supreme Court
(d) Original Jurisdiction (c) High Court (d) None of these
14. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by: 23. Who is the final authority to interpret the
ww

(a) Powers of the President of India
(b) Judicial Review
(c) Powers of the Prime Minister of India

Constitution?
(a) The President (b) The Parliament
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Supreme Court

w.E(d) Leader of the opposition
15. Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted
as the President of India also?
(a) Justice M. Hidayatullah
24.

The Supreme Court of India was set up by the

(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
asy
(c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan

25.
Who was the Chief Justice of India when public
(d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
En
16. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment
of Ad hoc judges in:
Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the
Indian judicial system?

(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court gin

26.
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) A.S. Anand
Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one

(c) District and Session Court
(d) All of these
ee
17. Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are
determined by:

High Court to another High Court?
(a) The President
rin

(a) Pay Commission appointed by the President
(b) Law Commission
(c) Parliament

27.
(d) The Law Minister
g.n
(c) A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court.
The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by

18. Which of the following courts in India is/are known

as the court(s) of Records?
(a) The High Court only

(a) President
(b) Governor et
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) President on the advice of Governor of the
(b) The Supreme Court only state concerned and the Chief Justice of India
(c) The High Court and Supreme Court 28. Which of the following state/Union territories have
(d) The District Court a common High Court?
19. The system of Judicial Review exists in (a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(a) India only (b) U.K. only (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(c) U.S.A. only (d) India and U.S.A. (c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
20. Which article of the Constitution permits the (d) Assam and Bengal
Supreme Court to review its own judgement or 29. In which year was the High Court in Madras
order? established?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 138 (a) 1862 (b) 1871
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 140 (c) 1881 (d) 1891

C-42 || Judiciary
30. The mobile court in India is brainchild of: 38. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction
(a) Justice Bhagwati over more than one state (Union territories not
(b) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi included)?
(c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (a) 2 (b) 3
(d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil (c) 4 (d) 5
31. A high court judge addresses his letter of resignation 39. In the verdict of which case, Supreme Court has
to: nullified Parliament, effort to establish preference
(a) The President of all the Directive Principles of state policy over
ww

32.
(c) The Chief Justice of High Court
(d) The Governor of the state
Which one of the following states does not have

fundamental rights?
(a) Keshvanand Bharti Vs State of Kerala Case
(b) Francis Coralie Mullin Vs Union Territory of

w.E its High Court?
(a) Orissa (b) Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Goa

Delhi
(c) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India case
(d) Indira Sawhani
33.

number of Benches?
(a) Kolkata High Court
asy
Which of the following High Courts has the largest 40. Judicial Review’s Doctrine of Partial Annulment

is related to which article of the Constitution?

(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court En (c) Article 141 (d) Article 246
41. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned

34.
(d) Guwahati High Court
gin
Which one of the following is NOT the main
jurisdiction of the High Court of a state?
in which of the following articles of Indian
Constitution?

(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Supervisory Jurisdiction
(d) Appellate Jurisdiction
ee (c) Article 143
rin
(d) Article 148
42. Which of the following writs literally means ‘we
command’?
35. The first High/Supreme Court judge, who

voluntarily made his assets public is

(c) Prohibition
g.n
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(d) Quo-Warranto
43. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an

(a) Justice D.V.S. Kumar
(b) Justice K. Chandra
(c) Justice K. Kannan
(d) Justice V.C. Srivastava

(a) Article 129
(c) Article 143
et
advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court?
(b) Article 132
(d) Article 32
44. In which of the following cases Supreme Court of
36. Which one of the following High Courts has the
territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure?
Islands? (a) Keshwanand Bharti case
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta (b) Golaknath case
(b) Madras (d) Orissa (c) Minerva Mills case
37. On which one of the following funds are salary (d) Gopalan case
and allowances of the judges of High Court of the 45. The power to declare the election of an elected
state charged? member of the parliament invalid is vested in
(a) Consolidated fund of India (a) The Election Commission
(b) Consolidated fund of the State (b) Supreme Court
(c) Contingency fund of India (c) The President
(d) Contingency fund of the state (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

46. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be (a) Simple majority of the Parliament
imposed on the ground of (b) Two-third majority of the Parliament
(a) Defection (c) Two-third majority of the Parliament and the
(b) Contempt of court majority of states
(c) Death of the PM (d) None of the above
(d) Signing of a trade treaty with a country 55. Justice is essentially a
47. Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower (a) Moral concept
courts to stop legal action? (b) Social concept
ww

(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
48. In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of

(c) Legal concept
(d) Complex concept combining all the above
concepts

w.E‘Habeas corpus’ is vested only in-
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Court
56. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a
writ that “respondent was not entitled to an office
he was holding or a privilege he was exercising”.

(d) Lower Courts
asy
(c) The Supreme Court and the High Court
49. The ‘Due Process of Law’ is the characteristics of

Which writ is that?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Quo Warranto
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari
the judicial system of
(a) India En
(b) France
57. What is the objective advocated for appointment
of the National Judicial Commission?
(c) U.K. (d) U.S.A
gin
50. The Federal court of India was established in
(a) 1947 (b) 1946

(a) Training of the judges
(b) Reforms in legal system
(c) 1935 (d) 1937

ee
51. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court

(a) has final authority in overall cases
(b) can declare a state law as unconstitutional

(c) Bringing about transparency and impartiality
in the appointment of judges of the highest
level.
rin
(d) To examine the working period of the judges.
(c) can review cases whose decisions have been

given by High Court
58.
g.n
How can the number of judges in the Supreme
Court in India be increased ?
(a) Representation from the Supreme Court

52. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based
on which of the following ?
(a) Rule of law

59.
et
(b) By amendment of the Constitution
(c) By a Parliamentary Act
(d) By Presidential notification
Assertion (A): A Habeas Corpus writ petition
(b) Due process of Law dismissed by the Supreme Court can be admitted by
(c) Procedure established by law the High Court under article 226 of the Constitution.
(d) Conventions Reason (R): In exercising writ jurisdiction, the
53. The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended powers of the Supreme Court and High Court are
by concurrent.
(a) Parliament (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(b) The Chief Justice of India the correct explanation of A
(c) The Governor of the state (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(d) The President of India. not the correct explanation of A
54. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union (c) A is true but R is false
judiciary in the constitution can be amended by (d) A is false but R is true

C-44 || Judiciary
60. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, 67. Which of the following are correctly matched?
who is entitled to be consulted by the President 1. Article 164 - Appointed of Chief Minister in
of India in the matter of the appointments of the the State Legislature
Judges of the High Court? 2. Article 222- Transfer of High Court Judges
(a) The Union Minister of Law and Justice 3. Article 11- Power of the Parliament to make
(b) The Advocate General of the State laws with regard to citizenship
(c) The Attorney-General of India (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(d) The Governor (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following is not correct with regard
ww
61. Who has the authority to appoint a judge of a High

Court?
(a) The Chief Justice of India

to RTI Act, 2005?
(a) An officer as public officer shall be designated
to provide information to citizens by every

w.E (b) The president of India
(c) The governor of the concerned state
(d) The Legislative Assembly

public authority
(b) The aids provide for the penalty of upto Rs
25,000 on the public information officers is
practised in a High Court?

asy
62. To be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court of India,how long a person should have

to be fails to divulge the information fought
by the citizen
(c) The Act provides for setting up of central

[A] 10 Years
[C] 12 Years En
[B] 15 Years
[D] 5 Years
information and state information commission
(d) The information sought shall be made available
Supreme Court by gin

63. The number of judges can be modifiedin the within 90 days
69. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
schedule VI of our Constitution?

[A] Presidential Order
[B] Supreme Court by Notification
[C] Parliament by Law
[D] Central Government by notification
ee

(a) The areas are administered as Autonomous
rin
districts over which the executive authority
of the states extends
(b) The Government has the power to create new
64. In which year Supreme Court of India came into

being?
(a) 1937 January 28
g.n
autonomous districts
(c) The autonomous districts are provided with

(b) 1947 January 28
(c) 1950 January 28
(d) 1949 January 28
65. India signed the UN Convention Against Corruption

et
elected bodies known as district councils
(d) It deals with the administration of the tribal
areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and
Nagaland
70. The Supreme Courts of India enjoys
in which year? (a) Original jurisdiction
(a) 2004 (b) 2007 (b) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
(c) 2006 (d) 2005 (c) Advisory jurisdiction
66. Consider the following statements: (d) Appellate and advisory jurisdiction
(a) A tenant can be evicted for abuse or threat to 71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
landlord or landlady. disputes between the Centre and the States falls
(b) A father neglected by his son is legally entitled under its
to execute a will bequeathing his property in (a) Advisory Jurisdiction
favour of his relatives. (b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) constitutional Jurisdiction
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Original Jurisdiction

72. Who of the following Chief Justices of India acted (a) One half of the total strength of the Supreme
as the President of India as well? Court
(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati (b) Seven
(b) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan (c) Three
(c) Justice B.K. Mukherjee (d) One-third of the total strength of the court
(d) Justice M. Hidayatullah 79. Which is not a correct statement? The Supreme
73. Which one of the following is correct about the Court:
Supreme Court regarding its judgement? (a) is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty
ww

(a) It cannot change the judgement
(b) Only the Chief Justice of India can change
the judgement

(b) settles electoral disputes of the President and
Vice-President of India
(c) interprets the Constitution

w.E (c) It can change the judgement
(d) Only the Ministry of Law can change the
judgement.
(d) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy
80. The main sources of law in India are:
I. The Constitution
determined by
(a) Parliament asy
74. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are

II. Statutes
III. Customary law
IV. Judicial decisions of superior courts

(c) Law Commission En
(b) Pay Commission appointed by the President

Choose the answer from the code:
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
gin
75. Which one of the following subjects comes under
the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and
(c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
81. The Constitution allows preventive detention but

the High Court?
ee
(a) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(b) Mutual disputes among the states
(c) Disputes between Centre and States

stipulates:
(a) that no one should be detained beyond three
rin
months unless an Advisory Board authorises
detention beyond that period
(d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution
76. The functions of which of the following bodies in

g.n
(b) that the grounds for detention should be
conveyed to the detenu before arresting him

India are limited to advisory nature only?
(a) Legislative Council
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha

of his arrest
et
(c) that the detenu must be produced before the
nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours
(d) Legislative Assembly 82. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the State
77. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every of Arunachal Pradesh?
High Court will be in: (a) Guwahati (b) Mumbai
(a) Hindi (c) Kolkata (d) Chandigarh
(b) English 83. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public
(c) Hindi and English interest litigation (P1L) was introduced to the
(d) Hindi or English Indian Judicial System?
78. The minimum number of judges to sit on the (a) M. Hidayatullah
Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its (b) M. Ahmadi
advisory opinion on the reference by the President (c) A.S. Anand
must be: (d) P.M. Bhagwati

C-46 || Judiciary
84. Which among the following Union Territory has 87. What is the number of Judges (including Chief
a Judicial Commissioner? Justice) in the Supreme Court of India as provided
(a) Pondicherry in the Constitution of India?
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (a) 20 (b) 24
(c) Daman & Diu (c) 26 (d) 28
(d) Lakshadweep 88. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of
(e) Chandigarh the Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached?
85. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme 1. Violation of the Constitution
2. Proved misbehaviour
ww

Court a Court of Record?
(a) 127
(c) 129
(b) 128
(d) 130
3. Incapacity
Select the correct answer using the codes given
w.E
(e) 131
86. The number of judges can be altered in the Supreme
Court by:

below:
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
89. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with

(a) Presidential Order
(b) Parliament by Law asy
(c) Supreme Court by Notification

(a) judicial review
(b) judicial activism

En
(d) Central Government by notification

(c) judicial intervention
(d) judicial sanctity
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (a)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (b) 32. (d) 42. (b) 52. (c) 62. (c) 72. (d) 82. (a)
3. (c) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (a) 63. (c) 73. (c) 83. (d)
4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (a) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (c) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (c)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (d) 65. (d) 75. (a) 85. (c)
ww6.
7.
8.
(d)
(d)
16.
17.
18.
(a)
(c)
26.
27.
28.
(a)
(d)
36.
37.
38.
(b)
(b)
46.
47.
48.
(b)
(b)
56.
57.
58.
(b)
(c)
66.
67.
68.
(c)
(d)
76.
77.
78.
(a)
(b)
86.
87.
88.
(b)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(b)
(c)
(b)
19.
20.
(c)
(d)
(a)
29.
30.
(b)
(a)
(c)
39.
40.
(b)
(c)
(a)
49.
50.
(c)
(d)
(d)
59.
60.
(b)
(d)
(d)
69.
70.
(d)
(d)
(b)
79.
80.
(a)
(d)
(d)
89.
(d)
(b)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1.
gin
(c) The ‘judicial review’ function of the Supreme
Court means to examine the constitutional validity
of laws. Judicial review is the doctrine under which
(a) the Government of India and one or more states
(b) the Government of India and any state and states
on one side and one or more state on the other (c)
ee
legislative and executive actions are subject to
review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary.
A specific court with judicial review power may
annul the acts of the state when it finds them
two or more states.
5. (d) Because the Supreme Court is given the power
rin
to protect, safeguard and uphold the Constitution
and empowered to declare a law null and void if
incompatible with a higher authority (such as the
terms of a written constitution). Judicial review
is an example of check and balances in a modern
g.n
it is found to be inconsistent with the Constitution.
Therefore, Supreme Court is said to be the guardian
of Indian Constitution.
governmental system (where the judiciary checks
the other branches of government).
2. (c) According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all
doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection
et
6. (d) The Supreme Court of India comprises the
Chief Justice of India and 30 other judges appointed
by the President of India. Supreme Court judges
retire upon the age of 65 years.
with the election of a President or Vice-President 7. (d) A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed
shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme under the Constitution only on grounds of proven
Court. misconduct or incapacity and by an order of the
3. (c) There are 5 types of writs which can be President of India, after a notice signed by at least
issued by the Supreme Court. They are Habeas 100 members of the Lok Sabha (House of the
Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, & Quo People) or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha (Council
Warranto. of the States) is passed by a two-third majority in
4. (d) The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme each House of the Parliament.
Court are quite wide. The Supreme Court has a 8. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked
threefold jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has with judicial activism. India has a recent history of
originally jurisdiction i.e. cases which can originate judicial activism, originating after the emergency
with the Supreme Court alone over disputes between in India which saw attempts by the Government to

C-48 || Judiciary
control the judiciary. The Public Interest Litigation Article 32 of the Constitution of India grants
was an instrument devised by the courts to reach out original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court on all
directly to the public, and take cognizance though cases involving the enforcement of fundamental
the litigant may not be the victim.”suo motu” rights of citizens.
cognizance allows the courts to take up such cases 14. (b) Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted
on their own. by judicial review. Parliamentary sovereignty (also
9. (c) (Article 124 of the Constitution provides that called parliamentary supremacy or legislative
the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice supremacy) is a concept in the constitutional law
and not more than seven judges. The Parliament is of some parliamentary democracies. It holds that
ww empowered to increase the number of judges by law.

Due to the increase in the workload, the strength of
Supreme Court judges has been raised from time to
the legislative body has absolute sovereignty, and
is supreme over all other government institutions,
including executive or judicial bodies. The concept
also holds that the legislative body may change
w.E
10.
time.
(b) When there is a vacancy in the office of the
President and the Vice-President at the same time,
the office is held temporarily by the Chief Justice
or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it
is not bound by written law (in some cases, even
a constitution) or by precedent. Parliamentary
11.
of India.
asy
(c) The President of India appoints the Chief
Justice of Supreme court as per the following
sovereignty may be contrasted with the doctrines of
separation of powers, which limits the legislature’s
scope often to general law-making, and judicial

procedure.
En
1. The Government of India proposes the name
15.
review, where laws passed by the legislature may be
declared invalid in certain circumstances.
(a) When President Zakir Hussain died in office,
gin
of the most senior Judge of the Supreme Court of
India, for the Post of Chief Justice of India, to the
President of India.
the Vice President VV Giri, acted as the President.
Later, Mr. Giri resigned as the Vice President. The

12.
ee
2. The President of India gives approval to this
name, after consultation with the other Judges of the
Supreme Court and the Judges of State High Courts,
as the President may think necessary.
(b) In India, the President of India can request
CJI, Justice Hidayatullah then became the acting
President of India. The senior-most judge of the
rin
Supreme Court became the acting Chief Justice of
India. When the newly elected President took office
a month later, Justice Hidayatullah reverted as the
the Supreme Court of India to provide its advice
on certain matters. This procedure is called
“Presidential Reference”. According to Article
16.
Chief Justice of India.
g.n
(a) The Indian Constitution provides for the
appointment of ad hoc judge in supreme court. If at
143 of the Constitution of India, the President of
India may refer to the Supreme Court of India, a
question of law or fact which, he thinks, is of public
importance. However, it is not binding on the
et
any time there should not be a quorum of the Judges
of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue
any session of the Court, the Chief Justice of India
may, with the previous consent of the President and
Supreme Court to answer questions raised in the after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High
reference. Court concerned, request in writing the attendance
13. (d) The power of the Supreme Court of India to at the sittings of the Court, as an ad hoc Judge, for
decide disputes between the centre and the states such period as may be necessary, of a Judge of a
falls under its original jurisdiction. The original High Court duly qualified for appointment as a
jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for Judge of the Supreme Court to be designated by the
the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, Chief Justice of India.
when a court has the power to review a lower court’s 17. (c) Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves
decision. In India, the Supreme Court has exclusive it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary,
original jurisdiction on all cases between the other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of
government and the states or between government the Supreme Court judges. However, the Parliament
and states on side and one or more states on other cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the
side or cases between different states. In addition, judge’s disadvantage after his appointment.

18. (c) A court of record is a court whose acts and 23. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the
proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory guardian of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final
and testimony. These records are used with a high interpreter of the Constitution. The interpretation of
authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In the Constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be
Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme respected.
Court the ‘court of record”. Article 129 says: The 24. (a) The Regulating Act, 1773 established India’s
Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall first Supreme Court, Fort William, Calcutta. This
have all the powers of such a court including the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 215 three other regular judges or Puisne judges. The
ww empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts

of record.
19. (d) The system of judicial review exists in India
Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all
British subjects including the provinces of Bengal,
Bihar and Orissa. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first
w.Eand U.S.A. Judicial review is the power of a court

to review the constitutionality of a statute or treaty,
or to review an administrative regulation for
Chief Justice.
25. (c) P.N. Bhagwati was the chief justice of India
when public interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced
asy
consistency with either a statute, a treaty, or the
Constitution itself. The United States Constitution
does not explicitly establish the power of judicial
to the Indian judicial system. The concept of
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is in consonance
with the principles enshrined in Article 39A of the
En
review. Rather, the power of judicial review in the
United States has been inferred from the structure,
provisions, and history of the Constitution.
Constitution of India to protect and deliver prompt
social justice with the help of law. Before the 1980s,
gin
20. (a) Article 137 of the constitution permits the
supreme court to review its own judgment or order.
only the aggrieved party could approach the courts
for justice. After the emergency era the high court
ee
Article 137 of the Constitution provides that subject
to provisions of any law and rule made under Article
145 the Supreme Court of India has the power to
review any judgement pronounced (or order made)
by it. Under Supreme Court Rules, 1966 such a
reached out to the people, devising means for any
person of the public (or an NGO) to approach the
rin
court seeking legal remedy in cases where the
public interest is at stake. Justice P. N. Bhagwati
and Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first
petition needs to be filed within 30 days from the
date of judgement or order. It is also recommended g.n
judges to admit PILs in court.
26. (a) The President may, after consultation with the
that the petition should be circulated without oral
arguments to the same bench of judges that delivered
the judgement (or order) sought to be reviewed.
21. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the
guardian of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final
et
Chief Justice of India, transfer a judge from one
high court to any other high court. When a judge has
been or is transferred, he shall, during the period he
serves, after the commencement of the Constitution
(Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, as a Judge of the
interpreter of the Constitution. The interpretation of
other High Court, be entitled to receive in addition
the Constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be
to his salary such compensatory allowance as may
respected.
be determined by Parliament by law and, until so
22. (b) Supreme Court has the power to transfer any
determined, such compensatory allowance as the
Case, appeal or other proceedings from High Court
or other court in one State to a High Court or other President may by order fix.
civil court in any other State. This power may be 27. (d) Judges in High Court are appointed by the
exercised by the Supreme Court if it is satisfied President of India in consultation with the Chief
that an order under this Section is expedient for the Justice of India and the governor of the state. High
ends of justice. Hence wide powers are given to the Courts are headed by a Chief Justice.
Supreme Court to order a transfer if it feels that the 28. (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high
ends of justice so require. court under the High Court (Punjab) Order, 1947.

C-50 || Judiciary
30. (c) Said to be a brainchild of former President 39. (c) In the verdict of Minerva Mills Vs. Union of
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the concept of mobile court is India case, supreme court has nullified parliament’s
based on the pressing need to take the administration effort to establish preference of all the directive
of civil and criminal justice closer to the people so principles of state policy over Fundamental Rights.
that those living in remote areas are able to benefit 40. (a) Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals
without incurring the expenses of travelling to with the Judicial review.
courts at distant places. 41. (a) Article 131 of the Constitution of India deals
31. (a) High court judge is removed only by the order with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
of the President. The high court judge addresses his of India.
ww letter of resignation to the President.

32. (d) oa comes under the jurisdiction of Bombay
High Court.
33. (d) Guwahati High Court has the largest number
42. (b) The writ Mandamus literally means ‘we
command’. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in
the form of an order from a superior court, to any
government subordinate court, corporation, or
w.E of Benches.
The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is
at Guwahati in Assam. The court has 3 outlying
public authority—to do (or forbear from doing)
some specific act which that body is obliged under
law to do (or refrain from doing)—and which is in

benches. These are:
asy
The Kohima bench for Nagaland state.
The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state.
the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one
of a statutory duty. It cannot be issued to compel
an authority to do something against statutory

En
The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state.
Former benches, now full fledged high courts:
The Imphal bench (established on 21 January 1972)
provision.
43. (c) Article 143 of Indian Constitution provides an
advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.
gin
(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
The Agartala bench established on 24 January 1972)
44. (a) In Keshvanand Bharti case the Supreme Court
of India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure.

ee
(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
The Shillong bench established on 4 September
1974)(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
34. (a) the high court of India does not have
advisory jurisdiction. It has original, appellate and
The case originated in February 1970 when Swami
HH Sri Kesavananda Bharati, Senior Pontiff and
rin
head of “Edneer Mutt” - a Hindu Mutt situated in
Edneer, a village in Kasaragod District of Kerala,
challenged the Kerala government’s attempts, under
supervisory jurisdiction only.
35. (c) High court judge Justice K Kannanwas the
first judge to have voluntarily made his assets g.n
two state land reform acts, to impose restrictions
on the management of its property. Although the
state invoked its authority under Article 31, a noted
public. These include bank deposit (Rs 1.03 lakh),
investments (Rs 3.87 lakh) and his wife’s bank
deposit (Rs 10.59 lakh).
36. (b) Calcutta High court has the territorial
et
Indian jurist, Nanabhoy Palkhivala, convinced the
Swami into fighting his petition under Article 26
(not Article 29), concerning the right to manage
religiously owned property without government
jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands. interference. Even though the hearings consumed
The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court five months, the outcome would profoundly affect
in India. It was established as the High Court of India’s democratic processes.
Judicature at Fort William on 1 July 1862 under the 46. (b) According to Article 19(2), Nothing in sub
High Courts Act, 1861. clause (a) of clause ( 1 ) shall affect the operation of
37 (b) Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of any existing law, or prevent the State from making
State. But the pension of the High Court judge is any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable
given from the Consolidated Fund of India. restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by
38. (b) Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over the said sub clause in the interests of the sovereignty
two states- Mumbai and Goa; Guwahti High Court and integrity of India, the security of the State,
has jurisdiction over Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, friendly relations with foreign States, public order,
Mizoram and Nagaland; Punjab and Haryana High decency or morality or in relation to contempt of
Court has jurisdiction over Punjab and Haryana. court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

47. (b) Prohibition writ is issued by the high court 51. (b) Judicial review signifies that the supreme court
to the lower courts to stop legal action. A writ of can declare a state law as unconstitutional. In the
prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop Indian constitution, Judicial review is dealt with
doing something the law prohibits. In practice, the under Article 13. Judicial Review refers that the
court directs the clerk to issue the writ, and directs Constitution is the supreme power of the nation and
the Sheriff to serve it on the subordinate, and the all laws are under its supremacy. Article 13 states
clerk prepares the writ and gives it to the Sheriff, that:
All pre-constitutional laws, if in part or
who serves it. This writ is normally issued by a completely in conflict with the Constitution, shall
superior court to the lower court asking it not to have all conflicting provisions deemed ineffective
ww proceed with a case which does not fall under its

jurisdiction.
48. (c) In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ
until an amendment to the Constitution ends the
conflict. In such situation the provision of that
law will again come into force, if it is compatible
w.E of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is vested only in the Supreme

Court and the High Court. A writ of habeas corpus
is a writ (court order) that requires a person under
with the constitution as amended. This is called the
Doctrine of Eclipse.
In a similar manner, laws made after adoption of
the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly must
asy
arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. The
principle of habeas corpus ensures that a prisoner
can be released from unlawful detention—that is,
be compatible with the constitution, otherwise the
laws and amendments will be deemed to be void ab
initio.
En
detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence. The
remedy can be sought by the prisoner or by another
person coming to the prisoner’s aid. This right
In such situations, the Supreme Court or High Court
interprets the laws to decide if they are in conformity
gin
originated in the English legal system, and is now
available in many nations. It has historically been an
with the Constitution. If such an interpretation is
not possible because of inconsistency, and where
a separation is possible, the provision that is
freedom against arbitrary state action.
ee
important legal instrument safeguarding individual
49. (d) The Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to

the United States Constitution each contains a
Due Process Clause. Due process deals with the
inconsistent with constitution is considered to be
void. In addition to article 13, articles 32, 226 and
in India.
rin
227 provide a constitutional basis to judicial review
administration of justice and thus the Due Process

Clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of g.n
53. (a) The Parliament may make a provision for
a common High Court for two or more States or
extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or
life, liberty, or property by the Government outside
the sanction of law. The Supreme Court of the
United States interprets the Clauses as providing
four protections: procedural due process (in civil
and criminal proceedings), substantive due process,
more Union Territories.
et
56. (b) The given provision came under a writ Quo
Warranto issued by the Supreme Court of India. Quo
warranto (Medieval Latin for “by what warrant?”)
is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom
a prohibition against vague laws, and as the vehicle it is directed to show what authority they have for
for the incorporation of the Bill of Rights. exercising some right or power (or “franchise”) they
50. (d) The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, claim to hold.
established in India in 1937 under the provisions of 57. (c) The main objective advocated for appointment
the Government of India Act 1935, with original, of the National Judicial Commission is bringing
appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned about transparency and impartiality in the
until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was appointment of judges of the highest level.
established. The seat of the Federal Court was at 59. (d) A is false but R is true
Delhi. There was a right of appeal to the Judicial 60. (d) Clause (1) of Article 217 says that “every judge
Committee of the Privy Council in London from the of a High Court shall be appointed by the President
Federal Court of India. The Federal Court came into by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation
being on 1 October 1937. with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the

C-52 || Judiciary
State, and, in the case of appointment of a Judge Second Appeal: Second appeal to the Central
other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the Information Commission or the State Information
High Court and shall hold office, in the case of an Commission as the case may be, within 90 days of
additional or acting judge, as provided in Article the date on which the decision was given or should
224, and in any other case, until he attains the age of have been made by the First Appellate Authority
sixty-two years”. (delay may be condoned by the Commission if
61. (b) Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed sufficient cause is shown).
by the President by warrant under his hand and 69. (d) schedule VI of our Constitutiondoes not
seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of deal with the administration of the tribal areas of
ww India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case of

appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice,
the chief Justice of the High court, and shall hold
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland.
71. (d) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may
be categorised as original, appellate and advisory.
w.E office, in the case of an additional or acting Judge,

as provided in Article 224, and in any other case,
until he attains the age of sixty two years Provided
Under the Original Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court
can settle disputes (a) between the Centre and one or
more States; (b) between the Centre and any State or
various provisions.
asy
62. (c) Originally, Constitution of India envisaged
a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and seven
States on the one side and one or more other States
on the other; or (c) between two or more States.
72. (d) Mohammad Hidayatullah was the eleventh
En
Judges; leaving it to Parliament to increase this
number. In formative years, the Supreme Court met
from 10 to 12 in the morning and then 2 to 4 in the
Chief Justice of India serving from February 25,
1968 to December 16, 1970. He was the sixth Vice-
gin
afternoon for 28 days in a year. As the work of the
Court increased and cases began to accumulate,
President of India, serving from 31 August 1979 to
30 August 1984. As the Chief Justice of India, he
had also served as the Acting President of India from
ee
Parliament increased the number of judges from the
original 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in
1978, 26 in 1986 and 31 in 2008 current strength.
64. (c) On the 28th of January, 1950, two days after
India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the
July 20, 1969 to August 24, 1969. He is regarded as
an eminent jurist, scholar,educationist, author and
linguist.
rin
73. (c) Supreme Court can only change its position in
Supreme Court came into being. The inauguration
took place in the Chamber of Princes in the g.n
a case decided earlier by it where it considers for
good and substantial reasons to overrule itself on an
application if the need arises.
Parliament building which also housed India’s
Parliament, consisting of the Council of States and
the House of the People.
65. (d) The United Nations Convention against
Corruption (UNCAC), which entered into force
et
74. (a) he Constitution of India gives the power of
deciding remuneration as well as other conditions
of service of the Chief Justice to the Parliament of
India. Accordingly, such provisions have been laid
down in The Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and
in December 2005, is the ever-first binding global
anti-corruption instrument. It obliges the States to Conditions of Service) Act, 1958.
prevent and criminalize different corrupt practices, 76. (a) The Provincial Legislative Councils established
promote international cooperation, cooperate for were mere advisory bodies by means of which
the recovery of stolen assets and enhance technical Government obtained advice and assistance. The
assistance and information exchange. Provincial Legislative Council could not interfere
68. (d) First Appeal: First appeal to the officer senior in with the laws passed by the Central Legislature.
rank to the PIO in the concerned Public Authority 77. (b) The constitution provides that all proceedings
within 30 days from the expiry of the prescribed in the Supreme Court of India, the country’s highest
time limit or from the receipt of the decision (delay court and the High Courts, shall be in English.
may be condoned by the Appellate Authority if Parliament has the power to alter this by law, but
sufficient cause is shown). has not done so.

78. (a) Court’s advisory jurisdiction may be sought by 81. (a) Article 22 (4) provides that no law providing
the President under Article 143 of the Constitution. for preventive detention shall authorise the detention
This procedure is termed as “Presidential Reference” of a person for a longer period than 3 months unless
and is recognised as the ‘Advisory jurisdiction’ of an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or
the Court. Under this scheme, President may refer have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges
any question of law or fact of public importance. of a High Court, has reported before the expiration
However, it is not binding on the Supreme Court to of the said period of 3 months that there is in it’s
answer questions raised in the reference. In the last opinion sufficient cause for such detention.
more than sixty years, only a handful of references 82. (a) The Gauhati High Court was established on
ww have been made. The Supreme Court can refuse to

provide its advisory opinion if it is satisfied that the
questions are either socioeconomic or political in
1 March, 1948 after the Government of India Act
1935 was passed. It was originally known as the
High Court of Assam and Nagaland, but renamed
w.Enature. The minimum number of judges to sit on the

Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its
advisory opinion on the reference by the President
must be One half of the total strength of the Supreme
as Gauhati High Court in 1971 by the North East
Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.It has largest
jurisdiction in terms of states, with its area covering
Court.
asy
79. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are
thestates of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,
and Mizoram.
83. (d) The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
En
guidelines/principles given to the central and state
governments of India, to be kept in mind while
framing laws and policies. These provisions,
is in consonance with the principles enshrined in
Article 39A of theConstitution of India to protect
gin
contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
are not enforceable by any court, but the principles
laid down therein are considered fundamental in the
and deliver prompt social justice with the help of
law. Before the 1980s, only the aggrieved party
could approach the courts for justice. After the
establish a just society in the country.

ee
governance of the country, making it the duty of the
State to apply these principles in making laws to
80. (d) The fountain source of law in India is the

emergency era the high court reached out to the
people, devising a means for any person of the
rin
public (or an NGO) to approach the court seeking
legal remedy in cases where the public interest is
Constitution which, in turn, gives due recognition
to statutes, case law and customary law consistent
with its dispensations. Statutes are enacted by
g.n
at stake. Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R.
Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit
PILs in court. Filing a PIL is not as cumbersome as
Parliament, State Legislatures and Union Territory
Legislatures. There is also a vast body of laws
known as subordinate legislation in the form of
rules, regulations as well as by-laws made by
et
a usual legal case; there have been instances when
letters and telegrams addressed to the court have
been taken up as PILs and heard.
84. (c) There had been a persistent demand for the
extension of the jurisdiction of a High Court to
Central and State Governments and local authorities
like Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, Gram the Union territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and
Panchayats and other local bodies. This subordinate for the establishment of a permanent bench of
legislation is made under the authority conferred or that High Court in lieu of the existing Court of
delegated either by Parliament or State or Union the Judicial Commissioner. Although the Judicial
Territory Legislature concerned. The decisions of Commissioner’s Court functioning at those times in
the Supreme Court are binding on all Courts within Union territory was given certain powers of a High
the territory of India. As India is a land of diversities, Court under the provisions of the Goa, Daman and
local customs and conventions which are not against Diu (judicial Commissioner’s Court) Regulation,
statute, morality, etc. are to a limited extent also 1963, it was not a full-fledged High Court. The
recognised and taken into account by Courts while Judicial Commissioner also did not enjoy those
administering justice in certain spheres. constitutional safeguards which protect the

C-54 || Judiciary
independence of a High Court Judge. It was further 86. (b) The Union cabinet had approved a proposal
felt that the extension of jurisdiction of a High for introduction of the Bill in Parliament by making
court to the Union Territory including Goa would an amendment of the Supreme Court (Number
improve the tone of judicial administration in these of Judges) Act, 1956 for increase in the number
Union territories and would inspire greater public of judges in the Supreme Court to augment the
confidence. Under those circumstance, jurisdiction strength of the Supreme Court Judges, excluding the
of High Court of Judicature at Bombay was extended Chief Justice of Indian, from 25 to 30.The increase
to the State of Goa and Union territories of Daman in the number of judges will allow Supreme Court
and Diu and Court of the Judicial Commissioner was to function more efficiently and effectively towards
ww abolished and a permanent bench of High Court of

Judicature at Bombay is established at Panaji (Goa)
on 30th October, 1982 as per the provisions of The
attaining the ultimate goal of rendering speedy
justice to the litigant public.
87. (c) The Supreme Court originally consisted of
w.EHigh Court at Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to

Goa, Daman and Diu ) Act, 1981.
85. (c) According to Article 129 of the Constitution
a Chief-Justice and seven other judges. In 1985,
the strength was increased. It comprises the chief
justice and not more than 25 other judge.
asy
Supreme Court to be a court of record. The Supreme
Court shall be a court of record and shall have all
the powers of such a court including the power to
88. (d) The Judge of the Supreme Court or a High
Court can be impeached on the basis of proved
misbehaviour and incapacity.
punish for contempt of itself.
En 89. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked

with judicial activism in India.
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

Section D : economics
ww
1 Indian Economy

w.E
1. The term mixed economy denoted existence of both
(a) rural and urban sector
(b) private and public sector

8.
(c) Capitalist system
(d) Mixed economy system
Economic liberalisation in India started with

2.
(c) heavy and small industry
asy
(d) developed and under developed sector
In an economy, the sectors are classified into public
(a) substantial changes in industrial licensing
policy

and private on the basis of
(a) employment condition En
(b) the convertibility of Indian rupee
(c) doing away with procedural formalities for
foreign direct investment

(b) nature of economic activities
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) use of raw materials gin (d) significant reduction in tax rates
9. A firm sells shares worth `1000 direct to individuals.
3.

Which sector of Indian economy has shown
ee
remarkable expansion during the last decade?
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Mining sector

This transaction will cause
(a) GNP to rise by `1000
rin
(b) GDP to rise by `1000
(c) National income to rise by `1000
4.

When development in economy takes place, the
share of tertiary sector in national income
(a) first falls and then rises

g.n
(d) No impact on Gross National Product
10. Which is not included in the private income arising
in a country?

5.
(b) first rises and then falls
(c) keeps on increasing
(d) remains constant
It will be true to classify India as

et
(a) Factor income from net domestic product
(b) Net factor income from abroad
(c) Current transfers from government
(d) Current payments on foreign loans
(a) a food-deficit economy 11. In India, agriculture income is calculated by
(b) a labour-surplus economy
(a) output method
(c) a trade-surplus economy
(b) input method
(d) a capital-surplus economy
6. The Indian economy is characterised by (c) expenditure method
(a) pre-dominance of agriculture (d) commodity flow method
(b) low per capita income 12. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for
(c) massive unemployment Indian economy?
(d) all of the above (a) A.K. Sen
7. In India, planned economy is based on (b) Kirit S. Parich
(a) Gandhian system (c) Raj Krishna
(b) Socialist system (d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

D-2 || Indian Economy

13. GDP at factor cost is (b) production of goods and services
(a) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies (c) net profit earned and expenditure made by the
(b) GNP minus depreciation allowances state.
(c) NNP plus depreciation allowances (d) the sum of all factors of income
(d) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes 21. Which of the following is definitely a major
14. Per capita income is obtained by dividing national indication of the state of the economy of a country?
income by (a) Rate of GDP growth
(a) total population of the country (b) Rate of inflation
ww

(b) total working population
(c) area of the country
(d) volume of the capital used

(c) Number of banks in a country
(d) None of these
22. Which of the following can be called as a part of

w.E
15. Which one of the following is a development
expenditure?
(a) Irrigation expenditure

the service sector?
(a) Textile mills
(c) Coal mines
(b) Banking
(d) Agricultural
(b) Administration
(c) Debt services asy 23. In terms of economics, the total value of the
output (goods and services) produced and income
received in a year by a domestic resident of a
(d) Grant-in-aid
En
16. GDP is defined as the value of all

country put together is called
(a) Net National Product

gin
(a) goods produced in an economy in a year
(b) goods and services in an economy in a year
(c) final goods produced in an economy in a year

(b) Gross National Product
(c) Gross National Income

economy in a year.
17. Depreciation is equal to
ee
(d) final goods and services produced in an

(d) National income
24. Which of the following is equivalent to National
income?
rin
(a) GDP at market price

(a) GNP – NNP
(b) NNP – GNP
(c) GNP – Personal Income

(b) NDP at factor cost
g.n
(c) NNP at market price
(d) NNP at factor cost
(d) Personal Income – Personal Taxes
18. Which one of the following is not a method of
measurement of National income?

largest to the GNP? et
25. Which sector of the Indian economy contributes
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector

(c) Tertiary sector (d) Public sector
(a) Value Added Method
26. National Income estimates in India are prepared
(b) Income Method
by
(c) Expenditure Method
(a) Planning Commission
(d) Investment Method
(b) Reserve Bank of India
19. Net National Product (NNP) of a country is (c) Central Statistical Organisation
(a) GDP minus depreciation allowances (d) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) GDP plus net income from abroad 27. Per capita Income of a country is derived from
(c) GNP minus net income from abroad (a) National Income
(d) GNP minus depreciation allowances (b) Population
20. National income is based on the (c) National Income and population both
(a) total revenue of the state (d) None of these

Economics || D-3
28. The main source of National income in India is 37. Inflation is caused by
(a) service sector (b) agriculture (a) Increase in supply of goods
(c) industrial sector (d) trade sector (b) Increase in cash with the government
29. Which of the following is not an example of (c) Decrease in money supply
economic overheads? (d) Increase in money supply
(a) Schools 38. Devaluation usually causes the internal price to
(a) Fall
(b) Sanitary facilities
(b) Rise
(c) Roads and Railways
(c) Remain unchanged
ww

30.

(d) Coal mines
Who estimated national income in India first?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) R.C. Dutt
(d) None of these
39. In India, one-rupee coins and notes and subsidiary
coins are issued by

w.E
31.
(c) V.K. R.V. Rao (d) D.R. Gadgil
Who wrote a book describing the theory of
economic drain of India during British rule?

(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Central Government
(c) The State Bank of India

(c) J.L. Nehru asy
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) The Unit Trust of India
40. The process of curing inflation by reducing money
supply is called
32.
sector in the GDP:
En
As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary

(a) Cost-push inflation
(b) Down–pull inflation

(a) Decreases
(b) Decreases then increases
(c) Increases gin

(c) Disinflation
(d) Reflation

33.

(d) Remains constant
The National Income of a country is ee
(a) the annual revenue of the government
(b) sum total of factor incomes
41. Devaluation of currency leads to

(a) expansion of export trade
rin
(b) contraction of import trade
(c) expansion of import substituting
(d) all of the above

(c) surplus of PSU’S
(d) export minus import g.n
42. The term stagflation refers to a situation where
(a) growth has no relation with the change in
34.

The most appropriate measure of a country’s
economic growth is its
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product

price
et
(b) rate of growth and prices both are decreasing
(c) rate of growth is faster than the rate of price
increase
(c) Net National Product (d) rate of growth is slower than the rate of price
(d) Per capita real income increase
43. During period of inflation, rates should
35. Which one among the following countries has the
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
lowest GDP per capita?
(c) Remain constant (d) Fluctuate
(a) China (b) India 44. The existence of a parallel economy or black
(c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka money
36. The major aim of devaluation is to (a) makes the economy more competitive
(a) Encourage exports (b) makes the monetary policies less effective
(b) Encourage imports (c) ensure a better distribution of income and
(c) Encourage both exports and imports wealth
(d) Discourage both exports and imports (d) ensure increasing productive investment


45. In the paralance of economy / commerce, what is (a) Plan I (b) Plan II
‘Gild-edged market’? (c) Plan IV (d) Annual plans
(a) Gold and Silver market 54. The one rupee note bears the signature of the
(b) Industrial securities market (a) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(c) Market of safe securities (b) Governor, RBI
(d) Market of software technology products (c) Finance Minister
46. At present Indian Rupee is (d) None of these
(a) partially convertible on current account 55. The basis of determining dearness allowance
ww

(b) fully convertible on current account
(c) partially convertible on capital account
(d) fully convertible on capital account

(D.A.) to government employees in India is
(a) National income
(b) Consumer Price Index
w.E
47. Which of the following terms is not a financial
term?
(a) Investment

56.
(c) Standard of living
(d) Per capita income
Economic growth is usually coupled with
(b) Core banking solution
(c) RTGS
(d) All the above asy

57.
(a) Deflation (b) Inflation
(c) Hyper inflation (d) Stagflation
Tarapore committee was associated with which
(a) placement of funds En

48. Money laundering normally involves

one of the following?
(a) Special Economic Zone

(b) layering of funds
(c) integration of funds
(d) all the above
gin

(b) Fully Capital Account Convertibility
(c) Effect of Oil-prices on the Indian economy
(d) Foreign Exchange Reserve

following indexes / indicators?
(a) Cost of Living Index (CLI)
ee
49. Inflation in India is measured on which of the 58.

Which of the following is not true when the interest
rin
rate in the economy goes up?
(a) Saving increases
(b) Lending decreases

(b) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(d) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

g.n
(c) Cost of production increases
(d) Return on capital increases
50. When the prices of commodities, goods and services

start declining consistently, the phenomenon is
known as
(a) Discount field (b) Deflation
59.

et
High rates of interest in a low inflation region
(a) attract people to make an investment
(b) discourage people to make an investment
(c) create atmosphere for capital formation
(c) Negative growth (d) Market capitalism (d) are not favourable for credit expansion
51. In which of the following years India switched 60. Development expenditure of the Central
government does not include
over to decimal currencies?
(a) defence expenditure
(a) 1955 (b) 1956
(b) expenditure on economic services
(c) 1957 (d) 1960 (c) expenditure on social and community services
52. In which year the Indian rupee was devalued two (d) grant to states
times within a month? 61. The slack season in the Indian economy is
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (a) Feb-April
(c) 1994 (d) 1999 (b) Mar-April
53. During which Five Year Plan, the price level in (c) Jan-June
Indian economy showed a decline? (d) Sept-Dec

Economics || D-5
62. In the list of Top 50 Most Valued Global Banks 70. In which of the following years, was the trade
(in terms of market capitalisation) released by balance favourable to India?
Bloomberg on 17 January 2015, which bank got (a) 1970-71 and 1974-75
first rank? (b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
(a) HDFC (b) SBI (c) 1972-73 and 1975-76
(c) ICBC (d) Yes Bank (d) 1971-72 and 1976-77
63. The philosophy of ‘Laissez-Faire’ is associated 71. Among Indian economists, who had done
with pioneering work on National Income?
(a) P. N Dhar (b) Prof. Shenoi
ww

(a) Gandhian state (b) Industrial state
(c) Socialist state (d) Welfare state
64. In free economy, inequalities in income is due to
(c) V. K. R. V Rao (d) Jagdish Bhagwati
72. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision
of which of the following Acts

w.E (a) free competition
(b) private property and inheritance
(c) differences in the marginal productivity of

(a) Financial Action Task Force Act
(b) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Act

labour
(d) private property only
asy
65. Personal disposable income means?

(c) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(d) Banking Regulation Act
73. The theory of economic drain of India during

En
(a) Personal income- indirect taxes
(b) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines

British period was propounded by
(a) M. K. Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

gin
(c) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines+
social security contribution by employers
(d) None of these
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) R. C. Dutta
74. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio

in Akodara village in Gujarat?
(a) Yes Bank
(c) ICICI Bank
ee
66. Which bank launched the Digital Village Project
(b) HDFC Bank

(d) SBI

between their cash in hand and total assets. This
is called
rin
(a) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
(b) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
(c) Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
67. Due to decrease in oil process and demand for gold,
the trade deficit in December 2014 narrowed down

g.n
(d) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
75. One of the problems in calculating the national

to
(a) 7.25 billion US dollars
(b) 11.20 billion US dollars
(c) 7.5 billion US dollars
(a) under-employment

(b) inflation et
income in India correctly is
(c) non-monetised consumption

(d) 9.43 billion US dollars (d) low savings
68. As per 13th Finance Commission Recommendations 76. As per the statistics on foreign debt at the end of
during 2010-15, transfers to the states from the March 2014, the ratio of long term debt and short
central tax pool are expected to be— term debt stands at—
(a) ` 44000 crore (a) About 80 : 20 (b) About 81.5 : 18.5
(b) ` 164832 crore (c) About 70 : 30 (d) About 61.5 : 29.5
(c) ` 318581 crore 77. Paper currency first started in India in
(d) ` 107552 crore (a) 1862 (b) 1542
69. As per CRISIL index on Financial inclusion which (c) 1601 (d) 1880
part of India is top in the financial inclusion? 78. Which Indian got Nobel Prize for Economics?
(a) South India (b) East India (a) Khorana (b) C.V. Raman
(c) West India (d) North India (c) Teressa (d) Amartya Sen


79. Which of following statement is true about the (c) National Saving Scheme
Primary deficit? (d) Public Provident Fund
(a) It is difference between Revenue Receipts 84. What is the approximate share of SSIs in gross
and Revenue Expenditure industrial value added in the Indian economy?
(b) It is difference between Capital Receipts and (a) 25% (b) 30%
Interest Payment (c) 5% (d) 40%
(c) It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and 85. Consider the following statements:
Interest Payment 1. The Fifth Economic Census was conducted
(d) It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest by CSO in the year 2007.
ww Payment
80. Why is demographic dividend likely to be
manifested in India in future?
2. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR)
technology is being used for detailed

w.E (a) Population in the age group between 8-15
years is likely to increase.
(b) Population of children below 7 years is likely

processing of the data collected in the Fifth
Economic Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

to increase
asy
(c) Population in the age group of 15-64 years is
likely to increase
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Which of the following governmental steps has

En
(d) opulation in the age group above 65 years is
likely to increase
proved relatively effective in controlling the
double digit rate of inflation in the Indian economy
during recent years?
gin
81. Who among the following has suggested migration
to accrual accounting system from cash based
accounting system in India?
(a) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive
expenditure

(a) I.V. Reddy
(c) R.H. Patil ee
(b) D.N. Ghosh
(d) C. Rangarajan
82. Note issuing department of RBI should always
possess the minimum gold stock of worth—

(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer
goods
rin
(d) Pursuing an export-oriented strategy
(a)
(c)
` 85 crore
` 200 crore
(b) ` 115 crore
(d) None of these
83. Which of the following does not grant any tax g.n
87. Which one of the following is not a feature of
India’s economic planning?
(a) imperative planning

rebate?
(a) National Saving Certificate
(b) Indira Vikas Patra

(c) democratic socialism
(d) indicative planning
et
(b) limited centralisation

Economics || D-7
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (a) 31. (d) 41. (d) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (c) 81. (b)
2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (c) 42. (d) 52. (b) 62. (c) 72. (c) 82. (b)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (a) 53. (a) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (b)
4. (c) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (d)
5. (b) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (b)
6. (d) 16. (d) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (b) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (a)
ww7.
8.
(b)
(a)
17.
18.
(a)
(d)
27.
28.
(c)
(a)
37.
38.
(d)
(c)
47.
48.
(d)
(d)
57.
58.
(b)
(d)
67.
68.
(d)
(c)
77.
78.
(b)
(d)
87. (a)
w.E
9.
10.
(d)
(d)
19.
20.
(d)
(b)
29.
30.
(d)
(a)
39.
40.
(b)
(c)
49.
50.
(d)
(b)
59.
60.
(a)
(d)
69.
70.
(a)
(b)
79.
80.
(c)
(c)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1. (b) The concept of mixed economy evolved keeps on increasing because tertiary sector is
gin
from the ideas of Keynes. The concept of mixed
economy means that both private enterprises and
public enterprises coexist. However, the condition
involved into services within and outside the
country. With development the disposable income
of individuals income results in growth of banking,
ee
attached is that the private enterprises must work
for serving the society rather than having only self
interest. Further the private enterprises may not be
allowed in every sector of the economy like area of
national importance.
5.
trading, communication etc., both domestically and
internationally.
rin
(b) India is a labour-surplus economy because in
India there is disguised unemployment along with
under-employment which means that qualified,
2. (c) In an economy, the sectors are classified
into private and public on the basis of ownership. g.n
skilled workforce willing to work is available but
there are not enough employment opportunities.
Private sector is owned and managed by proprietors
and partnerships while the public sector is wholly
owned and managed by government.
3. (c) During last decade, tertiary sector has shown
remarkable expansion. The economy is divided
6.
et
(d) The Indian Economy is characterised by pre-
dominance of agriculture, low per capita income
and massive unemployment. In India contribution
of agriculture to GDP is around 13.7%. Per capita
income, a gauge for measuring living standard, is
into three sector on the basis of activities–primary, estimated at ` 5,729 per month in 2012–13 which
secondary and tertiary. Primary sector is involved is low as compared to other developing nations
into agriculture, secondary sector is involved like China having per capita income to be $6091.
into manufacturing, mining, construction while In India the rate of unemployment is around 9.9 %
tertiary sector is involved into trade, transport, which is higher than other developing nations like
communication, banking & other services. In China which has unemployment rate of 4.1.
the last decade India has expanded maximum in 7. (b) In India, planned economy is based on socialist
providing services like IT, Telecommunication, system in which all have equal opportunities to
Healthcare, Tourism which is contributing around education, healthcare, non exploitation, equality of
60% to GDP. wealth etc. The concept was borrowed from Russia
4. (c) When development in economy takes place, and is based on achieving directive principles
the share of tertiary sector in national income mentioned in our constitution.


8. (a) Economic liberalisation in India started with it really cost to produce. However, adjustments
substantial changes in industrial licensing policy. have to be made for government subsidies to firms
The LPG Model (Liberalisation, Privatisation & that make up market prices purchasers pay so price
Globalisation) was introduced by Dr Manmohan plus subsidy represent the true income to factor
Singh in 1991 as India was facing problems of production. We can, therefore, value domestic
of depleting reserves. Under liberalization the output at prices received by producers after indirect
industrial licensing policy was changed and under taxes and subsidies have been taken into account.
the new licensing policy the private players can set 14. (a) Per capita income is obtained by dividing
up their industrial units without obtaining license national income by total population of the country
ww
9.
from government and thus private investment in
India increased drastically.
(d) A firm sells shares worth ` 1000 direct to
per capita income, also known as income per
person, is the mean income of the people in a
country. It is calculated by taking a measure of all
w.E individuals. This transaction will cause no impact

on Gross National Product as GNP measures the
output generated by a country’s enterprises (whether
sources of income in the aggregate (such as GDP or
Gross national income) and dividing it by the total
population.
10.
no output is generated.
asy
physically located domestically or abroad) but here
(d) Private income arising in a country does not

15. (a) The important heads of developmental
expenditure within the revenue account are (i) social
and community services, (ii) economic services and
En
include current payments on foreign loans. Private
income includes any type of income received by a
private individual or household, often derived from
(iii) grants- in-aid to states and union territories.
The largest component in this group is economic
services. Economic services include general
gin
occupational activities, or income of an individual
that is not in the form of a salary (e.g. income from
economic services, agriculture and allied services,
industry; and minerals, water and power and
11.
ee
investments). Thus private income includes factor
income from net domestic product, net factor income
from abroad & current transfers from government.
(a) For calculating national income, the Indian
economy is divided into 14 broad sectors, which are
16.
power development, transport and communication,
railways, post and telegraphs etc.
rin
(d) GDP is defined as the value of all final goods
and services produced in an economy in a year. The
total quantity of goods produced in an economy
then grouped into three main categories A, B and C.
In India, agriculture, forestry and logging, fishing, g.n
during year are multiplied by their current prices to
get the GDP.
mining and quarrying, registered manufacturing and
construction units are included in category A. The
output method is applied to category A. The value
added by this category is found by subtracting the
value of raw materials and other inputs from the
17.
et
(a) Depreciation is equal to GNP–NNP (Gross
national products–Net national
Depreciation is also known as consumption of
products)
fixed capital. It is the wear and tear to the physical

assets. It measures the amount of GNP that must be
aggregate of commodity-wise output. spent on new capital goods to maintain the existing
12. (c) The term was coined by Indian economist Raj physical capital stock.
Krishna. The Hindu rate of growth is a derogatory 18. (d) Investment method is not a method of
term referring to the low annual growth rate of measurement of National income. There are three
the socialist economy of India before 1991, which methods of measurement: income method, product
stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s to 1980s. The or value added method and the expenditure method.
word “Hindu” implies that the Hindu outlook of In the initial phase, production of goods and services
fatalism and contentedness was responsible for the takes place. During the course of production
slow growth. payment is made to all factors of production like
13. (a) GDP at factor cost is GDP at market price wages to labour etc. Once the production completes
minus indirect taxes plus subsidies. GDP at factor the output is distributed for different uses like
cost measure the value of output in terms of what consumption etc.

Economics || D-9
19. (d) Net National Product (NNP) of a country is the aggregate payments made to the factors of
GNP minus depreciation allowances. NNP is the production. NNP at FC is the total incomes earned
actual addition to year’s wealth. While calculating by all the factors of production in the form of wages,
GNP, we ignore depreciation of assets but in reality profits, rent, interest etc. plus net factor income
the process of production uses up the fixed assets from abroad. Similarly National income is the sum
or there is some wear and tear or fixed assets by total of wages, rent, interest, and profit earned by
process of depreciation. In order to arrive at NNP the factors of production of a country in a year.
we deduct depreciation from GNP. Thus it is the aggregate values of goods and services
20. (b) National Income is based on the production rendered during a given period counted without
ww of goods and services. A variety of measures of

national income and output are used in economics
to estimate total economic activity in a country or
duplication.
25. (c) Tertiary sector of the Indian economy
contributes largest to the GNP. During last decade
w.Eregion, including gross domestic product (GDP),

gross national product (GNP), net national income
(NNI), and adjusted national income (NNI* adjusted
for natural resource depletion). All are specially
tertiary sector has shown remarkable expansion.
The economy is divided into three sectors on
the basis of activities-primary, secondary and
asy
concerned with counting the total amount of goods
and services produced within some “boundary”.
21. (a) Rate of GDP growth is a major indication of
tertiary. Primary sector is involved into agriculture,
secondary sector is involved into manufacturing,
mining, construction while tertiary sector is
En
the state of the economy of a country. Economic
growth is the increase in the market value of the
involved into trade, transport, communication,
banking & other services. In the last decade, India
has expanded maximum in providing services like
gin
goods and services produced by an economy over
time. It is conventionally measured as the percent
rate of increase in gross domestic product. Gross
IT, telecommunication, healthcare, tourism which is
contributing around 60% to GDP.
ee
domestic product (GDP) is the market value of
all officially recognized final goods and services
produced within a country in a year, or other given
period of time.
26. (c) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), prepares
the estimates of national income in India. The first
rin
official estimates of the national income, prepared
by the CSO at constant prices with base year 1948-
49, as well as at current prices, were brought out in
22. (b) The tertiary sector of the economy (also
known as the service sector) is one of the three
economic sectors. The service sector consists
1956.
g.n
27. (c) Per capita income of a country is derived from
of activities where people offer their knowledge
and time to improve productivity. Examples of
tertiary industries may include the following:
telecommunication, hospitality industry/tourism,
mass media, healthcare/hospitals, information
et
National income and population both. Per capita
income is obtained by dividing national income by
total population of the country. Per capita income,
also known as income per person, is the mean
income of the people in a country . It is calculated
technology, banking, insurance, investment by taking a measure of all sources of income in the
management, accountancy, legal services, aggregate (such as GDP or Gross national income)
consulting, retail sales, real estate, education. and dividing it by the total population.
23. (b) GNP is the total value of all final goods and 28. (a) Service sector is one of the three economic
services produced within a country in a particular sectors. it includes : telecommunication, hospitality
year, plus income earned by its citizens (including industry/tourism, mass media, healthcare/
income of those located abroad), minus income of hospitals, information technology, banking,
non-residents located in that country. GNP measures insurance, investment management, accountancy,
the value of goods and services that the country’s legal services, consulting, retail sales, real estate,
citizens produced regardless of their location. education. Maximum contribution to national
24. (d) NNP at factor cost is equivalent to national income comes from service sector which contributes
income. Net National Product at factor cost is around 60% .


29. (d) Coal mines is not an example of economic adjustment to the value of a country’s currency,
overheads. Economic overhead is capital investment relative to another currency, group of currencies.
into the infrastructure which should encourage new One reason a country may devaluate its currency is
industrial growth and social well being. The other to combat trade imbalances. Devaluation causes a
three School, sanitary facilities and roads and country’s exports to become less expensive, making
railways are economic overheads. them more competitive on the global market. This
30. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji had estimated national in turn means that imports are more expensive,
income in India first. National income estimate making domestic consumers less likely to purchase
before independence was prepared by Dada Bhai them.
ww Naoroji in 1876. He estimated national income by

estimating the value of agricultural production and
then adding some percentage of non–agricultural
37. (d) Inflation is increase in the prices of
commodities. It is caused due to decrease in supply
and increase in demand of commodities. So when
w.Eproduction. This method was non–scientific.

31. (d) Dadabhai, known as the Grand old man, wrote
the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’
money supply in the economy increases it means
people have more purchasing capacity and thus
demand increases which results in inflation .
38. (c) Devaluation is a deliberate downward
during British rule.
asy
describing the theory of economic drain of India
32. (c) As the economy develops, the share of the

adjustment to the value of a country’s currency,
relative to another currency, group of currencies.
En
tertiary sector in the GDP increases. The tertiary
sector of the economy consists of activities where
Since it is relative to other currency so internal price
remains unchanged. It causes a country’s exports to
become less expensive and imports more expensive.
industry/tourism, mass media,gin

people offer their knowledge and time to improve
productivity like telecommunication, hospitality
healthcare/
39. (b) The responsibility for coinage lies with central
government on the basis of the Coinage Act, 1906.
The designing and minting of coins in various
ee
hospitals, information technology, banking,
insurance, investment management, accountancy,
legal services, consulting, retail sales, real estate,
education. As economy develops people develop
denominations is decided by Central government.
40. (c) The process of curing inflation by reducing
rin
money supply is called disinflation. Disinflation
is a decrease in the rate of inflation – a slowdown
more skills and knowledge which they offer as
services.
33. (b) National income is the sum total of wages, g.n
in the rate of increase of the price level of goods
and services in GDP. Disinflation occurs when the
increase in the “consumer price level” slows down
rent, interest, and profit earned by the factors of
production of a country in a year. Thus it is the
aggregate values of goods and services rendered
during a given period counted without duplication.
rising. et
from the previous period when the prices were
41. (d) Devaluation of currency leads to the all of

the above given aspects. Devaluation leads to
34. (d) The most appropriate measure of a country’s a country’s exports to become less expensive
economic growth is its per capita real income. Per as the currency is deliberately adjusted down to
capita income is average income, a measure of the other currencies, making imports more expensive,
wealth of the population of a nation. It is used to making domestic consumers less likely to purchase
measure a country’s standard of living thus a better them thus the domestic companies are encouraged
indicator of economic growth. to substitute imports.
35. (b) India, among the countries has the lowest 42. (d) Stagflation is a condition of slow economic
GDP per capita. GDP per capita is as follows-India growth and relatively high unemployment. It
1509 USD,China 6959 USD, Sri Lanka 3204 USD, is accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation.
Indonesia 3510 USD. Stagflation occurs when the economy isn’t growing
36. (a) The major aim of devaluation is to encourage but prices are increasing, which is not a good
exports. Devaluation is a deliberate downward situation for a country to be in.

Economics || D-11
43. (a) During inflation interest rates should increase in how much the whole economy is willing to buy
so that the investor invests more in lieu of higher and the price for goods. Because the price of goods
interest earning thus money supply reduce which is falling, consumers have an incentive to delay
can reduce inflation. Similarly higher interest rates purchases and consumption until prices fall further,
means credit becomes costly so that again supply of which in turn reduces overall economic activity.
money reduces which helps in curbing inflation. Since this idles the productive capacity, investment
44. (b) The existence of a parallel economy or black also falls, leading to further reductions in aggregate
money makes the monetary policies less effective. demand.
Parallel economy, based on the black money or 51. (c) India switched over to decimal currency in
ww unaccounted money, causes high circulation of

money in the market and thus causes inflation etc.
45. (c) In the parlance of economy, Gild-edged
1957 with the amendment of the Indian Coinage
Act. The rupee remained unchanged in value and
nomenclature. It, however, was now divided into
w.Emarket is called market of safe securities. “Gild-

edged” denotes high-grade securities, consequently
carrying low yields.
46. (b) At present Indian Rupee is fully convertible
52.
100 ‘Paisa’ instead of 16 Annas.
(b) In 1991, India faced a serious balance of
payment crisis and was forced to sharply devalue
its currency. The country was in the grip of high
asy
on current account. Current account convertibility
means that any company that wants to conduct
business with outside companies (like TCS, Infy
inflation, low growth and the foreign reserves were
not even worth to meet three weeks of imports.
Under these situations, the currency was devalued
En
etc.) can convert the dollar payment into Rupee
payment or pay in terms of dollar itself. This is fully 53.
to 17.90 against a dollar.
(a) During first Five Year Plan ( 1951–56) the price
taken from RBI.

gin
allowed in India provided that initial permission is
47. (d) All the above given terms are not a financial
level in Indian economy showed a decline because
of rapid agricultural development and measures to
control inflation as there was disequilibrium due to
ee
term. RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) is fund
transfer system, core banking solutions like treasury
and investment are all processes not financial term.
48. (d) Money laundering occurs in three steps: the
54.
second world war and partition of economy.
(a) The one rupee note is issued by Ministry of
rin
Finance and it bears the signature of Finance
Secretary, while other notes bear the signature
first step involves introducing cash into the financial
system by some means called as placement; the
second involves carrying out complex financial g.n
of Governor RBI. However, only RBI is the only
source of legal tender money because distribution of
one rupee notes and coins and small coins all over
transactions to camouflage the illegal source called
layering; and the final step entails acquiring wealth
generated from the transactions of the illicit funds
called as integration.
49. (d) Inflation in India is measured on the Wholesale
55.
agent of the Government.
et
the country is undertaken by the Reserve Bank as
(b) The basis of determining dearness allowance

(D.A.) to government employees in India is
consumer price index. Dearness Allowance (DA)
Price Index (WPI). The wholesale price index (WPI) is an allowance paid to employees to compensate
is based on the wholesale price of a few relevant them for erosion of real income / wage due to
commodities of over commodities available. inflation. The increase in the cost of living and the
The base year used for comparing is 2004–05 consequent erosion of income is measured in terms
and uses 676 items. The indicator tracks the price of a consumer price index number and, DA to be
movement of each commodity individually. Based sanctioned to employees is determined on the basis
on this individual movement, the WPI is determined of the percentage increase in that index.
through the averaging principle. 56. (b) With increase in GDP, aggregate demand
50. (b) When the prices of commodities, goods and increases, because more production means people
services start declining consistently, the phenomenon have more disposable income, which means more
is known as deflation. Deflation is because of fall in consumer spending. As a result, prices rise in
the aggregate level of demand. That is, there is a fall response, and in conclusion because aggregate


demand grows faster than long-term aggregate 65. (c) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines+
supply, economic growth will be coupled with social security contribution by employers. The
inflation. amount of money that households have available
57. (b) Current account convertibility was first coined for spending and saving after income taxes have
as a theory by the Reserve Bank of India in 1997 been accounted for. Disposable personal income is
by the Tarapore Committee. Full capital account often monitored as one of the many key economic
convertibility allows local currency to be exchanged indicators used to gauge the overall state of the
for foreign currency without any restriction on the economy.Disposable income is total personal
amount. income minus personal current taxes.
ww
58. (d) The rise in interest rates results in increasing
cost of borrowing so lending decreases because
businesses do not borrow at high cost. Moreover
66. (c) ICICI Bank has adopted Akodara village of
Sabarkantha district under its ‘Digital Village’ pilot
project to boost Centre’s ‘Digital India’ drive.
w.E it results in increase in cost of production as the

cost for all suppliers of raw material increases due
to increase in their borrowing cost. For individuals
the savings increase as they start saving in lieu for
67. (d) Due to decrease in oil process and demand for
gold, the trade deficit in December 2014 narrowed
down to 9.43 billion US dollar.
asy
higher return as interest. Higher rates of interest
result in decrease in return on capital as cost of
investment in capital increases.
71. (c) The first person to adopt a scientific procedure
in estimating the national income was Dr. VKRV
Rao in 1931.
En
59. (a) Inflation reflects a situation where the demand
for goods and services exceeds their supply in the
72. (c) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of India “to
gin
economy. Higher interest rates in low inflation
means higher real returns not just on money, but
on all other assets too. These higher real returns
consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign
exchange with the objective of facilitating external
trade and payments and for promoting the orderly
increases the allocation of investment.
ee
60. (d) All expenditures that promote economic
growth and development are termed as development
expenditure. Expenditure on infrastructure
development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India”. It was passed in the winter session
rin
of Parliament in 1999, replacing the Foreign
Exchange Regulation Act (FERA).
development, public enterprises or development
of agriculture increase productive capacity in the
economy and bring income to the government. g.n
73. (c) Dadabhai Naroji propounded the drain theory.
The drain, he declared, was the basic cause of India’s
poverty and a fundamental evil of British rule in
Expenditures in the nature of consumption such
as Defence, interest payments, expenditure on law
and order, public administration, do not create
any productive asset which can bring income or
returns to the government are non-development
et
India. Thus, he argued in 1880 that it is not pitiless
operations of economic laws but it is the thoughtless
hand, pitiless actions of the British policy.
83. (b) Indira Vikas Patra was a small scale deposit
scheme operated by the post offices all over the
expenditure.
country to encourage the idea of investment in the
61. (c) The slack season in the Indian economy is Jan-
minds of the lower-middle class people.
June.
62. (c) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China 84. (d) The small-scale industries sector plays a vital
(ICBC) tops the list of global banks, with a market role in the growth of the country. It contributes
capitalisation of $285 billion, over seven times that almost 40% of the gross industrial value added in
of HDFC Bank. the Indian economy.
63. (b) The philosophy of ‘Laissez-Faire’ is associated 87. (a) Imperative planning is not a feature of
with industrial state. economic planning of India. In case of imperative
64. (b) In free economy, inequalities in income is due planning economic activities belong to public
to private property and inheritance. sector.

2 Planning and Economic

Development
ww
1. The slogan of ‘poverty abolition’ was given in 8. Indian economy has witnessed highest growth

w.E which Five Year Plan?
(a) Second plan
(c) Fifth plan
(b) Fourth plan
(d) Sixth plan

rate in GDP in the year
(a) 2003 – 04
(c) 2005 – 06
(b) 2004 – 05
(d) 2006 – 07
2.
asy
PAN card issued by the Income Tax Department
can’t be used for which of the following purpose?
(a) proof of address
9. Who was the author of the book ‘Planned

Economy for India’?
(a) Vishveswaraiyya (b) J.L. Nehru

(b) proof of identity
En
(c) proof of registered tax payer
(d) proof of date of birth
(c) P.C. Mahalnobis (d) None of these
10. In which year ‘Bombay plan’ was launched by
some industrialists?
3.
(a) Gandhian system gin
In India, planned economy is based on? (a) 1942
(c) 1944
(b) 1943
(d) 1945
11. The Economic Planning Committee was

4.
(b) Socialist system
(c) Capitalist system
(d) Mixed economy system ee
Golden Quadrangle project is associated with the
development of

established in the chairmanship of
(a) J.L. Nehru
rin
(c) Ramkrishna Mudaliyar

5.
(a) Highways
(c) Power Grids
(b) Ports
(d) Tourism Network
Which one of the following states was having the
(d) K.C. Niyogi
g.n
12. Who among the following has written the book
named ‘Indian Economy: Gandhian Blue print”?

highest Human Development Index in the year
2012?
(a) Assam
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(d) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan
(d) Charan Singh
et
(a) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
6. Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government 13. The government introduced an agricultural
does not include? strategy which gave rise to green revolution in
(a) Rural Water Supply Project India under the plan
(b) Irrigation Benefit Programme (a) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Rural Electrification (b) Fourth Five Year Plan
(d) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan
7. Sustainable development is a case of inter-
14. The Rolling plan concept in National planning
generational sensibility in respect of use of was introduced by
(a) natural resources (a) Indira Gandhi Government
(b) material resources (b) The National Front Government
(c) industrial resources (c) The Janta Party Government
(d) social resources (d) Rajiv Gandhi Government

D-14 ||Planning and Economic Development

15. The major emphasis on the first five year plan of 25. Which of the following experienced the fastest
India was expansion during the plan in India?
(a) agriculture (b) employment (a) Agriculture (b) Industry
(c) industry (d) export promotion (c) Services (d) None of these
16. Which one of the following plans is also known 26. The provision behind the establishment of
as ‘Gadgil Yojana’? Planning Commission in 1950 was
(a) Third Five Year Plan (a) A constitutional amendment
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan (b) A supreme court order
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) An executive order
ww
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan
17. Which one of the following was the first Chairman
of Planning Commission of India?
(d) A decision by the parliament
27. Which of the following is not covered under

‘Bharat Nirman’?
(a) Rural Housing

w.E(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) J.B. Kriplani

(b) Rural Hospitals
(c) Rural Water Supply
(d) Rural Electrification
asy
18. Which one of the following economists proposed
the LPG model of economic development in
India?
28. ‘Bharat Nirman’ plan is associated with

development of
(a) Urban infrastructure

(a) Y.B. Reddy
En
(b) K.V. Kamath
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) None of these

(b) Rural infrastructure
(c) Information technology
(d) Bridges and roads
started in India? gin

19. In which of the following five year plans, the
high yielding varieties programme (HYVP) was
29. The concept of sustainable development relates to

(a) Consumption levels
(b) Exhaustible resources

(a) Third plan
(c) Fifth plan
ee
(b) Fourth plan
(d) Sixth plan
20. The Rolling plan of the Indian Economy was
started in which year?

(c) Intergenerational equity
(d) Social Equity
rin
30. The Rural infrastructure fund set up in 1995 – 96,
is maintained by the
(a) Reserve Bank of India

(a) 1966 – 69
(c) 1980 – 85
21. Economic planning is in
(b) 1978 – 83
(d) 2002 – 2007
g.n
(b) State Bank of India
(c) NABARD

(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Not any specified list
22. The period of plan holiday in India was

(d) Regional Rural Bank
et
31. Which of the following programmes is launched
to develop basic infrastructure in the country?
(a) Bharat Nirman Programme
(b) Technical Mission
(c) Special Economic Zones
(a) 1962 – 65 (b) 1966 – 69
(c) 1970 – 73 (d) 1973 – 76 (d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
23. The Rolling Plan for backward countries was 32. Who presides over National Development
suggested by Council?
(a) Gunnar Myrdal (b) W.A. Lewis (a) Home Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) R. Nurkse (d) A. Samuelson (c) Vice-President (d) Governor
24. National horticulture mission was launched in 33. Mahalanobis Committee was appointed on to
which of the following five year planning deal with
(a) Ninth Five Year Plan (a) Poverty eradication
(b) Tenth Five Year Plan (b) Standard of living
(c) Eleventh Five Year Plan (c) National income
(d) None of these (d) Industrial sickness

Economics|| D-15
34. Planning Commission has been replaced by 40. How many part-time members are there in Niti
which of the given institutions? Aayog?
(a) Finance Commission of India (a) 3 (b) 5
(b) Investment Commission of India (c) 6 (d) 2
(c) NITI Aayog 41. The prominent economist Bibek Debroy and V K
(d) None of these Saraswat were appointed as full time members of
35. The concept of Economic Planning in India is NITI Aayog. Who is V K Saraswat?
derived from which country? (a) Former DRDO chief
(b) Former ISRO chief
ww
(a) USA
(c) Russia
(b) UK
(d) France
36. When economic development takes place

(c) Former Finance Secretary
(d) Former Defence Minister
42. Niti Aayog comes into effect from

w.E(a) Specialisation increases
(b) Commercialisation decreases
(c) Market imperfections increase

(a) 1 April 2015
(b) 1 April 2014
(c) 1 January 2015
asy
37. In which year was the 20 point economic
programme was announced for the very first
(d) 1 January 2014
43. Who amongst the following has been appointed
as the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog?
time?
(a) 1975
En
(b) 2006

(a) Pravin Krishna
(b) Jagdish Bhagwati
(c) 1986 (d) 1982
gin
38. How many Ex-officio members can be selected
from the Union Council of Ministers to be

(c) rvind Panagariya
(d) T.N. Srinivasan
44. Who is the current CEO of Niti Aayog?
(a) 4
(c) 7
(b) 5
(d) 8
ee
nominated by the Prime Minister in Niti Aayog?
39. Who among the following is not made a special

(a) Arvind Mayaram
(b) Rajiv Meharshi.
(d) Sudha Pillairin

(c) Sindhushree Khullar

invitee to the Niti Aayog?
(a) Arun Jaitley

Aayog?
g.n
45. Who can become a part-time member of the Niti
(a) A serving IES officer

(b) Nitin Gadkari
(c) Smriti Irani
(d) Thawar Chand Gehlot

(c) A Union Minister et
(b) A serving IAS officer
(d) An expert from research institutes.

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 10. (c) 19. (a) 28. (b) 37. (a)
2. (a) 11. (a) 20. (b) 29. (c) 38. (a)
3. (d) 12. (d) 21. (c) 30. (c) 39. (a)
4. (a) 13. (a) 22. (b) 31. (a) 40. (d)
5. (b) 14. (c) 23. (a) 32. (b) 41. (a)
6. (d) 15. (a) 24. (b) 33. (c) 42. (c)
ww 7.
8.
(a)
(d)
16.
17.
(a)
(b)
25.
26.
(c)
(c)
34.
35.
(c)
(c)
43.
44.
(c)
(c)
w.E 9. (a) 18. (c) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (d)
Hints & Solutions

asy
1.
En
(c) The slogan of ‘poverty abolition’ was given
by Indira Gandhi in 1971 and it was implemented
during the Fifth Five Year Plan 1974–79. Gandhi
5. (b) The Human Development Index (HDI) is a
composite statistic of life expectancy, education,
and income used to rank states. Among the given
gin
promised to reduce poverty by targeting the
consumption levels of the poor and enact wide
states Kerala was having the highest Human
Development Index around 0.92 in the year 2012
for achieving highest literacy rate, quality health
ranging social and economic reforms.
ee
2. (a) Permanent Account Number (PAN)card is
unique alphanumeric combination. It is issued by
the Indian Income Tax Department. It serves as an
important ID proof, date of birth proof and proof of
6.
services and consumption expenditure of people.
(d) Bharat Nirman is a business plan for creating
rin
basic rural infrastructure. It comprises projects
on irrigation, roads (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
tax payer. However it can’t be used for the purpose
of address proof. g.n
Yojana), housing (Indira Awaas Yojana), water
supply (National Rural Drinking Water Programme),
electrification (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
3. (d) The planned economy is based on mixed
economy system. The concept of mixed economy
evolved from the ideas of Keynes. The concept of
Mixed Economy means that both private enterprises
and public enterprise coexist. However the condition
7. et
Yojana) and telecommunication connectivity. It
does not include Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
(a) Sustainable development is that development
that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to
attached is that the private enterprises must work meet their own needs. Sustainable development is
for serving the society rather than having only self a case of inter-generational sensibility in respect of
interest. Further the private enterprises may not be use of natural resources.
allowed in every sector of the economy like area of 8. (d) In the year 2006 – 07, the Indian economy has
national importance. witnessed highest growth rate in GDP. The economy
4. (a) Golden Quadrangle project is associated grew by 7.7 %.
with the development of Highways. The Golden 9. (a) M. Vishveswaraiyya wrote the book ‘Planned
Quadrilateral is a highway network connecting Economy for India’. Sir Mokshagundam
many of the major industrial, agricultural and Vishveshwariah was a notable Indian engineer,
scholar, statesman and the Diwan of Mysore during
cultural centres of India. A quadrilateral of sorts is
1912 to 1918. He was a recipient of the Indian
formed by connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and
Republic’s highest honour, the Bharat Ratna, in
Chennai, and hence its name.
1955.

Economics|| D-17
10. (c) The Bombay Plan is the name commonly given 17. (b) After India gained independence, a formal
to a set of proposals for the development of the model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the
post-independence economy of India. The plan was Planning Commission was established on 15 March
published in 1944 by eight leading industrialists 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the
Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy Tata, Ghanshyam Das Chairman.
Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, 18. (c) The economy of India had undergone
Ardeshir Darabshaw Shroff, Sir Purshottamdas significant policy shifts in the beginning of the
Thakurdas and John Mathai. It proposed state 1990s. This new model of economic reforms is
intervention in the economic development of the commonly known as the LPG or Liberalization,
ww nation after independence.

11. (a) After India gained independence, a formal
model of planning was adopted, and the Planning
Commission, was established on 15 March 1950,
Privatization and Globalization model. LPG model
of economic development in India was proposed
by Dr. Manmohan Singh, economist and finance
w.Ewith Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the

chairman.
12. (d) Charan Singh wrote the book named, “Indian
minister at that time.
19. (a) The main objective of the third Five Year
Plan was to make economy self-dependent. The
third Five-Year Plan stressed on agriculture and
asy
Economy: Gandhian Blue Print”. He was the fifth
Prime Minister of India, serving from 1979 until
1980.
improvement in the production of wheat so as to
be self sufficient. Thus during the planned period
the high yielding varieties programme (HYVP) was
En
13. (a) Under the Third Five Year Plan, the
government introduce an agricultural strategy
which gave rise to green revolution in India. Under
started in India to increase the yield of crops.
20. (b) The Rolling plan concept in National planning
gin
the Third Plan the goal was to establish self reliance
and self generating economy. But the earlier plans
was introduced by the Janata Party government.
Fifth FYP was launched and planned for period
1974–79 but Janata government came in power in
ee
had shown that the agricultural production was the
limiting factor so agriculture was given top priority.
14. (c) The Rolling plan concept in National planning
was introduced by the Janata Party government.
Fifth FYP was launched and planned for period
1978 and ended the plan prematurely in 1978. The
Janata government launched sixth FYP for period
rin
1978–1983. Congress government when came
in power in 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and
1974–79 but Janata government came in power in
1978 and ended the plan prematurely in 1978. The
Janata government launched sixth FYP for period g.n
launched a new sixth FYP for period 1980–1985.
The plan for period, 1978–80, is called the rolling
plan.
1978–1983. Congress government when came
in power in 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and
launched a new sixth FYP for period 1980–1985.
The plan for period, 1978–80, is called the rolling
et
21. (c) The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of
47 items given in Part XI of the Constitution of
India, concerned with relations between the Union
and States. Economic planning is specified in
Concurrent list.
plan.
15. (a) The major emphasis on the First Five Year 22. (b) Despite big investments during the first three
plan was the agriculture sector. At the time of first Plans, the living standards of the poor could not be
plan (1951–56), India faced severe food shortage raised and poverty and inequity in distribution of
and inflation. Accordingly the first plan emphasized state resources remained stark. Consequently, the
on rapid agricultural development so as to achieve period between 1966 and 1969 marked the shift from
food self sufficiency and control inflation. a ‘growth approach’ to a ‘distribution from growth
16. (a) The Third Five-Year Plan is also called “Gadgil approach’. Looking at the failures and pitfalls the
Yojana”. The aim of this plan was to make the planners suspended the impending Fourth Plan,
economy independent and to reach self active take which was due in 1966, until 1969 for a revision
off position. It was named after the then deputy of objectives and targets. This came to be called as
chairman of the Planning Commission Dr. D R the ‘Plan Holiday’ extending from 1 April 1966 to
Gadgil. 31 March 1969.


23. (a) The Rolling Plan for backward countries was by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
suggested by Gunnar Myrdal. He was a Swedish Development (NABARD). Domestic commercial
Nobel Laureate, economist, sociologist, and banks contribute to the fund to the extent of their
politician. shortfall in stipulated priority sector lending to
24. (b) National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is agriculture.
an Indian horticulture scheme promoted by 31. (a) Bharat Nirman programme is launched to
Government of India. It was launched under the 10th develop basic infrastructure in the country.
Five-Year Plan in the year 2005–06. The NHM’s 32. (b) The National Development Council (NDC) or
key objective is to develop horticulture to the the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for
ww maximum potential and to augment production of

all horticultural products (fruits, vegetables, flowers,
plantation crops, spices, medicinal aromatic plants).
decision making and deliberations on development
matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister.
It was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and
w.E
25. (c) The service sector experienced the fastest
expansion during the plan in India which was
predominantly an agricultural economy at the time
of independence. It includes: telecommunication,
mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in
support of the Plan, to promote common economic
policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the
balanced and rapid development of all parts of the
asy
hospitality industry/tourism, mass media,
healthcare/hospitals, information technology,
banking, insurance, investment management,
country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister,
the Union Cabinet Ministers,Chief Ministers of all
States or their substitutes, representatives of the
En
accountancy, legal services, consulting, retail
sales, real estate, education. currently maximum
Union Territories and the members of the Planning
Commission.
gin
contribution to national income comes from
service sector which contributes around 60%.
26. (c) The provision behind the establishment of
33. (c) Mahalanobis committee is known as “
Distribution of Income and Levels of Living” and it
was set up in 1960 to find an answer to the question
ee
Planning Commission in 1950 was an executive
order.
27. (b) Rural hospitals are not covered under the
‘Bharat Nirman’. Bharat Nirman is an Indian
that who was benefitted by the first and second five
year plans, as there was no substantial increase in
rin
the per capita income of the people.
34. (c) Planning Commission has been replaced by an
business plan for creating basic rural infrastructure.
It comprises projects on irrigation, roads (Pradhan
Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana), housing (Indira g.n
Institution named NITI Aayog. In 2014, the Central
Government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
decided to wind down up the Planning Commission.
Awaas Yojana), water supply (National Rural
Drinking Water Programme), electrification
(Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana) and
telecommunication connectivity.
28. (b) Bharat Nirman plan is associated with the
the times. et
It was proposed to replace it with a more dynamic
organisation that is more popular and connected to
35. (c) Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the

Soviet Union in the late 1920s. Most communist
development of rural infrastructure like roads, states and several capitalist countries like India
irrigation, housing, water supply, telecommunication subsequently have adopted them.
and electrification. 36. (a) When economic development takes place,
29. (c) Sustainable development is the development specialisation increases. Economic development
that meets the needs of the present without typically involves improvements in a variety of
compromising the ability of future generations to indicators such as literacy rates, life expectancy,
meet their own needs. Sustainable development is a and poverty rates. GDP does not take into account
case of intergenerational equity in respect of use of other aspects such as leisure time, environmental
natural resources. quality, freedom, or social justice; alternative
30. (c) The rural infrastructure fund was set up by the measures of economic well-being have been
Government in 1995–96 for financing ongoing rural proposed. Essentially, a country’s economic
Infrastructure projects. The Fund is maintained development is related to its human development,

Economics|| D-19
which encompasses, among other things, health 41. (a) Vijay Kumar Saraswat is an Indian scientist
and education. These factors are, however, closely who formerly served as the Director General of the
related to economic growth so that development and Defence Research and Development Organisation
growth often go together. (DRDO) and the Chief Scientific Advisor to the
37. (a) The Twenty Point Programme was initially Indian Minister of Defence.[2] He retired on 31
launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975 May 2013. Saraswat is the key scientist in the
and was subsequently restructured in 1982 and again
development of the Prithvi missile and its induction
on 1986. With the introduction of new policies and
in the Indian armed forces. He is a recipient of the
programmes it has been finally restructured in 2006
Padma Shri from the Government of India.
ww and it has been in operation at present. The basic

objective of the 20-Point Programme is to eradicate
poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor
42. (c) Union Government of India had announced
formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.
w.E
38.
and the under privileged population of the country.
(a) Maximum of four members of the Union
Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime
Minister to the Niti Aayog.
43. (c) Arvind Panagariya is an eminent free market
economist and has been an Economics professor
at Columbia University in New York. He, as vice
chairman, would have a pivotal role in coordinating
39.
asy
(a) Roads and National Highway Minister Nitin
Gadkari, Human Resource Development Minister
Smriti Irani and Social Justice and Empowerment
economic strategy and hold cabinet rank.
44. (c) CEO is appointed by the Prime Minister
invitees to the Niti Aayog. En

Minister Thawar Chand Gehlot were made special
for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to
the Government of India. Sindhushree Khullar
appointed as the Chief Executive Officer.
40.
gin
(d) Maximum of two from leading universities
research organizations and other relevant institutions
in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members will be
45. (d) Tech experts from research institutes are
entitled to become part time member of the Niti
on a rotational basis.
ee Aayog. Currently none is declared. It is a rotational
post.
rin
g.n
et

3 Agriculture in
Indian Economy
ww
1. First Agricultural University in India was 7. Which one of the following agencies assigns the
w.E
established in
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Kanpur
(c) Kumarganj, Faizabad

Agricultural Income Tax to states in India?
(a) Inter – State council
(b) National Development Council
(c) Agriculture Finance Corporation
(d) Pant Nagar
asy
2. Which one of the following agencies is not
included in the operation of the Kisan Credit
(d) Finance commission
8. Which one of the following agencies of Indian

Cards?
(a) Co-operative Banks En Government implements the price support
scheme (PSS)?
(a) FCI

(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(d) NABARD
gin (b) NAFED
(c) Agriculture pricing agency of India
3. Green Revolution in India started from
(a) Kanpur
(c) Bengaluru
(b) Delhi
(d) Punjab
ee
4. Which one of the following is the objective of

9. Who is known as the father of “White Revolution”
in India?
rin
(a) M.S Swaminathan

the National Watershed Development project for
rainfed areas of India?
(a) Sustainable farming systems

(b) B.P Pal
(c) K.N Bhal
(d) V. Kurien g.n

(b) Integrated Watershed Management
(c) Reclamation of Forest Area
(d) Both (a) and (b)
5. Which one among the following Agricultural
Economy?
(a) Fishing
et
10. Which one of the following is not included in
the Agriculture and Allied Services of Indian
(b) Forestry
sectors is covered under the Market Intervention (c) Logging (d) Food Processing
scheme (MIS) of the Indian Government? 11. In which five year plan in Indian Economy, the
(a) Forestry (b) Irrigation targets for the crop function were not fixed for the
(c) Horticulture (d) Animal Husbandry first time-
6. The price at which the Government purchase (a) Seventh five year plan
foodgrains for maintaining the public distribution (b) Eighth five year plan
system and for building up buffer stocks are (c) Ninth five year plan
known as (d) Tenth five year plan
(a) Minimum support prices 12. The percentage of the agricultural land is very
(b) Procurement prices high in all the following except –
(c) Issue prices (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab
(d) Coiling prices (c) Haryana (d) Sikkim

Economics || D-21
13. The Green Revolution in India has contributed to 22. National Seed Policy, 2002 is based on the
(a) inter-regional inequality recommendation of
(b) inter-class inequality (a) Kelkar Committee
(c) inter-crop inequality (b) M.V Rao Committee
(d) all of the above (c) Y.V Reddy Committee
14. The importance of agriculture in Indian Economy (d) Abhijit Sen Committee
is indicated by its contribution to which of the 23. Swaroop committee is associated with
following? (a) financial products marketing
(a) National income and employment
ww

(b) Industrial development and international
trade
(c) Supply of foodgrains
(b) Sugar marketing
(c) Banking
(d) Capital marketing

w.E(d) All of the above
15. When was the Kisan Credit Card schemes for the
farmers started in India?
24. When was the National Food Security Mission

(NFSM) launched in India?
(a) Rabi Season (1999–2000)
(a) 1995–1996
(c) 2005–2006 asy
(b) 1998–1999
(d) 2007–2008
16. Which one of the following apex co-operative

(b) Kharif Season (1999–2000)
(c) Rabi Season (2007–2008)
(d) Kharif Season (2007–2008)
(a) TRIFED En
organisation is at the national level of India?
(b) NAFED
25. The Blue Revolution is related with
(a) Fish production
(c) FCS (d) RRBs
gin
17. Which one of the following Co-Operative

(b) Food grain production
(c) Oilseed production
(d) Milk production

fertilizers?
(a) NAFED
(c) NCDC
(b) IFFCO
(d) TRI FED
ee
societies is responsible for the production of
18. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute

26. Which of the following has not been a component

of the agriculture strategy that brought about the
Green Revolution ?
rin
(a) Greater intensity of cropping
located?
(a) Kanpur (b) Bengaluru

g.n
(b) Guaranteed maximum prices
(c) New agricultural technology
(c) Coimbatore (d) Cuttack
19. Which one of the following states is the first state

to impose Agriculture Income Tax in India?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Package of inputs
et
27. The term Green Revolution has been used to
indicate higher production through
(a) Creation of grasslands
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar (b) Planting more trees
20. The impact of the Green Revolution was felt (c) Creation of gardens in urban areas
most in the production of (d) Enhanced agricultural productivity per
(a) rice (b) pulses hectare
(c) oilseeds (d) wheat 28. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was
21. Which one of the following five year plans has legislated in
the highest GDP growth rate in Agriculture sector (a) 1974 (b) 1976
in India ? (c) 1977 (d) 1978
(a) Sixth Five Year Plan 29. In which of the following years was the Food
(b) Seventh Five Year Plan Corporation of India (FCI) set up ?
(c) Eighth Five Year Plan (a) 1955 (b) 1960
(d) Ninth Five Year Plan (c) 1965 (d) 1970

D-22 || Agriculture in Indian Economy

30. National Agriculture Insurance Scheme replacing 40. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
comprehensive crop Insurance scheme was (a) land surplus, labour scare economy
introduced in the year (b) land surplus, labour surplus economy
(a) 1997 (b) 1998 (c) land scare, labour surplus economy
(c) 1999 (d) 2000 (d) land scare, labour scare economy
31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna was launched in the 41. NABARD was established in the
year? (a) Fourth Five Year Plan
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) 2006 (d) 2007 (c) Sixth Five Year Plan
ww
32. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture”.

