Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Norte
PANDAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Sarrat

3rd Periodical Test in Science 7

S.Y. 2019 - 2020

Name: _____________________________ Grade/Section:________________ Date: __________ Score: _____

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer. Blacken the chosen letter in the answer sheet.
1. Velocity is a measure of
a. change in position during a change in time c. the slope of a position-time graph
b. displacement during an interval of time d. all of the above
2. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
a. time b. velocity c. speed d. distance
3. Jackson travels 2 km north, then 3 km east, and finally 2 km south. Which statement is true?
a. Jackson’s displacement is 2 km west from his origin. c. Jackson is now 3 km east from where he started.
b. Jackson’s displacement is 7 km. d. None of the above
4. Which scenario represents an instant of time?
a. A long-distance runner crosses the finish line at 1 hour, 37 minutes.
b. A businesswoman takes a two-hour flight from Winnipeg to Montreal.
c. An ambulance drives for two minutes to arrive at the scene of an accident.
d. A student leaves home at 8:15 and gets to school at 8:30.
5. Which of the following is a physical quantity that has a magnitude but no direction?
a. vector b. frame of reference c. resultant d. scalar
6. Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector: the mass of an object, the number of leaves on a tree, wind
velocity.
a. vector, scalar, scalar b. vector, scalar, vector c. scalar, scalar, vector d. scalar, vector, vector
7. Identify the following quantities as scalar or vector: the speed of a snail, the time it takes to run a mile, the free-
fall acceleration.
a. vector, scalar, scalar b. scalar, scalar, vector c. vector, scalar, vector d. scalar, vector, vector
8. A car has an oil drip. As the car moves, it drips oil at a regular rate, leaving a trail of spots on the road. Which of
the following diagrams of the car’s trail of spots shows the car continuously slowing down?

A. C.

B. D.

9. The graph below shows the speed of an object during a 10 s time interval.

In which of the following time intervals is the speed of the object decreasing?
 A. between 0 s and 2 s C. between 6 s and 8 s
B. between 2 s and 4 s D. between 8 s and 10 s
10. The graph below shows velocity measurements made as a car moved north for 25 s.
How far did the car move during the first 15 s of the trip?
A. 20 m B. 25 m C. 300 m D. 500 m
11. A teacher asks a group of students to use a ruler to measure the amplitude of the wave
shown below.

Between which of the following points should the amplitude be measured?

A. points U and Z C. points W and Y
B. points V and X D. points X and Z
12. Which of the following is an example of a mechanical wave?
A. radio wave B. water wave C. light wave D. microwave
13. A large spring is stretched horizontally between two people. One person wiggles the spring up and down at one
end. The up-and-down vibration then moves along the spring to the other person. Which of the following types of
wave is created in the spring?
A. pressure wave B. transverse wave C. longitudinal wave D. nonmechanical wave
14. A string is tied on a spring. Two students then stretch out the spring, as shown below.

In which of the following ways does the string move when the students generate a longitudinal wave in the spring?

A. B. C. D.

15.Electromagnetic waves of various frequencies reach Earth from distant parts of the universe. Which of the
following can be inferred from this?
A. The wavelengths must be very short. B. A single material must fill all of space.
C. These waves can travel without a medium. D. The speed of these waves is 300,000,000 m/s.
16. A student hears the sound of a bell. Which of the following carries the sound of the bell to the student?
A. electrical currents B. magnetic signals C. radio waves D. vibrating air
1 17. Mechanical waves are created when a source of energy causes a medium to
A A. move B. compress C. expand D. vibrate
_ 18. The highest parts of a transverse wave are called
a. troughs B. crests C. nodes D. wavelengths
19. Which of the following statements best describes an electromagnetic wave with a long wavelength?
A. It has a low frequency and can travel in a vacuum.
B. It has a high frequency and can travel in a vacuum.
C. It has a low frequency and can only travel in a medium.
D. It has a high frequency and can only travel in a medium.
20. A wave carries _______________.
A. wind B. matter C. water D. energy
21.The pictures below show four different bells made of the same material.
 Which of the following bells should have the lowest pitch?
A. bell 1 B. bell 2 C. bell 3 D. bell 4
22. In the figure below, child A and child B are equal distances from a ticking clock. Which
child hears a louder ticking sound?
A. Child A B. Child B. C. Child A and B

23. White light can be separated into the various colors of the visible spectrum. Which of the following is
form due to this phenomenon?
A. transverse light B. rainbow C. shadow D. photoelectric light
24. Which of the following waves require a material medium for their passage?
A. radio waves B. sound waves C. visible light D. X rays
25. Blowing into an almost empty bottle produces .
A. a high pitch sound C. no sound
B. a low pitch sound D. low sound
26. A longitudinal wave in an elastic medium producing an audible sensation is a(n) ________.
A. water B. sound wave C. hypothesis D. space
27. Sound does not travel in space because
A. space is too far away C. space is final frontier
B. there is no matter in space D. space has planets
28. A sound with high frequency has a _____________ pitch.
A. low B. high C. undetermined D. no pitch
29. What do dolphins, bats and porpoise use?
A. Ultrasound B. Infrasound C. Both A and B D. None of them
30. Speed of sound depends upon
A. temperature of the medium C. pressure of the medium
B. temperature of source producing sound D.temperature and pressure of medium
31. Sound can be transmitted through a medium which
A. contains charge C. has higher density than air
B. contains molecules that vibrate D. contains molecules that collide
32. If temperature increases, speed of sound
A. also increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease
33. Which statement is true?
A. Speed of light in air is lower than in glass.
B. Some electromagnetic waves will pass through walls that light cannot penetrate.
C. In air, light travels much faster than radiation from a microwave oven.
D. Electromagnetic waves cannot travel in perfect vacuum.
34. The daytime sky is blue on sunny days because the atmosphere
A. is most efficient at scattering red light
B. absorbs blue light
C. contains small amount of water vapour that give the air its blue color
D. is more efficient at scattering blue light
35. The evening sunsets are reddish orange because the atmosphere
A. absorbs blue light
B. is more efficient in scattering blue light
C. absorbs the red light
D. contains small amount of red dust that give the air its red color
36. For visible light, which property of visible electromagnetic waves changes with color?
A. wavelength B. amplitude C. frequency D. amplitude and frequency
37. What type of energy can we sense with our eyes?
A. sound energy B. electric energy C. light energy D. thermal energy
38. What happens when light energy bends as it passes from one type of substance to another type?
A. transmission B. refraction C. absorption D. reflection
39. What happens when light passes straight through an object?
A. absorption B. reflection C. refraction D. transmission
40. What kind of heat transfer is occurring when the sun warms the sand?
A. conduction B. radiation C. convection D. density

