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Solutions 1
Solutions 1
1
2 CHAPTER 1. A BRIEF REVIEW OF QUANTUM MECHANICS
(e)
0
Sx j "i = 1 0 0 =
~1 1 ~ 0 ~
2 2 1 = 2 j #i
Sx j #i = 01 10 01 =
~ ~ 1 ~
2 2 0 = 2 j "i
Sy j "i = 0i 0i 10 =
~ ~ 0 ~
2 2 i = i
2 j #i
~ 0 i 0 ~ i ~
Sy j #i = i 0 1 =
2 2 0 = i 2 j "i
2. Dirac-delta function
Z 1 Z 0 Z 1 Z 0 Z 1
I= eikx dk = eikx dk + eikx dk = lim+ eikx ek dk + eikx e k dk
1 1 0 !0 1 0
" 1 #
e ix+)k 0
(
e(ix )k
1 1
= lim
!+ ix +
+ ix 0
= lim
!0+ x + i ix
0 1
= lim 2
!0+ x2 + 2
We note the following:
If x 6= 0 then I = 0.
If x = 0 then I = 1.
Integrating I over x, we nd
Z 1 2 = 2 Z 1 dy
J=
1 x2 +2
1 y +1 2
where Z 1
f (s) = e sx sinxdx
0
1
1
f (s) = e sinx +
sx 1 Z 1 e sx cosxdx = 1 Z 1 e sx cosxdx
s
0
s 0 s 0
1 + 1=s = s + 1 2 2
Hence,
1 dsZ
J= = =2
0 s2 + 1
Z 1
sin2 (x)
=) dx =
1 x2
=) lim 1 sin2(x) = (x)
!1 x2
Second method: Z 1 sinx Z 1 ix
e
I= dx = Im dx
1 x 1 x
Consider Z
eiz
A= dz
C z
where C is a closed contour in the complex plane which consists of four segments: two segments
along the real axis, one of which extending from 1 to x = ( ! 0) and the other segment
running from x = to 1, a semicircle C of radius in the upper half-plane, and a semicircle
1
C at 1 also in the upper half-plane.
2
Z Z 1 ix Z Z
eix e eiz eiz
A = lim
!0 dx + dx + dz + dz
1 x x C1 z C1 z
The integral over C vanishes (Jordan's lemma). Thus,
2
Z 1 eix Z
eiz
P = dz
1 x C1 z
Here, P stands for the principal value. The principal value of the integral is the value of the
integral from 1 to 1 excluding the value x = 0. To evaluate the integral over C , let z = ei , 1
then dz=z = id. Furthermore, eiz ! 1. Therefore,
Z 1 eix Z 0
P = i d = i
1 x
Since the integrand sinx=x is nite at x = 0 (it is equal to 1) the principal value of the integral
of sinx=x is equal to the integral itself (they dier only by lim! R [sinx=x]dx ). Hence I = . 0
4 CHAPTER 1. A BRIEF REVIEW OF QUANTUM MECHANICS
and Iy and Iz are the same as Ix with x replaced by y and z, respectively. If kx 6= kx0 , then
Ix =
1 ei kx kx L 1
0 ( )
L i(kx kx0 )
Since kx ; kx0 = 2n=L; n 2 Z , and kx 6= kx0 , it follows that kx kx0 = 2m=L; m 2 Z , and the numerator
in the above expression for Ix vanishes. If kx = kx0 , then Ix = 1. Therefore, Ix = kx ;kx0 . Similarly,
Iy = ky ;ky0 and Iz = kz ;kz0 . Hence I = kk0 and hk0 0 jki = kk0 0 ; the states are orthonormal.
To establish the completeness property, we evaluate
X X X
k (r)k (r0 ) = k (r)k (r0 ) jihj
k k
First, consider the spin part. for an arbitrary state ji = aj "i + bj #i,
X
jihji = j "ih" ji + j #ih# ji = j "ia + j #ib = ji
X
=) jihj = 1
Now consider the spatial part,
A=
X
k (r)k v (r0 ) =
1 X eik: r ( r0 ) = Ax Ay Az
k
V k
where
Ax =
1 X eikx x ( x0 )
L kx
Similar expressions can be written for Ay and Az with x replaced by y and z, respectively. We note the
following:
(a) If x = x0, then Ax = L P 1 = 1 since there is an innite number of terms in the sum.
