MHT CET Sample Papers and Answer Key Rao IIT Academy 2017 18

MHTCET
SAMPLEPAPERS
&ANSWERKEY
RaoII
TAcademy
(2017-
18)
JEE | MEDICAL-UG | BOARDS | KVPY | NTSE | OLYMPIADS
MH - CET : 2017
MATHEMATICS
Rao IIT Academy – A Division of Rao Edusolutions Pvt. Ltd.
OFFICIAL PAPER
CODE : 11
1
Rao IIT Academy / MH ‑ CET ‑ 2017 / Mathematics / QP / CODE ‑ 11
Mathematics
Single Correct Questions +2 | ‑0
1. The statement pa ern is logically equivalent to

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. If is the inverse function of and then is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. The inverse of the matrix is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. If then
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
5. are the vertices of The joint equation of the altitude and
median drawn from O is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Space for rough use
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6. If then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. If and are roots of the equation then the value of is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. If where be the parameter then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The point on the curve where the tangent is perpendicular to the line
is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. If then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11. The number of principal solutions of is

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
12. The objective function subject to

has minimum value at the point.
(A) On x‑axis (B) On y‑axis
(C) At the origin (D) On the line parallel to x‑axis
Space for rough use
13. If and are co‑ordinates of the points of trisection of the segment joining the points
then
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 10
14. The maximum value of is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. If c denotes the contradiction then dual of the compound statement is

(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. The differential equation of all parabolas whose axis is y‑axis is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. ________________, where is greatest integer function.
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1
19. The objective function of LPP defined over the convex set a ains its optimum value at

(A) At least two of the corner points (B) All the corner points
(C) At least one of the corner points (D) None of the corner points
Space for rough use
20. If the inverse of the matrix does not exist then the value of is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21. If the function for

for
is continuous at then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
22. For a invertible matrix A if then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. The solution of the differential equation is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
24. In if and then the maximum value of the area

of is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25. If and are differentiable functions of then is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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26. A If values of mean and variance of X are 18 and 12 respectively then total
number of possible values of X are
(A) 54 (B) 55 (C) 12 (D) 18
27. The area of the region bounded by the lines and is
(A) 16 sq. unit (B) sq. unit (C) sq. unit (D) 8 sq. unit
28. A box contains 6 pens, 2 of which are defective. Two pens are taken randomly from the box. If r.v.
X: Number of defective pens obtained, then standard deviation of X =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
29. If the volume of spherical ball is increasing at the rate of cc/sec then the rate of change of its

surface area when the volume is cc is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30. If for

for is continuous at x =0 then K is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
31. If the origin and the point P(2,3,4), Q(1,2,3) and R(x, y, z) are co‑planar then
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32. If lines represented by equation are distinct then

(A) (B) (C) (D)
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33. Let be a quadrilateral. If M and N are the midpoints of the sides PQ and RS respectively

then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34. If slopes of lines represented by differ by 1 then
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 8
35. If vector with d.c.s. l, m, n is equally inclined to the co‑ordinate axes, then the total number of

such vectors is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 2
36. The particular solution of the differential equation , when is

(A) (B) (C) (D)
37. has vertices at and . If the median through A

is equally inclined to the axes, then the values of and respectively are
(A) 10, 7 (B) 9, 10 (C) 7, 9 (D) 7, 10
38. For the following distribution function F(x) of a.r.v. X
x 1 2 3 4 5 6
F(x) 0.2 0.37 0.48 0.62 0.85 1
(A) 0.48 (B) 0.37 (C) 0.27 (D) 1.47
39. The lines and intersect each other at point
(A) (‑2, ‑4, 5) (B) (‑2, ‑4, ‑5) (C) (2,4,‑5) (D) (2, ‑4, ‑5)
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40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41. The equation of line equally inclined to co‑ordinate axes and passing through (‑3, 2,‑5) is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
42. If then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43. A boy tosses fair coin 3 times. If he gets Rs. 2X for X heads then his expected gain equals to Rs. ....
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44. Which of the following statement pa ern is a tautology ?

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
45. If the angle between the planes and is then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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46. If for

for
then at is
(A) Continuous but not differentiable (B) Not continuous but differentiable
(C) Continuous and differentiable (D) Not continuous and not differentiable
47. The equation of the plane through (‑1, 1, 2), whose normal makes equal acute angles with co‑
ordinate axes is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. Probability that a person will develop immunity after vaccination is 0.8. If 8 people are given
the vaccine then probability that all develop immunity is =
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49. If the distance of points from the plane is 5 units then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
50. The value of is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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RAO IIT ACADEMY / MH-CET - 2017 / ANSWER KEY / CODE : 11
Max. Marks : 100

Date: 11-05-2017 MH-CET - 2017 Max. Time : 1.30 hrs
CODE : 11 : ANSWER KEY
MATHEMATICS
1. [B] 2. [A] 3. [D] 4. [B] 5. [B] 6. [B]
7. [A] 8. [B] 9. [A] 10. [D] 11. [C] 12. [C]
13. [B] 14. [C] 15. [A] 16. [B] 17. [D] 18. [B]
19. [C] 20. [C] 21. [C] 22. [A] 23. [C] 24. [C]
25. [C] 26. [A] 27. [A] 28. [C] 29. [C] 30. [D]
31. [B] 32. [D] 33. [D] 34. [A] 35. [B] 36. [A]
37. [A] 38. [A] 39. [C] 40. [D] 41. [A] 42. [A]
43. [B] 44. [A] 45. [A] 46. [B] 47. [D] 48. [B]
49. [B] 50. [B]
SANTACRUZ | ANDHERI | GOREGAON | KANDIVALI (E) | KANDIWALI (W) | BORIVALI | BHAYANDER | VASAI | POWAI | DADAR |
222
SION | THANE | LOKPURAM (THANE) | DOMBIVLI | KALYAN | PANVEL | KAMOTHE | NERUL | SANPADA | KHARGHAR |
Max. Marks : 100

MATHEMATICS
1. [B] 2. [A] 3. [D] 4. [B] 5. [B] 6. [B]
7. [A] 8. [B] 9. [A] 10. [D] 11. [C] 12. [C]
13. [B] 14. [C] 15. [A] 16. [B] 17. [D] 18. [B]
19. [C] 20. [C] 21. [C] 22. [A] 23. [C] 24. [C]
25. [C] 26. [A] 27. [A] 28. [C] 29. [C] 30. [D]
31. [B] 32. [D] 33. [D] 34. [A] 35. [B] 36. [A]
37. [A] 38. [A] 39. [C] 40. [D] 41. [A] 42. [A]
43. [B] 44. [A] 45. [A] 46. [B] 47. [D] 48. [B]
49. [B] 50. [B]
222
MH - CET : 2017
PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY
Rao IIT Academy – A Division of Rao Edusolutions Pvt. Ltd.
OFFICIAL PAPER
CODE : 11
1
Rao IIT Academy / MH ‑ CET 2017 / Physics & Chemistry / QP / CODE ‑ 11
Physics
Single Correct Questions +1 | ‑0
1. An ideal gas has pressure ʹPʹ, volume ʹVʹ and absolute temperature ʹTʹ.If ʹmʹ is the mass of each
molecule and ʹKʹ is the Bol mann constant then density of the gas is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. A big water drop is formed by the combination of ʹnʹ small water drops of equal radii. The ratio of
the surface energy of ʹnʹ drops to the surface energy o ig drop is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. The ratio of binding energy of a satellite at rest on ea1thʹs surface to the binding energy of
a satellite of same mass revolving around the earth at a height ʹhʹ above the earthʹs surface is (R =
radius of the earth)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. A particle performing S.H.M. starts from equilibrium position and i ime period is 16
seconrl. After 2 seconds its velocity is . Amplitude of oscillation is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. In a sonometer experiment, the string of length ʹL∙under tension vibrates in second
overtone between two bridges. The amplitude of vibration is maximum at
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
6. A wheel of moment of inertia is rotating about an axis passing through centre
and perpendicular to its plane at a speed 60 radls. Due to friction, it comes to rest in 5
minutes. The angular momentum of the wheel three minutes before it stops rotating is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
The equation of the progressive wave is where x andY are
in metre and time in second. Which of the fo11owing is correct ?
(A) velocity V = 1.5 m/s (B) amplitude A= 3 em
(C) frequency F = 0.2 Hz (D) wavelength
8. Two spherical hlack horlies have raclii . Their surface temperatures are . If