41. Which of the following is an example of convection?

A. A hair dryer is drying up your hair.
B. When the aircon or heater changes the temperature
C. When a car engine turns hot after being turned on
D. Boiling spaghetti noodles in water
42. What heat transfer happens when you burn your finger by touching a fire?
A. radiation B. conduction C. convection D. transformation
43.Which sentence explains why a cold metal spoon placed in a pot of boiling water becomes hot?
A. Thermal energy is transferred from the spoon to the water.
B. Thermal energy is transferred from the water to the spoon.
C. Thermal energy in the water is transformed into kinetic energy in the spoon.
D. Thermal energy in the spoon is transformed into kinetic energy in the water.
44. Charges that are the same ___________________ each other.
A. attract B. repel C. no attraction D. no change
45. Charges that are different ________________ each other.
A. attract B. repel C. no attraction D. no change
46. When there is an equal amount of positive and negative charges of an object, the object is _________________.
A. positively charged C. negatively charged
B. neutral D. supercharged
47. When is the magnetic force strongest in a magnet?
A. near the center of a magnet C. at the poles of a magnet
B. in the middle of a magnetic field D. the magnetic force is the same everywhere
48. For making a strong electromagnet, the material of the core should be
A. soft iron B. steel C. brass D. copper
49. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means
A. it will not work if current is less than 8A C. it will work only if current is 8A
B. it has a resistance of 8 D. it will burn if current exceeds 8A
50. Static electricity is produced due to
A. friction B. conduction C. induction D. both A and C

Prepared by:

MA. BELINDA L. CALABUCAL

Teacher I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Norte
PANDAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Sarrat

3rd Periodical Test in Science 8

S.Y. 2019 - 2020

Name: _____________________________ Grade/Section:________________ Date: __________ Score: _____