The statement is attributed to
(a) Jagjivan Ram (b) J.L. Nehru

42.
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
In India, which of the following has the highest
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture

w.E(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sardar Patel
33. Where is the Indian Institute of Sugarcane
Research Institute situated?

and allied activities?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Co-operative Banks
(a) New Delhi
(c) Kanpur
asy
(b) Varanasi
(d) Lucknow
34. Where is the Central Food Technological

43.
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
Which of the following is the chief characteristic
(a) Bangaluru
En
Research Institute (CFTRI) situated ?
(b) Karnal
of ‘mixed farming’ ?
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food
(c) Mysore
gin
(d) Lucknow
35. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself
in which of the following fields?

crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
field
(a) Nuclear Physics (b) Agriculture
(c) Astrophysics (d) Medicine
ee
36. The head office of the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

44.
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation together
rin
An objective of the National Food Security
Mission is to increase the production of certain

located in
(a) Lucknow
(c) New Delhi
(b) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai

crops which are
g.n
(a) Rice and wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
37. Which is not a source of agriculture finance in

India?
(a) Co-operative societies
(b) Commercial Banks

45.
et
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
The ‘Swiss Formula’ of World Trade Organisation
is related with?
(c) Regional Rural Banks (a) Patent of drugs
(d) None of these (b) Agricultural subsidy
38. Agriculture sector directly employs one of the (c) Trans-boundary services
following percentages of labour force in India (d) Non-agricultural tariff
(a) 20% (b) 30% 46. The minimum support priceand procurement
(c) 40% (d) 52% prices for agriculture products are fixed by the
39. Which one of the following methods of soil government on the recommendations of
conservation is most effective in arid areas? (a) Competition Commission of India
(a) Mulching (b) National Development Council
(b) Shelter belt (c) Planning Commission
(c) Gully plugging (d) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
(d) Terracing Prices (CACP)

Economics || D-23
47. Disguised unemployment in India exists in 57. Pink revolution is related to

(a) Transport sector (b) Agricultural sector (a) Shrimp (b) Oil seeds
(c) Banking (d) Service sector (c) Milk (d) Wool
48. Intensive Agriculture District Programme (IADP) 58. Gray Revolution belongs to
was started in (a) Fish (b) Milk
(a) 1959-60 (b) 1960-61 (c) Oil seeds (d) Wool
(c) 1961-62 (d) 1962-63 59. The National Mission for Saffron has been
49. In which five year plan was NABARD was launched as a sub scheme of which among the
established?
ww
(a) First
(c) Sixth
(b) Fifth
(d) Eighth
50. Yellow Revolution refers to the production of

following programmes?
(a) National Food Security Mission
(b) National Horticulture Mission

w.E (a) wool
(c) shrimp
(b) fish
(d) Oil seeds
51. During which of the following years, average

(c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(d) National Cash Crop Programme
60. Which of the following state is in first place in
producing the food grains?

allied sectors negative?
(a) 2002-03
asy
growth/rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and
(b) 2003-04

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
(c) 2005-06
En
(d) 2006-07
52. Which sector is the backbone of Indian economy?
61. The minimum support price for the common
variety of paddy announced by the government

gin
(a) Service Sector (b) Financial Sector
(c) Tourism Sector (d) Agriculture Sector
(a)
(c)
of India for the year 2012-2013 is
` 1030
` 1250
(b) ` 1000
(d) ` 950
53. When was NFSM launched?

(a) Mid of 9th Five-Year Plan
(b) End of 10th Five-Year Plan
(c) Mid of 11th Five-Year Plan
(d) End of 11th Five-Year Plan
ee 62. National Horticulture Mission started in
(a) 2003-04
(c) 2006-07
rin
(b) 2005-06
(d) 2008-09
63. To address the problem of sustainable and
54. Among the items of export of agricultural and
allied products from India during the year 2005- g.n
holistic development of rainfed areas, including
appropriate farming and livelihood system
approaches, the government of India has set up

06, which one of the following was the highest in
the value?
(a) Tea
(c) Rice
(b) Coffee
(d) Marine products

the
et
(a) National Rainfed Area Authority
(b) National Watershed Development Project
for Rainfed Areas
55. Who announced the introduction of National
Food Security Act? (c) National Mission on Rainfed Areas
(a) Pranab Mukherjee (d) Command Area Development and Water
(b) Manmohan Singh Management Authority
(c) P. Chidambaram 64. Which is not a Kharif Crop ?
(d) Arun Jaitley (a) Jowar (b) Maize
56. Green Revolution in India has been most (c) Groundnut (d) Wheat
successful in case of 65. Which of the following state is/are included
(a) Wheat and Rice under the Oil Palm Development Programme
(b) Wheat and Potatoes under ISOPOM ?
(c) Mustard and Oilseeds (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat
(d) Tea and Coffee (c) Tripura (d) All of the above


66. Which of the following is an area of focus under (c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
RKVY? Prices
(a) Agriculture mechanization (d) NABARD
(b) Support to state seed farms 69. When were Kisan Call Centres established?
(c) Encouraging non-farm activities (a) July 2000
(d) All the above (b) March 2002
67. Who announced the launch of Rashtriya Krishi (c) March 2004
Vikas Yojana? (d) January 2004
(a) Narendra Modi 70. Which of the following is the largest fertiliser
ww

(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) I.K.Gujral

producer in India?
(a) Coromande International Ltd.
(b) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Corporation

w.E
68. Who recommends the MSP and issue prices?
(a) Ministry of agriculture
(b) Planning commission

Limited
(c) Gujarat State Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd.
(d) Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Ltd.
asy
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

Economics || D-25
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (d) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (c)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (a) 52. (d) 62. (b)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (d) 63. (a)
4. (d) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (d)
5. (c) 15. (b) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (a) 65. (d)
6. (b) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (d) 46. (d) 56. (a) 66. (d)
ww 7.
8.
(d)
(b)
17.
18.
(b)
(d)
27.
28.
(d)
(b)
37.
38.
(d)
(d)
47.
48.
(b)
(b)
57.
58.
(a)
(d)
67.
68.
(b)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(d)
(d)
19.
20.
(d)
(d)
29.
30.
(c)
(c)
39.
40.
(b)
(c)
49.
50.
(c)
(d)
59.
60.
(c)
(a)
69.
70.
(d)
(b)
aHints
syE& Solutions
ngi
1. (d) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture and
Technology (GBPUA&T, Pant Nagar,Uttara Khand)
is the first agricultural university of India. It was
Watershed Development project for rainfed areas
of India. The scheme of National Watershed
Development Project for Rainfed Areas(NWDPRA)
1960.
nee
inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 17 November
2. (d) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide

was launched in 1990–91 in 25 States and 2
Union Territories based on twin concepts of
integrated watershed management and sustainable
affordable credit for farmers. It was started by
the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India rin
farming systems. Its objective are conservation,
development and sustainable management of natural
(RBI), and National Bank for Agricultural and
Rural Development (NABARD) in 1998–99 to
help farmers access timely and adequate credit. g.n
resources, enhancement of agricultural production
in a sustainable manner, restoration of ecological
balance and creation of sustained employment
The credit is available to farmers in most of the
banks like commercial banks cooperative banks
and regional rural banks. However in day to day
operations NABARD is not included.
5. et
opportunities for the rural community.
(c) The Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)is an
adhoc scheme under which horticultural
commodities and other agricultural commodities
3. (d) India’s program of Green Revolution was led falls which are perishable in nature and are not
by Dr. Dilbagh S. Athwal at Punjab Agriculture covered under the minimum price support scheme.
University. The introduction of high-yielding 6. (b) The price at which the Government purchases
varieties of seeds and the increased use of chemical foodgrains for maintaining the public distribution
fertilizers and irrigation led to the increase in system and for building up buffer stocks are known
production needed to make India self-sufficient in as procurement prices.
food grains, thus improving agriculture in India. 7. (d) Agricultural income tax to states in India is
The methods adopted included the use of high assigned by the Constitution of India. The agency
yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds along with the responsible for it is Finance Commission whose
use of modern farming methods. function is distribution of net proceeds of taxes
4. (d) Sustainable farming system and Integrated between Centre and the States, to be divided as per
watershed systems are the objective of the National their respective contributions to the taxes.


8. (b) In Order to help the farmers in getting Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and National Bank for
remunerative prices for their produce with a view to Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) in
encourage higher investment and as also to increase 1998–99 to help farmers access timely and adequate
production and productivity of a commodity, the credit.
government declares Minimum Support Price 16. (b) The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development
(MSPs) for 25 notified agricultural commodities Federation of India Limited (TRIFED) started
for each Kharif & Rabi crop season. National functioning in 1988 under the Administrative
Agricultural cooperative Marketing Federation of control of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of
India Ltd (NAFED) is one of the Central Nodal India. FCS is food and supplies department. RRB
ww Agencies which implements PSS.

9. (d) Dr. V. Kurien is known as the father of ‘White
Revolution’ in India. Verghese Kurien was a
is regional rural bank . All the above three are not
apex bodies at national level. However National
Agricultural cooperative Marketing Federation of
w.Erenowned Indian social entrepreneur and is best

known as the “Father of the White Revolution”,
for his ‘billion-litre idea’ (Operation Flood) —
India Ltd. (NAFED) is one of the Central Nodal
Agencies which implements PSS.
17. (b) Indian Farmer Fertilizer cooperative Ltd
asy
the world’s biggest agricultural development
programme. The operation took India from being a
milk-deficient nation, to the largest milk producer in
(IFFCO) is the co-operative society responsible
for the production of fertilizers. Indian Farmers
Fertiliser Co-operative Limited (IFFCO) was
En
the world.He was also the founder of AMUL.
10. (d) Agriculture (crops) and allied sectors are like
registered on November 3, 1967 as a Multi-unit
Co-operative Society.
gin
forestry, logging and fishing. Food processing is not
included in the Agriculture and allied services of
18. (d) The Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI)
was set up on 23 April, 1946 at Bidhyadharpur,
Cuttack, Odisha to research on all aspect of rice
Indian Economy.
ee
12. (d) The percentage of the agricultural land is
very high in all the given states except Sikkim.
Approximately it is Haryana 4402000 (hectare),
Punjab (5033000 Hectares) UP (29767000 Hectares)
crop. CRRI was set up as a result of Great Bengal
Famine of 1943 and devastating epiphytotic brown
shortage of rice. rin

spot disease of rice in 1942 which resulted in
and Sikkim 710000 Hectares

13. (d) The Green Revolution in India has contributed g.n
19. (d) Bihar is the first state to impose agricultural
income tax in India. Agricultural income tax is
levied on the income from Agriculture. At present
to inter-regional, inter-class and inter-crop inequality
as certain regions like UP and Punjab which used
HYVs much better than others have become more
advanced than others. Similarly certain classes
et
agriculture is subjected to two direct taxes and they
are Agricultural Income tax and Land Tax. They are
levied by the state governments. Bihar was the first
state in India to levy a tax on agricultural income in
which were rich like big landlords could purchase 1938.
HYV and thus have grown more rich. Similarly 20. (d) The introduction of high-yielding varieties of
certain crops like wheat have done better than others seeds and the increased use of chemical fertilizers
creating inequality. and irrigation are known collectively as the Green
14. (d) The importance of agriculture in Indian Revolution. The impact of the Green Revolution
Economy is indicated by its contribution to national was felt most in the production of wheat. India saw
income, industrial development and supply of annual wheat production rise from 10 million tons
foodgrains. It contributes around 13.7% to GDP, in the 1960s to 73 million in 2006.
supplies raw material for development of industries 21. (c) The growth performance of the agriculture
along with supplying food grains for livelihood. sector has been fluctuating across the plan periods .
15. (b) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide It witnessed a growth rate of 4.8 per cent during the
affordable credit for farmers. It was started by the Eighth plan period (1992–97).

Economics || D-27
22. (b) National seed policy is based on the farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout
recommendation of M.V. Rao committee in 2002. the country for public distribution system and
The Policy is meant to “strengthen the seed industry’’ maintaining satisfactory level of operational and
in view of the liberalisation in the farm sector under buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure National Food
the World Trade Organisation. The policy seeks to Security.
provide intellectual property protection to stimulate 30. (c) In the year 1999, the National Agriculture
investment in research and development of new Insurance Scheme was introduced by replacing
plant varieties. comprehensive crop Insurance Scheme. NAIS
23. (a) The Committee on Investor Awareness and covers all food crops (cereals and pulses), oilseeds,
ww Protection chaired by Shri D Swaroop, Chairman,

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority is associated with the financial products
horticultural and commercial crops. It covers all
farmers, both loanees and non-loanees, under the
scheme.
w.Emarketing.
24. (c) The National Development Council (NDC)
on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch
a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat
31. (d) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in
August 2007 as a part of the 11th Five Year Plan by
the Government of India. Launched under the aegis
of the National Development Council, it seeks to
asy
and pulses to increase the production of rice by 10
million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses
by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan
achieve 4% annual growth in agriculture through
development of Agriculture and its allied sectors
during the period under the 11th Five Year Plan
En
(2011–12). Accordingly, a centrally sponsored
Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’, had 32.
(2007–11).
(b) The statement, “Everything else can wait, but
gin
been launched from the rabi season 2007–08 to
operationalize the above mentioned resolution.
25. (a) The Blue Revolution is similar to the green
not agriculture” is attributed to J.L. Nehru. Nehru
mentioned these words after independence . He said
this in the context of the Bengal Famine of 1942–43
ee
revolution as it deals with aquaculture, fish and
water preservation for human use.
26. (b) Guranteed maximum prices have not been a
component of the agriculture strategy that brought
33.
and the acute food scarcity prevailing in the country
in 1947.
rin
(d) The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research
(acronym IISR) is an autonomous institute of higher
about the Green Revolution. The strategy aimed
at increasing the yield of crops using fertilizer,
pesticides and high yielding varities in agriculture. g.n
learning, established under the umbrella of Indian
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) by the
Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India for
27. (d) The term ‘Green Revolution’ has been used
to indicate higher production through enhanced
agricultural productivity per hectare.
28. (b) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 34.
et
advanced research in sugar cane agriculture. The
institute is located on Raibareli Road, Dilkusha in
Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India.
(c) The Central Food Technological Research
Institute (CFTRI) is situated in Mysore. It is a
1976 was enacted to provide for the abolition
of bonded labour system with a view to prevent constituent laboratory of Council of Scientific and
the economic and physical exploitation of the Industrial Research, New Delhi and came into
weaker sections of the society. It freed all the existence during 1950.
bonded labourers from bondage with simultaneous 35. (b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished
liquidation of their debts. It made the practice of himself in agriculture field. M.S. Swaminathan is
bondage a cognisable offence punishable by law. known as the “Father of the Green Revolution in
The Act is being administered and implemented by India”. The methods adopted included the use of
the Ministry of Labour and the State governments high yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds.
concerned. 36. (d) The head office of the National Bank for
29. (c) The Food corporation of India (FCI) was set Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is
up in 1965. Its objectives are effective price support located in Mumbai. It helps farmers access timely
operations for safeguarding the interests of the and adequate credit.


37. (d) Co-operative societies, Commercial Bank 46. (d) The Commission for Agricultural Costs &
sand Regional Rural Bank are source of agriculture Prices (CACP) came into existence in January 1965.
finance in India. They provide finance under Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market
various schemes run by central government and intervention by the Government of India to insure
state governments to purchase seeds, implements, agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm
fertilizer, pesticides etc. prices. The minimum support prices are announced
38. (d) Agriculture, diary, horticulture and related by the Government of India at the beginning of
occupations alone employ 52 percent of labour in the sowing season for certain crops on the basis
India.
of the recommendations of the Commission for
ww
39. (b) The shelter belt method of soil conservation is
most effective in arid areas. A shelterbelt is a barrier
of trees or shrubs. The term “field shelterbelt” is
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
47. (b) Disguised unemployment in India exists in
agricultural sector.
w.Eused to distinguish between rows of trees or shrubs

on agricultural fields from those planted in other
ways: around farmyards or livestock facilities
(farmstead shelterbelts). It controls soil erosion and
48. (b) The Intensive Agriculture District Programme
(IADP) was launched as the first major experiment
in intensive agriculture development in the year
in such regions. asy

traps the moisture which is necessary to grow crop 1960. Intensive Agriculture Development program
(IADP) was the first major experiment of Indian
government in the field of agriculture and it was also
En
40. (c) Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
land scare, labour surplus economy. India has high
man/land ratio. There is a large number of unskilled
known as a “package programme” as it was based
upon the package approach. The core philosophy
gin
labour but there is absence of land or capital.
41. (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) is an apex development
was to provide loan for seeds and fertilizers to
farmers.
ee
bank in India having headquarters based in Mumbai.
It was established on 12 July, 1982 in sixth five year
plan by a special act by the parliament and its main
focus was to uplift rural India by increasing the
49. (c) NABARD was established in Sixth Five Year
Plan.
oil seeds.
rin
50. (d) Yellow revolution refers to the production of
52. (d) Agriculture is the pillar of the Indian economy

credit flow for elevation of agriculture & rural non
farm sector.
42. (a) In India, commercial banks have the highest
livelihood creation. g.n
because of its high share in employment and
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture

and allied activities. The commercial banks disburse
around 60% credit followed by cooperative banks
around 30% and RRB and others.
et
53. (d) The Ministry of Agriculture has launched
NFSM by the end of 11th Five-Year Plan (2007-08-
2011-12) with an allocation of Rs. 4882.5 crore to
increase the production of rice, wheat and pulses by
43. (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation together is 10, 8 and 2 million tonnes, respectively.
the chief characteristic of mixed farming. 55. (a) On July 6, 2009, Finance Minister Mr. Pranab
44. (b) ‘National Food Security Mission’, had been Mukherjee announced the introduction of National
launched from the rabi season 2007–08 to increase Food Security Act under which BPL families in
the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by rural and urban areas will be entitled by law to 25
8 million tons pulse by 2 million tons decided by kg. of wheat or rice per month at ` 3 per kg.
National Development Council. 59. (c) Three new sub-schemes have been introduced
45. (a) In the on-going multilateral trade negotiations under RKVY from 2010-11, first on extending
at the World Trade Organisation (WTO), it has been green revolution to Eastern Region of the country
decided by all 149 participating countries to use – covering States of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
the Swiss formula for reducing import tariffs on Orissa, Eastern UP and West Bengal. Second sub-
industrial goods. scheme is special initiative for Pulses and Oilseeds

Economics || D-29
in Dryland Areas during 2010- 11, with an allocation Vikas Yojana at the 53rd meeting of NDC with a
of ` 300 crore in current year. Third sub-scheme is Central allocation of ` 25,000 crore to increase the
National Mission for Saffron-Economic Revival of share of investment in agriculture in their state plans
J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of ` 39.43 crore so as to hike agriculture and allied sector’s growth
for current year. from the existing 2% to 4%. 7,810.87 crore was the
62. (b) A National Horticulture Mission was launched allocation under RKVY for the year 2011-12.
in 2005-06 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to 68. (c) CACP was set up in 1985 and recommends for
promote holistic growth of the horticulture sector MSP, issue prices as well as procurement prices.
through an area based regionally differentiated 69. (d) On January 21, 2004 the Department of
ww strategies. The scheme has been subsumed as a

part of Mission for Integration Development of
Horticulture (MIDH) during 2014-15.
Agriculture & Cooperation (DAC), Ministry of
Agriculture, Govt. of India established Kisan Call
Centers across the country to deliver extension
w.E
65.
66.
(d) It is implemented in other states like Karnataka,
Goa, Kerala, Assam and Mizoram.
(d) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was
launched in 2007-08.
services to the farming community. The aim is to
respond in the local language to the problems faced
by farmers.
70. (b) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Co-operative Limited
67.
asy
(b) The former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh announced the launch of Rashtriya Krishi
(IFFCO) was registered on November 3, 1967 as a
Multi-unit Co-operative Society.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

4 Indian Industry
ww
1. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) (c) Finance Commission

w.E
was finally implemented in the year
(a) 1991
(c) 2002
(b) 1997
(d) 2007

9.
(d) Finance Ministry
Which of the following is not a part of World
Bank?
(a) TRAI asy

2. Which of the following regulatory bodies
completed 25 years of its establishment in 2013?
(b) SEBI

10.
(a) IMF
(c) MIGA
(b) IBRD
(d) IDA
Where is the headquarter of World Bank located?
(c) IRDA (d) FMC
En
3. Who among the following is in function as a

(a) Geneva
(c) New York
(b) Rome
(d) Washington D.C.

(a) Vinod Rai
(b) Raghuram G. Rajan gin
Comptroller and Auditor General of India? 11.

‘Udyog Bandhu’ is a/an ?
(a) labour supplying agency
(b) sick industry rehabilitation agency

(c) Shashikant Sharma
(d) Ashok Lahiri
ee
4. Government of India decided to celebrate the
year 2013 as

(c) Organisation to assist industrial units in
solving time bound establishment and
rin
related problems
(d) agency for financing industrial development

(a) Environment conservation year
(b) Water conservation year
(c) Energy conservation year
12.
g.n
In which city the meeting of World Economic
Forum (WEF) India – 2013 in Nov. 2013 was

(d) Wildlife conservation year
5. Indian origin Indira Nooyi associated with the
company
(a) Coca Cola (b) Pepsi co.

13.
held?
(a) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru et
(b) Mumbai
(d) Kochi
In June 2013 the CRR of Bank in the country was
(c) Microsoft (d) Infosys (a) 4% (b) 8%
6. SDR called as paper gold is associated with (c) 12% (d) 16%
(a) IMF (b) World Bank 14. In which city the third film festival of SAARC
(c) WTO (d) UNCTAD countries was held in May 2013?
7. ‘World Investment Report’ is the annual report (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
published by the International institution (c) Islamabad (d) Colombo
(a) World Bank (b) IMF 15. Which of the following is related to the EPCG
(c) WTO (d) UNCTAD scheme of central government ?
8. In India ‘Report on Currency and Finance’ is the (a) Foreign Investment
annual publication of (b) Foreign Trade
(a) SEBI (c) Communication
(b) RBI (d) Banking

Economics || D-31
16. Who among the following is elected as a 26. The Planning Commission fixed the baseline of
chairman of IBA consecutively for second term poverty per capita per month in city areas to
in June 2013? (a) ` 550 (b) ` 780
(a) K.R. Kamath (b) G. Srinivasan (c) ` 830 (d) ` 1000
(c) Alok Mishra (d) R.M. Mallya 27. In which state of India is the maximum poverty
17. Anna International Airport is situated in which ratio calculated by the Planning Commission?
city?
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha
(a) Coimbatore (b) Kochi
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
(c) Chennai (d) Thiruvananthapuram
ww
18. How many seats of deputy governor are there in

Reserve Bank of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
28. According to the data studied by Planning
commission in 2011–12, how much the
population of India falls under the poverty line?

w.E(c) 3 only (d) 4 only
19. Who is the chairman of 14th Finance Commission
of India?
(a) 14.2%
(c) 31.2%
29. What is CRISIL ?
(b) 21.9%
(d) 34.2%

(a) Vijay Kelkar
asy
(b) Y.V. Reddy
(c) C. Rangarajan (d) Kaushik Basu
20. The Government of India earns maximum
(a) Bank
(b) Insurance Company

revenue from
(a) Income tax En
(b) Union excise duty

(c) Depository
(d) Credit Rating Agency
30. Who is the newly elected chairman of Life
(c) Customs duty
gin
(d) Corporation tax
21. Recently foundation stone of a new Rail Coach

Insurance Corporation of India?
(a) S.K. Roy (b) D.K. Malhotra

Factory has been laid at
(a) Saharsa
(c) Rai Bareli
(b) Amritsar
(d) Chennai ee
22. The present trade policy (2009–14) of the
Government of India aims to achieve annual

(c) Thomas Matthew (d) Shashikant Sharma
31. On which date is the establishment of State Bank
rin
of India celebrated?
(a) 1st January (b) 19th June

export growth rate of
(a) 14% (b) 15%
(c) 1st July
g.n
(d) 15th October
32. Where is the headquarter of WTO located?
(c) 16% (d) 13%
23. Which of the following commissions / companies
of Indian origin signed a pact for obtaining oil-
blocks in Libya?

(a) Rome
(c) Washington
et
(b) Geneva
(d) New York
33. The ministry level conference of World Trade
Organisation in Dec. 2013 was held in which
(a) Reliance petroleum country?
(b) Oil India Ltd. (a) Indonesia (b) Canada
(c) ONGC
(c) S. Africa (d) Singapore
(d) BPCL
34. In which city the government has planned the
24. The policy of Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in
establishment of a Central Aviation University?
India was implemented with effect from
(a) Nov. 1998 (b) Dec. 1999 (a) New Delhi (b) Bengaluru
(c) Nov. 2000 (d) Feb. 2002 (c) Gurgaon (d) Rai Bareli
25. The BPL formula was suggested for the evaluation 35. Which country became a member of European
of poverty in the chairmanship of Union on 1st July 2013?
(a) Suresh Tendulkar (b) Govind Acharya (a) Bulgaria (b) Romania
(c) Rangarajan (d) Kaushik (c) Croatia (d) Serbia

D-32 || Indian Industry

36. According to the evaluation of Asian 46. Which Indian Company has been included for the
Development Bank the economic growth of India first time in U.S. A’s index NASDAQ-100?
in 2013 is expected ? (a) Infosys
(a) 4.8% (b) 5.2% (b) Tata Motors
(c) 6.0% (d) 6.2% (c) ICICI Bank
37. According to the data of Finance Ministry the (d) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited
foreign debt of India in March 2013 was– 47. India’s first port-based Special Economic Zone
(a) 190 Billion Dollar (b) 290 Billion Dollar named International Container Trans-shipment
(c) 390 Billion Dollar (d) 490 Billion Dollar
ww
38. How much percentage of the Debt Service Ratio
of India during 2012–13?
(a) 2% (b) 6%

Terminal (ICTI) is being set-up at?
(a) Kandla
(c) Goa
(b) Kochi
(d) Tuticorin

w.E(c) 12% (d) 18%
39. POSCO, the steel company is associated with the
country?
48. When was the “Package for Promotion of Micro

and Small Enterprises” announced?
(a) August 2005 (b) February 2007

(a) South Korea
(c) France asy
(b) Japan
(d) Germany
40. In which of the following field is the Ramnath
(c) March 2009 (d) November 2010
49. What is the major contribution of the Electronics
industry to the country?

Goenka Award given?
(a) Industry En
(b) Services

(a) Maximised wealth formation
(b) Reduced poverty
(c) Cinema
gin
(d) Journalism
41. Who among of the following is appointed as

(c) Improved standard of living
(d) Encouraged employment

2013–14?
(c) Rana Kapoor

ee
the chairman of ASSOCHAM in the session
(a) Rajkumar Dhoot (b) Chanda Kochhar

(d) Sunil Kanoria
42. Which company, adopted the Taj Mahal through
50. The number of women entrepreneurs in small

scale industrial region is highest in the state of?
(a) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
rin (b) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

the ‘Clean India Campaign’ of tourism ministry?
(a) Indian oil (b) BPCL
oriented industry?
(a) Sugar industry g.n
51. Which one of the following is a raw material
(c) HPCL (d) ONGC

43. In which state the arrival of foreign tourists
was maximum according to the data of tourism
ministry in 2012?

(b) Ship Industry
(c) Petroleum industry et
(d) Light engineering industry
52. The apex organisation of industrial finance in
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
India is—
(c) Punjab (d) Jammu and Kashmir
44. Which of the following cities is known as the (a) IDBI (b) RBI
Financial Capital of India? (c) ICICI (d) IFCI
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai 53. Why is there a need to always import cotton?
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata (a) Obsolete machinery
45. NASSCOM is the organisation of companies of (b) Increasing demand
which sector? (c) Shortage in the home market
(a) Media (d) Poor quality in the domestic market
(b) Mobile phone service 54. Novelis has been acquired and merged with—
(c) Information technology (a) Tata Steels (b) SAIL
(d) Automobiles (c) HINDALCO (d) Jindal Steels

Economics || D-33
55. The base year of present Consumer Price Index 62. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial
(CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI— Workers is being shifted from 1982 to—
UNME) is— (a) 1995 (b) 998
(a) 1980-81 (b) 1981-82 (c) 2000 (d) 2001
(c) 1983-84 (d) 1984-85 63. CAPART is related with—
56. OTCEI is— (a) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare
(a) Atomic Submarine of China programmes
(b) Economic Policy of USA (b) omputer hardware
ww

(c) An Indian Share Market
(d) A defence research organisation
57. RBI’s first census of India’s foreign Assets

(c) onsultant service of export promotion
(d) ontrolling pollution in big industries
64. urgapur steel plant was set up in assistance of
w.E & Liability as on 30 June 1948 revealed total

foreign business investments of ` 302 cr, out of it
what was the % of British investments in India?

(a) UK
(c) rance
(b) USA
(d) Germany
65. Who among the following announced the

(a) 51 %
(c) 72 %
asy
(b) 60 %
(d) 91 %
58. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of
industrial policy of 1956?
(a) J B Kriplani (b) Balwant Rai Mehta
En
slow growth of private enterprises in India’s
industrialization (1850-1957)?
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
66. Which unit of the Hindustan Copper Lt(d) is the
first copper smelting unit in India?

gin
(a) Unimaginative private enterprise, short-
sighted Indian industrialists.
(b) complete absence of financial institutions

(a) Malanjkhand Copper Project (MP)
(b) Khetri Copper Complex (Rajasthan)

investment. ee
to help transfer of savings to industrial
(c) Banking was not highly developed & was

more concerned with commerce rather than

(c) Indian Copper Complex (Jharkhand)
(d) Tajola Copper Project (Maharashtra)
rin
67. When was the ‘Policy Package for Setting
up Credit to Small and Medium Enterprises’

industry.
(d) All of these
announced?
(a) August 2005 g.n (b) February 2007
59. Which is the most important company in machine

tools?
(a) HMT Machine Tools
(b) PMT Machine Tools

(c) March 2009
et
(d) November 2010
68. When was the “Package for Promotion of Micro
and Small Enterprises” announced?
(a) August 2005 (b) February 2007
(c) Guindy Machine Tools
(c) March 2009 (d) November 2010
(d) Praga Tools
69. GCIL—an American company of chemical sector
60. The largest source of revenue for Britishers in
has been acquired by—
India was from ______?
(a) Textile and Jute Industry (a) Reliance group (b) Shriram group
(b) Gems and Stone Industry (c) Birla group (d) Tata group
(c) Temple Tax 70. Kuwait’s biggest Mobile Telecommunication
(d) Land revenue Company known as Zain has been bought by—
61. When was the first modern paper mill of the (a) Bharti Airtel
country set up? (b) Reliance Communication
(a) 1827 (b) 1832 (c) Vodafone
(c) 1846 (d) 1854 (d) Aircel

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (c) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (b)
2. (b) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (d) 52. (a) 62. (d)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (a)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (a)
5. (b) 15. (b) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (d) 65. (d)
6. (a) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (a) 56. (c) 66. (a)
ww 7.
8.
(d)
(b)
17.
18.
(c)
(d)
27.
28.
(d)
(b)
37.
38.
(c)
(b)
47.
48.
(b)
(b)
57.
58.
(c)
(d)
67.
68.
(a)
(b)
w.E
9.
10.
(a)
(d)
19.
20.
(b)
(b)
29.
30.
(d)
(a)
39.
40.
(a)
(d)
49.
50.
(d)
(d)
59.
60.
(a)
(d)
69.
70.
(d)
(a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1. (c) FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) objective of the National Water Mission which is
gin
was finally implemented in the year 2002 to
consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign
exchange with the objective of facilitating external
5.
one of the eight National Missions.
(b) Indira Krishnamurthy Nooyi is an Indian-
American business executive and the current
ee
trade and payments and for promoting the orderly
development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India”. It replaced Foreign Exchange
Regulation Act (FERA)
Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of
PepsiCo, the second largest food and beverage
rin
business in the world. In 2013, she has been ranked
10th in the list of Forbes World’s 100 most powerful
2. (b) SEBI, the regulatory body completed 25 years
of its establishment in 2013. It was formed in the
year 1988 to protect the interests of investors in
6.
women.
g.n
(a) SDR (Special Drawing Rights) is international
financing instrument created in 1970 by the
securities and to promote the development and
regulate the securities market.
3. (c) Shashikant Sharma is in function as a
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
et
International Monetary Fund (IMF).It is also called
paper gold, an SDR is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry. It is not backed by any currency or
precious metal, and is used only among governments
since 23 May 2013. He is 12th CAG of India .The and IMF for balance of payments settlements.
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India 7. (d) ‘World Investment Report’ is the annual report
is an authority, established by the Constitution of published by the UNCTAD. Each year the report
India which audits all receipts and expenditure of covers the latest trends in foreign direct investment
the Government of India and the state governments, around the world and analyses in depth one selected
including those bodies and authorities substantially topic related to foreign direct investment and
financed by the government. development.
4. (b) Government of India decided to celeberate 8. (b) In India, ‘Report on Currency and Finance’ is
the year 2013 as the water conservation year the annual publication of Reserve Bank of India.
with emphasis on sensitizing the masses on water The report highlights the evaluation or devaluation
related issues, encourage them to conserve and use of rupee as a currency along with it other aspects
it judiciously. Water Conservation is also the key and projects the financial condition of the economy.

Economics || D-35
9. (a) International Monetary Fund is not a part of second term in June 2013. He has been working
World Bank. The International Monetary Fund since 1/10/2012 after chairman Alok K Misra, CMD
(IMF) along with World Bank were created in of Bank of India. Other notable chairmen include
1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference . They are M. D. Mallya of Bank of Baroda, V. P. Shetty, M. V.
known as Bretton Woods Twins. The IMF promotes Nair, Rashid Jilani and O P Bhatt.
international monetary cooperation and exchange 17. (c) Anna International Airport is located in
rate stability, facilitates the balanced growth of Chennai of Tamil Nadu. First international airport
international trade. to get ISO-9001-2000 certification.
10. (d) The World Bank was created at the 1944 18. (d) The general superintendence and direction of
ww Bretton Woods Conference, along with three other

institutions, including the International Monetary
Fund (IMF). World Bank provides loans to
the RBI is entrusted with the 21-member- Central
Board of Directors—the Governor (currently
Raghuram Rajan), four Deputy Governors, two
w.E
11.
developing countries for capital programs. The
headquarter of World Bank is located in Washington
D.C.
(c) “Udyog Bandhu” is an organization of the
Finance Ministry representative, ten government-
nominated directors to represent important
elements from India’s economy, and four directors
to represent local boards headquartered at Mumbai,
asy
State Government of Uttar Pradesh. It assists
industrial units in solving time bound establishment
and related problems relating to existing and
19.
Kolkata, Chennai and New Delhi.
(b) Y.V. Reddy is the chairman of 14th Finance
Commission of India. The Finance Commission of
12.
up-coming industries as well.
En
(d) The meeting of World Economic Forum (WEF)
India came into existence in 1951. It was established
under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by
gin
India-2013 in Nov. 2013 was held in Kochi. World
Economic Forum is an independent international
organization committed to improving the state of
the President of India. It was formed to define the
financial relations between the centre and the state
Dr. Yaga Venugopal Reddy is an Indian Administrative
13.
and industry agendas. ee
the world by engaging business, political, academic
and other leaders of society to shape global, regional
(a) The CRR of Bank in the country in June 2013

20.
Service (IAS) officer of the 1964 batch who served as
Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
rin
(b) The Government of India earns maximum
revenue from Union Excise Duty which is indirect
was 4%. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified
minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers,
which commercial banks have to hold as reserves 21. g.n
tax levied and collected on the goods manufactured
in India and consumed within the country.
(c) Recently, the foundation stone of a new
14.
either in cash or as deposits with the central bank.
(d) The third film festival of SAARC countries
was held in May 2013 in Colombo. India bagged
three top awards including best feature film, Best
Director and Special Jury Certificate of Recognition
et
Rail Coach Factory has been laid at Rai Bareli.
The factory will present the eco-friendly side of
Indian Railways sporting smokeless chimneys and
neutralising effluents from the plant. As many as 14
types of coaches, including ‘AC double decker day
at the event. cars’ would roll out from the factory.
15. (b) The Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) 22. (b) The present Trade Policy (2009–14) of the
scheme was one of the several export-promotion government of India aims to achieve an annual
initiatives launched by the government in the early export growth rate of 15%. Mr. Anand Sharma
‘90s. The basic purpose of the scheme was to allow announced the Foreign Trade Policy 2009 – 2014
exporters to import machinery and equipment at on 27th August, 2009 covering various meaures that
affordable prices so that they can produce quality will be taken to boost foreign trade.
products for the export market. 23. (b) Oil sector majors, ONGC Videsh (OVL) and
16. (a) Indian Banks’ Association (IBA), formed on the Oil India-IndianOil (OIL-IOC) combine have
26 September 1946 as a representative body of bagged an oil block each in Libya. This will enhance
management of banking in India. K.R. Kamath was exploration possibilities for the Indian companies in
elected as a chairman of IBA consecutively for the northern Africa.


24. (c) In Nov. 2000, the policy of Special Economic 33. (a) The topmost decision-making body of the
Zone (SEZ) in India was implemented with a view to WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually
overcome the shortcomings experienced on account meets every two years. It brings together all
of the multiplicity of controls and clearances; members of the WTO. The Ministerial Conference
absence of world-class infrastructure, and with a can take decisions on all matters under any of the
view to attract larger foreign investment in India. multilateral trade agreements. The minister level
25. (a) Prof. Tendulkar’s pioneering contribution conference of World Trade Organization in Dec.
was his extensive work on poverty and estimation 2013 was held in Indonesia.
of people below poverty line (BPL). A committee 34. (d) The first-ever national aviation university in
the country named after Rajiv Gandhi to train pilots,
ww was formed by government of India in 2009, with

Tendulkar as Chairman to ‘report on methodology
of estimation of poverty’. In 2009, this committee
came out with a new method to calculate poverty.
cabin crew and aircraft engineers would come up at
Rai Bareli in Uttar Pradesh.
35. (c) Croatia applied for EU membership in 2003
w.E
26. (d) The Planning Commission fixed the baseline of
poverty per capita for rural areas using the Tendulkar
methodology at ` 816 per capita per month and
and was in negotiations from 2005 until 2011.On
9 December 2011 leaders from the EU and Croatia
signed the accession treaty. The country became the
28th EU member country on 1 July 2013.
asy
` 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas.
27. (d) The poverty ratio was highest in Chhattisgarh
at 39.93 per cent followed by Jharkhand (36.96 per
36. (c) ADB’s flagship annual economic publication,
Asian Development Outlook 2013 evaluated the
economic growth of India in 2013 to 6.0 % and
En
cent), Manipur (36.89 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh
(34.67 per cent) and Bihar (33.47 per cent).
28. (b) According to the data studied by Planning
6.5 % in 2014.
37. (c) India’s external debt, as at end-March 2013, was
gin
Commission in 2011–12, 21.9% of the population
of India falls under the poverty line.
placed at US$ 390.0 billion showing an increase
of US$ 44.6 billion or 12.9 per cent over the level
at end-March 2012. The increase in total external
Poor’s (S&P). ee
29. (d) CRISIL is the Credit Rating Agency of India.
CRISIL’s majority shareholder is Standard and
30. (a) S.K. Roy is the newly elected chairman of

Life Insurance Corporation of India. Roy has
debt during financial year 2012-13 was primarily
on account of rise in short-term trade credit. There
rin
has been sizeable rise in external commercial
borrowings (ECBs) and rupee denominated Non-
resident Indian deposits as well.
succeed D.K. Mehrotra. LIC is the largest Indian
life insurance company with new business premium
collections of ` 76,246 crore in 2012–13. g.n
39. (a) POSCO is a multinational steel making
company headquartered in Pohang, South Korea. It
is the world’s fourth largest steelmaker.
31. (c) 1st July is celebrated as the establishment date
of State Bank of India. On 1 July 1955, the Imperial
Bank of India became the State Bank of India. SBI
is a multinational banking and financial services
et
40. (d) Ramnath Goenka Awards is given
Excellence in Journalism. It show eases the
values that stand for good journalism: excellence
and enterprise, courage and fairness. The awards
for
company based in India. It is a government-owned cover the entire gamut of Indian media, Print and
corporation with its headquarters in Mumbai. It Broadcast, in English and Indian languages.
has assets of US$388 billion and 16,000 branches, 41. (c) Rana Kapoor is appointed as the chairman
including 190 foreign offices, making it the largest of ASSOCHAM in the session 2013–14. Dr. Rana
banking and financial services company in India by Kapoor is the founder, managing director and chief
assets. executive officer of Yes Bank.
32. (b) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is 42. (d) With an aim to attract more visitors to the
an organization that supervises and liberalizes country by improving cleanliness and hygiene at
international trade. It officially commenced on 1 tourist destinations, Tourism Minitry launched the
January 1995 under the Marrakech Agreement, “Clean India” campaign at world heritage site Taj
replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Mahal which has been adopted by ONGC. It is the
Trade (GATT) The headquarter of World Trade second site to be covered under this project. The
Organization (WTO) is located in Geneva. first one was Qutub Minar.

Economics || D-37
43. (b) In Maharashtra, the arrival of foreign tourists 54. (c) In 2007, Novelis was acquired by Hindalco
was maximum according to the data of Tourism Industries Limited, another veteran of the aluminium
Ministry in 2012. Maharashtra received the highest business. Hindalco is the flagship company of the
number of foreign tourists in the country with nearly Aditya Birla Group of companies, a multinational
4.8 million tourist arrivals in 2011. Maharashtra conglomerate headquartered in Mumbai. Following
was followed by Tamil Nadu and New Delhi, which the merger, Novelis became a wholly owned
welcomed 3.4 million and 2.2 million foreigners subsidiary of Aditya Birla Group. With the addition
respectively in the same period. of Novelis, Hindalco became the world’s largest
44. (b) Mumbai is the financial capital of India. It
aluminium rolling company and one of the biggest
is one of the world’s top ten centres of commerce
ww in terms of global financial flow generating 5% of

India’s GDP and accounting for 25% of industrial
output, 70% of maritime trade in India and 70% of
producers of primary aluminium in Asia.
56. (c) OTCEI was incorporated in 1990 as a Section
25 company under the Companies Act 1956 and is
w.E capital transactions to India’s economy.

45. (c) NASSCOM is the organisation of companies
of Information technology.
recognized as a stock exchange under Section 4 of
the Securities Contracts Regulation Act, 1956. The
Exchange was set up to aid enterprising promoters
in raising finance for new projects in a cost-effective
asy
46. (a) Software major Infosys Technologies is included
in the coveted Nasdaq-100 Index. This is the first
time that an Indian company has found a place in a
stock index outside the country.
manner and to provide investors with a transparent
& efficient mode of trading.
59. (a) HMT was founded in 1953.
En
47. (b) The Kochi International Container Transhipment
Terminal (ICTT), locally known as the Vallarpadam
61. (b) Paper and Paper Board is a forest-based industry.
In 1832 the first modern paper mill of the country
gin
Terminal, is a container trans-shipment facility
which is part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, India.
48. (b) In February 2007, a “Package for Promotion
was set up at Serampore in West Bengal.
64. (a) Durgapur Steel Plant, SAIL, was set up with the
British collaboration in the late fifties with an initial
ee
of Micro and Small Enterprises” was announced.
This includes measures addressing concerns of
credit, fiscal support, cluster-based development,
infrastructure, technology, and marketing. Capacity
building of MSME Associations and support to
capacity of one million tonnes of crude steel per
annum.
rin
66. (a) Malanjkhand Copper Project was established in
1982. Initial project has been set up by Hindustan
women entrepreneurs are the other important

attributes of this package.
49. (d) the Electronic industry is responsible for
open pit mine.
g.n
Copper Ltd to exploit the copper ore through an
67. (a) On August 10, 2005, a ‘Policy Package for

generation of employment. Bangalore is the hub
of electronic industry in the country and is called
the electronic city. There are approximately 200 IT/
ITES companies located in Electronics City which
et
Setting up Credit to Small and Medium Enterprises’
was announced with the objective to double the
credit flow to the sector within a period of five years.
68. (b) In February 2007, a “Package for Promotion
of Micro and Small Enterprises” was announced.
have employed many unemployed in various fields.
50. (d) Tamil Nadu has the highest number of women This includes measures addressing concerns of
entrepreneurs with 2930 women equalling to 30.36 %. credit, fiscal support, cluster-based development,
51. (c) Crude oil is the basic raw material upon which infrastructure, technology, and marketing. Capacity
all refinery processes are founded. building of MSME Associations and support to
52. (a) IDBI Bank is an Indian government-owned women entrepreneurs are the other important
financial service company, formerly known attributes of this package.
as Industrial Development Bank of India, 69. (d) GCIL—an American company of chemical
headquartered in Mumbai, India. It was established sector has been acquired by Tata Group.
in 1964 by an Act of Parliament to provide credit 70. (a) Bharti Airtel has acquired Zain Telecom’s
and other financial facilities for the development African assets in a $10.7 billion deal. The acquisition
of the fledgling Indian industry. IDBI is one of the of Zain assets will give the Indian mobile market
leading government bank in India. leader a footprint in 15 African countries.

5 World Economy
ww
1. In which one of the following places was the 8. Which of the following agencies is not the rating

w.E Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ)
set-up?
(a) Santa Cruz (b) Kandla

agency of an economy ?
(a) Fitch Group
(b) CRISIL

2.
(c) Cochin
asy
(d) Surat
Which country started privatisation of state-
owned enterprises as a major state policy?

(c) Moody’s Investor Service
(d) Samuel’s Investor Group

En
(a) UK under Margaret Thatcher
(b) Russia in CIS
9.

Which one of the following organisations is
related with Doha Development Agenda ?

3.
(c) Mexico, Argentina and Brazil
(d) Italy, France and Malaysia
gin
Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of

10.
(a) IMF
(c) World Bank
(b) WTO
(d) UNO
Which of the following credit rating agencies

sells
(a) 5% of shares ee
public sector units occurs when the government
(b) 10% of shares

(c) 49% of shares (d) 51% of shares

is the ‘Big Three Credit rating agencies’ of the
world ?
(a) Fitch Group
rin
(b) Moody’s Corporation
4.

The International Development Association, a
lending agency is administered by the
(a) IBRD (b) IFAD

(d) All of the above g.n
(c) Standard and Poor’s

5.

(c) UNDP (d) UNIDO
WTO came into existence at the conclusion of
which round of GATT ?
(a) Singapore (b) Uruguay
11.
et
Which one of the following International
institutions has offered the concessional loans
and grants to the world’s poorest developing
countries ?
(c) Tokyo (d) Marrakesh (a) IFC (b) IDA
6. World Investment Report is published by which (c) IMF (d) WB
of the following ? 12. Which one of the following major markets has
(a) WEF (b) WTO
the highest share of composition of exports of
(c) GATT (d) UNCTAD
ores and minerals in the world ?
7. Which of the following group of countries
has formed the NAMA - 11 of World Trade (a) United States (b) India
Organization ? (c) Brazil (d) China
(a) developed countries 13. The capital of IMF is generated by contribution
(b) least developing countries of the
(c) developing countries (a) Credit (b) Deficit financing
(d) None of the above (c) Member nations (d) Borrowings

Economics || D-39
14. Which one of the following countries is the first 23. Which one of the following factors is taken into
borrower of fund from the International Monetary account to calculate the Balance of Payment
Fund ? (BOP) of a country ?
(a) United States (b) France (a) Current Account
(c) Spain (d) India (b) Changes in the Foreign Exchange Reserves
15. Which one of the following institutions is related (c) Errors and Omissions
with the Green / Blue Box subsidies ? (d) All of the above
(a) United Nations 24. What does S & P 500 relate to ?
(b) World Bank (a) Super computer
ww

(c) World Tourism Organization
(d) World Trade Organization
16. Which one of the following is the final session

(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies

w.Eof the General Agreement on Tariff- and Trade
(GATT) ?
(a) Singapore session

25. Which one of the following is the proposed currency
of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) ?
(a) Khaleeji (b) Sucre

(b) Geneva session
(c) Washington session
(d) Uruguay session
asy (c) Minar (d) None of these
26. Which one among the following is the total
amount of money available in an economy at a
En
17. Which one of the following countries has the
highest share in the world export among the

specific time ?
(a) Near money (b) Narrow money

Asian countries ?
(a) South Korea gin
(b) Singapore
(c) Money volume (d) Money stock
27. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the countries having Foreign

(c) India (d) China
ee
18. Which one of the following countries is the top
user of the anti-dumping measures in the world
in the decade ?
(a) India (b) United States

Exchange Reserve from high to low ?
(a) China – Russia – India – France
rin
(b) China – France – India – Russia
(c) France – China – Russia – India
(c) Japan (d) China

19. Which one of the following countries of the world

g.n
(d) France – China – India – Russia
28. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Kospi Index: South Korea

has signed the first Comprehensive Economic
Partnership Agreement with India ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(c) Mauritius
(b) Malaysia
(d) Singapore

(c) SET Index: China
et
(b) TSEC Weighted Index: Thailand
29. Which one of the following is the recognised

20. ‘Global Competitiveness Report’ is released by lender of the External Commercial Borrowings
which of the following organisations ? in the international Capital Market ?
(a) WTO (b) EU (a) Export Credit Agencies
(c) World Bank (d) WEF (b) Asian Development Bank
21. TRIPS (Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual (c) IFC
Property Rights) agreement is administered by (d) All of the above
(a) UNCTD (b) UNO 30. In which one of the following Five Year Plans,
(c) WTO (d) World Bank was the EXIM bank establish in India ?
22. Which one of the following institutions publishes (a) Second Five Year Plan
the report of ‘World Economic Outlook’ ? (b) Third Five Year Plan
(a) IMF (b) World Bank (c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(c) RBI (d) UNCTAD (d) Seventh Five Year Plan

D-40 || World Economy

31. Which one of the following causes the condition 40. Which one of the following curves is a graphical
in which prices increase rapidly as a currency representation of the relationship between
loses its value ? unemployment and the job vacancy rate ?
(a) Stagflation (b) Conflation (a) Philips curve (b) Laffer’s curve
(c) Stealth inflation (d) Hyper inflation (c) Beveridge curve (d) Friedman’s curve
32. The representation of the relationship between 41. Which of the following sectors of the Indian
possible rates of taxation and the resulting levels Economy is prohibited from Foreign Direct
of government revenue is called Investments (FDIs) ?
(a) Retail Trading
ww

(a) Laffer Curve
(c) Philips curve
(b) Griffin curve
(d) Gini’s curve
33. Which one of the following areas is the main aim

(b) Lottery Business
(c) Gambling and Betting

w.E of ASIDE scheme started by Indian Government ?
(a) To facilitate the import in the country
(b) To encourage the export
(c) To facilitate the movement of expatriates
42. Which one of the following countries has the
highest percentage of the services sector in the
GDP of the country ?
asy
34. India is not a member of which of the following?

(a) United States (b) France
(c) United Kingdom (d) Spain
43. Which one of the following cities is identified as

(a) CIS
(c) SAFTA
En
(b) SAARC
(d) WTO
35. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) is available at
the hottest outsourcing destination in the world ?
(a) Dublin, Ireland

(a) IBRD
(c) IDA
(b) IMF
(d) OECD gin

(b) Bengaluru, India
(c) Makati city, the Philippines

by reducing taxes ?
(a) Disinflation (b) Reflation
ee
36. Which one of the following is the act of stimulating
the economy by increasing the money supply or

(d) Tokyo, Japan
44. Which one of the following items has gained the
rin
highest growth rate in the import composition of
the Indian Economy in the last decade ?
(a) pearls, precious and semiprecious stones
(c) Inertial inflation (d) Inflation hedge
37. The standard of living in a country is represented
by its

(b) gold and silver
g.n
(c) oil-cake and other solid residues

(a) Poverty ratio
(b) Per capita income
(c) National income
(d) Unemployment rate
et
45. Which sister organisation of the World Bank
provides long term loans at zero interest to
poorest developing countries?
(a) Asian Development Bank
38. Which one of the following laws / curves stated
(b) IMF
that the lower the unemployment in an economy,
(c) International Development Association
the higher the rate of Inflation ?
(d) International Finance Corporation
(a) Gini’s curve (b) Verdoorn’s law 46. Which sister organisation of the World Bank
(c) Gibrat’s law (d) Philip’s curve helps private activity in developing countries by
39. Which one of the following is related with the financing projects with long-term capital in the
Atkinson’s index of an economy ? form of equity and loans?
(a) A method to determine the income inequality (a) Asian Development Bank
(b) An effect of supply demand mismatch (b) IMF
(c) A method to determine the unemployment (c) International Finance Corporation
(d) None of the above (d) International Development Association

Economics || D-41
47. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick (b) Tokyo Bank of Japan buys Union Bank of
migration is called the United States
(a) Hot currency (b) Soft currency (c) Saturn Corp. (owned by General Motors)
(c) Gold currency (d) Scarce currency builds a new factory in Tennessee
48. As regards the use of international food safety (d) An American puts $10,000 into a money
standards as reference point for the dispute market fund
settlements, which one of the following does 56. In which one of these countries do less than 10%
WTO collaborate with? say national economic conditions are good?
(a) International Organization for Standardization. (a) Malaysia (b) Greece
ww

(b) International Federation of Standards Users.
(c) Codex Alimentarius Commission.
(d) World Standards Cooperation.

57.
(c) Bolivia (d) Australia
If the actual unemployment rate is below the
natural rate of unemployment, it would be

w.E
49. Gilt-edged market means
(a) Market of government securities
(b) Bullion market

expected that:
(a) the rate of inflation would increase
(b) the Phillips curve would shift to the left

asy
(c) Market dealing with metals
(d) Market dealing with exports
50. The value of gold is determined in

58.
(c) wages would fall
(d) the natural rate of unemployment would fall
In which one of these countries do more than

(a) London
(c) Rome
En
(b) Dubai
(d) Teheran
80% say national economic conditions are good?
(a) Argentina (b) China

level is the:
(a) income tax gin
51. The largest tax collected at the federal government
(b) sales tax

59.
(c) Kenya (d) Philippines
According to the monetarists, in the long-run, the
Phillips Curve is:

(c) property tax
(a) gold
(c) stock
ee
(d) Social security tax
52. Which of the following is included in M-1?
(b) checkable deposits
(d) credit cards

60.
(a) vertical
rin
(b) horizontal
(c) downward sloping (d) upward sloping
What is happening with the import of Chinese
toys in India?
53. Which of the following would cause the aggregate

demand curve to shift to the right?
(a) an increase in purchases by the federal

g.n
(a) Indian toys are selling more
(b) Indian consumers are buying less
(c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at

government
(b) an increase in real interest rates
(c) an appreciation of the American dollar
(d) a decrease in the money supply

61.
cheaper rates
choice
et
(d) Chinese consumers are falling short of
Which of the following statements is true about

54. Which of the following would cause consumption supply-side economics?
to rise? (a) The main change made by the tax laws of
(a) the GDP Deflator rises 1981 and 1986 was to increase marginal tax
(b) a greater proportion of the population is rates in order to balance the budget
between age 20 and 30 (b) The Laffer Curve says that, if marginal tax
(c) transitory income increases rates fall, tax revenues will rise, and the
(d) income is taken from poor people and given budget deficit will decrease
to rich people (c) If the tax laws of 1981 and 1986 had had
55. Which of the following is an example of “portfolio their intended effect, consumption would
investment”? have risen, causing an increase in both real
(a) An American places funds in a savings GDP and in the price level
account in Canada (d) All of these


62. Special drawing rights are not (c) to serve as the world central bank.
(a) a credit line allocated by the IMF to member (d) to provide a line of credit for each member
countries according to each country’s country.
quot(a) 67. What percentage of currency devaluation
(b) backed by US dollars. was allowed by the IMF in the Bretton Woods
(c) the IMF’s unit of account. Agreement?
(d) a basket of four currencies. (a) 10 % (b) 7 %
63. MILA is a stock exchange not involving which of (c) 20 % (d) 15 %
the following countries’ stock exchanges? 68. The reason in difference between GNP and GDP
ww

(a) Chile
(c) Columbia
(b) Peru
(d) Cuba
64. In which of the following countries was a National

is
(a) Gross Foreign Investment
(b) Net Foreign Investment
w.E Exchange Control Administration (CADIVI)

set up to approve all legal purchases of foreign
currency?

69.
(c) Net Exports
(d) Net Factor Income from abroad
In which year was the new currency Euro

(a) Brazil
(c) Venezuela
asy
(b) Spain
(d) Mexico
65. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

introduced?
(a) 1983
(c) 1999
(b) 2001
(d) 1995

(MIGA) is a part of the—
(a) United Nations En 70. Which of the following is not seen as an advantage
of the gold standard?

(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) World Bank gin (a) For a given stock of gold, a rise in real
money supply can only occur if the price
level declines.

include all of the following except… ee
66. The functions of the International Monetary Fund
(a) to provide emergency loans to countries

facing balance of payments problems.

(b) Inflation is unlikely to emerge as a significant
problem.
rin
(c) No country needs to serve at the centre of
this fixed exchange rate system.
(b) to monitor macroeconomic developments
continuously in member countries.

g.n
(d) The monetary mechanism has credibility.
et

Economics || D-43
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (c) 31. (d) 41. (d) 51. (a) 61. (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (b)
3. (a) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (d)
4. (a) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (c)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (a) 65. (d)
6. (d) 16. (d) 26. (d) 36. (b) 46. (c) 56. (b) 66. (c)
ww 7.
8.
(c)
(d)
17.
18.
(d)
(a)
27.
28.
(a)
(a)
37.
38.
(b)
(d)
47.
48.
(a)
(c)
57.
58.
(a)
(b)
67.
68.
(a)
(d)
w.E 9.
10.
(b)
(d)
19.
20.
(a)
(d)
29.
30.
(d)
(c)
39.
40.
(a)
(c)
49.
50.
(a)
(a)
59.
60.
(a)
(c)
69.
70.
(c)
(a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
1. En
(b) India was one of the first countries in Asia to 5. (d) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
gin
recognize the effectiveness of the Export Processing
Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia’s
an organization that supervises and liberalizes
international trade. It commenced on 1 January
ee
first EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965. This was done
to overcome the shortcomings of the multiplicity
of controls and clearances; absence of world-class
infrastructure, and an unstable fiscal regime and
with a view to attract larger foreign investments in
6.
1995 under the Marrakech Agreement replacing the
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
rin
(d) World Investment Report is published by
UNCTAD. It has been published annually since 1991.
Each year’s report covers the latest trends in foreign
2.
India.
(a) The United Kingdom, under Margaret Thatcher
started privatisation of state-owned enterprises as a
g.n
direct investment around the World and analysis in
depth one selected topic related to foreign direct
investment and development.
major state policy. The Ridley report devised for the
Thatcher shadow cabinet, recommended a policy
of breaking up the public sector and dismembering
unions.
7.
et
(c) The Non-Agricultural Market Access (NAMA)
negotiations of the World Trade Organization are
based on the Doha Declaration of 2001 that calls
for a reduction or elimination in tariffs, particularly
3. (a) Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of on exportable goods of interest to developing
countries. Developing countries have formed the
public sector units occurs when the government
NAMA-11 of World Trade Organization. Member
sells 5% to 10 % of its shares.The government
countries are Argentina, Bolivarian Republic
disinvests to meet the deficit in the budget.
of Venezuela, Brazil, Egypt, India, Indonesia,
4. (a) The International Development Association
Namibia, Philippines, South Africa and Tunisia.
(IDA) is an international financial institution
8. (d) Samuel’s Investor Group is not the rating
which offers concessional loans and grants to the
agency of an economy. It is Canada based company
world’s poorest developing countries. The IDA enganged in financial planning.
is a member of the World Bank Group and is 9. (b) The Doha Round also called Doha
headquartered in Washington DC. It is administered Development Agenda is the latest round of trade
by the International Bank for Reconstruction and negotiations among the WTO membership. Its
Development (IBRD). fundamental objective is to improve the trading


prospects of developing countries. The Round was significant changes in the Uruguay round was the
officially launched at the WTO’s Fourth Ministerial creation of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Conference in Doha, Qatar, in Nov, 2001. The 75 existing GATT members and the European
10. (d) The Big Three credit rating agencies are Communities became the founding members of the
Standard & Poor’s (S&P), Moody’s, and Fitch WTO on 1 January 1995.
Group. S&P and Moody’s are based in the US, 17. (d) China has the highest share in the world export
while Fitch is dual-headquartered in New York City among the Asian countries.It exports 27% of GDP
and London, and is controlled by the France-based as goods and services. However, India exports 24%
FIMALAC. As of 2013 they hold a collective global of its GDP .
market share of roughly 95 percent with Moody’s 18. (a) If a company exports a product at a price lower
ww
11.
and Standard & Poor’s having approximately 40%
each, and Fitch around 15%.
(b) International Development Association
than the price it normally charges on its own home
market, it is said to be “dumping” the product .India
is the top user of the anti-dumping measures in the
w.E has offered the concessional loans and grants to

the world’s poorest developing countries. The
IDA is a member of the World Bank Group and
is administered by the International Bank for
19.
world in the last decade.
(a) Sri Lanka is the first country to sign CEPA
with India. India and Sri Lanka signed the bilateral
Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
13.
asy
Reconstruction and Development( IBRD).
(c) The capital of IMF is generated by contribution
of the member nations. Each member of the IMF is
(CEPA) on August 1, 2008 on the sidelines of the
SAARC Summit. This would mark the end of the
over three years of discussions to boost trade and
En
assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative size in
the world economy, which determines its maximum
contribution to the IMF’s financial resources. On
investment between the two countries with focus on
developing Sri Lanka’s economy.
gin
joining the IMF, a country normally pays up to
one-quarter of its quota in the form of widely
accepted foreign currencies (such as the U.S. dollar,
20. (d) The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is
a yearly report published by the World Economic
Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness
14.
paid in the country’s own currency. ee
euro, yen, or pound sterling) or Special Drawing
Rights (SDRs). The remaining three-quarters are
(b) France is the first borrower of fund from the

International Monetary Fund. It borrowed funds
21.
Report has ranked countries based on the Global
Competitiveness Index.
rin
(c) The Agreement on Trade Related Aspects
of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is an
international agreement administered by the World
15.
from IMF on 8th May 1947.
(d) In order to qualify for the “green box”, a
subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause
g.n
Trade Organization (WTO). It sets down minimum
standards for many forms of intellectual property
(IP) . It was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay
minimal distortion. These subsidies have to be
government-funded (not by charging consumers
higher prices) and must not involve price support.
The blue box is an exemption from the general
22.
Trade (GATT) in 1994.
et
Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and
(a) World Economic Outlook is basically a survey

conducted and published by the International
rule that all subsidies linked to production must Monetary Fund. It is published twice and partly
be reduced or kept within defined minimal (“de updated 3 times a year.
minimis”) levels. It covers payments directly linked 23. (d) The balance of payments (BOP) is the method
to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes countries use to monitor all international monetary
which also limit production by imposing production transactions at a specific period of time. Current
quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their
account, changes in the foreign exchange reserves
land.
16. (d) Uruguay session is the final session of the and errors and omissions are the factors that are
General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (GATT). taken into account to calculate the balance of
The Uruguay Round lasted from 1986–94. It payment (BOP) of a country.
was the most ambitious round to date, hoping to 24. (d) The S&P 500, or the Standard & Poor’s
expand the competence of the GATT to important 500, is a stock market index based on the market
new areas such as services, capital, intellectual capitalizations of 500 large companies having
property, textiles, and agriculture. One of the most common stock listed on the NYSE or NASDAQ.

Economics || D-45
25. (a) Gulf Cooperation Council, GCC is a political 33. (b) Assistance to States for Development of
and economic union of Arab states bordering the Export Infrastructure and Allied Activities (ASIDE)
Persian Gulf, namely Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Scheme was launched on March 2002. To involve
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. the States in the growth of export by providing
Khaleeji is the proposed currency of the Gulf incentive-linked assistance to the state governments
Co-operation Council (GCC). and to create appropriate infrastructure for the
26. (d) The money supply or money stock, is the total development and growth of exports.
amount of monetary assets available in an economy 34. (a) India is not a member of the Commonwealth
of Independent States (CIS). The Commonwealth of
at a specific time. It includes currency in circulation
Independent States is a regional organization whose
ww and demand deposits.

27. (a) (China–Russia–India–France) is the correct
sequence of the countries having Foreign Exchange
Reserve from high to low.
participating countries are former Soviet Republics.
35. (b) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are
supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets

w.EChina has 3,945,932 million USD.
Russia has 3,60,221 million USD.
India has 3,38,079 million USD.
defined and maintained by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF).
36. (b) Reflation is the act of stimulating the economy
by increasing the money supply or by reducing taxes,

asy
France has 1,43,456 million USD.
28. (a) The Korea Composite Stock Price Index
or KOSPI is the stock Exchange of South Korea.
seeking to bring the economy (specifically price
level) back up to the long-term trend, following a
dip in the business cycle.
of 100.
En
KOSPI was introduced in 1983 with the base value
29. (d) An External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) is

37. (b) Per capita income, also known as income
per person, is the mean income of the people in an
economic unit such as a country. Per capita income
gin
an instrument used in India to facilitate the access
to foreign money by Indian corporations and
is often used to measure a country’s standard of living.
38. (d) Phillips curve is a historical inverse relationship
between the rate of unemployment and the rate of
ee
PSUs (public sector undertakings). ECBs include
commercial bank loans, buyers’ credit, suppliers’
credit, securitised instruments such as floating
rate notes and fixed rate bonds etc., Export Credit
Agencies, ADB and IFC are the recognised lender
inflation in an economy. Philip’s curve stated that
the lower the unemployment in an economy, the
rin
higher the rate of inflation.
39. (a) The Atkinson index is a measure of income
inequality developed by British economist
of the External Commercial Borrowings in the
international capital market.
30. (c) During the Sixth Five Year Plan the EXIM g.n
Anthony Barnes Atkinson. The measure is useful
in determining which end of the distribution
bank was established in India. Export-Import Bank

of India is the premier export finance institution of
the country, established in 1982 under the Export-
Import Bank of India Act 1981.
et
contributed most to the observed inequality.
40. (c) A Beveridge curve, or UV-curve, is a graphical
representation of the relationship between
unemployment and the job vacancy rate (the
number of unfilled jobs expressed as a proportion of
31. (d) Hyper inflation occurs when a country the labour force). It typically has vacancies on the
experiences very high and usually accelerating vertical axis and unemployment on the horizontal.
rates of monetary and price inflation, causing the The curve is named after William Beveridge and it
population to minimize their holdings of money. is hyperbolic shaped.
Under such conditions, the general price level 41. (d) Retail trading, lottery business and gambling
within an economy increases rapidly as the official and betting are the sectors of the Indian economy
currency quickly loses real value. are prohibited from Foreign Direct Investment
32. (a) Laffer curve is a representation of the (FDIs).
relationship between possible rates of taxation 42. (a) The economy of the United States is the world’s
and the resulting levels of government revenue. It largest single national economy. The United States’
illustrates the concept of taxable income elasticity— nominal GDP was estimated to be $16.6 trillion
i.e., taxable income will change in response to in June 2013. It has the highest percentage of the
changes in the rate of taxation. services sector in the GDP equivalent to 79.7%.


43. (b) Bengaluru or Bangalore is identified as 50. (a) London Bullion Market is sometimes confused
the hottest outsourcing destination in the world. with the London Metal Exchange which is quite
Bangalore continues to rule as India’s software different. Only gold is traded at the London Bullion
hub, with its availability of skilled resources. The Market while other metals, other than gold, are
pleasant climate of Bangalore has also been a factor traded at the London Metal Exchange. So gold is
in Bangalore’s popularity. considered as a metal by itself in these terms. The
44. (b) The items gold and silver have gained the price of gold is actually determined twice a day in
highest growth rate in the import composition of the London.
Indian economy in the last decade. 52. (b) M1 measures the most liquid components of
45. (c) The International Development Association the money supply, as it contains cash and assets that
ww (IDA) is an international financial institution

which offers concessional loans andgrants to the
world’s poorest developing countries. The IDA
can quickly be converted to currency.
54. (b) A greater proportion of the population is
between age 20 and 30.
w.E is a member of the World Bank Group and is

headquartered inWashington, D.C., United States.
It was established in 1960 to complement the
existing International Bank for Reconstruction and
55. (a) Portfolio investments are passive investments,
as they do not entail active management or control
of the issuing company.
60. (c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at
asy
Development by lending to developing countries
which suffer from the lowest gross national income,
from troubled creditworthiness, or from the lowest
cheaper rates.
61. (b) The Laffer Curve says that, if marginal tax
rates fall, tax revenues will rise, and the budget
per capita income.
En
46. (c) The International Finance Corporation (IFC)
deficit will decrease.
63. (d) The Mercado Integrado Latinoamericano,
more commonly known as MILA, is a program
gin
is an international financial institution that offers
investment, advisory, and asset management
services to encourage private sector development
that integrates the stock exchangemarkets of Chile,
Colombia, Mexico, and Peru.
64. (c) CADIVI (Comisión de Administración de
ee
in developing countries. The IFC is a member of
the World Bank Group and is headquartered in
Washington, D.C., United States. It was established
in 1956 as the private sector arm of the World
Bank Group to advance economic development
Divisas - Commission for the Administration of
Currency Exchange) is the Venezuelangovernment
rin
body which administers legal currency exchange in
Venezuela.
65. (d) MIGA is a member of the World Bank Group.
by investing in strictly for-profit and commercial
projects that purport to reduce poverty and promote
development.
g.n
Its mission is to promote foreign direct investment
(FDI) into developing countries to help support
economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve
47. (a) Foreign currency which has a tendency of
quick migration is called hot currency.
48. (c) Collaboration between WTO and the Codex
Alimentarius concerns the use of international
people’s lives.
et
67. (a) Officially established on 27 December 1945,
when the 29 participating countries at the conference
of Bretton Woods signed its Articles of Agreement,
the IMF was to be the keeper of the rules and the main
food safety standards in the context of the SPS
Agreement. instrument of public international management.
The Fund commenced its financial operations on
49. (a) The gilt-edged market refers to the market
1 March 1947. IMF approval was necessary for
for Government and semi-government securities,
any change in exchange rates in excess of 10%. It
backed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). advised countries on policies affecting the monetary
Government securities are tradeable debt instruments system and lent reserve currencies to nations that
issued by the Government for meeting its financial had incurred balance of payment debts.
requirements. The term gilt-edged means ‘of the best 69. (c) The euro was introduced to world financial
quality’. This is because the Government securities markets as an accounting currency on 1 January
do not suffer from risk of default and are highly 1999, replacing the former European Currency Unit
liquid (as they can be easily sold in the market at (ECU) at a ratio of 1:1 (US$1.1743).
their current price). The open market operations of 70. (a) For a given stock of gold, a rise in real money
the RBI are also conducted in such securities. supply can only occur if the price level declines.

Section E : General science
ww
1 Physics

w.E
1. The time period of a pendulum depends on
(a) the mass
(c) the time
(b) the length
(d) both (a) and (b)

9.
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Ammeter
Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the
2.

Scent sprayer is based on
(a) Charles’s law
(b) Boyle’s law
asy
following parts of a traditional camera ?
(a) Film (b) Lens

(c) Archimedes’ principle
(d) Bernoulli’s principle En
10.
(c) Shutter (d) Cover
Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
3.

gin
White light is made up of seven colours. What is
the method of separating the colours ?
(a) By passing it through a prism

(a) killing the germs
(b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
(c) destroying enzyme action

(b) By filteration
(c) Can’t be separated
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. Cooling is not done by
ee
11.

(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice
The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) copper
(c) lead rin (b) aluminium
(d) tungsten

(a) flow of water
(b) release of compressed gas
(c) burning cooking gas
12.
vehicles ? g.n
Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the
(d) melting the solid

5. At which temperature the centigrade and

Fahrenheit scales are equal?
(a) 40° (b) – 40°

13.

(a) Plane
(c) Concave
The reason of mirage is
et
(a) interference of light
(b) Convex
(d) Plano concave
(c) 37° (d) 94.6° (b) diffraction of light

6. The magnetic needle always points in _______ (c) polarisation of light
direction. (d) total internal reflection of light
(a) East – West (b) West – South 14. The colour of light is determined by its
(c) North – South (d) North – East (a) amplitude (b) wavelength
7. Who was the inventor of Radar ? (c) intensity (d) velocity
(a) Robert Watson (b) Fleming
15. Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency
(c) Bush Wall (d) Austin
8. Which of the following instruments measures (a) greater than 20,000 Hz
blood pressure? (b) less than 10,000 Hz
(a) Spherometer (c) equal to 1000 Hz
(b) Stethoscope (d) None of these

E-2 || Physics
16. Laser is a device for producing 26. What is the source of electrical energy in an
(a) spontaneous radiation artificial satellite?
(b) dispersed radiation (a) Solar cell
(c) scattered radiation (b) Mini nuclear reactor
(d) stimulated radiation (c) Dynamo
17. MRI stands for ? (d) Thermopile
(a) Magnetic Record of Intestines 27. The weight of any body is
(b) Magnetic Recording of Investigations (a) same at every place on earth’s surface
ww

(c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(d) Magnetic Resonance in Intestines
18. When ice melts, then the

(b) maximum at poles
(c) more on equator
(d) more on mountains than in planes

w.E(a) volume increases (b) volume decreases
(c) mass increases (d) mass decreases
19. What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in
28. Transformer is used

(a) for converting AC into DC
(b) for coverting DC into AC
(a) Infrared asy

the remote control of a television ?
(b) Ultraviolet

(c) to step up DC voltages
(d) to step up or step down AC voltages
29. When a body is taken from the earth to the moon
(c) Visible
En
(d) None of these
20. A 100 watt bulb is kept switched ON for four
hours. The units of electrical energy consumed is

(a) its weight increases
(b) its weight decreases

(a) 400 unit
(c) 4 unit gin
(b) 25 unit
(d) 0.4 unit

(c) its weight remains unchanged
(d) it becomes completely weightless
21. Tube light is filled with

(a) sodium vapour
(b) argon gas at low pressure
(c) mercury vapour at low pressure
ee 30. An iron ball weighing 10 kg on the earth will

weigh in space
rin
(a) less than 10 kg (b) more than 10 kg
(c) exactly 10 kg (d) zero
(d) mercuric oxide and argon gas

22. Which of the following is the smallest unit of

g.n
31. Air is filled in vehicle tyres because
(a) it is non-conducting
(b) it is cheap
length?
(a) Micrometre
(c) Angstrom
23. Wilhelm Rontgen invented
(b) Nanometre
(d) Fermimetre

(c) it has low density
et
(d) it is highly compressible
32. Sound travels in the form of
(a) transverse waves
(a) radio (b) X-ray machine (b) longitudinal waves
(c) electric bulb (d) electric motor (c) stationary waves
24. The colour of the star is an indication of its (d) none of the above
(a) distance from earth 33. The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth
(b) temperature of patients is
(c) luminosity (a) Concave (b) Convex
(d) distance from the sun (c) Plane (d) Cylindrical
25. Which one of the following liquids is very good 34. Sound above what level (in decibel) is considered
conductor of heat ? hazardous noise pollution ?
(a) Mercury (b) Water (a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB
(c) Ether (d) Benzene (c) 60 dB (d) 80 dB

General Science || E-3

35. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a 42. In a three pin plug, the longest pin should be
few hours, the room temperature will connected to
(a) decrease (a) ground terminal (b) live terminal
(b) increase (c) neutral terminal (d) any terminal
(c) remain the same 43. Dynamo is a machine which is used for conversion
(d) decrease only in the area in the vicinity of of
the refrigerator (a) high voltage to low voltage
36. The safest temperature for keeping food fresh in (b) low voltage to high voltage
a refrigerator is
ww
(a) 4°C
(c) 0°C
(b) 8°C
(d) 10°C

(c) electrical energy to mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy to electrical energy
44. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 10 hours.

w.E
37. Thermostat is a device which
(a) measures heat
(b) measures temperature (a)
(c)
What will be the cost of electricity consumed, if
the consumption cost is ` 5 per unit ?
` 5
` 25
(b) ` 10
(d) ` 50

system
asy
(c) automatically regulates the temperature of a
(d) automatically regulates pressure of a system.

45. Which of the following is the best conductor of
electricity?
retina of our eyes is

En
38. The image of the object that we see forms on the (a) Aluminium
(c) Silver
(b) Copper
(d) Gold
46. In television broadcast, the picture signals are

(a) always erect
(b) always inverted
gin
(c) erect or inverted depends upon the intensity

transmitted by
(a) amplitude modulation

of light
ee
(d) erect or inverted depends upon the age of the
person

(b) frequency modulation
(c) phase modulation
rin
(d) angle modulation
47. The cooling by a desert cooler is based on
39. In automatic wrist watches energy is provided by
(a) manual binding
(b) battery

(b) air dehydration
g.n
(a) hot air replacement
(c) evaporative cooling

(c) liquid crystal
(d) different movements of our hand
40. Sodium vapour lamp is usually used in street
light, because

(d) air rehydration
because
et
48. We cannot hear on the surface of the moon
(a) its surface absorbs sound

(a) it is cheap (b) it has no atmosphere
(c) it has very low gravitational force
(b) light from this is monochromatic and will
(d) None of these
not split through water droplets
49. Optical fibre works on the principle of
(c) it is pleasing to the eyes
(a) total internal reflection
(d) it is brightly illuminating (b) refraction
41. During the change of state of matter the (c) scattering
temperature of the substance (d) interference
(a) increases 50. The least distance of distinct vision for human
(b) decreases eye is
(c) remains the same (a) 25 cm (b) 5 cm
(d) may increase or decrease (c) 75 cm (d) 100 cm

E-4 || Physics
51. Red light is used as danger signal because it 59. CT scan is done by using
(a) is scattered least (a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultrasonic waves
(b) is comfortable for eyes (c) Visible lights (d) X-rays
(c) produces least chemical reactions 60. One micron represents a length of
(d) absorbs least in air (a) 10–6 m (b) 10–4 m
52. A myopic eye can be corrected by using a (c) 10 m –3 (d) 1 m
(a) convex lens (b) concave lens 61. When light passes from one medium to another
(c) cylindrical lens (d) plano convex lens medium, which one of the following does not
ww
53.

When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its volume
(a) increases
(b) decreases
change?
(a) Intensity
(c) Wavelength
(b) Velocity
(d) Frequency

w.E
54.
(c) first increases then decreases
(d) remains the same
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he
62. Radioactivity was discovered by

(a) Rutherford
(c) Bohr
(b) Henry Becquerel
(d) Madame Curie
63. Photoelectric effect was discovered by

(a) move towards the shore
asy
walks towards the shore, the boat will
(b) move away from the shore

(a) Hertz
(c) Plank
(b) Einstein
(d) Bohr
(c) remain stationary

(d) sink En 64. A nanometre is equal to
(a) 10–4 cm
(c) 10 cm –8
(b) 10–7 cm
(d) 10–9 cm
(a) velocity of sound gin

55. Richter scale is used for measuring 65. Pyrometer is used to measure
(a) air pressure

(b) intensity of light
(c) amplitude of seismic waves
(d) intensity of sound
ee
56. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
(b) humidity

(c) high temperature
rin
(d) intensity of earthquake
66. The apparatus used to measure the intensity of
light is known as

therapy to treat
(a) enlarged prostate gland (c) Lux meter g.n
(a) Anemometer (b) Calorimeter
(d) Altimeter

(b) gall bladder stones
(c) certain types of cancer
(d) kidney stones
57. A dynamo which is said to generate electricity

(a) amplified light
(b) infrared sensors et
67. Night vision cameras do not use

(c) heat radiation from objects

actually acts as a (d) X-ray radiation from objects
(a) Source of ions 68. Among the following radiations, which has the
(b) Source of electric charge highest energy ?
(c) Converter of energy (a) Visible (b) X-ray
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Infrared
(d) Source of electrons
69. Wavelength range of visible light is
58. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic
(a) 200 – 900 nm (b) 600 – 780 nm
wave ? (c) 300 – 800 nm (d) 390 – 780 nm
(a) γ-rays 70. Heat detectors in human skin are sensitive to
(b) cosmic rays wavelengths
(c) Microwave (a) > 780 nm (b) 600 – 780 nm
(d) Radio wave (c) 400 – 600 nm (d) < 400 nm


71. Recently developed technique for monitoring (b) density of brine is equal to that of ordinary
foetal growth is water
(a) Microwave technique (c) density of brine is greater than that of
(b) Ultrasonic ordinary water
(c) Ultra-violet rays
(d) None of these
(d) X-rays
80. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in
72. Light from the sun reaches earth in about
pond. If the man drinks some water from the
(a) 2 minutes (b) 4 minutes
pond, the level of water in the pond will
ww
(c) 8 minutes
73. Sound travels fastest in
(a) vacuum
(d) 16 minutes
(b) liquid

(a) rise a little
(b) fall a little
(c) remain stationary
w.E
(c) air (d) metal
74. Astronauts in space can’t stand at one place,
because

81.