they radiate same power then is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The closed and open organ pipt:s have same length. When they are vibrating simultaneously in
first overtone, produce three beats. The length of open pipe is made and dust:d pipe is made
three times the original, the number of beals produced will be
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 17 (D) 20
10. A 1ift of mass ʹm• is con nected to a rope which is moving upward with maximum acceleration ʹaʹ.
For maximum safe stress, the elastic l imit of the rope is ʹTʹ. The minimum diame :r of the rope is
(g =gravitational acceleration)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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11. A ceiling fan rotates about its own axis with some angular velocity. When the fan is switched off,
the angular velocity hecomes of the original in time ʹtʹ and ʹnʹ revolutions are made in that
time. The number of revolutions made by the fan during the time interval between switch off and
rest are (Angular retardation is uniform)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12. A disc of moment of inertia is rotating in horizontal plane hout an axis passing through
a centre ancl perpendicular to its plane with constant angular speed . Another disc of
moment of inertia having zero angular speed is placed coaxially on a rotating disc. Now both
the dises are rotating with constant angular speed . The energy lost by the initial rotating disc
is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. A particle performs linear S.H.M. At a particular instant, velocity of the particle is
ʹuʹ and acceleration is while at another instant velocity is ʹvʹ and acceleration is
. The distance hetwcen the two positions is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. The ohserver is moving with velocity towards the stationary source of sound and then
after crossing moves away from the source with velocity . Assume that the medium
through which the sound waves travel is at rest. If ʹvʹ is the velocity of sound and ʹnʹ is the ft
quency emi ed by the source then the difference between apparent frequencies heard by the
observer is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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15. A metal rod oflength ʹLʹ and cross‑sectional area ʹAʹ is heated through ʹTʹ . What is the force
required to prevent the expansion of the rod lengthwise ?
[Y = Youngʹs modulus of the material of rod, a ‑ coefficient of linear expansion]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is rolling on a frictionless horizontal surface with velocity 6 rnls.
It collides on the free end uf an ideal spring whose other end is fixed.The maximum
compression produced in the spring will be (Force constant of the spring= 36 N/m).
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. A flywheel at rest is to reach an angular velocity of 24 rad/s in 8 second with constant angular
acceleration. The total angle turned through during this interval is
(A) 24 rad (B) 48 rad (C) 72 rad (D) 96 rad
18. Two uniform wires of the same material arc vibrating under the same tension. If the first overtone
of the first wire is equal to the second overtone of the second wire and radius of the first wire is
twice the radius of the second wire then the ratio of the lengths uf the first wire to second wire is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. When one end of the capillary is dipped in water, the height of water column is ʹhʹ. The upward
force of 105 dyne due to surface tension is balanced by the force due to the weight of water
column. The inner circumference of the capillary is
(A) 1.5 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) 3 cm
20. For a rigid diatomic molecule, universal gas constant R = nCp where ʹCpʹ is the molar specific heat
at constant pressure and ʹnʹ is a number. Hence n is equal to
(A) 0.2257 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.2857 (D) 0.3557
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21. The depth ʹdʹ at which the value of acceleration due to gravity becomestimes the value at the
earthʹs surface is (R = radius of earth)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
22. A particle is performing S.H.M. starting from extreme pusiliun. Graphical representation shows
that, between displacement and acceleration, there is a phase difference of
(A) 0 rad (B) (C) (D)
23. The fundamental frequency of an air column in a pipe dosed at one end is 100 Hz. lf the same pipe
is open at both the ends, the frequencies proctuced in Hz are
(A) 100, 200, 300, 400, ... (B) 100, 300, 500, 700, ...
(C) 200, 300, 400, 500, ... (D) 200, 400, 600, 800, ...
24. For a particle moving in vertical circle. the total energy at different positions along the path
(A) is conserved (B) increases
(C) decreases (D) may increase or decrease
25. A simple p ::uuulum of length ʹLʹ has mass ʹMʹ and it oscillates freely with amplitude ʹAʹ.
At extreme position, its potential energy is (g = acceleration due to gravity)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
26. The frequency for series limit of Balmer and Paschen series respectively are If
frequency of first line of Balmer series is then the relation between is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Space for rough use
27. When three capacitors of equal capacities are connectecl in parallel and one of the same capacity is
connected in series with its combination. The resultant capacity is The capacity of each
capacitor is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
28.
Sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is ʹsʹ. If a shunt of D of the resistance of
galvanometer is connected to moving coil galvanometer, its sensitivity becomes
(A) (B) (C) (D)
29. Two unknown resistances are connected in two gaps of a meter‑bridge. The null point is obtained
at 40 cm from left end. A 30 resistance is connected in series with the smaller of the two
resistances, the null point shifts by 20 cm to the right end. The value of smaller resistance in is
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48
30. In Fraunhofer diffraction pa ern, slit width is 0.2 mm and screen is at 2 m away from the lens. If

wavelength of light used is 5000 then the distance between the first minimum on either side of
the central maximum is ( is small and measured in radian)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
31. A radioactive element has rate of disintegration 10,000 disintegrations per minute at a particular
instant. After four minutes it becomes 2500 disintegration per minute. The decay constant per
minute is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32. When the same monochromatic ray of light travels through glass slab and through water, the
number of waves in glass slab of thickness 6 cm is same as in the water column of height 7 cm. If
refractive index of glass is 1.5 then refractive index of water is
(A) 1.258 (B) 1.269 (C) 1.286 (D) 1.310
Space for rough use
33. If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from second Bohr orbit to grounds state and difference
between energies of the two states is radiated in the form of photons. If the work function of the
material is 4.2 eV then stopping potential is
(A) 2 eV (B) 4 eV (C) 6 eV (D) 8 eV
34. The magnetic moment of electron due to orbital motion is proportional to (n = principlal quantum
number)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
35. Photodiode is a device
(A) which is always operated in reverse bias
(B) which is always operated in forward bias
(C) in which photo current is independent of intensity of incident radiation
(D) which may be operated in forward or reverse bias
36. Two coils P and Q are kept near each other. When no current flows through coil P and current
increases in coil Q at the rate 10 A/s, the e.m.f. in coil P is 15 mV. When coil Q carries no current
and current of 1.8 A flows through coil P. the magnetic flux linked with the coil Q is
(A) 1.4 mWb (B) 2.2 mWb (C) 2.7 mWb (D) 2.9 mWb
37. In Youngʹs double slit experiment, in an interference pa ern second minimum is observed exactly

in front of one slit. The distance between the two coherent sources is ʹdʹ and the distance between
source and screen is ʹDʹ. The wavelength of light source used is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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38. In communication system, the process of superimposing a low frequency signal on a
high frequency wave is known as
(A) Repeater (B) A enuation (C) Modulation (D) Demodulation
39. A bar magnet has length 3 cm, cross‑sectional area 2 cm2 and magnetic moment 3 Am2. The
intensity of magnetisation of bar magnet is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40. The magnetic flux near the axis and inside the air core solenoid of length 60 cm carrying current
Its magnetic moment will be (cross‑sectional area of a solenoid is very small as
compared to its length, SI unit)
(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.50 A (C) 0.75 A (D) 1 A
41. On a photosensitive material, when frequency of incident radiation is increased by 30%, kinetic
energy of emi ed photoelectrons increases from 0.4 eV to 0.9 eV. The work function of the surface
is
(A) 1 eV (B) 1.267 eV (C) 1.4 eV (D) 1.8 eV
42. Out of the following graphs, which graph shows the correct relation (graphical representation) for
LC parallel resonant circuit ?
(A) (1) (B) (2)

(C) (3) (D) (4)
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43. According to de‑Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength associated with moving electron of mass ʹmʹ
is ; Using mass energy relatino and Planckʹs quantum theory, the wavelength associated with
photon is If the energy (E) of electron and photon is same then relation between
is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity ʹCʹ farad, potential ʹVʹ volt and energy ʹEʹ joule. When
the gap between the plates is completely filled with dielectric
(A) both V and E increase (B) both V and E decrease
(C) V decreases, E increases (D) V increases, E decreases
45. The resistivity of potentiometer wire is ‑ metre and its area of cross‑section is
If 0.2 ampere current is flowing through the wire, the potential gradient of the wire
is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
46. In series LCR circuit and impedance is An r.m.s. voltage 220 V is applied across

the circuit. The true power consumed in a.c. circuit is
(A) 220 W (B) 400 W (C) 600 W (D) 800 W
47. Two parallel plate air capacitors of same capacity ʹCʹ are connected in series to a ba ery of emf ʹEʹ.

