UNANG LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA MATEMATIKA 4

FIRST QUARTER

A. Read and encircle the letter with correct figures.

1. twenty-two thousand, one hundred four a. 22,104 b. 22,184 c. 22,897

2. thirteen thousand, four hundred-two a.12,302 b.13, 305 c.13, 202

3. forty-six thousand, three hundred one a. 43,261 b. 46,301 c.46, 314

4. twenty-eight thousand, two hundred eleven a. 4,124 b. 4, 314 c. 42, 114

5. fifteen thousand, five hundred ten a.13,261 b.15,510 c. 3,143

Draw number disc to show the following numbers.

g
6.82, 483
G) G)
7. 68, 213

8.55, 476

9. 79, 023

B. Write the correct figures for the following sets.

10.10,000 10, 000 10, 000 10000 100 10 1

11. 10, 000 1000 100 100 10 10 10 10 1 1 1= _

12. 10, 000 10,000 10, 000 10,000 10000 1000 10000 10 10 1 11

II. Complete the chart

Place Value Value

13. 7 6,321

14. 321,432
15. 786,}21
16. 321,432
17.96,343

l S u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 -· F i r s t Q u a r t e r
l
 IV. Round each number to the place value of the underlined digit.

18. 816, 213

19. J.32, 654
20. 12.6, 011

V. Encircle the number that can be rounded to the given numbers

21. 83 000

82, 467 83,012 83, 850 82, 190

22. 100,000

! 99, 879 ! 98 989 ! 99, 012 ! 98, 999

23. 80,000

79, 236 80,245 80, 786 79, 499

24. 35 000

34, 100 35, 901 34, 871 33, 890

25. 73, 000

70, 567 74, 098 73, 234 73, 768

V. Write C if the number sentence is correct and F if it is wrong.

26. 8 thousand, three hundred four is equal to 8,340.

27. 45,786 < 54, 675

28. 40000 + 3000 + 20 +8 = 40, 328

2. 9. 17, 239 > 17 11

30. 12, 345 < 22, 345

2 1 .S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 SECOND SUMMATIVE TEST IN MATH 4

FIRST QUARTER

I. Arrange the following numbers in increasing order.

I 23.765 23.112 I I 23.216 I I 23.145

44.000 44.780 I I 44.819 I I 44.356
45.004 45.218 I I 45.235 I I 45.212

B. Arrange the following numbers in decreasing order.

I 88.815 88.001 I I 88.765 l I 88.546

76.890 76.000 I I 76.230 I I 76.425

II. Multiply the following numbers.

x 22

324 6.

434 7.

567 8.

312 9.

765 10.

Ill. Match the numbers in Box A and B to give you the given estimated products.

I 664 267 489 829 345

I 21 78 56 18 745

11. 24, 000 12 7, 000 13. 48, 000 14.100, 000 15. 21,000

3 IS u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 '' '' -

IV.Read and dive the answer.

16. Will there be less zeros in the product of 300 and 10than 90 and 800? Yes or No? _

17. How many zeros are there in the product of 300 ad 500? _

18. Thirty-eight pupils donated 115 pesos for the project. How much is the estimated cost of the
project? _

19. How many zeros are there in the estimated product of 237 and 99? _

20. Which is greater estimated product? 276 x 245 or514 x 145 ----------

V. Solve the following problems encircle the correct answer.

21. . Mrs. Lilia Gomez earned 450a day for selling RTW clothing, how much
money would she earn after 25 days?

22. Mrs. Araneta sells prawns at P420.00 per kilo. What was her total earnings after
selling 80 kilos of prawns?

23. Monica wants to buy a school to donate in the Back to School Gift Project in a
nearby school. If each bag costs P995 . How much would she spend if she buys 55
pieces of bags?

24. The librarian ordered 85 textbooks. If each book coast P568 each. How much would he pay
for the books?

25. Ana collected marbles, each box contains 365 pieces of marbles. lf she has collected 64
boxes, how many marbles did she collect in all?

B. Solve multi-step routine and non-routine word problems involving multiplication and addition
or subtraction. Use the series of Steps

26-28. Mang Jose harvested 1 19 sacks of rice in the first week, on the second week he harvested
134 sacks of rice. How much would he earned if he sold each sack of rice at P 1400.00

29-30. Create a problem using the following data:

Asked: The total amount of beef.

Data: Mother bought: 25 kilos of beef at P 310.00 per kilo.

41Su mmat i ve Test Grade 4- First Q u a r t er

 THIRD SUMMATIVE TEST IN MATH 4

FIRST QUARTER

Use the following table to answer the questions that follow:

APPLIANCE SALE!!!
1. How much will three LED TV?
MICROWAVE OVEN..........Php 4, 550.00

REFRIGERATOR ..................Php 18,350.00

2. Mang Lito boung two stand fan and
Washing Machine: ...........Php 7,840.00
a microwave oven. How much did he spend?
Stand Fan: ........................Pl,236.00
3. Mr Aguilar bought two stand fan for his office,

If he gave the cashier , P3000.00. How much is his change? LED TV:...............................P13,575.00

4. Celia bought two DVD Player and a LED TV for the school's DVD player: ......................P 3350.00

Speech room. How much is her change from P 20,000.00?

5. How much a washing machine and two microwave oven costs?

6. If I buy five stand fans and two DVD Player.. How much is my change

If I have from 15,000?

B. 7-8. Create your own word problem using the data below. 2 pts each.

3 boxes of blue ribbons with 55 short ribbonette inside a box.

5 boxes of red ribbon with 25 short ribbons inside each box.

300 ribbons were used

9- 10- 3500 newspapers published per hour;

12 hour a day; newspaper produced per week?

C. Divide the following:

11. 741 + 3 = ---------- 14. 789 + 6 = ---------

12. 5258 + 8 = _ 15. 3462 + 9= ---------

13. 6305 + 5 = ---------

D. Find the quotient

S I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 ·· F i r s t Q u a r t e r
16. 4654 +3= _ 19. 6754 + 9 = _

17.7684+ 7= _ 20. 8921 +4 = _

18. 8754+8 = _

Read each problem and solve.

21. Aling Nena sells 5472 kilos of sugar. If she packs it with 12 kilos per pack. How many plastic
packs can she make?

22. Mrs Lagman receives Php 8, 550.00 for tutorial service in 30 hours. How much is her fee per
hour?

23. Lorna and and her sister packed 1550 kg of rice in small plastic bags. How many plastic
bags were used if each bag contained 25 kilograms?

