Current Affairs MCQs [ 8 and 9 December 2017 ]

PIB TheHindu IndianExpress & Other leading newspapers

Sumant Kumar, B.Tech NIT Allahabad
sumant.magadh@gmail.com
https://www.facebook.com/SumantKM/
Which of the following authorities • A “public authority” is any authority or body or
falls under the purview of RTI institution of self government established or
ACT, 2005? constituted by or under the Constitution; or by any
1. A body established other law made by the Parliament or a State
under constitution Legislature; or by notification issued or order
2. An authority established made by the Central Government or a State
by state legislature Government.
3. NGO substantially • The bodies owned, controlled or substantially
financed by the Central financed by the Central Government or a State
Government Government and non-Government organisations
4. Central ministers substantially financed by the Central Government
Select the correct answer using or a State Government also fall within the
the codes given below: definition of public authority.
Codes: • The financing of the body or the NGO by the
1. 1, 2 and 3 only Government may be direct or indirect.
2. 2, 3 and 4 only • Recently Delhi High Court has set aside the Central
3. 1, 3 and 4 only Information Commission order declaring Ministers
 4. All of the above Ans A as “public authorities” and answerable under the
Right to Information law.
With reference to Right to Information
act, 2005, consider the following
statements:
1. It can be used by the Non-
resident Indians (NRIs).
2. It is applicable for the entire
country.
3. Under the act, the information
can be obtained in vernacular language.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans C
Adherence by public authorities to Section 4 of
the Right to Information Act can ensure/lead to
which one of the following outcomes?
a) Non-disclosure of any information that is
regarded as ‘sensitive’ by the Government of the
day
b) Every officer appointed as Chief Information
Commission will have a five year tenure
regardless of his or her age at the time of
appointment
c) Enhancement of citizens’ participation in
governance and lending transparency to
Government functioning
d) Timely designation of officers as Information
Officers in all administrative units
Solution: c.
• Under RTI act,2005 the term
‘information’ include all the material in
written or digital form(e-mails etc.) with
the public authority for whom the
information is being asked.
• The right is applicable to all the states of
India except J&K.
• Under the act, the information can be
obtained by writing in English, Hindi or
official language of the area.
• Information can be accessed by citizens
(NRI part of it) and third party including
public authority.
• Third party is defined in the act as person
other than citizens.
‘Proactive disclosure provisions’ are provided for under
which one of of the following sections of the Right to
Information Act, 2005?
a) Section 4
b) Section 8
c) Section 12
d) Section 24
Solution: a.
Section 4 deals with voluntary disclosure by public
authorities.
In April 2017, the Commission directed the Environment
Ministry that all biosafety data pertaining to GM
Mustard and all other GMOs in pipeline be released as
that is part of voluntary disclosure under Section 4 of
the Right to Information Act.
Section 4 of the RTI Act contains the proactive • Exceptions to disclosure (Section 8)
disclosure norms (suo moto disclosure). • Constitution of CIC (Section 12)
• Authorities exempted from the act to be listed in
second schedule of the act (Section 24)

Which of the following bodies submit • CIC submits an annual report to the Central
their annual report to the President? Government which places the report before
1. Central Information each houses of the parliament.
Commission • NHRC submits its annual or special report to the
2. National Human Rights Central Government and to the State
Commission Government concerned.
3. Central Vigilance • These reports are laid before respective

Commission legislatures, along with a memorandum of

Select the correct answer using the action taken on the recommendations of
code given below. the commission and the reasons for non-
(a) 3 only acceptance of any such recommendations.
(b) 1 and 2 only • CVC = presents its annual report to the
(c) 1 and 3 only President.
(d) 1 only
Ans C

CIC Central Information Commission & issues

• established in 2005 under RTI Act (2005).

• a statutory body.

o
not a constitutional body.
• not only advisory but also an action body.

• a high-powered independent body.

• looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals.

• It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public

sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.
Which of the following are true about
Israel :
1. Modi will be the first Indian Prime
Minister to visit Israel.
2. the State of Israel, is a country in the
Middle East, on the southeastern shore of
the Mediterranean Sea and the northern
shore of the Red Sea.
3. Israel has land borders with Lebanon to
the north, Syria to the northeast, Jordan
on the east, the Palestinian territories of
the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the east
and west, respectively, and Egypt to the
southwest.
4. Israel's economy and technology center is
Tel Aviv, while its seat of government and
proclaimed capital is Jerusalem
Options :
1. 1, 2 and 3 Only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 3 and 4 Only
Ans : c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
UPSC Prelims 2003
Israel has common borders with:
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
46. (a)
Israel has common borders with Lebanon,
Syria, Jordan and Egypt.
The UN Security Council Resolution
(UNSC) 478
1.Declared null and void the Israeli claim
that Jerusalem “complete and united” is
its capital
2.Provided a roadmap for the two-state
solution
3.Was adopted unanimously by the UNSC
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a
That the presiding officer, while deciding a question under
the Tenth Schedule, function as a tribunal was provided
for by
a) The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985
b) The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Holohan case
c) The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003
d) The Supreme Court in the Krishna Kumar Singh case
Solution: b
• Any question regarding disqualification arising out of

defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of

the House.
• Originally, the act provided that the decision of the

presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in

any court.
• However, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the

Supreme Court declared this provision as

unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to take
away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the
high courts. It held that the presiding officer, while
deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, function
as a tribunal. Hence, his decision like that of any other
tribunal, is subject to judicial review on the grounds
of mala fides, perversity, etc. But, the court rejected the
contention that the vesting of adjudicatory powers in
the presiding officer is by itself invalid on the ground of
political bias.