(d) None of these
Food in the pressure cooker is cooked faster, as
(a) the boiling point increases due to an increase

(a) there is no gravity
asy
(b) viscous forces of the atmosphere are very
strong

in pressure
(b) the boiling point decreases due to an increase
in pressure

En
(c) solar wind exert an upward force
(d) atmospheric pressure is very low

(c) more steam is available at 100°C
(d) more pressure is available at 100°C

should be
(a) 165 feet
gin
75. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance
(b) 165 meter

82. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The
hole
(c) 16.5 feet

76. A cut diamond sparkles because of its
(a) hardness
ee
(d) 16.5 meter

(a) gets larger
(b) gets smaller
rin
(c) remains of the same size
(d) gets deformed

(b) high refractive index
(c) emission of light by the diamond
(d) absorption of light by the diamond
83.

volume
(a) increases g.n
When water is heated from 0ºC to 10ºC, its
77. Finger prints on a piece of paper may be detected

by sprinkling fluorescent powder on the paper
and then looking it into
(a) mercury light (b) sunlight

84.
(b) decreases
(c) does not change et
(d) first decreases and then increases
If a liquid is heated in space under no gravity, the
(c) infrared light (d) ultraviolet light transfer of heat will take place by process of
78. Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern (a) conduction
because of (b) convection
(a) diffusion of the oil through the wick (c) radiation
(b) capillary action (d) can not be heated in the absence of gravity
(c) buoyant force of air 85. Ventilators are provided at the top of room
(d) the gravitational pull of the wick (a) to bring oxygen for breathing
79. An egg when placed in ordinary water sinks but (b) so that sunlight may enter the room
floats when placed in brine. This is because (c) to maintain conventional currents to keep
the air fresh in the room
(a) density of brine is less than that of ordinary
(d) to provide an outlet for carbon dioxide
water

E-6 || Physics
86. A vibrating body (a) high specific resistance and high melting
(a) will always produce sound point
(b) may or may not produce sound if the (b) high specific resistance and low melting
amplitude of vibration is low point
(c) will produce sound which depends upon (c) low specific resistance and low melting
frequency point
(d) None of these
(d) low specific resistance and high melting
87. A body travelling with a speed of more than the
point
ww

velocity of sound in air is said to travel with
(a) supersonic speed (b) hypersonic speed
(c) ultrasonic speed (d) infrasonic speed
94. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter
than the other. Which of the two has a large
resistance?
w.E
88. The special technique used in ships to calculate
the depth of ocean beds is
(a) LASER (b) SONAR

(a) The bright bulb
(b) The dim bulb
(c) Both have the same resistance
(c) sonic boom
asy
(d) reverberation
89. When the distance between the object and the
(d) The brightness does not depend upon the
resistance

plane mirror increases
(a) the image remains same En 95.

The magnet is strongest near the
(a) poles of the magnet

the size of the object gin
(b) the size of the image will become less than

(b) ends of the magnet
(c) centre of magnet
(d) on equator point from the poles of the

mirror increases
ee
(c) the distance between the image and the plane
(d) the distance between the image and the plane

mirror decreases
96.

magnet
L.P.G. is mostly liquified
(a) hydrogen
(c) butane rin (b) oxygen
(d) methane
90. Butter paper is an example of ............. object.
(a) a transparent (b) a translucent
97.
reaction g.n
Solar energy is produced by the following
(c) an opaque (d) a luminous

91. The sun is seen before the actual sun rise because

of ..... .
(a) reflection

98.

et
(a) Fission reaction (b) Fusion reaction
(c) Chemical reaction (d) None of these
Einstein got noble prize for
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) refraction (b) Compton effect
(c) scattering of light (c) Theory of relativity
(d) None of these
(d) rectilinear propagation of light
99. Light year is
92. What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?
(a) Light emitted by the sun in one year
(a) High melting point, high specific resistance
(b) Time taken by light to travel from sun to
(b) Low melting point, low specific resistance earth
(c) High melting point, low specific resistance (c) The distance travelled by light in free space
(d) Low melting point, high specific resistance in one year
93. The heating element of an electric heater should (d) Time taken by earth to go once around the
be made with a material, which should have sun


100. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If the 106. When a ship floats on water
coin falls behind him, the train must be moving (a) it displaces no water
with (b) the mass of water displaced is equal to the
(a) an acceleration (b) a deceleration mass of the ship
(c) a uniform speed (d) any of the above (c) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the
mass of the ship
101. China wares are wraped in straw of paper before
(d) the mass of water displaced is greater than
packing. This is the application of concept of
the mass of the ship
(a) impulse (b) momentum
ww
(c) acceleration (d) force
102. When a body is stationary, then
107. A long jumper runs before jumping because he

(a) covers a greater distance
(b) maintains momentum conservation

w.E (a) there is no force acting on it
(b) the body is in vacuum
(c) the force acting on it is not in contact with it

(c) gains energy by running
(d) gains momentum
108. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the

asy
(d) the net forces acting on it balances each other
103. What happens when a heavy object and a light
object are allowed to fall from the certain height
gravitational pull of the earth on the book is
the force of action, then the force of reaction is
exerted by

in the absence of air
En
(a) heavy object reaches the ground later than

(a) the book on the table
(b) the book on the earth

the lighter object
gin
(b) lighter object reaches the ground later than

(c) the table on the book
(d) the table on the earth
109. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then

(c)
the heavier object
ground simultaneously
(d) None of these
ee
both heavy and light objects reach the

falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is
maximum
(a) on the ground
rin
(b) at the maximum height
104. An artificial satellite orbiting the earth does not
fall down because the earth’s attraction

g.n
(c) during the return journey
(d) both on the ground and at the maximum

(a) is balanced by the attraction of the moon
(b) vanishes at such distances
(c) is balanced by the viscous drag produced by
the atmosphere
height
et
110. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation

of
(a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum
(d) produces the necessary acceleration of its (c) energy (d) mass
motion in a curved path 111. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift
105. A block of ice is floating in a beaker containing (a) is going down steadily
(b) just begins to go up
liquid of specific gravity greater than one. When
(c) is moving up steadily
ice melts completely what happens to the level of
(d) descends freely
liquid in the beaker?
112. The spread in colours in a rainbow on sky is
(a) It will remain the same as before primarily due to
(b) It will go down (a) dispersion of sunlight
(c) It will rise up (b) reflection of sunlight
(d) It may or may not change depending upon (c) refraction of sunlight
size of beaker (d) total internal reflection of sunlight

E-8 || Physics
113. Which zone of a candle flame is the hottest ? 120. Microwave oven consumes less power due to
(a) Dark innermost zone (a) small frequency of radiation
(b) Outermost zone (b) short wavelength of radiation
(c) Middle luminous zone (c) large frequency as well as wavelength of
(d) Central zone radiation
114. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block (d) small frequency as well as wavelength of
when pressed together? radiation
(a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase 121. Bats can ascertain distance, directions, nature and
in pressure size of the obstacles at night. This is possible by
ww

(b) Melting point of ice increases with increase
in pressure
(c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with

reflection of the emitted
(a) ultrasonic waves from the bat

(b) ultrasonic waves from the distant objects
w.E
115.
increase in pressure
(d) Melting point of ice is 0°C
Evening Sun is not as hot as the mid day sun.
(c) supersonic waves from the bat
(d) supersonic waves from the distant objects
122. Why does one experience a strong shock when

What is the reason?
asy
(a) In the evening, radiation travel slowly
(b) In the evening, the temperature of the sun
one accidentally touches a live wire of, say,
220 V ?
(a) The resistance of human body is very low

decreases
En
(c) Ozone in atmosphere absorbs more light in

(b) The resistance of human body is very high
(c) The human body is sensitive to even feeble

the evening
gin
(d) In the evening, radiations travels larger
distance through atmosphere

currents
(d) The human body is sensitive to large currents
116.

weather, because
ee
A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot
(a) our body radiates more heat in air

(b) fan supplies cool air

only
123. Which one of the following is correct?

rin
Lightning is formed, when
(a) similar charges of electricity rush towards
each other and then get repelled

117.
(c) conductivity of air increases
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly
A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a

g.n
(b) clouds strike against impurities in air and hte
friction burns up these impurities

man with a white skin, will experience
(a) less heat and less cold
(b) less heat and more cold
(c) more heat and less cold

intervening air et
(c) strong opposite charges in different clouds
break down the resistance offered by
(d) water vapour produces electricity in the

(d) more heat and more cold clouds
118. A bucket full of water is kept in a room and it 124. Which one among the following is the correct
cools from 75°C to 70°C in time T1 minutes, order of power consumption for light of equal
from 70°C to 65°C in timeT2 minutes, and from intensity ?
65°C to 60°C in time T3 minutes, then (a) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent
(a) T1= T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3 bulb < Light emitting diode
(b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube <
(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T3 < T2
Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb
119. The audible frequency range of a human ear is
(c) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Light
(a) 20 Hz to 200 Hz
emitting diode < Incandescent bulb
(b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(d) Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode <
(c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
Fluorescent tube < CFL tube
(d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz


125. When an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked) 132. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of
as 16 A, it means it their low
(a) will not work if current is less than 16 A (a) temperature (b) velocity
(b) has a resistance of 16 W (c) pressure (d) density
(c) will work if the temperature is more than 133. If you are at open-air concert and someone’s head
16°C gets between you and the orchestra, you can still
(d) will be blown (break) if current exceeds 16 A hear the orchestra because
126. The lift of an air plane is based on (a) sound waves pass easily through a head
(b) a head is not very large compared with the
(a) Torricelli’s theorem
ww

(b) Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) Law of gravitation
(d) Conservation of linear momentum

wavelength of the sound
(c) the sound is reflected from the head
(d) the wavelength of the sound is much smaller

w.E
127. The working principle of a washing machine is
(a) centrifugation
(c) reverse osmosis
(b) dialysis
(d) diffusion
than the head
134. Sound cannot travel though
(a) solids
(c) gases
(b) liquids
(d) vacuum
the reason? asy

128. For which one of the following is capillarity not 135. Noise and music differ in their

(a) quality
(c) note
(b) tone
(d) pitch

(a) Blotting of ink
(b) Rising of underground water
En 136. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight
(a) remains precisely constant

gin
(c) Spread a water drop on a cotton cloth
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to
its foliage

(b)
(c)
(d)
increases slightly
decreases slightly
may increase slightly or may decrease slightly
d2
ee
129. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 >
d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated,
137. At the time of short circuit, the current in the

circuit
(a)
(b) rin
vary continuously
increases heavily
d1

(c)
(d) does not change
g.n
decreases substantially
138. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is

(a) both d1 and d2 will decrease
(b) both d1 and d2 will increase
(c) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(d) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase

(a) 30 c/s
(c) 60 c/s
et(b) 50 c/s
(d) 120 c/s
139. Electric iron uses wires of alloy as

(a)
(b)
they do not oxidise at high temperatures
they do not burn at high temperatures
130. The sprinkling of water slightly reduces the
(c) both (a) and (b)
temperature of a closed room because (d) neither (a) nor (b)
(a) temperature of water is less than that of the 140. Parameters of electricity supply in India are
room (a) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 50
(b) specific heat of water is high hertz and Current Rating of 5A/15A
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation (b) Potential Difference of 150 V, Frequency of 40
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat hertz and Current Rating of 10 A
131. The instrument used to measure the temperature (c) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 60
of the source from its thermal radiation is hertz and Current Rating of 15A
(a) hydrometer (b) barometer (d) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 40
(c) thermopile (d) pyrometer hertz and Current Rating of 5 A

E-10 || Physics
141. The earth’s magnetic field always has a vertical 147. A student finds the writing on the black board as
component except at the blurred and unclear when sitting on the last desk
(a) magnetic equator in a classroom. However, he sees it clearly when
(b) magnetic poles sitting on the front desk. Student suffers from a
(c) geographic north pole vision defect known as
(d) latitude 45º (a) hypermetropia (b) myopia
142. Domestic electrical wiring is basically a (c) presbyopia (d) astigmatism
(a) series connection 148. A swimming pool looks shallower than it really
ww

(b)
(c)
(d)
parallel connection
combination of series and parallel connections
series connection within each room and parallel

is, when seen by a person standing outside near
it, because of the phenomenon of
(a) refraction of light
w.E connection elsewhere

143. What is the order of magnitude of electric
resistance of the human body (dry) ?

(b)
(c)
(d)
reflection of light
dispersion of light
None of these
149. When a CD (compact disc used in audio and

(a) 102 ohm
(c) 106 ohm asy
(b) 104 ohm
(d) 108 ohm
144. Soap bubble looks coloured due to
video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like
colours are seen. This can be explained on the

(a) dispersion
(c) interference En
(b) reflection
(d) Any one of these

basis of the phenomenon of
(a)
(b)
reflection and diffraction
reflection and transmission

to steam at 100°C is
(a) less dangerous
gin
145. Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a burn due
(b) more dangerous

(c)
(d)
diffraction and transmission
refraction, diffraction and transmission
(c) equally dangerous
146. Rainbow is formed due to

ee
(d) None of these
(a) refraction, reflection and dispersion of light

through a water droplet
150. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She
finds the image of her head bigger, the middle
rin
portion of her body of the same size and that of
the legs smaller. The following is the order of
(b) reflection and dispersion of light through a water
droplet

(a)
(b)
g.n
combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
Plane, convex and concave
Convex, concave and plane

(c) only refraction of light
(d) only dispersion of light

(c)
(d) et
Concave, plane and convex
Convex, plane and concave

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (d) 41. (c) 61. (b) 81. (a) 101. (a) 121. (a) 141. (a)
2. (d) 22. (d) 42. (a) 62. (b) 82. (a) 102. (d) 122. (b) 142. (b)
3. (a) 23. (b) 43. (d) 63. (b) 83. (d) 103. (c) 123. (c) 143. (b)
4. (c) 24. (b) 44. (a) 64. (b) 84. (c) 104. (d) 124. (b) 144. (c)
5. (b) 25. (a) 45. (c) 65. (c) 85. (c) 105. (c) 125. (d) 145. (b)
6. (c) 26. (a) 46. (b) 66. (c) 86. (c) 106. (b) 126. (b) 146. (a)
ww 7.
8.
(a)
(c)
27.
28.
(b)
(d)
47.
48.
(a)
(b)
67.
68.
(d)
(b)
87.
88.
(a)
(b)
107.
108.
(b)
(c)
127.
128.
(a)
(b)
147.
148.
(b)
(a)
w.E
10.
11.
9. (a)
(b)
(d)
29.
30.
31.
(b)
(d)
(d)
49.
50.
51.
(a)
(a)
(a)
69.
70.
71.
(d)
(d)
(b)
89.
90.
91.
(c)
(b)
(b)
109.
110.
111.
(b)
(a)
(b)
129.
130.
131.
(b)
(c)
(c)
149.
150.
(d)
(c)
12.
13.
(b)
(d)
32.
33.
(b)
(a) asy
52.
53.
(b)
(b)
72.
73.
(c)
(d)
92.
93.
(d)
(a)
112.
113.
(a)
(c)
132.
133.
(d)
(b)
14.
15.
(b)
(a)
34.
35.
(d)
(b)
54.
55. En
(b)
(c)
74.
75.
(a)
(d)
94.
95.
(b)
(b)
114.
115.
(a)
(d)
134.
135.
(d)
(c)
16.
17.
(d)
(c)
36.
37.
(a)
(c)
56.
57.
(c)
(c)gin 76.
77.
(b)
(d)
96.
97.
(c)
(b)
116.
117.
(d)
(c)
136.
137.
(d)
(b)
18.
19.
20.
(b)
(a)
(d)
38.
39.
40.
(b)
(d)
(b)
58.
59.
60.
(b)
(d)
(a)
ee
78.
79.
80.
(b)
rin
(c)
(c)
98.
99.
100.
(a)
(c)
(a)
118.
119.
120.
(b)
(d)
(b)
138.
139.
140.
(b)
(c)
(a)
Hints & Solutions

g .ne
1. (b) Time period T = 2π

g
. The time period of a
t
5. (b) As
5
C
=
9
F – 32
if C = F = X° then
pendulum depends on its length l and acceleration
X° X° – 32
due to gravity g. =
5 9
2. (d) Scent sprayer is based on Bernoulli’s principle.
⇒ 9X° = 5X° – 32 × 5
3. (a) When a white ray of light passes through a ⇒ 4X° = – 32 × 5
prism it breaks into 7 colours VIBGYOR. – 32 × 5
4. (c) While compressed gas is released by ⇒ X° = = – 40°
4
absorbing surroundings heat or temperature lowers 6. (c) The magnetic needle always points
the temperature of surrounding. Hence, causes North-South direction. Magnetic north towards
cooling. geographic south and magnetic south pole towards
geographic north pole.

E-12 || Physics
7. (a) Robert Watson was the inventor of Radar. 1 angstrom = 10–10 m
8. (c) The instrument Sphygmomanometer measures 1 fermi = 10–15 m
the blood pressure. 23. (b) Wilhelm Rontgen invented X-ray machine.
9. (a) Retina of the eye is comparable to the film of 24. (b) The colour of the star is an indication of its
a traditional camera. Retina is a film of nerve fibres. temperature according to Wein’s displacement law
Image of the object is formed at retina just like l × T = b
camera film is used to see the images. where l = Wavelength
10. (b) Refrigeration lowers the temperature which T = Temperature and
helps in food preservation by reducing the rate of
ww bio-chemical reactions.
11. (d) Electric bulb filament is made of tungsten.
12. (b) Convex mirror is a diverging mirror used as

b = Constant whose value is
2892 × 10–6 mk
25. (a) Mercury is very good conductor of heat. Hence
w.Ea rear view mirror in the vehicles as it covers wide

range of vehicles coming behind.
13. (d) Mirage is an optical illusion. The reason of
mercury is used in thermometer.
26. (a) Solar cell is the source of electrical energy in
an artificial satellite.
asy
mirage is total internal reflection of light. In summer
air near the ground is hotter and hence rarer than
the air above which is responsible for TIR, hence,
27. (b) The weight of any body is maximum at poles.

Weight = mass × acceleration due to
gravity(g)
mirage.
En
14. (b) The colour of light is determined by its
gmaximum at poles and
gminimum at equator hence weight is
maximum at poles and minimum at equator.
gin
wavelength. Among seven constituent colours
VIBGYOR wavelength of red light is maximum
and of violet light is minimum.
28. (d) Transformer is used to step up or step down
AC voltage.
ee
15. (a) Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency
greater than 20,000Hz. The frequency range 20Hz
to 20,000Hz is human audible range of frequency.
16. (d) Laser is a device for producing stimulated
29. (b) When a body is taken from the earth to the
moon its weight decreases as the value of gravity on
surface.
rin
the surface of the moon is 1/6th as that of the earth’s
radiation. LASER stands for light amplification by

stimulated emission of (electromagnetic) radiation. g.n
30. (d) An iron ball weighing 10 kg on the earth will
weigh in space zero in space body experiences
weightlessness as g = 0.
17. (c) MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging.
18. (b) When ice melts, density increases so volume

decreases.
Mass = volume × density
et
31. (d) Air is filled in vehicle tyres because it is highly
compressible.
32. (b) Sound travels in the form of longitudinal waves.
These waves travel in the form of compressions and
19. (a) Infrared is used in the remote control of a rarefactions.
television. 33. (a) The mirror used by a dentist to examine the
20. (d) One unit of electrical energy teeth of patients is concave as concave mirror gives
= 1 kwh. magnified image of the object.
= 1 kilo watt hour 34. (d) Sound above 80dB is considered hazardous
100 noise pollution.
= kilo watt × 4 hour
1000 35. (b) If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a
= 0.4 unit few hours, the room temperature will increase. It is
21. (d) Tube light is filled with mercuric oxide and because system releases heat to the surroundings.
argon gas. 36. (a) The safest temperature for keeping food fresh
22. (d) 1 micron = 10–6 m in a refrigerator is 4°C. At this temperature density
1 nanometer = 10–9 m of water is maximum.


37. (c) Thermostat is a device which automatically 51. (a) Red light is used as danger signal because it is
regulates the temperature of a system. As the word scattered least.
suggests. 1
Scattering ∝
Thermostat = Thermo + stat i.e., keeping temperature λ4
(Thermo) Constant (static) And among three primary colours red, green and
38. (b) There is always an inverted image of the object blue red has maximum wavelength.
on the retina. 52. (b) A myopic eye can be corrected by using a
39. (d) In automatic wrist watches energy is provided concave lens.
by different movements of our hand.
ww
40. (b) Because the light from this is monochromatic
i.e., single colour light and will not split through
water droplets.
53. (b) When water is heated from 0°C to 4°C, its
volume decreases. Density =
Mass
Volume
w.E
41. (c) Heat given/taken by the substance is equal
to the latent heat of fusion or vaporization of the
substance. That is why the temperature of the
And density of water is maximum at 4°C.
54. (b) The boat will move away from the shore.
According to Newton’s 3rd law of motion, to every
action there is an equal but opposite reaction.
state. asy
substance remains the same during the change of
42. (a) In a three pin plug longest pin should be

55. (c) Richter scale is used for measuring amplitude
of seismic waves or intensity of earthquake.
En
connected to ground terminal. Ground pin is the
largest to supply the additional voltage that can give
56. (c) Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
therapy to treat certain types of cancer.
57. (c) A dynamo which is said to generate electricity
before live and neutral terminal. gin

electric shock. And being the longest it can touch actually acts as a converter of energy. It converts
mechanical energy into electrical energy.

energy. ee
43. (d) Dynamo is a machine which is used for
conversion of mechanical energy to electrical
44. (a) The cost of electricity will be ` 5.

1 unit of electricity
58. (b) Cosmic ray is not an electromagnetic wave.
59. (d) CT scan is done by using X-rays.
rin
60. (a) One micron represents a length of 10–6 m.
61. (b) When light passes from one medium to another

=
= 1 kwh (1 kilowatt hour)
100
kilowatt × 10 hour g.n
medium frequency does not change.
62. (b) Radioactivity was discovered by Henry
Bacquerel.

1000
= 1 unit hence electricity bill
=1×5=`5
45. (c) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.
Einstein. et
63. (b) Photoelectric effect was discovered by
64. (b) A nanometre is equal to 10–7 cm.

65. (c) Pyrometer is used to measure high temperature.
46. (b) In television broadcast, the picture signals are
transmitted by frequency modulation. 66. (c) The apparatus used to measure the intensity of
47. (a) The cooling by a desert cooler is based on hot light is known as Lux meter.
air replacement. 67. (d) Night vision cameras do not use X-ray
48. (b) Sound waves require material medium to radiation from objects.
travel. Moon has no such material mediums. 68. (b) X-ray has the highest energy. Among the given
49. (a) Optical fibre works on the principle of total four radiations X-ray has the highest frequency. And
internal reflection. Each fibre consists of core and Energy E = hv.
cladding. Refractive index of core is greater than Where h = Plank’s constant and
cladding.
v = frequency.
50. (a) The least distance of distinct vision is of
25 cm. It is the minimum distance that eye can 69. (d) Wavelength range of visible light is
accommodate to see the object. 390 – 800 nm.

E-14 || Physics
70. (d) Heat detectors in human skin are sensitive to 108. (c) If the gravitational pull of the earth on the
wavelengths < 400 nm. book is the force of action, then the force of reaction
71. (b) Ultrasonic is recently developed technique for is exerted by the table on the book.
monitoring foetal growth. 109. (b) We know that
72. (c) In about 8 minutes light from the sun reaches Potential energy = mgh
the earth. Hence potential energy is maximum at the
maximum height.
Distance
Time = 111. (b) One feels heavier in a lift when the lift just
Speed begins to go up because our body gains inertia from
ww

Speed of light in air/vacuum = 3 × 108 ms–1
Distance of the earth from the sun = 1.44 × 1011 m
73. (d) Sound travels fastest in metal. Increasing order
the position of rest and pushes up against the gravity
so here the weight becomes zero and our mass
makes us feel heavier.
112. (a) Rainbow (a band of seven colours –

w.Eof speed of sound in different mediums.
Vgas < Vliquid < Vsolid
Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum.
VIBGYOR) is a natural spectrum. It is caused by
dispersion (i.e. splitting of white light into seven
constituent colours VIBGYOR) of sunlight by tiny
because there is no gravity.

asy
74. (a) Astronauts in space can’t stand at one place,
75. (d) To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance

droplete of water present in the atmosphere.
113. (c) Middle luminous zone of a candle flame is the
hottest.

should be 16.5 metre.
To hear an echo, time =
1En 114. (a) Melting point of ice decreases with increase in
pressure.
115. (d) In evening, the radiations from the sun travel
gin
s
10 larger distance through atmosphere that’s why
Velocity of sound (in air) = 330 ms–1 evening sun is not as hot as the mid day sun.

Time =
⇒
1
=
2d
2d
Velocity of sound in air
ee 116. (d) A fan produces a feeling of comfort during
hot weather because our perspiration evaporates
rapidly.
rin
117. (c) We know that reflected amount of radiation in
light object is more than that of dark object.
g.n
10 330
119. (d) The audible frequency range of a human ear is
\ d = 16.5 metre 20 Hz to 20000Hz.
79. (c) Brine due to its high density exerts an upthrust 120. (b) Microwave oven consumes less power due to
which can balance the weight of the egg.
99. (c) 1 light year = speed of light in vacuum × no.
of seconds in one year = (3 × 108) × (365 × 24 ×
60 × 60) = 9.467 × 1015 m.
et
short wavelength of radiation.
121. (a) Bat emitted ultrasonic sounds specifically to
produce echoes. By comparing the outgoing pulse
with the returining echoes the brain and auditory
nervous system can produce detail image of
105. (c) The specific gravity of liquid is greater than surrounding.
one and as the specific gravity of water is 1 hence 124. (b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube < fluorescent
the level of liquid in the beaker will rise up. tube < incandescent bulb.
106. (b) According to Archimede’s principle when 126. (b) Apply Bernoulli’s theorem
a body is immersed fully or partially in a liquid, 127. (a) Washing machine works on the principle of
it experiences an upward force that is equal to the centrifugation. Centrifugation is a process that
weight of the fluid displaced by it therefore the mass involves the use of the centrifugal force for the
of water displaced is equal to the mass of the ship. separation of mixtures with a centrifuge, used in
industry and in laboratory settings. More-dense
107. (b) A long jumper runs before jumping because
components of the mixture migrate away from the
to maintain momentum conservation or to increase axis of the centrifuge, while less-dense components
initial speed. of the mixture migrate towards the axis.


128. (b) Capillary action, or capillarity, is a 143. (b) Human body has different resistances, when
phenomenon where liquid spontaneously rises in dry, resistance is 100,000 ohms. When wet because
a narrow space such as a thin tube, or in porous of sweat or water, resistance is only 1,000 ohms.
materials such as paper or in some non-porous
144. (c) Interference at thin films causes colouring of
materials such as liquefied carbon fibre. This effect
can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity soap bubble.
or the magnetic field induction. In blotting of ink, 145. (b) It is due to the additional heat equal to latent
spread of water drop on a cotton cloth and the rising heat possesed by steam.
of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage. 147. (b) Myopic eye can see near objects clearly but
ww
129. (c) When a body is heated, the distance between
any two points on it increases. The increase is in the
same ratio for any set at two points.
cannot see far objects clearly.
149. (d) The reason CDs reflect rainbow colors is
because they have a clear plastic coating on top of
w.E
130. (c) Water has a large latent heat of vaporisation.
When it is sprinked over a large area, its evaporation
occurs which, in turn, causes cooling.
131. (c) Thermopile is a combination of thermocouple
a mirrorized surface. Light refracts (bends) when it
moves from one medium (such as air) to another with
a different optical density (such as the clear plastic
asy
which generates electrical energy when one end is
kept at higher temperature with respect to the other
end. It is helpful in measuring the temperature of a
surface of a CD). Different wavelengths of light
(every color has a different wavelength) travel at
hot and radiating body.

En
132. (d) Because of density. The density of the clouds
different speeds, so that full spectrum appears when
white light passes from the air through the plastic
is less than that of the air.
gin
138. (b) In India the frequency of A.C. current is 50 Hz.
surface of a CD, separated light rays which are then
reflected back to us by the mirrorized center surface
of a CD. Here the diffraction and transmission also
ee
140. (a) Parameters of electricity supply are different
in different countries. In India they are:
Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 50 hertz
and Current Rating of 5A/15A.
141. (a) At magnetic equator, R = H; V = 0.
takes place because diffraction of light rays occur
rin
when it strikes the surface of CD and transmission
is obvious when light enters from one medium to
another. The thickness of the different optical media,
142. (b) In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each of
the components is the same, and the total current is g.n
angle of source light, and brightness of source light
all affect which rainbow patterns are visible on a CD.
the sum of the currents through each component. The
wiring for most homes is parallel .In parallel circuit
each branch receives equal current. If one branch in
the circuit is broken, electric current will still flow
in other branches.
et
150. (c) The size of the image formed by plane mirror is
equal to the size of the object. Convex mirror forms
diminished image whereas concave mirror always
form magnified image of the object.

2 Chemistry
ww
1. Which one of the following chemicals helps in 9. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of
w.E
fruit ripening?
(a) Ethephon
(c) Isoproturan
(b) Atrazine
(d) Malathion

10.
(a) oxalic acid (b) citric acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) acetic acid
Which of the following laser types is used in a
laser printer?
2. Solder is an alloy of

(a) tin and lead
(b) tin and copper asy

(a) Dye laser
(c) Excimer laser
(b) Semiconductor laser
(d) Gas laser

(c) tin, copper and zinc
(d) tin, lead and zinc
En 11.

Which one of the following is used as a moderator
in the nuclear reactor ?
(a) Thorium (b) Graphite
mainly consists of
(a) CH4 (b) CO2 gin
3. CNG used in automobiles to check pollution,

12.

(c) Radium (d) Ordinary water
Indane gas is a mixture of
(a) butane and hydrogen
(c) N2

(a) a seed plant
(c) a bacterium
(d) H2
(b) an insect
(d) a fungus
ee
4. Pyrethrin used in mosquito coil is obtained from

13.
(b) butane and oxygen
rin
(c) butane and propane
(d) methane and oxygen
The important metal used with iron to produce
5. Bio-gas mainly consists of
(a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen

stainless steel is
(a) carbon
(c) chromium
g.n(b) tin
(d) aluminium

(b) hydrogen and methane
(c) carbon dioxide and methane
(d) hydrogen and oxygen
6. ‘Acid rain’ is caused due to air-pollution by
14.

15.
(c) nitrogen
et
The gas which emits from rice field is
(a) ethane (b) methane
The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide (a) helium (b) hydrogen
(c) uranium (d) alpha particles
(c) methane
16. Which one of the following elements is used in
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
the manufacture of safety matches?
7. Which of the following is the most common
(a) Graphite (b) Phosphorus
element in the universe? (c) Silicon (d) Sodium
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen 17. Minerals are
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon (a) liquids (b) inorganic solid
8. A pungent smell often present near the urinals is (c) gases (d) all of the above
due to 18. The halogen being used as analgesic is
(a) sulphur-di-oxide (b) chlorine (a) chlorine (b) bromine
(c) ammonia (d) urea (c) iodine (d) fluorine


19. The first metal used by man was 32. Natural radioactivity was discovered by
(a) gold (b) silver (a) Rutherford (b) Becquerel
(c) copper (d) iron (c) Curie (d) Schmidt
20. The end product of alcoholic fermentation is 33. A radioactive substance emits
(a) pyruvic acid (b) acetaldehyde (a) alpha particle (b) beta particle
(c) ethyl alcohol (d) formic acid (c) gamma particle (d) all of the three
21. Milk is a
34. ‘Yellow Cake’ an item of smuggling across
(a) mixture (b) element
border is
(c) metal (d) None of these
(a) a crude form of heroin
ww
22.

Which one is not metal?
(a) Sulphur
(c) Nitrogen
(b) Sugar
(d) All of these

(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unreformed gold

w.E
23. Protons and neutrons are bound in a nucleus by
the
(a) short range ‘weak interaction’
(b) short range ‘strong interaction’
35.

Gamma rays are
(a) high energy electrons
(b) low energy electrons

24.
asy
(c) long range ‘electromagnetic interaction’
(d) long range ‘gravitational interaction’
A detergent is a

36.
(c) high energy electromagnetic
(d) high energy positrons waves
A device used for the measurement of radioactivity

(c) catalyst En
(a) cleansing agent (b) drug
(d) soap
is
(a) Mass spectrometer
25.

the experiment carried out by
(a) Bohr gin
Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to
(b) Rutherford

(b) Cyclotron
(c) Nuclear reactor

26.

(c) Moseley
The atomic orbital is
(d) Thomson
ee
(a) the circular path of the electron
(b) elliptical shaped orbit

37.

(d) G.M. counter
A radioactive substance has a half life of four
decay in
(a) 3 months rin
months. Three-fourth of the substance would
(b) 4 months

(c) three dimensional field around nucleus
(d) the region in which there is maximum
probability of finding electron

38.
(c) 8 months
g.n
When iron is rusted, it is
(d) 12 months
27.

28.

Meson was discovered by
(a) Powell
(c) Anderson
(b) Seaburg
(d) Yukawa
Which of the following has highest frequency?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) X-rays

39.

(a) Oxidised
(c) Evaporated
Uric acid is present in
(a) Soda water
et
(b) Reduced
(d) Decomposed
(b) Rancid butter

(c) Radio waves (d) Micro waves (c) Sour milk
29. Which of the following electromagnetic wave
(d) Urine of mammals
has the longest wavelength ?
40. In which one of the following situations a
(a) Infra red rays (b) Gamma rays
(c) Light rays (d) Ultra-violet rays chemical reaction does not occur?
30. In isotopes the number of neutrons are (a) Common salt is exposed to air
(a) same (b) different (b) Coal is burnt in air
(c) both (d) None of these (c) Sodium is placed in water
31. Species containing same number of electrons are (d) Iron is kept in moist air
called 41. Source of Vitamin C is
(a) isotopes (b) isobars (a) Nitric acid (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) isoelectronic (d) isotones (c) Oxalic acid (d) Maleic acid

E-18 || Chemistry
42. An ideal gas is one which obeys 55. Which one of the following is responsible for
(a) Gas laws (b) Boyle’s laws blue baby syndrome?
(c) Charle’s law (d) Avogadro’s law (a) Fluoride (b) Nitrate
43. The enzymes are killed (c) Arsenic (d) Lead
(a) at a very high temperature 56. Oils are purified by
(b) during chemical reaction (a) Fractional distillation
(c) at low temperature (b) Steam distillation
(d) under atmospheric pressure (c) Crystallisation
44. Which has maximum calorific value? (d) Vacuum distillation
ww

45.
(a) Fat
(c) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(d) Amino acid
In which type of coal percentage of carbon is the
57. Kerosene is a mixture of

(a) aromatic hydrocarbons
(b) aliphatic hydrocarbons

w.E highest?
(a) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(b) Lignite
(d) Anthracite

(c) saturated hydrocarbons
(d) alicyclic hydrocarbons
58. Candles contains a mixture of
46.

is
(a) hypertonic
asy
Blood cells do not shrink in blood because blood
(b) isotonic

(a) Bees wax and paraffin wax
(b) Bees wax and stearic acid
(c) Paraffin wax and stearic acid

47.
(c) equimolar
En
(d) hypotonic
At 30°C, which 3 metals are all liquids ?
(d) Higher fatty acid
59. Which one of the following elements is a

(a) Hg, Fe, Zn
(c) Zn, Pb, Sn gin
(b) Hg, Sn,Pb
(d) Hg,Ga, Cs
metalloid ?
(a) P (b) Al
48.

49.

Alum purifies muddy water by
(a) Absorption (b) Dialysis
(c) Emulsification (d) Coagulation
Scattering of light takes place in
(a) electroplating
ee (c) As
found in the atmosphere?

(a) Argon
(c) Radon
(d) Po
60. Which one of the following noble gases is not
rin (b) Krypton

(d) Xenon

(b) electrolysis
(c) solution of electrolyte g.n
61. Which one of the following metals occurs in
nature in free state?

50.

(d) colloidal solution
Which is used in storage batteries?
(a) Copper
(c) Tin
(b) Lead
(d) Zinc
(a) Gold
(c) Aluminium
et
(b) Sodium
(d) Copper
62. Which is the rarest naturally occurring element of
earth?
51. Stainless steel contains (a) Gold (b) Antimony
(a) Fe + Cr + Ni (b) Fe + Ni + Cu (c) Germanium (d) Astatine
(c) Fe + Cr + Cu (d) Fe + C + Ni 63. The deficiency of which one of the following
52. The gas is commonly used in anaesthesia leads to dental caries?
(a) methane (b) nitrous oxide (a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) nitrogen (d) hydrogen peroxide (c) Fluorine (d) Zinc
53. The inert gas abundantly found in atmosphere is 64. Which one among the following equations is
(a) Xe (b) Kr correctly balanced ?
(c) He (d) Ar (a) NaOH + Al + H2O → 2H2 + NaAlO2
54. Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs? (b) 2NaOH + 2Al + 2H2O → 3H2 + 2NaAlO2
(a) Neon (b) Argon (c) 2NaOH + 2Al + 3H2O → 4H2 + 2NaAlO2
(c) Radon (d) Krypton (d) 2NaOH + 2Al + H2O → H2 + 2NaAlO2


65. Which gas is responsible for the swelling of bread? 77. Which one of the following is used as a fertilizer?
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon monoxide (a) NH4OH (b) NH4Cl
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ammonia (c) NH4NO3 (d) (NH4)2SO4
66. Which one amongthe following is not a mixture? 78. Which one of the following acids is used for
(a) Graphite (b) Glass etching glass?
(c) Brass (d) Steel (a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3
67. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous (c) HF (d) HCl
fertilizer? 79. Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by which
(a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaCN2 one of the following?
ww
(c) NH4NO3 (d) Urea
68. The metal compound commonly found in
Sindhoor or Kumkum is based on

(a) Sodium silicate
(b) Free fatty acid
(c) Potassium carbonate
w.E
(a) Tin
(c) Copper
(b) Lead
(d) Zinc
69. Which among the following elements (metals)

80.

(d) Sodium chloride
What is iodised table salt?
(a) An element

automobiles?
(a) Cadmium asy
pollutes the air of a city having large number of
(b) Lead

(b) A compound
(c) A heterogeneous mixture
(d) A homogeneous mixture
(c) Chromium
En
(d) Nickel
70. In chemical terms, what are alums used for
81. Which one of the following is not present in
cement?

(a) Hydrated chlorides
(b) Double nitrate gin
purifying water for drinking purposes ?

82.
(a) Clay
(c) Alum
(b) Alumina
(d) Gypsum
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the

(c) Double sulphates
(d) Nitrates of aluminium
ee
71. Which one among the following is used as a
moderator in nuclear reactors?

83.
plant?
(a) Super phosphate (b) Nitrolim
rin
(c) Muriate of Potash (d) Humus
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam

(a) Ozone
(c) Heavy water
(b) Heavy hydrogen
(d) Hydrogen peroxide
72. Which among the following is an element?

fire extinguishers?
g.n
(a) Aluminium sulphate
(b) Copper sulphate
(a) Alumina
(c) Graphite
(b) Brass
(d) Silica
73. Which one of the following elements exists in
liquid state at room temperature?

84.
(c) Cobalt sulphate
(d) Nickel sulphate
et
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical
fertilizer?
(a) Mercury (b) Lead (a) Nitrogen and limestone
(c) Sodium (d) Calcium (b) Calcium carbide and nitrogen
74. The metal constituent of chlorophyll is (c) Calcium carbide and carbon
(a) Iron (b) Potassium (d) None of these
(c) Manganese (d) Magnesium 85. Which one of the following glasses is used in
75. Which one among the following does not have an bullet proof screens?
allotrope? (a) Soda glass (b) Pyrex glass
(a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur (c) Jena glass (d) Reinforced glass
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon 86. Which substance is used to retard the setting
76. The acid in gastricjuice is action of cement?
(a) acetic acid (b) nitric acid (a) CaO (b) Al2O3
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) sulphuric acid (c) CaSO4, 2H2O (d) Na2O + K2O

E-20 || Chemistry
87. What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered pond that does not leave enough oxygen needed
charcoal and sulphur called? to support life. This type of pollution is called
(a) Glass (b) Cement (a) Smog (b) Eutrophication
(c) Paint (d) Gun powder (c) Green house effect (d) None of these
88. Alum is used as 96. Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of
(a) an analgesic (b) a fertilizer (a) heart diseases (b) skin diseases
(c) a disinfectant (d) a purifier for water (c) diabetes (d) cancer
89. In surgery, metal pins are used for joining 97. Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
together broken bones. These metal pins remain (a) Insulin (b) Penicillin
ww

uncorroded in the body. What is the material of
these pins?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Chloroquine
(a) Table salt

(d) Aspirin
98. Which one is a sublime substance?
(b) Sugar

w.E(c) Aluminium (d) Titanium
90. Human stomach produces acid ‘X’ which helps in
digestion of food. Acid ‘X’ is
(c) Iodine
99. Carborundum is a compound of
(a) Ca
(d) Potassium Iodide
(b) Ge

(a) acetic acid
asy
(b) methanoic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) citric acid
91. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the
(c) Si (d) S
100. C11 - L - methyl-methionine is used for
(a) brain tumor and parathyroid imaging
En
secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the
stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet can

(b) stomach analysis
(c) bone imaging
gin
be taken that reacts to reduce the amount of acid
present. Which one among the following would
be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as
(d) live imaging
101. The number of protons in a negatively charged

a major reactant in the tablet?
(a) CaCO3
(c) NaOH
(b) MgCO3
(d) Mg(OH)2
ee
92. Tc99m-DTPA (diethylenetriaminepenta-acetic

atom (anion) is
(a) more than the atomic number of the element
rin
(b) less than the atomic number of the element
(c) more than the number of elecrons in the
atom

acid) is used for
(a) brain imaging
(b) pancreatric analysis

g.n
(d) less than the number of electrons in the atom
102. pH of human body varies within the range of

(c) total water content in the body
(d) detecting disfunctioning of liver
93. Commonly used antiseptic ‘Dettol’ is a mixture of
(a) o-chlorophenoxylenol + terepineol

(a) 6.0 to 6.5
(c) 7.0 to 7.8
et(b) 5.5 to 5.8
(d) 7.0 to 11.0
103. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush
our teeth regularly. The nature of the tooth paste
(b) o-cresol + terepineol commonly used is
(c) phenol + terepineol (a) acidic (b) neutral
(d) chloroxylenol + terepineol (c) basic (d) corrosive
94. Which of the following is used as a preservative 104. Petroleum gas is a mixture of ethane, propane and
to protect processed food? butane. What is its major constituents?
(a) Sodium sulphate (a) Ethane
(b) Saccharin (b) Propane
(c) BHT (c) Butane
(d) Sodium metabisulphite (d) All three are present in equal propertions
95. When a nutrient like fertilizer is present in large 105. LPG is a mixture of
quantities in a water bodies, plants grow and (a) C6H12 + C6H6 (b) C4H10 + C3H8
decay in large numbers because of suffocating of (c) C2H2 + C2H4 (d) CH4 + C2H4


106. Which of the following could act as a propellant 114. Consider the following statements:
for rockets ? 1. Maximum covalency of carbon is 4, whereas
(a) Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon maximum covalency of silicon is 6.
(b) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen 2. The maximum covalency of an element is
(c) Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen limited to 6.
(d) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen Which of the statements given above is/are
107. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc correct ?
because (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) zinc is costlier than tin (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ww

(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin
115. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom

contains
(a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons

w.E
108. Silicon is used in
(a) solar energy devices
(b) semiconductors
(c) transistors

(b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(d) All of these
asy
109. In which one of the following is the valence
electronic configuration, ns2np3 found ?
116. Which one among the following is the equivalent

weight of sulphuric acid ?
(Atomic weight : H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
(a) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen En
(b) Oxygen
(d) Argon
(a) 98
(c) 100
(b) 60
(d) 49
117. Which one of the following is the correct
110. Cinnabar is an ore of
(a) Hg
(c) Pb
(b) Cu
(d) Zn gin statement ? The force binding the nucleons inside
the nucleus is :
(a)
(b)
in alcohol industry is
Escherichia coli
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
ee
111. The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology

(a) charge dependent
(b) strong and highly repulsive
rin
(c) a central force
(d) charge independent
118. Soap helps in cleaning clothes, because
(c)
(d)
Bacillus subtilis
Pseudomonas putida
112. Calcium carbonate is naturally available as

g.n
(a) chemical of soap change
(b) it increases the surface tension of the
limestone and can also be synthesized from
quick lime. It is seen that the compositions of the
elements in both the natural and synthetic calcium
carbonate are same. The validity of which one
among the following laws is confirmed by this

solution
(c) it absorbs the dirt
et
(d) it lowers the surface tension of the solution
119. Which one of the following mixtures is
homogeneous?
observation? (a) Starch and sugar
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Methanol and water
(b) Law of definite proportion (c) Graphite and charcoal
(c) Law of multiple proportion (d) Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate
(d) Avogadro's law 120. What is the term used to denote the critical
113. Which one of the following is the correct temperature at which the air becomes saturated
sequence of the given elements in the increasing with vapour and below which the condensation is
order of their reactivity ? likely to begin ?
(a) Iodine-Bromine-Chlorine-Fluorine (a) Condensation point
(b) Bromine-Iodine-Chlorine-Fluorine (b) Evaporation point
(c) Bromine-Iodine-Fluorine-Chlorine (c) Dew point
(d) Iodine-Bromine-Fluorine-Chlorine (d) Point of critical temperature

E-22 || Chemistry
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 16. (b) 31. (c) 46. (b) 61. (a) 76. (c) 91. (c) 106. (b)
2. (a) 17. (b) 32. (b) 47. (d) 62. (d) 77. (d) 92. (a) 107. (c)
3. (a) 18. (b) 33. (d) 48. (d) 63. (c) 78. (c) 93. (d) 108. (d)
4. (a) 19. (c) 34. (c) 49. (d) 64. (b) 79. (c) 94. (d) 109. (c)
5. (c) 20. (c) 35. (c) 50. (b) 65. (c) 80. (d) 95. (b) 110. (a)
6. (d) 21. (a) 36. (d) 51. (a) 66. (a) 81. (c) 96. (d) 111. (d)
ww7.
8.
(a)
(c)
22.
23.
(d)
(b)
37.
38.
(c)
(a)
52.
53.
(b)
(d)
67.
68.
(a)
(b)
82.
83.
(c)
(a)
97.
98.
(a)
(c)
112.
113.
(b)
(a)
w.E
9.
10.
11.
(d)
(d)
(b)
24.
25.
26.
(a)
(b)
(d)
39.
40.
41.
(d)
(a)
(b)
54.
55.
56.
(b)
(b)
(b)
69.
70.
71.
(b)
(c)
(c)
84.
85.
86.
(d)
(d)
(c)
99.
100.
101.
(c)
(a)
(d)
114.
115.
116.
(a)
(a)
(d)
12.
13.
(c)
(c)
27.
28.
(d)
(a) asy
42.
43.
(a)
(a)
57.
58.
(b)
(c)
72.
73.
(c)
(a)
87.
88.
(d)
(d)
102.
103.
(c)
(c)
117.
118.
(d)
(d)
14.
15.
(b)
(a)
29.
30.
(a)
(b)
44.
45.
En
(a)
(d)
59.
60.
(c)
(c)
74.
75.
(d)
(c)
89.
90.
(d)
(c)
104.
105.
(c)
(b)
119.
120.
(b)
(c)
gin
Hints & Solutions
1. (a) Ethephon is used to promote pre-harvest
eer 6. (d) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur
beet, coffee and many other products.

2. (a) Solders are typically made from tin or lead
i
ripening of fruits e.g., tomatoes, sugar beet, fodder
7. ng.
dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the
water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.
(a) The most abundant element in the universe is
or a combination of both in the ratio of 63:377
respectively.
3. (a) Natural gas is 95 percent Methane (CH4) Plus
four other hydrocarbons:
net
hydrogen, which makes up about 3/4 of all matter!
Helium makes up most of the remaining 25%.
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the
universe. All of the other elements are relatively
rare.
Ethane (C2H6) – 2.5%, Propane (C3H8) – 0.2%, Butane
(C4H10) – 0.06%, Pentanes Plus (C5H12 + C10H22) 8. (c) A pungent smell often present near the urinals
is due to ammonia.
– 0.02%.It also contains small amounts of: Nitrogen
9. (d) Vinegar is a liquid consisting mainly of acetic
(N2) – 1.6%, Carbon Dioxide (CO2) – 0.7%, Hydrogen
acid (CH3COOH) and water.
Sulphide (H2S) – trace, Water (H2O) – trace
10. (d) Gas laser is used in a laser printer.
4. (a) Pyrethrin is a natural plant derived 11. (b) Graphite, a form of carbon slows down
substance that comes from the chrysanthemum neutrons hence its name a moderator.
cinerariaefolium. 12. (c) Indane gas is a mixture of butane and propane.
5. (c) Bio gas is primarily a mixture of methane 13. (c) Stainless steel contain sufficient chromium
(CH4) and inert carbon dioxide gas (CO2). However to form a passive film of chromium oxide, which
the name ‘biogas’ gathers a large variety of gases prevents further surface corrosion by blocking
resulting from specific treatment processes, starting oxygen diffusion to the steel surface and blocks
from various organic waste - industries, animal or corrosion from spreading into the metal’s internal
domestic origin waste, etc. structure.


14. (b) Rice agriculture is a big source of atmospheric 27. (d) Meson was discovered by Yukawa.
methane, possibly the biggest of man-made methane 28. (a) The correct frequency order is radio waves
sources. < microwaves < x-rays < cosmic rays
15. (a) Helium is the nuclear fuel in the sun. 29. (a) Infra red radiation has the longest wavelength
16. (b) The coated end of a match, known as the match out of these choices, and hence the lowest frequency.
“head”, contains either phosphorus or phosphorus Gamma radiation has the shortest wavelength and
sesquisulfide as the active ingredient and gelatin as the highest frequency.
a binder. 30. (b) Isotopes have same atomic number (A) but
17. (b) Minerals are inorganic solid. different atomic mass (Z). Hence the value of
ww
18. (b) Compounds of bromine have been used as
sedatives, hypnotics, and analgesics.
19. (c) Probably copper which can be found as a
neutrons (Z-A) will be different.
31. (c) Species containing same number of electrons
are called Isoelectronics.
32. (b) Natural Radio activity was discovered by
w.E naturally occurring native metal which is sometimes

found in large lumps on the ground. People learned
to make this into copper tools and other things,
although, for a metal, it is quite soft. When it was
Becquerel.
33. (d) A radioactive substance emits alpha, beta and
gamma particles.
asy
melted over fire, people learned how to make an
alloy called bronze, which is much harder and
stronger than copper.
34. (c) Yellow cake is a solid form of mixed uranium
oxide, which is produced from uranium ore in the
uranium recovery (milling) process.
En
20. (c) Alcoholic fermentation, is a biological
process in which sugars such as glucose, fructose,
35. (c) Gamma radiation, also known as gamma rays,
are electromagnetic radiation of extremely high
frequency.
gin
and sucrose are converted into cellular energy and
thereby produce ethanol and carbon dioxide as
metabolic waste products.
36. (d) G.M. counter is a device used for the
measurement of radioactivity.
with fat and sugar.

ee
21. (a) Milk is a mixture composed of water, along
22. (d) Sulphur, sugar, nitrogen are non-metal.

23. (b) The force between protons and neutrons in the
37. (c) Given half life (t1/2) = 4 months
Hence the amount of a radioactive substance
rin
remains half after 4 months. Hence, 3/4th of a
substance would decay in two half lives i.e., 8
months.
nucleus is short range strong interaction.
24. (a) A detergent is a cleansing agent.
25. (b) In one of their most well-known experiments, g.n
38. (a) Rusting is a chemical process that results in
corrosion or oxidation when oxygen metal comes in
contact with a metal.
which took place while Rutherford was a professor
at the University of Manchester, the physicists
beamed alpha particles at a thin sheet of gold foil.
During the experiment, most of the particles passed
through the gold foil onto the screen behind it, but
change.
et
39. (d) Uric acid is present in the urine of mammals.
40. (a) Exposure of common salt to air is a physical
41. (b) Ascorbic acid is the source of Vitamin-C.

42. (a) A gas that, when kept at a constant temperature,
some were deflected. Rutherford determined that would obey the gas laws exactly.
the particles that made up the gold foil must consist 43. (a) At a very high temperature they become
mostly of empty space since most of the alpha denatured i.e. they can no longer perform the action
particles passed through. However, some regions that they were created to do.
of the gold must have been too dense to allow the 44. (a) Fat has maximum calorific value.
alpha particles through, and this heavy part of the 45. (d) Anthracite coal has the highest percentage of
atom was what Rutherford called the nucleus. He carbon among the different types of coal.
concluded that it was the nucleus that held most of 46. (b) When the osmotic pressure outside the red
the atom’s mass. blood cells is the same as the pressure inside the
26. (d) An orbital is the area around an atom where cells, the solution is isotonic with respect to the
the electron (or electrons) are most likely to be. (90- cytoplasm. This is the usual condition of red blood
95% likely) cells in plasma. Hence the cells do not shrink.

E-24 || Chemistry
47. (d) At room temperature (30°C), Hg, Ga, Cs 66. (a) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon. Hence this
metals are liquids. is an element not mixture.
48. (d) Aluminium Sulphate, also known as Alum, 67. (a) Except Ca(CN)2 all are nitrogenous fertilizers.
when added to water reacts with the bicarbonate 68. (b) Pb3O4 commonly known as red lead is used as
alkalinities present in water and forms a gelatinous sindhoor.
precipitate. This floc attracts other fine particles and 69. (b) Tetra ethyl lead (C2H5)4Pb is used as an
suspended material in water, and settles down at the antiknock compound. It is mixed with petrol to
bottom of the container. improve its quality. Therefore automobile exhausts
49. (d) Scattering of light takes place in colloidal lead, which pollutes city.
ww solution.
50. (b) Lead is used in storage batteries.
51. (a) Chemically, stainless steels are 75 – 90% iron.
70. (c) Alum is double sulphates having the

composition M2SO4. M2(SO4)3. 24H2O.
Where M stands for monovalent basic radicals.
w.E They are alloyed with varying amounts of chromium,

nickel, and/or molybdenum.
52. (b) Nitrous oxide is commonly used in anaesthesia.
Alums have Germicide properties and thus used in
purification of water.
71. (c) In nuclear reactor heavy water (D2O) used
to slow down the speed of neutron i.e., act as
atmosphere.
asy
53. (d) Argon (Ar) makes up 0.9 percent of the
54. (b) Electric bulbs are filled with argon gas because
moderator.
72. (c) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon. Alumina
(Al2O3) and silica (SiO2) are oxides and Brass is an
bright light.
En
this gas is able to burn very intensely and produce alloy of Cu and Zn.
73. (a) Mercury exists in liquid state at room
gin
55. (b) Blue Baby Syndrome is an illness that begins
when large amounts of nitrates in water are ingested
by an infant and converted to nitrite by the digestive
temperature.
74. (d) Chlorophyll is a chlorine pigment in which at
the centre of the chlorine ring is a magnesium ion.
ee
system. The nitrite then reacts with oxyhemoglobin
to form methemoglobin, which cannot carry oxygen.
If a large enough amount of methemoglobin is
formed in the blood, body tissues may be deprived
Chlorine ring also bears a long phytol chain.
75. (c) Unstable allotropes of nitrogen consisting
rin
of more than two nitrogen atoms have been
produced in the laboratory, like N3 and N4[1].
of oxygen, causing the infant to develop a blue
coloration of their mucous membranes and possibly
digestive and respiratory problems. This condition g.n
Under extremely high pressures (1.1 million atm)
and high temperatures (2000 K), as produced under
diamond anvil conditions, nitrogen polymerizes
is also known as methemoglobinemia.
56. (b) Oils are purified by steam distillation.
57. (b) Kerosene is a mixture of Aliphatic-
hydrocarbons.
et
into the single bonded diamond crystal structure, an
allotrope nicknamed “nitrogen diamond”.
77. (d) (NH4)2 SO4 is known as Sindri fertilizer. It
is colourless and highly soluble in water. NH4NO3
is also used as a fertilizer by mixing with other
58. (c) Candles contain a mixture of paraffin wax and
substances like nitro chalk NH4NO3 + CaCO3,
stearic acid.
Luena saltpetre NH4NO3 + (NH4)2SO4
59. (c) As (Arsenic) is a metalloid. In this group both
78. (c) Hydrofluoric acid (HF) is used in the etching
As and Sb are metalloids. of glass.
60. (c) Radon (Rn) is not found in the atmosphere. 79. (c) Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by
61. (a) Gold is a stable noble metal and resists the potassium carbonate.
action of the atmosphere and occurs in free state. 80. (d) Iodised table salt is homogeneous mixture.
62. (d) It is a radioactive element. 81. (c) Gypsum is added in calculated quantity in
64. (b) Sodium hydroxide, aluminium and water reacts order to adjust the rate of setting of cement. Alum is
to form sodium aluminium oxide and hydrogen gas. NOT present in cement.
65. (c) Carbon dioxide is responsible for swelling of 82. (c) Muriate of potash is assimilated directly by the
bread. plant.


83. (a) Aluminium sulphate is used in ‘foam’ fire 106. (b) Liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen are used as
extinguishers, which contains radium bicarbonate excellent fuel for rockets. H2(l) has low mass and
and aluminium sulphate in separate receptacles on high enthalpy of combustion whereas oxygen is a
being mixed they form the foam of bubbles of CO2. strong supporter of combustion.
84. (d) Calcium cyanamide (CaCN2) mixed with 109. (c) Nitrogen (Z = 7) has the electronic configuration
carbon (C) is called nitrolim.
1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (i.e. ns2 np3)
CaC2 + N 2 → CaCN 2 + C
 110. (a) Cinnabar is HgS.
Cal.Carbide
Nitro lim
112. (b) According to law of definite proportion, a
85. (d) Reinforced glass is used in bullet proof covers.
ww
86. (c) CaSO4. 2H2O (Gypsum) is added to cement
clinker to retard setting action of cement.
87. (d) Gun powder is a powdered explosive
chemical compound is always found to be made up
of the same element combined together in the same
fixed proportion by mass.
w.E containing potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal

and sulphur.
88. (d) Alum is used to purify water, as it has the
113. (a) Reactivity of halogens decreases as we move
down the group. i.e. fluorine is most reactive and
iodine is least reactive, since there is successive
antiseptic in nature.
89. (d) Ti asy
property to coagulate mud particles. It is also
metal is important for its strength,

increase in size, decrease in electronegativity and
decrease in dissociation energy of X-X bonds.
114. (a) Carbon and Silicon both is belongs to IVth
En
low density and corrosion resistance. It has
bitter corrosion resistance and less reactivity
group and carbon have maximum valency of 4.
C : 2, 4
uncorroded in the body.

gin
than aluminium. Hence, Titanium pins remains
90. (c) Hydrochloric acid secreted by oxyntic cell

Si : 2, 8, 4
But Si have vacant d-orbitals and can be used to
accomodate more electrons. Thus, the maximum
ee
activates proenzyme pepsinogen to pepsin and also
provides the acidic pH optimal for pepsins.
91. (c) Calcium carbonate, magnesium carbonate and
magnesium hydroxide are important chemicals used
covalency of Si can be 6.
115. (a) The charged carbon atom in a carbocation is
rin
a "sextet", i.e. it has only six electrons in its outer
valence shell instead of the eight valence electrons
in the making of antacids to reduce indigestion.
93. (d) The mixture of chloroxylenol and terepineol
are dettol which is used as antiseptic. g.n
that ensures maximum stability (octet rule).
Therefore carbocations are often reactive, seeking
96. (d) Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of

cancer.
97. (a) Insulin is an antidiabatic drug.
98. (c) Iodine is a sublimate.
a neutral charge.
et
to fill the octet of valence electrons as well as regain
116. (d) H2 SO4 ⇒1 + 32 + 16 = 49

117. (d) Nuclear forces between protons and protons
between neutrons and neutrons and between
99. (c) Carborundum is silicon carbide.
protons and neutrons are all essentially the same in
101. (d) In case of a neutral atom
Number of protons = Number of electrons magnitude. Thus, we can say that nuclear forces are
Anion is formed by gain of electron (s) by a neutral charge independent.
atom. Thus in case of anion. 118. (d) Soap helps to lower the surface tension of
Number of electrons > Number of protons solution, thus soap get stick to the dust particles and
104. (c) Its main constituent is butane which burns grease and these are removed by action of water.
giving off a lot of heat. Butane is easily liquefied 119. (b) A mixture of methanol (a liquid) and water
under high pressure. (a liquid) is homogeneous.
105. (b) LPG is a mixture of C4H10 (Butane), C3H8 120. (c) The critical temperature at which air becomes
(propane) and C2H6 (ethane). Main constituent is saturated with vapour and below which the
butane (C4H10). condensation is likely to begin is called a dew point.

3 Biology
ww Botany 9. lichens are indicators of

w.E
1. Who of the following is known as the Father of
Biology?
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck

(a) Air pollution
(c) Soil pollution
(b) Water pollution
(d) Radiation pollution
10. The biofertilizer used for the paddy crops is

2.
(c) Aristotle
asy
(d) Theophrastus
Who of the following is known as the Father of

(b)
(a) Blue-green algae
Rhizobium species

Botany?
(a) Darwin
En
(b) Lamarck

(d)
(c) Fungal root fungal
Azetobactor species

3.
gin
(c) Carolus Linnaeus (d) Theophrastus
Which of the following is known as the Father of
Indian Botany?
11. The unicellular alga used to supply and regulate
the oxygen in space programmes is

(a) Birbal Shahni
(c) William Roxburgh
(d) T. Sadashivam
(b) K.C. Mehta
ee (a)
(c)
Spyrogyra (b)
Ulothrix (d)
rin
Chlorella
Odogonium
12. In which of the following chlorophyll does not
exist?
4.

Who is called the Father of Taxonomy?
(a) Aristotle (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(a) Algae
(c) Bryophytes g.n
(b) Fungi
(d) Pteridophytes

5.

(c) Theophrastus (d) Lamarck
The Indian Botanical Garden is located at :
(a) Lucknow
(c) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(d) Allahabad
of :
(a) Moss
(c) Algae
et
13. The red colour of the red sea is due to the presence
(b) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
6. The study of Annual Rings is called 14. Lichen is a composite combination of two
(a) Dendrology (b) Dendrochronology organisms.
(c) Morphology (d) Horticulture (a) Fungi and Bryophyta
7. The study of the internal structure of the plants is (b) Fungi and Fern
called
(c) Algae and Bryophyta
(a) Taxonomy (b) Agronomy
(d) Algae and Fungi
(c) Anatomy (d) Morphology
15. The litmus paper utilized in the chemical
8. The branch of botany under which fungi is studied :
laboratories is made of :
(a) Phycology (b) Mycology
(a) Fern (b) Algae
(c) Ethology (d) Microbiology
(c) Lichen (d) Fungi


16. Commercial agar agar is obtained from 27. The photosynthesis occurs in the
(a) Chlorella (b) Gracilaria (a) Day (b) Night
(c) Porphyro (d) Volvox (c) Day and Night (d) None of these
17. Azolla is a 28. The device to measure transpiration in plants is
(a) Algae (b) Fungi (a) Hygrometer (b) Crescometer
(c) Bryophyta (d) Aqueous fern (c) Potometer (d) Clinometer
18. Which of the following is used as an ornamental 29. The process of evaporation occurs from
plant? (a) Root (b) Stem
ww
(a)
(c)
Psilotum (b)
Selaginella (d)
Lycopodium
Pteris

30.
(c) Leaf (d) Entire ‘plants’ surface
At which region of the electromagnetic spectrum
w.E
19. Which of the following bears naked seeds?
(a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes

do the plants photosynthesise?
(a) Red and Blue (b) Green and Yellow
(c) Blue and Orange (d) Violet and Orange
(a) Cycas (b) asy

20. Which of the following is a living fossil?
Pinus
31. Which of the following is the cellular respiratory
centre?
(c) Sellaginella (d)
21. Chilgoza is obtained from
En
Cidrus

(a) Nucleus
(c) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(d) Golgi body
(a)
(c)
Cycas (b)
Sellaginella (d)
Pinus
Ginkgo
gin 32.

Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Adreneline (b) Insuline
22. ‘Sago’ is obtained from
(a)
(c)
Cycas (b)
Cedrus (d)
Pinus
Juniperus
23. The age of trees is estimated by
ee
33.

(c) Oxytocin (d) Auxin
The water and mineral salts are transported to the
(a) Xylem rin

various organs by which of the following?
(b) Phloem

(a) their heights
(b) their weights

34.
(c) Cortex
g.n
(d) Cambium
The food material prepared in the plants is

(c) their elongation of roots
(d) counting the number of annual rings
24. Which of the following gas is necessary for the
process of photosynthesis?

following?
(a) Xylem
et
transported to the various organs by which of the
(b) Phloem
(c) Cortex (d) Cambium
(a) O2 (b) CO 35. The device to measure the rate of stem growth is
(c) N2 (d) CO2 (a) Hydrometer (b) Hygrometer
25. Which of the following metals is found in the (c) Auxanometer (d) Potometer
chlorophyll?
36. The suitable conditions in which the rate of
(a) Iron (b) Magnesium
evaporation occurs more fastly are
(c) Zinc (d) Cobalt
(a) Low speed of wind
26. The gas released during the photosynthesis by the
(b) High humidity
green plants is
(c) Low humidity and high temperature
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Water vapour (d) Carbon dioxide (d) Excess amount of water in the soil

E-28 || Biology
37. Turpentine oil is extracted from 46. Which of the following plants produce only seeds
(a) Nettle (b) Cycas but no fruit?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Peanut
(c) Teak (d) Pine
(c) Cycas (d) Almond
38. Coffee is extracted from the 47. Epiphytes are plants which depend on other
(a) Flowers (b) Seeds plants for
(c) Leaves (d) Fruits (a) Food (b) Mechanical support
(c) Shade (d) Water
ww
39. Process by which plants prepare their food is

(a) Carbohydrolysis (b) Metabolic synthesis
(c) Photosynthesis (d) Photorespiration
48. Plants which grow in saline soil are
(a) Xerophytes
(c) Halophytes
(b) Hydrophytes
(d) Lithophytes
w.E
40. In photosynthesis
(a) Light energy is converted into chemical
49. Plants which grow on rocks are known as
(a) Mesophytes (b) Lithophytes

energy
asy
(b) Chemical energy is converted into light
energy
(c) Sclerophytes (d) Oxylophytes
50. Which of the following is a good source of
protein?

En
(c) Chemical energy is converted into electrical
energy

(a) Pea
(c) Black Gram
(b) Pigeon Pea
(d) Soyabean

energy gin
(d) Light energy is converted into mechanical
51. Bamboo is classified as
(a) Tree
(c) Shrub
(b) Grass
(d) Herb

involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Chloroplast
ee
41. Which of the following organelles of a cell is
(b) Mitochondria
52. Tallest terrestrial tree on the earth is :
(a) Deodar
(c) Sequoia
rin (b) Eucalyptus
(d) Pine

(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Garden pea
g.n
53. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on
(a) Edible pea (b) Wild pea
(d) Pigeon pea
42. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant

stem against gravity is
(a) Osmosis
(c) Transpiration
(b) Photosynthesis
(d) Diffusion
(a) Seeds
et
54. Cloves, used as a spice are derived from which of
the following plant parts?
(b) Fruits
(c) Flower buds (d) Leaves
43. A seed is ripened : 55. Quinine is obtained from which part of the plant?
(a) Ovary (b) Flower (a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Gynoecium (d) Ovule (c) Leaves (d) Bark
44. Which among the following is not a true fruit? 56. Which plant’s leaves are used to make outer wrap
(a) Apple (b) Date of ‘beedi’?
(a) Cinchona (b) Tendu
(c) Grape (d) Plum
(c) Opium (d) Areca
45. Which part of the pear is edible?
57. Saffron is obtained from which part of plants?
(a) Fleshy thalamus (b) Spores (a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Endosperm (d) Mesocarp (c) Leaves (d) Stigma and Style


58. Photosynthesis using the invisible part of the 67. Which one of the following is not an essential
sunlight is done by micronutrient for plants?
(a) Trees (b) Algae (a) Boron (b) Zinc
(c) Sodium (d) Copper
(c) Fungi (d) Bacteria
68. Which one of the following is an active
59. Apart from quinine, which one of the following component of oil of clove?
herbal drug is used to cure malaria? (a) Menthol (b) Eugenol
(a) Arteether (b) Glace (c) Menthanol (d) Benzaldehyde
69. Noscapine is obtained from
ww
(c) Lutivit (d) Cineraria
60. Which one of the following is a rich source of
iron?
(a) Poppy
(c) Eucalyptus
(b) Basil
(d) Ephedra
70. The hotness or pungency of chili pepper is due to

w.E(a) Carrot
(c) Rice
(b) Pea
(d) Spinach
(a) Cucumin
(c) Argenol
(b) Sorbitol
(d) Capsaicin
71. Which one of the following is not a carnivorous

(a) Protein
(c) Cellulose
asy
61. The chief constituent of cotton is
(b) Fatty acid
(d) Glycerine
(a)
plant?
Heliamphora sp. (b) Drosera sp.
Nepenthes sp. (d) Thymus sp.
En
62. Golden rice has the highest quantity of
(c)
72. Censor mechanism of dispersal of seeds is found
in

(a) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C
gin
(b) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin K
63. Which of the following leguminous plant is also
(a) Pea
(c) Cotton
(b) Poppy
(d) Maize

a petro plant?
(a) Pigeon pea
(c) Gram
(b) Pea
(d) Pongamia
ee 73. Kuttu flour is obtained from
(a)
(c)
Tapioca (b)
Plantago (d)
rin Fagopyrum
Eleusine
64. Pneumatophores are present in
(a) Mangrove plants
(a) Cytokinin
g.n
74. Which of the following plant hormone is mainly
responsible for fruit ripening?
(b) Abscissic acid

(b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Hydrophytic plants
(d) Insectivores plants
65. Xylem tissue is mainly concerned with the
(c) Ethylene
et
(d) None of these
75. Which one of the following is the longest flower
in the world?
(a) Photosynthesis of plants (a) Lotus (b) Sunflower
(b) Transport of water and mineral nutrients in (c) Rafflesia (d) Glory Lily
plants 76. The common wheat is
(c) Storage of prepared foods in plants (a) Triticum aestivum
(d) Transport of enzymes in plants (b) Oryza sativa
66. Which one of the following is a useful functional (c) Pennisetum setaceum
association between fungi and the roots of higher (d) Hordeum vulgare
plants? 77. Coconut water, is teachnically
(a) Biofertilizer (b) Coralloid root (a) pericarp (b) endosperm
(c) Lichen (d) Mycorrhiza (c) Siutellum (d) soft drink

E-30 || Biology
78. A characteristic odour of garlic is due to 88. Octopus is
(a) a chloro compound (a) an arthropod (b) an echionoderm
(b) a fluarine compound (c) a hemichordate (d) a molluscs
(c) a sulphur compound 89. The hormone insulin is a
(d) acetic acid (a) glycolipid (b) fatty acid
79. Mushrooms is a (c) peptide (d) sterol
(a) fungus (b) alga 90. In which organ of the human body are the
(c) fern (d) moss lymphocytes formed ?
ww Zoology
80. The normal temperature of human body on the

91.
(a) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(b) Bone marrow
(d) Spleen
In human body, which one of the following
w.EKelvin scale is
(a) 280K (b) 290K

harmones regulates blood calcium and phosphate ?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Growth harmone
(c) 300K
(a) Chain viper asy

(d) 310K
81. The only snake that builds a nest is
(b) King cobra

92.
(c) Parathyroid harmone
(d) Thyroxine
In the human beings, normally in which one of
(c) Krait
En
(d) Saw-scaled viper
82. Which of the following harmones contains Iodine ?
the following parts, does the sperm fertilize the
ovum ?
(a) Thyroxine
(c) Insulin gin
(b) Testosterone
(d) Adrenaline

(a) Cervix
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Lower part of uterus

ee
83. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
(a) Carotid arteries (b) Hepatic arteries
(c) Coronary arteries (d) Pulmonary arteries
84. Antigen is a substance which

93.
(d) Upper part of uterus
rin
Which one of the following parts of human
brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and
vomiting ?

(a) lowers body temperature
(b) destroys harmful bacteria

(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum g.n

(c) triggers the immune system
(d) is used as an antidote to poison
85. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus
contains DNA ?

94.
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Cortex et
Production of which one of the following is
associated with the function of the liver ?
(a) Lipase (b) Urea
(a) Centriole (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Mucus (d) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Lysosome (d) Mitrochondrion
95. Which one of the following is not a digestive
86. When one gene controls two or more different enzyme in the human system ?
characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is (a) Trypsin (b) Gastrin
called
(c) Ptyalin (d) Pepsin
(a) Apomixis (b) Pleiotropy 96. In the human body, the appendix is attached to
(c) Polyploidy (d) Polyteny (a) the large intestine
87. Which one of the following is monogamous ? (b) the small intestine
(a) Wolf (b) Walrus (c) the gall bladder
(c) Seal (d) Deer (d) the stomach


97. Which of the following does not have a gall 108. Who discovered genetic material ?
bladder ? (a) Crick and Watson
(a) Camel (b) Giraffe (b) Avery Mclood
(c) Rat (d) Fish (c) Friedrich Miescher
98. Which one of the following does not have sex- (d) Federik Meischer
chromosome? 109. The phenomenon of genetic mutation can not
(a) Monkey (b) Tiger occur in
(c) Butterfly (d) Lizard (a) DNA (b) RNA
ww
99. Neelgai belongs to the following family
(a) Cow
(c) Sheep
(b) Goat
(d) Deer
(c) chromosome (d) ribosome
110. The main function of the Golgi body is
(a) respiration
w.E
100. Who described of a non-bacterial pathogen or
virus for the first time?
(a) Stockman (b) Ivonowasky

(b) to begin cell division
(c) to produce gastric juice
(c) Stanley
asy
(d) Smith
101. Which of the following does not have any
(d) secretion
111. When we consume the goat or sheep beef then we
are
enzymes in its cells ?
(a) Algae
En
(b) Virus

(a) primary consumer
(b) secondary consumer
(c) Lichen
102. The virus is
(a) protein and lipid
gin
(d) Bacteria

(c) tertiary consumer

(b) nucleic acid and protein
(c) lipid and carbohydrate
(d) carbohydrate
ee 112. The study of bones is done under the branch of
science called
(a) Orology
(c) Seromology
rin (b) Osteology
(d) Geology
103. Which of the following has the largest number of

chromosomes ?
(a) Human beings (b) Pteridophytes
(a) Cryptology
g.n
113. The study related to the fishes is called
(b) Sicrotology
(c) Elephants
(a) Zoophily
(d) Bryophytes
104. The pollination by snail is called
(b) Entomophily
(c) Ichthyology

(a) G.J. Mendel
(c) Mc Clintock
et
(d) Lepidopterology
114. Who propounded the theory of Jumping-gene ?
(b) Thomas Hunt
(d) Heneric Hertz
(c) Chiropteriphily (d) Malacophily 115. The scientist who firstly explained about the
105. Which of the following vitamins acts like blood circulation
hormone ? (a) A. Leeuwenhoek (b) William Harvey
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) J.G. Mendel (d) Ronald Ros
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D 116. The first heart transplantation was performed by
106. The theory of mutation was propounded by (a) Dr. W. Harbe (b) Sir F.G. Hafkin
(a) De-vries (b) Malpighi (c) Dr. Louis Pasteur (d) Dr. C. Barnard
(c) Robert Hooke (d) Pasteur 117. The structure of double helix of DNA was
107. The word gene was firstly used by described by
(a) Waldare (b) Watson (a) Dr. M. Soha (b) Dr. S. Hawking
(c) Crick (d) Johannsen (c) Watson and Crick (d) Dr. A. Fleming

E-32 || Biology
118. In human the thickest skin is present in 128. The number of chambers found in mammals
(a) palm (b) sole heart is :
(c) neck (d) head (a) 2 (b) 3
119. The 1968 Nobel prize for Physiology or Medicine (c) 4 (d) 5
was shared by Holley, Khorana and Nirenberg, 129. The total number of bones found in newly born
for human body?
(a) discovery of tRNA (a) 212 (b) 206
(b) genetic code (c) 202 (d) 300
ww
(c) genetic structure
(d) meiosis
130. The bone of the which organ is the longest in the

human body?
(a) Spinal cord (b) Thigh
w.E
120. Which of the following is not the vestigial human
organ ?
(a) Tailbone (b) Eardrum muscles
(c) Rib cage (d) Ankle-bone
131. The hormone which stimulates the stomach for
the production of digestive juice is
(c) Frontal teeth
asy
(d) Appendix
121. Which of the following does not have blood but
undergoes respiration ?
(a) Gastrin
(c) Secretin
(b) Trysin
(d) Pepsin
(a) Cockroach
(c) Hydra En
(b) Snail
(d) Kangaroo
132. The site of RBC formation in human body is
(a) heart (b) spleen
(a) Hydra (b) gin

122. Which of the following is also called Jelly-Fish ?
Physelia
(c) liver (d) bone marrow
133. Who was the discoverer of human blood groups?
(a) Landsteiner (b) Livine
(c)
(a)
(c)
Aurelia (d)
123. The Devil fish belongs to the genus of
Pyla (b)
Teridi (d)
Cipia
Mobula
ee
Matrideam
(c) Vinear
rin
(d) Leeuwenhoek
134. Which of the following blood group is called
universal donor ?
124. The sea horse belongs to the class of

(a) fishes (b) mammals
(a) A+
(c) O +
g.n(b) B+
(d) AB+
135. Which part of the human brain regulates sleep ?
(c) reptiles
(a) Fish
(c) Lizard
(d) mollusc
125. Which of the following is cold blooded ?
(b) Frog
(d) All of these

(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pineal gland
et
(d) Pituitary gland
126. Which one among the following is not a living 136. The leading probiotic drink yakult contains which
fossil ? of the following bacterium ?
(a) Elephant Shrew (b) Ginkgo (a) Escherichia coli
(c) Stromatolite (d) Diplodocus (b) Lactobacillus casei
127. Which one among the following is the fastest (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
growing plant in the world ? (d) Lactobacillus plantarum
(a) Populus tremuleides 137. The organ of the human body which stores the
(b) Armillaria ostoyae carbohydrates in the form of glycogen is
(c) Macrocystis pyrifera (a) intestine (b) stomach
(d) Macropanesthia rhinoceros (c) pancreas (d) liver


Diseases 147. Emphysema is a disease caused by environmental
pollution in which the affected organ of the body is
138. The organ of the human body directly affected by (a) Liver (b) Kidney
the disease of hepatitis is (c) Lungs (d) Brain
(a) Liver (b) Lungs 148. The mad cow disease is caused by
(c) Heart (d) Brain (a) Bacteria (b) Viruses
139. Which one of the following disease is not caused (c) Fungus (d) Prions
by virus ? 149. The National institute for the visually handicapped
ww
(a) Polio
(c) Small pox
(b) Rabies
(d) Diphtheria
140. Of the following, ELISA test is performed to test
is situated at
(a) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(b) Dehradun
(d) Hyderabad
w.E
(a) Diabetes
(c) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(d) Syphilis
150. The year 2011 has been marked for the livestock

disease named
(a) Foot mouth disease
the circulatory system is

(a) Arsenic-74
asy
141. The radio-isotope used to detect blood-clots in
(b) Cobalt-60
(b) Rinderpest
(c) Rabies
(d) Cowpox
(c) I-131
En
(d) Sodium-24
142. Keeping pigs away from human settlements helps
151. Which of the following decrease in number in the
human body due to Dengue fever ?
in the eradication of
(a) Malaria gin (a) Platelets
(c) Sugar
152. What is MRI?
(b) Haemoglobin
(d) Water
(b) Japanese encephalitis

(c) Elephantiasis
(d) Polio
ee

(a) Magnetic Record of Intestines
rin
(b) Magnetic Recording of Investigations
(c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
143. Which one of the following human organs is less
susceptible to harmful radiations ?
(a) Eyes (b) Heart

g.n
(d) Magnetic Resonance in Intestines
153. Which of the following disease is caused by
Vitamin B3?
(c) Brain (d) Lungs
144. Artemisinin, a drug to cure malaria is obtained
from a
(a) Berry - berry
(c) Rickets et
(b) Night blindness
(d) Pellagra
154. Salk’s vaccine is connected with which one of the
following diseases?
(a) Seed plant (b) Fungus (a) Small pox (b) Tetanus
(c) Bacterium (d) Moss (c) T.B. (d) Polio
145. The Minamata disease of Japan in 1953 was 155. Which of the following is a substance available
caused by eating fish contaminated with in small quantity in the sea and administered in a
certain deficiency disease ?
(a) Nickel (b) Lead
(a) Iron (b) Vitamin A
(c) Mercury (d) Cadmium
(c) Fluorine (d) Iodine
146. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane 156. In countries where polished rice is the main
over spinal cord and brain is cereal in their diet, people suffer from
(a) Leukaemia (b) Paralysis (a) Pellagra (b) Beri-beri
(c) Sclerosis (d) Meningitis (c) Scurvy (d) Osteomalacia

E-34 || Biology
157. Accumulation of which one of the following in 167. Of the four land marks in medical history given
the muscles leads to fatigue? below, which one was the first to take place ?
(a) Lactic acid (b) Benzoic acid (a) Organ transplant
(c) Pyruvic acid (d) Uric acid (b) Bypass surgery
158. Anosmia is (c) Test tube baby
(a) Loss of the sense of taste (d) Plastic surgery
(b) Loss of the sense of smell 168. According to the World Health Organisation,
(c) Loss of the sense of touch the disease which caused the death of the largest
ww
(d) Loss of the sense of heat
159. AIDS is caused by
(a) bacteria (b) fungus
number of people in 2011, was
(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
w.E
(c) helminth (d) virus
160. BMD testing is done to diagnose
(c) Malaria
(d) Ischaenic heart diseases
169. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs
(a) Dengue
(c) Osteoporosis (d) AIDS
asy
(b) Malaria
161. The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth

is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and
leprosy ?
(a) Isoniazid
of patients is
(a) Concave En
(b) Convex
(b) P-amino salicylic acid
(c) Streptomycin
(c) Plane
gin
(d) Cylindrical
162. Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work
mainly in
(d) Rifampicin

(a) Tanneries
(c) Distilleries ee
(b) Coal mines
(d) Glass industry
163. Foot and Mouth disease in animals, a current

Protozoa ?
(a) Malaria
(c) Jaundice
rin
(b) Cholera
(d) None of these
171. Which of the following vitamin is effective in
epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by
(a) Bacterium
(c) Protozoan
(b) Fungus
(d) Virus

blood clotting ?
(a) Vitamin A g.n (b) Vitamin B
164. “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by

(a) Bacteria
(c) Protozoan
(b) Fungus
(d) Nematode
(c) Vitamin C
(a) Mercury
(c) Cadmium
et
(d) Vitamin K
172. Itai-Itai disease is caused by chronic poisoning of
(b) Nickel
(d) Lead
165. Which one of the following genetic diseases is 173. Which of the following disease is caused by the
sex linked ? excessive consumption of alcoholic beverage ?
(a) Haemophilia (a) Appendicitis (b) Viral hepatitis
(b) Tay-sachs disease (c) Gall stones (d) Liver cirrhosis
(c) Cystic fibrosis 174. Which of the following parasites is responsible
(d) Hypertension for 65% of the cases of Malaria in India ?
166. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to (a) P. malariae (b) P. vivax
(a) Decrease in haemoglobin level (c) P. falciparum (d) P. ovale
(b) Rheumatic heart disease 175. Rabies is caused by
(c) Decrease in WBC (a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
(d) Non-clotting of blood (c) Virus (d) Protozoan


176. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation 185. The radio isotope used to detect tumours is
therapy to treat (a) Iodine-131 (b) Cobalt-60
(a) enlarged prostate gland (c) Arsenic-74 (d) Sodium-24
(b) gall bladder stones 186. The blue baby pollution disease is due to the
(c) certain type of cancer excessive presence of which of the following in
(d) kidney stones drinking water ?
177. In which part of the eye, blind spot and yellow (a) Fluoride (b) Chloride
spot are found ? (c) Nitrate (d) Arsenic
ww
(a) Cornea
(c) Iris
(b) Lens
(d) Retina
178. The disease in which high levels of uric acid in
187. Which of the following is not included in AYUSH
Department under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare of the Govt. of India?

w.E the blood is detected
(a) Meningitis
(c) Rheumatism
(b) Gout
(d) Rheumatic heart
(a) Allopathy
(c) Unani
(b) Ayurveda
(d) Sidhi
188. Which of the following strains of H.I.V. is
lost by the body is asy

179. During dehydration, the substance that is usually

dominant in India?
(a) HIV 1A (b) HIV 1B
(a) Sugar
(b) Calcium phosphate En (c) HIV 1C (d) HIV 1D
189. Which of the following is a bird flu virus?