24. The 1593 piglets in Macaspac farm can consume 27 kilograms of feeds a day. How many
piglets can consume a kilogram of feeds a day?

25. The 1265 pupils and teachers of Pandanggo Elementary School will go on a tied trip. Buses to
be hired have 59 seats. How many buses will they hire?

F. Match the quotients to the given below.

26. 2396 + 51 = ----

27. 31 15 + 62 = _

28.9140+ 35 = _

29. 5784 +46 = _

30. 1254+ 52= _

G. Complete the table.

Dividend Divisor Quotient

31. 1 00 25
5480 32. 548
33. 1000 5
9040 10 34.
8000 35. 8
7000 36. 7
2000 1000 37.
38. 1 00 76
39. 1 00 26
1 000 1 000 40.

6 IS u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4·
· F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 FOURTH SUMMATIVE TEST IN MATH 4

First Quarter
Givethe correct answers to the following questions. Write your answers in the space provided.

1. How many 100's are there in 5 700?

2. How many lO's are there in 4 870?

3. How many lOOO's are there in 4 0000?

4. How many 10-peso coins will make a Pl00,000?

5. How many 100-peso bill you need to change P3 000?

B. Replace the letter B with correct number to complete the number sentence.

6. 447 + B = 44 r. 7 9. 2879 + 10 = B

7. B + 100 = 6 r. 99 _ 10. 7407 + B = 74.7

8. B + 100 = 23 r. 67

C. Estimate then,encircle the most appropriate answer.

11. 7874 + 16 a. 400 b. 40 c. 4 d. 4000

12. 5146 + 24 a.25 b. 250 c.2500 d. 25,000

13. 6459 + 29 a. 200 b.2000 c. 20 d.20 000

14. 8347 + 19 a. 40000 b.40 c. 400 d. 40,000

15. 7235 + 16 a 35 b.3500 c. 35,000 d. 350

D. estimate the answers of the following.

16. About how many 26' s are there in 5889?

17. About how many 23's are there in 4323?

18. About how many 12's are there in 105?

19. About how many 52's are there in 1322?

20. About how many 60's are there in 3578?

7 f S u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
E. Solve the following problems.

1. The product of two numbers is 96, if one factor is 8, what is the other factor?

Understand: _

Plan: _

Solve: _

Check and Look back: _

2. How many Ten thousands are there in 1,000, 0000?

Understand:-----------------------
Plan: _

Solve: _

Check and Look back: _

3. What is the remainder when 8756 is divided by 21 ?

Solution and answer: _

4. Mang Manny planted 1860 pechays equally in 24 rows How many pechays were planted in
each row?

Solution and answer: _

F. Solve the Multi-Step word Problem below. ( 4pts)

Mang Gorio bought 85 kg of fertilizer in 12 bags. Some are 5-kg bags. The rest are 10-kg bags.

Understand: _

Plan: _

Solve: _

Check and Look back: _

G. Evaluate the following expressions using MDAS

35. 6 x 7 + 48 +12 = _ 38. 35+5 x 8 - 7 + 9 _

36. 7 x 5 + 87 = ----- 39. 60 + 48 + 2 x4 _

37. 9 x 8 +6 = ------ 40. 15 +3 x 5 + 20 - 5. _

S I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 -· First Qua rt e r
 FIRST SUMMATIVE TEST IN SCIENCE 4

First Quarter

A. Write True if the statement is true and False if the Statement is false.

1. Materials are also classified based on the ability to absorb water.

2. Sponge has the ability to absorb water.

3. Non- porous materials have small holes that allow air or liquid to pass through.

4. Cotton is very porous which makes it natural absorber of water.

5. Plastic are materials that absorb water more than others.

6. Sink means to fall to the bottom of water.

7. All things absorb water with same level.

8. We used to cloth to wipe out water on the table.

9. Some things float at first but then sink when they absorb water.

10. Tissue paper floats even it absorbs water.

B. Identify if the materials float or sink. Write F if it floats and S if it sinks in water.

11. Rubber duck

12. Five Peso coin

13. Plastic cup

14. Eraser

15. Toy doll made of plastic

C. Choose the letter of the best answer.

16. What does organic fertilizer from compost pit do to soil?

a. It harms the soil. B. It enriches the soil c. It destroys the soil

17. which of the following decayed matter used to power factories, motor vehicles and others?

a. It harms the soil. B. It enriches the soil c. It destroys the soil

9 IS u m m a ti v e T e s t G r a d e 4 -· F i r s t Q u a r t e r
18. Where do you usually keep your left over foods to avoid decay or delay of spoilage?

a. oven B.refrigerator c. washing machine

19. Where do we get the organic matter that becomes organic fertilizer?

a. plants only b. animals only c. plants and animals

20. What happens to materials after decaying?

a. There is no change in the appearance of the materials.

b. You cannot identify the original materials.

c. Materials produce fragrant smells.

D.Put a check to the materials that undergo decay and X cross if not.

21. Paper

-- 22. Plastic cup

23. Dried leaf

24. Styrofoam

25. banana

D. Enumeration:

31-33: materials that absorb water

34-37: Factors that contribute to the decaying process of materials.

38-40: materials that sink

10 I5 u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 SECOND SUMMATIVE TEST IN SCIENCE 4

FIRST QUARTER

Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. . It is the condition that prevents the body or mind from working normally.

a. health b. disease c. stress

2. Mang Nilo throws his garbage in the river where Mang Oskar' s family gets their water for
drinking. What disease could be taken from drinking in this water?

a. diabetes b. asthma c. diarrhea

3. These are diseases spread by specific type of mosquitoes which then become epidemic
in places where these type of mosquitoes breed.

a. Dengue b. Typhoid c. Dysentry

4. It is a disease that cause severe diarrhea taken from drinking polluted water.

a. Dengue b. Typhoid c. Dysentry

5. What should you do to avoid diseases from contaminated water.

a. filter the water b. boiling the water c. add some ice in the water

II. Put a check on the material that pollutes water which causes diseases.

6. soap sud 7. Kerosene 8. Crude oil

9. Banana peel 10. Tissue paper

Ill. Put a check on the statement that describe how chemicals and other materials
pollute water.
1 1. Chemical substances make the water appear blackish.
12. Oil does not dissolve in the water that it remains in the surface.
13. Garbage thrown in rivers makes the water dear.
14. Mercury is a substance dump by factories in some bodies of water that
make water colorful.
15. Often times when garbage seeps into the ground, ground water appears
muddy and becomes smelly.
IV. Write True if the Statement is True and False if it is false.

