MOCK BAR EXAMINATION QUESTIONS IN Is the act of the policeman on resorting to extreme means will always be justified?

CRIMINAL LAW
1. Which of the following has the power to define and punish crime?
a. The legislative
b. The Chief Executive
c. The Supreme Court
d. Sandiganbayan
e. Trial Courts
2. Which of the following is not a limitation on the power of the legislative to enact penal
laws?
a. Prohibition against Bill of Attainders or Ex-post facto law.
b. Equal Protection of the law
c. Prohibition against cruel, degrading, or inhuman punishment or imposition of
excessive fines.
d. Abridgment of the obligation of contract.
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of penal law?
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Prospectivity
d. Retroactivity when favorable to accused
e. Adjective or Remedial
4. Which rule on jurisdiction over crimes committed on foreign vessels while on Philippine
waters is not followed in the Philippines?
a. The French Rule – The crimes are not triable in the Philippines unless the crimes
affect the peace and security, or safety of the Philippines is endangered.
b. The Anglo-American Rule or the English Rule – the crimes are triable in the
Philippines unless the crimes affect merely the internal management of the vessel.
c. If the foreign vessel is a warship, Philippines Courts have no jurisdiction because a
warship is an extension of the country to which it belongs and it is not subject to the
laws of another state.
d. The Philippines Courts have jurisdiction to try continuing crimes committed in a
vessel sailing from a foreign port into Philippines waters, even if the crimes are not
punishable in the foreign country were the vessel comes from the crimes are
punishable under Philippine laws.
5. When does the repeal of penal law not extinguish crime?
a. The repeal of a law under which there is pending case against the accused at the
time of repeal.
b. The repealing law wholly fails to penalize the acts defined and penalized in the
repealing law.
c. Implied repeal or repeal by re-enactment.
6. An escaped prisoner, then armed with a bamboo lance, was asked by a policeman to
surrender, refused to do so and instead answered the latter with a stroke of his lance, the
policeman in pursuing the prisoner fired his revolver and caused the death of the prisoner,
a. Yes, since an arresting officer is required to act within the performance of his duty, he
must stand his ground and cannot, like a private individual, take refuge in fight, his
duty requires to overcome his opponent:
b. No, it was provided under the Rule of Court that no violence or unnecessary force
shall be used in making an arrest. Such provision accepts no exception:
c. It depends, the reasonableness of the force employed by the arresting officer must be
adjudged in the light of the circumstances as they appeared to the officer at the time
he acted, and the means is generally considered to that which an ordinary prudent
and intelligent person with the knowledge would have deemed necessary under the
circumstances.
7. Which of the following is not a source of criminal law?
a. The Constitution
b. Acts of legislature
c. Presidential Decrees and Executive Orders issued by Marcos during Martial Law,
and by Cory Aquino during her Revolutionary Government.
d. Implementing rules and regulations providing a penalty as authorized by the basic
law.
8. Which of the following is an absolutory cause?
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Praeter intentionem
c. Mistake of fact
d. Proximate cause
e. Error in persona
f. Impossible crime
9. Which of the following is a crime malum in se?
a. Offenses punished by the Revised Election Code, a special law, for the omission or
failure to include a voter’s name in the in the registry list of voters.
b. Illegal possession of firearms
c. Violation of BP 22 for issuing a bouncing check
d. Offenses defined and punished by the Revised Penal Code.
e. Carnapping Law
f. Dangerous Drugs Law
10. The Revised Penal Code (RPC) belongs to the Classical Theory the main purpose is
retribution under a system where gravity of the penalty is proportionate to the gravity of the
crime committed, However, there are some articles in the RPC that are positivistic in
orientation intended to curb the dreadful and dangerous tendencies of the individual. Which
of the following articles in the RPC does not pertain to the Positivist School?
a. Article 4, RPC – impossible crimes
b. Article 13, paragraph 7, RPC – on the mitigating circumstances of voluntary
surrender and plea of guilty.