Then one of the capacitors is completely filled with dielectric material of constant ʹKʹ. The change
in the effective capacity of the series combination is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
48. The polarising angle for transparent medium is is the speed of light in that medium. Then

the relation between is (c = velocity of light in air)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49. Two identical light waves having phase difference propagate in same direction. When the y
superpose, the inteisity of resultant wave is proportional to
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
50.
For a transistor, are the current ratios, then the value of is
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) 2.5
Chemistry
51. The rate constant for a first order reaction is If initial conentration of reactant is

what is the half life of reaction?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
52. The polymer used in making handles of cookers and frying pans is
(A) bakelite (B) nylon‑2‑nylon‑6
(C) orlon (D) polyvinyl chloride
53. Which halogen has the highest value of negative electron gain enthalpy?
(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine (C) Bromine (D) Iodine
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54. What is the actual volume occupied by water molecules present in 20 cm3 of water?
(A) 20 cm3 (B) 10 cm3 (C) 40 cm3 (D) 24.89 dm3
55. Which of following coordinate complexes is an exception to EAN rule?
(Given At. No. Pt = 78, Fe = 26, Zn = 30, Cu = 29)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in case of Hofmann bromamide degradation?
(A) Reaction is useful for decreasing length of carbon chain by one carbon atom
(B) It gives tertiary amine
(C) It gives primary amine
(D) Aqueous or alcoholic KOH is used with bromine
57. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for pair of elements Zr ‑ Hf?
(A) Both possess same number of valence electrons.
(B) Both have identical atomic sizes
(C) Both have almost identical ionic radii
(D) Both of these belong to same period of periodic table
58. Aldehydes or ketones when treated with the product formed is

(A) semicarbazone (B) phenylhydrazone
(C) hydrazone (D) oxime
59. Solubility of which among the following solids in water changes slightly with temperature?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
60. What is the quantity of hydrogen gas liberated when 46 g sodium reacts with excess ethanol?
(Given At. mass of Na = 23)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61. Identify the weakest oxidising agent among the following.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
62. The monomers used in preparation of dextron are
(A) lactic acid and glycollic acid
(B) 3 ‑ Hydroxy butanoic acid and 3 ‑ Hydroxy pentanoic acid
(C) styrene and 1, 3 ‑ Butadiene
(D) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
63. Which among the following compounds does not act as a reducing agent?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64. Which of the following processes is NOT used to preserve the food?
(A) Irradiation (B) Addition of salts
(C) Addition of heat (D) Hydration
65. In case of substituted aniline the group which decreases the basic strength is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
66. Which among the following equations represents Arrhenius equation?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Space for rough use
67. Which of the following compounds will give positive idoform test?
(A) Isopropyl alcohol (B) Propionaldehyde
(C) Ethylphenyl ketone (D) Benzyl alcohol
68. The first law of thermodynamics for isothermal process is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69. The conversion of ethyl bromide to ethyl iodide using sodium iodide and dry acetone, this
reaction is known as
(A) Swarts reaction (B) Finkelstein reaction
(C) Sandmeyer reaction (D) Stephen reaction
70. What is the hybridization of carbon atoms in fullerene?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
71. Which of the following is used as antiseptic?
(A) Chloramphenicol (B) Bithional
(C) Cimetidine (D) Chlordiazepoxide
72. In preparation of sulphuric acid from sulphur dioxide in lead chamber process. What substance is
used as a catalyst?
(A) Mangenese dioxide (B) Vandadium pentoxide
(C) Nitric oxide (D) Reney Nickel
73. The correct charge on and co‑ordination number of in is

(A) +2, 4 (B) +3, 6 (C) +2, 6 (D) +3, 3
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74. Which among the following reactions is an example of pseudo first order reaction?
(A) Inversion of cane sugar.
(B) Decomposition of
(C) Conversion of cyclopropane to propane
(D) Decomposition of
75. The amine which reacts with p ‑ toluencsulphonyl chloride to give a clear solution which on
acidification give insoluble compound is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
76. The work done during combustion of kg of ethane, at 300 K is (Given
atomic mass )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
77. What type of sugar molecule is present in DNA?
(A) D‑3‑deoxyribose (B) D‑ribose
(C) D‑2‑deoxyribose (D) D‑Glucopyranose
78. The molality of solution containing 15.20 g of urea, (molar mass = 60) dissolved in 150 g of water is

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
79. The acid which contains both ‑OH and ‑COOH groups is
(A) phthalic acid (B) adipic acid (C) glutaric acid (D) salicylic acid
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80. Identify the compound in which phosphorus exists in the oxidation state of +1.
(A) Phosphonic acid (B) Phosphinic acid
(C) Pyrophosphorus acid (D) Orthophosphoric acid
81. (+) 2‑ Methylbutan ‑1‑ol and (‑)2‑Methylbutan‑1‑ol have different values for which property?
(A) Boiling point (B) Relative density
(C) Refractive index (D) Specific rotation
82. Which among the following is NOT a mineral of iron?
(A) Haematite (B) Magnesite (C) Magenetite (D) Siderite
83. Nitration of which among the following compounds yields cyclonite?
(A) Formaldehyde (B) benzaldehyde
(C) Urotropine (D) Acetaldehyde ammonia
84. Calculate the work done during compression of 2 mol of ideal gas from a volume of to
at 300 K against a pressure of 100 Kpa.
(A) ‑ 99 kJ (B) + 99 kJ (C) + 22.98 kJ (D) ‑ 22.98 kJ
85. Which element among the following does from multiple bonds?

(A) Arsenic (B) Nitrogen (C) Phosphorus (D) Antimony
86. tert‑butyl methyl ether on treatment with hydrogen iodide in cold gives
(A) tert‑butyl iodide and methyl iodide (B) tert‑butyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
(C) tert‑butyl alcohol and methyl iodide (D) tert‑butyl iodide and methyl alcohol
Space for rough use
87. Name the process that is employed to refine aluminium.
(A) Hallʹs process (B) Mond process
(C) Hoopeʹs process (D) Serperckʹs process
88. The colour and magnetic nature of manganate ion is

(A) green, paramagnetic (B) purple, diamagnetic
(C) green, diamagnetic (D) purple, paramagnetic
89. The osmotic pressure of solution containing 34.2 g of cane suger (molar mass ) in 1L

of solution at is
(Given, R = 0.082 L atm )
(A) 2.40 atm (B) 3.6 atm (C) 24 atm (D) 0.0024 atm
90. In assigning R‑S configuration which among the following group has highest priority?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
91. Which among the following equations represents the reduction taking place in lead accumulator
at positive electrode, while it is being used as source of electrical energy?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
92. For which among the following equimolar aqueous solution Vanʹt factor has the lowest value?
(A) Aluminium Chloride (B) Potassium Sulphate
(C) Ammonium Chloride (D) Urea
93. The amino acid which is basic in nature is
(A) Histidine (B) Tyrosine (C) Proline (D) Valine
Space for rough use
94. Which element among the following does NOT form diatomic molecules?
(A) Argon (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen (D) Bromine
95. A molecule of Stachyose contains how many carbon atoms?
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 24
96. What of the SI unit of conductivity?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
97. Which of the following is Baeyerʹs reagent?
(A) alkaline (B) acidic
(C) alkaline (D)
98. What is the chief constituent of Pyrex glass?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99. Which of the following compounds has lowest boiling point?
(A) n‑butyl alcohol (B) isobutyl alcohol
(C) tert‑butyl alcohol (D) sec‑butyl alcohol
100. Identify the INVALID equation.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
Max. Marks : 100


PHYSICS
1. [A] 2. [D] 3. [A] 4. [D] 5. [D] 6. [C]

7. [D] 8. [C] 9. [C] 10. [B] 11. [C] 12. [D]
13. [A] 14. [A] 15. [B] 16. [B] 17. [D] 18. [A]
19. [A] 20. [C] 21. [C] 22. [D] 23. [D] 24. [A]
25. [A] 26. [A] 27. [A] 28. [C] 29. [B] 30. [B]
31. [B] 32. [C] 33. [C] 34. [D] 35. [A] 36. [C]
37. [C] 38. [C] 39. [D] 40. [C] 41. [B] 42. [D]
43. [A] 44. [B] 45. [B] 46. [D] 47. [A] 48. [B]
49. [B] 50. [A]
CHEMISTRY
51. [A] 52. [A] 53. [B] 54. [A] 55. [D] 56. [B]
57. [D] 58. [B] 59. [D] 60. [B] 61. [A] 62. [A]
63. [A] 64. [D] 65. [D] 66. [C] 67. [B] 68. [A]
69. [B] 70. [C] 71. [B] 72. [C] 73. [B] 74. [A]
75. [A] 76. [A] 77. [B] 78. [A] 79. [D] 80. [B]
81. [D] 82. [B] 83. [A] 84. [B] 85. [B] 86. [D]
87. [C] 88. [A] 89. [A] 90. [A] 91. [D] 92. [D]
93. [A] 94. [A] 95. [D] 96. [B] 97. [A] 98. [B]
99. [C] 100. [C]
111
Max. Marks : 100