1
5
(b) Suppose that x 6= x0. We can write
Ax = + e i x x =L + e i x x =L + 1 + ei x x =L + ei x x =L +
0 4 ( ) 0 0 2 ( 0
) 2 ( ) 4 ( )
We make the crucial observation that if we multiply the above innite series by ei n x x0 =L , for any 2 ( )
integer n, the value of the series remains unchanged, because we are still summing exactly the same
terms, the 1 being simply shifted n spaces. Therefore,
Ax = ei n x x =L Ax ; n 2 Z
0 2 ( )
Since L < x x0 < L, and x 6= x0, the only way the above equation is satised is by setting Ax = 0.
We conclude that: x 6= x0 =) Ax = 0.
(c) Consider
Z L
Ax dx =
1 Z L X eikx x x0 dx = 1 X Z L x0 eikx udu
( )
0 L kx
0 L kx x0
= L1 = L1 1
X eikx L e ikx x0 e ikx x0 X 0 eikx L
e ikx x
kx ikx kx ikx
Since kx L = 2n; n 2 Z , it follows that eikxL =Re in = 1, and the above integral vanishes if kx 6= 0.
2
~~
S1z S2z (1)(2) =
2 2 (1)(2) = (~ =4)(1)(2)
2
We have used the results of problem 1 in writing the last two equations. Collecting terms, we nd
S (1)(2) = 2~ (1)(2) = ~ s(s + 1)(1)(2)
2 2 2
~ ~
Sz (1)(2) = (S z + S z )(1)(2) = (1)(2) + (1)(2) = ~(1)(2)
1
2
2
2
where s = 1. We conclude that (1)(2) is an eigenstate of S and Sz with s = 1 and ms = 1. 2
For a bound state the energy E must be negative (if E > 0, the wave function for x < 0 and for x > 0
will be plane waves extending to 1; the particle will not be bound).
Writing E = jE j, and noting that V (x) = 0 for x < 0 and for x > 0, and that the wave function
must vanish at 1, we obtain (
Aex x<0
(x) =
Be x x>0
p
where = 2mjE j=~. The continuity of (x) at x = 0 implies that A = B . Thus we can write
R (x) = Ae jxj for all values of x. The constant A is determined by requiring that (x) be normalized:
1 j(x)j dx = 1. This readily gives A = p. To determine , we integrate the Schrodinger equation
2
1
from to , and take the limit as ! 0,
Z Z Z
~2 d 2
2m ! dx dx lim
lim 0 ! (x)(x)dx = E lim
2 0 ! (x)dx 0
Continuity of (x) implies that the right hand side (RHS) vanishes. Using the sifting property of (x),
we nd
~ 0
2 ~ 2
(0 ) 0 (0 ) = (0) )
2m [ A A] = A ) = m=~
+ 2
2m
=) E = m
2
2~ 2
Thus, we nd that there is only one bound state with energy E as given above.
(b) Now V (x) = b(x), where b is a dimensionless positive constant. We want to determine the
probability that the particle remains bound.
With the new potential energy, the bound state wave pfunction (x) is obtained from (x) by replacing
with b. Since = m=~ , it follows that (x) = be bjxj . The particle is initially in the state
2
with wave function (x), so the probability amplitude of nding it in the state
p with wave function 9x)
is h ji = R 11 (x)(x)dx. The integral is easily evaluated; it yields 2 b=(b + 1). The probability
that the particle remains bound is thus given by
P = jh jij =
4b 2
(b + 1) 2
h(1=2)m! x i = ~!=4.
2 2
One way to obtain this result is by using the wave function of the ground state, which is a gaussian, and
carrying out the integrals R 11 (p =2m)psi dx and R 11 (1=2)m! x psi dx. Another way is to use
2
0
2 2
0
the expressions for x and p in terms of creation and annihilation operators. Starting from
0 0
i
a=b x+ p
m!
m! 1=2
y i
a =b x p ; b= ;
m! 2~
we solve for x. We nd
1=2
~ y
x=
2m! (a + a )
=) 12 m! x = ~4! a + ay = ~4! a + aay + ay a + ay
2 2 2 2 2
Therefore,
h0j 21 m!2 x2 j0i = ~4! + ~4! h0ja2 + 2ay a + ay2 j0i = ~4!