c. Article 11, paragraph 1, RPC – on self-defense
d. Three fold rule
e. Extenuating and absolutory causes
11. Which of the following is not a punishable conspiracy? 16. Insult may not be appreciated as a requisite for:
a. Conspiracy to commit treason a. Unlawful aggression in self defense and defense of relatives and strangers
b. Conspiracy to commit rebellion b. Passion and obfuscation as a mitigating circumstance
c. Conspiracy to commit coup d’ etat c. Vindication of a Grave offense as a mitigating circumstance
d. Conspiracy to commit murder d. Sufficient provocation as a mitigating circumstance
e. Conspiracy to commit sedition
f. Monopolies and combination in restraint of trade 17. In the following aggravating circumstances, it is not necessary that there is performance
of
12. Which of the following is not a justifying circumstances? official duties or functions at the time of the commission of the offense:
a. Self-defense a. Taking advantage of official position
b. Defense of property b. In contempt of or with insult to public authorities
c. Defense of honor c. Lack of regard due to offended party by reason of rank
d. Defense of relatives d. The offense is committed in the palace of the Chief Executive or in his or her
e. Accident presence, or in a place dedicated to religious worship.
f. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
g. Battered woman syndrome 18. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be appreciated in crimes
h. Defense of strangers against
persons?
13. Which of the following is not an exempting circumstances? a. Evident premeditation
a. Imbecility b. Treachery
b. Insanity c. Abuse of Superior Strength
c. Insuperable cause d. Means employed to weaken the defense
d. Minor exactly 9 years old at the time of the commission of the offense e. Abused of official position
e. Entrapment f. Ignominy
f. Irresistible force g. Cruelty
g. Impulse of Uncontrollable fear h. Price, Reward or promise
h. Instigation i. Dwelling
i. Accident j. Fraud, craft and disguise

14. Which of the following is not ordinary mitigating circumstances? 19. Which of the following aggravating circumstances does not qualify the killing of homicide
a. Incomplete self-defense, incomplete defense of relatives and strangers to
b. Illness that diminishes the exercise of will power murder?
c. Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong a. Evident premeditation
d. Sufficient provocation b. Price, Reward or Promise
e. Immediate (proximate) vindication of a grave offense c. Treachery
f. Passion or obfuscation d. Use of Poison
g. Voluntary surrender e. Dwelling, Nightime and sex of offended
h. Voluntary plea of guilty f. Use of motor vehicle
i. Confession of guilt g. Use of Explosion
j. Being deaf and dump or blind
20. Which of the following is not an alternative circumstance?
15. Which of the following is not a privileged mitigating circumstances? a. Relationship
a. Incomplete self-defense, incomplete defense of relatives and strangers b. Age
b. The Offender is 18 years old c. Intoxication
c. Schizoprenia d. Degree of Instruction and education of the offender
d. Article 255, RPC – concealment of honor of the mother in infanticide e. All of the above
e. Article 268, RPC - voluntary release of a person detained within 3 days without the
accused attaining his purpose and before institution of criminal action.
f. Article 333, RPC – unjustified abandonment of the spouse in the crime of adultery
21. Which among the following is not included in civil interdiction criminally liable for d. Is over 15 and under 18 who committed a felony with discernment
felonies? e. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense
a. Parental authority under Philippine laws.
b. Guardianship of the person or the property of the ward
c. Marital Authority 28. In light felonies the following are criminally liable
d. Management of his property a. Principal only
e. Right to dispose of his property by any act or conveyance mortis causa b. Accomplices only
f. Right to dispose of his property by any act or conveyance inter vivos c. Accessories only
d. Principal and Accomplices only.
22. A minor 9 or under is
a. Absolutely exempt from criminal liability 29. In mala prohibita, the criminal liability of the offender is determined by his