PHYSICS
1. [A] 2. [D] 3. [A] 4. [D] 5. [D] 6. [C]

7. [D] 8. [C] 9. [C] 10. [B] 11. [C] 12. [D]
13. [A] 14. [A] 15. [B] 16. [B] 17. [D] 18. [A]
19. [A] 20. [C] 21. [C] 22. [D] 23. [D] 24. [A]
25. [A] 26. [A] 27. [A] 28. [C] 29. [B] 30. [B]
31. [B] 32. [C] 33. [C] 34. [D] 35. [A] 36. [C]
37. [C] 38. [C] 39. [D] 40. [C] 41. [B] 42. [D]
43. [A] 44. [B] 45. [B] 46. [D] 47. [A] 48. [B]
49. [B] 50. [A]
CHEMISTRY
51. [C] 52. [A] 53. [A] 54. [B] 55. [C] 56. [D]
57. [B] 58. [A] 59. [B] 60. [B] 61. [A] 62. [B]
63. [A] 64. [D] 65. [B] 66. [C] 67. [C] 68. [A]
69. [A] 70. [A] 71. [A] 72. [A] 73. [A] 74. [D]
75. [D] 76. [D] 77. [D] 78. [A] 79. [A] 80. [D]
81. [B] 82. [C] 83. [B] 84. [A] 85. [A] 86. [B]
87. [D] 88. [B] 89. [D] 90. [B] 91. [B] 92. [A]
93. [B] 94. [C] 95. [C] 96. [A] 97. [A] 98. [B]
99. [A] 100. [D]
111
Rao IIT Academy / MHT CET 2018 / Biology / Code44 / QP
Biology
Single Correct Questions +1 | 0
1. Cambium is essential for grafting in plants because
(A) Cambia of both stock and scion fuse together
(B) Cambium produces new leaves
(C) Cambium produces new roots
(D) Cambium helps in the production of flowers
2. Which one of the following carbohydrates is a heteropolysaccharide ?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Starch
(C) Glycogen
(D) Hyaluronic acid
3. "Pusa Sadabahar" is resistant to _______ disease.
(A) Leaf curl and chilli mosaic virus
(B) Leaf and stripe rust
(C) Black rot
(D) Curl blight black rot
4. The adsorption of water by hydrophilic compounds like cellulose and pectin in root hair cell wall is called _______.
(A) Diffusion
(B) Imbibition
(C) Guttation
(D) Osmosis
5. In Kreb's cycle, the conversion of oxalosuccinate into ketoglutarate involves ________ reaction.
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Hydration
(D) Decarboxylation
6. Double fertilization in angiosperms was first discovered by S.G. Nawaschin in ________ plants.
(A) Lillium
(B) Sunflower
(C) Wheat
(D) Mango
Space for rough use
7. Oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotes occurs during ________.
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Protein synthesis
(C) Lipid synthesis
(D) Respiration
8. Snapdragon is an example of _________ gene interaction.
(A) Codominance
(B) Multiple alleles
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Polygenic inheritance
9. In one nucleosome, which one of the following histone molecule is NOT double ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. Which one of the following is NOT true about Salvia flower ?
(A) Flowers are bisexual
(B) Flowers are protandrous
The upper branch of bifurcated connective bears sterile anther lobe and lower branch bears
(C)
fertile anther lobe
The upper branch of bifurcated connective bears fertile anther lobe and lower branch bears
(D)
sterile anther lobe
11. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding Bt Cotton.
(A) Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are sprayed on its vulnerable leaves
(B) It releases toxin that causes swelling in the gut of insect that ingest its leaves
(C) It is a transgenic plant
(D) It can produce toxin due to gene introduced in it by transgenesis
12. In angiosperms, the fusion of male gamete with the secondary nucleus is considered as "Second fertilization" because
(A) It is fusion of two nuclei
(B) Secondary nucleus is a sister nucleus of the egg
(C) It takes place in embryo sac
(D) It takes place after pollination
Space for rough use
13. In Mirabilis jalapa, when red and white varieties are crossed, the hybrid obtained will be ________ pink.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
14. During rDNA technology, which one of the following enzymes is used for cleaving DNA molecule ?
(A) Exonuclease
(B) Endonuclease
(C) Restriction endonuclease
(D) Helicase
15. Chipko Movement took place in
(A) Montreal
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bangalore
(D) Garhwal Himalayas
16. In plants, RichmondLang effect is
(A) Delaying the onset of senescence by application of cytokinin
(B) Prevention of abscission of leaves and flowers by auxin application
Increasing commercial value of leafy vegetables by inducing leaf expansion through gibberellin
(C)
application
(D) Breaking dormancy of seeds and buds through application of ethylene
17. In a person suffering from sickle cell anaemia, the ________ becomes half moon shaped.
(A) RBC
(B) Thrombocyte
(C) Monocyte
(D) Lymphocyte
18. Which one of the following is true about respiration in green plants ? Respiration takes place ________.
(A) Only when stomata are open
(B) Only when photosynthesis stops
(C) Only when photosynthesis is in progress
(D) Throughout life
Space for rough use
19. In eukaryotes, the anticodon of tRNA that pairs with the start codon of mRNA during translation is ________.
(A) UAA
(B) UCA
(C) UAC
(D) UUU
20. Biopatent is granted for biological entities by _______ authority of a country.
(A) Government
(B) Educational institute
(C) Scientist
(D) Business
21. The exine of pollen grain is made up of _________.
(A) Chitin
(B) Cellulose
(C) Sporopollenin
(D) Hemicellulose
22. Continuous upward flow of water stream in tall trees is maintained due to ________.
(A) Guttation and transpiration
(B) Transpiration pull only
(C) Cohesive force between molecules only
(D) Cohesive force between molecules and transpiration pull
23. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding plasmids ?
(A) They are small, extra chromosomal circular form of DNA
(B) They are naturally found in bacteria only
(C) They are 'replicons' capable of autonomous replication within a suitable host
They carry genes related to survival and reproduction of carrier bacterium under unfavourable
(D)
conditions
24. Algae used for the discovery of path of carbon in dark reaction were _________.
(A) Spirogyra and Chlorella
(B) Spirulina and Scenedesmus
(C) Chlorella and Scenedesmus
(D) Spirogyra and Spirulina
Space for rough use
25. Which one of the following is NOT a plant like protist?
(A) Desmid
(B) Dinoflagellate
(C) Diatom
(D) Slime mould
26. In case of anaerobic respiration, the RQ is ___________
(A) Always less than one
(B) Always more than one
(C) Always infinity
(D) Variable on the basis of substrate
27. Which one of the following is NOT true about self pollination?
(A) A sure method
(B) Most economic
(C) Maintains genetic purity
(D) Favours evolution
28. In biogas plant, the role of acidogenic bacteria is to
(A) Convert monomers to organic acids
(B) Convert monomers to complex polymers
(C) Transform acetic acid to biogas
(D) Digest fungi in the sludge
29. A part of phgotosynthetically fixed goes back to the atmosphere due to __________