Since
h0jH j0i = ~2!
and H = p =2m + (1=2)m! x , it follows that
2 2 2
To show that this is an eigenstate of the annihilation operator a, let us rst prove that [a; ayn ] =
nayn . This is proved by mathematical induction. It is clearly true for n = 1 since [a; ay ] = 1. We
1
assume that the formula is true for n and show that it is true for n + 1. That is, we assume that
[a; ayn ] = nayn , and show that [a; ayn ] = (n + 1)ayn . Using
1 +1
In the third equality, we used the assumption that the formula is true for n. The formula is thus
veried. Now consider
h i 1 zn
X X 1 zn 1
X zn 1 1
X z m ym
= a; ayn = nayn =z ayn =z a = zeza
y y
a; eza 1 1
This shows that ezay j0i is indeed an eigenstate of a with eigenvalue z. We can write
1 zn
X X1 zn p
jzi = e z z=2 ezay j 0i = e z z=2 ayn j0i = e z z=2 n! j ni
n=0 n! n=0 n!
1
X z 0n p
hz0 j = e z0 z0 =2 n! hnj
n=0 n!
(recall that 9! = 1). We thus obtain
X z n z 0m p p X1 (zz 0 )n
hz0 jzi = e ( + 0 0 ) 2
z z z z =
! ! n! m!hmjni = e (z z+z z )=2
0 0
nm n m n=0 n!
=e ( + 0 0
z z z z 2 zz0 )=2
This shows that hzjzi = 1: the states are normalized. However, the above shows that hz0jzi =6 (z z 0 ),
i.e., the states are not orthogonal.
9. Time-independent perturbation.
(a)
H = H + V; H = p =2m + (1=2)m! x ;
0 0
2
V = x 2 2
Since h0jaj0i = hjay j0i = 0, it follows that E = 0. Noting that aj0i = 0 and ayj0i = j1i, we obtain
(1)
0
1=2
~
hmjV j0i = 2m! m;1
Hence,
E = (2) ~2 X m;1 ~2
= 2m! E 1 = 2m!~2 1
0
2m! m6=0 E0 Em 0 E1 ~!
2
= 2m! 2
(b)
p2 1 2 2
H=
2m + 2 m! x + x
p2 1 2 2 2
= + m! x + 2 x
2m 2 m!
p2 1 2 2 2 2 2
= 2m 2+ m! x + 2 x + 2 4
m! m! m2 ! 4
2
= p 2
+ 1 m!2 x + 2
2m 2 m!2 2m!2
Except for the last term, which is a constant, this is the Hamiltonian for a harmonic oscillator whose
center is at x = =m! . Therefore,
2
2
En = (n + 1=2)~!
2m!2
The perturbation shifts all states downward by =2m! . In this case, the second-order perturbation
2 2
d i
AI (t) = [H0 ; AI (t)]
dt ~
(b)
j I (t)i = eiH0 t=~ j S (t)i ) i~ @t@ j I (t)i = H0 eiH0 t=~ j S (t)i + eiH0 t=~ i~ @t@ j S (t)i
Using the Schrodinger equation
@
i~j (t)i = H j S (t)i = H0 j S (t)i + V j S (t)i
@t S
and noting that H0 eiH0t=~ = eiH0t=~ H0, we obtain
@
i~ j I (t)i = eiH0 t=~ V j S (t)i + eiH0 t=~ V e iH0 t=~ j I (t)i
@t
Hence,
@
i~ j (t)i = VI (t)j I (t)i
@t I
10 CHAPTER 1. A BRIEF REVIEW OF QUANTUM MECHANICS
@
i~ UI (t; t0 ) = VI (t)UI (t; t0 )
@t