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer. Blacken the chosen letter in the answer sheet.
1. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter
a. are in constant motion b. have different colors c. have different shapes. d. are always fluid
2. Which process can be explained by the kinetic-molecular theory?
a. combustion b. condensation c. oxidation d. displacement reactions
3. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, which substances are made of particles?
a. gases only b. all matter c. liquids only d. all matter except solids
4. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter are in motion in
a. gases only. b. solids, liquids, and gases. c. gases and liquids only d. solids only
5. A real gas
a. does not obey all the assumptions of the kinetic-molecular theory
b. consists of particles that do not occupy space
c. cannot be condensed
d. cannot be produced in scientific laboratories
6. According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of an ideal gas
a. attract each other but do not collide. c. repel each other and collide
b. neither attract nor repel each other but collide d. neither attract nor repel each other and do not collide
7. Which is an example of gas diffusion?
a. inflating a flat tire b. the odor of perfume spreading throughout a room
c. a cylinder of oxygen stored under high pressure d. All of the above
8. By which process do gases take the shape of their container?
a. evaporation b. adhesion c. expansion d. diffusion
9. Which is an example of effusion?
a. air slowly escaping from a pinhole in a tire c. the aroma of a cooling pie spreading across a room
b. helium dispersing into a room after a balloon pops d. oxygen and gasoline fumes mixing in an
automobile carburettor
10. Which term best describes the process by which particles escape from the surface of a non boiling liquid and
enter the gas state?
a. sublimation b. surface tension c. evaporation d. aeration
11. Which of the following best describes an atom?
a. protons and electrons grouped together in a random pattern
b. protons and electrons grouped together in an alternating pattern
c. a core of protons and neutrons surrounded by electrons
d. a core of electrons and neutrons surrounded by protons
12. Which of the following is found farthest from the center of an atom?
a. Nucleus b. proton c. neutron d. electron
13. Which class of elements best conducts electricity?
a. Metals b. Nonmetals c. Metalloids d. Noble (Inert) Gases
14. Alkali metals, and halogens are found respectively in Group__ and __ in the Periodic Table.
a. 1 and 15 b. 2 and 12 c. 1 and 17 d. 1 and 2
15. Atoms of metallic elements tend to
a. gain electrons and form positive ions
b. lose electrons and form positive ions
 c. lose electrons and form negative ions
d. gain electrons and form negative ions
16. Which of the following generally applies to the noble gases?
a. high ionization energy, low electronegativity, high reactivity
b. high ionization energy, high electronegativity, high reactivity
c. low ionization energy, low electronegativity, low reactivity
d. high ionization energy, low electronegativity, low reactivity
17. Which are found in the nucleus of an atom?
a. electrons and protons b. neutrons and protons c. neutrons and electrons d. none of these
18. Which of the following is an alkali metal?
a. Ba b. Li c. Pb d. Fe
19. What family of elements includes fluorine and chlorine?
a. noble gases b. halogens c. alkali metals d. none of these
20. Which of the following best describes an atom?
a. Protons an electrons grouped together in a random pattern
b. Protons and electrons grouped together in an alternating pattern
c. A core of protons and neutrons surrounded by electrons
d. A core of electrons and neutrons surrounded by proteins
21. Shell three (3) contains how many sub-shells
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
22. The 3d subshell can hold a maximum of how many electrons?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8
23. Which of the following places the atomic subshells in the correct order of relative energy, starting
with the subshell of lowest energy?
b. d,p,s b. s,d,p c. s,p,d d. p,s,d
24. Calcium has an atomic number of 20. What is its electronic configuration?
a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 c. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
2 2 6 2 6 2 d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2
25. An atom of phosphorus has an atomic number of 15 and a mass number of 31. How many neutrons does it
contain?
a. 15 b. 16 c. 31 d. 24
26. Which statement compares t
27. he masses of two subatomic particles?
a. The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a proton.
b. The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a neutron.
c. The mass of a proton is greater than the mass of an electron.
d. The mass of a proton is greater than the mass of a neutron.
27. Which is the electron configuration of a fluorine atom in the excited state?
a. 2-6 b. 2-7 c. 2-6-1 d. 2-7-1
28. Which electron configuration represents an excited state for a potassium atom?
a. 2-8-7-1 b. 2-8-8-1 c. 2-8-7-2 d. 2-8-8-2
29. If lithium has an atomic number of 3 and a mass number of 7, the correct number of protons, neitrons and
electrons respectively is
a. 3, 4, 3 b. 4, 3, 3 c. 3, 3, 4 d. 4,4,3
30. If magnesium has an atomic number of 12 and a mass number of 24, the correct number of protons,
neutrons, and electrons, respectively is
a. 8,10,12 b. 12,12,12 c. 12,24,12 d. 24, 12, 12
31. If zinc has an atomic number of 30 and a mass number of 65, the correct number of protons, neutrons and
electrons, respectively is
a. 30, 35, 35 b. 30, 35, 30 c. 35, 30, 35 d. 95,65,30
32. Who among the following scientists was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1911 for the discovery of the radioactive
elements, radium and polonium?
a. John Dalton b. Dmitri Mendeleev c. Emil Fischer d. Marie Curie
33. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on
a. the number of protons in the nucleus. c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
b. the electric charge of the nucleus d. atomic mass.
34. Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of
a. protons b. valence electrons c. neutrons d. protons and neutrons
 35. Semiconductors are elements that
a. have large atomic masses but small atomic numbers. c. can conduct heat and electricity
b. do not form compounds d. are extremely hard
36. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?
a. calcium b. mercury c. magnesium d. sodium
37. Magnesium (Mg) is located to the right of sodium (Na) because Mg has
a. fewer protons. b. no protons. c. no neutrons. d. more protons.
38. As you move from left to right across the periodic table, elements
a. become less metallic. c. have a lower atomic weight.
b. have a lower atomic number. d. become more metallic.
39. How was Mendeleev’s periodic table arranged?
a. by increasing atomic mass c. by increasing atomic number
b. by decreasing atomic mass d. by decreasing atomic number
40. Mendeleev left gaps in his periodic table because
a. the table was too small. c. the table was too full.
b. protons belonged there. d. no known elements fit there.
41. How do you know that potassium, an alkali metal, is highly reactive?
a. It conducts heat. c. It is a soft and shiny metal.
b. It conducts electricity. d. It has one valence electron.
42. The order of elements in the modern periodic table is based on an element’s
a. atomic number. b. chemical symbol. c. name. d. atomic mass.
43. Which statement about the alkali metals is correct? a. They are located in the left-most column of the periodic
table. b. They are extremely nonreactive. c. They are usually gases. d. They form negative ions with a 1– charge.
44. Which statement about noble gases is correct?
a. They form compounds with very bright colors. c. They exist as single atoms rather than as molecules.
b. They are highly reactive with both metals and nonmetals. d. They are extremely rare in nature.
45. Which element is a semiconductor?
a. carbon b. sodium c. silicon d. uranium
46. The noble gas neon is used for filling neon signs. Like other noble elements, it has a full octet (complete outer
energy level) of electrons, which makes the gas
a. freeze at room temperature c. unlikely to combust with other elements
b. react with other gases in the air d. solidify at standard pressure and temperature
47. Which of these elements would most likely be a shiny, gray-colored solid at room temperature, conduct
electricity, and dent when hit with a hammer?
a. aluminum b. argon c. chlorine d. sulfur
48. Which statement correctly describes protons and neutrons?
a. They have the same mass and the same electrical charge.
b. They have the same mass but different electrical charges.
c.They have different masses but the same electrical charge.
d. They have different masses and different electrical charges.
49. The noble gas neon is used for filling neon signs. Like other noble elements, it has a full octet (complete outer
energy level) of electrons, which makes the gas
a. freeze at room temperature. b. react with other gases in the air.
c. unlikely to combine with other elements. d. solidify at standard pressure and temperature.
50. The Periodic Table of the Elements can be used by scientists
a. to find out the main uses of each element.
b. to predict how atoms of different elements will combine.
c. to identify all of an element’s physical and chemical properties.
d. to determine the differences between ionic and covalent bonding.
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Norte
PANDAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Sarrat

3rd Periodical Test in Science 9

S.Y. 2019 - 2020

Name: _____________________________ Grade/Section:________________ Date: __________ Score: _____