(A) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(B) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Dark reaction
(D) Photoresrpiration
30. When glucose is the normal energy source in bacterial cell ___________ gene transcribes a repressor mRNA.
(A) z
(B) y
(C) a
(D) i
Space for rough use
31. Which character of angiosperms helped in their dominance on earth?
(A) Formation of seeds
(B) Formation of endosperm
(C) Double fertilization
(D) Presence of xylem vessels
32. Identify the WRONG statement regarding the process in sewage treatment
(A) Primary treatment is a physical process
(B) Secondary treatment is a biological process
(C) The BOD of effluent increases after secondary treatment
(D) The tanks used for tertiary treatment are anaerobic sludge digesters
33. A type of seed germination in which epicotyl region of embryo elongates rapidly to pull plumule out of the soil surface
is called ___________ germination
(A) Hypogeal
(B) Epigeal
(C) Viviparous
(D) Invitro
34. In a dihybrid cross with contrasting characters, the number of different genotypes obtained in generation are
________
(A) 16
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 4
35. Which one of the following is NOT caused by global warming?
(A) Melting of glacier
(B) Change in rainfall pattern
(C) Increase in sea level
(D) Increase in crop production
36. During cyclic photophosphorylation, formation of ATP occurs between which of the following two compounds?
(A) FRS Ferredoxin
(B) Cytochrome Cytochrome f
(C) Cytochrome f Plastocyanin
(D) Plastocyanin Ionised Chl a
Space for rough use
37. The development of male gametes in the pollen grains in angiosperms involves _________
(A) Only one mitotic division
(B) Two mitotic divisions
(C) Both mitotic and meiotic divisions
(D) Only one meiotic divisons
38. In the system of classification, which one of the following is NOT a category?
(A) Kingdom
(B) Series
(C) Angiospermae
(D) Genus
39. Mendel obtained pure lines by selfing yellow round seeds as female parent and green wrinkled as male parent for
_________ generations
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
40. The enzyme Taq polymerase used in PCR technique is obtained from ________
(A) Salmonella typhimurium
(B) Thermus acquaticus
(C) Rhizobium phaseoli
(D) Bacillus thuringiensis
41. Which one of the following is NOT true about vegetative propagation
(A) Easy and cheaper method
(B) Rapid propagation
(C) Production of genetically similar plants
(D) Production of gentically dissimilar plants
42. Which one of the following characfteristic is NOT shown by a virus?
(A) They are acellular
(B) They can be crystallised
(C) Active outside the hosts body
(D) Have genetic material
Space for rough use
43. The coenzyme which acts as hydrogen acceoptor during light reaction is ________
(A) PQ
(B) FAD
(C) COQ
(D) NADP
44. The sequential events that occur during protein synthesis are _________
(A) Protein Translation Transcription DNA
(B) DNA Transcription Transiation Protein
(C) Translation Transcription DNA Protein
(D) DNA Protein Translation Transcription
45. The net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule is __________
(A) 40
(B) 38
(C) 36
(D) 30
46. The 'eyes' of potato are located at the _________
(A) Root apex
(B) Leaf apex
(C) Nodes
(D) Internodes
47. Ozone layer in the trophosphere is _________ for plants and animals
(A) Good
(B) Harmful
(C) Providing protection from UV rays
(D) Releasing more oxygen
48. Steroids are characterised by ___________ in their structure
(A) Carbon atom arranged in four interlocking rings
(B) Magnesium atom arranged in the centre of tetrapyrole
(C) Two, six carbon rings
(D) Skeletal heterocyclic ring of hydrocarbons
Space for rough use
49. Chla and Chlb shown maximum absorption in ____________ regions of visible light
(A) Blue, violet and red
(B) Red, indigo and green
(C) Yellow, blue and red
(D) Blue, violet and green
50. Explant used for the production of disease free plants is _______
(A) Vascular tissue
(B) Apical meristem
(C) Intrafascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
51. Which one of the following is NOT an example of commensalism?
(A) Golden jackal and tiger
(B) Remora fish and shark
(C) Sea anemone and hermit crab
(D) Sacculina and crab
52. Match the Column I and II and select the appropriate option with the given code.
Column I Column II
(P) Coronary sinus (i) Mitral valve
Base of systemic Eustachian
(Q) (ii)
aorta valve
Left atrioventricular Semilunar
(R) (iii)
valve valves
Opening of inferior Thebesian
(S) (iv)
vena cava valve
(A) P iv, Q iii, R i, S ii
(B) P iii, Q iv, R ii, S i
(C) P ii, Q i, R iv, S iii
(D) P i, Q ii, R iii, S iv
53. Density of population increases when __________
(A) Mortality and emigration increases
(B) Natality and immigration increases
(C) Mortality increases and immigration decreases
(D) Natality decreases and emigration increases
Space for rough use
54. Total number of linkage groups in honeybee is __________
(A) 16
(B) 23
(C) 32
(D) 46
55. Hormone erythropoietin is produced by __________
(A) Heart
(B) Kidney
(C) Ovary
(D) Pancreas
56. Coenzymes of Electron Transport Chain in mitochondria are _________
(A) Cytochromes, dehydrogenases, flavoproteins
(B) Cytochromes, catalases, peroxidases
(C) Hyaluronidases, dehydrogenases, hydrolases
(D) Flavoproteins, anhydrases, phosphatases
57. In the second trimester of pregnancy, there is decline in the level of _________
(A) ACTH
(B) ICSH
(C) HCG
(D) MSH
58. Heavily built, short prehistoric man having cranial capacity of about 1450 C.C is __________
(A) Homo sapiens fossilis
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Homo heidelbergensis
(D) Homo neanderthalensis
59. Ventrolateral walls of cerebrum are called ________
(A) Crura cerebrii
(B) Corpora lutea
(C) Corpora quadrigemina
(D) Corpora striata
Space for rough use
60. Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin to form __________
(A) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(B) Carbonic acid
(C) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
61. In the given diagram of antibody, 'X' indicates ________
(A) Constant region of heavy chain
(B) Antigen binding site
(C) Disulphide bond
(D) Light chain
62. The termination of process of oogenesis is indicated by formation of ________
(A) Secondary oocyte
(B) First polar body
(C) Second polar body
(D) Perivitelline space
63. Dr. Lalji Singh obtained radioactive DNA probe from Y chromosome of ________
(A) Female drosophila
(B) Female banded krait
(C) Male drosophila
(D) Male banded krait
64. Which one of the following is NOT the insitu conservation of biodiversity ?
(A) Zoological parks
(B) Wildlife sanctuaries
(C) National parks
(D) Biosphere reserves
Space for rough use
65. Which of the following is a unicellular gland ?
(A) Goblet cell
(B) Kupffer's cell
(C) Pedicel
(D) Neuroglial cell
66. In ovary, estrogen is secreted by ________
(A) Follicular cells
(B) Corona radiata cells
(C) Sertoli cells
(D) Primary oocyte
67. Select the CORRECT statement.
(A) Sexlinked traits appear more frequently in females
(B) Colour blindness is caused due to proper formation of colour sensitive cells
(C) Human females have double dose of X chromosome
(D) Drone bees produce sperms by meiosis
68. Heart attack is also called _______
(A) Arteriosclerosis
(B) Angina pectoris
(C) Bradycardia
(D) Myocardial infarction
69. Molecular evolution and origin of life occurred in ________ Era.
(A) Archeozoic
(B) Cenozoic
(C) Palaeozoic
(D) Proterozoic
70. The part labelled 'X' in given diagram of T.S. of adrenal gland secretes ________
(A) Calcitonin
(B) Catecholamines
(C) Cortisol
(D) Mineralocorticoids
Space for rough use
71. Given below are cell organelles and their functions. Select the INCORRECT match.
(A) Lysosome — Phagocytosis
(B) Centriole — Spindle formation
(C) Sphaerosomes — Storage and synthesis of fats
(D) Leucoplast — Photosynthesis
72. An extra sex chromosome is present in _________
(A) Turner's syndrome
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Klinefelter's syndrome
(D) Down's syndrome
73. Given below is the diagram of Animal cell. Select option giving correct identification of labels X and Y respectively
(A) X Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, Y Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) X Microvilli, T Golgi apparatus
(C) X Endoplasmic reticulum, Y Mitochondria
(D) X Centrioles, Y Microvilli
74. Parasympathetic ganglia are located ______
(A) In cortex of cerebrum
(B) In medulla of cerebellum
(C) On the side of visceral organs
(D) On either side of vertebral column
75. One of the following groups of enzymes forms contents of succus entericus
(A) Maltase, Enterokinase, Trypsin
(B) Trypsin, Pepsin, Lactase
(C) Nuclease, Amylase, Chymotrypsin
(D) Sucrase, Maltase, Dipeptidase
Space for rough use
76. Adam's apple is also called _____
(A) Vestibule
(B) Pharynx
(C) Osteon
(D) Larynx
77. In the following diagram of T.S. of Artery, the region marked 'X' is ________
(A) Tunica media
(B) Tunica externa
(C) Tunica interna
(D) Tunica albuginea
78. Which of the following processes is initiated by FSH ?
(A) Degeneration of endometrium
(B) Growth of Graafian follicle
(C) Maturation of spermatozoa
(D) Secretion progesterone
79. The immunity developed by a child after attack of measles is ______ immunity
(A) Natural acquired active
(B) Artificial acquired active
(C) Natural acquired passive
(D) Artificial acquired passive
80. As an example of adaptive radiation, Darwin observed a variety of Finches in ________
(A) South Africa
(B) Madagascar
(C) Galapagos Islands
(D) East Indies
Space for rough use
81. Following are various symptoms of Marasmus EXCEPT
(A) Oedema of lower legs and face
(B) Dry, wrinkled skin
(C) Extreme leanness
(D) Atrophy of digestive glands
82. Which of the following is NOT a connecting link ?
(A) Archeopteryx
(B) Dryopithecus
(C) Ichthyostegia
(D) Seymouria
83. Oogonia arise form the endoderm of the ________
(A) Allantois
(B) Chorion
(C) Trophoblast
(D) Yolksac
84. Lacteals absorb ________
(A) Amino acids
(B) Fatty acids and glycerol
(C) Glucose and fructose
(D) Amylose and maltose
85. In the given diagram of Malpighian body, blood is filtered from part labelled _______
(A) L
(B) M
(C) N
(D) O
Space for rough use
86. Majority of kidney stones consist crystals of ______
(A) Calcium oxalate, sodium bicarbonate
(B) Calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate
(C) Calcium pohsphate, sodium chloride
(D) Calcium carbonate, copper sulphate
87. Each testicular lobule contains _______ convoluted seminiferous tubules
(A) 1 to 4
(B) 5 to 7
(C) 8 to 10
(D) 11 to 14
88. Select the INCORRECT statement with reference to DNA fingerprinting. It is _________
(A) PCR based technique
(B) Based on fingerprints of individual
(C) Used in forensic medicine technique
(D) Used to test paternity
89. Lac is used in the manufacture of following products EXCEPT
(A) Toys
(B) Polish
(C) Isinglass
(D) Ink
90. Which of the following group of animals is guanotelic ?
(A) Labeo, Turtle, Camel
(B) Lizard, Snake, Scorpion
(C) Penguin, Spider, Scorpion
(D) Spider, Scorpion, Snake
91. Which of the following is an avascular tissue ?
(A) Connective
(B) Epithelial
(C) Muscular
(D) Nervous
Space for rough use
92. Protein antitrypsin is used to treat ________

