1. Which is a false statement.

Modulation is used to
A. reduce the bandwidth used *
B. is used in digital and analog communication
C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distances
D. allow the use of practicable antennas

2. Of the following types of noise, one becomes of great importance at high frequencies. It is:
A. shot noise
B. thermal noise
C. impulse noise
D. transit-time noise*

3. Which of the following statement is false?

A. Pentodes are generally noisier than triodes in the same connection
B. partition noise voltage in independent of the bandwidth*
C. thermal noise is dependent of the bandwidth at which it is measured
D. Man-made noise is usually of the impulse type

4. If the value of a resistor creating thermal agitation noise is tripled. The noise power would be:
A. halved
B. multiplied by 0.707
C. doubled
D. unchanged*

5. A type of noise that does not occur in transistors.

A. shot noise
B. 1/f noise
C. partition noise *
D. resistance noise

6. What is the shape factor of a filter response?

A. is the same as the peak-to-valley ratio
B. cannot be applied to any filter
C. is equal to the 60dB bandwidth of a mechanical filter
D. determines the adjacent-channel selectivity of the filter*

7. When a frequency divider is not free running and requires synchronization by sine waves. It is the:
A. astable multivibrator divider
B. regenerative divider*
C. bistable multivibrator divider
D. PLL divider

8. In a direct frequency synthesizer, the frequency generated by each decade is much higher than the
frequency shown to:
A. reduce the spurious frequency problems*
B. increase the frequency stability of the synthesizer
C. reduce noise effects
 D. reduce the number of crystals required

9. The amplifiers following the modulated stage must be_____in a low-level AM system.
A. linear devices*
B. passive devices
C. class C amplifiers
D. nonlinear devices

10. Solve for the power saving percentage if the carrier of a 100% modulated AM is suppressed:
A. 77
B. 33.3
C. 100
D. 66.66*

11. In a plate-modulated class C amplifier, a leak-type bias is used to:

A. prevent tuned circuit damping
B. prevent excessive grid current*
C. prevent overmodulation
D. increase impedance matching

12. In a television transmitter, the output stage is most likely a:

A. control-modulated class C amplifier
B. grid-modulated class C amplifier *
C. screen-modulated class C amplifier
D. grid-modulated class A amplifier

13. Solve for the transmitted power if the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1.
A. unchanged
B. halved
C. increased by 1.717
D. increase by 50 percent*

14. An advantages of the base modulation over collector modulation of a transistor class C amplifier is:
A. the lower modulating power required*
B. higher power output per transistor
C. better efficiency
D. none of the above

15. ________ in the spectrum of a frequency-modulated wave.

A. The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large
B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index *
C. The total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index
D. both A and B are true

16. The main difference between frequency and phase modulation

A. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
B. is too great to make the two system compatible
C. is in the way the amplitude of the carrier is varied
 D. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index *

17. The wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of____ if an FM signal with a
modulation index m is passed through a frequency tripler.
A. m/3
B. 9m
C. 3m*
D. 6m

18. An FM signal with a frequency deviation δ is passed through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced
fivefold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is
A. 5δ
B. 25 δ
C. δ/5
D. δ *

19. Extra noise immunity is provided by a pre-emphasis circuit by:

A. boosting the bass frequencies
B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies *
C. pre-amplifying the whole audio band
D. increasing the power output of the modulating signal

20. The noise amplitude_______as the noise sideband frequency approaches the carrier, if noise phase-
modulates the FM signal.
A. will not change
B. is decreased *
C. is increased
D. is equalized

21. A type of modulation where when the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved
the modulating voltage remains constant.
A. amplitude modulation
B. phase modulation
C. frequency modulation *
D. all of the above

22. An indirect way of generating FM is by the use of:

A. a reactance FET modulator
B. a varactor diode modulator
C. an Armstrong modulator *
D. a phase lock loop

23. The following are the advantages of SSB over double sideband full-carrier AM. Determine the false
statement.
A. More channel space is available.
B. Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception. *
C. The signal is more noise-resistant.
D. Greater power saving.
24. What type of AM is used when the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is
also doubled.
A. Frequency Modulation (F3E)
B. Vestigial sideband (C3F)
C. Single-sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E) *
D. Double-sideband, full carrier (A3E)

25. The following are advantages of the phase cancellation method of obtaining SSB over the filter method,
which one is false?
A. Switching from one sideband to the other is simpler.
B. It avoids the use of filters
C. SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be generated
D. There are more balanced modulators; therefore the carrier is suppressed better *

26. Which of the following is not used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB?
A. filter system
B. phase-shift method
C. Weaver method
D. balanced modulator *