b. Relatively exempt from criminal liability a. criminal intent
c. Enjoys privileged mitigating circumstance b. intent to perpetrate the act
d. Extenuating circumstance c. negligence, lack of foresight, lack of skill
e. Absolutory cause d. ignorance of the law
e. mistake of fact
23. Which of the following is not an accessory penalty?
a. Suspension from public offices, profession or right of suffrage 30. To overcome intelligence as an element of criminal liability one has to prove
b. Civil interdiction a. Deprivation of cognition
c. Indemnification b. Under the compulsion of an irresistible force
d. Payment of costs c. Mistake of fact
e. Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification d. Mistake of identity
f. Perpetual or temporary special disqualification
31. An ordinary mitigating circumstance reduces the penalty only to the
24. What is meant by the term “mens rea”? a. Minimum Period
a. no intent to commit so grave a wrong b. Degree
b. good faith in the commission of the crime c. Indeterminate Sentence Law
c. no malice in committing the crime d. Probation Law
d. unlawful intent
32. When the aggravating circumstance of recidivism is present in the commission of a crime,
25. Proximate cause means: the offender is called a
a. the motive in committing the crime a. Quasi-recidivist
b. the unlawful intent in committing in committing the crime b. Recidivist
c. the efficient cause uninterrupted by any supervening event without which the result c. Habitual criminal
would not have occurred d. Habitual delinquent
d. the reason of the offender in committing the crime
e. Direct cause 33. What component of criminal law is express and implied repeal relevant?
a. Territoriality
26. Reckless imprudence is a crime only when: b. Generality
a. the offender is under the influence of drugs c. Irretrospectivity
b. the offender is under the influence of liquor d. Bill of attainder
c. the imprudence results in the commission of a consummated felony or crime
d. the felony is attempted 34. Preventive imprisonment is
e. the felony is frustrated a. Not a penalty
b. A principal penalty
27. A child in conflict with the law is one who: c. Subsidiary penalty
a. Committed an intentional felony d. Remedial measure
b. Was raised in a family of drug traffickers e. Accessory penalty
c. Is under 15 yrs of age
35. The pecuniary liabilities of the offender under the Revised Penal Code should be camp or installation, communications networks, public utilities or other facilities
prosecuted needed for the exercise and continued possession of power.
a. In the criminal action b. Singly or simultaneously carried out anywhere in the Philippines.
b. In a separate civil action c. By any person or persons, belonging to the military or police or holding any public
c. In either of the two actions above office or employment, with or without civilian support or participation.
d. In both of the above actions d. All of the above concurring
e. Any two of the above concurring
36. The threefold rule under article 70 is addressed to the
a. Judge deciding the case 43. What are the ways of committing the crime of illegal assembly?
b. Prison head holding the prisoner a. Gathering of persons any or some of whom are armed for unlawful purpose under the
c. Probation officer Code.
d. Board of pardon and parole b. Gathering of persons for the purpose of inciting to treason, rebellion, insurrection,
sedition and assault upon a person in authority or his agent even without the
37. The phrase “Stand ground when in the right” means: attendance of armed men.
a) A person need not retreat against an unlawful aggressor but he is not expected to c. Formation of an unlawful association
fight back d. A and B
b) A person need not retreat against an unlawful aggressor but must defend himself by e. B and C
fighting back
c) A person attacked must retreat but must fight back when caught by his aggressor 44. What are elements of perjury?
d) None of the above a. There must be testimony or a statement (affidavit) made under oath
b. The oath must be administered by an officer competent to do so because it is
38. Impossible crime is punished only when the crime is essential that the oath be valid.
a. Consummated c. The witness-affiant must have made willful or deliberate assertion of falsehood on a
b. Frustrated material matter-subject of inquiry in that case.
c. Attempted d. The testimony or affidavit must have been made to comply with a legal requirement,
d. Voluntary i.e., it must be required by law and must be required to be under oath.
e. All of the above concurring
39. Vicarious civil liability means f. A, B and C only
a. The liability of the offender in a criminal case g. B, C and D only
b. Civil liability of the employer in a criminal case if the offender is found insolvent
c. Civil liability of the offender and the employer in a criminal case 45. Indirect bribery is committed by:
a. A public officer who will do an act in consideration of what he will receive.
40. The dangerous tendency rule and the clear and present danger rule is relevant in the b. A public officer who will refrain from doing what he should do because of what he
discussion of the crime of receives
a. Arson c. A public officer who does an act constituting a crime in consideration of what he will
b. Immoral doctrines receive
c. Sedition d. A public officer who commits an act not constituting a crime in consideration of what
d. Unfair competition he will receive
e. A public officer who receives consideration because of his office.