16. Decaying materials when not dispose properly causes pollution.

17. Compost are materials that are recycled as fertilizer.

ll l S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 18. Exposure to decaying materials will make people healthy and intelligent.

19. Making compost is one way of disposing garbage properly.

20. Pollution is useful to one's health. It makes one's body functions normally.

21. Proper disposal of waste should be observed in areas near dumpsites esteros or
canals to prevent them from too much exposure to garbage that will result to danger.

22. Decaying materials have harmful effects to everyone's health.

24. Non-Decaying materials do not affect one's health when burned.

25. Decaying matter produces foul smell that could harm the people living near it.

VI. Put a Box on the correct answer.

26. When soil is polluted, which of this could be the result?

Plants leaves are green. Plant growth is stunted. Plants grow healthier.

27. Which of these make the soil acidic?

Decayed plants and animal. Continuous use of fertilizers. Too much water.

28. When plants do not grow well on polluted land, the result is

reduced food supplyhealthier animals more vegetables for food

29. Why do fishes die when oil spills happen?

Their scales are dog by oils.
Their bodies become slimy and cannot swim.
They are eaten by seabirds.

30. When people throw garbage in the river, what will likely to happen?
Fishes are poisoned and die.
Plants living in water get healthier because they absorb the waste substances.
Fishes in the river eats the garbage and become fatter.
31 -35 ( 5pts).

Discuss Briefly: What could be possible causes of illness acquired of family living near the
dump sites and squatter area? Why?

Give Five diseases that could be taken from exposing in decaying materials.
36. _
37. _
38. _
39. _
40.. _

12 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 THIRD SUMMATIVE TEST IN SCIENCE 4

FIRST QUARTER

A. Choose the letter of the best answer

1. How does air pollution offects men?
a. It can cause allergies.
b. It can cause respiratory deceases.
c. It can bring discomfort in breathing.
d. All of the above.

2. During summer, Lina has some attacks of asthma. What could be the cause?
a. Sleeplessness due to the heat of summer.
b. Over fatigue and lack of appetite
c. Polluted air caused by dust.
d. Noise in the neighborhood.
3. Which of this is the effect of air pollution to plants?
a. Stunted growth
b. Abundant fruits
c. Plants are robust
d. Plants have big roots
4. Which part of the label tells when the product start to decay?
a. instructions and uses
b. ingredients
c. date of manufactured
d. date of expiration.
5. If you are not familiar with the new product, what are you going to read in the label?

a. instructions and uses

b. ingredients
c. date of manufactured
d. date of expiration.
B. Which of these practices can prevent or control pollution? Draw a happy face before the
number of the statements that prevent pollution and draw a sad face before these that do not
prevent pollution.
© happy face @ sad face

6. Dumping trash in canals and river.

7. Littering.
8. Recycling used bottles, cans, plastics and other non-biodegradable materials.
9. Using commercial fertilizer too often.
10. Cleaning your surroundings.
C. Write BINGO if the statement explains the importance of reading the product label and NO if
it is not.

11. Product labels gives data to avoid accidents.

12. Every product have dates of manufactured.

13. Expiration date gives a user or consumer to know when to dispose the product.

14. Consumers must read the instructions of product before using it.

13 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 15. All labels provide enough information about the food product.

16. Household materials are classified according to their manufactured dates.

17. Reading product labels products protect oneself and other members of the
family.

18. Product labels intended to ensure the safety of the product users.

19. Reading labels warn possible danger to people who will use the products.

20. Product label give the safe way of using the product including the dose of
medicine.

D. Classify the product as medicines/drugs, housekeeping products and food. Write the letter of
the correct answer.

a. medicines b. food c. housekeeping products

.21 Biogesic - 26. soap

__22. Sardines 27. chocolates

23. Detergent bar .28floor wax

24. Tocino 29. Biogesic syrup

25. Ascorbic Acid 30. Cleanser

E. Identify and classify waste according to its properties. Complete the table.

Twigs sayote leaves banana peelings

kangkong stem weeds Styrofoam cups tetrapack juices

glass bottle plastic bag Meal leftovers

Kitchen waste Garden waste factory Waste

14 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 FOURTH SUMMATIVE TEST IN SCIENCE 4

FIRST QUARTER

Write True if the Statement is True and False if the Statement is False

1. Proper disposal of human waste is important to avoid poluution of water

sources.

2. Disposal should be done to avoid harming the environment.

3. Garbage Disposal anywhere helps the environment to become clean.

4. Human waste should be disposed in sinks, drainage, near wildlife habitats or

ponds.

5. Products for disposal should be clearly label to avoid mixing together.

6. Separate materials into biodegradable and Non-biodegradable.

7. Some non-biodegradable could be recycled to lessen the waste.

8. People could help the environment by properly separating the waste.

----9. When solid materials are bent, a new material is formed.

10. When solid materials are pressed, their physical appearance changes.

II. Choose the letter of the correct answer.

11. Which of the following material can be hammered?

a. piece of paper b. plastic ruler c. hollow block

12. What changes happened to material if it is pressed?

a. changes its size b. changes its shape c. both a and b

13. Ana put a chocolate bar in glass with hot water. What happens?

a. It will melt b. It will not change c. it is hardened

14. Which of the following materials can be cut by a simple scissors?

a. tin can b. galvanized iron c. paper

15. What material can be used to separate iron clippings with sand?

a. wooden stick b. plastic spoon c. magnet

15 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q. u a r t e r
C. What method will you use to separate solid materials from solid materials? Choose the letter
of the correct answer

21. hairpins, thumbtacks and rubber bands

22. sand and pebbles

23. salt and bean seeds

24. rice husk and rice grains

25. flour and mango seeds

a. flotation b. solution c. using' a magnet d. chromatography.

D. Name the method you will use to separate these liquid materials from liquid
materials. Choose the letter of the best answer.
a. separatory funnel b. evaporation c. simple distillation d. fractional distillation

26. Oil and water which are immiscible.

.27. Water and vinegar which are miscible and you want to retrieve the vinegar.
.28. You want to retrieve alcohol from water.
29. You want to retrieve both the water and the alcohol.
30.Gasoline and water where gasoline forms the upper layer in the mixture
D. Solid can be changed through many ways. Give 5 ways of changing solids.