(A) Alzheimer's disease
(B) Cancer
(C) Emphysema
(D) Rheumatoid Arthritis
93. In the menstrual cycle, the level of progesterone reaches its maximum in the ________
(A) Secretory phase
(B) Proliferative phase
(C) Ovulatory phase
(D) Menstrual phase
94. Mice are most succesfully produced transgenic animals due to following :
(A) Hypo ovulation in estrous cycle
(B) Difficulty in reimplantation
(C) Production of 23 young ones
(D) Short generation time
95. Pneumatic bones and left sided ovary is characteristic feature of _________ adaptation
(A) Arboreal
(B) Aerial
(C) Cursorial
(D) Fossorial
96. Regeneration as a method of asexual reproduction is observed in _______
(A) Ascaris
(B) Planaria
(C) Prawn
(D) Salmonella
97. Branching tree like processes of white matter extending into grey cortex of cerebellum is called _______
(A) Arbor vitae
(B) Gyri
(C) Crura cerebrii
(D) Thalami
Space for rough use
98. In the given diagram of mammalian bone, X indicates
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Haversian canal
(C) Inner circumferential lamella
(D) Volkmann's canal
99. All of the following are marine Fish EXCEPT
(A) Cirrhina
(B) Herpedon
(C) Sardinella
(D) Rastrelliger
100. Heroin is extracted from the latex of plant _______
(A) Atropa belladona
(B) Claviceps purpurea
(C) Erythroxylum coca
(D) Papaver somniferum
Space for rough use
Max. Marks : 100


BIOLOGY
1. [A] 2. [D] 3. [A] 4. [B] 5. [D] 6. [A]
7. [D] 8. [C] 9. [D] 10. [C] 11. [A] 12. [B]
13. [D] 14. [C] 15. [D] 16. [A] 17. [A] 18. [D]
19. [C] 20. [A] 21. [C] 22. [D] 23. [D] 24. [C]
25. [D] 26. [C] 27. [D] 28. [A] 29. [D] 30. [D]
31. [C] 32. [C] 33. [A] 34. [B] 35. [D] 36. [B]
37. [B] 38. [C] 39. [B] 40. [B] 41. [D] 42. [C]
43. [D] 44. [B] 45. [B] 46. [C] 47. [B] 48. [A]
49. [A] 50. [B] 51. [D] 52. [A] 53. [B] 54. [A]
55. [B] 56. [A] 57. [C] 58. [D] 59. [D] 60. [C]
61. [B] 62. [C] 63. [B] 64. [A] 65. [A] 66. [A]
67. [C] 68. [D] 69. [A] 70. [B] 71. [D] 72. [C]
73. [B] 74. [C] 75. [D] 76. [D] 77. [C] 78. [B]
79. [A] 80. [C] 81. [A] 82. [B] 83. [D] 84. [B]
85. [C] 86. [B] 87. [A] 88. [B] 89. [C] 90. [C]
91. [B] 92. [C] 93. [A] 94. [D] 95. [B] 96. [B]
97. [A] 98. [D] 99. [A] 100. [D]
333
Rao IIT Academy / MHT CET 2018 / Mathematics / Code44 / QP
Mathematics
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. In with usual notations, if a,b,c are in A.P. then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. If then at is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. The number of solutions of in the interval is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
5. If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6. Matrix then the value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7. The contrapositive of the statement : "If the weather is fine then my friends will come and we go for a picnic."
(A) The weather is fine but my friends will not come or we do not go for a picnic.
(B) If my friends do not come or we do not go for picnic then weather will not be fine.
(C) If the weather is not fine then my friends will not come or we do not go for a picnic.
(D) The weather is not fine but my friends will come and we go for a picnic.
8. If is increasing function on then the value of lies in
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9. If and then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
10. The statement pattern is

(A) a tautology
(B) a contradiction
(C) equivalent to
(D) equivalent to
11. If , then the value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12. The cartesian coordinates of the point on the parabola , whose parameter is are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
14.
If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. If is a function defined by then range is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. If planes and include angle then the value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17. The order of the differential equation of all parabolas, whose latus rectum is and axis parallel to the axis, is

(A) One
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Two
Space for rough use
18. If lines and intersect the the value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19. If a line makes angles and with the positive directions of axes respectively then the angle made by

the line with positive axis is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. and are two points with position vectors and respectively. The position vector of the point N which

divides the line segment LM in the ratio externally is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
22. If planes pass through a straight line then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
23. The point of intersection of lines represented by is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. A die is rolled. If denotes the number of positive divisors of the outcome then the range of the random variable is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
25. A die is thrown four times. The probability of getting perfect square in at least one throw is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26. If the line touches to the curve at the point then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
27. The sides of a rectangle are given by and Then equation of the circle passing through the vertices of

the rectangle is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
28. The minimum value of the function is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29. If with then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
The general solution of differential equation is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31. Letters in the word are rearranged. The probability of all three L being together is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
32. The sum of the first terms of the series is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33. If are the angle of then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34.
If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36. If are mutually perpendicular vectors having magnitude respectively, then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
37. If points and are collinear, then the value of is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. If the slope of one of the lines given by is two times the other then

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
39. The equation of the line passing through the point (3,1) and bisecting the angle between coordinate axes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40. The negation of the statement : "Getting above marks is necessary condition for Hema to get the admission in

good college".
Hema gets above marks but she does not get the admission condition for Hema to get the
(A)
admission in good college."
(B) Hema does not get above marks and she gets admission in good college
(C) If Hema does not get above marks then she will not get the admission in good college.
(D) Hema does not get above marks or she gets the admission in good college.
41. If for

for
is continuous at and then is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
42.
If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
43. The line coincides with one of the lines given by then the value of is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44. If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
45. The equation of line passing through and perpendicular to the lines and

is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
46. A coin is tossed three times. If denotes the absolute difference between the number of heads and the number of

tails then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. If then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48. The area of the region bounded by and the yaxis lying in the first quadrant is _______ square

units.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49.
If for is continuous at then value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
50. The maximum value of subject to and is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
Max. Marks : 100

MATHEMATICS
1. [B] 2. [C] 3. [A] 4. [B] 5. [C] 6. [C]