41. “Judicial authority” in Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code refers to:
a. The justices or judges vested with judicial power to order the temporary detention or 46. Article 294 (robbery with violence against or intimidation of person) defines and
confinement of a person charged with having committed a public offense. penalizes
b. Supreme Court justices a. composite crime or special complex crime
c. Judges of inferior courts as may be established by law b. complex crime
d. All of the above c. compound crime
d. continuing crime
42. How is the crime of coup d’etat committed?
a. By a swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth
against duly constituted authorities of the Republic of the Philippines, or any military
47. Who are those exempt from criminal liability for theft, swindling and malicious mischief?
a. Spouses, ascendants and descendants, or relatives by affinity in the same line only
b. Only the widowed spouse with respect to the property which belonged to the
deceased spouse before the same shall have passed into the possession of another
c. Only brothers and sisters and brothers-in-law and sisters-in-law, if living together.
d. A, B and C
e. A and B
f. B and C
g. A and C
48. Who is not a public figure?
a. He is one who, by his accomplishments, fame, mode of living, or by adopting a
profession or calling which gives the public a legitimate interest in his doings, his
affairs and his character, has become a public personage.
b. Those who have achieved some degree of reputation by appearing before the public,
as in the case of an actor, a professional baseball player, a pugilist, or any other
entertainer.
c. Public officers, famous inventors and explorers, war heroes and even ordinary
soldiers, infant prodigy.
d. Anyone who has arrived at a position where the public attention is focused upon him
as a person.
e. An obscure private individual libeled by a columnist in a newspaper.
49. Which of the following is not requisite of mistake of fact?
a) That the act done would have been lawful had the facts been as the accused
believed them to be
b) That the intention of accused in doing the act should be lawful
c) That the resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the victim
d) That the mistake must be without fault or carelessness on the part of the accused.
e) None of the above
50. Anti-fencing Law {PD 1612} will apply only when the valuable articles proceed from what
crimes?
a. Only to proceeds of theft or robbery
b. Only to proceeds of estafa
c. Also to proceeds of usurpation
d. All of the above
51. Plunder - RA 7080 - requires that the wealth amassed by a public officer amount to
a. 100 million pesos
b. 75 million pesos
c. 50 million pesos
d. 130 million pesos
52. A recidivist is one who, at the time of his trial for one crime, shall have been previously
convicted of another crime embraced in the same title of the revised Penal Code.
a. True
b. False. The previous conviction need not be of a crime embraced within the same title
of the Revised Penal Code as the one for which the accused is on trial.
c. False. A recidivist need not be convicted of the prior crime. Having been previously
charged is sufficient.
d. False. The conviction may either be final or not.
e. False. The previous conviction must be by final judgment.
53. Accessories to a crime are those who, with or without knowledge of the commission of
the
crime, and without having participated therein, either as principals or accomplices, take part
prior to its commission.
a. True
b. False. Accessories have knowledge of the crime and participate in commission
thereof.
c. False. Accessories must have knowledge of the crime and take part only subsequent
to its commission but not prior thereto in the manner described in the Revised Penal
Code.
d. False. The statement more appropriately describes accomplices.
e. False. Accessories never take part prior to or subsequent to the commission of the
crime.
54. A person under fifteen does not incur criminal liability because minority is a justifying
circumstance.
a. True
b. False. Minority is always a justifying circumstance whether or not the minor acted with
discernment.
c. False. Minority is a mitigating circumstance.
d. False. Minority is an exempting and not justifying circumstance.
e. False. Minority is never a circumstance affecting criminal liability.
55. Any public officer who, shall appropriate public funds, or property or shall take or
misappropriate or shall consent or through abandonment or negligence, shall permit any
other person to take such public funds or property, wholly or partially, or shall be guilty of
malversation of public funds or property.
a. True
b. False. The act described is illegal use of public funds or property.
c. False. The crime is not committed through abandonment or negligence.
d. False. The public officer should be one accountable for public funds or property.
e. False. The crime is failure to render accounts of public funds or property.
56. Lack of motive is indicative of the innocence of the accused.
a. True
b. False, because motive is not a requisite of felonies committed by means of dolo.
c. False because intent and motive are synonymous.
d. False because motive being a mental process cannot be proven by evidence.
