Environment

Quarterly Summary
(July-August-September)
Why Skholar's eBook?
1) Fastest Revision of Exam specific Current
Affairs
2) Crisp & Comprehensive Subject-wise
Coverage
3) Multi-dimensional analysis using Kipling's
method

Table of Contents
Climate Change ................................................................ 3
Climate Targets ............................................................ 3
UN Climate Action Summit ......................................... 4
Just Energy Transition ................................................ 6
IPCC report on Ocean .................................................. 7
IPCC report on land and Climate Change ................ 7
India Cooling Action Plan ........................................... 8
Sea level rise in ports .................................................. 9
Disaster Management ................................................... 10
Amazon Fires .............................................................. 10
Kerala Floods .............................................................. 11
Bottom-Up Approach................................................. 12
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure ....... 13
Plastic Pollution ............................................................. 14
Plastic Pollution in Indian states ............................. 14
Microplastics in the Arctic region ........................... 15
Plastic Waste in India ................................................ 15
Land & Soil ...................................................................... 17
Land Degradation ....................................................... 17
Locust Control and Research Scheme ................... 17
4P1000 Initiative ........................................................ 18
Drought Toolbox ........................................................ 19
Energy .............................................................................. 20
Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Parks ......... 20
Thermal Power Plants ............................................... 21
Species ............................................................................ 22
Cat Snake .................................................................... 22
Microhyla Eos ............................................................. 22
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Indian Pierrot Butterfly .............................................. 23
Dragon tree species .................................................. 23
Mediterranean sharks ............................................... 24
Protecting Vultures.................................................... 25
Gharial Conservation ................................................. 26
Great Indian Bustard Conservation ......................... 26
Otter and Gecko Lizard ............................................. 27
Report & Indices ............................................................. 29
World Resources Institute (WRI) Study .................. 29
Water Stress Index .................................................... 30
Report on Sulphur dioxide emission ....................... 30
State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index (SARAL)
...................................................................................... 31
All India Tiger Estimate – 2018 ............................... 32
Report ‘Skin and Bones Unresolved’ ....................... 32
Orchids of India Survey ............................................. 34
Conservation .................................................................. 35
Agriculture .................................................................. 35
Jal Jeevan Mission .................................................... 36
Conservation of Lakes .............................................. 37
Initiatives ......................................................................... 38
Marine Fisheries Regulation and Management Bill
2019 ............................................................................. 38
Draft Environmental and Social Management
Framework (ESMF) .................................................... 40
CAMPA Funds ............................................................ 41
Blue Flag Challenge ................................................... 41
Clean Air Initiative...................................................... 42
Quiz .................................................................................. 43
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Climate Change

Climate Targets
In the recent G7 summit, India and France issued a statement related to climate change,
biodiversity, renewable energy, and ocean resources.
What does the statement talk about?
1. Commitment to enhanced climate actions, support for new low-carbon technologies, and efforts
to accelerate the development and deployment of renewable energy.
2. Need for sustainable use of marine resources, acknowledgement of the link between
environment and security, and ocean governance.
3. India and France also promised to develop, by next year, strategies for containing their
greenhouse gases in the long-term period, possibly for the next 30 or 50 years.
4. From India’s point of view at least, a longer-term low-carbon pathway would be a new
development.
When did Countries announce their climate targets?
1. Under the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change, which will come into force next year, every
signatory country is supposed to declare and implement a climate action plan, called Nationally
Determined Commitments (NDCs).
2. Until now, countries have mostly announced their targets for 2025 or 2030. India has declared
targets for 2030.
3. NDCs have to be updated every five years. The first set of NDC was declared in 2015 ahead of
the climate change conference in Paris.
4. The Paris Agreement asks all signatories to ensure that successive NDCs represent a
progression from their current targets.
5. Countries have also been asked to evolve a common timeframe for their action plans.
Successive NDCs, therefore, would all be five-year or ten-year action plans.
Which are India’s targets?
1. To bring down its emission intensity, or emission per unit of GDP, by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030
compared to 2005 levels.
2. To ensure that at least 40 per cent of its electricity in 2030 would be generated from non-fossil
sources.
3. To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes through forests.
Why is Longer-term vision needed?
1. Countries are asked to finalize and commit to longer-term climate targets, over 30-year or 50-
year time horizons.
2. This will help in bringing more predictability into climate actions and also make it easy to
monitor whether the world was progressing adequately to avoid the catastrophic impacts of
climate change.
3. Short-term targets are seen to lack the urgency of the task and delay ambitious actions making it
more difficult or even impossible to act on climate change in the future.

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4. There is growing pressure on the big emitters – China, the United States, European Union, India,
Russia, Brazil, Australia – to come up with long-term action plans, in particular, to aim for net-zero
emissions in the year 2050.
5. The public pressure is also a reason that is growing stronger in Europe.
6. As climate-induced extreme weather events bring in more and more disasters across the world,
the demand for longer-term commitments on climate action has been increasing.
7. Two recent reports by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), have also
stressed the need for more urgent and ambitious climate action in the longer term. The reports are-
a. The feasibility of containing the global rise in temperatures to within 1.5°C from pre-industrial
times.
b. State of climate-induced land degradation.
How does the European Union respond to the pressure?
1. As part of its NDCs, the European Union of 27 countries has set a combined target of 40 per cent
reduction in its greenhouse gas emissions by 2030 from the 1990 levels.
2. It also came up with a long-term vision to become climate-neutral or attain the goal of net-zero
emissions, by 2050.
3. Recently, the United Kingdom became the first major economy to legislate a law to make itself
climate-neutral by 2050.
4. The UK had been previously aiming to achieve an 80 per cent reduction from the 1990 levels.
Where does India stand?
1. India, being a developing country, is treated differently from developed country parties in the
Paris Agreement.
2. But India is the third single largest emitter of greenhouse gases, after China and the United
States.
3. There have also been demands from India, and other major developing economies such as Brazil
and South Africa, to come up with longer-term commitments
5. India’s commitments are based on its development imperatives.
6. In terms of NDC, India is on the course of achieving all its targets well in time and may even
over-achieve them.
7. On the other hand, developed countries are far from delivering on their climate promises,
especially on their obligation to provide money and technology to help developing and poor
countries in fighting climate change.
UN Climate Action Summit
The United Nations Climate Action Summit was organized in New York, the United States of
America.
Why was the Summit organized?
1. It was a special summit organized to make the countries aware of their responsibilities of
tackling climate change issues.
2. The impacts of climate change are being felt everywhere and are having real consequences on
people’s lives.

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3. Climate change is disrupting national economies.

4. Due to climate change, glaciers are melting, sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying, etc.
5. The latest analysis shows that collective urgent action can reduce carbon emissions within 12
years and hold the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C.
6. Also affordable, scalable solutions are available now. So, it can enable the countries to be
cleaner, more resilient economies.
7. The Paris Agreement for creating a sustainable future has been becoming meaningless due to a
lack of action.
Which sectors have been prioritized?
The summit has prioritized sectors that have a high potential to curb greenhouse gas emissions
and increased global action on adaptation and resilience.
1. Finance
Mobilizing public and private sources of finance to drive decarbonization of all priority sectors and
advance resilience.
2. Energy Transition
Accelerating the shift away from fossil fuels and towards renewable energy, as well as making
significant gains in energy efficiency.
3. Industry Transition
Transforming industries such as Oil and Gas, Steel, Cement, Chemicals and Information
Technology.
4. Nature-Based Solutions
Reducing emissions, increasing sink capacity and enhancing resilience within and across forestry,
agriculture, oceans and food systems, including through biodiversity conservation, leveraging
supply chains and technology.
5. Cities and Local Action
Advancing mitigation and resilience at urban and local levels with a focus on new commitments on
low-emission buildings, mass transport and urban infrastructure and resilience for the urban poor.
6. Resilience and Adaptation
Advancing global efforts to address and manage the impacts and risks of climate change,
particularly in those communities and nations most vulnerable.
What has been India’s response?
1. India has asserted the need for all countries to deliver on climate change action.
2. India has announced to scale up electricity from renewable sources to 175 GW by 2022 and later
to 450 GW.
3. India has announced to curb plastic use and invited countries to join the Coalition for Disaster
Resilient Infrastructure.
Where does India need to focus?
1. India will need to step up the pace to meet its announced renewable energy (RE) targets. India
will need to add more than 20 GW of RE installation a year.

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2. According to the clean energy research agency MERCOM, India added 8.3 GW of solar capacity
in 2018. However, there was a fall in it compared to 2017.
3. The MECROM report states that land acquisitions are a major worry for large-scale solar
projects.
4. India needs to come up with a strong domestic action plan to meet its targets.
5. Existing ‘National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)’ should have legal backing to
incorporate the key national commitment under the Paris Agreement.
Just Energy Transition
1. Climate change is a global problem therefore it needs a global solution.
2. The most recent Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) report suggests that total
global emissions will need to fall by 45% from 2010 levels by 2030 and reach net zero by 2050.
3. If these targets are not met, tropical regions, which are densely populated and mainly
concentrated in the global South, are likely to be most negatively affected because of their low
altitudes and pre-existing high temperatures.
Sharing the burden
1. The global South, which has historically contributed less to climate change face the negative
effects of the lifestyle choices made by the global North.
2. A just approach involves a global sharing of the responsibility among countries according to
their respective shares in global emissions.
3. Just Energy Transition (JET) is a new approach that is premised on a sense of global justice in
terms of climatic fallouts and the respective contributions of the countries.
Just Energy Transition (JET)
1. The first priority is to change the energy infrastructure, which requires massive investments for
the green energy programme across the world.
2. According to the JET approach those on the top of the funnel, apart from funding their own
energy transition, partially support the transition for the countries at the bottom and this sharing of
the burden of development be done in a way which inverts this injustice funnel.
3. For a successful energy transition to greener renewable sources, countries have to spend around
1.5% of their GDP.
4. Global energy transition will be financed through a system of the global carbon tax.
5. Those countries which emit more than the global per capita average pay for their own transition
plus fund a part of the energy transition of those who are below this average.
6. Currently, the global average of carbon emissions is 4.97 metric tonne per capita.
7. All the countries with emissions above this level (68 in all) are “payers” to finance energy
transition for ‘beneficiary’ countries (135 in number), which are emitting below this level.
8. The total amount of “carbon compensation” made by the payer nations comes to around $570
billion.
9. The distribution of this fund across them is also based on their distance from the global average,
on how lower their emissions are in comparison to the global average.