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer. Blacken the chosen letter in the answer sheet.
1. Which of the following types of volcanic cones are formed by the accumulation of lava that oozes out from the
volcano?
a. cinder cones b. composite cones c. Metamorphic cones d. Shield volcanoes
2. Which of the following characteristics of a volcano depends on its magma emission?
a. age b. location c. shape d. size
3. Which of the following factors associated with huge volcanic eruptions may cause the decrease in the Earth’s
average temperature for a few years?
a. acid rain b. heat c. light d. volcanic ash
4. Volcanoes can emerge from subduction zones, which is where an oceanic plate & continental plate converge. The
ocean will always lose because it is more dense. What happens to the water of the ocean?
a. The water increases. c. The water evaporates.
b. The water descends into the earth and ixes with the molten. d. Nothing happened.
5. What is formed at the top of a volcano when a part of the wall collapses following an explosive eruption?
a. Caldera b. Crater c. Lava d. Summit
6. A thick layer of volcanic ash can be heavy enough to collapse the roofs of buildings because ash
__________________.
a. becomes heavier as it cools c. cannot be blown by winds
b. consists of tiny rock fragment d. is solid
7. What causes a shield volcano to be shaped like a broad dome?
a. High silica b. High viscous lava c. Low silica d. Low temperature
8. Which property of materials is also described as the liquid’s thickness and stickiness?
a. Flammability b. Malleability c. Viscosity d. Volume
9. Which of the following characteristics of magma mainly affect the explosiveness of a volcanic eruption?
a. amount b. color c. silica content d. temperature
10. How does the eruption of a volcano lower the atmospheric temperature?
a. Ash fall cools down the surroundings c. Lava flow decreases the atmospheric pressure
b. eruption releases the heat from the underground d. SO2 and ash fall may block the sunlight
11. All of the following events could indicate an impending eruption EXCEPT:
a. discovery of new hot springs around the volcano.
a measurable bulge or swelling of the volcano.
swarms of small earthquakes in the region.
a highly eroded, volcanic peak.
12. The principal factor(s) influencing upward magma migration before cooling is (are):
a. the magmatic water content.
b. the magmatic gas content, combined with magma viscosity.
c. the climate and temperature regime that affects the land surrounding the volcano.
d. the time since the last eruption, combined with the density of the rocks overlying the volcano.
13. A volcano can release several kinds of gases into the air, but most of the gas is:
a. water vapor and carbon dioxide
b. nitrogen and sulfur dioxide.
c. sulfur dioxide and chlorine.
d. nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
14. The term viscosity refers to:
a. how heat and pressure influence a liquid’s gas content.
b. a liquid’s resistance to flow.
c. how dense a liquid is.
 d. how a liquid moves upward against gravity.
15. Of the following, the magma with the highest viscosity would have:

a. a high silica content and high temperature.

b. a high silica content and low temperature.
c. a low silica content and high temperature.
d. a low silica content and low temperature.
16. Where does geothermal energy come from?
a. wind b. rivers c. ocean and tides d. heat from the
sun
17. Which of the following is considered a way of harnessing geothermal energy
a. geothermal heat pumps c. dry steam power plants
b. flash steam power plants d. all of the above
18. What does it mean when we say that geothermal energy is “ sustainable”?
a. That it generates greenhouses gases. c. That it will not be used up.
b. That there is a limited supply. d. That it can be used anywhere on Earth.
19. What is the main disadvantage to building geothermal energy plants?
a. pollution b. nuclear fallout c. cost d. global warming
20. What potential environmental issue can occur when building geothermal energy plant?
a. The burning of fossil fuels. c. Water pollution from chemicals
b. Toxic gases can be released when drilling. d. all of the above
21. Long-term patterns or trends of meteorological conditions in a given area refer to its _________.
a. weather b. variability c. forecast d. climate
22. Which of the following shows the effect of climate change?
a. rising of sea level c. deforestation of the forest
b. coastal erosion in some places d. siltation of bodies of water
23. During summer, many people visit Baguio because of the cold weather. What do you think makes Baguio cold?
a. The latitude b. The altitude c. The topography d. The distance from the ocean
24. Why do places at the same latitude but different altitudes have different climate?
a. Amount of heat received varies. c. Amount of precipitation differs.
b. Higher altitudes have lower temperature. d. Higher altitudes have higher temperature.
25. Refer to Infographic below. What change is depicted in the infographic? What changes to weather are expected
when the curve shifts to the right?

a. An increase of a few degrees in the average temperature shifts the entire curve to the right from the
previous climate to the new climate.
b. A decrease of few degrees in the average temperature shifts entire curve to the right from the previous
climate to the new climate.
c. There is undefined change in temperature.
d. There is no change in temperature at all.
26. Why do mountain climbers bring thick jackets when they go up the mountain?
a. The temperature increases as the altitude increases. c. The temperature decreases as the altitude
increases. b. The altitude increases as the temperature increases. d. The altitude decreases as the
temperature increases.
27. What will happen if there is too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
a. Greenhouse effect occurs. b. Water vapor condenses. c. Temperature increases. d. Climate
changes.
28. Why does cloud formation disappear as the air moves slowly towards the leeward side of a mountain?
a. The air condenses as it moves to the leeward side. c. The temperature becomes lower.
b. The amount of water vapor is not enough. d. There is too much water vapor.
29. Which condition happens during La Niña phenomenon?
a. Air pressure in the western Pacific increases c. Air pressure in the eastern Pacific decreases
b. Upwelling of cold water is blocked d. Trade wind becomes stronger
30. Which is the best practice to reduce the effect of climate change?
a. livestock raising b. organic farming c. burning fossil fuel d. car manufacturing
31. How do stars appear to move in the night sky?
a. From East to West b. From North to South c. From West to East d. From South to North