57. X was present at the scene of the crime and witnessed Y set fire to a house. X, however, room as he was in another city. The five accused may be convicted of attempted murder.
did a. True
not give alarm nor report to the authorities the commission of the crime. X is an accomplice b. False, they may be convicted of the crime of illegal discharge of firearm.
in the crime of arson. c. False, they are only liable for an impossible crime.
a. True d. False, they are liable for malicious mischief.
b. False, X is a principal by indispensable cooperation.
c. False, because X has not committed any felony there being no law that punishes a 62. Drawing or trying to draw a pistol from the waist is an overt act of homicide of the
person who does not report to the authorities the commission of a crime. accused.
d. False, because X is liable for the crime of failure to report commission of a felony. a. True
b. It constitute attempted homicide
58. X and Y after breaking the wall of the bodega through which they entered the same, c. The act constitute attempted murder
removed a sack of sugar from the pile; but they were caught in the act of taking it out d. False, because it cannot be definitely concluded that the act will result into a concrete
through the opening on the wall. A and B are liable for consummated robbery. offense.
a. True
b. False, A and B are liable for attempted robbery only because the act of taking out is 63. In the crime of arson, it is necessary that the property be totally destroyed by fire.
merely an overt act to commence the crime of robbery. a. True
c. False, A and B are liable for consummated trespass to dwelling. b. False. It is consummated even if only a small portion of the wall or any part of the
d. False, A and B are liable for attempted robbery because the failure to take out the house is burned.
sack was due to a cause other than the will of A and B. c. False. If the property is not totally burned it is frustrated arson.
d. The consummation of the crime of arson depends upon the extent of the damage
59. A shot B, but missed and instead hit and killed C. A is liable for the complex crime of caused.
homicide and attempted homicide.
a. True 64. The Revised Penal Code took effect on January 31, 1932.
b. False, A is liable for the crime of homicide only because B was not injured. a. True
c. False, A is liable for the crimes of illegal discharge of firearms and homicide. b. False, January 1, 1934
d. False, A is liable for the complex crime of attempted homicide and reckless c. False, January 1, 1932
imprudence resulting in homicide. d. False, October 31, 1935

60. Dodoy possessing only a student driver’s permit, found a parked car with the key left in 65. A penal law is always prospective in its application
the a. True
ignition. He proceeded to drive it away, intending to sell it. Just then Ting, the owner of the b. False, it is retroactive
car arrived. Failing to make Dodoy stop, Ting boarded a taxi and pursued Dodoy, who in his c. False, it may be given retroactive effect if favorable to the accused who is not a
haste to escape, and because of his inexperience violently collided with a jeepney full of habitual delinquent
passengers, one of whom was killed, the leg of another passenger was crushed and had to d. False, it is retroactive if the new law imposes a heavier penalty
be amputated. The car of Ting was damaged to the tune of P 50,000. Dodoy is liable for the
crimes of carnapping, homicide and serious physical injuries. 66. Felonies cannot be committed by omissions but only through overt acts.
a. True a. True
b. False, Dodoy is liable for complex crime of carnapping with homicide because the two b. False, only external acts are punished.
offenses were the result of a single criminal impulse. c. False, felonies are acts or omissions punishable by law.
c. False, Dodoy is liable for carnapping only but the penalty is to be imposed in its d. False, there is no criminal intent in omission.
maximum because a homicide which includes the serious physical injury was
committed on the occasion or by reason thereof. 67. Reclusion perpetua is a divisible penalty.
d. False, Dodoy is liable for the distinct felonies of carnapping, reckless imprudence a. True
resulting in serious physical injuries, reckless imprudence causing damage to b. It is an accessory penalty
property and reckless imprudence resulting in homicide. c. It is the same as life imprisonment
d. It remains an indivisible penalty despite its duration
61. X together with four individuals went to the house of P with intent to kill. Upon reaching
the
house, the five of them aimed and fired at the bedroom of P. However, P was not in the
68. Entrapment is an absolutory cause. d. The whole range of reclusion temporal.
a. True
b. False. It is not a bar to the prosecution and conviction of the lawbreaker because 75. In reiteration or habituality, it is enough that a final judgment has been rendered in the
consistent with public policy first offense.
c. It is similar to instigation which absolves the accused from criminal responsibility a. True
d. The ways and means resorted to for the purpose of framing up the lawbreaker b. The sentence have been served for the first offense.
c. There is judgment rendered by the trial court for the first offense.