7. [B] 8. [D] 9. [A] 10. [B] 11. [C] 12. [D]
13. [D] 14. [D] 15. [C] 16. [D] 17. [D] 18. [A]
19. [C] 20. [C] 21. [A] 22. [C] 23. [C] 24. [B]
25. [B] 26. [A] 27. [B] 28. [A] 29. [D] 30. [A]
31. [C] 32. [B] 33. [B] 34. [D] 35. [A] 36. [C]
37. [D] 38. [A] 39. [A] 40. [A] 41. [C] 42. [B]
43. [C] 44. [B] 45. [C] 46. [D] 47. [D] 48. [B]
49. [D] 50. [A]
222
Rao IIT Academy / MHT CET 2018 / Physics & Chemistry / Code44 / QP
Physics
1. The path length of oscillation of simple pendulum of length 1 meter is Its maximum velocity is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2. A vessel completely filled with water has holes and at depths and from the top respectively. Hole is

a square of side and is circle of radius The water flowing out per secound from both the holes is same.
Then is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. A transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance The input resistance is Base

current is changed by which results in a change in collector current by The voltage gain of the amplifier
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4. A disc has mass and radius How much tangential force should be applied to the rim of the disc so as to rotate

with angular velocity in time
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
5. A circular coil carrying current has radius and magnetic field at the centre is At what distance from the
centre along the axis of the same coil, the magnetic field will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6. Two light waves of intensities and having same frequency pass through same medium at a time in same
direction and interfere. The sum of the minimum and maximum intensities is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7. An alternating voltage volt is connected to capacitor through a.c. ammeter. The reading of

ammeter is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8. In the following network, the current flowing through resistance is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9. The angle made by incident ray of light with the reflecting surface is called
(A) glancing angle
(B) angle of incidence
(C) angle of deviation
(D) angle or refraction
Space for rough use
10. In non unifrom circular motion, the ratio of tangential to radial acceleration is ( radius of circle, speed of the

particle, angular acceleration)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11. If numerical aperture of a microscope is increased then its
(A) resolving power remains constant
(B) resolving power becomes zero
(C) limit of resolution is decreased
(D) limit of resolution is increased
12. In amplitude modulation
(A) amplitude remains constant but frequency change
(B) both amplitude and frequency do not change
(C) both amplitude and frequency change
(D) amplitude of the carrier wave changes according to information signal
13. If magnetization of a paramagnetic sample, external magnetic field, absolute temperature, curie

constant then according to Curie's law in magnetism, the correct realtion is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
14. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom jumps from energy level to ground level. The velocity that the photon
acquired as result of electron transition will be ( Planck's constant, Rydberg's constant, mass of photon)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15. A metal wire of density floats on water surface horizontally. If it is NOT to sink in water then maximum radius of wire

is proportional to ( surface tension of water, gravitational accleration )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. A sphere of mass moving with velocity collides head on on another sphere of same mass which is a at rest.

The ratio of final velocity of second sphere to the initial velocity of the first sphere is ( is coefficient of restitution and
collision is inelastic)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17. For a particle performing linear S.H.M., its average speed over one oscillation is ( amplitude of S.H.M.,
frequency of oscillation)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
18. An ideal transformer converts a.c. to a.c. to transmit a power of If primary coil has turns,

then alternating current in secondary coil is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19. A conducting wire has length and diameter After stretching the same wire length becomes and diameter

The ratio of resistance before and after strectching is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. The molar specific heat of an ideal gas at constant pressure and constant volume is and respectively. If is

the universal gas constant and the ratio of to is then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21. In a capillary tube having area of crosssection water rises to a height If crosssectional area is reduced to ' '

, the rise of water in the capillary tube is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
22. With forward biased mode, the junction diode

(A) is one in which width of depletion layer increases
(B) is one in which potenital barrier increases
(C) acts as closed switch
(D) acts as open switch
23. An alternating electric field of frequency is applied across the dees (radius ) of a cyclotron to accelerate protons

(mass ). The operating magnetic field used and K.E. of the proton beam produced by it are respectively (
charge on proton)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. A ray of light is incident normally on a glass slab of thickness and refractive index The time taken to travel by

a ray from source to surface of slab is same as to travel through glass slab. The distance of source from the surface is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
25. A string is vibrating in its fifth overtone between two rigid supports apar. The distance between successive node

and antinode is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26. If and form a right angled triangle the out of the following which

one is satisfied ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
27. A square frame is formed by four identical rods each of mass and length . This frame is in plane

such that side coincides with axis and side along axis. The moment of inertia of the frame about axis
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28. A unit vector is represented as . Hence the value of must be

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29. Magnetic susceptibility for a paramagnetic and diamagnetic material is respectively
(A) small, positive and small, positive
(B) large, positive and small, negative
(C) small, positive and small, negative
(D) large, negative and large, positive
30. A mass is suspended from a vertical spring which is executing S.H.M. of frequency . The spring is unstretched at

the highest point of oscillation. Maximum speed of the mass is [acceleration due to gravity ]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
31. The moment of inertia of a ring about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its plane is . It is
rotating with angular velocity . Another identical ring is gently placed on it so that their centres coincide. If both the
rings are rotating about the same axis then loss in kinetic energy is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32. A bomb at rest explodes into parts of same mass. The momentum of two parts is respectivley. The

magnitude of momentum of the third part is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33. In a photocell, frequency of incident radiation is increased by keeping other factors constant the stopping
potential
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) becomes zero
(D) first decreases and then increases
34. A mass attached to one end of a string crosses topmost point on a vertical circle with critical speed. Its centripetal
acceleration when string becomes horizontal will be ( gravitational acceleration)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35. The expression for electric field intensity at a point outside uniformly charged thin plane sheet is ( is the distance of

point from plane sheet)
(A) independent of
(B) directly proportional to
(C) directly proportional to
(D) directly proportional to
Space for rough use
36. When source of sound moves towards a stationary observer, the wavelength of sound received by him
(A) decreases while frequency increases
(B) remains the same whereas frequency increases
(C) increases and frequency also increases
(D) decreases while frequency remains the same
37. The deflection in galvanometer falls to when it is shunted by . If additional shunt of is connected to earlier
shunt, the deflection in galvanometer falls to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. A body is thrown from the surface of the earth with velocity . The maximum height in above the surface of

the earth upto which it will reach is ( radius of earth, acceleration due to gravity)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
39. A series combination of capacitors (each of capacity ) is charged to potential difference . Another parallel

combination of capacitors (each of capacity ) is charged to potential difference . The total energy stored in
both the combination is same. The value of in terms of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40. Heat energy is incident on the surface at the rate of . If coefficient of absorption is and coefficient of

reflection is then heat energy transmitted by the surface in minutes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41. Two metal wires and of same length and material are stretched by same load. Their masses are in the ratio

. The ratio of elongations of wire to that of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
42. Let be the physical quantity. If the percentage error in the measurement of physical quantities and is

and percent respectively then percentage error in the measurement of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
43. Following graphs show the variation of stopping potential correspondig to the frequency of incident radiation for a

given metal. The correct variation is shown in graph ( Threshold frequency)
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
44. In compound microscope, the focal length and aperture of the objective used is respectively
(A) large and large
(B) large and small
(C) short and large
(D) short and small
45. The energy of an electron having deBroglie wavelength is ( Planck's constant, mass of electron)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46. number of waves are produced on a string in . Now the tension in the string is doubled (Assume length

and radius constant),the number of waves produced in for the same harmonic will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
47. The increase in energy of a metal bar of length and crosssectional area when compressed with a load

along its length is
( Young's modulus of the material of metal bar)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a bar magnet at the two axial points and which are separated from each other

by is . Point is situated at from the centre of the magnet. Magnetic length of the bar magnet is
(Points and are on the same side of magnet and distance of from the centre is greater than distance of
from the centre of magnet)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height above the surface of the earth of radius . The speed of the

satellite in its orbit is onefourth the escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The relation between and is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50. A pipe closed at one end has length . The number of possible natural oscillations of air column whose
frequencies lie below are (velocity of sound in air )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
Chemistry
51. A certain reaction occurs in two steps as
(i)
(ii)
In the reaction,
(A) is intermediate
(B) is intermediate
(C) is catalyst
(D) is intermediate
52. Which among the following equations represents the first law of thermodynamics under isobaric conditions?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
53. During galvanization of iron, which metal is used for coating iron surface?
(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Nickel
(D) Tin
54. Formation of is explained on the basic of what hybridisation of phosphorus atom?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55. Identify the element that forms amphoteric oxide.
(A) Carbon
(B) Zinc
(C) Calcium
(D) Sulphur
Space for rough use
56. Identify the product in the following reaction.
(A) Acetanilide
(B) Bromoacetanilide
(C) Bromoaniline
(D) Bromoaniline
57. Identify the functional group that has electron donating inductive effect.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58. Which among the following metal crystallise as a simple cube?
(A) Polonium
(B) Iron
(C) Copper
(D) Gold
59. Which among the following oxoacids of phosphorus shows a tendency of disproportionation?
(A) Phosphinic acid
(B) Orthophosphoric acid
(C) Phosphinic acid
(D) Pyrophosphoric acid
60. What is the oxidation number of gold in the complex
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
61. Which symbol replaces the unit of atomic mass, amu?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
62. Which of the following compounds reacts immediately with Lucas reagent?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63. What is the catalyst used for oxidation of to in lead chamber process for manufacture of sulphuric acid?