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Top Payers and Receivers

1. The two top ‘payer’ countries in terms of absolute amounts of transfers are the U.S. and China
since their emissions are higher than the global average.
2. However, the effective tax rate for the Chinese is lower than the possible universal tax rate of
$46.1 per metric tonne, because of their own energy transition (1.5% of China’s GDP), they make
$34.4.
3. In terms of ‘compensated’ countries, India comes at the top due to its population size and its
distance from the global emissions’ average (India has per capita emissions of 1.73 metric tonne).
4. Few countries such as France, Sweden, and Switzerland would also receive compensation
because currently, they have less per capita emissions than the global average.
IPCC report on Ocean
1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) released a special report on oceans and
cryosphere (Earth's frozen zones).
2. This is the 4th in the series of reports released by the IPCC, while the other three reports focused
on a 1.5-Celsius cap on global warming, the state of biodiversity, and how to manage forests and
the global food system.
Highlights of the report
1.There is a steady decline in fish stocks, increase in the damages caused by superstorms, and
displacement of people by rising seas.
2. From the beginning of the 21st Century, the productivity of oceans has reduced due to the
melting of glaciers, and also it would reduce the availability of fresh water in the future.
3. Without deep cuts to man-made emissions, at least 30% of the northern hemisphere’s surface
permafrost could melt by century’s end, releasing more carbon and accelerating global warming.
4. By 2050, many low-lying megacities and small island nations will experience “extreme sea-level
events” every year.
5. Even if the world manages to cap global warming at two degrees Celsius, the global ocean
waterline will rise enough to displace more than 250 million people.
6. The report indicated this his could happen as soon as 2100, while some experts think it is more
likely to happen on a longer timescale.
All four reports conclude that humanity must overhaul the way it produces and consumes almost
everything to avoid the worst ravages of climate change and environmental degradation.
IPCC report on land and Climate Change
1. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) report highlights how the different uses of
land affect and get affected by climate change.
2. This is the first time that the IPCC has focused its attention solely on the land sector.
3. It is part of a series of special reports that IPCC is preparing for the sixth edition of its main
report, called the Assessment Reports, it will be released in 2022.
Who is IPCC?
1. IPCC is a United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change.

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2. It was created to provide policymakers with regular scientific assessments on climate change,
its implications and potential future risks, as well as to put forward adaptation and mitigation
options.
3. Its job is to assess already-published scientific literature and update knowledge on climate
change science.
How land is linked to climate change?
1. Land use, and changes in land use is closely related to climate change because land acts as
both the source as well as a sink of carbon.
2. Activities like agriculture and cattle rearing are a major source of methane and nitrous oxide,
both of which are hundreds of times more dangerous than carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas.
3. At the same time, soil, trees, plantations, and forests absorb carbon dioxide for the natural
process of photosynthesis, thus reducing the overall carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere.
4. Therefore, large-scale land-use changes like deforestation, urbanisation, change in cropping
pattern, have a direct impact on the overall emissions of greenhouse gases.
Which are the highlights of the report?
1. Nearly 25 percent of all food produced is either lost or wasted. And the decomposition of the
waste releases emissions.
2. If pre-production activities like cattle rearing and post-production activities like transport, energy
and food processing, are considered, then food production could contribute around 37 per cent of
all greenhouse gas emissions (GHGs) every year.
3. The land sector is a net absorber of 6 billion tonnes of CO2 every year between 2007 and 2016.
4. Around 25% of ice-free land was subjected to degradation due to human use.
3. Land and ocean together absorb nearly 50 percent of GHGs emitted every year through natural
processes in the carbon cycle.
4. So, land and ocean are significant as carbon sinks.
5. Afforestation and reduction in deforestation are vital approaches in a global strategy to combat
climate change.
Where lies the solution?
1. Reduction in food wastage.
2. Sustainable Agricultural Practises.
3. Shifting of dietary preferences to include more plant-based food, that can reduce emissions from
the land sector up to 8 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent every year without affecting food security.
What is the role of India?
1. India’s action plan on climate change has a very important component of forests.
2. India has promised that it would create an additional carbon sink of about 2.5 billion to 3 billion
tonnes by the year 2032 by increasing its forest cover and planting more trees.
India Cooling Action Plan
Ministry of Environment highlighted the importance of India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) to reduce
Greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

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About ICAP
a) The plan lists out the actions required to reduce the cooling demand. The plan has a long-term
vision to address the cooling requirement across sectors.
b) Cooling Requirement is required across different sectors of the economy such as residential,
commercial buildings, cold-chain, refrigeration, transport, and industries, etc.
c) The overarching goal of ICAP is to provide sustainable cooling and thermal comfort for all while
securing environmental and socio-economic benefits for the society.
Targets
The India Cooling Action seeks to,
a) Reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38
b) Reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38
c) Reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38
d) Recognize ‘cooling and related areas’ as a thrust area of research under the National S&T
Programme.
e) Train 100,000 servicing sector technicians with certification by 2022-23
Benefits
a) Thermal comfort for all: The plan has provision for cooling for Economically Weaker Section
(EWS) and Lower Income Group (LIG) housing.
b) Sustainable cooling: It seeks to lower GHG emissions related to cooling.
c) Doubling Farmers Income: The provision of better cold chain infrastructure can give a better
value of products to farmers along with less wastage of produce.
d) The plan seeks to build a skilled workforce for better livelihoods and environmental protection.
e) Make in India: Domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and related cooling equipment would
be facilitated.
f) Robust R&D on alternative cooling technologies: The plan provides push to innovation in the
cooling sector.
Sea level rise in ports
a) As per the Ministry of Earth Sciences, four ports, Diamond Harbour, Kandla, Haldia and Port Blair,
in India recorded a higher sea-level rise than the global average
b) The data says that Diamond Harbour in West Bengal located at the mouth of the river Hooghly
has recorded the maximum sea level increase.
c) Mean sea level rise for Diamond Harbour was based on recordings over the period from 1948 to
2005.
d) Chennai and Mumbai recorded a sea level rise far below the global and the national averages.
Connection with Global Warming
a) Sea level rise is said to be linked with global warming.
b) As per the fifth assessment report of the International Panel on Climate Change, the global sea
level was rising at an average rate of 1.8 mm per year over the last century.

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c) Rising sea levels can worsen the impacts of coastal hazards such as storm surge, tsunami,
coastal floods, high waves and coastal erosion in the low-lying coastal areas.
d) Global Warming leads to internal expansion of water in oceans and thus a rise in the sea level.

Disaster Management

Amazon Fires
Man-made fires in the Amazon have sent smoke to populated cities and the Atlantic coast.
Where is the Amazon rainforest located?
a) It is a moist broadleaf tropical rainforest in the Amazon biome that covers most of the Amazon
basin of South America.
b) It is a vast region that spans across the countries- Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia,
Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana and some parts of Argentina.
What is the significance of the Amazon region?
a) Amazon contains nearly a third of all the tropical rainforests left on Earth.
b) Despite covering only around 1% of the planet’s surface, the Amazon is home to 10% of all
known wildlife species, i.e. roughly three million species.
c) It is home to around one million members of indigenous communities.
d) People around the world, as well as locally, depend on the Amazon for food, water, wood, and
medicine.
e) The region helps in stabilizing the climate by playing a critical role in global and regional carbon
and water cycles.
Which are the major reasons for Amazon fires?
a) ‘Fire Day’ was organized by farmers to clear forest lands along the highway that runs through the
heart of the Amazon rainforest.
b) The Brazilian government has announced opening up the Amazon region for business. The
region has large reserves of gold and other minerals.
c) Government’s short-term economic interests led to mass deforestation. Fires are the direct
result of this deforestation.
e) Dry seasons have created favorable conditions for the fires.
Why it is a concern?
a) The Amazon rainforest is a repository of rich biodiversity and produces approximately 20% of
oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere.
b) The Amazon region is a vital carbon store that slows the pace of global warming.
c) A study by the University of Leeds (2017) states that the carbon intake of the region has already
matched up to the carbon emissions released by the region.
d) On-going fires imply additional carbon emissions in the atmosphere.
e) These fires can affect the Global Water Cycle adversely.
f) More deforestation can lead to Amazon’s transformation from the World’s largest rainforest to
Savanna.
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g) Brazil’s National Institute for Space Research (INPE) has reported that forest fires in the region
have doubled since 2013 and increased by 84% compared to 2018.
How is the world reacting?
a) Germany and Norway have suspended the funding for programs that aim to stop deforestation
in the Amazon.
b) Many countries are putting pressure on Brazil, the main stakeholder, to control the fires.
c) Indigenous groups and environmental activists have led protests.
d) Mass social media campaigns, fund-mobilization campaigns have been launched.
Kerala Floods
Kerala has been experiencing severe floods in consecutive years.
Impact of Floods
1. Floods wash away topsoil and substantial biodiversity of the area.
2. This results in a reduced river-water flow, death of earthworms and spread of viral and bacterial
diseases among crops.
3. Floods impact the poorest strata of the society the most, causing a loss of lives, livelihood
options and assets.
4. They also place an enormous burden on the government in terms of reconstruction budgets.
Causes of floods
1. The root cause of such floods is the high precipitation levels.
2. Anthropogenic factors like unscientific development and over-exploitation of nature aggravate
the damages.
3. Global warming has critical effects on the hydrological cycle.
4. Water is the primary medium through which the climate change impacts trickle down to the
people.
5. The changing precipitation alters the hydrological systems, resulting in floods and droughts in
different regions.
Kerala’s Case
1. In the case of Kerala, a structural transformation and changing patterns of land use are affecting
its environment.
2. There is a considerable human-induced natural imbalance in the State.
3. This is making it vulnerable to the vagaries of climate change.
4. Agriculture is becoming insignificant and services and industry sectors dominate the State’s
economy.
5. Population density much higher than the national average, shift from joint family system to a
single-family and greater inflow of money, particularly from Gulf countries, has resulted in
increased construction activities.
6. The government has also been developing extensive infrastructure to support the booming
services and industry sectors.