27. A3A modulation is used sometimes to

A. decrease the frequency of the modulating signal
B. simplify the frequency stability problem in reception *
C. reduce the power that must be transmitted
D. reduce the bandwidth required for transmission

28. Which of the following statements about the advantages of the phase discriminator over the slope
detector is not true?
A. Much easier alignment
B. Better linearity
C. Greater limiting *
D. tuned circuits are tuned at the same frequency

29. Which of the following statements about the amplitude limiter is false?
A. The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of the leak-type bias *
B. When the input increases past the threshold of the limiting, the gain decreases to keep the output
constant.
C. The output must be tuned
D. it is widely used in superheterodyne FM

30. With simple AGC radio receiver:

A. an increase in signal strength produces more AGC *
B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC
C. the faster the AGC time constant the more accurate the output
D. both A and B
31. The image frequency is____ if a superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at
1200 kHz.
A. 750 kHz
B. 8555 kHz
C. 1650 kHz
D. 2100 kHz *

32. In connection with communications receivers, which statement is false?

A. The noise limiter cuts off the receiver’s output during a noise pulse.
B. An PLL can be used as an FM demodulator
C. Double conversion is used to improve image rejection
D. Variable sensitivity is used to eliminate selective fading *

33. Indicate which of the following circuits could not demodulate SSB:
A. Balance modulator
B. Product modulator
C. Beat Frequency Oscillator
D. Phase discriminator *

34. The effect will be______if an FET is used as the first AF amplifier in a transistor receiver.
A. an improved effectiveness of the AGC
B. a reduced effect of negative-peak clipping *
C. a reduced effect of noise at low modulation depths
D. an improved selectivity of the receiver

35. The superheterodyne receiver replaced the TRF receiver because:

A. TRF’s gain variation over the frequency coverage range
B. TRF has insufficient gain and sensitivity *
C. TRF has inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
D. TRF’s amplifiers are less likely to oscillate

36. The main difference between the tube and transistor receivers from the AGC’s point of view is that the
latter:
A. require AGC power rather than voltage*
B. do not really need AGC because overloading causes limiting
C. have troubles because AGC is not very effective in them
D. must always rely on simple AGC for better selectivity

37. In a superheterodyne receiver, one of the main functions of the RF amplifier is to:
A. increase the noise received
B. permit better adjacent-channel rejection
C. increase the tuning range of the receiver
D. improve the rejection of the image frequency*

38. If a receiver has poor IF selectivity then it will also have poor______.
A. blocking *
B. double-spotting
C. diversion reception
 D. receiver sensitivity

39. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming signal
frequency:
A. to help the image frequency rejection
B. to establish a low-side injection
C. because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced
D. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching *

40. If the intermediate frequency is very high, the result would be: (the false statement is)
A. IFRR is high
B. the local oscillator need not be extremely stable
C. the selectivity will be poor
D. tracking will be improved *

41. Which is not used to demodulate SSB:

A. Product detector
B. Diode Balance modulator
C. Bipolar transistor balanced modulator *
D. all can be used to demodulate SSB

42. Noting that no carrier is transmitted with A3J. which statement is false?
A. the receiver cannot use a phase comparator for AFC
B. adjacent-channel rejection is more difficult *
C. production of AGC is a rather complicated process
D. all of the above

43. When a receiver has good blocking performance, this means that
A. it does not suffer from double-spotting
B. its image frequency rejection is poor
C. it is unaffected by AGC derived from nearby transmissions *
D. its detector suffers from burnout

44. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactorily to receive
A. A3C
B. C3A
C. A3B
D. A3H *

45. If the SWR on a transmission line is infinity, therefore the line is terminated in______(false statement).
A. a short circuit
B. a complex impedance *
C. an infinite load impedance
D. a pure reactance

46. A (25-j50)-Ω is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 25 Ω, at 7 GHz. The best method of
matching is:
A. a iris placed closest to the load
 B. an inductance at the load
C. a capacitance at some specific distance
D. a short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load*

47. Which of the following is true about the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used *
B. increases the velocity along the transmission line
C. is inversely proportional with the speed of light
D. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air

48. Impedance inversion can happen in:

A. a short-circuited stub
B. a 0.707 wavelength of the line
C. a quarter-wave line*
D. a half-wave line

49. Why are short-circuited stubs preferred than open-circuited stubs?

A. short-circuited stubs are more difficult to make an connect
B. short-circuited stubs are made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
C. open-circuited stubs are liable to radiate *
D. open-circuited incapable of giving a full range of reactances

50. Used for coaxial line to a parallel-wire line coupling:

A. slotted line
B. balun *
C. isolator
D. quarter-wave transformer