69. Who among the following persons is/are not exempt from the operation of our criminal d. It is the same as habitual delinquency.
laws
by virtue of the public international law? 76. Filipinos and aliens owe the same allegiance to the Philippines. Filipinos owe absolute
a) Sovereigns and other chiefs of state and unqualified allegiance to the Philippines.
b) Consults, Vice-Consuls, and other commercial representatives of foreign nations a. Both statements are true.
c) Ambassadors, Ministers plenipotentiary, ministers resident b. Both statements are false.
d) Charges d’ affaires c. The first statements is true and the second false.
e) All of the above d. The first statement is false and the second true.

70. Insanity or imbecility is a justifying circumstance for which the offender does not incur 77. Arbitrary detention is committed by
criminal liability. a. Any public officers
a. True b. Those whose official duties give them the authority to effect arrest and detain persons
b. Insanity or imbecility is an exempting circumstance c. Private individuals
c. It will mitigate the liability of the offender
d. It is an alternative circumstance 78. Misprision of treason is
a. Failure of a citizen to report as soon as possible a conspiracy, which comes to his
71. In arson, the aggravating circumstance that the crime be committed by means of fire is knowledge, against the government.
not b. Conspiracy to commit treason against the Philippine Government.
appropriate. c. An accomplice to the crime of treason
a. True d. Proposal to commit treason
b. It is considered to increase the penalty for the crime.
c. It is not considered if not alleged in the information. 79. Under what instances is the crime of Trespass not committed?
d. Fire is not included by the law in defining arson. a. Purpose of entry to dwelling is to prevent some serious harm to the person entering, the
occupants or third persons.
72. In kidnapping for ransom, those who acted as runners or carriers in obtaining the ransom b. Purpose of entry is to render some aid to humanity or justice.
money have no criminal liability. c. Places entered are cafes, taverns, inns and similar places while they are open
a. True d. A and B only.
b. They are considered accomplices. e. B and c only.
c. They are accessories. f. All of the above
d. They are principals by direct participation.
80. What crime in the Revised Penal Code has the same penalty whether committed
73. The duration of the penalty of prision mayor is six years to twelve years. intentionally or negligently?
a. True a. Malversation
b. It is six years and one day to twelve years. b. Estafa
c. It is six months, one day to six years. c. Falsification
d. It is one month to six months. d. Illegal Exaction
e. None of the above
74. The penalty for homicide is reclusion temporal. If there are no modifying circumstances
present, the minimum of indeterminate penalty on the convict should be:
a. Reclusion temporal, medium period
b. Within the range of prision mayor to reclusion temporal, medium period.
c. Prision mayor, medium period.
81. What different crimes can arise from intimidation?
a. Robbery, if the intimidation is immediate but conditional coupled with demand for
money or any consideration.
b. Threat, if it is future or conditional
c. Coercion, if it is direct, immediate, and personal; or serious enough.
d. All of the above
b. False because treachery refers to the evil intent and not the means to commit a
crime.
c. False because treachery refers also to the use of craft or disguise in the commission
of a crime.
d. False because treachery applies only to crimes against persons and property.
e. False because treachery applies only to crimes against persons.

82. What crimes is not committed only by dolo? 88. The period of prescription of crimes shall commence to run from the day on which the
a. Malicious mischief crime
b. Estafa is discovered by the authorities or their agents, and shall be interrupted by the arrest of the
c. Mutilation offender.
d. Intentional abortion a. True
e. Unintentional abortion b. False. The period of prescription shall commence to run from the day on which the
crime is discovered by the offended party, the authorities, or their agents.