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7. Land transactions suggest that people in the State have bought land from farmers over the
decades for construction.
8. A loss in a wetland area will naturally impact the State’s ability to handle floods.
Solution
1.Account for the damage done to natural ecosystems while estimating losses suffered due to
natural disasters.
2. Clarity is needed on the way of restoring the natural assets.
3. A broader assessment of floods from a ‘sustainable development’ perspective is required.
4. Limit economic growth options within the carrying capacity of the ecosystem.
5. An appropriate decision on structure, its location, materials it proposes to use, and permissible
damages it will cause to nature is needed.
6. Gulf model of construction cannot be replicated in Kerala’s fragile and ecologically sensitive
landscapes.
Bottom-Up Approach
1. The 2018 Kerala floods and landslides caused huge financial losses and human tragedies.
2. In 2019, it repeated with intense floods, landslides, financial losses and manifold human
tragedies.
Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP)
1. One set of possibilities is provided by the recommendations of WGEEP, also known as Gadgil
panel.
2. The implementation of recommendations would have definitely reduced the scale of devastation
caused by the downpours.
3. The policy prescriptions were within the framework of constitutional duties and laws.
4. It suggested that the existing laws relating to environmental protection and devolution of powers
to the gram sabha and ward sabha level, be followed.
WGEEP Conservation Model
1. The WGEEP called for a conservation model that replaces the prevailing ‘Develop Recklessly,
Conserve Thoughtlessly’ pattern with one of ‘Develop Sustainably, Conserve Thoughtfully.’
2. This development practices to the local context would have required the full involvement of local
communities.
3. It is inappropriate to depend exclusively on government agencies for deciding on and managing
Ecologically Sensitive Zones.
4. The WGEEP report provides for a bottom-up democratic process for deciding on how global
biodiversity hotspot and water tower of peninsular India should be safeguarded.
Preserving the ‘Sensitive zones’
1. The WGEEP’s mandate asked the government to demarcate ecologically sensitive areas within
the Western Ghats Region as ecologically sensitive zones under the Environment (Protection) Act,
1986.

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2. In line with the National Forest Policy, WGEEP decided to assign 60% of the total area of Western
Ghats in Kerala, including the region housing wildlife sanctuaries and national parks, as a zone of
highest ecological sensitivity, ‘ESZ1’.
Areas Under ESZ1
1. ‘Elevation’ and ‘slope’ as two indicators of sensitivity: In Kerala, rainfall increases rapidly with
elevation, and high rainfall and steep slopes render localities vulnerable to landslides. Hence, areas
prone to landslides would come under ESZ1.
2. Extent and quality of natural vegetation: Landslides are under check in areas with intact natural
vegetation because the roots bind the soil.
3. Any disturbance to such vegetation would render any locality that has steep slopes and
experiences high rainfall susceptible to landslides.
4. Therefore, the panel recommended the avoidance of any activity that would cause disturbance in
ESZ1 areas.
Way Forward
1. Panel’s recommendations has to be applied.
2. Powers and responsibilities conferred on citizens under provisions such as the 73rd and 74th
Amendments to the Constitution, and the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 must be taken full
advantage of.
3. India should assert that conservation prescriptions should not be merely regulatory but include
positive incentives such as conservation service charges.
4. The economic activities like quarrying must be handed over to agencies like the Kudumbashree
groups that are accountable to local communities.
5. The people must engage more actively in the governance of the country and lead it on to a path
of people-friendly and nature-friendly development.
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
India has announced a global Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) at the UN
Climate Action Summit 2019.
About CDRI
1. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and
disaster risks. It will ensure sustainable development.
2. It is the partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programs, multilateral
development banks, financing mechanisms, private sector, and knowledge institutions.
3. It envisions a measurable reduction in infrastructure losses from disasters as well as extreme
climate events.
4. It works with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction and the Paris Climate
Agreement.
5. CDRI will conduct country-specific and global activities. It will provide member countries
technical support and capacity development, research and knowledge management.

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About the Sendai Framework

1. It is a fifteen-year (2015-30), voluntary, non-binding agreement which recognizes that the State
has the primary role to reduce disaster risk.
2. It outlines seven clear targets and four priorities for action to prevent new and reduce existing
disaster risks.
Seven Global Targets
a) Substantially reduce global disaster mortality by 2030, aiming to lower average per 100,000
global mortality rate in the decade 2020-2030 compared to the period 2005-2015.
b) Substantially reduce the number of affected people globally by 2030, aiming to lower the
average global figure per 100,000 in the decade 2020 -2030 compared to the period 2005-2015.
c) Reduce direct disaster economic loss in relation to the global gross domestic product (GDP) by
2030.
d) Substantially reduce disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services,
including health and educational facilities through developing their resilience by 2030.
e) Substantially increase the number of countries with national and local disaster risk reduction
strategies by 2020.
f) Substantially enhance international cooperation in developing countries through adequate and
sustainable support to complement their national actions for implementation of this Framework by
2030.
g) Substantially increase the availability of and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and
disaster risk information and assessments to the people by 2030.
Four Priorities
a) Understanding disaster risk
b) Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk
c) Investing in disaster reduction for resilience
d) Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response
3. The Sendai Framework is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA)
2005-2015.

Plastic Pollution

Plastic Pollution in Indian states

A study published recently by the World Wildlife Foundation concluded that an average person may
be ingesting 5 grams of plastic every week.
About the study
a) It was prepared by the University of Newcastle, Australia and published by the World Wildlife
Foundation.
b) It states that 75% of all plastic produced worldwide is wasted, and 87% of this is leaked into the
environment.

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c) Over one-third of plastic waste ends up in nature, especially water, which is the largest source of
plastic ingestion.
d) The report estimates an average person may be ingesting 5 grams of plastic every week.
Situation in India
a) India ranks number three in terms of plastic fibres found in a sample of tap water.
b) 82.4% of tap water sampled in India contains over four plastic fibres per 500 ml.
c) In India, the previous Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) report assessed the progress
associated with the Plastic Waste Management Rules.
d) As per the 2017-18 report, only 14 states and UTs had submitted their annual reports to the
CPCB.
e) Uttar Pradesh generated 2.06 lakh TPA (tonnes per annum) plastic waste and had 16
unregistered manufacturing/recycling units.
f) Gujarat created 2.6 lakh TPA of plastic waste generated and zero unregistered manufacturing or
recycling units.
Microplastics in the Arctic region
a) A study by Germany’s Alfred Wegener Institute and Switzerland’s Institute for Snow and
Avalanche Research has shown a presence of microplastic particles in the Arctic and the Alps.
b) The study also shows microplastic particles can be transported tremendous distances through
the atmosphere.
About the Microplastics
a) The term ‘microplastics’ was introduced in the mid-2000s. They are small plastic pieces less
than five millimetres long.
b) In the last four decades, concentrations of these particles appear to have increased significantly
in the surface waters of the ocean.
c) Microplastics come from a variety of sources, including from larger plastic debris that degrades
into smaller and smaller pieces.
d) These tiny particles easily pass through water filtration systems and end up in the ocean.
e) The ocean circulation transports floating plastic around the globe over the course of the years.
Ocean circulation produces convergence zones, where microplastics tend to accumulate.
f) These large-scale subtropical ocean gyres occur in the North and South Atlantic, North and South
Pacific, and the Indian Ocean.
Plastic Waste in India
1. The government called for a movement to eliminate single-use plastic in India, beginning on
Gandhi Jayanti.
2. The government is working on a ban on single-use plastic items under the Environment
(Protection) Act, well ahead of the earlier deadline of 2022.
What are the current rules on plastic waste?
1. The centre notified the Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules, 2016, and further amended it in
2018.

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2. The rule mandates the segregation of waste which includes collecting recyclable plastic, non-
recyclable plastic and other waste separately for processing by material recovery facilities.
3. The 2018 amendment fixed a six-month deadline for producers to arrange for recovery of waste
in partnership with State Urban Development departments.
4. Plastic should be marked with numerical symbols (such as 1 for PET, 4 for Low Density
Polyethylene, 5 for Polypropylene and so on) to facilitate recycling using the correct industrial
process.
Why is India struggling with plastic waste?
1. Most cities and towns are not prepared to implement the provisions of PWM rules.
2. There is a growing crisis of under-reporting of the true extent of plastic waste.
3. There has been little progress in producers arranging for recovery of plastic waste and marking
the numerical symbols.
4. Recently, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has asked companies to file plans to fulfill
EPR (extended producer responsibility) obligation.
How much plastic is consumed in India?
1. According to FICCI data, Per capita consumption of plastic is projected to go up from 11 kg in
2014-15 to 20 kg by 2022; about 43% is single-use packaging with poor rates of recovery.
2. Packaging is projected to grow more than double in India by 2020 from 2015, with a
proportionate rise in waste volumes.
3. The pressure on producers to streamline the collection, recycling and processing of all forms of
plastic is also bound to grow.
Which are the limitations?
1. Compostable, biodegradable or edible plastics made from various materials such as bagasse
(the residue after extracting juice from sugarcane), corn starch, seaweed and grain flour are
promoted as alternatives.
These currently have limitations of scale and cost.
a. Some biodegradable packaging materials require specific microorganisms for breaking them
down.
b. Compostable cups and plates made of polylactic acid derived from biomass such as corn
starch, require industrial composters.
c. However, some edible plastics have been successfully marketed in Britain.
4. In India due to the absence of robust testing and certification to verify claims made by
producers, spurious biodegradable and compostable plastics are entering the marketplace.
5. As per CPCB ‘compostable’ marks on plastic items are used without any certification and it has
asked the respective State Pollution Control Boards to take action.
Where to focus?
1. A comprehensive mechanism to certify the materials marketed as alternatives, and the specific
process required to biodegrade or compost them is required.
2. A movement against plastic waste has to prioritize the reduction of single-use plastic in
consumer products.

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3. Focus on tested biodegradable and compostable alternatives for plates, cutlery, cups, rigorous
segregation of waste and scaling up recycling is necessary.
4. Recycling reduces the volume of non-recyclables using methods such as co-processing in
cement kilns, plasma pyrolysis or landfilling.
5. City municipal authorities have to play a key role here.
6. The packing industry should look at innovation and new materials besides facilitating collection
and recycling with the help of city administrations.