Consider the The presiding officer of a house is empowered to make rules to give effect to the
following provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
statements The Anti-Defection law has come to be criticised on the following grounds:
about the • It does not make a differentiation between dissent and defection. It curbs the

Anti- legislator ’s right to dissent and freedom of conscience.

Defection • Its distinction between individual defection and group defection is irrational.

Law: • It does not provide for the expulsion of a legislator from his party for his

1.The activities outside the legislature.

President of • Its discrimination between an independent member and a nominated member

India is is illogical. If the former joins a party, he is disqualified while the latter is
constitutionall allowed to do the same.
y obliged to • Its vesting of decision-

make rules for making authority in the presiding officer is criticised on two
giving effect
to the o
Firstly, he may not exercise this authority in an impartial and objective
provisions of manner due to political exigencies.
the Tenth o
Secondly, he lacks the legal knowledge and experience to adjudicate up
Schedule on the cases.
2.The law
does not make
a
differentiation
between
dissent and
defection
Which of the
statements
given above
is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and
2
d) Neither 1
nor 2
Solution: b

The Supreme Court of India’s Commonly referred to as the Anti-Defection Law,

famous judgement in the Kedar Nath which one of the following amendments to the
Singh vs State of Bihar (1962) case is Constitution provided for the disqualification of the
related to members of Parliament and the state legislatures
a) Inclusion of Property related on the ground of defection from one political party
legislations in the 9th Schedule to another?
b) Anti - defection activities a) 44th Amendment Act of 1977
c) Sedition law b) 52nd Amendment Act of 1985
d) Right to property c) 71st Amendment Act, 1992
Solution: c)
 d) 91st Amendment Act of 2003
Solution: b.
The 91st Amendment Act modified the Tenth
Schedule and made certain other amendments that
strengthened the Anti-Defection Law.

A member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of

the House if the Member under the Anti-Defection Law?
1. Joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate
2. Abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his /her political party
3. Voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which
he/she had been elected to the House
4. Is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the
House

Upon expulsion from a political party, there is no automatic disqualification under

the 10th Schedule of the Constitution from legislative assembly or Parliament and
that member will continue as an unattached member as per the direction of the
Speaker.

However, if there is any overt act of either joining any other political party
voluntarily or defies any whip of any political party then he will attract the
provision of the 10th Schedule and action can be taken against him by the Speaker.

Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Which is the main aim of the National Skill Development
Corporation (ALIMCO) is a Mission?
a) A private MNC specializing in
providing affordable artificial
limbs
b) Public Sector Undertaking
under Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment
c) A government of Rajasthan
undertaking
d) None of the above Solution: b)
The main objective of the UJALA
scheme is to
a) Provide affordable lighting to
BPL families
b) Promote efficient lighting
c) Provide light for all villages
d) None of the above
Solution: b)
UDAAN
Ministry / Department : Ministry of Ministry/Department:
Home Affairs (MHA), State
Government (Jammu & Kashmir),
Corporates and National Skill
Development Corporation (NSDC)
Scheme:
• The programme aims to provide
skills training and enhance the
employability of unemployed
youth of J&K.
• The scheme covers graduates,
post graduates and three year
engineering diploma holders.
• Udaan Scheme provides exposure
to youth of J&K to best of
a) To provide outcome-based skill training to youth at village
level
b) To provide a strong institutional framework at the Centre
and States for implementation of skilling activities in the
country
c) To provide skill training aligned to international standards
for overseas employment in European and Gulf countries etc
d) All of the above
Solution: b)
UDAAN scheme aims to
a) Provide flight connectivity to small cities
b) Upgrade small airports to enable them to handle
commercial flight operations
c) Encourage more people to fly by providing affordable
flight choices
d) None of the above
Solution: d)
UDAAN aims to develop skills of youth in J&K
UDAN is a cheap airfare scheme.
UDAN - Regional Connectivity Scheme
Ministry of Civil Aviation
UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik
Objective: To get more people to fly in the smaller towns. To boost regional
air connectivity and provide various incentives to airlines. Aims that at least
half the seats on every flight should have a fare cap of Rs2,500 per seat per
hour of flying.
Scheme:
• The UDAN scheme seeks to provide connectivity to un-served and under-
served airports of the country through revival of existing air-strips and
airports.
• This first-of-its-kind scheme will ensure affordability, connectivity,
growth and development.
• It aims to increase ticketing volume from 80 million to 300 million by
2022.
• Under it regional connectivity will be developed on market-based
mechanism under which Airlines will bid for seat subsidies.
• It will create affordable yet economically viable and profitable flights on
regional routes so that flying becomes affordable to the common man
even in small towns.
• Under it, airlines will have complete freedom to enter into code sharing
with larger airlines for connectivity and they will be exempted from
various airport charges.
corporate India and corporate
India to rich talent pool available
in State.
• Airlines will have exclusive rights for three years to fly on a particular
regional route.
• On these routes for regional flights Airfares will be capped at 2500
•
rupees for an hour’s flight.
Central and State governments and airport operators will provide a
financial stimulus in the form of concessions to airlines
• The mechanism of Viability Gap Funding (VGF) will be provided to
interested airlines to kick-off operations from such airports so that the
passenger fares are kept affordable
• Government will provide subsidy to airlines for first three years of
operations when they will have exclusive flying rights on the selected
routes.
• Once the market in these routes gets jump started, it will operate on a
commercial basis as per market forces of supply and demand.
In reference to Aadhaar-based
Biometric Authentication (ABBA),
consider the following statements:
1. An eligible individual can
become a beneficiary, if only the
aadhar number is seeded into
household ration card.
2. Working of the PoS machine,
being used for the project, depends
entirely on internet connectivity.
Which of the following statement is
correct?
• An eligible individual can become a
beneficiary and access the PDS system only if
her Aadhaar number is correctly seeded onto
the PDS database and added to the household
ration card.
• Successful working of the PoS machine
depends entirely on internet connectivity as
verification of the ration card number and
the beneficiary’s biometric fingerprint is
carried out over the internet.
 1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 or 2
Ans C