(d) Let us integrate the above equation from t to t, 0
Z t Z
@ i t
UI (t1 ; t0 )dt1 = V (t )U (t ; t )dt
t0 @t1 ~ t0 I 1 I 1 0 1
Z t
=) UI (t; t0) UI (t0 ; t0) = i VI (t1 )UI (t1 ; t0 )dt1 ~ t0
Since UI (t ; t ) = 1, we obtain
0 0
Z t
i
UI (t; t0 ) = 1 V (t )U (t ; t )dt
~ t0 I 1 I 1 0 1
This is an integral equation. We solve it by iteration:
Z t Z t1
i i
UI (t; t0 ) = 1 dt1 VI (t1 ) 1 dt2 VI (t2 )UI (t2 ; t0 )
~ t0 ~ t0
Z 2 Z t Z t1
i t i
=1 ~ t0
dt1 VI (t1 ) +
~
dt1 dt2 VI (t1 )VI (t2 )UI (t2 ; t0 )
t0 t0
We continue to iterate; we nd
Z t 2 Z t Z t1
i i
UI (t; t0 ) = 1 dt1 VI (t1 ) + dt1 dt2 VI (t1 )VI (t2 ) +
~ t0 ~ t0 t0
(e)
j I (t)i = eiH0 t=~ j S (t)i = eiH0 t=~ U (t; t0 )j S (t0 )i
= eiH0 t=~U (t; t0)e iH0t0=~j I (t0 )i
Therefore,
UI (t; t0 ) = eiH0 t=~ U (t; t0 )e iH0 t0 =~ ;
and
hf jUI (t; t0 )jii = hf jeiH0 t=~ U (t; t0 )e iH0 t0 =~ jii
= eiEf t=~ e iEit0 =~ hf jU (t; t0 )jii
Therefore,
jhf jUI (t; t0 )jiij2 = jhf jU (t; t0 )jiij2 = Pi!f
12. Fermi golden rule.
(a) (
V (t) =
0 t<0
V t0
Pi!f = jhf jUI (t; t )jiij 0
2
Here, t = 0, and
0
Z t
i
UI (t; 0) = 1 VI (t1 )dt1 +
~ 0
11
Suppose that jf i =6 jii. Then to rst order in the perturbation,
Z t
i
hf jUI (t; 0)jii = ~
dt1 hf jVI (t1 )jii
0
The transition probability from state jii to state jf i (these are eigenstates of H ) is given by 0
(b) Writing
h i
1 ei(!fi !)t = ei(!fi !)t=2 e i(!fi !)t=2 ei(!fi !)t=2
= 2iei(!fi !)t=2sin [(!fi !) t=2] ;
we obtain
Pi!f =
1 sin [(!fi + ! ) t=2] i ! ! t= sin [(!fi !) t=2] i !fi ! t=
hf jAjii + (! !) =2 e y
hf jA jii
2
(!fi + !) =2 e
fi ( + ) 2 ( ) 2
~ 2
fi
1 y
= ~ B (!)hf jAjii + B ( !)hf jA jii
2
2
= ~1 jhf jAjiij jB (!)j + jhf jAyjiij jB ( !)j + 2Re hf jAjiihf jAyjii B (!)B ( !)
2
2 2 2 2
fi fi
Using the result of problem 1.3, we can write
!fi + ! Ef Ei + ~!
lim jB (!)j = tlim
t!1 !1 t
2
2 = tlim
!1 t 2~
= tlim
!1 2 ~ t (Ef Ei + ~! )
Therefore,
1 d
lim jB (!)j = 2~ (Ef
2
Ei + ~!)
~2 dt t!1
Similarly,
1
lim jB ( !)j = 2~ (Ef Ei ~!)
d 2
~2 dt t!1
The term in Pi!f containing B (!)B ( !) vanishes as t ! 1. To see this, note that
lim 1 sin [(!fi + !) t=2] = !fi + ! = 2 (!fi + !)
t!1 (!fi + ! ) =2 2
We can prove this as follows:
() =
1 Z 1 eitdt = 1 lim Z R eitdt = 1 lim eiR e iR
2 1 2 R!1 R 2 R!1 i
= 1 Rlim
!1
sin(R)
Thus, the product B (!)B ( !) contains (!fi + !) (!fi !), which vanishes if ! 6= 0. Therefore,
wi!f =
2 hjhf jAjiij (Ef Ei + ~!) + hf jAyjii (Ef Ei ~!)i
2 2