32. Stars appear to move in the sky because

a. The Earth is rotating on its axis. c. The Universe is expanding.
b. The night sky is rotating.
d. New galaxies are formed.
33. If you are located at the North Pole, where will you see the Polaris?
a. Overhead b. Just above the horizon c. Around 45° from the horizon d. Polaris will not be seen in
the North Pole.
34. Which constellation is prominently seen in the sky during summer? A. Orion B. Pegasus C. Hercules D.
Virgo
35. The star Algol is estimated to be as bright as the star Aldebaran and have approximately the same temperature
as the star Rigel. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Algol and Rigel have same color. c. Algol and Aldebaran have the same size.
B. Algol and Rigel have the same brightness. d. Algol and Rigel have the same
brightness and color.
36. Which statement best explains why Lyra is visible to an observer in New York State at midnight in July but not
visible at midnight in December?
a.. Earth spins on its axis. c. Lyra spins on its axis
b. Earth orbits the Sun. d. Lyra orbits Earth.
37. As viewed on Earth, most stars appear to move across the sky each night because
a. Earth revolves around the Sun. c. Earth rotates on its axis.
b. Stars orbit around the Earth. D. Stars revolve around the center of the galaxy.
38. The best evidence that Earth spins on its axis is the motion of
a. tectonic plates b. Polaris c. a wind vane d. a Foucault pendulum
39. When viewed from Earth , the light from very distant galaxies shows a red shift. This is evidence that these
distant galaxies are
a. revolving around the Sun c. moving away from Earth
b. revolving around the Milky Way d. moving toward Earth
40. How are galaxies important to our existence?
a. Without galaxies, there could not have been a Big Bang.
b.Without galaxies, the universe could not be expanding.
c. Galaxies prevent planets from leaving their orbits around stars; e.g., our galaxy prevents Earth from
leaving its orbit of the Sun.
d. Galaxies recycle heavy elements produced in stars into future generations of stars.
41. Earth is made mostly of metals and rocks. Where did this material come from?
a. It was produced in the Big Bang. c. It was created by chemical reactions in interstellar space.
b. It was produced by nuclear fusion in stars. d. It was made by our Sun.
42. Which of the following statements does not use the term light-year in an appropriate way?
a. It's about 4 light-years from here to Alpha Centauri.
b. It will take me light-years to complete this homework assignment.
c. A light-year is about 10 trillion kilometers.
d. It will take the Voyager spacecraft about 20,000 years to travel just 1 light-year.
43. Suppose we look at a photograph of many galaxies. Assuming that all galaxies formed at about the same time,
which galaxy in the picture is the youngest?
a. the one that is farthest away c. the one that is reddest in color
b. the one that is bluest in color d. the one that is closest to us16) What do we
mean by the
44. Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
a. a spiral galaxy with a disk about 100,000 light-years in diameter and containing between 100 billion and 1 trillion
stars
b. a spiral galaxy with a disk about 1 billion kilometers in diameter and containing between 100 million and 1 billion
stars
c. a spiral galaxy with a disk about 100,000 light-years in diameter and containing about 100,000 stars
d. a spherically shaped collection of stars including our solar system and about a dozen other solar systems,
stretching about 4 light-years in diameter
45. What is an astronomical unit?
a. the average speed of Earth around the Sun b. the length of time it takes Earth to revolve around the
Sun
c. the average distance from Earth to the Sun d. the diameter of Earth's orbit around the Sun
46. What is the name of an important galactic clusters of stars in the Milky way and commonly known as the Seven
Sisters?
a. Pleiades b. Orion c. Hercules d. Una Minor
47. What do the stars at the end of the cup in the Big Dipper point to?
a. Betelguese b. Polaris c. Sirius d. Ceres

48. What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical image?
a. The Horsehead Nebula
b. The Andromeda Galaxy
c. The Sagittarius Constellation
d. The Aurora Borealis
49. State the common name given to the group of stars also known as Crux Australis.
a. Northern Cross
b. Southern Cross
c. Orion’s Belt
d. Pegasus Square
50. On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
a. 300 b. 1,000 c. 3,000 d. 10,000

Prepared by:

MA. BELINDA L. CALABUCAL

Teacher I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Norte
PANDAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Sarrat

3rd Periodical Test in Science 10

S.Y. 2019 - 2020

Name: _____________________________ Grade/Section:________________ Date: __________________ Score: _____

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer. Blacken the chosen letter in the answer sheet.
1. The external female reproductive organs include
A. vagina, clitoris, mons pubis
B. hymen, vaginal opening, and uterus
C. vaginal opening, labia majora, and clitoris
D. hymen, the ovaries, and clitoris
2. Which of the following is not a function of female reproductive system?
A. Produces female sex
B. Receives sperm cells from the male
C. Nurtures the development of and provides nourishment for the new individual.
D. Releases sperm cell
3. The most correct route for the sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the outside is:
A. epididymis > ductus deferens > ejaculatory duct > ampulla > urethra
B. epididymis > ductus deferens > ampulla > ejaculatory duct > urethra
C. ductus deferens > epididymis > ampulla > ejaculatory duct > urethra
D. ductus deferens > epididymis > urethra > ampulla > ejaculatory duct
4. Sperm are created through meiosis in an area of the testes called the seminiferous tubules. Through which structure do the
sperm travel to exit the testes?
A. Vas deferens C. Seminiferous tubules
B. Scrotum D. Epididymis
5. A fertilized egg undergoes several stages before it is successfully implanted. Which of the following structures of the female
human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted?
A. Ovary B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Amniotic Sac
6. Control the mechanisms in the body that slowly take place such as growth.
A. Reproductive System C. Nervous System
B. Endocrine System D. Digestive System
7. The pituitary hormone that stimulates the male testes to produce sperm and stimulates the development of the follicle in the
female on a monthly cycle is:
A. Growth hormone C. Prolactin
B. Luteinizing hormone D. Follicle-stimulating hormone
8. Which of the following hormones are responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response?
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine C. Estrogen and progesterone
B. Insulin and glucagon D. Thyroxin and melatonin
9. How do hormones from the thyroid and parathyroid regulate the calcium concentration of the blood?
A. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium; parathyroid hormone raises blood
calcium.
B. Parathyroid hormone lowers blood calcium; calcitonin raises blood calcium.
C. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine together regulate calcium levels, as needs dictate.
D. Both parathyroid hormone and the three thyroid hormones function to regulate blood calcium levels.
10. If a person’s blood sugar level becomes unstable, what glands might be involved in the problem?
A. Pancreas C. Pituitary
B. Thymus D. Thyroid