(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Potassium chloride
gin (a) N5H1
(c) HN5
(b) NH5
(d) H5N1
190. Which of the following drugs has been recently

bacteria ?
(a) Athlete’s foot
(c) Ringworm
ee
(b) Tuberculosis
(d) Thrush
reported to be responsible for the decline of the
(a) Aspirin
rin
population of Vultures?
(b) Chloroquine
181. Death by diarrhoea in children is caused mainly
by
(a) bacteria (b) protozoa

g.n
(c) Diclofenac sodium (d) Penicillin
191. AIDS is the short form of which of the following
diseases ?
(c) amoeba (d) fungus
182. Diseases of which of the following pairs are
caused by virus?

et
(a) Acquired Immune Deformity Syndrome
(b) Anticipated Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(c) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(a) Malaria and Polio (d) Abnormal Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(b) Polio and Bird Flu 192. Which one of the following diseases can not be
(c) Polio and Tuberculosis controlled by vaccination ?
(d) Tuberculosis and Influenza (a) Diabetes
183. The liver disease Hepatitis-B is caused by (b) Polio
(a) DNA virus (b) RNA virus (c) Whooping cough
(c) Bacterium (d) Platyhelminth (d) Small pox
184. The radio isotope used to control blood cancer 193. Where the High Security Animal Disease
(leukaemia) is Laboratory is located in India ?
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Sodium-24 (a) Hyderabad (b) Bangalore
(c) Phosphorus-32 (d) Cobalt-60 (c) Bhopal (d) Mumbai

E-36 || Biology
194. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of (a) Eli Whitney (b) George Stephenson
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1 (c) McAdam (d) James Watt
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin E 203. Which one of the following diseases is caused by
195. Iodine is administered to patients suffering from bacteria?
(a) Rheumatism (b) Night blindness (a) Chicken Pox (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Rickets (d) Goitre (c) Influenza (d) Tuberculosis
196. Sleeping sickness happens due to 204. The natural dye present in turmeric is known as
(a) Deficiency of vitamin A (a) Cinnamin (b) Phenolphthalein
ww

(d)
(b) Deficiency of calcium in body
(c) Rising of Blood pressure
Trypanosoma
(c) Methyl orange (d) Curcumin
205. Which one of the following processes takes place
w.E General Biology

197. In plants, which one of the following tissues is

in lakes during eutrophication?
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth
(b) Execessive availability of dissolved oxygen

dead ?
(a) Parenchyma asy
(b) Collenchyma

(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(d) Excessive entry of nutrient into water

En
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Phloem
198. Which one of the following is considered as a cell
206. Which one among the following Indian scientists
proposed a theory for long distance transport of
water in plants?

within a cell ?
(a) Ribosome
(c) Lysosome gin
(b) Chloroplast
(d) Golgi complex

(a) J.C. Bose (b) Birbal Sahni
(c) P. Maheshwari (d) N.S. Parihar

himself ?
(a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
ee
199. Which one of the following scientists first time
saw bacteria through a microscope made by
207. Sandalwood tree is considered a

rin
(a) total root parasite (b) total stem parasite
(c) stem parasite (d) partial root parasite

(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Robert Hooke
plant is to
g.n
208. The main function of the inner bark of a woody
(a) transport minerals and water from the roots

(d) Robert Virchow
200. Which of the following contain enzymes for
cellular respiration?
(a) Dictyosomes

to the leaves
et
(b) act as a membrane impermeable to water
and gas
(c) transport food from the leaves to the other
(b) Endoplasmic reticula parts of the plant
(c) Lysosomes
(d) protect the plant from herbivorous animals
(d) Mitochondria
209. Which one among the following cell organelles is
201. Which one of the following completes the given
semi-permeable?
statement correctly ?
(a) Cell membrane (b) Plasma membrane
A seed is a ripened
(c) Cell wall (d) Nucleus
(a) ovary (b) flower
210. Which one among the following nutrients is a
(c) gynoecium (d) ovule
structural component of the cell wall of plants?
202. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that
separates the seeds from cotton three hundred (a) Manganese (b) Potassium
times faster than by hand? (c) Phosphorus (d) Calcium


211. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without 218. Which one of the following carries out the
breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf function in human beings similar to the one which
and stem, can be attributed to the abundance of Malpighian tubules perform in cockroaches and
(a) parenchyma (b) collenchyma other insects?
(c) sclerenchyma (d) xylem and phloem (a) Lungs (b) Kidneys
212. Which one of the following is the largest phylum (c) Heart (d) Reproductive organs
in the animal kingdom ? 219. Lobsters belong to which one of the following
(a) Annelida (b) Arthopoda classes of organisms?
ww
(c) Chordata (d) Protozoa
(a) Arachnids
(c) Insects
(b) Crustaceans
(d) Myriopods
220. Contaminated water can cause the following

w.E The enzyme present in the saliva of human beings
breaks
(a) starch into maltose

diseases except which one of the following?
(a) Hepatitis A
(c) Measles
(b) Typhoid
(d) Cholera

(b) proteins into peptides
asy
(c) peptides into amino acids
(d) fats into fatty acids
221. Which one of the following diseases is caused
by bacteria and spreads through faecal matter by
houseflies?
En
214. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Pertussis
(c) Diphtheria
(b) Typhoid
(d) Chickenpox

(a) Loop of Henle : Kidney
gin
(b) Fallopian tube : Female reproductive
222. Which one of the following is not a genetic

disorder?
(a) Colour blindness (b) Down’s syndrome

system
(c) Epididymis
system
(d) Cowper’s gland : Intestine
ee
: Male reproductive
(c) Haemophilia (d) Xerophthalmia
223. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(a) Gastrin
(c) Trypsin rin (b) Keratin
(d) Vasopressin
215. Which one of the following is a hereditary disease ?
(a) Cataract (b) Haemophilia azar? g.n
224. Which one of the following insects spreads Kala-

(c) Pellagra
(d) Osteoporosis
Cretinism is a human disorder which is due to the

(a) Fruit fly
(c) Sand fly
et
(b) Tsetse fly
(d) Mosquito
225. Stem Cell Therapy (SCT) is not useful for the
treatment of which one of the following ailments?
under secretion of (a) Kidney failure (b) Cancer
(a) Adrenalin hormone (c) Brain injury (d) Vision impairment
(b) Cortisone hormone 226. In which one of the following antibody formations
(c) Glucagon hormone takes place?
(d) Thyroxin hormone (a) RBCs
217. A surge of which hormone stimulates ovulation (b) Blood Platelets
in human females? (c) Blood Plasma cells
(a) Luteinizing hormone (d) Donnan’s membrane
(b) Estrogen 227. All enzymes are
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone (a) Alkaloids (b) Proteins
(d) Progesterone (c) Carbohydrates (d) Lipids

E-38 || Biology
228. A typical human ribcage consists of how many 237. Which one of the following organs breaks down
ribs? fat to produce cholesterol?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (a) Intestine (b) Liver
(c) 16 (d) 24 (c) Lungs (d) Kidneys
229. Among the given nutrients, milk is a poor source 238. An individual whose blood type is B may in
of an emergency, donate blood to a person whose
(a) Calcium (b) Protein blood type is
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamin C (a) B or A (b) AB or A
ww
230. Crocodiles store fats in

(a) head
(c) tail
(b) stomach
(d) arteries
(c) A or O
monkey?
(d) AB or B
239. Which one among the following is the largest

w.E
231. Jaundice in human beings is the result of
(a) incomplete metabolism of biliverdin
(b) complete metabolism of biliverdin

(a) Spider monkey (b) Baboon
(c) Gorilla (d) Howler monkey
240. Which one among the following statements is
correct?

asy
(c) incomplete metabolism of bilirubin
(d) complete metabolism of bilirubin

(a) All arteries carry oxygenated blood
(b) All veins carry oxygenated blood
En
232. Which part of brain controls fine movement,
maintains balance and equilibrium of the body
and muscle tone in a human being?
(c) Except the pulmonary artery, all other
arteries carry oxygenated blood
(a) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum gin
(b) Thalamus
(d) Hypothalamus
(d) Except the pulmonary vein, all other veins
carry oxygenated blood
241. Sickle-cell anemia is a disease caused due to the

multiplies asexually by
(a) budding
ee
233. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar,
(b) binary fission

(c) multiple fission (d) sporogony

abnormality in
(a) white blood cells
rin
(b) red blood cells
(c) thrombocytes
234. Administering a vaccine provides protection
by inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins)

g.n
(d) blood plasma composition
242. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in
the form of
specific of the vaccine. The cell in the body
responsible for the production of antibodies is
(a) granulocyte
(b) lymphocyte

et
(a) cellulose and glucose respectively
(b) starch and glycogen respectively
(c) starch and glucose respectively
(c) erythrocyte (red blood cell) (d) cellulose and glycogen respectively
(d) platelet 243. Which one among the following water-borne
diseases is not caused by a bacteria?
235. Biological catalysts in living organisms are
(a) Cholera
known as
(b) Typhoid
(a) hormones (b) vitamins
(c) Bacillary dysentery
(c) steroids (d) enzymes
(d) Hepatitis A
236. Among the following elements, which one is
244. After entering the human body through mosquito
essential for the transmission of impulses in the
bite, the malarial parasite (PLASMODIUM)
nerve fibre? shows initial multiplication in
(a) Calcium (b) Iron (a) Spinal chord (b) Blood
(c) Sodium (d) Zinc (c) Liver (d) Spleen


245. Which one among the following is the hardest 253. Contractile proteins are found in
part of our body? (a) bones (b) blood
(a) Skull bones of head (c) muscles (d) cartilage
(b) Thumb nails 254. Which one of the following is modification of
(c) Enamel of teeth parenchyma?
(d) Spinal vertebra (a) Fibres found in phloem
246. Which of the following groups is present in (b) Tracheids
animal cells?
(c) Vessel
ww

(a) Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall,
Cytoplasm
(b) Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
(d) Chlorenchyma
255. Bone matrix is rich in

w.E
(d)
(c) Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria,
Cytoplasm
Vacuole, Cell membrane, Nucleus,

(a) fluoride and calcium
(b) calcium and phosphorus
(c) calcium and potassium
Mitochondria
asy
247. Which one among the following completes the
given statement correctly ?
(d) phosphorus and potassium
256. Blood and lymph are types of
(a) muscular tissue (b) epithelial tissue

En
In digestive system of living organisms
(a) glucose is broken down into glycerol
(c) connective tissue (d) permanent tissue
257. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell

gin
(b) glucose is converted into glycogen
(c) glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide
and water
membrane?
(a) Cholesterol (b) Glycolipids

ee
(d) proteins are broken down into amino acids
248. The main thinking part of the brain is
(a) midbrain (b) hypothalamus
(c) Proline
rin
(d) Phospholipids
258. The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a
eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the
cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
(c) forebrain (d) hindbrain
249. Which one among the following hormones
stimulates the plant cells to grow in a manner
(a) S-phase
(c) G2-phase g.n
(b) G1-phase
(d) M-phase

such that the plant appears to be bent towards
light?
(a) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(d) Abscisic acid
usually occur in animals?
(a) Prophase
(c) Anaphase
et
259. During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis
(b) Metaphase
(d) Telophase
250. The sex of a newborn baby is determined by the 260. Which of the following substances if introduce in the
chromosome inherited from
blood stream would cause coagulation at the site
(a) the mother (b) the father
of its introduction?
(c) mother’s mother (d) father’s father
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Prothrombin
251. Average life span of human R.B.C is
(c) Heparin (d) Thromboplastin
(a) 100 days (b) 90 days
261. Lysosome arises from
(c) 120 days (d) None of these
252. Cells which takes part in secondary growth are (a) endoplasmic reticulum
named as (b) golgi apparatus
(a) phloem (b) xylem (c) nucleus
(c) cambium (d) medullary ray (d) mitochondria

E-40 || Biology
262. pH of human blood is (b) division of chromosome without nuclear
(a) 7.4 (b) 6.2 division
(c) 9.0 (d) 7.5 - 8.0 (c) division of cytoplasm
263. The double helix model of Watson and Crick is (d) None of the above
known as 272. The camel’s hump is composed of a tissue which
(a) C-DNA (b) B-DNA provides water when oxidized. It is
(c) Z-DNA (d) D-DNA (a) skeletal tissue (b) areolar tissue
264. The correct sequence of cell cycle is (c) adipose tissue (d) muscular tissue.
ww

(a) S, Gl, G2, M
(c) Gl, S, G2, M
(b) S, M, Gl, G2
(d) M, Gl, G2, S
273. Peroxisomes are involved in the synthesis of

(a) glucose (b) fatty acids
(c) glycine and serine (d) nucleotides

w.E
265. Biological membranes are composed of
(a) 40% proteins and 60% lipids
(b) 50% proteins and 50% lipids
274. The major constituent of connective tissue is
(a) lipid
(c) cholesterol
(b) carbohydrate
(d) collagen

asy
(c) 70% proteins and 30% lipids
(d) 60% proteins and 40% lipids
266. F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are
275. Bone forming cells are
(a) osteoclasts (b) osteoblasts

present in
(a) endoplasmic reticulum En (c) chondroblast (d) chondroclasts
276. Which of the following acts as an insulator against
(b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria gin heat, cold and as a shock-absorber in the body?
(a) Dermis

(d) golgi complex
of protein?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
ee
267. Which of the following is related to glycosylation
(b) Epidermis

(c) Subcutaneous fat layer
rin
277. When the concentration of water and solutes
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Lysosome
solution is said to be
(a) hypertonic
g.n
on either side of the cell membrane is same, the
(b) isotonic
(d) Mitochondria
268. The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of
(a) DNA (b) m-RNA
(c) hypotonic
et(d) None of these
278. Smooth muscles are likely to be found in
(a) muscles of legs (b) muscles of arms
(c) r-RNA (d) t-RNA (c) stomach (d) heart
269. The shape of chromosome is clearly visible at 279. Bacteria are (were) considered more as plants than
(a) prophase (b) anaphase animals because of the presence of
(c) metaphase (d) telophase (a) small nucleus (b) plasma membrane
270. Chromosome start separating at which stage of (c) cell wall (d) spore formation
mitosis 280. Silver fern is
(a) early metaphase (b) late metaphase (a) Adiantum (b) Cheilanthes
(c) early anaphase (d) early telophase (c) Selaginella (d) Equisetum
271. “Endomitosis” refers to 281. The largest invertebrate is
(a) division of nucleus without chromosomal (a) octopus (b) squid
division (c) coral (d) jelly fish


282. Ginger is a stem and not a root because 292. The kingdom Protista is primarily made up of
(a) it stores food organisms that are
(b) it lacks chlorophyll (a) eukaryotic and multicellular
(c) it has nodes and internodes (b) prokaryotic and multicellular
(c) prokaryotic and single-celled
(d) eukaryotic and single-celled
283. Which one of the following is not a chordate?
293. Which of the following are absent in
(a) Starfish (b) Dolphin
gymnosperms?
ww
(c) Shark (d) Snake
284. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
engineering experiments are

(a) Xylem vessels
(c) Tracheids and fibres
(d) All of these
(b) Xylem fibres
w.E
(a)
(b)
(c)
Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
Rhizobium and Diplococcus
294. The group of animals belonging to phylum
(a)
protozoa is
Paramecium and Leucosolenia
(d)
285. Red snow causing alga is asy
Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella (b)
(c)
Hydra and Amoeba
Euglena and Ascaris
(a)
(b)
Chlamydomonas nivalis
Chlamydomonas reinhardtii En (d) Paramecium and Plasmodium
295. A species inhabiting different geographical areas
(c)
(d)
Chlamydomonas debaryanum
Chalmydomonas media gin

is known as
(a) allopatric species (b) sympatric species
(c) bio species (d) sibling species

Liverworts”?
ee
286. Which place in India is called “The Golden Mine of
(a) Eastern Himalayas (b) Western Himalayas

(c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern Ghats
296. ICBN stands for

(a) International Council for Botanical Nature
rin
(b) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
287. Eutrophication is the result of
(a) bryophyte

g.n
297. Karyotaxonomy is the modern branch of
(b) algae and aquatic plants
(c) gymnosperm (d) pteridophyte
288. Which of the following is a fresh water sponge?
(a) Sycon (b) Euspongia

et
classification which is based on
(a) number of chromosomes
(b) bands found on chromosomes
(c) organic evolution
(c) Spongilla (d) Pleurobrachia (d) trinomial nomenclature
289. Book lungs occur in 298. Mesosome in a bacterial cell is
(a) earthworms (b) insects (a) plasmid
(c) arachnids (d) mammals (b) connection between two cells
290. Marsupial Kangaroo is (c) plasma membrane infolded for respiration
(d) None of these
(a) viviparous (b) oviparous
299. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
(c) ovoviviparous (d) a distinct category (a) Methophilic bacteria
291. The deadliest mushroom is (b) Clostridium butyrium
(a) Agaricus (b) Amanita (c) Helicobactor pylori
(c) Pleurotus (d) Volvariella (d) Streptococcus lactin

E-42 || Biology
300. The aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer 307. Frog is
is (a) aminotelic (b) ammonotelic
(a) Azolla (b) Salvinia (c) ureotelic (d) uricotelic
(c) Marsilia (d) Pteridium 308. Snakes receive sound vibrations by
301. Largest flower Rafflesia is (a) tympanum (b) body
(a) total stem parasite (b) total root parasite (c) internal ear (d) earth
(c) partial stem parasite (d) partial root parasite 309. Which of the following systems in man is affected
302. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of water by the bite of cobra?
ww are
(a) plankton
(c) benthon
(b) pelagic
(d) neritic
(a) Digestive
(c) Excretory
(b) Nervous
(d) Circulatory
310. Which one is a link between chordates and

w.E
303. Collar cells occur in
(a) sponges
(c) sandworm
(b) hydra
(d) starfish
(a)
(c)
nonchordates?
Sphenodon
Crocodilia
(b) Balanoglossus
(d) None of these
(a) Porifera
asy
304. In which phylum nerve cells are found but nerves are
absent?
(b) Coelenterata
311. Ephedrine obtained from the stem of Ephedra is
given to cure
(a) asthma
305. Lung Fluke is En

(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Nemathelminthes

(b) respiratory disorder
(c) cold and cough
(a)
(b)
Hymenolepis nana
Paragonimus westermani gin (d) All of these
312. ‘Pond silk’ is the common name of
(c)
(d)
Schistosoma haematobium
Echinococcus granulosus
306. Which of the following is not an insect?
(a) Cockroach (b) Bed bug
ee (a)
(c)
Spongilla (b)
Selaginella (d)
(a) Python rin

Chlorella
Spirogyra
313. Which of the following is a non-poisonous snake?
(b) Cobra
(c) Mosquito (d) Spider (c) Dryophis
g.n (d) All of these
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 33. (a) 65. (c) 97. (c) 129. (d) 161. (b) 193. (c) 225. (d)
2. (d) 34. (b) 66. (d) 98. (c) 130. (b) 162. (d) 194. (a) 226. (c)
3. (c) 35. (c) 67. (c) 99. (a) 131. (a) 163. (d) 195. (d) 227. (b)
4. (b) 36. (c) 68. (b) 100. (b) 132. (d) 164. (b) 196. (d) 228. (a)
5. (b) 37. (d) 69. (a) 101. (b) 133. (a) 165. (a) 197. (c) 229. (d)
ww
6.
7.
(b)
(c)
38.
39.
(b)
(c)
70.
71.
(d)
(d)
102.
103.
(b)
(b)
134.
135.
(c)
(c)
166.
167.
(d)
(d)
198.
199.
(b)
(a)
230.
231.
(c)
(c)
8.
9.
w.E
10.
(b)
(a)
(a)
40.
41.
42.
(a)
(a)
(c)
72.
73.
74.
(b)
(b)
(c)
104.
105.
106.
(d)
(d)
(a)
136.
137.
138.
(b)
(d)
(a)
168.
169.
170.
(d)
(d)
(a)
200.
201.
202.
(d)
(d)
(d)
232.
233.
234.
(c)
(b)
(b)
11.
12.
(b)
(b)
43.
44.
(d)
(a) asy
75.
76.
(c)
(a)
107.
108.
(d)
(c)
139.
140.
(d)
(c)
171.
172.
(d)
(c)
203.
204.
(a)
(d)
235.
236.
(d)
(c)
13.
14.
(c)
(d)
45.
46.
(a)
(c)
77.
78. En
(b)
(c)
109.
110.
(d)
(d)
141.
142.
(d)
(b)
173.
174.
(d)
(b)
205.
206.
(d)
(d)
237.
238.
(b)
(b)
15.
16.
(c)
(b)
47.
48.
(b)
(c)
79.
80.
(a)
(d)
gin111.
112.
(b)
(b)
143.
144.
(d)
(a)
175.
176.
(c)
(c)
207.
208.
(d)
(d)
239.
240.
(b)
(c)
17.
18.
19.
(d)
(c)
(b)
49.
50.
51.
(b)
(d)
(b)
81.
82.
83.
(b)
(a)
(c)
ee
113.
114.
115.
(c)
(c)
(b)
145.
146.
147.
(c)
(d)
(c)
177.
178.
179.
(d)
(b)
(c)
209.
rin
210.
211.
(c)
(d)
(d)
241.
242.
243.
(b)
(b)
(d)
20.
21.
(a)
(b)
52.
53.
(c)
(c)
84.
85.
(c)
(d)
116.
117.
(d)
(c)
148.
149.
(d)
(b)
180.
181.
(b)
(a)
g.n
212.
213.
(b)
(b)
244.
245.
(c)
(c)
22.
23.
24.
(a)
(d)
(d)
54.
55.
56.
(c)
(d)
(b)
86.
87.
88.
(b)
(a)
(d)
118.
119.
120.
(b)
(b)
(c)
150.
151.
152.
(b)
(a)
(c)
182.
183.
184.
(b)
(a)
(d)
214.
215.
216.
et
(a)
(d)
(b)
246.
247.
248.
(c)
(d)
(c)
25. (b) 57. (d) 89. (c) 121. (c) 153. (d) 185. (c) 217. (d) 249. (b)
26. (a) 58. (d) 90. (b) 122. (c) 154. (d) 186. (c) 218. (b) 250. (b)
27. (a) 59. (a) 91. (c) 123. (d) 155. (d) 187. (a) 219. (b) 251. (c)
28. (c) 60. (d) 92. (b) 124. (a) 156. (b) 188. (c) 220. (c) 252. (c)
29. (c) 61. (c) 93. (c) 125. (d) 157. (a) 189. (d) 221. (b) 253. (c)
30. (a) 62. (a) 94. (b) 126. (d) 158. (b) 190. (c) 222. (d) 254. (d)
31. (b) 63. (d) 95. (b) 127. (c) 159. (d) 191. (c) 223. (c) 255. (b)
32. (d) 64. (a) 96. (a) 128. (c) 160. (c) 192. (a) 224. (c) 256. (c)

E-44 || Biology
ANSWER KEY
257. (c) 265. (d) 273. (c) 281. (b) 289. (c) 297. (b) 305. (b) 313. (a)
258. (a) 266. (c) 274. (d) 282. (c) 290. (a) 298. (c) 306. (d)
259. (d) 267. (a) 275. (b) 283. (a) 291. (b) 299. (b) 307. (c)
260. (d) 268. (c) 276. (c) 284. (a) 292. (d) 300. (a) 308. (b)
261. (b) 269. (c) 277. (c) 285. (a) 293. (a) 301. (b) 309. (b)
ww
262.
263.
(a)
(b)
270.
271.
(c)
(b)
278.
279.
(c)
(c)
286.
287.
(b)
(b)
294.
295.
(d)
(a)
302.
303.
(a)
(a)
310.
311.
(b)
(d)
w.E
264. (c) 272. (c) 280. (b) 288. (c) 296. (b) 304. (b) 312. (d)
asy
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

Hints & Solutions

Botany 8. (b) The branch of biology under which
morphological, anatomical, pathological and
1. (c) Aristotle who lived sometime around 384 BC genetic studies of fungi are done, comes under the
to 322 BC is considered to be the father of Biology. field of Mycology. While Phycology, Ethology,
He was the student of Plato. Theophrastus and Microbiology deal with Algae, Animal behavior and
ww Alexander the great were the students of Aristotle.

According to the Encyclopedia Britannica,
“Aristotle was the first genuine scientist in history’’
due to his writings in wide scientific fields.
microbes respectively.
9. (a) Lichens are generally the indicator of air
pollution especially sulphur-dioxide. The change
w.E
2. (d) Theophrastus is considered to be the father of
Botany. He was the student of Aristotle. He created
Historia Plantarum that means History of Plants
in habit of particular lichens indicates the level of
pollution, e.g., bushy lichens can only grow well
when air is absolutely clean. Lichens grow as crusty
forms when there is high level of air pollution.
asy
which was a “treatise on plants”.
3. (c) William Roxburgh, a Scottish botanist is
considered to be the founding father of Indian
While leafy lichens grow at moderate levels of air
pollution.
10. (a) Blue Green Algae (BGA) is used as
En
Botany. For the period 1776-1793 he worked
at Coromandel Coast. He was instrumental in
introducing many plant and species to India.
biofertilizer in paddy fields. Important species
are Cyanobacteria, Anabaena, Nostoc and
gin
4. (b) Carl Linnaeus or Carolus Linnaeus (in Latin)
was a Swedish botanist, physician, as well as
Tolypothrix. Anabaena associated with Azolla is
being manufactured in IARI as an algal biofertilizer
whose nitrogen fixation capacity is about 15 kg/ha
ee
zoologist. He laid the foundations of binomial
nomenclature for the modern biological naming
scheme. He is known as the father of modern
taxonomy, and is also considered one of the fathers
of modern ecology.
over a season.
11. (b) It is estimated that 2.3 kilograms of alga
rin
Chlorella pyrenoidosa produce enough oxygen to
supply one man in space.
5. (b) Indian Botanical Garden was established
in 1787 by Lieutenant Colonel Robert Kyd. This
garden is situated on the west bank of the river g.n
12. (b) Algae, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes are true
plants and contain chlorophyll. While fungi have
characteristics that put this kingdom more close
Hooghly, Kolkata. The garden was known as East
India Company’s Garden or the ‘Company Bagan’
or Calcutta Garden and later as the Royal Botanical
Garden. After independence, it was renamed as the
et
to animals, one of the features is that all fungi are
heterotrophs and contain no chlorophyll.
13. (c) The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian
Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. An alga,
‘INDIAN BOTANICAL GARDEN’ in 1950. It is of phylum Cyanobacteria called Trichodesmium
now under Botanical Survey of India. erythraeum is present in this sea. It contains
6. (b) The annual rings or growth rings in the tree abundant quantities of pigments, phycobilin,
trunk are a measure to date the age of the trees. This phycoerythrin and phycocyanin, due to which the
study which includes the counting and seeing the sea appears red or pinkish.
patterns of the tree trunks, comes under a branch of 14. (d) Lichen is a composite symbiotic association
science called Dendrochronology. The annual rings of a fungal member (mycobiont) and an algal
are seen as concentric rings in the cross section of or cyanobacterial member (phycobiont). The
the tree trunk. phycobiont is photosynthetic and synthesses
7. (c) The study of internal organs and tissues of not carbohydrates, which is consumed by the mycobiont.
only plants but any organism comes under Anatomy. The mycobiont provides mechanical support to the
While Morphology is the study of external features alga and also helps absorbing the minerals from the
of plants and animals. substrata.

E-46 || Biology
15. (c) Litmus paper is used to measure pH of any of a leafy shoot. The rate of transpiration and
substance. It can be made from a mixture of photosynthesis is measured by it.
cellulose, lichen and some adjunct compound. 29. (c) Leaves having stomata are the site at which
Lichen which is used commonly in litmus paper is gaseous exchange occur. Water is also transpired
Rochella tinctoria and Lecanora tartaria. and evaporated in the form of water vapor from the
16. (b) Gracilaria and Gigartina, members of leaf surface.
Rhodophyta (Red algae) are the commercial source 30. (a) In the visible spectrum of light the most of the
of agar- agar. light energy which is absorbed by green plants for
17. (d) Azolla is an aqueous fern. A blue-green alga carrying out photosynthesis, are from red and blue
ww called Anabaena sp. lives symbiotically in its leafy

thallus. It is a potential commercial biofertilizer for
paddy fields due to the nitrogen fixing capability of
regions. Green light is mostly reflected back.
31. (b) The site of cellular respiration is the
mitochondrion.
w.Ethe alga.
18. (c) Selaginella the spikemosses is a genus of the
family Selaginellaceae. It is stored by dipping its
32. (d) Auxin is phyto- or plant- hormone. It is mainly
responsible for cell division and growth.
33. (a) Xylem is the main conducting tissue for the
roots in water.
asy
19. (b) Naked seeds production is a characteristic
feature of gymnosperms.
unidirectional (roots to shoot and leaves) transport
of water and mineral salts.
34. (b) The products of photosynthesis in green
En
20. (a) Living fossil is an organism which appears
very close to the fossil record of the same organism
although it has no close living relative. Cycas is
plants are made in leaves (mesophyll cells). Sugar
molecules are synthesized, which are generally
gin
considered to be the living fossil among the options.
21. (b) Chilgoza is obtained from Pinus gerardiana.
called as photosynthates. Phloem tissue carries
these photosynthates to distant plant organs. Unlike
conduction in xylem, the transport through phloem
marketed as ‘Chilgoza’ or ‘Neja’. ee

It is an edible pine nut rich in carbohydrates and
proteins. These seeds or nuts are locally called and
22. (a) Cycas revoluta is one of the sources of sago,

is multidirectional.
35. (c) Auxanometer is the instrumental apparatus to
rin
measure the rate of growth of plants.
36. (c) Low atmospheric humidity and high
which is nothing but edible starch. Sago is also
extracted from the spongy centre, or pith, of various
tropical palm stems, especially Metroxylon sagu.
from green leaves.
g.n
temperature encourage greater rate of transpiration
37. (d) Turpentine is a volatile essential oil which is

23. (d) Counting the annual rings in horizontal cross
section of a tree is a measure of its age. This study
comes under dendrochronology.
24. (d) CO2 is one of the essential raw materials
et
extracted from the resinous compound obtained
from Pine trees’ needles, twigs. Turpentine oil has
antibacterial properties, used in chemical industries,
in paints and varnishes.
in process of photosynthesis. CO2 is fixed and
38. (b) Coffee tree bears berries as fruits which
converted into sugar via green plants.
contain seeds. These seeds are roasted in the process
25. (b) Magnesium is present in the heart of the of producing coffee. The seeds are generally called
porphyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule. coffee beans. Coffea canephora and C. arabica are
26. (a) Oxygen is released as a by-product in the two economic coffee plants.
process of photosynthesis by green plants. 39. (c) Photosynthesis is the process by which plants
27. (a) Photosynthesis can only happen in the presence take up water from soil, CO2 from atmosphere, and
of sunlight, as excitation of chlorophyll molecules absorbs photons from sunlight to synthesize sugars.
need photons. Sunlight can be replaced by artificial 40. (a) In the process of photosynthesis the light
white light. energy or the solar energy is directly converted
28. (c) Potometer also called as transpirometer, is into chemical energy in the form of sugars or
a device used to measure the rate of water uptake carbohydrates.


41. (a) The actual site where photosynthesis occurs is 51. (b) Bomboo or Bambusa sp. is a member of grass
the grana or thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast family- Poaceae. More than 10 genera and 1,450
as the machinery for the process are embedded in species are known, which are flowering perennial
the grana. monocot plants.
42. (c) It is the force called ‘transpirational pull’ 52. (c) The tallest trees in the world are redwoods
which maintains the continuous upward movement Sequoia sempervirens with height of around 115.72
of water though xylem against the gravity. m (379.65 ft). These trees are growing in Hyperion,
43. (d) Botanically a fruit is a swollen and ripened Redwood National Park, California, United States.
ovary and the seeds are actually the fertilized ovules, 53. (c) The experimental plant of Gregor Mendel
ww inside which of the small embryos are nestled in.

44. (a) Technically, apple is not a true fruit. A fruit is
a ripened ovary. Inside the apple fruit, the structure
was garden pea or Pisum sativum. As it has easily
distinguishable features, short life cycle and it is
also a self pollinating crop, made it a suitable choice
w.Eholding the seeds is actually the fruit while the edible

fleshy part is actually the swollen wall material of
ovary.
45. (a) The fleshy edible part of the pear fruit is
for genetic studies by Mendel.
54. (c) Cloves are the aromatic unopened flower buds
of a tree called Syzygium aromaticum of the family
Myrtaceae.
actually the swollen thalamus.
asy
46. (c) The production of naked seeds or ovules
without fruits is one of the main characteristic
55. (d) Quinine is a natural white crystalline
alkaloid obtained from the bark of Cinchona sp.
of family Rubiaceae. It has antimalarial, analgesic
features of Gymnosperms. Cycas sp.
gymnosperm among the options. En is a (painkilling), and anti-inflammatory and antipyretic
(fever-reducing) properties.
47. (b) Epiphytes are the plants which grow
gin
non-parasitically on other plants generally for
mechanical support and sometimes for moisture
56. (b) Leaves of Tendu (Diospyros melanoxylon) are
used to make wrappers of ‘beedi’ or poor man’s
cigarette.
ee
and nutrients absorption. Common epiphytes are
mosses, bromeliads, orchids, etc.
48. (c) Halophytes are those plants which grow
successfully in soils or water with high concentration
57. (d) Saffron is derived from the plant called Crocus
sativus of family Iridaceae. Saffron is used as spice
rin
or condiment especially in sweet dishes and some
meat preparations. The part which is used is style
of salts or in either at saline semi-deserts, mangrove
swamps, marshes and sloughs, and seashores.
Spartina alterniflora or codgrass is a halophyte. Sea g.n
and stigma of the flower.
58. (d) Photosynthetically Active Region for green
plants is 400nm to 700nm. While some green
water typically contains 40g/l of salts. Most crops as
chickpea and paddy can tolerate only 1-3g/l of salts
but a halophyte, Salicornia bigelovii can grow well
at 70g/l of salt conditions.
et
bacteria, purple bacteria and Heliobacteria, can
exploit solar light by absorbing its near-infrared
component for photosynthesis.
59. (a) Arteether is an antimalarial drug apart from
49. (b) Plants that grow on rocks are called quinine.
Lithophytes. They are also known as epipetric or 60. (d) Spinach or Spinacea oleracia of family
epilithic plants. Examples include Paphiopedilum Amaranthaceae is one of the good sources of iron.
orchids, ferns, some algae and liverworts. They use The United States Department of Agriculture states
rainwater, and absorb organic nutrients from the that a 180-g serving of boiled spinach contains
dead and decaying tissue of other plants or their 6.43 mg of iron.
own dead tissue. 61. (c) The chief constituent of cotton is fibre, made
50. (d) The protein content per 100g of pulse is up of majorly cellulose and some hemicelluloses.
estimated to be 5g for pea (Pisum sativum), 22g 62. (a) The golden rice is a genetically modified
for pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan), 25g for black gram rice to synthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of
(Vigna mungo) and 36g and highest for soyabean vitamin-A. It has been developed with the aim to
(Glycine max) . The protein content of egg is around provide a fortified food to people consuming fewer
13g/100g. vitamins-A containing food.

E-48 || Biology
63. (d) Pongamia pinnata is believed to be a potential to its peculiar strong odour as that of rotten and
source of petrochemicals. decaying flesh.
64. (a) Pneumatophores are the aerial root system of 76. (a) Triticum aestivum is the common wheat used
mangroves. These are the special adaptations to to make bread. Pennisetum sp. is pearl millet, Oryza
breathe and exchange gases and water with the salty sativa is rice, Hordeum vulgare is barley.
medium in which these plants grow. Some plants 77. (b) The coconut is actually a drupe not a nut and
having pneumatophores are Avicennia germinans technically, the sweet water inside the coconut is the
and Laguncularia raecemosa. cellular endosperm, which accumulates during the
65. (c) Xylem tissue is the specialized conducting later phases of seed development.
ww system of the plants. It is the main conducting

system for water and some mineral nutrients from
roots to the shoot.
78. (c) Garlic contains sulphuric compound called
allyl methyl sulphide that renders it the typical
pungent smell.
w.E
66. (d) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association
between roots of vascular plants and some ecto-
parasitic fungus. The fungal hyphae make a mesh
around the roots which increase the surface area for
79. (a) Mushroom is actually the fruiting body of
the fungus, which is produced to bear millions of
germinative spores. Most mushrooms belong to the
asy
absorption of water and mineral nutrients by the
roots. The fungus in turn takes up carbohydrates and
sugars from the roots.
Basidiomycota and Agaricomycetes.
Zoology
En
67. (c) Sodium is not a micronutrient for plants.
68. (b) Clove oil contains eugenol, which is an
80. (d) The normal body temperature of a human
being is 37°C. Thus, in kelvin it is 273 + 37 = 310 K.
from tooth ache and bad breath.

gin
antiseptic, analgesic, and used in dentistry for relief
69. (a) Noscapine is a benzylisoquinoline alkaloid

81. (b) The female snake, about 13 feet long, builds
a nest to lay its eggs. In fact, the King Cobra is the
only snake in the world that builds a nest.The King
obtained from plants of the Papaveraceae
ee
family. Although it has no painkilling properties
but is primarily used for its antitussive (cough-
suppressing) effects.
Cobra reproduces by laying eggs in nests made of
rotting vegetation.
rin
82. (a) Thyroxine hormone is released from the thyroid
gland. It is the iodine containing hormone.
83. (c) The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
70. (d) The active chemical ingredient in chili peppers
which is responsible for hotness, is chemically
known as 8-methyl-N-vanillyl-6-nonenamide, g.n
Two major coronary arteries branch off from the
aorta near the meeting point ofaorta and the left
ventricle. These arteries and their branches supply
commonly called as Capsaicin.
71. (d) Heliamphora sp., Drosera sp., Nepenthes sp.
are all carnivorous plants. Thymus sp. is a common
thyme plant which is not a carnivore.
et
all parts of the heart muscle with blood.
84. (c) Foreign particles possessing the antigens can
elicit immune response in the body.
85. (d) Apart from the nuclear DNA, the cells’
72. (b) Censor mechanism of seed dispersal is a type mitochondria contain their own DNA. Mitochondria
of dispersal by wind, which generally occur in are thought to be the parasites in the eukaryotic cells
poppy. Its seeds bear hairy fibers outside and are got inside the later as a result of the endo-symbiotic
very light in weight, which aid in easy dispersal by event that took place earlier in the evolution.
wind. 86. (b) When multiple traits are controlled by one
73. (b) Kuttu’s flour is flour made from buckwheat, particular gene, that gene is called a pleiotropic
botanically known as Fagopyrum esculentum. Its gene and this kind of effect is known as pleiotropic
grain like seeds is used to obtain flour. effect.
74. (c) Ethylene is the chemical compound which 87. (a) Wolves are the monogamous animals i.e., they
works as a phytohormone causing fruit-ripening. mate with only one partner throughout their lives.
88. (d) The octopus is a mollusc of the order
75. (c) Rafflesia arnoldii produces the largest flower
Octopoda and family Cephalopoda, with bilaterally
on the earth. It is also known as corpse flower due symmetrical bodies.


89. (c) Insulin is a kind of peptide hormone. It is tobacco plants. Later the tobacco mosaic virus got
secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. It is the discovered (first virus to be discovered) by Martinus
main hormone that regulates the glucose metabolism Beijerinck in 1898. Since then about 5,000 viruses
in humans. have been described in detail.
90. (b) The formation of lymphocytes is known as 101. (b) Virus is not a cell; it remains just in the form
lymphopoiesis. It occurs at bone marrow.Bone of a genetic material or encapsulated on outside
marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of with a protein capsid. It generally injects its genetic
bones. Lymphocytes are the key components of the material into host cells wherein the viral proteins
lymphatic system involved in immunity. get synthesised.
ww
91. (c) Parathyroid hormone is a small protein that
controls the calcium and phosphate homeostasis, as
well as bone physiology. Parathyroid hormone has
effects antagonistic to those of calcitonin.
102. (b) The viral particles are made up of only nucleic
acid as its genetic material and some also have
capsid made up of proteins. It is not cellular.
w.E
92. (b) The ampullary- isthmus junction of fallopian
tube is the particular place where actually
fertilization occurs. Fallopian tube is a part of the
103. (b) Ferns, a group under pteridophytes have
large number of chromosomes e.g., Ophioglossum
reticulatumhas 2n=1260, highest known in all life
forms.
female reproductive system.
93. (c)
asy
Eating and swallowing are complex
neuromuscular activities, co-ordinated by the
104. (d) Pollination by snails or slugs is known as
Malacophily, which is rare phenomenon. There are
reports of it in Volvulopsis nummularium of family
En
swallowing centre in the medulla oblongata and
pons. Vomiting is also regulated by medulla
oblongata.
Convolvulaceae.
105. (d) Vitamin D is a steroid hormone, a group of fat-
gin
94. (b) Urea is produced as a metabolite in the liver. It
is produced as a breakdown product of amino acids.
soluble secosteroids that plays a vital role in calcium
and phosphate absorption. Vitamin D also enhances
intestinal absorption of calcium, iron, magnesium,
ee
Ammonium ions are also formed in the breakdown
of amino acids. Some of which are utilised in
the biosynthesis of nitrogen compounds. Excess
ammonium ions are converted to urea.
95. (b) Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates
phosphate and zinc in human beings.
106. (a) The theory of mutation ‘Mutation theory’ was
rin
propounded by a Dutch scientist; De-Vries in 1901.
He had observed an unusual occurrence in a plant
secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells
of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. Trypsin,
Ptyalin and Pepsin are digestive enzymes. Trypsin
called evening primrose.
g.n
107. (d) Wilhelm Johannsen was a Danish botanist, plant
physiologist, and geneticist. In his book Elemente
and pepsin are proteolytic enzymes, Ptyalin or
amylase is a starch degrading enzyme.
96. (a) In humans, the vermiform appendix is a small,
finger-sized structure, found at the end of our small
et
der exakten Erblichkeitslehre he introduced the
term gene. This term was coined in opposition to the
then common pangene that stemmed from Darwin’s
theory of pangenesis. This book had become one of
the founding texts of genetics.
caecum and located near the beginning of the
large intestine or at the junction of large and small 108. (c) Johannes Friedrich Miescher, a Swiss
intestine. physician and biologist was the first researcher to
97. (c) The gall bladder is a small sac and is the isolate and identify nucleic acid. He isolated various
storage depot for bile. Bile is only concentrated in phosphate-rich chemicals, which he called nuclein
the gall bladder. then, from the nuclei of white blood cells in 1869.
98. (c) In butterflies the sex determination is based on It is the first report of the discovery and isolation of
ZW system as they lack the sex chromosomes. the genetic material.
99. (a) The nilgai (Boselaphus tragocamelus), is the 109. (d) The ribosomes are the protein-synthesizing
largest Asian antelope. It belongs to the family factories. DNA, RNA and Chromosomes are all
Bovidae, to which cow (Bos sp.) also belonged. genetic materials made of nucleotides, which are
100. (b) In 1892 Dmitri Ivanovsky in his article the sites of genetic mutations e.g., transversion and
described of a non-bacterial pathogen infecting transition, point mutations, etc.

E-50 || Biology
110. (d) The Golgi complex and rough ER work 117. (c) The knowledge that the structure of DNA is
closely. When a protein is made in the ER, then double helical was described by Francis Crick
transition vesicles are synthesized. These vesicles and James Watson in 1953. Their description was
float through the cytoplasm to the Golgi apparatus based on a single X-ray diffraction image taken by
and are absorbed. After the Golgi does its work Rosalind Franklin and Raymond Gosling in May
on the molecules inside the sac or the vesicle a 1952, as well as the knowledge given by Erwin
secretory vesicle is created and released into the Chargaff about the specific rules of nucleotides
cytoplasm. So the main function of the Golgi bodies pairing.
is secretion. 118. (b) The thickest skin is present in the sole of the
ww
111. (b) Goats, sheep and other herbivores are the
primary consumers or heterotrophs. Any animal
that eats primary consumers are the secondary
foot being around 4mm thick. The heel portion of
the foot being the thickest portion. The skin under
the eye and the area around the eyelids is around
w.E consumers or heterotrophs.

112. (b) The word ‘Osteology ‘originates from the
neo-Latin word Ostiologia, meaning something
0.5mm thick and it is the thinnest skin in the body.
119. (b) The genetic code is the set of rules by which
information encoded within genetic material (DNA
or mRNA sequences) is translated into proteins
asy
related to skeleton and bones. The study of bones
and skeleton is therefore known as Osteology in the
medical world.
by living cells. The 1968 Nobel for Physiology
and Medicine was shared by Robert W. Holley, H.
Gobind Khorana and Marshall W. Nirenberg.
En
113. (c) Ichthyology is the branch of zoological sciences
which is devoted to the study of fishes. Cryptology
is the study of mathematical, linguistic, and other
120. (c) Tailbone, muscles of eardrum and tailbone are
all vestigial organs in humans. The frontal teeth or
gin
coding patterns and histories. Lepidopterology is the
study of butterflies and moths. The term sicrotology
incisors are functional and not vestigial. They take
part in tearing of food materials.
121. (c) Cockroach has blood known as homocoel,
does not exist.
ee
114. (c) During the 1940s and 1950s, McClintock
discovered a phenomenon in maize known as
transposition and used it to demonstrate that genes
are responsible for turning physical characteristics
snails and kangaroos also have blood in their bodies.
But hydra does not contain any blood but still it
rin
respires. It does not have any respiratory organs but
it respires and thus exchanges gases throughout its
on and off. Earlier she named such genes as jumping

genes. She had won the 1983’s Nobel in Physiology
body.
g.n
122. (c) Jelly fish belongs to the genus Aurelia of
phylum Cnideria.
or Medicine for her work on genetic structure of
maize.
115. (b) William Harvey was the first scientist who
described the systemic circulation of blood by
experimenting on small animals and fishes. He
Mobula. et
123. (d) The devil fish or giant devil ray is a species
of eagle ray, of family Myliobatidae and genus
124. (a) The title, Seahorse has been given to 54 species

of marine fish in the genus Hippocampus.
also found out that it is the heart which pumps 125. (d) Cold blooded animals do not use internally
blood throughout the whole body. He published generated energy to regulate their body temperature.
his observations and interpretations in Exercitatio On the other hand Warm blooded animals such
Anatomica de Motu Cordis et Sanguinis in as human beings have internal mechanisms that
Animalibus (1628), often abbreviated De Motu maintain their body temperature within a certain
Cordis. range, regardless of the ambient temperature of
116. (d) Christiaan Neethling Barnard was a South surroundings. Fish, frog and lizard are all cold
African cardiac surgeon performed the world’s first blooded organisms.
successful human-to-human heart transplant on 3 126. (d) Diplodocus is a fossil of a dinosaur species
December 1967. He is also credited with the first unearthed in late 18th and early 19th century and it
successful kidney transplantation in 1953, in the is not a living fossil. While the other three are living
United States. fossils. Elephant shrews are small insectivorous


mammals native to Africa, they resemble the 135. (c) The Pineal gland regulates the sleep patterns in
extinct Leptictidium of Eocene Europe, Ginkgo humans by secreting melatonin and serotonin. It is
is a gymnosperm, and Stromatolites are a layered a small endocrine gland resting in the middle of the
structure created as sediment trapped by shallow- brain.
water, oxygen-creating, blue-green bacteria. They 136. (b) Lactobacillus casei strain Shirota is the
provide the most ancient records of life on Earth by bacterium used in the probiotic drink Yakult,
fossil remains which date from more than 3.5 billion which is a fermented mixture of skimmed milk and
years ago. the bacteria. Yakult has been created by Japanese
127. (c) Macrocystis pyrifera is a giant kelp and the scientist Minoru Shirota.
ww largest of all algae and plants. It is the fastest-

growing organism. They can grow at a rate of
two feet a day to reach over 50 metres long in one
137. (d) Liver is the site of storage of extra carbohydrate
or glucose by converting it into glycogen. When
there is energy deficit, the stored glycogen is again
w.E growing season. Populus tremuloides is the largest

tree, Armillaria ostoyae is the largest among the
fungi, Macropanesthia rhinoceros is the Australian
giant burrowing cockroach.
broken down to glucose. The deprivation of the
hormone insulin imbalances this carbohydrate
homeostasis in the body.
Diseases
asy
128. (c) Mammals have 4 chambers in their hearts.
Fishes have 2, and reptiles have 3 chambers in their
138. (a) The organ which is affected by hepatitis is
the liver. There is inflammation of the liver and
En
hearts. 5 chambers in a heart is an anomaly.
129. (d) A child has approximately 300 (270-300)
bones in total in its body, as the child grows many
the disease is characterized by the presence of
inflammatory cells in the tissue of the liver.
gin
bones especially in the head fuse together leading to
decrease in the total number of bones to 206. Thus
adults have 206 bones.
139. (d) Diphtheria is caused by a bacterium
Corynebacterium diphtheria, Polio is a fatal viral
disease, small pox is also a viral disease. Rabies is
ee
130. (b) The thigh-bone or femur is the longest,
heaviest and by most measures the strongest bone
in the human body. Its length is 26% of the person’s
height.
also viral disease.
140. (c) The primary diagnostic test to detect AIDS is
rin
ELISA, if antibodies are detected in it, then Western
blotting is done for final confirmation of HIV.
131. (a) Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates
secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of
the stomach and aids in gastric motility. Secretin is
g.n
141. (d) Na-24 is used as a radionuclide which is
injected into the human bloodstream to detect any
clots. The half-life of Na-24 is 15.6 hrs.
a hormone that both controls the environment in the
duodenum by regulating secretions of the stomach
and pancreas, and regulates water homeostasis
throughout the body. Trypsin and Pepsin are
et
142. (b) Japanese encephalitis is a viral disease caused
by viruses of family Flaviviridae. Domestic pigs and
herons are the potential reservoirs of these viruses.
143. (d) Lungs are supposed to be least damaged by
harmful radiations.
proteolytic enzymes.
144. (a) Artemisinin is an antimalarial drug of Chinese-
132. (d) The bone marrow (flexible tissue inside of
Vietnamese origin, which is derived from the plant
the bones) is the site where red blood cells and
Artemisia annua which is a seed plant.
other blood cells are formed in the process called
145. (c) Minamata disease which is a neurological
haematopoieses.
disease was first discovered in Minamata city in
133. (a) Karl Landsteiner is credited for the discovery
Kumamoto prefecture, Japan, in 1956. It was caused
of human blood groups. He also won the 1930 Nobel in humans by eating fish contaminated with methyl-
Prize for Physiology or Medicine for the same. mercury.
134. (c) A person containing O+ blood group does not 146. (d) Meningitis is an acute inflammation of the
possess any antigen to elicit any antibody reaction in protective membranes covering the brain and spinal
the receiver. Thus, a person with O+ is the universal cord. The inflammation can be caused by bacteria,
donor. AB+ on the other hand is a universal acceptor. virus or any other pathogen.

E-52 || Biology
147. (c) Emphysema is chronic obstructive pulmonary 157. (a) When there is oxygen deficit in the muscles,
disease in which the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs the later starts converting the pyruvate into lactic
are damaged. Due to which most of the body parts acid due to which some side-effects occur like
do not get oxygen. acidification of muscles and their fatigue.
148. (d) Mad cow disease is the common name of 158. (b) In Anosmia the olfactory sensation is affected
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE). It is a where ability to smell and recognize a particular odor
fatal neurodegenerative disease (encephalopathy) is malfunctioned. A related term, hyposmia, refers
in cattle that causes a spongy degeneration in the to a decreased ability to smell, while hyperosmia
brain and spinal cord. The probable cause of BSE is refers to an increased ability to smell.
ww believed to be prions.
149. (b) National Institute of Visually Handicapped
(NIVH) is an autonomous body under the Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment, Govt. of India
159. (d) The causal organism in AIDS is Human
Immune Deficiency virus. It’s a kind of lentivirus of
retrovirus family.
w.E located on Mussoorie-Dehradun Highway. NIVH

is engaged in training the visually challenged
persons and is also engaged in production of
160. (c) BMD stands for Bone Mineral Density
Test which measures the quantity of calcium and
minerals in the bones. Osteoporosis is also checked
via this test.
handicapped.
asy
Braille literature, Aids and Appliances for visually
150. (b) Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague or

161. (a) Mirror used for dentistry purposes is generally
a concave mirror due to its ability to converge light.
162. (b) Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung
En
steppe murrain was an infectious viral disease of
cattle. In June of 2011, the United Nations FAO
confirmed that the disease was eradicated.
disease caused by the inhalation of dust. The
workers of mines often get this disease.
gin
151. (a) The normal platelet count in human being is
150,000 to 250,000 per microletre. In Dengue fever
163. (d) Foot and mouth disease in cattle is caused
mainly by virus. In 2010-2011 Japan, Korea and
Bulgaria had got their cattle with this disease.
ee
the viral attack is primarily on platelets. Their count
is reduced to a significant number in the fever. It can
reach below 50,000 per microletre which can prove
to be fatal.
152. (c) MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging.
164. (b) Athlete’s foot is most commonly caused by
the fungi Trichophyton rubrum or Trichophyton
mentagrophytes.
rin
165. (a) Haemophilia is a recessive sex-linked, X
It is the medical imaging technique. It is used as
a radiological technique to study the anatomy and
function of the diseased and healthy tissues of the g.n
chromosome disorder. Therefore, it is more likely to
occur in males than females.
166. (d) Haemophilia lowers blood plasma clotting
body. This is a safe medical technique as no ionizing
rays are used in it.
153. (d) Pellagra is the disease caused by the deficiency
of vitamin B3 or niacin in the diet. Skin develops
et
factor levels of the coagulation factors needed for a
normal process of blood clotting. If bleeding occurs
in normal injuries it does not stop itself.
167. (d) The evidences of the treatments by plastic
many anomalies in this disease.
surgery of a broken nose are found in the Edwin
154. (d) Salk’s vaccine is known as Polio vaccine. Two
Smith Papyrus, a transcription of an Ancient
vaccines are used to combat Poliomyelitis. The first
Egyptian medical text, the oldest known surgical
being developed by Jonas Salk and first tested in
treatise, dated to the Old Kingdom from 3000 to
1952.
2500 BC.
155. (d) Iodine is given as a supplement in the common
salt used in cooking to combat Iodine deficiency 168. (d) According to the data updated in 2013 World
syndromes in humans as iodine as such is present in Health Organization has shown that Ischaemic heart
small quantity in the sea water. disease, stroke, lower respiratory infections, chronic
156. (b) Berry-berry is a disease caused by the obstructive lung disease, diarrhoea and HIV/AIDS
deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamin). East-Asian are the top major killers during the past decade. TB
countries in which people eat predominately is no longer among the top ten but it is still top 15 of
polished rice Berry-berry is a prolonged problem. the diseases causing maximum deaths.


169. (d) Rifampicin is used as an antibiotic drug against 3.5 million deaths each year are attributable to
mycobacterium sp. causing TB and Leprosy. diarrhoea. 80% of those deaths occur in children
170. (a) Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease under the age of 5 years.
of humans and other animals. It is caused by 182. (b) Polio is caused by a enterovirus which is a
parasitic protozoan of the genus Plasmodium. member of the family of Picornaviridae. Bird flu is
171. (d) Vitamin K takes part in the blood clotting caused by virus H1N1 or H5N1.
in humans. Out of the three forms of Vitamin K, 183. (a) The genome of Hepatitis-B virus is made of
Vitamin K1, or phylloquinone is responsible to circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is
maintain healthy blood clotting. The natural source not fully double-stranded.
ww of it is in green vegetables.
172. (c) Itai-Itai is a disease caused by cadmium
poisoning. The bones are softened and kidney
184. (d) Cobalt-60 is used as a radioisotope in treatment
of leukemia.
w.E failure are some of the symptoms of this disease.

173. (d) The long term effect of alcoholism may
lead to ‘Liver cirrhosis’ which is characterized
185. (c) Arsenic-74 is used in the diagnosis of certain
tumours.
186. (c) It is believed that blue baby syndrome is
caused by consumption of water contaminated by
regenerative nodules.
asy
by replacement of liver tissue by fibrosis and
174. (b) P. vivax is one of the six species of malaria

high levels of nitrate. It results in decreased oxygen
carrying capacity of haemoglobin in babies leading
En
parasites that commonly infect humans. It is
responsible for the 65% of malarial cases in Asia.
to death.
187. (a) AYUSH is Department of Ayurveda, Yoga &
Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.
gin
175. (c) Rabies is an acute central nervous system
infection. It is caused by virus Neurotropic
lyssavirus, a member of the Rhabdovirus family.
Allopathy is not included in this department.
188. (c) HIV of Group M and subtype C is the dominant
ee
176. (c) Electron beam radiation therapy is used to treat
certain types of cancers, especially skin lymphomas.
177. (d) Blind spot is present in the posterior region
of the eyeball where optic nerve leaves the eyeball
form of HIV in Southern Africa, Eastern Africa,
India, Nepal, and parts of China.
rin
189. (d) H5N1 is the virus causing bird flu. H
stands for Hemagglutinin 5 for Type 5 and N for
at the retina. Rods and cons are totally absent in
this region. Yellow spot is the small elevation of
the retina present near the blind spot called macula g.n
Neuraminidase Type 1 (Avian Influenza A). It has
also been called “Asian lineage HPAI A(H5N1)”.
190. (c) The Critically Endangered White-rumped
lutea.
178. (b) Gout is a painful medical condition in which
needle-like uric acid crystals precipitate in the
joints, skin, capillaries and other tissues. This is
et
Vulture Gyps bengalensis and two other Indian
species Gyps indicus and Gyps tenuirostris have
suffered a population decline of more than 99.9%
in just 15 years. According to IUCN, these declines
caused when the quantity of uric acid is excessive have been directly attributed to the veterinary use of
in the blood plasma. the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac,
179. (c) During dehydration the body loses much of ingested by vultures that ate carcasses of cattle.
the fluids, sodium chloride and other minerals. Thus 191. (c) AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency
electrolytes’ solution is given to such a patient to Syndrome caused by Human Immuno- deficiency
replenish the lost minerals and salts. Virus.
180. (b) Mycobacterium is a genus of Actinobacteria, 192. (a) Whooping cough is caused by a bacterium
known to cause tuberculosis and leprosy in humans. called Bordetella pertussis. Polio is caused by virus;
181. (a) Diarrhoea is a medical condition caused by Small pox is also caused by virus. All the three can
bacteria or virus, in which the body loses most of be prevented by vaccination. Diabetes is a disease
the fluid and mineral nutrients. According to the associated with insulin imbalance which cannot be
World Health Organization (WHO) approximately prevented by vaccination.

E-54 || Biology
193. (c) The High Security Animal Disease Laboratory 200. (d) Mitochondria contain enzymes for cellular
(HSADL) is India’s premier facility which works respiration. Mitochondria are known as the
under Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act
of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). like a digestive system which takes nutrients, breaks
It has been established for handling exotic and them down, and creates energy for the cell. The
emerging pathogens of animals by virtue of its bio- process of creating cell energy is known as cellular
safety level-IV containment laboratory and animal respiration. Most of the chemical reactions involved
experimentation facility. It is allocated in Bhopal. in cellular respiration happen in the mitochondria. A
194. (a) Night blindness is medically known as mitochondrion is shaped perfectly to maximize its
ww Nyctalopia in which the rod cells in the retina

gradually lose their ability to respond to the light.
Vitamin-A deficiency in the diet of humans is one of
efforts.
201. (d) A seed is a ripened ovule. The typically
enlarged, bottom part of the pistil where ovules are
w.E the causes of night blindness.

195. (d) Goitre is a medical condition in which neck or
larynx swells due to enlargement of thyroid gland
(thyromegaly). Goitre is treated depending on the
produced is the ovary.
202. (a) Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin that
separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times
faster than by hand. American inventor, pioneer,
asy
severity. If it is caused by iodine deficiency, small
doses of iodide in the form of Lugol’s Iodine or KI
solution are given to the patients.
mechanical engineer, and manufacturer Eli Whitney
is best remembered as the inventor of the cotton gin.
Whitney saw that a machine to clean the seed from
En
196. (d) Sleeping sickness is also called “Human
African Trypanosomiasis”, caused by parasitic
cotton could make the South America prosperous
and make its inventor rich.
gin
protozoa of the species Trypanosoma brucei and
transmitted by the vector as well as host called tsetse
fly. The trypanosomal parasite secretes a chemical
203. (d) Tuberculosis (TB) is an infection caused by
two species of Mycobacteria - “Mycobacterium
tuberculosis and Mycobacterium Bovis”. Though, it
induces sleep all the time in them.
General Biology
ee
inside the human body known as Trytophol which can cause disease involving every organ system in
the body, it commonly affects the lungs. The disease
rin
was in existence even in the Neolithic period and till
the early 20th century, the only treatment was rest
197. (c) Sclerenchyma tissues are found in hard parts
of plant body, in cortex, pith, hypodermis, in the
pulp of fruits. Young cells are living and they
g.n
in the open air in specialised sanitoria. Currently,
around 1.7 billion people world-wide, a third of the
world’s population, are infected by Mycobacterium
have protoplasm. But matured cells becomes dead
due to deposition of secondary walls. They give
mechanical support, strength and rigidity to the
plant body.
et
tuberculosis and 3 million deaths a year are
attributable to tuberculosis.
204. (d) Turmeric, the most popular spices of India,
belongs to genus ‘Curcuma’ due to the presence of
a yellow pigment ‘Curcumin’ which imparts yellow
198. (b) Chloroplast is considered as cell within a
cell because it contains its own DNA. Hence, colour to it. The chemical structure of ‘curcumin’ is
it is a semiautonomous organelle. It helps in O OH
photosynthesis.
H 3CO OCH3
199. (a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek for the first time saw
bacteria through a microscope made by himself.
He took samples of plaque from his own teeth and HO OH
mixed them with water. When he looked at the 205. (d) Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake
mixture through his microscope he saw what he due to excessive entry of nutrients into water. The
called “many very little living animalcules.” These streams draining into the lake introduce nutrients
were some of the first recorded observations of what such as nitrogen and phosphorus that encourages
today we would call bacteria. Leeuwenhoek found the growth of algae at the surface of water or pond.
that these were killed when he drank hot coffee.


The excessive acummulation of algae at the surface 216. (d) Thyroxine deficiency in childhood or infancy
of pond is called algae bloom. Later due to death results in a condition called cretinism. Its symptoms
of these algae, their organic matter get decomposed are :
due to which oxygen gets depleted and thereby (i) Lack of skeletal development resulting in
aquatic animals die. If these activities keeps on deformed bones and stunted body growth.
occuring for a long time, then the pond may have (ii) Mental deficiency, retardation of development
more organic matter and less water. of sex organs and Low BMR along with slow
207. (d) Sandalwood tree is a partial root parasite pulse and respiration rate.
because roots develop haustoria that make contact 217. (a) In women luteinizing hormone stimulates the
ww with roots of Dalbergia, Eucalyptus etc.

208. (c) Inner bark of a woody plant is phloem &
function of phloem is to transport food from the
last stage of oogenesis, ovulation, development of
corpus luteum and secretion of progesterone by
the corpus luteum. Ovulation is controlled by the
increased level of LH in the blood.
w.E leaves to the other parts of the plant. Xylem is

another transporting duct of plant that transport
minerals & water from the roots to the leaves.
209. (d) Among the given example only nucleus is
218. (b) Excretion are the removal of waste products
of metabolism from body. The excretory organs in
cockroach and other insects are Malpighian tubules.
asy
a cell organelle and rest are not cell organelle
therefore nucleus is the correct answer.
Likwise in man, kidney is a part of excretory system.
Excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair
of ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra.
En
210. (d) Calcium activates enzymes, is a structural
component of cell walls, influences water
movement in cells and is necessary for cell growth
219. (b) Lobsters belong to class Crustacea of phylum
Arthropoda. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest
phylum.
gin
and division. Some plants must have calcium to take
up nitrogen and other minerals. Calcium is easily
leached. Calcium, once deposited in plant tissue,
220. (c) Measles is caused by virus.
222. (d) Xerophthalmia is not a genetic disorder.
ee
is immobile (non-translocatable) so there must be
a constant supply for growth. Deficiency causes
stunting of new growth in stems, flowers and roots.
Symptoms range from distorted new growth to
Xerophthalmia is a severe drying of the eye surface
caused by a malfunction of the tear glands. Also
rin
found in people with immune disorders, it occurs
most commonly because of decreased intake or
absorption of vitamin A. symptoms include night
black spots on leaves and fruit. Yellow leaf margins
may also appear.
211. (b) Collenchymas provides malleability and
g.n
blindness and eye irritation. In addition to the eyes
being very dry, there is a loss of lustre on their
surface. At later stages, the corneas become soft,
flexibility to certain parts of the plants.
212. (b) Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal
kingdom in terms of both number of taxa and
biomass.
with increased opacity.
et
223. (c) Trypsin is an enzyme. The pancreas adds a
collection of protein-cutting enzymes, with trypsin
playing the central role, that chop the protein chains
213. (a) The saliva of human contains water, mucous into pieces just a few amino acids long. Then,
enzymes on the surfaces of intestinal cells and
and digestive enzyme-salivary a-amylase (ptyalin)
inside the cells chop them into amino acids, ready
and maltase. Ptyalin splits starch and other complex
for use throughout the body. Trypsin uses a special
carbohydrates into maltose which is broken down
serine amino acid in its protein-cutting reaction, and
by maltase into glucose. is consequently known as a serine protease.
214. (d) Cowper’s gland are accessory sex glands in 224. (c) Sand fly insects spread Kala-azar. Kala-azar
males and are located on the floor of the pelvic cavity. is a chronic and potentially fatal parasitic disease
Their secretions contain mucus for lubrication of of the viscera (the internal organs, particularly
reproductive tract. the liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes)
215. (b) Haemophilia is gentic disorder disease in due to infection by the parasite called Leishmania
which blood clotting not easily takes place because donovani. Leishmania donovani, the agent of kala-
of recessive X linked chromosome. azar, is transmitted by sandfly bites.

E-56 || Biology
226. (c) Blood plasma cells form 55 – 60% by volume 239. (b) Baboon is the largest monkey, it is 47 inch
of blood. Antibodies and some other substances long & weight around 90 pounds.
such as lysozyme and properdin always occur in the 240. (c) The pulmonary arteries transport deoxygenated
plasma. They serve to destroy bacteria, viruses and blood to the left and right lungs. And interesting fact
toxic substances that may enter into the blood from is that the pulmonary arteries are the only arteries
outside or from body tissues. that carry deoxygenated blood. All other arteries
227. (b) Enzymes are proteinaceous substances which deliver blood, enriched with oxygen and other
are capable of catalysing chemical reactions of nutrients to our body’s tissues. Conversely, the
biological origins without themselves undergoing pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from
ww any change. The term enzyme was used by Willy

Kuhne in 1878.
228. (a) Human ribcage consists of 12 pairs of ribs.
the left and right lungs to the heart, while all other
veins carry deoxygenated blood and waste products.
Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from
heart to lungs.
w.E The upper seven pairs of ribs are attached infront

directly to the sternum by hyaline cartilage. These
are called true ribs. The next three pairs of ribs
attach indirectly to sternum. They are termed false
241. (b) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood
disorder that causes chronic anemia, periodic
episodes of pain, and other complications. In sickle
asy
ribs. The ribs protect the heart, large blood vessels
and lungs. They bear respiratory muscle.
229. (d) Milk is a poor source of vitamin C. Citrus,
cell anemia, the red blood cells become rigid and
shaped like crescents, or sickles, rather than being
flexible and round. This change in shape prevents
En
amla, etc are rich source of vitamin C.
230. (c) Crocodiles store fats in their tail, because of
red blood cells from getting into small blood
vessels. As a result, the tissues do not get enough
oxygen. Lack of oxygen can cause pain and damage
gin
which they can survive for a long time without food.
231. (c) Jaundice in human beings is the result of
incomplete metabolism of bilirubin. Bilirubin is
in the arms, legs, and organs (e.g., spleen, kidney,
brain).
ee
a bile pigment that is metabolised and excreted
out as sterco-bilinogen in faeces. However when
a pathological process interferes with its normal
functioning, it leads to jaundice. The symptoms
242. (b) The most important carbohydrate is glucose, a
simple sugar (monosaccharide) that is metabolized
rin
by nearly all known organisms. Glucose and
other carbohydrates are part of a wide variety
of metabolic pathways across species: plants
of jaundice is yellowing of skin and eyes due to
deposition of bile pigments.
232. (c) Cerebellum, a part of hindbrain, controls fine g.n
synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and
water by photosynthesis storing the absorbed energy
internally, often in the form of starch or lipids.
movement, maintains balance and equilibrium of
the body and muscle tone in human beings.
233. (b) Leishmania reproduces asexually by binary
fission. It is a causative agent of kala-azar.
234. (b) Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell
et
243. (d) Hepatitis A is caused by infection with the
hepatitis A virus. The hepatitis virus is usually
spread when a person ingests tiny amounts of
contaminated faecal matter. The hepatitis A virus
infects the liver cells and causes inflammation. The
(WBC). They produce a protein called antibodies in inflammation can impair liver function and cause
the presence of foreign molecules called antigens. other signs and symptoms of hepatitis A.
235. (d) Enzymes are biological catalysts that increases 244. (c) Plasmodium shows initial multiplication in
the rate of reaction without altering its structure. lever.
236. (c) Sodium, chloride and potassium ions are 245. (c) Enamel of teeth is the hardest part of our body.
essential for the transmission of nerve impulses. 246. (c) Nucleus, cell membrane, mitochondria and
237. (b) Liver cells secrete bile, biles help in cytoplasm are present in animal cell.
emulsification of fat i.e. breaking down of fats into 247. (d) In digestive system of living organisms
small micelles. proteins are broken down into amino acids.
238. (b) As AB is the universal recipient & B is the 248. (c) Cerebrum (a major part of forebrain) is the
same blood group therefore can donate blood to main thinking part of brain. It has sensory, motor
these two groups of people. and association areas.


249. (b) Darwin (1881) found that bending movement 263. (b) One of the secondary structures exhibited
of coleoptile of canary grass (Phalaris canariensis) by DNA is the famous Watson–Crick model. This
was due to exposure of tip to unilateral light. model says that DNA exists as a double helix. The
Boysen-Jensen (1910, 1911) found that the tip two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel i.e.,
produces a chemical which was later named Auxin. run in the opposite direction.
250. (b) In case the ovum (female) fertilises with a 264. (c) During G1 phase the cell is metabolically
sperm (male) carrying X-chromosome the zygote active and continuously grow. S or synthesis phase
develops into a female (XX) and the fertilisation of marks the period during which DNA synthesis or
ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm results replication takes place. In G2 phase, proteins are
ww into a male offspring (XY). Thus, it is evident that

it is the genetic makeup of the sperm (male/father)
that determines the sex of the child.
synthesised. M phase represents the phase when the
actual cell division or mitosis occurs.
266. (c) Oxysomes (Elementary particles or inner
w.E
252. (c) Mostly dicotyledonous plants exhibit an
increase in girth called the secondary growth. The
tissues involved in secondary growth are the two
lateral meristems : vascular cambium and cork
membranes sub-units or F1 particles); these are
responsible for respiratory chain phosphorylation.
267. (a) Almost all the proteins synthesized by ER
cambium.
asy
254. (d) Chlorenchyma (parenchymatous cells having
chloroplasts) participates in photosynthesis.
bounded ribosomes are converted into glycoproteins
and this glycosylation occurs in the rough ER.
273. (c) Peroxisomes are involved in synthesis of
En
It is present in mesophyll cells of leaves and
differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy
glycine and serine in the process of photorespiration.
278. (c) The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends
parenchyma.
gin
255. (b) The matrix comprises the major constituents
of bone. It has inorganic and organic parts. The
(fusiform) and do not show striations. Cell junctions
hold them together and they are bundled together
in a connective tissue sheath. The wall of internal
ee
inorganic is mainly crystalline mineral salts
and calcium, which is present in the form of
hydroxyapatite. The matrix is initially laid down
as unmineralized osteoid mineralisation involves
organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and
intestine contain this type of muscle tissue.
rin
283. (a) Starfish are echinoderms belonging to the class
Asteroidea. All are marine with organ-system level
osteoblasts secreting vesicles containing alkaline
phosphatase. This cleaves the phosphate groups
and acts as the foci for calcium and phosphate
of organization.
g.n
287. (b) Eutrophication is the enrichment of bodies of
fresh water by inorganic plant nutrients (e.g., nitrate,
deposition.
256. (c) Connective tissues are named so because of
their special functions of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body. They range from
et
phosphate). These typically promote excessive
growth of algae. As the algae die and decompose,
high levels of organic matter and the decomposing
organisms deplete the water of available oxygen,
soft connective tissues to specialised types, which causing the death of other organisms, such as fish.
include cartilage, bone, adipose, blood and lymph. 291. (b) The most poisonous mushroom is the death
257. (c) Proline is an a-amino acid, one of the cap toadstool (Amantia phalloides). It is commonly
twenty DNA–encoded amino acids L–Proline is found where beech and oak trees grow.
an osmoprotectant and therefore is used in many
292. (d) All single – celled eukaryotes are placed under
pharmaceutical, biotechnological applications.
Protista. This kingdom forms a link with others
260. (d) Thromboplastin is a plasma protein aiding
dealing with plants, animals and fungi.
blood coagulation through conversion of
293. (a) A vessel element is one of the cell types
prothrombin to thrombin.
261. (b) Lysosomal membrane is formed in ER, later found in xylem, the water conducting tissue of
it is modified and transferred to the cis face of plants. Vessel elements are typically found in the
Golgi apparatus where further processing release angiosperms but absent from most gymnosperms
lysosome. such as the conifers.

E-58 || Biology
294. (d) Paramecium is a ciliated protozoan because 303. (a) Collar cells occurs in sponges and located at
of the presence of thousands of cilia. Plasmodium the anterior end of each choanocyte.
(malarial parasite) is a sporozoan, causing malaria 305. (b) Human lung fluke, Paragonimus westermani,
which has staggering effect on human population. infects 22 million people in Africa, Asia and South
297. (b) Karyotaxonomy is based up on nucleus and and central America. Humans get infected by eating
band on chromosomes. raw crabs or fishes that are carrying the parasite.
298. (c) In many bacteria (specially gram +ve) the Lung flukes cause pain and severe coughing.
plasma membrane gives rise to infoldings called 306. (d) Spider belongs to class arachnida.
307. (c) Frog is ureotelic because nitrogenous excretory
ww mesosome. They have respiratory enzymes like

succinic dehydrogenase, cytochrome oxidase for
respiration.
product is usually urea.
308. (b) A snake has no middle ear. It perceives sound
through skin from earth.
w.E
299. (b) In this process bacteria decompose the pectin
of the plant to liberate fibres. The process of fibre
preparation is known as retting. This process is
309. (b) Poison of cobra is most virulent. It is a
neurotoxin attacking nerve centres and causing
paralysis of muscles, especially those of respiratory
asy
carried out by Clostridium butyrium.
301. (b) The tip of the root of Rafflesia makes haustorial
contact with the root of host and absorbs food from
muscles.
312. (d) Spirogyra is a freshwater alga found freely
floating on the surface of the stagnant pools, ponds
the host.
En and ditches, etc. It is commonly known as water silk
or pond silk.
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

4 Environment and Ecology
ww
1. The Ramsar convention is associated with the 9. Chipko movement was basically against

w.E conservation of
(a) bio fuels
(c) wet lands
(b) forests
(d) dry lands

(a) Water pollution (b) Noise pollution
(c) Deforestation (d) Cultural pollution
10. The United Nations Convention on climate
change ratified by more than 50 countries became
2.

(a) November 19
(c) October 2
asy
World Environment Day is observed on
(b) November 14
(d) June 5

effective on
(a) March 21, 1994 (b) May 21, 1995
3.
(a) Zinc En
Which of the following is not a water pollutant ?
(b) Copper
(c) June 21, 1996 (d) June 21, 1999
11. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane

4.

(c) Nickel
gin
(d) Sulphur dioxide
The concept of greenhouse gases was postulated by
(a) C.C. Park (b) J.N.N. Jaffers
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitrogen
12. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
of the following ?

5.
(c) Joseph Fourier (d) L. Zobler
ee
Which one of the following naturally occurring
greenhouse gases cause the highest percentage of
greenhouse effect?
(a) For nutrient recovery and recycling
rin
(b) For releasing heavy metals through

absorption by plants.
(c) In reducing siltation of rivers by retaining

(c) Ozone (d) Water vapour
sediments
(d) All the above g.n
13. The non-biotic pollutant of underground water is
6. Eco-Mark is given to the Indian products that are

(a) Pure and unadulterated
(b) Rich in proteins
(c) Environment-friendly
(a) bacteria
(c) arsenic et
(b) algae
(d) viruses
14. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called
(a) chemical cycles
(d) Economically viable
(b) biogeochemical cycles
7. Which one of the following is the best source of
(c) geological cycles
generating electricity in India from the viewpoint
(d) geochemical cycles
of sustainable development ? 15. The transitional zone between two distinct
(a) Coal (b) Mineral oil and gas communities is known as
(c) Hydro electricity (d) Atomic energy (a) Ecotype (b) Ecade
8. Sustainable development is a case of (c) Ecosphere (d) Ecotone
intergenerational sensibility in respect of use of 16. Acid rain is caused due to air pollution by
(a) natural resources (a) carbon dioxide
(b) material resources (b) carbon monoxide
(c) industrial resources (c) methane
(d) social resources (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

E-60 || Environment and Ecology

17. Which one of the following is the most stable (c) Destruction of habitat
ecosystem ? (d) Controlling pests
(a) Desert (b) Mountain 27. Which of the following Megacities of India
(c) Ocean (d) Forest generates the largest solid waste per capita
18. The greenhouse effect is mostly caused by annually ?
(a) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (a) Bangalore (b) Chennai
(b) Infra-red radiation (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
(c) Moisture in the atmosphere 28. The author of Green Development is
(d) Ozone layer
ww
19. The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation
of an area over time is described as
(a) biomes (b) succession

(a) M.J. Bradshaw (b) M. Nicolson
(c) R.H. Whittaker (d) W.M. Adams
29. Which one of the following is important strategy

w.E(c) trophic level (d) climax
20. The minimum area of the land required to
completely sustain the life of one person is called

for the conservation of biodiversity ?
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) Botanical Gardens
his
(a) Biota
(b) Biome asy

(c) National Parks
(d) Wild Life Sanctuaries
30. Endangered species are listed in
(c) Ecological foot print
(d) Niche
En

(a) Dead Stock Book (b) Red Data Book
(c) Live Stock Book (d) None of these
(b) temperate forests gin

21. The maximum biodiversity is found in
(a) tropical rain forests
31. Among the biotic components of the ecosystem
the producer system is
(a) Cow (b) Peacock

(c) coniferous forests
(d) arctic forests
ee
22. Which one of the following trees is considered to
be an environmental hazard ?
(c) Tiger (d) Green plants
32. To meet Euro II emission standards, what should
rin
be the sulphur content in the ultra low sulphur
diesel ?
(a) Babool
(c) Neem
(b) Amaltas
(d) Eucalyptus
23. The highest chemical pollution is caused by the

(b) 0.10 percent
g.n
(a) 0.05 percent or less

industrial effluents of
(a) leather industry (b) paper industry
(c) rayon industry (d) taxtile industry
24. Biosphere reserves are areas to preserve

(c) 0.15 percent
(d) 0.20 percent
et
33. Climate change is caused by
(a) greenhouse gases
(a) Grassland (b) depletion of ozone layer
(b) Agricultural produce (c) pollution
(c) Atmospheric balance (d) all the above
(d) Genetic diversity 34. The Ozone layer restricts
25. Solar radiation plays the most important role in (a) visible light
the (b) infrared radiation
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Oxygen cycle (c) X-rays and Gamma rays
(c) Water cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle (d) ultraviolet radiation
26. Which one of the following is the most important 35. The concept of ecological niche was first
factor responsible for decline of biodiversity? introduced by
(a) Genetic assimilation (a) C.C. Park (b) E.P. Odum
(b) Controlling predators (c) J. Grinnell (d) G.E. Hutchinson


36. Which one of the following ecosystems is known 45. All components and individuals in an ecosystem
as the ‘Land of Big Games’ ? are
(a) Selvas (b) Savannah (a) individualistic (b) independent
(c) Prairie (d) Taiga (c) interdependent (d) dispensable
37. Biotic component of the environment does not 46. The amount of energy as it passes on from one
include trophic level to other in an ecosystem
(a) soil system (a) increases (b) decreases
(b) animal system (c) remains constant (d) none of these
47. What term denotes the organisms getting their
ww

(c) micro-organism system
(d) plant system
38. Mangrove forests in Asia are largely concentrated
food from others ?
(a) Heterotrophs (b) Autotrophs
(c) Producers (d) Synthesizers
w.Ein
(a) India
(c) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(d) Philippines
48. Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of
(a) O3 layer
(c) SO2 layer
(b) C2 layer
(d) O2 layer
(a) populations
(c) genes asy
39. Higher order biotic level includes
(b) cells
(d) tissues
49. The ‘word Ecology’ was coined in 1866 by

(a) Charles Darwin (b) Robert Whittaker
(c) Arthur Tansley (d) Ernst Haeckel
cycle ?
En
40. Which one of the following is a part of Geological
50. The concept of carbon credit originated from
which one of the following ?

(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Hydrogen cycle
(c) Hydrological cycle gin

(a) Kyoto protocol (b) Earth summit
(c) Doha round (d) Montreal Protocol

(d) Nitrogen cycle
formation ?
(a) Photosynthesis process
ee
41. Which one of the following is related to ozone
51. Earth summit was held in
(a) Chicago
(c) Rio de Jneiro
rin
(b) Copenhagen
(d) London
52. Which of the following environmentalists first
gave the concept of Biodiversity ‘Hotspots’ ?

(b) Photochemical process
(c) Chemosynthesis process

(a) Julia Hill
g.n
(b) John Muir
(c) Norman Myers (d) Gaylord Nelson
(d) Hydrolysis process
42. Which one of the following is not related to water
pollution ?
(a) Eutrophication
(a) 10%
(c) 0.1%
et
53. In a food chain, the solar energy utilized by plants
is only
(b) 0.01%
(d) 1.0%
(b) Nitrification 54. The loss of biodiversity is due to
(c) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (a) the destruction of natural habitats of
(d) Oil slicks organism
43. Which one of the following is designated as the (b) environmental pollution
“lungs of the world” ? (c) destruction of forests
(a) Mangrove forests (d) all the above
(b) Mid-latitude mixed forests 55. Global-500 Award is given for achievement in
(c) Taiga forests the field of
(d) Equatorial evergreen forests (a) environmental protection
44. An artificial ecosystem is represented by (b) movement against narcotics
(a) Agriculture land (b) Pisciculture tank (c) movement against terrorism
(c) Zoo (d) Aquarium (d) population control


56. Global Warming is caused due to the emission of (c) deserts and Savanna
(a) Nitrogen (d) equatorial forests
(b) Carbon dioxide 65. The use of fossil fuels is responsible for the
(c) Carbon Monooxide increase in the amount of which gas in the
(d) Hydrocarbon atmosphere ?
57. Which one of the following energy is most (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbondioxide
utilized in biomass ? (c) Ozone (d) Argon
(a) Atomic energy 66. Which of the following components of ecosystem
(b) Solar energy acts as intermediatory between biotic and abiotic
ww

58.
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Tidal energy
Urbanisation and Industrialisation are detri-

components?
(a) Producer
(c) Decomposer (d) Habitat
(b) Consumer

w.E mental to
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Environment and Ecology
67. Which one among the following is not an

endangered bird of India?
(a) White-bellied Heron

59.
asy
(c) Preservation of biodiversity
The National Environmental Research Institute is

(b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Forest Owlet
(d) Mallard

located at
(a) Dehradun
En
(b) Jaipur
68. Which one of the following is not helpful in
maintaining ecological stability?

60.
(c) Nagpur
gin
(d) New Delhi
Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for
outstanding contribution to

(a) Ecosystem complexity
(b) Ecosystem diversity

(b) Clean technology and development
(c) Wild life conservation
(d) Hindi books on environment
ee
(a) Afforestation and conservation of wastelands

(c) Ecosystem uniformity
(d) Homeostatic mechanism
rin
69. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is
sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food
crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain,
61.

Which one of the following adopted “Agenda
21” ?
(a) First Earth Summit g.n
the highest concentration of the pesticide would
accumulate in which one of the following ?

62.
(b) Summit on Sustainable Development
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) Kyoto Protocol
The term ‘ecosystem’ was enunciated by
(a) Food crop
(c) Snake
et
(b) Rat
(d) Hawk
70. Consider the following statements
1. In ecology, an ecosystem is a naturally
(a) C.C. Park (b) G. Mendal occurring assemblage of organism (plant,
(c) A.G. Tansley (d) E.P. Odum animal and other living organism - also
63. Which one of the following is not included under referred to as a biotic community or
the basic component of the environment ? biocoenosis) living together with their
(a) Abiotic component environment (or biotope), function as a unit
(b) Biotic component of sorts.
(c) Energy component 2. The term “ecosystem” first coined by Arthur
(d) Spatial component Tansely.
64. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species Which of the statements given above is/are
occurs in correct?
(a) tropical moist forests (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) temperate deciduous forests (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


71. Under optional conditions, the fruit fly 77. Which crop utilizes solar energy most efficiently ?
(Drosphilia) is capable of producing a new (a) Potato (b) Sugarcane
generation every two weeks. (c) Wheat (d) Rice
This ability is referred to as the ............ of the 78. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes
species. smaller. It is so to
(a) carrying capacity (a) reduce metabolism
(b) niche (b) reduce transpiration
(c) biotic potential (c) maintain natural growth
(d) protect plant from animals
ww
(d) optimal yeild
72. ‘Nitrosomonas’ bacteria in the root modules of
leguminous plants converts nitrogen gas from air
79.

Which one of the following is a major constituent
of biogas?
w.E into inorganic nitrogen compounds which enrich

the soil and can be readily used by plants. Multiple
cropping with legumes can thus significantly

80.
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide
The major combustible component of gobar (cow
dung) gas is

reduce the need for
(a) pesticides
(c) irrigation
asy
(b) fertilizers
(d) All of these

81.
(a) methane
(c) hydrogen
(b) carbon dioxide
(d) propane
The driving force of an ecosystem is
life? En
73. What is the primary source of food for marine

(a) biomass
(b) producer

(c) Sea weed (d) Grassgin
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton

(c) carbohydrate in producers
(d) solar energy

known as ee
74. The use of microorganism metabolism to remove
pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is
(a) biomagnification (b) bioremediation

82.

As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
of the following?
rin
(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling
(b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants
(c) biomethanation (d) bioreduction
75. In Nitrogen Cycle, soil nitrates are transformed
into free nitrogen by

g.n
(c) In reducing saltation of rivers by retaining
sediments

(a) nitrifying bacteria
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) ammonifying bacteria
(d) Both (a) and (c)

83.

Vermicompost is a/an
(a) inorganic fertilizer
(b) toxic substance
et
(c) organic biofertilizer
76. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(d) synthesis fertilizer
(a) All the abiotic resources are non-renewable 84. Environmental Kuznets curve
and all the biotic resources are renewable (a) a semi-circle curve suggesting increase in
(b) All the abiotic resources are non-renewable per-capita income increases the pollution
but some of the biotic resources are non- (b) a U-shaped curve suggesting the level of
renewable development and carbon emission
(c) Some of the abiotic resources are renewable (c) suggest a U-shaped relationship between the
but the biotic resources are renewable carbon emission and Ozone layer depletion
(d) Some of the abiotic resources are renewable (d) suggest a bell-shaped relationship between
and some of the biotic resources are non- the concentration of certain pollution
renewable emission and per-capita real GDP


85. Consider the following statements 3. Methane is derived from sources such as
1. The Forest Survey of India was established rice paddies, bovine flatulence, bacteria in
in 1981. bogs and fossil fuel production
2. The Forest Survey of India was a successor Which of the statements given above is/are
to “Pre-Investment Survey of Forest correct?
Resources” (PISFR), a project initiated in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
1965 by Government of India and sponsored (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
by FAO and UNDP. 90. Earlier, leaded petrol used to be the most
3. The Forest Survey of India prepare widespread, though easily preventable, source
ww

vegetation maps after every five years
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
of urban air pollution in the world. According
to WHO (World Health Organisation). 15-18
million children in the developing countries are

w.E(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
86. Consider the following

(b) 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen

already suffering from permanent brain damage
due to lead poisoning. Why is tetra-ethyl lead
added to petrol?