Land & Soil

Land Degradation
1. India had committed to rejuvenating 50 lakh hectares (5 million) of degraded land between 2021
and 2030.
2. India faces a severe problem of land degradation, or soil becoming unfit for cultivation. About
29% or about 96.4 million hectares are considered degraded.
3. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report on Land and climate change highlighted that
land everywhere are negatively affected by severe climate change and would lead to extreme food
insecurity.
Bonn Challenge
1. In January 2019, India became part of the “Bonn Challenge”, a global effort to bring 150 million
hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020, and 350 million
hectares by 2030.
2. At the UNFCC Conference of the Parties (COP) 2015 in Paris, India also joined the voluntary Bonn
Challenge and pledged to bring into restoration 13 million hectares of degraded and deforested
land by 2020, and an additional 8 million hectares by 2030.
3. India’s pledge is one of the largest in Asia.
4. India also hosted the 14th session of the Conference of Parties (COP-14) of the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) for the first time.
Schemes to rejuvenate the land
1. Schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, Soil Health Card Scheme, Soil Health
Management Scheme and Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana will be upgraded to tackle land
degradation.
2. The 5 million hectares, part of the Bonn Challenge commitment, It’s going to be a combination of
restoring forest land as well as cultivable land.
Locust Control and Research Scheme
a) Ministry of Agriculture has announced that there has been an incursion of desert locusts in
Rajasthan and Gujarat from areas bordering Pakistan.
b) However, any damage has not been reported to the crops.
c) India has a Locust Control and Research scheme that is being implemented through the Locust
Warning Organisation (LWO).

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d) LWO’s responsibility is monitoring and control of the locust situation in Scheduled Desert Areas
mainly in Rajasthan and Gujarat, and partly in Punjab and Haryana.
e) The LWO publishes a fortnightly bulletin on the locust situation.

About Locust
a) Locusts are certain species of short-horned grasshoppers in the family Acrididae that have a
swarming phase.
b) These insects are usually solitary. However, under certain circumstances, they become more
abundant and change their behavior and habits. This behavioral phase is called the gregarious
phase.
c) When environmental conditions produce many green plants and promote breeding, locusts can
congregate into thick, mobile, ravenous swarms.
d) They devastate crops and cause major agricultural damage and attendant human misery—
famine and starvation.
4P1000 Initiative
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) has announced to
organize the conference on 4P1000 initiative.
What is the 4P1000 initiative?
a) The international initiative ‘4 per 1000’ was launched by France in December 2015 at the
Conference of Parties 21.
b) It consists of all voluntary stakeholders of the public and private sectors under the framework of
the Lima-Paris Action Plan (LPAP).
c) It aims to demonstrate that agricultural soils can play a crucial role in food security and climate
change concerns.
d) An annual growth rate of 0.4% (4 per 1000) in the soil carbon stocks in the first 30-40 cm of soil
can significantly reduce the CO2 concentration in the atmosphere related to human activities.
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e) So, the initiative is named as ‘4P1000’. This initiative invites all partners to state or implements
some practical actions on soil carbon storage.
f) It is voluntary. It is up to each member to define how they want to contribute to the goals.
Why is soil conservation important?
a) Human activities emit enormous amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere. It
enhances the greenhouse effect and accelerates climate change.
b) Around 30% of this carbon dioxide (CO2) is absorbed by plants annually due to the
photosynthesis process.
c) Decomposition of plants caused by bacteria, fungi, etc. transforms them into organic matter.
d) This carbon-rich organic material is essential for human nutrition because it retains water,
nitrogen, and phosphorus, essential for growing plants.
e) Along with it, Global soils contain around 2 to 3 times more carbon than the atmosphere. This
controls the climate change.
f) Increasing this carbon level in the soils by 0.4% can significantly reduce the increase of carbon
dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere. Hence, climate change can be controlled efficiently.
g) Soils also ensure food security, i.e. provide food in sufficient quantity.
How to increase the levels of carbon in soils?
a) Policy measures are needed to
i) Reduce deforestation
ii) Encourage agro-ecological practices that increase the quantity of organic matter in soils and
meet the 4 % targets per year.
b) The soils should be nourished with manure and compost.
c) Areas such as degraded forests, arid and semi-arid areas, etc. should be restored.
d) Legumes should be planted more. They fix nitrogen from the atmosphere. Water should be
provided at the foot of plants.
e) Farmers and citizens have to play a significant role in the implementation of these practices.
Who will benefit?
a) There are 570 million farms in the world and more than 3 billion people living in rural areas.
b) It can benefit society as a whole.
Drought Toolbox
The Conference of Parties (COP14) to the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
unveiled the Drought Toolbox.
About the toolbox
a) The toolbox can warn about the arrival of drought as well as suggest means to mitigate the
adverse impact of acute water scarcity.
b) This toolbox can be used by countries to assess drought risks in their regions much in advance.
c) The drought uses 30 parameters including soil moisture, rainfall data and temperature data of
the present and past.

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d) The toolbox can accurately evaluate the vulnerability of different geographic regions to drought.
e) UN organizations such as the Food and Agriculture Organization and World Meteorological
Organization and the University of Nebraska, US worked to develop it.
Need of toolbox
a) As per the UNCCD estimates, the economic impact of drought has increased almost three-fold in
the last few years.
b) Currently, the cost of drought is more than $80 billion a year.
c) Droughts have caused loss of food-grains that can feed as many as 81 million people every day.
d) So, early prediction along with effective policies can help to reduce such losses.
About UNCCD
a) It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the problem of
desertification.
b) The Convention is based on the principles of participation, partnership, and decentralization - the
backbone of Good Governance.
c) It was adopted in Paris, France on 17 June 1994 and entered into force in December 1996.
d) It now has more than 180 country Parties to the Convention.

Energy

Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Parks

The government has proposed Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Parks (UMREPP) of 2,000
megawatts (MW) each.
About UMREPP
1. It is expected to help developers achieve economies of scale and further bring down solar and
wind power tariffs.
2. The central government is pushing state-run companies to build clean energy parks at a cost of
around $2 billion each, with built-in incentives to ensure states and operators are invested in the
parks.
3. These green energy parks will be set up under the existing Solar Park scheme, which provides
the land and grid connectivity and will be implemented by a special purpose vehicle (SPV).
4. To get states on board and facilitate the requisite clearances, state governments will be paid ₹
0.02 per unit of electricity generated from the projects over their lifetime.
5. The state governments will facilitate the SPV to identify and acquire land and obtain required
statutory clearances.
6. The capacity of the UMREPP may be in the range of 2,000MW to 250MW. For floating solar PV
(photovoltaics) parks, the minimum size should be 50MW.
Need for such parks
1. Setting up such parks will bolster India’s image as a clean energy champion at the time of
climate change.

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2. India is aiming to secure its energy needs by cutting down imports of fossil fuels and reduce
pollution.
3. Major global companies such as Tesla are showing interest to build large factories of lithium-ion
batteries of a 50-gigawatt hour (GWh) with an investment of about ₹50,000 crore.
4. The government wants to make India a global manufacturing hub for electric vehicles and their
components.
Climate Commitments
1. India has become one of the top renewable energy producers globally, with capacity expansion
plans to achieve 175GW by 2022 and 500GW by 2030, as part of its climate commitments.
2. At present, around 22%, or 80,000MW, is generated through clean energy projects.
Investment in Green Energy
1. India is seeking additional clean energy investment of around $80 billion till 2022, and up to $250
billion during 2023-30.
2. Investments in the country’s renewable energy sector doubled over the last five years to around
$20 billion in 2018, surpassing the capital expenditure in the thermal power sector.
3. It is regarded as a turning point for India’s green economy.
Thermal Power Plants
Managing the electricity needs of a country that’s already dealing with water scarcity will be a
challenge before Energy sector.
What will be the challenge?
a) Water is essential for human survival, agriculture and industry. India has only 4% of the world’s
renewable water resources but about 18% of the world’s population.
b) India has announced the goal of 100% electrification. To achieve this, the country’s installed
power capacity will need to be doubled.
c) Even with the growth of renewable energy, coal has been projected to be the backbone of the
electricity sector till 2030 and beyond.
d) As the thermal power plants are water-intensive and operate on coal, there is need of managing
the electricity needs of India as well as water scarcity.
Where are generally TPP located?
a) Thermal power plants (TPPs) consume significant amounts of water during the electricity
generation process.
b) Most of India’s TPPs are located in water-stressed areas.
c) Water shortages have led to electricity-generation disruptions and significant revenue losses to
the economy.
When did Government step in?
a) In December 2015, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued a notification
setting limits for water consumption by TPPs.
b) However, the amended Environment Protection (EP) Rules codified in June 2018 ended up
permitting TPPs to use more water than what was initially specified.

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How to improve the situation?

a) Central Electricity Authority (CEA) recently released the format for TPPs to report on their annual
water consumption.
b) These guidelines can be strengthened by including following relevant inputs.
i) TPPs should disclose the amount of water consumed by them in previous years so that a
baseline for water consumption per TPP can be established.
ii) Reporting requirements must be added to the EP Rules to accord the disclosure process greater
transparency and enforceability.
iii) TPPs should also be required to submit verifiable evidence e.g. water bills to support and
substantiate the disclosures.
iv) Data supplied by TPPs should be placed in the public domain so that the parameters disclosed
can be studied in the context of region-specific water shortages, outages in the plants, etc.
c) Section 15 of the EP Act provides for a blanket penalty for contravention of any provision of the
Act. However, it doesn’t stipulate specific penalties for specific offenses.
So, it should be reviewed by the government at the earliest.
d) Relevant officials in charge of enforcement, across the Ministry and the CEA, should be
identified, and their roles clearly defined.
e) To reduce the stress caused by TPPs, renewable sources should be adopted aggressively to
achieve its global climate targets.