11-15. Use the chart to read the data.

11. Progesterone is secreted by ____________.
A. Ovarian Follicle C. Graffian Follicle
B. Corpus Luteum D. Corpus Follicle
12. The uterine lining is least thick on which day(s)?
A. Day 11 B. Day 8 C. Day 24 D. Day 1
13. Ovulation occurs between which day(s)?
A. Seventh to 13th C. 13th to 15th
th th
B. 10 to 12 D. 23rd to 27th
14. Which hormone STARTS the ovulation cycle?
A. Luteinizing Hormone C. Estrogen
B. Progesterone D. FSH
15. Which Phase is Progesterone released?
A. Follicular Phase C. Ovulation
B. Luteal Phase D. Menstruation
16. What is the main function of the nervous system?
A. to send and receive messages from internal and external stimuli
B. to make sure your food is digested properly
C. to keep you from feeling unnecessary pain
D. to pump blood throughout the body
17. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system work together to maintain balanced state called?
A. Voluntary movement C. Peripheral
B. Special senses D. Sympathetic
18. Which of these is true of the endocrine system?
A. Secretes hormones that are transported to target cells by blood
B. Causes changes in metabolic activities
C. Effects are prolonged
D. All of above are true.
19. Which part of the neuron, shown (#4) in the picture, sends messages toward other
neurons?
A. Dendrite B. Cell body C. Axon D. Axon Terminal
20. If I step on a nail, what type of neuron take the signal to CNS?
A. Interneurons B. Motor C. Sensory D. Receptors
21. What is one reason RNA is different from DNA?
A. consist of a single strand C. consist of two strands
B. consist of three strands D. consist of four strands
22. DNA is the genetic information within all living cells. What is the purpose of DNA within the cell?
A. DNA is the material within the cell that regulates and controls cellular activity.
B. DNA is used by the cell to fight off bacterial infection.
C. DNA provides energy for photosynthesis.
D. DNA assembles the transport proteins in a membrane.
23. Which is the correct pairing for a DNA strand?
A. (A with T) (C with G) C. (A with G) (T with C)
B. (A with C) (T with G) D. (A with U) (C with G)
24. In her biology class, Jhonpaul has been asked to complete a strand of DNA with appropriate nucleotides. If half of the strand
is A-T-C-C-G-A-T-C, what would she write for the other half?
A. T-U-G-C-G-U-A-G C. T-U-G-G-C-T-U-G
B. T-A-G-C-C-T-A-C D. T-A-G-G-C-T-A-G
25. DNA helicase “unzips” double-stranded DNA to expose single-stranded section of DNA. New strands are generated using the
original strand as a template. How do the newly-generated strands compare to the original template strands?
A. They are identical. C. They are twice as long.
B. They are much shorter. D. They are complementary.
26.What causes mutations?
A. Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
B. The amino acid
C. Passed down by genetics
D. It's how you’re born
27. ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
A. Insertion- Frameshift C. Deletion -Frameshift
B. Deletion- Substitution D. All of the above
28. Why mutations occur?
A .Mistakes in replication or environmental substances C. Passed down by genetics
B. The amino acids break down D. It’s how you’re born.

29. Which of these is the correct order for the chromosome mutations in the image (from top to bottom)?

A. (1) duplication, (2) inversion, (3) substitution, (4) translocation

B. (1) deletion, (2) duplication, (3) inversion, (4) translocation
C. (1) deletion, (2) insertion, (3) translocation, (4) inversion
D. (1) substitution, (2) duplication, (3) translocation, (4) inversion
30. Where can most of the fossils be found?
A. sedimentary rock C. Lava flows
B. Granite rock D. Black soil
31. In what Era can the oldest fossils be found?
A. Cenozoic C. Paleozoic
B. Mesozoic D. Pre- Cambrian
32. Which pair of animals shows a correct example of homologous structures?
A. Wings of butterfly and bat
B. Flipper whale and forelimb of cat
C. Fingers of human and arm of starfish
D. Tongue of frog and proboscis of mosquito.
33. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe evolution?
A. Evolution is continuous.
B. Evolution refers to change.
C. The word is stable and unchanging.
D. If there is mutation, there is evolution.
34. If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
A. Close relative C. Early ancestor
B. Unrelated organism D. Embryological stage
35. Which is more definite characteristics to show relatedness of two offspring?
A. Similarity in development. C. Similarity in structure.
B. Similarity in counting behaviour. D. Similarity in genomic DNA.
36. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are constantly used may develop.
B. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive while those with weaker traits may not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parent can be passed on to offspring.
37. Which of the following statement explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
A. Body structures develop because they are used extensively
B. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
C. Body structures develop because of competition
D. Body structures develop because of mutation
38. What would happen if the Giraffes never evolve?
A. They would survive. C. They would thrive.
B. They would become extinct. D. They will find another source of food.
39. Which of the following statements does not show the process of adaptation?
A. Dying out of dinosaurs during Cretaceous period.
B. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
C. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
D. A child learning to walk on his own.
40. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
A. To give way for other organisms to develop.
B. To let other organisms evolve and progress.
C. To know who is the fittest.
D. All of the above.
41. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships?
A. They have varied and different ancestry.
B. They have similar patterns during their early stages of development.
 C. They have a common ancestor and have the same kinds of proteins.
D. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship closer.
42. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the place in our country?
A. loss of limiting factor C. Loss of habitat
B. Loss of natural disturbances D. Loss of carrying capacity
43. What can you infer about the graph?