3. Oxides of Sulphur
asy
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions

(a) It prevents engine knocking
(b) Reduces vehicular emissions
(c) Increases life of motor tyres

(a) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3 En
from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
91. Which of the following are correctly matched?

of the following ?
gin
87. REDD Plus Programme is concerned with which
(a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

1. Viena
convention
: protection
: of ozone layer

(c) Millennium Development Goals (MDG)
(d) Earth Summit
ee
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
88. Consider the following statements about Montreal

2. Stockholm
convention
3. Rotterdam
convention chemicals
4. Basel rin
: Hazardous wastes
and their disposal
: Hazardous
: persistent organic

Protocol
1. The Vienna Convention on the ozone layer
and the subsequent Montreal Protocol on
convention pollutants
(a) 1 and 2 g.n(b) 1 and 3

substance that depleted the ozone layer,
adopted in 1987.
2. The protocol provided for a multilateral
fund to assist developing countries cover

(c) 2, 3 and 4
et
(d) 1, 2 and 4
92. ‘Rally for Valley’ programme in India was
organised to highlight the problem of
(a) environmental degradation
their incremental costs in eliminating CFCs (b) biodiversity
or ODS. (c) resettlement of displaced people
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) loss of agricultural land
correct? 93. Buddha Nullah has been the main source of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 pollution of which among the following rivers?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Chambal (b) Sutlej
89. Consider the following statements (c) Yamuna (d) Gandak
1. According to IPCC, Methane is more than 94. The hockey stick graph indicates
20 times as effective as CO2 at trapping heat (a) increase in population
in the atmosphere (b) increase in urban areas
2. Methane is more than 50 times as effective (c) increase in sea level
as CO2 in depletion of Ozone layer (d) increase in global temperature


95. Which among the following statement about 4. If barks of tree are affected due to a disease,
biofertilizers are correct? then reduction of wood lice will affect the
1. Azotobacter is one of the nitrogen fixing shrew population forcing owls to eat more
bacteria used as a biofertilizer. voles.
2. They have to be applied to the leaves of the Which of the above predictions is/are correct?
plant only. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 3
3. They alter the chemical composition of the (c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2
soil. 99. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many
4. They can be used along with organic arctic birds and fishes. However, under natural
ww

fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
conditions, no one found polar bears predating
any penguin. This is because
(a) penguins have chemical substance in their

w.E(a) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. Which one of the following plants is used for

muscles which is toxic to polar bears
(b) penguins are gregarious and always move
in groups. Therefore, a polar bear cannot
green manuring in India ?
(a) Wheat
(c) Cotton
asy
(b) Sunnhemp
(d) Rice

approach them
(c) polar bears and penguins never coexist
under natural conditions. The former lives
En
97. Which among the following are the major reasons
behind preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned
in the North Pole while the latter lives in the
South Pole

forestation process?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
gin
2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile.
(d) polar bears and penguins display symbiotic
relationships and they help each other for

ee
3. Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily
converted into the pulp for paper industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.

their existence in the ice-cold ecosystem
100. Which of the following gases is released from
rin
rice fields in the most prominent quantities?
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

(a) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
98. In a forest, animals like voles and woodlice feed
101.
g.n
Consider the following statement about
bioremediation.
on plant roots and barks respectively. Among
the other carnivores, foxes, shrews and owls are
present in that forest. Following predictions are
made by a group of observers who have visited

et
1. It may be defined as any process that uses
microorganisms or their enzymes to return
the environment altered by contaminants to
its original condition.
2. Bioremediation may be employed in order
the forest.
to attack specific contaminants, such as
1. If the roots of the tree develop a disease,
chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by
then voles and foxes will starve and not the
owls. bacterial.
2. Population of voles is dependent on wood Which of the statements given above is/are
lice population through food web. correct?
3. If owl population declines, it will indirectly (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
affect wood lice population. (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 12. (d) 23. (a) 34. (d) 45. (c) 56. (b) 67. (d) 78. (b) 89. (b) 100. (b)
2. (d) 13. (c) 24. (d) 35. (c) 46. (b) 57. (b) 68. (c) 79. (b) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (b) 14. (b) 25. (c) 36. (b) 47. (a) 58. (d) 69. (d) 80. (a) 91. (b)
4. (c) 15. (d) 26. (c) 37. (a) 48. (a) 59. (c) 70. (c) 81. (d) 92. (a)
5. (a) 16. (d) 27. (c) 38. (c) 49. (d) 60. (b) 71. (c) 82. (c) 93. (b)
6. (c) 17. (c) 28. (d) 39. (a) 50. (a) 61. (a) 72. (b) 83. (c) 94. (d)
ww7.
8.
(c)
(a)
18.
19.
(a)
(b)
29.
30.
(a)
(b)
40.
41.
(c)
(b)
51.
52.
(c)
(c)
62.
63.
(c)
(d)
73.
74.
(a)
(b)
84.
85.
(d)
(b)
95.
96.
(a)
(b)
w.E
9.
10.
11.
(c)
(a)
(d)
20.
21.
22.
(c)
(a)
(d)
31.
32.
33.
(d)
(a)
(d)
42.
43.
44.
(b)
(d)
(d)
53.
54.
55.
(d)
(d)
(a)
64.
65.
66.
(d)
(b)
(a)
75.
76.
77.
(b)
(d)
(b)
86.
87.
88.
(d)
(b)
(c)
97.
98.
99.
(b)
(d)
(c)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1.
gin
(c) On 2nd February 1971 the Convention on
Wetlands near Ramsar coast of Iran was held (Since
then 2nd Feb was celebrated as World Wetland Day).
5. (a) Carbon dioxide causes the highest percentage
(i.e., about 60%) of greenhouse effect, the enhanced
greenhouse effect is known as Global warming.
ee
A transition zone between dry land and water bodies
wetlands helps in nourishing high biodiversity and
purifying the drainage system of rivers before
entering into oceans, so they are also known as
“Kidneys of Ecosystem.” There are 26 Ramsar Sites
Global warming is progressive heating of earth’s
atmosphere because of enhanced trapping of solar
radiation.
rin
6. (c) Eco-Mark is given to the Indian products that
are environment-friendly. Eco-Mark is an eco-
2.
in India.
(d) Since 1972, 5th June is celebrated as World g.n
labelling scheme which was constituted by the
Government of India in 1991 for easy identification
of environment-friendly products. Eco-Mark is
3.
Environment Day by UNEP (United Nations
Environment Program)to raise global awareness for
positive environmental actions. It is also known as
Ecoday/Environment Day and WED.
(b) Copper is a metal element that is essential to
et
unique when compared to other eco-labels in one
aspect; it also necessitated meeting the quality
requirements of BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards).
7. (c) Hydroelectricity is the most sustainable method
of generating electricity. It is one of the renewable
human health. Too little is unhealthy and too much
source of energy in which the kinetic energy of
can lead to copper poisoning.Copper is not a water flowing streams can be used to run the turbines to
pollutant in small quantity but in large quantity it generate electricity through dams or other natural
acts as a water pollutant and cause various diseases waterfalls. Presently all the given statements are
of digestive system. responsible, but hydro electricity projects would be
4. (c) The concept of Greenhouse gases (GHGs) economical and sustainable in India.
was postulated by Joseph Fourier. It indicates the 8. (a) Sustainable development is a case of
group of gases through which Green House Effect intergenerational sensibility in respect of use of
(GHE) is caused. All greenhouse gases together natural resources. It is the development of present
form a layer which helps in trapping of outgoing generation without depleting the resource share of
insolation solar radiations and keep the earth warm future generation. It includes the Concept of Needs
and habitable. and Idea of Limitations.


9. (c) Chipko movement was basically against 16. (d) The term ‘acid rain’ means any form of
Deforestration. The movement started by noted precipitation like rain, fog, snow, or hail that
environmental activist Sunder Lal Bahuguna in the contains harmful substances such as nitrogen
year 1970 to safeguard the rich flora of Western and sulphur oxides. Acid rain is caused due to air
Himalayan region. During this movement, activists pollution by nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide.
hugged around trees to protest against their cutting 17. (c) Ocean is the most stable ecosystem as it is
down. highly productive.
10. (a) The United Nations convention on climate
18. (a) The greenhouse effect is mostly caused by
change ratified by more than 50 countries became
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. As the biggest
ww effective on March 21, 1994. To cooperatively

consider what they could do to limit the increase
in the global temperature and the resulting climate
change, and to cope with whatever impacts were,
contributor, carbon di oxide causes about 60% of
the greenhouse effect in environment, in which
returning insolation of higher wavelength gets
w.Einevitable then in 1992. Countries joined an

international treaty, the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change.
trapped by layer of greenhouse gases.
19. (b) The orderly sequence of change in the
vegetation of an area over time is described as
asy
11. (d) Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas and is present
as largest proportion of atmosphere (about 78%). As
this is not present in upper layer of troposphere, it
succession. During succession, the sequence
of PIONEER COMMUNITY ⇒ SERAL
COMMUNITY ⇒ CLIMAX COMMUNITY are
does not act as greenhouse gas.
En
12. (d) As wetland is a transition zone between the
riverine drainage and oceanic reservoir, it plays
progressively grown on the vegetationless regions.
The succession in water and desert are known as
gin
a big role in maintaining high biodiversity and in
retaining sediments from the rivers before entering
Hydrosere and Xerosere respectively.
20. (c) The minimum area of the land required to
completely sustain the life of one person is called
into large water bodies.
ee
13. (c) Bacteria, algae and virus are all biotic. The
non-biotic pollutant of underground water is
arsenic. It may be found in water which has flowed
through arsenic-rich rocks. Immediate symptoms
his ecological foot print. From any ecological foot
print, an organism uptakes its important resource
rin
materials for its living.
21. (a) The maximum biodiversity is found in tropical
on an acute poisoning typically include vomiting,
oesophageal and abdominal pain, and bloody
“rice water” diarrhoea. Chelation therapy may be g.n
rainforests. Tropical belt extends between Tropic of
cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is the region of
highest photoactivity as sun shines for more or less
effective in acute poisoning but should not be used
against long-term poisoning.
14. (b) The cycling of elements in an ecosystem
are called Biogeochemical cycles. They have two
et
whole year which means high photosynthesis and
productivity ultimately led to the high biomass.
22. (d) Eucalyptus is considered to be an
environmental hazard as it depletes ground water
components; 1-Biotic and 2- Reservoir. On the basis table. Eucalyptus species consume more water
of location of reservoir, Biogeochemical cycle are than others, less productive species. Growing
of three types-(A) Gaseous cycle e.g., C,H and O eucalyptus in low rainfall areas may cause adverse
cycle, (B) Sedimentary cycles e.g., P and S cycles environmental impacts due to competition for water
(C) Hydrological cycle (H2O cycle). with other species and an increased incidence of
15. (d) The transitional zone between two distinct
allelopathy which means killing of other plants.
communities is known as Ecotone. It has the
23. (a) The highest chemical pollution is caused by
features of both these communities. It often has
the industrial effluents of leather industry. As the
higher number of species and organisms than both
the communities. The influence of the two bordering effluents contain heavy metals and tannins which
communities on each other is known as the Edge kill the biodiversity of water bodies and increase
Effect. Meeting points of two water bodies like its Biochemical oxygen Demand (BOD) which later
Estuaries and Lagoons are examples of Ecotone. results in Eutrophication.


24. (d) Biosphere reserves (BRs) are areas to 33. (d) All the above factors are responsible for climate
preserve Genetic diversity. These are organism change. Both Greenhouse gases and Depletion of
specific Protected Areas (PAs) which are funded ozone layers ultimately lead to Global warming,
and managed by Central Government. There are which is the most important factor of climate
18 Biosphere reserves presently in India. The change. The pollution also plays big role in climatic
notification for BRs are released by MoEF. change as the source of acid rain, biodiversity loss
25. (c) Solar radiation plays the most important role and other climatic disturbances.
in the Water cycle (Hydrological Cycle) as Sun 34. (d) The ozone layer (Present in Stratosphere)
plays an important role in evaporation from earth restricts the harmful ultraviolet radiations from
ww surface, Water bodies and Biological organisms.

Even the melting of ice from icecaps/glaciers is due
to heat of sunrays.
26. (c) Destruction of habitat is the most important
penetrating into earth atmosphere. There are 3 types
of UV radiation: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C in which
except UV-A, others are dangerous for human
w.Efactor responsible for decline in biodiversity.

The disbalance in biodiversity taking place is just
because of habitat fragmentation which results in
health. They cause skin tumours. The ozone layers
restricts the entry of UV-C and UV-B into earth’
atmosphere.
35. (c) The concept of ecological niche was first
asy
loss of endangered animal and plant species.
27. (c) Delhi generates the largest solid waste per
capita annually.
introduced by Joseph Grinnell in 1917. A plant’s or
animal’s niche, or more correctly, ecological niche,
is a way of life that is unique to that species. Niche
En
28. (d) The author of “Green development” is W.M.
Adams. This book provides a clear and coherent
analysis of sustainable development in both theory
and habitat are not the same. While many species
may share a habitat, this is not true for a niche.
and practice.
gin
29. (a) Biosphere Reserve is an important strategy
Each plant and animal species is a member of a
community. The niche describes the species’ role or
function within this community.
ee
for the conservation of biodiversity. Biosphere
Reserves in India roughly correspond to category
5 protected areas. There are 18 biosphere reserves
present in India, which are managed and funded by
central government.
36. (b) Savannah ecosystem is known as the ‘Land
of Big Games’. It is the region where Grasslands
rin
have scattered trees of moderate height. In these
ecosystems the productivity of soil is very less and
30. (b) Endangered species are listed in Red Data
book. The Red data book is published annually by
International Union for Conservation of Nature
leaves.
g.n
the grasses are soft and trees are spiny and has less
37. (a) Biotic component of the environment does

(IUCN). Species are classified by the IUCN Red
list into nine groups, set through criteria such as
rate of decline, population size, area of geographic
distribution etc.
et
not include soil system. Biotic component includes
animal and plants, while sunlight, soil, temperature,
water and air are all abiotic components of
ecosystem.
38. (c) Mangrove forests in Asia are largely
31. (d) Among the biotic components of the ecosystem
the producers system is Green plants. The green concentrated in Indonesia. Mangroves are salt-
plants are known as producer as they produce food tolerant plants of tropical and subtropical intertidal
by the process of photosynthesis in which they store regions of the world. The specific regions where
the light energy and produce the Carbohydrates. these plants occur are termed as ‘mangrove
Green plants are only source of energy and biomass ecosystem’. These are highly productive but
for living system as all animals depend directly or extremely sensitive and fragile. Besides mangroves,
indirectly on green plants. the ecosystem also harbours other plant and animal
32. (a) To meet the standards of Euro II emission species, unique to that habitat.
the sulphur content in the ultra-low sulphur diesel 39. (a) Higher order biotic level includes populations.
should be 0.05 percent or less. Similar to Euro II in A population is a summation of all the organisms
European countries India has Bharat Stage standards of the same group or species, who live in the
to regulate pollution by automobiles exhaust. same geographical area, and have the capability


of interbreeding. Population is defined as the area 47. (a) The organism getting their food from other
where inter-breeding is potentially possible between organisms are called as Heterotrophs.There are two
any pair within the area. classes of organisms on the basis of their source
40. (c) Hydrological cycle is a part of Geological of food. 1-Autotrophs/Producers/Synthesizers e.g.,
cycle. The example of hydrological cycle is water plants and 2-Heterotrophs/Consumers e.g., Animals.
cycle in which sun plays an important role. This All animals are dependent on plants for their food
cycle is the only source of water for living organism and other requirements so they are heterotrophs.
present on earth surface. 48. (a) Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of
41. (b) Photochemical process is related to ozone O3 layer. The simple chlorine-chlorine monoxide
ww formation. Ozone is formed as ultraviolet radiation

from the sun breaks down oxygen in the atmosphere,
O2, into atomic oxygen with a single atom.
O2 + sunlight ⇒ O + O
cycle can only occur at high altitudes where there
are enough free oxygen atoms to allow the second
step in the chain to run. A number of evidences
have accumulated to show that these reactions are

w.EThe excited free oxygen atom can bond with O2 to
form ozone.
O + O2 ⇒ O 3
indeed destroying small amounts of ozone at about
40 km above Earth. Other families of radicals also
participate in catalytic cycles that destroy ozone—
asy
42. (b) Nitrification is not related to water pollution.
It is a process through which atmospheric nitrogen
(N2) fixed in the form of nitrite and nitrate, it is one
nitrogen oxides released by supersonic jets.
49. (d) The ‘word ecology’ was coined in1866 by
the German scientist Ernst Haeckel (1834–1919).
En
of the steps in nitrogen cycle which is induced by
nitrifying bacteria present in soil and root nodules
of leguminous plants.
Ecology is not synonymous with environment,
environmentalism, natural history, or environmental
science is closely related to evolutionary biology,
gin
43. (d) Equatorial evergreen forests are designated as
the ‘lungs of the world’.These forests, are among the
world’s largest and most efficient living storehouses
genetics and ethology.
50. (a) The concept of carbon credit was originated
changes in the planet’s climate . ee

of carbon monoxide, the “greenhouse gas” most
responsible for the earth’s temperature rises and
44. (d) An artificial ecosystem is represented by an

aquarium in which all the factors are regulated
from the Kyoto Protocol of 1997. The Kyoto
Protocol separates countries into two groups. Annex
rin
I includes developed nations, while Non-Annex I
includes developing countries. Emission limitations
are only placed on Annex I countries. Non-Annex
according to choice. These factors are number of
species/ organisms, amount of food, time of sunlight g.n
I nations participate by investing in projects that
lower emissions in their own countries. For these
projects, they earn carbon credits.
and temperature, etc. when all these factors are
naturally controlled then the ecosystem is known as
Natural ecosystem.
45. (c) All components and individuals in an
ecosystem are inter–dependent on each other for
et
51. (c) The United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), also
known as the Rio Summit or Rio Conference
or Earth Summit was a major United Nations
food, shelter and other activities. This statement is conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 June to 14
supported by the concept of Food Chain, Food Web June 1992.
and Ecological Pyramids. The relationship between 52. (c) The concept of biodiversity hotspots was
organisms like Commensalism, Amensalism, originated by Norman Myers. To qualify as a
Parasitism and Predation also indicate the biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the
relationship between these organisms. hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria:
46. (b) The amount of energy as it passes on from one it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of
trophic level to another in an ecosystem decreases. vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost
According to “10% law of energy transfer” given atleast 70% of its primary vegetation.
by Raymond Lindenan, the total energy which 53. (d) On an average, about 1% of the total Sun’s
is transferred from one to another trophic level is energy reaching the earth is used up by plants in the
10% of the total energy, rest 90% gets consumed in process of photosynthesis and stored as chemical
metabolic activities. (of that trophic level itself). energy of food.


54. (d) Many factors contribute to the loss of 63. (d) The Environment is the interaction between
biodiversity across the globe. The major reasons biotic, abiotic factors depending on energy. Spatial
include human activities like massive destruction component is not counted in the environmental
of forest lands for commercial build-ups so causing interactions.
the destruction of natural habitat of biodiversity. 64. (d) Equatorial forests or tropical rainforests are
Various kinds of pollution cause disappearance of thought to be the oldest biome on Earth; it is not
sensitive species. surprising that they contain the most species, and
55. (a) The United Nations Environment Programme hence greatest biodiversity.
(UNEP) established the Global 500 Roll of Honour in 65. (b) A 2013 report of IPCC, has mentioned that the
1987 to recognize the environmental achievements largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide
ww of individuals and organizations around the world.

56. (b) According to the report IPCC, 2013, the
largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide
(CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion,
cement production, and land use changes such as
deforestation.
w.E(CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion,

cement production, and land use changes such as
deforestation.
57. (b) The solar energy is converted into chemical
66. (a) Producers or autotrophs are the connectors or
intermediary organisms linking the other organisms
with the abiotic components of the environment.
67. (d) White-bellied Heron (Ardeainsignis), Great
asy
energy by photosynthetic autotrophs. The biomass
of the organisms is indirectly derived from the solar
energy.
Indian Bustard (Ardeotisnigriceps) and Forest
Owlet (Atheneblewitti) are some, among the
list of endangered birds of India. Mallard
En
58. (d) Rapid urbanisation and unregulated industriali-
sation occur at much faster rate than the forests
could replenish themselves. So, the environment
(Anasplatyrhynchos) is a dabbling bird, which is not
an endangered bird.
gin
and ecology of any region get severed. Preservation
of biodiversity is given less priority in urbanised
and industrial areas. Sustainable development is
68. (c) Uniformity or homogeneity of species or
organisms in an ecosystem creates a highly unstable
environment. The stability of ecosystem depends
paced economy.
59. (c)
ee
much more difficult to be implemented in the fast
The National Environmental Research

Institute(NEERI) is a pioneer laboratory in the
on the heterogeneity and variety of organisms
inhabiting it, so an equilibrium is maintained.
rin
95. (a) Azotobactor and Rhizobium are nitrogen
fixing bacteria which are used as biofertilisers.
The biofertilisers can be used along with organic
area of environmental science and engineering, is
located in Nagpur.
60. (b) The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is
fertilizers.
g.n
96. (b) Sunnhemp (crotoloria juncea) is the plant
which is used for green manuring in India. Its is
given to industrial units that make a significant
contribution towards the development of new, or the
innovative modification of existing, technologies or
adoption and use of clean technologies and practices
that substantially reduce or prevent environmental
feeds.
et
extensiely cultivated for green manure and its leaves
are fod as high protion supplement to other poorer
97. (b) Eucalyptus grows very fast and the stem is

pollution. used for pulp and paper industry.
61. (a) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily 98. (d) If owl population declines, it will indirectly
implemented action plan of the United Nations affect wood lice population because if owl
with regard to sustainable development also known population will decline the population of wood lice
as the first Earth summit. It is a product of the UN increases because owl is not available to eat the
Conference on Environment and Development wood lice population.
(UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. 99. (c) Polar bear lives in the North Pole while the
62. (c) Sir Arthur George Tansley, a British botanist penguins live in Antarctica, i.e., in the Southern
and ecologist, was the first person to use the term Hemisphere.
“ecosystem” in a published work. Tansley devised 100. (b) Methane is released in rice fields in the most
the concept to draw attention to the importance of prominent quantities. Because when organic matter
transfers of materials between organisms and their decays without oxygen in the water logged rice
environment. paddies, bacteria in the water generate methane.

5 Science and Technology
ww
1. Cryogenic engines are used in 9. The committees set up by GOI have identified 5

w.E (a) rockets and spacecrafts
(b) atomic reactors
(c) defrost refrigerators
(d) doing research connected with superconduc-

new sites for Nuclear parks. Of these five, which
site has been alloted to AREVA of France ?
(a) Kowadi
(c) Jaitapur
(b) Mithi virdi
(d) Haripur
2.
tivity.
asy
What is the source of electrical energy in an
10.

Computer virus is a
(a) Fungus

artificial satellite ?
(a) Solar cells
(b) Mini nuclear reactor En

(b) Bacterium
(c) IC 7344

(c) Dynamo
(d) Thermopile gin
11.
(d) Software programme
If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship,
it will
3.

4.
(a) Param Yuva II (b) Tianhe-2
(c) IBM Road runner (d) Titan ee
The fastest super computer of the world is
Which one of the following organisations is not

(a) fall towards the earth
(b) move of a lower speed
rin
(c) move along with the spaceship at the same
speed
related to science and technology ?

(a) DST
(c) ICSSR
(b) CSIR
(d) DAE

12.

g.n
(d) move at a higher speed
IC chips for computers are usually made of
(a) Lead (b) Chromium
5.

The name of the ICBM developed by India with
a strike range of more than 2000 km is
(a) Prithvi
(c) Akash
(b) Trishul
(d) Agni-II

13.

(c) Silicon
(a) Bill Gates

et
(d) Gold
The first computer was made by
(b) Bill Clinton
6. ‘Satish Dhawan Space Centre’ is located in (c) Charles Babbage (d) Marconi
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Goa 14. Miniaturization of earlier computers to present
(c) Sriharikota (d) Chennai day computers has been possible due to the use
7. HAL is related to manufacturing of of
(a) Telecommunication equipments (a) Transistors
(b) Aircrafts (b) Integrated circuit chips
(c) Space missiles (c) Nano-materials
(d) War missiles (d) Super conductors
8. Which one of the following countries is credited 15. Which one of the following is used as a moderator
with the establishment of Uranium City ? in the nuclear reactor ?
(a) Australia (b) Canada (a) Thorium (b) Graphite
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A. (c) Radium (d) Ordinary water

E-72 || Science and Technology

16. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech 26. Modern communication systems use
Terminology ? (a) analog circuits
(a) Protocol (b) Login (b) digital circuits
(c) Archie (d) All of the above (c) combination of analog and digital circuits
17. Inventor and founder of www is (d) none of these
(a) Tim Burners Lee (b) N. Russel 27. For television broadcasting the frequency
(c) Lee N. Fiyong (d) Bill Gates employed is
18. Missile ‘Astra’ is a
(a) 30 – 300 MHz (b) 30 – 300 GHz
(a) land to land missile
ww

(b) land to air missile
(c) air to air missile
(d) water to land missile
(c) 30 – 300 KHz (d) 30 – 300 Hz
28. Networks that use different technologies can be
connected by using
w.E
19. Russian space craft established a new record by
reaching the International Space Station (ISS) in
only 6 hours, while earlier the space crafts used
(a) packets
(c) bridges
(b) switches
(d) routers
29. The main aim of software engineering is to
(a) Sputnik - II asy

to take two or three days to reach the ISS. Which
is this space craft ?
(b) Soyuz
produce
(a) program
(b) software
(c) Zond
En
(d) Venera
20. When did India make first nuclear weapon

(c) within budget
(d) software within budget in the given schedule

explosion ?
gin
(a) 15th May, 1964 (b) 18th May, 1974
(c) 11th May, 1989 (d) 13th May, 1998
30. Mobile IP provides two basic functions

(a) route discovery and registration
(b) agent discovery and registration

world through a satellite is known as
(a) Apollo (b) INSAT 2D
ee
21. The computer system which links and stores
information among different countries in the

(c) IP binding and registration
rin
31. Reliability of software is directly dependent on
(a) quality of the design
(c) Internet (d) Nicnet
22. Which one of the following subjects is not related
to ‘Robot’ ?

g.n
(b) number of errors present
(c) software engineer’s experience
(a) Kinematics
(c) Hydraulics
satellite?
(b) Cybernatics
(d) Mechanics
23. Which one of the following is not a space
(d) user requirement
(a) microprocessor
(b) memory
et
32. A complete microcomputer system consists of
(a) SLV-3 (b) RS-D1 (c) peripheral equipment

(c) IRS-1D (d) INSAT-2D (d) all of the above
24. Cosmos 2406 is 33. Where does a computer add and compare data?
(a) a super computer (a) Hard disk (b) Floppy disk
(b) a military satellite (c) CPU chip (d) Memory chip
(c) a pilotless plane
34. Which of the following is not an E-commerce
(d) Mars project of Russia
application ?
25. Modem is a device used for
(a) computing (a) House Banking
(b) converting analog signals to digital signals (b) Buying stocks
(c) either of the above (c) Conducting an auction
(d) none of the above (d) Evaluating an employee


35. Which is a satellite based tracking system that 45. The smallest unit of the computer data is
enables the determination of a person’s position? (a) byte (b) bit
(a) Bluetooth (c) record (d) file
(b) WAP 46. Who is the inventor of computer language JAVA?
(c) Short message service (a) IBM (b) Microsoft
(d) Global positioning system (c) Sun microsystems (d) Infosystem
36. Which of the following waves are used for 47. When is the computer literacy day celebrated ?
telecommunication ? (a) 1st December (b) 2nd December
(c) 19th December (d) 22nd December
ww

(a) Infra red rays
(c) Micro waves
(b) Ultra violet rays
(d) X-rays
37. The first operational remote sensing satellite
48.

The fastest computer developed by the NASA is
(a) Columbia
(c) Blue Gene
(b) Pleiades
(d) Param
w.Efrom India was

(a) IRS-P6
(c) IRS 1A
(b) P4
(d) CARTOSAT 1
49.

India has launched which satellite recently ?
(a) INSAT-3D
(c) GSAT-14
(b) PSLU-C22
(d) GSAT-10
38. GPS can be applied in
(a) Archeology
(b) Glaciology asy 50.

Pranav Mistry is a name associated with
(a) Driverless car
(b) Cancer diagnostic kit

(d) All of these
En
(c) Forestry and agricultural science

(c) Sixth-sense device
(d) Social media app.
39. Junk e-mail is also called
(a) spam
(b) spoof gin 51. Which planet was discovered in 2013 having
earth like size?
(c) sporel
(d) None of these ee
40. Which of the following groups have only input
devices ?

52.

(a) Kepler-62F
(c) Kepler-b
rin
(b) Kepler-23b
(d) Kepler-60
Which new family of ‘legless amphibians’ was
discovered in 2012?
(a) Ascaphidae (b) Chikilidae

(a) mouse, keyboard, monitor
(b) mouse, keyboard, printer

53.
(c) Bufonidae
g.n(d) Ranidae
Govt. of India stated subsidy on fertilizers with

(c) mouse, keyboard, plotter
(d) mouse, keyboard, scanner
41. Computer language used on the internet is
(a) Basic (b) Cobol

54.
effect from
(a) Nov. 1, 1966
(c) Nov. 1, 1977 et
(b) Nov. 1,1969
(d) Oct. 2, 1988
Dwarf wheat (mexican) is introduced in India by
(c) Java (d) Pascal (a) Dr. N. E. Borlang
42. Which of the following is the largest unit of (b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
storage ? (c) Dr. Subramanian
(a) GB (b) KB (d) Dr. B. P. Pal
(c) MB (d) TB 55. Which of the following crops has the highest
43. What is a modem connected to ? cultivated area in the world?
(a) processor (b) mother board (a) Rice (b) Barley
(c) printer (d) phone line (c) Wheat (d) Bajra
44. Which of the following is not the computer 56. The instrument used for measuring depth of water
language table is known as
(a) BASIC (b) C (a) Lysimeter (b) Odometer
(c) FAST (d) FORTRAN (c) Piezometer (d) Evaporimeter


57. “Stevenson Screen” is related to 66. Toggenburg (goat) is a native of
(a) Virology (a) Europe (b) Switzerland
(b) Remote Sensing (c) Africa (d) USA
(c) Agrometeorology 67. Agar-agar was developed for growing micro-
(d) Biotechnology organisms by
58. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) Joseph Lister (b) Koch
matched? (c) Hesse (d) Pasteur
Crop Sowing times 68. Resolving power of electron microscope is
ww

(a) Cotton
(Southern India)
(b) Sugarcane
August – September
July – August
_________ times of light microscope.
(a) 10
(c) 10 3
(b) 102
(d) 104

w.E (Adsali crop)
(c) Lentil
(Northern India)
July – August
69. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because

banana leaf
(a) gives a fresh flavour to milk
(b) makes the milk acidic and resistant to yeast

(d) Soyabean
(Northern India)
asy
59. The origin place of potato is
June – July

(c) makes the milk basic and resistant to yeast
(d) increases the whiteness of milk

(a) China
En
(b) South America
(c) Tropical America (d) Africa
70. Which one of the following plants is popularly
grown along the road for absorbing vehicular
pollutants?
60. ‘Relay Cropping’ means

gin
(a) Growing of more than one crop on the same
land in a year.
(a) Nerium (b) Neem
(c) Bougainvillea (d) Calotropis

a year. ee
(b) Growing of three crops on the same land in
(c) Growing of four crops on the same land in

a your in such a manner that the following
71. Itching due to insect bite is caused by

(a) formic acid
(c) lactic acid
rin
(b) acetic acid
(d) maleic acid
72. Why do you feel cool under a tree but not so
crop is sown before the harvest of preceding
crop.
g.n
under a tin shed on a sunny day?
(a) The greenness of the tree gives the cool
feeling.

(a)
(c)
(d) None of these
61. Genus of goat is
Ovis (b)
Bos (d)
Copra
Bubalus

et
(b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat
(c) The leaves convert water vapours into water
which is a heat-absorbing process
(d) The leaves give out water which vapourises
62. ‘Splenic fever’ is another name for
(a) FMD (b) Anthrax absorbing some heat as latent heat.
(c) Cow pox (d) Mastitis 73. Bats can fly in dark because they
63. ‘Pashmina wool’ is obtained from (a) have strong wings
(a) Yak (b) Cattle (b) have sharp eyes
(c) Sheep (d) Goat (c) produce ultrasonic waves
64. Rickets is due to deficiency of (d) are nocturnal
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D 74. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B12 generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary
65. Ranikhet is a ___________ disease. disease due to the effect of
(a) Viral (b) Mematode (a) solar radiation (b) ozone concentration
(c) Bacterial (d) Fungal (c) nitrogen oxide (d) particulate pollutant


75. Endosulfan, which has been in news these days, (c) A is true, but R is false
is (d) A is false, but R is true
(a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser 78. Which one of the following is responsible for the
(c) a sulpha drug (d) an antibiotic stimulating effect of tea?
76. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the (a) Tannin (b) Steroid
eyes because of the presence of (c) Alkaloid (d) Flavonoid
(a) sulphur in the cell 79. The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour
(b) carbon in the cell to skin and hairs due to its reaction with which of
ww

(c) fat in the cell
(d) amino acid in the cell
77. Assertion (A) : The safety air bags fitted in some

the following ?
(a) Proteins and amino acids
(b) Lipids

w.Ecars inflate during head-on impact of the car.
Reason (R) : The inflation is due to pumping of
air into the balloon during the impact.
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Nucleic acids
80. Which colour of heat radiation represents the

asy
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, But R is not the

highest temperature?
(a) Blood red (b) Dark cherry
correct explanation of A
En (c) Salmon (d) White
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (a)
2. (a) 12. (c) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (d) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (d)
3. (b) 13. (c) 23. (a) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (c)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (c)
5. (d) 15. (b) 25. (b) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (a) 75. (a)
ww6.
7.
8.
(c)
(b)
(b)
16.
17.
18.
(d)
(a)
(c)
26.
27.
28.
(b)
(a)
(d)
36.
37.
38.
(c)
(c)
(d)
46.
47.
48.
(c)
(a)
(b)
56.
57.
58.
(c)
(c)
(c)
66.
67.
68.
(b)
(c)
(d)
76.
77.
78.
(d)
(b)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(c)
(d)
19.
20.
(b)
(b)
29.
30.
(d)
(b)
39.
40.
(a)
(d)
49.
50.
(c)
(c)
59.
60.
(b)
(c)
69.
70.
(c)
(b)
79.
80.
(a)
(d)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1. (a) Cryogenic engines are specially designed 4. (c) ICSSR – Indian Council of Social Science
gin
to carry out combination of cryogenic fuels.
Cryogenic fuels are cooled and liquified gaseous
Research, established in the year 1969 by the
Government of India to promote research in social
ee
fuels. Cryogenic engines are used in rockets, so
they are also known as ‘Cryogenic rocket engines’.
Generally, liquified and cooled hydrogen and
oxygen in combination are used as Cryogenic
propellant in rockets. Now-a-days propelled rocket
sciences in the country. DST – Department of
Science and Technoloy was established in May 1971,
rin
for promoting new areas of science and technology
and to play the role of a nodal department for
organising, co-ordinating and promoting S & T
engines are having a great demand in the field of
space exploration as they provide high specific
impulse during the ignition spacecraft’s engine.

activities in the country.
g.n
CSIR – Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research, established in 1942, is India’s largest
2. (a) Artificial satellites possess large ‘photoelectric
panels’ or ‘Solar panels’ around them to capture
the sunlight available directly in the space to be
converted into electricity from sunlight. The energy
et
Scientific research and development organisation.
DAE – Department of Atomic Energy was
established in 1954, and has been engaged in
the development of nuclear power technology,
captured can be stored in batteries to be used if the application of radiation technologies in the fields of
satellite comes under the shadow of the Earth. So, agriculture, medicine, industry and basic research.
solar cells are largely used for generating electricity 5. (d) Intercontinental ballistic missles (ICBMs) are
in artifical satellites. typically designed for nuclear weapons delivery.
3. (b) Every six months, the ‘Top 500’ organization Agni – II has a range of 2,000 – 3,000 km while
reveals a list of the world’s fastest supercomputers. Agni–V has the highest operational range among
In June 2013, China’s Tianhe–2 built by the the Indian ICBMs i.e., 5,000 km.
National University of Defense Technology, ranked Prithvi – III is a tactical surface – to – surface short
at no. 1 or the fastest supercomputer of the world. range ballistic missile (SRBM) having a range of
It is capable of performing 33.86 petaflops (1000 over 750 km. Akash is a medium-range mobile
trillion calculation) per second on a benchmarking surface–to–air missile having a flight ceiling of 18
test. It has stuck to the number one position for the km. Trishul is a short range, surface to air messile
last 18 months. developed by India. It has a range of 9 km.


6. (c) The Satish Dhawan space centre is the launch 12. (c) IC chip is an integrated circuit or monolithic
centre for the Indian Space Research Organisation integrated circuit also called an IC, a chip or a
(ISRO), located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, microchip. It is a set of electronic circuits on one
80 km north of Chennai. It was originally called small plate of semiconductor material normally
‘Sriharikota High Altitude Range’ (SHAR) and ‘silicon’. Jack kilby is credited for the development
then ‘Sriharikota launching Range’, the centre was of first integrated circuit (1958) for which he
renamed in 2002 after the death of ISRO’s former received the Nobel Prize in Physics in the year
chairman Satish Dhawan. 2000.
Sriharikota is a spindle–shaped island and was 13. (c) A computer is a general purpose device,
ww
7.
chosen in 1969 for a satellite launching station.
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is
based in Bangalore, India. This company is managed
programmed to carry out a set of arithmetic or
logical operations. Modern computers are based
on integrated circuits and therefore, are millions
w.E by ‘Indian Ministry of Defence’ and is mainly

involved in aerospace industry, which includes
manufacturing and assembling aircraft, navigation
and related communication equipment, as well as
to billions of times more capable than primitive
ones. ‘Charles Babbage’, an English mechanical
engineer and polymath, originated the concept of
8.
operating airports.
asy
(b) Uranium city is a settlement in northern
Saskatchewan, Canada. It is located on the northern
a programmable computer, conceptualised and
invented the first mechanical computer in the early
19th century.
En
shores of Lake Athabasca. Uranium ore was first
discovered in northern Saskatchewan in the late
14. (b) Until 1958 when Jack Kilby came up with the
solution to the cumbersome and bulky circuits in the
computers. His idea was to make all the components
9.
1930s.
gin
(c) French nuclear engineering firm ‘Areva’
and ‘Nuclear Power Corporation of India’ signed
and the chip out of the same block (monolith) of
semiconductor material or integrated circuit chip,
ee
a multi-billion valued agreement of about $9.3
billion. The proposed Jaitapur Nuclear Power
Project is located at the west coast at village of
Ratnagiri district in Maharashtra. The proposal
which largely contributed to the miniaturization of
earlier computer devices.
rin
15. (b) In nuclear reactors, a neutron moderator is
a medium that regulates or reduces the speed of
fast neutrons, turning them into thermal neutrons.
is to construct 6 ‘European Pressurized Reactors’
designed and developed by Areva of France, each
of 1650 megawatts. After completion, it would be g.n
Graphite is used as a carbon based neutron
moderator in many nuclear reactors.
10.
the largest nuclear power generating station in the
world.
(d) Computer virus is a malware software program
or piece of code designed to spread from one
computer to another. It, when executed replicates
et
16. (d) In information technology, a ‘protocol’
is the special set of rules that endpoints in a
telecommunication connection use, when they
communicate e.g. Internet protocols. ‘Login’ or
logon refers to the credentials required to obtain
by inserting copies of itself into other computer access to a computer system.
programs, data files, or the boot sector of the hard ‘Archie’ is a program that enables you to search for
drive. When this replication succeeds, the affected files anywhere on the internet by filename.
areas are then said to be “infected”. 17. (a) ‘www’ is the abbreviation of World Wide
11. (c) Move along with the spaceship at the same Web. Sir Timothy John ‘Tim’ Berners Lee, also
speed. An orbiting vehicle has sufficient speed known as “Tim BL” is a British computer scientist
to remain in orbit. If an apple is put outside the who invented the World Wide Web. He made
vehicle, it will continue in orbit with that vehicle. proposal for an information management system in
It will just float there. The apple and everything in March 1989, and implemented the first successfull
the space vehicle will be moving at the same speed, communication between a Hypertext Transfer
and, because the vehicle is in orbit, everything will Protocol client and a server via internet around mid
have sufficient speed to remain in orbit. November.


18. (c) Astra is an active radar homing beyond–visual 29. (d) The aim of software engineering is to solve
range air–to–air missile (BVRAAM) developed by the software crisis where software is delivered late,
the DRDO, India. As of July 2013, it is undergoing with faults, and over budget. Software engineering
developmental trials. aims to deliver, fault–free software, on time and
19. (b) ‘Chris Cassidy’ of the US and Russians ‘Pavel within budget.
Vinogradov’ and ‘Alexander Misurkin’ travelled 30. (b) Mobile IP is the basis behind how wireless
six hours in ‘Soyuz capsule’ before linking up with device offers IP connectivity. Agent discovery and
space stations Russian Rassvet research module. registration are two basic functions involved.
It was the first time a space crew has taken such a 31. (b) One of the closest answer to this option could
ww direct route to the orbiting lab.

20. (b) India’s first nuclear weapon explosion’s
assigned code name was ‘Pokhran–I’ or ‘Smiling
be option ‘A’ i.e., ‘quality of the design’, but it
should be understood that if a software product
has a large number of defects it is unreliable. That
w.EBuddha’. It took place on 18th May 1974. According

to Indian Ministry of External Affairs (MoEA) this
test is for peaceful nuclear purposes.
21. (c) The internet is a global network connecting
means if the reliability of any software improves,
it signifies that the number of defects has also been
reduced.
asy
millions of computers. More than 100 countries are
linked into exchange of data, news and opinions.
According to internet world states, globally, among
32. (d) A microcomputer system is a microprocessor–
based computer, consisting of an MPU, internal
semiconductor memory, input and output sections,
En
the world population (7.1 billion, 2013) 39% use
internet in which Europe uses the most as per 2013.
and a system bus, all on one. It can also consist of
several monolithic IC chips inserted into one or
gin
22. (c) Kinenatics, Cybernatics and Mechanics are all
applied in Robotics but Hydraulics deals with the
mechanical properties of liquids.
several PC boards.
33. (c) Central Processing Unit (CPU) chip is a small
computer chip, this is where the computer does all of
23. (a) RS–D1, IRS–1D and INSAT–2D are
ee
all satellite RS–D1 is a Rohini satellite, IRS–1D is
an Indian Remote Sensing satellite. INSAT–2D is
an Indian communications satellite, while SLV–3
its mathematical operations, Adding and comparing
data are also performed here.
rin
34. (d) E-commerce is a business industry which
takes account buying, selling, ba-line banting,
is a ‘Satellite launching vehicle and not a satellite
itself.
24. (b) Cosmos 2406 is a Russian military satellite that g.n
house banking, buying stocks as well as conducting
an auction. Evaluation of an employee is not a part
of e-commorce.
was launched from Baikonur by a Zenit 2 rocket on
10 June 2004.
25. (b) A modem or modulator–demodulator is a
device that modulates an analog carrier signal to
encode digital information and also demodulates
et
35. (d) Use Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
to determine the location of a vehicle, person, pet or
freight, and to record the position at regular intervals
in order to create a log of movements. Some systems
allow the location to be viewed in red–time on the
such a carrier signal to decode the transmitted
Internet with a web-browser.
information.
36. (c) Microwave radiation is used to transmit
27. (a) The channels themselves occupy several
megahertz of bandwidth. So, the answer is 30–300 signals in mobile phones. Microwave transmitters
MHz. and receivers on buildings and masts communicate
28. (d) Packets are the units of exchanging with the mobile telephone in their range.
information in network. A bridge connects two or 37. (c) IRS 1A was the first operational remote sensing
more networks, or segments of the same network. mission undertaken by ISRO to provide imagery for
Switch are basically bridges but they have multiple various land - based applications. It was launched
ports. Routers forward data packets from one place on 17 March 1988 in launch vehicle, Vostok, USSR.
to another. They forward data depending on the IRS-P6 and CARTOSAT 1 had been made later
network not the hardware address. while P4 is a natural satellite of pluto.


38. (d) Global Positioning System can be applied Blue Gene was developed by IBM, while Param by
to many fields like Geo–information technology, India.
Surveying mineral deposits, Geodesy as well as ‘Pleiades’ is a petascale supercomputer developed
Archeology, Glaciology and Forestry–agricultural by NASA. It is one of the worlds most powerful
sciences. supercomputer.
39. (a) Junk email or unsolicited bulk email is also 49. (c) GSLV - D5 successfully launched GSAT–14
called Email spam. It is a subset of electronic on 5th January 2014 from Sriharikota. GSAT–14
spam involving nearly identical messages sent to is the twenty third geostationary communication
numerous recipients by email. Anyone clicks on satellite built by ISRO.
ww links in spam email may send users to phising web

sites or sites that are hosting malware.
40. (d) Monitor, Printer and Plotter (a type of printer)
50. (c) Sixth–sense device is a gestural interface
device, neckworn projector that augments the
physical world around us. Sixth–sense HMD
w.Eare output devices. While mouse, keyboard and

scanner are input devices only.
41. (c) Basic, Cobol and Pascal are old languages. 51.
prototype has been developed by Pranav Mistry, an
associate with MIT.
(a) Kepler – 62f is an Earth – size planet in the
habitable zone of a star about 1,200 light years from

Java is being used these days.
Kilobyte (KB) is 103 bytes. asy

42. (d) Gigabyte (GB) is 109 bytes
Earth. The size of Kepler – 62f is known but its
mass and composition are not. It orbits its host star
every 267 days and is roughly 40% larger than the

Megabyte (MB) is 106 bytes
En
Terrabyte (TB) is 1012 bytes, so it is largest of all.
43. (d) The modem transfers the data across phone
52.
Earth.
(b) Chikilidae is a family of Indian caecilians,
gin
lines to a modem at the provider which again
transfers the data through a serial port of the
the most primitive of three amphibian groups
that also include frogs and salamander. A team of
biologists led by University of Delhi’s herpetologist
computer.
ee
44. (c) BASIC, C and FORTRAN are all the languages
of computer while FAST is not a computer language.
45. (a) A ‘byte” is usually the smallest addressable
unit in a computer while the smallest unit of memory
53.
‘Sathyabhnama Das Biju’ discovered a new
family of legless amphibians called ‘Chikilidae’ in
rin
September 2012 in North–East India.
(c) The subsidy or The Retention Price Scheme
is the ‘bit’. Most computers don’t work with bits

individually, but instead group eight bits together 54. g.n
(RPS) for fertilizer Industry introduced from
1.11.1977 and remained in force till 31.3.2003.
(a) The dwarf wheat variety was introduced
to form a ‘byte’. The term ‘byte’ was coined by
‘Werner Buchholz’ in 1956.
46. (c) James Gosling, Mike Sheridan, and Patrick
Naughton initiated the Java language project in June
1991. Java was initially called ‘Oak’, then went by
55.
Revolution. et
in India by Dr. Norman Borlaugh in 1970s as a
major revolution in the food security called Green
(c) Wheat is the crop with highest cultivated

area in the world with annual production of around
names ‘Green’ and ‘Java coffee’ ‘Sun Microsystems’ 689,945,712 tons.
released the first public implementation as Java 1.0 56. (c) A piezometer is a device which measures the
in 1995. pressure of groundwater at a specific point so as to
47. (a) 1st December is marked as ‘World AIDS Day’ measure the water table in ground-water.
19th December and 22nd December are not as 57. (c) A Stevenson screen or instrument shelter
significant as concerned with some particular event. is a kind of protective enclosure used to shield
2nd December is marked with ‘Computer Literacy meteorological instruments against precipitation
Day’, launched in 2001. and direct heat radiation from outer sources. Its
48. (b) Columbia a supercomputer was named in purpose is to provide a standardised environment
honor of the crew who died in the space shuttle in which to measure temperature, humidity, dew-
Columbia disaster. It was decommissioned in March point and atmospheric pressure by their respective
2013. instruments.


58. (c) Lentils are sown in mid October to early 69. (c) A milkman puts banana leaf in milkjar because
December in central India. leaf can make the milk basic and avoid yeast
59. (b) Potato was first cultivated in the modern day formation. Banana leaf contain tryptophan which
Peru, its place of origin is Southern America. impacts this basicity.
60. (c) Relay cropping is growing four crops on 70. (b) Bougainvillea is popularly grown along the
the same land in a year in such a manner that road for absorbing vehicular pollutants.
the following crop is sown before the harvest of 71. (a) Insect bite releases formic acid (masthanoic
preceding crop. acid) and lactic acid which can cause itching.
61. (b) The domestic goat is Capra aegagrus hircus. 72. (d) The transpiration occurs from the leaves, all
ww The goat is a member of the family Bovidae and is

closely related to the sheep as both are in the goat-
antelope subfamily Caprinae. The genus of Sheep is
the time. The water released from leaves absorbs
heat from the surrounding atmosphere to vapourise
so the area becomes cool.
w.EOvis.
62. (b) Splenic fever is another name of Anthrax
which is an acute disease caused by the bacterium
73. (c) Bats can fly in dark because they produce
ultrasonic waves. The bats possess very poor vision.
It cannot see in dark. It produces ultrasonic waves
asy
Bacillus anthracis. Most forms of the disease are
lethal, and it affects both humans and animals.
63. (d) Pashmina refers to the fine wool and textile
which strike with the obstacles present on its way.
The bat receives its echo and changes its path to
protect itself from collision.
En
made from the wool obtained from the changthangi
or Pashmina goat, which is a special breed of goat
74. (c) Due to lower atmospheric pressure, nitrogen
gets mixed with oxygen to form such oxide which is
Nepal, Pakistan and Northern India. gin

indigenous to high altitudes of the Himalayas in
inhaled by the passengers.
75. (a) Endosulfan is an organochlorine pesticide
and acaricide which is used on plants and insects.
ee
64. (b) Rickets is a disease of bones, in which they
bend due to softening. This can be seen as bowing
of leg bones in an X-ray report. The cause for the
Rickets is either deficiency of vitamin-D or its
incomplete metabolism or both.
Endosulfan became a highly controversial
agrichemical due to its acute toxicity and potential
for bioaccumulation.
rin
76. (d) Cutting and peeling of onions bring tears to the
65. (a) The Ranikhet disease is also called as New

Castle Disease or Doyle’s disease. It is an acute, g.n
eyes because of the presence of amino acid in the
cell. Onions are the part of genus Allium, along with
garlic, chives, leeks and about 400 other cousins.
infectious & highly contagious disease of fowls.
It is caused by viruses in the serotype avian
paramyxovirus type 1 (APMV-1). These viruses
are members of the genus Avulavirus in the family
et
These vegetables absorbs sulphur from earth, which
in turn form a class of volatile organic molecules
called amino acid sulphoxides.
78. (c) The stimulating effect of tea is due to alkaloid
Paramyxoviridae. caffeine present in tea. Caffeine is a bitter, white
66. (b) The Toggenburg is a breed of goat, named crystalline xanthine alkaloid.
after the region in Switzerland where the breed 79. (a) Henna (Lawsonia inermis) is a flowering plant
originated, the Toggenburg valley. It is also the used to dye skin, hair, fingernails, leather and wood.
oldest registered breed. Colouring property of henna is because of lawsone,
67. (c) Walther Hesse is credited for his work in an organic compound that has affinity for proteins
microbiology, specifically his work in developing and amino acids in animals.
Agar as a medium for culturing microorganisms. 80. (d) Colour temperature is a scale relating the
68. (d) The resolving power of a microscope is its colour of the light radiated by an object to its
ability to distinguish between two points clearly. temperature. No matter whatever the temperature
For Electron microscope, it is 10,000 times more is, the hottest would only corresponds to blue-white
than that of compound light microscope. light radiation.

Section F : general awareness
ww
1 Art and Culture

w.E
1. Which of the following are wind instruments ?
(a) Dhol and Tabla
(b) Piano and Sitar
9.

Kathakali dance style belongs to
(a) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Flute and Saxophone
asy
(d) Ghungru and Jaltarang
10. Pt. Ravi Shankar belongs to which musical
instrument?
2.

year?
(a) 1919 En
All India Music Academy established in which
(b) 1977

11.
(a) Tabla
(c) Violin
(b) Sitar
(d) Guitar
Which music instrument belongs to Hari Prasad

3.
(c) 1953 (d) 1926
gin
Who is known as ‘Raffale of East’?
Chaurasia?
(a) Shehnai (b) Violin

(a) Raja Ravi Verma
(b) Raja Martanda
(c) Raja Keshav Varma
(d) Raja Uday Rao
ee
12.

(c) Flute
(a) Sarod
(c) Sarangi rin
(d) Sarod
Ustad Amjad Ali Khan belongs to
(b) Shehnai
(d) Guitar
4.

Who is known as the ‘Piccaso of India’?
(a) Amrita Shergil (b) M.F. Hussain
(c) Sudhir Vyas (d) Shafqat Hussain
13.

g.n
The panchatantra was written during the
(a) Later Vedic period
(b) Mughal period
5.

6.
Sangeet Natak Academy was established in?
(a) 1952
(c) 1954
(b) 1953
(d) 1955
Which of the painting is mixture of Rajasthani

14.

(c) Maurya period
(d) Post Gupta period et
The chenchus tribes found in the state
(a) Jharkhand (b) Andhra Pradesh
and Mughal? (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka
(a) Kangra painting 15. Which of the following is a dance drama?
(b) Pahari painting (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Madhubani painting (c) Odissi (d) Manipuri
(d) Basohli painting 16. Bindadin Maharaj is a maestro of which of the
7. Bharatnatyam dance style belongs to following classical dance forms?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka (c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
8. Kuchipudi dance style belongs to 17. Katputli, the string puppetry belongs to
(a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Rajasthan (b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttrakhand

F-2 || Art and Culture

18. The three faiths of Hinduism, Buddhism and 30. Propagate Indian culture Which among the
Jainism were carved in following is known as the earliest example of
(a) Ellora caves (b) Elephanta caves Panchayatana style of temple?
(c) Ajanta caves (d) Barabar hills (a) Dashavatara temple at Deogarh
19. Which of the following is known as ‘Seven (b) Temple at Pathari
Pagodas’? (c) Shatrughneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
(a) Mahabalipuram temple (d) Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
(b) Karle caves 31. Guru Birju Maharaj is a maestro of which of the
(c) Chaityas
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(d) Elephanta caves
20. The image of Nataraja (the lord of dance) is a
superb masterpiece of the period of
following Classical dance forms?
(a) Kathak
(b) Manipuri
w.E
(a) Chola
(c) Hoyasala
(b) Pandya
(d) Chalukyas
21. The ‘yoga’ philosophy belongs to
(c) Mohiniattam
(d) Kathakali
32. Who among the following is a famous santoor
player?
(a) Gautam
(c) Patanjali
asy
(b) Kannada
(d) Jaimini
22. ‘Syadvad’ and Anchkantvad belongs to

(a) Shiv Kumar Sharma
(b) Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(a) Jainism
(c) Sikhism
En
(b) Buddhism
(d) Hinduism

(c) Ravi Shankar
(d) Zakir Hussain
33. Who amongst the following has directed the film
(a) Mudiyeltu
(c) Maach
(b) Bidesia
gin
23. Which of the dance forms enlisted in UNESCO?
(d) Yakshagan
‘Little Buddha’?
(a) Bernardo Bertolucci
(c) 1954
(b) 1919
(d) 1955
25. Which is known as “Tamil Bible”
ee
24. In which year SPIC MACAY was established?
(a) 1977

(b) Mani Kaul
(c) Richard Attenburrough
(d) Durosowa
rin
34. The annual “Royal Kathima Ceremony” is
(a) Thirukuaral
(c) Pathittupath
(b) Tholkapiyam
(d) Silapatigaram
26. ‘Madhubani’, a style of folk paintings, is popular
(a) Jainism
(c) Parsi g.n
associated with which of the following religions?
(b) Buddhism
(d) Sikhism

in which of the following states in India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh
27. Bharatham” was a Tamil Version of Mahabharata
35. Thillana is a format of
(a) Kuchipudi et
(b) Odissi
(c) Baharatanatyam (d) Kathak
36. The head quarters of Sahitya Akademi is at
Sung by __________________________ (a) Mumbai (b) Chennai
(a) Perundevanar (b) Tholkapiyam
(c) New Delhi (d) Kolkata
(c) Ilango Adikal (d) None of these
37. Kalchakra ceremony is associated with which of
28. Gandhara School of art came into existence
the following ceremonies?
(a) Hinayana sect
(a) Hinduism (b) Buddhism
(b) Mahayana sect
(c) Jainism (c) Jainism (d) Islam
(d) Independence Ajivikas 38. The Flamingo Festival is celebrated in_______?
29. Hanukkah, the festival of light is associated with (a) Andhra Pradesh
which one of the following religions? (b) Karnataka
(a) Jewish (b) Hindu (c) Kerala
(c) Jain (d) Christians (d) Jammu & Kashmir

General Awareness || F-3
39. Sangai Festival is celebrated in which state of 42. The leaning temple of Huma is dedicated to
India? which Hindu God?
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (a) Shiva (b) Rama
(c) Bihar (d) Karnataka (c) Krishna (d) Hanuman
40. The festival Baisakhi or Vaisakhi is 43. Where is the Tagore Centre for the Study of
Culture and Civilization?
commemorates which important event of Sikh
(a) Shimla (b) Kolkata
History?
(c) Chennai (d) Dehradun
(a) Establishment of Akal Takht 44. Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which among
ww

(b) Establishment of Khalasa Panth
(c) Establishment of Guru Granth Sahib as
permanent guru of Sikhs
the following states of India?
(a) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(b) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya

w.E(d) Foundation of Harmandir Sahib (Golden
Temple) in Amritsar
41. What contribution has been made by Ernest
45. Chakan Gaan-Ngai, a post-harvest festival is
celebrated in ___________.
(a) Manipur

and culture? asy
Binfield Havell (E.B. Havell) in the Indian art
(a) E.B. Havell was a official of East India

(b) Sikkim
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
En
company, whose efforts led to establishment
of Asiatic Society
46. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to which
among the following Gharanas?

Bengal school of art gin
(b) E.B. Havell made efforts in establishing the

(a) Banaras Gharana
(b) Agra Gharana
(c) Kirana Gharana

ee
(c) E.B. Havell was a famous indologist who
translated several Sanskrit dramas in English
(d) E.B. Havell was a teacher at Pune who
established the National Archives of India

(d) Lucknow Gharana
47. Santhara is a religious ritual related to _______?
(a) Jain
(c) Sakta rin (b) Saiva
(d) Vaishnava
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 7. (a) 13. (c) 19. (a) 25. (a) 31. (a) 37. (b) 43. (a)
2. (a) 8. (b) 14. (b) 20. (a) 26. (b) 32. (a) 38. (a) 44. (b)
3. (a) 9. (b) 15. (b) 21. (c) 27. (a) 33. (a) 39. (b) 45. (a)
4. (b) 10. (b) 16. (a) 22. (a) 28. (b) 34. (b) 40. (b) 46. (a)
5. (b) 11. (c) 17. (a) 23. (a) 29. (a) 35 (c) 41. (b) 47. (a)
ww Hints & Solutions

6. (a) 12. (a) 18. (a) 24. (a) 30. (a) 36. (c) 42. (a)
w.E
3. (a) Raja Ravi Verma was known as ‘Raffale of and elegant manner. It is the most widely practised
asy
East’. His paintings are considered to be among the
best examples of the fusion of Indian traditions with
of Indian classical dances in south India, and has its
origin in Tamil Nadu. The term Bharatnatyam was
En
the techniques of European academic art.
4. (b) Maqbool Fida Hussain, described as the
introduced in the mid thirties by S. Krishna Iyer and
later spread by Rukminidevi Arundale. It comprises
gin
Picasso of India, was one of the subcontinent’s best
known painters. His influence on contemporary
South Asian art was enormous. In 1955 he was
of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya put together as
Bharatanatyam.
8. (b) Kuchipudi is the classical dance form from the
eer
awarded the prestigious Padma Shri by the Indian
government and in the 1980s was nominated to the
state of Andhra Pradesh. It derives its name from
the village of Kuchelapuram, a small village about
i
upper house of the Indian parliament, while in 1971
he was invited, with Pablo Picasso, to the Sao Paulo
Biennial in Brazil.
65 kms from Vijaywada. It is known for its graceful
ng.
movements and its strong narrative/dramatic
character.
5. (b) The Sangeet Natak Akademi was set up in
1953 for the promotion of performing arts. Setting
up of Sangeet Natak Akademi is one of the main
recommendations of the National conference on
net
9. (b) Kathakali is the most well known dance drama
from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word
Kathakali literally means “Story-Play”. It is known
for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The
elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the
Dance, Drama, and Music, held in New Delhi
most recognised icon for Kerala.
in 1951. The Sangeet Natak Akademi is an
Autonomous Body under the Ministry of Culture. 10. (b) Pt. Ravi Shankar was a famous sitar player.
Shankar won the Silver Bear Extraordinary Prize
6. (a) Kangra painting is a mixture of Rajasthan and
of the Jury at the 1957 Berlin International Film
Mughal. The pictorial art of Kangra is one of the
Festival for composing the music for the movie
finest gifts of India to the art world. It originated in
Kabuliwala. He was awarded the Sangeet Natak
a small hill state ‘Guler’ in lower Himalayas in 18th
Akademi Award for 1962, and was named a Fellow
century when a family of Kashmiri painters trained
of the academy for 1975. Shankar was awarded the
in Mughal Style of painting sought shelter at the
three highest national civil honours of India: Padma
court of Raja Dalip Singh of Guler. Bhushan, in 1967, Padma Vibhushan, in 1981, and
7. (a) Bharatnatyam is an artistic yoga that involves Bharat Ratna, in 1999. He received the music award
the movement of the body parts in a very artistic

of the UNESCO International Music Council in brother Kalika Prasad, brought a renaissance in
1975, three Grammy Awards, and was nominated Kathak and raised it to a high level.
for an Academy Award. 17. (a) Katputli, the string puppetry belongs to
11. (c) Hari Prasad Chaurasia is an eminent flute Rajasthan. The string puppet is perhaps the most
player in India. He was awarded Padma Bhushan in common form of puppetry in India, in common
1992 and Padma Vibhushan in 2000. with the rest of the world. Even now, many people
12. (a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is a renowned sarod understand the puppetry in India as manipulation
player. He is the recipient of many awards and of string puppets or Katputli and think of those
ww honours. These include: Padmashree (1975),

Sangeet Natak Academy Award (1989), the Tansen
Award (1989) the Padma Bhushan (1991) and the
gorgeous puppets of Rajasthan.
18. (a) The three faiths of Hinduism, Buddhism and
Jainism were carved in Ellora caves. Ellora caves
w.EInternational Music Forum Award, UNESCO in

1970.
13. (c) The panchatantra was written during the
are the most popular shrines that are a real attraction
for tourists and vacationers from all over the world.
These two groups of caves were created with hand
asy
Maurya period. The original Sanskrit work, which
some scholars believe was composed in the 3rd
cut.
20. (a) The image of Nataraja (the lord of dance) is a
En
century BCE, is attributed to Vishnu Sharma. It is
based on older oral traditions, including “animal
superb masterpiece of the period of Chola empire.
The period of the imperial Cholas (c. 850 CE - 1250
gin
fables that are as old as we are able to imagine”. It
is “certainly the most frequently translated literary
product of India”, and these stories are among the
CE) was an age of continuous improvement and
refinement of the Dravidian art and architecture.
They utilised their prodigious wealth earned through
most widely known in the world.
ee
14. (b) Chenchus are Hindu Aboriginal tribes residing
in the central hill stations of Andhra Pradesh. They
their extensive conquests in building long-lasting
rin
stone temples and exquisite bronze sculptures.
21. (c) The ‘yoga’ philosophy belongs to Patanjali.
inhabit the Nallmalla hills which have been a part of
Nagarjuna Sagar, the Tiger Sanctuary for centuries
in Andhra Pradesh. They are mainly found in the g.n
The term yoga can be derived from either of two
roots, yujir yoga (to yoke) or yuj samadhi (to
concentrate). The Yoga Sutra of Patañjali defines
districts of Mahboobnagar, Nalgonda, Prakasam,
Guntur and Kurnool. The Origin of Chenchu is
connected to Lord Malikarjuna of the Srisailim
temple.
et
yoga as “the stilling of the changing states of the
mind”. Yoga has also been popularly defined as
“union with the divine” in other contexts.
22. (a) ‘Syadvad’ and Anchkantvad belongs to
15. (b) Kathakali is the most well known dance drama Jainism. Anchkantvad refers to the principles of
from the south. pluralism and multiplicity of viewpoints, the notion
Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally that truth and reality are perceived differently from
means “Story-Play”. It is known for its large, diverse points of view, and that no single point of
elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate view is the complete truth. Syadvad is the theory
costumes of Kathakali have become the most of conditioned predication, which provides an
recognised icon for Kerala. expression to Anchkantvad.
16. (a) Binda din Maharaj was born in 1830. He was 23. (a) Mudiyettu dance forms enlisted in UNESCO.
the originator of his Gharana, popularly and widely Mudiyettu is a ritualistic dance-drama presented in
known as Lucknow Gharana. He together with his Bhadrakaali temples in South and Central Kerala.


In the South, this is presented by a community monks who maintain strict discipline of retreat
called Marans. It is based on the Puranic story of during the rainy season. The main purpose of the
Darikavadham, the killing of the demon Darika. ceremony is not merely for religious belief but also
24. (a) The Society for the Promotion of Indian Classical to strengthen the relationship between Thailand and
Music and Culture Amongst Youth (SPIC MACAY) other countries.
is a voluntary youth movement which promotes 38. (a) The annual “Flamingo Festival” began at
intangible aspects of Indian cultural heritage by Sullurpeta near the Pulicat lake bird sanctuary in
promoting Indian classical music, classical dance, Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh. The festival was
ww folk music, yoga, meditation, crafts and other

aspects of Indian culture. It was established by Dr.
Kiran Seth in 1977 at IIT Delhi.
being held every year to bring together the people
and various departments in the task of preserving
the Pulicat Lake and surroundings. Every year
w.E
26. (b) Madhubani painting or Mithila painting is a
style of Indian painting, practiced in the Mithila
region of Bihar state, India and the adjoining parts of
approximately 15,000 Greater Flamingos are
reported to visit the lake along with pelicans,
kingfishers, herons, painted storks, spoonbills and
ducks.
asy
Terai in Nepal. Painting is done with fingers, twigs,
brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks, using natural
dyes and pigments, and is characterized by eye-
39. (b) The Manipur Sangai Festival is an annual
calendar mega-event of the Government of Manipur
En
catching geometrical patterns. There are paintings
for each occasion and festival such as birth,
spearheaded by the Tourism Department that seeks
to showcase and promote the finest of Manipur’s arts
& culture, adventure sports, indigenous cuisines,
gin
marriage, holi, surya shasti, kali puja, Upanayanam
(sacred thread ceremony), and durga puja.
29. (a) Hanukkah, also known as the Festival of
handloom & handicrafts, fine arts, indigenous
games & music and various other niche products to
ee
Lights, Feast of Dedication, is an eight-day Jewish
holiday commemorating the rededication of the
Holy Temple (the Second Temple) in Jerusalem
at the time of the Maccabean Revolt against the
41.
a regional, national and global audience.
(b) EB Havell and Bengal School of Art Ernest
rin
Binfield Havell or E.B. Havell, was principal of the
Government School of Art, Calcutta from 1896 to
Seleucid Empire of the 2nd century BCE. Hanukkah
is observed for eight nights and days, starting on the
g.n
1905, where, along with Abanindranath Tagore, he
developed a style of art and art education based on
Indian rather than Western models, which led to the
25th day of Kislev according to the Hebrew calendar,
which may occur at any time from late November to
late December in the Gregorian calendar.
30. (a) The Dashavatara Temple or Vishnu Temple
42.
painting.
et
foundation of the Bengal school of art. eventually
it led to the development of the modern Indian
(a) The leaning temple is the only leaning temple

also called Gupta temple at Deogarh. It was
built in the Gupta Period (320 to c. 600 AD ). in the world and the only one of its kind in India.
Archaeologists have inferred that it is the earliest It is located in Huma village in Odisha and it is
known Panchayatana temple in North India. A dedicated to the lord Shiva.
hindu temple is a Panchayatana one when the main 43. (a) To pay a befitting tribute to the man of letters,
shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines. Nobel Laureate, Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore,
34. (b) The Royal Kathima Ceremony is observed on his 150th birth anniversary, the Government of
every year by Buddhist. It is observed in only one India has set up a ‘Tagore Centre for the Study of
Buddhist temple outside Thailand and this year the Culture and Civilization’ (TCSCC) at the Indian
Namphake Buddhist temple of Assam was selected. Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS), Shimla. The
Kathina offering is an ancient Buddhist Tradition objectives of the Centre include: to encourage the
of offering special robe and other necessities to study of Tagore’s work; support translations of

Tagore’s work into other Indian languages; promote Naga life and culture. Unlike other years, with more
comparative study of his work with poets, artists activities added to the event, the Department is
and writers in other parts of India and the world; expecting the biggest participation of both domestic
study the elements of his Humanist philosophy and international tourists.
and his cosmopolitanism; and explore his concerns 45. (a) Celebration of the biggest post-harvest festival
regarding the relationship between science and of the Zeliangrong community, Chakan Gaan-
society. Ngai, also popularly known as Gaan-Ngai was
44. (b) Hornbill Festival is a weeklong annual event kick-started in Manipur recently with different
ww of Nagaland. The popularity and importance of

Hornbill festival is not just a national phenomenon
but has gained popularity around the world.
organizations celebrating the festival in their own
manner with traditional gaiety and religious fervour.
46. (a) Girija Devi belongs to Banaras gharana. She
w.EOrganized by the State Tourism and art and Culture

Department, Hornbill Festival dubbed as the
Festival of Festivals in Nagaland, encourages inter-
tribal interaction, showcasing the entire array of
performs classical and light classical music and has
helped elevate the profile of thumri.
47. (a) Santhara: is the Jain religious ritual of
voluntary death by fasting.
asy
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

2 National and
International Awards
ww National 8. Vishwakarma Rashtriya Puraskar is given by
w.E
1. Jnanpith Award is given for which field?
(a) Journalism (b) Music

which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of Labour

2.

(c) Science
asy
(d) Literature
Kabir Puraskar is related to which field?
(a) Sculpture

(c) Ministry of Minority
(d) Ministry of Rural Development

(b) Cultural development
En
(c) Promotion of communal harmony
9.

Which state gives the Nandi Award?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamilnadu

3.
(d) Hindi literature
gin
Highest award given to civilian in India is

10.
(c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh
The Sastra Ramanujan prize is related to

4.
(a) Bharat Ratna
ee
(b) Padma Vibhushan
(c) Sharam Award (d) Padma Bhushan
Sports coaches receive which of the following
awards?

(a) Young Physicians
(b) Young Mathematician
(c) Poets
(d) Scientists rin

(a) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(b) Dronacharya Award
(c) Arjuna Award
11.
g.n
Saraswati Samman is given to which field?
(a) Sanskrit Literature

5.
(d) None of these
In which year National Film Awards were
initiated?

(b) Science
(c) Literature
(d) Social Harmony
et
(a) 1952 (b) 1953 12. Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and Padma
(c) 1954 (d) 1955 Shree are given on the eve of
6. Which of the following is different from the
(a) Republic Day
others?
(b) Independence Day
(a) Kirti Chakra (b) Ashok Chakra
(c) Gandhi Jayanti
(c) Vir Chakra (d) Shaurya Chakra
7. Vyas Samman is awarded annually by (d) Pravasi Bhartiya Divas
(a) Azim Premji Foundation 13. The award is given for extraordinary act of
(b) Times Group bravery in the field of Naval, Air and Army is
(c) KK Birla Foundation (a) Arjuna Award (b) Paramvir Chakra
(d) Ministry of Culture (c) Kalinga Award (d) Ashok Chakra

14. The second highest Gallantry award is 24. Chameli Devi Jain puraskar conferred to the
(a) Mahavir Chakra (b) Vir Chakra professionals :
(c) Arjuna Award (d) Ashok Chakra (a) Scientist (b) Journalist
15. The award is given in the field of agriculture (c) Novelist (d) Musician
(a) Bhatnagar Award 25. Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of :
(b) Bourlog Award (a) Music (b) Literature
(c) Dhanwantari Award (c) Science (d) Journalism
(d) Kaling Award 26. Which of the following states conferred the
ww
16.

The highest peace time gallantry award is
(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Kirti Chakra (d) Vir Chakra

Kalidas Samman?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttrakhand

w.E
17. The award is conferred to journalists aims to
providing financial assistance :
(a) Appan Menon Memorial Award
27. Dhyanchand Puraskar conferred in the field of
(a) Music
(c) Science
(b) Sports
(d) Literature

(b) Jnanpith Award
(c) Bhatnagar Award
(d) Kalinga Award
asy 28. Which of the following states conferred the Lata

Mangeshkar Puraskar?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
18.
En
Vachaspati Samman is given in the field of
(a) Sanskrit Literature
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
29. Who among the following is not a recipient of the

(b) Medical Science
(c) Indian Philosophy gin
Bharatiya Jnanpith Award?
(a) M. F. Hussain
19.

(d) Hindi Literature
(a) Medical Science (b) Sports ee

Dhanwantari award is conferred in the field of :
(c) Indian Philosophy (d) Agriculture

(b) Ashaparna Devi
(c) Raghupathi Sahai
(d) V. K. Gokak
rin
30. ‘Ashoka Chakra’ is awarded for
20.

Which of the Gallantry award is exactly like
Ashok Chakra?
(a) Mahavir Chakra (b) Kirti Chakra

g.n
(a) the most conspicuous bravery or self
sacrifice on land, air or sea but not in the
presence of the enemy

21.
(c) Vir Chakra (d) Shaurya Chakra
The Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award
conferred in the field of

et
(b) acts of gallantry in the presence of enemy
(c) gallantry by children
(d) outstanding contribution to literature
31. The first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi’s ‘Khel Ratna’
(a) Communal harmony and peace
(b) Literature award is
(c) Medical Science (a) Vishwanathan Anand
(d) Sports (b) Leander Peas
(c) Kapil Dev
22. Which of the following states conferred the
(d) Limba Ram
Bihari Puraskar?
32. The first Indira Gandhi Award for International
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
Justice and Harmony has been given to
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(a) Yasser Arafat
23. The National bravery award is also known as : (b) Larry Pressler
(a) Bharat Puraskar (b) Hind Puraskar (c) Amnesty International
(c) Bharati Puraskar (d) Rashtriya Puraskar (d) Hussain Ibrahim Zaki

F-10 || National and International Awards

33. Indian’s Ricky Kej (Musician) and activist 39. Who was the first foreigner to win the Bharat
Neela Vaswani recently won which International Ratna?
Award? (a) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(a) Grammy Awards (b) Winston Churchill
(b) BAFTA Awards (c) Nelson Madela
(c) Oscar Awards (d) None of these
40. The journalist who refused to accept ‘Padma
(d) Golden Globe Awards
Bhushan’ was?
34. Which of the following famous financial journals
ww of international repute confers ‘Finance minister

of the year’ Award?

(a) Shekaran Nair
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Ratan Thiyam

w.E(a) Dalal Street
(b) Euromoney
(c) Business Standard
(d) Arun Shourie
41. Who among the following is a winner of the
Indira Gandhi Award for National integration?

(d) Money Matters
asy
35. Shanthi Swaroop Bhatnagar awards are given for
(a) exploring new dimensions in creative

(a) Aruna Asaf Ali
(b) Ashok Kumar
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna
En
writing in Indian languages
(b) outstanding contribution to science
(d) M. G. K. Menon
42. Who among the following has become the first

gin
(c) creating mass awareness on environmental
issues
winner of Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes
Prize?
(d) excellence in film direction
ee
36. Manav Seva Award has been instituted in the

memory of
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

(a) Amartya Sen
(c) L.K. Advani
rin
(b) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Manmohan Singh
43. Who among the following is the recipient of the
first Dayawati Modi Award for art, culture and

(c) Indira Gandhi

education?
(a) Dharmavir Bharti
g.n
(b) Amitabh Bachchaan
(d) Acharya
37. The prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award was
conferred upon Mr.Arvind Kejriwal in which of
the following category?

(c) B. V. Karanth
(d) Ashok Vajpeyi et
44. Which among the following states has won the
10th National Award for Excellence work in
(a) Emergent Leadership Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
(b) Literature Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
(c) Community Welfare (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(d) Government Service (c) West Bengal (d) Haryana
45. Which of the following awards was conferred
38. Who among the following has received both
upon Smt. Aruna Asaf Ali for her role in the
Bharat Ratna and Nishan -e -Pakistan?
welfare of adult and women?
(a) Ayub Khan
(a) Tagore Literacy Award
(b) Moraji Desai
(b) UNSECO Literacy Award
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Moorti Devi Award
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Kalinga Prize

46. B. C. Roy Award is given in the field of 12. Palme d’or prize is given by
(a) Medicine (b) Music (a) France (b) USA
(c) Journalism (d) Environment (c) UK (d) Indonesia
47. The Pampa Prashasti is the highest literacy award 13. Which of the following is an award instituted by
given by which of the following states? UNESCO?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (a) Kalinga Award (b) Pulitzer prize
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Maharashtra (c) Stirling prize (d) Pritzker prize
International 14. The International Linguapax award is given on
ww
1.

The Nobel prize was instituted by which country?
(a) USA (b) UK

(a) Mother Language Day
(b) Human Rights Day

w.E
2.

(c) Russia (d) Sweden
Orange prize is given in the field of
(a) Sports (b) Literature

15.
(c) Non-violence Day
(d) Computer Literacy Day
The Stirling prize is a British prize for excellence

3.

(c) Medicine
asy
(d) Film
Laurets Award is associated to the field of
(a) Sports (b) Polities

in
(a) Medicine
(c) Architecture
(b) Science
(d) Literature

4.
(c) Medicine
En
(d) Journalism
Sabin Award is given for the conservation of
16.

International Gandhi Peace prize is instituted in
(a) 1995 (b) 1996

(a) Reptiles
(c) Corals
(b) Birds
gin
(d) Amphibians

17.
(c) 1997 (d) 1998
The Nobel prizes except Economics were first
5.

Sciences launched?
(a) 1901
(c) 1967
(b) 1942
(d) 1975
ee
When did the Nobel prize in the Economics

18.
awarded in
(a) 1901
(c) 1903
rin
(b) 1902
(d) 1904
Jawaharlal Nehru award for International
6. The Academy award is also known as

(a) Oscar Award (b) BAFTA Award
(c) Matthews Award (d) Palm d’ore
(a) 1964 g.n
understanding was founded in
(b) 1965
7. Confucius peace prize is given by

(a) Sri Lanka
(c) China
(b) India
(d) S. Korea
8. Pulitzer prize was established in

19.

(c) 1966
et
(d) 1967
The India Human Development award in
association with UNDP instituted in
(a) 2010 (b) 2011
(a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
(c) 1922 (d) 1928 20. The Sultan Qaboos prize is given in the field of
9. Nobel prizes are distributed annually at (a) Environmental preservation
(a) Manila (b) New York (b) Literature
(c) Stockholm (d) Geneva (c) Science
10. BAFTA prize is distributed by (d) Architecture
(a) UK (b) Russia 21. The Guillermo Cano prize is given in the field of
(c) India (d) USA (a) World Press Freedom
11. Golden Globe award is given by (b) Prevention of Non-violence
(a) UK (b) France (c) Popularisation of Science
(c) USA (d) China (d) Literary work


22. Which of the following award is given by World 28. The ‘Cannes Award’ is given for excellence in
Economic Forum? which field?
(a) Crystal Award (a) Films (b) Journalism
(b) Kalinga prize (c) Literature (d) Environment
(c) Pulitzer Award 29. Pulitzer prize is awarded for outstanding work in
(d) Abel prize the field of
23. Right Livelihood award is instituted in (a) Science and Technology
(a) 1980 (b) 1982 (b) Environmental Studies
(c) Literature and Journalism
ww
(c) 1984 (d) 1985
24. Which of the following prizes is also known as
the Alternative Nobel prize?
(d) International Understanding
30. Booker prize is given to the field of :

w.E(a) Pulitzer prize
(b) Magsaysay award
(c) Booker prize

(a) Fiction
(c) Drama
(a) Film
(b) Poetry
(d) Essay
31. FiFi awards are given in_____industry:
(d) Right Livelihood award

25. Magsaysay award is given by
(a) USA
asy
(b) UK

(b) Home Appliances
(c) Perfumes
(c) Malaysia
En
(d) Philippines
26. The Nobel prize for Economics was instituted in
(d) Automobiles
32. The UNSECO’s ‘Prix Jules Verne’ prize has
been given to which of the following serials of
(a) 1965
(c) 1967
(b) 1966
(d) 1968 gin
Doordarshan?
(a) Turning Point

(a) Campaign against AIDS
(b) Population control
ee
27. Global 500' awards are given for the outstanding
achievement in which of the following fields?

(b) The World This Week
(c) Surabhi
(d) Eye Witness
rin
33. Carole King Became the First Woman to Receive

(c) Protection of environment
(d) Elimination of illiteracy

(a) Director
(c) Poet g.n
Gershwin Prize, she is..
(b) Singer
(d) Writer
et

ANSWER KEY
National
1. (d) 7. (c) 13. (b) 19. (a) 25. (a) 31. (a) 37. (a) 43. (b)
2. (c) 8. (b) 14. (a) 20. (d) 26. (b) 32. (a) 38. (b) 44. (a)
3. (a) 9. (d) 15. (b) 21. (a) 27. (b) 33. (a) 39. (a) 45. (c)
4. (b) 10. (b) 16. (a) 22. (d) 28. (a) 34. (b) 40. (b) 46. (a)
5. (c) 11. (c) 17. (a) 23. (a) 29. (a) 35 (b) 41. (a) 47. (a)
ww 6. (c) 12. (a) 18. (a) 24. (b) 30.

International
(a) 36. (a) 42. (a)
w.E 1.
2.
3.
(d)
(b)
(a)
6.
7.
8.
(a)
(c)
(a)
11.
12.
13.
(c)
(a)
(a)
16.
17.
18.
(a)
(a)
(b)
21.
22.
23.
(a)
(a)
(a)
26.
27.
28.
(b)
(c)
(a)
31.
32.
33.
(c)
(a)
(b)
4.
5.
(d)
(c)
9.
10.
(c)
(a)
14.
15.asy (a)
(c)
19.
20.
(c)
(a)
24.
25.
(d)
(d)
29.
30.
(c)
(a)
HintsE
&nSolutions
gin
1.
National
eer
(d) The Jnanpith award is a literary award which
coaching. The award comprises bronze statue
of Dronacharya, a scroll of honour and a cash
component of ` 500,000. The award was instituted
along with the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship is
i
one of the two most prestigious literary honours
in the country. The award was instituted in 1961.
Any Indian citizen who writes in any of the official 5. ng.
in 1985. The last recipient of the award is Raj Singh
for wrestling in the year 2014.
(c) The National Film awards, one of the most
2.
languages of India is eligible for the honour.
(c) Kabir puraskar is given for promotion of
communal harmony. Instituted in 1990, Kabir
Puraskar is given in 3 categories of grades with
net
prominent film awards in India, were established
in 1954. Every year, a national panel appointed by
the government selects the winning entry, and the
award ceremony is held in New Delhi where the
` 2 lakh for first grade, ` 1 lakh for second grade President of India presents the awards.
and ` 50,000 for third grade along with certificates 6. (c) Vir Chakra is an Indian gallantry award
and citations. presented for acts of bravery in the battlefield while
3. (a) Bharat Ratna is India’s highest civilian award. the Ashok Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra
The official criteria for awarding the Bharat Ratna in addition for separate acts of gallantry are awarded
stipulated it is to be conferred “for the highest for valour, courageous action or self-sacrifice away
degrees of national service which includes artistic, from the battlefield.
literary, and scientific achievements, as well as 7. (c) The Vyas Samman is a literary award which
“recognition of public service of the highest order”. was first awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually
The last recipient of the award is the cricketer by the K.K. Birla Foundation and includes a cash of
Sachin Tendulkar for the year 2014. ` 250,000 (as of 2005). To be eligible for the award,
4. (b) Dronacharya award is an award presented by the literary work must be in the Hindi language and
the government of India for excellence in sports has been published in the past 10 years.


8. (b) The Vishvakarma Rashtriya puraskar and 16. (a) The Ashok Chakra is an Indian military
National Safety awards scheme was launched in decoration awarded for valour, courageous action
1965 by ministry of labour to motivate the brilliant or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield. It is the
workers and industrial units who deliver their peace time equivalent of the Param Vir Chakra, and
best to curb mishaps and increase in the industrial is awarded for the “most conspicuous bravery or
(occupational) safety measures and work for the some daring or pre-eminent valour or self-sacrifice”
promotion of the interests of both the management other than in the face of the enemy.
and labour. 17. (a) The Appan Menon Memorial Award
9. (d) The Nandi award is the highest award for consisting of a grant of ` 1 lakh is given each year
ww excellence in Telugu cinema, Telugu Theatre,

Telugu Television, and Life time achievements in
Indian cinema, presented annually by Government
to a professional journalist working in the area of
world affairs or development news with an Indian
perspective.
w.E
10.
of Andhra Pradesh.
(b) The SASTRA Ramanujan prize, founded by
Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research
Academy (SASTRA) University in Kumbakonam,
19. (a) The prestigious Dhanwantari award, which
recognizes contribution in medical science is
awarded annually since 1972. The recipients include
M.K. Mani, pioneer in nephrology in the country
asy
India, Srinivasa Ramanujan’s hometown, is awarded
every year to a young mathematician judged to
have done outstanding work in Ramanujan’s fields
and Chief Nephrologist at Apollo Hospital, Chennai
who has been honoured with the 40th Dhanvantari
Award.
En
of interest. The age limit for the prize has been set
at 32 (the age at which Ramanujan died), and the
20. (d) The Shaurya Chakra is an Indian military
decoration after the Ashoka Chakra and the Kirti
11.
current award is $10,000.
gin
(c) The Saraswati Samman is an annual award for
outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any
Chakra and awarded for valour, courageous action or
self-sacrifice while not engaged in direct action with
the enemy. It may be awarded to civilians as well as
ee
Indian language. It was instituted in 1991 by the K.
K. Birla Foundation. The award contains ` 10 lakh,
a citation and a plaque. Candidates are selected
from literary works published in the previous ten
military personnel, sometimes posthumously. It is
the peacetime equivalent of the Vir Chakra.
rin
21. (a) Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award
is given for outstanding contribution towards
years by a panel that includes scholars and former
13.
award winners.
(b) The Param Vir Chakra is India’s highest g.n
promotion of communal harmony, national
integration and peace. The award was instituted by
All India Congress Committee of the Indian National
military decoration awarded for the highest degree of
valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy.
It can be awarded to officers or enlisted personnel
from all branches of the Indian military and can be,
and often has been, awarded posthumously.
et
Congress Party (INC), in 1992 to commemorate
the lasting contribution made by the former Prime
Minister Rajiv Gandhi, carries a citation and a cash
award of ` 5 lakhs.
22. (d) Bihari Puraskar conferred by Rajasthan is a
14. (a) The Maha Vir Chakra is the second military literary award instituted by K. K. Birla Foundation.
decoration in India and is awarded for acts of The award is named after the famous Hindi poet
conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy, Bihari and is awarded to an outstanding work
whether on land, at sea or in the air. The medal may published in Hindi or Rajasthani by a Rajasthani
be awarded posthumously. writer. It carries a citation, a plaque and prize money
15. (b) In order to recognize a scientist, who provides of ` 1 lakh.
a breakthrough for agriculture through a new insight 23. (a) National Bravery award also known as Bharat
that has created high potential value for the future, Puraskar for Indian Children is given each year by
the Norman Borlaug Award has been constituted. Government of India and Indian Council for Child
The nominations for the awards are for a scientist(s) Welfare (ICCW) to Indian children for meritorious
of any discipline of agricultural and allied sciences. acts of bravery against all odds. The award is given
The award would be of ` 10 lakh in cash. to around 24 children below the age of 16.