31., _

32. _

33. _

16 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 FIRST SUMMATIVE TEST IN ENGLISH 4

FIRST QUARTER

A. Read the sentences. Answer the questions.

1. . Drake takes the cape to the lake. What does Drake take?

2. Jake makes a candy cane. What does Jake make?

3. Mila is late for her date. Who is late for the date?

4. The pale man opens the gate. What does the pale man open?

5. The cake is on sale. What is on sale?

B. Write the correct word for each picture:

I
6. '\"l 7. _a.CD_
9.cane lO cape _

C. Write the plural forms of the following nouns.

1 1. class 1 6 . tomato _

12. tree 1 7 . wish _

13. potato 18. radio _

14. box 19.church _

15. piano 20. Chair _

D. Write the plural form of the following pictures:

17 1 S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 (}Q/ >f
21. The forest guards save "l[']t'Jt-'1[ from cutting down.

22. Shrek has two new baby in his farm.

23 Joana uses different in painting.

24. We need to bring when we go to the forest.

,R,. ·
?
25. The school supplies stores sell different kinds of lJr
E. Read the phrases and match to the pictures.

26. Feel the heat of the sun.

27. The seed of a weed is big.

28. Hear the beat of the drums.

29. The boy feeds the eagle

30. Gloria has a neat seat.

a. d. e.
F. Read and Draw.

31. The chicken Meat is on the table.

18 1 S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
32. I saw a Deer eating leaves.

33. I clean my ear with a cotton bud.

34. Rina feeds the seal.

35. Cher peel the banana.

Read the short story and answer the questions that follow.

Thalia is seal. They say she looks like a beast. But you could feel her smooth skin when
you touch her. She plays with a green leaf. She tries to eat the leaf but it doesn't taste
like meat. She slides everywhere.

36. What is Thalia? -------------

37. What did Thalia play? ------------

38. How does she look like as they say? -------------

39. Why did she not like the green leaf? -------------

40. If you had a pet seal, what would you feed it? _

19 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 SECOND SUMMATIVE TEST IN ENGLISH 4

FIRST QUARTER

I. Write the correct form of the plural nouns in the following sentences.
1. .My Auntie gives many (candys , candies ) to children during her birthday.
2. She baked some (loafs, loaves) of strawberry bread.
3. Mother divided the cake into (halts, halves).
4. Eric, my brother, won't eat them because someone told him that blackberry bread is
for (fairys, fairies) only.
5. Mother bought some (cherrys, cherries) at the market.
II. Write a sentence using the plural form of the following nouns:
l. key

2. handkerchief --------------------------
3. half
------------------------------
4. strawberry _
5. baby _

111. Read the phrases and match the picture. Write the letter only.
1 1. Lola has five blind mice----
12. The boy dines with wine _
13. She has a nice ride in a bus.·-
---
14. Ana rides a bike _
15. Noli and John fly nine kites in the farm. _

... • :"JI . ••

d.

IV. Read the sentences. Answer the questions after each sentence.
16. I put some ice I my soda. What did I put in my soda? _
17. We dine our breakfast at five in the morning. When is the time to dine our
breakfast? ------------
20 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
18. The tamer has snake bites. What does the farmer have? _
19. Nice hides the dice. What does Nice hide? _
20. Mike goes to the wide dike. Where did Mike go? _

V. Write I ( check) if the underlined word is correcHy used and cross (x) if itis wrong.
21 .The farmer caught three mice in the rice field.
22. Noli has broken his front tooth.
23. Noah uses his left feet to kick the ball.
24. Nina, Melda and Bevs are the children who play daily in the park.
25. Mother takes care of her three goose:.
VII. You have listened already to the story of "Tower to the Moon". Recall the events
and arrange the events as they happened in the story. Write 26-30.
The carpenter and his helpers walked to the tower and pulled out the bottom box.
The king commanded that every box in the kingdom be brought to the carpenter.
The king sent for the best carpenter in the kingdom.
The king climbed higher and higher until he came to the top of the tower. The
carpenter and his helpers drew lines on big sheets of paper. They hammered and
measured.
The carpenter yelled at the king that there were no more boxes anywhere.
VIII. Note the details in the story listened to: " In a Minute" from LM/TG.
Juana has pet parrot. It's name is Jessie. She always play with Jessie. Whenever
mother told Juana to do something, she always replies "In a minute, Mother." One day
the cat entered the room and saw Juana's pet parrot .Juana saw the feathers
scattered all around the room. Juana cried and cried. She no longer said "In a minute."
31. Who has pet? _
32. What is her per? _
33. What does she reply whenever something is asked her to do?

34. What happen to her pet? _

35. What is her lesson?------------------

21 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 THIRD SUMMATIVE TEST IN ENGLISH 4

FIRST QUARTER

I. Read the phrases. Find and encircle the word with long o sound.

Read the sentences.

1. . I gave my dog a bone.

2. Don't drop the ice cream cone.

3. Use the code to open the door.

4. We rode to the cove. It was fun!

5. Give him a pole, so he can move

Fill in each blank with the correct word to complete the rhymes.

6. Tie a around the post.

cone bone
7. Give the dog a _
alone joke hom e
8. Eat the ice cream _

9. Clean your room _

open code rope

10. Father is happy to be with us.

II. Arrange the steps in baking a cake. ( 1 1-15)

Put the mixture in the oven.

Mix all the ingredients.

Pre-heat the oven.

Let the cake cool down.

Put some icing or frosting on the cake.

Ill. A.Write directions for brushing one's teeth.

First _

Next' ------------------------------
Then· ------------------------------
Finally, -------------------------------
22 IS ummat i ve Test Grade 4- Fi rst Quarter
B. Arrange the pictures as to what should happen in the events.

Ill. Choose the correct counter/quantifier for the mass nouns from the box to complete
the phrases.

24. A of chocolates 28. A of candies

25. A of milk 29. A of water

26. A of grapes 30. A of soup

27. A of coffee

glass box cup bottle bowl jar

plateful basket

IV. Read the followi ng sentences. Encircle the word with long /u/ sound.

31. Nora saw ahuge snake in her garden.

32. Ifeel good when I hear my favorite tune on the radio.

33. Iwant a cube of ice in my glass of water.

34. I prefer to use a long spoon for the Mais con Yelo.

35. Father needs to change the fuse so he can turn on the lights.

23 1 S u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
V. Write the corret word for the following pictures with long /u/ sound.