A. The graph shows that an increase in population of the the protist

P. aurelia causes a decrease in the population of P. caudatom when they are grown together.
B. The graph is an example of a density-dependent limiting factor
C. The graph is an example of a density-independent limiting factor
D. The population of P. caudatum decreases while the population of P. aurelia increases when the are grown together
44. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the Philippines. The Cocolisap feeds on the sap of the coconut
tree and injects toxic enzymes, resulting in discolored leaves and deformed plant tissues that retard its growth of coconut tree.
Which of the following factors limit the population of coconut trees?
A. Disease and parasites C. Predation
B. Emigration D. Competition of resources
45. Davao is known for its wide variety of fruits and other plant species that makes it more attractive to tourists. Which of the
following classification of value of biodiversity is described?
A. Direct economic value C. Ethical/cultural
B. Indirect economic value D. both A & C
46. Zyra breeds guinea pigs in a cage. After a few generation, Zyra observes that the guinea pigs are more aggressive towards
each other, the young are less healthy and more young guinea pigs die. What do you think will happen to the population of the
guinea pigs?
A. The population will remain the same. C. The population will decrease.
B. The population will increase. D. The population is not affected.
47. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most places in the country?
A. Loss of limiting factor. C. Loss of habitat.
B. Loss of natural disturbances. D. Loss of carrying capacity.
48. Which human activity is correctly paired with its likely future consequence?
A. Overfishing — increase in supply of flounder and salmon as food for people
B. Development of electric cars or hybrid vehicles — increased rate of global warming
C. Use of fossil fuels — depletion of underground coal, oil, and natural gas supplies
D. Genetically engineering animals — less food available to feed the world’s population
49-50. Raizo wants to practice conservation. He has decided to examine his lifestyle in order to identify areas in which he can
reduce the resources he consumes, reuse resources he already has, and recycle resources that he cannot reuse. In which of the
following ways can Raizo best reduce the resources he currently consumes?
A. Use paper grocery bags as gift wrap.
B. Ride a bike to work instead of taking his car.
C. Subscribe to a daily rather than a weekly newspaper.
D. Use an organic rather than synthetic fertilizer in his garden.

G O O D L U C K !!!!

Prepared by:

MA. BELINDA L. CALABUCAL

Teacher I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Norte
PANDAN INTEGRATED SCHOOL
Sarrat

3rd Periodical Test in TLE 10 – BEAUTY CARE

S.Y. 2019 - 2020

Name: _____________________________ Grade/Section:________________ Date: __________ Score: _____