24. (b) Chameli Devi Jain puraskar is conferred to 44. (a) Madhya Pradesh has been awarded 10th
the journalists. The award, instituted by the Media National Award for Excellence work in Mahatma
Foundation has been conferred to Tusha Mittal of Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Tehelka’s Kolkata News Bureau in 2012. (MGNREGA). The award was given to Madhya
25. (a) Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of Pradesh for convergence of MGNREGA and other
music which carries a cash prize of ` 2 lakh and a schemes for construction of permanent assets and
citation. for excellent work in providing opportunities for
26. (b) The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious arts earning permanent income.
award presented annually by the government 46. (a) Bidhan Chandra Roy Award was instituted in
ww of Madhya Pradesh. The award is named after

Kālidāsa, a renowned Classical Sanskrit writer. The
Kalidas Samman was first awarded in 1980 and was
1976 in memory of B. C. Roy by Medical Council of
India. The Award is given annually in the categories
of Statesmanship of the Highest Order in India,
w.Einitially conferred in alternate years in the fields

of Classical Music, Classical Dance, Theatre and
Plastic Arts.
27. (b) Dhyan Chand award is India’s highest award
Medical man-cum-Statesman, Eminent Medical
Person, Eminent person in Philosophy and Eminent
person in Arts. It is presented by President of India
in New Delhi on July 1, the National Doctors’ Day.
asy
for lifetime achievement in sports and games. The
award is named after the legendary Indian hockey
player Dhyan Chand and was initiated in 2002. The
47. (a) Pampa Prashasti is the highest literary
honour conferred by the Karnataka government
on a litterateur for his/her lifetime contribution
a scroll of honour.
En
award carries a cash prize of ` 5 lakh, a plaque and to Kannada literature. The award is named after
Adikavi Pampa of 10th Century. The award carries
gin
28. (a) Lata Mangeshkar puraskar, instituted in 1992
by the Maharashtra government carries a cash prize
of ` 5,00,000 and a citation. Renowned music
award money of ` 3 lakh and a citation.
International
Award. ee
director Anandji Shah, of the Kalyanji-Anandji
duo, was the last recipient of the Lata Mangeshkar
35. (b) The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award for

Science and Technology (SSB) is an award in India
1. (d) The Nobel prize is a set of an international
awards bestowed in a number of categories which
rin
is given annually to the winners by Swedish and
Norwegian Committees in recognition of cultural
given annually by the CSIR. It is named after the
founder Director of the CSIR and carries an award g.n
and/or scientific advances. It was the will of the
Swedish inventor Alfred Nobel that established the
Nobel prizes in 1895 in Sweden.
money of ` 5 lakh each.
37. (a) In 2006, Kejriwal was awarded the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership
recognising his involvement in a grassroots
movement Parivartan using right-to-information
2.
et
(b) Orange prize is now known as Women’s prize
for Fiction which is given to those women writers
who have written full novel in English. The Orange
Prize was established in 1996 by Orange PLC, a UK
legislation in a campaign against corruption. The telecommunications corporation.
same year, after resigning from the IRS, he donated 3. (a) The Laureus World Sports Awards are annual
his Magsaysay award money as a corpus fund to awards given to those sportspersons who have been
found the Public Cause Research Foundation, a outstanding in the previous year. These awards
non-governmental organisation (NGO). were established in 1999 by Founding Patrons
40. (b) Khushwant Singh (Journalist) : Returned his Daimler and Richemont. The first gala was held on
Padma Bhushan in protest against Operation Blue May 25, 2000 in Monte Carlo. The 2014 Laureus
Star (1984); awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2007. World Sports Awards is to be held in Kuala Lumpur,
42. (a) Eminent Indian Economist and Nobel Malaysia, on Wednesday, March 26.
laureate Amartya Sen has won the newly instituted
Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize. He 4. (d) Sabin award is given to the Amphibian
was awarded in recognition of his work on welfare conservationists. In 2008 the IUCN recognized
economics. Satyabhama Das Biju of Department of


Environmental biology, University of Delhi for 14. (a) The International Linguapax award is awarded
his dedication for his research and conservation of annually on International Mother Language Day
Frogs and had awarded the Sabin award. (21 February) by Linguapax (Linguapax Institute),
5. (c) The Nobel prize in Economics or Economic which recognises and awards the actions carried out
sciences was established in 1968 and endowed by in different areas for the preservation of linguistic
Sweden’s central bank, the Sveriges Riksbank, on diversity, revitalization and reactivation of linguistic
the occasion of the bank’s 300th anniversary. While communities and the promotion of multilingualism.
the Nobel Prize in particular was established in 15. (c) The Royal Institute of British Architects Stirling
1895.
Prize is a British prize for excellence in architecture.
ww
6. (a) The Academy award is also known as the Oscar
award which is presented for various categories in
the Film industry. It was first given in 1929.
It is organised and awarded annually by the Royal
Institute of British Architects (RIBA).It is named
after the architect James Stirling.
w.E
7. (c) The Confucius Peace prize is a prize established
in 2010 in the People’s Republic of China (PRC).
The Confucius Peace Prize’s first winner was
16. (a) International Gandhi Peace prize is given
annually by Government of India to those
individuals and organizations which contribute
asy
former Vice President of the Republic of China
and Kuomintang Chairman Lien Chan, for his
contribution to developing positive ties between
towards changes in the political, social or economic
reforms via non-violence. It was instituted in 1995.
8.
Taiwan and mainland China.
En
(a) The Pulitzer Prize is a U.S. award for
achievements in newspaper and online journalism,
17. (a) Nobel prize was first given in 1901. From 1901
to 2012 the Nobel prizes and the Prize in Economic
Sciences were awarded 555 times to 856 people and
gin
literature, and musical composition. It was
established in 1917 and administered by Columbia
University in New York City by provisions in the
organizations. With some receiving the Nobel prize
more than once, this makes a total of 835 individuals
9. ee
will of American publisher Joseph Pulitzer.
(c) The Nobel awards in literature, medicine,
physics, chemistry, peace, and economics are given
in Stockholm, Sweden. The Peace prize is awarded
and 21 organizations.
18. (b) The Jawaharlal Nehru award for International
rin
Understanding is an international award presented
by the Government of India. It was established
in 1965, administered by the Indian Council for
10.
in Oslo, Norway.
(a) The British Academy Film awards are presented g.n
Cultural Relations (ICCR). It is given to the people
for their outstanding contribution to the promotion
11.
in an annual award show hosted by the British
Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA). It
is given by UK and is considered to be the counter
awards for Oscars.
(c) Golden Globe award is given in the field of
et
of international understanding, goodwill and
friendship among people of the world.
19. (c) The Manav Vikas India Human Development
awards, instituted by the Planning Commission and
UNDP was first given out in 2012.
film and television by Hollywood Foreign Press
Association in United States of America. 20. (a) The Sultan Qaboos prize is a biennial award
12. (a) The Palme d’Or is the highest prize awarded sponsored by the United Nations Educational,
at the Cannes Film Festival and is presented to Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
the director of the best feature film of the official which is given for environmental preservation.
competition. It is presented by Festival International 21. (a) The UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press
du film de, France. Freedom Prize honours a person, organization or
13. (a) The Kalinga Prize for popularization of institution that has made an outstanding contribution
Science is an international distinction instituted by to the defence and/or promotion of press freedom
UNESCO. It was started in 1951 by donation from anywhere in the world, especially when this has
Mr Bijoyanand Patnaik, founder and president of been achieved in the face of danger. It was instituted
the Kalinga Foundation Trust in India. in 1997.

22. (a) The World Economic Forum gives Crystal award This award is given by Philippine in the memoir
to those artists who have improved the state of the of Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay. He
world through their art. is considered to be one of the great examples of
23. (a) The prize was established in 1980 by German- integrity, courage, and idealistic democrat.
Swedish philanthropist Jakob von Uexkull. This 26. (b) Merlin award is given to the Magicians who
ispresented annually in early December. contribute significantly in the stage magic shows
24. (d) Right Livelihood prize is considered to be the and creation of magic in the world. This award
alternative to Nobel prize. This is also an annual was created by Tony Hassini and his International
ww prize which is given to individuals who have done

something exemplary to solve some of the most
Magicians Society.
33. (b) US singer-songwriter Carole King became
w.Epressing issues in the world.

25. (d) Ramon Magsaysay award is given annually
to those Asian people who have contributed
the first woman to receive the Library of Congress
Gershwin Prize for Popular Song. The award was
given away at the White House in Washington.
asy
extraordinary service in their respective fields.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

3 Books and Authors
ww
1. Which of the following books is written by 9. Which of the following books is written by

w.E
Pt. Vishnu Sharma?
(a) Panchatantra (b) Buddha Charitam
(c) Malti Madhav (d) Geet Govind

Kalhana?
(a) Mudra Rakshas (b) Prem Vatika
(c) Rajtarangini (d) Kadambari
(a) Pt. Vishnu Sharma

(b) Kalidasa
asy
2. The book ‘Mudrarakshas’ is written by 10. The book ‘Natural History’ is written by
(a) Kalhara
(c) Pliny
(b) Kautilya
(d) Dandi
(c) Vishakhadatta
(d) Raskhan En 11. Which of the following books is written by
Kautilya?
gin
3. Which of the following books is written by
Panini?
(a) Daybhag (b) Rajtarangini
(c) Arthashastra (d) Mitakshara
12. The book ‘Avanti Sundari’ is written by
(a) Mudrarakshas (b) Ashtadhyayi
(c) Prem Vatika (d) Bijak
4. ‘Mrichhakatikam’ is written by
(a) Shudrak (b) Kalidasa
ee (a) Kautilya
(c) Ved Vyas
(a) Shudrak
rin
(b) Dandi
(d) Ashwaghosh
13. The book ‘Buddha Charitam’ is written by
(b) Panini
(c) Kautilya (d) Vishakhadatta
(c) Kautilya
g.n
(d) Ashwaghosh
Jayadev?
Kalidasa?
(a) Raghuvansham (b) Mitakshara
(c) Rajtarangini (d) Arthashastra
6. The book ‘Meghdootam’ is written by

(a) Geet Govind
(c) Mitakshara
(a) Jayadev
et
(b) Daybhag
(d) Kamasutra
15. The book Kadambari is written by
(b) Bana Bhatt
(a) Panini (b) Shudrak (c) Bhavabhuti (d) Ashwaghosh
(c) Kalidasa (d) Vishkhadatta 16. The book ‘Sahityalahari’ and ‘Sursagar’ is written
7. Which of the following books is written by by
‘Vatsyayana’? (a) Surdas (b) Kalidasa
(a) Kama sutra (c) Kabir Das (d) Bhavabhuti
(b) Ashtadhyayi 17. The books, Niti Shatak, Shringaar Shatak and
Vairagya Shatak are written by
(c) Kumarsambhavam
(a) Bhartrihari (b) Bana Bhatt
(d) Mitakshara
(c) Kabir Das (d) Bhavabhuti
8. The book ‘Mitakshara’ is written by 18. ‘The Immortals’ is written by
(a) Vatsyayana (b) Jeemaatwahan (a) Aravind Adiga (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Vigyaneshwar (d) Shudrak (c) Amit Chaudhuri (d) None of these

19. ‘Golden Threshold’ and ‘Broken Wings’ are 30. The book ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ was written by
written by : (a) Devkinandan Khatri
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Indira Priyadarshani (b) Sharat Chand Chaudhary
(c) Kalpana Datta (d) Lakshmi Sehgal (c) Vrindavanlal Verma
20. Who is the author of “A River Sutra”? (d) Mahadevi Verma
(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Nirad C Choudhari 31. The book ‘Gaban’ and ‘Godan’ were written by
(c) Gita Mehta (d) Vikram Seth (a) Prem Chand (b) Jai Shankar Prasad
21. ‘The Hungry Tide’ is written by (c) Amrit Lal Nagar (d) Vrindavanlal Verma
ww

(a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Ved Mehta
22. Who is the author of the book ‘Imaging India :
32.

Who is the author of the book ‘Glimpses of World
History’?
(a) Jwaharlal Nehru (b) Abul Kalam Azad

w.EIdeas for the New Century’?
(a) Arvind Adiga (b) MJ Akbar
(c) Nandan Nilakani (d) Shashi Tharoor

33.
(c) S. Gopalan (d) S. Radhakrishnan
The autobiography ‘Living History’ has been
authored by?

(a) Vikram Seth
asy
23. Who is the author of ‘one night at the call centre’?
(b) Chetan Bhagat
(c) Anurag Mathur (d) Robin Sharma

34.
(a) Margaret Atwood (b) Benazir Bhutoo
(c) Hillary Clinton (d) Monica Lewinsky
Who is called the Father of English Poetry?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

En
24. Who is the author of the book ‘Conquest of Self’?

(a) Charles Dickens (b) Milton
(c) Chaucer (d) Wordsworth

(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) S. Radhakrishnan gin 35.

Who is the author of “INDIA : The Future is
Now”.
(a) Robin Sharma (b) Amartya Sen
25. ‘A Passage to England’ was written by

(a) Nirad C. Chaudhary
(b) R.K. Narayan
(c) Khushwant Singh
ee
36.

(c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Arundhati Roy
‘Freedom from Fear’ is a book written by?
(a) Benzir Bhutto
rin
(b) Aung san suu Kyi
(d) Nayantara Sehgal
26. ‘Playing to Win’ is written by

(c) Corazon Aquino
(d) Nayantara Seghal
g.n

(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Nadeem Aslam (d) Harsh Mander
27. ‘The Freethinker’s prayer book’ was written by
(a) Khushwant Singh (b) Tavleen Singh
37.

(a) Corazon Aquino
(b) Nayantara Sahgal
(c) Aung San Suu Kyi
et
‘A Voice for Freedom’ is a book written by
(c) Salman Rushdie (d) Nadeem Aslam (d) Benazir Bhutto

28. ‘The Last War’ was written by 38. Post Office’ is written by?
(a) Sandipan Deb (a) R.K. Narayan
(b) Madhumita Mukherjee (b) Mulk Raj Anand
(c) Vinod Mehta (c) R.K Laxman
(d) Harsh Mander (d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
29. The books Chitrangada, Gitanjali and Gora were 39. What of the following book is released by Salman
written by Rushdie ?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore (a) Midnight’s Children
(b) Kuldip Nayyar (b) The Ground Beneath Her Feet
(c) Amrita Pritam (c) The Satanic Verses
(d) Khushwant Singh (d) Haroun and other Stories

F-20 || Books and Authors

40. Which one of the following works has recently 51. Who is the author of famous book ‘The
been made into a full lenght featured film? Judgement’?
(a) R.K Narayan’s Malgudi Days (a) Anthony Mascarenhasa
(b) Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children (b) R. Vankataraman
(c) Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy (c) Kuldip Nayar
(d) Upamanyu Chatterjee’s English August (d) Janardhan Turkur
41. Who wrote Jungle Book? 52. Who is the author of book ‘We Indians’?
(a) Mohd. Salim (a) Nirad C. Choudry
(b) Rudyard Kipling
ww
(c) Sibhu
(d) R.K. Narayan

(b) Subramaniya Swamy
(c) Khushwant Singh
(d) Muluk Raj Anand

w.E
42. Who wrote, ‘Towards Total Revolution’?
(a) Lenin
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) A.K. Goplan
53. ‘India of our Dreams’ is a book written by

(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. C. Subramanian
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
asy
43. Who wrote the famous book - ‘We the people’?

(c) M.V. Kamath
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
54. ‘The Naked Face’, a very popular book is written

(a) T.N.Kaul
(c) J.R.D. Tata
En
(b) Nani Palkhivala
(d) Khushwant Singh
44. Which of the following is not written by Munshi
by
(a) Dominique Lapierre
Premchand?
(a) Gaban (b) Guidegin

(b) Larry Collins
(c) Sidney Sheldon
(c) Godan

(a) India Divided
(c) Mother India
ee
(d) Manasorovar
45. Lala Lajpat Rai is the author of the book
(b) Unhappy India
(d) Hind Swaraj

(d) Juan Benet
55. ‘The Gathering Storm’ is written by
rin
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) George Washington
46. Who wrote the book ‘The Prince’?

(a) Bernard Shaw (b) Niccolo Machiaveli
(c) V.S. Sharma (d) Emile Zola
(c) Voltaire
(d) Romain Rolland g.n
47. The famous book ‘The Daughter of the East’ is

written by
(a) Taslima Nasreen
(b) Benazir Bhutto

(a) Leo Tolstoy
et
56. Who wrote ‘War and Peace’?
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Charles Dickens (d) Kipling
57. The book ‘The White Tiger’ is authored by
(c) Aunsan Suu Kyi (a) Arundhati Roy (b) Aravind Adiga
(d) Bandaranaike Sirimavo (c) Kiran Desai (d) VS Naipaul
48. Which of the following books is written by 58. The book ‘The Audacity of Hope’ is written by
Rabindranath Tagore? (a) Nayantara Sehgal (b) Aravind Adiga
(a) Rakta Karabi (b) Chidambara (c) Vikram Seth (d) Barrack Obama
(c) Anand Math (d) Durgesh Nandini 59. The book ‘Long walk to Freedom’ is written by
49. The original name of ‘Mahabharata’ is (a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Nelson Mandela
(a) Katha Saritsagar (b) Jai Samhita (c) Benazir Bhutto (d) Nawaz Sharif
(c) Vrahat Katha (d) Rajatarangini 60. The book ‘A Bend in the River’ is written by
50. Who is the author of ‘Ashtadhyayi’? (a) VS Naipaul (b) Chetan Bhagat
(a) Sumitranandan (b) Raj Anand (c) Vikram Seth (d) Arundhati Roy
(c) Panini (d) Gitta Piramal

61. The book ‘Freedom at Midnight’ is written by 64. ‘The Rights of Man’ is written by
(a) Dominique Lapierre (a) Thomas Hardy (b) Thomas Claire
(b) Isabelle Mornique (c) Thomas Moore (d) Thomas Paine
(c) Bethoven Aspartus 65. ‘India Remembered’ is written by
(d) Nicholas Sarkory (a) JK Rowling
62. ‘An Inconvenient Truth’ is written by (b) Robert Dallek
(a) Barrak Obama (b) George Bush (c) Pamela Mountbatten
(c) Al Gore (d) Bill Clinton (d) Stephen Hawking
ww
63.

‘A passage to England’ was written by
(a) Nirad C Chaudhury
(b) RK Narayan
66.

The book ‘Mother India’ is authored by
(a) Annie Besant (b) Katherine Frank
(c) Katherine Mayo (d) Sister Nivedita

w.E (c) Khushwant Singh
(d) Nayantra Sehgal
asy
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 8. (c) 15. (b) 22. (c) 29. (a) 36. (b) 43. (b) 50. (c) 57. (b) 64. (d)
2. (c) 9. (c) 16. (a) 23. (b) 30. (c) 37. (b) 44. (b) 51. (c) 58. (d) 65. (c)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (c) 31. (a) 38. (d) 45. (b) 52. (c) 59. (b) 66. (c)
4. (a) 11. (c) 18. (c) 25. (a) 32. (a) 39. (b) 46. (b) 53. (c) 60. (a)
5. (a) 12. (b) 19. (a) 26. (b) 33. (c) 40. (d) 47. (b) 54. (c) 61. (a)
ww6.
7.
(c)
(a)
13.
14.
(d)
(a)
20.
21.
(c)
(a)
27.
28.
(a)
(a)
34.
35.
(c)
(c)
41.
42.
(b)
(d)
48.
49.
(a)
(b)
55.
56.
(a)
(a)
62.
63.
(c)
(a)

1. asy
(a) Panchatantra is written by Vishnu Sharma. kings - Dilipa, Raghu, Aja, Dasharatha, Rama -
En
The tales of Panchatantra, perhaps, are the oldest
stories known in the literature of India. The dates of
the Panchatantra are not known and these tales are
painted exquisitely by Kalidasa in which the picture
of Rama is undoubtedly the best.
6. (c) Meghdootam is written by Kalidasa. The
gin
usually attributed to Vishnu Sharma. Some believe
that the fables of panchatantra are as old as Rigveda.
meghaduta is a poem describing the message of
departed Yaksha to his wife, to be conveyed through
eer
2. (c) Mudrarkashas is written by Vishakhadatta.
Mudrarakshasa (The Minister Signet’s Ring) is a
Sanskrit drama written by Vishakhadatta, who is also
a cloud. Yaksha, a servant of lord, Kubera, made
some mistake in his duty; Kubera punished him
with a curse, banishing him from Alaka into exile
i
credited with the authorship of Devichandragupta.
Sanskrit drama of 4th century AD describing the
overthrow of the Nandas ruling the Magadhan
for a period of one year. Therefore, Yaksha sent his
ng.
message to his wife through a cloud.
7. (a) Kamasutra is written by Vatsyayana.
empire by the first Mauryan emperor Chandragupta
Maurya who was aided in this endevour by Kautilya
also called as Chanakya and Vishnugupta.
3. (b) Ashtadhyayi is written by Panini. Panini a
sage who is believed to have lived around the fifth
net
8. (c) Mitakshara is written by Vigyaneshwar. It was
considered one of the main authorities on Hindu
Law from the time the British began administering
laws in India.
9. (c) The history of the Kings of Kashmir written
century B.C., although other claims trace him to the by Kalahan, one of the most famous Sanskrit
4th, 6th and 7th centuries, is credited with having scholars of Kashmir in 12th Century AD, is the book
created the Ashtadhyayi, or Ashtak, which is a “Rajatarangini”. The Rajatarangini also traces the
grammar defining the structure and syntax of the political history of Queen Didda’s reign and adds to
Sanskrit language. our interest as it also includes Kalhan’s views on the
4. (a) Mrichhakatikam is written by Shudrak. morality and modality of events and personalities.
Sanskrit dramas like Mrichhakatikam by Shudrak 10. (c) The book ‘Natural History’ is written by Pliny.
and Shakuntalam by Kalidas give some very vivid It is one of the largest single works to have survived
pictures of police force at work in the ancient times. from the Roman Empire to the modern day and
5. (a) Raghuvansham is written by Kalidasa. purports to cover all ancient knowledge.
Raghuvansha, a long classical poem of 19 cantos, 11. (c) Kautilya’s Arthashastra is an excellent treatise
contains a brilliant account of the illustrious kings on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy.
of Raghu Dynasty. It is indeed a gallery of brilliant it is said to have been written by Kautilya, also

known by the name Chanakya or Vishnugupta, 22. (c) ‘Imaging India : Ideas for the New Century’
the prime minister of India’s first great emperor, is written by Nandan Nilekani. In this momentous
Chandragupta Maurya. book, Nandan Nilekani traces the central ideas that
13. (d) Buddhacharita is an epic poem in the Sanskrit shaped India’s past and present and asks the key
mahakavya style on the life of Gautama Buddha by question of the future. How will India as a global
Aśvaghosha, composed in the early second century power avoid the mistakes of earlier development
CE. models? As a co-founder of Infosys, a global leader
14. (a) The writer of “Geet Govind” is Jayadev. He in information technology, Nilekani has actively
was the poet of eleventh century who wrote the participated in the company’s rise during the past
ww sanskrit poem on the mystic love of Radha and

Krishna. Jayadev was born in Kudali Sasan a small
village near Puri in Orrisa. In his poem he describes
twenty-seven years.
23. (b) One night @ call centre is written by Chetan
Bhagat, published in 2005. The themes involve the
anxieties and insecurities of the rising Indian middle
w.E
15.
the eternal love of Krishna and Radha. He was a
great devotee of Lord Krishna and considered both
Krishna and Radha as divine.
(b) The Kadambari is one of the best romantic
class, including questions about career, inadequacy,
marriage, family conflicts in a changing India, and
the relationship of the young Indian middle class
asy
fictions of 7th century by Banabhatta. An
imaginative romantic story, technically, in the form
of a katha.
to both executives and ordinary clients whom they
serve in U.S.A.
25. (a) A passage to England is written by Nirad C.
16.
En
(a) Although Surdas is known for his greatest
work — the Sur Sagar, he has also sung Sur-
Chaudhary. In 1955, the British Council and the
BBC jointly made arrangements to take Chaudhuri
to England for eight weeks. He was asked to
gin
Saravali, which is based on the theory of genesis and
the festival of Holi, and Sahitya-Lahiri, devotional
lyrics dedicated to the Supreme Absolute. Surdas’
contribute lectures to the BBC. He contributed
eight lectures on British life. Later these lectures are
18.
crude to a pleasing tongue. ee
verse is also credited as one that lifted the literary
value of the Hindi language, transforming it from
(c) ‘The Immortals’ is written by Amit Chaudhury.

collected in the Passage to England modified and
edited.
rin
26. (b) Playing to win is written by Saina Nehwal. In
‘Playing to win, my life on and off court’ Saina has
written her autobiography in which she has revealed
19.
He is an internationally recognized Indian English
author and academic.
(a) Sarojini Naidu was an Indian poet and political g.n
many of her secrets. The book has many incidents
about Saina which are not in public domain.
27. (a) The Freethinker’s Prayer Book is written
leader. Her poetry, originally published in three
volumes. The Golden Threshold (1905), The Bird
of Time (1912), and The Broken Wing (1915) was
written in English but deals, in a romantic vein,
with Indian themes. She was active in the Indian
et
by Khushwant Singh. In this eclectic and deeply
personal collection, India’s grand old man of letters
brings together precepts, prayers and practical
advice by prophets, poets and philosophers, and
his favourite passages from the seminal texts of the
National Congress and in 1925 became its first world’s major faiths.
woman president. 28. (a) The Last War by Sandipan Deb is a novel
20. (c) “A River Sutra” is written by Gita Mehta. about a business family that deals in many illegal
This novel beautifully embodies the art and craft activities. The novel stretches from the year 1955
of storytelling as Mehta portrays diverse lives to the year 2007, during which time the life of the
touched by the river Narmada, a holy pilgrimage family members takes various twists and turns. The
site ‘‘worshipped as the daughter of the god Shiva.’’ novel bursts with drama, deceit and manoeuvre.
21. (a) ‘The Hungry Tide’ is written by Amitabh 29. (a) Chitrangada and Gitanjali was written by
Ghosh. The Hungry Tide tells a very contemporary Rabindra Nath Tagore. Rabindra Nath Tagore was
story of adventure and unlikely love, identity and a Bengali poet, short-story writer, song composer,
history, set in one of the most fascinating regions on playwright, essayist, and painter awarded the Nobel
the earth. Prize for Literature in 1913 for Gitanjali.


30. (c) Jhansi Ki Rani is written by Vrindavanlal In 1983 the novel was adapted as a film directed
Verma. Vrindavan Lal Verma is the acclaimed by Bryan Forbes, starring Roger Moore and Rod
author of various books including a National Award Steiger.
winning book titled “Mrignayani”. 55. (a) The Gathering Storm is the first volume of The
31. (a) Gaban and Godan were written by Prem chand. Second World War (book series), a history of the
Prem Chand was the first Hindi author to introduce period from the end of the First World War to July
realism in his writings. He pioneered the new form 1945, written by Winston Churchill.
- fiction with a social purpose. He supplemented 56. (a) War and Peace is a novel by the Russian author
Gandhiji’s work in the political and social fields by Leo Tolstoy, first published in 1869. The work is
epic in scale and is regarded as one of the most
ww adopting his revolutionary ideas as themes for his

literary writings.
38. (d) The Post Office (Bengali: Dak Ghar) is a 1912
play by Rabindranath Tagore. It concerns Amal, a
important works of world literature. It is considered
as Tolstoy’s finest literary achievement, along
with his other major prose work, Anna Karenina
w.Echild confined to his adopted uncle’s home by an

incurable disease.
39. (b) The Ground Beneath Her Feet is Salman
(1873–1877).
57. (b) The White Tiger is the debut novel by Indian
author Aravind Adiga. It was first published in 2008
asy
Rushdie’s sixth novel. Published in 1999, it is a
variation on the Orpheus/Eurydice myth with rock
music replacing Orpheus’ lyre.
and won the 40th Man Booker Prize in the same
year.
58. (d) The Audacity of Hope: Thoughts on Reclaiming
the American Dream is the second book written by
En
40. (d) English, August: An Indian Story is a novel
by Indian author Upamanyu Chatterjee written in
English, first published in 1988. It was adapted into
Barack Obama. In the fall of 2006 it became number
one on both the New York Times and Amazon.com.
a film of the same name in 1994.
gin
41. (b) English author Rudyard Kipling wrote the
Jungle Book in 1894. It is a collection of stories.
59. (b) Long Walk to freedom is an autobiographical
work written by South African President Nelson
Mandela, which was published in 1995 by Little
ee
42. (d) ‘Towards Total Revolution’ is written by
Jayaprakash Narayan. He, popularly referred to
as JP or Lok Nayak , was an Indian independence
activist, social reformer and political leader.
Brown & Co.
60. (a) A Bend in the River is a 1979 novel by Nobel
rin
laureate V. S. Naipaul.
61. (a) Freedom at Midnight (1975) is a book by Larry
Collins and Dominique Lapierre. It describes the
46. (b) The Prince is a 16th-century political treatise
by the Italian diplomat and political theorist Niccolò
Machiavelli. The descriptions within The Prince
1947-48. g.n
events in the Indian independence movement in
62. (c) An Inconvenient Truth 2006 is an Academy

have the general theme of accepting that the aims
of princes—such as glory and survival—can justify
the use of immoral means to achieve those ends.
47. (b) “Daughter of the East” is a comprehensive
et
award winning documentary film on the sensitive
issues of environmental and climate change. It has
been written by Al Gore.
63. (a) A Passage to England is a book comprising the
political autobiography recounting a detailed lectures of Nirad C. Chaudhury.
panorama of Bhutto’s fight against the military 64. (d) Rights of Man (1791), a book by Thomas Paine,
regime in Pakistan. including 31 articles, supports revolution when a
50. (c) Ashtadhyayi is Sanskrit treatise on grammar Government does not safeguard its people. It was
written in the 6th to 5th century BCE by the published in two parts in March 1791 and February
grammarian Panini. 1792.
52. (c) ‘We Indians’ is written by Khushwant Singh. 65. (c) India Remembered is a book by Pamela
He analyses the good and the bad of Indian character Mountbatten written as a personal account of
in this unusual and timely book. Mountbattens.
54. (c) The Naked Face is the first novel (1970) 66. (c) Mother India, was a polemical book by the
written by Sidney Sheldon. It was nominated by the American author Katherine Mayo. It was published
Mystery Writers of America for the Edgar Allan Poe in 1927. In her book, Mayo attacked society, religion
Award for Best First Novel by an American Author. and culture of the country of India.

4 Sports and Games
ww
1. India first won the Olympic Hockey gold at 10. First youth Olympic games was held in

w.E
2.
(a) Amsterdam
(c) Mumbai
(b) Los Angeles
(d) Tokyo
The Olympic Museum was opened at which of

11.
(a) Japan
(c) North Korea
(b) China
(d) Singapore
‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with

the following places?
(a) Rome asy
(b) Berlin

(a) Badminton
(c) Chess
(b) Cricket
(d) Football

3.
(c) Lausanne
En
(d) Athens
With which sport the term’ Caddie’ is associated?
12. India reached the final of the Davis Cup for the
first time in

4.
(a) Polo
(c) Bridge
(b) Golf
gin
(d) Billiards
Who is the highest wicket taker in the world in

13.
(a) 1965
(c) 1970
(b) 1966
(d) 1971
The Indian Football team made its first appearance

one day cricket?
(a) Kapil Dev
(c) Wasim Akram (d) Anil Kumble
ee
(b) Muthia Muralitharan

at Olympics in
(a) 1940
(c) 1950
rin (b) 1948
(d) 1951
5.

Champion Trophy is associated with
(a) Football
(c) Cricket
(b) Hockey
(d) Chess
14.

(a) Ajit Wadekar
(c) Kapil Dev
g.n
Who was the first ODI captain for India?
(b) Bishan Singh Bedi
(d) Vinoo Mankad
6.

The famous player ‘Ronaldo’ is associated with
which of the following games?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Football
15.

et
‘Dipeeka Kumari’ is known for her outstanding
performance in which of the following?
(a) Boxing (b) Athletics
(c) Hockey (d) Volleyball (c) Basketball (d) Archery
7. Which country won the Cricket World Cup in 16. Wankhede Stadium is situated in
2011? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(a) India (b) Pakistan (c) Lucknow (d) Bangalore
(c) Australia (d) England 17. The term ‘Gambit’ is associated with
8. Rangaswami Cup is associated with (a) Chess (b) Tennis
(a) Wrestling (b) Football (c) Basketball (d) Baseball
(c) Hockey (d) Golf 18. ‘Ashes’ is the term associated with which of the
9. ‘Grand Slam’ is associated with the game of following sports?
(a) Lawn Tennis (b) Hockey (a) Cricket (b) Badminton
(c) Football (d) Swimming (c) Basketball (d) Football

F-26 || Sports and Games

19. National Sports Day is celebrated on 31. Which of the following trophies/cups associated
(a) 29th Aug. (b) 4th Dec. with the game of Hockey?
(c) 14th Nov. (d) 28th Oct. (a) Derby (b) Aga Khan Cup
20. How many players are there in a cricket team? (c) Merdeka (d) Vizzy Trophy
(a) 11 (b) 12 32. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which
(c) 10 (d) 9 one of the following countries?
21. The normal length of a football ground must be (a) Fiji (b) Mauritius
(a) 110 – 120 m (b) 100 – 110 m (c) Malaysia (d) Kenya
ww

22.

(c) 90 – 100 m
(a) Cricket
(d) 120 – 130 m
The term ‘bogey’ is associated with
(b) Chess
33. The ‘Dronacharya Award’ is given to

(a) Coaches
(c) Umpires
(b) Sportspersons
(d) Sports Editors

w.E
23.
(c) Golf (d) Baseball
Which one of the following countries was
defeated by India in the inagural T-20 Cricket
World Cup?
34. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Cricket : Bogey
(b) Boxing : Bully

(a) Pakistan
(c) Australia asy
(b) South Africa
(d) England

(c) Chess : Checkmate
(d) Tennis : Smas
35. Who was the first Indian to win an individual
24.

(a) Cricket
(c) Water polo En
FINA is governing body of which sports?
(b) Archery
(d) Polo
medal in Olympics?
(a) PT Usha (b) Karnam Malleshwari
25.
gin
Which of the following trophies is not concerned
with Football?
(c) Deepika Kumari (d) Sania Nehwal
36. Gautam Budha circuit is the venue for which

26.
(a) Durand Trophy (b) Rovers Cup
(c) Euro Cup
ee
(d) Ranji Trophy
The famous sportsperson ‘Shane Warne’ is
associated with

Grand Prix race?
(a) Malaysian Grand Prix
rin
(b) Indian Grand Prix
(c) British Grand Prix

27.
(a) Cricket
(c) Basketball
(b) Football
(d) Athletics
Who among the following women won the
(d) Italian Grand Prix
g.n
37. Which one of the following Tennis tournaments
is the first to start the International Grand Slam in

28.
Wimbledon title successfully nine times?
(a) Steffi Graf (b) Martina Navratilova
(c) Serena Williams (d) Chris Evert
Which of the following terms is not associated

the Tennis history?
et
(a) Australian Open (b) French Open
(c) Wimbledon Open (d) US Open
38. When did the Wimbledon Grand Slam Tennis
with the game of cricket? tournament start?
(a) China man (b) Hook (a) 1857 (b) 1877
(c) Pull (d) Love (c) 1897 (d) 1898
29. Who was the first Indian woman who won the 39. In which year, the Grand Master title of Chess
gold medal in Asian Games? started?
(a) PT Usha (b) Sunita Rani (a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) Shiny Abraham (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu (c) 1973 (d) 1974
30. In which Indian state did the game of ‘Polo’ 40. Which one of the following countries had hosted
originates? the first world Paralympic Games in 1960?
(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (a) Rome, Italy (b) Mumbai, India
(c) Mizoram (d) Kerala (c) Madrid, Spain (d) Paris, France

41. Who founded the IOC to organise the Olympic 53. What is the National Game of Russia?
Games in 1894? (a) Chess (b) Hockey
(a) J.H. Bacquerel (b) Baron de Coubertin (c) Table Tennis (d) Baseball
(c) Khalid Ali Ansari (d) None of the above 54. In which Olympic Games, Hockey was introduced
42. The sportsperson ‘Soma Biswas’ is associated for the first time
with (a) London, 1908 (b) Stockholm, 1912
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey (c) St. Louis, 1904 (d) Paris, 1900
55. The first World Cup Hockey was played in
(c) Golf (d) Athletics
(a) Amsterdom, 1972
43. Which one of the following countries had hosted
ww

the first winter Paralympic Games?
(a) Sweden
(c) Soviet Union
(b) France
(d) China

(b) Barcelona, 1971
(c) Kualalumpur, 1975
(d) Mumbai, 1976

w.E
44. Which one of the following games is associated
with the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup?
(a) Hockey (b) Football
56.

Dodge, Goal line, through pass are associated
with
(a) Volleyball
(c) Table Tennis
(b) Cricket
(d) Hockey
(c) Cricket
asy
(d) Tennis
45. Gagan Narang, whose name has been
recommended for ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
57.

‘Blue Riband Cup’ is associated with
(a) Rugby Football (b) Netball
(c) Horse Racing (d) Chess

Award’ is a famous
En
(a) Motor Car Racer (b) Cricketer
58.

Hurlington stadium is associated with
(a) Polo (b) Cricket

gin
(c) Air Rifle Shooter (d) Footballer
46. The sportsperson Sunil Chhetri is associated with

59.

(c) Boxing (d) Golf
Fianchetto is a strategy in the game of?
(a) Football (b) Cricket

(a) Football
(c) Cricket
(b) Shooting
(d) Hockey
ee
47. What is the number of players in Polo and Water-

polo respectively?
(a) 2 and 5 (b) 7 and 9

60.
(c) Hockey (d) Chess
Who among the following was the first
his career?
rin
heavyweight boxer to go undefeated throughout
(c) 4 and 7 (d) 6 and 5

48. Among the following which one is not a football

61.
(c) Larry Holmes
g.n
(a) Rocky Marciano (b) Lee Epperson
(d) Michael Spinks
Which county did Ravi Shastri play for?

club?
(a) Arsenal
(c) Chelsea
(b) Aston villa
(d) Monte Carlo
49. Which of the following terms is used in the game

62.

(a) Glamorgan
et
(b) Leicestershire
(c) Gloucestershire (d) Lancashire
Who was the first Indian to win the World
Amateur Billiards title?
(a) Geet Sethi (b) Wilson Jones
of Cricket?
(a) Love (b) Scoop (c) Michael Ferreira (d) Manoj Kothari
(c) LBW (d) Tee 63. India won its first Olympic hockey gold in...?
50. Duleep Trophy is associated with the game of (a) 1928 (b) 1932
(a) Hockey (b) Badminton (c) 1936 (d) 1948
(c) Football (d) Cricket 64. How long are professional Golf Tour players
51. Which game is associated with Queensberry allotted per shot?
rules? (a) 25 seconds (b) 45 seconds
(a) Weight lifting (b) Boxing (c) 2 minutes (d) 1 minute
(c) Golf (d) Polo 65. The number of medals won by Indian in the 2010
52. How many players are there in Kho-Kho? Commonwealth Games-
(a) 9 (b) 10 (a) 107 (b) 101
(c) 8 (d) 7 (c) 105 (d) 98


66. Which of the following trophies is NOT (c) Golfer
associated with cricket? (d) Athlete
(a) Charminar Challenge Cup 72. For which game is the ‘Indira Gandhi Gold Cup’
(b) Thomas Cup being awarded?
(c) Rohinton Baria Trophy (a) Women’s Hockey
(d) Duleep Trophy (b) Women’s Football
67. Cannon, Cue and Pot’ are three terms associated (c) Women’s Cricket
with: (d) Women’s Badminton
(a) Billiards, Golf and Shooting 73. Which of the following football clubs announced
ww

(b) Golf Only
(c) Both Billiards and Golf
(d) Billiards only

to open its first official football school in India?
(a) Barcelona
(c) AC Milan
(b) Leverpool
(d) Chelsea
w.E
68. In which year did Milkha Singh win the first
National title in the 400 m race?
(a) 1955
(c) 1957
(b) 1956
(d) 1970
74. Which football hero was nicknamed “The

Sundance Kid”?
(a) Jim Forrest Kiick (b) Troy Aikman
asy
69. Who was the 1st ODI captain for India?
(a) Bishen Singh Bedi
(c) Brett Favre (d) Joe Montana
75. How many gold medals have been won by India
in the Olympics by the Beijing Olympics 2008?

(b) Ajit Wadekar
(c) Vinoo Mankad
(d) Nawab Pataudi En (a) 4
(c) 9
(b) 8
(d) 10

(a) 776 BC.
(c) 876 BC.
gin
70. First Olympic Games were held in-
(b) 798 BC.
(d) 898 BC.
76. With which game is Bully associated?

(a) Cricket
(c) Golf
(b) Football
(d) Hockey
71. Marion Jones is a well-known

(a) Badminton players
(b) Tennis player
ee 77. Indian Sports Research Institute is located at

(a) Patiala
(c) Cochin
rin
(b) Delhi
(d) Poona
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 10. (d) 19. (a) 28. (d) 37. (c) 46. (a) 55. (b) 64. (b) 73. (a)
2. (c) 11. (d) 20. (a) 29. (d) 38. (b) 47. (c) 56. (d) 65. (b) 74. (a)
3. (b) 12. (b) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (b) 48. (d) 57. (c) 66. (b) 75. (c)
4. (b) 13. (b) 22. (c) 31. (b) 40. (a) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (c) 76. (d)
5. (c) 14. (a) 23. (a) 32. (a) 41. (b) 50. (d) 59. (d) 68. (c) 77. (a)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(b)
(a)
(c)
15.
16.
17.
(d)
(a)
(a)
24.
25.
26.
(c)
(d)
(a)
33.
34.
35.
(a)
(c)
(b)
42.
43.
44.
(d)
(a)
(a)
51.
52.
53.
(b)
(a)
(a)
60.
61.
62.
(a)
(a)
(c)
69.
70.
71.
(b)
(a)
(d)
w.E 9. (a) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (b) 45. (c) 54. (a) 63. (a) 72. (a)
1.
aHints
sy E & Solutions
(a) The India national field hockey team had won Wankhede Stadium Mumbai, thus becoming the first
ngi
its first Gold in 1928 at Amsterdam, Nederlands in
which India defeated the Nederlands by 3-0. India
also won Gold in 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 9.
country to win the Cricket World Cup final on home
soil.
(a) The four Grand Slam tournaments, also called
2.
1964, and 1980.
nee
(c) The Olympic Museum is located in Lausanne,
Majors, are the most important annual tennis events.
The Grand Slam itinerary consists of the Australian
Open in mid January, the French Open in May/June,
Switzerland. The museum was founded on 23 June
1993, on the initiative of Juan Antonio Samaranch.
The Olympic Museum was opened again on 21
September. rin
Wimbledon in June/July, and the US Open in August/
3.
December 2013 after 23 months of renovation.
(b) In golf, a caddy or caddie is the person who
10.
g.n
(d) The first Youth Olympic Games (YOG), was
held in Singapore from 14 to 26 August 2010. The
age limit for the games is 14-18. The next Summer
4.
handles a golf player’s bag and clubs, and gives also
some insightful advice and moral support to him.
(b) The record for highest number of wickets in one
day cricket is held by Muttiah Muralitharan of Sri
11. et
Youth Olympics will be held in Nanjing in 2014.
(d) Subroto Cup Football Tournament is an inter-
school football tournament in India, named after the
Indian Air Force Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee.
Lanka, for taking total 534 wickets in 350 matches. Subroto Cup is conducted by the Indian Air Force,
5. (c) The ICC Champions Trophy is a One Day with support from India’s Ministry of Youth Affairs
& Sports.
International (ODI) cricket tournament organised by
the International Cricket Council (ICC). It is second 12. (b) The Davis Cup is the premier international team
event in men’s tennis. India finished as the Davis
in importance only to the Cricket World Cup.
Cup’s runners up 3 times (1966, 1974, 1987).
6. (b) Ronaldo is a retired Brazilian footballer. He is
13. (b) India’s first major football international
considered to be one of the great players of the world. tournament was in 1948 London Olympics, where
He is one of only three men to have won the FIFA a predominately barefooted Indian team lost 2–1 to
World Player of the Year award three times. France.
7. (a) India had won the cricket world cup 2011, 14. (a) India had played her first ODI in 1974 under
defeating Sri Lanka by 6 wickets in the final in the captaincy of Ajit Wadekar.


15. (d) Deepika Kumari is an Indian athlete who 28. (d) China man is a left-arm unorthodox spin
competes in the events of Archery. She has also won bowling in cricket, Hook and Pull are two specific
Gold in 2010 Commonwealth games. She has also styles of batting.
became an Arjuna Award winner in 2012. 29. (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu is a former woman Indian
16. (a) Wankhede stadium is in Mumbai. It is in this athlete who won gold medal at 1970 Asian Games
stadium that India had won the World cup cricket in in 400 m race. She was the first woman to win Gold
2011 against Sri Lanka. in any Asian games.
17. (a) A Gambit is a term associated with the game of 30. (b) The modern game of polo, though was
formalised and popularised by the British, is actually
ww Chess. Gambit is a chess opening in which a player

sacrifices material, usually a pawn, with the hope of
achieving a resulting advantageous position.
derived from Manipur, India, where the game was
known as ‘Sagol Kangjei’, ‘Kanjai-bazee’, or ‘Pulu’.
w.E
18. (a) The term ‘ashes’ is associated with cricket.
19. (a) National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August
in the memory of the great hockey player Major
32. (a) Vijay Singh, nicknamed “The Big Fijian”, is a
Fijian professional golfer who was also Number 1
in the Official World Golf Ranking for 32 weeks in
2004 and 2005.
Dhyan Chand.
asy
21. (b) The average length of the football field is
100 – 110m (110 – 120 yards) with width is in the
33. (a) The Dronacharya award is presented by Indian
Government to people showing excellence in sports
coaching. B.I. Fernandez is the first foreign Coach
range of 64 to 75 m (70–80 yd).
En
22. (c) A bogey is a score of 1-over par on any
who was awarded by Dronacharya Award in 2012.
34. (c) Bogey is associated with Golf, Bully is used in
gin
individual hole on a golf course. Golf holes are
typically rated as par 3, par 4 or par 5.
23. (a) The 2007 ICC World Twenty20 was the
hockey, Smas is a vague term. The only correct match
here is Chess: Checkmate.
ee
inaugural Twenty20 cricket world championship.
Pakistan was defeated by India in the finals.
24. (c) FINA or Fédération Internationale de Natation
or International Swimming Federation is the
35. (b) Karnam Malleshwari is an Indian weightlifter.
She is the first Indian to win an individual medal in
Olympics.
rin
36. (b) The Buddh International Circuit is an Indian
International Federation (IF) recognized by the

International Olympic Committee (IOC) for g.n
motor racing circuit in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
The circuit is best known as the venue for the annual
Formula One Indian Grand Prix, which was first
administering international competition in Aquatics.
25. (d) Ranji Trophy is associated with cricket and
not football. The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-
class cricket championship played in India. The
hosted on 30 October 2011.
et
37. (c) Wimbledon Championship is the oldest and the
most prestigious tennis tournament in the world. The
name of the tournament is derived from Wimbledon, a
competition is named after England and Sussex suburb of London, where it has been held since 1877.
cricketer Kumar Shri Ranjitsinhji.
40. (a) The 1960 Summer Paralympics, originally
26. (a) Shane Warne is a former Australian cricketer known as the 9th Annual International Stoke
who is considered to be one of the great bowlers of Mandeville Games were the first international Para
the world. Olympic Games held in Rome, Italy from September
27. (b) Martina Navratilova is a retired Czech American 18 to 25, 1960.
tennis player and coach. She is the greatest singles,
41. (b) The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is
doubles and mixed doubles player. She reached the
a Swiss non-profit, non-governmental organisation
Wimbledon singles final 12 times, including nine
based in Lausanne, Switzerland, created by Pierre,
consecutive years from 1982 through 1990, and won
Baron de Coubertin, on 23 June 1894 with Demetrios
the women’s singles title at Wimbledon a record nine
times. Vikelas as its first president.

42. (d) Soma Biswas is an athlete who specializes in 59. (d) In chess the fianchetto is a pattern of
heptathlon. She has won the silver medal in 2002 development wherein a bishop is developed to the
Asian Games in Busan, South Korea. second rank of the adjacent knight file, the knight
pawn having been moved one or two squares
43. (a) The winter Olympics were first held in 1976 in
forward.
Örnsköldsvik Sweden.
62. (c) Michael Ferreira nicknamed “the Bombay
44. (a) The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual Tiger”, is notable amateur player of English
international men’s field hockey tournament held in billiards from India, and a three-time Amateur
Malaysia. World Champion. In 1977, he won his first World
ww
45. (c) Gagan Narang is an Air Rifle Shooter. He was
the first Indian to qualify for the London Olympics.
He won the Bronze Medal in the Men’s 10 m Air Rifle
Amateur Billiards Champion title and followed it up
with the World Open Billiards Champion title in the
same year.
65. (b) The Commonwealth Games is an international,
w.EEvent at the 2012 Summer Olympics in London with

a final score of 701.1 on 30 July 2012.
46. (a) Sunil Chhetri is an Indian professional footballer
multi-sport event involving athletes from the
Commonwealth of Nations. In 2010 the event held
in Delhi, India. India won total 101 medals in it.
I-League.
asy
who plays as a striker for Bengaluru FC in the
48. (d) Arsenal Football Club is an English Premier

66. (b) Charminar Challenge Cup, Rohinton Baria
Trophy and Duleep Trophy are associated with
cricket while the Thomas Cup is associated with
En
League football club based in Holloway, London.
Chelsea Football Club is an English football club
badminton.
69. (b) Ajit Wadekar has played only 2 ODI matches.
70. (a) The Olympic Games were a series of athletic
gin
based in Fulham, London. Aston Villa Football Club
is an English professional association football club
based in Witton, Birmingham. Monte Carlo is not
competitions among representatives of city-states
and one of the Panhellenic Games of Ancient
Greece. They were held in honor of Zeus, and the
any football club.
ee
49. (c) LBW or Leg Before Wicket is a term used in
cricket to denote a criterion for a wicket to become
out.
Greeks gave them a mythological origin. The first
Olympics is traditionally dated to 776 BC.
rin
72. (a) Indira Gandhi gold cup is associated with
hockey while Indira Gandhi cup is associated with
50. (d) The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class
cricket competition played in India between teams
Boxing.
g.n
73. (a) Football Club Barcelona, also known as
Barcelona and familiarly as Barça,is a professional
representing geographical zones of India. The
competition is named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji.
51. (b) The Marquess of Queensberry rules is a code
of generally accepted rules in the sport of boxing.
et
football club, based in Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain.
75. (c) In the 2008 Games in Beijing, Abhinav Bindra
became the first Indian to win gold in an individual
event when he won the men’s 10 meter air rifle
competition. This was India’s 9th gold medal in
54. (a) Hockey (as field hockey) was introduced in Olympic competition.India has won eight gold
Olympics for the first time in Summer Olympics medals in field hockey (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948,
London in 1908. 1952, 1956, 1964 and 1980).
55. (b) The first world cup Hockey was played in 77. (a) Founded in 1961, Netaji Subhas National
Barcelona in 1971 whose final winner was Pakistan. Institute of Sports commonly known as National
56. (d) Dodge, Goal line, through pass, are some terms Institute of Sports (NIS), is the Academic Wing
of the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and Asia’s
associated with the game of Hockey.
largest Sports Institute located in city of Patiala.

5 Miscellaneous
ww
1. In which one of the following films did the Nobel 9. Nifty is the main share index of which stock

w.E Laureate Pearl S Buck collaborate?
(a) Shatranj Ke Khiladi
(b) Guide

exchange?
(a) Calcutta Stock Exchange(CSE)
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange(BSE)

(c) Lawrence of Arabia
(d) Titanic asy

10.
(c) National Stock Exchange(NSE)
(d) NASDAQ
Line connecting the points on a map that have the
2.

En
Larry page and Sergey Brin are well known as
(a) Creators of Bluetooth device
same temperature is called?
(a) Isobar (b) Isotherm

(b) Founders of Google
(c) Stem cell researchers
(d) Scientists
gin
11.
(c) Isohyet (d) Isohels
Which scale is used to measure hardness of
minerals?
3.

(a) Economics ee
Professor Mohd. Yunus is renowned in the area
(b) Human Rights
(c) Freedom of Press (d) Microcredit Concept

(a) Kelvin
(b) Mohs
(c) Richter
rin
(d) Mercalli intensity scale
4.

The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with
(a) Painting
(c) Pop Music
(b) Films
(d) Fashion Designing
12.
silk is called? g.n
Rearing of silkworms for the production of raw
5.

Oprah Winfrey is a famous __________
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Television Presenter (USA)

13.
(a) Horticulture
(c) Viticulture
et
(b) Sericulture
(d) Apiculture
With which of the following Kepler’s Laws are
related to _______?
(c) Artist (a) Motion of Milkyway
(d) Sports Woman (b) Motion of planets around sun
6. Morgan Freeman earned distinction in the field (c) Rotation of Earth on Its own axis
(a) Vocal music (b) Instrumental music (d) Motion of Moon around earth
(c) Acting (d) Classical dance 14. What is the second largest desert in the world
after the Sahara desert?
7. Mario Miranda is well known as
(a) Arabian Desert (b) Gobi Desert
(a) Editor (b) Story Writer
(c) Kalahari Desert (d) Libyan Desert
(c) Cartoonist (d) Politician 15. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains
8. Army wine house is associated with languages?
(a) Sports (b) Politics (a) 6th (b) 7th
(c) Pop Music (d) Social Service (c) 8th (d) 9th

16. What is the use of Venturimeter? 28. The working languages of the UNESCO is/are
(a) To measure subdivisions of scale (a) French only
(b) To measure wavelength of radio wave (b) English only
(c) To measure friction (c) English and French
(d) To measure rate of flow of fluids (d) English, French and Russian
17. Where is located the Centre for Wind Energy 29. The headquarter of Amnesty International is at
Technology (C-WET)? (a) Berlin (b) New York
(a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
(c) Washington (d) London
(c) Kochi (d) Kolkata
ww
18. In which year the Damodar Valley Corporation
which is first multipurpose river valley project of
India was launched?
30.

Which of the following countries is not the
member of the Mercosur organisation?
(a) Paraguay (b) Brazil

w.E
19.
(a) 1948
(c) 1953
(b) 1951
(d) 1956
Where is the ‘Mauna Kea’ a dormant volcano

31.

(c) Venezuela (d) Mexico
When is the World Population Day observed?
(a) July 8 (b) July 10

located?
asy
(a) Sumatra Island (b) Hawaii Island
(c) Galapagas Island (d) Cape Verde

32.

(c) July 11 (d) July 19
International Literacy Day was proclaimed by
(a) WHO (b) Virginia Literacy
20.
(a) Georgia
En
Which is the world’s youngest nation?
(b) South Sudan

33.
(c) UNESCO (d) UNIDO
‘World Disability Day’ is observed annually on

21.
(c) Mecadonia
gin
(d) Vosovo
Which one of the following is called the
‘Crossroads of Pacific’?

34.
(a) 10th Dec.
th
(c) 29 Nov.
(b) 3rd Dec.
(d) 15th Dec.
‘World Cancer Day’ is observed on

22.
(a) Hawaii
(c) Tonga
(b) Ellice
(d) Fiji
ee
The headquarter of International Court of Justice
is at

35.

(a) 19th February
th
(c) 12 February
rin
(b) 4th February
(d) 17th January
World Environment Day run by the UNEP on
(a) 11th Dec. (b) 20th Dec.

23.
(a) Hague
(c) Geneva
(b) New York
(d) Paris
WTO came into existence in the year

36.
(c) 15th Sept.
g.n (d) 5th June
International Human Rights Day is observed on

24.

(a) 1977
(c) 1995
(a) Kathmandu
(b) 1985
(d) 1950
The first summit of SAARC was held at
(b) Colombo

37.
(a) 10th Dec.
th
(c) 25 Nov.
et
(b) 24th Oct.
(d) None of these
In which of the following places, pygmies are
found?
(c) New Delhi (d) Dhaka (a) Nile Basin (b) Congo Basin
25. Where was the first Non-Aligned Summit (NAM) (c) Niger Basin (d) Limpopo Basin
Meet held? 38. The tribesmen Eskimo are found
(a) New Delhi (b) Cairo (a) Finland (b) Canada
(c) Belgrade (d) Havana (c) Florida (d) Sweden
26. IMF began operations in the years of
39. The tribesmen Khirgir are found
(a) 1945 (b) 1946
(a) Europe (b) Central Asia
(c) 1951 (d) 1963
27. The economic and social commission for Asia (c) Middle-east Asia (d) Tanzania
and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at 40. Maori tribes are found in
(a) Manila (b) Singapore (a) Australia (b) Japan
(c) Kualalumpur (d) Bangkok (c) New Zealand (d) Malaysia

F-34 || Miscellaneous
41. The parliament of Russia is known as 54. The first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) Federal Assembly of Russia (a) Sachchida Nand Sinha
(b) Shora (b) Satyendra Kumar
(c) National Assembly (c) G..V. Mavalankar
(d) Folketing (d) G. Shankar Kurup
42. The parliament of Japan is known as 55. India’s first Open University was :
(a) Knesset (b) The National Diet (a) Kolkata Open-University
(c) Shora (d) Federal Assembly (b) Andhra Pradesh Open-University
43. Knesset is the parliament of (c) Bombay Open-University
ww

44.
(a) Israel
(c) Turkey
(b) Iran
(d) Sudan
Shora is the parliament of

56.

(d) Karnataka Open-University
The first Chief Justice of India was
(a) Justice Manohar lal

w.E
45.
(a) Afghanistan
(c) Uzbekistan
(b) Tajikastan
(d) Malaysia
Majilis is the parliament of

(b) Justice Hiralal J. Kania
(c) Justice Mohan Das
(d) Justice Sukumar Sen

46.
(a) Iran
(c) Canada
asy
(b) Bhutan
(d) Turkey
MOSSAD is the intelligence agency of
57.

The first test tube baby of India was
(a) Durga
(c) Kamla
(b) Radha
(d) Manorama

(a) Egypt
(c) USA
En
(b) Israel
(d) Japan
58.

India’s first woman Governor was
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Sucheta Kripalani
47.

(a) China
(c) Australia gin
K.G.B. / G.R.U. is the intelligence agency of
(b) Russia
(d) South Africa

59.
(c) Fatima Bibi (d) Kiran Bedi
The first woman Chief Minister of a state was
48.

49.
(a) London
(c) Moscow
(b) Paris
(d) Dubai
The newspaper ‘Dawn’ published at
ee
The newspaper ‘Daily Mirror’ is published at

60.

(a) Santosh Yadav (b) Ashapurna Devi
(c) Durga Banerjee (d) Sucheta Kriplani
office?
rin
Who was the first Indian President who died in
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain (b) M. Hidayatullah

50.
(a) Dhaka
(c) Dubai
(b) Karachi
(d) Rome
The ‘Khaleej Times’ is published at

61. g.n
(c) Abul Kalam Azad (d) Morarji Desai
The largest animal fair organised in

51.

(a) Dubai
(c) Cairo
(a) INS Chakra

(b) Dhaka
(d) Colombo
Which was the first atomic submarine of India?
(b) INS Vikrant

62.

(a) Sonepur
(c) Pushkar
et(b) Agra
(d) Gwalior
The largest lake of India is
(a) Sambhar lake (b) Wular lake
(c) INS Dhanush (d) INS Viraat (c) Didwana lake (d) Fulhar lake
52. India’s first minister to resign from Union 63. The highest mountain peak of India is
Cabinet. (a) Godwin Austen (K-2)
(a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (b) Everest
(b) Sukumar Sen (c) Kanchanjunga
(c) Hasrat Mohani (d) Nanda
(d) Narimha Rao 64. The National Youth Day is celebrated on
53. First Indian to go into space (a) 12th Jan. (b) 13th Jan.
(a) Mohan Sharma th
(c) 14 Jan. (d) 15th Jan.
(b) Rakesh Chaudhary 65. The Anti-terrorism Day is observed on
(c) Sqn. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma (a) 20th May (b) 21st May
(d) Suresh Sharma nd
(c) 22 May (d) 23rd May

66. The National Sports Day is observed on 78. When is International Right To Know day
(a) 28th Aug. (b) 29th Aug. observed?
th
(c) 30 Aug. (d) 31st Aug. (a) 25th Jan. (b) 18th Dec.
(c) 24 Oct. th (d) 28th Sept.
67. Indian Airforce Day celebrated on
(a) 8th Oct. (b) 9th Oct. 79. Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe
th
(c) 10 Oct. (d) 11th Oct. ‘every tear from every eyes’?
68. Whose birthday is celebrated as Kisan Divas? (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Patel
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (c) J. L. Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi
80. Which of the following is an indigenously built
ww

(b) Ch. Devilal
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jagjivan Ram

light combat aircraft of India?
(a) Akash
(c) Tejas
(b) Vikrant
(d) Arjun

w.E
69. Where is the National Academy of Agricultural
Research Management located?
(a) Dehradun (b) Hyderabad
81. Which of the following is the first ever pollution-

control warship?
(a) Sagar Manthan (b) Sagar Rattan

70.
(c) New Delhi
asy
(d) Itanagar
The National Chemical Laboratory of India is
located in
(c) Sagar Prahari (d) Samudra Prahari
82. Which of the following paramilitary forces was
the first force to raise an all-woman battalion in

(a) Mumbai
(c) Hyderabad En
(b) Bengaluru
(d) Pune
India?
(a) ITBP (b) BSF
71.

Rock theme park is located in
(a) Kerala gin (c) CRPF (d) CISF
83. The first satellite launched by India was called

72.
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Wind Energy is produced in
ee

(a) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara-II
(a) share prices

rin
(b) Bhaskara-I
(d) Rohini
84. Index ‘Residex’ is associated with
(b) mutual fund prices

73.
(a) Kayathar
(c) Kodaikanal
(b) Tirunelveli
(d) Pollachi
The longest dam in India is

(d) land prices g.n
(c) price inflation index

74.

(a) Bhakra dam
(c) Kosi dam
(a) Mettur
(b) Hirakund dam
(d) Nagarjuna sagar
The highest dam of India is
(b) Rihand

(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Mumbai
(c) Hyderabad
et
85. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is at
(d) Bengaluru
(c) Tehri (d) Bhakra
86. Manikaran Power Plant is in?
75. The first fertilizer plant in India was established (a) Arunachal Pradesh
in (b) Himachal Pradesh
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal (c) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri (d) Uttar Pradesh
76. Mudumalai sanctuary is famous for 87. First Internal Affairs Minister of independent
(a) tigers (b) bisons India?
(c) elephants (d) birds (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
77. When national girl child day of India is observed? (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) 25th Jan. (b) 24th Jan. (c) V. Krishna Menon
th
(c) 24 Oct. (d) 14th Nov. (d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

88. The persons who became the Chief Minister for 95. Who is the first indian woman to win Olympic
the longest period in India? medal?
(a) E.K. Nayanar (b) Jyothi Basu (a) Kunjarani Devi
(c) Vasantha Sate (d) K. Karunakaran (b) Mary Kom
89. The largest freshwater lake in India is? (c) Karnam Malleshwari
(a) Wular Lake (b) Dal Lake (d) Tania Sachdev
(c) Powai Lake (d) Chilka Lake 96. Which canal connects Mediterranean Sea with
90. JEEVIKA, is the Rural Livelihoods project of Red Sea?
ww

which of the following State Governments?
(a) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(b) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh

(a) Suez Canal
(c) Erie Canal
(b) Panama Canal
(d) Indira Gandhi Canal
97. Name of first indigenously developed Super
w.E
91. Which of the following is not a missile developed
by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO)?

Computer of India is?
(a) Param
(c) Apsara
(b) Aryabhatt
(d) Tejas

(a) Agni
(c) Shaurya asy
(b) Pinaka
(d) Brahmos
98. River Narmada flows into which water body?

(a) Bay of Bengal (b) Red Sea
(c) Arabian Sea (d) Indian Ocean
(a) Green En
92. Which colour is in the centre of Rainbow?
(b) Red
99. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the
Mount Everest?
(c) Blue
gin
(d) Yellow
93. What is the direction of rotation of Earth on its
axis?

(a) Santosh Yadav (b) Bachendri Pal
(c) Mary Kom (d) Jwalla Gutta
100. Which of the following is the principal ore of

(c) East to West ee
(a) North to South (b) South to North
(d) West to East
94. In Computer, One Byte memory is equal to how

Mercury?
(a) Bauxite
(c) Hematite
rin (b) Cinnabar
(d) Galena
101. Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich

many Bits?
(a) 7
(c) 8
(b) 9
(d) 10
(a) 4:30 hours g.n
Mean Time (GMT) by how many hours?
(b) 5:00 hours
(c) 5:30 hours
et
(d) 6:00 hours

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (b) 23. (c) 34. (b) 45. (a) 56. (b) 67. (a) 78. (d) 89. (a) 100. (b)
2. (b) 13. (b) 24. (d) 35. (d) 46. (b) 57. (a) 68. (a) 79. (c) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (d) 14. (a) 25. (b) 36. (a) 47. (b) 58. (a) 69. (b) 80. (c) 91. (b)
4. (d) 15. (c) 26. (b) 37. (b) 48. (a) 59. (b) 70. (d) 81. (d) 92. (a)
5. (b) 16. (d) 27. (d) 38. (b) 49. (b) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (a) 93. (d)
6. (c) 17. (b) 28. (d) 39. (b) 50. (a) 61. (a) 72. (a) 83. (a) 94. (c)
ww7.
8.
(c)
(c)
18.
19.
(a)
(b)
29.
30.
(d)
(d)
40.
41.
(c)
(a)
51.
52.
(a)
(a)
62.
63.
(b)
(a)
73.
74.
(b)
(c)
84.
85.
(d)
(a)
95.
96.
(c)
(a)
w.E
9.
10.
11.
(c)
(b)
(b)
20.
21.
22.
(b)
(d)
(a)
31.
32.
33.
(c)
(c)
(b)
42.
43.
44.
(b)
(a)
(a)
53.
54.
55.
(c)
(c)
(b)
64.
65.
66.
(a)
(b)
(b)
75.
76.
77.
(c)
(c)
(b)
86.
87.
88.
(b)
(d)
(b)
97.
98.
99.
(a)
(c)
(b)
aHints
syE& Solutions
1. ngi
(b) In the English adaptation of the film Guide, India Index Services and Products (IISL), which
is a wholly owned subsidiary of the NSE Strategic
2. (b) Larry Page and Sergey Brin are the two
nee
Pearl S Buck had been collaborated for the script.
co-founders of Google which was found in 1989. 11.

Investment Corporation Limited.
(b) The Mohs scale of mineral hardness is a
qualitative ordinal scale which characterizes the
3. (d) Professor Mohd. Yunus is the founder of the
Grameen Bank and the pioneer of the micro-credit
and micro-finance systems. For his work in this field rin
scratch resistance of various minerals through
the ability of a harder material to scratch a softer
4.
he was awarded the Noble Peace prize in 2006.
(d) Pierre Cardin is an Italian born French fashion
13.
material.
g.n
(b) Kepler’s laws of planetary motion are three
scientific laws describing the motion of planets
5.
6.
designer.
(b) Oprah Winfrey is a famous TV host of her multi-
award-winning talk show The Oprah Winfrey Show.
(c) Morgan Freeman is the famous actor, director
and narrator. He has won many awards including
et
around the Sun - The orbit of a planet is an ellipse
with the Sun at one of the two foci, a line segment
joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas
during equal intervals of time and the square of the
orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube
Golden Globe Award and a Screen Actors Guild of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
Award. 14. (a) Spread out over 900,000 square miles, the
7. (c) Mario de Miranda was the famous Indian Middle East region is just one - fourth the size of
cartoonist. He was also given the Padma Vibhushan the Sahara.
by Government of India. 15. (c) 8th schedule of Indian constitution contains 22
8. (c) Singer-songwriter known for her deep languages.
contralto vocals and her eclectic mix of musical 18. (a) Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) is public
genres, including rhythm and blues, soul, jazz and company which operates several power stations
reggae. in the Damodar River area of West Bengal, India.
9. (c) The Nifty is National Stock Exchange of The company operates both thermal power station
India’s benchmark stock market index for Indian and hydel power dams under the Indian Ministry of
equity market. Nifty is owned and managed by Power.

19. (b) Mauna Kea is a dormant volcano on the island 30. (d) Mercosur or Mercosul is an economic and
of Hawaii. Standing 13,803 ft (4,207 m) above sea political agreement among Argentina, Brazil,
level, its peak is the highest point in the U.S. state of Paraguay, Uruguay, and Venezuela. With Bolivia
Hawaii. becoming an acceding member on 7 December
20. (b) South Sudan is the new youngest country. It 2012 to be ratified by member state legislatures.
is a landlocked country in northeastern Africa. Its 31. (c) World Population Day is observed on July
current capital is Juba, which is also its largest city. 11 every year, which seeks to raise awareness of
21. (d) Fiji is called the crossroads to Pacific. It is the
global population issues. The event was established
main harbor for both ships and planes coming from
by the Governing Council of the United Nations
ww the west to the east of the Pacific.

22. (a) The International Court of Justice is the
primary judicial branch of the United Nations. It
was established in 1945. ICJ has its headquarters at
Development Programme in 1989.
32. (c) September 8 was proclaimed International
Literacy Day by UNESCO on November 17, 1965.
w.EThe Hague, Netherlands.

23. (c) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an
organization that intends to supervise and liberalize
It was first celebrated in 1966.
33. (b) World Disability Day or International Day
of People with Disability is an international
asy
international trade. It is headquatered in Centre
William Rappard. The organization officially
commenced on 1 January 1995.
observance promoted by the United Nations since
1992. It is celebrated every year on December 3
to raise awareness about understanding various
En
24. (d) The first South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC) summit was held in Dhaka,
Bangladesh on 7–8 December 1985 and was
disabilities and to promote and mobilize support for
dignity, equal rights and well being of all.
gin
attended by the Government representative and
president of Bangladesh, Maldives, Pakistan and
34. (b) World Cancer Day was founded by the Union
for International Cancer Control (UICC) to support
the goals of the World Cancer Declaration, written in
prime minister of India.
ee
Sri Lanka, the kings of Bhutan and Nepal, and the
25. (b) The Non-aligned Movement is a Movement

of 115 members representing the interests and
priorities of developing countries. First NAM
2008. It is marked on February 4 to raise awareness
of cancer and to encourage its prevention, detection,
and treatment.
rin
35. (d) World Environment Day by the United Nations
Summit Conference was held in Cairo, from 5-12
June 1961 where the invitations for Bandung were
on a regional basis. g.n
Environment Programme (UNEP) is celebrated
every year on 5 June to raise global awareness of
the need to take positive environmental action.
26. (b) The International Monetary Fund was
established on December 27, 1945. The IMF began
operations in Washington, D.C. in May 1946.
27. (d) The Economic and Social Commission for
et
36. (a) The UN General Assembly had proclaimed 10
December as Human Rights Day in 1950.
37. (b) Pygmy, in anthropology, member of any
human group whose adult males grow to less than
Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP or ESCAP), is 59 inches (150 cm) in average height. The famous
one of the five regional commissions of the United Pygmy groups of the Ituri Forest live in Congo.
Nations Economic and Social Council. It is located 38. (b) Eskimo are the indigenous peoples who have
in Bangkok, Thailand. traditionally inhabited the northern circumpolar
28. (d) The six official languages of UNESCO are region from eastern Siberia (Russia), across Alaska
Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and
(United States), Canada, and Greenland.
Spanish.
39. (b) Tribesmen Khirgir live in Central Asia.
29. (d) Amensty International is an non-governmental
41. (a) The name of the parliament of Russian
organisation which was awarded the 1977 Nobel
Peace Prize for its “campaign against torture,” and Federation is the Federal Assembly of Russia. The
the United Nations Prize in the Field of Human term for its lower house is Duma, which is better
Rights in 1978. Its headquarter is located in Global known than the Federal Assembly itself, and is often
International Secrateriat in London. mistaken for the entirety of the parliament.

42. (b) The National Diet is Japan’s bicameral first Lok Sabha Speaker was Ganesh Vasudev
legislature. It is composed of a lower house that is Mavlankar who remained in his tenure from 8 May
called the House of Representatives, and an upper 1952 to 27 February 1956.
house, called the House of Councillors. 55. (b) The B. R. Ambedkar University, initially
43. (a) The Knesset is the unicameral national known as Andhra Pradesh Open University, came
legislature of Israel. As the legislative branch of into being on 26th August 1982, was India’s first
the Israeli government, the Knesset passes all laws, Open University.
elects the president and prime minister. 56. (b) The first Chief Justice of India was Hiralal
46. (b) The Mossad or also known as “Institute for J. Kania who served from 26 January 1950 to
ww Intelligence and Special Operations” is the national

intelligence agency of Israel. It is one of the main
entities in the Israeli Intelligence Community, along
57.
November 1951.
(a) The name of the first test-tube baby (1978) of
India was ‘Durga’.
w.Ewith Aman (military intelligence) and Shin Bet

(internal security).
47. (b) KGB, an initialism for Komitet
gosudarstvennoy bezopasnosti was the main
58.
59.
(a) Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor
of India who served from 15th August 1947 to 2
March 1949.
(b) The first woman Chief minister of the Indian
asy
security agency for the Soviet Union from 1954
until its collapse in 1991. GRU or Glavnoye
Razvedyvatel’noye Upravleniye is the foreign
state of free India was Sucheta Krilplani of Indian
National Congress who termed her tenure from 2
October 1963 – 13 March 1967.
En
military intelligence main directorate of the General
Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
60. (a) Dr. Zakir Hussain was the third president of
India and he was the first President to have died in
was founded by Alfred Harmsworth. gin

48. (a) The Daily Mirror is a British national daily
tabloid newspaper which was founded in 1903. It 61.
the office while working in his office.
(a) Sonepur in Bihar hosts one of the world's
largest Animal Fair which starts on Kartik Poornima,
ee
49. (b) Dawn is Pakistan’s oldest and most widely
read English-language newspaper. It was founded
by Quaid-i-Azam Mohammad Ali Jinnah in Delhi,
India on 26 October 1941. The newspaper has
62.
63.
an Indian Festival.
(b) Wular Lake in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
rin
is one of the largest fresh water lakes in Asia.
(a) K2 or Godwin-Austen (8,611 metres (28,251
offices in Karachi (Sindh), Lahore (Punjab), and the
federal capital Islamabad, as well as representatives
abroad.
64.
g.n
ft)) is the second largest peak to Everest.
(a) National Youth Day is celebrated on 12
January on the birthday of Swami Vivekananda in
50. (a) The Khaleej Times is a daily English language
newspaper published in Dubai, United Arab
Emirates. The daily is published in Sharjah. The
Galadari Brothers began publishing the daily on 16
April 1978 making it the first English daily in the
65.
et
India. In 1984 the Government of India declared the
day as the National Youth Day and since 1985 the
event is celebrated in India every year.
(b) The Anti-terrorist Day is celebrated on
21st May. It was on this day in 1991 that former
UAE. Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi fell to the designs of
52. (a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the first terrorists.
minister to resign from the Central Union Cabinet. 66. (b) National Sports Day in India is celebrated
On 8th April, 1950, he resigned from the Central on the August 29. This day marks the birthday of
Cabinet as a protest against the Nehru- Liaquat Ali Dhyan Chand, the hockey player who won gold
Pact. medals for India in year 1928, 1932 and 1936.
53. (c) Sqn Ldr Rakesh Sharma was a test pilot in the 67. (a) Indian Air Force was formally established on
IAF. In 1984 he became the first citizen of India to 8th October 1932, which is marked as the Indian Air
go into space when he flew aboard the Soviet rocket Force Day.
Soyuz T-11. 68. (a) 23rd January is celebrated as Kisan Divas
54. (c) The First Lok Sabha was constituted on 15 every year to mark the birthday of Chaudhary
April 1952 after India's first general election. The Charan Singh.

69. (b) The National Academy of Agricultural 85. (a) The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is
Research Management was established by the Indian a major space research centre of the Indian Space
Council of Agricultural Research at Hyderabad, in Research Organisation (ISRO), which focuses
1976. on rocket and space vehicles for India's satellite
70. (d) National Chemical Laboratory is an Indian programme. It is located in Thiruvananthapuram,
Government laboratory is located in Pune. Kerala.
71. (a) The Rock Theme Park is located in Kerala, 86. (b) Manikaran is located in the Parvati Valley
India. between the rivers Beas and Parvati, northeast of
72. (a) India ranks 5th in the Wind Energy production Bhuntar in the Kullu District of Himachal Pradesh.
ww in the world. In Kayathar, Tamil Nadu, wind energy

is produced in much quantity.
73. (b) Hirakud dam in Sambalpur on the river
89. (a) Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water
lakes in Asia. It is in Bandipora district in the state
of Jammu and Kashmir.
90. (a) Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society
w.EMahanadi is around 25.8 km in length, is the major

eastern longest dam in Asia.
74. (c) Tehri dam is the highest dam in India is on
Bhagirathi river in Tehri, Uttarakhand.
(BRLPS) is implementing JEEVIKA - Bihar Rural
Livelihoods Project with the objective of enhancing
the social and economic empowerment of the rural
asy
75. (c) The first fertilizers’ plant was established in
Sindri which is an industrial township within the
Dhanbad municipal limits of the Dhanbad District
poor in Bihar.
91. (b) Pinaka is not a not a missile. It is a multiple
rocket launcher produced in India and developed
of Jharkhand state.
En
76. (c) Mudumalai sanctuary is in Tamil Nadu, India.
by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army.
92. (a) The order of colors in a rainbow is - R=red,
It is famous for elephants.
gin
77. (b) National girl child day is celebrated every year
on 24th of January as a national observance day for
O=orange, Y=yellow, G=green, B=blue, I = indigo,
and V=violet. It can be remembered as ROY G.
BIV.
the country. ee
the girl child. This celebration was started to offer
more supports and new opportunities to the girls in
78. (d) The International Right to Know Day is

93. (d) The Earth rotates from the west towards the
east. As viewed from the North Star or polestar
rin
Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.
95. (c) Karnam Malleshwariwon a bronze medal in
celebrated on 28 September, 2002. This day was
proposed on 28 September, 2002 at a meeting of
Freedom of information organisations from around g.n
the 2000 Summer Olympics at Sydney lifting for of
240 kgand became the first Indian woman to win an
Olympic medal.
the world in Sofia, Bulgaria.
80. (c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL): Tejas
is India’s indigenously built light combat aircraft.
It has come from Light Combat Aircraft (LCA)
programme.
Sea and the Red Sea. et
96. (a) The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level
waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean
97. (a) PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed

and assembled by the Centre for Development of
81. (d) Samudra Prahari, the first-ever pollution Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune, India. The
control warship, had been commissioned on 9 latest machine in the series is the PARAM Yuva II.
October 2010. The warship is the first in Asia 99. (b) Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who
and third in the world that has the sophisticated in 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the
summit of Mount Everest.
equipment to control oil spillage and pollution.
100. (b) Cinnabar is the common ore of mercury.
82. (a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police is the first to form
Generally it occurs as a vein-filling mineral associated
an all women commandos battalion in India.
with recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs.
83. (a) The first satellite launched by India was
101. (c) India Standard Time (IST) is 5:30 hours (5
Aryabhata, on 19th April, 1975. hours 30 minutes) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time
84. (d) National Housing Bank had launched (GMT). IST is calculated on the basis of 82.5° E
RESIDEX in July, 2007, which is a ‘price indices’ longitude, in Shankargarh Fort (25.15°N 82.58°E)
for residential properties. in Allahabad district in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

Section G : Current affairs
ww
1 National
w.E
1. M Sathiyavathy has become first woman to be
appointed as Director General of
7. Which among the following states has recently
launched Taluka Planning Atlas (TPA) project?

2.
(a) Shipping
(c) Foreign Trade
asy
(b) Hydrocarbons
(d) Civil Aviation
Green PHABLET, a customised low-cost

8.
(a) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Which of the following has become India’s first
En
combination of phone and tablet computer, has
been launched with the aim to empower

Wi-Fi-enabled metro city?
(a) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai
(b) Hyderabad
(d) Kolkata

3.
(a) Women
(c) Farmers
gin
(b) Students
(d) Hilly Areas
Which among the following has become first
9. Who is the author of the book “Recasting India:
How Entrepreneurship is Revolutionizing the

4.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
ee
state to ban selling of loose cigarettes?
(b) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
What is the theme for 19th National Youth

World’s Largest Democracy”?
(a) C.N. Ramachandran
rin
(b) Hindol Sengupta
(c) James Grant
(d) Chinu Modi

Festival which began in Assam?
(a) Youth for Clean and Green India
10.
g.n
Which among the following states has become
first to launch Crime and Criminal Tracking

(b) Youth for Clean and Developed India
(c) Youth for Clean, Green and Developed
India
(d) Youth for Clean, Green and Progressive

11.
(a) Kerala
et
Network System (CCTNS) Project?
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Karnataka
‘Vanaj’ which was recently conducted in New
Delhi was a
India
5. Who has been appointed as the new Chief (a) National Youth Festival
Election Commissioner (CEC) of India? (b) National Handicraft Fair
(a) Harishankar Brahma (c) National Tribal Festival
(d) National Food Fair
(b) S C Sinha
12. Nitish Kumar has become the chief minister of
(c) Sekhar Basu
Bihar for the _______ time.
(d) Sindhushree Khullar
(a) Second (b) Third
6. Bhakti Sharma has recently set a new world (c) Fourth (d) Fifth
record by swimming 1.4 miles in 52 minutes in 13. Adya Sharma, who died recently, was related to
which of the following seas/oceans? which field?
(a) Arctic Ocean (b) Antarctic Ocean (a) Space Science (b) Education
(c) Aral Sea (d) Caspian Sea (c) Environment (d) Theatre

G-2 || National
14. University of Disability Studies is proposed to be 22. Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary is located in
established in which of the following states? (a) West Bengal (b) Jharkhand
(a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat 23. Swachh Vidyalaya campaign will be anchored by
15. The government has proposed to create centre which of the following ministries?
for film production in (a) Ministry of Rural Development
(a) Manipur (b) Assam
(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Tripura (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
16. Recently, Union Ministry of Shipping, Road
ww

Transport & Highways launched a new website
called
(a) Shipping Samvad

24.
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
US Senate has declared which of the following
date as the US-India Partnership Day?

w.E(b) Shipping Nivedan
(c) Shipping Vartalaap
(d) Shipping Vikaas

(a) 25th September, 2014
(b) 30th September, 2014
(c) 2nd October, 2014
asy
17. Recently, an Eco-restoration project has been
started for Kinnerasani Sanctuary with a cost of
60 lakh rupees. Where is this sanctuary located?

25.
(d) 5th October, 2014
Alok Shetty, who has been named as the ‘leader
of tomorrow’ is a/an

(a) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
En
(b) Telangana
(d) Kerala

(a) Doctor
(c) Educationist
(b) Environmentalist
(d) Architect
gin
18. Delhi High Court has recently restrained which
of the following company from manufacturing
anti-diabetes drugs Zita and Zita-Met?
26. Who among the following has been appointed
as the Chairman of Competition Appellate

(a) GlaxoSmithkline
(b) Cipla
(c) Pfizer
(d) Glenmark
ee

Tribunal?
(a) Justice RM Lodha
rin
(b) Justice Swatanter Kumar
(c) Justice GS Singhvi
19. AIIMS has joined hand with Alfred Hospital
for research in health field. Alfred Hospital is
located in

27.
g.n
(d) Justice HL Gokhale
Sutlej-Yamuna link will carry the surplus water
of which of the following rivers to Haryana?

(a) USA
(c) Canada
(b) Australia
(d) Germany
20. Who among the following retired Judges of the
Supreme Court is/was the first to be appointed as

(a) Ravi and Beas
(b) Ravi and Jhelum
(c) Sutlej and Ghaggar
(d) Yamuna and Chenab
et
the Governor of a state in India? 28. Maulana Azad National Academy of Skills
(a) Justice Fathima Beevi
(MANAS) has been planned to be established
(b) Justice Mohammed Hidayatullah
with headquarter at
(c) Justice Lalit Mohan Sharma
(d) Justice P. Sathasivam (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
21. The name of the committee appointed to search (c) Lucknow (d) Pune
for a suitable location for capital of Andhra 29. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and
Pradesh is Managing Director of BHAVINI?
(a) N.C Saxena Committee (a) Rajani Sankaran
(b) I.S Israni Committe (b) Prabhat Kumar
(c) Sivaramakrishnan Committee (c) K Radhakrishnan
(d) Justice Shah Committee (d) Sekhar Basu

Current Affairs || G-3
30. Harinder Pal Sandhu is associated with which of 40. Who among the following has been appointed as
the following game? the new CBI chief?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Boxing (a) Anand Lal Banerjee
(c) Golf (d) Squash (b) Sumedh Singh
31. Which government has honoured Dr. Manmohan (c) Ashok Kumar
Singh with “Grand Cordon of the order of (d) Anil Sinha
Paulownia Flowers”?
41. Which among the following cities will host
(a) China (b) Vietnam
World IT Congress in 2018?
(c) Japan (d) Thailand
ww
32. The Government of India has decided to set up

National Cultural Audio-Visual Archives at
(a) Jodhpur (b) Vadodara

(a) Bengaluru
(c) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(d) Pune
42. Madhuri Dixit has been appointed as the brand

w.E(c) Jalandhar (d) Ernakulam

33. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was formally conferred
the title of Honorary Professor by which of the
following university?

ambassador of “Mamta Abhiyan” (maternal and
child health) campaign the government of?
(a) Goa (b) West Bengal

(a) Shanghai University
asy
(b) University of Hong Kong
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
43. Gopinath Munde was a Member of Parliament
from?