36. _

37. _

38. _

39 _

24 I5 u m m a t iv e Test Gra de 4- F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 FOURTH SUMMATIVE TEST IN ENGLISH 4

FIRST QUARTER

I. Use context clues to fill in the correct word in the setnece. Write the letter of the
correct answer.

1. . The improperly disposed garbage in our place smells .It has unpleasant
smell.

2. They say that Mount Makiling is because fairies used to live there.

3. Sampaguita flower smells . It smells like perfume.

4. 1 like eating when I'm sick where my mother uses more water in cooking
rice than usual.

5. The dog was freed because the chain was _

a. porridge b. lose c. foul d. fragrant e. enchanted

II. A. Match the following words to complete a compound word.

6. News a. sauce

--7. Sore b. room

8. Class c. shop

9. Pet d. paper

_ 10. Apple e. eyes

B. Identify the words being describe to form a compound now.

1 1. upper part of the body + lace = _

12. A medicine + store =--------------

13. Drops of water from the sky + coat= -------------

14. a small container + cake =-----------------

15. fast + way =---------------------

2S I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
Ill. Identify the underlined word if concrete or abstract noun in a sentence. Write each
kind.

16. Happiness is what we always look for.

17. This Elementary school is built through the effort of the parents.

18. I always feel hungry after I have done my exercises.

19. Lorna dreams to have a mansion.

20. Our heroes fought hard for our freedom.

IV. write a graphic organizer about " Ema, The Enchantress and the three Rascals"

who

WHAT
EMA, THE
ENCHANTRESS

WHERE

WHEN

v. Read the following phrases and identify the word with dlpthong (oy, ow, oi).

26. Lota mixes the fertilizer with the soil.

26 IS u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Cl. u a r t e r
27. She makes sure that her plant grows healthy.

28. A loud familiar voice called her name.

29. It was Roy who calls her in the gate.

30. They enjoy the cake that her friend brought her.

VI. Use the correct collective nouns to complete a meaningful sentence.

l. The Philippine Basketball represents the country in the FIBA World Cup.

2. I have a of old and new stamps.

3. The 789 Brass leads the festivities in our municipality.

4. The Philippians sings melodiously during the entire mass service.

5. A of soldiers were assigned to Basilan to fight

VII. Write a letter of apology to your school principal after you accidentally broke the
glass window of the office. (5pts)

27 IS u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Qua rte r
 UNANG MARKAHANG PAGSUSULIT SA ARALING PANLIPUNAN 4
FIRST QUARTER

lsulat ang TAMA kung wasto ang ipinapahayag at MALI naman kung di wasto.
1. Ang bansa ay lugar o teritoryo na may naninirahang mga
grupo ng tao na may magkakatulad na kulturang pinanggalingan

2. Makikita sa isang bansa kung na iisa o pare-parehong wika, pamana,

relihiyon, at lahi.

3. Ang isang bansa ay maituturing na bansa kung ito ay binubuo ng apat na

elemento ng pagkabansa-tao, teritoryo, pamahalaan, at kayamanan.

4. Ang tao ay tumutukoy sa grupong naninirahan sa loob ng isang teritoryo

na bumubuo ng populasyon ng bansa.

5. Ang teritoryo ay tumutukoy sa lupain na nasasakupan ng isang bansa.

6. Hindi maituturing na bansa ang isnag lugar kung wala itong pamahalaan.
7. Ang teritoryo rin ang tinitirhan ng tao at pinamumunuan ng pamahalaan.
8. Ang pamahalaan ay isang samahan oorganisasyong politicalna may
sariling interes upang paikutin ang pagpapalakad sa isang lugar.
9.Ang soberanya o ganap no kalayaan ay tumutukoy sa kapangyarihan ng
pamahalaang mamahala sa kaniyang nasasakupan.
10. Ang soberanya ng bansa ay nanatili lamang sa loob ng bansa.

II. Basahin ang mga pangungusap. lsulat ang bilang ng pangungusap

na nagpapatunay na ang Pilipinas ay isang bansa. Lagyan ng tsek I ang mga patlang
at ekis naman ang hindi.

1 1. Ang tao o kabuuang Populasyon ng Pilipininas ay may mahigit sa 100 milyong

kabuuang bilang
12. Ang Pilipinas ay hindi maaaring pakialaman ng ibang bansa.

28 1 S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 13. Ang Pilipinas ay may sariling teritoryo na binubuo ng mga kayubigan at
mahigit sa 7 100 isla.
14. May pamahalaan ang Pilipinas na tumutugon sa mga pangangailangan ng
mga mamamayan.
15. Ang mga Pilipino ay gumagamit ay may mahigit kumulang sa 80 iba't ibang
wika.

Ill. Kulayan ng pula ang bilog ng bilang ng pangungusap na nagsasabing katangian

ng isang lugar para maituring na isang bansa.

8 16. May mga mamamayang naninirahan sa bansa.

17. Pinamamahalaan ng pinuno na iba- iba pang bansa
0 18. Binubuo ng tao, pamahalaan lamang
0 19. May sariling pamahalaan na namamahala
0 20. May sariling teritoryo na tumutukoy sa lupain at katubigan kasama na ang
himpapawid at kalawakan sa itaas nito.
IV. Ang sumusunod ay elemento ng isa bansa. lsulat ang titik ng elementong tinutukoy.
a. pamahalaan b. tao c. teritoryo d. soberanya

21 .Tumutukoy sa kapangyarihan ng isang bansa na mamahala sa kanyang

nasasakupan.
.22. Ito ang buong populasyon na naninirahan sa bansa.
,23. Tumutukoy ito sa lugar kung saan naninirahan ang populasyon o tao
ng bansa.
.24. Grupo ng tao na nagtataguyod nito ang kaayusan at katiwasayan ng
bansa.
.25. Tumutukoy sa lupain, katubigan at himpapawid na sakop ng bansa.