Species

Cat Snake
A new species of ‘cat snake’ has been discovered in Maharashtra’s Western Ghats around the
Koyna wildlife sanctuary region.
About the species
1. The species has been named ‘Thackeray’s cat snake’. The scientific name of the species is
‘Boiga Thackerayi’.
2. The new species has Tiger stripes on its body.
3. The new species is non-venomous. It is known to grow up to approximately 3 feet in length.
4. It is active at night and is known to feed on the eggs of Humayun’s Night Frog. This snake also
favours only arboreal frogs. Arboreal meaning living in trees.
5. The new species is only known in a few localities near the Koyna dam of Maharashtra. But could
be widely distributed.
Microhyla Eos
A new frog species has been discovered from Arunachal Pradesh.
About the species
1. It was discovered from the habitats in an evergreen forest in the Namdapha tiger reserve.
2. The species is described as the newest member of the genus Microhyla.
3. Microhyla genus is a group of narrow-mouthed frogs commonly known as Rice Frogs or Chorus
Frogs. They are widely distributed in Asia.
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4. The new species is named ‘Eos’ after the mythological Greek goddess of dawn. It’s habitat
Arunachal Pradesh is also popularly known as the Land of the Rising Sun.
5. ‘Microhyla Eos’ differs from other narrow-mouthed Chorus frogs by its size, shape, colouration
and markings, foot webbing, and other morphological features.
Namdapha Tiger Reserve
1. Namdapha Tiger Reserve (NTR) was declared in the year 1983 as the 15th Tiger Project of the
country.
2. It is named after the river which originates from Daphabum hill and meets the Noa-Dehing river.
3. NTR falls within the Eastern Himalayan biogeographic province of the Himalayas Biogeographic
zone.
4. It covers the Palearctic Realm and the Indo-Malayan (Oriental) Realm.
5. The Biomes recognized in this area are evergreen Forests, Moist deciduous forests, subtropical
forests, Temperate and Alpines.
Indian Pierrot Butterfly
A rare butterfly species of Indian Pierrot was discovered at Yercaud foothills, Tamil Nadu.
About the species
a) The butterfly belonging to this species is commonly known as the ‘Indian Pierrot or Transparent
Pierrot’.
b) There are around five or six varieties in the genus Tarucus. It makes it a rare species.

c) To date, its presence has been recorded only in Maharashtra, Gujarat and the other Northern
States.
d) Transparent nature of the butterfly makes it difficult to identify. There are lighter black marks on
either of the upper forewings of the butterfly.
e) The butterfly can be seen in scrub jungles, drier areas, near Jujube trees which are considered to
be its host plant.
Dragon tree species
‘Dragon tree species’ was discovered in Assam’s West Karbi Anglong district.
About the species
a) The scientific name of the species is ‘Dracaena Cambodiana’.

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b) It is an important medicinal plant as well as an ornamental tree.

c) It yields dragon’s blood i.e. a bright red resin used since ancient times as medicine, body oil,
varnish, incense, and dye.
d) This is the first time that a dragon tree species has been reported from India.

e) In India, the Dracaena genus belonging to the family Asparagaceae is represented by nine
species and two varieties in the Himalayan region, the northeast and Andaman and Nicobar
Islands.
f) But the recently discovered Dracaena Cambodian is the only true dragon tree species.
g) Several antifungal and antibacterial compounds, antioxidants, flavonoids, etc. have been
extracted from various parts of the plant.
h) But recent overexploitation to meet the increasing demand for dragon’s blood has resulted in
rapid depletion of the plant.
Mediterranean sharks
A report of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) states that Sharks are at risk of disappearing from the
Mediterranean Sea region.
About the report
a) The report is titled as the ‘Sharks in Crisis: A call to action for the Mediterranean’.
b) The report comes on the occasion of Shark Awareness Day observed annually on July 14.
c) As per the report, Overfishing and plastic pollution pose threat to their populations.
d) It states that more than half of shark and ray species in the Mediterranean were under threat and
that almost a third of them have been fished to the brink of extinction.
e) Tunisia has become the second largest fishing country for sharks in the Mediterranean after
Libya.
f) The IUCN Red List of endangered species counts 79 endangered shark and 120 endangered ray
species. Rays are the largest group of cartilaginous fish.

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About the WWF

a) It aims to conserve nature and reduce the most pressing threats to the diversity of life on Earth.
b) It works in 100 countries and is supported by millions of people globally.
c) Morges Manifesto (1961) highlighted the need of financial support to continue the work in
conserving the nature. So, WWF was established as an international fundraising organization.
d) Focus Areas
i) Food
ii) Climate
iii) Fresh Water
iv) Wildlife
v) Forest
vi) Ocean
Protecting Vultures
1. The number of Vultures declined from 40 million in the 1980s to a few thousand by 2009 in India.
2. In 2004 few vultures were rescued by the Vulture Care Centre.
Vulture Care Centres
1. By 2004, the vulture population declined almost by 99 %. As vultures are slow-breeding birds, an
immediate intervention was required to prevent vultures from becoming extinct.
2. So, to study the cause of deaths of vultures, a Vulture Care Centre (VCC) was set in Haryana in
2004.
3. At present, there are nine Vulture Conservation and Breeding Centres (VCBC) in India, of which
three are directly administered by Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
4. The VCBCs look after the vultures and breed them in captivity, later release them into the wild.
Decline of Vultures
1. The major reason behind the decline was the drug Diclofenac, found in the carcass of cattle the
vultures fed on.
2. The drug used for veterinary purposes to treat inflammation among cattle, was banned in 2008.
Thriving Population
1. The VCBC successfully released two Himalayan Griffon into the wild in 2016, that become self-
reliant in 40 days.
2. Scientists are now planning more releases of Himalayan Griffons and White-backed vultures.
3. The vulture population in the wild have stabilised due to the establishment of VCBCs and
banning Diclofenac.
Way Ahead
1. Forest department burn and bury animal carcasses to keep poachers away. But the practice is
denying food to vultures.
2. So, the practise of burning and burial of animal carcasses has to be given up.

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3. Create awareness and safe zones for vultures in places where there is an existing vulture
population.
4. So far nine states have undertaken programmes to create safe habitats for vultures.
Gharial Conservation
a) Gharial is a species of crocodile listed as a ‘Critically Endangered’ by IUCN.
b) It is native to sandy freshwater riverbanks in the plains of the northern part of the Indian
subcontinent.
c) It is threatened by loss of riverine habitat, depletion of fish resources, and entanglement in
fishing nets.
d) It is one of the longest of all living crocodilians.
Conservation plan
a) Gharials are first bred in Nandankanan Zoological Park and then released into their natural
habitat i.e. Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi.
b) Satkosia gorge is the southernmost limit of gharials’ home range in India.
c) Gharials are individually marked and fitted with radio transmitters for future identification and
tracking of their migration route.
d) The technical assistance for biotelemetry is being provided by the gharial Telemetry Project, The
Madras Crocodile Bank Trust.
e) Odisha is the only state in India having all three species — gharial, mugger and saltwater
crocodile.
Nandankanan Park
a) It is a premier zoological park located near Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
b) Gharials have bred for the first time in captivity in the world at Nandankanan Zoological Park in
1980.
c) It is the first zoo in the World to breed White tiger and Melanistic tiger.
d) Nandankanan is the only conservation breeding center of Indian Pangolins in the world.
e) It is the only zoological park in India to become an institutional member of World Association of
Zoos and Aquarium (WAZA).
f) It is the first zoo in India where endangered Ratel was born in captivity.
g) Nandankanan is the only zoo in India to have an Open-top Leopard Enclosure.
Great Indian Bustard Conservation
a) Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest birds found in the country.
b) The birds prefer terrestrial habitats such as Grassland.
c) It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN red list.
d) The population of the species is declining because of activities such as Mining & quarrying,
agriculture, invasive species, anthropogenic threats etc.
e) So, a conservation project for ‘Great Indian Bustard’ has been announced.
About the project
a) Project titled ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding of Great Indian Bustard-An
Integrated Approach’ has been launched for five years.

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b) As there are just 130 great Indian bustards left in the country, Government has initiated the
project.
c) Funds are provided under the centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Integrated Development of Wildlife
Habitats (CSS-IDWH)’ under the component ‘Species Recovery Programme’.
d) Funds are provided to states and Union Territories for conservation and protection along with
other 21 critically endangered species.
e) Funds for the project are being provided through ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) for conservation.
f) Technical support is supported from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
g) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra are the important range states involved in this programme.
h) Currently, there are two centres for breeding and hatching- one in Jaisalmer and the other in
Kota, both in Rajasthan.
i) Rajasthan has also launched “Project Godawan” at the Desert National Park.
CSS-IDWH
a) It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched to provide assistance to States/UTs for protection
of wildlife habitat.
b) It is extended till 2019-2020.
c) The activities covered under the scheme include,
i) Staff development and capacity building
ii) Wildlife research and evaluation
iii) Anti-poaching activities
iv) Wildlife veterinary care
v) Addressing man-animal conflicts
vi) Promoting eco-tourism.
d) Financial assistance is also provided to States for the relocation of communities from within
protected areas to other areas.
Otter and Gecko Lizard
a) A proposal on ‘otter conservation’ by India, Nepal, and Bangladesh has been approved by the
International community.
b) The proposal aims to prohibit commercial international trade in a species of otter native to the
subcontinent and some other parts of Asia.
c) The proposal was approved during the 18th Conference of the Parties of the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in Geneva.
d) The Conference also accepted a separate proposal by India for the inclusion of a species of
gecko lizard found widely in South and Southeast Asia.
Smooth-coated Otter
a) Otters are carnivorous mammals in the subfamily Lutrinae. The otter species are all semi-
aquatic, aquatic or marine.
b) In the Indian Subcontinent, the Smooth-coated Otter species is widely available. However, its
population is constantly decreasing.

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c) IUCN status of ‘Smooth-coated otter species’ is Vulnerable.

d) Prominent threats to it are
i) Residential & commercial development
ii) Agriculture & aquaculture
iii) Transportation & service corridors
iv) Human encroachment and pollution
e) Smooth-coated otter has been moved from CITES Appendix II to CITES Appendix I to provide a
greater degree of protection.
Tokay gecko
a) It is a nocturnal arboreal gecko in the genus Gecko, the true geckos.
b) It is native to Asia and some Pacific Islands.
c) Habitat of the species is Artificial/Terrestrial forests.
d) IUCN status of the species is ‘Least Concern’.
CITES
a) It is an international agreement between governments.
b) Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not
threaten their survival.
c) It was drafted after a resolution was adopted at a meeting of the members of the International
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) in 1963.
d) CITES entered into force in 1975 and currently has 183 parties. States and regional economic
integration organizations adhere voluntarily to CITES.
e) The Convention is legally binding on the Parties in the sense that they are committed to
implementing it. However, it does not take the place of national laws.
f) The CITES secretariat is located in Washington DC, United States of America.
CITES Appendices
Species are categorized into following appendices.
1. Appendix I
a) It lists species that are the most endangered among CITES-listed animals and plants.
b) They are threatened with extinction and CITES prohibits international trade in specimens of
these species except when the purpose of the import is not commercial.
2. Appendix II
a) It lists species that are not necessarily now threatened with extinction but that may become so
unless trade is closely controlled.
b) It also includes so-called ‘look-alike species’, i.e. species whose specimens in trade look like
those of species listed for conservation reasons.
c) International trade in specimens of Appendix-II species may be authorized by the granting of an
export permit certificate. No import permit is necessary for these species under CITES.
3. Appendix III
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a) It is a list of species included at the request of a Party that already regulates trade in the species
and that needs the cooperation of other countries to prevent unsustainable or illegal exploitation.
b) International trade in specimens of species listed in this Appendix is allowed only on
presentation of the appropriate permits or certificates.