(A) Nitric oxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Potassium iodide
(D) Dilute
64. The number of moles of electrons passed when current of is passed through an solution of electrolyte for
minutes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65. The molarity of urea (molar mass ) solution by dissolving of urea in of water is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
66. Which carbon atom of deoxy Ribose sugar in does NOT contain bond?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
67. Which of the following carboxylic acids is most reactive towards esterification?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
68. Molarity is
(A) The number of moles of solute present in volueme of solution
(B) The number of moles of solute dissolved in of solvent
(C) The number of moles of solute dissolved in of solution
(D) The number of moles of solute dissolved in volume of solution
69. Which of the followings is a tricarboxylic acid?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Malonic acid
(C) Succinic acid
(D) Malic acid
70. What is the number of donor atoms in dimethylglyoximato ligand?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
71. In which substance does nitrogen exhibit the lowest oxidation state?
(A) Nitrogen gas
(B) Ammonia
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Nitric oxide
72. Which of the followings is most reactive towards addition reaction of hydrogen cynide to form corresponding
cynohydrin?
(A) Acetone
(B) Formaldehyde
(C) Acetaldehyde
(D) Diethylketone
Space for rough use
73. The most basic hydroxide from following is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
74. What is the unit of density?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
75. Which of the following compounds does NOT undergo haloform reaction?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
76. Two moles of an ideal gas are allowed to expand from a volume of 10 dm3 to 2 dm3 at 300 K against a pressure of
101.325 KPa. Calculate the work done
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
77. In which among the following solids, Schottky defect is NOT observed ?
(A) ZnS
(B) NaCl
(C) KCl
(D) CsCl
Space for rough use
78. What are the products of autophotolysis of water ?
(A) and
(B) Stream
(C) and
(D) Hydrogen peroxide
79. Bauxite, the ore of aluminium, is purified by which process ?
(A) Hoope's process
(B) Hall's process
(C) Mond's process
(D) Liquation process
80. Phenol in presence of sodium hydroxide reacts with chloroform to form salicyladehyde. The reaction is known as
(A) Kolbe's reaction
(B) ReimerTiermann reaction
(C) Stephen reaction
(D) Etard reaction
81. Which among the following elements of group2 exhibits anomalous properties ?
(A) Be
(B) Mg
(C) Ca
(D) Ba
82. Excess of ammonia with sodium hypochloride solution in the prescence of glue or gelatine gives
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
83. What is the density of solution of sulphuric acid used as an electrolyte in lead accumulator ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
84. Which of the following polymers is used to manufacture clothes for firefighters ?
(A) Thiokol
(B) Kevlar
(C) Nomex
(D) Dynel
85. Which element is obtained in the pure form by van Arkel method ?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Titanium
(C) Silicon
(D) Nickel
86. Which of the following is NOT a tranquilizer ?
(A) Meprobamate
(B) Equanil
(C) Chlordiazepoxide
(D) Bromopheniiramine
87. Conservation of hexane into benzene involves the reaction of
(A) Hydration
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Dehydrogenation
88. The element that does NOT exhibit allotropy is
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Arsenic
(C) Antimony
(D) Bismuth
89. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare aryl fluorides from diazonium salts and fluoroboric acid ?
(A) Sandmeyer reaction
(B) BalzSchiemann reaction
(C) Gattermann reaction
(D) Swarts reaction
Space for rough use
90. The correct relation between elevation of boiling point and molar mass of solute is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
91. Which among the group 15 elements does NOT exists as tetra atomic molecule ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Arsenic
(D) Antimony
92. Identify the monosaccharide containing only one asymmetric carbon atom in its molecule.
(A) Ribulose
(B) Ribose
(C) Erythrose
(D) Glyceraldehyde
93. Identify the oxidation states of titanium (Z = 22) and copper (Z = 29) in their colourless compounds.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
94. Arenes on treatment with chlorine in presence of ferric chloride as a catalyst undergo what type of reaction ?
(A) Electrophilic substitution
(B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Electrophilic addition
(D) Nucleophilic addition
Space for rough use
95. In case of R, S configuration the group having highest priority is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
96. Lactic acid and glycollic acid are the monomers used for preparation of Polymer
(A) Nylon2nylon6
(B) Dextron
(C) PHBV
(D) BunaN
97. What is the geometry of water molecule ?
(A) distorted tetrahedral
(B) tetrahedral
(C) trigonal planer
(D) diagonal
98. With which halogen the reactions of alkanes are explosive ?
(A) Fluorine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine
(D) Iodine
99. Calculate the work done during combustion of of ethanol, at at . Given :
, molar mass of ethanol
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
100. Slope of the straight line obtained by plotting against represents what term ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Space for rough use
Max. Marks : 100


PHYSICS
1. [C] 2. [C] 3. [B] 4. [B] 5. [B] 6. [B]

7. [D] 8. [C] 9. [A] 10. [C] 11. [C] 12. [D]
13. [B] 14. [D] 15. [A] 16. [C] 17. [B] 18. [B]
19. [A] 20. [D] 21. [B] 22. [C] 23. [A] 24. [B]
25. [B] 26. [B] 27. [A] 28. [D] 29. [C] 30. [D]
31. [B] 32. [D] 33. [B] 34. [B] 35. [A] 36. [A]
37. [D] 38. [A] 39. [A] 40. [B] 41. [C] 42. [B]
43. [A] 44. [D] 45. [B] 46. [B] 47. [B] 48. [B]
49. [D] 50. [C]
CHEMISTRY
51. [B] 52. [A] 53. [B] 54. [B] 55. [B] 56. [C]
57. [C] 58. [A] 59. [C] 60. [B] 61. [A] 62. [D]
63. [A] 64. [C] 65. [B] 66. [C] 67. [C] 68. [A]
69. [A] 70. [B] 71. [B] 72. [B] 73. [D] 74. [C]
75. [C] 76. [A] 77. [A] 78. [C] 79. [B] 80. [B]
81. [A] 82. [B] 83. [B] 84. [C] 85. [B] 86. [D]
87. [D] 88. [D] 89. [B] 90. [A] 91. [A] 92. [D]
93. [C] 94. [A] 95. [D] 96. [B] 97. [A] 98. [A]
99. [B] 100. [C]
111

MHT CET Sample Papers and Answer Key Rao IIT Academy 2017 18

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MHTCET

Rao IIT Academy – A Division of Rao Edusolutions Pvt. Ltd.

1. The statement pa ern is logically equivalent to

2. If is the inverse function of and then is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. If and are roots of the equation then the value of is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. If where be the parameter then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. If then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. The number of principal solutions of is

12. The objective function subject to

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 10

14. The maximum value of is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. If c denotes the contradiction then dual of the compound statement is

18. ________________, where is greatest integer function.

(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1

19. The objective function of LPP deﬁned over the convex set a ains its optimum value at

20. If the inverse of the matrix does not exist then the value of is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. If the function for

22. For a invertible matrix A if then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. The solution of the diﬀerential equation is

24. In if and then the maximum value of the area

25. If and are diﬀerentiable functions of then is

27. The area of the region bounded by the lines and is

(A) 16 sq. unit (B) sq. unit (C) sq. unit (D) 8 sq. unit

(A) (B) (C) (D)

29. If the volume of spherical ball is increasing at the rate of cc/sec then the rate of change of its

(A) (B) (C) (D)

30. If for

32. If lines represented by equation are distinct then

33. Let be a quadrilateral. If M and N are the midpoints of the sides PQ and RS respectively

34. If slopes of lines represented by diﬀer by 1 then

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 8

35. If vector with d.c.s. l, m, n is equally inclined to the co‑ordinate axes, then the total number of

36. The particular solution of the diﬀerential equation , when is

37. has vertices at and . If the median through A

(A) 10, 7 (B) 9, 10 (C) 7, 9 (D) 7, 10

F(x) 0.2 0.37 0.48 0.62 0.85 1

(A) 0.48 (B) 0.37 (C) 0.27 (D) 1.47

39. The lines and intersect each other at point

(A) (‑2, ‑4, 5) (B) (‑2, ‑4, ‑5) (C) (2,4,‑5) (D) (2, ‑4, ‑5)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

42. If then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

44. Which of the following statement pa ern is a tautology ?

45. If the angle between the planes and is then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

46. If for

49. If the distance of points from the plane is 5 units then

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50. The value of is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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