V. lguhit ang Watawat ng Pilipinas na sumisimbolo ng pagiging isang bansa nito.

29 1 S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 IKALAWANG LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA ARALING PANLIPUNAN 4
FIRST QUARTER

I. lsulat ang TAMA kung wasto ang ipinapahayag at MALI naman kung MALI ang
pahayag.
1. Ang Pilipinas ang ikalawang pinakamalaking kapuluang
matatagpuan sa rehiyong Timog-silangang Asya sa gawing itaas
ng ekwador.
2. Ang Asya ang pinakamalaking kalupaan o lupalop sa buong daigdig
3. Tinagurian ang Pilipinas bilang "Dulo ng Asya" dahil sa kinalalagyan nito sa
Pasipiko at bi!ang bahagi ng kontinente at lupalop ng Asya.
4. Nasa pagitan ito ng latitude na 4°-21° hilagang latitud at 1 16°-127°
silangang longhitud.
5. Hindi tiyak ang kinalalagyan ng Pilipinas batay sa kaugnay na kinalalagyan
nito.
6. Ang re/atibong /okasyon o kaugnay na kina/a/agyan ng bansa ay ang
lokasyon ng isang lugar ayon sa kinalalagyan ng mga katabi o kalapit nitong lugar.
7. Sa pagitan ng mga pangunahing direksiyon ay ang mga
pangalawang direksiyon.
8. Kung pagbabatayan ang mga pangalawang direksiyon, matutukoy rin
ang kinalalagyan ng Pilipinas no napapaligiran ng Dagat ng Pilipinas so Timog-
silangan.
9. Ang mga isla ng Palau ay matatagpuan sa timog-silangan
10.Ang mga isla ng Borneo ay matatagpuan sa hilagang-kanluran ng Pilipinas

B. Punan ang tsart:

Pangunahlng Dlreksiyon Anyong Lupa Anyong Tubig
Hilaga Taiwan, 1 1 '
13.
12
14. Micronesia at 16.
15.
Timog Dagat Celebes at
17. 18.
Kanluran Vietnam at
19. 20.

Ill. (Teriforyo ng Pilipinas ) Punan ng wasfong salita ang mga pangungusap upang
maibigay ang wastong diwa nito.

30 IS u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 Ang 21.. ay tumutukoy so sukat ng lupaing sakop ng isang lugar.
Kasama rito ang mga katubigan no nakapaloob at nakapaligid so kalupaan, at ang
mga kalawakang itaas na katapat nito. Ang pambansang teritoryo ng Pilipinas batay
so 22. ng 23. ay binubuo ng kapuluan ng Pilipinas. Binubuo ito
ng 24. , 25. , at 26 . Kasama no rin ang
27 , ang ilalim ng dagat, ang kailaliman ng lupa, _28 , at iba
pang pook submarina nito. Ang 29 at karagatang nakapaligid,
nakapagitan, at naguugnay sa mga pulo ng kapuluan maging ano man ang lawak ng
dimensiyon, ay bahagi ng 30. at karagatan ng Pilipinas.

IV. Piliin ang titik ng tamang sagot.

31. Ang Pilipinas ay kabilang sa anong bahagi ng Asya?
a. Timog-Silangang Asya c. Hilagang Kanluran
b. Hilagang Silangan d. Timog Kanluran

32. llang pulo mayroon ang Pilipinas?

a. 7010 b. 7007 c. 7100 d. 7001

33. Ano ang kabuuang sukat ng Pilipinas?

a. 300 000 km b. 330 000 km c. 300 300 km d. 303 000

34-. May ( a. 1851 b. 1581 c. 1815 d. 51 18) kilometre ang

hobo mula so hilaga patimog 35. at umaabot naman so _
a. 7101 b. 701 1 c. 1017 d. 1 107 kilometre ang lawak nito mula
so kanluran pasilangan.

31 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 IKATLONG LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA ARALING PANLIPUNAN 4
FIRST QUARTER

I. AGamit ang mapa ng mundo, pumili ng lugar o bansa sa iba't ibang direksiyon sa
labas ng Pilipinas. Sukatin ang distansiya o layo nito sa bansa gamit ang batayang
iskalang 1 cm =10 000 km. lsulat sa notbuk ang lugar na napili at ang distansiyanito
mula sa Pilipinas.
1. Hilaga: distansiya: _
2. Silangan: distansiya: _
3. Timog: distansiya: _
4. Kanluran: distansiya: _
5. Hilagang-silangan: distansiya: _
6. Timog-silangan: distansiya: _

I.B Kumuha ng mapa ng Asya. Gamit ang ruler at batayang iskalasa ibaba, sukatin ang
layo o distansiya ng mga hangganan ngPilipinas mula sa kalupaan nito.
lskala: 1 cm = 5 000 km
1 . Bashi Channel
--------- _
2. Karagatang Pasipiko
3. Dagat Celebes _
4. Dagat Kanlurang Pilipinas _

Bilugan ang titik ng tamang sagot.

1 1.Kung ang bawat sentimetro sa iskala ay katumbas ng 50 kilometre, ang 3
sentimetro ay magiging katumbas ng _
a. 200 km c. 100 km
b. 150 km d. 300 km
12. Kung ang bawat sentimetro sa iskala ay katumbas ng 100 kilometre, ang
1,000 kilometre ay katumbas ng
a. 20 sm c. 10 sm
b. 5 sm d. l sm
13. llang metro ang 1 sentimetro sa iskala?
a. 5 m c. 20 m
b. 10 m d. 30 m
14. Ang pinakamalapit na bansa sa hilaga ng Pilipinas ay ang _
A. China C. Taiwan
B. Japan D. Hongkong

15. Ang pinakamalayong bansa mula sa kanluran ng Pilipinas ay ang _

A. Laos C. Myanmar
B. Thailand D. Cambodia

16. Kung ihahambing sa kapuluan ng ltalya, ang lawak ng teritoryo ng Pilipinas ay

masasabing _
A. kasinlaki C. mas malaki

32 1 S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
B. mas maliit D. malaking-malaki

17. Sa kabuuan, ang lokasyon o kinalalagyan ng Pilipinas ay masasabing

A. buong kalupaan na napaliligiran ng tubig

B. matubig at watak-watak ang mga isla
C. maliit na isla ngunit matubig
D.layo-layo ang mga isla

18.Ganito ang klima sa isang lugar kung nagsusuot ka ng makakapal na damit.

a. Taglamig b. tagsibol c. tag-ulan d taglagas

19. Ano ang klima ng isang lugar kung ikaw madalas pagwaisan dahil mainit
a. Taglamig b. tag-init c. tag-ulan d taglagas

20. Nagagamit mo ang iyong kapote, paying sa klimang ito na kadalasang may
pagbahang nagaganap.
a. Taglamig b.tagsibol c. tag-ulan d taglagas

Ill. Buuin ang salita upang makuha ang tamang sagot gamit ang bawat paglalarawan
sa bawat bilang.

MALKI • 21. Pangkalahatang kalagayan ng panahon sa isang lugar

na may kinalaman sa atmospera o hanging nakapaligid sa mundo.