Report & Indices

World Resources Institute (WRI) Study

A new data from the World Resources Institute (WRI) shows that one-quarter of the world’s
population faces extremely high levels of baseline water stress.
Highlights of the report
a) India is 13th among the 17 countries facing water stress. India has more than three times the
population of the other 16 extremely highly stressed countries combined.
b) This implies that more than three-quarters of the populations facing extremely high-water stress
live in India.
c) India’s groundwater resources in addition to rivers, lakes, and streams are severely overdrawn to
provide water for irrigation.
d) Irrigated agriculture, industries, and municipalities withdrew more than 80% of their available
supply on average every year.
e) Groundwater tables in some northern aquifers declined at a rate of more than 8 cm per year
between 1990 and 2014.

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Suggestions to India
a) The WRI took note of steps India has taken to mitigate water stress including setting up the Jal
Shakti Ministry.
b) WRI suggests other solutions such as
i) More efficient irrigation
ii) Conserving and restoring lakes, floodplains, and groundwater recharge areas
iii) Collecting and storing rainwater.
Global situation
a) Globally water withdrawals have more than doubled since the 1960s due to growing demand.
b) Qatar is the most water-stressed countries in the world followed by Israel (2nd), Lebanon (3rd),
Iran (4th).
c) Twelve out of the 17 most water-stressed countries are in the Middle East and North Africa.
d) The region is hot and dry, so water supply is low, but growing demands have pushed countries
further into extreme stress.
Water Stress Index
a) Water Stress Index is formulated by London-based risk analytics firm Verisk Maple-croft.
b) The index measures the water consumption rates of households, industries, and farm sectors
and the available resources in rivers, lakes, and streams.
c) The index lists India as the 46th highest risk country in the world.
d) The report states that 11 of India’s 20 largest cities face an ‘extreme risk’ of water stress and
seven are in the ‘high risk’ category.
e) Many metropolitan cities such as Delhi, Chennai, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Nashik, Jaipur,
Ahmedabad, and Indore are among the cities facing ‘extreme risk’.
Key Highlights
a) The average population growth rate among the 11 extreme risk cities is 49%.
b) More than 127 million people will live in these cities by 2035.
c) The report suggests that the effects of climate change like an ‘extended dry season’ would make
matters worse for the country’s cities.
Report on Sulphur dioxide emission
India is the largest emitter of Sulphur dioxide gas in the world.
About the report
a) It was developed by Greenpeace Trust using the data from NASA OMI (Ozone Monitoring
Instrument) satellite.
b) It states that more than 15% of all the anthropogenic sulphur dioxide hotspots exist in India.
c) It makes India the largest emitter of Sulphur dioxide gas.
d) Almost all of these emissions in India are because of coal-burning. Majority of coal-based power
plants in India lack flue-gas desulphurisation technology to reduce air pollution.

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e) Major emission hotspots in India are basically thermal power plants such as Singrauli, Neyveli,
Talcher, Jharsuguda, Chandrapur etc.
Global Scenario
a) The largest sulphur dioxide emission hotspots have been found in Russia, South Africa, Iran,
Saudi Arabia, Mexico, United Arab Emirates, Turkey and Serbia.
b) The pollutant emissions from power plants and other industries continue to increase in Saudi
Arabia and Iran.
c) China and the United States have been able to reduce emissions rapidly. They have achieved this
by switching to clean energy sources.
Steps taken by India
a) Ministry of Environment introduced sulphur dioxide emission limits for coal-fired power plants in
2015 to control air pollution by SO2.
b) But the deadline for the installation of flue-gas desulphurisation (FGD) in power plants has been
extended from 2017 to 2022.
State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index (SARAL)
The Union Ministry of Power launched the State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index (SARAL).
About the index
a) It is the first of its kind index to provide a comprehensive overview of state-level measures
adopted to facilitate rooftop solar deployment.
b) It has been designed collaboratively by,
i) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
ii) Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF)
iii) Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
iv) Ernst & Young (EY)
c) It ranks the states based on five key aspects –
i) Robustness of policy framework
ii) Implementation environment
iii) Investment climate
iv) Consumer experience
v) Business ecosystem
d) It encourages each state to assess the on-going initiatives and guides to improve its solar
rooftop ecosystem.
Renewable Energy targets
a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has set a target of 175 GW of renewable energy
capacity by 2022.
b) Out of 175GW, 100 GW solar power is to be operational by March 2022.
c) Another 40 GW is expected to come from grid-connected solar rooftops.

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Top performers
a) Karnataka has been placed at the first rank in the Index.
b) Telangana, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh have got 2nd, 3rd, and 4th rank respectively.
All India Tiger Estimate – 2018
On the International Tiger Day, the results of the fourth cycle of All India Tiger Estimation – 2018
was released.
Findings of the Census
1. The count of tigers in India has risen to 2967, in 2018, according to this census. India is among
the biggest and most secure habitats.
2. The 33% rise in tiger numbers is the highest ever recorded between cycles which stood at 21%
between 2006 to 2010 and 30% between 2010 and 2014.
3. The rise in tiger numbers was in conformity with the average annual growth rate of tigers since,
2006.
4. Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers at 526, followed by Karnataka and
Uttarakhand with 524 and 442 tigers respectively.
5. India achieved its commitment to the St. Petersburg Declaration, of doubling Tiger population,
much in advance to the 2022 deadline.
6. Chhattisgarh and Mizoram saw a decline in their tiger numbers while tiger’s numbers in Odisha
remained constant. All other States witnessed a positive trend.
7. At the landscape level, all 5 landscapes showed an increase with the Central Indian landscape
recording the highest increment.
Method of Sampling
1. India has been estimating its tigers using a double sampling approach involving a mark-
recapture framework to ascertain tiger numbers, which is being improved over time.
2. During the 4th cycle, data was collected using an Android-based application- M-STrIPES
(Monitoring system for Tigers’ Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) and analysed on the
applications’ desktop module.
3. Besides cameras were also used to get the images of wildlife including tigers.
4. Segregation of these images was possible in a short time because of the use of artificial
intelligence software.
MEETR
1. A report of the 4th cycle of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves (MEETR)
was also released.
2. Pench Tiger Reserve, Madhya Pradesh scored the highest and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve,
Tamil Nadu showed the highest increment in management since the last cycle for which the latter
was awarded.
3. 42% of the tiger reserves fell in the Very Good management category, 34% in the Good category,
24% in the Fair category while no tiger reserve was rated Poor.
Report ‘Skin and Bones Unresolved’
The ‘Skin and Bones Unresolved: An Analysis of Tiger Seizures from 2000-2018’, quantifies the
illegal global trade in tigers.

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About the report

a) The report has quantified the illegal global trade in tigers and tiger parts between 2000 and
2018.
b) It has been compiled by Traffic, an NGO working in conservation and currently in partnership
with,
i) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
ii) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
c) Recently released ‘Tiger census’ shows that India has the world’s largest tiger population i.e.
2967.
d) However, this new report shows that the highest extent of tiger trade also happens in India.
Illegal trade
a) The report states that around 2,359 tigers were seized from 2000 to 2018 across 32 countries
and territories globally.
b) Apart from living tigers and whole carcasses, tiger parts were seized in various forms such as
skin, bones or claws.
c) India is the country with the highest number of seizure incidents (40% of all seizures) as well as
tigers seized (625).
d) Even in terms of various body parts seized, India had the highest share among countries for tiger
skins, bones and claws, and teeth.
About the organizations
a) TRAFFIC
i) It is an NGO working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both
biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
ii) It seeks to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
iii) It has a presence in 15 countries on five continents.
iv) It was founded in 1976 as a strategic alliance of the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) and
the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
v) It is headquartered at Cambridge, United Kingdom.
b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
i) It is an international NGO working in the field of wilderness preservation, and the reduction of
human impact on the environment.
ii) It was founded in 1961 and headquartered at Gland, Switzerland.
iii) It is the world’s leading conservation organization and works in approximately 100 countries.
iv) Its current work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests,
and oceans.
c) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
i) It is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use
of natural resources.

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ii) It is composed of both government and civil society organizations.

iii) Created in 1948, IUCN has evolved into the world’s largest and most diverse environmental
network.
iv) It is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to
safeguard it.
Orchids of India Survey
Botanical Survey of India has come up with the first comprehensive census of orchids of India
‘Orchids of India Survey: A Pictorial Guide’.
About the survey
a) It states that India is home to 1,256 species of orchid. Out of which, species endemic to India at
388.
b) Orchids can be broadly categorized into three life forms,
1) Epiphytic
i) These are plants growing on other plants including those growing on rock boulders and often
termed lithophyte.
ii) The report states that about 60% of all orchids found in the country i.e. 757 species are
epiphytic.
iii) These are abundant up to 1800 m above the sea level and their occurrence decreases with the
increase in altitude.
2) Terrestrial
i) These plants grow on land and climbers.
ii) 447 orchid species are terrestrial.
iii) These are found in large numbers in temperate and alpine region.
3) Mycoheterotrophy
i) These are plants which derive nutrients from mycorrhizal fungi that are attached to the roots of a
vascular plant.
ii) 43 orchid species are mycoheterotrophic.
iii) These are mostly associated with ectomycorrhizal fungi, and are found in temperate regions, or
growing with parasites in tropical regions.
c) A State-wise distribution of orchid species point out that the Himalayas, North-East parts of the
country and Western Ghats are the hot-spots of the beautiful plant species.
d) Highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh, followed by Sikkim, and
West Bengal.
e) One-third endemic species are found in Western Ghats. Kerala and Karnataka are dominant
state.
f) Entire orchid family is listed under appendix II of CITES (Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) and hence any trade of wild orchid is banned
globally.
Botanical Survey of India
a) It is the apex taxonomic research organization of India, under the Ministry of Environment,
Forest & Climate Change.