(c) Peking University
(d) Tsinghua University
En
34. Recently, a team of researchers succeeded in

(a) Guna
(c) Aurangabad
(b) Beedh
(d) Nanded

using internet. The team is led by
gin
establishing brain-to-brain communication link
(a) Amitabh Ghosh (b) Rajesh Rao

44. Who is the speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Sumitra Mahajan
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Manjul Bhargava (d) CR Rao
ee
35. Where is the 68th National Aquatic Championship

being held?
(a) New Delhi (b) Chennai

(c) Ravishankar Prasad
(d) Prakash Javdekar
rin
45. Wang Yi, a minister of China visited India
recently. He is the _________?
(c) Kolkata (d) Ahmedabad
36. According to the data released by the Ministry of
Health and Child Welfare, which of the following

g.n
(a) Finance Minister (b) Foreign Minister
(c) Defence Minister (d) Railway Minister

state has highest count of sterilisation deaths in
India?
(a) Kerala
(c) Chhattisgarh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh

of?
(a) HCL
(c) Amazon
et
46. Vishal Sikka has been appointed as the new CEO
(b) Infosys
(d) Microsoft
47. After reconstitution of the cabinet committees,
37. Sitara Devi, was best known for which of the
the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
following dance?
(a) Kathak (b) Kathakali is headed by the:
(c) Bharatnatyam (d) Manipuri (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
38. Who has been appointed as the new Lok Sabha (b) Prime Minister
Secretary General? (c) Home Minister
(a) Sumitra Mahajan (b) Anoop Mishra (d) External Affairs Minister
(c) Rajeev Kher (d) R. K Mathur 48. Global Cloud Xchange (GCX) has planned to
39. What is the rank given to India in Corruption lay a sub-sea India Cloud Xchange (ICX) and to
Perception Index-2014? provide a sub-sea route between Mumbai and:
(a) 82 (b) 85 (a) Europe (b) Africa
(c) 88 (d) 90 (c) Malaysia (d) Singapore

G-4 || National
49. The first Indian to become the Chairperson of 59. Agricultural Biosecurity Bill, 2013 proposes
ICC is? to set up Agricultural Biosecurity Authority of
(a) N. Srinivasan (b) Sunil Gavaskar India at
(c) Kapil Dev (d) Lalit Modi (a) Ludhiana (b) Faridabad
50. Justice V.K Rajah has been appointed as the (c) Allahabad (d) Bhopal
Attorney-General of which country? 60. Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project is planned to
(a) India (b) Singapore built on which river?
(c) USA (d) England (a) Mahakali (b) Gandaki
51. Which of the following states in India has (c) Koshi (d) Ramganga
ww

announced 33% quota for women in Police
force?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
61. A panel has been setup by the HRD ministry to
restructure the apex regulatory body for higher
education i.e., University Grants Commission.

w.E (c) Tamil Nadu
the Governor of?

(d) Kerala
52. Vakkom Purushothaman has been appointed as

Who is the chairman of this panel?
(a) CM Jariwala
(c) Hari Gautam
(b) Kapil kapoor
(d) Syed Vicaruddin

(a) Nagaland
(c) Manipur
asy
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
53. Recently, India has lost 19,467 sq. km of sea area
62. Mahindra & Mahindra is in talks with which

French automobile major, for a strategic alliance?
(a) Peugeot (b) Piaggio
(a) China
En
in an arbitration case in a UN tribunal with:
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Lafarge (d) Renault
63. Who has been appointed as the new Managing
(c) Myanmar
gin
(d) Maldives
54. National Institute of Design which is sought
to be recognized as an institution of national

Director and CEO of the Taj Group?
(a) Khieu Samphan
(b) Raymond N. Brickson

importance is located at?
(a) Ahmedabad
(c) Surat
ee
(b) Vadodara
(d) Jamnagar
55. According to the Telecom Consumers Complaint

(c) Nuon Chea
(d) Rakesh K. Sarna
rin
64. A copper crown with beads of carnelian - a semi
precious gemstone associated with the Harappan
Redressal (Third Amendment)
Regulations 2014, the minimum broadband
speed is?

(a) Baghpat
(c) Meerut g.n
civilisation has recently been found at:
(b) Ropar
(d) Hastinapur

(a) 256 kbps
(c) 1 mbps
(b) 512 kbps
(d) 2 mbps
56. A new species of shield tail snake “Rhinophis
goweri” has been discovered in:

et
65. Who has been recently appointed as head of
National Biodiversity Authority?
(a) V Rajagopalan
(b) Venkatesh Naik
(a) Nilgiri hills (b) Cardamom hills (c) Rama Krishunudua
(c) Annaimalai hills (d) Bodamalai hills (d) Ajit Seth
57. India has signed audio-visual cooperation treaty 66. Which city was chosen as the ad hoc capital of
with which of the following countries? Andhra Pradesh by the state government ?
(a) USA (b) Canada (a) Vijayawada
(c) Russia (d) France (b) Guntur
58. The government of India has announced to set (c) Visakhapatanam
up National Investment and Manufacturing (d) Nellore
Zones (NIMZs) in 16 cities. Which among the 67. Who was elected as the Deputy Speaker of the
following is not one of them? Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014?
(a) Nagpur (b) Kolar (a) M. Thambidurai (b) M. Venkateshwar
(c) Medak (d) Vijayawada (c) V. Rameshwar (d) D. Subramaniam

68. Which one of the following has been appointed (b) Anti-Malaria drug, Anti-depressant, Anti-
as the Governor of Kerala, the former Chief TB drug, Anti-depressant
Justice of India? (c) Anti-diabetes drug, Pain killer
(a) Justice Altamas Kabir (d) Anti-TB drug, Anti-diabetes drug, Pain
(b) Justice P. Sathasivam killer
(c) Justice K.G.Balakrishnan 77. “Tear You Apart” campaign is related to :
(d) Justice S.H. Kapadia (a) Tobacco control campaign
69. Who among the following Indian-origin British (b) Sanitation campaign
MP, has been appointed as the Labour Party’s
ww

maiden shadow minister in UK?
(a) Seema Malhotra (b) Reena Wadhwa
(c) Seema Pathania (d) Veena Malhotra

(c) Health Awareness Campaign
(d) Anti-Globlization Campaign
78. Green Energy Corridor Project (GEC) is related to:

w.E
70. Who has been appointed as the Civil Aviation
Secretary ?
(a) Chandraji Banerjee

(a) facilitate the flow of renewable energy into
the National grid.
(b) establishment of Bio-gass plants in rural
area.

(b) V. Somasundaram
(c) Ajit Seth
asy
(d) S.A. Suryanarayan Verma
(c) establishment of solar-energy plants in rural
area.
En
71. Who among the following is the author of the
Book Titled “Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi: An
(d) developing Industrial corridor based on
renewable energy.

Inside Job”?
(a) Faraz Ahmed
(c) Daman Singh gin
(b) DP Yadav
(d) None of these
79. Which are three food items from the components

of the National Food Security Mission?
(a) Wheat, Pulses, Bajra

of Rajasthan?
(a) Kalyan Singh
ee
72. Who has been recently appointed as the Governor
(b) Kamla Beniwal

(c) Vidya Sagar Rao (d) Mridula sinha

(b) Rice, Wheat, Bajra
(c) Rice, Wheat, Pulses
rin
(d) Rice, Pulses, Jwar
80. In which state Union Government formally
73. India signed loan agreement with ___________

for Mizoram State Roads Project (MSRP II).
(a) Asian Development Bank

(a) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
g.n
launched the ‘Give It Up’ movement ?
(b) Bihar
(d) Karnataka

(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) UNDP
(d) World Bank
74. The Union Government has set a target to

(a) Vikas Swarup et
81. Who becomes India’s first cyber security chief?
(b) Gulshan Rai
(b) Rajni Razdan (d) Shashi Kant Sharma
82. Which among the following states instituted the
achieve literacy rate in the country by 2017 :
National Kavi Pradeep Samman?
(a) 78% (b) 80%
(c) 82% (d) 85% (a) Haryana (b) Jharkhand
75. First gas-based power plant is commissioned in (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
Palatana. Palatana is located in : 83. Which state has become first to fix minimum
(a) Tripura (b) Assam educational qualification for panchayat polls?
(c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
76. The Union Government has banned three major (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
medicines—Pioglitazone, Deanxit, Analgin. 84. As on March 2015, how many Prime Ministers
These medicines widely prescribed as : of India have been awarded the Bharat Ratna?
(a) Anti-cancer drug, Anti-malaria drug, Anti- (a) Five (b) Six
depressant (c) Seven (d) Nine

G-6 || National
85. Recently, the Union government has given (b) National Sample Survey Organisation
approval to set up Seafood Park in which state? (c) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public
(a) Odisha (b) West Bengal Enterprises
(c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu (d) Ministry of Economy
86. Who has been chosen for the 2015 Tyler Prize 94. Who is the head of the task force set up to define
for Environmental Achievement? poverty and prepare a roadmap to alleviate it?
(a) Ullas Karanth (a) Ratan Tata (b) Arvind Panagariya
(b) Madhav Gadgil (c) Rathin Roy (d) Surjit Bhalla
(c) Sunitha Narayanan 95. In which country, has the Indian Prime Minister
ww
(d) Rajendra Singh
87. Yousaf Ali Kechery, who passed away recently,
was a noted poet in ____?
inaugurated the first of the eight Coastal
Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up
by India?

w.E (a) Malayalam
(c) Kannada
(b) Urdu
(d) Telugu
88. Recently, the union government has appointed

(a) Seychelles
(c) Sri Lanka
(b) Mauritius
(d) Maldives
96. What is India’s female labour force participation
rate at present?
(a) Swine Flu asy

Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador for
its campaign against which disease?
(b) Tuberculosis

(a) 45
(c) 50
(b) 33
(d) 55
(c) Hepatitis B
En
(d) Diabetes
89. The proposed plan to construct dams across
97. As per the latest data by health ministry, which
state has registered highest swine flu death in the
country?

contention between ___?
(a) Karnataka and Kerala gin
Cauvery River at Mekedatu is a bone of

(a) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(d) Madhya Pradesh
98. Which state recently launched a scheme ‘Aapki

(b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
ee
90. Who has been chosen as head of the Kaya Kalp,

Beti Humari Beti’ to combat the problem of
declining child sex ratio?
rin
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Odisha
(c) Haryana (d) Rajastha

a new innovative council of Indian Railways?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Narayana Murthy
(c) Anil Kakodkar (d) Azim Premji
Award?
(a) S L Byrappa
g.n
99. Who has been chosen for 2014 Saraswati Samman
(b) Veerappa Moily

91. Which ministry is implementing the Technology

Development for Indian Languages (TDIL)
programme?
(a) Ministry of Communication & Information

et
(c) Mahesh Tripathi (d) Subhash Chandra
100. What is the name of Innovation Council
proposed in the Railway budget-2015 to promote
innovation?
Technology (a) Navachar (b) Rail Tech
(b) Ministry of Culture (c) Kayakalp (d) Sankalp
(c) Ministry of Home 101. Rana Bhagwandas, who passed away recently,
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology. was the first Hindu chief justice of ____?
92. Recently launched “National Judicial Reference (a) Saudi Arabia (b) Indonesia
System (NJRS)” is a computerized repository for (c) Pakistan (d) angladesh
all judgements and pending cases related to __? 102. The NERPAP programme, which is in news, is
(a) Banking Fraud (b) Direct Tax related to _____?
(c) Insurance Claims (d) Pensions (a) Reserve Bank of India
93. Which of the following conducts the Annual (b) Election Commission
Survey of Industries (ASI)? (c) Ministry of Agriculture
(a) Central Statistics Office (d) Panchayati Raj and Rural Development

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 12. (c) 23. (c) 34. (b) 45. (b) 56. (d) 67. (a) 78. (a) 89. (c) 100. (c)
2. (c) 13. (d) 24. (b) 35. (c) 46. (b) 57. (b) 68. (b) 79. (c) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (c) 14. (b) 25. (d) 36. (b) 47. (b) 58. (d) 69. (a) 80. (d) 91. (a) 102. (b)
4. (d) 15. (d) 26. (c) 37. (a) 48. (d) 59. (b) 70. (b) 81. (b) 92. (b)
5. (a) 16. (a) 27. (a) 38. (b) 49. (a) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (c) 93. (a)
ww6.
7.
8.
(b)
(c)
(d)
17.
18.
19.
(b)
(d)
(b)
28.
29.
30.
(b)
(a)
(d)
39.
40.
41.
(b)
(d)
(c)
50.
51.
52.
(b)
(b)
(a)
61.
62.
63.
(c)
(a)
(d)
72.
73.
74.
(a)
(d)
(b)
83.
84.
85.
(c)
(c)
(a)
94.
95.
96.
(b)
(a)
(b)
w.E
9.
10.
(b)
(c)
20.
21.
(a)
(c)
31.
32.
(c)
(a)
42.
43.
(c)
(b)
53.
54.
(b)
(a)
64.
65.
(a)
(a)
75.
76.
(a)
(c)
86.
87.
(b)
(a)
97.
98.
(b)
(c)
11. (c) 22. (c) 33. (c)
aHints
44. (a) 55.
syE& Solutions
(b) 66. (a) 77. (a) 88. (c) 99. (b)
1. ngi
(d) M Sathiyavathy will succeed Prabhat Kumar, 8. (d) Kolkata has become India’s first Wi-Fi-
nee
to become first woman to be appointed as Director
General of the chief aviation for period of three
years till 2017.
enabled metro city. The whole city is expected to
come under Wi-Fi coverage by mid-April in 2015.
2. (c) The device aims to empower small farmers

who own small plots of land by providing them with
9.
10. rin
(b) The book written by Hindol Senguptahas been
shortlisted for the prestigious Hayek Prize-2015.
(c) Himachal Pradesh has launched CCTNS
3.
precise information related to agriculture and help
them purchase inputs at lower prices.
(c) The Punjab Health Department has banned the g.n
project. The project is being funded by the Union
government and is intended to raise the professional
4.
sale of loose cigarettes (as single sticks) and loose
tobacco, becoming the first State to do so.
(d) The theme of 19th National Youth Festival is
Youth for Clean, Green and Progressive India and
11.
efficiency of police.
et
(c) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs held National
Tribal Festival ‘Vanaj’ in New Delhi. The festival
aimed to promote tribal culture and uplift the quality
aims to spread to spread national integration and
harmony. of tribal lives.
5. (a) Harishankar Brahma succeeded V S Sampat to 12. (c) Nitish Kumar was sworn in as the CM of Bihar
become new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) in 2000 (for 7 days), 2005 and 2010 before this. He
of India. had resigned in May 2014 from the CM post.
6. (b) India’s open water swimmer Bhakti Sharma 13. (d) Adya Sharma was pioneer of mobile theatre
has set a new world record by swimming 1.4 miles in Assam. He was also a well known painter and
in 52 minutes in one degree temperature in the
sculpture artist.
Antarctic Ocean.
7. (c) Under this project of Gujarat government, an 14. (b) The government in Union Budget 2015-16
atlas will be compiled to showcase various facilities has proposed to establish University of Disability
as well as government schemes at village level in Studies in Kerala. This will boost research and
each taluka. development in this field.

G-8 || National
15. (d) Centre for film production will be established 28. (b) MANAS will be estableshed with All-India
in Arunachal Pradesh. It will give boost to film Network with headquarter at Delhi.
production in North-eastern region of the country. 29. (a) Rajani Sankaran has been appointed as the first
16. (a) Shipping Samvad aims to increase public woman chief of Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam
participation in decision making of the government. Ltd (BHAVINI).
It will invite ideas and suggestions from the people. 30. (d) Harinder Pal Sandhu defeated top seeded
The best ideas will be implemented to improve the Egyptian Karim Ali Fathi in the fourth and
shipping industry. concluding leg of the JSW-PSA Challenger squash
17. (b) Kinnerasani Sanctuary is located at Khammam circuit.
ww district, Telangana. Wildlife will be restored under

the project.
18. (d) In a case of violation of patent law, Delhi
31. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh has been honoured with
the award for his contribution in boosting Indo-
Japanese ties.
w.E High Court has restrained Glenmark, an Indian

pharmaceutical company from manufacturing and
selling its anti-diabetes drugs Zita and Zita-Met.
32. (a) Ministry of Culture and the Rupayan Sansthan
has signed an MoU to set up a National Cultural
Audio-Visual Archives in Jodhpur with the aim to
asy
19. (b) AIIMS has partnered with Alfred Hospital
under Science and Technology Strategic Research
Partnership Programme between Australia and
preserve cultural heritage of the country.
33. (c) Peking University, one of the oldest Chinese
universities conferred the title of Honorary Professor
India.
En
20. (a) Justice Fathima Beevi was the first retired
to Dr.Kalam.
34. (b) A team of researchers led by Prof. Rajesh Rao
gin
judge of the supreme court to be appointed as the
Governor of a state in India whereas Justice P.
Sathasivam became the first retired CJI to hold the
at University of Washington established brain-to-
brain communication link using internet.
36. (b) Tamil Nadu, which has one of best health
position of the Governor.
ee
21. (c) Sivaramakrishnan Committee has submitted
its report for a suitable location for capital of Andhra
Pradesh. It has recommended to develop a string of
systems in India has witnessed highest number of
rin
sterilisation deaths in the recent years.
37. (a) Sitara Devi, who was the recipient of Sangeet
Natak Academi Award, Padma shree and Kalidas
cities as business and industrial cities.
22. (c) Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary is planned to
be made the second home for Asiatic lions. 2014. g.n
Samman, died at the age of 94 on November 25,
23. (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development

will lead the Swachh Vidyalaya campaign which
will be funded via the Swachh Bharat Kosh.
24. (b) US Senate on 19 September 2014 passed a
General of the Lok Sabha. et
38. (b) Anoop Mishra, former Chief Secretary of Uttar
Pradesh, has been appointed as the new Secretary
39. (b) India’s rank has improved from 94 to 85 this

bipartisan resolution declaring 30 September 2014 year, ahead of all the South Asian countries, except
as US-India Partnership Day Bhutan.
25. (d) Alok Shetty, who is working with a Non-Profit 40. (d) Anil Sinha has been appointed as the new CBI
Organisation has designed homes for hundreds of chief by the appointments committee of the cabinet.
slum dwellers 41. (c) Hyderabad will host prestigious World
26. (c) Justice GS Singhvi has been appointed as the Information Technology Congress (WITC) in 2018.
Chairman of Competition Appellate Tribunal in 42. (c) Madhuri Dixit as brand ambassador of the
which appeals against a decision of Competition campaign by Madhya Pradesh government will
Commision of India could be made. start it with an event organised in collaboration with
27. (a) Sutlej-Yamuna link will help to provide UNICEF.
irrigation in arid region of Haryana by diverting 43. (b) Gopinath Munde was a BJP MP in the Lok
surplus water of Ravi and Beas. Sabha from Beedh constituency.

44. (a) Sumitra Mahajan has been elected as the headed by a Director General to be appointed by the
speaker of the new Lok Sabha central government.
45. (b) Wang Yi came to India for a two days visit 60. (a) India and Nepal are jointly planning to build
and met President Pranab Mukherji, Prime Minister Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project on the River
Narendra Modi and Foreign Affairs Minister Mahakali.
Sushma Swaraj. 61. (c) The four member panel will be headed by
46. (b) Vishal Sikka has replaced N.R Narayana former UGC Chairman, Mr. Hari Gautam.
Murthy as the CEO of Infosys. 62. (a) According to top automobile industry
47. (b) After the reconstitution, the Prime Minister sources in India and France, a senior level team
ww has become the head of CCS, CCEA, ACC and the

Committee on Political Affairs.
48. (d) The direct sub-sea ICX will help to connect 63.
from Mahindra has already visited the Peugeot
headquarters.
(d) Hospitality industry veteran Mr. Rakesh N.
w.E emerging markets corridor of Mumbai and

Singapore.
49. (a) N. Srinivasan has been appointed as the first 64.
Sarna will head the Taj Group as its MD and CEO
after the resignation of Raymond N. Brickson.
(a) The accidental discovery of a skeleton wearing
Chairman of ICC.
asy
50. (b) Justice V.K Rajah, an Indian-origin judge
has been appointed as the Attorney-General of 65.
what appears to be a copper crown has created a
buzz in Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh.
(a) Environment secretary V Rajagopalan has been
Singapore.
En
51. (b) Anandiben Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat
appointed as the head of the national Biodiversity
authority by Union Minister Prakash Javedkar.
the police force.

gin
has announced 33 percent reservation for women in
52. (a) Vakkom Purushothaman has become the

66. (a) Vijayawada would be used as ad hoc capital
of the state until the needed infrastructure and other
projects for the new capital are completed.
of the office of Governor of Tripura.

ee
Governor of Nagaland along with additional charge
53. (b) UN tribunal has awarded 19,467 sq. km

of 25,602 sq. km sea area to Bangladesh in Bay
67. (a) M. Thambidurai represents AIADMK in the
Lok Sabha. He was elected unanimously as almost
rin
all parties moved motions for his election, including
the Congress.
of Bengal in a dispute case in which India was
involved.
54. (a) National Institute of Design Bill has been
68.
g.n
(b) Justice P.Sathasivam has been appointed as the
Governor of Kerala, after the resignation of Mrs.
Sheila Dixit, who was the former Chief Minister of
passed by the parliament which would recognize the
institute as an institution of national importance.
55. (b) TRAI notified that according to The
Telecom Consumers Complaint Redressal (Third
69.
Delhi.
et
(a) Seema Malhotra, has been appointed as the
Labour Party’s maiden shadow minister dealing
with violence against women and girls.
Amendment) Regulations 2014, the minimum 70. (b) V. Somasundaram has been appointed as the
broadband speed has been raised to 512 kbps from new Civil Aviation Secretary. He will take over from
256 kbps Ashok Lavasa who has been appointed secretary in
56. (d) Rhinophis goweri has been discovered in the ministry of Environment.
Bodamalai hills of Tamil Nadu. 71. (a) Faraz Ahmad is a print journalist and has a vast
57. (b) India has signed audio-visual cooperation working experience of covering crime and politics.
treaty with Canada with an aim to create jobs in The book reveals that Rajiv Gandhi’s assassination
both the countries and to boost tourism. by the LTTE on 21 May 1991 was a myth which has
58. (d) NIMZ has not been proposed to be set up in been perpetuated for twenty-three years. The myth
Vijayawada. was perpetuated because Congress Party feared that
59. (b) Agricultural Biosecurity Authority of India is Rajiv Gandhi might not triumph in the 1991 general
proposed to be established at Faridabad. It will be elections which were underway.

G-10 || National
72. (a) Kalyan Singh has been appointed as the 84. (c) So far seven Prime Ministers of India have
Governor of Rajasthan. He was the Chief Minister been awarded the Bharat Ratna. Atal Bihari
of Uttar Pradesh in 1990s. Vajapayee is the seventh Prime Minister to receive
73. (d) India signed this agreement with World Bank, the award, after Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi,
according to which soft loan window of World Rajiv Gandhi, Morarji Desai, Lal Bahadur Shastri
Bank, International Development Agency (IDA) and Gulzarilal Nanda.
will provide assistance of 107 million US dollars 85. (a) Union government has given approval to set
for the Project. up Seafood Park in Odisha. It will be set up by state-
ww
74. (b) The Union Government of India announced
that it has set a target to achieve 80% literacy rate in
the country by 2017. The literacy rate of the country
run Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development
Corporation at Deras in Khurda district on 100 acres
of land.
w.E at present is 74%.

75. (a) First gas - based power plant is commissioned
at Palatana in Tripura. The Palatana gas - based
86. (b) Madhav Gadgil, well known ecologist has
been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for
Environmental Achievement.
asy
power plant is developed by OMGC and is the
first such power company in India to be awarded
with the clean development mechanism by UNFC
87. (a) Yousaf Ali Kechery was a famous Malayalam
poet and film personality. A poet of the modern era,
he had won several awards for his poetry which
change.
En
(United Nations Framework Convention) on climate include the Odakkuzhal, Kerala Sahitya Academy
and Vallathol awards
gin
76. (c) Government has banned three major medicines
– the widely prescribed anti-diabetes drug
pioglitazone, painkiller analgin and Anti-depressant
88. (c) Union government has appointed Amitabh
Bachchan as brand ambassador for its campaign
against hepatitis B.
deanxit.
ee
77. (a) Ministry of Health & Family welfare launched
the nation wide National Tobacco Control campaign
known as–Tears you apart.
89. (c) Karnataka state has proposed a plan to
construct two dams on Cauvery River at Mekedatu
rin
but Tamil Nadu has been opposing the plan saying
it would severely affect the livelihoods of farmers
78. (a) Union government has planned to roll out a
43000 crore rupees Green Energy Corridor Project g.n
in 12 districts, who entirely depend on the Cauvery
river water for farm activities.
to facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the
national grid.
79. (c) Rice, wheat, pulses are three food items from
the National Food Security Mission.
et
90. (a) Apart from Ratan Tata, the Kaya Kalp council
will also have two railway union leaders Shiv Gopal
Mishra and M Raghuvaiah.
91. (a) The objective of TDIL is developing
80. (d) The movement appeals to the rich people to Information Processing Tools and Techniques
voluntarily give up their subsidy amount given on to facilitate human-machine interaction without
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) cylinders. language barrier.
81. (b) Prime Minister Narendra Modi in March 2015 92. (b) The NJRS project is being undertaken by the
had created this new post in PMO and had appointed Directorate General of Income Tax, Income Tax
Rai as its head. Department.
82. (c) Gopaldas Neeraji, a well noted Hindi poet, was 93. (a) ASI is the principal source of industrial
awarded the first National Kavi Pradeep Samman. statistics in India.
83. (c) Rajasthan state legislative assembly passed 94. (b) Union government has set up a task force,
the Panchayati Raj Amendment Bill 2015 fixing headed by NITI Aayog Vice-Chairman Arvind
minimum educational qualifications for contesting Panagariya, to define poverty and prepare a roadmap
Panchayat polls in the state. to alleviate it.

95. (a) During PM’s visit to Seychelles the two girl child born on or after January 22, 2015 of all
nations signed four agreements for cooperation families.
in hydrography, renewable energy, infrastructure 99. (b) M. Veerappa Moily has been selected for the
development and hydro-graphic survey. prestigious Saraswati Samman 2014 for his famous
96. (b) It means only 125 million of the 380 million Kannada poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam.
working-age Indian women are currently part of the 100. (c) Purpose of the Council- To recommend
labour force. innovative methods and processes for the
improvement, betterment and transformation of the
97. (b) The death toll was highest in Gujarat where
ww 382 people have perished to the disease.

98. (c) ‘Aapki Beti Humari Beti’ will be implemented
in both rural and urban areas of the state covering
Indian Railways
101. (c) Rana Bhagwandas was the first Hindu and
second non-Muslim head of the Supreme Court of
w.Efirst-born girl child of Scheduled Caste (SC) and

Below Poverty Line (BPL) families and all second
Pakistan.
102. (b) NERPAP is nothing but National Electoral
Roll Purification and Authentication Programme.
asy
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

G-12 || International
2 International
ww
1. Robert Mugabe, who has been appointed as the 8. Recent outbreak of Ebola virus in Africa started

w.E
chairman of African Union is the President of
which country?
(a) Zimbabwe (b) Nigeria

in
(a) Nigeria
(c) Somalia
(b) Guinea
(d) Sudan
(c) Zaire
asy
(d) Kenya
2. Where was First World Ocean Science Congress
9.

Yazidi tribes lives in which of the following
countries?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Uzbekistan

held recently?
En
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Kochi
(c) Cuttack (d) Kolkata

10.
(c) Azerbaijan (d) Iraq
Which of the following has been selected to be
gin
3. Which among the following companies has
joined hand with World Wide Fund (WWF) to
the SAARC cultural capital for the year 2016-17?
(a) Bamiyan (b) Dhaka

(a) Cholamandalam Finance
(b) Muthoot Finance
(c) Birla Global Finance
ee
launch the “Friends for Life” project recently?
11.

12.
(c) Ajanta
(a) Steel
(c) Telecom
(d) Lahore
“5/20 rule” is associated with which industry?
rin (b) Aviation

(d) Coal
“Pivot to Asia” doctrine is associated with
(d) L & T Finance
4. The World Wildlife Day is observed on
(a) 1st March (b) 3rd March

(a) China
(c) Russia g.n(b) USA
(d) European Union
(c) 5th March (d) 7th March
5. Which of the following is not involved in the
protocol for ceasefire agreement between Ukraine
13.

et
Which of the following day is observed as
International Day of Older Persons?
(a) 25th September (b) 1st October
(c) 5th October (d) 8th October
government and the rebels signed recently? 14. Burkina Faso, which was recently in a news, is a
(a) Russia country located in which of the following region?
(b) the Organisation for Security and Cooperation (a) Oceania (b) Europe
in Europe (c) South America (d) Africa
(c) Ukrainian rebels 15. Uva, a place which was recently hit by a landslide,
(d) NATO is located in
6. NATO Summit-2014 was held at (a) Srilanka (b) Myanmar
(a) Geneva (b) London (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh
(c) Lisbon (d) Wales 16. Which of the following date has been declared as
7. Catalonia is located in Yoga Day by the United Nations?
(a) Spain (b) Scotland (a) 21st June (b) 23rd June
(c) Ukraine (d) Turkey (c) 21st July (d) 23rd July

17. Anerood Jugnauth has become the new Prime 28. Who has been elected as the new Premier of
Minister of Finland?
(a) Suriname (b) Singapore (a) Alexander Stubb (b) Paula Risikko
(c) Mauritius (d) Fiji (c) Jyrki Katainen (d) Reuven Rivlin
18. Rolene Strauss, who has been crowned as Miss 29. Albie Sachs Won Tang Prize for his anti-apartheid
World 2014, is from struggle. Tang Prize has origin in which country?
(a) South Africa (b) Brazil (a) China (b) South Korea
(c) Argentina (d) Australia (c) Taiwan (d) Japan
19. Gulen Movement is mainly associated with
ww

which of the following countries?
(a) Tunisia
(c) Iraq
(b) Syria
(d) Turkey
30. Who has been named as the next President of the

European Commission?
(a) Roberto Azevedo

w.E
20. Who is Petro Porshenko?
(a) President of Ukraine
(b) President of Italy

(b) Jean-Claude Junker
(c) Jose Manuel Barroso
(d) Herman Van Rompuy

(c) Chairman of IMF
asy
(d) Chairman of European Union
21. Which of the following countries is not the part
31. The first United Nations Environment Assembly
held recently at?
(a) Geneva (b) Budapest
of G-7?
(a) France En
(b) Russia
(c) Durban (d) Nairobi
32. Which among the following states of USA has
(c) Germany
gin
(d) England
22. King Juan Carlos I who abdicated to hand over
been hit by hurricane Arthur?
(a) Georgia

(b) Texas
(c) North Carolina (d) South Carolina

(a) Luxemburg
(c) Monaco
(b) Spain
ee
the crown to his son was the king of?
(d) Austria
23. Reuven Rivlin has been elected as the President
of?
33. Which of the following countries has launched
military operation codenamed ‘Zarb-e-Azb’?
(a) Afghanistan
(c) Iraq rin (b) Pakistan
(d) Syria
(a) Ukraine
(c) Israel
(b) Palestine
(d) Syria (a) Australia
g.n
34. Mt. Sinha peak is located in?
(b) USA
24. Thwaites Glacier is located in

(a) West Arctic
(c) West Antarctic
(b) East Arctic
(d) East Antarctic
25. China is assisting for the construction of
(c) Antarctica
et
(d) Canada
35. Which among the following country has
announced the plan to install a statue of Mahatma
Gandhi in the Parliament Square?
Pataukhali power plant. It is located in which (a) USA (b) United Kingdom
country? (c) South Africa (d) Russia
(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh 36. Which among the following actress has been
(c) Myanmar (d) Sri Lanka appointed as the Goodwill Ambassador of UN
26. Abdel Fattah el Sisi is sworn as president of? Women?
(a) Egypt (b) Oman (a) Emma Watson (b) Keira Knightley
(c) Tunisia (d) Libya (c) Emily Blunt (d) Kate Winslet
27. ISIS, a jehadist group has captured many 37. Which among the following countries has
territories and a civil war like situation is recently legalised child labour for children above
emerging in? the age of 10 years?
(a) Iran (b) Iraq (a) Bolivia (b) Peru
(c) Egypt (d) Tunisia (c) Ecuador (d) Venezuela

38. Sendai nuclear plant is located in which country? (a) Ekmeleddin Ihsanoglu
(a) China (b) South Korea (b) Selahattin Demirtas
(c) Iran (d) Japan (c) Recep Tayyip Erdogan
39. Green Climate Fund, working within the (d) None of these
framework of the UNFCCC, is based in 48. Which country was chosen to chair Partnership in
(a) Sweden (b) South Korea Population and Development (PPD) for the year
(c) Denmark (d) Japan 2015?
40. Which among the following nations ranked (a) India (b) China
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Ghana
ww

highest in Social Progress Indicator (SPI)-
2014?
(a) New Zealand (b) Denmark
49. Who is the winner of Abel Prize 2015?

(a) John Nash
(c) John Milnor
(b) Kirsti Storm Bull
(d) Kristian Ranestad
w.E
(c) Norway (d) Australia
41. Which of the following countries is set to become
the 19th member of the Eurozone?
50. Which country has been constructing the
controversial Grand Renaissance Dam project on
Nile River?
(a) Estonia
(c) Lithuania
asy
(b) Latvia
(d) Kosovo
42. Joko Widodo recently won the presidential

(a) Ethiopia
(c) Sudan
(b) Egypt
(d) Cairo
51. Which city/country has been ranked top in the
(a) philippines En
election in which of the following countries?
(b) Cambodia
2015 The Energy Productivity and Economic
Prosperity Index?
(c) Indonesia
43. Who is Faud Masum? gin
(d) Vietnam

(a) Hong Kong
(c) UK
(b) Singapore
(d) Norway

(a) Prime Minister of Iraq
(b) President of Iraq
(c) President of Egypt
(d) Prime Minister of Egypt
ee 52. Recently, the World Wide Fund for Nature

(WWF) has kicked off River for Life campaign
to protect ___
(a) Crocodile
(b) Coral Reef rin
44. Identify the foreign office minister of the David
Cameron government in UK, who resigned in
protest against the Israeli Air Strikes in Gaza?

g.n
(c) Gangetic River Dolphins
(d) Olive Ridley Turtles

(a) Heather Smith. (b) Baroness Warsi
(c) Dorothee Warsi (d) Shoukeen Khan
45. Which of the following community in Iraq is
warned by ISIS to convert to Islam or be ready to
(a) USA
(c) Brazil
et
53. Which country leads in the production of
hydroelectric power in the world?
(b) China
(d) Canada
54. The United Nations general assembly has
face the consequences?
declared the year 2015 as ____?
(a) Zoroastrians. (b) Christians. (a) International Year of Seas
(c) Yazidis (d) Jews (b) International Year of Soils
46. Identify the name Indian American who invented (c) International Year of Vegetables
E-mail 32 years back? (d) International Year of Food
(a) A.V. Ramaswami 55. Which of the following was the venue of 3rd UN
(b) V.V. Annadurai World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction?
(c) V.A.Shiva Ayyadurai (a) New Delhi, India
(d) R.V. Ramalingam (b) Shanghai, China
47. Which one of the following has been recently (c) Sendai, Japan
appointed as the 12th President of Turkey? (d) Jaffna, Sri Lanka

56. Who among the following has won the 2015 65. Recently, which country became the first member
Australia Grand Prix-Formula One World country to the UN Framework Convention
Championship? on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its
(a) Nico Rosberg action plan on Intended Nationally Determined
(b) Lewis Hamilton
Contribution (INDC)?
(c) Sebastian Vettel
(a) India (b) Switzerland
(d) Felipe Massa
57. According to latest report, which country is (c) Australia (d) Singapore
66. Hifikepunye Pohamba, who won the prestigious
ww

world’s top defence importer in 2014?
(a) China
(c) Pakistan
(b) Saudi Arabia
(d) South Korea
Mo Ibrahim Prize for Achievement in African
Leadership-2014, is the president of which
w.E
58. As per the UN women report which country has
the highest percentage of women parliamentarians
in the world?

country?
(a) Mozambique
(c) Cabo Verde
(b) Botswana
(d) Namibia

(a) Nepal
(c) Rwanda
asy
(b) Mongolia
(d) UK
59. The Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) is
67. The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015

is scheduled to be held is in which country?
(a) China (b) Russia

related to ____
(a) Disaster reduction
En (c) South Africa (d) Brazil
68. Which South East Asian country has recently

(b) Biodiversity protection
(c) Population control
(d) Ozone protection gin banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing
rent-a-womb industry?
60. Which space agency has launched the
(a) ISRO
(c) SpaceX
(b) NASA
(d) ESA
ee
Magnetospheric Multiscale Spacecraft (MMS)?
(a) Singapore
(c) Thailand
rin
(b) Laos
(d) Vietnam
69. The Dwekh Nawsha is a Christian militia brigade
formed to fight against the Islamic State (IS) in
61. Evan Spiegel, who is the youngest billionaire in
the world is co-founder of_____ ?

which country?
(a) France g.n (b) Iraq
(a) Snapchat
(c) Watsapp
(b) Apple
(d) Yahoo
62. The “One Belt, One Road initiative” has been
proposed by China for __?
(c) Japan
et
(d) Australia
70. The “Minsk Peace Summit” seeks to end conflict
and establish peace in which country?
(a) Defence Cooperation (a) Yemen (b) Syria
(b) International Travel & Tourism (c) Ukraine (d) Iraq
(c) Investment and Trade Promotion 71. The first country to introduce laws to allow the
(d) None of them creation of so called three-parent babies is___
63. Which country has recently developed the
(a) USA (b) Georgia
world’s first 3D-printed jet engine?
(c) Britain (d) South Africa
(a) Japan (b) China
(c) Australia (d) Germany 72. The Operation Inherent Resolve is the military
64. Recently, which country has started military operation against ISIL (Islamic State of Iraq and
operations against Houthi rebels in Yemen. the Levant) conducting by which country?
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Jordan (a) France (b) USA
(c) Syria (d) U.S.A (c) Japan (d) Russia

73. Who among the following have won the women’s 76. Which among the following airports has become
and men’s single titles, respectively at Australia the world’s busiest airport for international
Open-2015? traffic?
(a) Maria Sharapova and Andy Murray (a) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(b) Serena Williams and Novak Djokovic (b) Dubai International Airport
(c) Maria Sharapova and Novak Djokovic (c) London’s Heathrow Airport
(d) Serena Williams and Andy Murray (d) Las Vegas Airport
74. Carl Djerassi, who passed away recently, was the 77. The Operation Ice Bridge, is the largest airborne
ww

chemist widely known as father of ____?
(a) Liposuction
(b) Birth control pill
survey of Earth’s polar ice ever flown was
launched by _______.
(a) ISRO (b) NASA

w.E (c) Plastic surgery
(d) Blood transplant
75. Who among the following has been appointed as
(c) ESA (d) RSA
78. Who won the world’s first Global Teacher Prize
which is widely known as Nobel Prize for

asy
new chairman of the African Union?
(a) Omar al-Bashir (b) Morgan Tsvangirai
(c) Robert Mugabe (d) Olusegun Obasanjo

teaching?
(a) Kiran Bir Sethi (b) Nancie Atwell
(c) Guy Etienne (d) Jacque Kahura
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 10. (b) 19. (d) 28. (a) 37. (a) 46. (c) 55. (c) 64. (a) 73. (b)
2. (b) 11. (b) 20. (a) 29. (c) 38. (d) 47. (c) 56. (b) 65. (b) 74. (b)
3. (b) 12. (b) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (b) 48. (b) 57. (b) 66. (d) 75. (c)
4. (b) 13. (b) 22. (b) 31. (d) 40. (a) 49. (a) 58. (c) 67. (b) 76. (b)
5. (d) 14. (d) 23. (c) 32. (c) 41. (c) 50. (a) 59. (a) 68. (c) 77. (b)
ww 6.
7.
8.
(d)
(a)
(b)
15.
16.
17.
(a)
(a)
(c)
24.
25.
26.
(c)
(b)
(a)
33.
34.
35.
(b)
(c)
(b)
42.
43.
44.
(c)
(b)
(b)
51.
52.
53.
(a)
(c)
(b)
60.
61.
62.
(b)
(a)
(c)
69.
70.
71.
(b)
(c)
(c)
78. (b)
w.E
9. (d) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (c) 54. (b) 63. (c) 72. (b)
1.
aHints
sy E & Solutions
(a) Robert Mugabe is the President of Zimbabwe 11. (b) According to 5/20 rule, a carrier must be 5
since 1987.
ngi
2. (b) First World Ocean Science Congress-2015
was held at Kochi with the theme-Protect Oceans
years old and have at least 20 aircraft in its fleet
before being permitted to fly abroad.
12. (b) “Pivot to Asia” doctrine of the USA aims to
for Posterity and Blue Economy.
nee
3. (b) Friends for Life Project will work to protect
the habitats of elephants. It also aims to manage and
counter the rising power of China in Asia.
13. (b) 1st October is observed as International Day
of Older Persons in accordance with a UN General
reduce the human-elephant conflict.
4. (b) 3rd March is observed as World Wildlife Day
Assembly resolution.
rin
14. (d) Burkina Faso is located in West Africa. People
as Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was
adopted on this day in 1973. The theme for this year g.n
stormed parliament in protest of Burkina Faso’s
effort to extend his presidential reign after 27 years
rule.
is “Wildlife crime is serious, let’s get serious about
wildlife crime”.
5. (d) The protocal is signed by the Ukrainian
representatives, rebels, Russia and the Organisation
et
15. (a) Uva, a province in Srilanka, was hit by a
landslide recently in which dozen of people were
killed.
16. (a) The UN General Assembly has adopted
for Security and Cooperation in Europe. a resolution of India declaring 21st June as the
6. (d) NATO Summit-2014 concluded with ‘International Day of Yoga.
Wales declaration which focused on some major 17. (c) Anerood Jugnauth has been named as the
international issues. new Prime Minister of Mauritius after he won a
7. (a) Catalans are demanding sovereignty for landslide.
Catalonia 18. (a) Rolene Strauss has been crowned as Miss
8. (b) The Ebola virus stuck first in Guinea ann then World 2014 in London.
it spread to many parts of the Western Africa. 19. (d) The Gülen movement is a religious and social
9. (d) Yazidi is a tribe of Iraq who are being targeted movement led by Turkish Islamic scholar and
by the ISIS (a terrorist organization) in Iraq preacher Fethullah Gülen.
10. (b) Bamiyan has been selected to be the SAARC 20. (a) Petro Porshenko, a business tycoon backed by
cultural capital for the year 2015-16 and Dhaka for Western powers has been elected as the President of
the year 2016-17. Ukraine.

21. (b) Russia has been expelled from G-8 after India in Major Economies Forum (MEF), urged rich
Ukraine crisis and the group has become G-7. countries to make the initiative successful by their
22. (b) Juan Carlos abdicated as king after his name help.
appeared in a scam. 40. (a) New Zealand got first rank in the Social
23. (c) Reuven Rivlin is a member of Likud party and Progress Indicator (SPI)-2014 followed by
former speaker of parliament. He defeated Meir Switzerland and Iceland.
Sheetrit in the run-off. 41. (c) Lithuania will become the 19th member of
24. (c) Thwaites Glacier in West Antarctic is rapidly Eurozone in January next year. Estonia and Latvia
melting due to rise in atmospheric temperature and are already the members of Eurozone.
ww geothermal heat.
25. (b) China has signed deal with Bangladesh to
assist in the construction of Pataukhali power plant.
42. (c) Joko Widodo defeated Prabowo Subianto to
win the presidential election in Indonesia.
43. (b) Faud Masum, a Kurdish, became the new
President of Iraq.
w.E
27. (b) The Sunni Jihadists have captured many parts
in Southern Iraq.
28. (a) Former Foreign Minister, Alexander Stubb
defeated Paula Risikko in second round of polling
44. (b) In the first political fallout of the Gaza conflict
for the David Cameron government, foreign office
minister Baroness Warsi resigned.
asy
and became the new Prime Minister of Finland.
29. (c) Tang Prize Foundation gave $1.7 million to
Albie Sachs for his anti-apartheid crusade in South
45. (c) Members of Yazidis (a minority community)
believe in reincarnation. ISIS regards them as devil
worshippers and warned them to convert to Islam.
Africa.
En
30. (b) Former Luxembourg Premier has been named
46. (c) E-mail was invented by an Indian American,
V.A. Shiva Ayyadurai when he was just 14 years
old, in 1978.
with 26-2 votes.
gin
as the next President of the European Commission
31. (d) The first United Nations Environment

47. (c) Recep Tayyip Erdogan was sworn in on 28
August 2014 as 12th President of Turkey. He won
ee
Assembly held at the headquarter of UNEP at
Nairobi.
32. (c) Hurricane Arthur hit the coast of North
Carolina on 4th July. It is the first hurricane of the
the elections with 51.79 percent of vote.
48. (b) Partnership in Population and Development
rin
(PPD) is an inter-governmental body promoting
South-to-South collaboration in the fields of
reproductive health, population and development.
season.
33. (b) Pakistan has launched military operation
codenamed Zarb-e-Azb in Waziristan. g.n
49. (a) American mathematicians John F. Nash, Jr and
Louis Nirenberg are chosen for the Abel Prize for
2015.
34. (c) The United States has named a mountain in
Antarctica after Indian-American scientist Akhouri
Sinha.
35. (b) A statue of Mahatma Gandhi is planned to be
installed in the Parliament Square in London.
et
50. (a) The Grand Renaissance Dam is a gravity dam
on the Blue Nile River in Ethiopia currently under
construction. At 6,000 MW, the dam will be the
largest hydroelectric power plant in Africa.
51. (a) The Energy Productivity and Economic
36. (a) Emma Watson, a British actress has been Prosperity Index report ranks countries based on
named as UN Women Goodwill Ambassador. their economic output per unit of energy consumed.
37. (a) According to the legislation, a child above 52. (c) World Wide Fund for Nature flagged off
the age of 10 years can work under the parents a campaign called River for Life to protect the
supervision and above 12 years can work under endangered Gangetic River Dolphins.
contract. 53. (b) China is the world’s largest producer of the
38. (d) Japan’s Nuclear Regulation Authority has hydroelectric power.
given nod to restart the Sendai nuclear plant which 54. (b) The International Year of Soils, 2015 (IYS
was temporarily closed after Fukushima disaster. 2015) was declared by the Sixty-eighth session of
39. (b) Green Climate Fund is a mechanism to transfer the United Nations General Assembly on December
money from the developed nations to the developing 20, 2013 after recognizing December 5 as World
countries, so that they can tackle climate changes. Soil Day.

55. (c) The third world conference on disaster risk 67. (b) The BRICS summit-2015 will be held in the
reduction was held from 14 to 18 March in Sendai Russian city of Ufa in Bashkortostanth.
city, Japan. In, 1994 first world conference on 68. (c) The law will end a rent-a-womb industry that
disaster risk reduction was held in Yokohama. made the Thailand a top destination for fertility
56. (b) Nico Rosberg and Sebastian Vettel came tourism.
second and third, respectively. 69. (b) Nawsha’s objective is to defend Christians
57. (b) Saudi Arabia emerged as world’s top defence and reclaim areas in Ninawa controlled by the IS.
importer of defence equipment worldwide in 2014 Dwekh Nawsha (The Sacrificers) is also known as
al-Fedayoon.
by replacing India.
ww
58. (c) Women have won 63.8 per cent of seats in the
lower house.
59. (a) The framework was approved in 2005, at the
70. (c) Leaders from Germany, France, Russia
and Ukraine gathered at Minsk and reached an
agreement to end ongoing conflict in Ukraine.
w.EWorld Conference for disaster reduction in Kobe,

Japan.
60. (b) On March 13, 2015, NASA has launched the
71. (c) Britain became the first country in the world to
allow the creation of so-called “three-parent” babies
as MPs voted overwhelmingly in favour of the
controversial technique of mitochondrial donation.
asy
Magnetospheric Multiscale Spacecraft (MMS),
which the first ever spacecraft to study the magnetic
reconnection.
72. (b) Operation Inherent Resolve is the United
States military operations in Iraq and Syria against
the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant.
En
62. (c) The scheme aims to deepen economic
connections between China and rest of the world.
73. (b) Serena Williams and Novak Djokovic has
have won the women’s and men’s single titles,
gin
63. (c) Australian researchers have created world’s
first 3D jet engines using 3D printing. The
technology is believed lead to cheaper, lighter and
respectively at Australia Open-2015.
74. (b) Carl Djerassi was widely considered the father
of the birth control pill.
more fuel-efficient jets.
ee
64. (a) Saudi Arabia along with Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC) and several other countries have
started military operations against Houthi rebels in
75. (c) Zimbabwe president Robert Mugabe has
been appointed as new chairman of the 54-nations
African Union.
rin
76. (b) Dubai International Airport has overtaken
Yemen.
65. (b) Switzerland committed to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions by 50% relative to 1990 levels by
g.n
London’s Heathrow airport as the world’s busiest
airport for international traffic.
77. (b) It will yield an unprecedented three-
2030.
66. (d) Pohamba was chosen for the prestigious award
for his contribution to boosting governance, media
freedom and human rights in the southern African
ice shelves and sea ice.
et
dimensional view of Arctic and Antarctic ice sheets,
78. (b) Nancie Atwell, a teacher at the Centre for

Teaching and Learning in Edgecomb, Maine, US,
has been named as the first winner of the one million
country. dollar global teacher prize.

G-20 || Economic
3 Economic
ww
1. Government of India has signed a loan 6. The World Bank has released report “Scaling
w.Eagreement for Karnataka Integrated Urban Water

Management Investment Program (KIUWMIP)
with which of the following institutions?
the Heights: Social inclusion and sustainable
development” for which of the following states?
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh

(a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank asy (c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
7. Which among the following states has been
awarded the 10th national award for excellent
(c) New Development Bank
(d) UNDP
En
2. Who among the following has been appointed
work in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
gin
as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of NITI
Aayog?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat
8. Recently, India has signed loan agreement of $50

(a) Arvind Panagariya
(b) Sindhushree Khullar
(c) Anil Sinha
(d) S C Sinha
ee
million with Asian Development Bank (ADB) to
boost power generation capacity in which of the
following states?
rin
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Tripura
3. Which among the following companies has
agreed to pay USD 70 million in fines to the
(c) Assam
g.n
(d) Sikkim
9. Takahiro Hachigo has been appointed as
President and Chief Executive Officer of which

US authorities for failing to report safety issues
involving its cars?
(a) Mitsubishi
(c) Chevrolet
(b) Toyota
(d) Honda
(a) Honda
(c) Toyota
et
of the following motor company?
(b) Suzuki
(d) Mitsubishi
10. Which bank has recently signed a Memorandum
4. Which bank has launched country’s first of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Army on
contactless debit and credit cards? the Defence Salary Package?
(a) ICICI Bank (a) State Bank of India
(b) HDFC Bank (b) Punjab National Bank
(c) State Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Punjab National Bank (d) Allahabad Bank
11. Union Government and the Reserve Bank of
5. Which among the below states has been awarded
India (RBI) have signed an agreement to lower
with National e-Governance award 2014-15 for
down inflation rate. What is the target of inflation
its best district level initiative in the country? rate by January 2016?
(a) Gujarat (b) Jammu & Kashmir (a) 4% (b) 5%
(c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh (c) 6% (d) 7%

12. After the revision by the Reserve Bank of India in 21. Who among the following has been appointed as
March 2015, the new repo rate is Chief Economic Adviser of India?
(a) 7% (b) 7.25% (a) H R Khan
(c) 7.5% (d) 7.75% (b) Urjit Patel
13. Sunil Sabharwal is associated which of the (c) Arvind Subramanian
following international organizations? (d) SS Mundra
(a) World Trade Organization (WTO) 22. Which of the following bank has launched
(b) World Bank e-mandate service?
(c) World Health Organization (WHO)
ww
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
14. Who has been appointed as the Managing
Director of Renault Nissan Automotive India?

(a) ICICI Bank
(c) Vijaya Bank
(b) Corporation Bank
(d) Bank of India
23. Who among the following has been rated as No.1

w.E(a) Toshihiko Sano (b) Colin Macdonald
(c) Carlos Ghosn (d) Akirai Sakurai
15. India has recently signed a Memorandum of

on Forbes list of World’s most powerful people?
(a) Barack Obama (b) Vladimir Putin
(c) Satya Nadella (d) Bill Gates

asy
Understanding in the field of textile and clothing
with which of the following countries?
(a) Kazakhstan (b) Turkmenistan
24. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
has recently cleared 74% foreign holding in
which of the following bank?
(c) Kyrgyzstan
En
(d) Belarus
16. Ashu Suyash has been appointed as the Managing
(a) Yes Bank
(c) ICICI
(b) Axis Bank
(d) HDFC

Director of
(a) SEBI (b) BSE gin 25. Recently, India has signed a deal on the issue of
public stock holdings of foodgrains for security
with the

(c) CRISIL (d) CIBIL
ee
17. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has signed a
USD 400 million currency swap agreement with
the
(a) Central Bank of Sri Lanka

(a) European Union
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) World Bank
rin
(d) World Health Organization

(b) Central Bank of Myanmar
(c) Bank of Korea g.n
26. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) as
recently commissioned 28 MW Nyaborongo
(d) Bank of Japan
18. Union Ministry of Railways has constituted
a committee to review the Public-Private
Partnership (PPP) cell in the railway board under
(a) South Sudan
(c) Rwanda et
Hydro Electric Project. The project is located in
(b) Botswana
(d) Gambia
27. Which among the following e-commerce
the chairmanship of companies has tied up with India Post to facilitate
(a) Ajay Shankar (b) S. Jaishankar weavers and artisans of Varanasi to sell their
(c) Pramod Asthana (d) Anil Baijal product through its website?
19. Basel III norms are related with which of the (a) Flipkart (b) Snapdeal
following sectors? (c) Amazon (d) HomeShop18
(a) Banking (b) Insurance 28. Which among the following e-commerce
(c) software (d) Agriculture companies has launched ‘Agristore’ ?
20. Subhash Chandra Garg has been appointed as the (a) Flipkart (b) Snapdeal
(a) Executive Director in World Bank (c) Amazon (d) HomeShop18
(b) Executive Director in IMF 29. The bank to launch ‘video branch’ is?
(c) Executive Director in UNDP (a) HSBC (b) ICICI
(d) Executive Director in WTO (c) IndusInd (d) Yes Bank

G-22 || Economic
30. The Special Investigation Team on black money (a) Brazil (b) India
has been formed under the chairmanship of? (c) Sri Lanka (d) Turkey
(a) Justice Ganguly (b) Justice Pasayat 39. The Union government has recently given its
(c) Justice Shah (d) Justice Khehar approval for setting up the first ESDM (electronic
31. SBIINTOUCH launched by State Bank of India system design and manufacturing) in which city?
relates to (a) Chennai (b) Bangalore
(a) ATM services (c) Mysore (d) Kochi
(b) digital branches 40. Who among the following is the chairman of the
(c) infrastructure loans recently constituted 7th Pay Commission?
ww
(d) home loans
32. The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) cap in
defence sector has been increased to?

(a) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur
(b) Dr Rathin Roy
(c) Justice B.N.Srikrishna
w.E
(a) 26%
(c) 49%
(b) 33%
(d) 51%
33. Jal Marg Vikas, an Inland Navigation project on
(d) C. Rangarajan
41. How many Mega food parks were approved by
union government for food processing across the
asy
Ganges is to be developed between:
(a) Haridwar-Patna (b) Allahabad-Haldia
(c) Kanpur-Haldia (d) Allahabad-Patna
country in 2015?
(a) 15
(c) 17
(b) 16
(d) 18
En
34. Technical Education Quality Improvement
Programme (TEQIP) Phase II, a four-year
42. Name the Bank that was launched by PM
Narendra Modi on 8th Apr’15 with a corpus of
the assistance of? gin

programme, is currently being implemented with ` 20,000 Crore and credit guarantee corpus of
` 3,000 Crore?

(a) World Bank
(b) UNESCO
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) Japan under ODA
ee
35. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) is a

(a) Awasiya Bank
(b) Jand Dhan Bank
rin
(c) Federal Bank of India
(d) MUDRA Bank
43. Name the portal launched by the Government

(a) Maharatna company
(b) Navratna company g.n
on 6th Apr’15 to improve vocational training
delivery in the country?

(c) Miniratna company
36. How much was the Foreign reserves of India, as
on August 1st, 2014?

et
(a) Vocational Management information system
(b) National Management information system
(c) Training Management information system
(d) National Council for vocational training-
(a) 319.9 bn US$ (b) 321.4 bn US$ Management information system
(c) 323.5 bn US$ (d) 318.7 bn US$ 44. In how many districts of the country will the
37. Which of the following pact is on track between government will implement the first phase of the
India and Japan? Universal Immunization programme ‘Mission
(a) Automobile SEZ Pact Indradhanush’ from 7th Apr’15?
(b) Nuclear Pact (a) 75 (b) 201
(c) Aviation SEZ Pact (c) 290 (d) 156
(d) GM crop Pact 45. China has expressed its readiness to work with
38. Recently, a new term “Fragile Five” is being India to link its ambitious Maritime Silk Road
used to describe countries that have witnessed plans with India’s ______ Project.
economic turmoil in recent years. Which of the (a) Udaan (b) Bullet Train
following is not included in the list? (c) Indradhanush (d) Mausam

46. Which state has achieved 100 percent success 54. Name the scheme that has been launched by
in implementing ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan the government for redressal of grievances of
Dhan Yojna? consumers relating to pricing and availability of
(a) Gujarat (b) Assam medicines?
(c) Kerala (d) Bihar (a) Ausadhi Samadhan Scheme
47. Name the country that has not followed the UK in (b) Pharma Redressal Scheme
joining the China-sponsored Asian Infrastructure (c) Pharma Jan Samadhan Scheme
Investment Bank? (d) None of these
(a) France (b) Germany 55. How many Central Public Sector Enterprises
ww
(c) Italy (d) Syria
48. Name the organization that has developed a
Flood Hazard Atlas by mapping flood prone and
(CPSEs) have been decided to be closed down by
the Union Cabinet?
(a) 10 (b) 9
w.Evulnerable areas?
(a) FAO
(c) ICAR
(b) FICCI
(d) ISRO
(c) 8 (d) 7
56. Name the commission that has recommended
increasing state’s share in the centre’s tax revenue

ATM in the state?
(a) Uttar Pradesh asy
49. Which state has inaugurated the very first water
(b) Andhra Pradesh

to 42% from current 32%?
(a) Y.V. Reddy Commission
(b) Justice C Rangarajan Commssion
(c) Tamil Nadu
En
(d) Rajasthan
50. Which High Court became the first court in India

(c) Bajpai Panel
(d) Bimal Jalan Committee
gin
to set up commercial courts on 25th Mar’15for
speedy disposal of cases on 25th Mar’15?
(a) Kerala High Court
57. What is the new rate of Service Tax as per Budget
2015-16?

(b) Allahabad High Court
(c) Delhi High Court
(d) ujarat High Court
ee
51. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised
(a) 13%
(c) 13.5%
rin
(b) 14%
(d) 14.5%
58. What type of tax has been abolished with a CESS
in this budget 2015-16?
(a) Entertainment Tax (b) Income Tax

regulations for _____ lenders by directing them
to get themselves rated by March 2016.
(a) Non-Banking finance

g.n
(c) Transaction Tax (d) Wealth Tax
59. To which country India has offered a fresh 1
(b) Core-banking
(c) Stock
(d) Home based
52. Name the platform launched by the government (a) Sri Lanka
et
billion dollar line of credit for the development
of the country’s road, communication and
infrastructure?
(b) Myanmar
in association with social networking service (c) Nepal (d) Bangladesh
Twitter to facilitate direct communication 60. In which of the following launched the first of its
between leaders, government agencies and kind green project launched first of its kind green
citizens? project to generate 120 MW power?.
(a) Pragati (b) Twitter Samadhan (a) Tisco(Tata Steel Limited)
(c) Twitter Samvad (d) Social Samvad (b) RINL(Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
53. Which country overtook United States to become (c) SAIL(Steel Authority of India Ltd)
the third-largest steel producer in the world with (d) Mahamaya Steels Industries Ltd
a production of 14.56 million tonnes (MT) in first 61. Nine organic and exotic agricultural products
two months of the year 2015? from Northeast India were accorded geographical
(a) India (b) China indication (GI) registration tag. Which of the
(c) Japan (d) Australia following is not among them?

G-24 || Economic
(a) Mizoram Bird Eye Chilly. 65. In which of the following states, the was the first
(b) Assam Tezpur Tea Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and
(c) Meghalaya Khasi Mandarin Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 was inaugurated ?
(d) Sikkim Large Cardamom.
(a) Mumbai (b) New Delhi
62. India and Kyrgyzstan on 17 March 2015 signed
an MoU to strengthen bilateral cooperation on (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
______ . 66. Which of the following banks launched India’s
(a) Textile and Clothing. first digital bank Pockets .?
(b) Gems and Jewellery
ww
(c) Petroleum
(d) Gas
63. For which crop,has the Central Government has
(a) HDFC
(c) IDBI
(b) ICICI
(d) SBI
67. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce’s Global
w.Easked to relax quality norms for procurement on

7th Apr’15?
(a) Wheat (b) Maize
Intellectual Property CenterCentre (GIPC) has
released its third annual international intellectual
property (IP) index list.What is India’s rank
(c) Pulses
64. The Current CRR is ______.asy
(d) Rice among them?
(a) 29th (b) 28th
(a) 7%
(c) 5%
(b) 6%
(d) 4%
En (c) 30th (d) 35th
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 10. (a) 19. (a) 28. (a) 37. (b) 46. (b) 55. (d) 64. (d)
2. (b) 11. (c) 20. (a) 29. (c) 38. (c) 47. (d) 56. (a) 65. (b)
3. (d) 12. (c) 21. (c) 30. (c) 39. (b) 48. (d) 57. (b) 66. (b)
4. (a) 13. (d) 22. (b) 31. (b) 40. (a) 49. (a) 58. (d) 67. (a)
5. (b) 14. (b) 23. (b) 32. (c) 41. (c) 50. (c) 59. (d)
ww6.
7.
8.
(b)
(c)
(c)
15.
16.
17.
(c)
(c)
(a)
24.
25.
26.
(d)
(b)
(c)
33.
34.
35.
(b)
(a)
(b)
42.
43.
44.
(d)
(d)
(b)
51.
52.
53.
(a)
(c)
(a)
60.
61.
62.
(b)
(b)
(a)
w.E
9. (a) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (d) 54. (c) 63. (a)
aHints
sy E & Solutions
ngi
1. (b) Union Government has signed a loan
agreement with the Asian Development Bank
(ADB) for 75 million dollar and 1.8 million dollar
9. (a) Takahiro Hachigo has replaced Takanobu Ito to
become new President and CEO of Honda. Before
this, he was Managing Officer of Honda Motor Co.
grant for KIUWMIP.
nee
2. (b) Sindhushree Khullar has been appointed as the
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of NITI Aayog on
10. (a) SBI signed an MoU with the Indian Army
which revised its first MoU which was signed in
2011. This will benefit 19.5 lakh army pensioners
January 10, 2015.
3. (d) Japanese automaker Honda has agreed to pay
USD 70 million in fines as it failed to report more
11.
rin
and 10 lakh serving personnel in army.
(c) The government has set a target for RBI to
bring down inflation below 6 percent by January
than 1,700 death and injury claims involving its cars
between July 2003 and June 2014.
4. (a) ICICI Bank’s contactless debit and credit
12.
g.n
2016 and to 4 percent for financial year 2015-16.
(c) The central bank has reduced the repo rate by
25 basis point to 7.5% from 7.75%. Reverse repo
cards will provide its customers to make electronic
payments by waving the cards near the merchant
terminal instead of dipping or swiping.
5. (b) Department of Administrative Reforms
13.
rate is 6.5%.
et
(d) Sunil Sabharwal has been re-nominated as
Alternate Executive Director at IMF. He was
holding this position since April 2014.
selected Jammu & Kashmir for this award due to its 14. (b) Colin Macdonald has been appointed as the
successful e-Panchayat project. Managing Director of Renault Nissan Automotive
6. (b) The report reveals that Himachal Pradesh has India. He will replace Toshihiko Sano.
been able to balance economic growth with social 15. (c) India has signed MoU with Kyrgyzstan in the
inclusion. three fields. These include Textiles and Clothing,
7. (c) Madhya Pradesh has been honoured with the Silk and Sericulture and Fashion.
award for convergence of MGNREGA scheme 16. (c) Ashu Suyash has been appointed as Chief
with other schemes, which led to construction Executive Officer (CEO) and Managing Director of
of permanent assets alongwith employment CRISIL. CRISIL is the largest credit rating agency
opportunities. in India.
8. (c) The loan amount provided by ADB will 17. (a) The swap agreement between the RBI and the
help Assam to increase the power generation and Central Bank of Sri Lanka seeks to bring in more
improve distribution system. financial stability. It has been signed for three years.

G-26 || Economic
18. (a) The committee will look into the functioning 36. (a) After rising for eight consecutive weeks,
of the cell and will suggest changes to make it more India’s foreign exchange reserves declined by $
efficient, effective and result-oriented. 573.5 million to $ 319.99 billion in the week to
19. (a) RBI recently revised and issued the final August 1 on the back of a major drop in foreign
guidelines to implement Basel III capital norms. currency assets.
20. (a) Subhash Chandra Garg, a senior IAS officer 37. (b) India and Japan are looking at a special
has been appointed as the Executive Director in arrangement to reconcile the differences over the
World Bank. non-proliferation issue in a bid to seal a Nuclear
21. (c) US based economist Arvind Subramanian has pact.
ww been selected as chief economic adviser.

22. (b) Corporation Bank launched e-mandate service
to offer large numbers of repetitive payments and
thus eliminating post-dated cheques.
38. (c) “Fragile Five” countries are Turkey, Brazil,
India, South Africa and Indonesia. The term is
coined by a research analyst Morgan Stanleywho
w.E
23. (b) Vladimir Putin topped the list followed by
Barack Obama.
24. (d) Banks can have upto 49% foreign investment
identifies that these countries have become too
dependent on skittish foreign investment to finance
their growth ambitions.
asy
without regulatory approval, but above that the
banks require approval from RBI and FIPB.
25. (b) The deal is expected to pave a way for
39. (b) ESDM is the fastest growing segment of the
Information and Communications Technology
(ICT) and is projected to be a $400 billion industry
of World Trade Organization.

En
negotiations on Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
26. (c) BHEL has commissioned Nyaborongo Hydro

by the end of this decade.
40. (a) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur former
Supreme Court Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur has
gin
Electric Project in Rwanda, an East-African country.
27. (b) Snapdeal and India Post have partnered to
been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Pay
Commission.
ee
jointly work on bringing thousand of weavers and
artisans of Varanasi on e-commerce platform.
28. (a) ‘Agri Store’, an online store launched by
Flipkart will offer products such as seeds, fertilizers,
irrigation tools etc.
41. (c) Union Government has approved 17 mega
food parks for food processing across the country.
rin
The scheme aims at facilitating the establishment of
a strong food processing industry in the country.
42. (d) MUDRA is abbreviated as Micro Units
29. (c) IndusInd Bank launched a customer-centric
service ‘video Branch’. This enables a customer to
do a video conference with the bank staff. g.n
Development and Refinance Agency Ltd. It is set
up through a statutory enactment, and is responsible
30. (c) The SIT on black money held its first meeting
under the chairmanship of Justice Shah on 2nd June.
31. (b) SBI, under SBIINTOUCH, has launched six
digital branches across the country to provide next
et
for developing and refinancing all Micro-finance
Institutions which are in the business of lending to
micro and small business entities.
43. (d) National Council for vocational training-
Management information system.
generation banking solutions.
44. (b) These districts have been selected under the
32. (c) The union government in its budget proposed
to hike the FDI cap in defence and insurance to 49% programme, keeping in view that nearly 50 per cent
from 26%. of all un-vaccinated or partially vaccinated children
33. (b) ` 4200 crore has been allocated for ‘Jal Marg are in these 201 districts.
Vikas’ project on river Ganga between Allahabad 45. (d) One of the main deliverables of Mausam
and Haldia. project is nomination of maritime cultural landscapes
34. (a) TEQIP is a programme to improve technical across the Indian Ocean as a trans-national property
education in the country and is being implemented on the World Heritage List of UNESCO.
with the help of the World Bank 46. (b) As per the statement made by Officials of the
35. (b) The government is planning to start State Bank of India, all the districts have able to
disinvestment process in Navratna status company open at least one bank account of every household
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL). under the scheme.

48. (d) Flood Hazard Atlas will help people know the 58. (d) Wealth tax has been replaced with a 2% cess
level of water flow through early warning system. on super rich individuals
49. (a) This ATM is attached to Reverse Osmosis 60. (b) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) the
plant and the consumers can get 20 literslitters of corporate entity of Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) on 31
water for just Rs. 2. This will help solve the water March 2015 launched novel green project that can
crisis in Sonkh town in Mathura district, where it is
generate 120 MW power.
launched..
61. (b) Assam Tezpur Tea is not among them.
52. (c) The service was launched by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi during afterhis meeting with Twitter 63. (a) If quality of wheat is affected due to unseasonal
ww Chief Executive Dick Costolo in New Delhi.

53. (a) Now India is behind China and Japan.
54. (c) It is a web-enabled system created by National
rains or any other reason, relaxation in the norms is
considered.
65. (b) Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated
w.EPharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).

55. (d) The Seven CPSEs are HMT Bearings, HMT
Watches, HMT Chinnar Watches, Tungabhadra Steel
the first Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet
and Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 in New Delhi.
66. (b) The Industrial Credit and Investment
asy
Products, Hindustan Photo Films Manufacturing
Co., Hindustan Cables and Spices Trading
Corporation Ltd.
Corporation of India (ICICI) Bank, has launched
India’s first digital Bank on mobile phones, Pockets.
En
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

G-28 || Awards and Honours
4 Awards and Honours
ww
1. Who won the best film award in 87th Academy 9. Who awarded with Ashok Chakra ?

w.E Award ?
(a) The Theory of Everything
(b) Birdman

(a) Narindar Singh Saini
(b) R.S. Arora
(c) Chauthiram Yadav

2.
(c) The King’s Speech
(d) Still Alice asy
Who was conferred with Nayudamma Award

10.

(d) Mukund Varadarajan
Who crowned as Miss Universe 2014 ?
(a) Yu Venesia (b) Paulina Vega

2014 ?
En
(a) Dr. Tessy Thomas (b) Geeta Varadan

11.
(c) Gabriela Isler (d) Diana Harkusha
Which of the following were conferred with

3.
gin
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Dr. Vandana Shiva
Who of the following was awarded with Yash
Bharti Samman 2015 ?

National Bravery Award ?
(a) 8 girls and 16 boys
(b) 10 girls and 14 boys

4.

(a) D.R. Mehta
(c) Vijay Yadav
(a) Bhalchandra Nemade

ee
(b) Vinod Mehta
(d) Zubin Mehta
Who was selected for Jnanpith Award 2014 ?

12.

(c) 6 girls and 18 boys
(d) 4 girls and 20 boys
rin
Who conferred with Sanjay Chopra Award ?
(a) Ravish Kumar (b) Darmendra Kumar
(c) Devendra Kumar (d) Devesh Kumar

(b) Ashok Sen
(c) Pradeep Saurabh
13.
g.n
Who conferred with Geeta Chopra Award ?
(a) Resham Fatma (b) Gunjan Sharma

5.

(d) Narendra Kohli
Who won the best film award in 60th Filmfare
Awards ?
(a) Queen (b) Haider

14.

Award ?
(a) Vidya Balan
et
(c) Manjula Bansal (d) Ripa Das
In 21st screen awards, who won the Best Actress
(b) Usha Jadhav

(c) Kangana Ranaut (d) Priyanka Chopra
(c) Highway (d) PK
6. Who won the 10th National Award for excellent 15. Who was conferred with Giraffe Hero Award
2015 ?
work in MGNREGA ?
(a) K.C. Abraham
(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Vinod Rai
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujrat (c) Subhash Chandra Agrawal
7. Who awarded with Shrilal Shukla Sahitya IFFCO (d) Pratap Singh Patwal
award 2014 ? 16. Who named as the winner of Sahitya Akademi
(a) Gurpreet Singh (b) Mithileshwar Award 2014 for Sanskrit language ?
(c) U.K. Mishra (d) Sudha Sharma (a) Prabhu Nath Dwivedi
8. Indians, who have won the 57th Grammy Awards ? (b) Budhi Nath Mishra
(a) Ricky Kej (b) Neela Vaswani (c) Prabodh Nath Sharma
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Manjula Mridul (d) Prakash Mishra

17. The 2015 Space Pioneer Award won by- 26. International children’s peace prize 2014 was
(a) The Mars Orbiter Mission Team won by–
(b) The Chandrayan Mission Team (a) C.S. Verma (b) Neha Gupta
(c) Agni-5 Missile Team (c) Sonali Patel (d) Sweta Mukherjee
(d) GSLV MK-III Team 27. Who was honoured with “The Grand Cordon of
18. Governor of the Year Award received by- the Order of the Paulownia Flowers 2014”. ?
(a) Claudio Borio (a) Narendra Modi (b) Ratan Tata
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) Pranab Mukherjee
(b) Raghuram Rajan
28. Who won the Nobel Prize 2014 for Economics ?
ww

19.
(c) Jacques de Larosiere
(d) Tabare Vazquez
Who was selected for Vikram Sarabhai Memorial

(a) Jean Tirole
(c) John O’ Keefe
(b) Patrick Modiano
(d) Stefan W. Hell
29. Nobel Peace Prize 2014 won by–

w.E Award 2015 ?
(a) Tessi Thamos
(c) Mrs Prasad
(b) Dr. Sudha Sharma
(d) K. Radhakrishnan

(a) Patrick Modiano (b) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Malala Yoosafzai (d) Both (b) and (c)
30. Sakharov human rights prize 2014 won by–
20.

Chopra Memorial Award ?
asy
Who of the following was honoured with Yash
(a) Lata Mangeshkar (b) Amitabh Bachchan

(a) Adam Johnson (b) Denis Mukwege
(c) Anna Hazare (d) David Barboza
31. World Food Prize 2014 won by–

21.
(c) Dharmendra
En
(d) Dileep Kumar
Who was honoured with Bharat Ratna awards ?

(a) Sanjay Rajaram (b) Vivek Murthi
(c) Alisher Usmanov (d) Pierre Deligne
32. Man Booker Prize 2014 won by–

(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpei
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya gin

(a) Lydia Davis (b) Philip Roth
(c) Richard Flanagan (d) Hilary Mantel

22.

(d) (b) and (c) Both
choice Honour and Recognition 2015 ?

(a) Tata Telicommunication
ee
The company who won seven awards at the CIO
33. Who announced first ever Dadabhai Naoroji

Awards ?
(a) India
(c) Bangladesh
rin (b) Pakistan
(d) U.K.
34. Who crowned Miss World 2014 ?

(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro

(a) Yu Venesia
(c) Edina Kulcsar g.n (b) Rolene Strauss
(d) Elizabeth Safrit

23.

(d) Bharti Group
Who was honoured with Doctorate of Automotive
Engineering by the Clemson University ?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Sunil Mittal

award received by -
et
35. Colonel C.K. Nayudu Lifetime achievement
(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Kapil Dev

(c) Dilip Vengsarkar (d) Chetan Sharma
36. Who Selected for Saraswati Samman 2014 ?
(c) Mukesh Ambani (d) Narayan Murti
24. Who conferred with Indian Film personality of (a) Veerappa Moily (b) Narendra Kohali
the year 2014 award ? (c) Ramdarash Mishra (d) Sugatha Kumari
(a) Rajnikanth (b) Amitabh Bachchan 37. Who of the following was awarded with Rani
Lakshmibai Award ?
(c) Dileep Kumar (d) Shahrukh Khan
(a) Geeta Chandran (b) Neeta Chaudhary
25. Who was conferred with the Indira Gandhi Prize
(c) Seema Prakash (d) Sudha Sharma
for peace, disarmament and development for 38. Who of the following was awarded with Mata
2014 ? Jijabai Award?
(a) Ela Bhatt (a) Manjula Srinivasan
(b) Angela Merkel (b) P. Bhanumati
(c) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (c) Chandraprabha Bokey
(d) ISRO (d) Aparajita Datta


39. Who awarded by National Institute of Gender (b) Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana
Justice for representing the cause of women ? (c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New
(a) Arpana Sen (b) Priti Patel Delhi
(c) Ravina Tandon (d) Rani Mukharji (d) Anand Agricultural University, anand
40. In the 87th Oscar Awards who won the Best Actor 48. Which film has been honoured with The Grand
Award ? Prix of the Generation Kplus International Jury
(a) J.K. Simmone for the best feature-length film at the 65th Berlin
(b) Edward Snoden International Film Festival?
(c) Alexander Dinelaris (a) Dhanak (b) Kanak
ww
(d) Eddie Redmayne
41. Who was selected for G.K. Reddy Memorial
Award 2014?

49.
(c) Manak (d) Raunak
Which one of the following organizations has
been awarded Gandhi Peace Prize 2014?

w.E(a) Pankaj Subir
(c) Zubin Mehta
(b) Vinod Mehta
(d) Shekhar Joshi
42. Who won the Shakti Bhatt First Book Prie 2014 ?

(a) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(b) ISRO
(c) BARC

(a) Bilal Tanweer
(c) S. Janaki asy
(b) Pankaj Subir
(d) Illa Bhatt
43. Prabhu Nath Dwivedi has been conferred

50.
(d) Grameen Bank
Madhav Gadgil is a winner of Tyler Prize 2015.
He is a well known
En
prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 in
which of the following languages?

(a) Physicist
(c) Ecologist
(b) Satirist
(d) Violinist

(a) Hindi
(c) Marathi gin
(b) Urdu
(d) Sanskrit
51. Which amongst the following countries has won
Women in Parliament Award by World Economic

Memorial Prize for poetry?
(a) Sridala Swamy
(b) Arundhathi Subramaniam
(c) Joy Goswami
ee
44. Who is the winner of inaugural Khushwant Singh

52.
Forum?
(a) Bangladesh
(c) Malaysia
rin
(b) Bhutan
(d) Indonesia
Milky Way is part of the supercluster which is
named as
(d) Ranjit Hoskote
45. Who among the following has been selected for

(a) Laniakea
(c) Shapley g.n(b) Perseus-Pisces
(d) Coma

the Jnanpith Award 2014?
(a) Rabindra Sarkar
(b) M. N. Paloor
(c) Satish Kalsekar
53.

(a) Past Continuous
(b) A Life Apart
et
Neel Mukherjee has been shortlisted for Man
Booker Prize for which of the following book?
(d) Bhalchandra Nemade (c) The Lives of Others

46. Ricky Keg won Grammy Award under the (d) None of these
category of Best New Age Album for which of 54. Govind Misra has been awarded with Saraswati
his album? Samman- 2013 for his novel titled as
(a) Ballad of Maya (a) Kohre Mein Kaid Rang
(b) Urban Grooves South India (b) Paanch Aangano Wala Ghar
(c) Winds of Samsara (c) Biyanba Mein Bahar
(d) Punjabi in the Club (d) Dhool Paudhon Par
47. Which university has been chosen for Mahindra 55. Patrick Madiano has been awarded with Nobel
Samridhi India Agri Award 2015? Prize in which of the following category?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural (a) Medicine (b) Economics
University, Hisar (c) Physics (d) Literature

56. Jean Tirole has won Nobel Prize in which of the 64. Who has been honoured with the Gandhi Peace
below category? Prize this year?
(a) Literature (b) Physics (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(c) Chemistry (d) Economics (b) Medha Patker
57. Recently, Madhav Sharma has been hounoured (c) Pamposh Bhat
with which of the following award by the UK (d) Sanjeev Sanyal
government? 65. Nikhil Srivastava who has been recently declared
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Award as the joint winner of the prestigious George
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji Award
ww

(c) Nelson Mandela Award
(d) Mother Teresa Award
58. C.K. Nayudu award is associated with which of

Polya Award is a/an
(a) Physicist (b) Biologist
(c) Mathematician (d) Social Scientist

w.E the following games?
(a) Cricket
(c) Hockey
(b) Football
(d) Volleyball
66. The Citizen’s foundation, an organisation which
has been honoured with the Ramon Magsasay
Award this year belongs to which country?
asy
59. Which of the following organization has been
chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament and Development for the year

(a) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(b) Srilanka
(d) Pakistan
67. Which of the following received the outstanding

2014?
(a) ONGC En
(b) ISRO
Parliamentarian Award for the year 2010?
(a) Sharad Yadav. (b) Karan singh
(c) UNDP
this year?
(d) BARC
gin
60. Who has been chosen for the World Food Prize
(c) Arun Jaitley (d) Jaswant Singh
68. Which of the following received the Field’s
medal (Nobel Prize of Mathematics) 2014?

(a) Sanjaya Rajaram
(b) Ashok Gulati
(c) Siddharth Mukherjee
(d) G. Venkatraman
ee

(a) Mukul Pathak (b) Sanjay Barua
(c) Manjul Bhargava (d) Srikant Kheda
rin
69. Who has been awarded the highest peace time
gallantry award “Ashoka Chakra” on 15th August
61. Who is named as the winner of Pen Pinter Prize?

(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Anita Desai (d) Khushwant Singh

2014?
g.n
(a) Major Mukund Varadarajan
62. Who has been chosen for the Jnanpith Award

2013?
(a) Mridula Garg (b) Kashinath Singh
(c) Kedarnath Singh (d) Sri Lal Sukla

(b) Sepoy Vikram
(c) Lt. Manoran kumar
(d) Lt. Kapish singh et
70. Identify the Legendary Actor and Director, who
63. James Rodriguez has been awarded with which directed the movie “Gandhi” for which he won
award in the Football World Cup, 2014? Academy Award, recently passes away?
(a) Golden Ball (a) Steven Speilberg
(b) Golden Boot (b) Martin Scorsese
(c) Golden Glove (c) Alfred Hitchcock
(d) Young player of the tournament (d) Richard Attenborough

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (a)
2. (c) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (a) 52. (a) 62. (c)
3. (b) 13. (b) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (b)
4. (a) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (a)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (d) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (d) 65. (c)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (a) 46. (c) 56. (d) 66. (d)
ww 7.
8.
(b)
(c)
17.
18.
(a)
(b)
27.
28.
(c)
(a)
37.
38.
(c)
(c)
47.
48.
(a)
(a)
57.
58.
(b)
(a)
67.
68.
(c)
(c)
w.E 9.
10.
(d)
(b)
19.
20.
(c)
(b)
29.
30.
(d)
(b)
39.
40.
(d)
(d)
49.
50.
(b)
(c)
59.
60.
(c)
(a)
69.
70.
(a)
(d)
asy
Hints & Solutions
1.
En
(b) 87th Academy Award popularly called ‘Oscar
Awards’ was conferred on 22 February 2015 at
league of three noted Marathi writers who have won
Jnanpith award. Nemade’s novels among others
gin
the Dolby theatre in Los Angeles. The best film
award was won by Birdman directed by Alejandro
Gonzalez Inarritu. The Oscar Awards for the year
5.
include Bidhar, Hool, Jarila, Jhool, etc.
(a) 60th Filmfare Awards were announced in
Mumbai. Best film award was given to film Queen
2. ee
2015 were presented by the Academy of Motion
Picture Arts and Science (AMPAS) in 24 categories.
(c) Women Scientists Dr. Tessy Thomas and
Geeta Varadan on 15 February 2015 were jointly
and its Director Vikas Bahl won the Best Director
award. Shahid won the Best Actor award for film
rin
Haider and Kangana Ranaut won the Best Actress
award for film Queen. Kamini Kaushal was
named for Dr. Y. Nayudamma Memorial Award
2014. They have been chosen for the award for their
outstanding performance in the field of Science 6.
Award.
g.n
honoured with the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement
(b) Madhya Pradesh won the 10th National Award
3.
and Technology. This is the first time in the history
of the trust that two eminent women scientists are
being concurrently honoured.
(b) Journalist Vinod Mehta was awarded with
the Yash Bharti Samman 2015 by Uttar Pradesh
et
for excellent work in MGNREGA. The award was
presented to Madhya Pradesh Panchayats and Rural
Development Minister Gopal Bhargava by union
minister Virendra Singh at the MGNREGA summit
held in New Delhi.
Government. Vinod Mehta has launched a number 7. (b) Hindi novelish Mithileshwar was awarded on
of successful publications such as the Sunday 31 January 2015 with Shrilal Shukla Sahitya IFFCO
observer, Indian post, The Independent, The Pioneer Award 2014. He is the fourth recipient of this literary
and Outlook. He has authored a biography of Meena award. Mithileshwar belongs to Bhojpur district and
Kumari (actress) and Sanjay Gandhi. is known for his insight into the rural heartland of
4. (a) Eminent Marathi writer Bhalchandra Nemade India.
on 6 February 2015 was chosen for the Jnanpith 8. (c) This year two Indians have won Grammy
Award 2014. He will be the 50th recipient of awards. They are Ricky Kej and Neela Vaswani.
Jnanpith award. His novel Kosala (Cocoon) Ricky Kej won the best new age album trophy for
published in 1963 was not only instrumental in his collaborated album winds of Samsara. Neela
changing the dimensions of the Marathi novel, but Vaswani won award in childrens album category for
also the world of Marathi friction was transformed her album “I am Malala : How one Girld Stood UP
with its advent. With this award, he will join the For Education And Changed The World.”

9. (d) Major Mukund Varadarajan and Naik Neeraj Engineering category. India’s Mars Orbiter Mission
Kumar Singh were posthumously awarded on 26 was launched on 5 November 2013 and it reached
January 2015 with the highest peacetime military the Mars orbit on 24 September 2014. The Indian
honour the Ashok Chakra by president Pranab spacecraft has gone into orbit around Mars on the
Mukherjee. Both the army men sacrificed their very first attempt and no other country has been able
lives while battling groups of militants in separate to do this till now.
operations in Shopian and Kupwara districts of 18. (b) RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan received the
Jammu and Kashmir. Governor of the year Award for 2015. The award
10. (b) Miss Colombia Paulina Vega was crowned recognises the Governor of a Central Bank who has
ww Miss Universe 2014. She was a 22 year old students

of business, administration from Barranquilla,
Colombia. With this Vega became the second
demonstrated strong leadership during the period
under review. He was awarded for his disciplined
and focused approach to tackling macroeconomic
w.E beauty queen from Colombia to win the title. Luz

Marina Zuluaga was the first Colombian to win the
crown in 1956. The first runner-up was Miss USA
Nia Sanchez and the second runner-up was Miss
19.
instability.
(c) The director of Satish Dhawan space centre
Sriharikota Range (SHAR) MYS Prasad was
11.
Ukraine Diana Harkusha.
asy
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 January
2015 presented National Bravery Awards 2014 to 24
selected for the Vikram Sarabhai memorial award
2015. Prasad was selected for his outstanding
contribution to Research and Development in the
En
awardees. 8 girls and 16 boys were conferred with
National Bravery Awards. Four of them have been
20.
field of space science in his long career at the ISRO.
(b) Megastar Amitabh Bachchan was honoured
with the Yash Chopra Memorial Award. Amitabh
12.
awarded posthumously.
gin
(d) Devesh Kumar was conferred with Sanjay
Chopra Award on 24 January 2015 for his bravery.
Bachchan is the second recipient of the award. The
award was first conferred to melody queen Lata
13.
14. ee
(b) Gunjan Sharma was conferred with Geeta
Chopra Award on 24 January 2015.
(d) 21st screen awards were announced on 15
January 2015 at Mumbai. Priyanka Chopra won best
21.
Mangeshkar in 2013.
(d) Former prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpei and
rin
freedom fighter Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(Posthumously) will receive the Bharat Ratna. The
decision to confer the highest civilian award of the
Actor (female) award for film Mary Kom. Shahid
Kapoor won the best Actor (male) award for Haider.
Best film award was given to film queen. Hema g.n
country was announced by Union Government on 24
December 2014. In 2013 cricketer Sachin Tendulkar
15.
Malini was honoured with Lifetime Achievement
Award.
(c) Indian RTI activist Subhash Chandra Agrawal
was conferred with the Giraffe Hero Award 2015
by a US-based NGO. The Giraffe Heroes project.
22. et
and Scientist CNR Rao were awarded Bharat Ratna
for their contribution in their respective fields.
(c) Wipro won seven awards at the third annual
edition of the CIO choice Honour and Recognition
2015. The awards were given to Wipro to recognise
Agrawal was awarded for his bravery in utilising the customer satisfaction and endorsement by
the Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005 for public the CIO community. Wipro won the award in the
good despite innumerable challenges. categories of Managed IT services, Managed
16. (a) Eminet Sanskrit Scholar Prabhu Nath Dwivedi Security Services, Enterprise Infrastructure
was on 14 January 2015 named as the winner of the Automation Services, Systems Integrator, Network
Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 for Sanskrit language. Maintenance Services, Service Assurance Program
He was awarded for his work Kanakalochanaha, a and Application Managed Services.
collection of 16 short stories based on various social 23. (a) Ratan Tata was honoured on 26 February
issues. 2015 with an honorary Doctorate of Automotive
17. (a) The Mars Orbiter Mission Team of Indian Engineering by the Clemson University at the South
Space Research Organization (ISRO) won the Carolina Automotive summit. He was awarded for
2015 Space Pioneer Award in the Science and his contribution to the global automotive industry.