83. Defamation excludes: c. False. The period of prescription shall be interrupted by the filing of the complaint or
a. slander information and not by the arrest of the offender.
b. libel d. False. The period of prescription commences for the reason stated in letter B and
c. slander by deed interrupted for the cause adduced in letter C.
d. incriminating innocent persons e. False, none of the reasons mentioned in the preceding choices is correct.
e. malicious prosecution
f. intriguing against honor 89. The duration of the penalties of prision correccional, suspension and destierro shall be
from
84. What principle does not apply to imprudence six months and one day to six years, except when suspension is imposed as an accessory
a. Complex crime penalty, in which case, its duration shall be that of the principal penalty.
b. Subsidiary penalty a. True
c. Modifying circumstances b. False. The duration shall be from six months to six years and one day.
d. Three-fold rule c. The duration shall be from six months and one day to six years and one day.
e. Parole and probation d. False. When suspension is imposed as an accessory penalty, the duration is six
months and one day to six years.
85. Violations of dangerous drugs act is e. False. When suspension is imposed as an accessory penalty, the duration is six
a. Now a mala in se months and one day to six years.
b. Still malum prohibitum
c. Punished as a crime under the Revised Penal Code 90. The accused shall not be convicted for treason except on the testimony of an eyewitness
d. Not committed thru dolo to
the same overt act.
86. If an offender is apprehended possessing more than the quantity of drugs sold, he shall a. True.
liable for: b. False, two witnesses are required
a. illegal possession of dangerous drugs c. False, because the witness need not be an eyewitness.
b. unlawful sale of dangerous drugs d. False, because the act need not be overt.
c. compound crime of illegal possession and use of dangerous drugs
d. complex crime of illegal possession of prohibited and regulated drugs 91. The crime of rebellion requires that the criminal act was done in furtherance of political
e. two separate crimes of illegal possession of dangerous drugs and illegal sale of motivation or purpose.
dangerous drugs a. True.
b. False, the motivation may be social.
87. Treachery, which is an aggravating circumstance occurs when the offender commits any c. False, the crime committed is sedition.
crime employing means, methods, or forms in the execution thereof which tend directly and d. False, the act does not need to be criminal.
specially to insure its execution without risk to himself arising from the defense which the
offended party might make.
a. True
92. There are two ways of committing direct assault: by employing force or intimidation for 98. Violations of the dangerous drugs law shall disqualify the offender from availing of:
the a. Indeterminate Sentence Law
attainment of any of the purposes of rebellion and sedition, and by attacking or seriously b. Probation
intimidating a person in authority or his agents. c. Three fold rule
a. True. d. Parole
b. False, direct assault is committed only by laying hands or attacking a person in e. Plea bargaining
authority or his agents.
c. False, the crime committed is indirect assault. 99. ___________________ is committed by a public officer who amasses ill gotten wealth
d. False, there is only one way of committing direct assault. thru
a series or combination of prohibited acts in the total amount of ______________ pesos.
93. This crime is committed by a public officer who will refrain from prosecuting offender in a. Qualified bribery and 50 million
consideration of a price or gift and the crime is punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or b. Direct bribery and 20 million
death. c. Malversation and 75 million
a. Indirect bribery d. Plunder and 50 million
b. Qualified bribery
c. Direct bribery 100. The crime of cattle rustling is malum _____________ for being a mere amendment of
d. Corruption of public officers the
provision on qualified theft, whereas the crime of carnapping is still malum ____________
94. This is a mock serenade where the offender actually disturbs the peace by using cans, although an amendment of the same provision on qualified theft.
pans, utensils, etc. and constitutes the crime of alarms and scandal. a. Prohibitum and in se
a. Indecent exposure b. In se and prohibitum
b. Public disorder c. Both prohibitum
c. Charivari d. Both in se
d. Misdemeanor

95. When the person granted conditional pardon by the President violates the conditions of
his
pardon, he shall be returned to prison and shall serve the remaining penalty if the same
exceeds ___________ years.
a. 5
b. 4
c. 7
d. 6

96. The subject matter of the crime of _____________ is altering or falsifying treasury or
bank
note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order.
a. Falsification
b. Forgery
c. False testimony
d. Perjury

97. The deliberate assertion of falsehood in a material matter in perjury must be contained in
an
affidavit and required by law to be under oath.
a. True.
b. False, the document need not be sworn to.
c. False, oath need not be required by law.
d. False, the assertion may be any matter.