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b) It was established in 1890 under the direction of Sir George King.

c) The organization’s mandate is to explore, collect, identify and document the rich plant resources
of India.
d) It is headquartered in Kolkata.

Conservation

Agriculture
a) India has only 4% of the global freshwater resources. However, it has to quench the thirst of
about 18% of the world population.
b) As per the Central Water Commission, Water use for Irrigation purposes is likely to be reduced to
68% by 2050 from 78% in 2010.
c) For domestic use, it was just 6% in 2010 but it is likely to go up to 9.5% by 2050.

How is the agriculture responsible for water crisis?

a) Various reports suggest that agriculture will remain the biggest user of water to produce enough
food, feed, and fiber for the foreseeable future.
b) Major source of the irrigation is groundwater (63%), canals accounting for (24%), tanks (2%) and
all other sources accounting for rest (11%).
c) It shows that real burden of irrigating Indian agriculture lies with groundwater driven by private
investments from farmers.
d) Policy of cheap or free power supply for irrigation has led to a situation of near anarchy in the
use of groundwater.
Which crops are highly water intensive?
a) Two water-guzzling crops, Paddy and sugarcane, take away almost 60% of India’s irrigation
water.
b) One kilogram of rice produced in Punjab requires almost 5,000 liters of water.
c) One kg of sugar in Maharashtra, requires about 2,300 liters of water for irrigation.
Where the solution lies?
a) Monetary rewards should be given to farmers for saving water and power for irrigation.
b) There can be an income support for crops that require less water. E.g. for maize or soybean in
Punjab during the Kharif season.
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c) This would provide savings on the power subsidy as well as groundwater.

d) Sugarcane needs to be contained in the Maharashtra-Karnataka belt and expanded in the UP-
Bihar belt.
e) With new Co 0238 varieties that give recovery rates of more than 10.5%. So, sugarcane can be
developed for ethanol.
f) Rationalization of power pricing should be done for agriculture.
g) Policies should be put on the right track to reap the benefits of technological solutions like drip
irrigation, sprinklers, etc.
h) Israel has one of the best water technologies and management systems, ranging from drips to
desalinization to recycling of urban wastewater for agriculture. India can adopt such systems.
Jal Jeevan Mission
Government of India announced to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024 under ‘Jal
Jeevan Mission’.
What are the concerns about the scheme?
a) Jal Jeevan Mission aims to ensure piped water supply to all rural households by 2024.
b) However, this mission can be a futile exercise because around 70% of India’s surface water and
groundwater are polluted.
c) The plan will require digging up most parts of the country. It will require huge investment. The
return on the investment is also low.
d) As surface and groundwater are unfit for domestic use, reverse osmosis (RO) machinery would
be needed in the home. So, it will increase the financial burden.
Which are the only unpolluted sources of water?
a) The only unpolluted sources of water that remain are,
i) Waters underlying the floodplains of rivers and
ii) Subterranean natural mineral water underlying forest tracts.
b) Protection and conservation of these sources are very important. Otherwise, people would be
forced to drink unhealthy and expensive RO water.
How can the unpolluted water be provided?
a) There are two schemes which can perennially provide natural mineral water and unpolluted
water to the cities in India.
b) The first scheme is the ‘Floodplains aquifers scheme’. Example of this is ‘Yamuna Palla
floodplain scheme’ for Delhi in 2009. It provides quality water to more than a million people in
Delhi.
c) This local and sustainable river floodplain scheme can provide water supply for hundreds of river
cities in India.
d) It can yield great economic returns. Examples of self-sustaining floodplain water cities are
Varanasi, Prayagraj, Mathura, Vijayawada and many cities in Tamil Nadu.
e) The second scheme is the ‘Forest aquifers scheme’. The forest aquifer scheme can provide
mineral water countrywide.

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Why should the forest aquifers be explored?

a) A huge amount of natural mineral water underlies the forests. This water is of the highest
international quality.
b) Unpolluted rainwater percolates through the humus on the forest floor. This water picks up
nutrients and settles in underground aquifers.
c) As it is highly pure and nutrient-rich, people would need less amount of water for drinking.
d) It is available cheaply. Most of the country can source this water.
e) Forest aquifers have wide presence in the country, with almost every big city having such
aquifers.
However, taking more water than nature can recharge every year will be damaging.
Where to focus?
a) Water levels of the floodplain aquifers need to be monitored to maintain it well above the river
water level to avoid contamination by river water.
b) Stable water levels should be maintained for the subterranean forest aquifers to ensure
sustainability.
c) There is a need to declare the floodplains and forest aquifers as water sanctuaries similar to
national parks and tiger reserves.
Conservation of Lakes
Recently the Odisha Wetland Authority approved the implementation of an integrated management
plan for Chilika and Ansupa lakes.
About the Plan
a) The plan would span over five years and is intended at strengthening the livelihood of fishermen
relying on the two water bodies.
b) It also aims to promote tourism, conserve the ecology and limit the encroachments.
About the lakes
a) Chilika Lake
i) It is the largest brackish Water Lagoon with an estuarine character that sprawls along the east
coast.
ii) It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian sub-
continent.
iii) It is one of the hotspots of biodiversity in the country. It is also home to some rare, vulnerable
and endangered species listed in the IUCN Red List of threatened Animals.
iv) It was designated as the 1st Ramsar Site of India.
v) Lakhs of tourists visit the lake to watch endangered Irrawaddy dolphins and migratory birds
during winter.
b) Ansupa Lake
i) It is the largest freshwater lake of Odisha.
ii) It is also the wintering ground for around thirty species of migratory birds.

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iii) It is famous for its sweet water fish, especially ‘Labeo bata’ locally known as ‘Pohala.’
iv) However, the lake’s hydrology has undergone serious and visible changes due to reduced inflow
from Mahanadi river over the years.

Initiatives

Marine Fisheries Regulation and Management Bill 2019

A Marine Fisheries Regulation and Management (MFRM) Bill 2019 is in the public domain for
discussion.
Why was this bill introduced?
1. It was introduced in line with India’s commitment towards the United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982 and the World Trade Organisation (WTO) agreements.
UNCLOS
1. Under UNCLOS, ratified by India in 1995, the sea and resources in the water and the seabed are
classified into three zones — the internal waters (IW), the territorial sea (TS) and the exclusive
economic zone (EEZ).
2. The IW is on the landward side of the baseline — it includes gulfs and small bays. Coastal states
treat IW like land.
3. The TS extends outwards to 12 nautical miles from the baseline — coastal nations enjoy
sovereignty over airspace, sea, seabed and subsoil and all living and non-living resources therein.
4. The EEZ extends outwards to 200 nautical miles from the baseline. Coastal nations have
sovereign rights for exploration, exploiting, conserving and managing all the natural resources
therein.

5. Since fisheries is a state subject in India, fishing in the IW and TS come within the purview of the
states concerned.
6. Other activities in the TS and activities, including fishing beyond the TS up to the limit of the EEZ,
are in the Union list.

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7. So far, there is no Central government law covering the entire EEZ. The Bill attempts to make up
for this.
8. The annual fishery potential of the India’s EEZ is about 5 million tonnes which has to be utilised
judiciously.
9. Measures like formation of a new fisheries ministry and this bill aims to achieve this.
WTO agreements
1. The Bill is also a response to discussions on fisheries’ subsidies at the WTO since the Doha
Round of 2001.
2. India has been defending the rights of developing nations for special and differential treatment.
3. Developed countries contend that nations without laws to manage fisheries in their respective
EEZs are not serious about unregulated fishing.
4. The MFRM Bill of India tries to address this.
Which are the provisions of the bill?
1. The Bill prohibits fishing by foreign fishing vessels, thus nationalising our EEZ.
2. An Indian fishing vessel desirous of fishing in the EEZ, outside the TS, must obtain a permit.
3. It proposes social security for fish workers and calls for the protection of life at sea during
severe weather events.
4. Bigger vessels, particularly trawlers, registered and licenced under state departments, will need a
permit to fish. This is a measure to manage the fishing sector.
5. The Bill respects the jurisdiction of coastal states over the TS.
What is the issue in the bill?
1. Obtaining of a permit for fishing beyond TS has been contested by the fishing industry —
particularly small-scale operators.
2. The bill assums that only large-scale vessels fish outside the TS. Actually, thousands of small-
scale fishing crafts regularly venture into such areas.
3. Their freedom to access fish outside the TS will cease if the Bill becomes law.
4. The Bill lacks match with important regional fishery agreements.
5. It is incomplete compared to the regulations in other coastal nations. However, it is necessary
for the sustainable future of the marine fishing industry.
Where lies the solution?
1. A few exemption clauses to safeguard their livelihoods of small-scale operators beyond TS
should be incorporated in the Bill.
2. State governments, fisher associations and the fishing industry representatives should not
blindly oppose the entire bill on the basis of their fears of the fishing permit. They should argue for
greater “cooperative federalism”.
3. Cooperative governance between them over different territories (IW, TS and EEZ) is key to the
sustainable management of marine fisheries, therefore the fishing sector must be moved to
Concurrent List.

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3. Small-scale fish workers should demand to make the entire IW and TS completely free of
trawling using the FAO/UN Small-Scale Fisheries Guidelines to support their arguments.
4. This will raise their incomes, ensure a steady supply to consumers, heal the coastal areas and
curb the bane of destructive fishing.
Draft Environmental and Social Management Framework (ESMF)
The Ministry of Environment has unveiled a draft Environmental and Social Management Framework
(ESMF) plan to assess the infrastructure projects situated along the coast.
About the framework
a) The plan lays out guidelines for coastal States to adopt when they approve and regulate projects
in coastal zones.
b) Guidelines would decide how prospective infrastructure projects situated along the coast should
be assessed before they can apply for clearance.
c) ESMF is part of a World Bank-funded project.
d) It is prepared by the Society for Integrated Coastal Management.
e) It seeks to assist the Government of India in enhancing coastal resource efficiency and resilience
by building collective capacity.
f) Currently, three coastal States, Gujarat, Odisha, and West Bengal, have prepared Integrated
Coastal Zone Management Plans with support from the World Bank.
Proposed activities
Key activities proposed for coastal area development are,
a) Mangrove afforestation and shelter beds
b) Habitat conservation activities such as restoration of sea-grass meadows
c) Eco-restoration of sacred groves
d) Development of hatcheries
e) Rearing/rescue centres for turtles and other marine animals
f) Creation of infrastructure for tourism
g) Restoration and recharge of water bodies
h) Beach cleaning and development
i) Other small infrastructure facilities
Society for Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM)
a) It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate
Change, Government of India.
b) It aims at vibrant, healthy and resilient Coastal and Marine Environment for continuous and
enhanced outflow of benefits to the Country and the Coastal Community.
c) It supports implementation of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) activities in
India.
d) It promotes Research & Development (R&D) and stakeholder participation in the management of
the Coastal areas in India.