NOHNAAP • 22. Ang panahon ay tumutukoy naman sa kalagayan

ng kapaligiran, halimbawa, taglamig at tag-init.

PKALTORI - ,23.lto ang mga bahagi ng Tropiko ng Kanser at Tropiko ng

Kaprikorn

MEPTREAT - 24.lto ang tawag sa bahaging nasa pagitan ng kabilugang

Arktiko at Tropiko ng Kanser

LORPA- 25. Ito ang rehiyong nasa hilagang latitud hanggang Polong
Hilaga at timog latitud hanggang Polong Timog na hindi tinatamaan ng direktang sikat
ng araw.

IV. lsulat ang salitang TAMA kung wasto ang pahayag ng mga pangungusap at MALI
naman kung hindi.

26. Nararanasan sa RehiyongTemperate ang panahon ng tagsibol, tag-init,

taglagas, at taglamig dahil sa pahilis na sikat ng araw dito.

33 I S u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
---- 27. Upang malaman ang klima ng isang lugar o bansa, mahalagang
matukoy ang lokasyon, topograpiya o paglalarawan ng katangian ng isang lugar, at
ang hangin at tubigang mayroon ito.

28. Nagkakaiba-iba ang klima sa iba't ibang lugar dahil sa pagikot ng

daigdig sa araw at pag-inog sa sarili nitong aksis

_,29. Ang Pilipinas ay malapit sa ekwador at nasa mababang latitud kaya't

polar ang klimang nararanasan dito.

30.Malaki rin ang kaugnayan ng mga linya ng latitud sa uri ng klima sa

mga lugar sa daigdig.

V. lguhit ang globo at lagyan ng label ang sumusunod \: ( 5pts)

Tropiko ng kanser tropiko ng kaprikornyo ekwador

kabilugang artiko kabilugang antartiko

VI. Sumulat ng limang maaaring gawin ng mga naninirahan sa isang bansang tropikal
tulad ng Pilipinas. 36-40

34 l 5 u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir s t Q u a r t e r
 IKA-APAT NA LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA ARALING PANLIPUNAN 4
FIRST QUARTER
A. lguhit ang araw kapag ang mga pahayag ay naglalarawan ng katangiang tropical
at ulap naman kapag hindi.

1. Kaunting sikat ng araw lamang ang nararanasan so mga lugar no ito.

.2. Umuulan ng yelo so lugar no ito.
3. Nakararanas ng apat no uri ng panahon ang mga bansang may ganitong
klima.
4. Mainit at maalinsangan ang pakiramdam ng mga naninirahan so lugar.
5. Direktang tinatamaan ng sikat ng araw ang mga lugar no ito.

B. Piliin ang titik ng wastong sagot.

6. A lin sa mga sumusunod ang matatagpuan saan mang dako ng bansa dahil
matibay so init at lamig?
a. agile c. kalabaw
b. tamaraw d. kabayo

7. A nong mga pananim ang tumutubo sa lugar no maikli ang tag-araw.

a. akasya, kawayan, kugon, talahib
b. apitong, lawaan, tangile, yakal
c. aguho, bakawan, pawid, talisay
d. kamagong, mais, molave, palay

8. Malamig ang klima sa Baguio kaya roan ay maraming

a. mansanas c. strawberries
b. bayabas d. lansones

9. Sa kabuuan,bakit maituturing no kainaman ang temperatura sa bansang Pilipinas.

a. Dahil so hanging nagmumula sa dagat at lupa ay maginhawa pa rin so
pakiramdam kahit mainit ang panahon.

b. Dahil so hanging nagmumula sa lupa ay mainit pa rin so pakiramdam kahit malamig

ang panahon.

c. Dahil so hanging nagmumula so dagat ay malamig pa rin so pakiramdam kahit

malamig ang panahon.

10. Ang ay malamig no hangin buhat so hilagang-silangan.

a. hanging amihan b. hanging habagat c. trade winds

3S I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
1 1 . Bakit kaya malamig ang hanging amihan?
a. Ang mga lupa sa mga bansa na sag awing hilaga ng Pilipinas ay umiinit.
b. Tumataas ang presyon ng hangin sa Siberia at Mongolia kung saan nagmumula ang
bulto ng malamig na hanging dumarating sa Pilipinas.
c. Natutunaw ang mga yelo sag awing Polar kung saan tumataas ang level ng tubig.

12. Bakit naman kaya mainit ang hanging habagat?

a. Ang mga lupa sa mga bansa na sag awing hilaga ng Pilipinas ay umiinit.
b. Tumataas ang presyon ng hangin sa Siberia at Mongolia kung saan nagmumula ang
bulto ng malamig na hanging dumarating sa Pilipinas.
c. Natutunaw ang mga yelo sag awing Polar kung saan tumataas ang level ng tubig.

13 Anong buwan nararanasan ang hanging amihan?

a. mula Nobyembre hanggang Marso
b. mula Mayo hanggang Setyembre
c. mula Marso hanggang Mayo

14. Anong buwan nararanasan ang hanging habagat?

a. mula Nobyembre hanggang Marso
b. mula Mayo hanggang Setyembre
c. mula Marso hanggang Mayo

15. llang uri ng klima mayroon ang Pilipinas?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.4

Ill. Uriin ang klima na inilalarawan sa bawat bilang.

16. Nakararanas ng maulan at maikling panahon ng tag-araw ang mga
lalawigang kabilang sa ikatlong uri ng klima.

17. Ito ay nararanasan mula Hunyo hanggang Nobyembre ay tag-ulan at mula

Disyembre hanggang Mayo ay tag-araw.
18. Nakararanas ang mga lalawigang nabibilang sa ikaapat na uri ng pantay-
pantay na dami at pagkakabahagi ng ulan sa buong taon

19. Mula Disyembre hanggang Pebrero nakararanas ng pinakamalakas na

pag-ulan ang mga lugar na kabilang sa ikalawang uri.

.20. Sa Luzon, nararanasan ang ganitong uri ng klima sa mga lalawigang nasa
hilagang-silangang Luzon, timogkanlurang bahagi ng Camarines Norte at kanlurang
bahagi ng Camarines Sur, silangang bahagi ng Mindoro

.21 . Halos tumatagal lamang ng isa hanggang tatlong buwan ang

nararanasang tag-araw ng mga lalawigang kabilang sa ganitong uri

22. Nakararanas ng kalahating taon ng tag-ulan at tag-araw ang mga lugar

sa bansa na kabilang sa uring ito

36 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
23. Ang kanlurang bahagi ng Mindoro at Palawan sa Luzon at ang mga lalawigan ng
Negros, Aklan.