Direction: Choose the letter of the best answer. Blacken the chosen letter in the answer sheet.
1. Client welfare is the foundation of an ethical and professional practice for the massage practitioners.
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Not at all
2. What do you think is the best and most powerful way to connect to another person?
a. Communication b. Listening c. Speaking d. Giving something
3. Determine which of the following is the best practice in dealing with clients.
a. talk politely to everyone b. snob a client c. fake a smile d. talk when you want to
4. What do you think is the best thing to do before picking up a call?
a. discontinue conversation with other person c. continue talking and engaging in conversation
b. typing while calling d. let the phone ringing for a long time
5. What is one of the first and basic hygiene practices in pre-wellness massage that should be done regularly?
a. Consistently wash hands thoroughly between clients and prior to resuming treatment.
b. Wash all linens in soap and hot water
c. Sterilize table, headrest, equipment and tools
d. Know all local ordinances and health department regulations.
6. What must be adhered in the treatment room, bathroom and all waiting and admittance areas?
a. General maintenance and cleaning. c. Polish regularly.
b. Clean once a week d. Clean but leave some work to others.
7. A major preventative action we can take to protect any transfer of disease is
a. Sterilization and application of germicidal wash to all paraphernalia.
b. Wash with tap water and soap.
c. Wipe with a cloth.
d. Wipe using tissue with alcohol.
8. Which do you think is the main reason why a clinic or massage area should always look neat and tidy?
a. Proof of your concern for your clients that ultimately leaves a lasting impression from the clients.
b. To encourage more customers to come to your clinic.
c. To be given permit to operate.
d. To have more income.
9. What is the safest substance found in the salon?
a. oil b. disinfectant c. powders d. water
10. Before starting your massage, require your customer to
a. Complete a short health history. c. Drink tea.
b. Exercise d. Sleep
11. Which among the given procedure is the correct way to prepare a client for a massage?
a. The massage therapist exits, allowing time and privacy for the customer to undress to his/her level of comfort.
b. Let the client undress in front of you.
c. Share a long story to your client.
d. Invite your client to pray.
12. After the massage, it is important to
a. Tell the customer to drink water to hydrate the body.
b. Tell the customer to sleep and relax.
c. Tell the customer to pay the massage fee.
d. Tell the customer to eat.
13. As the clients walks through the door, you or the receptionist should
a. greet the client b. tour the client c. interview the client d. snob the client
14. What shouldn’t be done with the working uniform?
a. wear outside the salon c. wear anywhere you go
b. wear inside the salon d. wash as you wear
15. Which of the following shows ways on preparing the client for a wellness massage session?
a. Requiring customer to complete a short health history.
b. Let the client drink water to hydrate.
c. Let the client dress up.
d. Leave the room and allow the client to change clothes.
16. What should you tell a client before performing a massage?
a. take a shower b. remove jewelries c. drink lots of water d. sleep well
17. What do you call the type of drape used to protect the client hair?
a. facial drape b. gluteal drape c. breast drape d. turban drape
18. What is the safest substance found in spa salon?
a. oil b. disinfectant c. powders d. water
19. What is the technique of using large towel or sheet to keep you covered while getting a massage?
a. draping b. massage c. cupping d. hygiene
20. Which of the following is a massage stroke that needs hands to be placed and vibrated over the target area?
a. vibration b. pounding c. frictions d. cupping
21. What is the regular time duration for back massage?
a. 20 minutes b. 5 minutes. c. 7 minutes d. 6 minutes
22. A client comes to you with pain and dizziness when they turn their neck, they think the pain could be from a
small MVA last week. When you perform your ROM testing you notice extreme muscle weakness and they complain
of difficulty swallowing. What should you do?
a. Treat them for whiplash and refer them to chiropractor.
b. thoroughly document the initial assessment and refer client to a physician for assessment before
massage treatment
c. send them to a physical therapist.
d. do not talk to them
23. What technique is used to reduce edema, ease pain, lower the chance of scar tissue formation, and remove
metabolic waste secondary to edema and inflammation?
a. muscle approximation c. diaphragmatic breathing
b. lymphatic drainage d. pressure point
24. . If a client comes to you with a headache that has referred pain, it is most likely a
a. cluster headache b. tension headache c. migraine d. mild headache
25. Underwear and tights should be changed daily and washed in hot soapy water.
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. None of the above
26. A daily bath or shower should be taken to maintain cleanliness of the skin, hair and nails, and to remove stable
sweat odors.
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. None of the above
27. What do you think is the most important reason why we need to have a body massage?
a. To feel good and keep body, mind and soul relax
b. To cure ailments in the body.
c. For blood circulation.
d. For recreation purposes.
28. Why is it important to feel secure, confident and relaxed while performing a massage?
a. To develop a calm, tranquil and positive attitude.
b. To concentrate on the massage session.
c. To develop coordination between mind and body.
d. All of the above.
29. Which of the following should remain consistent throughout the treatment/
a. synchronized speed, rhythm and depth
b. ability, sense, visual,
c. pressure, tension, ability
d. none of the above
30. A customer walked in to the clinic for a massage treatment. The massage therapist immediately welcome the
client and led him to the massage room. What preliminary procedure was NOT observed?
a. Assessing the physical and health condition of the client.
b. Maintaining the cleanliness of the clinic.
c. Safety and precautions inside the clinic.
d. Courtesy to the client.
31. What is the benefit of using massage oil instead of alcohol?
a. Gliding on body parts of the client will be easier.
b. Oil is cheaper than alcohol.
c. Oil’s scent is better than alcohol.
 d. Oil is a good mix of sweat.
32. After treatment has been given to a client, he/she feels
a. startle b. creepy c. canny d. relaxed

33. The most common body reactions in the aftercare services,

a. aching/soreness of muscle c. tiredness
b. heightened emotional state d. dizzy
34. What is the best aftercare products to be advised to cients?
a. pre-blended aromatic plant oils c. exfoliates
b. herbal teas and beverages d. mud/clays
35. Classify which of the following type of treatment does application of therapeutic touch belongs.
a. Rubbing b. Touch c. Massage d. Acupuncture
36. Identify which massage treatment is available in most salon/spa.
a. psychotherapeutic c. pampering/relaxation
b. sports massage d. stress reduction
37. Which of the following is most widely used form of massage used for relaxation?
a. body massage b. stone massage c. sports massage d. pregnancy massage
38. Which of the following choices does acupressure promotes?
a. balance b. cure c. tingling d. stress
39. When massaging through the use of kneading technique, which of the following satisfies the client?
a. hard push using two fingers
b. draping using both palm
c. vibration using fingers
d. none of the above
40. How do you protect yourself from strain and injury?
a. adopting the correct posture c. do heavy workouts
b. do work over your capacity d. none of the above
41. This massage stroke apply pressure to the tissues.
a. vibration b. knead c. beating d. petrissage
42. Massage should be continuous.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
43. What must be selected according to the type of massage?
a. speed b. depth c. comfort d. order
44. Which of the following massage techniques has a manipulation using the ulnar border of the hand and little
finger?
a. hacking b. cupping c. kneading d. beating
45. How is friction performed as a massage technique?
a. lifts muscle away from the bone c. presses and rolls the skin
b. performed with fingers or thumb with pressure d. circular movements
46. Which zone is head, neck and foot linked together?
a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4
47. Be prepared to have ______________ when you answer the phone.
a. tissue paper b. calendar c. information form d. pen and message slip
48. Identify the common difficulty of a therapist in dealing with clients.
a. body language b. dual role capability c. conflict management d. inability to set boundaries
49. Do not make false claims for treatments, but explain the benefits. Be honest when advertising. This
characteristics is known to be
a. fairly b. practically c. reasonably d. realistically
50. Client is uncomfortable with the therapist given to her. Select the best solution you can do to avoid problem.
a. suggest alternative therapist c. suggest other spa in the area
b. let the client choose his preferred therapy d. ban him in the spa

Prepared by:

MA. BELINDA L. CALABUCAL

Teacher I