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e) It is the National Project Management Unit of India in strategic planning, management,

execution, monitoring and successful implementation of the ICZMP-Phase-I.
CAMPA Funds
1. The Central government released Rs.47,436 crores of a Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds to various states.
2. All States are expected to utilize it towards forestry activities to achieve the objectives of the
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) of increasing its forest & tree cover.
3. Increased forest cover will create an additional carbon sink equivalent to 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes
of carbon dioxide by the year 2030.
4. CAMPA funds cannot be used for payment of salary, travel allowances, medical expenses, etc.
5. Important activities on which the fund will be utilised will be for the -
a. Compensatory Afforestation, Catchment Area Treatment, Wildlife Management.
b. Assisted Natural Regeneration, Forest Fire Prevention and Control Operations, Soil and Moisture
Conservation Works in the forest.
c. Improvement of Wildlife Habitat, Management of Biological Diversity and Biological Resources,
Research in Forestry and Monitoring of CAMPA work.
Background
1. Many developments and industrial projects such as the erection of dams, mining, and
construction of industries or roads require diversion of forest land.
2. The project proponent after getting clearance must then compensation for the lost forest land
which is decided by the ministry and the regulators.
2. Due to certain discrepancies in the implementation of compensatory afforestation, some NGOs
had approached the Supreme Court for relief.
3. The Supreme Court in 2009 issued orders that there will be CAMPA as National Advisory Council
under the chairmanship of the Union Minister of Environment & Forests for monitoring, technical
assistance and evaluation of compensatory afforestation activities.
Objectives of CAMPA
1. CAMPA is meant to promote afforestation and regeneration activities as a way of compensating
for forest land diverted to non-forest uses.
2. National CAMPA Advisory Council has been established as per orders of the Supreme Court with
the following mandate:
a. Lay down broad guidelines for State CAMPA.
b. Facilitate scientific, technological and other assistance that may be required by State CAMPA.
c. Make recommendations to State CAMPA based on a review of their plans and programmes.
d. Provide a mechanism to State CAMPA to resolve issues of an inter-state or Centre-State
character.
Blue Flag Challenge
The Union Environment Ministry has selected 12 beaches in India to contest for a ‘Blue Flag’
certification.

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Which beaches have been selected?

a. Shivrajpur (Gujarat), Bhogave (Maharashtra),
b. Ghoghla (Diu), Miramar (Goa),
c. Kasarkod and Padubidri (Karnataka),
d. Kappad (Kerala), Eden (Puducherry),
e. Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu), Rushikonda (Andhra Pradesh),
f. Golden (Odisha), and Radhanagar (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
Why to participate?
To achieve the internationally recognized highest standard for the purpose of,
a. Beach management
b. Planning and execution of projects for infrastructure development,
c. Cleanliness and hygiene.
d. Safety and security services.
What are the parameters?
There are nearly 33 criteria, voluntary and some compulsory that must be met to qualify for a Blue
Flag certification. These include.
a. Water meeting certain quality standards
b. Having waste disposal facilities
c. Being disabled-friendly
d. Availability of first aid equipment and
e. No access to pets in the main areas of the beach.
How has India performed?
a. India is set to apply for certification for two beaches, at Shivrajpur and Ghogla, by the end of July.
b. About ₹20 crore has been spent on each beach.
c. Beaches are given the qualification for a year and must apply annually to continue meriting the
right to fly the flag at their locations.
d. The improvements are to be made at a minimum of 10 meters from the high tide line. India has
shown improvements by setting up the following-
1. Container toilet blocks
2. Change rooms
3. Shower panels
4. Mini greywater treatment plants in an enclosed structure
5. Mini solid waste recycling plants and
6. Off-grid solar photovoltaic panels.
Clean Air Initiative
The United Nations (UN) launched ‘Clear Air Initiative’ ahead of upcoming ‘2019 Climate Action
Summit’.

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About the initiative

a) It is launched by the United Nations, the World Health Organization (WHO), the United Nations
Environment Programme, and Climate and Clean Air Coalition.
b) The initiative asks the governments at all levels to join the Initiative.
c) It asks for the commitment of the government to achieve air quality that is safe for citizens
d) Governments need to take the following actions,
i) Implement air quality and climate change policies that will achieve the WHO Ambient Air Quality
Guideline values.
ii) Implement e-mobility and sustainable mobility policies and actions with the aim of making a
decisive impact on road transport emissions.
iii) Assess the number of lives that are saved, the health gains, and avoided financial costs to
health systems that result from implementing their policies.
iv) Tracking progress, sharing experiences and best practices through an international network
supported by the ‘Breathe life Action Platform’.
Need of urgent action
a) According to the WHO, air pollution causes 7 million premature deaths each year, of which
600,000 are children.
b) According to the World Bank, air pollution costs the global economy an estimated US$5.11
trillion in welfare losses.
c) In the 15 countries with the highest greenhouse gas emissions, health impacts of air pollution
are estimated to cost more than 4% of GDP.

Quiz
1. The ‘Environmental and Social Management Framework (ESMF)’ is funded and supported by
_____________.
A) Asian Development Bank
B) World Bank
C) World Economic Forum
D) New Development Bank

2. Consider the following statements about the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species on Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
I. India is a signatory to the convention.
II. Species listed in Appendix I of CITES enjoy the highest degree of protection.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

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3. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) funds
cannot be utilized for which of the following purposes?
A) Assisted Natural Regeneration
B) Forest Fire Prevention and Control Operations
C) Payment of salary and travel allowances of forest officials
D) Management of Biological Diversity

4. As per the latest report by Greenpeace Trust, ____________ is the largest emitter of sulphur
dioxide in the world.
A) China
B) United States
C) India
D) Germany

5. Indicators of the ‘State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index’ is/are,

I. Robustness of policy framework
II. Implementation environment
III. Investment climate
Select the answer using the codes given below.
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I, II and III

6. Consider the following statements about Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
I. It is a United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change.
II. It conducts research and analysis on the climate change science.
Which among the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

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7. Consider the following statements:

I. Wild Buffaloes are listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
II. India has the largest population of Wild Buffalo.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

8. The report ‘Working on Warmer Planet’ is published by which of the following organisation?
A) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
B) Food and Agriculture Organisation
C) World Economic Forum
D) International Labour Organisation

9. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT about ‘MARPOL Convention’?

I. It is the main international convention covering prevention of military activities in the space.
II. It comes under the aegis of the United Nation Security Council.
Select the answer using the below codes.
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

10. Consider the following statements about Jal Jeevan Mission.

I. It aims to ensure piped water supply to all rural households by 2024.
II. It involves the Gram Panchayats in planning and implementation of the project.
Select the CORRECT statements using the below codes.
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

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11. Recently in news, ‘Clean Air Initiative’ is launched by :

A) World Wildlife Fund
B) C40 Group
C) United Nations
D) Bombay Natural History Society

12. Recently in news, first comprehensive census of orchids of India was launched by which of the
following organisations?
A) Wildlife Trust of India
B) Bombay Natural History Society
C) Botanical Survey of India
D) NITI Aayog

13. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is considered as the ‘Mother
Convention’ of which of the following treaties/conventions?
I. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
II. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
III. Stockholm Declaration on the Human Environment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A) I and II Only
B) II and III Only
C) I and III Only
D) I, II and III

14. Rare butterfly species ‘Indian Pierrot (Transparent Pierrot)’ is found in which of the following
regions?
A) Andaman islands
B) Goan Western Ghats
C) Lakshadweep island
D) Eastern Ghats

15. ‘4P1000 initiative’ aims to

A) Ban plastic pollution in the world.
B) Create awareness about data localization.
C) Increase the soil organic matter content in the soil.
D) None of the above

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16. India’s Cooling Action Plan seeks to

I. Reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20-25% by 2050
II. Increase cooling energy requirements by 25-40% by 2037
III. Train 1000 servicing sector technicians by 2022
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A) I and II only
B) II only
C) III only
D) None of the above

17. Which state has become the first market in world for particulate matter emissions trading?
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu

18. A new species of frog ‘Microhyla Eos’ is found in which of the following states?
A) Maharashtra
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Uttarakhand
D) Tamil Nadu

19. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure aims to

I. Reduce the infrastructure losses from disasters.
II. Achieve universal access to basic services
III. Provide the technical support to member countries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

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20. Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules,
2016.
I. The rule mandates the segregation of waste by the waste generator.
II. Plastic should be marked with numerical symbols to facilitate recycling.
III. Producers must arrange for recovery of waste in partnership with Central Pollution Control
Board.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III

21. Which of the following statements best describes about the ‘biological carbon pump’?
A) Emission of carbon due to forest fires
B) Emission of carbon due to burning of farm residues
C) Absorbing of carbon by the forests
D) Absorbing of carbon from the surface of oceans by the phytoplankton

22. Which of the following is/are the adverse effects of micro-plastic contamination on soils?
I. The contamination influences the animal tissues and growth.
II. Such soils become breeding ground for mosquitos.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

23. Consider the following statements about Ultra Mega Renewable Energy Power Parks
(UMREPP).
I. The scheme is facilitated by the state governments.
II. It includes solar, wind and hydropower projects.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

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24. Consider the following statements about National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):
I. The force was constituted under the Disaster Management Act of 2010.
II. It deals with chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear defense (CBRN) emergencies.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

25. Consider the following statements about ‘National Disaster Management Authority’.
I. It seeks to coordinate the government’s response to natural or man-made disasters.
II. Minister of Home Affairs is the chairman of NDMA.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below.
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Answer Keys

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D

6. B 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. C

11. C 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. C

16. D 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. A

21. D 22.C 23. A 24.B 25. A

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