24. Nakararanas ng ganitong uri ng klima ang mga lalawigang nasa silangang bahagi
ng Luzon-silangang bahagi ng Albay, Camarines Norte at Camarines Sur.

25. Nakararanas ang mga lalawigang kabilang sa klimang itO ng pag-ulan sa buong
taon dahil sa kalapitan ng mga lugar dito sa baybayin.

IV. Paugnayin ang mga babala sa kanilang paglalarawan.

26. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 60 hanggang 100 kilometre bawat oras sa
loob ng 24 oras
27. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay hindi bababa sa 185 kilometre bawat oras sa
loob ng 12 oras
28 Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 30 hanggang 60 kilometre bawat oras sa
loob ng 36 na oras
29. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 100 hanggang 185 kilometre bawat oras
sa loob ng 18 oras

Babala Bilang 1. Babala Bilang 2 Babala Bilang 3 Babala Bilang 4

30. Pinakamalalim, pinakamalawak at pinakamalakai sa lahat ng mga anyong

lupa.
31. Bahagikaragatan, ang tubig ditto ay mas mainit kaysa karagatan
32. Nagdurugtong sa dalawang malaking katawan ng tubig
33. Mataas na bahaging lupa ngunit patag ang ibabaw.
34. Pinakamataas na anyong lupa
35. Patag at malawak na lupain

a. tsanel b. kapatagan c. burol d. talampas

e. karagatan f. dagat g. look h. bundok

V. Tukuyin ang uri ng pangunahing Likas na yaman ng bansa

36. Chromite _
37. waling-waling _
38. Pandaca Pygmea _
39 karbon---------------------
40. abaka _

37 IS u m m a t iv e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r
 UNANG LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA FILIPINO 4
FIRST QUARTER

A. Hulaan ang pangngalang tinutukoy sa bawat paglalarawan. lsulat nang wasto ang
sagot sa bawat patlang.
1. Anyong lupa no pinakamataas.
.2. Sikat no artistang Pilipino na gumanap no Mari Mar.
3. !sang ibong may mahika sa pagpapagaling.
4. Piksyong Bayani na babae na lumilipat matapos lumunok ng bato.
5. Tawag sa mga taong naggagamot sa may sakit
6. Pambansang Wika ng Pilipinas
7. Ginagamit sa panahon ng tag-ulan upang di mabasa at
panangga so tag-init.
8. lsisinusuot so paa kapag may pasok sa eskwela
9. Ginagamit na pansalok sa kanin at mainit na sabaw.
l0. Pinakasikat na boksingero so Pilipinas.

B. Punan ang tsart. Hanapin ang magkatumbas no Pangngalang pambalana at

pantangi sa bawat pangungusap sa bawat bilang.

A. Nagbuwis ng buhay ang bayaning si Macario Sakay para so Timog katagalugan.

B. lpinagmamalaki ko ang aking probinsiyang pinagmulan, ang Bataan.
C. Pangarap na ni Dr. Perez na maging manggamot kahit na noong bata pa siya.
D. lsang mabuting pangulo si Ramon Magsaysay sa ating bansa.
E. lbinili ako ni kuya ng sapatos na may tatak na Nike.

Titik PAMBALANA PANTANGI

A 11. 12.
B 13. 14.
c 15. 16.
D 17. 18.
E 19. 20.

Ill. lbigay ang kahulugan ng mga salita gamit ang lipon na salita na kaugnay nito.

21. .Malamig ang kllma sa Baguio kayo maraming nagpupunta roon kapag tag-init.

(mga lugar, lagay ng panahon, mga halaman)

38 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir st Qua rt e r
22. Ang isang taong may mabigat no karamdaman ay lagging nababalisa.

(hindi mapalagay, maiinitin, mainit ang ulo)

23. Namili so loob ng palasyo ang prinsesa habang nagpapagaling ng karamdaman.

{kubo. tahanan ng mga hari at reyna, bilangguanJ

24. Bumuo ng pasya si Mang Ramon.(desisyon, proyekto, alalahanin)

25. ltinago ni ama ang dokumento so loob ng baul

( taguon ng gomit , lologyan ng basura , polomigan ng pagkain I

Ill. Ayusin ong mga pangyayari ayon so wostong pogkakosunod-sunod. Logyan ng bilang na
1.2.3.4. at 5 ong patlang.

Nang mahal na alkalde sa G. Lim, nag-isip siya ng proyektong pakikinabangan

ng mga mamamayan.

Dumarayo pa ng malayo ang mga mamamayan kung may sakit.

Kulang na kulang sa mga manggagamot ang nayon

Dating walang ospital ang nayon ng San Nicolas.

ang naisipan niyang proyekto oy ang pagtatayo ng ospital para sa mga

mamamayo.

IV. Ayusin ang larawan upang maisalaysay ang kuwento:

V. lsalaysay ang kuwento gamit"ang

,...,.
. .

-
-., ..,
!:.9larawan ( 5pts bawat Isa )

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11",, _
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39 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F ir st Qua rt e r
 IKALAWANG LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA FILIPINO 4
FIRST QUARTER

I. lsulat ang titik ng kasingkahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit.

1. Naabot niya ang bunga dahil mataas siya.

a. matangkad b. mataba c. marunong

2. Nauubos ang ulam dahil malinamnam ito.

a. matamis b. matabang c. masarap

3. Madaling ipanghiwa ang kutsilyong matalas.

a. matalim b. mapurol c. matulis

4. Ang mabahong amoy ng tubig sa kanal ay umaalingasaw

a. madalas b. madalang c. palagi

5. Malimit gamitin ni nana yang bago niyang sapatos.

a. madalas b. madalang c. palagi

II. Gamitin ang Mapa sa ibaba upang makabuo ng limang panuto sa pagbibigay ng
direksyon. ( 6-10)

PU
.,._ ..._......1.. ._ .......... ._...... .....i RO
PUROK NG MABINI K
NG
DE
PUROK NG RIZAL L
1------------.......
Basketball court
-.------------.....---,------- PIL
Paaralang AR
Elementary a

San Luis Hospi

PUROK NG AQUINO

40 I S u m m a t i v e T e s t G r a d e 4 - F i r s t Q u a r t e r