24. (a) Tamil Superstar Rajnikanth was honoured 33. (d) The UK government announced the inaugural
with the centenary award for Indian film personality Dadabhai Naoroji Awards to honour individuals
of the year 2014 at the 45th International Film who have worked to strengthen the UK- India
Festival of India (IFFI).The award consisted of a relationship over the years.
cash prize of 10 lakhs rupees, a certificate and the 34. (b) Miss South Africa Rolene Strauss was crowned
silver peacock medal. The award for Indian film Miss World 2014 at the final of the beauty pageant
personality of the year category was instituted in held in London. Strauss is a 22 year old fourth
2013 to commemorate 100years of Indian cinema. year medical student at university of the Free state.
25. (d) The Indian Space Research Organisation India’s 21 year old Koyal Rana made it to the top 10
but failed to make it to the top five.
ww (ISRO) was chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for

peace, disarmament and development for 2014. The
award will be given to ISRO for its contribution in
strengthening international cooperation in peaceful
35. (c) Former Indian Cricket Captain Dilip Vengsarkar
received the prestigious BCCI instituted colonel
C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award. He
w.Euse of outer space.

26. (b) Neha Gupta was awarded with the prestigious
international children’s peace prize 2014. Neha an
was conferred with the award for his contribution
to Indian cricket. Apart from this, Indian medium
pacer Bhuvneshwar Kumar received the Polly
Umrigar award.
asy
18 year old Indian American from Philadelphia was
awarded for her work to help orphans in India and
other vulnerable children.
36. (a) Former Union Minister and Senior Congress
leader M.Veerappa Moily on 9 March 2015 was
selected for the prestigious Saraswati Samman 2014
En
27. (c) Manmohan Singh received the Japan’s top
national award The Grand Cordon of the Order of
the Paulownia Flowers 2014. He was awarded for
for his Kannada poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam.
In the poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam, Moily
gin
his contribution to the enhancement of relations and
promotion of friendship between Japan and India.
tried to explore the Ramarajya or the true principle
of the ideal state from a secular and modern point of
view in his collection of poems.
this honour.
ee
Manmohan Singh became the first Indian to receive
28. (a) The Noble prize 2014 for Economics was

awarded to French economist Jean Tirole for his
analysis of market power and regulation.
37. (c) Seema Prakash of Madhya Pradesh won the
Rani Lakshmibai Award. She awarded working
rin
for the cause of vulnerable and marginalised
communities of Madhya Pradesh since 2000
particularly for the Korku tribe of the state.
29. (d) The Nobel Peace Prize 2014 was awarded
jointly to Kailash Satyarthi from India and Malala
Yousafzai from Pakistan for their struggle against g.n
38. (c) Chandraprabha Bokey of Maharashtra won
the Mata Jijabai award. She is a social worker
and is working in rural areas since 1960. He field
the suppression of children and young people and
for the right of all children to education.
30. (b) Congolese gynaecologist Denis Mukwege
won the prestigious Sakharov human rights prize
et
of work includes empowerment and rehabilitation
of destitute, divorced, disabled women and
rehabilitation of Orphan children.
39. (d) Rani Mukherji is the first ever film personality
2014. He was awarded for his efforts in helping to be felicilated with this prestigious award. She
thousands of gang rape victims in the Democratic was awarded for creating awareness about child
Republic of Congo. trafficking in New Delhi.
31. (a) Indian Scientist Dr. Sanjay Rajaram received 40. (d) The Oscar Awards for the year 2015 were
the World Food Prize 2014 for his scientific research presented by the Academy of Motion picture Arts
that led to a prodigious increase in world wheat and Sciences in 24 categories. Eddie Redmayne won
production by more than 200 million tons building the best Actor award for the Theory of Everything.
upon the successes of the Green Revolution. 41. (b) Vinod Mehta, eminent Journalist and Editorial
32. (c) Australian author Richard Flanagan won chairman of outlook group was selected for GK
the Man Booker Prize 2014 for his wartime novel Reddy Memorial Award 2014. The award was
‘The Narrow Road to the Deep North.’ Flanagan is announced by the TSR foundation. He was selected
the third Australian to win the prize after Thomas for this award for his outstanding contribution in the
Keneally and Petercarey. field of Journalism.

42. (a) Lahore based author Bilal Tanweer won the 57. (b) The first ever Dadabhai Naoroji Award for
2014 Shakti Bhatt First Book Prize for his novel The culture has been given to Madhav Sharma by the
Scatter Here is Too Great (Random House India). UK government.
43. (d) Prabhu Nath Dwivedi has been conferred 58. (a) Dilip Vengsarkar has been honoured with the
prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 for his C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for
work Kanakalochanaha- a collection of 16 short- 2013-14.
stories based upon various social issues. 59. (c) ISRO has been chosen for the award for its
44. (b) Arundhathi Subramaniam has received contribution in the space technology which will
Khushwant Singh Memorial Prize for poetry for her boost the development of the country.
ww work When God is a Traveller.

45. (d) Bhalchandra Nemadeis the 4th Marathi writer
to receive the award. He is the 50th recipient of
60. (a) Dr. Sanjaya Rajaram, a plant scientist has been
chosen for the award for his contribution to increase
world’s wheat production.
w.E Jnanpith award.

46. (c) Winds of Samsara of Ricky Keg was awarded
Grammy Award under the category of Best New
Age Album.
61. (a) Salman Rushdie has been awarded with
prestigious Pen Pinter Prize named after Harold
Pinter.
asy
47. (a) Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural
University has been chosen for the award for
its contribution in agricultural development and
62. (c) Kedarnath Singh has been chosen for the
Jnanpith Award 2013. His works include many
poems, essays and stories.
En
productivity through Research and Development.
48. (a) Dhanak which was directed by Nagesh
63. (b) James Rodriguez of Colombia was awarded
with the Golden Boot Award for his six goals in the
sister living in a village.

gin
Kukunoor revolves around the story of brother-
49. (b) ISRO has been awarded Gandhi Peace Prize

tournament.
64. (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt has been awarded with
the Gandhi Peace Prize for his contribution towards
nation. ee
2014 for boosting development through space
technology and its contribution to the service of the
50. (c) Madhav Gadgil is an ecologist. He, along

the environment.
65. (c) Nikhil Srivastava has been declared as the
rin
joint winner of the George Polya Award for solving
the Kadison Singer problem.
with Jane Lubchenco, has won Tyler Prize 2015 for
Environmental Achievement.
51. (a) Bangladesh has won the award for reducing the g.n
66. (d) The Pakistani non-government group The
Citizen’s foundation is among the six winners of the
Ramon Magsasay Award this year.
gender gap in political sphere. The Prime Minister,
the Speaker of the Parliament and the leader of the
opposition are all women.
52. (a) Milky Way lies on the far outskirt of Laniakea
near the border of Perseus-Pisces.
Sabha.
et
67. (c) Arun Jaitley received the award for the year
2010 when he was the leader of opposition in Rajya
68. (c) Manjul Bhargava has been awarded Field’s

medal 2014 for his work in developing powerful
53. (c) Neel Mukherjee, now a British resident has
new methods in the Geometry of numbers.
been shortlisted for Man Booker Prize for his book
69. (a) Major Mukund Varadarajan laid down his
“The Lives of Others”.
55. (d) Patrick Madiano who has been hailed as life, in a counter terrorist operation, posthumously
“Marcel Proust of our time” has been awarded with awarded Ashoka Chakra.
the Nobel Prize for Literature. 70. (d) Richard Attenborough was a legendary actor
56. (d) Jean Tirole has won Nobel Prize for his and director, he dedicated six decades of his life to
analysis of market power and regulation. the Film Industry.

G-36 || Sports and Games
5 Sports and Games
ww
1. Who won the women’s single title of Sydney 9. Who became the first Indian footballer to

w.E International Tennis Tournament ?
(a) Victoria Azarenka (b) Petra Kvitova
(c) Serena Williams (d) Marion Bartoli

conferred AFC Hall of Fame award ?
(a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Sunil Chhetri
(c) Syed Abdul Rahim (d) None of these
2.

men football team.
(a) Stephen Constantine asy
The name who appointed as head coach of India’s 10.

Who appointed as coach of National men’s
Hockey team ?
(a) Terry Walsh (b) Anthony Thornton

(b) Steven Gerrad
(c) Wayne Rooney
En
11.
(c) Paul Van Ass (d) Neil Hawgood
Who won the women’s single of Syed Modi
Grand Prix Gold Badminton Tournament 2015 ?

3.
(d) Juan Roman
gin
Who set world record by swimming in Antarctic
ocean ?

(a) Carolina Marin (b) Saina Nehwal
(c) P.V. Sindhu (d) Vang Yihan

4.

(c) V.G. Parvati
ee
(a) Bhakti Sharma (b) Bombayla Devi
(d) Manna Patel
Who won the FIFA Ballon d’or Award 2014 ?
(a) David Beckham (b) Lionel Messi
12.

13.
Who won the men’s single title of Sydeny
International Tennis Tournament ?
rin
(a) Roger Federer
(c) Andy Murray
(b) Milos Raonic
(d) Viktor Troicki
Who won the National Billiards title for seventh

5.
(c) Manuel Neuer (d) Cristiano Ronaldo
Who was declared player of the series on Border-
Gavaskar test series 2014-15 ?

time ?
g.n
(a) Ishpreet Singh Chadha

(a) Nathan Michael Lyon
(b) Virat Kohli
(c) Steven Smith
(d) Ryan James Harris

14.
(b) Pankaj Advani
(c) S. Shrikrishna
(d) None of these et
The name of batsman who hit fastest century in
one day cricket.
6. Who won the Chennai Open title of Tennis ? (a) AB de Villiers (b) Corey Anderson
(a) Stanislas Wawrinka (c) Misbah. ul. Haq (d) Steven Smith
(b) Sabine Lisicki 15. Who won the women’s doubles title of Sydeny
(c) Caroline Wozniacki International Tennis Tournament ?
(d) Marion Bartoli (a) Serena and Venus Williams
7. Who won the men’s Hockey Champions Trophy (b) Sania Mirza and Bethanie Mattek Sands
for the year 2014 ? (c) Abigail Spears and Raquel Kopsjones
(a) Australia (b) Germany (d) Bethanie Mattek Sands and Lucie Safarova
(c) India (d) Pakistan 16. Twenty 20 World Cup Cricket 2016 will be held
8. Who won the Deodhar Trophy 2014–15 ? in.
(a) South zone (b) North zone (a) India (b) Australia
(c) West zone (d) East zone (c) England (d) West Indies

17. Who won the 13th Parsvanath International 28. Who became first Indian to be elected to ISSF
Grand Master Chess Tournament ? executive committee ?
(a) Deepan Chakkravarthy (a) Surendra Singh
(b) Alberto David (b) Ravinder Singh
(c) Abhijeet Gupta (c) Shambu Nath Singh
(d) Andrey Baryshpolets (d) Ranaveer Singh
18. World Bridge Championships 2015 will be held 29. Who won Beighton Cup Hockey Tournament ?
in (a) Panjab National Bank
(a) Madrid (b) Delhi
ww
(c) Buenos Aires (d) Chennai
19. ATP World Tennis Championship was won by-
(a) Rafael Nadal

(b) Indian Oil
(c) Bharat Petrolium
(d) None of these

w.E(b) Stanislas Wawarinka
(c) Andy Murray
(d) Novak Djokovic
30. The Australian cricketer who died after a bouncer

ball of Sean Abbott was
(a) Phillip Hughes (b) Michael Bevan

cup 2015 ?
asy
20. Who appointed as ambassador of cricket world
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Brett Lee

(c) Corey Anderson (d) Kane Williamson
31. FIDE World Chess Championship 2014 was won
by

En
(c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Shane Warne
21. Women title of Kabaddi World Cup 2014 was

(a) Viswanathan Anand
(b) Michael Adams
win by
(a) India
(c) Iran gin
(b) Pakistan
(d) Newzealand

(c) Magnus Carlsen
(d) Andrey Baryshpolets
32. Davis Cup of Tennis was win by

bowling in competitive cricket ?
(a) Amit Mishra
ee
22. Name the Cricketer who banned by BCCI from
(b) Ashok Dinda

(c) Pradeep Sangwan (d) Pragyan Ojha
(a) France
(c) Switzerland
rin
(b) Russia
(d) USA
33. Who won the 3rd SAFF Women’s Championship ?
(a) India (b) Pakistan
23. Who won Gold in Men’s 50 metre Rifle prone

event at 58th National Shooting Champions.
(a) Vijay Kumar (b) Hariom Singh
(c) Bangladesh
g.n
(d) Nepal
34. The Tennis player who won the ATP World Tour
(c) Jeetu Rai (d) Manvinder Singh
24. Who won the London Classic Chess title ?

(a) Michael Adams
(b) Andrey Baryshpolets

Finals was
(a) Roger Federer
(c) Rafael Nadal et
(b) Novak Djokovic
(d) Andy Murray
35. Who won the women’s single title of China Open
(c) Magnus Carlsen Super Series of Badminton ?
(d) Viswanathan Anand (a) Akane Yamaguchi (b) Yihan Wang
25. Who won 29th Pune International full Marathan ? (c) Nitya Krishinda (d) Saina Nehwal
(a) Regassa Bezida (b) Teresse 36. The cricketer who scored the highest ODI score
(c) Amos Meindi (d) Herlen Musyoka are
26. Who appointed mentor and batting consultant for (a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Virendra Sehwag
IPL Team Kolkata Knight Rider ? (c) Rohit Sharma (d) Corey Anderson
(a) Jacques Kallis (b) Kumar Sangakkara 37. Durand Cup 2014 won by-
(c) Graeme Smith (d) Michael Bevan (a) Salgaocar FC
27. Who win the Blind Cricket World Cup 2014 ? (b) Pune FC
(a) South Africa (b) Australia (c) Mohammedan Sporting Club
(c) India (d) Pakistan (d) ONGC


38. Who won the men’s Hockey Test series ? 49. Who was the top position in medal of 35th
(a) Germany (b) Australia National Games?
(c) Pakistan (d) India (a) Services (b) Maharashtra
39. Who named as captain of the ICC Test Team of (c) Kerala (d) Haryana
the year 2014 ? 50. The Mixed Doubles title of Australian Open 2015
(a) Kumar Sangakara (b) Angelo Mathews was won by
(c) M.S. Dhoni (d) Michael Clark (a) Daniel Nestor and Kristina Mladenovic
40. Who won the LG People’s Choice Awards 2014 ? (b) Leander Paes and Martina Hingis
(a) M.S. Dhoni (c) Simone Boleli and Lucie Safarova
ww

(b) Virat Kohali
(c) Bhuvneshwar Kumar
(d) Rohit Sharma
(d) Nicolas Mahut and ChanYung Jan
51. Who has won 25,000 US Dollar ITF singles title
in maiden attempt in December 2014?

w.E
41. Who won the women’s single title of Australian
Open 2015?
(a) Maria Sharapova

(a) Ankita Raina (b) Sonal Phadke
(c) Arati Ponnappa (d) Isha Lakhani
52. Syed Modi Grand Prix Gold title is associated

(b) Serena Williams
(c) Stanislas Wawrinka
(d) Marion Bartoli
asy

with which game?
(a) Golf
(c) Badminton
(b) Formula 1 Race
(d) Table Tennis
42.
Games 2015 ? En
Who became youngest medal winner in National 53. Leander Paes won 2015 Australian Open mixed
doubles title with his teammate

(c) Rutuja Udeshi gin
(a) Kalyani Saxena (b) Saloni Dalal
(d) Anisha Gaonkar

(a) Kristina Mladenovic
(b) Cara Black
43.

44.
Series ?
(a) Australia
(c) Sri Lanka
(b) India ee
Who defeated England to win Tri-nation ODI
(d) South Africa

Usain Bolt decided to retire in which year of

(c) Martina Hingis
(d) Petra Kvitova
rin
54. What was the name given to the official mascot of
35th National Games which recently concluded
in Kerala?

world championship ?
(a) 2015 (b) 2016

g.n
(a) Ammu (the great hornbill)
(b) Appu (the great hornbill)

45.

(c) 2017 (d) 2018
Virat Kohli became first Indian cricketer to score
century in World Cup against-
(a) South Africa (b) Australia

(c) Appu (elephant)
(d) Ammu (elephant)
et
55. Who among the following has been recently
inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame?
(c) West Indies (d) Pakistan (a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Sourav Ganguly
46. Who won the men’s single title of Australian (c) Anil Kumble (d) Rahul Dravid
Open 2015 ? 56. Which among the following teams won Hero
(a) Andy Murray (b) Novak Djokovic Hockey India League (HHIL) 2015?
(c) Rafael Nadal (d) Roger Federer (a) Punjab Warriors
47. 36th National Games will be hosted in- (b) Ranchi Rays
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Uttar Pradesh Wizards
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Goa (d) Delhi Waveriders
48. Who was the Goodwill Ambassador of 35th 57. Kidambi Srikanth is associated with which one of
National Games ? the following games?
(a) Saradara Singh (b) Rahul Dravin (a) Lawn tennis (b) Cycling
(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Shahrukh Khan (c) Rowing (d) Badminton

58. How many times has Australia won the one-day 69. Who won the gold medal in women’s 200m event
cricket world cup? in the 16th Asian Junior Athletics Championship?
(a) Three (b) Four (a) VV Jisha
(c) Five (d) Six (b) Jessy Joseph
59. The winners of US Open women doubles title (c) Navjeet Kaur Dhillon
2014 are (d) Dutee Chand
(a) Sania Mirza and Cara Black 70. Jitu Rai, who was recently in news, is associated
(b) Martina Hingis and Flavia Pennetta with which game?
ww

(c) Ekaterina Makarova and Elena Vesnina
(d) Sania Mirza and Abigail Spears
60. Varsha Gautam is associated with which of the

(a) Swimming
(c) Shooting
(b) Gymnastics
(d) Athletics
71. Luis Suarez, a soccer player was recently in news.
w.E following games?

(a) Badminton
(c) Hockey
(b) Sailing
(d) Table Tennis

He belongs to which of the following country?
(a) Brazil
(c) Paraguay
(b) Spain
(d) Uruguay
(a) Andy Murray asy

61. Who among the following Tennis players has
won the Shanghai Masters Title?
(b) Roger Federer
72. Who won the Australian Open Super Series Title-

2014?
(a) Qing Tian (b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Gilles Simon
En
(d) Rafael Nadal
62. Who among the following is the winner of men’s
(c) Kim Ha-Na (d) P.V Sindhu
73. Who among the following is the winner of Men’s

(a) K. Srikanth
(c) Lin Dan gin
singles title of China Open Super Series?
(b) Akshay Dewalkar
(d) Chen Long

Wimbledon-2014?
(a) Roger Federer
(c) Switzerland
(b) USA
(d) Russia
ee
63. Which country is the winner of Davis Cup-2014?
(a) Serbia
64. Who among the following players has received

(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Novak Djokovic
rin
(d) Stanislas Wawrinka
74. Sanjita Khumukcham is associated with which of

the Arjuna Award in 2014?
(a) Manoj Kumar (b) Mary Kom
the following games?
(a) Weight lifting
(c) Boxing g.n (b) Judo
(d) Wrestling
(c) M S Dhoni
Champions Trophy, 2014?

(a) Australia
(d) Sardar Singh
65. Which among the below teams has won
(b) Germany

et
75. Dipa Karmakar, who won a bronze medal in
the Glasgow Commonwealth games-2014 is
associated with which game?
(a) Shooting (b) Artistic gymnastics
(c) Pakistan (d) The Netherlands
66. Who has been named as 2015 Cricket World Cup (c) Judoka (d) Squash
Ambassador? 76. Who is the winner of the World Golf
(a) Sourav Ganguly (b) Brian Lara Championship?
(c) Ricky Ponting (d) Sachin Tendulkar (a) Rory McIlory (b) Sergio Garcia
67. Who is the winner of French Open 2014 women’s (c) Kane Richardson (d) Mitchell Marsh
title? 77. Who won the Men’s title of Washington open
(a) Victoria Azarenka (b) Serena Williams Tennis Tournament 2014?
(c) Maria Sharapova (d) Simona Halep (a) Vasek Pospisil
68. Who won the French open 2014? (b) Roger Federer
(a) Rafael Nadal (b) Novan Djokovic (c) Juan Martin del Potro
(c) Roger Federer (d) Andy Murray (d) Milos Raonic


78. Consider the following statements given below, (a) Johny Depp (b) Kevin Spacey
and choose the Statement (s) which is/are correct? (c) John Travolta (d) Tom Cruise
1. Rooney has won several trophies with 81. Who among the following has won Syed Modi
Manchester United including five EPL titles International India Grand Prix Gold badminton
and Champions League. title?
2. Darren Fletcher has been appointed as the (a) P V Sindhu
captain of Manchester United. (b) Saina Nehwal
Choose the Correct Option: (c) Ashwini Ponnappa
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Jwala Gutta
ww
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. The 2014 winner of prestigious Goldman
82. Who among the following Indians have been
awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel
equivalent for technology engineers?

w.E Environmental Prize is __?
(a) Ramesh Agarwal
(b) Srinivas Acharya
(c) Raman Choudhary

(a) A Joseph Paulraj
(b) Naveen Natarajan
(c) Sumitraraj Gupta
(d) Sunil Nayak
asy
80. Who among the following has been honoured as
(d) Jagadish Singh
83. Which of the following states has won United
Nation award for sustainable tourism?
India at IIFA awards 2013-14?
En
the Most Popular All Time International Star in

(a) Kerala
(c) West Bengal
(b) Gujarat
(d) Goa
gin
ee rin
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (d) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (c) 62. (a) 72. (b) 82. (a)
3. (a) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (a) 53. (c) 63. (c) 73. (c) 83. (a)
4. (d) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (a) 74. (a)
5. (c) 15. (b) 25. (c) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (c) 65. (b) 75. (b)
ww6.
7.
8.
(a)
(b)
(d)
16.
17.
18.
(a)
(d)
(d)
26.
27.
28.
(a)
(c)
(b)
36.
37.
38.
(c)
(a)
(d)
46.
47.
48.
(b)
(d)
(c)
56.
57.
58.
(b)
(d)
(c)
66.
67.
68.
(d)
(c)
(a)
76.
77.
78.
(a)
(d)
(a)
w.E
9.
10.
(a)
(c)
19.
20.
(c)
(a)
29.
30.
(b)
(a)
39.
40.
(b)
(c)
49.
50.
(a)
(b)
59.
60.
(c)
(b)
69.
70.
(d)
(c)
79.
80.
(a)
(c)
aHints
syE& Solutions
1.
ngi
(b) Petra Kvitova of Czech Republic won the
women’s single title of Sydney International Tennis
won the 4 match Border-Gavaskar test series from
2-0. The third and fourth match of the series was
nee
Tournament. She won the title defeating Karolina
Pliskova of Czech Republic 7-6, 7-6 in the final.
This is the 15th career title won by world No. 4
drawn.
6. (a) Switzerland’s Stanislas Wawrinka defeated
Slovenian qualifier Aljaz Bedene to win Chennai
Petra Kvitova.
2. (a) Stephen Constantine was appointed as the
rin
open title of tennis for a third time. In the title clash
Wawrinka defeated Bedene 6-4,6-3.
7. (b) Germany won the men’s Hockey Champions
head coach of Indian men’s football team on 16
January 2015. He will supervise both the senior and
under-23 football teams. Constantine of England g.n
Trophy for the year 2014 after defeating Pakistan by
2-0 margin at the Kalinga stadium in Bhuvaneswar
replaced Wim Koevermans of Netherlands. This is
the second time that Constantine has been appointed
as the coach of Indian football team. He served as
India’s coach from 2002 to 2005.
et
Odisha. This was 10th Champions Trophy crown for
Germany. It had last won the tournament in 2007.
For the third position world Champion Australia
defeated India 2-1.
8. (d) East zone won the 2014-15 Deodhar Trophy of
3. (a) Bhakti Sharma the open water swimming
Cricket by defeating West zone from 24 runs. The
champion of India set a world record by swimming
final match was played at the Wankhede stadium
1.4 miles in 52 minutes one degree temperature in
in Mumbai. Ashok Dinda of East zone who bagged
the Antarctic Ocean. 4 wickets was adjudged man of the match. The
4. (d) Real Madrid forward Cristiano Ronaldo on 12 captain of East zone was Manoj Tiwary and West
January 2015 won the FIFA Ballon d’or award 2014 zone was Yusuf Pathan.
for the best footballer of the year in the world. It is 9. (a) Former Indian Football Captain Baichung
the third time that Ronaldo has won the Ballon d’or Bhutia became the first Indian Footballer to
award following the previous triumphs in the years conferred AFC Hall of Fame Award. The award
2008 and 2013. was conferred by FIFA president Sepp Blatter in
5. (c) Steven Smith was declared player of the series Philippines. Baichung has played 107 matches for
in Border-Gavaskar test series 2014-2015. Australia India and scored 42 goals.


10. (c) Former Dutch National Hockey team coach Chess Tournament. He defeated Deepan
Paul Van Ass was on 30 January 2015 appointed Chakkravarthy of India in 10th and final round of
as the head coach of Indian men’s hockey team. the tournament that was held in New Delhi.
He succeeded Terry Walsh of Australia. Besides 18. (d) India will host the 42nd World Bridge
Newzealand’s Anthony Thornton was appointed as Championship that will be held in Chennai from 20
the coach of National women’s hockey team. She September 2015 to 10 October 2015.
replaced Neil Hawgood of Australia. 19. (c) Andy Murray won the ATP World Tennis
11. (b) Saina Nehwal of India won the women’s Championship at Zayed sports city in Abu Dhabi.
singles of Syed Modi Grand Prix Gold Badminton He won the title after the world number one Novak
ww Tournament 2015. She defeated Carolina Marin

of Spain 19-21, 25-23, 21-16 in the final played
at Babu Banarasi Das Indoor Stadium in Lucknow,
Djokovic withdrew from the final match citing
illness. This was the first title of the year 2015 for
Andy Murray.
w.EU.P. with this win, Saina retained her title which

she had won in 2014 and also maintained her win
record against Carolina in three career meetings.
20. (a) Sachin Tendulkar was appointed as the
ambassador of Cricket World Cup 2015. Tendulkar
in the role of ambassador will promote and support
asy
Saina Nehwal is ranked third in the world whereas
Carolina Marin is ranked seventh in the world.
12. (d) ‘Viktor Troicki of Serbia won the men’s single
a variety of ICC initiatives to enhance the profile of
tournament.
21. (a) The Indian Women’s Kabaddi team won
En
title of Sydney International Tennis Tournament. He
won the title by defeating Mikhail Kukushkin of
Kazakhstan from 6-2, 6-3 in the final match.
Kabaddi World Cup title by defeating Newzealand.
Indian men’s kabaddi team also won Kabaddi World
Cup by defeating Pakistan.
gin
13. (b) Pankaj Advani won National Billiards
Championship at the Bengal Rowing club in
22. (d) BCCI issued ban on Indian left arm spinner
Pragyan Ojha from bowling in competitive matches
ee
Kolkata. He defeated his PSPB male Dhruv Sitwala.
This was his seventh senior National Billiards
Championship. Advani has won the previous six
titles in 2005, 2007, 2008, 2009, 2011 and 2012.
14. (a) South Africa’s Cricketer AB de Villiers hit
after his action was found illegal.
23. (b) Hariom Singh won Gold medal in men’s 50
rin
metre rifle prone event at the 58th National Shooting
Championship held in Pune. Representing Indian
army Hariom won the gold with a total of 205 in the
the fastest century in one day international cricket.
He scored the century in just 31 balls against West
finals.
24. (d) Viswanathan g.n
Anand defeated British
Indies. The previous record was held by New
Zealand’s Corey Anderson who scored a century in
36 balls against West Indies.
15. (b) Sania Mirza (India) and Bethanie Mattek-
Sands (US) won the women’s doubles title of the
London classic title.
et
Grandmaster Michael Adams to win his maiden
25. (c) Amos Meindi of Kenya won 29th Pune

International full Marathan in men’s category. He
finished the race by completing 41.175 km in 2
Sydney International Tennis Tournament. The hours 18 minutes and 36 seconds. Regassa Bezida
unseeded Indo-American pair defeated top seeded of Ethiopia and Teresse came at second and third
Americans Abigail Spears and Raquel Kops Jones place respectively Nancy Wambua of Kenya won
6-3, 6-3. This was the fifth WTA title for Sania and the half Marathon in women category in 71 minutes
Bethanie together and 23rd career title for Sania. and 55 seconds.
16. (a) International Cricket Council (ICC) in its 26. (a) The South African cricketer Jacques Kallis was
board meeting in Dubai announced that India will appointed as the mentor and batting consultant for
host the Twenty 20 World Cup in 2016. The Twenty Indian Premier League (IPL) team Kolkata Knight
20 World Cup will be held in India from 11 March Rider (KKR).
2016 to 3 April 2016. 27. (c) Indian Blind cricket team defeated Pakistan to
17. (d) Ukrainian Grandmaster Andrey Baryshpolets win the fourth edition of Blind Cricket World Cup
won the 13th Parsvanath International Grandmasters 2014 in Cap Town, South Africa.

28. (b) Ravinder Singh became the first Indian to get by Virendra Sehwag. Rohit Sharma achieved this
elected as a member of the International shooting distinction during the 4th ODI between India and
sport Federation (ISSF)’s Executive Committee. Sri Lanka at Kolkata.
He is the president of National Rifle Association of 37. (a) Salgaocar FC won Durand Cup and emerged as
India (NRAI). He was also elected as the member of Durand Cup champion for the third time. It defeated
the Administrative Council of ISSF. Pune FC by 1–0. 127th Durand Cup played at the
29. (b) Indian oil won the 119th Beighton Cup Hockey Raia Sports Complex Goa.
tournament to defeated Panjab National Bank 38. (d) Indian Hockey team won four match men’s
in Kolkata. The awards of the tournament were Hockey Test series against Australia by 3-1. In the
ww presented by the West Bengal Governor Keshari

Nath Tripathy.
30. (a) Australian cricketer Phillip Hughes went
fourth and final match of the series played at the
Perth Hockey stadium, Australia. This is the first
time that India defeated Australia in a bilateral
series. In this series Indian men’s hockey team
w.Einto induced coma and died after a bouncer ball of

Sean Abbott hit back of his head at Sydney cricket
ground.
31. (c) Magnus Carlsen of Norway won FIDE World
skipper Sardar Singh registered a milestone as he
completed his 200th international cap in the fourth
and final test.
asy
Chess Champoinship 2014 played at Sochi, Russia.
He defeated Viswanathan Anand of India with
a score of 6.5–4.5. Thus Carlsen became the first
39. (b) Sri Lankan cricket captain Angelo Mathews
was named as captain of the ICC Test Team of
the year 2014. The ICC Test Team of the year was
Championship.
En
player to score 6.5 points to win the FIDE World chosen by a specially appointed selection panel
chaired by the ICC’s Cricket committee Chairman
Anil Kumble.
gin
32. (c) Switzerland won its first Davis Cup Tennis title
after defeating France by securing three one lead at
Lille Stade Pierre Maurery, France. With this win
40. (c) Cricketer Bhuvneshwar Kumar won LG
People’s Choice Award 2014. He is the third Indian
ee
Switzerland became the fourteenth nation to win the
Davis Cup in the competition’s 115 year history.
33. (a) India won the 2014 South Asian Football
Federation (SAFF) women’s championship at the
player after Sachin and Dhoni to win the coveted
prize.
rin
41. (b) Serena Williams won the women’s single title
of Australian Open 2015. Serena defeated Maria
Sharapova of Russia in Melbourne, Australia.
Jinnah stadium in Islamabad after defeating Nepal.
With this win the Indian team has won all the three
SAFF women finals against Nepal. g.n
This was the 19th Grand Slam title and the sixth
Australian Open title for Serena Williams.
42. (b) Saloni Dalal, a school girl of Karnataka
34. (b) World number one Serbian tennis player
Novak Djokovic was crowned champion of ATP
World Tour Finals in London. He was crowned after
Swiss Roger Federer withdraw from the title clash
due to a back injury. With this win he centuries and
et
became the youngest medal winner in the 35th
National Games in Kerala. The 12 years old Saloni
won a Bronze medal in the 200 meter breast stroke
swimming event. Kalyani Saxena of Gujarat
and Rutuja Udeshi of Maharashtra won the gold
also broke the record of highest ODI Tour Finals and silver medals of the 200 meter breast stroke
titles. swimming event respectively.
35. (d) Indian shuttlers Saina Nehwal clinched 43. (a) Australia won the Tri-nation. One day
women’s singles title of China Open Super Series International (ODI) series by defeating England.
premier of Badminton in Fuzhou, China. Saina The tri-series was played between Australia, India
defeated Akane Yamaguchi of Japan in the women’s and England from 16 January to 1 February 2015. In
singles final. this Tournament Mitchell Stare was the man of the
36. (c) The Indian cricketer Rohit Sharma on series.
November 2014 scored the highest ODI score ever 44. (c) The six time Olympic gold medalist Usain
of 264 runs. With this he became the only cricketer Bolt has decided to retire after 2017 World
to score two double ODI became the first tennis Championships in London in which he will
player to win three world score of 219 runs made concentrate only in 100 meter event.


45. (d) Virat Kohli became first Indian cricketer 53. (c) Leander Paes and Martina Hingis beat Daniel
to score century against Pakistan in World Cup. Nestor and Kristina Mladenovic to win 2015
He scored 107 run at Adelaide Oval, Australia. Australian Open mixed doubles title.
The previous highest score by an Indian batsman 54. (a) The great hornbill, the state bird of Kerala,
against Pakistan in World Cup was held by Sachin was the official mascot of 35th National Games.
Tendulkar, who scored 98 run in Centurion in 2003 The name of the mascot was Ammu showing the
World Cup. empowerment of women in Kerala.
46. (b) Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the men’s 55. (c) Anil Kumble became the fourth Indian
single title of Australian Open 2015 by defeating cricketer to be inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall
ww Andy Murray of Britain. With this win Djokovic

became the most decorated Australian Open
Champion of the open era. Surpassing Andre Agassi
of Fame. Bishan Singh Bedi, Sunil Gavaskar and
Kapil Dev are the other hall of fame members from
India.
w.Eand Roger Federer’s quartet of titles.

47. (d) The 36th National Games will be hosted by
Goa in 2016. The 35th National Games were held in
56. (b) Ranchi Rays defeated Punjab Warriors by 3-2
goals in the final match of HHIL 2015. The result
was decided through tie-breaker.
57. (d) Kidambi Srikanth has won Swiss Open Grand
asy
Kerala from 31 January 2015 to 14 February 2015.
48. (c) Sachin Tendulkar was the Goodwill
Ambassador of 35th National Games. He was the
Prix Gold title in Men’s singles category. He
defeated Denmark’s Viktor Axelsen by score of 21-
15, 12-21 and 21-14.
En
chief guest of the inauguration event. The Mascot of
the 35th National Games was “The Great Hornbill”
58. (c) Australia defeated New Zealand by seven
wickets in the final to win the world cup for the fifth
(The state bird of Kerala).
gin
49. (a) Services by topping the medal tally set the
record of topping the National Games for the third
time. Apart from 2015, Australia has grabbed the
cup in 1987, 1999, 2003 and 2007.
59. (c) Ekaterina Makarova and Elena Vesnina beat
ee
consecutive time. It won the Raja Bhalendra Singh
Trophy.
The top 5 positions in medal tally in 35th National
Games.
Martina Hingis and Flavia Pennetta in the final of
US Open women doubles title 2014.
rin
60. (b) Varsha Gautam and Aishwarya Nedunchezhiyan
won a first ever bronze medal in sailing in Asian
S.No.
1.
Winner
Services
Gold Silver Bronze Total
91 33 35 159
Games.
g.n
61. (b) Roger Federer defeated Gilles Simon in final
to clinch Shanghai Masters Title.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Kerala
Harayana
Maharashtra
Punjab
54
40
30
27
48
40
43
34
60
27
50
32
162
107
123
93
et
62. (a) K. Srikanth defeated Lin Dan in the final to
win men’s singles title of China Open Super Series.
63. (c) Switzerland defeated France by 3-1 to win
Davis Cup-2014.
64. (a) Boxer Manoj Kumar received the Arjuna
50. (b) Indo-Swiss pair Leander Paes (India) and Award after he filed a case in the Delhi High Court.
Martina Hingis (Switzerland) defeated Canadian- 65. (b) Germany defeated Pakistan in the final match
French pair Daniel Nestor (Canada) and Kristina of Champions Trophy, 2014 held in bhubaneswar.
Mladenovic (France) in straight sets 6-4, 6-3. This 66. (d) Sachin Tendulkar has been named as the
was Leander’s third Mixed Doubles title at the Ambassador for the second successive time.
Australian Open and 15th overall. 67. (c) Maria Sharapova defeated Simona Halep in
51. (a) Ankita Raina defeated Katy Dunne to win the final of French Open.
25,000 US Dollar ITF singles title in maiden 68. (a) Rafael Nadal beat Novan Djokovic in the final
attempt. of French open to win the title.
52. (c) Parupalli Kashyap in men and Saina Nehwal 69. (d) Dutee Chand won two gold in the 16th Asian
in women category have won Syed Modi Grand Junior Athletics Championship, one in 200 m and
Prix Gold badminton title 2015. another in 4*400m relay race.

70. (c) Jitu Rai won Gold medal in Air Pistol in the Prize that honours heroic grassroot environmentalists
Shooting world cup held in Slovenia. around the world for their achievements. He has
71. (d) Uruguay striker Luis Suarez has been been honoured for his contribution to control the
suspended from all football-related activity for four unchecked industrial development throughout
months for biting Italian defender Giorgio Chillan. India.
72. (b) Saina Nehwal defeated Spain’s Carolina Marin 80. (c) John Travolta the famous super star of
in the final of Australian Open. Hollywood honoured as most popular All Time
73. (c) Novak Djokovic defeated Roger Federer in the International Star in International Indian Film
final of Men’s Wimbledon-2014 to grab the title. Academy (IIFA) awards 2014.
ww
74. (a) Sanjita Khumukcham, a Weight lifter, won
the first gold medal for India in the Commonwealth
games-2014.
81. (b) Saina Nehwal clinched the Syed Modi
International India Grand Prix Gold badminton title
with a straight-game victory over compatriot P V
w.E
75. (b) Dipa Karmakar became the first Indian to win
a medal in artistic gymnastics at a major sporting
event.
76. (a) Rory McIlory is a 25 year old from Northern
Sindhu in the women’s single competition.
82. (a) A Joseph Paulraj Stanford University Professor
A Joseph Paulraj who has been recognised for his
work in inventing and advancing MIMO (Multiple
asy
Ireland, rallied from a three stroke deficit to beat
Spain’s Sergio Garcia by two strokes at the WGC
Bridgestone Invitational.
Input Multiple Output) technology, a key enabler of
wireless broadband services that has revolutionised
high speed delivery of multimedia media across the
En
77. (d) Milos Raonic captured his sixth ATP title by
defeating Vasek Pospisil at Washington Open.
world awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel
equivalent for technology engineers.
gin
78. (a) Rooney has been appointed as the captain of
Manchester United and not Darren Fletcher.
79. (a) Indian environment activist Ramesh Agarwal
83. (a) Kerala Tourism has been conferred the United
Nation Award for creating innovative initiatives for
sustainable tourism, the first time India has ever
ee
has won the prestigious Goldman Environmental won the recognition.
rin
g.n
et

G-46 || Science and Technology
6 Science and Technology
ww
1. National Biodiversity Conference (NBC)-2015 8. GSLV Mark -III being developed by ISRO
w.Ewill be held in
(a) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(d) Telangana
uses which of the following fuel propellants in
Cryogenic Upper stage?
(1) Liquid Oxygen (2) Liquid Nitrogen
(a) Mercury asy

2. Beagle 2, which was found after eleven years,
was a space probe to
(b) Venus
(3) Liquid Hydrogen (4) Hydrazine
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Mars
En
(d) Moon
3. GARUDA SHAKTI-III which was conducted at
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
9. Thirty-Metre Telescope,the world’s largest
telescope, for which India is creating software is
gin
Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School
in Vairengte, Mizoram from 09 to 21 Feb 15 was
a joint exercise of armies of India and
located in
(a) Iceland
(c) Antarctica
(b) USA
(d) Norway

(a) Vietnam
(c) Myanmar
ee
(b) Indonesia
(d) Thailand
4. According to recent announcement of the Indian
government, how many Indian satellites are
10. The first and only Compulsory License has been
provided to Natco Pharmaceuticals to produce
rin
a generic medicine. The medicine named as
sorafenib tosylate (Nexavar) is a drug for
currently operational?
(a) 23
(c) 27
(b) 25
(d) 29

(a) Blood cancer
(c) Breast cancer
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(b) Kidney cancer
(d) Stomach cancer
11. ‘2011 MD’ shortlisted by NASA is a/an?
5. Dwarf planet Ceres is located between

(a) Mars and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Uranus
(a) Planet
(c) Asteroid
et
(b) Comet
(d) Meteoroid
12. Micros Systems, a cloud firm has been taken over
by?
(d) Uranus and Neptune (a) SAP (b) Oracle
(c) Microsoft (d) Apple
6. INS Sumitra has been recently commissioned in
13. National Centre for Research & Development
the Indian Navy. Which of the following does not in Bulk Drugs is proposed to be set up in which
belong to the same class as INS Sumitra? city?
(a) INS Saryu (b) INS Shivalik (a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad
(c) INS Sunayna (d) INS Sumedha (c) Ahmadabad (d) Pune
7. What is the name of the world’s first womb 14. Rotavirus is responsible for which of the
transplant baby? following diseases?
(a) Glenn (a) Tuberculosis
(b) Vincent (b) Diarrhoea
(c) Margaret (c) Japanese Encephalitis
(d) Louis (d) Measles

15. Ebola is caused by which type of micro-organism? 25. Which one of the following was discovered first
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi in the chromosphere of the sun?
(c) Virus (d) Protozoa (a) Neon (b) Xenon
16. Enceladus, where NASA’s Cassini spacecraft has (c) Helium (d) Krypton
suggested possibility of liquid water is a moon of 26. ‘Rosatom’ is the atomic energy agency of
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn (a) France (b) Britain
(c) Uranus (d) Mars (c) Canada (d) Russia
17. Gaia satellite which was launched in 2013 has 27. Which of the following falls in the category of
ww reached its intended location. The satellite was

launched by
(a) ESA
endangered species under the Red data list of
IUCN?
(a) Crowned solitary eagle
w.E
(b) NASA
(c) ISRO
(d) China National Space Administration
(b) Albatross

(c) Snow leopard
asy
18. Identify the space craft, which finally arrived at
its destination, Comet 67P, on August 6th 2014,
after a journey of about 10 years and five months?
28. Which of the Europe’s cargo carrier accomplished
its mission?
(a) ATV-4 (b) ATV-7
(a) Rosetta
(c) Curiosity
En
(b) Philae
(d) Mezinni
(c) ATV-6 (d) ATV-8
29. The fastest super computer of India
gin
19. Which of the following social networking site
has joined GSM operators lobby group Cellular
operators Association of India (COAI)?

(a) Param Yuva–II (b) SAGA–500
(c) AKA–1000 (d) None of these
(a) Orkut
(c) Twitter
(b) Facebook
(d) Linkedinee
20. Which among the following is India’s largest
indigenously built warship, recently inducted in
30. First climate change theatre opened in India in
the state of
(a) Punjab
(c) Orissa rin (b) Haryana
(d) Kerala

Indian Navy?
(a) INS Kolkata (b) INS Goa
g.n
31. In 2014, US scientists genetically engineered a
plant to produce more eugenol. The engineered
(c) INS Kochi
3D model human brain?

(a) Big Brain
(d) INS Mumbai
21. What is the name of world’s first high definition
(b) Super Brain

plant is :
(a) Mango
(c) Neem et
(b) Basil
(d) Capsicum
32. Which country launched first ever deep UV laser
(c) Great Brain (d) Huge Brain device?
22. The most commonly used chemicals for artificial (a) China (b) USA
raining or cloud seeding are? (c) Canada (d) UK
(a) Silver iodine (b) Sodium chloride 33. India’s first Defence Satellite, successfully placed
(c) Dry ice (d) All of the above
in the Geosynchronous orbit
23. Study of life in outer space is
(a) GSAT–8 (b) GSAT–7
(a) Entrobiology (b) Endobiology
(c) Exobiology (d) Neobiology (c) GSAT–9 (d) None of these
24. International Renewable Energy Agency 34. German scientists developed a new App to find
(IRENA) is presently headed by lost things called
(a) Helene Pelosse (b) Adnan Z. Amin (a) Find my stuff (b) Find my goods
(c) Lars Rasmussen (d) G. Vishwanathan (c) Find my things (d) Find lost goods


35. World’s first trip to moon’s south pole for 45. The company developed new device that helps
installation of a permanent telescope 2016 started Stephen Hawking communicate faster is
by (a) Microsoft (b) Intel
(a) ILO Association and Moon express (c) Apple (d) Sony
(b) NASA and ILO Association 46. Space Telescope of NASA discovered magnetic
(c) Moon Express and NASA Braids in the atmosphere of
(d) EU and Moon Express (a) Mars (b) Sun
36. The world’s lightest substance produced by China (c) Venus (d) Jupiter
47. Scientists at the Berkley lab created world’s first
ww

called
(a) Carbon Aerogel (b) Carbon Aerosol
(c) Carbon Aero (d) None of these
digital Atlas of
(a) Head
(c) Brain
(b) Eyes
(d) Heart
w.E
37. The world’s first space telescope released by
Japan for remote observation of planets named
(a) SPRINT–J (b) ORBIT–5
48. Mangalore University and BARC signed MoU
for collaborative research on
(a) Gravity (b) Radioactivity
(c) SPRINT–A
asy
(d) ORBIT–A
38. New software for android phones named ‘Home’
has been released by
(c) Elasticity (d) Magnetism
49. Andrea Colaco, a native of South Goa’s
Velim developed accurate 3D gesture sensing
(a) Twitter
(c) Facebook
En
(b) Linkedin
(d) Google

technology on
(a) Mobile device (b) LCD TV
(a)
named
Volocopter gin
39. World’s first Green Helicopter tested in Germany
(b) Greenocopter
(c) Cinema screen (d) None of these
50. Diskagma Buttonii a 2.2 billion year old fossils
(c) Nalocopter (d) Domocopter
ee
40. The New sign language translator – KINECT was
developed by
(a) Google (b) Apple

discovered in
(a) South Africa
(c) Kenya
rin
(b) Nigeria
(d) Morroco
51. Russian capsule Bion-M returned after a month-
(c) Microsoft (d) Yahoo
41. Curiosity Rover captured a flower like formation
(a) monkey
(c) dog g.n
long space tour with the animal
(b) mice, newts.
(d) tortoise
on the rocks of
(a) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(d) Venus
42. The oldest super predator living on earth
discovered was the
test-fired successfully in
(a) UK
(c) China
et
52. World’s first gun made from 3D printer technology
(b) USA
(d) Japan
53. UK scientists produced a disease resistant piglet
(a) Marine crocodile (b) Blue Dolphin
called
(c) Yellow whale (d) Marine Cobra (a) pig-24 (b) pig-25
43. India was affected by the cyber spying campaign (c) pig-26 (d) pig-27
called 54. Jeff Bezos, the Amazon CEO recovered two
(a) Red October (b) Red September Apollo Rocket Engines from
(c) Black October (d) Black September (a) Atlantic ocean (b) Arabian sea
44. Scientists of the JNU’s school of Biotechnology (c) South China sea (d) Pacific ocean
discovered a gene that can restrict tumours, the 55. The rank of India on the list of spam spewing
discovered gene is : nations in the world is
(a) SCO2 (b) CNO2 (a) 2nd (b) 3rd
(c) SNO2 (d) None of these (c) 4 th (d) 5th

56. The French scientists developed a headset that 61. What was the theme of Indian Science Congress
give humans 360 degree vision called 2015?
(a) 360° VIZ (b) Fly VIZ (a) Science and Technology for Inclusive
(c) Rotate VIZ (d) VISION Development
57. What is the objective of SMAP Satellite launched (b) Science and Technology for India’s
by NASA? Development
(a) Observe and measure moisture of soil on (c) Science and Technology for Rural
Earth. Development
(d) Science and Technology for Human
ww

(b) Detect moisture in atmosphere of Mars.
(c) Measure rigidity of rocks on Moon.
(d) Measure sea level on Earth.
Development
62. Delhi Police has launched a mobile application in
January 2015 named
w.E
58. Which district has become the first one in India to
have high speed Rural Broadband Network under
National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN)?

(a) Himmat
(c) Madad
(b) Kismat
(d) Suraksha
63. The Defense Research Development Organisation

(a) 8 trillion km
asy
(b) 10 trillion km
(c) 12 trillion km (d) 14 trillion km
59. Which district has become the first one in India to

(DRDO) has developed a drug named ‘Lukosin’.
It will be used in the treatment of
(a) Leukemia (b) Lucoderma
(a) Ajmer of Rajasthan
En
have high speed Rural Broadband Network
(c) Lung cancer (d) Brain tumor
64. Which of the following is not a feature of

(b) Vidisha of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Idukki of Kerala
(d) Hisar of Haryana gin

Graphene?
(a) Elastic
(c) Weak
(b) Lightweight
(d) Flexible

debit and credit cards?
(a) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC
(b) Axis bank
(d) HSBC
ee
60. Which bank has launched India’s first contactless 65. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was approved

by World Health Organisation(WHO) to combat
(a) Ebola
(c) Tuberculosis rin (b) Malaria
(d) Dengue
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (b) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (d)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (a)
3. (b) 13. (b) 23. (c) 33. (b) 43. (a) 53. (c) 63. (b)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (a) 64. (c)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (a) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (a)
6. (b) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (b)
ww 7.
8.
(b)
(c)
17.
18.
(a)
(a)
27.
28.
(d)
(a)
37.
38.
(c)
(c)
47.
48.
(c)
(b)
57.
58.
(a)
(b)
w.E
9.
10.
(b)
(b)
19.
20.
(b)
(a)
29.
30.
(a)
(a)
39.
40.
(a)
(c)
49.
50.
(a)
(a)
59.
60.
(c)
(a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1. (c) The second edition of National Biodiversity 9. (b) Thirty-Metre Telescope is located in the
gin
Conference will be held in Kerala in February 2015.
2. (c) Beagle was released European Space
Agency’s Mars Express (MEx) orbiter in 2003. It
Hawaii islands of the USA.
10. (b) The Supreme Court has rejected the Bayer’s
appeal to cancel Compulsory License granted by
ee
was discovered by NASA’s Mars Reconnaissance
Orbiter (MRO)
3. (b) The exercise aimed at building and promoting
positive military to military relations between the
the Indian government to Natco Pharmaceuticals to
produce a generic medicine of Nexavar.
rin
11. (c) Under the Asteroid Redirect Mission (ARM)
an asteroid or its part will be captured by the robotic
armies of India and Indonesia. It included sharing of
experience in counter terrorism and conduct of joint
counter insurgency training.
g.n
spacecraft. ‘2011 MD’ has been shortlisted for this
purpose along with other two.
12. (b) Oracle is buying cloud firm Micros Systems
4. (c) According to the Indian government, 27
Indian satellites are currently operational. Out of
these, 11 are communication satellites, 12 are earth
observation satellites, 3 are navigational satellites
for $5.3 Billion.
et
13. (b) The centre is proposed to be set up at National
Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research
(NIPER), Hyderabad.
14. (b) Rotavirus is the leading cause of moderate
and 1 is MOM.
to severe diarrhoea. Rotvirus vaccine along with
5. (a) Ceres is between Mars and Jupiter. NASA’s
rubella vaccine and Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine
Dawn probe has completed its orbit around Ceres
(IPV) has been recemtly included in India’s
and has become first spacecraft to reach there.
Universal Immunisation Programme.
6. (b) INS Shivalik does not belong to 105-metre 15. (c) Ebola is a tropical viral disease which has
class of Naval Offshore Patrol Vehicle (NOPV)but killed around a thousand people recently in West
is a stealth multi-role frigates. African nations.
7. (b) Vincent, the world’s first womb transplant 16. (b) NASA’s Cassini spacecraft has identified 101
baby was born to a Swedish family. geysers on Saturn’s moon Enceladus suggesting
8. (c) Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen possibility of liquid water.
(LH2) are used Cryogenic Upper stage (C-25) 17. (a) Gaia satellite, the billion star surveyor was
of GSLV Mark-III. launched by ESA in 2013.

18. (a) Space Craft Rosetta, covered a distance of uncia or Uncia uncia ) native to the mountain ranges
about 6.5 billion KM. The goal of this arduous of Central Asia. All of the three have been added to
journey has been to rendezvous with Comet 67P. the red data list of IUCN.
19. (b) Facebook has joined GSM operators lobby 28. (a) Europe’s cargo-carrier, the ATV-4 accomplished
group Cellular operators Association of India its Mission. The Automated Transfer Vehicle (ATV)
(COAI). This move will help it get a bigger and was burnt over the uninhabited zone of the southern
effective platform to raise various issues with the Pacific Ocean after a five month mission on 2
government. November 2013.
20. (a) On 16th August 2014, Prime Minister 29. (a) India’s fastest super computer is PARAM
Yuva II as per December 2013 developed by the
ww Narendra Modi inducted INS Kolkata, India’s

largest indigenously built warship.
21. (a) The first high-resolution 3D digital model of
the human brain, which is called “Big Brain” has
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
(C-DAC). It delivers sustained performance of
360.8 teraflops.
w.Ebeen published in the journal Science.

22. (d) The most common chemicals used for cloud
seeding or artificial rain include silver iodide and
30. (a) First Climate Change theatre was opened at
Pushpa Gujral Science City in Kapurthala, Punjab
on 16 January 2014. The theatre will educate people
liquid propane.
asy
dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), sodium chloride,
23. (c) The study of life outside earth or extra- 31.

on climate change. This is the second theatre in the
world to be opened after Canada.
(b) Scientists genetically engineered Tulsi or
basil to produce eugenol, having pharmaceutical
En
terrestrial life or alien life and the effects of extra-
terrestrial surroundings on living organism is known
as Exobiology or Astrology or space biology. The
value which controls the breast cancer. Tulsi is a
medicinal plant and has anti-cancerous compounds.
and virus like organisms.

gin
hypothetical forms of life in space are of bacteria,
24. (c) Adnan Z. Amin was elected as the Director

32. (a) The Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) has
launched a deep ultraviolet (DUV) solid-state laser
device, making the country first-ever in the world to
ee
General of the International Renewable Energy
Agency (IRENA) in April 2011. Helene Pelosse
was the earlier Directorate General of IRENA. She
served in this position for 15 months, from June 30,
33.
possess such technology in September, 2013.
(b) India’s first exclusive defence satellite GSAT-
rin
7 was successfully launched by European space
consortium Arianespace’s Ariane 5 rocket from
Kourou spaceport in French Guiana on 30 August,
2009 until October 21, 2010.
25. (c) The chromosphere (literally, “sphere of
colour”) is the second of the three main layers in the
34.
2013.
g.n
(a) German scientists have developed a new
mobile app to find the commonly lost items like
Sun’s atmosphere and is roughly 2,000 kilometers
deep. It sits just above the photosphere and just
below the solar transition region. Helium, the lighter
of the noble gases, was the first to be discovered. In
35.
et
keys, wallet, or small things. The name of this app
is FIND MY STUFF.
(a) It will be a private enterprise mission,
announced by the International Lunar Observatory
fact, this element was first identified in the Sun’s Association and Moon Express and will be both
chromosphere rather than in the Earth. scientific and commercial, and plans to deliver
26. (d) ROSATOM’s mission is to maintain national the International Lunar Observatory (ILO) aboard
interests in defence, nuclear safety and nuclear a Moon Express robotic lander. Moon Express
power by achieving global leadership in advanced will send a series of robotic missions to the Moon
technologies, competencies and innovations. in support of science, commerce and exploration
ROSATOM group is situated in Russia. starting in 2015.
27. (d) The Crowned Solitary Eagle (Buteogallus 36. (a) The world’s lightest substance has been
coronatus), is a large South American raptor. developed by Chinese scientists of Zhejiang
Albatrosses are large flying birds that spend most University - Carbon aerogel that has a density of
of their life on the sea found in the Southern only one sixth of that of the air. Its density is only
Hemisphere: Antarctica, Australia, South Africa, 0.16 mg/cubic centimetre, less than previously
and South America. The snow leopard (Panthera recorded lightest substance, graphite aerogel.


37. (c) Sprint-A is the first space telescope dedicated 52. (b) The first gun of the world made out of 3D
to observing the environment of planets in the solar printer technology was fired successfully in US. It
system (Venus, Mars and Jupiter). The telescope is available at 8000 US Dollars.
is located in earth’s orbit and fluctuating between 54. (a) Jeff Bezos the Amazon CEO recovered two
950 km and 1150 km. Apollo Rocket Engines from Atlantic Ocean.
38. (c) Facebook on 4 April 2013 released the software Recovery team was funded by Amazon CEO , who
called Home, which puts the feeds from Facebook recovered two Saturn V rocket engines from the
on Android phones’ home screen. Software would Atlantic.
become the wrapper for Android operating system. 56. (b) Scientists Developed a headset that gives
humans 360 degree Vision. French scientists
ww It will become the primary way of handling the

phone.
39. (a) The world’s first green helicopter which is
claimed that they developed a new system called
Fly VIZ which enables humans to get 360 degree
vision.
w.Enoiseless and emission-free has been successfully

tested in Germany.The two-seat prototype of the
‘Volocopter’, by the company e-volo, made its
maiden voyage on November 17, 2013 in Karlsruhe,
57. (a) SMAP (Soil Moisture Active Passive) Satellite
is a three-year mission which will measure the
amount of moisture in soil. It will help to monitor
drought, predict floods, assist crop productivity,
Germany.
asy
41. (a) Mars Curiosity Rover has captured an image
of a flower like object embedded on the rocks of
weather forecasting and linking water, energy and
carbon cycles.
58. (b) A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the
En
Mars. It has also photographed a snake-like rock
formation on the Martian Rocks. The picture was
distance that light can travel in one year. Light
moves at a velocity of about 300,000 kilometers
gin
captured by the microscope Mars Hand Lens Imager
held by the robotic arm of Rover on 19 December
2012.
(km) each second. So in one year, it can travel about
10 trillion km.
59. (c) Idukki district of Kerala has become first
ee
42. (a) Scientists at the University of Edinburgh’s
School of Biological Sciences in the second week of
January 2013 discovered that the oldest known super
predator of the world was the Marine Crocodile.
district in India to have high speed Rural Broadband
Network i.e. National Optical Fibre Network
rin
(NOFN) Internet connectivity. NOFN is the largest
rural connectivity project of its kind in the world.
60. (a) Contactless cards launched by ICICI Bank can
44. (a) Scientists at the Jawaharlal Nehru University’s
School of Biotechnology claimed in the third week
of January 2013 the discovery of SCO2 gene having g.n
be used to make electronic payments by waving the
cards near the merchant terminal instead of dipping
or swiping. These cards are based on Near Field
potential qualities of restricting tumours.
45. (b) The ‘Intel’ has devised a communication
technology in 2013 that helps Stephan Hawking
communicate faster.
46. (b) A small telescope of NASA in Jan. 2103 has
Communication technology.
et
61. (d) The 102nd session of Indian National
Congress was held at Mumbai University. The
theme was “Science and Technology for Human
Development”.
captured surprising images of “magnetic braids” in
62. (a) The Himmat application will allow women to
the outer atmosphere, or corona, of the sun. send a distress call to the Police Control Room and
48. (b) The University Science Instrumentation their relatives in case of any emergency.
Centre at Mangalagangotri and Bhabha Atomic 63. (b) Lukosin is a herbal drug developed by Defense
Research Centre (BARC) signed a memorandum of Research Development Organisation(DRDO) for
understanding (MoU) for conducting collaborative treatment of Lucoderma( White patches on skin).
research on amount of radioactivity in Chitradurga 64. (c) Graphene is a 2-dimensional single layer of
district. carbon atoms. It is characterized by its flexibility,
51. (b) A Russian Capsule Bion-M craft that was filled elasticity, lightweight, and strength.
with 45 mice and 15 newts along with other animals 65. (a) In the wake of large number of deaths due to
returned from a month’s long mission in Orbit on 19 viral disease Ebola, the use of drug ZMapp was
May 2013. approved to combat the disease.

7 Miscellaneous
ww
1. Who appointed as chairman of National Book 10. 10th Aero India show concluded in

w.E Trust ?
(a) Kewal Sharma (b) Dr. Ajay Sharma
(c) Baldev Sharma (d) Suresh Mehta
(a) Hyderabad
(c) Bengaluru
(b) Goa
(d) Pune
11. Who was selected as the partner nation for 29th
2.

Legislative bodies held in
(a) Ahmedabad asy
77th Annual convention of presiding officers of
(b) Hyderabad

Surajkund International Crafts Mela?
(a) Pakistan
(c) Lebanon
(b) Sri Lanka
(d) Nepal

3.
(c) Jaipur
En
(d) Lucknow
World Congress on Information Technology
12. Third UN world conference on Disaster Risk
Reduction held in

(WCIT) in 2018 will be held in
(a) Geneva
(c) London gin
(b) Hyderabad
(d) New York
(a) USA
(c) France
(b) UK
(d) Japan
13. The book “Editor Unplugged : Media, Magnates,
4.

Development Bank of India ?
(a) Sunil Mittal
(c) M. Parasaran
ee
Who appointed as CMD of Small Industries
(b) Seema Tuteja

(d) Kshatrapati Shivaji

Netas and Me” written by
(a) Vinod Mehta
(c) Suresh Menon
rin
(b) Vimal Kumar
(d) Zubin Mehta
14. Hindi Novel Farishta authored by
5.

World Diamond Conference held in
(a) Durban (b) New Delhi

(a) S. K. Rath
(c) Kapil Isapuri g.n (b) Perumal Murugan
(d) Avinash Kumar

6.

(c) Moscow
Application Centre?
(d) Santiago
Who appointed as chief of ISRO’s Space
(a) R. V. Ravindran (b) Arun Mishra

et
15. The book ‘Red Sari’ written by
(a) Neelanjan Mukhopadhyaya
(b) Prof. Chamanlal
(c) Sudha Pai
(c) Tapan Mishra (d) A.S. Kiran Kumar (d) Javier Moro
7. Who appointed as chief operating officer of 16. World Mental Day is observed on
Vodafone India? (a) 3rd October (b) 5th October
(a) Sunil Mittal (b) Sunil Sood (c) 8th October (d) 10th October
(c) Naveen Chopra (d) Amrita Paul 17. Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas was held from January 7,
8. 102nd Indian Science Congress held in 2015 in which of the following city?
(a) Lucknow (b) Hyderabad (a) Pune (b) Hyderabad
(c) Chennai (d) Mumbai (c) Chandigarh (d) Ahmedabad
9. Who appointed as Judicial Commissioner to 18. Who among the following is the author of “The
Supreme Court Bench of Singapore? scatter here is too great”?
(a) Kannan Ramesh (b) Ravi Chaudhary (a) Kedarnath Singh (b) Bilal Tanweer
(c) Amar Kumar (d) P. R. Mohan Rao (c) Deepti Kapoor (d) Mahesh Rao

G-54 || Miscellaneous
19. Which among the following states has been (a) Bhutan (b) Columbo
chosen as the theme State for 29th Surajkund (c) Dhaka (d) Brunei
International Crafts Mela? 30. The 6th BRICS Summit held on 14-16 July 2014
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh in
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh (a) Durban (b) Brasilia
20. Haruko Obokato, who was recently in news (c) Moscow (d) New Delhi
due to publication of her controversial paper in 31. The 45th world Economic Forum meeting held
Nature belongs to which country? on 21 to 24 Jan 2015 in
(a) Korea (b) Japan (a) Switzerland (b) New York
ww
(c) China (d) Taiwan
21. The five principles of peaceful existence or
Panchsheel which is celebrating 60th year of its
(c) Durban (d) Paris
32. The 26th APEC summit held on 10-11 Nov. 2014
in
w.E signing by India, China and:

(a) Bhutan
(c) Myanmar
(b) Nepal
(d) Thailand
(a) Beijing
(c) Beijing
(b) Tokyo
(d) Seal
33. CELAC (Community of Latin American and
(a) Russia
asy
22. Malabar series of exercises which is a joint naval
manoeuvres, this year include India along with?
(b) Japan
Carribbean States) Summit will be held in
(a) Costa Rio
(c) Caracus
(b) Lima
(d) Hawana
(c) China
En
(d) France
23. Who is the author of the book “One life is not
34. The Summit on UN Commission on the status of
women held on 9-20 March 2015 in

enough”?
(a) Soli Sorabjee gin
(b) Natwar Singh
(a) Beijing
(c) New York
(b) Geneva
(d) New Delhi

(c) Jaswant Singh
ee
(d) Sonia Gandhi
24. What is the name of the new Australian Humpback
species of dolphin seen off the coast of northern
Australia?
(a) Sousa Sahulensis (b) Sousa teuszii
35. The author of the book “Dhyanchand-The Wizard

of Hockey” is
rin
(a) Gulab Kathari (b) Luis Fernandes
(c) Devdutt Patnaik (d) Raj Kundra
36. The book ‘Narendera Modi-The man, The times’
(c) Sousa chinensis (d) Souse plumbea
25. Who is the author of the Book ‘The Lost History
is written by
g.n
(a) Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay

of 1914’?
(a) Pratiksha Baxi
(c) Jack Beatty
(b) Javed Alam
(d) Anna Morcom
26. The 9th G-20 Summit of 20 economic powers

(b) Dr. Ajay sharma
(c) Prof. Chamanlal
(d) Kingshuk Nag et
37. The book ‘My Journey-Transforming Dreams
held on 15–16 November, 2014 in into Action’ is written by
(a) Durban (b) St. Pitts burg (a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Brisbane (d) Ottawa (b) C.N.R. Rao
27. The 40th G-7 Summit held on 4-5th June 2014 in (c) K. Kasturirangan
(a) London (b) Paris (d) V.N. Rao
(c) Brunei (d) Sochi 38. The book “Tendulkar-The Cricketer of the
28. The 24th ASEAN Summit held on 1-11 May Century” is written by
2014 in (a) Vinod Mehta (b) Vimal Kumar
(a) Nyi Pyi Taw (b) Epoh (c) Suresh Menon (d) Jeet Arora
(c) Nom Penh (d) Kathmandu 39. The book “Playing to Win” is written by
29. The 4th ministrial meeting of SAARC for poverty (a) Saina Nehwal (b) Jwala Gutta
abolition will be held in (c) Ashwini Punappa (d) P.V. Sindhu

40. The book “The Namo Story-A Political Life” is 50. The current Foreign Secretary of India is
written by (a) Sudha Sharma (b) Neeta Chaudhary
(a) Kingshuk Nag (b) Raghu Raman (c) S. Jaishankar (d) Sumitra Singh
(c) Shivnath Jha (d) R.K. Dhawan 51. Who is the National Security Advisor of United
41. World ‘Malala Day’ celebrated on States of America?
(a) 12 July (b) 12 June (a) Samantha Power (b) Susane Rice
(c) 12 August (d) 12 October (c) Helen Thomas (d) Hillary Clinton
42. India’s first ‘White Label ATM’ Brand launched 52. Indian origin American appointed Assistant
Foreign Minister for South and Middle Asia
ww

by
(a) Tata communication
(b) Reliance communication

Issues is
(a) Sima Biswal
(b) Sunita Biswal

w.E(c) Airtel India
(d) Idea communication
43. The Mascot of 35th National Games is

(c) Nisha Desai Biswal
(d) None of these
53. Maldives Presidential polls won by
(a) Pigeon
(c) Vulture
asy
(b) Ammu
(d) Eagle
44. ‘How Not to Make Money’ is the first publication

(a) Abdulla Yameen
(b) Mohammed Nasheed
(c) Abdul Naseer

of which of the celebrity?
(a) Shilpa Shetty
En
(b) Raj Kundra
(d) Mohammed Shamim
54. Who won Miss Universe 2015 is
(c) Sashi Tharoor
gin
(d) Neeta Ambani
45. A book titled ‘A Bouquet of Vivekanand’s
Writings’ in which languages?

(a) Pia Wurtzbach (b) Samantha Brooks
(c) Gabriela Lyndy (d) None of these

(a) Bengali and English
(b) Hindi and English
(c) Hindi and Sanskrit
(d) Hindi and Gujarati
ee 55. Who was crowned Miss Asia Pacific World 2014?

(a) Shrishti Biswas (b) Swetha Raj
(c) Seema Tuteja
(a) A.K. Mittal rin (d) Soma Biswas

56. Who appointed as chairman of Railway Board?
(b) Arun Kumar
46. Which city of the world is announced as ‘World
Book Capital’ for the year 2015?

g.n
(c) Abhinav Kumar (d) Akhilesh Kumar
57. The first Miss Universe contender to represent
(a) Incheon
(c) New Delhi
(b) Bangkok
(d) Detroit
47. Who appointed 23rd governor of Reserve Bank
of India?

Myanmar in 50 years is
(a) Joe Sui Ki
(c) Aan Sui et
(b) Moe Set Wine
(d) Loe Sui Jem
58. The book ‘Birth of Cinema’ is written by
(a) Raghuram G. Rajan (a) N. Gopal Krishna (b) P. Balaswamy
(b) Y.V. Reddy (c) N. Gopalan (d) T. Udayawarluon
(c) C. Rangrajan 59. The book entitled ‘Momentous Times’ is authored
(d) D. Subbarao by
48. The current Chief Information Commissioner (a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(CIC) of Central Information Commission is (b) Hamid Ansari
(a) Sushma Singh (b) Sudha Sharma (c) Salman Khurshid
(c) Aruna Bahuguna (d) Naina Lal Kidwai (d) Farukh Abdullah
49. Who appointed as a Chief Justice of Supreme 60. The book titled ‘1283’ launched by a legendary
Court of India? footballer named
(a) H.L. Datta (b) R. V. Ravindran (a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Pele
(c) S. Gopalakrishnan (d) M. Parasaran (c) L Messy (d) Ronaldo

61. ‘The Third Curve’ a book written by film director 72. Which airport has recently bagged the prestigious
named Golden Peacock National Quality Award for the
(a) Mansoor Khan (b) Salim year 2015?
(c) Abbas Mastan (d) Farhan Akhtar (a) Delhi International Airport Limited
62. The book ‘Gandhi Before India’ written by (b) Veer Savarkar International Airport
(a) Satish Chandra (b) Ramchandra Guha (c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(c) Romila Thapar (d) H. C. Verma (d) Trivandrum International Airport
63. The book entitled ‘India and Malaysia–Interwined 73. What is the code name of the military operation
ww

Strands” written by
(a) Veena Sikri (b) Veena Paul
(c) Veena Mahajan (d) Veena Pathak

in Yemen against Shia Houthi group?
(a) Operation Rahat
(b) Operation Thunderbolt

w.E
64. The book titled ‘Smritiyan’ is authored by
(a) Kavya Viswanath (b) Garima Sanjay
(c) Meghna Desai (d) Anu Aga

(c) Operation All Out
(d) Operation Decisive Storm
74. Carolina Marin who recently won the women’s

asy
65. The book entitled ‘The Luminaries’ is written by
(a) Eleanor Catton (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Amitav Ghosh (d) None of these
singles titles of Malaysia Open Super series
Premier badminton tournament, is from which
country?
En
66. ‘An Introduction to Urdu Poetry’ is written by
(a) Aneesha Syed (b) Anees Ayesha
(a) Germany
(c) Switzerland
(b) Spain
(d) Malaysia

gin
(c) Sharmin Obaid (d) Shirin Ibadi
67. The book ‘Maimaar-e-Qaun’ edited by
75. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 6 April 2015
launched National Air Quality Index (AQI) for
monitoring the quality of air in major urban

(a) Mufti Ataur Rahman Ansari
(b) Mehbooba Mufti
(c) Mufti Salman Hyder
(d) None of these
ee centres across the country on a real-time basis.
The AQI has been developed by the Central
(a) IIT-Kanpur rin

Pollution Control Board in consultation with?
(b) IIT-Madras
68. Who was on 6 April 2015 re-appointed as the

chairman of the IPL governing council?
(a) Saurav Ganguly (b) Rajeev Shukla
(c) IIT-Delhi
g.n(d) IIT-Guwahati
76. Government on 13 April 2015 notified the

(c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Sandeep Patil
69. Name India’s first Scorpene submarine which
was recently launched for sea trials?
(a) INS Alleppy (b) INS Vikrant
act?
(a) 99th
et
National Judicial Appointments Commission
Act, 2014 and also ___th constitution amendment
(b) 100th
(c) 94th (d) 101st
(c) INS Kalvari (d) INS Pigeon 77. Which state government on 13 April 2015
70. Which country will host the fifth meeting of announced Cabinet-rank status for yoga guru
SAARC health ministers in April 2015? Baba Ramdev?
(a) India (b) Nepal (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh (c) Jharkhand (d) Haryana
71. Which state government on 5 April 2015 re- 78. Former US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton
launched the anti-corruption helpline number on 12 April 2015 announced that she would be
1031 to help people register their complaints if contesting the election for the office of U.S.
they are harassed for bribes? president to be held in which year?
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) 2015 (b) 2018
(c) Delhi (d) Rajasthan (c) 2016 (d) 2017

79. Name the Foreign Minister of North Korea who (a) Viswanathan Anand
visited India from 12 April to 14 April 2015, (b) Srinivasa Ramanujan
which was also the first-ever visit of a foreign (c) Malala Yousafzai
minister of North Korea to India? (d) Bernard Shaw
(a) Wang Yi (b) Ri Su Yong 85. India’s first International Financial Services
(c) Fumio Kishida (d) None of these Centre (IFSC) recently became operational at
80. Richie Benaud who passed away on 10 April GIFT City in Gandhinagar district of which state?
2015 in Sydney was a famous? (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(a) Cricket commentator
ww
(b) Nuclear Scientist
(c) Author
(d) Historian
(c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat
86. n a landmark development, U.S. President Barack
Obama and Cuban President ____ held a meeting
w.E
81. Which city was recently awarded the title of
Global Earth hour Capital 2015?
(a) Thane (b) Sydney
on 11 April 2015, which marked the first summit
between the two countries since the height of the
Cold War?
(c) Ottawa
asy
(d) Seoul
82. Which city was named India’s Earth Hour Capital
2015?

(a) Raul Castro
(b) Michelle Bachelet
(c) Simpson Miller
(a) Rajkot
(c) Thane En
(b) Pune
(d) Coimbatore
(d) Enrique Peña Nieto
87. Renowned novelist, poet, playwright, illustrator,

across India on?
(a) 11 April gin
83. National Safe Motherhood day was observed
(b) 12 April
graphic artist, sculptor and recipient of the 1999
Nobel Prize in Literature, Gunter Grass who
passed away on 12 April 2015 was from which
(c) 13 April (d) 14 April
ee
84. An Asteroid numbered 316201 was recently
named after?

country?
(a) Mexico
(c) Germany
rin
(b) France
(d) Canada
g.n
et

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (a) 71. (c) 81. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (c)
3. (b) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (a) 73. (d) 83. (a)
4. (d) 14. (c) 24. (a) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (c)
5. (b) 15. (d) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (a) 75. (a) 85. (d)
ww6.
7.
8.
(c)
(c)
16.
17.
18.
(c)
(d)
26.
27.
28.
(c)
(d)
36.
37.
38.
(a)
(a)
46.
47.
48.
(a)
(a)
56.
57.
58.
(a)
(b)
66.
67.
68.
(b)
(a)
76.
77.
78.
(a)
(d)
86.
87.
(a)
(c)
w.E
9.
10.
(d)
(a)
(c)
19.
20.
(b)
(d)
(b)
29.
30.
(a)
(a)
(a)
39.
40.
(b)
(a)
(a)
49.
50.
(a)
(a)
(c)
59.
60.
(a)
(b)
(b)
69.
70.
(b)
(c)
(a)
79.
80.
(c)
(b)
(a)
asy
Hints & Solutions
En
1. (c) Union Ministry of Human Resource
gin
Development on 2 March 2015 appointed Baldev
Sharma as chairman of National Book Trust (NBT). 5.
batch IAS officer, is currently the principal secretary
Finance Department in Maharashtra government.
(b) World Diamond Conference was held in New
Sethumadhavan ee
He is a former Panchajanya editor. He replaced A.
2. (d) The 77th annual convention of presiding

officers, speakers and secretaries of legislative
Delhi. The aim of the conference is to increase the
rin
global market for diamonds. During the conference
ALROSA the largest rough diamond supplying
company of Russia signed agreement for direct sale
assemblies and councils was held in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh. The four day convention was inaugurated g.n
of rough diamonds with 12 Indian companies. India
is the world’s largest centre for cutting and polishing
by Lok Sabha speaker Sumitra Mahajan on 31
January 2015. Uttar Pradesh hosted the annual
convention after 30 years.
3. (b) Hyderabad will host the World Congress on
6.
et
diamond and its largest importer of uncut diamond.
(c) Eminent scientist Tapan Mishra was on 20
February 2015 appointed as the chief of ISRO’s
Space Applications Centre (SAC) at Ahmedabad,
Information Technology (WCIT) in 2018. This will Gujarat. He succeeded A. S. Kiran Kumar, who was
be the first WCIT to be held in India and the theme appointed as chairman of the Indian Space Reaserch
of the 2018 WCIT will be “Future of Enterprises”. Organization (ISRO) on 12 January 2015. Tapan
WCIT will be attended by over 2500 delegates from Mishra was lead designer for the development
80 countries and would cover issues such as cyber of C-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) of
security, global collaborative models, IT continuing India’s RISAT-1 He also led the development of
education policies and other. scatterometer payload of Ocean sat-2 satellite that
4. (d) Kshatrapati Shivaji was on 27 February 2015 was launched in 2009.
appointed as the chairman and Managing Director 7. (c) Naveen Chopra was appointed as the chief
(MD) of Small Industries Development Bank of operating officer of Vodafone India. He succeeded
India (SIDBI). Shivaji was appointed on deputation Sunil Sood who was elevated to post of Managing
basis for a period of three years. Shivaji, a 1986 Director and Chief Executive officer in the company.

8. (d) The 102nd Indian Science Congress was held 15. (d) The Red Sari, an unauthorized biography of
in Mumbai from 3 January to 7 January 2015. congress party president Sonia Gandhi, was released
The theme of 102nd Indian Science Congress was by Roli books in India. The book has been written
Science and Technology for Human Development. by spanish author Javier Moro.
The 102 Indian Science Congress was inaugurated 16. (c) World Health Organisation every year observes
by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The ISC October 10 as the World Mental Health Day.
was organized by the Indian Science Congress 17. (d) Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas will be held from
Association with University of Mumbai. January 7 in Ahmedabad.
9. (a) Indian origin Lawyer Kannan Ramesh 18. (b) Bilal Tanweer has been awarded with Shakti
ww was on 27 February 2015 appointed as Judicial

Commissioner to Singapore’s Supreme Court
bench. He will serve the office for two years. As a
Bhatt First Book Prize- 2014 for his novel “The
scatter here is too great”.
19. (d) Chhattisgarh has been chosen as the theme
w.E lawyer Ramesh specializes in legal cases related to

insolvency and restructuring dispute resolution, and
international arbitration.
State for Surajkund International Crafts Mela to be
held from 1st February to 15th February 2015.
20. (b) Haruko Obokato, a Japanese researcher came
10.
asy
(c) 10th Aero India show concluded on 22
February 2015 at the Yelahanka Air Force station in
Bengaluru Karnataka. The five day long show had
in prominence after publication of her two papers in
Nature.
21. (d) Panchsheel was signed between India, China
En
started on 18 February 2015 and was inaugurated
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. During the
10th Aero India show, audience witnessed the
and Myanmar 60 years ago for peaceful co-
existence.
11.
gin
performance of Sarang aerobatic team from the
Indian Air Force flying Dhruv helicopters
(c) The 29th Surajkund International Crafts mela
22. (b) India, Japan and the USA are holding joint
naval manoeuvres in Pacific Ocean as part of the
Malabar series of exercises.
ee
was celebrated from 1 to 15 February 2015 at
Surajkund, Faridabad. Chhattisgarh was selected
as the theme state while Lebanon was partner
Nation for the Surajkund mela. The mela was
23. (b) The book “One life is not enough” is the
autobiography of Natwar Singh.
rin
24. (a) Sousa Sahulensis is one of the four recognised
species of humpback dolphin. It is grey in colour
jointly hosted by Haryana Tourism Corporation and
Surajkund mela Authority in collaboration with the
Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture and
g.n
and has a characteristic ‘cape’ pattern on its back.
25. (c) The Lost History of 1914 is written by Jack
Beatty, an American news analyst.
12.
External Affairs.
(d) The conference was hosted by the Government
of Japan in cooperation with the United Nations
office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) as
et
26. (c) G–20 summit held in St. Brisbane.
27. (d) G–7 summit held in Sochi.
28. (a) ASEAN summit held in Nayi Pyi Taw.
29. (a) The 4th Ministrial meeting of SAARC held in
secretariate of the international strategy for Disaster Bhutan.
Reduction. 30. (a) The 6th BRICS summit held in Durban.
13. (a) Book titled “Editor Unplugged : Media, 31. (a) The 45rd WEF meeting held in Switzerland.
Magnates, Netas and Me” written by Vinod Mehta 33. (a) CELAC summit will be held in Costa Rica .
was in news in the first week of February 2015. The 34. (c) UN–commission on the status of women held
book was published by Penguins India. Mehta in the in Beijing.
book has highlighted his views on Narendra Modi, 35. (b) Dhyanchand – The Wizard of Hockey is written
Arvind Kejriwal and the Nehru-Gandhi dynasty. by Luis Fernandes.
14. (c) Kapil Isapuri, the Hindi Novelist of Farishta 36. (a) Narendra Modi – ‘The man, The times’ is written
a ceised filmmakers of PK for plagiarism. He has by Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay.
sought punitive damages of 1 crore rupees along 37. (a) ‘My Journey– Transforming Dreams into
with the credit of his work from the filmmakers. Action’ is written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

38. (b) “Tendulkar – The Cricketer of the Century” is 54. (a) Miss Pia Wurtzbach won the title of Miss
written by Vimal Kumar. Universe 2015.
39. (a) ‘Playing to Win’ is written by Saina Nehwal. 55. (b) Swetha Raj was crowned as Miss Asia Pacific
40. (a) ‘The Namo Story–A Political Life’ is written by World 2014.
Kingshuk Nag. 56. (a) A.K. Mittal appointed as the chairman of
41. (a) World ‘Malala Day’ observed on 12 July. Railway Board.
42. (a) White Label ATM brand launched by Tata 57. (b) Moe Set Wine, the first Miss Universe contender
communication.
to represent Myanmar in 50 years.
43. (b) Ammu is the Mascot of 35th National Games.
58. (a) The book ‘Birth of Cinema’ is written by N.
ww
44. (b) ‘How Not to Make Money’ is written by Raj
Kundra.
45. (a) ‘A Bouquet of Vivekanand’s Writings’, released
Gopal Krishna.
59. (b) The book entitled ‘Momentous Times’ is
w.Ein Bengali and English languages.

46. (a) Incheon is announced as the World Book Capital
for 2015.
47. (a) Raghuram G. Rajan appointed as the governor
authored by Hamid Ansari.
60. (b) The book titled 1283 launched by legendary
footballer Pele.
61. (a) ‘The Third Curve’ is written by Mansoor Khan.
of Reserve Bank of India.
asy
48. (a) The CIC of India is Sushma Singh.
62. (b) The book ‘Gandhi before India’ is written by
Ramchandra Guha.
Supreme Court of India.

En
49. (a) H.L. Datta appointed as the Chief Justice of
50. (c) S. Jaishankar appointed as the Foreign Secretary

63. (a) The book “India and Malaysia : Interwind
Strands” is written by Veena Sikri.
64. (b) The book entitled ‘Smritiyan’ is authored by
of India.
gin
51. (b) Susane Rice is the National Security Advisor of
Garima Sanjay.
65. (a) The book entitled ‘The Luminaries’ is written
the US.
ee
52. (c) Nisha Desai Biswal appointed Assistant Foreign
Minister for South and Middle Asia Issues for
America.
53. (a) Abdulla Yameen won the presidential poll of
by Eleanor Catton.
66. (b) ‘An Introduction to Urdu Poetry’ is written by
Anees Ayesha.
rin
67. (a) The book ‘Maimaar-e-Qaun’ edited by Mufti
Maldives.
Ataur Rahman Ansari.
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Only Book with 100% Explanatory Solutions

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For further information about the books from DISHA,

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1. Indus Valley Civilization 1-9

Section C : INDIAN POLITY & GOVERNANCE C-1–C-54

1. Indian Constitution 1-15

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Section D : ECONOMICS D-1–D-46

1. Indian Economy 1-12

ww Section E : GENERAL SCIENCE E-1–E-80

5. Science and Technology En

1. Art and Culture ee

Section G : CURRENT AFFAIRS

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3. Which metal was unknown to Indus Valley

(d) None of these

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A-2 || Indus Valley Civilization

(a) Bathing pool

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evidence of settled life?

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A-4 || Indus Valley Civilization

(a) Greek civilization gin

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(c) Indus Valley Civilization had been a combination

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A-6 || Indus Valley Civilization

ww or two stories high, made of baked (Pucca) bricks,

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w.E barley, sesasum, mustard, peas, etc. The evidence

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A-8 || Indus Valley Civilization

w.E trade centre.

larger and more extensive.

53. (c) The evidence of beadmakers’ shops has

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ww 27 km west of Meerut. Alamgirpur is located on

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2 Vedic Period and

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ww an association with the Sun?

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A-12 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements

(a) R.S. Sharma

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rin (b) Rural

(d) Taitariya Upanishad

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A-14 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements

(c) Prophet Mohammad

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(b) Gautama Buddha

the region of king

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