With reference to Islamic Islamic banking is a banking system that is based on the
banking, consider the principles of Islamic law, also referred to as Shariah law,
following statements: and guided by Islamic economics.
1. Islamic banking • Two basic principles behind Islamic banking are the

uses equity-participation sharing of profit and loss and, significantly, the

systems. prohibition of the collection and payment of interest
2. It prohibits by lenders and investors.
collection and payment • Collecting interest or “riga” is not permitted under

of interest by lenders Islamic law.

and investors. • In order to earn money without charging interest,

Which of the following Islamic banks use equity-participation systems. This

statement(s) is/are means that if a bank loans money to a business, the
correct? business pays back the loan without interest, but it gives
1. Only 1 the bank a share in its profits. If the business defaults on
2. Only 2 the loan or does not earn any profits, the bank does not
3. Both 1 and 2 receive any profit either.
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C
INS Kalvari, a Scorpene
Submarine named after a deep-
sea tiger shark, is going through
the final phase of trials.
The selection of names of ships
and submarines of the Indian
Navy is done by the
a) A separate nomenclature
committee of the Ministry of
Defence
b) The President of India
c) A committee consisting of the
Chief of the Naval Staff and all
4-star rank naval officers
d) Chiefs of Staff Committee
Solution: a.
• The selection of names of ships and submarines of the Indian
Navy is done by the Internal Nomenclature Committee (INC) at the
Defence Ministry.
• The INC is headed by the Assistant Chief of the Naval Staff
(Policy & Plans), and has representatives from the historical
section of the Defence Ministry, Department of Archaeology in
the Ministry of Human Resource Development, and the Ministry
of Surface Transport, among others.
• As per the policy guidelines, the recommendations of this
committee are approved by the Navy Chief.
• Names, crests and mottos of major war vessels require the
assent of the President as well.
• To maintain uniformity in the names of vessels of one type, the
Internal Nomenclature Committee follows certain broad
parameters, which have been enumerated in the policy guidelines.
So, a cruiser or a destroyer is named after a state capital, a large
city, or a great king or warrior from India’s history — for example,
INS Delhi and INS Ranjit.
• Names of vessels in a certain class begin with the same letter, and
describe similar/related objects.
‘Chillai-Kalan’ is
a) A violent dust storm which
blows during winter in the Thar.
b) A 40-day harsh winter period
in Kashmir.
c) A peculiar weather
phenomenon observed annually
in Tripura when hailstones, rain
and snow falls at the same time.
d) A cold wind rushing down
from the Eastern Himalayas in
violent gusts between 60 and a
100 kilometres per hour.
Solution: b.
“Chillai-Kalan … is the period of
winter when the chances of
snowfall are usually most
frequent and maximum.”
In the world of finance and business, a ‘Unicorn’ refers
to
a) A start-up with a stock market valuation of more
than $1 billion.
b) An environment-friendly start-up with a stock
market valuation of more than $100 million.
c) An investor who sells his stock in a start-up the
moment its value begins to plummet.
d) A start-up firm which specialises in keeping a
lookout for takeovers.
Solution: a.
A unicorn, in the world of business, is a company,
usually a start-up that does not have an established
performance record, with a stock market valuation or
estimated valuation of more than $1 billion.
• The term was first popularized by the venture
capitalist Aileen Lee, according to whom, “Those that
do reach the $1 billion mark are so rare that finding
one is as difficult as finding a unicorn.”